L
PRACTICE
SECTION 1
(Dengarkan Audio Listening)
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time approximately 35 minutes
(Including the reading of the directions for each part)
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to un-
derstand conversation and talks in English. There are three parts in this section. Answer all
the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. Do not
take notes or write in your test book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told
to do so.
Part A
Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversation and
questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers
in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the num-
ber of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen.
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Sample Answer
Listen to an example.
On the recording, you hear:
A
(man) : Have you sent the parcels?
(woman) : Yes. I had them sent yesterday. B
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
C
In your test book, you read: D
(A) The parcels had been sent by the woman.
(B) The woman sends the parcels.
(C) The parcels had sent yesterday.
(D) The woman had been sent yesterday
You learn from the conversation that the woman had sent the parcels yesterday (ac-
tive). It means that the parcels had been sent by the woman (passive). The best answer to
the question, What does the woman mean? is (A) The parcels had been sent by the
woman. Therefore, the correct choice is (A).
3. (man) : The letter for our client has not arrived yet. Do you know wy the delay is?
(woman) : Im so sorry. Actually, the courier has not sent it yet.
(narrator) : Where does the dialog probably take place?
(A) in a restaurant (C) in a post office
(B) in a bank (D) at the train station
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5. (man) : I was looking for you at your house last night.
(woman) : Im sorry. I went out for dinner with my parents last night.
(narrator) : Where were the woman and her parents?
(A) At the cinema (C) At home
(B) At a restaurant (D) At a museum
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(C) The stereo is loud enough.
(D) The man can increase the volume.
12. (woman) : Good morning. I have a reservation for a single room under the name
Mrs. Jazz.
(man) : Good morning, mam. Your room number is 324, and here is your key.
(narrator) : Where does the conversation probably take place?
(A) In a bank (C) In a store
(B) In an airport (D) In a hotel
13. (man) : This is a very nice place! Beautiful mountain and green trees! I am glad to
be here.
(woman) : Same with me.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
(A) She feels the same as the man.
(B) She has a different feeling from the man.
(C) She is not happy being there.
(D) She doesnt share with the man.
14. (woman) : Where have you been?
(man) : Ive been in the book store. I have just bought the newest chemistry book.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
(A) He has the newest chemistry book by his own.
(B) He has just borrowed a chemistry book.
(C) He did not find the newest chemistry book in the book store.
(D) He have looked for the chemistry book in the library.
15. (man) : Have you told Diana about the meeting cancellation?
(woman) : Im going to tell her later.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
(A) Diana has already known about it. (C) The woman has not told Diana yet.
(B) Diana has just been told about it. (D) The woman doesnt know either.
16. (woman) : I have to go home right now. Do you still want a ride with me?
(man) : I need to stay for fifteen minutes longer.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
(A) He wants to ride with the woman.
(B) The man will drive the woman home.
(C) The woman may leave the man there.
(D) He is not going home alone.
17. (man) : Do you have any plans for the weekend? Im going to my grandmas house.
(woman) : No, I dont. Im not going anywhere.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
(A) She is going somewhere. (C) She will stay at home.
(B) She wants to go with the man. (D) She is visiting her hometown.
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18. (woman) : Do you think that this sandwich needs some ingredients?
(man) : No, its so good already.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
(A) The sandwich is so bland.
(B) He has a sandwich for his lunch.
(C) The sandwich needs some more ingredients.
(D) The sandwich is delicious.
21. (man) : You look so upset. Is there any problems with your flight ticket?
(woman) : No, there isnt. I just dont feel well today.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
(A) She will buy the ticket today.
(B) She has some problem with her flight ticket.
(C) She is not very healthy.
(D) She does not feel that her flight is well-prepared.
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24. (man) : Do you know where Jimmy is?
(woman) : I think he is consulting his thesis to the proffesor.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
(A) Jimmys father is a proffessor.
(B) Jimmy wants to be a proffesor.
(C) Jimmy is dicussing his thesis.
(D) jimmy is typing his thesis.
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30. (man) : I dont like the taste of the drink.
(woman) : Really? Ill get another drink for you.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
(A) He should finish the drink
(B) The drink is good.
