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Board Question Paper : July 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2016


ENGLISH
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80

SECTION I
(Reading Skills, Vocabulary and Grammar)
Q.1. (A) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
A1. True or False
State whether the following statements are true or false and rewrite them : (2)
(i) Principal Bhave was a Chemistry teacher.
(ii) Mashelkar wanted to become a scientist.
(iii) Principal Bhave wanted to demonstrate the law of gravity.
(iv) Mashelkars philosophy of life is If we focus, we can achieve anything.
My second great guru was Principal Bhave, about whom I made a mention earlier. He
taught us Physics. Because it was a poor school, I remember, it had to innovate to convey to
the young students the message of Science.
I still remember one of the interesting experiences when, on a Friday afternoon,
Principal Bhave took us out into the sun to demonstrate to us as to how to find the focal
length of a convex lens. He had a piece of paper here, a convex lens here and he moved it up
and down and there was a point when there was a sharp focus and a bright spot on the paper.
He showed the distance between paper and the lens and said that this distance was the focal
length. But then the paper started burning. For some reason, he then turned to me, and said,
Mashelkar, if you focus your energies like this, you can burn anything in the world.
My young friends, from this I got two lessons - first the philosophy of my life that if we
focus, we can achieve anything. And the second about the power of science. It was so
powerful. I thought to myself why dont I become a scientist. It left an indelible mark in my
mind.
By the way, if you think carefully about that story, it also tells you about the new
model for the society and for the nation. What is the experiment? You have the lens. And
what does the lens do? It takes the parallel rays of the sun and then lets them converge. And
what is the property of parallel lines? Parallel lines never meet. Parallel rays never meet but
the lens actually makes them meet. I call it convex lens leadership by the wayleadership
that brings people together.
A2. Complete
Complete the following sentences: (2)
(i) The quality of leadership is ________.
(ii) Focal length is ________.
(iii) Parallel rays come together because ________.
(iv) The paper started burning because ________.
A3. Guess the meaning :
Guess the meaning of the underlined words from the passage selecting the correct
alternatives given and rewrite the sentences : (2)
(i) Because it was a poor school, it had to innovate to convey to the young students the
message of science.
(a) do cheap experiment
(b) introduce new things
(c) avoid
(ii) It left an indelible mark in my mind :
(a) fixed
(b) unremovable
(c) deep
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English
(iii) I got the two lessons - first the philosophy of my life :
(a) set of an attitude to life
(b) set of feelings in life
(c) set logic in life
(iv) Principal Bhave took us out in the sun to demonstrate :
(a) experiment on something
(b) show something by giving proof
(c) participate in public meeting
A4. Language study
(i) Principal Bhave said, Mashelkar, if you focus your energies like this, you can burn
anything in the world.
Principal Bhave told Mashelkar _________.
(Complete the given statement) (1)
(ii) It is so powerful.
(Rewrite beginning with How _______) (1)
A5. Personal response
Whom would you consider your greatest guru? Why? Support your answer with appropriate
reasons. (2)
(B) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
B1. Find out :
Name the following and rewrite: (2)
(i) Shades of mehendi:

(ii) Instant mehendi is provided by:

(iii) Designs of mehendi:

(iv) Henna gets importance in:

Henna comes in different shades, from reddish orange to brownish black. The Arabic
preference for a black tinge sees them heating the paste before using. A growing trend today is
the addition of artificial dyes and coloured stones along with the henna in order to match the
attire. This however, does not last long and cannot be considered as mehendi in its true sense.
Zardosi mehendi is the variation of this trend where in glue is first applied in desired patterns
and zari powder of different colours are carefully sprinkled. This lasts only as long as the glue
stays and can even be washed off in case of an error.
Cones are most popular means of application of mehendi. To suit those in hurry, ready-
made patterns and blocks are available for quick and easy application. Tattoos in interesting
shades are also available today, providing a means of instant mehendi. Besides the ease of
applying it on and taking off, tattoos also come in previously unseen oriental designs. In
addition to the usual paisleys, and creepers, dragons, scorpions and snakes adorn many an arm
or shoulder of the fashionably conscious.
The attractive hues left behind the deep green henna leaves, have a special significance
during marriages and festivals in many Eastern countries. The customs behind its usage adds to
its rich appeal. Through centuries, mehendi has managed to creatively retain its hold on people
from diverse cultures.
B2. Match
Match Column A with Columm B: (2)
Column A Column B
(i) Arabic mehendi (a) glue is applied for the pattern
(ii) Zardosi mehendi (b) black tinge is prepared by heating mehendi
(iii) Tattoo (c) drawn with the help of a cone
(iv) Mehendi (d) provides instant designs

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Board Question Paper : July 2016
B3. Vocabulary:
Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate words from those given in the bracket and
rewrite the statements: (2)
(adorned, instant, pattern, attire, applied]
(i) The gold ring _______ his fingers.
(ii) The young man wore a shirt with a floral _______.
(iii) A.T.M. provides us _______ cash.
(iv) The bride looked beautiful in her bridal _______.
B4. Language study:
(i) Cones are the most popular means of application of Mehendi. (1)
[Select the correct positive degree from the alternatives given below and rewrite the
statements]
(a) Very few means of application of Mehendi are as popular as cones.
(b) No other means of application of Mehendi are as popular as cones.
(c) Cones are as popular as any other means of application of Mehendi.
(ii) Henna comes in different shades.
(Frame a Wh-question to get underlined word as answer). (1)
B5. Personal Response (2)
How does Mehendi give scope for arts? Explain.
Q.2. (A) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
A1. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct words from the passage and rewrite the
statements: (2)
(i) The butterfly had a _______ body and shrivelled _______.
(ii) Sometimes _______ are exactly what we need in our life.
(iii) He _______ the remaining bit of cocoon with a pair of scissors.
A man found a cocoon. One day a small opening appeared; he sat and watched the
butterfly for several hours as it struggled to force its body through the little hole. Then it
seemed to stop making any progress. It appeared as if it had gotten as far as it could and could
not go on farther. So the man decided to help the butterfly.
He took a pair of scissors and snipped the remaining bit of the cocoon. The butterfly
could now emerge from the cocoon easily. But something was odd. The butterfly had a
swollen body and shrivelled wings. The man continued to watch the butterfly because he
expected that at any moment, the wings would enlarge and expand to be able to support the
body, which would contract in time, neither happened. In fact, the butterfly spent the rest of
its life crawling around with a swollen body and deformed wings. It was never able to fly.
What the man in his kindness and haste did not understand was that the restricting
cocoon and the struggle required for the butterfly to get through the small opening of the
cocoon are natures way of forcing fluid from the body of the butterfly into its wings so that it
is ready for flight as soon as it emerges from its cocoon. Sometimes struggles are exactly
what we need in our lives. If nature allowed us to go through all our life without any
obstacles, it would cripple us. We would not be as strong as we could have been. Not only
that, we could never fly.
A2. Complete:
Complete the following: (2)
(i) Feelings of a man for the butterfly: _________.
(ii) Action taken by the man _________.
(iii) Effect of the action _________.
(iv) Moral of the story _________.
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English
A3. Synonyms: (2)
Pick out the synonyms for the following words from the passage and rewrite them:
(i) to come out -
(ii) make great efforts -
(iii) spoiled shape -
(iv) stands in the way of progress -
A4. Language Study
(i) The butterfly spent rest of its life crawling.
The rest of its life _________.
[Complete the given statement] (1)
(ii) It is ready for flight, as soon as it emerges from its cocoon.
No sooner does _________.
[Complete the given statement] (1)
A5. Personal response
What lesson do you learn from this story? (2)
(B) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
B1. Arrange the given sentences in the proper chronological order as they appear in the
passage: (2)
(i) I would try adding my shrill piping to the birds and insects music.
(ii) The leaves were still pink and tender.
(iii) The banyan tree was like an orchestra pit.
(iv) Red headed parakeets swarmed about early in the mornings.
The banyan tree was a world in itself, populated with small beast and large insects.
While the leaves were still pink and tender, they would be visited by the delicate map
butterfly, who committed, her eggs to their care. The honey on the leavesan edible smear
also attracted the little striped squirrels, who soon grew used to my presence in the tree and
became quite bold, accepting peanuts from my hand. Red-headed parakeets swarmed about
early in the mornings.
At the height of the monsoon, the banyan was like an orchestra pit with the musicians
constantly turning up. Birds, insects and squirrels expressed their joy at the termination of the
hot weather and the cool quenching relief of the monsoon. A toy flute in my hands, I would
try adding to my shrill piping to theirs. But they thought poorly of my musical ability, for,
whenever I piped, the birds and the insects maintained a pained and puzzled silence.
The branches were thick with scarlet figs. These berries were not fit for human
consumption, but the many birds that gathered in the tree-gossipy rosy pastors, quarrelsome
mynas, cheerful bulbuls and coppersmiths, and sometimes a raucous, bullying crow-feasted
on them. And when night fell, and the birds rested, the dark flying foxes flapped heavily
about the tree, chewing and munching as they clambered over the branches.

B2.
(i) The following visited the banyan tree. Complete the given table and rewrite it: (1)
Insects/Animals Reasons for Visiting
(a) Map butterfly -------------
(b) Squirrels -------------
(ii) The banyan tree is compared to: (1)
(a)
(b)
B3. Vocabulary
Fill in the gaps with appropriate words from the passage which mean: (2)
(i) Suitable to be eaten: _ d _ _ l _
(ii) Move in a great number: s _ _ _ m
(iii) Coming to an end: t _ _ m _ _ _ t _ _ _
(iv) Chew food noisely : _ u _ _ _

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Board Question Paper : July 2016
B4. Language study (2)
(i) The branches were thick with scarlet figs. (What)
[Frame a question with the given word in the bracket and rewrite it]
(ii) The tree was visited by delicate map butterfly (which/when/that) the leaves were pink
and tender. [Choose the correct conjunction and rewrite the sentence]
B5. Personal Response (2)
Trees are our best friends - Explain.
SECTION II
(Poetry)
Q.3. (A) Read the given extract and do the following activities: [5 marks]
A1. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct word from the stanzas and rewrite them: (2)
(i) Fight and keep _________.
(ii) Loss should be accepted with a _________.
(iii) Doing your noblest results into _________.
(iv) Go onward in spite of _________.
Its going onward despite defeat,
And fighting staunchly, but keeping sweet;
Its struggling on with the will to win,
But taking loss with a cheerful grin.
Its looking up at the stars above,
And drinking deeply of life and love;
Its struggling on with the will to win,
But taking loss with a cheerful grin.
Its sharing sorrow and work and mirth,
And making better this good old earth;
Its serving, striving through strain and stress,
Its doing your noblestthats success !
A2. It is said that, there is no short cut to success. Do you agree with this? Explain. (2)
A3. The rhyme scheme mentioned in the second stanza is _________. (1)
[Complete the statement]
(B) Read the given extract and do the following activities: [5 marks]
B1. Complete
Complete the following statements: (2)
(i) The children enjoy drinking _______.
(ii) They gag on fat, the gravys _______.
(iii) The poet describes the soup as _______.
(iv) The whining children are compared to _______.
I always so enjoy to dine
With whining, little brats;
Who wont eat half you give them,
theyre persnickety as cats.
The soups too hot, the corns too cold,
The pickles make them choke;
They wont eat meat nor apple sauce,
And naught theyll drink but coke.
They wont eat peas, dont like your bread------
For something in it crunches;
They gag on fat, the gravys gross,
They wont eat grapes in bunches.
Tomatoes, onions, peppers, fish.
Garlic nor cottage cheese;
Oh, its a dish uncommon rare
That truly seems to please.

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English
B2. Which food items do you prefer to eat? Why? (2)
B3. The soups too hot the corns too cold:
The figure of speech is ______ because ______. [Complete the statement] (1)
SECTION III
(Rapid Reading)
Q.4. Read the following passage and do the given activities: [5 marks]
A1. Match the words in Column A with the activity performed by them in Column B and rewrite
them: (1)
Column A Column B
(i) Rex (a) bowling
(ii) Akhil (b) batting
(c) fielding
The feeling was particularly strong late one summer evening when we were playing
cricket. It was my turn to field. Our dog, Rex, loved fielding because it gave him a chance to
nose around in the undergrowth. Neel, the eldest, was batting. Akhil, the youngest, bowled a
cunning googly.
Thapak! Ball and bat made rude contact. The ball soared. Rex barked and raced after it.
We heard him crashing through the bushes. My brother went in for a drink break and I went
after the missing ball and the absconding fielder. I found the ball all right. It lay clearly visible
at the foot of a gnarled neem. How had Rex missed it? Slightly puzzled, I picked the ball and
called out his name. No sign of him. I whistled.
This time a faint whine pierced the stillness. This part of the garden was particularly wild.
Thick climbers covered the tress, hanging like green curtains from their branches, stepping
gingerly onto the wild hummocky grass, I went after Rex. Suddenly I saw him. Or rather, I saw
his wagging tail, the rest of him was hidden by a Zizyphus bush. There was someone else
behind that bush. Someone to whom Rex offered a friendly paw. He whimpered again but it
was a pleasurable sound as if that someone was scratching his ears for him.
A2. What did the writer see when she stepped onto the wild hummocky grass in search of Rex? (2)
A3. What qualities of Rex do you come across in this extract? (2)
SECTION IV
(Writing Skills)
Q.5. (A) Attempt any one of the following letters using the points from the following leaflet: [5 marks]

Stay healthy Reasonable


stay fit fees
Yoga for All !
Essential in modern age
Reduces tension
Provides energy
Develops concentration
Join the classes: Yoga for All
Special batches for students
Healthy Society, Apple Street,
Pune 411004

A1. Letter OR A2. Letter


Write a letter to your younger brother Write a letter to your School
telling him about the importance of Headmaster/Headmistress requesting
Yoga and advise to join Yoga classes. him/her to start Yoga classes in your
school.

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Board Question Paper : July 2016
(B) Attempt any one of the following based on the chart given below: [5 marks]
Junk food is a growing habit.
Children prefer to eat chocolates.
Unhealthy eating habits causes tooth decay.
Teeth are a part of our personality.
Arrange for the check-up camps.
B1. Report
Knowing the importance of teeth, your school had arranged a dental check-up camp.
Prepare a report for your school magazine.
OR
B2. Dialogue
Complete the dialogue between you and your dentist:
Myself: Good morning Doctor.
Doctor: Good morning. What can I do for you?
Myself: I have _________
Complete the above dialogue.
Q.6. (A) Attempt any one of the following: [5 marks]
A1. Observe the web and transform it into a paragraph by adding your own points:
Devotion

Determination

Optimism Sportsmanship Hardship

Dedication
OR
A2. Rahul Dravid, a famous cricketer, was known as the Wall of India due to his skills
i.e. technically sound, physically fit and mentally strong. He proved his skills through many
matches and tried to take its progressive curve to its highest point. He was a survivor many a
times. He played many roles as a batsman, a wicket-keeper for some time and the captain of
Indian team. He possesses a versatile personality.
As a newspaper reporter, you have been assigned with the task of interviewing Rahul
Dravid.
Frame 10 questions to interview Dravid with proper beginning.
(B) Attempt any one of the following: [5 marks]
B1. Speech
Your school is planning to celebrate Science Day on 28th Feb. to encourage scientific
attitude among students. Prepare a speech to be delivered for the same with the help of the
points given on the Blackboard.
28th Feb.
Science Day
Science: A Boon
Enriches scientific knowledge
Develops scientific attitude
Improves reasoning ability
Gives practical knowledge
Positive effect on society
Makes life easy and comfortable

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English
OR
B2. Write your counterviews on the topic Our elderly: The real torch bearers on the basis
of the views given below. Add your own points:

View: Old is Golden


They have experience of life.
They teach us values.
They guide us to solve problems.

You may begin as


Counterview: Old is golden but they should ___________.
Q.7. Attempt any one of the following: [5 marks]
A1. Expand any one of the given two ideas in about 80-100 words:
(i) As you sow, so shall you reap. (ii) Charity begins at home.
OR
A2. Look at the following words and construct your own story in 80 to 100 words giving a
suitable title and a moral value:

House
Burglars Horrified

Suspects
Attacks

Stairs
Darkness

Policeman

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Board Question Paper : July 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2016


GEOGRAPHY AND ECONOMICS
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii. For Q. No.3 (A), use the graph paper supplied to you and attach it to your answer-book.
iv. Use supplied outline map of India for Q. No 3 (C) and tie it to your answer-book tightly.
v. Use of stencil is allowed for drawing map.
vi. Question No. 1 to 4 are based on Geography and Q. No. 5 to 7 are based on Economics.
vii. Draw neat diagrams and sketches, wherever necessary.

Q.1. (A) Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate alternatives from those
given in the brackets and rewrite the sentences in your answer book: [3]
1. The wool of ______ breed of sheep is considered of superior quality.
(Chokla, Pungal, Marwari, Malpuri)
2. Varanasi is famous for ______.
(Cotton sarees, woollen clothes, silk sarees, leather production)
3. The triangular region to the south of Narmada is known as the ______ plateau.
(Malwa, Bundelkhand, Chota Nagpur, Deccan)
(B) Match the items in Column A with those in Column B : [3]
Column A Column B
1. Indira Point a. Food Processing Industries
2. Amritsar b. Rich in Minerals
3. Chota Nagpur Plateau c. Southernmost tip of India
d. Lacquerware

Q.2. (A) Give geographical reasons for the following statements (any two): [4]
1. Himalayas determine climatic conditions of India.
2. Punjab-Haryana plain has become a granary of India.
3. Compared to the Bay of Bengal islands, the Arabian Sea islands receive less rainfall.
4. Plantation agriculture is mainly confined to the southern parts of the Western Ghats.
(B) Write short notes on (any two): [4]
1. Physiography of Marusthali
2. Irrigation in Punjab-Haryana Plains
3. Geology of the Physical Divisions of India.
Q.3. (A) With the help of given statistical data prepare a Divided Rectangle Diagram. [2]
Agricultural Production (2010-2011)
Crops % (Percentage)
Rice 43
Coarse Cereals 20
Pulses 08
Oil-seeds 14
Cotton 15
Total 100
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Geography and Economics
(B) Observe the following map and answer the questions given below it (any two): [2]

Questions:
1. Name the westward flowing river.
2. In which direction does river Godavari flow?
3. Name the plateaus mentioned in the given map.
4. Name the hills in the Karnataka Plateau.
(C) Mark the following in the outline map of India supplied to you. Write the names. Give
index (any two): [2]
1. Mumbai Port 2. Palk Strait 3. Sundarbans
4. Aravalli Mountains
Q.4. Answer the following questions in detail (any two): [8]
1. What are the characteristics of tourism in the Himalayan region?
2. What are the characteristics of agriculture in Central Highlands of Peninsular Plateau region
of India?
3. Give information about Transportation in the Eastern Coastal Plains of India.
Q.5. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternatives from those given in the brackets: [2]
1. In the ______ technique, there is more use of machinery than labour.
(Capital intensive, labour intensive, traditional)
2. Goods and services are produced and supplied by ______ sector on the basis of No Profit,
No Loss. (joint, private, public)
Q.6. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each (any three): [6]
1. What is meant by Natural Resources? Give examples.
2. What are the Non-economic effects of inflation?
3. What is meant by Public borrowings?
4. What are the main objectives of Consumer Production Act?
5. Explain any two benefits of Public Distribution System in India.
Q.7. Answer any one of the following questions in five or six sentences: [4]
1. Explain the monetary measures to control inflation.
2. Explain the drawbacks of Public Distribution System.

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Board Question Paper : July 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2016


GEOMETRY
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40

Note: Q.P. SET CODE


i. Solve All questions. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed.
iii. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iv. Marks of constructions should be distinct. They should not be rubbed off.
A
v. Diagram is essential for writing the proof of the theorem.

1. Solve any five sub-questions: [5]


i. In the following figure, RP : PK = 3 : 2, find the value of A(TRP) : A(TPK).
T

R P K

ii. If two circles with diameters 8 cm and 6 cm respectively touch externally, find the distance
between their centres.
iii. Find the Slope of the line having inclination 45.
iv. Using Eulers formule, find V, if E = 30 and F = 12.
v. Find the length of diagonal of the square whose side is 8 cm.
vi. For the angle in standard position if the initial arm rotates 305 in anticlockwise direction, then
state the quardant in which the terminal arm lies.

2. Solve any four sub-questions: [8]


i. Draw seg AB of length 9.7 cm. Take a point P on it such that APB. AP = 3.5 cm. Construct
a line MN seg AB through point P.
ii. Find the trigonometric sine ratio of an angle in standard position whose terminal arm passes
through the point (3, 4).
iii. In the following figure, state whether the triangles are similar. Give reason.
D

70 A

55ao
Q R
55 ao
M N
iv. In the following figure, seg AB is a diameter of the circle, m(arc AKC) = 40. Find the value of
m(arc BMC).

A B

K
C M
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Geometry
6
v. Write the equation of a line passing through the point P(0, 6) and having slope .
7

Find the area of sector whose central angle and radius are 60 and 21 cm respectively. =
22
vi.
7

3. Solve any three sub-questions: [9]


i. In the following figure, seg AB is the diameter of the circle with centre P. Line CB be the
tangent and line AC intersects a circle in point D. Prove that:
AC AD = 4 (radius)2
C

A B
P

ii. In the following figure, ray PT is the bisector of QPR Find the value of x and perimeter of
PQR.
P

x

Q 4 cm T 5 cm R

iii. The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 5 : 4 : 2.If the total surface area is
1216 cm2, find the dimensions of the solid.
iv. Construct the incircle of RST in which RS = 6 cm, ST = 7 cm, RT = 6.5 cm.
1 cos A
v. Show that : = cosec A cot A.
1 + cos A

4. Solve any two sub-questions: [8]


i. Prove that the opposite angles of cyclic quadrilateral are supplementary.
ii. A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a tree
standing on the opposite bank is 60. When he moves 40 m away from the bank, he finds the
angle of elevation to be 30. Find the height of the tree and width of the river. ( 3 = 1.73 )
iii. A roller of diameter 0.9 m and the length 1.8 m is used to press the ground. Find the area of the
ground pressed by it in 500 revolutions. ( = 3.14 )

5. Solve any two sub-questions: [10]


i. Prove that, if a line parallel to a side of a triangle intersect the other sides in two distinct points,
then the line divides those sides in proportion.
ii. Show that ABCD is a parallelogram if A = (4, 8), B = (5, 5), C = (2, 4), D = (1, 7).
iii. AMT AHE, construct AMT such that MA = 6.3 cm, MAT = 120, AT = 4.9 cm and
MA 7
= , then construct AHE.
HA 5

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Board Question Paper : July 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2016


HISTORY AND POLITICAL SCIENCE
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40
Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Numbers on the right indicate full marks.
iii. Question 1-5 are based on History and Question 6-9 are based on Political Science.

Q.1. (A) Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternative from those given in the brackets,
complete the sentences and write the statements in the answer sheet (three out of three): [3]
1. The Ottoman Turks won ______ in the year 1453. (Constantinople, Calicut, Kolkata)
2. Vasco-Da-Gama sought business concessions from King ______ of Calicut.
(Jahangir, Zamorin, Shahaalam)
3. The status of becoming the first colonizer in African continent at the end of 19th century was
______. (England, France, Belgium)
(B) Match the words from Column A appropriately with the terms in Column B and
write the answer: [3]
Column A Column B
1. Head office of League of Nations a. Pandit Nehru
2. Non-Alliance Movement b. Nikita Khruschev
3. G-7 country c. Geneva
d. Canada
Q.2. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words each (any two out of three): [4]
1. Explain the nature of Traditional Imperialism.
2. What were the objectives of the League of Nations?
3. Give information about the International Court.
Q.3. Give reasons for the following statements in 25 to 30 words each (any two out of three): [4]
1. Hitler was extremely angry with the Weimer Republic Government.
2. Mahatma Gandhi had withdrawn the Non-cooperation Movement.
3. Nuclear weapons competition is encouraged because of cold war.
Q.4. Answer the following questions in 40 to 50 words each (any two out of three): [6]
1. Why did England, France and Russia give importance to the Balkan region?
2. Explain the term Bloody Sunday.
3. Why did the European colonizers start to decolonize?
Q.5. Answer the following questions in 60 to 80 words each (any two out of three): [8]
1. How was India brought under the reign of England?
2. Describe the effects of the Second World War.
3. Write about the artificial satellite.
Q.6. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternative from the bracket. (three out of three): [3]
1. The claims that we are superior to others creates ______.
(equality, conflict, inequality, mutual understanding)
2. ______ is the core of democracy.
(People, Representatives, Prime Minister, Peoples Participation)
3. Even today women of ______ have no right to vote.
(Pakistan, Bangladesh, Iraq, United Arab Emirates)

256
History and Political Science
Q.7. Answer the following questions in one sentence each (any three out of five): [3]
1. What is recall?
2. What is a political party?
3. Who undertook efforts to abolish the caste system in India?
4. What is state level or regional political party?
5. What is regional inequality?
Q.8. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons (any two out of three): [4]
1. There is Presidential democracy in India.
2. Higher the initiative, weaker the democracy will be.
3. People who share common political opinion form political party.
Q.9. Answer any one of the following questions in 25 to 30 words (any one out of two): [2]
1. Explain how economic inequality is a challenge before democracy.
2. What measures are taken to ensure that people of different religions will live peacefully?

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Board Question Paper : July 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2016


SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. Draw well-labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
ii. All questions are compulsory.
iii. Students should write the answers of questions in sequence.

SECTION A
Q.1. (A) Answer the following sub-questions:
(a) Fill in the blanks and rewrite the completed statements. [2]
i. To increase the effective resistance in a circuit the resistors are connected in
______.
ii. The phenomenon of splitting of light into its component colours is ______
(b) State whether the following statements are true or false: [2]
i. Phenolphthalein is a synthetic type of indicator.
ii. The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called endothermic
reactions.
(c) Name the following: [1]
The instrument used to observe planets.
(B) Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options: [5]
i. When the resistance of a conductor increases, the current ______.
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) increases or decreases
ii. The phenomenon of change in the direction of light when it passes from one transparent
medium to another is called ______ .
(A) Dispersion (B) Scattering
(C) Refraction (D) Reflection
iii. When ______ is passed through fresh lime water, it turns milky.
(A) H2 (B) CO2
(C) CO (D) SO2
iv. A ______ mirror is used by a dentist.
(A) Concave (B) Convex
(C) Plane (D) None of the above
v. The equivalent resistance of a parallel combination of two resistors of 30 and 60 is
______.
(A) 90 (B) 2
(C) 20 (D) 1800
2. Attempt any five of the following: [10]
i. The velocity of light in a medium is 1.5 108 m/s. What is the refractive index of the medium
with respect to air, if the velocity in the air is 3 108 m/s?
ii. Give scientific reason:
Grills of doors and windows are always painted before they are used.
iii. Write a short note on Eutrophication.
iv. Classify the given elements into metals, non-metals and metalloids.
Carbon, Boron, Sodium, Oxygen
v. State Flemings Right Hand Rule.
vi. Distinguish between oxidation and reduction.
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Science and Technology
3. Attempt any five of the following questions: [15]
i. Aniket from Std. X uses spectacles. The power of the lenses in his spectacles is 0.5 dioptre.
Answer the following questions:
a. State the type of lenses used in his spectacles.
b. Name the defect of vision Aniket is suffering from.
c. Find the focal length of the lenses used in his spectacles.
ii. What are the demerits of Mendeleevs periodic table?
iii. Explain how the formation of the rainbow occurs.
iv. State the different positions of the source of light with respect to the concave mirror in:
a. torches
b. projector lamps
c. flood lights
v. What major harms are done to human beings due to air pollution?
vi. Explain: pH scale with proper diagram.
4. Attempt any one of the following: [5]
i. When do you say that the resistors are connected in series? Find the expression for the
resistors connected in this way. Draw a circuit diagram.
ii. Explain the construction and working of an electric generator (AC) with the help of a neat
diagram.

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Board Question Paper : July 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2016


SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40
Note:
i. Draw well-labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
ii. All questions are compulsory.
iii. Students should write the answers of questions in sequence.

SECTION B
1. (A) (a) Fill in the blanks: [3]
i. ______ acid inhibits growth leading to wilting of leaves.
ii. The organic compounds having double or triple bond in them are termed as ______.
iii. Lymph flows in ______ direction.
(b) Write the structural formula of the following compound:
Ethane. [1]
(c) Name the mode of reproduction process seen in yeast. [1]
(B) Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the following: [5]
i. Fermentation is a type of ______.
(A) aerobic respiration (B) anaerobic respiration
(C) exothermic reaction (D) none of the above
ii. Some acetic acid is treated with solid NaHCO3, the resulting solution will be ______.
(A) colourless (B) blue
(C) green (D) yellow
iii. Ramesh observed a slide of Amoeba with elongated nuclei. It would represent _____.
(A) Binary fission (B) Budding
(C) Multiple fission (D) None of the above
iv. Twenty dry raisins were soaked in 50 ml of water and kept for one hour at 50oC. Which out of
the following is the correct observation?
(A) 8 raisins absorbed water (B) 18 raisins absorbed water
(C) 15 raisins absorbed water (D) All raisins absorbed water
v. Iron is ______.
(A) more reactive than Zn (B) more reactive than Al
(C) less reactive than Cu (D) less reactive than Al
2. Answer the following questions (any five): [10]
i. Gold and silver are used to make jewellery. Give reason.
ii. Explain the following reaction with balanced chemical equation:
Calcium reacts with water.
iii. Write any two physical properties of Ethanol.
iv. Roots of plants grow away from light. Give scientific reasons.
v. In which livings, female decides the sex? Give two examples.
vi. Give the molecular and structural formulae of Benzene.
3. Answer the following questions (any five): [15]
i. What do you mean by vestigial structures? Name four vestigial organs found in man.
ii. State Darwins theory of evolution.
iii. Draw a diagram of longitudinal section of flower and label the following parts:
a. Petal
b. Ovary
c. Anther
d. Sepal

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Science and Technology
iv. Explain the following terms:
a. Reproduction
b. Vegetative propagation
c. Pollination
v. Write the names and functions of three parts of human nervous system in which it is divided.
vi. Geeta dipped a copper coin in a solution of silver nitrate. After some time she saw the silver
shine on the coin. Why? Give the balanced chemical equation for the same and name the type
of reaction.
4. Answer any one of the following questions: [5]
i. a. What is recycling of waste?
b. Give one example of Reuse.
c. Write the advantages of recycling.
ii. a. List the organs of Human respiratory system.
b. Explain Inhalation.

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Board Question Paper : March 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2016


ALGEBRA
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40

Note: Q.P. SET CODE


i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed. C
1. Attempt any five of the following subquestions: [5]
i. Write the first two terms of the sequence whose nth term is
tn = 3n 4.
ii. Find the value of a, b, c in the following quadratic equation:
2x2 x 3 = 0
iii. Write the quadratic equation whose roots are 2 and 3.
iv. Find the value of the determinant:
4 2
3 1
v. Write the sample space for selecting a day randomly of the week.
vi. Find the class mark of the classes 20 30 and 30 40.
2. Attempt any four of the following subquestions: [8]
i. If for an A.P. the first term is 11 and the common difference is (2), then find first three terms
of A.P.
ii. Solve the following quadratic equation using factorization method:
x2 + 11x + 24 = 0.
x 5
iii. If the value of determinanats is 31, then find the value of x.
3 4
iv. A die is thrown, then find the probability of the following events:
A is an Event : getting a number divisible by 3.
B is an Event : getting a number less than 5.
v. Below is the given frequency distribution of words in an essay:

Number of Words 600 800 800 1000 1000 1200 1200 1400 1400 1600
Number of Candidates 14 22 30 18 16

Find the mean number of words written.


vi. The marks obtained by a student in an examination are given below:

Subject Marathi Hindi English Mathematics Total


Marks 95 90 95 80 360

Represent the data using pie diagram.

3. Attempt any three of the following subquestions : [9]


i. Solve the following quadratic equation using formula method:
6x2 7x 1 = 0.
ii. There are three boys and two girls. A committee of two is to be formed. Find the probability
of the following events:
Event A : The committee contains at least one boy.
Event B : The committee contains one boy and one girl.
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Algebra
iii. The measurements (in mm) of the diameters of the head of the screws are given below:
Diameter (in mm) 33 35 36 38 39 41 42 44 45 47
No. of screws 9 21 30 20 18
Calculate mean diameter of head of a screw by Assumed Mean Method.
iv. The marks scored by students in Mathematics in a certain examinations are given below:
Marks Scored 0 20 20 40 40 60 60 80 80 100
Number of students 3 8 15 17 7
Draw histogram for the above data.
v. Draw a frequency polygon for the following frequency distribution:
Rainfall (in mm) 20 25 25 30 30 35 35 40 40 45 45 50
No. of Years 2 5 8 12 10 7
4. Attempt any two of the following subquestions: [8]
i. The 11th term and the 21st term of an A.P. are 16 and 29 respectively then find:
a. The first term and common difference.
b. The 34th term.
c. n such that tn = 55.
ii. Solve the following simultaneous equations:
7 13 13 7
+ = 27, + = 33
2x + 1 y + 2 2x + 1 y + 2
iii. In a certain race there are three boys A, B, C. The winning probability of A is twice than B
and the winning probability of B is twice than C. If P(A) + P(B) + P(C) = 1, then find the
probability of each boy.
5. Attempt any two of the following subquestions : [10]
i. The divisor and quotient of the number 6123 are same and the remainder is half the divisor.
Find the divisor.
ii. Find the sum of all numbers from 50 to 350 which are divisible by 6. Hence find the 15th term
of that A.P.
iii. A three digit number is equal to 17 times the sum of its digits. If 198 is added to the number,
the digits are interchanged. The addition of first and third digit is 1 less than middle digit.
Find the number.

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Board Question Paper : March 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2016


ENGLISH
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80

SECTION I
(Reading Skills, Grammar and Vocabulary (Prose))
Q.1. (A) Read the following passage carefully and complete the activities given below: [10 marks]
A1. Complete (2)
Complete the web with words given in the passage:

Effects of Floods

During the devastating July 2005 floods that hit Mumbai, Rajen Dutia received an
urgent call from a relative, Lopa Vyas, late in the evening, A friends mother is stranded
near your home, Rajen. Can you please take her home? Her name is Rashmi, Vyas told him.
Mumbai had come to a halt and people were trapped everywhere. Despite power failure
and raging rain, Dutia stepped out and made his way to the spot, where he found Rashmi as
well as a dozen other people. They were stranded in the dark, shivering in the rain. They all
lived far away and had no place to go for the night.
Rajen took all of them to his one-bedroom flat, where he served them dinner and
invited them to spend the night.
By doing so, says Rajen, I was simply fulfilling my karma, paying the universe back
for the good it had done for me.
God is kind. My daughter had just started her new job that day, and had gone for her
training. She was stranded too. While she was trying to get to our relatives, she almost
drowned, but a young stranger saved her. He and his friends even dropped her to my
relatives place and phoned me to say she was safe. One good turn deserves another.
A2. Order (2)
Look at the following sentences from the passage and put them in the correct sequence:
(i) He took them to his one-bedroom flat.
(ii) Rajen found Rashmi as well as a dozen other people shivering in the rain.
(iii) Mumbai had come to a halt and people were trapped everywhere.
(iv) Rajen Dutia received an urgent call.
A3. (i) Fill in the blanks: (1)
Select the words given in the passage:
(a) Thousands of pilgrims were _______ due to the cloud burst in Uttarakhand
(b) The tiger was _______ by the hunter.
(ii) Antonyms: (1)
Select the correct antonyms for the given words from the alternatives:
(a) Please:
(1) unplease (2) displease (3) misplease
(b) Safe:
(1) insafe (2) safeless (3) unsafe
A4. (i) Tags: (1)
Select the correct tag from the alternatives given below:
One good turn deserves another.
(a) doesnt it? (b) dont it? (c) does it?

