Teq CPL Atg FW 2011 PDF

ATG REVISION QUESTIONS
1. The principles on which the production of lift are based on 12. During flight at zero angle of attack, the pressure along the
are upper surface of the wing would be:
a. Boyle's Law a. less than atmospheric pressure,
b. Bernoulli's Theorem b. equal to atmospheric pressure,
c. Reynolds Number c. greater than atmospheric pressure.
2. When considering aerodynamic forces, the effect of size is 13. The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the:
related to a. amount of airflow above and below the wing,
a. Joule's Law b. point at which the CG is located,
b. Bernoulli's Theorem c. distribution of high and low pressure acting on the wing.
c. Reynolds Number
14. In the lift formula, V is:
3. Newton's first Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of a. IAS
Inertia states b. EAS
a. to every action there is an equal and opposite reaction c. TAS
b. force is proportional to the product of mass and
acceleration 15. In the lift formula, V is:
c. every body persists in a state of rest, or of motion in a a. EAS
straight line, unless acted upon by an external b. TAS
unbalanced force. c. Static energy
4. The angle between the chord line of the wing and the 16. One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and
longitudinal axis of the aeroplane is known as the angle of landing is to:
a. incidence a. permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed;
b. dihedral b. increase the angle of descent without increasing
c. attack airspeed;
c. decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal
5. In order to maintain altitude while decreasing airspeed: approach to be made.
a. increase angle of attack to compensate for decreasing
lift, 17. It is true to say concerning the use of flaps during approach
b. increase angle of attack to produce more lift than drag, and landing that
c. decrease angle of attack to compensate for increasing a. flaps decrease lift which increases the stall speed,
drag. b. flaps provide an increase in lift,
c. a steeper than normal approach is necessary because
6. If the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and of increase in stall speed.
the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at a higher speed
will be: 18. It is true to say regarding the use of flaps during level turns
a. twice than that at a lower speed, that:
b. three times more than that at the lower speed, a. using a constant flap setting and varying bank has no
c. four times more than that at the lower speed effect on stall speed,
b. the addition of flaps increases the stall speed,
7. A wing designed to produce lift resulting from relatively : c. the addition of flaps decreases the stall speed.
a. high air pressure below and above the wing surface,
b. low pressure below and high pressure above the wing 19. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended is
surface, lower than cruising speed because:
c. high pressure below and low pressure above the wing a. the additional lift and drag created would overload the
surface. wing structure at higher speeds,
b. the flaps will retract automatically at higher speeds,
8. The changes in aircraft control which must be made to c. too much drag is induced.
maintain altitude while airspeed is decreasing are to
a. increase angle of attack to produce more lift than 20. When gliding for range, the speed at which the glide is
weight conducted is:
b. maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired a. Minimum L/D ratio.
airspeed is reached, then increase angle of attack b. Minimum drag to minimum lift ratio.
c. to increase angle of attack to compensate for c. Maximum L/D ratio.
decreasing lift
21. When gliding into a head wind the best glide angle will be
9. The point of an aerofoil through which lift acts is the achieved at
a. centre of pressure a. an IAS which produces the best lift/drag ratio
b. centre of gravity b. an IAS which is higher than that for best lift/drag ratio
c. centre of rotation c. an IAS which is lower than that for best lift/drag ratio,
but which is higher than that required for best
10. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the: endurance
a. differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord
of the wing, 22. If airspeed doubles while the angle of attack remains the
b. force produced perpendicular to the relative flow, same, the drag will:
c. reduced pressure resulting from a smooth flow of air a. remain the same,
over a curved surface. b. double,
c. be four times greater.
11. On a wing, the lift force acts perpendicular to and the drag
force acts parallel to the: 23. As airspeed increases in level flight, total drag of an aircraft
a. chordline, becomes greater than the total drag produced at the
b. longitudinal axis, maximum L/D speed because of the:
c. flight path a. increase in induced drag
b. increase in profile drag
c. decrease in profile drag
REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 1

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36. Stability about the lateral axis is given by:
24. Changing the angle of attack of a wing, enables control of a. the elevators
the: b. wing dihedral;
a. lift, gross weight and drag, c. the horizontal tailplane;
b. lift airspeed and drag, d. the ailerons.
c. airspeed, weight and drag.
37. Stability about the longitudinal axis is given by:
25. As airspeed decreases in level flight, total drag of the aircraft a. elevators;
becomes greater than the total drag produced at the b. ailerons;
maximum L/D speed because of the c. wing dihedral
a. increase in induced drag,
b. increase in parasite drag, 38. Moving the centre of gravity aft will:
c. decrease in induced drag. a. reduce longitudinal stability;
b. increase longitudinal stability;
26. Regarding the angle of attack, it is true to say that: c. have no effect on longitudinal stability.
a. a decrease in angle of attack will increase impact
pressure below the wing and decrease drag, 39. If the aircraft has a nose-up pitch displacement, the effective
b. an increase in angle of attack will decrease impact angle of attack of the tailplane:
pressure below the wing and decrease drag, a. remains the same;
c. an increase in angle of attack will increase impact b. changes and causes the tailplane to apply a restoring
pressure below the wing and increase drag, moment;
c. will not change if the pitch up was due to elevator
27. An aircraft at 100 mph produces 1,000 lb. of drag. If angle selection.
of attack remains the same but airspeed is doubled, total
drag would increase to: 40. The longitudinal static stability of an aircraft:
a. 2 000 lbs., a. is reduced by the effects of wing downwash;
b. 3 000 lbs., b. is increased by the effects of wing downwash;
c. 4 000 lbs. c. is not affected by wing downwash.
28. In comparison with a low aspect ratio wing, a high aspect 41. To ensure longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the C
ratio wing in a constant airflow velocity will have: of G:
a. decreased drag, especially at high angles of attack, a. must always coincide with the C of P;
b. increased drag, especially at high angles of attack, b. must be forward of the Neutral Point;
c. increased drag, especially at low angles of attack. c. must be aft of the Neutral Point.
29. In comparison with a high aspect ratio wing, a low aspect 42. Wing dihedral gives a stabilising rolling moment by causing
ratio wing in a constant airflow velocity will have, an increase in lift:
a. decreased drag, especially at low angles of attack. a. on the down-going wing when the aircraft rolls;
b. decreased drag, especially at high angles of attack, b. on the lower wing when the aircraft sideslips;
c. increased drag, especially at high angles of attack. c. on the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked
altitude.
30. If an aircraft is stable, this means that:
a. it is in a state of balance; 43. A high wing configuration gives:
b. if it is displaced it will return to its original position a. more lateral stability than a low wing;
without any correction by the pilot; b. less lateral stability than a low wing;
c. if it is displaced it must be returned to its original c. the same lateral stability as a low wing.
position by the pilot operating the controls.
44. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates for a long
31. For an aircraft which is neutrally stable in roll, following a time with only small reductions of amplitude on each
wing drop: oscillation. It would be said to have:
a. the wing would tend to return to the level position; a. low damping;
b. the wing would continue to drop; b. high damping;
c. the wing would remain in its displaced position. c. negative damping.
32. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates in pitch with 45. The presence of the fuselage in an aircraft with a high wing
increasing amplitude. It is: during a sideslip:
a. statically and dynamically unstable; a. increases the lift on the lower wing and decreases the
b. statically stable but dynamically unstable; lift on the upper wing thus creating a stabilising
c. statically unstable but dynamically stable. moment;
b. increases the lift on both wings thus creating a
33. Longitudinal stability is given by: stabilising moment;
a. the fin; c. decreases the lift on the lower wing and, increases the
b. the wing dihedral; lift on the upper wing thus creating a destabilising
c. the horizontal tailplane. moment.
34. An aircraft is constructed with dihedral to provide: 46. Sweepback of the wings will:
a. lateral stability about the longitudinal axis; a. increase lateral stability;
b. longitudinal stability about the lateral axis; b. decrease lateral stability;
c. lateral stability about the normal axis. c. not affect the lateral stability.
35. Lateral stability is given by: 47. If an aircraft is yawed to a large angle of sideslip:
a. the ailerons; a. directional stability will be lost;
b. the wing dihedral; b. if the sideslip angle is too large the fin may stall and
c. the horizontal tailplane. directional stability will be decreased;
c. the rudder will always have to be used to return the
aircraft to its original position.

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48. The fin gives: 62. The aircraft nose initially tends to return to the original
a. directional stability about the longitudinal axis position after the elevator is pressed forward and released,
b. directional stability about the normal axis; the aircraft displays:
c. longitudinal stability about the lateral axis. a. negative stability,
b. positive static stability
49. Increasing the size of the fin: c. negative dynamic stability.
a. reduces lateral stability;
b. increases longitudinal stability and directional control; 63. Rotation about the lateral axis is known as:
c. increases the size of the keel surface giving increased a. pitching and is controlled with the elevator,
directional stability. b. rolling and is controlled with the ailerons,
c. yawing and is controlled with the ailerons.
50. Pendulum stability is a property possessed by:
a. aircraft with swept back wings; 64. If an aircraft is loaded to the rear of the CG range, it will tend
b. aircraft with high wing configuration; to be:
c. aircraft with low wing configuration. a. unstable about the lateral axis,
b. sluggish in aileron control,
51. An aircraft with a `Dutch roll' instability will: c. unstable about the longitudinal axis.
a. go into a spiral dive following a lateral disturbance;
b. experience simultaneous oscillations in roll and yaw; 65. A high wing aircraft has the thrust line above the drag line.
c. experience oscillations in pitch. When the landing gear is lowered, the force required on the
tailplane to maintain straight and level flight is:
52. Dutch roll may be prevented by: a. Reduced force.
a. having the wings swept back; b. No force.
b. reducing the size of the fin; c. Increased force.
c. fitting yaw dampers.
66. The angle of climb is proportional to:
53. An aircraft is yawed to starboard and the rudder is then a. the amount by which the lift exceeds the weight
centralized. If it then yaws to port it is: b. the amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag
a. directionally neutrally stable; c. the angle of attack of the wing.
b. directionally statically stable;
c. directionally dynamically stable. 67. As altitude increases the excess thrust at a given IAS:
a. decreases because drag increases and thrust
54. Increasing the size of the fin will: decreases
a. increase lateral stability b. increases because drag decreases and thrust is
b. decrease lateral stability constant
c. not affect lateral stability. c. decreases because thrust decreases and drag is
constant.
55. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates with
increasing amplitude. It is: 68. As altitude increases the excess power available:
a. dynamically neutral a. decreases because the power available decreases and
b. dynamically stable but statically unstable power required is constant
c. dynamically unstable longitudinally. b. increases because the power required decreases and
power available is constant
56. To ensure longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the C c. decreases because the power available decreases and
of G: power required increases.
a. should not be forward of the neutral point
b. should not be aft of the neutral point 69. To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding
c. should coincide with the neutral point. speed must be:
a. near to the stalling speed
57. Moving the centre of gravity aft will: b. as high as possible within VNE limits
a. increase longitudinal stability c. the one that gives the highest L/D ratio.
b. reduce longitudinal stability
c. have no effect on longitudinal stability. 70. If weight is increased the maximum gliding range of an
aircraft:
58. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft continues to oscillate a. decreases
at a constant amplitude. It is: b. increases
a. longitudinally neutrally stable c. remains the same.
b. laterally unstable
c. longitudinally unstable. 71. As bank angle is increased in a level turn at a constant IAS,
the load factor will:
59. Dutch roll is: a. remain the same
a. A type of slow roll b. increase
b. primarily a pitching instability c. decrease.
c. a combined rolling and yawing motion.
72. In a level turn at a constant IAS:
60. When the C of G is close to the forward limit: a. the drag will be greater than in level flight because of
a. very small forces are required on the control column to the increased induced drag
produce pitch b. the drag will be the same as in level flight because the
b. longitudinal stability is reduced IAS is the same
c. larger stick forces are required to pitch because the c. the drag will be less than in level flight because the lift
aircraft is very stable. is less.
61. Stability of an aircraft about its lateral axis is normally 73. For a level turn at a constant IAS if the radius of turn is
provided by the: decreased the bank angle and load factor will:
a. tailplane a. increase
b. ailerons b. decrease
c. elevators. c. remain the same.