(C) She wants the man to buy her a drink
(D) She will buy him another drink
Part B
Directions:In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conver-
sation, you will hear several questions. The conversation and the questions will not be
repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you hear:
(narrator) : Questions 31 through 32. Listen to the conversation between two people.
(man) : Is Monica there, please?
(woman) : Im sorry, she isnt here right now. Can I give her a message?
(man) : Yes, this is George. Please ask her to call me at work.
(woman) : OK. Can you give me your phone number, please?
(man) : Sure. Its 555-2891
Questions: Sample Answer
On the recording, you hear:
A
(narrator) : Where are the woman and the man talking?
In your test book, you read: B
(A) In the office
C
(B) On the phone
(C) At Monicas house D
(D) At school
Based on the conversation, the suitable answer for question Where are the woman and the
man talking?is On the phone. Therefore, the best choice is (B).
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Based on the mans statement Please ask her to call me at work, it can be known that he
hopes Monica want to phone him. Therefore, the correct choice is (A).
(narrator) : Questions 31 through 34. Listen to the conversation between two people.
(woman) : Excuse me. Can you help me?
(man) : Sure.
(woman) : Is there a post office around here?
(man) : Yes, there is. Its on Center Avenue. Its on Center, between Third and Fourth Streets.
(woman) : Next to the bank?
(man) : Yes, thats right. Its on the corner next to the bank.
(woman) : Thanks a lot.
(man) : Youre welcome.
Questions:
31. (narrator) : Where does the conversation probably take place?
(A) In a post office (C) On the street
(B) In a bank (D) At home
(narrator) : Questions 35 through 38. Listen to the conversation between two people.
(man) : Have you eaten your lunch?
(woman) : Not yet. Im too busy right now. Ill eat my lunch later.
(man) : OK. But dont forget to eat it because you need more energy when have a lot of
things to do.
(woman) : I know. Thanks for your suggestion.
(man) : Youre welcome. Im going to have mashed potatoes and roasted beef in the res-
taurant nearby. Would you like to join?
(woman) : Id love to, but Ill have my lunch later after I finish with this document. Have a good
lunch.
(man) : Thanks.
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Questions:
35. (narrator) : What is the topic of the conversation?
(A) Having lunch (C) A particular restaurant
(B) Their favourite foods (D) The office
37. (narrator) : What does the man want to eat for lunch?
(A) Mashed beef and roasted potatoes
(B) Fried rice and fried beef
(C) Mashed potatoes and roasted beef
(D) Beef steak
Part C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear
some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you hear:
(narrator) : Listen to the talk about the dust-yards.
(man) :
The dust-yards were the most notorious of the nineteenth-century waste trades.
In Dangerous Trade (1902), industrial health expert Thomas Oliver stated that
under all circumstances dust-sorting is dirty and disagreeable work. The uniquely
unpleasant conditions of the yards meant that dust-women formed a class by
themselves, and so the work becomes more or less hereditary. The workers also
received marginal reward for their efforts. By 1900 the average wages of women
in contractors yards in London were only between seven and eight shillings per
week. As a result the dust-yards were increasingly controversial by the end of the
nineteenth century. At the same time, the waste continued to grow. The 1875 Pub-
lic Health Act had given local authorities a legal responsibility to remove and dis-
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pose of domestic waste. However, the last years of the century saw a solution to
the apparently insoluble problem of what to do with the refuse of Britains cities.
A means, in the eyes of experts, to achieve the perfect removal of waste without
resort to either the dust-yard or the tip(the incinerator).
Now listen to a sample question. Sample Answer
(narrator) : What is the topic of the talk?
A
In your test book, you read: B
(A) Dust-yards (C) Thomas Oliver
C
(B) Dangerous trade (D) Britains cities
D
The best answer to the question What is the topic of the talk?is (A) dust-yards. It is based
on a statement The dust-yards were the most notorious of the nineteenth-century waste
trades. Therefore, the correct choice is (A).
Now listen to another sample question. Sample Answer
(narrator) : According to Thomas Olivers statement, how A
is under all circumstances dust-sorting?
In your test book, you read: B
(A) It is dirty and agreeable work. C
(B) It is dirty and disagreeable work.
(C) It is clean and agreeable work. D
(D) It is clean and disagreeable work.