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English
(ii) Guess: (1)
Choose the correct answer:
Rajen can you please take her home? Can indicates:
(a) obligation (b) ability (c) permission
A5. Personal Response: (2)
One good turn deserves another.
Explain with an example of your own.
(B) Read the following passage carefully and complete the activities given below: [10 marks]
B1. Select (2)
Look at the balloons. Which are the qualities inculcated in the author by her teacher?
Write them.
Hard
work Regularity
Fairness
Kindness Justice
Tolerance

Qualities

Sister Monica, however, wasnt quite as lenient as that, and spent most of the time
telling me about the importance of regularity and hard work. She made me realise that success
is, like genius, 99 per cent perspiration and 1 per cent inspiration. Its a lesson that had stood
me in good stead.
The teachers Im most grateful to, though, are not those who have taught me the most,
but those who have simply been friends to me, believed me and believed in me. Prominent
among them is Sudha Ramasubramanium Rambo, as we used to call her. I didnt know her
too well. She taught me in college, and apart from being incredible in class unless one missed
class, she also believed that I actually had a problem when I developed an injury (which
several doctors found difficult to diagnose). Despite my missing an exam the HSC, of all
exams she was the only person who told me to concentrate on my health and assured me
that I could take the exam off the top of my head any time I wanted to.
Im not even certain she remembers it, but at the time, it felt like one of the only rays of
hope in an extremely dark tunnel. Perhaps few teachers realize how far their influence
extends or how much of a difference their actions and words can make. A number of my
teachers have unfortunately taught me kindness and tolerance and patience by being precisely
the opposite, and quite obviously, they arent the people I like to think about. But many of my
teachers have been extraordinary people, who have not only taught me in class but also
helped mould me and my character in every other way. I only hope that I live up to what their
endeavours were undoubtedly meant to create.
B2. Answer:
(i) What kind of teachers are disliked by the author? (1)
(ii) What was Sudha Ramasubramaniums advice to the author when she was going to miss her
HSC exam.? (1)
B3. Match:
Match the words with their appropriate meanings: (2)
A B
(i) Prominent (a) Treatment
(ii) Incredible (b) Natural
(iii) Diagnose (c) Unbelievable
(iv) Endeavours (d) Noticeable
(e) Efforts
(f) Identify a disease
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Board Question Paper : March 2016
B4. (i) Wh question
She made me realize that success is, like genius. (1)
(Frame a Wh question to get the underlined part as an answer).
(ii) She taught me in college. (1)
(Begin the sentence with I and rewrite).
B5. Personal Response (2)
Do you agree that a teacher should also be your good friend?
Q.2. (A) Read the following passage carefully and complete the activities given below: [10 marks]
A1. Guess (2)
Select the correct alternatives from the boxes:
(i) The Olympic Games were originally held in honour of:
(a) The Priests (b) The Greeks
(c) The Spartans (d) Zeus
(ii) The Olympics were held after every:
(a) Year (b) Four years
(c) Three years (d) Two years
(iii) All came to know of Olympia from the:
(a) Olympics (b) Spartans
(c) Syracusans (d) Athenians
(iv) Altis was the name of a/an:
(a) God (b) Race
(c) Festival (d) Enclosure
Olympia, the original site of Olympic Games in ancient Greece is situated in a quiet,
beautiful valley. The old ruins are shaded by evergreen oaks, pines and poplars, as well as
olive trees. Olympia was never a city but a sacred ground occupied by temples and dwellings
for the priests. At the centre was the enclosure known as Altis, dedicated to Zenus, the god of
gods. It was in honour of Zeus that the quadrennial festival and the games were held.
The fame of Olympia rests largely upon Olympic Games. They were a great national
festival of the entire Greek race. During the week of the festival the Athenians, the Spartans,
the Syracusans and other groups, all forgot their narrow identities. They regarded an Olympic
victory as the highest honour. The simple reward of a twig of wild olive immortalized the
victor and his family.
The Olympic Games were held regularly in peace and in war at an interval of four
years for over a thousand years from 776 B.C. till 393 A.D.
Originally, men who spoke Greek as their mother tongue were allowed to compete in
the Olympic Games. No married women were allowed to be present. The athletic programme
was varied by the presence of historians, orators and writers. After each event a herald
announced the victors name and handed him a palm. On the last day the successful
competitors were each given a garland of wild olive.
A2. Select
Select one word each from the circle which mean the following: (2)
(i) Occurring at the interval of four years
(ii) Wreckage ancient
(iii) Take part in a game ruins
quadrennial
(iv) One who wins.
valley enclosure
victor
palm compete
A3. Complete:
Complete the table and frame your sentence with any one word: (2)
Noun Adjective Verb
beautiful
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English
A4. (i) The old ruins are shaded by evergreen oaks, pines and poplars as well as olive trees.
(Insert not only _______ but also and rewrite). (1)
(ii) No married women were allowed to be present. (Remove No and rewrite the sentence
without changing its meaning) (1)
A5. Personal Response (2)
How are the winners in Olympics rewarded today?
(B) Read the following passage carefully and complete the activities given below: [10 marks]
B1. Choose (2)
Choose the correct alternatives and complete the sentences
(i) The narrator is:
(a) an astronaut
(b) an engineer studying in BITS Pilani
(c) in the team of astronauts.
(ii) Armstrong said, Thats one small step for a man, one giant leap for mankind which
means:
(a) one step on the moon means, many steps on the earth.
(b) he felt like a giant on the moon.
(c) one moon mission had opened up many avenues in science and technology for
mankind.
It was late evening of July 20, 1969, when we turned up the hostel radio. I was an
engineering student at BITS, Pilani. I still remember the feverish excitement that gripped up
from July 16 when Apollo 11, the US space rocket, took off from Cape Kennedy, Florida.
Neil Armstrong and his team of astronauts, Edwin Buzz Aldrin and Michael Collins, were
to land on moon, for the first time in human history. We listened with rapt attention when
Armstrong declared: Thats one small step for a man, one giant leap for mankind.
His death on Saturday, August 25, is a moment to salute the romance of space science
that Apollo 11 unleashed. It has changed forever the way we look at our planet Earth and its
satellite, the moon.
Standing on powdery moondust, Armstrong put up his thumb, shut one eye and found
his thumb blotting out the Earth. It suddenly struck me that that tiny pea, pretty and blue,
was the Earth, he said later. I felt very, very small. But behind that humbling realization
stood a giant truth: The effort to explore the universe united mankind in technology and
knowledge. Each moon mission, about 110 till date, provided more confidence to take on
bolder projects.
B2. Complete (2)
(i) Armstrong describes the earth as _______
(ii) The effort to explore the universe has _______
(iii) Apollo 11 unleashed and changed forever _______
(iv) The author came to know about Apollo 11 mission when he _______
B3. Solve (2)
Solve the crossword with the clues given below. Refer to the passage for your answers:
1 2
U N I V E R S E A

3
A

Down: (1) The area beyond the earths atmosphere.


(2) The name of the spacecraft that Armstrong travelled.
Across: (3) A person trained to travel in space.
(4) A natural satellite of the earth.
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Board Question Paper : March 2016
B4. Do as Directed
(i) Begin the Sentence with For the first time _______ and rewrite (1)
Neil Armstrong, Edwin Aldrin and Michael Collins were, to land on the moon for the
first time.
(ii) Insert that appropriately and rewrite. (1)
Armstrong found his thumb blotting out the Earth.
B5. Personal Response (2)
Would you like to be an astronaut? Give reasons.
SECTION II
(Poetry)
Q.3. (A) Read the following extract carefully and complete the activities given below: [5 marks]
A1. Saving Motherland (2)
I can save my motherland by putting an end to .

Republic Day ! We grow aware


That nothing can be wrought by prayer
Prop of the credulous until
It is supported everywhere
By an all-powerful peoples will !
We have been witness in the past to sights impossible to bear:
Famine and drought and dread and doom
Continue still to spread the gloom
Of humans turned to skeletons, to shriveled bags of naked bones ..
MAY EVERY Indians heart become
An unafraid announcing drum
Echoing and re-echoing a new hope and a new desire
To burn up rubbish-heaps of hate,
Once and for all. Time cannot wait!
Burn up all selfish aims and ends in a great nations cleansing fire!
Let Indias millions chant in chorus:
A mighty future stands before us
Down with all ruthless tyranny, down with all exploitation which
Renders the poor the poorerand renders the bloated rich, more rich!

A2. How does the poet express the condition of people during famines and droughts? (2)
A3. Match: (1)
Match the line with the figure of speech:
A B
(i) Drought and dread and doom (a) Personification
(ii) Time cannot wait (b) Alliteration
(c) Metaphor
(B) Read the following extract carefully and complete the activities given below: [5 marks]
B1. What does the poet want us to do in the following situation? (2)
(i) While struggling _______ (ii) While making money _______
(iii) While dreaming _______ (iv) While losing _______

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English

Its doing your job the best you can,


And being just to your fellow man;
Its making moneybut holding friends,
And being true to your aims and ends.
Its figuring how and learning why,
And looking forward and thinking high;
And dreaming a little and doing much,
Its keeping always in closest touch.
With what is finest in word and deed,
Its being through, yet making speed;
Its daring blithely the field of chance,
While making labour a brave romance.
Its going onward despite defeat
And fighting staunchly, but keeping sweet;
Its struggling on with the will to win,
But taking loss with a cheerful grin.

B2. Achieving Success (2)


Hints given by the poet to become successful are:
(i) doing your job the best
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
B3. Rhyme Scheme (1)
Select the appropriate rhyme scheme for the 3rd stanza.
(i) abab (ii) aabb (iii) aaba

SECTION III
(Rapid Reading)

Q.4. (A) Read the passage carefully and complete the activities given below: [5 marks]
A1. True or False (1)
State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) The authors new house was situated at Bangalore.
(ii) The writer was delighted because their new house, was the biggest they ever lived.
One of the advantages of growing up in an Army household was the frequency with
which we move. Postings came with predictable regularity every three years. What was
unpredictable and therefore exciting was the suspense. Where would we go this time?
Ambala, Pune, Dehradun, Allahabad, Tejpur, Bangalore, Yo! In my short span of thirteen
years we had moved lock, stock and barrel eleven times!
Every move meant a change. New journeys, new places, new schools, my new books,
new uniforms, new friends and new houses. We lived in tents, bashas, Nissen huts, flats and
bungalows. No matter what the shape and size of the dwelling, mother soon put her own
special stamps on it and transformed it into a familiar place our home complete with
bright yellow curtains, coffee-brown carpet, assorted pictures, hanging ferns and potted
palms providing a comforting sense of continuity in our essentially nomadic life.
I was thirteen, the year we moved to the Cantonment at Allahabad. In stark contrast to
the razzle-dazzle of the citys commercial areas like Katra and Chowk, the cantonment was a
quiet, orderly place with broad tree-lined roads that still carried the names of long-dead
Britishers. Our bungalow was on a sleepy by-lane called MacPherson Road. When we first
saw it, my brothers and I were delighted. It was by far the biggest house we had ever lived in.
The task of furnishing those huge, echoing rooms daunted Mother.

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Board Question Paper : March 2016
A2. Compare (2)
(i) The broad tree-lined roads were named after _______.
(ii) Katra and Chowk are _______.
(iii) Mother was daunted with the task of _______.
(iv) The suspense was exciting because the posting was _______.
A3. Personal Response (2)
What do you think are the problems faced by those who change households frequently?
SECTION IV
(Writing Skills)
Q.5. (A) Do any one of the following activities: [5 marks]
A1. Letter Writing
Look at the notice issued by the Supervisor of your school.
Picnic to Lonavala
Contribution ` 500
Spots to be visited: Wax Museum, Narayanidham, Dams, Dukes Nose
Enjoy scenic beauty, pleasant weather.
Need to carry: Water bottle, proper clothing, caps, essential medicines and snacks for your
taste.
Start: 7.30 a.m. from school
Return: 9.30 p.m. to school.
You stay in a Hostel. Write a letter to your daddy asking permission to go for the picnic.
Also, request him to give you the necessary amount.
OR
A2. 30% Water cut
Mumbai: Due to major repairs of pipeline in Dadar and nearby areas, 30% water cut
will be implemented for G (N) and (S) wards. Citizens are requested to use water carefully
and store water for a day. Water supply will resume on Sunday night. Do not panic.
Write a letter to the Secretary of your Housing Society informing him about the news and
drawing his attention to the problem. Request him to take the necessary steps.
(B) Do any one of the following activities: [5 marks]
B1. Report Writing
Human Rights department had arranged a programme to save the rights of a child in
your locality. Write a report for the newspaper using the hints.
HINTS

Free Facilities for Free text-books,


Education the parents note-books etc.

Free medical
Insurance Equal rights
treatment
OR
B2. Dialogue writing
Look at the following News Headline and develop a dialogue between you and your friend.
Use the points given in the call-outs.
MASTER-blasters last innings.

Bharat Versatile Teenage


Ratna player icon

Records broken Mixed feelings


Awards piled Citizens pride

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English
Q.6. (A) Do any one of the following activities: [5 marks]
A1. Information Transfer (Non-verbal to verbal)
Transfer the following information into a paragraph form.

Manuscripts collected from both students and teachers.

Thoroughly screened, necessary additions, alterations, omissions are made.

Preparing a rough draft

Manuscripts along with a dummy sent to the printer.

Proof correction

Sent for final printing

OR
A2. Here are some tips about keeping healthy as given in a science magazine. Read and
write in the form of Dos and Donts (table):
You must include vegetables and fruits in your diet and drink a lot of water. You
should avoid junk food and aerated water. You shouldnt sit for long period of time. Rather
you should exercise regularly. You shouldnt ignore the importance of good breathing habits.
Try breathing deeply whenever you think of it. See to it that you sleep for at least 7 hours a
day. In fact, you should avoid irregular timings.
(B) Do any one of the following activities: [5 marks]
B1. Speech
Prepare a speech to be delivered by you on Environment Day Celebration in your school,
laying stress on conserving the environment.

Neglecting the Excessive use


threat of nature of nature

Imbalance Deforestation Tsunami, the best


environment example

OR
B2. View and Counterviews
View: Progress of mankind depends on deforestation.
Counterview:
(i) Rising population (ii) wild-life affected
(iii) Global warming (iv) Flora and fauna endangered.
Q.7. (A) Do any one of the following activities: [5 marks]
A1. Expansion of ideas (any one)
(i) Dishonesty never pays in the long run.
(ii) Time and tide wait for none.
OR
A2. Develop a story having one of the above ideas as a moral. Give a suitable title to your story.

235
Board Question Paper : March 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2016


GEOGRAPHY AND ECONOMICS
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii. For Q. No.3 (A), use the graph paper supplied to you and attach it to your answer-book.
iv. Use supplied outline map of India for Q. No 3 (C) and tie it to your answer-book tightly.
v. Use of stencil is allowed for drawing map.
vi. Question No. 1 to 4 are based on Geography and Q. No. 5 to 7 are based on Economics.
vii. Draw neat diagrams and sketches wherever necessary.

Q.1. (A) Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate alternatives from those
given in the brackets and rewrite the sentences in your answer book: [3]
1. Areawise, _______ is the largest state.
(Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan)
2. Punjab and Haryana plain is the leading producer of _______.
(bajra, wheat, oil-seeds, sugarcane)
3. The highest peak in the Western Ghats is _______.
(Anai mudi, Dodabetta, Annamalai, K-2)
(B) Match the items in Column A with those in Column B: [3]
Column A Column B
1. Babul a. Religious town
2. Varanasi b. Famous hill station
3. Mahabaleshwar c. Best fodder
d. IT hubs

Q.2. (A) Give geographical reasons for the following statements (any two): [4]
1. Regionalization is very essential.
2. Most of the Himalayan rivers are perennial in nature.
3. Rajasthan desert is the most populated desert in the world.
4. Mining activities are well developed on the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
(B) Write short notes on (any two): [4]
1. Industries in the Andaman and Nicobar groups of islands
2. Transportation in Ganga Plain (Central)
3. The Western Himalayas
Q.3. (A) With the help of given statistical data prepare a simple bar graph: [2]
India : Population
Population
Years
(in crores)
1971 55
1981 68
1991 85
2001 103
2011 121 (Provisional)
238
Geography and Economics
(B) Observe the following map and answer the questions given below it (any two): [2]

Questions:
1. Name the states in the Peninsular Plateau.
2. Name the Ghats to the coasts.
3. Which plains lie in the state of Assam?
4. Name the islands to the Bay of Bengal.
(C) Mark the following in the outline map of India supplied to you. Write the names. Give
index (any two): [2]
1. Tropic of Cancer 2. K-2 3. Amritsar 4. Chilka Lake
Q.4. Answer the following questions in detail (any two): [8]
1. Describe the industrial development of Punjab-Haryana Plain.
2. Write in detail about the natural vegetation and animals of Peninsular (Deccan) Plateau.
3. What are the factors that make the Western Ghats and Western Coast the favored destination
of tourists?
Q.5. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternatives from those given in the brackets: [2]
1. Tertiary sector is also known as _______ sector.
(agricultural, industrial, service)
2. The main motive of producers is to maximize profit in _______ economy.
(socialist, capitalist, mixed)
Q.6. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each (any three): [6]
1. Explain the problem of for whom to produce.
2. What is meant by Cash Reserve Ratio?
3. What is meant by Deficit Financing?
4. What is meant by Food Adulteration?
5. What are the main objectives of Public Distribution System?
Q.7. Answer any one of the following questions in five or six sentences: [4]
1. Explain the rights of consumers.
2. What are the causes of decrease in supply of goods and services?

239
Board Question Paper : March 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2016


GEOMETRY
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40
Note:
i. Solve All questions. Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Q.P. SET CODE
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed.
iii.
iv.
v.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Marks of constructions should be distinct. They should not be rubbed off.
Diagram is essential for writing the proof of the theorem.
C
1. Solve any five sub-questions: [5]
A ( DEF)
i. DEF ~ MNK. If DE = 2, MN = 5, then find the value of .
A ( MNK )
ii. In the following figure, in ABC, B = 90, C = 60, A = 30, AC = 16 cm. Find BC.
A

30
16 cm

60
B C
iii. In the following figure, m(arc PMQ) = 110, find PQS.

P M S

iv. If the angle = 30, find the value of cos .


v. Find the slope of the line with inclination 60.
vi. Using Eulers formula, find V if E = 10, F = 6.
2. Solve any four sub-questions: [8]
i. In the following figure, in PQR, seg RS is the bisector of PRQ. If PS = 9, SQ = 6,
PR = 18, find QR. P

9
18
S
6

Q R
ii. In the following figure, a tangent segment PA touching a circle in A and a secant PBC are
shown. If AP = 12, BP = 9, find BC.
C

P
A
246
Geometry
iii. Draw an equilateral ABC with side 6.4 cm and construct its circumcircle.
iv. For the angle in standard position if the initial arm rotates 130 in anticlockwise direction,
then state the quadrant in which terminal arm lies. (Draw the Figure and write the answer.)
v. Find the area of sector whose arc length and radius are 16 cm and 9 cm respectively.
Find the surface area of a sphere of radius 1.4 cm. =
22
vi.
7

3. Solve any three sub-questions: [9]


i. Adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 11 cm and 17 cm. If the length of one of its diagonal is
26 cm, find the length of the other.
ii. In the following figure, secants containing chords RS and PQ of a circle intersects each other
in point A in the exterior of a circle. If m(arc PCR) = 26, m(arc QDS) = 48, then find:
a. m PQR b. m SPQ c. m RAQ
S C

R
D
C
A
P
Q

iii. Draw a circle of radius 3.5 cm. Take any point K on it. Draw a tangent to the circle at K
without using centre of the circle.
2 1 cosec
iv. If sec = , the find the value of , where is in IV quadrant.
3 1 + cosec
v. Write the equation of the line passing through the pair of points (2, 3) and (4, 7) in the form of
y = mx + c.
4. Solve any two sub-questions: [8]
i. Prove that The length of the two tangent segments to a circle drawn from an external point
are equal.
ii. A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a
tree standing on the opposite bank is 60. When he moves 40 m away from the bank, he finds
the angle of elevation to be 30. Find the height of the tree and width of the river. ( 3 = 1.73 )
iii. A(5, 4), B(3, 2) and C(1, 8) are the vertices of a triangle ABC. Find the equations of
median AD and line parallel to AC passing through the point B.
5. Solve any two sub-questions: [10]
i. In the following figure, AE = EF = AF = BE = CF = a, AT BC. Show that AB = AC = 3 a
A

a a

B a E T F a C
SH 3
ii. SHR ~ SVU. In SHR, SH = 4.5 cm, HR = 5.2 cm, SR = 5.8 cm and = .
SV 5
Construct SVU.
iii. Water flows at the rate of 15m per minute through a cylindrical pipe, having the diameter
20 mm. How much time will it take to fill a conical vessel of base diameter 40 cm and depth
45 cm?

247
Board Question Paper : March 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2016


HISTORY AND POLITICAL SCIENCE
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40
Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Numbers on the right indicate full marks.
iii. Question 1-5 are based on History and Question 6-9 are based on Political Science.

Q.1. (A) Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternative from those given in the brackets,
complete the sentences and write the statements in the answer sheet (three out of three): [3]
1. It is considered that _______ is the origin of Industrial Revolution.
(England, France, Germany)
2. _______ a nation, is called the Land of Rising Sun.
(India, Japan, China)
3. An axe in the bunch of sticks is a symbol of the _______.
(Fascist, Nazi, Janata)
(B) Match the words from Column A appropriately with the terms in Column B and
write the answer: [3]
Group A Group B
1. Nelson Mandela a. Father of Indian Atomic Age
2. Walter Lippmann b. Africa
3. Dr. Homi Bhabha c. Mirage War
d. Father of Computer
Q.2. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words each (any two out of three): [4]
1. What do you mean by Economic Imperialism?
2. Why was Japan called a hermit (recluse) nation?
3. Describe Weimer Republic.
Q.3. Give reasons for the following statements in 25 to 30 words each (any two out of three): [4]
1. Explosive situation was created in Europe.
2. The Security Council is the heart of UNO.
3. Computers have increased the speed of work.
Q.4. Answer the following questions in 30 to 40 words each (any two out of three): [6]
1. Write any three constructive effects of Imperialism.
2. Write about Lenins New Economic Policy.
3. Write the objectives of United Nations Organisation.
Q.5. Answer the following questions in 60 to 80 words each (any two out of three): [8]
1. Describe the effects of Second World War.
2. Explain the effects of Cold War.
3. Write the information about Gandhian era with the help of the following points:
i. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
ii. Non-co-operation Movement.
Q.6. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternative from the bracket. (three out of three): [3]
1. In democracy, all citizens have _______ right to vote.
(equal, unequal, limited, indirect)
2. To maintain and capture _______ is the main aim of the political parties.
(Publicity, Power, Minority, Information)
3. _______ wrote a book called Stree-Purush Tulana (comparison of women and men).
(Savitribai Phule, Madam Cama, Tarabai Shinde, Ramabi Ranade)
236
History and Political Science
Q.7. Answer the following questions in one sentence each (any three out of five): [3]
1. What is direct democracy?
2. What is a ruling party?
3. Which form of government is adopted by Independent India?
4. What is the biggest challenge for Democracy?
5. What do you mean by regional inequality?
Q.8. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons (any two out of three): [4]
1. In India, there is Parliamentary Democracy.
2. Nationalist Congress Party has great influence in Karnataka State.
3. Higher the initiative, weaker the democracy will be.
Q.9. Answer any one of the following questions in 25 to 30 words (any one out of two): [2]
1. Write the challenges related to personal liberty.
2. Write a note on the Federal System in India.

237
Board Question Paper : March 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2016


SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. Draw well-labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
ii. All questions are compulsory.
iii. Students should write the answers of questions in sequence.

SECTION A
1. (A) (a) Fill in the blanks: [3]
i. The modern periodic table consists of _______ periods.
ii. The formulae of chloride of metal M is MCl2. The metal M belongs to _______ group.
iii. Corrosion can be prevented by using _______ solution.

(b) Find the odd one out: [2]


i. Voltmeter, ammeter, galvanometer, thermometer.
ii. Loudspeaker, bar magnet, electric motor, microphone.

(B) Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the following: [5]
i. Reaction of iron nails with copper sulphate solution is an example of
(A) Combination reaction (B) Decomposition reaction
(C) Displacement reaction (D) Double displacement reaction

ii. Dilute NaOH can be tested with _______.


(A) red litmus paper (B) blue litmus paper
(C) lime water (D) Na2CO3

iii. In series combination which remains constant?


(A) Voltage (B) Current
(C) Both current and voltage (D) Both are variables

iv. An object of 10 cm is placed in front of a plane mirror. The height of image will be _______.
(A) 5 cm (B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm (D) 10 cm

v. When a ray of light travels from air to glass slab and strikes the surface of separation at 90,
then it _______.
(A) bends towards normal (B) bends away from normal
(C) passes unbent (D) passes in zigzag way

2. Answer the following questions (any five): [10]


i. Define the following:
a. 1 volt PD
b. Electric power.
ii. What major harm is done to the human beings by air pollution?
iii. Calculate the focal length of a corrective lens having power +2D.
iv. Write two applications of sodium bicarbonate (baking soda).
v. A simple microscope is used by watch repairers. Give reason.
vi. Draw neat and labelled diagram of pH scale.
240
Science and Technology
3. Answer the following questions (any five): [15]
i. What are the main features of Mendeleevs periodic table?
ii. Define redox reaction. Give one example.
iii. Given below is a diagram showing a defect of human eye. Study it and answer the following
questions:

a. Name the defect shown in the figure.


b. Give reason for this defect of eye in human being.
c. Name the type of lens used to correct the eye defect.
iv. What is refraction of light? How is it related to refractive index?
v. Explain how spectrum is formed.
vi. Suggest measures in the following situations:
a. To avoid noise pollution in classroom.
b. To minimize electricity consumption at home.
c. Bursting fire crackers in festivals and processions.

4. Answer the following question (any one): [5]


i. Find the expression for the resistors connected in series and write the two characteristics of it.
(Draw figure).
ii. Explain Electric motor with the help of the following points:
a. Draw figure
b. Principle of Electric motor
c. Name any four appliances where electric motor is used.

241
Board Question Paper : March 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2016


SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. Draw well-labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
ii. All questions are compulsory.
iii. Students should write the answers of questions in sequence.

SECTION B
1. (A) Answer the following sub-questions : [5]
i. Fill in the blank and rewrite the completed statement :
_______ is the largest gland in the body.
ii. Find the odd one out and write it :
vagina, uterus, vas deferens, ovary
iii. State whether the statement is true or false :
Aquatic animals breathe at a slower rate than the terrestrial animals.
iv. Considering the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair :
rr : Homozygous : : Rr : _______.
v. Name the following:
Main ore of aluminium
(B) Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the following: [5]
i. _______ is liberated when acetic acid reacts with sodium metal.
(A) Hydrogen (B) Chlorine
(C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
ii. For binary fission, Amoeba requires _______ parent cells.
(A) Three (B) Two
(C) One (D) Zero
iii. A solution of CuSO4 in water is _______ in colour.
(A) Pink (B) Blue
(C) Colourless (D) Green
iv. Raisins are formed by drying grapes. The process that takes place during formation of raisins
from grapes is ________.
(A) Absorption (B) Osmosis
(C) Diffusion (D) Dehydration
v. Ethanoic acid has a _______ odour.
(A) rotten eggs (B) pungent
(C) vinegar-like (D) mild
2. Answer the following questions (any five): [10]
i. Differentiate between voluntary and involuntary movements.
ii. What is the peculiarity of the DNA structure?
iii. Draw a well-labelled diagram of longitudinal section of a flower.
iv. Give scientific reason : Roots of plants grow away from light.
v. Write any two measures to conserve water.
vi. What are fossils?
3. Answer the following questions (any five): [15]
i. What is an alloy? Give two examples with their chemical composition.
ii. How is sex determined in human beings?
iii. State the different types of neurons. Explain their functions.

242
Science and Technology
iv. What is the 3R mantra? Write its significance.
v. Metal A has electronic configuration (2, 8, 1) and metal B has (2, 8, 8, 2). Which is more
reactive? Why? Identify these metals.
vi. Explain the disadvantages of a large family size.
4. Answer the following question (any one): [5]
i. Given below are the end products of different reactions involving glucose.
Starch
1
CO2 + Ethanol 5 Glycogen
Glucose 2
4
Lactic acid 3 CO2 + H2O

Write the reaction number in front of the following :


a. Anaerobic reaction =
b. Reaction in the human muscles =
c. Aerobic respiration =
d. Reaction in the plant cells =
e. Reaction in the liver =
ii. What is a homologous series? State any four characteristics of a homologous series.

243
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BOARDQUESTIONPAPER :MARCH2017
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40

Note: Q.P. SET CODE

A
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed.

1. Attempt any five of the following subquestions: [5]


i. State whether the following sequence is an Arithmetic Progression or not:
3, 6, 12, 24,...... .
ii. If one root of the quadratic equation is 3 2 5 , then write another root of the equation.
iii. There are 15 tickets bearing the numbers from 1 to 15 in a bag and one ticket is drawn from this
bag at random. Write the sample space (S) and n(S).
iv. Find the class mark of the class 3539.
v. Write the next two terms of A.P. whose first term is 3 and the common difference is 4.
vi. Find the values of a, b, c for the quadratic equation 2x2 = x + 3 by comparing with standard form
ax2 + bx + c = 0.
2. Attempt any four of the following subquestions: [8]
i. Find the first two terms of the sequence for which Sn is given below:
Sn = n2(n + 1).
ii. Find the value of discriminant () for the quadratic equation:
x2 + 7x + 6 = 0 .
iii. Write the equation of X-axis. Hence, find the point of intersection of the graph of the equation
x + y = 5 with the X-axis.
iv. For a certain frequency distribution, the values of Assumed mean (A) = 1300, fidi = 900 and
fi = 100. Find the value of mean x .
v. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Write the sample space (S), n(S), the following event A
using set notation and n(A), where A is the event of getting at least one head.
vi. Find the value of k for which the given simultaneous equations have infinitely many solutions:
kx + 4y = 10;
3x + 2y = 5.
3. Attempt any three of the following subquestions : [9]
i. How many three digit natural numbers are divisible by 5?
ii. Solve the following quadratic equation by factorization method:
3x2 29x + 40 = 0.
iii. Solve the following simultaneous equations by using Cramers rule:
3x y = 7;
x + 4y = 11.
iv. Two dice are thrown. Find the probability of the event that the product of numbers on their upper
faces is 12.
v. The following is the frequency distribution of waiting time at ATM centre; draw histogram to
represent the data:
Waiting time Number of
(in seconds) Customers
0 30 15
30 60 23
60 90 64
90 120 50
120 150 5

251
Std.X:Algebra
4. Attempt any two of the following subquestions: [8]
i. Three horses A, B and C are in a race, A is twice as likely to win as B and B is twice as likely to
win as C. What are their probabilities of winning?
ii. The following is the distribution of the size of certain farms from a taluka (tehasil):
Size of Farms Number of Farms
(in acres)
5 15 7
15 25 12
25 35 17
35 45 25
45 55 31
55 65 5
65 75 3
Find median size of farms.
iii. The following pie diagram represents the sectorwise loan amount in crores of rupees distributed
by a bank. From the information answer the following questions:

Agriculture

120

40Dairy
Industry

a. If the dairy sector receives `20 crores, then find the total loan disbursed.
b. Find the loan amount for agriculture sector and also for industrial sector.
c. How much additional amount did industrial sector receive than agriculture sector?
5. Attempt any two of the following subquestions : [10]
i. If the cost of bananas is increased by ` 10 per dozen, one can get 3 dozen less for ` 600. Find the
original cost of one dozen of bananas.
ii. If the sum of first p terms of an A.P. is equal to the sum of first q terms, then show that the sum of
its first (p + q) terms is zero where p q.
iii. Solve the following simultaneous equations:
1 1
+ 1 = 0;
3x 4 y
1 1 4
= .
5 x 2 y 15

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BOARDQUESTIONPAPER :MARCH2017
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80

SECTION I (Prose)
(Reading Skill, Vocabulary and Grammar)
Q.1. (A) Read the following passage and do the activities: [10 marks]
A1. True or False (2)
State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) Gilson asked the writer to buy a tie of red colour with an initial G on it.
(ii) The writer could not buy the tie on Sunday because he had no time.
(iii) The driver refused to wait as parking was prohibited.
(iv) The writer promised to double the fare.

What Gilson asked me to buy was, in fact, a little thing : a tie. But not just any tie. He
wanted a tie with a small embroidered G. Any colour would do, as long as it had his initial.
Look, this is a special flight, I explained. We are only staying Saturday through Tuesday. On
the day we arrived I didnt have time to think about the tie, but strolling around on Sunday, I
did see ties bearing various letters in more than one shop window. They were cheap, just a
dollar, but all the shops were closed.
Frantic Search: On Monday, lunch lasted the whole afternoon. Then it was Tuesday
morning, time to leave. It was only when I saw our airport bus waiting outside the hotel that I
remembered the tie.
I told the group to go on. I would get a taxi to the airport. And so I went in search of a
nearby shop where I had seen ties.
But I couldnt find it. I walked further down the streetone, two, three blocksall in
vain. Back at the hotel, a bit anxious now, I took my suitcase, got a taxi and asked the driver
to rush to the street where I had seen them.
The driver stopped at each shop we passed so I could look from the taxi window. The
stores had all sorts of ties, but not the kind I was looking for.
When I finally thought I had located the right shop, I decided to go in and check. The
driver refused to wait. Parking was prohibited, he said. I promised to double the fare, jumped
out and ran into the shop. Was I going to miss the plane just for a damned tie?

A2. Order (2)


Put the following sentences in proper order:
(i) On the very first day the writer had no time to buy a tie.
(ii) The writer walked down on Sunday and saw shops with variety of ties.
(iii) Gilson, the writers friend wanted him to buy a tie.
(iv) The writer left the place on Tuesday morning.
A3. Matching: (2)
Match the following words with their meanings:
A B
(i) strolling (a) done in a very urgent way
(ii) anxious (b) to walk without hurrying
(iii) prohibited (c) wanting something very much
(iv) frantic (d) to stop something
A4. Language study: Begin your sentence with ....... (2)
(i) I had located the right shop.
(Rewrite the sentence beginning with The right shop......)
(ii) All the shops were closed.
(Begin with None of the ......)
381
StdX:Kumarbharati
A5. Personal Response: (2)
Narrate any one funny / humorous incident that took place in your life.
(B) Read the following passage and do the activities: [10 marks]
B1. Complete: (2)
Fill in the blanks to complete the following sentences:
(i) I was able to read _______ by the time I was ten.
(ii) It was Mr. A.N. Patil my _______ teacher who made a huge impression on me.
(iii) Every lesson that Mr. Patil took was spiced with half a dozen or more _______
(iv) One of the greatest gifts any teacher can give a student is to inculcate_______

In a way, one of the greatest gifts any teacher can give a student, I think, is to inculcate
a curiosity to learn.
Ive been incredibly lucky to have at least one such teacher at every stage in my life.
The first was Mrs. Rowlands who taught me in primary school. She taught me to read without
ever pushing me. She made me want to read more by giving me some of the most interesting
childrens books available. And although I still love to go back to those books from time to
time, it was only because of her that I was able to read Shakespeare by the time I was ten, and
Chaucer a year later.
In later years, it was Mr. A.N. Patil, my Marathi and Hindi teacher who made a huge
impression on me. Every lesson he took, was spiced with half a dozen or more anecdotes
from a wide variety of subjects : among them history, politics, religion and sociology. I was,
and still am in awe of his knowledge, which despite rather desperate attempts, I doubt Ill
ever be able to match.
There have also been other teachers who helped me to try to become independent : to
think and act for myself using my own judgement, which to my mind has been just as, if not
more important, than actually learning anything. After all, its much too easy to become a
completely useless repository of facts and little else.
B2. Web:
Complete the following web: (2)

Teachers gift to
the narrator

B3. Match:
Match the words given in Column A with their meanings given in Column B: (2)

A B
(i) inculcate (a) very sad and upset because of loss of hope
(ii) incredibly (b) a person with lot of information
(iii) desperate (c) extremely good, great
(iv) repository (d) to teach and impress by frequent repetition

B4. Frame questions:


Frame Whquestions for the following statements with the help of the Wh word given in
the brackets: (2)
(i) She taught me to read. (What)
(ii) I read Chaucer a year later. (When)
B5. Personal Response (2)
Teachers are responsible to mould the character of students.
Elaborate, giving your opinion.
382
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BoardQuestionPaper:March2017
Q.2. (A) Read the following passage and do the activities: [10 marks]
A1. Chart: (2)
Write down four pieces of advice given by the writer:
(i)

(ii)
Four pieces
of advice
(iii)

(iv)

Exercise makes you focus on your body, providing relief from difficult feelings and
thoughts. If you work out hard enough, it releases chemicals called endorphins, which may
act in the brain to help lift your mood.
If you havent taken exercise, start simply with a brisk half-hour walk at least three
times a week. Once in the habit of exercising, consider something more strenuous, such as
aerobic dance. Activities that you share with other people, such as tennis or team games, may
be preferable to solitary forms of exercise, such as swimming, which leaves your mind free to
dwell on negative thoughts. Vary the type of exercise you do, and dont choose something
you dont enjoy at all. Be careful not to overdo exercise, or you will merely feel exhaustion
instead of increased energy and improved well being.
BEFORE YOU JOIN A GYM
Potentially, the world is your work-out facility. But if you want access to high-quality
resistance machines, aerobic-classes, and trained staff, a gym may be worth the
moneyespecially if it helps you stick with an exercise programme.

A2. Effects:
Look at the activities given in Column A. Write their effects in Column B: (2)

A B
i. Regular exercise
ii. Hard work out
iii. Swimming
iv. Over-straining exercise

A3. Complete the following table and frame a sentence of your own by choosing any word
from the table: (2)

Verb Noun Adjective


Pay Payment
Consider Considerable

A4. Language study:


Select the proper tag and rewrite the sentence: (2)
(i) It helps you to stick with an exercise.
(1. do it? 2. does it? 3. doesn't it?).
(ii) Be careful not to overdo exercise.
(1. wont you? 2. will you? 3. be you?)

A5. My opinion: (2)


It is necessary to take exercise regularly.
Write your opinion in support of the above statement.
383
StdX:Kumarbharati
(B) Read the following passage carefully and do the activities: [10 marks]
B1. MCQ
Complete the following sentences by choosing from the multiple choices given: (2)
(i) The luxury cars have largely gone _______ from its roads.
(a) missing (b) disappointing
(c) hiding (d) dislocating
(ii) A few luxury car owners have _______ their other not so premium cars.
(a) switched off (b) switched to
(c) switched away (d) insurance
(iii) The car owners get the standard _______ of a company.
(a) guarantee (b) certainty
(c) warranty (d) insurance
(iv) Many owners _______ their decision to buy the premium car due to the pitiable condition
of roads.
(a) regretted (b) favoured
(c) accepted (d) expected
Patholes Keep Luxury Cars Indoors
(Newspaper Reporter)
There years after the city vroomed to global fame when it picked up 150 luxury cars in
a record bulk deal, the cars have largely gone missing from roads, parked as they are in the
safety of their owners garages. Fearing damage and dents to their dream drives, the owners
said they cannot risk them on the city potholed roads.
Many owners said they regretted their decision to buy these premium buys as the
pitiable condition of roads has ensured they cannot take their cars out for their commute to
work or simply a spin around town. A few owners have switched to their other not-so-so
premium cars in their fleet for their daily commute, while a couple of them have already sold
their high-end luxury cruisers. Some owners are negotiating an extended warranty period with
the auto giant.
As per the star agreement, the cars get a free service once a year or 15,000 kms, for
three years. They also get the standard warranty of a company that covers most of the cars
maintenance, but parts like tyres are not covered, like is the case with most auto brands.
A car owner said that he carefully picks the road he would drive his car on, even if it
means taking a longer route to reach the destination.

B2. Give reasons: (2)


Give reasons for the following:
(i) The luxury car owners have parked their vehicles in a garage because _______
(ii) The luxury car owners regret for their decision of buying luxury cars because _______
(iii) Many luxury car owners have sold out their cars because ________
(iv) The car owners take longer routes because _______.
B3. Word register: (2)
Prepare a word register relating automobile industry:
B4. Language study: (2)
Change the following into direct speech:
Many owners said they regretted their decision to buy the premium buys.
B5. Personal Response: (2)
Comment on the bad condition of roads in your locality.
384
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BoardQuestionPaper:March2017
SECTION II
(Poetry)

Q.3. (A) Read the following extract and complete the activities: [5 marks]
A1. Complete the following web: (2)

Guide

Role of
Grandparents

Friend

Oh the value of the elderly! How could anyone not know?


They hold so many keys, so many things they can show.
We all will read the other side this I firmly believe
And the elderly are closest oh what clues we could retrieve.
For their characters are closest to how well be on high.
They are the ones most developed, you can see it if you try.
Theyve let go of the frivolous and kept things that are dear.
The memories of so sweet, of loved ones that were near.
As a nation we are missing our greatest true resource,
To get to know our elders and let them guide our course.

A2. Message:
In what way can the elders guide us? (2)

A3. Match the pairs of rhyming words as they appear in the poem: (1)

A B
(i) believe (a) try
(ii) high (b) resource
(c) retrieve

(B) Read the following lines and complete the activities: [5 marks]
B1. True or False: (2)
(i) Deforestation is common in our world.
(ii) Environmental pollution is not the salient feature of the world today.
(iii) Wildlife is endangered.
(iv) Number of rivers are pollution free.
385
StdX:Kumarbharati

There lie abundant rivers with pollution


There fly multiple clouds with contamination
And when good food goes to waste
The valleys of the earth bury their paste
Our world is an institution
Of environmental pollution
We choose not to care
For our future generations.
And I for one am guilty
For buying the hundreds of electronic gadgets
That attracts the industries to produce like maggots
Environmental pollution is at the heart of our planet.
The forests are dying
Wildlife is crying
Millions of fish are dying
Mother earth is sighing.