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74. A stall warning must be set to operate: 88. A stick pusher is a device for:
a. at a speed just below stalling speed a. assisting the pilot to move the controls against high air
b. at a speed above stalling speed loads
c. at the stalling speed. b. preventing the aircraft from getting into a stall
c. automatically compensating pitch changes at high
75. In a steady turn an aircraft experiences 3g, the stalling speed speeds.
will be:
a. above the normal stalling speed 89. Wing tip stalling may be prevented by:
b. below the normal stalling speed a. giving the tip a sharp leading edge
c. the same as the normal stalling speed. b. wash-in on the wing
c. wash-out on the wing.
76. At altitudes above sea level the IAS stalling speed will be:
a. the same as at sea level 90. if weight is increased the stalling angle of attack is:
b. less than at sea level a. increased
c. greater than at sea level b. decreased
c. the same.
77. An aircraft wing stalls at:
a. a constant true airspeed 91. With the C of G on the forward limit, the stalling speed would
b. a constant angle of attack be:
c. a constant indicated airspeed a. lower than with the C of G on the aft limit
b. higher than the C of G on the aft limit
78. A typical stalling angle of attack is: c. the same as with the C of G on the aft limit.
a. 30
b. 15 92. In an aircraft just after take-off, weight, altitude and
c. 5 temperature are of most importance. This WAT limit is most
critical at:
79. With engine power on, an aircraft will stall: a. Second stage of climb.
a. at the same speed as with power off b. Third stage of climb.
b. at a lower speed than with power off c. Final stage of climb.
c. at a higher speed than with power off
93. If an aircraft is flying close to the stall, and ailerons are
80. If the aircraft weight changes by 6% the stalling speed will operated:
change by approximately: a. a stall could occur on the wing with the down aileron
a. 3% b. a stall could occur on the wing with the up aileron
b. 12% c. there would be no effect on stalling.
c. 6%
94. On a highly tapered wing without wing twist the stall will
81. A fixed spoiler on the leading edge of the wing at the root commence:
will: a. at the tip
a. prevent a root stall b. at the centre of the span
b. induce a root stall c. At the root.
c. give a shorter landing run.
95. The indicated stalling speed of an aircraft at a given weight:
82. At angles of attack above the stalling angle: a. increase with altitude increase
a. the lift decreases and the drag decreases b. is constant at all altitudes
b. the lift decreases and the drag increases c. decreases with altitude increase.
c. the lift increases and the drag increases.
96. The separation point of the boundary layer:
83. A leading edge slat is a device for: a. moves forward with increased angle of attack
a. increasing the stalling angle of the wing b. moves aft with increased angle of attack
b. decreasing the drag of the wing c. remains constant up to the stalling angle.
c. decreasing the stalling angle of the wing.
97. To produce the desired effect, trim tabs must be adjusted:
84. Wing tip staIling may be prevented: a. in the same direction as the primary control surfaces
a. wash out on the wing they affect,
b. wash in on the wing b. in the opposite direction to the primary control surfaces
c. giving the tip a sharp leading edge. they affect,
c. depending upon the design of the trim tab controls.
85. Increasing aircraft weight will:
a. decrease the stalling speed 98. Flight manoeuvres are generally divided into four flight
b. not effect the stalling speed fundamentals:
c. increase the stalling speed. a. aircraft power, pitch, bank and trim,
b. straight and level flight, turns, climbs and descents,
86. A stick shaker is: c. take-offs, slow flight, fast flight and stalls.
a. a high Mach number warning device
b. an artificial stability device 99. If the aircraft is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude
c. a device to vibrate the control column to give a stall indicator has exceeded limits, the instruments to rely on first
warning. to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery are
a. turn indicator and VSI
87. The stalling speed is determined by: b. ASI and altimeter
a. the maximum value of CL c. Turn indicator and ASI
b. the CL for zero lift
c. the CL for maximum L/D ratio. 100. The most important function of a rudder during coordinated
flight is that:
a. it prevents skid,
b. properly applied, it helps to overcome adverse yaw,
c. applying rudder overcomes the asymmetrical thrust of
the propeller as the turn is initiated.

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101. Application of aileron alone when rolling into a turn will result 111. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow
in unbalanced flight for the duration of the aileron input and over the wing?
will result in a. Initial buffet speed.
a. sideslip b. Critical Mach number.
b. skid c. Transonic index.
c. either of the above may be correct depending on the
direction of the turn 112. What is the free stream Mach number which produces first
evidence of local sonic flow?
102. What procedure is recommended for an engine out approach a. Supersonic Mach number.
and landing? b. Transonic Mach number.
a. The flightpath and procedures should be almost c. Critical Mach number
identical to a normal approach and landing.
b. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably 113. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow
higher than normal throughout the approach. occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a swept wing
c. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing aircraft?
gear or flaps until over the runway threshold. a. A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up.
b. A severe moment or tuck under.
103. What criteria determines which engine is the critical engine c. Severe porpoising.
of a twin-engine airplane?
a. The one with the centre of thrust closest to the 114. What is the movement of the centre of pressure when the
centreline of the fuselage. wingtips of a swept wing airplane are shock-stalled first?.
b. The one designated by the manufacturer which a. Inward and aft.
develops most usable thrust. b. Inward and forward.
c. The one with centre of thrust farthest from the c. Outward and forward.
centreline of the fuselage.
115. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing
104. What effect, if any, does altitude have on Vmc for an airplane over a straight wing design?
with un-supercharged engines? a. The critical Mach number will increase significantly.
a. None b. Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of
b. Increases with altitude force coefficients due to compressibility.
c. Decreases with altitude. c. Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility
effect.
105. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a
twin-engine airplane? 116. What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design?
a. With one engine inoperative. a. The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.
b. With climb power on. b. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.
c. With full flaps and gear extended. c. Severe pitch down movement when the centre of
pressure shift forward.
106. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative,
when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator 117. What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept
to be deflected outside the reference lines? wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the
a. While manoeuvering at minimum controllable airspeed other?
to avoid overbanking a. Porpoise.
b. When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. b. Wingover.
c. When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude c. Dutch roll.
107. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb 118. A wing with marked sweep-back
procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? ACCELERATE a. has a low induced drag coefficient throughout the
TO- speed range
a. Best engine-out rate-of-climb airspeed while on the b. has a high induce drag coefficient throughout the speed
ground, then lift off and climb at that speed. range
b. Vmc, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum c. has a reduced induced drag coefficient at the high
angle-of-climb airspeed. speed range
c. An airspeed slightly above Vmc, then lift off and climb
at the best rate-of-climb airspeed. 119. Aircraft icing in flight is due to:
a. Ice crystals.
108. What performance should a pilot of a light , twin-engine b. Snow flakes.
airplane be able to maintain at Vmc? c. Supercooled water droplets.
a. Heading.
b. Heading and altitude. 120. DTD 585, hydraulic fluid is:
c. Heading, altitude and ability to climb 50 ft/min. a. blue
b. light straw
109. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a c. red.
light, twin-engine airplane represent?
a. Maximum single-engine rate of climb 121. A mineral based hydraulic fluid will require all components to
b. Maximum single-engine angle of climb. be fitted with:
c. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine a. natural rubber seals
operation. b. butyl rubber seals
c. synthetic rubber seals.
110. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally
occur? 122. In a hydraulic system, when the engine is at idle RPM, the
a. Below .75 Mach. system pressure fails to rise above two thirds maximum
b. From .75 to 1.20 Mach. normal working pressure, the probable fault is:
c. From 1.20 to 250 Mach. a. accumulator charge pressure is too low
b. the engine RPM is too low
c. a pressure relief valve is stuck slightly open.

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123. The purpose of an accumulator is to: 135. In a wheelbrake circuit, the hydraulic accumulator will provide
a. prevent cavitation at the pump an increase in the number of brake applications in an
b. provide, in an emergency, a supply of fluid for the pump emergency:
c. assist in damping out system pressure fluctuations. a. if the initial charge pressure is increased
b. if the initial charge pressure is reduced
124. A one-way restrictor valve may be fitted to: c. if the initial charge pressure is exhausted
a. a flap circuit to reduce the rate of movement in both
directions 136. Excessive brake travel could be due to
b. an undercarriage circuit to reduce the speed of a. air in the system
operation on lowering b. a weak return spring
c. a speed brake to ensure it moves out quickly and c. a fluid leak in the master cylinder
moves in slowly.
137. If air has leaked into the lines of a foot operated hydraulic
125. A visco-static fluid is one which: brake system
a. maintains a constant viscosity at all working a. the brake pedal will experience no resistance as it
temperatures travels to the floor
b. maintains a constant viscosity at a specific working b. the brakes will feel spongy
temperature c. application of light foot pressure will cause the brakes
c. will not form sludge or thicken when it is stationary in to grab
the system.
138. The purpose of a shimmey damper is to
126. A variable volume pump: a. eliminate vibration of the tailwheel
a. maintains a constant volume of fluid to the circuits at all b. eliminate vibration of the main wheels
times c. reduce nosewheel vibration during ground operations
b. maintain a constant pressure in the system.
c. maintain a constant temperature throughout the 139. What is the worst condition to land regarding hydroplaning?
system. a. Snow.
b. Slush.
127. Excessive pressure due to thermal expansion in a closed c. Standing water.
circuit may be relieved by a:
a. Flow control valve 140. With reference to aeroplane operating manuals, the term Vle
b. Pressure reducing valve refers to
c. Pressure relief valve. a. the maximum speed at which the undercarriage may be
lowered
128. Excessive system pressure fluctuations may be due to: b. the maximum speed at which the aeroplane may be
a. high accumulator charge pressure flown with the undercarriage extended
b. low accumulator system pressure c. the maximum speed of the aeroplane in the landing
c. low accumulator charge pressure. configuration
129. Most modern hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised to: 141. To measure the rate of climb of the cabin in a pressurised
a. eliminate cavitation in the pump supply aircraft, the cabin VSI uses:
b. to provide pressure for emergency use a. static pressure measured at the aircraft altitude
c. to eliminate hydraulic hammering. b. cabin differential pressure
c. static pressure measured inside the cockpit
130. The hand pump in a hydraulic system is used to
a. pump hydraulic fluid from the accumulator into the 142. After a flight in a pressurised aircraft, none of the doors are
reservoir able to be opened. This could be caused by
b. maintain system pressure in flight a. the safety valve failing to operate due to faulty weight
c. provide an alternative, in an emergency to the engine switches
driven pump b. the negative relief valve opening one landing
c. the use of incorrect door opening procedures
131. The component in a hydraulic system that will be set to the
highest pressure is the 143. During a climb, the pilot notices that the cabin altimeter and
a. pressure relief valve VSI are reading the same as the aircraft altimeter and VSI. A
b. accumulator possible cause is
c. non-return valve a. the negative relief valve is stuck closed
b. the aircraft is not above 10,000 ft yet
132. A lower than specified accumulator gas pressure may c. the safety valve has opened
a. allow fluid pressures to become excessive
b. reduce the emergency source of hydraulic power 144. On a given aircrafts pressurisation panel the cabin altitude
c. reduce the amount of fluid stored in the accumulator has been set to 8000 ft and cabin rate of change is set to
maximum (2000 fpm). If after take-off from sea level the
133. Whilst operating a hydraulic system, the hydraulic pressure aircraft climbs at 1000 fpm, the cabin pressure would initially
dropped abnormally low, but slowly returned to normal after a. remain the same as outside pressure up to 8000 ft
activation of the system was completed. The most likely b. decrease at twice the rate of the outside pressure
cause of this would be c. decrease at half the rate of the out side pressure
a. low accumulator gas pressure
b. a leak in the component actuator 145. Oils and greases should not be used on joints in oxygen lines
c. low fluid level because
a. they can clog the lines
134. If fully extended hydraulic flaps start to re tract when the b. they may start a fire
aircraft is below Vfe, a likely cause is c. they will cause the connections to oxidise (rust)
a. a leak in the flap actuating cylinder
b. low hydraulic fluid level
c. expansion of hydraulic fluid due to high temperature