The best answer to the question According to Thomas Olivers statement, how is under all
cisrcumstances dust-sorting? is (B) It is dirty and disagreeable work. It is based on a state-
ment industrial health expert Thomas Oliver stated that under all circumstances dust-
sorting is dirty and disagreeable work. Therefore, the correct choice is (B).
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Questions:
39. (narrator) : According to the text, who watches the most television?
(A) Men (C) Kids
(B) Women (D) Parents
(narrator) : Questions 43 through 46. Listen to the talk about the influence of the media.
(man) :
The media has become one of societys most important agents of socialization. Television, ra-
dio, newpapers, the internet, and other forms of media have a strong effect on the way we
think and act. However, there is disagreement about exactly what the effect is. For example,
access to television allows us to be better informed and gives us an increased understand-
ing of the world. TV can also be used to entertain us. However, television exposes us to nega-
tive images, too. Furthermore, some critics argue that it may make us passive, violent, or too
materialistic. Other forms of mass media, such as video games, magazines, and movies, may
influence our ideas strongly, too. We do not yet really understand the extent of their impact on
society.
Questions:
43. (narrator) : What is the topic of the talk?
(A) the influence of media. (C) the advantages of internet.
(B) the bad effects of television. (D) some critics about internet.
44. (narrator) : According to the text, what is the positive effect of television?
(A) Making society passive
(B) Entertaining society
(C) Changing the society into being materialistic
(D) Exposing society to violence
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(C) Making people violent
(D) Entertaining people
(narrator) : Questions 47 through 50. Listen to the talk about gender issues.
(woman) :
During the twentieth century, the feminist movement became more active. Women made
a great deal of progress towards gaining equal opportunities in education. More and more
women also entered the workforce. Both girls and boys were encouraged to choose careers
they wanted and didnt feel that they had to choose careers that were traditional for their
gender. At home, husbands and wives began to share household chores and caring for chil-
dren. These changes in gender roles have helped women make progress toward gaining equal
rights. In many areas of life. However, sociologists agree that the problem of gender inequality
is still a serious issue facing society today.
Questions:
47. (narrator) : What is the topic of the talk?
(A) Womens health (C) Gender issues
(B) Mens lives (D) Careers based on sex
48. (narrator) : How was the feminist movement during twentieth century?
(A) Passive (C) No change
(B) Active (D) Handicapped
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SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time 25 minutes
(Including the reading of the directions)
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special
directions for each type.
STRUCTURE
Directions: Questions 1 15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will
see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that
best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the ques-
tion and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill
in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
The sentence should read, Tourists are willing to pay a significant amount to have good
sanitary experiences. Therefore, you should choose (B) to pay.
The sentence should read, Can I afford to move somewhere else to be in a better environ-
ment? Therefore, you should choose (A) afford.
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Now, begin work on the questions
3. The explosion in the number of art fairs ________ the most significant change in the
market since the turn of the century.
(A) is (C) have been
(B) are (D) be
4. I think its taken some time for people______the importance of improved sanitation.
(A) realize (C) have realized
(B) realizes (D) to realize
5. Artists are obliged to create a fixed number of works during each month of their five-
year contract, usually two to three, and __________ one painting a month for a fur-
ther 15 years
(A) derivered (C) have delivered
(B) is delivering (D) to deliver
7. A study ________ in 1997 by Michigan State University showed that children at that
time were spending just over two hours per week on study, which could include ac-
tivities other than homework
(A) performing (C) was performing
(B) performed (D) were performing
8. Human brains ________ large and small numbers of objects using two different
mechanisms.
(A) process (C) is processed
(B) processes (D) is processing
9. The ultimate goal of disaster risk science_____to understand disasters and risks.
(A) are (C) were
(B) is (D) have
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10. The systematic study of disasters through an inter-disciplinary approach______.
(A) are just beginning (C) is just beginning
(B) were just beginning (D) have just begun
11. Once programmed to get rid of citrullinated proteins, the immune system can start
attacking its own tissues and organs, thereby causing the autoimmune processes
__________ may result in rheumatoid arthritis.
(A) who (C) whose
(B) which (D) whom
13. In a dance, there are_____stops, and the stops are not about being stagnant.
(A) a (C) several
(B) an (D) one
15. The show______the true inner resilience of the people that needs to be explored.
(A) demonstrate (C) demonstrating
(B) demonstrates (D) demonstration
WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In questions 16 40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases.