B2. Message: (2)


Glance through the extract and complete the following table:

Dos Donts
To save our earth To save our earth
(i) (i)
(ii) (ii)

B3. Matching: (1)


Match the lines given in Column A with the figures of speech given in Column B:
A B
(i) For buying the hundreds of electronic gadgets (a) Repetition
(ii) The forests are dying (b) Metaphor
(c) Hyperbole
(d) Personification

SECTION III
(Rapid Reading)

Q.4. (A) Read the following extract and complete the activities given below: [5 marks]
A1. Complete: (1)
Choose the correct alternative and complete the following:
(i) Gerrard expects to remain in the cottage for_______.
(a) the rest of the evening
(b) about another ten minutes
(c) fifteen minutes

(ii) Gerrard finds the situation very_______.


(a) Frightening
(b) Original
(c) Melodramatic

386
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BoardQuestionPaper:March2017
Gerrard: Well, tell him to phone up directly. I must know. Yes, I expect Ill still be here, but
you mustnt count on that _______. In about ten minutes time. Right-ho. Good bye.
[He puts down the phone and goes to the divan on the left, where there is a travelling bag and
starts packing. Whilst he is thus engaged, another man, similar in build to Gerrard enters from
the right silentlyrevolver in hand. He is flashily dressed in an overcoat and soft hat. He
bumps accidently against the table and at the sound Gerrard turns quickly]
Gerrard: (Pleasantly). Why, this is a surprise,
Mr. -er-
Intruder: Im glad youre pleased for long. Put those paws up!
Gerrard: This is all very melodramatic; not very original, perhaps, but
Intruder: Trying to be calm and er
Gerrard: Nonchalant is your word, I think.
Intruder: Thanks a lot. Youll soon stop being smart. Ill make you crawl.
I want to know a few things, see.
Gerrard: Anything you like. I know, all the answers. But before we begin I should like to
change my position: you may be comfortable, but I am not.
Intruder: Sit down, there, and no funny business. (Motions to chair and seats himself on the
divan by the bag.)
Now then, well have a nice little talk about yourself!

A2. Gerrard and intruder are different in natureElaborate. (2)


A3. Write from the extract sentences/phrases that indicate the Intruders threatening
manner. (2)
SECTION IV
(Writing Skill)
Q.5. (A) A1 or A2 Do any one of the following activities: [5 marks]
A1. Look at the news heading and write a letter to congratulate Anjana.

Nashiks Anjana wins 800 m Asian Youth Gold.

OR
A2. Concession for Students:

Students commuting daily to their schools by bus (S.T. or local) may apply to,
The Controller / Stationmaster
Documents required:
(i) bonafide certificate
(ii) latest photograph
(iii) address proof

Write an application in response to the above advertisement, addressing the Controller /


Stationmaster of your area.
(B) Do any one of the following: [5 marks]
B1. Report:
Look at the following news and prepare a report on the same:
Masti ki Pathshala on IIM A Footpath
Ahmedabad: Every morning some kids gather around a young man as he greets them with
sweets and starts his class near Indian Institute of Management (IIMA) wall. This class has
no blackboard. The man hands over a chalk and charcoal and starts explaining alphabets and
soon breaks into song as kids too join in. This is Masti ki Pathshala run by Ashish Vyas a 30
years old from Naranpura.
OR
B2. Preparing questions:
Referring to the given news item frame ten questions to interview Ashish Vyas.
387
StdX:Kumarbharati
Q.6. (A) Information Transfer / Non-verbal to verbal: [5 marks]
A1. Prepare a paragraph on Problems in Conservation of Wildlife and Solutions
using the points given in the following table:

Problems in Wildlife Conservation and Solutions


Man-made Problems Natural Problems Solutions
Population explosion outbreak provision of
Ever growing need for forest fires strict laws and
agricultural land drought proper execution
Over-exploitation of forests floods of the laws
like wood etc. providing proper
Poaching to meet ever security to
increasing international protect wildlife
demand for animal hides arranging for
check-posts to
detect poaching
etc.
A2. Read the following passage and draw a tree diagram to cover the main points:
The Indian Judiciary is made up of courts at three levels. The Supreme Court is the
apex court of India and it is for the whole Union of India. There are High Courts for each
state. In each state, at the district level, there are Sessions Courts.
The Sessions Court Judge has under his jurisdiction either the Assistant Sessions Judge,
the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or the Chief Judicial Magistrate. The Chief Metropolitan
Magistrate has under his jurisdiction the Metropolitan Magistrate and the Special
Metropolitan Magistrate.
(B) Complete any one of the following: B- 1 or B-2: [5 marks]
B1. Write your view supporting, The Need for Cashless Transactions Today using
the points given in the view column :
View
convenience
curbing black money
preventing tax evasion
no risk of carrying cash
saving paper
preventing illegal transactions
add your own points
OR
B2. Speech:
Prepare a speech on the issue Advantages of Cashless Transactions, raised in the class
assembly.
Q.7. Develop a paragraph of about 100 words expanding any one of the following expressions: [5 marks]
(i) Books our best friends.
(ii) Child labour A curse.
(iii) _______ Thats how we saved the animals during drought time.

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BoardQuestionPaper:March2017

BOARDQUESTIONPAPER :MARCH2017
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii. For Q. No.3 (A), use the graph paper supplied to you and attach it to your answer-book.
iv. Use supplied outline map of India for Q. No 3 (C) and tie it to your answer-book tightly.
v. Use of stencil is allowed for drawing map.
vi. Question No. 1 to 4 are based on Geography and Q. No. 5 to 7 are based on Economics.
vii. Draw neat diagrams and sketches, wherever necessary.

Q.1. (A) Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate alternatives from those
given in the brackets and rewrite the sentences in your answer book: [3]
1. Areawise, India is the ______ largest country in the world.
(fifth, sixth, seventh, fourth)
2. The forest soils are ______ in colour.
(dark yellow, dark brown, dark red, pink)
3. ______ river flows through the south-eastern part of Bagar region.
(Satluj, Ghaghra, Luni, Saraswati)
(B) Match the items in Column A with those in Column B : [3]

Column A Column B
1. Shisham a. A hill station
2. Gurushikhar b. A place of worship
3. Saputara c. Aravalli Mountain
d. The foothills of the Shiwaliks

Q.2. (A) Give geographical reasons for the following statements (any two): [4]
1. Regional approach to geographic studies is very important.
2. The soils of the Eastern Ghats are generally not very fertile.
3. Rajasthan desert fascinates tourists.
4. Forest cover is shrinking in the Peninsular Plateau region central highlands.
(B) Write short notes on (any two): [4]
1. Environmental problems in the Assam Plain
2. Maharashtra Plateau
3. Fisheries in the Indian Islands
Q.3. (A) With the help of given statistical data, prepare a line graph: [2]

Sugar Production
Year
(Lakh Tonnes)
2000-01 95
2001-02 130
2002-03 180
2003-04 160
2004-05 125


203
Std.X:GeographyandEconomics
(B) Observe the following diagram and answer the questions given below it (any two): [2]

Vehicle Sales in India


19,49,776 (2009 2010)

4,40,368 Passenger Vehicles

Commercial Vehicles

93,71,231 Three-wheelers
Two-wheelers

Questions:
1. Name the diagram.
2. Which type of vehicles had the maximum sale in India?
3. Which type of vehicles had the minimum sale in India?
4. What was the sale of commercial vehicles?
(C) Mark the following in the outline map of India supplied to you. Write the names. Give index
(any two): [2]
1. Western Plains 2. Sikkim Himalayas 3. Jaisalmer
4. Godavari River
Q.4. Answer the following questions in detail (any two): [8]
1. Give the details about the rivers of the Himalayas.
2. Describe about forest distribution in the Ganga Plain.
3. What are the environmental problems of the Western Ghats and the West Coastal region?
Q.5. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternatives from those given in the brackets: [2]
1. In a capitalist economy, means of production are owned, controlled and operated by ______.
(government, society, private individuals)
2. An economic problem mainly arises due to ______ of resources.
(plenty, scarcity, availability)
Q.6. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each (any three): [6]
1. What is meant by political sovereignty?
2. What is meant by Public Distribution System?
3. What are the effects of Industrial disputes?
4. What are the duties of a consumer?
5. Explain the meaning of bank rate.
Q.7. Answer any one of the following questions in five or six sentences: [4]
1. Write the factors responsible for increase in demand for goods and services.
2. What are the measures suggested to remove the defects of Public Distribution System?


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BoardQuestionPaper:March2017

BOARDQUESTIONPAPER :MARCH2017
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40

Note: Q.P. SET CODE


i. Solve All questions. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed.
iii. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iv. Marks of constructions should be distinct. They should not be rubbed off.
A
v. Diagram is essential for writing the proof of the theorem.

1. Solve any five sub-questions: [5]


i. In the following figure, seg BE seg AB and seg BA seg AD. If BE = 6 and AD = 9, find
A(ABE)
.
A(BAD)
E B

A D
ii. If two circles with radii 8 cm and 3 cm respectively touch internally, then find the distance
between their centres.
iii. Find the height of an equilateral triangle whose side is 6 units.
iv. If the angle = 45, find the value of tan .
v. Find the slope and y-intercept of the line y = 3x 5.
vi. Find the circumference of a circle whose radius is 7 cm.
2. Solve any four sub-questions: [8]
i. In PQR, seg RS is the bisector of PRQ, PS = 6, SQ = 8, PR = 15. Find QR.
P

o
o
Q R

ii. In the given figure PA = 6, PB = 4 and PC = 8. Find PD.


C

P
A B
D
iii. Draw ABC of measure 105 and bisect it.
iv. Find the sine ratio of in standard position whose terminal arm paases through (4, 3).
v. Find the slope of the line passing through the points A(6, 2) and B(3, 4).
vi. The dimensions of a cuboid in cm are 30 18 10. Find its volume.
3. Solve any three sub-questions: [9]
i. Prove that, If the angles of a triangle are 45-45-90, then each of the perpendicular sides is
1
times the hypotenuse.
2

281
Std.X:Geometry
ii. Find the angle between two radii at the centre of the circle as shown in the figure. Lines PA and
PB are tangents to the circle at other ends of the radii and APR = 110.
A
R
110
O
P
S
B

iii. Construct tangents to the circle from the point B, having radius 3.2 cm and centre C. Point B
is at at a distance 7.2 cm from the centre.
iv. From the top of a lighthouse, an observer looks at a ship and finds the angle of depression to be
60. If the height of the lighthouse is 84 metres, then find how far is that ship from the

ligthouse? 3 1.73
v. The volume of a cube is 1000 cm3. Find its total surface area.
4. Solve any two sub-questions: [8]
i. Prove that, The opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are supplementary.
ii. Eliminate , if
x = 3 cosec + 4 cot ,
y = 4 cosec 3 cot .
iii. A toy is a combination of a cylinder, hemisphere and a cone, each with radius 10 cm as shown
in the figure. Height of the conical part is 10 cm and total height is 60 cm. Find the total surface

area of the toy. 3.14, 2 1.41

5. Solve any two sub-questions: [10]


i. In the given figure, AD is the bisector of the exterior A of ABC. Seg AD intersects the side
BD AB
BC produced in D. Prove that: .
CD AC
K
A

B C D
ii. Construct the circumcircle and incircle of an equilateral XYZ with side 6.5 cm and centre O.
Find the ratio of the radii of incircle and circumcircle.
iii. A(5, 4), B(3, 2) and C(1, 8) are the vertices of a triangle ABC. Find the equation of median
AD and line parallel to AB passing through point C.

282
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yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee : ceee& 2017

yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee : ceee& 2017


mecee: leerve Iebs kegue Debke: 80

efJeYeeie 1 ieode 20 Debke

ke=.1.(ke) Heefjso He{kej oer ieF& meteveeDeeW kes Devegmeej ke=efleeeB keerefpeS: [8]

(1) mebpeeue HetCe& keerefpeS: (2)

mesye kes jbie

efnceeuee keer yeHeeaueer eesefeeW keer eBJe ceW Hetue, Heue, Pejves Deewj yeBieueeW Jeeues ketceeeue kee veece
uesles ner cesjer DeeBKeeW kes Deeies jeceie{ keer Ske Meece OegBOeueer lemeJeerj keer lejn efKebe peeleer nw~ Ske yengle TBeer,
Jeveeeefole HeJe&leeb=Keuee kes Fme yeepet ceW ceerueeW uebyee Ske HetueeW kee yeieeree nw~ megvenues, njs, Heerues, efmebotjer
Deewj iegueeyeer mesyeeW mes ueos ngS Hes[eW keer keleejW Heej kej nce Gme yeBieues ceW pee HengBes nQ efpemeceW cenekeefJe
jJeeRveeLe ekegj ves DeHeves ketceeeueeJeeme ceW keg efove efyeleeS Les~ yeme keer me[ke mewke[eW Heer veeres ceefeeues
meeBHe keer lejn IeeefeeW Deewj pebieueeW ceW jWieleer-mejkeleer eueer pee jner nw, me[ke kes Yeer mewke[eW Heer veeres leuueer
jeceie{ kes IejeW keer erve Jeeueer leW oerKe jner nQ Deewj eueles-efHejles ueesie GveceW eeRefeeW keer lejn ueie jns nQ,
GOej mecejHees[& kes Hene[ Hej Ske meHeso yeeoue G[lee ngDee Deekej efke ieee nw Deewj Oeerjs-Oeerjs Oeveg<eekeej
neslee ngDee pee jne nw~ yeBieues kes meeceves kes ueeve ceW yeWle keer Ketyemetjle njer kegjefmeeeB [eue oer ieF& nQ Deewj yeieeres
kes cewvespej ves eee yeveJeekej ceBieeF& nw~

(2) i. Ieveevegmeej Gefele ece ueieekej Jeekee efHej mes efueefKeS: (1)

1. ueeve ceW yeWle keer Ketyemetjle njer kegjefmeeeB [eue oer ieF~
2. Ske meHeso yeeoue G[lee ngDee Deekej efke ieee nw~
3. eueles-efHejles ueesie eeRefeeW keer lejn ueie jns nQ~
4. cewvespej ves eee yeveJeekej ceBieeF& nw~

367
ke#ee omeJeeR: efnboer ueeskeYeejleer
ii. Gllej efueefKeS: (1)

HeJe&le Me=bKeuee keer efJeMes<eleeSB

(1) ___________ (2) ___________

(3) i. MeyoeW kes Jeeve yeouekej efueefKeS: (1)


1. eeRefeeB

2. me[ke

ii. Heefjso ceW DeeS Meyoegice efueefKeS: (1)


1. _______
2. _______

(4) DeHeves osKes ngS efkemeer eeke=efleke Me kees ueieYeie 8 mes 10 JeekeeeW ceW efueefKeS~ (2)

(Ke) Heefjso He{kej oer ieF& metevee kes Devegmeej ke=efleeeB keerefpeS: [8]
(1) mebpeeue HetCe& keerefpeS: (2)

cebieueer kes HeefjJeej


kes meome

cebieueer Iej HengBeer Deewj ess yess kees yesleneMee etceves ueieer~ oes meeue kee nesiee~ Gmes n meeue keer yeser meBYeeueleer nw~
ome meeue kee ye[e yese efHeues efoveeW mes nesue kes Ske sues Hej keece kejlee nw~ Heeveer Deewj eee HengBeelee nw Jen~
Jen DeYeer leke Iej veneR ueewe Lee~ Hene[ keer lejeF& Hej yemeer en PeesHe[Heder yengle Ieveer Leer~ Gmeves Pe erve kee
ojJeepee KeeRe efueee Deewj ef{yejer peueekej oesveeW yeeeW kees ogueejves ueieer~ Lewueer Keesueer lees GmeceW keeHeer Keevee Lee,
Hejbleg Flevee Yeer veneR Lee efke HeeBeeW kes efueS Hetje He[s~ efHej Yeer Gmeves Lees[er efceeF&vegcee eerpeW efvekeeuekej Deueie jKe
oeR, DeHeves Deeoceer Deewj ye[s yess kes efueS~ keg HegueeJe Deewj jeser-meeie oesveeW yeeeW kees Hejesmee~ Ssmeer jeser keer iebOe
yeeeW kees Henueer yeej kejerye mes efceue jner Leer~ Gmes lees efHej Yeer keYeer-keYeer keg efceue peelee Lee nesue ceW, Hej eerpeW
Kejeye nes peeves Hej ner Gme leke HengBe HeeleeR~

368
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yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee : ceee& 2017
(2) i. efvecveefueefKele efJeOeeveeW kes meeceves mener ee ieuele efueefKeS: (1)
1. ese yese nesue kes Ske sues Hej Heeveer Deewj eee HengBeelee nw~
2. cebieueer ves HegueeJe Deewj jeser-meeie oesveeW yeeeW kees Hejesmee~
ii. GHee&gkele ieeebMe mes oes Ssmes eMve leweej keerefpeS efpevekes Gllej efvecveefueefKele Meyo neW: (1)
1. Lewueer : ________
2. efceeF&vegcee: ________

(3) i. Heefjso ceW eegkele DebkeeW ceW mes efkemeer Ske Debke Hej eeefuele cegneJeje efueefKeS~ (1)

ii. ceeveke Jele&veer kes Devegmeej Meyo efueefKeS: (1)

1. Hejvleg

2. F&levee

(4) `meceepe ceW efmLele iejeryeer' otj kejeves kes GheeeeW kees ueieYeie 8 mes 10 HebeqkeleeeW ceW efueefKeS: (2)

(ie) 1. Heefjso He{kej metevee kes Devegmeej ke=efleeeB keerefpeS: [4]


i. Gllej efueefKeS: (1)
$eef<e-cegefveeeW keer vepej ceW eesj keer HeefjYee<ee~
ii. Gefele efJekeuHe egvekej Jeekee efHej mes efueefKeS:
cenelcee ieebOeer kee mecemle peerJeveoMe&ve .............. Lee~
(DeLe&-meeHes#e / ece-meeHes#e / kece&-meeHes#e)
2. Deeke=efle HetCe& keerefpeS: (1)

yeeHet keer veerefleeeW keer


GHes#ee kejves kee HeefjCeece

cenelcee ieebOeer DeHevee keece DeHeves neLe mes kejves Hej yeue osles Les~ Jes eleske DeeeceJeemeer mes DeeMee kejles Les
efke Jen DeHeves Mejerj mes mebyebefOele eleske keee&, meHeeF& leke mJeeb kejsiee~ Gvekee kenvee Lee efke pees ece
veneR kejlee nw, Jen HeeHe kejlee nw Deewj HeeHe kee Devve Keelee nw~ $eef<e-cegefveeeW ves kene nw - efyevee ece efkeS
pees Yeespeve kejlee nw, Jen Jemlegle: eesj nw~ cenelcee ieebOeer kee mecemle peerJeveoMe&ve ece-meeHes#e Lee~ Gvekee
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GHes#ee kejves kes HeefjCeece nce Deepe Yeer Yeesie jns nQ~ ve iejeryeer kece nesves ceW Deeleer nw, ve yesjespeieejer Hej
efveeb$eCe nes jne nw Deewj ve DeHejeOeeW keer Je=odefOe nceejs JeMe keer yeele nes jner nw~

3. `ceveg<e kes peerJeve ceW ece kee cenllJe' efJe<ee Hej DeHeves efJeeej 8 mes 10 HebeqkeleeeW ceW efueefKeS~ (2)

369
ke#ee omeJeeR: efnboer ueeskeYeejleer

efJeYeeie 2 Heode 16 Debke


2. (e) HeodeebMe He{kej metevee kes Devegmeej ke=efleeeB keerefpeS: [8]
(1) i. Gej efueefKeS: (1)

efpeo Hetjer ve nesves Hej


ke=<Ce kejsiee

1. _______ 2. _______

ii. HeodeebMe ceW eegkele Mejerj kes oes DebieeW kes veece: (1)
1. 2.

cewee ceQ lees ebo efKeueewvee uewneQ~


Oeewjer kees Hee Heeve ve keefjneQ, yesveer efmej ve iegLewneQ~
ceesefleve ceeue ve OeefjneQ Gj Hej Pebiegueer keb ve uewneQ~
pewnew uees DeYeer Oejveer Hej lesjer ieeso ve SsneQ~
ueeue kenwneQ vebo yeeyee kees lesjes megle ve kenwneQ~
keeve ueee keg kenle pemeesoe oeGefnb veeefnb megvewneQ~
eboe ntB les Deefle megboj legPes veJeue ogunwee yewneQ~
lesjer meeQn cesjer megve cewee neQ Deye ner yeenve pewneQ~
metjoeme meye meKee yejeleer vetleve cebieue iewneQ~

(2) i. mebyebOe Heneevekej ke=efle HetCe& keerefpeS: (1)

pemeesoe
ke=<Ce
efHelee

ii. mener Meyo egvekej Jeekee efHej mes efueefKeS: (1)


1. pemeesoe ke=<Ce kees ogune / ogunve ueeves keer yeele kejleer nw~
2. eerke=<Ce vebo yeeyee kes ueeue / ueeueer kenueeSBies~

(3) i. MeyoeW kes efuebie HeneeefveS: (1)


1. ieeso
2. megle

370
370
yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee : ceee& 2017
ii. efeeeDeeW kes mejue efnboer ceW DeLe& efueefKeS: (1)
1. ve keefjneQ
2. ve SsneQ
(4) GHee&gkele HeodeebMe keer Henueer eej HebeqkeleeeW kee mejue efnboer ceW YeeJeeLe& efueefKeS: (2)

() HeodeebMe He{kej metevee kes Devegmeej ke=efleeeB keerefpeS: [8]


(1) Gllej efueefKeS: (1)
i. osMe keer yeeuekeeW mes ceeBie
1. __________________________________________
2. __________________________________________

ii. ke=efle HetCe& keerefpeS: (1)


pee, efJepee efueKeves kes mLeeve -
pee efJepee

osMe ceeBielee efke Ketve mes jbiee iegueeye oes,


legce Ges efmeHeeefnees! Me$eg kees peJeeye oes,
Petce-Petcekej ceuees egodOe kes iegueeue kees
MetjJeerj yeeuekees!
Leece uees meBYeeuekej osMe keer ceMeeue kees!
otj leke peceerve Hej Meeveoej pee efueKees,
legce efJeMeeue efmebOeg Hej Ketve mes efJepee efueKees,
lees[ oes efHeMeee kes njske peeue kees~
(2) mener efJekeuHe egvekej Jeekee efHej mes efueefKeS: (2)
i. keefJe ves yeeuekeeW kees Leeceves kes efueS kene nw _______
(osMe keer pJeeuee kees / osMe keer peesle kees / osMe keer ceMeeue kees)
ii. Deye efHeMeee kes peeue kees lees[ves keer efpeccesoejer _______
(MetjJeerj yeeuekeeW keer nw / egJekeeW keer nw / keefJe keer nw)
(3) i. HeeebMe ceW eegkele efJeodOe DeLe& kes Meyo efueefKeS: (1)
1. Deemeceeve _______
2. ueIeg _______

ii. HeeebMe ceW DeeS efJejeceefendveeW kes veece efueefKeS: (1)


1. _______
2. _______

(4) GHee&gkele HeeebMe keer Debeflece eej HebeqkeleeeW kee YeeJeeLe& efueefKeS~ (2)

371
ke#ee omeJeeR: efnboer ueeskeYeejleer

efJeYeeie 3 Hetjke Heve 4 Debke


3. (1) mebpeeue HetCe& keerefpeS : (2)

Heefjso ceW eegkele leguemeer kes


efJeefJeOe veece

efnbogmleeve ceW leguemeeroeme Yeer eefmeodOe nQ Deewj leguemeer kee efyejJee Yeer, yeukeer Deiej eeW kenW efke eneB pevepeerJeve ceW leguemeer kee HeewOee
yengle cenllJeHetCe& nw lees Delegeqkele ve nesieer~ DeefOekeebMe efnbot IejeW ceW leguemeer kee HeewOee Heeee peelee nw, efpemekeer efke efm$eeeB Hetpee
kejleer nQ~ eeceerCe ee Deece Yee<ee ceW ueesie Fmes leguemee Yeer kenles nQ~ Fmeer leguemeer kes mebyebOe ceW efJeMes<e yeele en nw efke efnbot Oece& ceW
ner veneR, F&meeF& Oece& ceW Yeer Fmes yengle HeefJe$e ceevee ieee nw~ Debespeer ceW Fmes `yesefmeue' ee `meses[ yesefmeue' eeveer HeefJe$e leguemeer kenles
nQ~ Deewj FmeerefueS HeefJe$elee kee yeesOe kejeves kes efueS Debleje&^ere Jew%eeefveke veecekejCe ceW pees efke uewefve Yee<ee ceW neslee nw, Fmes
`Deesefmecece mewkece' kene ieee nw~ Debespeer kee yesefmeue Meyo eerke Yee<ee kes `yeefmeefuekeesve' Meyo mes JeglHevve ngDee nw efpemekee
DeLe& nw jepemeer~

(2) `Jeve Deew<eefOe kee cenllJe' Hej DeHeves efJeeej efueefKeS~ (2)

efJeYeeie 4 JeekejCe 10 Debke


4. metevee kes Devegmeej ke=efleeeB keerefpeS: [10]
(1) i. Meyo kee Jeekee ceW eeesie keerefpeS: ()
megmeeqppele
ii. DeOeesjsKeebefkele Meyo kee Yeso HeneeefveS: ()
en keee ieesue-ceeue nw?
(2) Jeekee MegodOe kejkes efueefKeS: (1)
DeeHekee efeblee efkeme yeele kee nw~
(3) meneeke efeee eBkej efueefKeS: (1)
JeeCeer mes efce$elee Yeer keer peeleer nw~
(4) eLece leLee odefJeleere esjCeeLe&ke He efueefKeS: (1)
Yetuevee~
(5) i. DeJee kee Jeekee ceW eeesie keerefpeS: (1)
SkeeSke~
ii. DeJee Heneevekej Gmekee Yeso efueefKeS: (1)
GHed! efkeleveer mebHevve nw en ogefveee~
(6) keeue HeefjJele&ve keerefpeS: (2)
efJeveeeke yeeyet kegmeea Hej yew peeles nQ~
HetCe& Yetlekeeue - _______
meeceeve YeefJe<ekeeue - _______
372
372
yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee : ceee& 2017
(7) i. cegneJejs kee DeLe& efueKekej Jeekee ceW eeesie keerefpeS: (1)
ceve ve ueievee~
ii. DeOeesjsKeebefkele JeekeeebMe kes efueS Gefele cegneJejs kee eeve kej Jeekee efHej mes efueefKeS: (1)
(efmej PegkeeS yewvee / Hewj Heke[vee)
jespeer ves DeHeveer ieueleer nesves Hej efHeleepeer mes #ecee eeevee keer~

efJeYeeie 5 jevee efJeYeeie 30 Debke

metevee: DeeJeMekeleevegmeej Heefjso ceW uesKeve DeHesef#ele nw:


5. (1) efvecveefueefKele ceW mes efkemeer Ske He$e kee eeHe leweej keerefpeS: (5)

`DeJebeflekee mHees&dme De@ke[ceer', HebeJeer, veeefMeke odJeeje Deeeesefpele jepe ye@[efcebve eefleeesefielee ceW
meeqcceefuele nesves nsleg efoueerHe/oerHee keguekeCeea, efMeJeepeer jes[, HegCes-400005 mes JeJemLeeHeke kes veece
veece He$e efueKelee/efueKeleer nw~
DeLeJee

megceve/megceble jepes, eYeele jes[, Deewjbieeyeeo mes cee. JeJemLeeHeke, Depeye yegke ef[Hees, veeefMeke kees
He$e efueKekej MeeueesHeeesieer meeefnle keer ceeBie kejles ngS He$e efueKelee/efueKeleer nw~

(2) efvecveefueefKele cegodoeW kes DeeOeej Hej ueieYeie 80 mes 100 MeyoeW ceW keneveer efueKekej Gefele Meer<e&ke oerefpeS: (5)

MesKej Ske ese ue[kee ceeB kes meeLe PeeWHe[er ceW jnvee yejmeele kes efove DeeBOeer Deewj letHeeve Deevee jsue
keer Hejer GKe[ peevee MesKej keer vepej ceW Deevee jsueiee[er Deeves kee mecee nesvee ueeue keceerpe
Heke[kej Hejer Hej Ke[e jnvee jsue kevee eeef$eeeW odJeeje Yeuee-yegje kenvee [^eeJnj kee osKevee
MesKej kes keejCe eeef$eeeW keer peeve yeevee je<^Heefle odJeeje mJeCe& Heoke~

(3) efvecveefueefKele ieodeebMe He{kej HeeBe Ssmes eMve leweej keerefpeS efpevekes Gllej Ske Jeekee ceW neW: (5)

Ssmee ceevee peelee nw efke mebieerle kee eYeeJe Deew<eefOeeeW mes kece veneR nw~ Ske Meue-efeee kes yeeo efkemeer cejerpe ves mebieerle
kes ecelkeej kee JeCe&ve efkeee~ Gmeves yeleeee efke mJeemLe ueeYe kejles mecee, Gmeves mebieerle Ketye megvee~ Jen keYeer-keYeer
FmeceW Flevee Kees peelee Lee efke Jen DeHeveer oo& efveJeejke ieesefueeeB uesvee Yetue peelee Lee~ mebieerle Meebefleoeeke leLee ceOegj
nesvee eeefnS~ keF& yees pevce mes ner yeele veneR kej mekeles DeLeJee peeoe efnue-[gue veneR mekeles~ mebieerle kee Flevee
ye[e eYeeJe nw efke es ueesie yeesueves ueies leLee mebieerle keer leeue Hej Gvekes neLe-Hewj kee efnuevee-[esuevee Meg ngDee~ Fme
leveeJeHetCe& ogefveee ceW mebieerle kes eYeeJe kees vekeej veneR mekeles~

6. (1) efvecveefueefKele cegodoeW kes DeeOeej Hej 60 mes 80 MeyoeW ceW emebie uesKeve keerefpeS: (5)

cew Ske efove Ietceles ngS veoer efkeveejs euee ieee~ JeneB ceQves osKee efke keue-keejKeeveeW mes otef<ele Heeveer es[e pee jne Lee,
ceefnueeSB keHe[s Oees jner LeeR, ueesie ieeef[eeB Oees jns Les, en veoer keer DeJemLee cegPes efoKeeF& oer~ ...........

373
ke#ee omeJeeR: efnboer ueeskeYeejleer

(2) efvecveefueefKele peevekeejer kes DeeOeej Hej ueieYeie 50 mes 60 MeyoeW ceW efJe%eeHeve leweej keerefpeS : (5)

e$eeW kes mebHeke& Helee


ieCeJesMe DeHevee ieCeJesMe Yeb[ej kece oece
Deewjbieeyeeo

efkeeT keHe[e meYeer efJeeeueeeW kes


cepeyetle efmeueeF& ieCeJesMe

(3) efkemeer Ske efJe<ee Hej efveyebOe efueefKeS (ueieYeie 80 mes 100 MeyoeW ceW): (5)
i. efkemeeve keer DeelcekeLee ii. ceveesjbpeve kes DeeOegefveke meeOeve~

374
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yees[& HeMveHe$e : ceee& 2017


mecee: oes Iebs kegue Debke: 40

efJeYeeie 1 ieode

1. (ke) Heefjso He{kej oer ieF& meteveeDeeW kes Devegmeej ke=efleeeB keerefpeS: [6]

(1) mebpeeue HetCe& keerefpeS: 2

yeeueke kees keeves kes yeeo


meeBHe keer efmLeefle

meeBHe ves peekej Gmes metBIee~ yeeueke keer peeve efvekeue ieF& Leer~ meeBHe ves osKee efke yeeueke yengle ner megboj Lee~
Gmekee cegKe Deye Yeer pewmes nBme jne nes~ Gme mecee meeBHe kees yengle ogKe ngDee~ Gme ogKe ceW oes jespe leke Gmekees keg Yeer
veneR metPee~ Jen yeeueke kees eejeW Deesj kegb[ueekeej Iesjkej yewe jne, ve efnuee ve [guee, ceevees Jen ece kes efKeueeHe
yeeueke keer osn kee Henje oslee nes~ peye Mevew: Mevew: yeeueke kes cegBn mes eqmcele neme keer DeeYee efceves ueieer Deewj Mejerj
ieueves ueiee, leye Jen nele meeBHe Yeer JeneB mes ne~
Gme mecee Gmeves eeLe&vee keer efke ns YeieJeeve! cesje penj cegPeceW mes let efvekeeue ues~

(2) (i) Heefjso ceW eegkele meceeveeLeea Meyo efueefKeS: 1

(1) Mejerj =

(2) eceke =

(ii) efuebie Heneevekej efueefKeS: 1

(1) eeLe&vee =

(2) Henje =

(3) `meeBHe keer GHeeesefielee' Hej DeHeves efJeeej ueieYeie 6 mes 8 JeekeeeW ceW efueefKeS~ 2

177
ke#ee omeJeeR: efnboer ueeskeJeeCeer
(Ke) Heefjso He{kej oer ieF& metevee kes Devegmeej ke=efleeeB keerefpeS: [6]

(1) mebpeeue HetCe& keerefpeS: 2

Yeejleere
mebmke=efle keer
efJeMes<eleeSB

uesefkeve Fmekes GHejeble Yeer Yeejleere mebmke=efle ceW mecevJee kee Ske DeveesKee iegCe efJeodeceeve nw~ osMe ceW veeefmleke
Je Deeefmleke, cetefle&Hetpeke Je efJejesOeer, efnbot, cegmeueceeve, F&meeF&, cebefoj, ceeqmpeo Je efieefjpeeIej, Deueie-Deueie Yee<eeDeeW kee
eeesie kejves Jeeues, efHele=melleelceke Je ceele=melleelceke meYeer HeefjJeej efJeodeceeve nQ~ FvnW Yeejleere mebmke=efle ves megboj Heg<HeeW kes
He ceW ceevekej mJeeb kees megiebOe mes YejHetj jbieerve GHeJeve yeveeee nw~ Deueie-Deueie mebeoeeeW kes yeeo Yeer Deveskelee ceW
Skelee Yeejleere mebmke=efle keer meyemes ye[er efJeMes<elee nw, pees meYeer JeeqkeleeeW kees Ske-otmejs kee Deeoj kejvee efmeKeeleer nw~
Yeejleere mebmke=efle mele, veweflekelee, F&ceeveoejer, Deefnbmee kes efJeeejeW kees cenllJe osleer nw, FmeefueS FmeceW DeeOeeeqlcekelee
kes lellJeeW kees DeefOeke cenllJe efoee ieee nw~

(2) (i) Heefjso ceW eegkele efJeodOe DeLe& kes Meyo keer Ske pees[er efueefKeS~ 1

(ii) Heefjso ceW eegkele oes elee egkele Meyo {tB{kej efueefKeS~ 1

(3) `efJeefJeOelee ceW Skelee' Hej ueieYeie 8 mes 10 JeekeeeW ceW DeHeves efJeeej efueefKeS~ 2

efJeYeeie 2 Heode

2. (e) HeodeebMe He{kej oer ieF& metevee kes Devegmeej ke=efleeeB keerefpeS: [5]
(1) mebpeeue HetCe& keerefpeS: 2

keesefkeue keer
efJeMes<eleeSB

keesefkeue Deefle mebgoj efeef[ee nw, mee kenles nQ Deefle yeef{ee nw~
efpeme jbiele kes kegBJej kevneF&, Fmeves Yeer Jen jbiele HeeF&~
DeLeJee peecegve kee jbie pewmes, Fmekee Yeer neslee nw lewmes~
peeW ner ewle ceeme ueielee nw, pee[e DeHeves Iej Yeielee nw~
leeW ner en Deefle ceerer yeeveer, efvele yeesueleer nw jmemeeveer~
Deece ceewj meyekees Deefle Heeje, mele-mele en meye efove ieeleer~

178
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yees[& HeMveHe$e : ceee& 2017
(2) Jeeve HeefjJele&ve keerefpeS: 1
(i) efeef[ee (ii) Deece
(3) `Heee&JejCe j#eCe ceW HebefeeW keer Yetefcekee' efJe<ee Hej DeHeves efJeeej ueieYeie 6 mes 8 JeekeeeW ceW efueefKeS~ 2

() HeodeebMe He{kej oer ieF& metevee kes Devegmeej ke=efleeeB keerefpeS: [5]

(1) mebpeeue HetCe& keerefpeS: 2

leesnej kes
Deeves mes ngS
HeefjJele&ve

veeees, ieeDees, Oetce ceeeDees,


efHej Heeje leesnej Dee ieee~
[iej-[iej ceW nw Gefpeeeueer,
peiej-ceiej Hewueer oerJeeueer~
enue-Henue nw, Kesue-leceeMes,
eceke jner nw cegKe Hej ueeueer~
metjpe-eeBo Glej DeeS peeW,
Gvekees Yeer leesnej Yee ieee~

(2) keefJelee ceW eegkele oes efJejece-efendveeW kes veece efueefKeS~ 1

(3) `osMe kes eefle DeeHekes kele&Je' Hej DeHeves efJeeej ueieYeie 6 mes 8 JeekeeeW ceW efueefKeS~ 2

efJeYeeie 3 JeekejCe
3. metevee kes Devegmeej ke=efleeeB keerefpeS: [6]
(1) ceeveke Jele&veer kes Devegmeej Gefele Meyo egvekej efueefKeS: 1
(i) ceefmle<ke, cekeefme<ke, cemeefleMke, cemleerMke
(ii) mecegKe, meccegKe, meccetKe, mececegKe

(2) efvecveefueefKele DeJee kee DeLe&HetCe& Jeekee ceW eeesie keerefpeS: 1


Heewjve
(3) (i) keeue HeneeefveS: 1
ceQ yengle yeerceej He[e~
(ii) meteveevegmeej keeue HeefjJele&ve keerefpeS: 1
Gvekes efHelee ves JeJemeee efkeee~ (meeceeve Jele&ceeve keeue)
179
ke#ee omeJeeR: efnboer ueeskeJeeCeer
(4) (i) DeOeesjsKeebefkele JeekeeebMe kes efueS Gefele cegneJejs kee eeesie kejkes Jeekee efHej mes efueefKeS: 1
yeme ogIe&vee ceW keF& ueesie Ketve mes ueLe-HeLe nes ieS Les~
(oce lees[vee, uentuegneve nesvee)

(ii) cegneJejs kee DeLe& efueKekej Jeekee ceW eeesie keerefpeS: 1

peg peevee

efJeYeeie 4 jevee efJeYeeie [12]

4. (1) efvecveefueefKele peekeejer kes DeeOeej Hej He$e kee eeHe leweej keerefpeS: 4
efceefLeue/efceefLeuee Heeerue, 10, Jejo meesmeeeer neF&mketue, ce. ieebOeer jes[, efMej mes e$e eefleefveefOe kes veeles DeHeveer
HeeMeeuee kes efueS Kesue-meeceeer keer ceeBie kejles ngS cee. JeJemLeeHeke, eieefle mHees&dme, keQHe, HegCes kees He$e
efueKelee/efueKeleer nw~

(2) mejue efnboer ceW DevegJeeo keerefpeS: 4


(i) Trees are our best friends.
(ii) Something is better than nothing.
(iii) Experience is the best teacher.
(iv) I am thankful for everyone.