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146. The use of supplemental oxygen by a pilot in a pressurized 159. In the event a booster pump fails in the engine fuel system:
aircraft is mandatory a. fuel will be drawn through the pump by-pass
a. at all times for a flight planned above 10,000 ft b. the fuel in that tank will become isolated
b. at all times when the aircraft is above 10,000 ft for c. ram air vent pressure will maintain supply to the engine
longer than 60 mins cylinders.
c. at all times when the cabin altitude is above 10,000 ft
for longer than 60 mins 160. Vapour locks in fuel system pipelines are prevented by:
a. the main engine pump
147. For cruise in an unpressurised aircraft at FL270 a diluter b. booster pumps
demand oxygen system c. fuel tank vents.
a. is not suitable for prolonged operations
b. would deliver oxygen under pressure 161. Fuel system booster pumps are normally:
c. need not supply 100% oxygen a. engine driven
b. electrically operated
148. Continuous flow oxygen systems c. air operated.
a. are suitable for prolonged use up to 25,000 ft
b. are suitable for prolonged use up to 33,000 ft 162. Why is it desirable to leave an aircraft with full fuel tanks if
c. are suitable for prolonged use up to 40,000 ft parking it overnight?
a. Prevention of condensation of water in the tanks
149. Which statement is incorrect regarding autopilot operation? b. Prevention of drying out and cracking of fuel lines
a. Many autopilots should not be engaged above certain c. Ensure correct grade of fuel has been loaded
limiting IAS values
b. Autopilots should always be off for take-off and landing 163. The octane rating of fuel is an indication of its
c. Autopilots are designed to maintain attitude and so a. calorific value
should be used during flight through turbulence b. volatility
c. resistance to detonation
150. When disengaging an autopilot a pilots main concern should
be to 164. The volatility of a fuel is its
a. guard against sudden changes in aircraft attitude a. anti-detonation resistance
b. maintain straight and level flight b. mass per unit volume
c. maintain a rate one turn c. vapour forming tendency
151. Which of the following ice protection systems is designed to 165. If fuel of the specified octane rating cannot be attained it is
be used only for de-icing? permissible to use
a. Alcohol spray a. fuel of the next lower octane rating
b. Hot air b. fuel of the next higher octane rating
c. Pneumatic system c. a mixture of the next lowest and the next highest grade
152. The APU is normally: 166. AVGAS l00LL is coloured

a. Only used on the ground a. clear
b. Only used in flight b. blue
c. Only used in an emergency c. green
153. A bleed air heating system obtains a supply of hot air from: 167. AVGAS 100/130 is coloured
a. The turbine stage of a gas turbine engine a. clear
b. The exhaust shroud of a piston engine b. blue
c. The compressor stage of a gas turbine engine c. green
154. On a modern aircraft the APU is 168. A fuel has a rating of 100/130. The 100 indicates
a. A small gas turbine engine a. the proportion of iso-octane and neoheptane blended in
b. A petrol driven engine the fuel
c. An electrically driven starter motor b. the percentage of maximum manifold pressure that can
be used in lean mixture
155. A weight of Basic Operating Empty Mass plus payload is c. the anti-detonation rating of the fuel in lean mixture
known as:
a. MRW 169. The purpose of an electric boost pump is to
b. MZFW a. provide extra power at take-off
c. MLW b. transfer fuel from one tank to another
c. guard against vapour locking
156. Humidity is controlled at
a. 50% 170. Cross feeding in a fuel system is primarily for
b. 30% a. allowing an engine to draw from either tank
c. 85% b. to balance the fuel, with equal amounts in each tank
c. to allow the auxiliary tanks to top up the main tanks as
157. Combustion heating is normally provided by fuel is drawn from the mains
a. The exhaust system of a piston engine
b. The heat exchangers 171. Fuel vapourisation would most likely be caused by
c. A special heater with its own fuel supply a. a high rate of climb on a cold day
b. a high rate of climb on a hot day
158. A typical engine bleed air system used on a turbojet aircraft c. a low rate of climb on a cold day
is also known as
a. A jockstrap system 172. If forward facing fuel tank vents are bent backwards
b. A bootstrap system a. increased fuel pressure may damage the boost pumps
c. A girthstrap system b. reduced tank pressure may cause tuel starvation or
vapourisation
c. increased tank pressure may cause fuel tank rupture

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173. The use of a lower than specified grade of fuel in an engine 186. In a non paralleled constant frequency AC system the
is likely to generator loadmeters will normally measure.
a. cause lead fouling of the spark plugs a. KVA or Amps.
b. result in an over-lean mixture b. KVA and power factor.
c. result in detonation c. KVAR and KW.
174. Aircraft heaters which draw on hot air from around the 187. A 400 Hz supply has:
exhaust manifold a. A capacity of 400 000 watts.
a. are used only in twin-engined aircraft b. An impedance of 400 ohms.
b. may cause carbon monoxide poisoning c. A frequency of 400 cycles per second.
c. are unlikely to cause carbon monoxide (ie poisoning as
exhaust gases are easily detected by smell 188. One advantage of a main a.c. supply system is:
a. Easy, and almost lossless stepping up or down of
175. When is tyre heating most likely to occur, at: voltage.
a. Low taxi speed, high tyre pressure. b. Voltage does not need to be changed.
b. High taxi speed, high tyre pressure. c. Batteries are not needed.
c. Low taxi speed, low tyre pressure.
189. One of the advantages of three phase generation over single
176. A transformer which halves the voltage will have: phase generation is:
a. Half as many turns on the secondary coil as on the a. That most aircraft services require three phase supply.
primary coil. b. That there is a more efficient conversion of mechanical
b. Twice as many turns on the secondary as on the energy to electrical energy.
primary. c. That it gives lower cable weights and more compact
c. Four times as many turns on the secondary as on the generators.
primary.
190. In a typical aircraft constant frequency paralleled AC system
177. The moving part of the AC generator is: the line voltage is:
a. The rotor. a. 115 volts.
b. The stator. b. 208 volts.
c. The exciter. c. 200 volts.
178. Output from an AC generator is taken from: 191. In an A.C. generator, voltage regulation:
a. The exciter. a. Is by varying the drive rpm
b. The stator windings. b. Is by varying the excitation current.
c. The rotor windings. c. Is by the insertion of variable resistors into the circuit.
179. The voltage of an AC generator: 192. In a constant speed A.C. "generation system which is
a. Rises to a maximum in one direction, falls to zero, and paralleled"
then rises in the same direction to a maximum and falls a. All generators are run off the same engine.
to zero. b. All engines are run at the same rpm.
b. Rises to a maximum in one direction and then remains c. A generator has its own constant speed drive.
constant.
c. Rises to a maximum in one direction, falls to zero and 193. A low reactive load on one generator is compensated for in a
then rises to a maximum in the opposite direction and paralleled system:
falls to zero. a. through the excitation circuit of the generator.
b. By altering the rotor speed.
180. An alternator is: c. By increasing the real load on the other generators.
a. A static inverter.
b. A rotary switch for a de-icing system. 194. To increase the real load taken by a paralleled AC generator,
c. An AC generator. the:
a. Generator drive torque is increased.
181. Impedance is: b. Generator excitation is increased.
a. Volt/Watts c. Generator drive torque and excitation are increased.
b. Volt/Amps
c. Volts/Frequency 195. The frequency of aircraft constant frequency systems is
maintained:
182. If the frequency is increased in an inductive circuit: a. Between 380 and 420 Hz.
a. Impedence will decrease. b. Between 350 and 450 Hz.
b. Impedence will increase. c. Between 395 and 495 Hz.
c. Impedence will remain constant.
196. Frequency is controlled by:
183. In an a.c. circuit which is mainly inductive: a. Excitation voltage.
a. Current will lead voltage. b. Speed of rotation.
b. Current and voltage will be 'in phase'. c. Excitation current.
c. Current will lag voltage.
197. Load sharing circuits are necessary:
184. If frequency increases capacitive reactance will: a. Whenever generators are operating in series.
a. Increase. b. Whenever generators are operating independently
b. Not change. c. Whenever generators are operating in parallel.
c. Decrease.
198. Paralleled AC generators will have:
185. Power factor is: a. One load meter to measure total system load
a. Real load / Apparent load b. One volt meter for each generator.
b. Apparent load / Real load c. One load meter for each generator.
c. Real load / Wattless load

573-3
199. If an A.C. generator control relay tripped the: 213. Battery state of charge must be checked every:
a. Generator circuit breaker for that generator will have a. six months
opened. b. three months
b. Generator circuit breaker for that generator will close. c. year.
c. Generator circuit breaker for that generator trips and
busbar tie breaker trips 214. D.C. generators are normally:
a. initially excited by direct current from the battery bus-
200. On an aircraft A.C. generator, the output is usually taken bar
from: b. initially excited by residual magnetism
a. The stator windings. c. initially excited by ground power.
b. The rotor.
c. The excitor. 215. An earth return circuit is one which:
a. uses the aircraft structure as the return
201. The CSD functions: b. has a common earth return lead for all circuits
a. To maintain a constant ratio between engine speed and c. has a return lead for that circuit.
generator speed.
b. To vary the generator speed in proportion to load. 216. Load shedding will cause the:
c. To maintain constant generator speed. a. current to increase
b. voltage to increase
202. If the CSD disconnect switch is used, the drive can be: c. current to reduce.
a. Only reinstated when the aircraft is on the ground.
b. Re-instated in flight from the electrical supply 217. A ruptured red disc on the nacelle skin of a gas turbine
compartment. engine bay fire extinguisher indicates:
c. Re-instated in flight from the flight deck. a. The extinguisher is overcharged and therefore over
pressurised.
203. In the event of a mechanical failure occurring in the b. That excess pressure has been released to return it to
generator the CSD is protected by: safe limits.
a. A hydraulic clutch. c. The extinguisher has discharged due to excess
b. A universal joint. pressure.
c. Quill drive.
218. What is the colour of a hand held fire extinguisher?
204. An APU is driven: a. Black.
a. By its own dedicated gas turbine. b. Red.
b. By an hydraulic motor. c. Green.
c. By a ram air turbine.
219. The type of fire extinguisher that would be used for an
205. An auto-transformer: electrical fire is:
a. Varies the turns ratio automatically to maintain a a. CO2 fire extinguisher.
constant output voltage with varying input voltage. b. Any fire extinguisher coloured red.
b. Has only one coil which is used as both primary and c. An extinguisher used for Class C fires.
secondary.
c. Will maintain a constant output frequency with a 220. A common type of fire extinuigshant in use is:
varying supply frequency. a. Methyl Bromide.
b. Sodium Chloride.
206. As the torque load increases on an induction motor it will: c. Barium Oxide.
a. Slow down.
b. Maintain RPM. 221. Fireproof bulkheads not having the benefit of cooling air are
c. Speed up. manufactured from:
a. Light Allloy
207. When a fuse is popped or blown, it is: b. Titanium
a. The fuse detatching from the panel. c. Magnesium
b. The fuse wire melting.
c. Due to a minimum load. 222. Which type of fire extinguishant may be also be found on gas
turbine aircraft?
208. When a generator is on line: a. Freon
a. it is at correct RPM b. Argon
b. the battery indicates a discharge c. Krypton
c. it is connected to the bus-bar.
223. The valves of a four stroke piston engine will each:
209. A short circuit: a. open twice during the normal "Otto" cycle.
a. has high resistance b. open once during the normal "Otto" cycle.
b. has low current c. open four times during the normal "Otto" cycle
c. allows excessive current.
224. The camshaft of a piston engine normally rotates:
210. The capacity of a battery is rated in a. at twice the speed of the crankshaft.
a. volts b. at half the speed of the crankshaft.
b. watts c. at the same speed as the crankshaft.
c. ampere-hours.
225. Tappet and rocker arm clearance is essential:
211. To prevent a circuit overheating: a. to allow lubrication between the contact surface.
a. ram air is directed over major components b. to allow for valve operation by the cam.
b. fuses are fitted c. to allow for expansion throughout the working
c. capacitors are fitted. temperature range of the engine.
212. Circuit breakers are fitted:
a. in parallel with the load
b. in series with the load
c. in parallel with the fuses.

