Grile

1) A dry powder extinguisher is coloured
green.
red.
blue.
2) Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound with
tin and silver.
tin and copper.
copper and silver.
3) When mixing acid and water
the acid should always be added to the water.
it does not matter which way the two are mixed.
the water should always be added to the acid.
4) You are involved with a fire caused by titanium swarf. What
type of extinguishant should you use
to deal with the fire?
Dry asbestos wool and chalk powder.
CO2
Chemical foam.
5) An aircraft should not be refueled when
the APU is running.
navigation and landing light in operation.
within 10 metres (30 feet) of radar operating.
6) A CO2 extinguisher is used on
solid, liquid, hot metal and electrical fires.
solid, liquid and electrical fires.
solid and liquid fires.
7) In an oxygen system, if the pressure drops to 500 PSI, it
causes anoxia.
begins to overheat.
blocks the oxygen system regulator.
8) After working with epoxy resins, how is natural oil returned to
the skin?
Epoxy removing cream.
Refatting cream.
Acetone/lanolin mixture.
9) Neither oil nor grease should be used as a lubricant on
couplings or pipelines carrying
Oxygen.
Kerosene.
Nitrogen.
10) Which type of extinguisher can be used for an electric fire?
Foam
Water
CO2
11) The colour of CO2 type fire extinguisher is
red.
black.
Green.
12) Which type of extinguisher can be used for engine fire?
CO2
BCF
Water
13) Fire on landing gear brake should be extinguished with
dry powder extinguisher.
carbon dioxide extinguisher.
water extinguisher.
14) Which type of fire extinguishers can be used in the cabin?
C.T.C.
water or B.C.F.
M.B.
15) Risk assessments should only be carried out on
all tasks and processes that are performed.
tasks using hazardous chemicals.
tasks carried out above the height of 6 foot.
16) The most appropriate fire extinguisher for an aircraft wheel
and brake fire would be
carbon dioxide.
dry powder.
water.
17) Once a person has been disconnected from the source of an
electrical shock the next step should
be
seek assistance immediately.
check for breathing start AR if necessary.
check for pulse start cardiac massage if necessary.
18) What can cause dermatitis?
Washing hands in solvents.
Not wearing eye protection when using solvents.
Inhalation of paint fumes.
19) If an oxygen cylinder pressure falls below 500 PSI
the diluter stick will stick.
the oxygen will degrade and cause anoxia.
condensation will cause corrosion.
20) On a hollow tube where would a small indentation normally
be unacceptable?
Nowhere on the tube is an indentation acceptable.
In the mid 1/3 section.
In either of the outer 1/3 portion of the tube.
21) What type of grinding wheel would you sharpen an HSS drill
bit on?
A green wheel.
A course wheel.
A fine wheel.
22) When using a reamer -
use no lubricant.
use the same lubricant as was used on the drill bit.
use lard oil.
23) How many teeth per inch are used on a hacksaw blade for
cutting hard metal?
26
36
54
24) How many strokes per minute are used on a hacksaw when
cutting thick metal?
30
55
65
25) When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, the
component can be protected from
damage by the sling by
fabricating alternative lifting points.
using a suitably shaped sling.
using spreader bars and packing.
26) Gas bottles for CO2 air and acetylene are coloured
grey, maroon, green.
black, grey, maroon.
green, grey, maroon.
27) To drill a 1/4 inch hole in titanium, the correct starting
procedure would be
to centre drill.
to centre punch.
to drill 1/4 inch hole direct.
28) In a torque wrench of handle length, L = 12 in. and an
extension E = 3 in, the desired torque
value is 300 lbs.in. the dial should read
240 lb.ins.
280 lb.ins.
375 lb.ins.
29) When a torque loading is specified for a castellated or
slotted nut on an undrilled new bolt -
the bolt should be pre-drilled, the torque applied and the nut eased back,
if necessary, to allow the split pin
to be fitted.
the bolt should be pre-drilled and the torque increased if necessary to
allow the split pin to be fitted.
the torque should be applied and the bolt suitably drilled for the split pin.