(3) Heefjso He{kej Gme Hej eej Ssmes eMve leweej keerefpeS efpevekes Gllej Ske-Ske Jeekee ceW neW: 4

DeeegJexo YeejleJe<e& ceW {eF& npeej Je<eeX mes Yeer Henues mes eeefuele nw~ Fmekes DeefOekeebMe meeefnle mebmke=le Yee<ee ceW GHeueyOe
nQ~ Dele: Deece pevelee keer megefJeOee kes efueS mLeeveere leLee HeefMeceer Yee<eeDeeW ceW en %eeve osves kee eeeme nes jne nw~
eodeefHe Debespeer Meemeve kes oewjeve DeeegJexo DeHeveer ieefjcee Kees egkee Lee leLeeefHe yeermeJeeR Meleeyoer kes Deble ceW DeeegJexo Deepe
efHej ogefveee Yej ceW Hegve: yengegle Deewj yengeefe&le nw~
HeewOeeW kee GHeeesie Hetjer ogefveee keer HejbHejeiele efeefkelmee HeodOeefleeeW kee DeeOeej nw~ DeeegJes&o kees jepekeere ceevelee eeHle
nw~ DeeegJexo ueieYeie Dee npeej JevemHeefleeeB Deew<eefOeeeB yeveeves kes efueS eeesie kejlee nw~ Yeejle ceW HeQleerme mes mellej npeej
efkemceeW kes HeewOes HeeS peeles nQ~

180
180
BoardQuestionPaper:March2017

BOARDQUESTIONPAPER :MARCH2017
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40
Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Numbers on the right indicate full marks.
iii. Question 1-5 are based on History and Question 6-9 are based on Political Science.

Q.1. (A) Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate alternatives from those
given in the brackets: [3]
1. Portuguese King _______ motivated the navigation.
(William, Henry, Nicholas)
2. Triple Alliance Agreement was signed between Germany, Austria and _______.
(France, Japan, Italy)
3. Upto 18th century, _______ was regarded as a dark continent.
(Asia, Africa, America)
(B) Match the correct pairs of Columns A and B: [3]
Column A Column B
1. Scientist Godard a. Fascist Party
2. Adolf Hitler b. March to the Royal palace in
St. Petersburg
3. Father Gapon c. Nazi Party
d. Father of Missiles Science
Q.2. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words each (any two): [4]
1. The discovery of interior part of Africa did not take place, why?
2. Why did the European countries increase weapons and ammunities?
3. What were the objectives of the League of Nations?
Q.3. Give reasons for the following statements in 25 to 30 words each (any two): [4]
1. The Portuguese couldnt set up their empire in India.
2. The condition of common people and workers in Russia was a miserable one.
3. The democratic governments in Europe started to collapse after the First World War.
Q.4. Answer the following questions in 30 to 40 words each (any two): [6]
1. Give the detailed information about the UNO before its foundation.
2. How did Hitler acquire power in Germany?
3. What are disadvantages of globalization?
Q.5. Answer the following questions in 60 to 80 words each (any two): [8]
1. Write about the constructive effects of Imperialism.
2. What were the contribution of extremists and moderates in Indias freedom movement?
3. Explain the causes of Cold War.
Q.6. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from those given in the bracket: [3]
1. India has _______ form of Democracy.
(direct, indirect, presidential, mixed)
2. _______ is a country homogeneous in the case of language.
(India, Switzerland, China, Sri Lanka)
3. Extreme _______ endangers democracy. (inequality, vigilance, unity, tolerance)
185
Std.X:HistoryandPoliticalScience
Q.7. Answer the following questions in one sentence each (any three): [3]
1. When is referendum adopted?
2. What is regional inequality?
3. What is the main aim of the Political Party?
4. Name any two religions existing in India.
5. State any one difference between ruling party and the opposition party.
Q.8. State whether the following statements are True or False, with reasons (any two): [4]
1. Nationalist Congress Party is regional party.
2. Caste system is like a hierarchy.
3. There are no restrictions on citizens holding arms in US.
Q.9. Answer any one of the following questions in 25 to 30 words: [2]
1. What are the different ways of having peoples participation in Democracy?
2. Explain the dual nature of the questions before democracy.

186
yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee : ceee& 2017

yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee : ceee& 2017


JesU: 3 leeme SketCe iegCe: 80

efJeYeeie 1 ieoe
ke=.1.(De) Keeueerue GleeNeeee DeeOeejs efouesuee metevesvegmeej ke=leer keje.
1. eewke HetCe& keje:
i. uesKekeebveer ceeveuesuee Keeueerue eleerkeebes nslet mHe< keje: [1]
De. ejKee

ye. Pee[t

ii. keejCe efuene. [1]


uesKekeebveer Heekes G[Jeues veenerle keejCe __________
`Meejerefjke eceebvee' eefle<e efceUeJeer cnCetve cenelcee ieebOeerpeeRveer `ejKee' ns leees eleerke ceeveues nesles. eceecegUs eceeefle<e
mLeeHeve nesTve, DeeefLe&ke efJe<ecelee mebHesue DeMeer leebeer YeeJevee nesleer. lemese leebes `meeceeefpeke efJe<ecelee' mebHeJeCeejs eebleeres ogmejs
eleerke nesles `Pee[t!' cnCetve Deecner meJe& efceUtve meb[eme meHeeF&Heemetve meHeeF&eer meejer keeces kejle neslees. Keeoer JeeHejlee neslees. Keeoer Je
mJeosMeer ns peerJeveJele nesles, cnCetve keOeer Heekesner G[Jeues veenerle, keejCe lesner leeJesUer efJeosMeere nesles. keeieo pees[Ceemeeer keOeer
eeCeer JeeHejueer veener, keejCe leerner HejosMeere Demes. leeSsJepeer Deecner yeeYeUeres kees JeeHejle neslees. mebHetCe& peerJeve keceerle keceer
iejpeebJej DeeOeeefjle DemeeJes, DeMeer efMekeJeCe efceUeueecegUs Deecnebuee keOeerner `ebieUJeeoe' ee mHeMe& Peeuee veener. ee meJeecegUs Ske
DeeieUerJesieUer mJeeelle ieefjyeer GHeYeesieueer. efleee Deevebo keeseJeOeer HeeebHes#eener meJee&Lee&ves es< Je ceese neslee. ieeseemegodOee keOeer
nej-peerle ee YeeJevesves KesUuees veener, keejCe lee egjMeerle KesU keceer Je ieesee efpebkeCeeeer YeeJeveee DeefOeke Demeles.

2. eleskeer Skee Jeekeeele Gllejs efuene.


i. uesKekeebvee yeeueHeCeer keesCeleer efMekeJeCe efceUeueer? [1]
ii. uesKekeebee mJeeelle ieefjyeeree Deevebo kemee neslee? [1]

3. JeekejCe :
i. DeOeesjsefKele Meyoebeer peele DeesUKee. [1]
ceer Jeeeves ueneve neslees, cnCetve Heke[uee iesuees veener.
De. ceer
ye. cnCetve

ii. DeOeesjsefKele Meyoees Jeeve yeouetve Jeekee Hegvne efuene Je yeoueuesuee Meyoees Jeeve meebiee. [1]
meesnceves KesUele ieesee efpebkeuee.

Jeekee Jeeve
4. ceePes cele [2]
Heefjsoeee DeeOeejs uesKekeebes legcnebuee peeCeJeuesues iegCe legceee Meyoeble efuene.
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Fellee oneJeer: cejeer JeeeveHee
(ye) Keeueerue GleeNeeee DeeOeejs efouesuee metevesvegmeej ke=leer keje.
1. Keeueerue Ievesee HeefjCeece efuene:
Ievee HeefjCeece
i. MesJeer Skeoeeer Deb[er Peeueer : __________________ [1]
ii. JeeUele veeieerCe jenle vemeleer lej : __________________ [1]

Skee DeeF&veb Heesjebvee yeepetuee IesTve meebefieleueb, Demet os leeuee, keejCe lees Deens cnCetve ceeCemeb efHejkele veenerle DeeHeuee
JeeUeke[s. veenerlej SjJeer ceeCemeeee Jeele Heesjebveer ueeLee ceeve keOeere Hee[tve ekeueb Demeleb DeeHeueb efee JeeU. ogmejer efleuee
cnCeeueer, `DeeefCe lees lees veener, leer Deens DeeefCe leer Deeueere FLeb yeeUbleHeCeeuee.'
meieUeebveee ceie veeefieCeerefJe<eeer Jeet ueeieues esce. DeeHeueer cegueb obiee ke ueeieueer, keer lee leebvee cnCele, `legcner yeensj
peeTve keje obiee, leer PeesHeueere Deellee.' lee meieUee cegbieebveer efleee esCeeNee Deb[eebmeeer peceerve keve sJeueer DeeCeKeer YegmeYegMeerle,
Deieoer F&ee keeHemeeeer ieeoere peMeer. veeieerCe He[ueeHe[uee cegbieebes meieUs mebJeeo Sskele nesleer; HeCe Hees ceess Peeueeves efleuee
yeesueJele vemes. MesJeer Skeoeeer Deb[er Peeueer. cegbieebee Heesjebveer leer veJeueeF& Heneeuee ieoea kesueer. keener efoJemeebveblej lej leeletve efHeuuesner
Deeueer yeensj.
2. kee les efuene
i. cegbieebveer peceerve YegmeYegMeerle keve sJeueer, keejCe __________ [1]
ii. veeefieCeeruee yeesueJele vemes, keejCe __________ [1]

3. JeekejCe :
i. Keeueerue Meyoebmeeer GleeNeele Deeuesueer efJeMes<eCes MeesOetve efuene. [1]
De. Heesjs ye. JeeU

ii. Keeueerue Meyoebee elee ueeJetve leeej nesCeejs Meyo efuene. [1]
pemes veJeue : veJeueeF&
lemes eHeU :
Oeer :
4. ceePes cele : [2]
cebgiee DeeefCe veeefieCeeree HejmHejmebyebOeeletve legcner keesCeleer efMekeJeCe Ieeue leer 8 - 10 Jeekeeeble legceee Meyoeble efuene.
(ke) Keeueerue GleeNeeee DeeOeejs efouesuee metevesvegmeej ke=leer keje.
1. efjkeecee eewkeerle GleeNeeleerue eesie Meyo MeesOetve efuene : [1]
i. OeyeOeyeemeejKeer :
ii. cenemeeiejele efJemeefpe&le Peeuesueer iees< :
2. ceeveJeer mJeYeeJeele Gelee DeeCeCeejs Ieke : [1]
i. ii.

egJekeebeer ceves OeyeOeyeemeejKeer Demeleele. ceesee GbeerJeve OeyeOeyeeee HeeCeeee eHeele yesYeeveHeCes Keeueer PesHeeJelees, mJewjHeCes
meJe&$e Hemejlees DeeefCe keenerner meeOe ve kejlee efJeMeeue cenemeeiejeble DeeHeueer Deeqmcelee efJemeefpe&le keve ekelees; Hejbleg ee egJekeebee
ceeveefmeke Tpexuee efMemleeree yeebOe Ieeuetve efleee meogHeeesiener kejlee esF&ue. kele=&lJe Demeuese Heeefnpes Je les eiener Peeues Heeefnpes; Hejbleg
leeeer peeCeerJe ceer ns kesues DeMee mJeHeele nesT ueeieueer, keer Denbkeej, DeefYeceeve ns menpe GlHevve nesleele Je yeUeJeleele. leecegUs
DeeHeuee mJeYeeJeele Gelee esles.
3. `efJeoeeLeeee peerJeveele efMemleeruee cenllJe Demeeeueee nJes' ns efJeOeeve legceee celes meesoenjCe mHe< keje. [2]

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efJeYeeie 2 Heoe
ke=.2.(De) Keeueerue Heoeeee DeeOeejs efouesuee metevesvegmeej ke=leer keje.
1. eesie pees[ee ueeJee. [2]

`De' ie `ye' ie
i. efvejmeuee MeerCe 1. mebleoMe&ve
ii. meesefveeeee efoJeme 2. efoJeeUer omeje
iii. peerJee megKe 3. mebleejCe oMe&ve
iv. meble Iejer esCes 4. ceensj YesCes

`De' ie `ye' ie
i. ____________ 1. ____________
ii. ____________ 2. ____________
iii. ____________ 3. ____________
iv. ____________ 4. ____________

Deeefpe meesefveeeee efoJeme ~ <eR osefKeueW mebleebme~~1~~


peerJee megKe PeeueW ~ ceePeW ceensj YesueW~~2~~
DeJeIee efvejmeuee MeerCe ~ osKeleeb mebleejCe~~3~~
Deeefpe efoJeeUer omeje ~ mesvee cnCes Deeues Ieje~~4~~
2. eleskeer Skee Jeekeeele Gllejs efuene.
i. meble mesvee cenejepe eebee celes `meesefveeeee efoJeme' keesCelee? [1]
ii. Keeueerue HeoeHebkeleeree mejU DeLe& efuene. [1]
DeJeIee efvejmeuee MeerCe~
3. i. eesie Heee&e efveJe[tve Jeekee HetCe& keje.
De. emlegle Heoeeee keeJeekeej _______ Deens. [1/2]
(Yee[ / DeYebie / Mueeske / HeesJee[e)
ye. meble mesvee cenejepe ns _______ cenejepe eebes mecekeeueerve meble nesles. [1/2]
(meble jeceoeme / meble legkeejece / meble %eevesMJej / meble SkeveeLe)
ii. eleskeer Skee Meyoele Gllejs efuene.
De. mesvee cenejepeebes Heo meceeefJe< Demeuesuee efMeKeebee ebLe : [1/2]
ye. mesvee cenejepe eebee veeJeeJej Demeuesueer DeYebiemebKee : [1/2]
4. `Deeefpe efoJeeUer omeje~ mesvee cnCes Deeues Ieje~~' ee DeesUerletve Jekele Peeuesueer meble mesvee cenejepe eebeer YeeJevee
legceee Meyoeble mHe< keje. [2]

(ye) Keeueerue Heoeeee DeeOeejs efouesuee metevesvegmeej ke=leer keje.


1. JeieeakejCe keje. [2]
eflejbiee, Yee<ee, eeCeJeeet, efnceeuee.
Skelee oMe&JeCeejs Ieke efJeefYeVelee oMe&JeCeejs Ieke

285
Fellee oneJeer: cejeer JeeeveHee

FbOevetes jbie JesieUs, leefjner leebeer Ske keceeve


efJeefYevvelesleefn osMe ieelemes SkelJeees ieerle ceneve ~~Oe=~~
eeble JesieUs, He JesieUs
JeeCeer, Hetpee, JesMe efvejeUs
oeeceOegveer Deecegee Jeens eeCeJeeegee Peesle meceeve ~~1~~
veYeer He[He[s Gbe eflejbiee
ceveele iebiee, efnceveie jebiee
eb, mete& Deved FLeueer ceeleer eebvee Deceges ueeKe eCeece ~~2~~

2. efouesuee HeoeHebkeleeree mejU DeLe& efuene. [2]


veYeer He[He[s Gbe eflejbiee
ceveele iebiee, efnceveie jebiee
3. veeJes efuene:
i. keJeefe$eer DeeMues<ee cenepeve eebes kegceejkeLeemeben: [1]

De.
ye.

ii. keJeefe$eeruee `Glke=< yeeuemeeefnlekeej' Hegjmkeej osCeejer mebmLee : [1]

4. keefJelesleerue SkelJeeee YeeJe legceee Meyoeble mHe< keje. [2]

efJeYeeie 3 mLetueJeeeve
ke=.3. keesCeleener oesve ke=leer mees[Jee. [4]
1. mJeeleb$e eUJeUerleerue eeflemejkeejeyeodoueeer ceeefnleer Keeueerue cegodoeebvee Oeve legceee Meyoeble efuene:
i. meMem$e oue
ii. Meeblelee Je Sskee
2. efHee efuene :
i. keesuneHetjes ueeskepeerJeve
ii. jlveeefiejer ieeJeeeer JewefMe<es
3. pegF& Je efeveej eebvee Yew peeotieejeves efouesuee DevegYeJe legceee Meyoeble efuene.
efJeYeeie 4 JeekejCe
ke=.4.(De) meceeme :
1. Keeueerue pees[eebceOetve egkeereer pees[er DeesUKee Je leer pees[er yejesyej keve Hegvne efuene: [1]
i. efJeeroeb[t Flejslej odJebodJe meceeme ii. HebeHeeUs odefJeiet meceeme
iii. iegefMe<e JewkeefuHeke odJebodJe meceeme
egkeereer pees[er yejesyej pees[er

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yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee : ceee& 2017
2. Keeueerue Jeekeeeleerue DeOeesjsefKele Meyoebee meceeme DeesUKetve efuene: [1]
i. YeepeerHeeuee IesTve yeeyee Iejer Deeues.

YeepeerHeeuee meceemeees veeJe

ii. Dee@keesyej ceefnveeleerue Heefnuee meHleen `mJelee meHleen' cnCetve HeeUuee peelees.
meHleen meceemeees veeJe

(ye) Jeekee HeefjJele&ve :


kebmeeleerue metevesvegmeej Jeekeeeble yeoue keje.
1. menueerle KetHe cepee kesueer Heeefnpes. (Dee%eeLeea keje.) [1]

2. kesJe{b efJeje mebieerle Deens ee HeCe&jepeerle ! (efJeOeeveeLeea Jeekee keje.) [1]

(ke) MeyomebHelleer :
1. Keeueerue Meyoebes efYevve DeLe& efuene. [1]

ceeve

2. ieele ve yemeCeeje Meyo DeesUKetve efuene : [1]


i. Heg<He, megceve, le, kegmegce :

ii. efce$e, jJeer, Yeemkej, MeMeer :

([) efJejeceefevns :
efJejeceefevns Je leebeer veeJes eebee eesie pees[ee ueeJee. [1]

`De' `ye'
1. mJeuHeefJejece i. !
2. DeOe&efJejece ii. ,
iii. ;

(F) uesKeveefveeceebvegmeej uesKeve :


Keeueerue Jeekee uesKeveefveeceebvegmeej efuene. [1]
veermeie& DeeHeCentve legceeeMeer yeesueg ueeielees.
(He) Jeekedeeej :
efouesuee Jeekedeeejebee leeKeeueer efouesuee Jeekeeeble eesie efkeeCeer GHeeesie keve leer Jeekees Hegvne efuene. [2]
(mebeej kejCes, ceesnve peeCes, Peieceietve GCes)
1. efoJeeUerle efoJeebveer JeeleeJejCeele ekeeMe Hemejuee.
2. efnjJee HeCe&jepeerves Heefjmej Heguetve Deeuee.

287
Fellee oneJeer: cejeer JeeeveHee

efJeYeeie 5 GHeeesefpele uesKeve


ke=.5.(De)
1. He$euesKeve : [5]
Keeueerue yeeleceer Jeeetve efouesuee metevesvegmeej ke=leer keje:

owefveke Je=lleHe$e
Deeceee Jeelee&njeke[tve

meeJe&peefveke yeeieses megMeesefYekejCe


mLeeefveke veiejmesJekeebee Heg{ekeejeves keNne[ esLeerue ceOeJeleea Jemleerleerue
yeeieses megMeesefYekejCe kejCeele Deeues. Deveske ekeejeer HeguePee[s Je
eer[emeeefnle eebveer Heefjmejees He yeouetve iesues.
Heefjmejeleerue veeieefjkeebveer cee. veiejmesJekeebvee OeveJeeo efoues.

efJeoeeLeea eefleefveOeer ee veeleeves

MeeUsee yeeieses megMeesefYekejCe kejCeemeeer yeeiesleerue HeguePee[s eebee mebyebOeeree


efkebJee ceeefnleerHe$ekeeeer ceeieCeer kejCeejs He$e yeeiesee
ceeie&oMe&ve kejCeeyeeyele cee. veiejmesJekeebvee
efJevebleer kejCeejs He$e efuene. cee. JeJemLeeHekeebvee efuene.

2. keLeeuesKeve (Meyoceee&oe 80 les 100) [5]


Keeueerue Meyo iegbHetve Ske eveMeer keLee leeej keje. keLesuee Meer<e&ke oee.
Iej, eercebleer, cew$eer, ceole.

3. ieoe Deekeueve : [5]


Keeueerue Gleeje Jeeetve leeJej Heee eMve Demes leeej keje, keer peebeer Gllejs eleskeer Skee Jeekeeele esleerue.

peieele meJe&$e ueeskemebKee DeeefCe oj[esF& Jemletbee JeeHej Deved mesJeebee GHeeesie nee iees<er Jesieeves Jee{le Deensle. leecegUs
JeeHeke eceeCeele eot<eCe Jee{le Deens. nee eot<eCeecegUs He=LJeeree meJe& jefnJeeMeebvee Deveske ekeejs Je Deveske ceeieeveer eemeCeeje
Oeeskeener ceese Deens. lees keceer kejCeemeeer HeeJeues GeueCes ns ceeveJeees cenllJeees kele&Je Deens. eleske ceeCemeeves
eot<eCeeefJeodOeee ue{eele menYeeieer Jneeuee nJes, veenerlej ceespekes ueeske kejle Demeuesues meJe& Gheee efve<HeU jleerue. eemeeer
Je=lleHe$eeHeemetve otjoMe&veHeele meJe& eefmeodOeer ceeOeceebee GHeeesie kejeeuee nJee. eleskeeee ceveele eot<eCeemebyebOeer peeie=leer efvecee&Ce nesCes
DeeJeMeke Deens. ceeveJepeeleeruee eot<eCeHeer Keesue ojerle He[CeeHeemetve JeeeJeCeemeeer Heeje keceer JesU DeeHeuee neleele jeefnuee
Deens - Demes meebietve Meem$e%e peCet meJeevee Oeeskeeeee keboeruee oeKeJele Deensle.

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yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee : ceee& 2017
(ye) Keeueerue uesKeveekeejebHewkeer keesCeleener oesve ke=leer mees[Jee (3 Hewkeer 2): [10]
1. mebJeeouesKeve (Meyoceee&oe 60 les 80) :

lJeje keje. lJeje keje ........

GvneUeele ceewpecemleereer ueeuet


efvemeie&JesOe mebmLesleHex
meeiejoMe&ve
ceespekeee peeiee
Hekele 2000 `
efMeuueke

JesU : me. 9 les 5 mebHeke& veeWoCeer Dee@efHeme `efvemeie&JesOe'


Jejerue efveJesove Jeeetve legcner DeeefCe legceee Jeie&efce$e/Jeie&cew$eerCe eebeeceOes Ie[uesuee mebJeeo efuene.
2. peeefnjele uesKeve :
Keeueerue Meyoebee DeeOeej IesTve Deeke<e&ke peeefnjele leeej keje:
ketue-ketue ceeHeke oj

DeeF&meeerce Heeue&j
b[e, b[e ojHe$eke
DeemJeeo
3. meejebMe uesKeve :
Keeueerue GleeNeeee Ske le=leereebMe SJe{e meejebMe legceee Meyoeble efuene.
ceeCemeees peerJeve cnCepes efJeefJeOe ekeejee DevegYeJeebeer meeKeUer Demeles. pee#eCeer leeee pevce neslees, lee#eCeere nee
meeKeUereer iegbHeCe nesT ueeieles. ns DevegYeJe pemes Meejerefjke lemese yeewodefOeke DeeefCe YeeJeefveke Demeleele. Demes efJeefJeOe mJeHeees
DevegYeJe DeveskeefJeOe meboYee&letve SkeceskeebJej eefleefeee kejle kejle mebefcee nesleele DeeefCe leebee eYeeJeeves ceeCemeees JeeqkelecellJe
Ie[le Demeles. keener DevegYeJe peerJeveele meenefpekeHeCes esleele; HeCe keener DevegYeJe DeeHeuee Fsves, DeeHeuee efpe%eemesee Dees{ercegUs
IesCeeeer eJe=lleer ceeCemeele Demeles. ns meJe& DevegYeJe ceeCemeees Ske ekeejes menpeefMe#eCe kejle Demeleele, leeee JeeqkelecellJeeuee
Deekeej osle Demeleele; cee$e ns efMe#eCe yejsemes DeJeJeefmLele Demeles. DevegYeJeebee GHeeesie peeCeerJeHetJe&ke keve DeeHeues JeeqkelecellJe
DeefOeke meceleesue, DeefOeke mebHevve kemes kejeJes ns ceenerle vemesue, lej efkeleerlejer cenllJeees DevegYeJe Jeeee peeleele, cnCetve DevegYeJeebeer
eesie He[leeUCeer keve, eesie jevee keve, meceleesue JeeqkelecellJe Ie[JeCeeeer JeJemLee kejCes ns megmebmke=le meceepeees kele&Je
Demeles. lee JeJemLesuee DeeHeCe `efMe#eCeJeJemLee' cnCelees.
(ke) Keeueerue uesKeveekeejebHewkeer keesCeleerner Ske ke=leer mees[Jee (3 Hewkeer 1) (Meyoceee&oe 80 les 100): [5]
1. ceePee MeeUsleerue mvesnmebcesueve:
Keeueerue cegodos ue#eele IesTve Jejerue efJe<eeeJej uesKeve keje.
jebieesUer / efe$ekeuee eoMe&ve Heeefjleesef<eke efJelejCe
mvesnmebcesueve
ecegKe HeengCes Je leebes Yee<eCe meebmke=efleke keee&ece

289
Fellee oneJeer: cejeer JeeeveHee
2. ceer efe$ekeej Peeuees lej.......
efe$e kee{Ceeee bo efvemeiee&eer efe$e

ceer efe$ekeej Peeuees lej...


peeefnjele Je iegbes
eoMe&ve ceeie&oMe&ve

keewlegke Je ye#eerme keewMeueeeHleer


Jejerue cegodos ue#eele IesTve `ceer efe$ekeej Peeuees lej.....' ee efJe<eeeJej uesKeve keje.
3. DeelcekeLeve:
Keeueerue Iekeees DeelcekeLeve efuene:

mewefveke

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yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee : ceee& 2017


mecee: 3 nesje$eeced~ iegCee: 80
metevee:
i. meJee&meg ke=efle<eg Jeekeeeveeb HegveuexKeveced DeeJeMekeced~
ii. eLeemeteveb Deekeueveke=lee: JeekejCeke=lee: DeejsefKeleJee:~
iii. Deeke=leerveeced DeeuesKeveb ceefmeuesKevee kele&Jeced~

eLece: efJeYeeie: ieeced~


(DeJeyeesOeveced, MeyomecHeefe:, He=LekekejCeced)
1.De. ieeebMeb HeeflJee efveefo&<e: ke=leer: kegle~ [7]
De.1. DeJeyeesOeveced~ (kesefHe 2 ke=leer kegle) (1)
i. Gefeleb keejCeb efelJee Jeekeeb Hegveefue&Kele~
yeeuevejsvme nmleeled cetefle&: Heeflelee~ ele: lesve _______.
nmles cetefle&: meceied ve Oe=lee~ / yeeefuekee DeMJeceeiee&od otjerke=lee~
ii. ke: keb Jeoefle?
Jelme vejsv, efJejce Meeskeeled~ (1)
iii. Jeekeeb Hegveefue&efKelJee meleb Jee Demeleefceefle efueKele~
vejsvsCe eerlee cetefle&: ie=ns Yeivee~ (1)

efpe%eemeg: efJeeejMeerue: yeeuevejsv: meowJe efevleveceive: Deemeerled~ Skeoe cee$eeefo<: ogiee&osJee: cetefle eerlJee me ie=nceeieled~
ogiee&HetpeeceneslmeJe: veece MeeqkeleHetpeveefceefle me peeveeefle mce~ ie=nb efveJele&ceeve: me: Mekeles: mJeHeefevleves ceiveesYeJeled~ Dekemceeled
leme efJeeejceeuee KeefC[lee legjieHeoeveeb jJesCe~ lesve <b eled ceC[ueeefOekeeefjCe: Deeeeveb ceeiex Jesiesve OeeJeefle Fefle~ mJemebj#eCeee
me ceeiee&od otjb ievlegb eeelele~
menmee lesve <b eled keeeve yeeefuekee ceeiex Kesueves ceiveeefmle~ mee DeeeeveeieceveefJe<ees ve peeveeefle~ meJesieced Deeeeveb lemee: ke=les
eceeevecesJe~ leodefJeueeskee vejsvme nmleeod cetefle&: Heeflelee~ lesve OeeefJelJee Peefefle mee yeeefuekee Deeceeiee&od otjerke=lee lemee: cee$es
e eoee~ lemee: cee$ee DeegHetCe&veeveeYeeb lemcew DeeMeerJe&eveb oeced~
eoe me: ie=nceeiele: leoe lesve %eeleb eled leme nmleeled eglee cetefle&: le$ewJe ceeiex Yeivee Jele&les~ DeelceeveceHejeefOeveb celJee me cee$es
meJe&cekeLeeled~ leoe cee$eeskeleb Jelme vejsv, efJejce Meeskeeled~ eeefHe lJeee cetlex: Hetpee ve ke=lee leLeeefHe yeeefuekeeee: meeneeb
ke=lJee, yeeefuekeeHeMeeqkeleosJeleeee: SJe Hetpeveb ke=leced~ Oevee mee ceelee Oevee yeeuevejsv:~
De.2. Meyo%eevece~ (kee: DeefHe 3 ke=leer: kegle~)
i. meefvOefJeenb kegle~ (1)
eceeevecesJe = _______ +_______ ~
ii. mecetnslejb Heob efevegle~ (1)
1. efJeeejMeerue:, ceC[ueeefOekeeefjCe:, efevleveceive:~ 2. KeefC[lee, Yeivee, eglee~
iii. ceet<eele: Gefeleb efJeMes<eCeb efelJee cesueveb kegle~ (1)

efJeMes<eCeced efJeMes<eced
_______ yeeuevejsv:~
_______ ceelee~
(efJeeejceeuee, Oevee, ogiee&osJeer, efpe%eemeg:)
iv. ieeebMes Deeieles HetJe&keeueJeeeke-OeelegmeeefOele-lJeevle-DeJees _______, _______ ~ (1)

259
Std.X:SanskritMandakini
De.3. mJeceleekeveced: (2)
ceeOeceYee<eee 30/40 Meyow: mJeceleb efueKele~
meeceleb yeeefuekeeHeMeeqkeleosJeleeee: Hetpeveced DeeJeMekeced~
ye. ieeebMe HeeflJee efveefo&<e: ke=leer: kegle~ [7]
ye.1. DeJeyeesOeveced~ (kesefHe 2 ke=leer kegle) (1)
i. Gefeleb keejCeb efelJee Jeekeeb Hegveefue&Kele~
uesjefmeee ve kesveeefHe meceentle:~ ele: _______ ~
(pegiegHmeekejced DeYeb e leme oMe&veced~ / eeces leme Heefjee: ve Deemeerled~)
ii. HetCe&Jeekeesve Gejb efueKele~ (1)
uesjefmeee meJez: men keLeced Deeejefle mce?
iii. Jeekeeb Hegveefue&efKelJee meleb Jee Demeleefceefle efueKele~ (1)
uesjefmeee mJemenkeeefjefYe: men meceerHeJeefle&veb kee_eve eeceb iele:~
Hegje eoe efcePeespevee: ieCeeved ke=lJee Jemevle: leoe les<eeceskeme ieCeme ecegKe Deemeerled uesjefmeeeveecee~ DeleerJe oeeueg: me ieCeecegKe:
meJez: men meceYeeJesve Deeejefle mce~ OeveJeeeb oeefjbe JeeieCeefelJee me peveeveeb meoeleee meeOegleee Jee les<eeb ceenelceb efveefeveesefle
mce~
keoeefeled me: mJemenkeeefjefYe: men otjJeefle&veb kebeve eeceb iele:~ lelHetJe keoeefHe me le$e ve ieleJeeved~ eeceeJesMeeled eeked uesjefmeee
Deelceeveb keMeeIeelew: JeefCeleb ke=leJeeved~ kemeefeoes<eOes: Dejmeme efJeuesHeveceefHe mJeMejerjs lesve ke=leb elemleme Mejerjcegtveb
Henerveb iCeefceJe e oerveb mecepeeele~ lemeesHeefj lesve ce=efekeeefHe efueHlee ele: me oervelejesMele~ leoveg me menkeeefjefYe: men leb
eeceb eefJeMe ceOeeleg<HeLeb eele:~ le$e les meJex ceeiex mecegHeeefJeMeved~ le$emLee eeceJeeefmeve SleeJeosJe peeveefvle eoeielee pevee:
Keelekeerlex: uesjefmeeecenesoeme peveHeole: Jele&vles Hejb ve keesefHe peeveeefle mce les<eg kelece: uesjefmeee Fefle~
uesjefmeeemeefnlee esves pevee Deemeved les eeceJeeefmeefYepe&vew: mJeie=nb YeespeveeLe&ceentlee:~ yengvee DeeefleLesve ve=leieerleJeeovewe melke=lee:~
Hejb uesjefmeee ve kesveeefHe meceentle: eleesleerJe pegiegHmeekejceYeb e leme oMe&veced~ lesve ve keesefHe leb mJeie=nb veslegb cevemekejesled~

ye.2. Meyo%eeveced~ (kee: DeefHe 3 ke=leer: kegle~)


i. meefvOefJeenb kegle~ (1)
eleesleerJe = _______ +_______ ~
ii. ieeebMele: efJeueesceMeyoew efelJee efueKele~ (1)
1. etj: _______ ~ 2. Heeeled _______ ~
iii. ceet<eele: Gefeleb efJeMes<eCeb efelJee cesueveb kegle~ (1)

efJeMes<eCeced efJeMes<eced
_______ uesjefmeee~
_______ Mejerjced~
(Henerveb, efueHlee, ieCeecegKe: keCeeHejew)
iv. ieeebMes Deeieles meHlecevleefJeYeeqkeleHeos efueKele~ _______, _______ ~ (1)

ye.3. He=LekekejCeced~ (2)


Ieveeeceevegmeejb Jeekeeeefve Hegveefue&Kele~
i. uesjefmeeecenesoeme oMe&veb pegiegHmeekejceYeced~
ii. uesjefmeee ce=efekeeee: uesHeveb ke=leJeeved~
iii. uesjefmeee De*diejmeme efJeuesHeveb ke=leJeeved~
iv. uesjefmeee Deelceeveb keMeeIeelew: JeefCeleb ke=leJeeved~
260
260
yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee: ceee& 2017
ke. mebJeeoebMeb HeeflJee efveefo&<e: ke=leer: kegle~ [7]
ke.1. DeJeyeesOeveced~ (kesefHe 2 ke=leer kegle~)
i. Gefeleb keejCeb efelJee Jeekeeb Hegveefue&Kele~ (1)
HeJeveespee& megjef#elee~ ele: _______ ~
(mee eot<eCecegkelee! / mee ceee&efolee~)
ii. HetCe&Jeekeesve Gejb efueKele~ (1)
DeJee&eerveceneje<^me Yeeiejs<ee kee?
iii. Jeekeeb Hegveefue&efKelJee eesieb Jee Deeesieefceefle efueKele~
meJez: DeHeejcHeefjkeeved Gheeeeved mJeerke=le HeejcHeefjkeeeslemeeb Heefjj#eCeb kele&Jeced~ (1)

(ke=<CemegJeCe&me)
HeeLe&: lemeesHemkeejeLe ceneeeeme: DeeJeMeke:~ Yetceew jvOeb efvecee&e efve<keeme e leme mebmkejCeb efeeles~ lelmebmkejCeeod
FvOevelewueb, ce=ewueb, mJesovelewueeefokeb efve<Heeeles~ Sleefvvemeiee&uueYeles, lemceeemeesHeueeqyOe: ceee&efolee~
esee efvemeiee&led eeHlee DeHeejcHeefjkeer Tpee& leg Deceee&efolee YeJeefle~
HeeLe&: mete&: HeJeve: peueefcelesleeefve ceneYetleeefve~ Sleeefve DeHeejcHeefjkeeefCe Tpee&meeOeveeefve DeefHe Tpee efvecee&legb meceLee&efve~ ieesceeeled
HeCee&JeMes<eeod, DeJekejee pewefJekeJeeeg: eYeJeefle leLee SjC[yeerpeevceOegke yeerpeeoer#egoC[eJeMes<eee pewefJekelewueb
efveceeaeles DeCegYeesefHe Tpee& ueYeles~
esee leLeeefHe Sles<eg meewjb eesle: DeHeefjefceleced De#eeb, eot<eCecegkeleb e~ `keesje[er' Fle$e Deeweq<Cekeee: Tpee&ee: ekeuHe: leLee
^e@cyesleeje HegjmLeew ew DeCegefJeegledekeuHeew eefmeew~ keeseveepeueefJeeglekeuHemleg DeJee&eerveceneje<^me
Yeeiejs<ewJe~
HeeLe&: keg$eefeled HeJe&les<eg HeJeveeefekee: mLeeHevles cele: meeneesve efJeegefvveceeaeles~ DeefHe mewJe HeJeveespee&?
esee meleced, mee HeJeveespee& eot<eCecegkelee, megjef#elee, GHepeerefJekeemeeefOekee e~
DeLeJe&: SJeceHeejcHeefjkeeved Gheeeeved mJeerke=le HeejcHeefjkeeeslemeeb Heefjj#eCeb e kele&Jeb meJez:~ esve Oeveme_eees YeJesled, lesvewJe
je<^esvveefle: meeled~

ke.2. Meyo%eeveced~ (kee: DeefHe 3 ke=leer: kegle~)


i. elegLe&Heob efueKele~ (1)
js<ewJe : js<ee + SJe : : mewJe : _______ + _______~
ii. efYevveeLe&keMeyoew efueKele~ (1)
oC[:, veece, eef<:, Meemeveced~
De. jepee eewjb oC[b kejesefle~ De$e oC[: veece _______~
ye. yeeueke: ceepee&jb oC[sve lee[eefle~ De$e oC[: veece _______~
iii. ceet<eele: Gefeleb efJeMes<eCeb cesueveb kegle~ (1)

efJeMes<eCeced efJeMes<eced
_______ Tpee&~
_______ Tpee&meeOeveeefve~
(Yeeiejs<ee, DeHeejcHeefjkeeefCe, DeeJeMeke:, DeHeejcHeefjkeer)
iv. ieeebMes Deeieles s OeelegmeeefOele-ueyevle-DeJees efueKele~ _______, _______ ~ (1)