The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that cor-
responds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
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Example II Sample Answer
The problems surrounding our fish industry is obvious.
A
A B C D
B
The sentence should read, The problems surrounding
C
our fish industry are obvious. Therefore, you should
choose (C). D
16. According to the Maritime Affairs and Fisheries Ministrys data, Indonesias fish
A B
production is 10.83 million tons last year.
C D
17. A war with China over Taiwan or the Spratly Islands are simple to start but hard to
A B C
end, and could very easily escalate.
D
18. If I look at it in the arc of my career, it is a tiny jobs, and in a place that hasnt really
A B C
been that significant, frankly, to me.
D
19. My lesson to my students are they have to be open and alert at every turn.
A B C D
20. They thought I was not normal because I was very difference from everybody else in
A B C D
my family.
21. I would have expect some discussion in the management discussion and analysis of
A
how this has had a positive impact on these banks operating results.
B C D
22. I asked officials at Citigroup and Morgan Stanley about these disclosure.
A B C D
23. The rules is found in a section of the S.E.C.s Codification of Financial Reporting
A B C D
Policies.
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24. Investors didnt know what dire the situation was at these institutions.
A B C D
26. The Fed says that the money it lent in these programs was paid back without
A B C
generates any losses.
D
27. The rules grows out of the savings and loan crisis, during which hundreds of banks
A B
failed and others received government help.
C D
28. Other banks kept silent on these activities or mentioned them in passing with
A B C
few specific.
D
29. During a group discussion, it can be difficult for the group to know how and when
A B C
begin the discussion.
D
30. Did you both understand all the points in the lecture and catching all the
A B C
information?
D
31. Please, decide on three things to observes that will give you information about the
A B C D
pace of life at your school.
32. General Electric is most famous for his electric appliances, but it also makes jet
A B C D
engines, electric motors, and much more.
33. Vossoughi found out that most people prefers attractive headsets that they can
A B
touch and use without thinking.
C D
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34. They both know how to think outside the box and created success after success.
A B C D
35. Because of Barbara works at the restaurant in the morning, she usually arrives five
A B C
to ten minutes late to class.
D
36. The professor will tells you the big picture or the general plan of the lecture.
A B C D
37. You should listen for the words and expression that professors use to tell you the big
A B C D
picture of the lecture.
38. To help students understand the listening strategy, she should discuss the situation
A B C D
and answer the questions.
39. Some companies can be successful use traditional ways of creating new products,
A B
but other companies are successful when they think outside the box.
C D
40. Using an informal outline with indentation will help you remember who information
A B C
is more important and which information is related but less important.
D
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SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time 55 minutes
(Including the reading of the directions)
This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand passages.
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a num-
ber of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer; (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each
question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space
that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis what is implied or
stated in that passage.
Example
According to the passage line 1, Independent colleges and universities are private, non-
profit institutions, maka diketahui bahwa Independent colleges and universities are private.
Therefore, you should choose (B).
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Question 2: Sample Answer
According to the passage, which statement is NOT true?
(A) Few colleges and universities originated as church- A
related institutions. B
(B) The most common independent colleges and uni-
versities include liberal arts institutions. C
(C) Independent colleges and universities include tech- D
nical orspecialized institutions.
(D) Independent colleges and universities prepare stu-
dents inengineering, performing arts, music, nur
sing and other fields.
The passage states that Good writing in English requires good grammar and good organiza-
tion. Therefore, you should choose (A).
Questions 1 10: This passage below is for questions number 1 up to 10. Choose the best
answer based on the passage.
Line 1 The Quebec Bridge, located at mile 2.70, Bridge Sub-division Quebec City,
Quebec, Canada, was considered the eighth Wonder of The World, when
construction was completed in 1919. It is the longest cantilever, steel Railway
Bridge in the world. Its sister bridge is the Firth of Forth Bridge in Scotland.
