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1. In SHEL model, lever which is poorly located or lack of proper coding creates a mismatch inter face bet.

a) Live ware
b) Software
c) Hardware
d) Both (1) & (3)
2. Error refers to the ability of a system to accept an error without catastrophic error
a. error reduction
b. error capturing
c. error tolerance
3. As per SHEL model, live ware could mean
a. A person or people at the centre of the model, staff etc.
b. the encompasses human and nonphysical aspects of the system such as procedure, manual and checklist
layout, symbology and computer program.
c. both a & b
4. Full form of SHEL Model.
a. software, hardware, Environment & live ware
b. software, human, environment and live ware
c. software, human, engineer, live ware
d. software, hardware, engineer, live ware
5. Human factors Training Document
a. ICAO DOC 9683
b. ICAO Doc. 9638
c. ICAO Doc. 9673
d. none
6. Transequilizers and sleeping tablets
1. Adequate and doctor advice
2. Inadequate
3. As in 2 and affect human performance
Coffin in coffee and tea has effect
1. Reduces the reaction time
2. Increases the reaction time
3. As in 1 and disturb sleep
7. The stress due to noise, temp., humidity is called
1. Environmental stress
2. Mental stress
3. Cognitive stress
8. A person whose ideas and acts influence thought and behavior of other
1. Leader
2. Supervisor
3. Co ordination
4. Manager
9. The difference between attitude and personality is
1. Relevant
2. Irrelevant
3. As in 1 and attitude can be changed through training
4. As in 2and personality can be changed through training
10. A condition reflecting inadequate rest is called
1. Circadian rhythm disturbance
2. Fatigue
3. None
11. the frequency of vibration, acceleration changes which effect
1. Visual acuity
2. Neuromuscular system
3. Fatigue
4. Any of the above
12. The difference between what a person can do and what he will do
1. Motivation
2. Communication
3. Culture
13. Factor that effect the human performance
1. Noise
2. Environment
3. As in 1&2 light and darkness
4. None
14. study of efficiency of a person, study of human machine system design is
1. Agronomics
2. Ergonomics
3. Human factor
4. None
15. error tolerance refers to
1. Error reduction strategies which includes improving access to part
2. The ability of a system to accept an error without catastrophic consequences
3. Both 1& 2
16. For the study of information related to the investigation human factors issues are obtained from
1. Advisory circular
2. Information circular
3. Maps
4. Chart/navigation (check list)
17. The success of communication program depends on
1. Non verbal /gesture communication
2. The degree to which the intended massage is understood by the receiver
3. Background noise problem
18. Vibration in any form of oscillating motion that changes its magnitude periodically and is of operational
significance in aviation because
1. It does not impair visual acuity
2. It may impair visual acuity
3. Interfere with neuromuscular control and lead to fatigue
4. Both 2&3
19. Glare may produces discomfort or annoyance and
1. Helps in working environment to see object
2. May interfare with visual performance
3. Both 1 and 2
20. Climbing over wings and horizontal stabilizer and working in uncomfortable position are common and
generally engineers performance in this situation may be related to
1. Fitness and health
2. Mental situation of individual
3. Good performance as he is alone on work
21. Faulty maintenance work which contributed to the accident was performed
1. During night sift only
2. during inspection in day light
3. Inducing L-E interface flaw
4. 1&3
22. Sleep has a restorative function and is essential for mental performance. Sleep deprivation and disturbance
1. Increase alertness and attention
2. Increase performance
3. Reduce alertness and attention
4. None
23. Caffeine in coffee, tea and various soft drinks increases alertness and
1. Keep awaking
2. Reduces reaction times
3. Health in sleep
4. Both 1&3
24. The use of drugs such as hypnotics, sedatives and tranquilizers to induce sleep is usually
1. Appropriate
2. Inappropriate
3. as in 2 and they have adverse effect on performance
4. As in 1 and should be taken with advise of medical practitioner
25. A condition reflecting inadequate rest as well as collection of symptoms associated with displaced or
disturbed biological rhythms is called
1. Jet lag
2. Circadian rhythms
3. Fatigue
26. A person whose ideas and action influence the thought and the behavior of other is known as
1. Politician
2. Leader
3. Commander
27. The factor that determines whether a person will do so in a given situation is called
1. Co- ordination
2. Motivation
3. Co- operation
28. AME carry out repetitive task of inspection of turbine blade, in any condition if he feel that his performance
get degrade then following checking should be done
a) Blood alcohol level
b) Visual capability
c) Physical fitness
29. . Dirty dozen means
a) Lack of confidence
b) Lack of courage
c) No limitation
d) Lack of Assertiveness-
30. Knob and lever which are poorly located or lack of proper coding creates mismatch interface between
1. Live ware
2. Software
3. Hardware
4. 1&3 both
31. The error may have been caused by latent failure such as deficient training, poor allocation of resources
time pressure etc. they may also have been caused by
1. Poor design of tool /equipment
2. Poor maintenance
3. Poor training
32. A result of action or decision made wall before an accident the consequence which may remain dormant for
a log time is known as
1. Active failure
2. safety failure
3. Latent failure
4. All
33. An error or violation which has an immediate adverse effect is called
1. Active failure
2. Passive failure
3. Latent failure
4. None
34. Significant step in maintenance error reduction
a. Maintenance data should be organized in a form that allows study of the human performance aspects of
a) The gap between maintenance community and psychology as if applies to aviation should be widened
b) Method and tool should be develop not to help a/c designer and maintenance manager address the issue
of human error in a more analytical manner
All the above are correct
35. Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of the biological rhythm, thus
leading to reduced human performance?