30) A reamer with spiral flutes is removed
clockwise.
anticlockwise.
straight.
31) The difference between high and low limits of a size for a
dimension is known as the
deviation.
tolerance.
Fit.
32) Rubber components should be stored

in warm and humid conditions.
in a well lit room.
in a cool dark area.
33) When comparing the machining techniques for stainless
steel sheet material to those for
aluminium alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to
drill the stainless steel at a
higher speed with less pressure applied to the drill.
lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill.
lower speed with less pressure applied to the drill.
34) When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an
included angle of
90 and turn at a low speed.
140 and turn at a low speed.
118 and turn at a high speed.
35) When stop drilling a crack, what is the typical drill size used?
0.025 inch
0.125 inch
0.250 inch
36) When degreasing aluminium alloys, and no trichloroethylene
is available, a suitable alternative is
dilute sulphuric acid.
M.E.K.
white spirit and naphtha.
37) A grinding wheel is normally refaced by
dressing with a special tool.
grinding through using another grinding wheel.
holding a hard wood scraper against the rotating wheel.
38) When checking a torque wrench 15 inches long, the load
required to give torque of 120 lbs.in. is
6 lbs.
8 lbs.
10 lbs.
39) What is the specified lubricant for drilling brass?
None
Paraffin
Lard oil
40) Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a
drilled hole to the correct size?
Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction.
Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging the hole and in
the opposite direction to remove
from the hole.
Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when starting the cut and
reduce the pressure when finishing the
cut.
41) Of what tolerance is the following an example? 1 in. + 0.002-

0.001.
Bilateral
Multilateral
Unilateral
42) How should a scraper be finally sharpened?
By draw filing.
On a grindstone.
On an oil-stone.
43) How is a D.T.I. initially set up?
The gauge plunger should be fully extended and the needle zeroed.
The gauge plunger should be partly depressed and the needle zeroed.
The needle zeroed, then the plunger fully extended.
44) Nickel alloy chisels should be sharpened
by filing.
on a grindstone.
on an oilstone.
45) What type of lubricant should be used when drilling
aluminium?
Vegetable oil
Paraffin
None
46) How are spring dividers sharpened?
By filing the outside of the points.
By stoning the outside of the points.
By grinding the inside of the points.
47) What would be the result of an insufficient clearance angle
on a twist drill?
It would cut slowly, if at all.
It would produce an oversize hole.
It would tend to pull through the hole.
48) A tolerance given on a dimension is indicated
by a plus and minus sign preceding the permitted tolerance.
by the prefix TOL with the permitted tolerance.
by enclosing the permitted tolerance within a triangle.
49) How much material should be allowed for reaming?
0.001 in
0.003 in
0.010 in
50) After cutting a 3/8 inch BSF internal thread and stud, it is
found that the stud is too large. How is
a fit achieved?
Remove the male thread crests with a fine emery cloth.
Grind a taper on the end of the bolt.
Re-adjust the die and re-cut the male thread.
51) You have reamed out a hole in a piece of titanium. How
should you remove the reamer safely to
prevent unnecessary damage?
Allow the reamer to pass right through the hole.
Remove it, but in the same rotation as if cutting.
Anti-clockwise.
52) Why are some components torque loaded?
To ensure that their elastic limit is not exceeded.
To ensure they do not vibrate loose.
To ensure that they are tightened to their yield point.
53) When using a reamer, in which direction should it be turned?
Clockwise when cutting and anti-clockwise when removing.
Anti-clockwise when cutting and removing.
Clockwise when cutting and removing.
54) Draw filing produces
a course finish.
a fine finish.
a mottled finish.
55) A safe edge of a file is used
against a finished surface.
to give a fine polished finish to a smooth surface.
against a rough unfinished surface.
56) What is the minimum number of hacksaw blade teeth that
should be in contact with the material
being cut?
234
57) When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387
inches + 0.005-0.002. Which statement is
true?
The maximum acceptable size is 4.385 inches.
The minimum acceptable size is 4.385 inches.