Line 5 The Quebec Bridge is a riveted steel structure with 8,000,000 square feet of
coatable structural steel. The overall length is 3239 feet and the width is 94
feet. The bridge is 340 feet high, from the top of the cantilever to the water
below. Each cantilever span is 580 feet long.
The Quebec Bridge accommodates 1 rail line, 3 lanes of automotive traffic
Line 10 and 2 pedestrian walkways. The Quebec Bridge was declared a historic monu-
ment in 1987, by the Canadian & American Society of Civil Engineers and a
National Historic Site on January 24, 1996 by the Department of Canadian Her-
itage.
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3. The word riveted in line 5 is the closest in meaning to______
(A) nailed (C) railed
(B) piled (D) tailed
6. Where in the passage does the author describe the Quebec Bridges structure?
(A) Line 1 2 (C) Line 5 6
(B) Line 3 4 (D) Line 7 8
10. According to the passage, when was the Quebec Bridge declared as a National His-
toric Site?
(A) On January 24, 1969 (C) On January 24, 1978
(B) On January 24, 1996 (D) On January 24, 1987
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Questions 11 20: This passage below is for questions number 11 up to 20. Choose the
best answer based on the passage.
Line 1 Umbilical cord blood, like bone marrow, contains valuable stem cells that
can be used to treat life-threatening illnesses, such as leukemia, lymphoma,
sickle cell anemia, and immune deficiency and metabolic diseases. A babys
cord blood can be donated to a public bank or stored at a private bank for fu-
Line 5 ture use in a sibling or parent who has an illness that can be treated by a cord
blood transplant.
A number of both public and private banks exist that can store cord blood
for future use. The National Marrow Donor Program, which is overseen by the
U.S. Health Resources and Services Administration, launched a program in Oc-
tober 2008 that provides families affected by life-threatening diseases with
Line 10 the opportunity to store a new babys cord blood at no cost.
12. According to the passage, umbilical cord blood can be used to treat the following
diseases, except_____.
(A) heart attack (C) lymphoma
(B) leukemia (D) immune deficiency
14. The member of the family who can be treated by a cord blood transplant are the fol-
lowings, except_____
(A) Sister (C) Father
(B) Mother (D) Grand mother
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17. When was the National Marrow Donor Program launched?
(A) October 1998 (C) December 2008
(B) December 1998 (D) October 2008
18. If the passage mentions that Health Resources and Services Administration, launched
a program in October 2008 that provides families affected by life-threatening diseas-
es with the opportunity to store a new babys cord blood at no cost., it means______.
(A) the program is free
(B) the program needs a lot of publicity
(C) the program is only for rich people
(D) the program is not for poor men
Questions 21 30: This passage below is for questions number 21 up to 30. Choose the
best answer based on the passage.
Line 1 A heart attack happens if the flow of oxygen-rich blood to a section of
heart muscle suddenly becomes blocked. Most heart attacks occur as a result
of coronary heart disease (CHD). CHD is a condition in which a waxy substance
called plaque builds up inside of the coronary arteries. These arteries supply
Line 5 oxygen-rich blood to your heart.
When plaque builds up in the arteries, the condition is called atheroscle-
rosis. The build up of plaque occurs over many years. Eventually, an area of
plaque can rupture (break open) inside of an artery. This causes a blood clot to
form on the plaques surface. If the clot becomes large enough, it can mostly
Line 10 or completely block blood flow through a coronary artery.
If the blockage isnt treated quickly, the portion of heart muscle fed by the
artery begins to die. Healthy heart tissue is replaced with scar tissue. This heart
damage may not be obvious, or it may cause severe or long-lasting problems.
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22. Where in the passage does the author explain about how heart attack happens?
(A) Line 1 2 (C) Line 9 11
(B) Line 6 7 (D) Line 14 15
24. The author mentions that when plaque builds up in the arteries, the condition is
called_____.
(A) sclerosis (C) CHD
(B) heart attack (D) atherosclerosis
27. The word eventually in line 7 is the closest in meaning with ______________
(A) Mostly (C) Finally
(B) Actually (D) Hopefully
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30. The word severe in Line 13 is in contrast in meaning with_____
(A) chronical (C) various
(B) mild (D) wild`
Questions 31 40: This passage below is for questions number 31 up to 40. Choose the
best answer based on the passage.