a. Liveware - Liveware.
b. Liveware - Environment.
c. Liveware - Hardware.
d. Liveware - Software.
36. Between which components is an interface mismatch causing an error of interpretation by using an old three-
point altimeter?
Liveware - Hardware
Liveware - Software
Liveware - Environment
Liveware - Liveware
37. The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations manual are related to an interface
mismatch between
Liveware - Hardware
Liveware - Software
Liveware - Environment
Liveware - Liveware
38. What is the meaning of the S in the SHELL model?
Signals and indications
39. The twin objectives of Human Performance are
flight Safety and self-awareness.
physical fitness and good decision-making.
the safety and efficiency of the operation and the well-being of the individual.
knowledge of the limitations of the body and their significance in aviation
40. What does the H in the SHELL model mean?
41. Group or Team responsibility to have advantages and disadvantages, the Main disadvantages
a. no one feels personally responsible for safety
b. as in (a) as responsibility is spread across complete team or group members
c. both a and b are correct d. NOTA
42. The main disadvantage of team or group responsibility is referred to as DIFFUSION OF RESPONSIBILITY as
a. No one feels personally responsible for safety
b. all feel equally responsible for safety
c. all feel it is someone else responsibility for safety
d. both a and c are correct
43. INTERGROUP conflict is
a. Rivalries between teams or groups
b. rivalries between team or group and others such as between engineers and planners
c. between shifts, between teams at different sites
d. both b and c are correct because of shift handover problems
44. GROUP POLARISATION may result in
a. Tendency of people in a group to take extremely risky decision which may endanger safety
b. tendency of taking UNANIMOUS decision over riding individuals more rational and responsible decision for
c. as in b known as GROUNP THINK
45. MOTIVATION can be
a. for right things or wrong things
b. negative or positive
c. for financial gains/recognition/ promotion etc
46. i) Motivation is difficult to measure and predict
ii) we are all motivated by different things, may be by money promotion or recognition etc
a. both are true c. only ii is true
b. both are false d. only i is true
47. De-motivated people
a. have less consideration of safety
b. have increased likely hood of risk taking
c. indulge in corner cutting
d. as in a, b and c and also violate procedures
48. Characteristics of DEMOTIVATED people are
a. apathy and indifference to the Job, unpunctuality, Absenteeism
b. less regard for safety while working, lack of cooperation
c. lack of cooperative in dealing with problem, difficulties
d. as in a, b and c and unjustified resistance to change habit
49. Charactertics of HIGHLY MOTIVATED people are
a. high performance and consistently good results
b. energy, enthusiasm and determination to succeed
c. willingness to shoulder responsibilities and accept change
50. PEER PRESSURE may results in
a. Motivation b. de-motivation c. conformity d. AOTA
51. Perceived pressure which any individual may feel to conform to what he believes that his associated /
colleagues expect is called
a. conformity pressure c. social pressure
b. PEER PRESURE d. organizational pressure
52. Safety culture of an organization means is a set of
a. beliefs c. roles social and technical practices
b. norms and attitude d. AOTA concerned with safety
53. Excessive Time pressure with fixed dead line either actual or imaginary, may result in
a. lack of attention or care while doing work
b. stress management and error prevention
c. relaxation and error prevention
d. as in a causing more ERRORS
54. TIME PRESSURE & Dead lines may be
a. Actual b. perceived or imaginary c. self imposed d. AOTA
55. Managing Time pressure and dead line is by
a. Prioritizing Various pieces of work to be done
b. making the time available for actual work considering break and shift handover time
c. optimum utilization of available manpower judiciously
d. AOTA and making spares and parts available in time
56. Much of WORK LOAD of AMEs can be MODERATED by
a. careful prior planning of task, manpower, spares and tools and training of staff
b. refusing additional work and under loading
c. delaying / postponing tasks and overloading d. AOTA
57. AMEs when working in ROLLING SHIFTS have to be self disciplined in
a. eating timing c. other activities
b. sleeping timings d. AOTA and be adequately rested/refreshed for work
58. CLIMATE & TEMPERATURE also affect AMEs performance, the performance diminishes, when it is
a. too cold and or wet c. warm dry
b. too hot and / or humid d. both a or b
59. Immediate Working Environment of AMEs include ______
a. physical b. social c. tasks d. AOTA
60. For continuous Visual Inspection following is / are required
a. Concentration
b. Focused and sustained attention
c. good arousal level and high motivation
d. AOTA and higher expectation of finding and locating faults and no complacency
61. Broadly speaking , human factors considers and concerns
a. cockpit design and crew management
b. cockpit layout and crew resource management
c. human involvement in aviation from design of a/c to maintenance engineering activities.
62. HUMAN FACTORS is also referred to as
63. Subpart G of CAR M;
1. Maintenance standards
2. Continuing airworthiness
3. Maintenance organization
64. M.A. in CAR-M is the requirement of
1. Section A of CAR-M
2. Section B of CAR-M
3. Both 1 & 2
65. CAR-M establishes common technical requirements for ensuring the continuing airworthiness of aircraft &
components, which are;
1. Indian registered a/c
2. Foreign registered a/c operated by India
3. Either of the above
66. If the owner makes a limited contract with CAMO, then
1. Responsibility for the development and approval of maintenance programme is transferred to CAMO
2. Responsibility for the development and approval of maintenance programme rests with owner only.
3. Limited contract cannot be established with CAMO
4. All are incorrect
67. Entry about the issue of CRS shall be made
1. Within 40 days after the day of maintenance action
2. Within 30 days after the day of maintenance action
3. As in 1 + it should be made in aircraft continuing airworthiness records
4. Only 2 is incorrect
68. Aircraft technical log is retained for;
1. 24 months from the last entry made therein
2. 36 months after the last entry made therein
3. 12 months from the last entry made therein
4. None
69. components in satisfactory condition;