573-3
226. Valve "Dwell" is: 239. The reserve of lubricating oil of a wet sump piston engine is
a. the period a valve remains open. stored in:
b. the period a valve remains closed. a. the sump.
c. the period taken by the rocker to take up the clearance b. a separate tank.
gap before operating the valve. c. the pipe system.
227. Valve overlap occurs: 240. The oil tank of a dry sump lubrication system has a space
a. at the end of the power stroke. above the oil to provide for:
b. at the end of the exhaust stroke. a. jack ram displacement.
c. at the end of the induction stroke. b. pressurisation.
c. expansion of the oil and frothing.
228. The weight of charge induced into a piston engine cylinder
during normal operation: 241. The oil cooler of a dry sump lubrication system is normally
a. is increased by closing the exhaust valve before TDC. cooled by:
b. is reduced by closing the inlet valve after BDC. a. water.
c. is increased by delaying the closing of the inlet valve. b. compressor oil.
c. ram air.
229. The exhaust valve of a piston engine:
a. normally has a hollow stem partially filled with sodium. 242. The magnetic field in a magneto is provided by:
b. is normally manufactured from metallic sodium to assist a. battery current.
with cooling. b. an excitation field circuit.
c. normally has a hollow head filled with sodium. c. a permanent magnet.
230. Valve springs are primarily duplicated to: 243. Excessive arcing across the contact breaker points of a
a. to ensure a gas tight seal when the valve is closed. magneto when the points are open is prevented by:
b. to prevent the valve dropping into the cylinder in the a. a diode being fitted.
event a spring breaks. b. a condenser being fitted.
c. to reduce valve bounce. c. insulation of the contacts.
231. When the piston of a four stroke piston engine is towards the 244. On a four stroke engine the ignition spark will occur:
end of the power stroke: a. once each revolution of the engine.
a. the gas temperature will be at its highest. b. once every fourth revolution of the engine.
b. the gas temperature will be reducing. c. once every two revolutions of the engine.
c. the gas temperature will remain constant until BDC.
245. On engine start up, the generator warning light fails to
232. The compression ratio of a piston engine is the: extinguish, this will result in:
a. ratio of the cylinder volume when the piston is at BDC a. the engine stopping when the battery is totally
to the cylinder volume when at TDC. discharged.
b. difference in pressure generated when the piston is at b. failure of the initial excitation of the magneto.
BDC to that generated at TDC. c. the engine continuing to run normally.
c. variation between the volume of the combustion
chamber and the swept volume. 246. The distributor rotor on a four stroke engine rotates at:
a. the same speed as the engine.
233. The majority of aircraft piston engine lubrication systems are b. twice the speed of the engine.
of the: c. half the speed of the engine.
a. self lubricating type.
b. wet sump type. 247. With increase of engine speed, ignition timing:
c. dry sump type. a. will advance.
b. will retard.
234. A dry sump lubrication system: c. will remain constant.
a. maintains a reserve of oil in a separate tank.
b. maintains a reserve of oil in the sump. 248. Fuel pumps:
c. requires no reserve of oil. a. should not be run when the fuel system is dry.
b. of all types are lubricated by the fuel that passes
235. The pressure pump of a dry sump lubrication system: through them.
a. has a greater capacity than the scavenge pump. c. are normally electrically operated.
b. has less capacity than the scavenge pump.
c. is driven on a common shaft and has the same 249. Booster pumps are:
capacity as the scavenge pump. a. normally driven by the engine.
b. electrically operated.
236. The pressure filter in a dry sump lubrication system is: c. normally used for priming the engine only.
a. located between the pressure pump and tank.
b. located after the pressure pump. 250. If the fuel pressure warning light comes on in flight the:
c. located between the scavenge pump and the tank. a. booster pumps must be isolated.
b. main fuel pump must be isolated.
237. The by-pass valve of a dry sump lubrication system is: c. booster pumps must be switched on.
a. normally activated during low temperature engine
starting. 251. In the event of booster pump failure, the:
b. normally activated during high temperature engine a. fuel will continue to be drawn through the booster pump
starting. bypass by the engine driven pump.
c. is a relief valve excess oil pressure. b. pump must be isolated and the remaining fuel in the
tank transferred by the transfer pumps.
238. Normally on most piston engines the lubrication oil of a dry c. fuel will be isolated in the tank.
sump system is cooled:
a. on leaving the pressure pump. 252. Fuel pump delivery is normally:
b. before returning to the oil tank. a. supplied at a constant flow rate to the engine.
c. before returning to the sump. b. supplied at a constant pressure, controlled by a
pressure relief valve.
c. supplied at a constant volume.

573-3
267. Turbocharger main bearings are lubricated by:
253. In an air-cooled piston engine: a. the engine hydraulic system.
a. fins are incorporated to increase the cylinder and head b. the engine lubrication system.
surface areas. c. grease packs.
b. air is ducted through drillings in the cylinder head walls.
c. air is used to cool the cooling oil. 268. The turbocharger impeller is:
a. driven by intake ram air.
254. Air is directed over the cylinder wall fins by: b. driven by exhaust gases.
a. cowl gills. c. mounted on the same shaft as the turbine.
b. baffles.
c. air deflection plates. 269. During the power stroke of a piston engine, as the piston
descends the cylinder the temperature will:
255. Engine temperature is normally indicated by: a. increase
a. cylinder head temperature gauge. b. decrease
b. the engine master temperature gauge. c. remain relatively constant.
c. the engine lubrication system temperature gauge.
270. The camshaft of a piston engine normally rotates at:
256. Cooling air is normally provided by: a. half the speed of the crankshaft
a. airflow from a supercharger. b. the same speed as the crankshaft
b. airflow from a compressor bleed. c. twice the speed of the crankshaft.
c. ram air.
271. Piston engine valve 'dwell' is the:
257. In a liquid cooled engine cooling system: a. period a valve remains open
a. temperature is controlled by a thermostat. b. period between valve overlap
b. temperature is controlled by a master pump. c. period when both inlet and exhaust valves are closed.
c. fuel is used to cool the coolant.
272. The purpose of valve springs are to:
258. An alternative name sometimes given to the choke is the: a. ensure the valves close
a. butterfly. b. obtain a close fit with the cam face
b. venturi. c. ensure a gas tight seal when the valves are closed.
c. intake controller.
273. An over-rich mixture on starting a piston engine may be due
259. To prevent fuel starvation due to sudden opening of the to:
throttle: a. boost reversal
a. the enrichment jet is fitted. b. the hand priming pump plunger in the out position
b. the pressure balance duct is fitted. c. the timing being retarded.
c. the accelerator pump is fitted.
274. Piston engine hydraulicing is caused by:
260. When an aircraft is inverted in flight, fuel starvation of the a. excessive oil pressure in the engine lubrication system
engine may be prevented by: b. oil leaking into the combustion chambers when the
a. the carburettor balance duct. engine is static
b. the power jet. c. oil leaking into the combustion chambers when the
c. a stand tube. engine is running.
261. Carburettor anti-icing is normally provided by: 275. At low engine RPM, black smoke from the exhaust of a
a. hot air from the cooling system. piston engine may indicate:
b. hot oil from the engine lubrication system. a. oil leaking past the piston rings
c. spray mat heater elements. b. contaminated fuel
c. a rich mixture.
262. The supercharger is normally positioned:
a. in the exhaust manifold. 276. Piston engine hydraulicing:
b. before the carburettor. a. can be ignored on inverted engines
c. between the carburettor and the inlet manifold. b. must be checked at idle RPM
c. must be checked before attempting to start the engine.
263. The impeller of a supercharger rotates:
a. twice the speed of the engine. 277. As a supercharged engine climbs to high altitude, the
b. half the speed of the engine crankshaft. cylinder head temperature will:
c. nine to ten times the speed of the engine crankshaft. a. reduce due to the reduction in ambient temperature
b. remain approximately the same
264. The supercharger is normally located: c. increase due to the increased weight of charge.
a. at the side of the engine.
b. at the rear of the engine. 278. A supercharger normally rotates at:
c. at the front of the engine. a. twice the crankshaft RPM
b. four times the engine RPM
265. Manifold boost pressure is: c. ten times engine crankshaft RPM.
a. the indicated pressure in the inlet manifold between the
impeller and the inlet valves. 279. The supercharger main bearings are lubricated by:
b. the indicated pressure in the inlet prior to the a. the engine lubrication system
carburettor. b. grease packs
c. the pressure indicated in the supercharger. c. a self contained oil system.
266. The turbocharger impeller is situated: 280. A slight increase of power of a supercharged engine up to its
a. prior to the fuel injector. rated altitude is due to:
b. after the carburettor. a. a slight increase in the volume of charge, due to the
c. in the exhaust system. reduction in temperature, entering the cylinders
b. a reduction in air density resulting in a richer mixture
c. an increase in the weight of charge entering the
cylinders due to temperature reduction.

573-3
281. When a supercharged engine reaches its rated altitude with 294. In the feathered position:
the throttle valve fully open, any further opening of the a. The leading edge of the blade faces forward.
throttle in the cockpit will: b. The trailing edge of the blade faces forward.
a. increase RPM allowing further altitude to be gained c. The thrust face faces forward.
b. increase boost
c. be lost motion. 295. When flying in low temperatures conditions:
a. The C.S.U. is heated to prevent congealing of the oil.
282. On a supercharged engine, on start up the boost pressure b. The C.S.U operation should be kept to a minimum.
will c. The C.S.U should be exercised periodically to prevent
a. fall the oil congealing.
b. remain constant
c. rise. 296. Overspeeding of the propeller in flight may be the result of:
a. Excessive oil pressure in the C.S.U.
283. When engine starting is initiated the waste gate of a turbo- b. Loss of oil pressure in the C.S.U.
charger will be: c. RPM lever set to high.
a. fully open
b. partially open 297. Synchronizing of propellers is based on:
c. fully closed. a. All propellers are set to the same pitch angle.
b. All rotate at the same speed.
284. If a leak occurs in the exhaust system of a turbo-charged c. All propellers develop the same thrust.
piston engine prior to the turbine:
a. critical height will be increased 298. When piston-engined V.P propeller is to be feathered:
b. the waste gate will fail to close as altitude is increased a. The ignition of the engine should be switched off first.
c. the waste gate will close normally as altitude increases. b. The throttle of the engine should be fully closed first.
c. The feathering switch should be first operated.
285. The wastegate of a turbo-charger is:
a. opened by spring pressure 299. The angle of advance of a propeller is:
b. opened by oil pressure a. The same as the helix angle.
c. opened by electric actuator. b. The same as the blade angle.
c. The same as the angle of attack.
286. A supercharger's output is normally controlled by:
a. the waste gate 300. A propellers ability to absorb power may be improved by:
b. boost control lever a. Decrease the solidity.
c. the throttle valve. b. Increase the solidity.
c. Decrease the diameter.
287. A turbo-charger's main bearings are lubricated by:
a. the engine lubrication system 301. The use of counter-rotating propellers has the effect of:
b. a self contained lubrication system a. Cancelling out the gyroscopic and toque effect.
c. the aircraft hydraulic system. b. Cancelling out the gyroscopic effect and increasing the
torque.
288. The helix angle is: c. Increasing the gyroscopic effect and the torque.
a. Equal to the angle of attack plus the angle of advance.
b. Equal to the angle of advance plus the incidence angle. 302. With an increase in temperature, the service ceiling would:
c. The angle of advance. a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
289. The blade angle is: c. Remain unaffected.
a. Equal to the angle of attack plus the angle of advance.
b. Equal to the angle of advance plus the helix angle. 303. In the choke tube area of the fuel nozzle:
c. Equal to the angle of attack plus blade incidence angle. a. An area of high pressure is found.
b. An area of low pressure is found.
290. A variable pitch constant speed propeller is designed c. There is no difference in pressure.
primarily to:
a. Maintain the engine at a constant RPM. 304. As air density decreases, density altitude will:
b. Maintain the propeller at a constant thrust. a. Increase.
c. Maintain the propeller at a constant RPM. b. Decrease.
c. Remain unaffected.
291. A variable pitch constant speed propeller:
a. Eliminates the need for constant adjustment to engine 305. If the atmospheric pressure and temperature remain the
RPM. same, an increase in humidity would:
b. Eliminates the need for constant adjustment to a. Shorten the take-off distance because the air is less
propeller pitch. dense.
c. Eliminates the need for constant changes to mixture b. Lengthen the take off distance because the air is more
setting. dense.
c. Lengthen the take off distance because the air is less
292. The pitch is controlled on a constant speed variable pitch dense.
propeller:
a. By the RPM lever. 306. The airspeed that a pilot would be unable to identify by the
b. By the throttle. colour coding of an ASI is:
c. By the C.S.U. a. The maximum landing gear extended speed.
b. The maximum flap operating speed.
293. Prior to engine starting: c. The never exceed speed.
a. Coarse pitch is selected to give maximum cooling
airflow. 307. If the landing gear of an aeroplane moves forward during
b. Extra fine pitch is selected to reduce the load on the retraction the:
engine. a. Total moments will decrease.
c. Extra fine pitch is selected to increase cooling airflow to b. Total moments will remain the same.
the engine. c. Total moments will increase.