Line 1 Blossoming Chestnut Branches is a very late Van Gogh work. Vincent
painted it sometime after he arrived in Auvers-sur-Oise on May 21, 1890, but
before the chestnut trees had stopped flowering. Here he had broken a few
blooming chestnut branches off and arranged them in a vase with some light
Line 5 pink rhododendrons. The resultant painting is bold in composition, color and
brushwork, yet fragile in its subject matter.
Vincent presented this as a gift to Paul Gachet (1828-1909), the homeo-
pathic physician with whom he was staying. The artist had specifically come to
Auvers-sur-Oise on the advice of his brother, Theo, to receive treatment from
Line 10 Gachet. Unfortunately, Van Gogh soon doubted that even the artistic, artist-
friendly Gachet would be of any help and wrote as much to Theo. And by the
end of July, a scant two months later, he was gone.
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36. Rhododendron (in line 5) is _______
(A) A name of city (C) Painting composition
(B) A sort of plants (D) Artistic method
38. Where in the passage does the author mention that Van Gogh had ever stayed to-
gether with Gachet?
(A) Line 2 3 (C) Line 6 7
(B) Line 4 5 (D) Line 7 8
Questions 41 50: This passage below is for questions number 41 up to 50. Choose the
best answer based on the passage.
Line 1 The Eiffel Tower was built for the International Exhibition of Paris of 1889
commemorating the centenary of the French Revolution. The Prince of Wales,
later King Edward VII of England, opened it. Of the 700 proposals submitted in
a design competition, Gustave Eiffels was unanimously chosen. However it was
Line 5 not accepted by all at first, and a petition of 300 names - including those of Mau-
passant, Emile Zola, Charles Garnier (architect of the Opra Garnier), and Dumas
the Younger - protested its construction. At 300 meters (320.75 m including an-
tenna), and 7,000 tons, it was the worlds tallest building until 1930.
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43. The word it in Line 3 refers to______.
(A) The French (C) The Eiffel Tower
(B) The French revolution (D) The International exhibition
50. The followings are those who protested the Eiffel Towers construction, except_____
(A) Charles Garnier (C) Dumas the Younger
(B) Emile Zola (D) King Edward VII
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KUNCI 24. B, it should be how
25. C, it should be were
JAWABAN TOEFL 26. D, it should be generating
27. A, it should be grew out
28. D, it should be few specifics
29. D, it should be to begin
SECTION 1 30. C, it should be catch
LISTENING COMPREHENSION 31. B, it should be to observe
32. B, it should be its
1. C 14. A 27. A 40. C
33. A, it should be prefer
2. B 15. C 28. B 41. D
34. D, it should be create
3. B 16. C 29. D 42. B
35. A, it should be because
4. D 17. C 30. D 43. A
36. A, it should be will tell
5. B 18. D 31. C 44. B
37. B, it should be expressions
6. B 19. B 32. A 45. C
38. C, it should be they
7. C 20. A 33. D 46. A
39. B, it should be using
8. C 21. C 34. B 47. C
40. C, it should be which
9. A 22. D 35. A 48. B
10. B 23. A 36. B 49. A
11. D 24. C 37. C 50. D
SECTION 3
12. D 25. C 38. C
READING COMPREHENSION
13. A 26. D 39. B
1. A 22. A 43. C
2. B 23. C 44. B
SECTION 2 3. A 24. D 45. B
STRUCTURE AND 4. C 25. A 46. B
WRITTEN EXPRESSION 5. B 26. C 47. B
6. B 12. A 6. C 27. C 48. C
1. A 7. B 13. C 7. C 28. B 49. D
2. B 8. A 14. B 8. C 29. A 50. D
3. A 9. B 15. B 9. A 30. A
4. D 10 . C 10 . B 31. A
5. D 11. B 11. A 32. C
12. A 33. B
16. C, it should be was 13. B 34. B
17. B, it should be is 14. D 35. A
18. C, it should be job 15. C 36. B
19. A, it should be is 16. C 37. C
20. D, it should be different from 17. D 38. D
21. A, it should be would have 18. A 39. D
expected 19. D 40. D
22. D, it should be disclosures 20. C 41. A
23. B, it should be are found 21. A 42. B
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