1. released on CA from 1
2. indentified according to CAR 21 Subpart Q
3. both 1 & 2
4. either 1 & 2
70. Organization approved under subpart F of CAR M, prepares a manual for the guidance of their staff, called;
1. Maintenance organization Exposition
2. Continuing Airworthiness Maintenance Exposition
3. Maintenance Organisation Manual
4. Either 1 or 3
71. MTCS( for subpart F approved organisation);
1. Accountable manager are accepted under CA form 4
2. As in 1 + name of other nominated post holders are also given under CA form 4
3. As in 2+ this nominated post holder shall directly report to Accountable manager
4. None is correct
72. MOM should be approved by;
1. DGCA (Regional Office)
2. As in 1+ minor amendments to the manual may be approved through indirect approval
3. As in 2+ amendments are submitted to DGCA local office at least 15 days before.
4. All the above is incorrect, MOM & its amendments is approved by DGCA hqrs
73. At the completion of all required aircraft maintenance an aircraft CRS shall be issued according to;
1. M.A.601
2. M.A.901
3. M.A.801
4. None
74. Airworthiness review staff;
1. Are nominated by CAMO
2. Are issued with an authorisation by CAMO
3. As in 1 + formally accepted by the DGCA
4. All the above
75. Approval recommendation report to be completed by subpart G approved organization is, on;
1. CA form 6
2. CA form 6F
3. CA form 13
4. CA form 14
76. According to CAR M, maintenance organization shall provide a manual shall contain at least
a) Organizations scope of work
b) List of certifying staff with their scope of approval
c) maintenance organization manual amendment procedure(s)
d) All the above are correct
77. Material used in an a/c or component must be accompanied by documentation clearly relating to the
particular material and containing a conformity to specification statement plus
a) Manufacturing source only
b) Supplier source only
c) Both A and B
d) None
78. According to CAR M, material being either raw material or consumable material shall only be used on an
aircraft or a component when
a) Manufacture states in relevant maintenance data
b) As specified in CAR 145
c) As given in CAR
d) Either A or B
79. After receipt of finding the holder of the maintenance organization approval shall define a corrective action
plan and demonstrate corrective action
a) Within 7 days
b) Within 72 hours
c) Within 30 days
d) Either A or C
80. According to CAR M, When a lengthy capability list is used which could be subject to frequent Amendment,
then such amendment shall be in accordance with a procedureacceptable to
b) Included in maintenance exposition
c) Both A and B
d) None
81. According to CAR M, An airworthiness review certificate becomes invalid if
a) Airworthiness certificate is suspended or revoked
a) The aircraft is not on the aircraft register of DGCA
b) The type certificate under which the airworthiness certificate was issued is suspended or revoked
c) All the above are correct
82. According to CAR M the continuing airworthiness management organization shall provide a continuing
airworthiness management exposition containing the following Information
a) the organizations scope of work
b) a list of M.A.707 airworthiness review staff
c) the list of approved aircraft maintenance programs
d) All the above are correct
83. A component shall be considered unserviceable in any one of the following circumstances
a) expiry of the service life limit as defined in the maintenance program;
b) Absence of the necessary information to determine the airworthiness status or eligibility for installation
c) Evidence of defects or malfunctions
d) All the above are correct
84. According to CAR M the aircraft maintenance program me and any subsequent amendments shall be
approved by
b) RAO
c) Manufacturer
d) None
85. CAR M
a) Provide continued airworthinessof an aircraft and its components
b) Compliance depend on size of the organization
c) Applicable to private operators (General Aviation), flying training institutes, state governments etc.
d) All the above are correct
86. For a/c not used in commercial air transport of 2730 kg MTOW and below, and balloon, the airworthiness
review staff have acquired
a) At least 3 year experience in continuing airworthiness
b) an appropriate license in compliance with DGCA Aircraft Maintenance License requirements or an
aeronautical degree or equivalent,
c) appropriate aeronautical maintenance training,
d) All the above are correct----------ANS.
87. To qualify as a pilot-owner the person
a) Hold a valid pilot license
b) Own the a/c as a sole
c) Own the a/c as a joint owner
d) All the above are correct------------ANS.
88. . For all a/c used in commercial air transport and a/c MTOW above 2730 kg , except balloons the
airworthiness review staff shall have
a) At least 5 year experience in continuous airworthiness
b) Appropriate license in engine and airframe or an aeronautical degree or equivalent
c) Formal aeronautical training
d) All the above are correct-----ANS.
89. When an operator required by DGCA to hold a certificate of commercial operation other than for commercial
air transport, it shall
a) Approved in accordance with MA sub part R or 145 or contract such organization--------ANS.
b) Approved in accordance with MA sub part R or contract such organization
c) Approved in accordance with CAR or contract such organization
90. Organization and personnel involved in continuing airworthiness of a/c and component including
maintenance shall comply with
a) CAR M
b) Requirement for licensing of a/c maintenance personnel given by DGCA
c) CAR 145
d) All the above are correct-------------ANS.
91. Frequent resulted from a failure to take into account the capability and limitation of the human information
processing system
a) Poor manual design--
b) Poor instrument and warning design------------ANS.