261
Std.X:SanskritMandakini
ke.3. He=LekekejCeced~
Je=#eejsKeeefe$eb Hetjele~ (2)
pewefJeke-Tpee&
pewefJekeJeeeg: pewefJeke-lewueced

ieesceeeled SjC[yeerpeeled

efleere:: efJeYeeie: Heeced~


(He=LekekejCeb, mHe<erkejCeb, MeyomecHeefe:, DevJeeHetefle&:, mcejCeb, Je=e%eeveced~)
2.De. HeeebMeb HeeflJee efveefo&<e: ke=leer: kegle~
De 1. He=LekekejCeced~
HeeebMele: Gefeleeved Meyoeved efelJee peeuejsKeeefe$eb Hetjele~ (2)

`OejCeer' Meyome efJeMes<eCeeefve

memeieefYe&Ceer OejCeer nefjlee


mJesoefyevogefYeezjefYeef<ekelee
les<eecesJe ecesCe Heefuelee nmeefle cesefoveereced
nefjleeevleemleod nefjlelJeb OJepesefHe HeuueefJeleced~
OJepes efmLeleseb nefjleeYee ceeb esjeles meleleced
`peeleg efkemeevees' Jeovleer enb veceeefce leb ke=<ekeced~~
mecegHeeieleJeefle owJeeoJensueeb kegpe ceOegkejs cee iee:~
cekejvolegefvoueeveecejefJevoeveeceeb ceneceeve:~~

De.2. mHe<erkejCeced~
kegpeeveeseqkeleefJe<ees mHe<erkejCeb 30/40 Meyow: ceeOeceYee<eee efueKele~ (2)

ye. HeeebMeb HeeflJee efveefo&<s ke=leer kegle~


1. Deemeerled keesefHe eefle<eves leHeesoe Fefle efpe:~ 2. eeJeeveke&leejeefoefmLeefle: meeocyeje*dieCes~
me efHe$ee keuesMeceeveesefHe efJeeeb veeOewle MewMeJew~~ leeJelHeeefkeJebMeesmeew efejb vevoleg Yetleues~~
Devevlejb iee&ceeCe: meJezjvegMeeeeqvJele:~
me efJeeeefmees leHlegb leHees ieeleb eeew~~
ye.1. Meyo%eeveced~
i. HeeebMele: Heee&eMeyob efueKele~ (1)
veiejs - _______~ leerjb - _______~
ii. HeeebMele: s efJeMes<eCes efueKele~ leHeesoe: - _______, _______~ (1)

ye. 2. HeeebMeb HeeflJee efjkelemLeeveeefve HetjefelJee efleere Mueeskeme DevJeeb Hegveefue&Kele~ (2)
eeJeled _______ eveke&leejeefoefmLeefle: meeled _______ Demeew Heeefke _______ Yetleues _______ vevoleg~
262
262
yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee: ceee& 2017
ke. DeOeesoes<eg megYeeef<eles<eg s megYeeef<eles Megs HetCex e efueKele~ (4)

1. ve=HeeCeeb _______ Hejeece:~~


2. jeies _______ eMemeles~~
3. De*diesve _______ jeef$e:~~
[. Je=eveece efevegle~ (1)
Denes cenJeb cenleeceHetJe efJeHeefekeeuesefHe HejesHekeej:~
eLeemeceOes HeefleleesefHe jenes: keueeefveefOe: HegCeeeb ooeefle~~
(FvJeee / ieerefle: / GHesvJeee)
le=leere: efJeYeeie: mLetueJeeeveced~
(Heeced DeJeyeesOeveced, He=LekekejCeced~)
3. HeeebMeb HeeflJee efveefo&<e: ke=leer: kegle~
De. DeJeyeesOeveced~
i. Jeekeeb Hegveefue&efKelJee meleb Jee Demeleefceefle efueKele~
Yeercejee: cew$eesHeveeceefJeebmeb efvepeMe*dkee: Hee~ (1)
ii. SkeHeosve Gejb efueKele~
`mebmke=lee Jeeked je<^Yee<ee YeJeleg' Fefle emleeJeme ecegKe: ke:? (1)
vewkeefiejeb emeefJe$eer efYevveeevleereYeejleereeveeced~
ceevee meowJe efJeog<eeced Den&efle vees je<^Yee<eelJeced~~1~~
kewefelmeebmeocegKew: mebmke=leJeeied YeJeleg je<^Yee<esefle~
emleeJe GHevemlees Yeercemles<eeceYetled ecegKe:~~2~~
cew$eesHeveece efJee_ed %eelegb Yeerceme mebmke=le%eeveced~
Hee Yeercejeeb mebmke=leJeeCewJe efvepeMe*dkee:~~3~~
eegeleej cew$eb ieerJee&CeefiejwJe YeercejeeesefHe~
eglJee lelmebJeeob meJexHeemeved eefkeleeefkelee:~~4~~
Je=eb levvewkes<eg ekeeefMeleb ecegKeJe=eHe$es<eg~
Heeb Heeb meJex eYeeefJelemleme eelegee&led~~5~~
emleeJeeee&vles ve Heeefjlees vewkemeebmeoefJejesOeeled~
lesveeYeJeved efJe<eCCee: meJex es mebmke=les jkelee:~~6~~
jeef$ebefoJeb HeeflJee evLeeved veeveeefJeOeeved mebefnleeLe&ced~
efJejee vetleveefJeOeerved m$eeroefueleeved meceeJesMeeemeeced~~7~~
DeYeme vewkemce=leerjd cevegYeejepeee%eJeukeeeee:~
eefe&lJee efJeodJeodefYe: eeHeb jefeleb YeercejeesCe~~8~~
ye. He=LekekejCeced~
i. HeeebMele: s efJeMes<eCes efelJee peeuejsKeeefe$eb Hetjele~ (1)
vewkeefiejeb ________~ mebmke=lee Jeeked efJeog<eeb ________~
ii. HeeebMele: GefeleMeyoew efelJee peeuejsKeeefe$eb Hetjele~ (1)
Yeejepemce=efle:

________
YeercejeesCe DeYeme ________
eeHeb jefeleced
263
Std.X:SanskritMandakini

elegLe&: efJeYeeie: uesKevekeewMeueced~


4. eLeeefveoxMeb ke=leer: kegle~ (kesJeueb 3 GHeeMvee: uesKeveeree:~)
De. HeefjsoHetefle&:~ (5)
ce_pet<eele: Gefeleeved Meyoeved efelJee efjkelemLeeveeefve HetjefelJee Heefjsob Hegveefue&Kele~
DeelJes ne@keereer[e peveeveeb ________ eer[e Jele&les~ MeleceerjHeefjefceles efJeMeeues eer[e*dieCes Skeeqmceved He#es SkeeoMe
eer[keeveeced DeHejeqmceved He#es e SkeeoMeeer[keeveeced Flemlele: OeeJeleeb Meced DeleerJe ceveesneefj~ eoe efveHegCeeer[kesve
veereceeve: kevogke: HejHe#eieesues ________ leoe oMe&kee: kejleueOJeefveb kegJe&vle: efJepeefeHe#eme Glmeenb JeOe&eefvle~ e:
oue: DeefOekeeved ________ kejesefle me efJepeeer YeJeefle~ DeekeeMeJeeCeerev$eeled ne@keereefleeesefieleeveeb meceeeejeved Deveskes
pevee: Me=CJeefvle DeLe e otjoMe&veev$esYeesefHe ue#eMe: ________ eer[keeveeb Kesueeelege ________ emeeroefvle~
ne@keereer[e Yeejleereeveeb jeef<^ee eer[e~ Yeejlesve Dee@efueefcHekeeefleeesefieleemeg mJeCe&Heokeb ueyOeced~
(eefJeMeefle, <dJee, ueeskeefeee, oMe&kee:, ieesuekeeved)
ye. efveyevOeuesKeveced~ (5)
3 Heee&es<eg 1 efJe<eeced DeefOeke=le 5 Jeekeeelcekeb efveyevOeb efueKele~
j#eeyevOeveced, YeceCeOJeefve:, ceetj:~
ke. mebmke=leevegJeeo:~ (5)
8 Jeekees<eg 5 Jeekeeeveeb mebmke=leYee<eee DevegJeeob kegle~
i. veoeres HeeCeer mJe Deens.
River water is clean.
veoer kee Heeveer meeHe nw~
ii. Oetle& keesuneeeer iees< meebiee.
Tell the story of cunning jackal.
elegj efmeeej keer keneveer yelee~
iii. mesveeHeleer Jetn jelees.
Army chief arranges the array.
mesveeHeefle Jetn jelee nw~
iv. veeeeOeerMeeves DeHejeOeeuee Meemeve kejeJes.
Justice should punish the guilty.
veeeeOeerMe DeHejeOeer kees oC[ / oefC[le kejs~
v. keee&ece kesJne meg nesF&ue?
When will the programme start?
keee&ece keye eejbYe / Meg nesiee?
vi. Je=#e HeJe&leeJej Jee{leele.
The trees grow on the mountain.
Hes[ HeJe&leeW Hej ye{les nQ~
vii. He#eer Pee[eee HeeboeebJej Iejer yeebOeleele.
The birds build the nests on the branches of trees.
Heber (He#eer) Hes[ keer nefveeeW Hej IeeWmeues yeveeles nQ~
viii. meJe& HeJe&leeble efnceeuee Gbe HeJe&le Deens.
Himalaya is the highest mountain among all mountains.
meYeer Hene[eW ceW efnceeuee TBee Hene[ nw~
264
264
yees[& ke=efleHeef$ekee: ceee& 2017
[. Jeekeejevee~
i. Oeeletveeb eeesie: - eleg<eg& Oeeleg<eg 3 Oeeletved eegpe 3 Jeekeeeefve mebmke=leYee<eee efueKele~ (3)
1. ieced 1 He. He. 2. keLed 10 G. He 3. efJe le= 1 He. He. 4. oe 1 He. He.
ii. DeMegefmebMeesOeveced - DeJeeeefve eegpe jefeles<eg 4 Jeekees<eg 2 Jeekeeees: DeMegefmebMeesOeveb kegle~ (2)
1. ceefvojme meJe&le: Je=#ee: meefvle~ 2. ceelee yeeuekeb men Jeoefle~
3. lemcew iepeeveveme vece:~ 4. meefeve: efekeseer[eee: efveHegCe:~
Heece: efJeYeeie: JeekejCeced~
(GHeeespevekeewMeueced)
5. eLeeefveoxMeb ke=leer: kegle~ (kesJeueb 5 GHeeMvee: uesKeveeree:~)
De. efeeeHeoHew: DeeJeefueHetjCeced kegle~ (8 Heee&es<eg 6 Heee&ee: uesKeveeree:~) (3)
meJee&efCe HeeefCe le=leereHeg<e-SkeJeeveme uesKeveereeefve~
Oeeleg: efleereYeefJe<elkeeue: Hejes#eYetlekeeue: Jele&ceevekeeue: eLeceYetlekeeue: Dee%eeLe&: efJeOeLe&:
ieced 1 He.He. _______ _______ ieefle _______ _______ iesled
ke= 8 Dee.He _______ ees _______ Dekegle _______ _______

ye. veece + meJe&veecveeb Hew: DeeJeefueHetjCeced kegle~ (3)


(8 Heee&es<eg 6 Heee&ee: uesKeveeree:~)
efJeYeeqkele: Case SkeJeeveced efJeeveced yengJeeveced
eLecee Nominative _______ JeefCepeew _______
le=leeree Instrumental _______ _______ eMeesefYe:
<eer Genitive leJe _______ _______
le=leeree Instrumental _______ _______ SefYe:
ke. OeelegmeeefOeleefJeMes<eCew: kees<keHetefle&:~ (3)
(8 Heee&es<eg 6 Heee&ee: uesKeveeree:~)
ce_pet<eele: efJeMes<eCeeefve efelJee kees<keHetjCeb kegle~
kece&. Yet. Oee. efJe., ke. efJe. Oee. efJe., kele&. Yet. Oee. efJe., kele&. Je. kee. Oee. efJe.,
Past Passive Potential Passive Past Active Participle Present Active
Participle Participle Participle

(Devegmejved, keefLeleced, ieleJeeved, kele&Je:, ke=leJeleer, DeemJeeoveeree, Jele&ceeve:, efueHlee)


[. meceemee:~ (8 Heee&es<eg 6 Heee&ee: uesKeveeree:~) (3)
kees<ke HetjCeced kele~
meceeme: efJeenJeekeeced meceemeveece
i. Gceemegle:~ _______~ <e<er lelHeg<e:~
ii. _______~ ve eevle:~ ve_ed lelHeg<e:~
iii. ke<eeeJeCe&:~ ke<eee: Fefle JeCe&:~ _______~
iv. efMeuHekeej:~ _______~ GHeHeo lelHeg<e:~
v. _______~ Meeqkeleced Devegme=le~ DeJeeerYeeJe:~
vi. _______~ lJejee men eLee meeled leLee~ efeeeefJeMes<eCemen yengJeerefn:~
vii. osMeefJeosMesYe: osMee: e efJeosMee: e~ lesYe: _______~
viii. _______~ leHe: SJe Oeveb eme me:~ yengJeerefn:~
265
Std.X:SanskritMandakini
F. JeekeeHeefjJele&veced~ (4 Heee&es<eg 3 Heee&ee: uesKeveeree:~) (3)
meteveevegmeejb JeekeeHeefjJele&veb kegle~
i. lesve Oeefvekesve melJejb mesJeke: esef<ele:~ (eeesieHeefjJele&veb kegle~)
ii. o=<cee$es leeqmceved efe$es leme ceve: e<cesJe~ (eoe - leoe Gheegpe Jeekeeb Hegveefue&Kele~)
iii. jece: Jeveb ieefle~ (kele&=mLeeves kewkeseer GHeegpe Jeekeeb Hegveefue&Kele~)
iv. lJeb JeerjjmeefJe<ees keLee~ (lJeced Fleme mLeeves YeJeeved Gheegpe Jeekeeb Hegveefue&Kele~)
He. me*dKeeJeeekee:~ efjkelemLeeveHetefle&: kegle~ (4 Heee&es<eg 3 Heee&ee: uesKeveeree:~) (3)
i. meeefnles _______ jmee: meefvle~ (9)
ii. pevee: _______ Jewes<eg veeJeOeeveb ooefle~ (6)
iii. Meekegvleueme _______ De*dke: DeleerJe megvoj: Deefmle~ (4Lee / 4th)
iv. osJekeee: _______ DeHeleb veece YeieJeeved eerke=<Ce:~ (DeeJes / 8th)
<e: efJeYeeie: DevegJeeokeewMeueced~
6. eLeeefveoxMeb ke=leer: kegle ~
De. mebmke=leieeebMeb HeeflJee ceeOeceYee<eee DevegJeeob kegle~ (4)
YeejleosMesve meJe&mcew peieles oe: meJeexlke=<: GHenej: veece He_elev$eb veece evLe:~ efJe<CegMecee& veece efJeeved Deme
jeefelee~ me: jepeHeg$eeCeeb efeb efvejw#ele~ lesYe: HeMegHeef#eCeeb efJeefJeOee: keLee: DekeLeeled~ `ceveesj_peveeod
GodyeesOeveced' Sleled lev$eb eYeeJeHetCe peeleced~ keLeeveeb ceeOecesve oeb %eeveb jepeHeg$ew: efJeveemeeeemew: Deelcemeeled ke=leced~
DeuHesve SJe keeuesve les jepeHeg$ee: jepeveerefleHeejlee: DeYeJeved~
ye. mebmke=leHeeebMeb HeeflJee ceeOeceYee<eee DevegJeeob kegle ~ (4)

Sneeie meceeeeemeveefceob kemceeod efejeodMemes


kee Jeelee& neefleogye&ueesefme kegMeueb eerleeseqmce les oMe&veeled~
SJeb es mecegHeeieleeveCeefeve: euneoevleeoje
les<eeb egkeleceMeeflesve cevemee ncee&efCe ievlegb meoe~~

ke. mebmke=leveeeeMeb HeeflJee ceeOeceYee<eee DevegJeeob kegle ~ (4)

oefj: - efoJebieleme efMeJeme Deue*dkeeje: ev:, ie*diee, meHe&jepe: Jeemegefke: DeekeeMesve veerlee:~
jepee - lele: Hejced~
oefj: - lele: Hejceemeved leme iegCee:~ leeved Deves efJeYepe Deveeved~
jepee - kes?
oefj: - oeveMeerueleeb Goejleeb Jeerjleeb e YeJeeved Deveeled~ Devles DeJeefMe<: Ske: SJe iegCe: lecesJe ie=nerlJee
Denb Yetueeskes Yeceeefce~ efYe#eeveb kejesefce meoe~

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BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2014


ALGEBRA
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40

Note: Q.P. SET CODE


i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed. C
Q.1. Attempt any five of the following sub-questions: [5]
i. For an A.P. t3 = 8 and t4 = 12, find the common difference d.
ii. (x + 5)(x 2) = 0, find the roots of this quadratic equation.
iii. The following data give the number of students using different modes of transport:
Modes of Transport Bicycle Bus Walk Train Car
Number of Students 140 100 70 40 10
From this table, find the central angle () for the Mode of Transport Bus.
iv. A coin is tossed, write the sample space S.
v. If fixi = 75 and fi = 15, then find the mean x .
vi. Write the following quadratic equation in a standard form: 3 x2 = 10x + 7.
Q.2. Attempt any four of the following sub-questions: [8]
i. State whether the following sequence is an A.P. or not:
1, 4, 7, 10, ..
ii. Solve the following quadratic equation by factorization method:
4x2 9 = 0.
iii. If the point (a, 3) lies on the graph of the equation 5x + 2y = 4, then find a.
iv. If 7x + 5y = 11 and 5x + 7y = 13, find x + y.
v. A die is thrown, then write the sample space (S) and number of sample points n(S) and also
write event A of getting numbers multiple of 3 on the upper face and write n(A).
vi. For a certain frequency distribution, the value of mean is 15 and mode is 9. Find the value of median.
Q.3. Attempt any three of the following sub-questions: [9]
i. Solve the equation
4x2 + 7 x + 2 = 0
by using formula method.
ii. Solve the following simultaneous equations by using Cramers rule:
3x + 2y = 11, 7x 4y = 9
iii. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Write the sample space S and the number of sample
points n(S). Write the following events using set notation and mention the total number of
elements in each of them:
a. A is the event of getting at most one tail. b. D is the event of getting no head.
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iv. Below is given the distribution of money (in `) collected by students for Flood Relief Fund:
Money (in `) 0 10 10 20 20 30 30 40 40 50
No. of Students 5 7 5 2 6
Find mean of money (in `) collected by a student by using Assumed Mean Method.
v. Represent the following data by Histogram:

Price of Sugar per kg (in `) 18 20 20 22 22 24 24 26 26 28 28 30


Number of Weeks 4 8 22 12 8 6
Q.4. Attempt any two of the following sub-questions: [8]
i. A farmer borrows ` 1,000 and agrees to repay with a total interest of ` 140 in 12 instalments, each
instalment being less than the preceding instalment by ` 10. What should be his first instalment?
ii. There are three boys and two girls. A committee of two is to be formed.
Find the probability of events that the committee contains:
a. at least one girl b. one boy and one girl c. only boys.
iii. The sales of salesmen in a week are given in the pie diagram. Study the diagram and answer the
following questions. If the total sale due to salesman A is ` 18,000 then:
a. Find the total sale.
b. Find the sale of each salesman.
c. Find the salesman with the highest sale.
d. Find the difference between the highest sale and the lowest sale.

Salesman
Salesman A
B 90
120

70
80 Salesman
Salesman D
C

Q.5. Attempt any two of the following sub-questions: [10]


i. If m times mth term of an A.P. is equal to n times its nth term, then show that (m + n)th term of
the A.P. is zero.
ii. The product of four consecutive natural numbers which are multiples of five is 15,000. Find
those natural numbers.
iii. Draw the graphs representing the equations 4x + 3y = 24 and 3y = 4x + 24 on the same graph
paper. Write the co-ordinates of the point of intersection of these lines and find the area of the
triangle formed by these lines on the X-axis.

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BOARD QUESTION PAPER: MARCH 2014


ENGLISH
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80

SECTION I
(Reading Skills, Vocabulary and Grammar)

Q.1. (A) Read the following passage and complete the activities given below: [10 marks]
A1. Name the following:
With reference to the passage. (2)
(i) Two people who influenced Mashelkar ________.
(ii) The trust which granted scholarship to Mashelkar _______.
(iii) The Director of the Board of Tata Motors _______.
(iv) Principal Bhave demonstrated _______.
In fact, I remember, my passing the SSC Examination i.e. 11th standard. Those days it
used to be not 10 th standard or 12 th standard but 11th standard. I stood 11th among 1,35,000 but I
was about to leave higher education and find a job. What helped me was the scholarship by Sir
Dorab Tata Trust. It was just 60 rupees per month and would you believe that 60 rupees per
month from Tatas added so much value to my life that I have been able to stand here today
before you to speak to you.
I am on the Board of Tatas now and it is very interesting that the same Bombay House
where I used to go to collect that 60 rupees per month now one goes and sits there as a Director
on the Board of Tata Motors. The turn that these 40 years has taken is very interesting. It has all
been possible because of the chance I got to do higher studies at the insistence of my mother.
She gave me values of my life. She was one of the noblest parents I have met in my life.
So, my greatest guru was my mother. My second great guru was Principal Bhave, about
whom I made a mention earlier. He taught us Physics. Because it was a poor school, I
remember, it had to innovate to convey to the young students the message of Science.
I still remember one of the interesting experiences when, on a Friday afternoon, Principal
Bhave took us out into the sun to demonstrate to us as to how to find the focal length of a
convex lens. He had a piece of paper here, a convex lens here and he moved it up and down and
there was a point when there was a sharp focus and a bright spot on the paper. He showed the
distance between paper and the lens and said that this distance was the focal length. But then
the paper started burning. For some reason, he then turned to me, and said, Mashelkar, if you
focus your energies like this, you can burn anything in the world.
A2. Supply
the information from the passage. (2)
(i) Mashelkar could continue his studies because ________.
(ii) The teaching of Principal Bhaves experiment was ________.
(iii) Mashelkar considers his mother as the greatest Guru because ________.
(iv) The paper started burning because ________.
A3. Word Register
(from the passage) (2)
Prepare a word register for the word
Education _______
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A4. Modal Auxiliary
(i) I used to go to collect 60 rupees per month.
(Rewrite the sentence using Modal Auxiliary would) (1)
(ii) Reported Speech:
Principal Bhave said, Mashelkar, if you focus your energies like this, you can burn
anything in the world.
(How will Mashelkar report this to his friend?) (1)
A5. Personal Response
What is the role played by our parents in shaping our career? (2)
(B) Read the passage and complete the activities given below: [10 marks]
B1. Complete the table
A few facts about the Mehendi rituals during marriage ceremonies are given below:
Write them into appropriate columns: (2)
(i) Simple family affair.
(ii) Song and dance performance accompanied with lavish food and entertainment.
(iii) Creative family members, apply mehendi to the bride.
(iv) Beauticians are appointed to apply mehendi to the bride.
Fill in the table as:
Yesteryears Present times
(i) (i)
(ii) (ii)
Mehendi enjoys special attention during wedding. In India, the day before the wedding is
devoted exclusively for the elaborate ritual of applying mehendi on the hands and feet of the
bride. This practice is followed in Arab countries as well, except that it is held few days prior to
the wedding day. Songs woven around the healing properties and lucky omens associated with
mehendi, are sung by the brides family and friends. An age-old belief handed down to
generations lays great emphasis on the colour of the brides mehendia darker colour suggests
bountiful love and affection from the future in-laws and husband, and for this reason brides take
pain to ensure that only the best quality henna is used for her wedding day.
The ritual of adorning the bride with henna is a sacred one and in some communities require
the initiation by the mother-in-law. A popular game during marriage function is the search for their
names, by the bride and groom hidden within the elaborate pattern on the brides hands.
In certain parts of India, the bridegroom too has his hands decorated with henna. The
mehendi function during marriages has evolved from simple family affairs of yesteryears to
elaborate events of today. Lavish spread of food and entertainment in the form of song and
dance performances have transformed it from a small function to a gala prelude. In earlier days,
the task of applying mehendi on the bride was the sole prerogative of creative family members.
The demand for intricate and different style now, sees this job outsourced to beauticians skilled
in this art. Beauty salons charge according to the style and complexity of pattern desired by the
clients.
B2. What is the age old belief related to the brides mehendi colour and its significance? (2)
B3. Find the words:
Find the words from the passage: (2)
The first letter of each word is given as a clue:
(i) Nowadays lot of e_______ is given to the use of Information Technology in school.
(ii) Temples and mosques exhibit i_______ carving on their walls.
(iii) The minister announced the i_______ of the National Polio Eradication Programme.
(iv) Villages have t_______ to towns.

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B4. Complete the table (2)
Noun Verb Adjectives
(i) attention attend _______
(ii) creation _______ creative
Select any one word and use it meaningfully in the sentences of your own.
B5. Personal Response (2)
A lot of money is spent nowadays on marriage ceremonies. What is your opinion about it?
Q.2. (A) Read the following passage and complete the activities given below: [10 marks]
A1. Find out:
Find from the passage the related words to sea and write them. (2)

ON FIERCE monsoon nights, about one and a quarter mile off the Mumbai harbour,
there have been occasions when 52-year-old Bikaji Ramchandra Dhuri is the only man on sea.
From the watchtower of the Prongs Reef Lighthouse, which is surrounded on all sides by the
Arabian Sea, he has heard the sea rage like a possessed spirit the darkness dispelled only by
the beam of light flung across the waters from the tower he mans.
Dhuri is one of the last breed of lighthouse keepers on the Indian coast, as a majority of
the 182 lighthouses in the country are now unmanned. Built in 1871, the Prongs Reef
lighthouse was modelled on Scotlands Skerryvore Rocks Lighthouse, and is located at a
strategic spot on the western coast, marking the entrance to the busy Mumbai Harbour. It was
meant to stem the number of shipwrecks off the harbour, which the lone Colaba lighthouse
could not illumine on its own. Even now, during nights, for fishing vessels without any
gadgets, its the soft light from this tower which directs us to Mumbai, says Vinayak Koli, a
boatsman who helps ferry people and also goes on fishing expeditions.
Through the year, Dhuri lives in the lighthouse for 15 days at a stretch, when he is
relieved by another keeper. In the monsoon, it becomes his home for three months. We call it
the kalapani as we are alone in the middle of the sea for days, with basic supplies and the
revolving light that keeps the sea awake, he says.
A2. Fill in the following information using words from the passage: (2)
(i) The Prongs Reef lighthouse was modelled on _______.
(ii) Dhuri lives in the lighthouse for _______ at a stretch.
(iii) _______ is one of the last breed of lighthouse keepers on Indian coast.
(iv) The majority of the _______ lighthouses in the country are now unmanned.
A3. Read the words and find out the similar meaning words from the passage: (2)

Violent Scattered Place of shelter for ships Shine light

A4. (i) We call it Kalapani as we are alone in the middle of the sea for days, he says.
(Use that and rewrite the sentence) (1)
(ii)It was meant to stem the number of shipwrecks of the harbour.
(a) was it? (b) wasnt it? (c) is it?
(Select the proper tag and rewrite the sentence) (1)
A5. Personal Response
Imagine you have to spend a night in a lighthouse. Narrate your experience. (2)

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(B) Read the passage and complete the activities given below: [10 marks]
B1. Pick out
The correct answers from the statements given below: (2)
(i) All parts of the human body receive blood from the:
(a) lungs (b) heart (c) stomach (d) liver
(ii) The portion of heart which doesnt receive proper blood supply becomes:
(a) strong (b) dead (c) weak (d) diseased
(iii) Angina results from the weakening of the:
(a) heart (b) liver (c) stomach (d) lungs
(iv) The heart receives its own blood supply through the:
(a) veins (b) lumen (c) fat (d) coronary arteries
Coronary bypass surgery is undoubtedly a very significant achievement of modern
medical science. But one ponders over certain pertinent questions such as the cost involved and
the ultimate benefit.
The human heart is nothing but a four-chambered muscular pump which supplies blood
to all parts of the body. Being an active pump, the heart itself requires a lot of energy and
receives its own blood supply via certain vessels called coronary arteries. By a process called
atherosclerosis, fat particles are deposited on the inner wall of the lumen of the coronary
arteries which eventually reduce the size of the lumen and produce obstruction to the free flow
of blood. The portion of the heart which suffers from lack of blood supply becomes weaker as a
pump and gives rise to a typical chest pain called angina. When such blockage is total, the
corresponding heart muscle dies and then one suffers a heart attack. In all these
circumstances, heart surgeons perform a special type of operation known as coronary bypass
surgery.
In this surgery a blood vessel is taken (usually from the leg of the patient) and then
grafted on the heart in such a way that when blood flows through, it bypasses the narrow
segment of the diseased coronary artery. The concept is to divert the flow from the narrow
artery, inside which there is already a traffic congestion and in this respect it is synonymous
to road bypass.
B2. Fill in the gaps
with the information given in the passage: (2)
(i) The number of chambers of the human heart are _______.
(ii) Name the process by which fat particles are deposited within coronary arteries _______.
(iii) When a heart muscle dies, due to total blockage one suffers from a _______.
(iv) To prevent heart attack Surgeons perform _______.
B3. Find meanings
Which words in the passage have the following meanings? (2)
(i) think over
(ii) relevant
(iii) turn in another direction
(iv) a tube carrying fluid.
B4. (i) Coronary bypass surgery is undoubtedly a very significant achievement of modern
science. (Use which and rewrite the sentence.) (1)
(ii) The heart surgeons perform a special type of operation.
(Begin your sentence with A special type of operation _______) (1)
B5. Personal Response
What do you do to keep your heart healthy? (2)
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SECTION II
(Poetry)
Q.3. (A) Read the following extract carefully and complete the activities given below: [5 marks]
A1. Complete (2)
(i) Books were found on the _______ and _______.
(ii) The tales are described as _______ and _______.
Have you forgotten? Dont you know? --------2
Well say it very loud and slow:
THEY. USED. TO.. READ! Theyd READ and READ,
AND READ and READ, and then proceed
To READ some more. Great Scott! Gadzooks!
One half their lives was reading books!
The nursery shelves held books galore!
Books cluttered up the nursery floor!
And in the bedroom, by the bed,
More books were waiting to be read!
Such wondrous, fine, fantastic tales
Of dragons, gypsies, queens, and whales
And treasure isles, and distant shores
Where smugglers rowed with muffled oars,
And pirates wearing purple pants,
And sailing ships and elephants,
And cannibals crouching round the pot,
Stirring away at something hot.
(It smells so good, what can it be?
Good gracious, its Penelope.)
A2. What kind of books does the poet mention? (2)
A3. Poetic Device (1)
THEY.USED.TO READ!
Theyd READ AND READ,
AND READ and READ, and then proceed. Which words are repeated?
The figure of speech is _______.
(B) Read the following extract of the poem and complete the activities given below: [5 marks]
B1. State which of the following statements are
True or False: (2)
(i) The elderly are nearest to our own exalted personality.
(ii) The elderly are those persons whose growth is stunted.
(iii) We should know our elderly people well, in order to receive guidance.
(iv) The elderly hold on to the frivolous aspects of life.
Oh the value of the elderly! How could anyone not know?
They hold so many keys, so many things they can show.
We all will read the other side this I firmly believe
And the elderly are closest oh what clues we could retrieve.
For their characters are closest to how well be on high.
They are the ones most developed, you can see it if you try.
Theyve let go of the frivolous and kept things that are dear.
The memories of so sweet, of loved ones that were near.
As a nation we are missing our greatest true resource,
To get to know our elders and let them guide our course.
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B2. Give Reason
Elderly people should be around us. Justify. (2)
B3. Rhyme Scheme
The rhyme scheme for the first four lines is _______
(a) abab (b) aabb (c) abba (1)
SECTION III
(Rapid Reading)
Q.4. Read the passage carefully and complete the activities given below: [5 marks]
A1. True or False (1)
(i) Cross cutting swords were used to seal the wall.
(ii) Hearing Mataprasads footsteps the cobra glided out of the wall.
Passage
Go, tell Neel, I whispered to Akhil. Tell him to get help.
While I waited, I prayed that Rex would not make any sudden move. The cobra would lash out
in swift, sure revenge. I do not know how long I stood there, riveted by the horrifying tableau being
enacted before me. At last I heard footsteps coming along the passage. It was Mataprasad, the mali,
with a solid reassuring stick.
At the sound of his approach, the cobra lowered its head and glided out of a hole in the wall.
The next day, masons came to seal the hole through which the cobra had slid in. And men in
gumboots armed with scythes and grass-cutting swords cleaned up the compound. They hacked away
at the tall grass. And what had lain hidden for years surfaced.
For instance we discovered that someone had laid out a badminton court many years ago.
And we discovered a grave. It was a small grave, close to the boundary wall. There was a moss
blackened stone at its head with just the faintest race of the words engraved on it. We identified the
words with our fingers.
A2. Mention the two things that were found when the tall grass was hacked. (2)
A3. The narrator prayed that Rex should not make any sudden move. Explain giving reasons. (2)
SECTION IV
(Writing Skills)
Q.5. (A) A1 or A2: Do any one of the following activities: [5 marks]
A1. Letter
Look at the following news and write a letter to your sister encouraging her to develop a
terrace garden.
House Garbage to cultivate garden
Pune: Mrs. Lele of Sahakar Nagar used the wet garbage from the kitchen, to develop a
garden. She has planted flower plants as well as vegetables. She derived sheer joy and
gets fresh veggies.
OR
A2. Letter
Look at the handout below. Write a letter to the organisers asking for details as you want
to participate in it.
Save the Planet
A mammoth rally to be organised to save the Environment.
School children to participate
Free T shirts and gifts for participants
Social duty of every citizen
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Contact for the details:
Save the Planet Mission
Orange City Appts
Nagpur
(B) B1 or B2: Do any one of the following activities: [5 marks]
B1. Report writing
Read the following leaflet and prepare a report for a news.
Blood Donation Camp
i. arranged on the Independence Day
ii. Dr. R. C. Patil will inaugurate
iii. Free medical check up before blood donation
iv. Nutritious refreshments served for donors.
v. Attend one and all
vi. Organised by EST Hospital, Raviwar Peth, Pune.
OR
B2. Dialogue Writing:
Develop a dialogue between a doctor and a patient using the points given in the
balloons.
Add your own points.
Health enquiry stomach-ache eat fresh meal

exercise take rest medicine

Q.6. (A) A1 or A2: Do any one of the following activities. [5 marks]


A1. Information Transfer (Non-verbal to Verbal):
Transfer the given information into a paragraph.
Manufacture of Paper
Raw materials:
wood, grass
bamboo, rags.

Cut into pieces and


immersed in water and
madeinto pulp.

Mixed with lime for


whitening and pulp is
boiled and passed
through wire meshes

Wet paper

Passed over heated


roller and thin sheets
of paper is made.

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OR
A2. Read the following passage and complete the table
Dialect is a form of a language spoken in one area which may be different from other
forms of the same language. Each language has dialects which change every few kilometers.
India is a multi-lingual country. Each state follows its own language as official language.
For example, Marathi is the official language of Maharashtra, while Ahirani, Wharadi, Konkani
and Malwani are its dialects. Several languages in India are spoken but do not have any script.
In Karnataka, Kannada is the official language. Tulu is spoken in Karnataka but has no script.
In England, English is the official language while Scottish, spoken in Scotland and Welsh
spoken in Wales are dialects of English.
Official
State Dialects Spoken/without script
Language
Maharashtra Marathi
Karnataka
England
(B) B1 or B2: Do any one of the following activities: [5 marks]
B1. Speech Writing
Prepare a speech to be delivered by you at childrens day celebration, laying stress on
Todays ChildrenFuture of India.

Care of childrens Inspiring them Motivate them


Health care the national to become a good
education
value citizen
OR
B2. View and Counter-view
A paragraph on the counter-view of Benefits of Using Helmets.
Counterview:
(1) Expensive
(2) Inconvenient to carry
(3) Feeling of suffocation
(4) Risky on busy roads.
Q.7. Developing a story [5 marks]
(i) Expand any one of the following ideas into two paragraphs:
(1) Nothing succeeds like success.
(2) Your safety is first your responsibility.
OR
(ii) Develop a story wherein any one of the above ideas is the moral. Suggest a suitable title.

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BOARD QUESTION PAPER: MARCH 2014


GEOGRAPHY AND ECONOMICS
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Figure to the right indicate full marks.
iii. For Question No.3 (A) use the graph paper supplied to you and attach it to the main answer book.
iv. For Question No.3 (C) use supplied outline map of India and tie it to your answer-book.
v. Use of stencil is allowed for drawing map.
vi. Draw neat diagrams and sketches wherever necessary.
Q.1. (A) Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate alternatives from those
given in the brackets and rewrite the sentence in your answer-book. [3]
1. _______ is the southernmost tip of the Indian Peninsula.
(Chennai, Thiruvananthapuram, Kanniyakumari, Madurai)
2. _______ project is built on the Satluj river.
(Bhakra-Nangal, Hirakud, Jayakwadi, Damodar Valley)
3. The Southern Ghats are named as _______.
(Anaimudi, Kemmangundi, Nilgiri, Annamalai)
(B) Match the items in Column A with those in Column B [3]
Column A Column B
i. K-2 a. Zaskar Range
ii. Mansarovar b. Heavily glaciated
iii. The Karakoram c. Source of river Indus
d. Second highest peak of the world
Q.2. (A) Give geographical reasons for the following statements (any two): [4]
1. Farmers in the Rajasthan desert depend on animal husbandry.
2. Plantation agriculture is mainly confined to the southern parts of the Western Ghats.
3. Mining activities are well developed on the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
4. Regionalization is very essential.
(B) Write short notes on (any two): [4]
1. Western Ghats : Natural vegetation
2. Natural disaster in the Deccan plateau
3. The Eastern Himalayas.
Q.3. (A) With the help of the given statistical data prepare a simple line graph: [2]
India : Population
Population
Years
(in crores)
1951 36
1961 44
1971 55
1981 68
1991 85
2001 102
2011 121

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(B) Observe the following map and answer the questions given below it (any two): [2]

Questions:
1. Name the major rivers on Maharashtra Plateau.
2. Name the west flowing river.
3. Name the two hills on Karnataka Plateau.
4. Name any one tributari of river Krishna.
(C) Mark the following in the outline map of India supplied to you. Write the names and give
Index (any two): [2]
1. Palk Strait 2. Purvanchal 3. Lakshadweep 4. Rajasthan Desert
Q.4. Answer the following questions in detail (any two): [8]
1. Why has wool industry developed in Rajasthan?
2. Write an account on dairy farming in Punjab-Haryana Plain.
3. Explain divisions of Central Highlands in detail.
Q.5. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternatives from those given in the brackets and
rewrite the sentence in your answer-book. [2]
1. The main motive of producers is to maximise profit in _______ economy.
(Socialist, Capitalist, Mixed)
2. Tertiary Sector is also known as _______ sector.
(agricultural, industrial, service)
Q.6. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each (any three): [6]
1. What is meant by mixed economy?
2. What are the two main causes of inflation?
3. Who are excluded from the benefit of Public Distribution System?
4. What are the main objectives of Consumer Protection Act?
5. Explain the term Deficit Financing.
Q.7. Answer any one of the following questions in five or six sentences: [4]
1. Explain the fiscal measures to control inflation.
2. Explain the drawbacks of Public Distribution System.