The maximum acceptable size is 4.389 inches.
58) Chalk when used with a fine file produces
a finer finish.
a milled type surface.
a ground type surface.
59) When using a hand file correctly, the downward pressure
should be used only
on a return stroke.
on the forward stroke.
on the forward and return stroke.
60) The size of the nibs of vernier calipers can be ascertained by
using the standard of 0.693 inches.
measuring the steel rule.
noting the dimension engraved on the instrument.
61) 2 microns is
0.002 mm.
0.002 inch.
0.000 002 inch.
62) The edge or surface of a part from which dimensions are
measured from is called the
water line.
reference plane.
Datum.
63) Water Lines are

front to rear measurements on the fuselage.
vertical measurements on the fuselage.
left and right measurements on the fuselage.
64) When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables
distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not
affected.
the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart.
avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant.
65) If a test or inspection instrument has no calibration data
supplied by the manufacturer, you
would use the calibration data provided by
the British Standards Quality Assurance documentation referring to
calibration of instrumentation and test
equipment.
CAAIP S.
the Maintenance Manual.
66) Why are test or inspection instruments regularly calibrated
and certified?
To ensure they will perform within the required limits of operation.
To ensure they can handle the range of measurements required of them.
To ensure they are being used regularly.
67) Who is responsible for ensuring that weight and balance
instrumentation is serviceable before
use?
An engineer holding a license in the instrument category.
The manufacturer of the equipment.
The person responsible for carrying out the weight and balance
procedure.
68) At which frequency is the calibration of frequently used
crimping tools carried out?
Bi-annually
Annually
Every 1000 crimps
69) When using the trepanning tool, the hole to be drilled should
be
1/32 inch larger than the guide pin.
same diameter as the guide pin.
1/32 inch smaller than the guide pin.
70) When using a strip-board, the tracks on a PCB are etched
before component fitment.
after fitment but before soldering the components.
after fitment and soldering of components.
71) The intervals for calibration of test equipment
are every year.
are different from one appliance to another.
are as specified in EASA Part-145.
72) What drill angle is used to drill titanium?
90-100 degrees
105-120 degrees
130-140 degrees
73) When tightening a nut on a bolt the torque loading applied is

inversely proportional to the force applied to the spanner.
the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular distance
from the point of application to the
centre of the bolt.
independent of whether the threads are wet or dry.
74) The UK standard of limits and fits is
BS4500.
BS8888.
BS308.
75) When using a Pacific tensiometer the correct tension is
found by
reading dial, provided the correct riser is used for the cable diameter.
comparing reading to chart provided.
adding reading to riser number.
76) What temperature should the heat gun be set for shrinking
heat shrink sleeve?
At the rated temperature.
100C below rated temperature.
100C above rated temperature.
77) Calibration of aircraft hydrostatic weighing equipment is
done once a year.
carried out every time before an aircraft is weighed and adjusted by
operator.
not required.
78) When drilling light alloy
lard oil should be used.
use the specified lubricant.
no lubricant is required.
79) The picture shows a torque wrench with an extension. To
apply a torque of 350 lb.in. the
reading on the dial should be
245 lb.in.
280 lb.in.
350 lb.in.
80) Reaming light alloy tube is done with
no lubricant.
the same oil and lubrication as used for cutting.
hard base lubricant.
81) Tolerance is the
the difference between a hole and shaft size.
allowable error due to faulty workmanship and tools.
difference between worn and new tools.
82) What should be done if a tool is found not to be working to
its calibrated requirements?
It should be removed from service, marked as unserviceable and sent
away for overhaul.
It should be placed back into stores and kept in service until the next
calibration is due.
A mechanic should adjust it to restore it to the correct operation.
83) When carrying out soldering to an end termination and a

wire, you should tin
only the end of the wire.
neither the wire or the termination as tinning is not required.
both the end of the wire and the termination.
84) Run-out of a rod is measured using
DTI, surface plate and V-blocks.
micrometer and V-blocks.
vernier and V-blocks.