c) Poor workshop design
d) All the above are correct
92. In case of CAMO, a/c maintenance programme and amendment are
a) Submitted to DGCA regional office
b) Submitted to manufacturer
c) As in A and within 15 days before their effectivity
d) As in B and within 30n days before their effectivity
93. In case of CAT, tech log is retained for
a) 30 month after date of last entry
b) 36 month after date of last entry
c) 24 month after the date of last entry
d) 12 month after date of last entry
94. MTCS
a) Any defect that hazard flight safety should rectify before further flight
b) Any defect not rectify before flight shall be recorded appropriately
c) Any defect would not hazard seriously flight safety shall record as soon as practicable
d) All of the above
95. Component authorize release document is
a) CA form 2001
b) CA form 1
c) CA form 4
d) Any of the above
96. Non- compliance with CAR M requirement which could lower the safety standard and possibly hazard flight
a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 4
d) Level 5
97. Application for issue/ variation of CAMO made in
a) CA form 15b
b) CA form 2002
c) CA form 2
d) None
98. Single engine helicopter used for CAT is maintained by
a) CAR 145 org
b) CAR M org
c) CAR 21 org
d) None
99. Continuing a/w of the a/c is managed by CAMO approved in accordance with
a) CAR M sub part F
b) CAR M sub part G
c) CAR 21
d) All of the above
100. Applicable maintenance data is
a) AD issued by DGCA
b) Instruction issued by TC holder
c) Instruction issued by STC holder
d) All of the above
101. Production planning means
a) Org. shall have appropriate amount and complexity of work to plan the availability of all personnel, tool,
equipment to ensure safe completion of the maintenance work
b) Org. having approved in production
c) Org. having planner to plan
102. continuing iarworthiness of a/c is responsibility of
c.any person of organisation
103. in case of coommertial airtransport,the responsibility of preflight inspection is
a.Any person or organisation performing maintenance
d.Authorised person
104. CAR M is issued under provision of rule
a.133B of 1937
b.133A of 1937
105. The M.A. subpart F organisation nominated post holder
application is given in
a.CA Form 2
b.CA Form 4
c.CA Form 3
d.CA Form 6
106. In case of Airworthiness review staff following
shall be recorded
a.The qualification
b.Exp. in continuing airworthiness management
107. As per CAR M DGCA may carry airworthiness review and issue
airworthiness review certificate
a.In case of potential safety treat
b.a/c below 2730kg including ballons
c.If required by owner for a/c below 2730kg and ballons

108. Application for restricted type certificate (RTC) is made on

1. CA-30
2. CA-20
3. CA-24
4. CA-23
109. The requirement of production without POA given in CAR-21
a.Subpart- F
b.Subpart G
c.Subpart JA
d.subpart Q
110. The requirement of production with POA given in CAR-21
a.Subpart G
b. Subpart F
c. Subpart D
d. subpart E
111. Major change to the part of product covered by supplemental type certificate shall be approved in accordance
with CAR-21
a. Subpart B
b. subpart K
c. subpart E
d. subpart H
112. Statement of conformity a DGCA form 52 signed by an authorized person, who holds responsible position is
issued under
a) Subpart -F
b) Subpart -G
c) Subpart -E
d) Both (a) & (b)
113. MTSC: Regarding noise certificate.
a).It is valid for 1 year.
b) It is valid for unlimited duration
c) As in 2) subject to compliance with applicable type design & environment protection requirements
d) As in (2) Subject to C of A of AIRCRAFT remaining valid
114. For an imported aircraft, DGCA shall issue C of A of aircraft if ,
a) The aircraft conforms to approved design of manufacturer and is in condition for Safe operation.
b) as in (a)and presentation of weight & balance report.
c) application includes a statement signed by the exporting authority that AIRCRAFT conforms to design
approved by authority.
d) As in (c) and documents required as per CAR-21 sub H .
115. Authorized release certificate for release of components
a. CA form 53
b. CA Form-1
c. CA Form 4
d. CA form 2
116. DGCA issues aircraft under the provision rule-of IAR 1937.
a. 133B
b. 134
c. 133A.
d. 133C
117. DGCA may defer permanently or temporarily a candidate if the applicant has adopted unfair means during the
test or examinant under the provision of rule-of IAR 1937.
a. 41A (4)
b. 53(A)
c. 41A (2)
d. 41
118. Fees for C of R of aircraft of AUW 62,738 kg is.
a. 65000.
b. 20000
c. 75000
d. 125,000
119. The privileges of issuing or extending ARC by DGCA or CAMO is given in CAR- M?
a. Sub part G (of CAR-M) M-39 (M.A.-711) 4).
b. Sub part F
c. sub part G
d. sub part E
120. Operator shall implement safety management system to
a) Intimate TC holder for identified safety hazard.
b) As in (a) & ensures the implementation of remedial action necessary to mainta Agreed safety performance
c) Provides for continuous monitoring and regular assessment of safet Performance.
d. as in (c) and aims at overall safety of organization
121. Records of quality system activities of CAR M sub part G org. shall be stored for.
a. 3 year
b. 1 year
c. 2 years.
d. none
122. aircraft is grounded at location other than the main base or main line maintenance due to
non availability of component with the appropriate release certificate It is permissible to
temporarily fit a component without appropriate release certify for max period of
a. 25 hour
b. 45 hours
c. 10 year
d. 30 hours.