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BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2014


GEOMETRY
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40
Note: Q.P. SET CODE
i. Solve All questions. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed.
iii. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iv. Marks of constructions should be distinct. They should not be rubbed off.
C
v. Diagram is essential for the proof of the theorem.

Q.1. Solve any five sub-questions: [5]


i. In the following figure, RP : PK = 3 : 2, then find the value of A(TRP) : A(TPK)
T

R P K
ii. If two circles with radii 8 cm and 3 cm respectively touch internally, then find the distance
between their centres.
iii. If the angle = 60, find the value of sin .
iv. Find the slope of the line passing through the points A(2, 3) and B(4, 7).
v. The radius of a circle is 7 cm. Find the circumference of the circle.
vi. If the sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively, determine whether the triangle
is right angled triangle or not.
Q.2. Solve any four sub-questions: [8]
i. In the following figure, ray AD is a bisector of BAC. If AB = 4.8 cm, BD = 4 cm and
DC = 5 cm, find the value of x.
A

4.8 cm x

B
4 cm D
5 cm C

ii. In the following figure, M is the centre of the circle. PQ and PR are tangents to the circle.
If QPR = 60, find QMR.
Q

60 M
P

R
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iii. Write the equation 3x 2y 4 = 0 in the slope-intercept form. Hence write the slope and
y-intercept of the line.

3
iv. If sin = , where is an acute angle, then find the value of cos .
2

v. If (5, 2) is a point on the line PQ and slope of the line PQ is (2), write the equation of the line
PQ.

vi. Draw a tangent at a point A on the circle of radius 3.5 cm and centre P.

Q.3. Solve any three sub-questions: [9]


i. In triangle RST, line l || side ST and line l intersects side RS and side RT in points P and Q
respectively. RPS and RQT, then prove that:
RP RQ R
= .
PS QT A

l P Q

S T

ii. In the following figure, ABC is an isosceles triangle with perimeter 40 cm. The base AC is of
length 10 cm. Side AB and side BC are congruent. A circle touches the three sides as shown in
the figure below.
Find the length of the tangent segment from point B to the circle.
B
A

P R

A Q C
iii. Draw a tangent to the circle with centre P and radius 3.4 cm, from a point Q at a distance of
7.2 cm from the centre of the circle.
iv. Prove that:
sec2 A + cosec2 A = sec2 A cosec2 A.
v. Write the equation of each of the following lines:
1. The line passing through the origin and the point (3, 4).
2. The line passing through the point (3, 5) and parallel to X-axis.
3. The X-axis and the Y-axis.

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Q.4. Solve any two sub-questions: [8]


i. From the top of a lighthouse, an observer looks at a ship and finds the angle of depression to be
60 . If the height of the lighthouse is 90 metres, then find how far is that ship from the
lighthouse? ( 3 = 1.73)
ii. Prove that the opposite angles of the cyclic quadrilateral are supplementary.
iii. The sum of length, breadth and height of a cuboid is 38 cm and the length of its diagonal is 22
cm. Find the total surface area of the cuboid.

Q.5. Solve any two sub-questions: [10]

i. In triangle ABC, C = 90. Let BC = a, CA = b, AB = c and let p be the length of the


perpendicular from C on AB,
Prove that:
1. cp = ab
1 1 1
2. 2
= 2 + 2.
p a b
ii. Construct the circumcircle and incircle of an equilateral triangle ABC with side 6 cm and centre
O. Find the ratio of radii of circumcircle and incircle.
iii. There are three stair-steps as shown in the figure below. Each stair-step has width 25 cm, height
12 cm and length 50 cm. How many bricks have been used in it, if each brick is
12.5 cm 6.25 cm 4 cm?

25cm

12 cm

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BOARD QUESTION PAPER: MARCH 2014


HISTORY AND POLITICAL SCIENCE
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40
Note:
i. It is compulsory to attempt all questions.
ii. The figures to the right indicate total marks.
iii. Question 1 to Question 5 are based on History and Question 6 to Question 9 are based on Political Science.

Q.1. (A) Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate alternatives from those
given in the brackets: [3]
1. Portuguese King _______ motivated navigation.
(William, Henry, Nicholas)

2. The constitution set up in Germany after the First World War was known as _______.
(Genro, Nazism, Weimar)

3. The movement of international trade began in _______.


(Asia, Africa, Europe)

(B) Match the correct pairs: [3]

Group A Group B
i. France a. Apollo-11
ii. Russia b. Pondicherry (Puducherry)
iii. China c. Sputnik-I
d. Canton

Q.2. Answer each of the following questions in 25 to 30 words (any two): [4]
1. How was the Russian Social Democratic Labour Party established in the year 1898?
2. What were the objectives of the League of Nations?
3. Write the revolutionary activities of India during its freedom struggle.

Q.3. Give reasons for the following statements in 25 to 30 words each (any two): [4]
1. Dr. Homi Bhabha is known as the father of Indian Atomic Age.
2. Decline of Tokugawa Shogun began.
3. On 6 th April 1917 America declared war against Germany.

Q.4. Answer the following questions in 40 to 50 words each (any two): [6]
1. How did Hitler acquire power in Germany?
2. Give information about the U.N.O. before its foundation.
3. Write about the Jallianwala Baugh Massacre.

Q.5. Answer the following questions in 60 to 80 words each (any two): [8]
1. What are the advantages of globalization?
2. Write the effects of the First World War.
3. Write about the Nanking Treaty.

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Q.6. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from those given in the brackets: [3]
1. In Australia amendment to the constitution is brought by _______.
(plebiscite, referendum, recall, initiative)
2. Diversity makes society more _______.
(intolerant, tolerant, dangerous, equal)
3. In the absence of _______ political equality can become meaningless.
(affluence, social equality, countrys progress, vigilance)
Q.7. Answer the following questions in one sentence each (any three): [3]
1. What is the main aim of the political party?
2. Why is representative democracy inevitable?
3. What is federal system of government?
4. What responsibility has democracy to take up in situations of economic inequality?
5. In which countries of the world are political parties banned?
Q.8. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons (any two): [4]
1. There is no real democracy in China.
2. There are no restrictions on citizens holding arms in the U.S.
3. Every society is uniform in all respects.
Q.9. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words (any one): [2]
1. Political parties are the link between the government and the people. Explain.
2. Explain why it is said that the nature of government is complex?

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BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2014


SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Time: 3 Hours Marks: 80

(This Board paper is as per old Question paper format.)


Note:
i. Use the same answer-sheet for Section A and Section B.
ii. Draw well-labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
iii. All questions are compulsory.
iv. Students should write the answers of questions in sequence.
SECTION A
Q.1. (A) (a) Rewrite the following statements with suitable words in the blanks: [3]
i. Very fine particles mainly scatter _______ coloured light.
ii. The element eka-silicon in Mendeleevs periodic table is known as _______ in the
modern periodic table.
iii. Sodium or Potassium salt of higher fatty acid is termed as _______.
(b) State whether the following statements are True or False: [2]
i. CuSO4(aq) + Zn (s) ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) is an example of decomposition reaction.
ii. Magnetic lines of force are closed continuous curves.
(B) Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options: [5]
i. The reddish brown deposit formed on iron nails kept in a solution of copper sulphate is:
(A) Cu2O (B) Cu
(C) CuO (D) CuS
ii. What will be the change in the current, if the potential difference is kept constant and the
resistance of the circuit is made four times?
(A) It will remain unchanged (B) It will become four times
(C) It will become one-fourth (D) It will become half
iii. A ray of light strikes the glass slab at an angle of 50. What is the angle of incidence?
(A) 50 (B) 25
(C) 40 (D) 100
iv. From which plant is litmus paper or litmus solution obtained?
(A) Moss (B) Rose
(C) Hibiscus (D) Lichen
v. If the equivalent resistance is to be increased, then the number of resistance should be
connected in:
(A) series (B) parallel
(C) mixed arrangement (D) none of the above
Q.2. Answer any five of the following: [10]
i. Elements in the same group show same valency. Give scientific reason.
ii. Find the resistance of a conductor if 0.24 A current is passing through it and potential
difference of 24 V is applied across it.
iii. Differentiate between Primary pollutants and Secondary pollutants.
iv. Write the electronic configuration of K and Ne.
v. State Flemings right hand rule.
vi. Write a short note on dispersion of light.

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Q.3. Answer any five of the following: [15]


i. State three differences between Direct current and Alternating current.
ii. After you have dinner tonight, wash your own plate with soap/detergent.
1. What colour change is observed when soap/detergent is applied?
2. Name the type of reaction and explain it.
iii. Methyl orange is used as an indicator. It shows colour changes in acid, base and neutral
substance. Tabulate your results are follows:
Indicator Colour Change Inference
No change
Methyl Orange Acid
Yellow
iv. Given below is a diagram showing a defect of human eye.

Study it and answer the following questions:


a. Name the defect shown in the figure.
b. Give two possible reasons for this defect of eye in human being.
c. Name the type of lens used to correct the eye defect.
v. State three effects of Radioactive pollution.
vi. Define refraction and state the laws of refraction.
Q.4. Attempt any one of the following: [5]
i. With a neat labelled diagram derive the equation for three resistances connected in parallel.
ii. With the help of appropriate ray diagram, state the sign convention for reflection by spherical
mirror.
SECTION B
Q.5. (A) (a) Find the odd one out: [2]
i. Pancreas, Gall bladder, Glomerulus, Liver.
ii. C2H4, C4H10, C3H8, CH4.
(b) Match the following: [3]
Column A Column B
i. Stigma a. Neuron
ii. Pepsin b. Carpel
iii. Dendrites c. Protein
d. Stamen
(B) Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options: [5]
i. Iron is
(A) more reactive than Zinc (B) more reactive than Aluminium
(C) less reactive than Copper (D) less reactive than Aluminium
ii. _______ is a mode of asexual reproduction.
(A) Cloning (B) Budding
(C) Pollinating (D) Germination
iii. The percentage of water absorbed by raisins is calculated on dividing _______ by initial
weight.
(A) final weight (B) increased weight
(C) decreased weight (D) none of the above
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iv. Cellular respiration takes place in
(A) lysosome (B) chlorophyll
(C) mitochondria (D) ribosome
v. _______ is not essential for photosynthesis.
(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Light (D) Chlorophyll
6. Answer any five of the following: [10]
i. Give any two differences between Alkane and Alkene.
ii. Write two methods of preventing the rusting of iron.
iii. Write the functions of the following organs of reproduction:
a. Ovaries
b. Seminal vesicle and prostate glands.
iv. Draw a neat labelled diagram of vertical section of the human heart.
v. Write a short note on Pressure Cooker.
vi. Explain the term Haemodialysis.
7. Answer any five of the following: [15]
i. Give the IUPAC name of the following compounds:
(A) CH3CH2CH2OH (B) HCOOH
(C) CH3 CH = CH CH3
ii. Classify the following as voluntary and involuntary actions:
(A) Coughing (B) Food getting digested
(C) Moving a table (D) Kicking a ball
(E) Beating of heart (F) Flying a kite.
iii. What is the three R mantra? Write its significance.
iv. What do you mean by DNA? What is the peculiarity of its structure? Name the scientist who
put forward the most popular model of DNA.
v. Complete the following table to get the difference between asexual and sexual reproduction:
Characteristics Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction
Number of
Parents
involved
Type of cells Somatic cells Germ cells
Involved
Type of cell Meiosis and Mitosis
Division
vi. Classify the types of neurons and state their functions.
8. Attempt any one of the following: [5]
(A) In the extraction of aluminium:
i. Name the process of concentration of Bauxite.
ii. Write the cathode reaction in electrolytic reduction of alumina.
iii. Write the function and formula of cryolite in the extraction of aluminium.
iv. Draw the diagram of extraction of aluminium.
(B) Answer the following questions related to sex determination in human beings:
i. What is sex chromosome?
ii. How many pairs of chromosomes are there in human beings?
iii. How is the sex of the human offspring determined?
iv. Draw a diagram depicting sex determination in man.

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BOARD QUESTION PAPER : OCTOBER 2014


ALGEBRA
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40

Note: Q.P. SET CODE


i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed. C
Q.1. Attempt any five of the following sub-questions: [5]
i. Find S2 for the following given A.P.:
3, 5, 7, 9, . .
ii. If a = 1, b = 8 and c = 15, then find the value of b2 4ac.
iii. Find the width of the class 3545.
iv. By using two variables, write the following statement in mathematical form:
The cost of two tables and five chairs is ` 2,200.
v. If n(A) = 1 and n(S) = 13, then find P(A).
vi. For solving the given quadratic equation by completing square method, find the third term:
x2 + 8x = 15.
Q.2. Attempt any four of the following sub-questions: [8]
i. Find the first four terms in an A.P. when a = 3 and d = 4.
ii. Prepare the cumulative frequency (less than type) table from the given frequency distribution:
Class Frequency
010 4
1020 8
2030 10
3040 5
4050 3
iii. Form the quadratic equation if the roots are 4 and 5.
iv. Find the value of the following determinant:
3 3
2 16

v. Find tn for an A.P. 1, 7, 13, 19, .


vi. Three coins are tossed simultaneously, find S and n(S).
Q.3. Attempt any three of the following sub-questions: [9]
i. Find the first three terms of the following sequence, whose nth term is
tn = 2n + 2.
ii. Solve the following quadratic equation by factorization method:
x2 3x 28 = 0.
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iii. Below is the distribution of money (in `) collected by students for flood relief fund:
Money
No. of Students
(in `)
010 5
1020 2
2030 6
3040 5
4050 7
Find mean of money (in `) collected by a student using Direct Method.
iv. Two digit numbers are formed from the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 where digits are not repeated. Find
the probability of the events that:
a. the number formed is an even number b. the number formed is a prime number.
v. The number of hours spent by a school boy in different activities in a day is given below:
Activity Sleep School Play Home-work Other Total
No. of Hours 6 7 3 4 4 24
Represent the above information using pie diagram.
Q.4. Attempt any two of the following sub-questions: [8]
i. Babubhai borrows ` 4,000 and agrees to repay with a total interest of ` 500 in 10 instalments,
each instalment being less than the preceding instalment by ` 10, what should be the first and
last instalment?
ii. Solve the following simultaneous equations:
27 31
+ = 85;
x2 y +3
31 27
+ = 89.
x2 y +3
iii. Two dice are thrown, find the probability of getting:
a. The sum of numbers on their upper faces is at least 10.
b. The sum of the number on their upper faces is divisible by 5.
c. The number on the upper face of the first die is greater than the number on the upper face
of the second die.
Q.5. Attempt any two of the following sub-questions: [10]
i. When the son will be as old as his father today, the sum of their ages then will be 126.
When the father was as old as his son is today, the sum of their ages then was 38. Find their
present ages.
ii. The following is the frequency distribution with unknown frequencies:
Class 6070 7080 8090 90100 Total
Frequency a/2 3a/2 2a a 50
Find the value of a, hence find the frequencies. Draw a histogram and frequency polygon on the
same co-ordinate system.
iii. From the same place at 7 a.m. A started walking in the north at the speed of 4 km/hr. After
1 hour B started cycling in the east at a speed of 8 km/hr. At what time they will be at a
distance of 20 km apart from each other?

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BOARD QUESTION PAPER : OCTOBER 2014


ENGLISH
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80

SECTION I
(Reading Skills, Vocabulary and Grammar)
Q.1. (A) Read the following passage carefully and complete the activities that follow: [10 marks]
A1. True or False
State whether the following statements are true or false. (2)
(i) Rocks take the shape that the water commands.
(ii) The spider webs are delicate as well as weak.
(iii) Our problems are big and so are we.
(iv) The teamwork and perseverance of ants was impressive.
We went to a rocky beach and saw the spread of the majestic ocean and the rocks
alongside, carved, sculpted and shaped by the water. Water is so gentle, rock so hard, yet, as the
water flows over it every day, for years, the rock gives in. It takes the shape that the water
commands. Our problems are so colossal and we are so small, yet if we persist
We saw small bits of grass peeping through the small cracks in a concrete pavement. It
left us thinking : however impossible things may look, there is always an opening
We saw a tree bare of all leaves in the cold winter months. We thought its chapter was
over. But three months passed, spring set in and the tree was back to its green majesty once
again, full of leaves, flowers, birds and life. What if we too had the conviction that, however
difficult things are right now, it will not remain so for ever. Remember, this too shall pass.
We saw an army of ants lugging a fly which was at least ten times the ants size. The ants
organized themselves around the fly, lifted it on frail feelers and carried it to quite a distance.
Their teamwork and perseverance were impressive. What if we too are consistent, organized,
focused Spider webs are delicate, yet very strong. A rainbow colours the entire sky.
A2. Complete (2)
(i) Bits of grass leaves us thinking that ________.
(ii) If we have the conviction then ________.
(iii) The rock is formed by ________.
(iv) Ants teach us ________.
A3. Frame
Meaningful sentences with the given words: (2)
Impressive, passion
A4. Past Perfect Tense
(a) Choose the sentence with Past Perfect Tense from the sentences given below. (1)
(i) The ants had organised themselves around the fly.
(ii) The ants organized themselves around the fly.
(iii) The ants have organized themselves around the fly.
(b) A rainbow colours the entire sky.
(Begin the sentence with The entire sky .) (1)
A5. Personal Response
How has nature inspired you? (2)

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(B) Read the passage and complete the activities given below: [10 marks]
B1. Guess and Write
Complete the following: (2)
(i) Strong physical, mental and technical qualities helped her ________.
(ii) A never say-die attitude helped her ________.
(iii) Author had high regard for Indian sportswomen because ________.
(iv) Her performance is more creditable because ________.
For Indian badminton, it is one of the best occasions in recent times to raise a toast. For
Saina Nehwal, personally, it has been three great weeks of consistent performance. Basically
there are three aspects that go into the making a badminton star like in most other sports
technical, physical and mental. Abundance of all three attributes is vital to be among the best in
the world. She has it all. That is the major difference between her and the other Indian girls.
Most often, they have just two of these qualities.
Saina is exceptional. She is technically sound, physically fit and mentally strong which
gives her an edge over others. Another great quality is her self-belief and never say-die
attitude. She does not give up easily even when the odds are against her. In a sport like
badminton, her performances are all the more creditable since the game is physically so
demanding.
Personally, I have a very high regard for Indian sportswomen who excel at the highest
level since they face a lot more challenges compared to men because of the nature of our
society. This is more so during the early phase of their career and the parents have to make a lot
of sacrifices to travel with them for their practice sessions well as tournaments.
B2. Web
Complete the following web. (2)

Qualities
of Saina

B3. Phrases
Write from the passage, phrases that mean: (2)
(i) to cheer someone for a great achievement.
(ii) to give one an advantage over someone else.
B4. (a) Preposition
Pick out the prepositions: (1)
(1) That is the major difference between her and other Indian girls.
(2) I have a very high regard for Indian sportswomen.
(b) Select
She has it all. (1)
(Select the correct interrogative form of the given statement)
(1) Doesnt she have it all?
(2) Hasnt she had it all?
(3) Doesnt she has it all?
B5. Personal Response (2)
What are the challenges faced by Indian sportsmen/sportswomen?
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Q.2. (A) Read the following passage and complete the activities given below: [10 marks]
A1. Properties
Mention any 4 properties of Haldi in the following diagram: (2)

Properties
of Haldi

This plant, with its high resistance to insects, pests and fungi and its adaptability to
various soils and climates, is extensively cultivated in Sri Lanka, Indo-China and parts of
China. India is by far the largest producer and consumer of turmeric in the world. In the
country, the States of Maharashtra, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala form the main
turmeric growing belt, often cultivating the plant in rotation with rice or sugarcane or as a
mixed crop with vegetables (this is not widely practised as it is believed that it affects yields).
Over the last few decades, turmeric has ranked third, after black pepper and cardamom, as a
spice export from India.
Because this spice contains essential oils that exude a distinct aroma and flavour,
enriching the sumptuousness of food and its anti-oxidant properties help to preserve pickles and
chutneys, it is very important to the rice-eating people of south and south-eastern Asia. In fact,
the people of Asia consume the largest quantity of turmeric as it is used as an additive in many
vegetables, meat and fish preparations.
A2. Answer (2)
(i) What are the requirements necessary for turmeric plant to grow?
(ii) Why is turmeric used in pickles and chutneys?
A3. Pick out Antonyms (2)
From the passage for the following:
(i) import
(ii) unclear
(iii) before
(iv) acceptance
A4. Articles
(i) India is largest producer and consumer of turmeric in world.
(Insert articles wherever necessary in the given sentence) (1)
(ii) Turmeric helps to preserve pickles and chutneys.
(Rewrite using the noun form of the underlined word ) (1)

A5. Personal Response


You have read about turmeric and its uses. Think of any other plant and write its uses. (2)
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(B) Read the following passage and complete the activities given below: [10 marks]
B1. Tick the correct group with the help of the following passage in the given table: (2)
Word Cave Language
Brahmi
Jogimara
Prakrit
Sita
Bengra
The Ramgiri hills have two main caves, Sita Bengra and Jogimara. On the walls of the
latter are the earliest love verses in Brahmi script. The language, curiously, is not Sanskrit but
Prakrit, which was spoken by the masses then. The translation reads. Roopdaksh Devdin is
enamoured by Devdasi Sutunuka. Roopdaksh is a sculptor, Devdasi a dancer.
Brahmi is one of the oldest scripts of the Asian subcontinent. Contemporary of the
Mauryan dynasty, its specimens are visible on several rock-cut structures that date back to the
3rd and 4 th century BC. The Ramgiri inscriptions date back to around 2nd century BC. Little is
known about the origins of Devdin or Sutunuka, except a probability that the sculptor belonged
to Varanasi, around 350 km away.
The Jogimara cave also has multi-coloured paintings, which eminent cultural critic
Anand Coomaraswamy dated back to 1st century. Coomaraswamy called these the oldest
historical paintings of India. These are older than the Ajanta paintings, Raipur museum
director and noted archaeologist Rahul Singh says.
B2. Select the correct alternatives from the bracket and rewrite the sentences: (2)
(i) The Jogimara has _______ coloured paintings. (multi-/single)
(ii) Roopdaksh is a ________. (writer/sculptor)
(iii) Sutunuka was _______. (singer/dancer)
(iv) Rahul Singh is _______. (Archaeologist/Geologist)
B3. Complete the following cross-words with the help of the clues given below: (2)
1 2
T R A N S L A T I O N

3
S T
G G

4
C E N

Down
(1) Mode of communications (2) The beginning point of something
Across
(3) one of the oldest languages of the World
(4) a natural hollow inside a hill
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B4. (i) Brahmi is one of the oldest scripts of the Asian sub-continent.
(Start with Very few and rewrite the sentence.) (1)
(ii) Ramgiri hills have two main caves.
(Select the correct tag)
(a) dont they?
(b) doesnt they?
(c) arent they? (1)
B5. Historical monuments are often defaced by visitors. Do you think it is right to do so?
Why? (2)
SECTION II
(Poetry)
Q.3. (A) Read the following extract carefully and complete the activities given below: [5 marks]
A1. Web (2)
Complete the web with the activities of birds and animals as mentioned in the poem.

Birds and
Animals

There was a roaring in the wind all night;


The rain came heavily and fell in floods;
But now the sun is rising calm and bright,
The birds are singing in the distant woods;
Over his own sweet voice the Stock-dove broods;
The Jay makes answer as the Magpie chatters;
And all the air is filled with pleasant noise of waters.
All things that love the sun are out of doors;
The sky rejoices in the mornings birth;
The grass is bright with raindropson the moors
The hare is running races in her mirth;
And with her feet she from the plashy earth
Raises a mist; that, glittering in the sun,
Runs with her all the way, wherever she doth run.
A2. How does the poet describe the following? (2)
rain, grass, air, mist
A3. Poetic device (1)
The sky rejoices in the mornings birth
The sky is given human quality
The figure of speech is .

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(B) Read the following extract of a poem and complete the activities given below: [5 marks]
B1. Find Proof
Find the lines from the given extract to prove the following statements: (2)
(a) Mother is repenting for not giving time to the child (Ans. _______)
(b) The child is now an adult. (Ans. _______)
(c) Mother would walk noiselessly. (Ans. _______)
(d) Mother makes excuses. (Ans. _______)
My hands were busy through the day;
I didnt have much time to play
The little games you asked me to.
I didnt have much time for you.
Id wash your clothes, Id sew and cook,
But when youd bring your picture book
And ask me please to share your fun
Id say : A little later, son.
Id tuck you in all safe at night
and hear your prayers, turn out the lights,
Then tip toe softly to the door
I wish Id stayed a minute more.
For life is short, the years rush past..
A little boy grows up so fast.
No longer is he at your side
His precious secrets to confide.
B2. Complete from the poem the mothers activities:
(One has been done for you.) (2)
*She would tuck him in bed.
(1) Mother would _______.
(2) Mother would _______.
(3) Mother would _______.
(4) Mother would _______.
B3. Rhyme Scheme
The rhyme scheme of the first four lines is:
(a) aabb (b) abab (c) bbab (1)
SECTION III
(Rapid Reading)
Q.4. Read the following passage and complete the activities given below: [5 marks]
A1. Match
Characters Their Actions
(i) Doctor gratitude
(ii) Patient a stern look
bewilderment (1)
He sent away the assistant and sat beside the patient. At about eleven the patient opened
his eyes and smiled at his friend. He showed a slight improvement, he was able to take in a
little food. A great feeling of relief and joy went through the household. They swarmed around
the doctor and poured out their gratitude. He sat in his seat beside the bed, gazing sternly at the
patients face, hardly showing any signs of hearing what they were saying to him. The sick
mans wife asked, Is he now out of danger? Without turning his head the doctor said, Give
glucose and brandy every forty minutes; just a couple of spoons will do. The lady went away
to the kitchen. She felt restless. She felt she must know the truth whatever it was. Why was the
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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Board Question Paper : October 2014
great man so evasive? The suspense was unbearable. Perhaps he could not speak so near the
patients bed. She beckoned to him from the kitchen doorway. The doctor rose and went over.
She asked, What about him now? How is he? The doctor bit his lips and replied, looking at
the floor, Dont get excited. Unless you must know about it, dont ask now. Her eyes opened
wide in terror. She clasped her hands together and implored, Tell me the truth. The doctor
replied, I would rather not talk to you now. He turned round and went back to his chair. A
terrible wailing shot through the still house; the patient stirred and looked about in
bewilderment. The doctor got up again, went over to the kitchen door, drew it in securely and
shut off the wail.
A2. Complete (2)
(i) A great feeling of relief and joy went through the household because ________.
(ii) The lady was restless because _______.
A3. Personal Response (2)
The doctor was not ready to share any information about the patient to his wife. Guess the
reasons.
SECTION IV
(Writing Skills)
Q.5. (A) Letter Writing [5 marks]
A1. Letter
Imagine Prithvi as your classmate and write a letter congratulating him on the grand
success. Take points from the following news.
Sunny days ahead for Prithvi
Mumbai: Prithvi Shaw shot into limelight by slamming a record of 546 in the Harris
Shield. It was the stamina and hardwork that brought the stupendous achievement.
OR
A2. Letter
Look at the following news and write a letter to the forest officer, Marathwada region,
Aurangabad to take strong action to increase the number of birds.
15 Indian species of birds endangered Amongst many other reasons loss of wet
lands, grasslands are the main. The human pressures on the ecosystem and the
construction is largely responsible. Urbanisation and modernisation results into loss of
birds.
(B) B1. Report Writing [5 marks]
The education officer of the Municipal Council had arranged a Science Exhibition in
your city. Dr. Narverkar, Senior Assistant of Scientist was invited as Chief Guest for the
function. Write a report for the newspaper.

Std. VIII, IX, X invited to Each school will send three


submit working models. students, one Sc. Teacher.

Visit of Chief Guest Duration of


on last day Exhibition 10 days.

Take the help of the above hints and prepare a report.


OR
B2. Interview Writing
With a proper beginning and conclusion prepare a list of 10 questions to interview
Dr. Narverkar the chiefguest at the science exhibition.
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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. English
Q.6. (A) Information Transfer [5 marks]
A1. Transfer the information about the Water-cycle given in the flow chart into a paragraph:
Sunrays absorb Water vapour The higher it
water from sea, rises. goes the cooler
streams, rivers. it becomes.

Falls on earth Becomes too Condensed into


as rain. heavy to clouds.
hold water.
OR
A2. Read the following paragraph and transfer the information in the form of a tree diagram:

We all read for variety of reasons. Our basic reason for reading is probably pleasure. We
read literature mostly because we enjoy it. Reading for pleasure may take various forms. We
may read just to pass the time. We often read for information and knowledge. We find pleasure
in learning about life in the Swiss Alps or the Mississippi river. We also read simply for
enjoyment. We get pleasure from the arrangement of words. We can find pleasure even in
syllables just as children like the sound Ring around the Rosie although they may not know
what the words mean.
(B)
B1. Prepare a speech to be delivered by you on the occasion of Independence Day laying
stress on Value of Freedom:
[5 marks]

150 years of
subordination Sacrifice of
freedom fighters

Challenges
Democracy to
be cherished

OR
B2. Develop a paragraph on the view: Internet is the need of Independent India.
* Great speed
* Global connectivity
* Storehouse of information
* Any other point.
Q.7. Expansion of an idea (any one) [5 marks]
(i) (1) Travelling broadens the mind.
(2) Perseverance is the key to success.
OR
(ii) Develop a story wherein any one of the above ideas is the moral. Suggest a suitable title.

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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Geography and Economics

BOARD QUESTION PAPER: OCTOBER 2014


GEOGRAPHY AND ECONOMICS
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Figure to the right indicate full marks.
iii. For Question No.3 (A) use the graph paper supplied to you and attach it to the main answer book.
iv. For Question No.3 (C) use supplied outline map of India and tie it to your answer-book.
v. Use of stencil is allowed for drawing map.
vi. Draw neat diagrams and sketches wherever necessary.

Q.1. (A) Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate alternatives from those
given in the brackets and rewrite the sentence in your answer-book. [3]
1. The triangular region to the south of Narmada is known as the _______ plateau.
(Malwa, Bundelkhand, Chota Nagpur, Deccan)
2. Area wise India is the _______ largest country in the world.
(fifth, sixth, seventh, fourth)
3. Varanasi is famous for _______.
(Cotton Sarees, Woollen Clothes, Silk Sarees, Leather Production)
(B) Match the items in Column A with those in Column B [3]
Column A Column B
i. Gurushikhar a. Madhya pradesh
ii. Vindhyachal b. Western Ghat
iii. Chota Nagpur c. Aravali Mountain
d. Rich in Minerals
Q.2. (A) Give geographical reasons for the following statements (any two): [4]
1. Soil is infertile and immature in the Middle Ganga Plain.
2. Himalayan region receives heavy precipitation on the Indian side but the condition is arid
in Tibet.
3. Rajasthan desert fascinates tourists.
4. The Deccan is home to many languages and people.
(B) Write short notes on (any two): [4]
1. Water frontier of India.
2. Agriculture in the Eastern Coastal Plains.
3. Punjabi Culture.
Q.3. (A) With the help of the given statistical data prepare a Divided Rectangle: [2]
India: Agricultural Production
(Kharif) 2010-11
Crops Production (in percentage)
Rice 43
Coarse Cereals 20
Pulses 08
Oil seeds 14
Cotton 15
Total 100
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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Board Question Paper: October 2014

(B) Observe the following diagram and answer the questions given below it (any two): [2]
Vehicle Sales in India
(2009 2010)

Passenger Vehicles
440,368
Commercial Vehicles

Three-wheelers
9,371,231
Two-wheelers

Questions:
1. Which type of vehicles have maximum sale?
2. Which type of vehicles have the lowest sale?
3. How many commercial vehicles are sold?
4. Name the diagram.
(C) Mark the following in the outline map of India supplied to you. Write the names and
give Index (any two): [2]
1. Highest Peak of India
2. Aravali Hills;
3. National Highway : Mumbai-Ahmedabad-Delhi;
4. River Narmada.
Q.4. Answer the following questions in detail (any two): [8]
1. What are the characteristics of tourism in the Himalayan region?
2. Give the details about the Tamil Nadu Coast.
3. Explain traditional Methods of Rain-water Harvesting.
Q.5. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternatives from those given in the brackets and
rewrite the sentence in your answer-book. [2]
1. Optimum Population indicates ________ size of population.
(an ideal, lower, excess)
2. Productive activities are mainly classified into _______ sectors.
(one, two, three)
Q.6. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each (any three): [6]
1. Explain the labour intensive technique.
2. What are the non-economic effects of Inflation?
3. What is meant by Cash Reserve Ratio?
4. What is meant by food adulteration?
5. What are the main objectives of Public Distribution System?
Q.7. Answer any one of the following questions in five or six sentences: [4]
1. What are the most common business malpractices?
2. Explain the direct measures taken by the government to control inflation.

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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Board Question Paper: October 2014

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : OCTOBER 2014


GEOMETRY
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40
Note: Q.P. SET CODE
i. Solve all questions. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed.
iii. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iv. Marks of constructions should be distinct. They should not be rubbed off.
C
v. Diagram is essential for the proof of the theorem.

Q.1. Solve any five sub-questions: [5]


i. In the figure given below, seg BE seg AB and seg BA seg AD. If BE = 6 and AD = 9,
A ( ABE )
find .
A ( BAD )
E B

A D
ii. If two circles having centre P and Q touches externally each other with their radii 3 cm and
5 cm, find the distance PQ.
iii. The terminal arm is in II (second) quadrant, what is the possible measure of an angle.
iv. Find the slope of line having inclination 60.
v. Find the area of sector of circle having radius 6 cm and length of the arc 15 cm.
vi. Sides of the triangle are 7 cm, 24 cm and 25 cm. Determine whether the triangle is right angled
triangle or not.
Q.2. Solve any four sub-questions: [8]
i. In the figure given below, Ray LS is the bisector of MLN, where seg ML seg LN, find
the relation between MS and SN.
M


N
L
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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Geometry

ii. As shown in the figure below two concentric circles are given and line LM is the tangent to the
smaller circle at N. Prove that N is the mid-point of seg LM.

L N M

iii. Find the slope of line passing through the point P(3, 2), Q(4, 1).
iv. If tan = 4, where is an acute angle, find the value of cos .
v. Draw the tangent at any point M on the circle of radius 3.5 cm with centre O.
vi. Find the slope and Y-intercept of line y 5x = 4.

Q.3. Solve any three sub-questions: [9]


i. In the figure given below, ABC, seg AP is the median. If AP = 7, AB2 + AC2 = 260, find BC.
A

B P C
ii. In the figure given below two chords EF and GH are parallel to each other. O is the centre of
the circle. Show that EOG FOH.

E F

G H

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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Board Question Paper: October 2014

iii. Draw the circumcircle of PMT in which PM = 5.6 cm, P = 60, M = 70.

iv. Prove that:


1 + cos A
= cosec A + cot A.
1 cos A

v. Find the equation of line passing through (3, 4) and making intercepts equal in the magnitude
but opposite in sign on both the axes.
Q.4. Solve any two sub-questions: [8]
i. Prove that : The length of two tangent segments drawn to the circle from an external point are
equal.

ii. A tree is broken by wind. The top struck the ground at an angle of 30 and at a distance 30 m
from the root. Find the whole height of tree. ( 3 = 1.73 )
iii. The dimensions of metallic cuboid are 44 cm 42 cm 21 cm. It is molten and recast into a
sphere. Find the surface area of the sphere.

Q.5. Solve any two sub-questions: [10]

i. If the angles of a triangle are 30, 60 and 90, then show that the side opposite to 30 is half of
3
the hypotenuse and side opposite to 60 is times of hypotenuse.
2

MA 7
ii. AMT ~ AHE. In AMT, MA = 6.3 cm, MAT = 120 , AT = 4.9 cm, = .
HA 5
Construct AHE.
iii. Water flows at the rate of 10 metres per minute through a cylindrical pipe having its diameter
20 mm. How much time will it take to fill a conical vessel of base diameter 40 cm and depth
24 cm?

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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. History and Political Science

BOARD QUESTION PAPER: OCTOBER 2014


HISTORY AND POLITICAL SCIENCE
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40
Note:
i. It is compulsory to attempt all questions.
ii. The figures to the right indicate total marks.
iii. Question 1 to Question 5 are based on History and Question 6 to Question 9 are based on Political Science.

Q.1. (A) Complete the statements by choosing the appropriate alternatives from those given in the
brackets: [3]
1. Under the leadership of _______, Dharasana Satyagraha took place.
(Sarojini Naidu, Kasturba Gandhi, Madam Cama)
2. The _______ continent was known as the unknown continent till the 18th century.
(Asia, Africa, America)
3. _______ is called as father of Atomic Energy.
(Niels Bohr, Walten, Rutherford)

(B) Match the correct pairs: [3]


Column A Column B
i. League of Nation Secretariat a. Non-Aligned Movement
ii. Lord Curzon b. Geneva
iii. Pandit Nehru c. Partition of Bengal
d. President of America

Q.2. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words (Any two): [4]


1. How did imperialistic nations establish their economic domination over China?
2. Which programme was planned by the revolutionaries for the achievement of independence?
3. Write the advantages of artificial satellites.
Q.3. Give reasons for the following statements in 25 to 30 words (Any two): [4]
1. The Portuguese could not set up their empire in India.
2. The villages in India lost their self-sufficiency.
3. Militarism increased in Europe.
Q.4. Answer the following questions in 40 to 50 words (Any two): [6]
1. Write any three reasons for imperialism.
2. Explain the objectives of the League of Nations.
3. Write the functions of the Secretary General of United Nations Organisation.