573-3
308. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it 321. A crankshaft with counter balances can be damaged by:
to its original condition, when disturbed from a condition of a. Carburettor icing.
steady flight, is know as: b. Closing and opening the throttle in rapid succession.
a. Controllability. c. Operating the engine with too rich a mixture.
b. Manoeuvrability.
c. Stability. 322. When flying for endurance an aircraft must be flown at:
a. Minimum power speed.
309. When carburettor heating is used, it: b. Full throttle height.
a. Richens the mixture. c. Minimum drag speed.
b. Leans the mixture.
c. Puts more air into the mixture. 323. What is the reason for the twist in the propeller?
a. To keep the propeller flying at the most efficient angle
310. Differential ailerons are installed to: at all sections.
a. Improve lateral stability. b. To cancel out the effect of the high speed near the tips.
b. Prevent spiral instability. c. Design requirement to keep the centrifugal twist axis in
c. Reduce adverse aileron yaw. the centre.
311. The blow-out process on turbine engines is: 324. Electrical power of a battery is measured by:
a. Used to get rid of excess fuel after an aborted start. a. Amp/hr.
b. When the turbine section explodes after overspeeding. b. The number of cells in the battery.
c. Timing the run-down to check for structural failure. c. The voltage.
312. The angle of attack is increased during a turn: 325. Pneumatic boots that are used for de-icing are:
a. To compensate for increased aeroplane drag. a. Fitted on the leading edge of the wing.
b. To compensate for the reduced horizontal lift b. Fitted around the propeller intakes.
component. c. Fitted on the leading edge of the wing and stabilisers.
c. To compensate for the reduced vertical lift component.
326. The use of fuel with an incorrect octane rating may lead to:
313. A magneto obtains its current from: a. Detonation.
a. A battery. b. Pre-ignition.
b. E.M.F. (generators). c. A higher manifold pressure.
c. Magnets.
327. Propeller efficiency is defined as:
314. Aircraft A has a span of 50 ft and a chord of 6 ft. Aircraft B a. The ratio of shaft horsepower to brake horsepower.
has a span of 80 ft and a chord of 10 ft. Aircraft C has a span b. The ratio of brake horsepower to thrust horsepower.
of 48 ft and a chord of 4 ft. Which aircraft has the highest c. The ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.
aspect ratio and which aircraft has the lowest aspect ratio?
a. A and B. 328. When the aircraft exhaust smoke is blue, it means the
b. B and C. aircraft:
c. C and B. a. Has a too rich a mixture.
b. Is burning oil.
315. Refer to the previous question. Which of the aircraft c. Has incorrect timing.
mentioned has the highest stalling angle?
a. A. 329. Carburettor icing occurs at:
b. B. a. The engine air intake.
c. C. b. The venturi, butterfly valve and manifold.
c. The intake manifold only.
316. A tailwheel aircraft with a propeller turning clockwise as
viewed from the cockpit, tends to turn the aircraft: 330. The breather pipe on an engine is used to:
a. Left around the vertical axis and left around the a. Blow out excess oil.
longitudinal axis. b. Vent excess temperature.
b. Right around the vertical axis and left around the c. Relieve excess sump pressure.
longitudinal axis.
c. Left around the vertical axis and right around the 331. The purpose of the reverse current cut-out switch in the
longitudinal axis. electrical system is:
a. To prevent the battery from losing its charge by driving
317. At sea level, the Manifold Pressure Gauge will read: the generator.
a. 29.92. b. To switch off the generator.
b. 1013.25 hPa. c. To prevent the battery from being overcharged.
c. Static pressure.
332. Circuit breakers are installed in aircraft:
318. The correct method of increasing power on an aircraft fitted a. To switch systems on and off.
with a constant speed propeller is: b. To prevent overloading of a system.
a. Throttle, RPM, mixture. c. To see how much power a system requires.
b. RPM, mixture, throttle.
c. Mixture, RPM, throttle. 333. The SG of AVGAS is 0.7. How much does 100 Imp Gal of
fuel weigh?
319. When the weight of the aircraft is increased the stalling a. 700 lbs.
speed will: b. 70 lbs.
a. Increase c. 7000 lbs.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain the same. 334. The load capacity of a battery is measured in:
a. Volts.
320. The system used to supply an aircraft instrument that b. Amps/hr.
operates on alternating current is: c. Ohm.
a. An alternator that is mechanically driven by the engine.
b. An inverter.
c. A transformer.

573-3
335. The most electrical power is supplied by: 349. Density is measured in:
a. AC generator. a. Kgs/cu metre.
b. DC generator. b. Pounds per square metre.
c. AC/DC generator with TR unit. c. Hectopascals.
336. Carburettor icing on an engine with a variable pitch propeller 350. The main load carrying part of the wing structure is:
can be noticed by: a. The leading edge.
a. Drop in RPM. b. The spar.
b. Drop in Manifold Pressure. c. The rib.
c. Drop in RPM AND Manifold Pressure.
351. The strength of the wing structure will have to be greater:
337. On an EGT gauge the mixture is set at lean when: a. With large variations of the position of the centre of
a. The temperature and RPM peaks. pressure.
b. The temperature and RPM have peaked and then 2 b. The centre of pressure has no effect on wing strength.
units richer. c. With small movements of the centre of pressure.
c. The temperature only peaks.
352. A twenty-four volt lead acid battery would have:
338. A suction pump supplies vacuum to: a. Six cells.
a. ASI, Turn indicator and DI. b. Twelve cells.
b. AH and DI. c. Twenty-four cells.
c. VSI, DI and Turn Indicator.
353. A twenty-four volt Nicad battery would probably have:
339. On the power available/power required versus TAS graph, a. Twelve cells.
the lowest value would indicate: b. Twenty-four cells.
a. Minimum drag. c. Nineteen cells.
b. Speed for endurance.
c. Speed for range. 354. Combustion in a gas turbine engine occurs at:
a. Constant volume.
340. The absolute ceiling is: b. Constant pressure.
a. The level beyond which the aircraft cannot climb. c. Constant velocity.
b. The level at which the aircraft can only climb at 100
ft/min. 355. The velocity of the gases through the turbine can be very
c. The maximum level an aircraft can attain full throttle. high:
a. Because of the high temperature and speed of sound.
341. At the absolute ceiling the: b. Because they are supersonic.
a. Minimum speed is less than the maximum speed. c. Because of the speed of sound being low.
b. Minimum speed is more than the maximum speed.
c. Minimum speed I equal to the maximum speed. 356. In relation to a generator an alternator will:
a. Provide less electrical power.
342. Too low an octane rating (anti-clock value) can cause: b. Provide more power at lower rpm.
a. Pre-ignition. c. Weigh more and be bigger.
b. Detonation.
c. Overheating. 357. An aircraft magneto depends on the following to generate
electrical power:
343. In level flight the balance of forces is affected by: a. The battery.
a. Mass of the aircraft. b. The generator.
b. Height of the aircraft. c. Magnets.
c. Fuel burn rate.
358. The most likely immediate effect of using fuel of too low an
344. On a turbocharged aircraft the turbocharger is powered by: octane rating is:
a. The engine. a. Pre-ignition.
b. The electrical motor. b. Detonation.
c. Exhaust gases. c. A cool running engine.
345. With reference to aircraft fitted with constant speed 359. The operation of an oleo leg is based on:
propellers, when the MP is reduced: a. Steel springs.
a. The blade angle increases. b. Rubber blocks or bunjees.
b. The blade angle decreases. c. Oil and air.
c. The blade angle remains the same.
360. Absorption of water into aviation fuel is more likely:
346. A battery rated for 40 amps/hr means it will operate for: a. With cold fuel.
a. At 40 amps for 10 hours. b. In hot fuel.
b. At 10 amps for 40 hours. c. The temperature of the fuel has no effect.
c. At 4 amps for 10 hours.
361. To eliminate the risk of fire when refuelling:
347. Conditions favourable for the formation of icing: a. You should use plastic containers.
a. High temperature and low humidity. b. Bond the aircraft to the fuel nozzle.
b. High temperature and high humidity. c. Have an earth lead between ground, fuel truck, fuel
c. High humidity and low temperature. nozzle and the aircraft.
348. Choose the correct statement: 362. Operation of the mixture control to the lean position controls:
a. An increase in temperature will cause an increase in a. The amount of fuel entering the inlet manifold is
density. reduced.
b. An increase in humidity will cause a decrease in b. The amount of air entering the inlet manifold is
density. increased.
c. An increase in humidity will cause an increase in c. The amount of air entering the inlet manifold is reduced
density.

573-3
363. A breakage or disconnection of the magneto earth wire will
have the effect of: 377. Mass balance on an aileron is used:
a. Stopping the engine. a. To assist the pilot in moving the controls.
b. Causing the engine to run roughly. b. To eliminate flutter.
c. Make it impossible to stop the engine by switching off c. To prevent aileron drag.
ignition.
378. Aileron reversal is most likely to occur:
364. An ignition system in which spark can be lethal is used on: a. At very low speeds.
a. Piston engines and turbine engines. b. At large angles of attack.
b. Turbine engines only. c. At very high speeds.
c. Piston engines only.
379. The speed at which full deflection of the flight controls can be
365. During a climb in an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, made is:
detonation is suspected. The correct procedure would be to: a. Va.
a. Increase rate of climb. b. Vmd.
b. Reduce RPM. c. Vso.
c. Reduce speed.
380. In a pressurized aircraft you are cruising at Flight Level 290
366. To obtain best efficiency and effective fuel consumption with and are at Maximum Differential. You wish to climb to Flight
a constant speed propeller the best setting would be: Level 300. You must:
a. Low r.p.m. (high pitch) when cruising. a. Decrease the cabin altitude by at least 4000 ft.
b. High r.p.m. (course pitch) for take-off. b. Increase the cabin altitude by at least 4000 ft.
c. Low r.p.m. (fine pitch) for take-off. c. Increase the cabin altitude.
367. When establishing climb power after take-off the correct 381. The type of reciprocating aero-engine which could use a wet
sequence: sump would be:
a. Throttle mixture r.p.m. a. A horizontally opposed engine.
b. Throttle r.p.m. mixture. b. A radial engine.
c. Mixture r.p.m. throttle. c. An inverted in-line engine.
368. Entering a climb from cruise flight the correct sequence is: 382. The part of the valve gear which absorbs the wear from the
a. Throttle r.p.m. mixture. cam is:
b. R.p.m. throttle mixture. a. The tappet.
c. Mixture r.p.m. throttle. b. The push rod.
c. The rocker arm.
369. If the cylinder head temperature and oil temperature are
unusually high, the probable cause would be: 383. In a piston engine the spark would occur:
a. Using fuel of too low an octane value. a. About 20 after T.D.C.
b. Using fuel of too high an octane rating. b. About 20 before T.D.C.
c. Using too rich a mixture. c. 20 after T.D.C.
370. After about 20 minutes flight with full tanks the engine stops 384. To avoid wake turbulence when taking off behind a heavy
but restarts immediately after selection of another tank: aircraft it is best to:
a. The possible cause was a blocked fuel tank vent. a. Lift off before his rotate point and stay upwind of his
b. Detonation. flight path.
c. Pre-ignition. b. Lift off before his lift off point and stay downwind of his
flight path.
371. During operation of a reciprocating engine the piston is c. Lift off after his lift off point and stay below his flight
travelling up path.
a. During the induction stroke.
b. During the power stroke. 385. A loss of power when opening the throttle from Idle to 1500
c. During the exhaust stroke. r.p.m. would be prevented by:
a. The enrichment jet.
372. In a piston engine ignition occurs during: b. The main jet.
a. The power stroke. c. A rich idling mixture.
b. The compression stroke
c. The exhaust stroke. 386. Comparing a carburettor engine to a fuel injection engine:
a. Only the fuel injection engine is affected by impact
373. Valve overlap occurs between: icing.
a. The induction stroke and the power stroke. b. Both are affected by impact icing.
b. The compression stroke and the power stroke. c. Only the fuel injection engine is affected by fuel
c. The exhaust stroke and induction stroke. evaporation icing.
374. High pressure oil is required in a piston engine: 387. Aircraft ignition systems have the following characteristics:
a. For lubricating the accessory gearbox. a. The H.T. system requires only a light harness.
b. For lubricating the cylinder walls. b. The L.T. system uses a light harness and a transformer
c. For lubricating the big end and main bearings. coil.
c. The L.T. system requires suppressors and is more
375. The oil pump which has greater the capacity is: likely to cause radio interference.
a. The Scavenge pump.
b. The Pressure pump. 388. The jet engine compressor which provides the biggest frontal
c. The Scavenge and Pressure pumps must have the areas is:
same capacity. a. The axial flow.
b. The axial flow first stage and a centrifugal second
376. The flow of fuel from the tank to the carburettor is controlled stage.
by: c. A centrifugal first stage and an axial flow second stage.
a. The float and diffuser.
b. The needle valve and float.
c. The accelerator pump.