123. After receipt if notification of level1 & level 2 finding holder of CAR M (CAR-M-48)
a. To the satisfaction of DGCA.
b. within 30 days for level 1
c. within 7 days for level 1
d. all
124. CAR 21 is issued for. :
a. certification procedure & aircraft and related products and parts
b. C of A
c. C of R
d. none
125. . Production organization exposition contains
a) Statement signed by AM
b) Production org scope of work
c) Amendment procedure
d) All of the above
126. Production org. prepare
a) Production org exposition(POE)
b) MOE
d) MS manual
127. Application for C of A or restricted C of A shall include
a) Statement conformity with form 52 or signed by exporting authority
b) Weight and balance report
c) Flight manual
d) All of the above
128. A noise certificate is issued for
a) 1 year
b) Unlimited duration
c) As in A and subject to environmental protection
d) As in B and subject to environmental protection
129. Disturbannce in the body rythm due to change in time period/irregular work pattern
a.Circadian body rythm
b.Body rythm
c.both a&b
130. Till now what is not concidered under CAR 21
a.consumable products
b.standard parts
131. As per CAR-21 it includes the following
b.Noise certificate
c.Restricted CofA,CofA
132. Type certificate is by DGCA for a/c maanufactured in India
133. In case of CAR M Airworthiness review of commertial
air transport a/c AUW 2730 kg and above,except baloons
a.10yrs of continuing exp.
b.DGCA licencing requirement,degrees in engineeriing orequipment
c.Non-formal aeronautical training
134. The technician informs that he was not aware of number
of crews,and could not see the screw removed from primary
structure parts due to dark hanger is
a.mismatch of liveware and software
b.mismatch of hardware and environment
c.mismatch of liveware and environment
d.mismatch of liveware and liveware
135. an ARC can be extended by;
CAMO but only when ARC is issued by CAMO
Both 2 & 3 are correct
136. Airworthiness review staff;
Are nominated by CAMO
Are issued with an authorisation by CAMO
As in 1 + formally accepted by the DGCA
All the above
137. Components in satisfactory condition;
released on CA from 1
indentified according to CAR 21 Subpart Q
both 1 & 2
either 1 & 2
138. Modification record shall be contained in
a. section 1
b. section 2
c. section3
d. journey log book
139. What shall be the area of fuelling zone from the fuelling points
a. 15 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 6 meters
140. The refueller tank shall be approved by
b. Chief Inspector of explosives
c. QCM
141. In no case, ACAS shall be unserviceable for more than
a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
d. 15 days
142. Life of hoses in group A and B is not specified, shall be taken as
a. 2 years for group A and 4 yrs. for group B.
b. 4 years for A and 6 years for B
c. 6 years for A and 8 years for B
143. If seal of first aid kit is broken due to searching and safety operation then :-
a. It cannot be carried on board unless resealed
b. It may be kept in a/c but certified by MBBS when and where the first opportunity observed.
c. Flight should be cancelled
144. Log book section
a. First section routine maint. FRCR
b. Second section modification
c. Third section major repair
d. All
145. Service life of Group A hose:
a. 4 year
b. 2 year
c. 6 year
d. 8 year
146. Weight schedule for aerial work a/c shall be preserved for:
a) 6 Month
b) 4 Month
c) Till it is replaced by a fresh schedule
d) Either (a) or (b) which are correct
147. Mode S address for mode S transponder is issued by:
a) DGCA and insists of a total of 24 bits
b) DGCA and insists of a total of 18 bits
c) ATC and insists of a total of 24 bits
d) ICAS and insists of a total of 24 bits
148. Transponder is certified by AME in category:
a) I only
b) R only
c) I/V
d) R/V
149. The minimum requirement for issue of C of C in NDT is:
a) NDT level I competency
b) NDT Level II competency
c) NDT Level III competency
d) None
150. For proper maintenance of log book, the responsibility rests with:
a) AME carrying out inspection and signing the log book
b) Owner and QCM in case of private a/c and approved firm respectively
c) The approved operator
d) Chief engineer and QCM
151. In ACAS system, when RA is initiated and is response the pilot deviates from ATC clearance. It is:
a) Violation of ATC instruction
b) Not violation of ATC instruction
c) To be reported immediately to the regulatory authority
d) Both (a) and (c) are correct
152. Whenever a GPWS is de-activated:
a) No further maintenance action is required
b) Date and time should be recorded in the maintenance record
c) Placarding need not be there in the cockpit
d) Both (b) & (c) are correct
153. Microbiological test for fuel tank is carried out:
a) Once in a year
b) Twice a year
c) Once in two year
d) Once in 5 year
154. Taxi permit is issued & renewed by:
a) RAO
d) QCM
155. Group B hoses is/are:
a) Fuel & oil
b) Hydraulic
c) Instrument
d) Both (b) & (c)
156. Weight and balance is recommended by:
a. Rule 55
b. Rule 58
c. Rule 56
d. Rule 51
157. Range of C.G. should be within the limits and should be given in:
a) C of A
b) C of R
c) Flight manual
d) Both (a) & (c)