Q.5. Answer the following questions in 60 to 80 words (Any two): [8]


1. Write the effects of the First World War.
2. Write the uses of computer in various fields.
3. Write the information about Russian Revolution with reference to:
a. Despotic rule in Russia b. Lenins contribution
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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Board Question Paper: October 2014

Q.6. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from those given in the brackets: [3]
1. India has __________ form of Democracy.
(direct, indirect, presidential, mixed)
2. The most prominent example of inequality in India is that of _______ .
(Religious System, Political System, Caste System, Social System)
3. The party (or parties) winning the majority of seats in the elections is known as _______ party.
(Ruling, Opposition, Independent, Free)
Q.7. Answer the following questions in one sentence each (Any three): [3]
1. On What basis, do we find the division as superior-subordinate made, in the society?
2. Why is representative democracy inevitable?
3. How many types of political parties are there in India? What are they?
4. Write any one example of social pressure.
5. Who undertook efforts to abolish the caste system in India?
Q.8. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons (Any two): [4]
1. The Indirect Democracy is the democracy based on the direct participation of the citizens.
2. It is considered important to have Opposition Party in Democracy.
3. Economic inequality is not the challenge before Democracy.
Q.9. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words (Any one): [2]
1. What measures are adopted to resolve the issues relating to gender inequality?
2. State the challenges before the inequality and explain any one in detail.

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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Science and Technology

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : OCTOBER 2014


SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Time: 3 Hours Marks: 80

(This Board paper is as per old Question paper format.)


Note:
i. Use the same answer-sheet for Section A and Section B.
ii. Draw well-labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
iii. All questions are compulsory.
iv. Students should write the answers of questions in sequence.

SECTION A
Q.1. (A) (a) Fill in the blanks and rewrite the statements: [2]
i. Elements showing properties of both metals and non-metals are known as _______.
ii. The device used for producing current is called a _______.
(b) Rewrite the following table so as to match second and third column with first column: [2]
Column I Column II Column III
i. Myopia a. Old age problem 1. Bifocal lens
ii. Presbyopia b. Near-sightedness 2. Concave lens
(c) State whether the following statements are True or False: [1]
The SI unit of charge is coulomb.
(B) Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the following sentence: [5]
i. Phenolphthalein is _______ type of Indicator.
(A) Natural Indicator (B) Universal Indicator
(C) Synthetic Indicator (D) None of the above
ii. Which of the following is not required to find the pH of a given solution?
(A) pH paper (B) Litmus paper
(C) Standard pH value chart (D) Universal indicator
iii. When the resistance of the conductor increases, then the current will _______
(A) Increase (B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same (D) None of the above
iv. If three resistors 2 ohm, 3 ohm and 4 ohm are connected in series, then effective
resistance in a circuit will be _______ ohm.
(A) 9 (B) 6
(C) 1 (D) 5
v. A ray of light strikes the glass slab at an angle of 50. The the angle of incidence will be
_______
(A) 50 (B) 90
(C) 60 (D) 40
Q.2. Answer the following questions (any five): [10]
i. State Mendeleevs periodic law.
ii. Name two elements having a single electron in their outermost shell.
iii. Grills of doors and windows are always painted before they are used. Give reason.
iv. State the laws of refraction.

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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Board Question Paper: October 2014
v. Draw a well labelled diagram to show refraction of light through glass slab.
vi. Name two human diseases caused due to water pollution.
Q.3. Answer the following (any five): [15]
i. What is corrosion? Do gold ornaments corrode? Justify.
ii. If pH value of solution A is 8, pH value of solution B is 7 and pH value of solution C is
5.5, then:
1. Which solution is acidic?
2. Which solution is basic?
3. Which solution is neutral?
iii. Write three safety measures in using electricity.
iv. What do you mean by dispersion? Name the different colurs of light in the proper sequence in
the spectrum of light.
v. State the principles of electric motor and electric generator.
vi. State the role of citizens in pollution control. Give three efforts taken in order to reduce
pollution.
Q.4. Answer any one of the following questions: [5]
(A) (a) What should I choose _______.
i. for decreasing resistance in a circuit.
(Resistors in series / Resistors in parallel)
ii. for getting protection from electric current.
(Nickel / Ebonite)
iii. to measure the current in the circuit.
(Ammeter / Voltmeter)
(b) My mother was operating the washing machine on Sunday morning. Suddenly, she saw a
spark coming out of the electric board and the electric current in the house failed. An
electrician was called to look into the matter. What should he have noticed?
(B) (a) In which equipment/s do you find _______
i. a concave mirror
ii. a convex lens
iii. reflecting mirrors?
(b) My grandfather uses a bifocal lens in his spectacle. Explain, why.
SECTION B
Q.5. (A) (a) Fill in the blanks and rewrite the statements: [3]
i. The general formula of Alkane is _______.
ii. _______ is the largest gland in the body.
iii. The loss of water from the plants is known as _______.
(b) State whether the following statements are True or False: [2]
i. The daughter cells produced by asexual reproduction are genetically identical to the
parent cell.
ii. In sexual mode of reproduction, greater diversities are generated.
(B) Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the following : [5]
i. Ethanoic acid _______
(A) is odourless (B) has a pungent smell
(C) has smell of rotten egg (D) has a vinegar like odour
ii. Which of the following is a mode of asexual reproduction?
(A) Fission (B) Budding
(C) Spore formation (D) All of the above

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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Science and Technology

iii. In hydra the type of reproduction is _______.


(A) Binary fission (B) Budding
(C) Multiple fission (D) none of the above
iv. Which of the following is not essential for photosynthesis?
(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sunlight (D) Chlorophyll
v. Ankita bought some Glucose Powder. She felt it was adulterated with starch powder.
How would she test it?
(A) by sieving (B) by dissolving it in water
(C) by iodine test (D) all of the above
Q.6. Answer the following subquestions (any five): [10]
i. Sodium is stored under kerosene. Give reason.
ii. What are hydrocarbons? Give one example.
iii. Distinguish between: Autotrophic nutrition and Heterotrophic nutrition.
iv. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the Liver.
v. What is pollination? Mention its types.
vi. Define Heredity. Give two examples.
Q.7. Answer any five of the following subquestions: [15]
i. Write three methods of preventing rusting of iron.
ii. Draw a well labelled diagram of extraction of Aluminium. Write the anode reaction in
electrolytic reduction of Alumina.
iii. What are functional groups? Name any two compounds containing functional groups.
iv. Classify the following as voluntary and involuntary movements:
(a) Coughing
(b) Food getting digested
(c) Moving a table
(d) Beating of heart
(e) Function of the kidneys
(f) Flying a kite
v. Explain with two examples, movements in plants which are growth independent.
vi. What is meant by vegetative propagation? Name the vegetative parts through which Potato and
Bryophyllum reproduce.
Q.8. Write the answer of any one question given below: [5]
(i) (a) How many pairs of autosomes and pairs of sex chromosomes are present in a human
being? 2
(b) Which chromosomes are present in a Female? 1
(c) Which chromosomes are present in a Male? 1
(d) How does sex determination take place in human beings? 1
(ii) State the powers of Maharashtra Pollution Control Board (MPCB) to control the Air Pollution.

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Board Question Paper : July 2015

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2015


ALGEBRA
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40

Note: Q.P. SET CODE


i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed.
A
1. Attempt any five of the following subquestions: [5]
i. Find the first two terms of the following sequence:
tn = n + 2.
ii. Write the quadratic equation 3y2 = 10y + 7 in the standard form
ax2 + bx + c = 0
4 3
iii. Find the value of the following determinant:
2 7
iv. Write the sample space if two coins are tossed.
v. State whether the following sequence is an A.P. or not.
1, 3, 6, 10,
vi. The perimeter of a rectangle is 36 cm. Write the equation for this statement using two
variables.
2. Attempt any four of the following subquestions: [8]
i. If one root of the quadratic equation, x2 7x + k = 0 is 4, then find the value of k.
ii. Find the eighteenth term of the A.P. 7, 13, 19, 25,
iii. A die is thrown. Write the sample space. If P is the event of getting an odd number, then write
the event P using set notation.
iv. If Dx = 18, Dy = 15 and D = 3 are the values of the determinants for certain simultaneous
equations in x and y, then find the values of x and y.
v. Form the quadratic equation if its roots are 5 and 7.
vi. If for a certain frequency distribution, Median = 156 and Mode = 180, find the value of the
Mean.

3. Attempt any three of the following subquestions : [9]


i. Solve the quadratic equation 2x2 + 5x + 2 = 0 using formula method.
ii. There are 30 tickets numbered from 1 to 30 in box and a ticket is drawn at random. If A is the
event that the number on the ticket is a perfect square, then write the sample space S, n(S), the
event A and n(A).
iii. Obtain the sum of the first 56 terms of an A.P. whose 18th and 39th terms are 52 and 148
respectively.
iv. Draw the graph of the equation 3x y = 6 and write the points of intersection of the graph
with X-axis and Y-axis.
v. Electricity used by farmers during different parts of a day for irrigation is as follows:

Part of the Day Morning Afternoon Evening Night


Percentage of
30 40 20 10
Electricity Used
Draw a pie diagram to represent this information.

224
Algebra
4. Attempt any two of the following subquestions: [8]
i. A card is drawn at randonm from a well-shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. Find the
probability of the events that the card drawn is:
a. a king b. a face card.
ii. Solve the quadratic equation: 3x4 13x2 + 10 = 0
iii. The maximum bowling speed (km/hour) of 33 players at a cricket coaching centre is given
below:
Bowling Speed (km/hr) 85-100 100-115 115-130 130-145
Number of Players 9 11 8 5
Find the modal bowling speed of players.
5. Attempt any two of the following subquestions : [10]
i. Students of a school were made to stand in rows for drill. If 3 students less were standing in
each row, 10 more rows would be required and if 5 students more were standing in each row,
then the number of rows would be reduced by 10. Find the number of students participating in
the drill.
ii. In winter, the temperatures at a hill station from Monday to Friday are in A.P. The sum of the
temperatures of Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday is 0C and the sum of the temperatures of
Thursday and Friday is 15C. Find the temperature of each of the five days.
iii. Draw the Histogram and hence, the Frequency polygon for the following frequency
distribution:
House Rent (in ` per month) 400-600 600-800 800-1000 1000-1200
Number of families 200 240 300 50

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Board Question Paper : July 2015

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2015


ENGLISH
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80

SECTION I
(Reading Skills, Grammar and Vocabulary (Prose))

Q.1. (A) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
A1. True or False (2)
State whether the following statements are true or false and rewrite them:
According to the narrator
(i) The first thought that entered the writers mind was that it was a ghost.
(ii) The sound of the footsteps began at quarter past one oclock.
(iii) The grandmother was in the kitchen.
(iv) The narrator was in the bed when he heard the steps.

The ghost that got into our house on the night of November 17, 1915, raised such a
hullabaloo of misunderstandings that I am sorry I didnt just let it keep on walking and go to
bed. Its advent caused my mother to throw a shoe through a window of the house next door
and ended up with my grandfather shooting a patrolman. I am sorry, therefore, as I have said,
that I ever paid any attention to the footsteps.
They began about a quarter past one oclock in the morning, a rhythmic, quick-
cadenced walking around the dining-room table. My mother was asleep in one room upstairs,
my brother Herman in another, grandfather was in the attic, in the old walnut bed which, as
you will remember, once fell on my father. I had just stepped out of the bathtub and was
busily rubbing myself with a towel when I heard the steps. They were the steps of a man
walking rapidly around the dining-table downstairs. The light from the bathroom shone down
the back-steps, which dropped directly into the dining-room; I could see the faint shine of
plates on the plate-rail; I couldnt see the table. The steps kept going round and round the
table; at regular intervals a board creaked, when it was trod upon. I supposed at first that it
was my father or my brother Roy, who had gone to Indianapolis but were expected home at
any time. I suspected next that it was a burglar. It did not enter my mind until later that it was
a ghost.
A2. Table (2)
State the action of characters in the extract:

Character Action
Mother
Herman
Roy
The Narrator

A3. Matching (2)


Match the words given in column A with their appropriate meanings from column B:

Column A Column B
(i) hullabaloo (a) arrival or coming
(ii) advent (b) sadly
(iii) attic (c) thief
(iv) burglar (d) room just below the roof of a building
(e) lot of loud noise

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English
A4. Language study: (2)
(i) They were expected home at any time. [Begin your sentence with, We]
(ii) I heard the footsteps, _______ [Choose the correct tag and rewrite the sentences.]
(a) didnt? (b) did I? (c) dont I?

A5. Personal Response (2)


How would you react on a dark night if you hear any sound in your kitchen? Support your
answer with appropriate reasons.

(B) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
B1. Complete (2)
(i) (ii)
Two beverages
Two regiments of mentioned in the
Indian Army passage

Each crowd had a language of its own and spoke among themselves without the fear of
being overheard. Something as ubiquitous as dal tasted like sambar in the south, gaining its
dal-ness as we climbed up to Orissa; tea was called, chya, chai and sa, while coffee was kafi,
kaapi, and koffee. For a person with limited skills when it comes to learning and
understanding new languages, this was my Train of Babel.
But I was clearly in minority. The train had in it soldiers from the south going back to
patrol borders far away from home, and workers from the east going back home on a much-
needed break both serving as the connection between various parts of the country. These
were the polyglots, speaking in tongues that had no relation with their own, at times in
functional, curt phrases, or with flourish.
On the train, it was soon clear how important this was for those from the south and
Northeast. Every second passenger was a defence personnel, a majority of them belonging to
the oldest regiment of Indian Army, the Madras regiment, and the Assam Rifles. The other
half was made up of labourers from the east and further east the seven sisters of the
northeast. The former protects, the latter serves.
The third kind of passengers was those from the north and north east, forces to come
down thousands of kilometres for quality medical care. P. Gupta, the patriarch of a family
from Dimapur, Nagaland, had come to the CMC Hospital in Vellore, where he underwent
check-ups for his various ailments.
B2. Give reasons (2)
Complete the following sentences by giving reasons:
According to the narrator
(i) The soldiers from the south were going back because _______
(ii) The crowd spoke without fear because _______
(iii) The narrator was in minority because _______
(iv) The writer calls the train as Train of Babel because _______

B3. Find Words (2)


Find words from the passage that mean:
(i) Very common _______ b _______ t _______
(ii) Knowing or using many languages _______ y _______ s.
(iii) Small number of people m _______.
(iv) Common illness _______ t.
209
Board Question Paper : July 2015
B4. Language Study (2)
Frame a Wh-question for the following statements with the help of the Wh-words given in
the brackets:
(i) The other half was made up of labourers from the east. (What)
(ii) The third kind of passengers was forced to come down thousands of kilometres for
quality medical care. (Why)
B5. Personal Response (2)
How does the extract signify that India is a country of unity in diversity?
Q.2. (A) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
A1. Order (2)
Arrange the following sentences in chronological order:
(i) The father noticed the son playing with the wood scrap on the floor.
(ii) The words of the little boy so struck the parents that they were speechless.
(iii) The son and the daughter-in-law became irritated with the mess.
(iv) The husband and wife set a small table in the corner of the room for the old man.
A frail old man went to live with his son, daughter-in-law and their four-year-old son.
The old mans hands trembled, his eyesight was bad and his step faltered. Every night the
family ate together at the dinner table. But the elderly grandfathers shaky hands and failing
sight made eating rather difficult. Peas rolled off his spoon onto the floor. When he grasped
his glass, often water spilled on the table cloth. The son and daughter-in-law became irritated
with the mess. We must do something about grandfather, said the son. Ive had enough of
his spilled water, noisy eating and food on the floor. So the husband and wife set a small
table in a corner of the room. There, the old man was made to eat alone while the rest of the
family enjoyed dinner at the table. Since he had broken a dish or two, his food was served in a
wooden bowl. Sometimes, when the family glanced in his direction, he had a tear in his eye as
he ate alone. Still, the only words the couple had for him were sharp admonitions when he
dropped a spoon or spilled food. Their four-year-old son watched it all in silence.
One evening before dinner, the father noticed his son playing with wood scraps on the
floor. He asked the child sweetly, What are you making? Just as sweetly, the boy responded,
Oh, I am making a little bowl for you and mama to eat your food for when I grow up. The
four-year-old smiled and went back to work. The words so struck the parents that they were
speechless. Then tears started to stream down their cheeks. Though no word was spoken, both
knew what must be done. That evening the husband took his fathers hand and gently led him
back to the family table.
A2. Find Proof (2)
Write the lines from the extract in proof of the following statements:
(i) The son and the daughter-in-law were irritated.
(ii) The grandfather was sorry for the action of his son.
(iii) The grandson taught a lesson to his parents.
(iv) The parents repented for their action

A3. Antonyms (2)


Find the opposite meaning words from the extract for the following
(i) strong (ii) praises (iii) rare (iv) rudely
A4. Language Study (2)
(i) He took his fathers hand and led him back to the table. (Begin the sentence with
Taking his )
(ii) He asked the child sweetly, What are you making?
He asked the child sweetly what
(Complete it in indirect form)
A5. Personal response (2)
Does this story appeal to you? Why? Support your answer with reasons.
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English
(B) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
B1. Advantages (2)
Mention any Four advantages of cycling as given in the passage:

Advantages
of cycling

Motor Transport is killing us! So says, Dr Anuradha Lal of DHI (Doctors of a Healthy
India) which met in Delhi yesterday. Thousands of people die every year in traffic accidents.
Even more people die because they breathe polluted air from motor vehicles. (Delhi is one of
the most polluted cities in the world.) So what is the answer? DHI says, we should make
cycling easier. Dr Lal outlined six reasons why:
(1) Most Indian cities are very polluted because every motor vehicle produces dirty fumes.
Doctor says that city air is so dirty that thousands of people die every year of chest
illnesses. Cycling is clean because it produces no fumes.
(2) Cyclists dont have to spend on petrol, so bicycles are cheap to run. Cycle repairs are
cheaper than motor repairs too because bicycles are quite simple machines.
(3) Bicycles save money for our country too. All motor vehicles need petrol which comes
from oil. India does not produce much oil, so we have to buy it from other countries.
But we dont need to buy anything from foreign countries to ride bicycles.
(4) If we get exercise every day, we become healthy. Cycling keeps us fit. Driving motor
vehicles does not!
(5) In cities sometimes, traffic doesnt move at all as there is not enough space on the
roads. Bicycles are too small to take up much road space.
(6) Motor traffic is very noisy. In contrast, bicycles are quiet except for the gentle tring,
tring of their bells.
B2. Finding difference (2)
Point out the difference between cycle and other vehicles:
Point of difference Pollution Price Health of a rider Space on the road
Cycle Clean Keeps healthy
Other Vehicles Costly Cover major space
B3. Vocabulary (2)
Point out the difference of meaning of the underlined words:
(i) Bicycles save money for the country too.
(ii) Bicycles are too small to take up much road space.
B4. Language Study (2)
(i) Delhi is one of the most polluted cities in the world. (Begin your sentence with Very
few)
(ii) Cycle repairs are cheaper than motor repairs. (Begin your sentence with Motor
repairs)
B5. Personal Response (2)
How, according to you, will be cycling safer and easier in cities?
SECTION II
(Poetry)
Q.3. (A) Read the following extract and do the given activities: [5 marks]
A1. Find Out (2)
Find how the poet describes the following:
(i) The birds _______ (ii) The rain _______
(iii) The sky _______ (iv) The grass _______
211
Board Question Paper : July 2015

There was a roaring in the wind all night;


The rain came heavily and fell in floods;
But now the Sun is rising calm and bright,
The birds are singing in the distant woods;
Over his own sweet voice the stock-dove broods;
The Jay makes answer as the Magpie chatters;
And all the air is filled with pleasant noise of waters.
All things that love the sun are out of doors;
The sky rejoices in the mornings birth;
The grass is bright with raindrops on the moors
The hare is running races in her mirth;
And with her feet, she from the plashy Earth
Raises a mist; that, glittering in the Sun,
Runs with her all the way, wherever she doth run.

A2. Difference (2)


Compare night and morning as described in the poem and write:
Night: _______ Morning: _______
A3. The sky rejoices in the mornings birth The figure of speech is _______ because _______. (1)
(Complete the given sentence).
(B) Read the following lines and do the activities: [5 marks]
B1. Web (2)
Complete the web with any four activities performed by mother as given in the stanzas:

Mother

My hands were busy through the day;


I didnt have much time to play
The little games you asked me to.
I didnt have much time for you.
Id wash your clothes, Id sew and cook
But when youd bring your picture book
And ask me please to share your fun
Id say: A little later, son.
Id tuck you in all safe at night
And hear your prayers, turn out the lights,
Then tiptoe softly to the door.
I wish Id stayed a minute more.

B2. Complete (2)


Expectations of the son Reactions of the mother
(i) _______ (i) _______
(ii) _______ (ii) _______
B3. Write any 2 pairs of rhyming words from the first eight lines. (1)
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English
SECTION III
(Rapid Reading)

Q.4. (A) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [5 marks]
A1. Fill in the blanks by selecting proper word/words from the given passage: (1)
(i) The last destination where the writers father posted was _______.
(ii) The age of the writer when the story took place was _______.

One of the advantages of growing up in an Army household was the frequency with
which we move. Postings came with predictable regularity every three years. What was
unpredictable and therefore exciting was the suspense. Where would we go this time?
Ambala, Pune, Dehradun, Allahabad, Tejpur, Bangalore, Yo! In my short span of thirteen
years we had moved lock, stock and barrel eleven times!
Every move meant a change. New journeys, new schools, my new books, new
uniforms, new friends and new houses. We lived in tents, bashas, Nissen huts, flats and
bungalows. No matter what the shape and size of the dwelling, mother soon put her own
special stamps on it and transformed it into a familiar place our home complete with
bright yellow curtains, coffee-brown carpet, assorted pictures, hanging ferns and potted
palms providing a comforting sense of continuity in our essentially nomadic life.
I was thirteen, the year we moved to the Cantonment at Allahabad. In stark contrast to
the razzle-dazzle of the citys commercial areas like Katra and Chowk, the cantonment was a
quiet, orderly place with broad tree-lined roads that still carried the names of long-dead
Britishers. Our bungalow was on a sleepy by-lane called MacPherson Road. When we first
saw it, my brothers and I were delighted. It was by far the biggest house we had ever lived in.
The task of furnishing those huge, echoing rooms daunted Mother.

A2. Compare (2)


Point out the difference:
Cantonment area: _______
Commercial area of a city: _______

A3. How does a mother convert a house into a home? (2)

SECTION IV
(Writing Skills)

Q.5. (A) Attempt any one of the following letters with the help of the following leaflet:
[5 marks]
Visit Coorg
i. Coorg Situated in Karnataka.
ii. Sanctuaries nearby Coorg Pushpagiri and Brahmagiri.
iii. Spices of Coorg Pepper, Cardamom, Nutmeg, Turmeric, Lemon grass.
iv. Name of a fort Madikeri Fort
v. Major river Cauveri
vi. Type of trees Bamboo, Sandalwood and Rosewood.
Karnataka Tourism Development Corporation

A1. Letter
You are planning to visit Coorg with your family. Invite your friend to join and suggest your
plan using the leaflet.
OR
A2. Letter
You are planning to visit Coorg with your family. Write to Karnataka Tourism Development
Corporation asking whether bookings are available and enquire about the information given
in the leaflet.
213
Board Question Paper : July 2015
(B) Attempt any one of the following:
[5 marks]
Nirmal Old Age Home
(1) Number of residents/inmates: 100
(2) Their age group: Above 75 years
(3) Their financial background: Alone
(4) Reasons for their stay there: Alone
(5) Their physical condition: Good
(6) Recreational facilities available to them.
B1. Your school visited Nirmal Old Age Home. Based on the information given on the Notice
Board, prepare a report to be published in your school magazine.
OR
B2. You visited Nirmal Old Age Home with your friend. Write a dialogue between you and
your friend discussing the problems faced by old people. Use the points on the Notice Board.
Q.6. (A) Information Transfer
Attempt any one of the following: [5 marks]
A1. Observe the following web-diagram carefully and convert the following into a paragraph.
Add few more points to the given information:

Electricity

Coal Sources of Energy Sun

Rain Wind

OR
A2. Read the given extract carefully and complete the following:
The River Nile was the life of ancient Egypt. It still is. Every spring, when the snow
melted in the mountains, the Nile rose in flood and spilled across the fields, not only watering
them, but leaving fertile coat of mud.
The pharaohs or kings of ancient Egypt left many wonderful monuments which we can
still see, today. The pyramids and the sphinx are the most famous of these. There are three
large pyramids at Giza. The biggest, built for Khufu, was about 147 metres tall and was made
from 2.3 million blocks of stone! Each pyramid took about 20 years to build.
The ancient Egyptians belived that when a person was alive, he or she had three souls.
When the person died, the three souls would die too and not go to the next world if the body
was not kept as it was. That is why they tried to keep the bodies of the pharaohs by
embalming them with oil and salt and wrapping them with bandages to create a mummy
Life in Egypt
River Nile: ______________
The Pyramids and Sphinx: ______________
The Mummy: ______________

(B) Attempt any one of the following: [5 marks]


B1. Speech

Health is wealth Laughter is the best An apple a day keeps the


medicine doctor away

The Health Club has organised an interschool competition on Importance of Healthy


Life. With the help of the given proverbs, prepare a speech to be delivered on this occasion.
214
English
OR
B2. Counterviews
Write a paragraph on the basis of the counterviews given below:
Add a few more points of your own.
Stop Over-viewing TV Programmes
(1) Wastage of time.
(2) Kills imagination.
(3) Destroys thinking power.
(4) Creates physical problems.
Q.7. A1. Expand any one of the given two ideas in about 80-100 words: [5 marks]
(i) Perseverance is the key to success.
(ii) Man is known by the company he keeps.
OR
A2. Develop a story, with the following ending. Give a suitable title and a moral, in about 80-
100 words:
the two friends realised their mistake and decided to become good friends once again.

215
Board Question Paper : July 2015

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2015


GEOGRAPHY AND ECONOMICS
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40
Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Figure to the right indicate full marks.
iii. Solve Q. No.3 (A), (B), (C) completely on map and graph supplement paper only and tie it to the main
answer-book.
iv. Use of stencil is allowed for drawing maps
v. Question No. 1 to 4 are based on Geography and Q. No. 5 to 7 are based on Economics.
vi. Draw neat diagrams and sketches wherever necessary.

Q.1. (A) Choose the correct alternatives from the brackets and rewrite the statements fully in
your answer-book : [3]
1. The Punjab and Haryana plain is the leading producer of _______.
(bajra, wheat, oilseeds, sugar cane)

2. The _______ people lead a nomadic pastoral life in the upper Indus Valley.
(Gaddi, Chamba, Gujjar, Ladakhi)

3. The Tarai is _______ land.


(a forest, a marshy, an infertile, a desert)

(B) Match the Column A with the Column B : [3]

Column A Column B
1. Goat a. Step wells
2. Bavadis b. The holiest of the Sikh shrines
3. Harmandir Sahib c. Lohi
d. Small tank

Q.2. (A) Give geographical reasons (any two): [4]


1. Regionalization is very essential.
2. Laterite soils are formed in regions receiving heavy rainfall.
3. Most of the Himalayan rivers are perennial in nature.
4. Plantation agriculture is mainly confined to the southern parts of the Western Ghats.

(B) Write short notes on (any two): [4]


1. The Camel Safari
2. The Konkan Coast
3. The Eastern Himalayas

Q.3. (A) Draw a simple bar graph by to represent the following data : [2]

Per capita income


Years
(in rupees)
2000-2001 18000
2001-2002 19000
2002-2003 20000
2003-2004 24000
2004-2005 27000
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Geography and Economics
(B) Observe the following map and answer the questions given below it (any two): [2]

Questions:
1. Name the two rivers between which Doab lies.
2. Name one of the tributaries of river Ganga.
3. Name the zone shown on the North-West direction of the figure.
4. On which side does the Ganga plain slope down.
(C) Mark the following in the outline map of India supplied to you. Write the names. Give
index (any two): [2]
1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. The highest peak of India
3. The Western Ghats 4. Kanyakumari
Q.4. Answer the following questions in detail (any two): [8]
1. Explain the traditional methods of Rain Water Harvesting in Rajasthan.
2. Write in detail on natural vegetation and animals of the Deccan plateau.
3. What are the environmental problems of the Western Ghats and the West Coastal region?
Q.5. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternatives from those given in the brackets: [2]
1. An optimum population indicates _______ size of population.
(an ideal, lower, excess)
2. The tertiary sector is also known as _______ sector.
(agricultural, industrial, service)
Q.6. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each (any three): [6]
1. Explain the labour intensive technique.
2. Explain the meaning of bank rate.
3. What is meant by food adulteration?
4. What are the two main causes of Inflation?
5. What are the main objectives of the Consumer Protection Act?
Q.7. Write the answers to the following question in five of six sentences (any one): [4]
1. Write any four factors responsible for the increase in demand for goods and services.
2. Explain the duties of a consumer.

219
Board Question Paper : July 2015

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2015


GEOMETRY
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40

Note: Q.P. SET CODE


i. Solve All questions. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed.
iii. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iv. Marks of constructions should be distinct. They should not be rubbed off.
A
v. Diagram is essential for writing the proof of the theorem.

1. Solve any five sub-questions: [5]


i. In the figure drawn alongside, E B
seg BE seg AB and seg BA seg AD.
A(ABE)
If BE = 6 and AD = 9, find .
A(BAD)
A D
ii. Find the diagonal of a square whose side is 16 cm.
iii. If two circles with radii 8 and 3 respectively touch internally, then find the distance between
their centres.
3
iv. If cos = , then find the value of acute angle .
2
v. If the slope of a line is 2 and y intercept is 5, then write the equation of that line.
vi. Find the total surface area of a cube with side 9 cm.

2. Solve any four sub-questions: [8]


i. In the given figure, line l || side BC, AP = 4, PB = 8, AY = 5 and YC = x. Find x.
B
l 8

P
4
A C
5 Y x

ii. In the figure alongside, Q is the centre of a circle and PM, PN are tangent segments to the
circle. If MPN = 40, find MQN.

40 Q
P

N
iii. Draw a tangent at any point R on a circle of radius 3.5 cm and centre P.
iv. Draw the figure for an angle in standard position. If the intial arm rotates 220 in the
clockwise direction, then state the quadrant in which the terminal arm lies.
v. The radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is 3 cm and its height is 7 cm, find the
curved surface area.

226
Geometry
vi. A sector of a circle with radius 10 cm has central angle 72. Find the area of the sector.
( = 3.14)
3. Solve any three sub-questions: [9]
i. In the given figure,
AB2 + AC2 = 122, BC = 10. Find the length of the median on side BC.
A

B Q C
ii. In the figure, two circles intersect each other in points A and B. Seg AB is the chord of both
circles. The point C is the exterior point of both the circles on the line AB. From the point C,
tangents have been drawn to the circles touching at M and N. Prove that CM = CN.
A

M N
B

C
iii. Draw the circumcircle of PMT in which PM = 5.4 cm, P = 60, M = 70.
iv. Show that: sec2 + cosec2 = sec2 . cosec2.
v. Find the value of k if (3, 11), (6, 2) and (k, 4) are collinear points.
4. Solve any two sub-questions: [8]
i. Prove that the opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are supplementary.
ii. A ship of height 24 m is sighted from a lighthouse. From the top of the lighthouse, the angles
of depression to the top of the mast and base of the ship are 30 and 45 respectively. How far
is the ship from the lighthouse? ( 3 = 1.73)
iii. In triangle ABC, the coordinates of vertices A, B and C are (4, 7), (2, 3) and (0, 1)
respectively. Find the equations of the medians passing through the vertices A, B and C.
5. Solve any two sub-questions: [10]
i. In the figure drawn algonside, XYZ is a right triangle, right angled at Y such that YZ = b
and A(XYZ) = a. X
If YP XZ, then show that
2ab P
YP =
b 4 + 4a 2

Y Z
AC 3
ii. ABC ~ LMN. In ABC, AB = 5.1 cm, B = 55, C = 65 and = , then construct
LN 5
LMN.
iii. An ink container of cylindrical shape is filled with ink upto 71%. Ball pen refills of length
12 cm and inner diameter 2 mm are filled upto 84%. If the height and radius of the ink
container are 14 cm and 6 cm respectively, find the number of refills that can be filled with
this ink.

227
Board Question Paper : July 2015

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2015


HISTORY AND POLITICAL SCIENCE
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40
Note:
i. It is compulsory to attempt all questions.
ii. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii. Question 1 to 5 are based on History and Question 6 to 9 are based on Political Science.

Q.1. (A) Complete the sentences choosing the correct alternatives from those given in the
brackets and write them on the answer sheet. [3]
1. The Portuguese King _______ motivated navigation.
(Henry, William, Nicholas)
2. The Balkan area was a part of the _______ Empire.
(German, Turkish, Austrian)
3. Krantisinha Nana Patil established a Parallel Government in _______ district.
(Solapur, Sangli, Satara)
B. Match the correct pairs: [3]
Group A Group B
1. Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam a. German Thinker
2. Kemal Pasha b. The father of Missiles Programmes in India
3. Karl Marx c. The father of People of Turkey (Ataturk)
d. French Thinker
Q.2. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words each (any two): [4]
1. During the second half of the 19th Century, which courageous European travellers came to
limelight?
2. What is meant by Aggressive Nationalism?
3. Write the background of Benito Mussolini before he entered into politics.
Q.3. Give reasons for the following statements in 25 to 30 words each (any two): [4]
1. Africa was known as a Dark Continent until the 18th century.
2. An all-round development of Russia did not take place.
3. After the Second World War, the economic life of common people got badly influenced.
Q.4. Answer the following questions in 30 to 40 words each (any two): [6]
1. Write the main functions of the General Assembly. (U.N.O.)
2. How did America destabilise Japan?
3. What are the disadvantages of Globalisation?
Q.5. Answer the following questions in 60 to 80 words each (any two): [8]
1. What were the destructive effects of imperialism?
2. Explain the nature of Globalisation.
3. Write the information about the Indian Independence Movement with reference to:
i. The Quit India Movement
ii. The Azad Hind Sena
Q.6. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from those given in the brackets: [3]
1. Parliamentary Democracy exists in England and _______.
(India, China, Italy, America)
2. The claim that we are superior to others creates _______.
(equality, inequality, conflict, mutual understanding)

3. _______ is a primary political activity.


(Criticizing the government, Deciding the policies, Voting, Attending meetings)

216
History and Political Science
Q.7. Answer the following questions in one sentence each (any three): [3]
1. What term is used as plebiscite?
2. Which great leader did Tarabai Shindes family follow?
3. What is the core of democracy?
4. What is the average voting percentage in Lok Sabha Elections in India?
5. For what reason is the Government required to take extra caution about the security of the
people?
Q.8. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons (any two): [4]
1. People who share common political opinion form a political party.
2. We find a completely homogeneous society in India.
3. In the United States, there are no restrictions on citizens holding arms.
Q.9. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words (any one): [2]
1. People feel affiliated with political parties. Explain.
2. Write the important features of democracy.

217
Board Question Paper : July 2015

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2015


SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. Draw well-labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
ii. All questions are compulsory.
iii. Students should write the answers of questions in sequence.

SECTION A
1. (A) (a) Fill in the blanks: [2]
i. Very fine particles mainly scatter _______ light.
ii. 1 mA = ________ A.
(b) Match the column A with column B: [3]
Column A Column B
i. Eka-boron 1. Germanium
ii. Eka-Aluminium 2. Scandium
iii. Eka-Silicon 3. Gallium
(B) Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the following: [5]
i. Mirror used by a dental surgeon is _______.
(A) plane (B) convex
(C) concave (D) convex and concave
ii. What will happen to the current passing through a resistance, if the potential difference across
it is doubled and the resistance is halved?
(A) remains unchanged (B) becomes double
(C) becomes half (D) becomes four times
iii. You are given three equal resistances. In how many combinations can they be arranged?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Two
iv. Inside water, an air bubble behaves _______.
(A) always like a flat plate (B) always like a concave lens
(C) always like a convex lens (D) always like a concave mirror
v. A glass slab is placed in the path of convergent light. The point of convergence of light
(A) moves away from slab (B) moves towards the slab
(C) remains at the same point (D) undergoes lateral shift
2. Answer the following questions (any five): [10]
i. State Dobereiners Triads giving one example.
ii. Edible oil is not allowed to stand for a long time in an iron or tin container. Give reasons.
iii. An electric iron rated 750 W is operated for 2 hours/day. How much energy is consumed by
the electric iron for 30 days?
iv. Differentiate between conductors and insulators (any two points).
v. Give four uses of sodium carbonate (washing soda).
vi. Draw a labelled diagram: Dispersion of light through a prism.
3. Answer the following questions (any five): [15]
i. If sodium chloride is added to silver nitrate solution:
a. which precipitate is formed? b. name the type of reaction.
c. write the chemical equation.

220
Science and Technology
ii. Define:
a. Chemical combination reaction b. Endothermic reaction
c. Oxidation reaction
iii. Give the uses of a concave mirror.
iv. Name any six domestic appliances based on the heating effect of electric current.
v. Explain: How is a rainbow formed?
vi. If an object is placed in front of a convex lens beyond 2F1, then what will be the position,
relative size and nature of an image which is formed? Explain with a ray diagram.
4. Answer the following question (any one): [5]
i. Explain Electric generator with the help of the following points:
a. Diagram of an AC Generator with labelling
b. Principle of an electric generator
c. Function of slip rings
d. Any two uses of a generator.
ii. Write about the sources of noise pollution. Give the impact of noise pollution on human body.

221
Board Question Paper : July 2015

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2015


SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. Draw well-labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
ii. All questions are compulsory.
iii. Students should write the answers of questions in sequence.

SECTION B
1. (A) (a) Fill in the blanks: [2]
i. _______ is a greenish coloured poisonous gas.
ii. Compounds with identical molecular formula but different structures, are called
_______.

(b) Name the following: [1]


Cells that assist the neurons in their function.
(c) Match the following: [2]

Column I Column II
i. Inhibits plant growth 1. Breaks large fat globules into smaller ones
ii. Cytokinins 2. Auxins
iii. Cellular respiration 3. Mitochondria
iv. Bile 4. Promote cell division
5. Abscisic acid

(B) Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the following: [5]
i. Which gas is released in plants during the process of photosynthesis?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen
ii. To observe the hydra bud clearly, Raju should see it first under the low power lens and then
under the high power lens in order to see _______.
(A) less area (B) wide area
(C) more buds (D) all of the above
iii. Reaction of iron nails with copper sulphate solution is an example of _______.
(A) combination reaction (B) decomposition reaction
(C) displacement reaction (D) double displacement reaction
iv. Which of the following is blue in colour?
(A) CuSO4 (B) FeSO4
(C) ZnSO4 (D) Al2(SO4) 3
v. Acetic acid _______.
(A) turns blue litmus red (B) is insoluble in water
(C) is pale yellow in colour (D) turns red litmus blue.
2. Answer the following questions (any five): [10]
i. Calcium floats over water during the reaction with water. Give reason.
ii. Differentiate between: Toilet soap and Laundry soap.
iii. How do plants get rid of their excretory products?
iv. Draw a well-labelled diagram of a Neuron.
v. Write a short note on regeneration.
vi. What do you mean by Connecting Links? Give one example.
222
Science and Technology
3. Answer the following questions (any five): [15]
i. Explain Mendels Monohybrid cross. Give an example.
ii. Draw a diagram which shows sex determination in man.
iii. a. What do you mean by seismonastic movement?
b. Name the types of movements in plants. Give one example of each movement.
iv. If the electronic configuration of metal A is (2, 8, 1) and that of metal B is (2, 8, 2) then:
a. Which metal is less reactive?
b. Write the names of the two metals.
c. Write the balanced chemical equation of reaction of any one metal with hydrochloric
acid.
v. What are Allotropes? Name any two allotropic forms of carbon. Give one use of it.
vi. a. By which process do green plants synthesize their food?
b. Name the factors which take part in this process.
c. Write the chemical equation of the above process.
4. Answer the following question (any one): [5]
i. Name the organs of the human male reproductive system and state the functions of any two
organs.
ii. State the functions of the Maharashtra Pollution Control Board.

