(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The distribution of legislative powers
between the centre and states is rigid as article 246 provides three lists where as
there is no as such rigidity in the division of executive power between the centre and
states. For example, the President with the consent of the state government may
entrust any of the executive functions to that state. Similarly the Governor of a state
with the consent of the central government may entrust to that government any of the
executive functions of the state.
Statement 2 is correct: If the state fails to comply with the executive direction of the
centre then the
President rule can be imposed as per article 356. So the state legislative assembly
can be dissolved.
Statement 3 is not correct: It can be done even without the consent of the state. The
Parliament can make a law on the union list and can confer the executive powers on
the states.
3. Legislative Council
4. Rajya Sabha
6. Office of Speaker
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
Ans. c
(a) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: 73rd Amendment Act of 1992: This act has added a new Part-IX to the
Constitution of India. It is entitled as The Panchayats and consists of provisions from
Articles 243 to 243 O. In addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to
the Constitution. This schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It
deals with Article 243-G. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The act gives a constitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions. It has brought
them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution. In other words, the
state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj
system in accordance with the provisions of the act. Consequently, neither the
formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on
the will of the state government any more. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q.5. Who among the following can vote in the election of the
President?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. b
Explanation: The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of
Electoral College consisting of:
However nominated members of Parliament though do not take part in election but
take part in impeachment process of the President.
Also, elected members of Legislative assemblies though take part in election but do
not take part in impeachment proceedings
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Ans. d
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 370 mentions that Parliament can make
laws on those matters in the Union list and concurrent list that correspond with the
matters mentioned in the instruments of Accession. However, Parliament can make
laws on other matters of union list and concurrent list specified by the President only
with the concurrence of State government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 370 can be repealed by the President only on the
recommendation of the Constituent assembly of the State and NOT the State
Government.
(a) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution has constituted the Supreme Court as the
guarantor and defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens. The Supreme Court
is empowered to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-
warrento and certiorari for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved
citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an
aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of
appeal.
1. Written Constitution
2. Integrated Judiciary
3. Indestructible states of Union
Ans. d
1. Dual Polity: The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting the Union
at the Centre and the states at the periphery. Each is endowed with
sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively
by the Constitution.
Central and state governments and prescribes the limits within which they must
operate.
3. Division of Powers: The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre
and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in
the Seventh Schedule.
4. Supremacy of the Constitution: The Constitution is the supreme (or the
highest) law of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states
must confirm to its provisions. Thus, the organs of the
government (legislative, executive and judicial) at both the levels must operate within
the jurisdiction prescribed by the Constitution.
States in India are not indestructible. Unlike in other federations, the states
in India have no right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral
action change the area, boundaries or name of any state. Moreover, it
requires only a simple majority and not a special majority.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he
holds office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the
president can dismiss the Prime
Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the
Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. However, if he loses the
confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him.
Statement 2 is correct: Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of
ministers, the other ministers cannot function when the Prime Minister resigns or
dies. In other words, the resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister
automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. The
resignation or death of any other minister, on the other hand, merely creates a vacancy
which the Prime Minister may or may not like to fill.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Constitution has not specified any selection procedure for
Prime minster. It is based on Parliamentary Convention that leader of the majority
party is appointed as Prime minister
Q.10. Consider the following statements regarding board of co-
operative society:
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect: Elections for the board members are administered by the
body authorized by the state legislature.
Q.11 The provision of joint sitting is applicable for which of the
following bills?
1. Ordinary bills
2. Financial bills
(b) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanations: President summons the joint sitting to resolve the deadlock between
the two houses over the passage of a bill. Provision of joint sitting is applicable to
ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bill or Constitutional amendment
bills.
1. President
2. Council of Ministers
3. Members of Parliament
4. Civil Servants
5. Attorney General
Ans. d
Explanations:
Members of Parliaments are part of legislative. Only those MPs, which are
ministers form part of Executive.
Ans. C
Explanation: Statements 1, 2 and 3 are the unitary features of Indian constitution and
hence removing them would make Indian constitution more federal. Supremacy of the
constitution is a federal feature. The Constitution is the supreme (or the highest) law
of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must confirm to its
provisions. Thus, the organs of the government (legislative, executive and judicial) at
both the levels must operate within the jurisdiction prescribed by the Constitution.