158. Unusable fuel supply calibration of fuel quantity gauge of a/c is subject of __?
(a)Series H (b) Series H part I
(c) Series H part II (d) Series H part III
159. The data on unusable fuel quantity are available in the __?
(a)Flight manual (b) As in (a) & type certificate (c) Only (a) is correct (d) N.O.T.A
160. In case of fuel quantity guage ___ colour arc will indicate unusable fuel range.
(a)Red (b) Blue (c)Black (d) A.O.T.A
161. The quantity of ___ fuel shall deem to be part of the empty weight of a/c.
(a)Usable fuel (b) Un- usable fuel
(c) Trapped fuel (d) Only (c) is correct
162. Since the Fuel Qty, Gauges of some light light a/c and helicopter are not reliable in low range it is advisable
(a)to install an extra stand by sensitive gauge (b)to provide calibrated dip stick
(c)the method of calibrating the dip stick should be the same as in case of fuel Qty. Gauge
163. As a general guide the fuelling places should be at lest ___ mt away from nearest building.
(a)15 mt (b) 10mt (c) 30mt (d) 5mt
164. The a/c shall not be refueled within 30 mt of ____ under test or use in a/c or ground installations.
(a)Radar (b) APU (c)GPU (d) N.O.T.A
165. In case of static electricity discharge bonding & earthing ___
(a)When ever apron point exist the a/c & fuelling equipment shall be earth to them
(b)a/c shall be bonded to fuelling equipment.
(c) When wing fuelling is carried out nozzelof hose shall be bonded to a/c structure before filler cap is
(d) A.O.T.A
166. Fuelling shall be cease when a turbo prop jet a/c maneuvers so as to bring the rear jet outlets within __ mtr of
the fueling equipment
(a) 43 mtr (b)53 mtr (c) 63 mtr (d) N.O.T.A
167. Mark the correct statement :
(a)No photographic flash bulb & electronic flash equipments shall be permitted be used within 6meter of
filling point.
(b) A/c shall not be fuelled within 30meters of radar equipment under test/ use condition
(c)both (a) & (b) (d)only (b) is correct.
168. The entries in the log books shall be completed with
(a)24 hours of completion of work
(b)48 hours of completion of work
(c)24 working hours of the RAO
(d)2 working days of RAO
169. When an engine is removed from the aircraft
(a)Entry should be made in Aircraft log book (b)Entry should be made in Journey log book
(c)Entry should be made in Engine log book (d)Both a and c are correct
170. When a component, not having an individual log book, is removed
(a)Entry should be made in Aircraft log book (b)Entry should be made in journey log book
(c)Entry should be made in Flight log book
(d)A new log book is to be made and removal entry should be entered a such book.