223
Board Question Paper : March 2015

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2015


ALGEBRA
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40

Note: Q.P. SET CODE


i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed.
A
Q.1. Attempt any five of the following sub-questions: [5]
i. State whether the following sequence is an A.P. or not?
1, 4, 7, 10, ..
ii. A card is drawn from the pack of 25 cards labelled with numbers 1 to 25. Write the sample
space for this random experiment.
iii. Find the value of x + y, if
12x + 13y = 29 and
13x + 12y = 21
n
iv. For a sequence, if Sn = , then find the value of S10.
n +1
v. Verify whether 1 is the root of the quadratic equation:
x2 + 3x 4 = 0.
vi. If x + y = 5 and x = 3, then find the value of y.
Q.2. Attempt any four of the following sub-questions: [8]
i. Solve the following quadratic equation by factorization method
x2 7x + 12 = 0.
ii. Find the term t10 of an A.P. :
4, 9, 14, ..
iii. If the point A(2, 3) lies on the graph of the equation 5x + ay = 19, then find a.
iv. A die is thrown. If A is an event of getting an odd number then write the sample space and
event A in set notation.
v. For a certain frequency distribution, the value of Mean is 101 and Median is 100. Find the
value of Mode.
vi. If one root of the quadratic equation kx2 7x + 5 = 0 is 1, then find the value of k.
Q.3. Attempt any three of the following sub-questions: [9]
i. Area under different crops in a certain village is given below. Represent it by a pie diagram:
Crop Area in Hectares
Jowar 40
Wheat 60
Sugarcane 50
Vegetables 30
ii. If two coins are tossed, then find the probability of the event that at the most one tail turns up.
iii. Solve the following simultaneous equations using graphical method:
x + y = 7;
x y = 5.
iv. There is an auditorium with 35 rows of seats. There are 20 seats in the first row, 22 seats in
the second row, 24 seats in the third row and so on. Find the number of seats in the twenty
second row .
v. Solve the following quadratic equation by completing square method:
x2 + 11x + 24 = 0

204
Algebra
Q.4. Attempt any two of the following sub-questions: [8]
i. Two digit numbers are formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 where digits are not repeated.
P is the event that the number so formed is even.
Q is the event that the number so formed is greater than 50.
R is the event that the number so formed is divisible by 3
Then write the sample space S and events P, Q, R using set notation.
ii. The following table shows ages of 300 patients getting medical treatment in a hospital on a
particular day:
Age (in years) No. of Patients
10 20 60
20 30 42
30 40 55
40 50 70
50 60 53
60 70 20

Find the median age of the patient.


iii. If + = 5 and 3 + 3 = 35, find the quadratic equation whose roots are and .
Q.5. Attempt any two of the following sub-questions: 10]
i. Babubhai borrows ` 4,000 and agrees to repay with a total interest of ` 500 in 10 instalments,
each instalment being less than the preceding instalment by ` 10. What should be the first and
the last instalment?
ii. On the first day of the sale of tickets of a drama, in all 35 tickets were sold. If the rates of the
tickets were ` 20 and ` 40 per ticket and the total collection was ` 900. Find the number of
tickets sold at each rate.
iii. Given below is the frequency distribution of driving speeds (in km/hour) of the vehicles of
400 college students:

Speed (in km/hr) No. of Students


2030 6
3040 80
4050 156
5060 98
6070 60

Draw Histogram and hence the frequency polygon for the above data.

205
English

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2015


ENGLISH
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80

SECTION I
(Reading Skills, Vocabulary and Grammar)

Q.1. (A) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
A1. Order (2)
Arrange the following sentences in the chronological order as they appear in the passage:
(i) On celebrations, parents can invest ` 200 and plant a sapling of a tree representing the
childs birth star.
(ii) He wants to create Brihat Panchavati.
(iii) He has been able to increase the areas of the Pavitra Vana.
(iv) Plans are afoot to create a Saptaswara forest.
Today, Reddy is one of the most well-known environment specialists in India. With his
influence, he has been able to increase the areas of the Pavitra Vann and has plans to bring
about awareness of Puranic trees and flowers for the knowledge of the Indian citizens.
He wants to create near the Pavitra Vana, a Brihat Panchavati so that parents can show
their children the forest where Shakuntala lived or Sita spent her final days. There will also be
a hillock where people can meditate. Plans are also afoot to create a Saptaswara forest,
pertaining to different ragas in music. Scientists have found that certain plants react in a
particular way to different ragas. So in such a forest, when a musician performs certain ragas,
the plants will react in such a manner that it will benefit the audience, the musician and the
whole environment. The other idea is an ecopark for children. On celebrations, like birthdays,
parents can invest ` 200 and plant a sapling of a tree representing the childs birth star. The
plant will also carry the childs name. The Pavitra Vana also houses a garden of Prophet
Mohammed, which has some plants mentioned in the Holy Quran. There is the date plant
sacred to Islam and Mimosops elengi, the latter a highly fragrant variety. There is also the
garden of Eden for housing plants sacred to Christianity, but the Pavitra Vana authorities have
to procure most of them in the new sections.

A2. Find specialities (2)


Write down the specialities of the following:
(i) Brihat Panchavati: ________.
(ii) Saptaswara Forest: ________.
(iii) Eco-park: ________.
(iv) A garden of Prophet Mohmmed: ________.

A3. Antonyms (2)


Find antonyms for the following words from the passage:
(i) same (ii) decrease (iii) destroy (iv) lost

A4. Language study (2)


(i) He wants to create near the Pavitra Vana, a Brihat Panchavati.
(Pick out an infinitive from the given line and use it in your own sentence)
(ii) Reddy is one of the most well-known environment specialists in India.
(Begin with: Very few .)
A5. Personal response (2)
Do you think one person alone can create an awareness towards environment conservation?
Support your answer with appropriate reasons.
189
Board Question Paper : March 2015
(B) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
B1. Select (2)
Fill in the blanks choosing the correct alternatives from those given in the bracket:
(i) The author was inspired and motivated to read _______ by the time she was eleven.
(Shakespeare, Chaucer, G.B. Shaw)
(ii) Every lesson ________ took was spiced with half a dozen or more anecdotes.
(Mrs. Rowlands, Sister Monica, Mr. A. N. Patil)
(iii) The teachers helped the narrator to become ________.
(confident, happy, independent)
(iv) Mrs. Cynthia Nesamani and Sister Monica gave _______ to the narrator.
(freedom to do what he wanted, advice to do something, instructions to produce better results)
In a way, one of the greatest gifts any teacher can give a student, I think, is to inculcate
a curiosity to learn.
Ive been incredibly lucky to have at least one such teacher at every stage in my life.
The first was Mrs. Rowlands who taught me in primary school. She taught me to read without
ever pushing me. She made me want to read more by giving me some of the most interesting
childrens books available. And although I still love to go back to those books from time to
time, it was only because of her that I was able to read Shakespeare by the time I was ten, and
Chaucer a year later.
In later years, it was Mr. A. N. Patil, my Marathi and Hindi Teacher who made a huge
impression on me. Every lesson he took, was spiced with half a dozen or more anecdotes
from a wide variety of subjects: among them history, politics, religion and sociology. I was,
and still am in awe of his knowledge, which despite rather desperate attempts, I doubt Ill
ever be able to match.
There have also been other teachers who helped me to try to become independent: to
think and act for myself using my own judgement, which to my mind has been just as, if not
more important, than actually learning anything. After all, its much too easy to become a
completely useless repository of facts and little else.
Two teachers whom I remember in particular are Mrs. Cynthia Nesamani and Sister
Monica, both taught me in school. The former, by and large, gave me a free rein to do what I
wanted to do. I, being one of those people who dislike instructions, she helped me to produce
much better results than Id have otherwise done.

B2. Complete (2)


Read the extract and complete the following:
The teacher can
(i) ________ (ii) ________ (iii) ________ (iv) ________
B3. Similar word (2)
Look at the following sentences and pick the word having similar meaning to the given
word and rewrite:
(i) Spiced
His conversation is always _______ with a lot of humour.
(made interesting, garnished, flavoured)
(ii) Repository
The library should not merely be a _______ of books.
(store-house, reservoir, tank)
(iii) Inculcate
It is the responsibility of the parents and teachers to _______ values in the childs
formative years.
(imbibe, give, show)
(iv) Incredibly
I have been _______ lucky to have at least one such teacher at every stage in my life.
(importantly, unbelievably, beautifully)
190
English
B4. Language study (2)
(i) There have also been other teachers. They have helped me to try to become
independent.
(Combine using who)
(ii) It was only because of her that I was able to read Shakespeare.
(Rewrite beginning with: If it was not for her, _______)
B5. Our motivators (2)
Look at the following table and complete it by presenting your own views:
Personalities Influence on your life
(i) Teachers
(ii) Parents
(iii) Relatives
(iv) Friends

Q.2. (A) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
A1. True or False (2)
State whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) A new research suggests that eating healthy food and getting proper sleep helps
children to succeed in school.
(ii) Kids in the age group of 6-12 years should get an average sleep of little less than 7 hours.
(iii) Kids should start their day with yogurt, fruits and veggies.
(iv) Children should have consistent sleeping habit.
A new research suggests that eating healthy food and getting proper sleep can help
children succeed in school. According to research, when kids go to school without eating
breakfast, their cognitive function can be affected.
According to study, kids should start the day with fruits, proteins and whole grains and
they should avoid sugary cereals because they cause a sugar high. If the kids do need to eat
something prior to dinner, parents should offer healthy choices like yogurt, fruits and veggies or
baked chips. Children have also been advised to drink water instead of soda as it lacks nutritional
value. Moreover, research suggests that children need a good nights sleep for their overall
school performance. It is said that lack of sleep can lead to problems with attention and memory
in the classroom, affect impulse control and mood regulation lead to anxiety and even
depression.
While kids aged 6-12 years should get nine hours sleep nightly, adolescents from the
age of 13 to 18 years should get an average sleep of little more than seven hours per night.
However, the research suggests that catching up on lost sleep on the weekend can make
matters worse and recommended a consistent bedtime seven days a week.
A2. Find (2)
Fill in the blocks with the information given in the passage:
(i) Two things to be avoided by children:
(1) (2)

(ii) Lack of sleep due to mood regulation leads to:


(1) (2)

A3. Select (2)


Select the correct word from the brackets and complete the statements given below:
(anxiety, consistent, impulse, attention)
(i) Last minutes study causes _______ to the students.
(ii) Stress affects the _______ for a quick action.
(iii) Saina has shown _______ improvement in her performance.
(iv) Students should pay _______ in class.
191
Board Question Paper : March 2015
A4. Language study (2)
(i) Pick out any one sentence from the passage where a modal auxiliary indicating advice
is used.
(ii) Pick out the correct conjunctions from the given sentences:
(a) Kids should avoid sugary cereals because they cause a sugar high.
(b) It is said that lack of sleep can lead to problems.
A5. Personal response (2)
We should eat healthy food. Explain.
(B) Read the following passage and do the given activities: [10 marks]
B1. Find reasons (2)
(i) The effect of receding forest _______.
(ii) The number of animals is reduced because _______.
(iii) Elephants entered the city because _______.
(iv) Elephants lived a wary life _______.

On the left bank of the Ganga, where it emerges from the Himalayan foothills, there is
a long stretch of heavy forest. There are villages on the fringe of the forest, inhabited by
bamboo cutters and farmers, but there are few signs of commerce or pilgrimage. Hunters,
however, have found the area an ideal hunting ground during the last seventy years, and as a
result, the animals are not as numerous as they used to be. The trees, too, have been
disappearing slowly; and, as the forest recedes, the animals lose their food and shelter and
move further on into the foothills. Slowly, they are being denied the right to live.
Only the elephants can cross the river. And two years ago, when a large area of the
forest was cleared to make way for a refugee resettlement camp, a herd of elephants finding
their favourite food, the green shoots of the bamboo, in short supply waded across the river.
They crashed through the suburbs of Haridwar, knocked down a factory wall, pulled down
several tin roofs, held up a train, and left a trail of devastation in their wake until they found a
new home in a new forest which was still untouched. Here, they settled down a new life but
an unsettled, wary life. They did not know when men would appear again, with tractors,
bulldozers and dynamite.
B2. Find out (2)
Mention four things the elephants did when they found shortage of food:
(i) _______. (ii) _______. (iii) _______. (iv) _______.
B3. Phrases (2)
Make meaningful sentences by selecting any two of the following phrases:
(i) to make way for (ii) in short
(iii) on the fringe of

B4. Language study (2)


Select the proper alternative to make the correct voice:
(i) Hunters have found an ideal hunting ground.
An ideal hunting ground _______ found by hunters.
(had been, has been, was)

(ii) They are being denied the right to live.


The people _______ them the right to live.
(are denying, were denying, denying)
B5. Personal response (2)
What would be your contribution to protect the natural habitat of animals?
192
English
SECTION II
(Poetry)
Q.3. (A) Read the following extract and do the given activities: [5 marks]
A1. (i) Two activities that mother was free to do: (2)
(a) _______. (b) _______.
(ii) Two activities that children avoided doing because of televisions:
(a) _______. (b) _______.
Oh yes, we know it keeps them still,
They dont climb out the window sill,
They never fight or kick or punch,
They leave you free to cook the lunch
And wash the dishes in the sink
But did you ever stop to think,
To wonder just exactly what
This does to your beloved tot?
It rots the sense in the head!
It kills imagination dead!
It clogs and clutters up the mind!
It makes a child so dull and blind
He can no longer understand
A fantasy, a fairyland!
His brain becomes as soft as cheese!
His power of thinking rust and freeze!
His cannot think He only sees!
All right! youll cry. All right! youll say,
But if we take the set away,
What shall we do to entertain
Our darling children? Please explain!
Well answer this by asking you,
What used the darling ones to do?
How used they keep themselves contented
Before this monster was invented?
Have you forgotten? Dont you know?

A2. According to the poem, why is excessive watching of TV harmful? (2)


A3. His brain became as soft as cheese. The figure of speech is _______ because _______. (1)
(B) Read the following poem and do the given activities: [5 marks]
B1. Complete (2)
Complete the following statements:
(i) The poet is talking about _______.
(ii) As a nation we are missing our _______.
(iii) Old people have keys _______.
(iv) The elderly remember _______.

Oh the value of the elderly! How could anyone not know?


They hold so many keys, so many things they can show.
We all will read the other side this I firmly believe.
And the elderly are closest oh what clues we could retrieve.
For their characters are closest to how well be on high.
They are the ones most developed, you can see it if you try.
Theyve let go of the frivolous and kept things that are dear.
The memories of so sweet, of loved ones that were near.
As a nation we are missing our greatest true resource,
To get to know our elders and let them guide our course.

193
Board Question Paper : March 2015
B2. Express (2)
State what the underlined words mean:
(i) Oh the value of the elderly! State the value _______.
(ii) They are the ones most developed. They stand for _______.

B3. Match the words in Column A with their rhyming word in Column B: (1)

Column A Column B
(i) course (a) show
(ii) believe (b) resource
(c) retrieve

SECTION III
(Rapid Reading)

Q.4. Read the following passage and do the given activities: [5 marks]
A1. Who said to whom (1)
(i) Is he going to live, sir?
(ii) _______ the struggle is too hard at the end _______.

The doctor said to himself, If my word can save his life, he shall not die. The will be
damned. He called, Gopal listen. This was the first time he was going to do a piece of
acting before a patient, simulate a feeling and conceal his judgement. He stooped over the
patient and said, with deliberate emphasis, Dont worry about the will now. You are going to
live. Your heart is absolutely sound. A new glow suffused the patients face as he heard it.
He asked in a tone of relief, Do you say so? If it comes from your lips it must be true
_______
The doctor said, Quite right. You are improving every second. Sleep in peace. You
must not exert yourself on any account. You must sleep very soundly. I will se you in the
morning. The patient looked at him gratefully for a moment and then closed his eyes. The
doctor picked up his bag and went out, shutting the door softly behind him.
On his way home he stopped for a moment at his hospital, called out his assistant and said,
That Lawley Extension case. You might expect the collapse any second now. Go there with a
tube of _______ in hand, and give it in case the struggle is too hard at the end. Hurry up.
Next morning he was back at Lawley Extension at ten. From his car he made a dash for
the sick bed. The patient was awake and looked very well. The assistant reported satisfactory
pulse. The doctor put his tube to his heart, listened for a while and told the sick mans wife,
Dont look so unhappy, lady. Your husband will live to be ninety. When they were going
back to the hospital, the assistant sitting beside him in the car asked, Is he going to live, sir?
I will bet on it. He will live to be ninety. He has turned at corner. How he has survived
this attack will be a puzzle to me all my life, replied the doctor.

A2. Web (2)


Complete the web:

Doctors
Assurance
to Gopal

A3. Personal response (2)


What is your opinion about the doctor and his behaviour?
194
English
SECTION IV
(Writing Skills)

Q.5. (A) Attempt any one of the following letters with the help of given news headline: [5 marks]

BAD CONDITION OF ROADS


DURING RAINS LEADS TO
MISHAPS

A1. Letter OR A2. Letter


Write to your friend about the Write a letter to the newspaper editor
condition of roads and the care to be highlighting the condition of the roads
taken. in your area and suggest suitable
measures.

(B) Attempt any one of the following: [5 marks]


M. Gandhi Vidyalaya
We invite you to grace the auspicious
programme of Republic Day
Programme:
Flag hoisting
National Anthem
March Past
Dance Competition
Environment Exhibition
Day and Date: Sunday 26 Jan, 2014
Time: 7 a.m.
Venue: The School Ground
Secretary Principal

B1. Report
Prepare a report for the school magazine on the celebration of the Republic Day. Use the
points given in the invitation card.

OR
B2. Dialogue
Develop a dialogue between you and your mother on the celebration of the Republic Day
in your school.

Q.6. (A) Attempt any one of the following: [5 marks]


A1. Books have the power to inspire and do many more things. Observe the web diagram and
convert the information into a paragraph. Add a few more points to the given information:

inspiration
knowledge pleasure

BOOKS

teach motivate

195
Board Question Paper : March 2015
A2. Read the given information and fill the table provided:
Acclaimed in Indian classics as the Kalpavriksha, the all giving tree the coconut palm
grows in several states in India. The coconut palm is a member of the plant family arecaceae
popularly known as palm family. It flourishes on sandy soils requiring high humidity abundant
sunlight and high rainfall for optimal growth. All parts of the palm are used in some way or
another in the daily life of the people. Coconut water provides a refreshing and nutritious drink.
The firm kernel that lines the inside is high in calories and the white milk extracted from it is
used in many different ways. Oil extracted from dried mature coconuts is used as cooking oil.
The leaves are braided to make thatched roof and mats. The mid ribs of the leaves are dried and
tied together to make brooms. The coconut shell and husk are good sources of efficient fuel.
During religious ceremonies married women are often presented with a coconut along with a
few grains of rice as a symbol of fertility and prosperity.
Name:
Scientific name:
Place where grown:
Climate required:
Uses:
(a) Liquid
(b) Kernel
(c) Leaves
(d) Shell
Symbolises:
(B) Attempt any one of the following: [5 marks]
B1. Speech
SCHOOL NOTICE BOARD

Meeting is with pleasure, After going through the


Parting is with pain, message on the School Notice
May life shower its treasure, Board, draft a speech to be
On you, now and again. delivered on the occasion of
Wishing you all the best Std. X Farewell.
for your future.

OR
B2. Write your counterviews in a paragraph on the topic:
Crackers should be burst to express happiness, on the basis of the views given below
Add a few more points.
Views:
* It symbolises joy.
* It illuminates the sky.
* Children enjoy it.
Begin your paragraph as I strongly oppose the conviction _______
Q.7. Attempt any one of the following: [5 marks]
A1. Expand any one of the given two ideas in about 80-100 words:
(i) Cleanliness is Godliness (ii) A stitch in time saves nine.
OR
A2. Develop a story in about 80-100 words with the following ending. Give a suitable title:
_______ Thank God I found my Science Journal before the last date of submission.

196
Geography and Economics

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2015


GEOGRAPHY AND ECONOMICS
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40

Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Figure to the right indicate full marks.
iii. Solve Question No.3 (A), (B), (C) completely on map and graph supplement paper only and tie it to the main
answer-book.
iv. Use of stencil is allowed for drawing maps
v. Question Nos. 1 to 4 are based on Geography and Question Nos. 5 to 7 are based on Economics.
vi. Draw neat diagrams and sketches wherever necessary.

Q.1. (A) Choose the correct alternatives from the brackets and rewrite the statements fully in
your answer-book: [3]
1. Areawise India is the _______ largest country in the world.
(fifth, sixth, seventh, fourth)
2. Rajasthan plain is known as _______ desert.
(Sahara, Kalahari, Gobi, Great Indian)
3. The _______ island located to the east of the middle Andaman is the only active
volcano in India.
(Nicobar, Barren, Maldives, Lakshadweep)
(B) Match the following Column A with Column B: [3]
Column A Column B
i. Gurushikhar a. Rich in minerals
ii. Chota Nagpur Plateau b. Aravalli Mountain
iii. Khadar c. Consists of older alluvial
d. Consists of new alluvial
Q.2. (A) Give geographical reasons (any two): [4]
1. Regional approach to geographic studies is very important.
2. Himalayas determine climatic conditions of India.
3. Lakshadweep is known as a tourist attraction.
4. North Indian Mountains are homelands to many tribes.
(B) Write short notes on (any two): [4]
1. Devbhoomi (Uttarakhand)
2. Natural vegetation and animals in Western Ghats
3. The Malabar Coast
Q.3. (A) Draw a simple line graph by using the following data : [2]
Population of India
Population in
Years
Millions
1971 548
1981 683
1991 846
2001 1028
2011 1210

199
Board Question Paper : March 2015
(B) Observe the following map and answer the questions given below it (any two): [2]

Questions:
1. Which river has formed delta near Tamil Nadu Coast?
2. Name any one gulf near Gujarat Coast.
3. On which ghat does Mount Kalsubai lie?
4. Name the highest peak in the Western Ghats.
(C) Show the following in the outline map of India supplied to you. Write the names and
give index (any two): [2]
1. Andaman Islands 2. K-2
3. Mumbai Port 4. Ganga River
Q.4. Answer the following questions in detail (any two): [8]
1. Explain the climatic characteristics of Punjab-Haryana Plain.
2. Give a brief description of distribution of industries in the Lower Ganga Plain.
3. What are the characteristics of agriculture in Central Highlands of India?
Q.5. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternative given in the brackets: [2]
1. An economic problem mainly arises due to _______ of resources.
(plenty, scarcity, availability)
2. Goods and services are produced and supplied by _______ Sector on the basis of No Profit,
No Loss.
(Joint, Private, Public)
Q.6. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each (any three): [6]
1. Give two examples of Natural Resources.
2. Define the term inflation.
3. What is meant by Cash Reserve Ratio?
4. What are the main objectives of Public Distribution System?
5. Explain any two benefits of Public distribution System in India.
Q.7. Answer the following questions in five or six sentences (any one): [4]
1. What are the causes of decrease in supply of goods and services?
2. What are the most common business malpractices?

200
Board Question Paper : March 2015

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2015


GEOMETRY
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40
Note:
i. Solve All questions. Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Q.P. SET CODE
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed.
iii.
iv.
v.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Marks of constructions should be distinct. They should not be rubbed off.
Diagram is essential for writing the proof of the theorem.
A
1. Solve any five sub-questions: [5]
A
i. In the following figure, seg AB seg BC, seg DC seg BC.
2
A(ABC)
If AB = 2 and DC = 3, find .
A(DCB) B C

D
ii. Find the slope and y-intercept of the line y = 2x + 3.
iii. In the following figure, in ABC, BC = 1, AC = 2, B = 90. Find the value of sin .
C

2 1

A B

iv. Find the diagonal of a square whose side is 10 cm.


v. The volume of a cube is 1000 cm3. Find the side of a cube.
vi. If two circles with radii 5 cm and 3 cm respectively touch internally, find the distance
between their centres.

2. Solve any four sub-questions: [8]


5
i. If sin = , where is an acute angle, find the value of cos .
13
ii. Draw ABC of measure 115 and bisect it.
iiii. Find the slope of the line passing through the points C(3, 5) and D(2, 3).
iv. Find the area of the sector whose arc length and radius are 10 cm and 5 cm respectively.
v. In the following figure, in PQR, seg RS is the bisector of PRQ, PS = 6, SQ = 8, PR = 15.
Find QR.
P

6
15
S

8
Q R

206
Geometry
vi. In the following figure, if m(arc DXE) = 100 and m(arc AYC) = 40, find DBE.
D
A
B Y X
C
E

3. Solve any three sub-questions: [9]


i. In the following figure, Q is the centre of a circle and PM, PN are tangent segments to the
circle. If MPN = 40, find MQN.

P
40 Q

ii. Draw the tangents to the circle from the point L with radius 2.8 cm. Point, L is at a distance
7 cm from the centre M.
iii. The ratio of the areas of two triangles with the common base is 6:5. Height of the larger
triangle is 9 cm, then find the corresponding height of the smaller triangle.
iv. Two buildings are in front of each other on either side of a road of width 10 metres. From the
top of the first building which is 30 metres high, the angle of elevation to the top of the
second is 45. What is the height of the second building?
22
v. Find the volume and surface area of a sphere of radius 4.2 cm. =
7
4. Solve any two sub-questions: [8]
i. Prove that the opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are supplementary.
ii. Prove that sin6 + cos6 = 1 3 sin2 . cos2 .
iii. A test tube has diameter 20 mm and height is 15 cm. The lower portion is a hemisphere. Find
the capacity of the test tube. ( = 3.14)

5. Solve any two sub-questions: [10]


i. Prove that the angle bisector of a triangle divides the side opposite to the angle in the ratio of
the remaining sides.
3
ii. Write down the equation of a line whose slope is and which passes through point P, where
2
P divides the line segment AB joining A(2, 6) and B(3, 4) in the ratio 2 : 3.
iii. RST ~ UAY. In RST, RS = 6 cm, S = 50, ST = 7.5 cm. The corresponding sides of
RST and UAY are in the ratio 5 : 4. Construct UAY.

207
History and Political Science

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2015


HISTORY AND POLITICAL SCIENCE
Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 40
Note:
i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii. Question 1 to 5 are based on History and Question 6 to 9 are based on Political Science.

Q.1. (A) Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate alternatives from those
given in the brackets: [3]
1. It is considered that _______ is the origin of Industrial Revolution.
(France, England, Germany)
2. Balkan Area was the part of _______ empire.
(Germany, Austria, Turkey)
3. Stalin broke _______ treaty and established his power on Poland.
(Yalta, Warsaw, NATO)
(B) Match the correct pairs: [3]
Group A Group B
1. Woodrow Wilson a. Indias space Research
2. Dr. Vikram Sarabhai b. Policy of self-decision
3. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam c. Indias Atomic Research
d. Father of Indian Missile Programmes
Q.2. Answer each of the following questions in 25 to 30 words (any two): [4]
1. Write about the foreign policy of Bismarck.
2. Give the meaning of the word Imperialism and write the definition of Imperialism.
3. Due to globalization which fields are undergoing changes.
Q.3. Give reasons for the following statements in 25 to 30 words each (any two): [4]
1. Africa was known as a Dark Continent till the 18th century.
2. All round development of Russia did not take place.
3. League of Nations was unable to stop the warring countries.
Q.4. Answer the following questions in 30 to 40 words each (any two): [6]
1. How did America destabilise Japan?
2. Write a short note on Warsaw Treaty.
3. Write about Lenins new economic policy.
Q.5. Answer the following questions in 60 to 80 words each (any two): [8]
1. How was India brought under the reign of England?
2. Write about Kemal Pashas development policy in Turkey.
3. Explain the conditions that were favourable for decolonization.
Q.6. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from those given in the brackets: [3]
1. Citizen have to accept some restriction on their personal liberty for _______ purposes.
(equality, political, security, justice)
2. The claim that we are superior to others creates _______.
(equality, conflict, inequality, mutual understanding)
3. Political parties play an important role in creating _______ government.
(responsible, strong, weak, independent)

197
Board Question Paper : March 2015
Q.7. Answer the following questions in one sentence each (any three): [3]
1. When is referendum adopted?
2. What is the state or regional political party?
3. Name two persons who undertook efforts to abolish the caste system in India.
4. State the meaning of tolerance.
5. What is representative democracy?
Q.8. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons (any two): [4]
1. In many countries, even after the introduction of democracy, women did not have the right to
vote.
2. Nationalist Congress Party is a regional party.
3. Citizens should regularly keep a watch on the functions of the government.
Q.9. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words (any one): [2]
1. Explain how economic inequality is a challenge before democracy.
2. Write a short note on fundamental rights and protection of freedom.

198
Science and Technology

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : MARCH 2015


SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Time: 3 Hours Total Marks: 80

(This Board paper is as per old Question paper format.)


Note:
i. Use the same answer-sheet for Section A and Section B.
ii. Draw well-labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
iii. All questions are compulsory.
iv. Students should write the answers of questions in sequence.

SECTION A
1. (A) (a) Rewrite the following statements with suitable words in the blanks: [2]
i. The device used for producing electric current is called a _______.
ii. _______, the second layer of the atmosphere reaches 48 km above the earths surface.
(b) Rewrite the following table so as to match the second column with the first column: [2]
Column A Column B
i. eosin 1. losing hydrogen
ii. oxidation 2. synthetic indicator
3. losing oxygen
4. natural indicator
(c) Give the molecular formula of bleaching powder. [1]
(B) Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options: [5]
i. When phenolphthalein is added to NaOH, the colour of the solution will become:
(A) colourless (B) red
(C) pink (D) yellow
ii. If the potential difference across the ends of a conductor is 220 V and the resistance of the
conductor is 44 (ohm), then the current flowing through is:
(A) 0.2 A (B) 0.5 A
(C) 2 A (D) 5 A
iii. 1 A = _______ mA
(A) 102 (B) 103
(C) 103 (D) 106
iv. The distance between principal focus and optical centre of the lens is:
(A) diameter (B) focal length
(C) principal axis (D) optical centre
v. When rays of light are incident on a glass slab, then the incident ray and emergent ray are
_______ to each other.
(A) perpendicular (B) parallel
(C) opposite (D) concurrent
2. Answer any five of the following: [10]
i. Give scientific reason: Danger signals are red in colour.
ii. Complete the following reaction, balance it and write the name of the products:
CuO + HCl ________ + _______
iii. State Newlands Law of Octaves.
iv. The velocity of light in a medium is 1.5 108 m/s. What is the refractive index of the medium
with respect to air, if the velocity in air is 3 108 m/s?
v. Differentiate between resistances in series and parallel.
vi. Draw a ray diagram for concave mirror when the object is between centre of curvature and focus.

201
Board Question Paper : March 2015
3. Answer any five of the following: [15]
i. Explain the role of citizen in pollution control.
ii. What is a spectrum? Why do we get a spectrum of seven colours when white light is dispersed
by a prism?
iii. State four most common electrical appliances based on heating effect of electric current. Why
do we use finely heated platinum wire in surgery?
iv. Name the product obtained when Plaster of Paris is mixed with water. State the use of the
product. Give two uses of POP.
v. Classify the following elements into metals, non-metals and metalloids: C, Mg, Si, S, Hg, As.
vi. Complete the following:
a. =
12 + 2.5 + 2.5

b. 4 =

4
2
2
c. =

2
4. Attempt any one of the following: [5]
(A) Often when electricity is used we come across electrical fires caused. Answer the following
questions related to the following terms:
a. When does short circuiting take place?
b. What happens to the resistance of the circuit during a short circuit?
c. What happens to the flow of electric current during a short circuit?
d. What is overloading?
e. How can the effects of overloading be avoided?
(B) In a Std X class, out of 40 students, 10 students use spectacles, 2 students have positive power
and 8 students have negative power of lenses in their spectacles.
Answer the following questions:
a. What does the negative power indicate?
b. What does the positive power indicate?
c. Generally which type of spectacles do most of the students use?
d. What defect of eyesight do most of the students suffer from?
e. Give two possible reasons for the above defect.
SECTION B
5. (A) (a) Find the correlation in the given pair and rewrite the answer: [2]
i. Tinning : Tin :: Galvanizing : _______.
ii. Mammals : _______ :: Amphibia : Fishes.
(b) State True or False: [3]
i. Solar water-heater works on renewable energy system.
ii. In human beings, the blood goes to the heart in one cycle once.
iii. In frogs, thyroid secretion stimulates the metamorphosis from tadpole to adult frog.
(B) Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options: [5]
i. The molecular formula of acetic acid is ________.
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3 CH3
(C) C6H6 (D) C2H4
ii. Carbon dioxide enters into the leaves through tiny pores present on the surface of the leaf called
________.
(A) chlorophyll (B) chloroplast
(C) stomata (D) epidermis
202
Science and Technology
iii. _______ solution is blue in colour.
(A) CuSO4 (B) FeSO4
(C) ZnSO4 (D) Al2(SO4) 3
iv. Yeast reproduces by _______.
(A) spore formation (B) multiple fission
(C) fragmentation (D) budding
v. Raisins put in water absorb water by the process of _______.
(A) diffusion (B) osmosis
(C) transpiration (D) excretion
6. Solve any five of the following: [10]
i. Give scientific reason: Common salt has high melting point and boiling point.
ii. Draw neat labelled diagram of the Pancreas with their associated structures.
iii. State the connecting links between Peripatus with Annelida and Arthropoda.
iv. Name the two plant hormones and state their functions.
v. Differentiate between Toilet soap and Laundry soap.
vi. State any four objectives of sustainable development.
7. Answer any five of the following: [15]
i. What is an alloy? Give two examples with their chemical composition.
ii. Name the following:
a. Cells that assist the neuron in their function.
b. The small gap between the consecutive neurons.
c. Part of the brain that co-ordinates the voluntary functions.
iii. Explain the process of fertilization, development and birth in human beings.
iv. What are vestigial organs? Give two examples each in human beings and plants.
v. What is recycling of waste? Explain with one example. State two advantages of recycling.
vi. Which mode of reproduction gives rise to variation? Give the importance of variation in
survival of species.
8. Attempt any one of the following: [5]
(A) Given below are the end products of different reactions involving glucose. Write the appropriate
end product in front of the following:
i. Anaerobic reaction = Starch
ii. Reaction in human muscles =
iii. Aerobic respiration = CO2 + Ethanol Glycogen
iv. Reaction in plant cells = Glucose
v. Reaction in liver =
(B) Answer the following questions: Lactic acid CO2 + H2O
i. Give other two names of ethanol. 1
ii. Give the structural formula of ethanol. 1
iii. Give two properties of ethanol. 1
iv. Explain the action of phosphorus trichloride with ethanol. Write the balanced chemical
equation of the above reaction. 2

203
Board Question Paper : July 2016

BOARD QUESTION PAPER : JULY 2016


ALGEBRA
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 40

Note: Q.P. SET CODE


i. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Use of calculator is not allowed.
A
1. Solve any five of the following subquestion: [5]
i. If 3x + 2y = 10 and 2x + 3y = 15, then find the value of x + y.
ii. Find the common difference of the A. P. 3, 5, 7, .
iii. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Write the sample space S.
iv. Write the following quadratic equation in standard form ax2 + bx + c = 0 : x(x + 3) = 7.
v. ()
If fi = 25 and fi xi = 100, then find the mean x .
vi. Find the value of a, b, c in the following quadratic equation: 2x2 + 18 = 6x.
2. Attempt any four of the following subquestions: [8]
i. Find the eighteenth term of the A.P.: 1, 7, 13, 19,
ii. Form the quadratic equation if the roots are 3 and 8.
iii. Solve the following simultaneous equations using Cramers rule:
4x + 3y = 4
6x + 5y = 8
iv. In the following experiment write the sample space S, Number of sample points n(S), write
the event P in set form and find n(P) :
Form two digit number using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, without repeating the digits, P is the
event, that the number so formed is even.
v. For a certain frequency distribution, the value of mean and mode are 54.6 and 54 respectively.
Find the value of median.
vi. Subjectwise marks obtained by a student in an examination are given below:
Subject Marks
Marathi 85
English 90
Science 85
Mathematics 100
Total 360
Draw a pie diagram to represent the above data.
3. Attempt any three of the following subquestions : [9]
i. Represent the following data by histogram:
Price of sugar Number of Weeks
Per kg (in `)
28 30 4
30 32 8
32 34 22
34 36 12
36 38 6
ii. A coin is tossed three times then find the probability of the following events:
A is an event of getting a head on middle coin.
B is an event of getting exactly one tail.
264
Algebra
iii. The following table shows ages of 300 patients getting medical tratment in a hospital on a
particular day:
Age (in years) No. of Patients
10 20 60
20 30 42
30 40 55
40 50 70
50 60 53
60 70 20
Find the median age of patient.
iv. Solve the following quadratic equation by using formula method:
7y2 5y 2 = 0
v. Draw histogram and hence the frequency polygon for the following frequency distribution:
Rainfall (in cm) No. of Years
20 25 2
25 30 5
30 35 8
35 40 12
40 45 10
45 50 7
4. Attempt any two of the following subquestions: [8]
i. The 11th term and the 21st term of an A.P. are 16 and 29 respectively, then find the first term,
common difference and the 34th term.
ii. If the point of intersection of ax + by = 7 and bx + ay = 5 is (3, 1), then find the value of a and
b.
iii. In a certain race there are three boys A, B, C. The winning probability of A is twice than B
and the winning probability of B is twice than C. If P(A) + P(B) + P(C) = 1, then find the
probabilities of their winning.
5. Attempt any two of the following subquestions : [10]
i. Find the sum of all numbers from 50 to 250 which divisible by 6 and find t13.
Solve: 9 x 2 + 2 3 x 20 = 0
1 1
ii.
x
x
iii. A three digit number is equal to 17 times the sum of its digits. If 198 is added to the number,
the extreme digits get interchanged. The sum of first and third digit is 1 less than middle
digit. Find the number.

265

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