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
Explanations: Statement 1 is correct. The President has veto power by which he can
withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills (other than Money Bill) passed by the
Parliament. The President can send the bill back to the Parliament asking it to
reconsider the bill. So, in case of ordinary bill, President has a discretionary power.
Statement 2 is correct. The President has discretion to appoint Prime Minister in such
cases. Other ministers are appointed on the advice of PM.
(a) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Ans. d
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans. a
Explanations:
Option 1 is correct. Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot
vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok
Sabha).
(a) He enjoys all immunities which are available to the President for
his official acts.
Ans. b
Explanation: When Vice -President is acting as President, he enjoys all the powers and
Privileges of the President. Option (a),(c),(d) are powers and privileges of the
President. While acting as President or discharging the functions of President, the
Vice-President does not perform the duties of the office of the chairman of Rajya
Sabha. During this period, those duties are performed by the Deputy Chairman of
Rajya Sabha.
Q.18 Under which of the following cases can the Governor use his
individual discretion in appointing Chief Minister?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Ans. c
Explanation:
1. Part III
2. Part IV
3. Part IV A
4. Fifth Schedule
(a) 3 only
Ans. c
Explanation:
(c) Parliament
Ans. b
Explanations: The Constitution of India vests the executive power of the Union
formally in the President. In reality, the President exercises these powers through the
Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanations:
(b) 2 only
(d) None
Ans. d
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: the choice of the state is not limited to the languages
enumerated in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
(a) 1 only
Ans. c
Explanation:
Statement 3 is not correct: Unlike in USA, Vice president does not take
charge for remaining tenure but only till the new president is elected.
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
Explanation:
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Lok Sabha has normal term of five years after which
it dissolves automatically.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Ans. d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the president, not Lok Sabha, who appoints a member of
parliament as acting speaker if the post of speaker/deputy speaker is vacant until the
next speaker/deputy speaker is elected by the house.
Statement 2 is incorrect as well. While Speaker can vote in the first instance when a
resolution for his removal is under consideration of the Lok Sabha, the Chairman can
only be present and speak in the house without voting.
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
(a) 1 only
Ans. d
Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no such provision in the constitution. There are only
two grounds for removal of HC/SC judges-proved misbehavior or incapacity.
Ans. a
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: If President rule is being invoked in the state then
the Parliament can make laws on matters mentioned in the state list and the state
legislative assembly is suspended.
Statement 2 is not correct: It is the state legislatures which make the request not the
Chief Ministers.
Statement 3 is not correct: It is not the Parliament rather the Upper House (Rajya
Sabha) which can pass a resolution with a special majority of not less than two thirds
of members present and voting, if it is necessary in national interest that parliament
should make laws on any matter mentioned in the State List.
Statement 4 is correct: The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List
for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions. This provision
enables the Central government to fulfill its international obligations and
commitments.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Ans. d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Doctrine of pleasure means all the persons who are
members of the All-India Services and Central Services hold office during the pleasure
of the President. Similarly the personnel of the state services hold office during the
pleasure of the governor. So this doctrine is also applicable to persons of the state
services also.
(a) 1 only
(d) None
Ans. d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and that
too on the recommendation of the president. Every such bill is considered to be a
government bill and can be introduced only by a minister.
Statement 2 is correct. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the the Money bill. It
should return the bill with or without recommendations within 14 days.
Statement 3 is correct as well. The president may either give his assent to the bill or
withhold his assent to the bill. It can be rejected or approved but cannot be returned
for reconsideration of the Parliament.
(b) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanation:
Statement 2 is Incorrect. Originally, the act provided that the decision of the presiding
officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, the Supreme Court
declared this provision as Unconstitutional. It held that the presiding officer, while
deciding a question under the 10th Schedule, function as a tribunal. Hence his/her
decision like that of any other tribunals, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of
mala-fides, perversity etc.
Statement 3 is Correct. The presiding officer functions as a tribunal while taking such
decisions.