85) How would you mark a defect on an exhaust system?
Pencil
Chalk
Special zinc/copper tipped marking tool.
86) Which of the following is the most appropriate filing
technique?
Pressure backwards, relieve pressure forwards.
Even pressure forward and backwards.
Pressure forwards, relieve pressure backwards.
87) Stubborn pins in file teeth should be removed by
tapping file gently on workbench.
using file card.
pricking out with sharp point.
88) When using low tungsten hacksaw blades it is recommended
to use
40 strokes per minute.
89) Units of torque are
lbs/ft^2 and lbs/in^2.
lbs and kg.
lbs.ft and lbs.in.
90) The calibration of a piece of test equipment is suspect. Your
actions would be
calibrate/rectify immediately.
note and rectify later.
remove from service and annotate accordingly.
91) When turning the handle on a megger with the probes kept
apart
the needle stays at infinity.
the needle deflects to infinity.
the needle moves to zero.
92) How many strokes per minute should generally be used with
a hacksaw?
30
55
60
93) What type of drill would you use on carbon fibre?
Diamond tipped
Carborundum
Tungsten carbide
94) A micro-shaver is used to
cut rivets to length prior to forming.
mill the rivet head after forming.
trim the shank diameter prior to forming.
95) How many teeth per inch are there on a fine hacksaw blade?
16
32
64
96) What is the normal cutting angle of a drill?
12
59
130
97) When using a moving coil as an ammeter the greatest
amount of current flows through the
bushes.
coil.
shunt.
98) When using the old style vernier caliper for taking internal
measurements
add the nib measurements.
subtract the nib measurements.
the nib size has no relevance and can be ignored.
99) To carry out an insulation test on a wire rated at 115 volts
you would use
a 250 volt megger.
a 115 volt megger.
a 500 volt megger.
100) The normal drill angles are
cutting angle 59, web angle 130 and clearance angle 12.
101) A rivet shaver is used to
mill the head flush.
mill the tail after cutting.
mill the tail after setting.
102) A drill and wire gauge has holes numbered
10 to 60.
1 to 80.
1 to 50.
103) A 250 volt megger should not be used
on electronic equipment.
in fuel tanks.
on radio aerials.
104) If the leads of a megger are held apart
the spring will return the needle to infinity.
the spring will return the needle to the zero stop.
if the handle was turned the meter would read infinity.
105) One megohm is equal to
1,000 ohms.
100,000 ohms.
1,000,000 ohms.
106) Reamers are used to

drill accurate holes.
to make holes oversize.
enlarge holes to accurate dimensions.
107) The pitch of a hacksaw blade is
its length.
the number of teeth on the blade.
the number of teeth per inch.
108) The web angle of a normal twist drill is
12.
59.
130.
109) The leads of a bonding tester
are interchangeable, one 60 foot long having two prongs and a 6 foot one
with a single prong.
have critical lengths and the resistance of the leads is accounted for.
are supplied in 60 foot and 6 foot lengths but can be varied due to wear.
110) Expanding reamers are used to
ream holes of different diameters by adjusting the position of the blades.
ream tapered holes.
ream holes in metal that has been heated.
111) The main scale on a 24/25 vernier caliper is divided into
inches, tenths and twentieths.
inches, tenths and fortieths.
inches, tenths and thousandths.
112) The vernier height gauge uses the same principle as the
vernier caliper.
bevel protractor.
micrometer.
113) One revolution of the thimble of the English micrometer
produces a linear movement of the
spindle of
0.001 inch.
0.025 inch.
0.040 inch.
114) The pitch of a metric micrometer screw thread is
0.02 mm.
0.5 mm.
1.0 mm.
115) When torque loading, a wrench should be selected where
the required value falls
at the top end of the range.
in the middle of the range.
at the bottom end of the range.
116) The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity
test on an electrical cable is
a high tension circuit tester.
an ammeter.
a low reading ohmmeter.
117) If all three prongs on a bonding tester were shorted
together, the metre would read
FSD.
zero.
off-scale high.