171. The validity of an authorization may be extended to a maximum of
(a)3 months (b)6 months (c)12 months (d) NOTA
172. Pass marks in GETs reexamination is
(a) 70% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 60%
173. Concurrent experience means experience acquired simultaneously in
(a) Two or more allied catagories of different streams
(b) Two or more allied catagories of same streams
(c) On engine and instrument systems (d) A and b
174. Written papers of AME licence examination comprise ________ papers.
(a) General and basic (b) General and specific
(c) General, basic and specific (d) basic and specific
175. Light aircraft means an aircraft AUW
(a) 5700kg (b) below 5700kg
(c) more than 5700kg (d) NOTA
176. In case of an AME is on outstation duty,________ may make logbook entries on behalf of AME.
(a) Quality control manager (b) Quality assurance manager (c) Engg. Manager (d) AOTA
177. For obtaining open rating on single engine aircraft(all metal construction) with AUW less than 3000kg an AME
should have
(a) Held AME licence for five years continuously
(b) Atleast 5 types of aircraft endorsed on his licence
(c) A and B
(d) NOTA
178. Mechanical stream means the trades of
a) Airframe and engine b) Electrical and instrument
c) Radio autopilot d) None of the above
179. Avionics stream means the trade of
a) Radio NAV system
b) Electrical & instrument system
c) Autopilot system
d) All are correct
180. Concurrent experience means experience acquired simultaneously
a) In two or more allied categories of different streams
b) In two or more allied categories of same stream
c) On engine and instrument streams
d) Both A & B are correct
181. Recent experience means experience acquired in preceding _____ months
a) Twenty four b) Twelve
c) Six d) Three
182. For AME examination paper III is conducted for
a) Mechanical and avionics stream
b) Overhaul of propeller and autopilots
c) Both A and B are correct
d) None of the above
183. Paper IV of AME license exam is related to specifics type of
a) Aircraft b) Engine
c) Electrical equipment d) All are correct
184. An AME desirous of an extension in category (LA) on aircraft of similar construction Shall have an additional
experience of
a) Three months
b) Six months
c) Twelve months
d) None of the above
185. For issue of AME license category R, the candidate must possess RTR(Aero) issued by the ministry of
communication at the time of operating
a) Paper IV
b) Oral- cum- practical test
c) Both A and B are correct
d) None of the above
186. Responsibility for proper maintenance of log books in case of private aircraft
a) QCM
b) Operator
c) RAO
187. CAR series R Part III deals with:
(a)Aircraft radio equipment.
(b)Installation of radio & communication equipment.
(c)Maintenance of Airborne Communication and Navigation equipment. (d)All are correct.
188. Maintenance checks are broadly classified in two parts:
(a)In-situ check & Bench check. (b)Bench-check &Inspection.
(c)In-situ check and Overhaul. (d)None is correct.
189. Mode S transponder
(a)Aircraft maximum certified take off mass 5700 Kgs and having seating capacity more than 30 seats
(b)Pay load capacity more than 3 tons
(c)As A & B correct (d)As A & B wrong