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. According to Article 262, Parliament alone has the authority to
make laws on
Statement 2 is correct. Article 262 also allows the Parliament to restrict Supreme
Court and other courts from interfering in these disputes.
Statement 3 is correct. Under Inter-State Water Disputes Act 1956, Parliament can
establish an ad-hoc tribunal for a river water dispute. The decision of the tribunal is
binding and final on the parties. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other Court has
any jurisdiction in these matters.
1. The members are elected every year from both the houses
of the parliament.
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as the members are elected every year for a term of
1 year. The elections are done through proportional representation using a
single transferable vote.
Statement 2 is correct. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the
committee.
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own
constitution but a separate constituent assembly prepared it. The people of
the State elected a sovereign Constituent Assembly which met for the first
time on October 31, 1951.
Statement 2 is incorrect Article 370 deals with the special provision with
the state of Jammu and Kashmir but this status is temporary not
permanent.
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. c
Explanation:
Statement 2 is not correct: This is not the main objective as the constitution
provides clear cut distribution of legislative powers between the centre and
the states.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 248 says that the parliament has exclusive
power to make laws on matters not present in union list, State list and
Concurrent list.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants.
(a) All the adult members of the village coming under the
Panchayat area
(b) All the registered voters in the area of the Panchayat at the
village level.
(c) All graduates of three years standing and residing within the
area of Panchayat.
(d) All the elected members in the area of the Panchayat at the
village level.
Ans. b
(b) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
Explanation:
2. Their salaries and pensions are met by both the state and
the centre.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The officers of All-India Services are recruited by the central
government according to rules prescribed under All-India Services Act of 1951. The
constitution states that the parliament can make laws to regulate the recruitment and
conditions of service of the officers recruited under All-India Services. So All-India
Services Act was passed which assigned UPSC to conduct exams for the recruitment
in to the services.
Statement 2 is incorrect : The members of the All-India Services are recruited by the
Centre but their services are placed under various state cadres. But their salaries and
pensions are met by the States.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Addition of any new All-India Service does not require
amendment of the constitution. The Rajya can pass a resolution declaring it is
necessary to create a new All-India Service in the national interest then the parliament
can create a new All-India Service. On the same fashion India Forest Service was
established as the third All-India Service by the parliament.
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(b) it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and
1. National Emergency
2. Financial Emergency
3. Presidents Rule
(b) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. b
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect. Presidents Rule can be imposed but only on the failure of
constitution of the State, not Indian Constitution.
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are under the territorial
jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Bombay HC has jurisdiction over Daman and diu and
Dadra and Nagar
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c ) Both 1 and 2
Ans. d
Explanation:
Ans. b
Explanation:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Ans. c
(b) It has power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment for a
term up to six months or with fine up to `2,000 or with both. In 1991, the Supreme
Court has ruled that it has power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of
high courts, subordinate courts and tribunals functioning in the entire country.
Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The expenses like salaries, allowances and pensions of judges
and staff as well as all the administrative expenses of SC are charged on
Consolidated fund of India (Consolidated fund of States with respect to HC).
Ans. a
Explanation:
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct. If a member goes out of his party as a result of merger of the
party with another party, he/she is exempted. A merger takes place when 2/3rd of the
members of the party have agreed to such merger.
Statement 2 is Correct. If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the
house, voluntarily gives up the membership of his/her party or rejoins it after he/she
ceases to hold that office.
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Ans. d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Tribunals are not part of the integrated judicial system of
India. Integrated judicial system provides for Supreme court at the top and the State
High Courts below it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The service matters related to the employees of the PSU can
be brought under Central Administrative Tribunals or State Administartive Tribunals by
a notification.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 was passed by the
parliament and it led to the establishment of the Armed Forces Tribunal in India.
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Tribunals are not part of the integrated judicial system of
India. Integrated judicial system provides for Supreme court at the top and the State
High Courts below it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The service matters related to the employees of the PSU can
be brought under Central Administrative Tribunals or State Administrative Tribunals by
a notification.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 was passed by the
parliament and it led to the establishment of the Armed Forces Tribunal in India.