118) The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer is
0.0001 inches.
0.025 inches.
0.050 inches.
119) The vernier scale on an English caliper is divided into
25 equal divisions.
40 equal divisions.
50 equal divisions.
120) The thimble of a metric micrometer is divided into
25 equal divisions.
40 equal divisions.
50 equal divisions.
121) The measuring capacity of a Vernier Caliper is
the length of the graduated scale less the length of the vernier scale.
the length of the graduated scale.
the length of the graduated scale plus the width of the nibs.
122) Vee-blocks are manufactured
as single items and may be paired with any other vee-block.
in sets of two and identified for use as a set.
in sets of three and identified for use as a set.
123) A ketts saw is used because
it can cut thicker metal than is required by most repair schemes.it can
cut thicker metal than is required by
most repair schemes.
it is available both pneumatic and electric.
its low torque allows single handed use.
124) The gears used in a pistol windy are
gears in a gearbox.
gyrator type gears.
spur gears.
125) Cross cut files
cut on the backward stroke only.
cut in both directions.
cut on the forward stroke only.
126) The correct size spanner for use on a unified 5/16 in.
threaded hexagon headed bolt is
5/16 in A/F.
1/2 in A/F.
1/4 in A/F.
127) The length of the Vernier Scale in a 24/25 Vernier Caliper is
0.6 in.
1.2 in.
2.45 in.
128) What is used to measure the depth of a blend after a
corrosion repair?
Dial Test Indicator.
Straight edge and slip gauges.
Vernier caliper.
129) Vacu-blast beads re-used on a steel component, after being
used on an aluminium component
will
cause clogging of the vacu-blast machine.
be ineffective in abrasion.
cause corrosion to the steel component.
130) The main scale on a 49/50 Vernier caliper is divided into
inches, tenths and thousandths.
inches, tenths and twentieths.
inches, tenths and fortieths.
131) Centre punches are made of
high carbon steel with the tip hardened and tempered.
case hardened mild steel.
high carbon steel hardened and tempered.
132) What type of flutes should be used in a reamer for cutting
titanium?
Spiral flutes.
Straight flutes.
Tapered flutes.
133) What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft
metals?
65 degrees.
90 degrees.
118 degrees.
134) What should the point angle of a drill be if it is to be used
for drilling titanium (drill size below
1/4 inch diameter)?
90
90 to 105
105 to 120
135) How are pin punches classified?
By length and diameter of the small end.
By overall length and type.
By type and diameter of the small end.
136) The purpose of a taper tap is to
produce a fine thread.
start a thread.
form a tapered thread.
137) Why is the Vee cut in the base of a scribing block?
To reduce the contact area with the marking off table and reduce friction.
To allow the scribing block to be used on the edge of the marking off
table.
To trap any dirt that may be adhering to the surface of the marking off
table.
138) An inside micrometers normal measurement range is
1/2in. to 10in.
2in. to 10in.
2in. to 12in.
139) What is the purpose of Target Points on a Vernier caliper?
To enable spring dividers to be accurately set.
To zero the caliper.
For scribing lines inside tubes.
140) Die Nuts are used to
form internal threads.
form external threads.
clean up damaged threads.
141) A Dial Test Indicator may be used for
checking a round bar for bow.
checking dimensions to within 0.125'.
checking any known depth.
142) Which cut of a file should be used on mild steel?
Single cut.
Double cut.
Second cut.
143) Which of the following statements is correct?
To cut thin mild steel plate use a coarse blade.
To cut an aluminium block use a fine hacksaw blade.
To cut thin sheet metal use a fine blade.
144) A power meter indicates that a circuit has a power of 4 kW.
Separate readings of the voltage
and current are 400 V and 20 A respectively. The Power factor is
1/2.
2.
20.
145) What is a key-seat rule used for?
Marking lines which are parallel to a true edge.
Marking lines parallel to an axis of a round bar.
Providing a positive driving force.
146) When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed
in series with the circuit.
in series with the shunt.
in parallel with the circuit.