573-3
389. When a jet engine starts normally but fails to accelerate 402. During a change in pitch attitude, an aircraft will rotate
above 30% r.p.m. it is called: around its:
a. A hung start. a. Centre of gravity and longitudinal axis.
b. A hot start. b. Centre of pressure and lateral axis.
c. A wet start. c. Centre of gravity and lateral axis.
390. The most suitable property for a metal used to construct 403. Rotation about the lateral axis is known as:
fairings would be: a. Yawing and is controlled with rudder.
a. Its toughness. b. Rolling and is controlled with the ailerons.
b. Its malleability. c. Pitching and is controlled with the elevator.
c. Its brittleness.
404. During a change in bank, an aircraft will rotate around its:
391. The lubricating system of a piston engine normally uses the a. Centre of gravity and longitudinal axis.
following type of pump: b. Centre of gravity and lateral axis.
a. A diaphragm type pump. c. Centre of pressure and longitudinal axis.
b. A vane type of pump.
c. A gear type of pump. 405. Rotation about the longitudinal axis is known as:
a. Yawing and is controlled with the rudder.
392. The hydraulic service usually provided by the accumulator is: b. Rolling and is controlled with the ailerons.
a. Emergency gear operation. c. Rolling and is controlled with the rudder.
b. Emergency brakes.
c. Emergency flap operation. 406. The three axis of the aircraft intersect at the:
a. Centre of pressure.
393. The unit which is usually used in a hydraulic system to b. Centre of gravity.
operate the various services is called: c. Midpoint of the datum line.
a. A Hydraulic jack.
b. An accumulator. 407. Aspect ratio of the wing is defined as:
c. A reservoir. a. Wingspan to the wing root.
b. Square of the chord to the wingspan.
394. The best way to determine the pro-charge pressure in an c. Wingspan to the mean aerodynamic chord.
hydraulic accumulator is to operate the following service until
the pressure drops: 408. The angle between the chord line of a wing and the
a. The toe brakes. longitudinal axis of the aircraft is known as the angle of:
b. The undercarriage. a. Dihedral.
c. The flaps. b. Incidence.
c. Attack.
395. When operating the wheel brake system when stopping
distance is important, the best way to use the brakes would 409. The angle between the chord of an airfoil and its direction of
be: motion relative to the air is known as:
a. Wait until the speed has dropped to below 100kts and a. The dihedral angle.
then use maximum braking. b. The angle of attack.
b. Pump the brakes to allow cooling periods. c. The angle of incidence.
c. Use maximum braking as soon as possible after touch
down. 410. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative
airflow is known as the angle of:
396. The most modern fire detection system uses: a. Attack.
a. A bi-metal lie type switch. b. Incidence.
b. A fire wire or live wire system c. Longitudinal dihedral.
c. A thermo-couple warning system.
411. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:
397. Fires originating in electrically powered equipment are a. Force produced perpendicular to the longitudinal axis.
classified as: b. Reduced pressure resulting from a smooth flow of air
a. Class A fires. over a curved surface and acting perpendicular to the
b. Class B fires. mean surface.
c. Class C fires. c. Force produced perpendicular to the relative airflow.
398. The main longitudinal member in a Truss type of fuselage 412. The lift produced by an airfoil is the force produced:
construction would be: a. Halfway between the chord line and the relative airflow.
a. A stringer. b. Opposite to the relative airflow.
b. A longeron. c. Perpendicular to the airflow.
c. A former
413. During flight with a zero angle of attack, the pressure along
399. Manual reversion is possible on: the upper surface of the wing should be:
a. A hydraulically assisted control system. a. Less than atmospheric pressure.
b. A hydraulically operated control system. b. Equal to atmospheric pressure.
c. A cable operated control system. c. Greater than atmospheric pressure.
400. In a modern automatic pilot system if one of the modes were 414. With reference to angle of attack:
inoperative, the pilot would be prevented from engaging by: a. An increase in angle of attack will increase impact
a. The rate-rate system. pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.
b. The manual reversion system. b. An increase in angle of attack will increase impact
c. The interlock system. pressure below the wing, and increase drag.
c. A decrease in angle of attack will increase impact
401. During flight, if a change is made in pitch attitude, an aircraft pressure below the wing, and increase drag.
will rotate around its:
a. Centre of pressure.
b. Centre of lift.
c. Centre of gravity.

573-3
415. In order to maintain altitude whilst decreasing speed the pilot 426. In all aircraft stalls are caused by:
should: a. A loss of airspeed.
a. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for b. Exceeding the critical angle of pitch.
decreasing lift. c. Exceeding the critical angle of attack.
b. Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired
airspeed is reached, then increase the angle of attack. 427. For a given aerofoil, the angle of attack which results in a
c. Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than stall:
weight. a. Remains constant regardless of bank, load factor or
airspeed.
416. The point on the aerofoil through which lift acts is called the: b. Varies directly with the degree of bank.
a. Centre of pressure. c. Varies with the speed of airflow around the airfoil.
b. Centre of gravity.
c. Aerodynamic centre.. 428. The angle of attack at which the aircraft stalls:
a. Is dependant upon the speed of the airflow over the
417. When the angle of attack of an airfoil is increased from 1 to wings.
8 the centre of pressure will: b. Is a function of speed and density altitude.
a. Remain unaffected. c. Will remain constant regardless of gross weight.
b. Move forward.
c. Move aft. 429. Which statement is true relating to factors which produce
stalls:
418. Both lift and drag of an aerofoil are: a. The stalling angle of attack depends upon the speed of
a. Proportional to the square of the velocity (V) of the the airflow over the wings.
relative airflow. b. Is a function of speed and density altitude.
b. Proportional to the increases and decreases in the c. Will remain constant regardless of gross weight.
velocity of the relative airflow.
c. Inversely proportional to the area of the wing. 430. Indicated stall speed is affected by:
a. Angle of attack, weight, and air density.
419. If the airspeed of an aircraft is doubled but the angle of attack b. Weight, load factor, and power.
is held constant, th eparasite drag will: c. Load factor, angle of attack, and power.
a. Remain the same.
b. Be four times greater. 431. An aircraft in a steep-banked turn stalls at a higher IAS than
c. Double. it does with the wings level, because in the turn:
a. The critical angle of attack has decreased.
420. Assume the aircraft is cruising at 100 mph and creating b. The critical angle of attack is reached at a higher IAS.
1000 lb of drag. If the angle of attack remains the same but c. Total lift has decreased.
the airspeed is doubled, the total drag would be increased to:
a. 4000 lb 432. Turbulent air causes an increase in stall speed because:
b. 3000 lb a. The TAS is abruptly increased.
c. 2000 lb b. The load factor is suddenly decreased.
c. The angle of attack is increased.
421. Which of the following statements generally describes the
relationship of the forces acting on an aircraft that is climbing 433. To produce the desired effect, trim tabs must be adjusted:
at a constant airspeed and at a constant power: a. In such a direction as to remain flush with the primary
a. Thrust is greater than drag, lift is greater than weight. control surfaces they affect.
b. Thrust is greater than drag, lift is greater equal to b. In the same direction as the primary control surfaces
weight. they affect.
c. Total thrust is equal to total drag, total lift is equal to c. In the opposite direction to the primary control surfaces
total weight. they affect.
422. The reason a light general aviation aeroplane tends to nose 434. Regarding the use of rudder in conventional aircraft to
down during power reductions, is that the: compensate for the effects of torque:
a. Thrust line acts horizontally and above the force of a. If airspeed is decreased (power constant), right rudder
drag. pressure must be added.
b. Centre of gravity is located forward of the centre of b. If power is reduced (airspeed constant), right rudder
pressure. pressure must be added.
c. Centre of pressure is located forward of the centre of c. If power is increased (airspeed constant), left rudder
gravity. pressure must be added.
423. Frost on an aircrafts wings will have the effect on an 435. The primary function of rudder, while entering a turn from
aircrafts performance of: straight and level flight, is to:
a. Decreasing the lift and decreasing the drag. a. Overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on
b. Increasing the lift and decreasing the drag. the higher wing.
c. Decreasing the lift and increasing the drag. b. Overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on
the lower wing.
424. Frost covering the upper surface of an aerofoil will usually c. Overcome the yaw caused by the raised aileron on the
cause: higher wing.
a. The aircraft to stall at an angle of attack that is lower
than normal. 436. When entering a turn, the primary function of rudder is to:
b. The aircraft to stall at an angle of attack that is higher a. Control yawing about the vertical axis.
than normal. b. Allow the aircraft to pitch about its lateral axis.
c. No problem for pilots of light aircraft. c. Prevent the aircraft from rolling about the longitudinal
axis.
425. What determines the angle of attack at which an aircraft
stalls: 437. The hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered
a. Design of the wing. behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is:
b. Load factor. a. Using high power settings.
c. True airspeed. b. Operating at high airspeeds.
c. Developing lift.

573-3
438. Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence: 450. When establishing a climb, the proper sequence of engine
a. The primary hazard is loss of control because of control adjustment is to increase:
induced lift. a. Mixture, followed by RPM and then manifold pressure.
b. Vortex operation begins with the initiation of the take-off b. Manifold pressure, followed by RPM and then mixture.
roll. c. RPM, mixture and then manifold pressure.
c. Vortices tend to remain level for a period of time.
451. The use of flaps will produce:
439. If wake turbulence is encountered, the probability of induced a. Increased lift and decreased drag.
roll increases when the encountering aircrafts: b. Increased lift and increased drag.
a. Airspeed is slower than that of the generating aircraft. c. Decreased lift and increased drag.
b. Attitude is higher than that of the generating aircraft.
c. Heading is aligned with the flight path of the generating 452. The primary function of flap is to:
aircraft. a. Provide steeper gliding angle.
b. Increase control-effectiveness at slow airspeeds.
440. Aerodynamically, propeller thrust is the result of the: c. Permit a safer take-off over high obstructions.
a. Angle of incidence of the blade.
b. Decreased pressure on the flat side of the blade and 453. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach will:
increased pressure on the curved side. a. Increase the angle of descent with increasing airspeed.
c. Shape and angle of attack of the blade. b. Decrease the angle of descent with increasing power.
c. Permits approaches in aircraft with a good L/D ratio.
441. Air deflection produced by a rotating propeller causes
dynamic pressure on the engine side of the propeller to be 454. Which statement is true regarding the use of flaps during
greater than atmospheric pressure, thus generating: turns:
a. Torque. a. The addition of flaps decreases the stall speed.
b. Drag. b. The addition of flaps increases the stall speed.
c. Thrust. c. Using a constant flap setting and varying the bank has
no effect on the stall speed.
442. During take-off, when maximum power and thrust are
required, the constant speed propeller should be set at a 455. The lowering of flaps decreases the stalling angle except
propeller blade angle which: with:
a. Will produce a low slipstream velocity. a. Fowler flaps.
b. Will produce a small angle of attack with respect to its b. Slotted flaps.
relative airflow. c. Split flaps.
c. Will produce a large angle of attack with respect to its
relative airflow. 456. The effect of flaps is to:
a. Improve the Lift/Drag ratio.
443. To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant speed b. Improve the Lift/Drag ratio at small flap settings.
propeller should be set to a blade angle which will produce a: c. Spoil the Lift/Drag ratio.
a. Large angle of attack and low RPM.
b. Small angle of attack and high RPM. 457. The ratio between the total air load imposed on the wing and
c. Large angle of attack and high RPM. the gross weight in flight is known as:
a. Power loading.
444. To establish a climb after take-off in an aircraft equipped with b. Load factor.
a constant speed propeller, the output of the engine is c. Yield load.
reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure
and: 458. Assume an aircraft is certified with a maximum gross weight
a. Increasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle. of 2500 lb. And a load factor of 3.8. If this aircraft was
b. Decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. loaded to a gross weight of 2650 lb. And flown in turbulence
c. Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle. creating a 3.8 load factor, what air load would be imposed
upon its structure?
445. With a CSU, if speed is increased and the power setting is a. 2650 lb. And this aircraft should not be flown with this
constant, the propeller blade angle will: gross weight.
a. Low pitch blade angle. b. 570 lb above maximum permissible and this aircraft
b. Coarsen the blade angle. should not be flown with this gross weight.
c. Fine the blade angle. c. 150 lb. above maximum permissible and this aircraft
should not be flown with this gross weight.
446. In relation to an aerofoil the propeller provides:
a. More thrust and less torque than lift and drag. 459. Wing loading of an aircraft is determined by a value which is
b. Less thrust and more torque than lift and drag. the:
c. More torque than lift and less thrust than drag. a. Gross weight of the aircraft divided by the wing area.
b. Ratio of the wing area to the horsepower.
447. Which is correct of the following statements: c. Gross weight divided by the span.
a. Blade angle consists of helix angle and angle of attack.
b. Helix angle consists of blade angle and angle of attack. 460. Load factor is the actual weight supported by the wings at
c. Angle of attack equals helix angle. any given moment:
a. Divided by the normal weight of the aircraft.
448. The blade angle of a propeller will: b. Multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft.
a. Be greater at the tip. c. Added to the total weight of the aircraft.
b. Be greater at 70% radius.
c. Be greatest at the root. 461. If the angle of bank were held constant and the airspeed
varied, the load factor would:
449. The force tending to twist a propeller blade of a constant a. Vary depending on the rate of turn.
speed propeller to fine pitch is: b. Decrease when the airspeed decreases.
a. Torque. c. Remain constant.
b. Centrifugal twisting moment.
c. Aerodynamic twisting moment.