190. TCAS means:
a)Traffic Collision Avoidance System.
b)Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System
c) Traffic Alert and Collision assistance system.
d)None of the above
191. Requirements for applying mode S transponder
a)Aircraft type and registration number
b)Serial number of aircraft
c)Name & Address of the operator d)All above
192. Maintenance and certification of transponders
a)TSO C 74 C for mode A and C b)TSO-112 for mode S
c)TSO-C112 for mode S d)Both A and C
193. An interference problem will exist when the noise level is:
a)greater than the susceptibility threshold level
b)smaller than the susceptibility threshold level
c)equal to the susceptibility threshold level
d)none of the above
194. A very common unit in the measurement of electromagnetic interference is: :
a)Bel b)Decibel c) Milli bel d) Micro bel
195. Occurrence of EMI can be categorized as: :
a)Periodic and random b)Periodic and instant
c)Periodic and a-periodic d)Both A and C are correct.
196. EMI definition
a)Un desirable voltage b)Undesirable current
c)undesirable Power d)Both A & B
197. Sources of interference
a)Fluorescent lights radio and radar transmitters
b)Power lines window heat controllers induction motor switching
c)Switching and light dimming d)All above
198. Electromagnetic compatibility (EMC)
a)When the susceptibility thrush hold level is lesser than the conducted radiated emission level
b)When the noise susceptibility thrush hold level is lower than the conducted radiated emission level
d)When the susceptibility thrush hold level is greater than the conducted radiated emission level
d)None of the above
199. Narrow band interference
a)The interference band width is narrow
b)This is caused by AC power lines computers radio transmission and receives these items generate
a specified frequencies with un wanted harmonics of frequencies
c)Both A and B d)None of the above
200. Mechanical stream means the trades of
(a) airframe and engine (b) electrical and instrument
(c) Radio and autopilot (d) NTOA
201. Avionics stream means the trade of
a) Radio NAV system
b) Electrical & instrument system
c) Autopilot system
d) All are correct
202. Recent experience means experience acquired in preceding _____ months
a) Twenty four b) Twelve
c) Six d) Three
203. For AME examination paper III is conducted for
a) Mechanical and avionics stream
b) Overhaul of propeller and autopilots
c) Both A and B are correct
d) None of the above
204. Paper IV of AME license exam is related to specifics type of
a) Aircraft b) Engine
c) Electrical equipment d) All are correct
205. An AME desirous of an extension in category (LA) on aircraft of similar construction Shall have an additional
experience of
e) Three months
f) Six months
g) Twelve months
h) None of the above
206. For issue of AME license category R, the candidate must possess RTR(Aero) issued by the ministry
of communication at the time of
c) Paper IV
d) Oral- cum- practical test
c) Both A and B are correct
d) None of the above
207. Possession of RTR (Aero) license issued by the ministry of communication Is essential for issue of AME licence
a) Category R
b) Category V ( Avionics)
c) Category X (Radio)
d) Both A& B are correct