147) A 3 1/2 bit multimeter will indicate readings up-to
999 1/2.
1999.
9999.
148) If an English micrometer is showing 4 main divisions, 3 sub-
divisions and the 25th thimble
division was in line, what would the reading be?
0.175 in.
0.475 in.
0.555 in.
149) An open circuit on an ohmmeter would be indicated by a
reading of
infinite resistance.
zero resistance.
a negative resistance.
150) The leads of an ohmmeter should be replaced if their
resistance is greater than
0.05 ohms.
0.5 ohms.
1 ohm.
151) Torque loading is determined by multiplying the tangent
force applied at the free end of the
spanner
by the dia. of the bolt and the distance of its point of application.
by the distance moved by the point of application.
by its distance of application from the axis of the bolt.
152) Which electrical measuring device needs a power source?
A voltmeter.
An ohmmeter.
An ammeter.
153) When measuring voltage or current with a digital
multimeter, the indication is
average values.
peak values.
RMS values.
154) On a multimeter, what colour lead is connected to the
Common socket?
Green
Red
Black
155) Three point micrometers are for measuring
internal dimensions.
external dimensions.
linear dimensions.
156) When is a coarse hacksaw blade used?
When cutting material of thick cross section.
When cutting ferrous metals only.
When cutting material of thin cross section.
157) A voltage drop across a component is measured by placing
the meter in
parallel with the component.
series with the component.
series with the power source.
158) Which of the following reamers would you use in a hole
having a keyway?
Expanding reamer.
Spiral fluted reamer.
Parallel reamer.
159) What is the purpose of a Morse taper on large sizes of twist
drills?
To allow the drills to be fitted to a drilling machine.
To ensure that the drill is fitted correctly.
To give a positive drive when fitted into a tapered chuck.
160) What should be the included angle of a twist drill for hard
metal?
90 degrees
100 degrees
118 degrees
161) The threads per inch on the spindle of an English

micrometer are
25 t.p.i.
40 t.p.i.
50 t.p.i.
162) The spring loaded ratchet attached to the spindle of a
standard external micrometer produces
a pre-set feel during use.
a means for controlling thread binding.
a smooth free run during use.
163) The purpose of the land on a twist drill is to
allow clearance for swarf.
reduce friction.
present the cutting edge at the required angle.
164) The name given to the moving scale on the Vernier caliper
is
the main scale.
the vernier scale.
the cursor.
165) What does the cut of a file refer to?
Arrangement of the teeth.
Number of teeth per inch.
Grade
166) Why are teeth of hacksaw blades off-set?
To allow a quick cutting positive action.
To provide greater strength.
To provide clearance for non-cutting part of the blade.
167) How are files classified?
By length, grade and material.
By length, grade, cut and section.
By length, grade, cut, section and material.
168) Hammers are classified by
shape of head and length of shaft.
weight and length of shaft.
weight and type of head.
169) What comprises a full set of BA taps?
A taper, second and plug tap.
A taper and second tap.
A taper and plug tap.
170) The teeth on a hacksaw blade
does not matter which way they point.
should point away from the handle.
should point towards the handle.
171) What is the clearance angle on a normal twist drill?
12 degrees
59 degrees
130 degrees
172) When tapping blind holes

a set of three taps is used.
a set of two taps is used.
a single tap is used.
173) On a torque wrench the torque loading is
the tangential application of the force divided by the perpendicular
distance to the centre of the bolt.
the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular distance
to the centre of the bolt.
the tangential application of the force plus the perpendicular distance to
the centre of the bolt.
174) Surface Plates are used
for marking out work and testing flat surfaces.
for filing flat surfaces.
only on surface tables.
175) The main scale of a Metric Vernier Caliper is calibrated in
millimetres.
micro-meters.
millimetres and half millimetres.
176) For a drill to cut properly it is essential that the point angle
be the same on each side, for general
use the angle is
12.
59.
130.
177) The pitch of a hacksaw blade is
the number of teeth per inch.
its length.
the number of teeth on the blade.