573-3
462. The additional load imposed on the wings during a level co- 473. If, during a level turn, the rate of turn is kept constant, an
ordinated turn in smooth air is dependent on the: increase in airspeed will result in:
a. Angle of bank. a. Constant load factor regardless of changes in angle of
b. Rate of turn. bank.
c. True airspeed. b. Need to decrease the angle of bank to maintain the
same rate of turn.
463. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both c. Need to increase the angle of bank to maintain the
the aircraft and pilot in a co-ordinated constant altitude turn: same rate of turn.
a. Varies with the rate of turn.
b. Is directly related to the aircrafts gross weight. 474. The type of drag which decreases with increase in speed is:
c. Is constant. a. Form drag.
b. Interference drag.
464. In a constant altitude co-ordinated turn, the load factor c. Induced drag.
imposed on an aircraft is the result of:
a. Rate of turn and airspeed. 475. It is not necessary to hold off bank in:
b. Angle of attack and airspeed. a. A gliding turn.
c. Centrifugal force and gravity. b. A climbing turn.
c. A level turn.
465. If, while holding the angle of bank constant, the rate of turn is
varied, the load factor would: 476. Aileron drag, or adverse yaw, is most likely at:
a. Remain constant. a. High speed.
b. Vary depending upon airspeed. b. High angle of attack.
c. Increase if the speed is increased. c. Low angle of attack.
466. The increase in load factor that would take place if the angle 477. To be suitable for supersonic flight an aerofoil should have:
of bank were increased from 60 to 70 is: a. A well rounded leading edge.
a. 0.5 G b. A laminar flow section.
b. 1.0 G c. A very sharp leading edge.
c. 1.5 G
478. The first shock wave on an aerofoil approaching the speed of
467. What is the stall speed of an aircraft under a load factor of 2 sound occurs:
if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots? a. At the trailing edge.
a. 66 Knots. b. On the top surface.
b. 74 Knots. c. Under the bottom surface.
c. 84 Knots.
479. The characteristics which would improve lateral stability are:
468. What is the stall speed of an aircraft under a load factor of 2 a. High keel surface, low centre of gravity, dihedral.
if the unaccelerated stall speed is 80 knots? b. Longitudinal dihedral, low centre of gravity, large keel
a. 90 Knots. surface.
b. 112 Knots. c. Sweepback, high centre of gravity, anhedral.
c. 120 Knots.
480. The effect of inertia moment would be increased with:
469. At a constant power setting the rate of climb of an aircraft is a. Forward centre of gravity.
greater when the wings are level than when in a climbing turn b. Centre of pressure well aft.
because, when level, the: c. Centre of gravity well aft.
a. Wing loading is greater.
b. Centre of lift is nearer the trailing edge. 481. The type of control balance used to oppose flutter is:
c. Vertical lift component is greater. a. Inset hinge balance.
b. Servo tab balance.
470. Which statement is correct with respect to rate and radius of c. Mass balance.
turn for an aircraft in a co-ordinated turn at a constant
altitude? 482. A wing would be called polymorphic if fitted with:
a. For any specific angle of bank and airspeed, the lighter a. Split flaps.
the aircraft, the faster the rate and the smaller the b. Vortex generators.
radius of turn. c. Fowler flaps.
b. For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and
radius of turn will not vary. 483. An aircraft is in a state of equilibrium in:
c. The lower the airspeed the less the rate of turn for a a. A steady Rate 1 turn.
specific bank angle. b. In a steady climb.
c. During take-off.
471. Which statement is true if, during a level co-ordinated turn,
the load factor was kept constant: 484. A heavy aircraft in relation to a lighter aircraft of the same
a. A decrease in airspeed results in an increase in radius. type will glide:
b. An increase in airspeed results in an increase in radius. a. Further in a tail wind.
c. An increase in airspeed results in a decrease in radius. b. The same distance in still air conditions.
c. More slowly in a head wind.
472. Increasing the airspeed while maintaining a constant load
factor during a level co-ordinated turn would result in: 485. When taking off with an obstacle ahead the best speed to
a. The same radius of turn. use for the initial climb would be:
b. A decrease in turn radius. a. Vx
c. An increase in the radius of turn. b. Va
c. Vy
486. The vectors shown below indicate:

a. A skidding left turn.
b. A slipping right turn.
c. A skidding right turn.

573-3
487. To achieve the correct Vref at maximum landing weight you 501. If, while holding the angle of bank constant, the rate of turn is
would approach at: increased, the load factor would:
a. 1.3 Times the speed at the bottom of the ASI green arc. a. Remain the same.
b. 1.3 Times the speed at the bottom of the ASI white arc. b. Vary depending on speed.
c. 1.3 Times the speed at the top of the ASI white arc. c. Vary depending on weight.
488. Contra rotating propellers have the effect of:

a. Eliminating both gyroscopic and toque effects. TURBINE ENGINES
b. Reducing gyroscopic effect but increasing torque effect.
c. Increasing gyroscopic effect but reducing torque effect. 502. The diffuser in a centrifugal compressor is a device in which
the:
489. The effect of size when considering aerodynamic force is a. Pressure rises and velocity falls.
allowed for by: b. Pressure rises at a constant velocity.
a. Separation point. c. Velocity, pressure and temperature rise.
b. Bernoullis Theorem. d. Velocity rises and pressure falls.
c. Reynolds Number.
503. In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primarily
490. The dividing line between Laminar Flow and Turbulent Flow supplied by:
around an aerofoil is known as: a. Bleed air from the engines.
a. Separation point. b. Turbo compressors.
b. Transition Point. c. Ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
c. Line of mean camber. d. The APU.
504. When considering gas turbine engine performance, a change
491. The effect of induced drag can be reduced by: in ambient temperature or air density means that:
a. Washout. a. As air density increases, thrust increases.
b. Low aspect ratio. b. As temperature increases, thrust increases.
c. Increasing the angle of incidence at the tip. c. No change occurs.
492. Apart from warning devices the aerodynamic warning of the 505. In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant:
approaching stall is: a. volume
a. Buffet of the tail surfaces. b. pressure
b. The attitude of the aircraft. c. velocity
c. A sharp dropping of the nose.
506. When starting a turbo-jet engine:
493. The possibility of a spin developing into a flat spin is greatest a. A hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas temperature
with: exceeds specified limits.
a. A forward centre of gravity. b. An excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot
b. A small inertia moment. start.
c. An aft centre of gravity. c. The engine should start between 60 to 80 seconds
after the fuel shut off lever is opened.
494. The density of the air at sea level in ISA is: 507. In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not
a. 1225 kg/cubic metre. rigidly fixed in position when the engine is stationary, take up
b. 1.225 gms/ sq metre a rigid position when the engine is running due to:
c. 1225 gms/cubic metre a. Oil pressure.
b. The resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.
495. The difference between RAS and EAS is: c. Blade creep.
a. Compressibility. d. Thermal expansion.
b. Position Error.
c. Position error and instrument error. 508. In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is:
a. Greater than turbine rpm.
496. The sum of Form Drag, Skin Friction Drag, and Interference b. Less than turbine rpm.
Drag is: c. The same as turbine rpm.
a. Total Drag. d. Independent of turbine rpm.
b. Induced Drag.
c. Profile Drag. 509. When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the:
a. Pressure drops.
b. Velocity decreases.
497. Aileron reversal is most likely to occur at:
a. Large angle of attack. c. Temperature increases
b. Very high speed. d. Pressure rises.
c. Very low speed. 510. For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:
a. External mass airflow divided by the internal mass
498. If the humidity is high you would expect the take-off run: airflow.
a. To be unaffected because it is not given in the take-off b. Internal mass airflow divided by the external mass
performance graph. airflow.
b. To be longer because of the lower density. c. Internal mass airflow divided by the mass fuel flow.
c. To be shorter because of the higher density. d. Mass fuel flow divided by the internal mass airflow.
499. The rate of climb of an aircraft is determined by: 511. After the gas leaves the combustion chambers it:
a. Power available over power required. a. Is directed onto the turbine by the nozzle guide vanes.
b. Lift available over lift required. b. Flows directly onto the turbine blades.
c. The lift/drag ratio. c. Is directed onto the turbine blades by variable guide
vanes.
500. Ignoring the effect of Mach Number, the stalling speed (IAS):
512. Within the combustion chambers the burned fuel/air mixture:
a. Reduces with increasing height.
a. Increases in volume.
b. Remains the same with increasing height.
b. Reduces in volume.
c. Increases with reduced density.
c. Maintains a constant volume.

573-3
513. Some secondary air is directed through the dilution holes in 527. In a clamshell door type thrust reversal system, when
the combustion chambers to: reverse is selected, the exhaust gases are:
a. Atomise the fuel prior to combustion. a. Discharged at approximately 45 degrees.
b. Create a swirl effect of the mixture. b. Discharged at 90 degrees.
c. Cool the gas before it reaches the turbine. c. Fully reversed.
514. Igniters are fitted: 528. The high pressure fuel cock:
a. In each combustion chamber. a. Controls fuel flow from the tank to the fuel flow control
b. Immediately aft of the combustion chambers. unit.
c. To just two or three combustion chambers. b. Is used to control fuel flow to the engine.
c. Is used to pressurise the fuel tank.
515. The compression ratio is the:
a. Ratio between the inlet to the engine and the exhaust 529. Fuel is fed to the engine from the supply system via:
outlet pressure. a. Fuel Control Unit
b. Ratio between the pressure at the inlet to the b. The fuel injection jets.
compressor and the outlet of the compressor. c. The injector control unit.
c. Ratio between the entrance to the engine intake and
compressor outlet pressure. 530. In an automatic electrical starting system in a gas turbine
engine the:
516. Compressor surge may be indicated by: a. Ignition commences ten seconds after the start button
a. A reduction in engine gas temperature. has been pushed.
b. An increase in jet pipe temperature. b. Ignition commences at the same time the starter motor
c. A rapid increase of power. engages.
c. Ignition commences when fuel starts flowing into the
517. Compressor surge may be identified by: combustion system.
a. Increased engine rpm.
b. A fall in engine gas temperature. 531. In an electrically operated gas turbine start system, the
c. An indication of vibration. electric motor:
a. Must be manually disconnected when the engine has
518. The swirl assembly, or vanes, of a combustion chamber are reached the required rpm.
fitted: b. Is automatically switched off when the required rpm are
a. To generate a rotary motion to the mixture before it reached.
enters the combustion chamber. c. Is automatically switched off after a specified period of
b. To generate a rotary motion to the air in the secondary time or the engine is at sustaining rpm.
air flow.
c. To generate a rotary motion to the air in the inlet to the 532. In an air start system:
primary combustion zone. a. Air is blown through the compressor inlet to rotate the
engine.
519. The action of the swirl vanes in a combustion system is to b. Air is blown through the turbine to rotate the engine.
create: c. Air is supplied to an air starter motor.
a. A smooth flow.
b. A back flow. 533. A gas turbine engine, on starting, accelerates to a figure
c. A straightened flow. below idle rpm and fails to accelerate above that value, this
indicates:
520. Nozzle guide vanes: a. A wet start.
a. Tend to straighten the gas flow. b. A hung start.
b. Are found immediately after the turbine assembly.
c. Give the gas a swirl. 534. Prior to engine starting a gas turbine engine, the throttle:
a. Must be set at ground idle.
521. The gas temperature: b. Must be set at a value above ground idle.
a. Increases as it passes through the turbine. c. Must be closed.
b. Remains constant as it passes through the turbine.
c. Reduces as it passes through the turbine. 535. In the event a surge is suspected in the compressor of a gas
turbine engine, the:
522. Loss of efficiency of turbine blade tips are minimised by: a. Throttle must be opened slowly.
a. Blade tip shrouds. b. Engine must be shut down.
b. Fir tree attachments. c. Throttle must be closed slowly.
c. Air bleed.
536. On leaving the compressor, the air:
523. The main turbine/compressor engine shaft is normally a. Passes into the primary zone of the combustion
mounted on: chamber.
a. Needle roller bearings. b. Passes through the diffuser.
b. Ball bearings only. c. Passes into the primary and secondary zone of the
c. Ball or roller bearings. combustion chamber.
524. Modern gas turbine engine turbine blades are normally d. Passes into the swirl assembly of the combustion
attached by: chamber.
a. The fir tree method. 537. Fuel on entering the combustion chamber is primarily
b. The De Laval Bulb Root. atomised by:
c. The BMW Hollow Blade. a. The swirl vanes.
525. A free turbine is: b. The diffuser.
a. Connected to the high pressure compressor of a two c. The dilution holes.
spool engine. d. The burner feed.
b. Not connected to the compressor. 538. In a basic turbojet engine, of the total energy produced,
c. Connected to the low pressure compressor. approximately:
526. In a By-Pass engine, the by-pass exhaust is: a. 60% leaves the engine as thrust.
a. Always exhausted separately. b. 40% leaves the engine as thrust.
b. Always mixed with the normal exhaust gas in the jet c. 90% leaves the engine as thrust.
pipe. d. 25% leaves the engine as thrust.
c. Sometimes mixed with the normal exhaust gases in the
jet pipe.

573-3
539. A basic centrifugal compressor, generally produces a 550. When a supersonic airflow passes through an oblique
pressure ratio of: shockwave static pressure will (i) and temperature will
a. 4 to 4.5 to one. (ii)
b. 30 to one. a. Fall rise
c. 130 to one. b. Rise rise
d. l5 to one. c. Fall fall
d. Rise fall
540. Modern centrifugal compressors produce a balance of air
compression between that done by the impeller, and that 551. One of the factors leading to pitch-up at the stall on swept
done by the diffuser is approximately: wing aircraft is:
a. 20% to 30%. a. Negative camber at the root
b. 40% to 60%. b. Airflow separation at the root
c. 50% to 50%. c. Spanwise outward flow of the boundary layer
d. 10% to 90%. d. Rearward movement of the cp
541. The compressor blades of an axial flow compressor are 552. When airflow over a wing becomes supersonic, the pressure
curved throughout their length and: pattern on the top surface will become:
a. Their angle of incidence increases from root to tip a. Rectangular
b. Their angle of incidence reduces from root to tip. b. Irregular
c. Their angle of attack reduces from root to tip. c. The same as subsonic
d. Their angle of attack increases from root to tip. d. Triangular
542. The compression ratio of the compressor: 553. A mach trim system operates:
a. Is the measure of air pressure between each stage. a. At all M
b. Is the measure of air pressure between the diffuser and b. At high M
combustion chambers. c. At low M
c. Is the measure of air pressure between compressor d. Above MDET
inlet and compressor outlet.
d. Is the measure of air pressure between free stream 554. What is the relationship of VMO and MMO, in a climb and
pressure and compressor outlet. descent?
a. If climbing at VMO, it is possible to exceed MMO
543. Compressor surge may be minimised by use of: b. If climbing at MMO, Indicated Airspeed is increasing
a. Fixed inlet guide vanes. c. If climbing at VMO, Mach number is decreasing
b. Compressor bleed. d. If descending at MMO, VMO cannot be exceeded
c. Turbo-fans.
d. Swirl vanes. 555. A modern jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard
ailerons plus roll control spoilers is cruising at its normal
544. When starting a twin spool compressor engine: cruise Mach number:
a. Both spools are rotated to avoid surge. a. Only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons.
b. The low pressure spool is rotated first to avoid surge. b. Only the outboard ailerons are active, the spoilers may
c. The high pressure spool is rotated first to avoid surge. be active.
d. The free turbine only is rotated to avoid surge. c. The inboard and outboard ailerons are active, the
spoilers may be active.
545. Blade creep is: d. Only the inboard ailerons are active, the spoilers may
a. Reduced by tip shrouding. be active.
b. A permanent lengthening of the blade.
c. A temporary lengthening of the blade. 556. The shock wave angle of a supersonic aircraft at increasing
d. Reduced by disc shrouding. Mach number:
a. Increases
546. The main bearings of the compressor/turbine drive shaft are: b. Decreases
a. Needle roller bearings. c. Remain the same
b. Nylon bearings. d. Decreases, then increases above certain mach number
c. Ball bearings.
d. Ball or roller bearings. 557. The least energy loss through a normal shockwave occurs
when ML is:
547. Reverse thrust power available is: a. Exactly 1.0 M
a. 90%. b. Just below 1.0 M
b. 100%. c. Just above 1.0 M
c. 50%. d. Well above 1.0M
d. 25%.
558. At what speed does a shock wave move forward over the
ground?
HIGH SPEED FLIGHT a. Aircraft TAS
b. Aircraft ground speed
548. When an aircraft is flying at speeds above Mach 1, pressure c. Flight level airspeed
disturbances from the aircraft will be felt only: d. Speed of sound at ground level
a. Within the Mach cone
b. In front of the Mach cone 559. A shock stall occurs when laminar flow breaks down:
c. In front of the normal shock wave a. Behind the leading edge
d. In front of the oblique shock wave b. Behind the trailing edge
c. Behind the shock wave
549. On a typical symmetrical aerofoil, as the free stream Mach d. At a high angle of attack and high mach number
number approaches M 1.0, the centre of pressure will:
a. Move aft to about 45% chord 560. MCRIT is the free stream Mach number at which:
b. Move forward to about 25% chord a. The bow shock wave attaches to the wing leading edge
c. Move from 25% chord to the leading edge b. The first local mach number at any point on the aircraft
d. Move aft to the trailing edge equals M1.0
c. The bottom shock wave reaches the wing trailing edge
d. The centre of pressure is at its most rearward point

573-3
561. Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of: 568. Compared to straight wings of the same aerofoil section
a. Profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag swept wings (i) the onset of the transonic drag rise and
b. Induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag have a (ii) CD in supersonic flight
and interference drag a. Hasten higher
c. Wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced b. Hasten lower
drag c. Delay lower
d. Induced drag, form drag, interference drag and zero lift d. Delay higher
drag
569. Maintaining thickness/chord ratio but changing to a
562. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic speed range: supercritical wing section will:
a. The coefficient of drag increases then decreases a. Give the aircraft an increased range
b. The coefficient of drag increases b. Make lateral stability more critical
c. The coefficient of drag decreases then increases c. Lead to more prominent shockwave formation
d. The coefficient of drag decreases d. Reduce the aft shift of CP in the transonic range.
563. Compared to a straight wing of the same aerofoil section a 570. In the transonic range CLMax will (i) and the 1g stalling
wing swept at 30 should theoretically have an MCRIT (i) speed will (ii)
times MCRIT for the straight wing, but will, in practice gain a. Increase increase
(ii) that increase b. Increase decrease
a. Sin 30 half c. Decrease decrease
b. 1.154 half d. Decrease increase
c. Cos 30 twice
d. 1.414 twice 571. One function of the Mach trimmer is to:
a. Adjust for aileron reversal
564. Compared to a normal transonic aerofoil section a b. Maintain the required stick force gradient
supercritical section has: c. Adjust the stick force per g gradient
a. A flatter bottom surface d. Trim the aircraft nose down
b. A flatter top surface
c. A more cambered top surface 572. Mach number is:
d. A very sharp leading edge a. The ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at
sea level.
565. The two areas of speed instability in transonic aircraft are: b. The ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at
a. above VIMD M 0.75 to 0.81 the same atmospheric conditions.
b. below VIMD M 0.89 to 0.98 c. The ratio of the aircrafts LAS to the speed of sound at
c. above VIMD above M 0.4 the same atmospheric conditions.
d. below VIMD above M 1.0 d. The speed of sound.
566. Shockwaves at MFS above MDET will be: 573. The term transonic speed for an aircraft means:
a. Oblique a. Speeds where the airflow is completely subsonic.
b. Detached b. Speeds where the airflow is completely supersonic.
c. Normal c. Speeds where the airflow is partly subsonic and partly
d. Sufficient to slow the local airflow to subsonic values supersonic.
d. Speeds between M 0.4 and M 1.0
567. On a typical transonic aerofoil the transonic rearward shift of
the CP occurs at about:
a. M 0.89 to M0.98
b. M 0.75 to M0.89
c. M 0.81 to M1.4
d. M 0.75 to M0.98

573-3
ANSWERS: ATG REVISION QUESTIONS
1. B 51. B 101. A 151. C 201. C 251. A 301. A 351. A 401. C 451. B

2. C 52. C 102. A 152. A 202. A 252. B 302. B 352. B 402. C 452. A
3. C 53. B 103. A 153. C 203. C 253. A 303. B 353. C 403. C 453. C
4. A 54. A 104. C 154. A 204. A 254. B 304. A 354. B 404. A 454. A
5. A 55. C 105. A 155. B 205. B 255. A 305. C 355. A 405. B 455. B
6. C 56. B 106. B 156. B 206. A 256. C 306. A 356. B 406. B 456. C
7. C 57. B 107. C 157. C 207. B 257. A 307. A 357. C 407. C 457. B
8. C 58. A 108. A 158. B 208. C 258. A 308. C 358. B 408. B 458. B
9. A 59. C 109. A 159. A 209. C 259. C 309. A 359. C 409. B 459. A
10. B 60. C 110. A 160. B 210. C 260. C 310. C 360. B 410. A 460. A
11. C 61. A 111. B 161. B 211. B 261. A 311. A 361. C 411. C 461. C
12. A 62. B 112. C 162. A 212. B 262. C 312. C 362. A 412. C 462. A
13. C 63. A 113. B 163. C 213. B 263. C 313. C 363. C 413. A 463. C
14. C 64. A 114. B 164. C 214. B 264. B 314. C 364. B 414. B 464. C
15. A 65. A 115. A 165. B 215. A 265. A 315. A 365. B 415. A 465. A
16. B 66. B 116. B 166. B 216. C 266. A 316. A 366. A 416. A 466. B
17. B 67. C 117. C 167. C 217. C 267. B 317. C 367. B 417. B 467. C
18. C 68. C 118. C 168. C 218. C 268. B 318. C 368. C 418. A 468. B
19. A 69. C 119. C 169. C 219. C 269. B 319. A 369. A 419. B 469. C
20. C 70. C 120. C 170. A 220. A 270. A 320. B 370. A 420. A 470. B
21. B 71. B 121. C 171. B 221. B 271. C 321. B 371. C 421. C 471. B
22. C 72. A 122. C 172. B 222. A 272. A 322. A 372. B 422. B 472. C
23. B 73. A 123. C 173. C 223. B 273. B 323. A 373. C 423. C 473. C
24. B 74. B 124. B 174. B 224. B 274. B 324. A 374. C 424. A 474. C
25. A 75. A 125. A 175. C 225. C 275. C 325. C 375. A 425. A 475. A
26. C 76. A 126. B 176. A 226. B 276. C 326. A 376. B 426. C 476. B
27. C 77. B 127. C 177. A 227. B 277. C 327. C 377. B 427. A 477. C
28. A 78. B 128. C 178. B 228. C 278. C 328. B 378. C 428. C 478. B
29. C 79. B 129. A 179. C 229. A 279. A 329. B 379. A 429. C 479. A
30. B 80. A 130. C 180. C 230. C 280. C 330. C 380. C 430. B 480. C
31. C 81. B 131. A 181. B 231. B 281. C 331. A 381. A 431. B 481. C
32. B 82. B 132. B 182. B 232. A 282. A 332. B 382. A 432. C 482. C
33. C 83. A 133. A 183. C 233. C 283. A 333. A 383. B 433. C 483. B
34. A 84. A 134. A 184. C 234. A 284. C 334. B 384. A 434. A 484. B
35. B 85. C 135. B 185. A 235. B 285. A 335. A 385. C 435. A 485. A
36. C 86. C 136. C 186. A 236. A 286. C 336. B 386. B 436. A 486. A
37. C 87. A 137. B 187. C 237. A 287. A 337. B 387. B 437. C 487. B
38. A 88. B 138. C 188. A 238. B 288. C 338. B 388. C 438. A 488. A
39. B 89. C 139. C 189. C 239. A 289. A 339. B 389. A 439. C 489. C
40. A 90. C 140. B 190. C 240. C 290. A 340. A 390. B 440. C 490. B
41. B 91. B 141. C 191. B 241. C 291. B 341. C 391. C 441. C 491. A
42. B 92. A 142. A 192. C 242. C 292. C 342. B 392. B 442. B 492. A
43. A 93. A 143. C 193. A 243. B 293. B 343. C 393. A 443. B 493. C
44. A 94. B 144. C 194. A 244. C 294. A 344. C 394. A 444. C 494. C
45. A 95. B 145. B 195. A 245. C 295. C 345. B 395. C 445. A 495. A
46. A 96. A 146. C 196. B 246. C 296. B 346. C 396. B 446. B 496. C
47. B 97. B 147. C 197. C 247. A 297. B 347. C 397. C 447. A 497. B
48. B 98. B 148. C 198. C 248. A 298. B 348. B 398. B 448. C 498. B
49. C 99. B 149. C 199. A 249. B 299. A 349. A 399. A 449. B 499. A
50. B 100. B 150. A 200. A 250. C 300. B 350. B 400. C 450. A 500. C

573-3
501. A 521. C 541. B 561. B
502. A 522. A 542. C 562. A
503. A 523. C 543. D 563. B
504. A 524. A 544. C 564. B
505. B 525. B 545. B 565. B
506. A 526. C 546. D 566. A
507. B 527. A 547. C 567. A
508. C 528. B 548. A 568. D
509. A 529. A 549. A 569. A
510. A 530. B 550. B 570. D
511. A 531. B 551. C 571. B
512. A 532. C 552. B 572. B
513. C 533. B 553. B 573. C
514. C 534. C 554. A
515. B 535. A 555. D
516. B 536. B 556. B
517. C 537. A 557. C
518. C 538. B 558. B
519. A 539. A 559. C
520. C 540. C 560. B

573-3

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ATG REVISION QUESTIONS

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 1

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REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 6

152. The APU is normally: 166. AVGAS l00LL is coloured

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 7

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REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 18

486. The vectors shown below indicate:

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 19

488. Contra rotating propellers have the effect of:

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 20

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 21

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 22

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 23

1. B 51. B 101. A 151. C 201. C 251. A 301. A 351. A 401. C 451. B

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 2

REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG PAGE 2

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