178) When using a bench grinding machine the wheel rotates
from the top down towards the work piece.
either direction as selected on starting the machine.
from the bottom upwards past the work piece.
179) The thimble of an English micrometer is divided into
25 equal divisions.
40 equal divisions.
50 equal divisions.
180) The vernier height gauge uses the same principle as
the vernier caliper.
the micrometer.
the bevel protractor.
181) An avometer can measure alternating current because it
has a
moving coil.
bridge rectifier circuit.
moving iron.
182) Taper reamers are classified by

a type number (1 to 10).
the diameter of the small end.
the diameter of the large end.
183) A crimped electrical connection is suspected to be high
resistance. How would you verify this
without disconnecting the circuit?
Measure the millivolt drop across the connection with a millivolt meter.
Measure the resistance with an ohmmeter.
Measure the resistance with a 250 volt megger.
184) How would you measure continuity of a coaxial cable?
With a safety ohmmeter.
With a reflectometer.
With a 250 volt megger.
185) On a long coaxial cable how would you check for
discontinuities and shorts in suit?
Continuity tester.
Safety ohmmeter.
Time Domain Reflectometer.
186) If the leads of a bonding tester are damaged, what is the
procedure?
The damaged leads and the tester should be returned to the
manufacturer for repair and calibration.
Provided that the damage is situated close to the end of the leads the
cable may be shortened.
A new lead may be manufactured using the correct current rated cable.
187) When carrying out a continuity test on a circuit when a
known resistance exists, what
instrument would you use?
A lamp and battery.
A high resistance insulation tester.
A multimeter.
188) Taper pins are classified by
length and diameter of large end.
length and diameter of small end.
length and taper.
189) Live AC circuits are to be checked for open circuits by the
use of
multimeter set to AC volts.
ammeter set to amps.
ohmmeter set to megohms.
190) A multiplier resistance is used to extend the working range
of the
ammeter.
voltmeter.
ohmmeter.
191) On twist drill chart, small drills have
smallest numbers.
largest numbers.
their sizes in fractions, in inches.
192) The Sine Bar is used to
check accuracy of slip gauges.
produce angles using slip gauges.
by itself to calculate angles.
193) On a vernier micrometer, what will three turns of the barrel
represent?
0.050 inch
0.075 inch
0.100 inch
194) How does a windy drill get its power?
Spur gears
Impeller
Bevel gears
195) How are taper reamers classified?
Length, diameter of large end, and diameter of small end.
Taper and diameter of small end.
Length and diameter of large end.
196) An AC voltmeter reads
peak value.
peak to peak value.
average value.
197) A hydrometer is used to
check battery electrolyte specific gravity.
check battery electrolyte density.
take humidity reading.
198) A pyrometer is a
thermometer for use at high temperature.
pyramid shaped altimeter.
foam/granule fire extinguisher.
199) A hygrometer is used to
check battery electrolyte relative density.
take humidity reading.
check battery electrolyte specific gravity.
200) To measure AC with a moving coil, it
can be directly connected.
is rectified and measures peak value.
is rectified and measures average value.
201) What is a countersink tool used for?
To prevent damage to pipework in a blind hole.
To adjust the depth of a countersink.
To adjust the angle of a countersink.
202) PIDG crimp tools are marked by
wire crimp size on tool only.
coloured handles and wire crimp size on tool.
coloured handles only.
203) When measuring a square waveform with a multimeter,
what voltage does it display?
Less than RMS value.
More than RMS value.
Equal to RMS value.
204) If an ammeter reads 0 - 1mA FSD, what would you be
required to do to enable it to read 10mA
FSD?
Place a 5.8 ohm resistor as a shunt in parallel with the meter.
Place a 9.9 ohm resistor across the coils.
Place a 9 ohm resistor in series with the meter.
205) The internal resistance of a voltmeter is
no more than 0.05 ohms.
low.
high.
206) The internal resistance of an ammeter is
low.
1 ohm.
high.
207) A drill bit of 0.250 inch would be
7/32 and letter G.
8/32 and letter E.
6/32 and letter F.
208) Needle grease points are used on
items with gland seals.
small pivoted joints.
large pivoted joints.
209) A flat chisel being used for aluminium should have a point
angle of
30 degrees.
55 degrees.
65 degrees.
210) A mill file can be used for
corners less than 60 degrees.
saw sharpening.
general purpose.
211) A rawhide mallet is
available with copper inserts.
less expensive than bossing mallet.
used for giving softer blows than boxwood mallet.
212) Tension files
can be used to cut in one direction only.
clog easily.
can cut in either direction.
213) The scale on an ohmmeter is
cramped at high resistance.
linear.
cramped at low resistance.
214) Three revolutions of a 40 T.P.l. micrometer will show

0.003 inch.
0.03 inch.
0.075 inch.
215) To carry out a continuity test you would use
ammeter.
an HT circuit tester.
a low reading ohmmeter.
216) What is the resolution of a standard DTI?
0.010 mm.
0.020 mm.
0.050 mm.
217) In a moving coil meter the deflecting force is provided by
a soft iron permanent magnet.
a current carrying coil pivoted in a permanent magnet field.
hairsprings which move the pointer towards full scale.
218) The force acting on a meter which returns the pointer to
zero is called the
turning force.
deflecting force.
controlling force.
219) The forces acting on a meter which moves the pointer over
the scale is called
the controlling force.
the turning force.
the deflecting force.
220) The resistance of an ammeter must be
high to create a large volts drop across it.
low to prevent volts drop across it.
low because the ammeter is in parallel with the circuit.
221) The resistance of a voltmeter must be
high so that little current passes through it.
low to prevent overloading the circuit.
low to provide a parallel path for the circuit current.
222) When operating a grease gun, you
verify grease fitting can accept grease by hand feel.
apply a pressure of 50 - 80 psi.
clean grease fitting with clean dry cloth beforehand.
223) A fuel quantity test set has an externally adjustable
capacitor.
inductor.
resistor.
224) How would you test a mach switch in-situ?
Use built in test equipment.
Use an external test kit.
It is not possible to test a mach switch in situ.
225) The maximum value of bonding of a secondary structure is
1 ohm.
1 kilohm.
1 megohm.
226) Circuit tests on aircraft should be carried out in the
following order:
bonding, continuity, insulation, functional.
continuity, bonding, functional, insulation.
functional, bonding, continuity, insulation.
227) Before using a dead weight tester you would
calibrate the tester using a standard weight.
pressurize the tester to the required pressure.
replace the oil.
228) How should a dead weight tester be used?
The pressure increasing handle should be screwed in before the addition
of fluid and screwed out when
fluid is added.
The outlet should not be connected to the instrument until the required
weights are raised by the platform.
The platform should be removed and fluid poured into the hole.
229) When testing thermocouples using a test set the ambient
temperature
never needs to be considered.
is considered every time.
is only considered when temperatures of 20C or above.
230) Electronic test equipment for fuel tank contents systems
usually incorporate variable
resistors.
inductors.
capacitors.
231) Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot lead has the two
prongs shorted together with a piece
of metal. What would the indicator read?
Full scale left.
Full scale right.
Zero at the centre.
232) When using a megger to test insulation resistance,
capacitive filters should be disconnected for
what reason?
Remove the risk of damage to the megger.
Remove the spurious readings caused by the capacitors charging and
discharging.
Prevent damage to the filters.
233) When carrying out a serviceability check on a bonding
tester - short together the three prongs
of both probes and ensure which of the following?
The meter reads 0.1 ohm.
A zero reading.
A full scale reading is obtained.
234) If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads
are suspended in free air, what will the meter read?
Zero.
Mid scale - it is a ratiometer movement and there is no current flowing in
the external circuit.
Infinity.
235) When using a digital meter to test a diode, a correct
operation of the diode is indicated by a volt
drop of
0.3V to 0.7V.
1.5V to 2V.
2.5V to 2.8V.
236) To check that the ident pulse is being generated from an
ATC transponder,
select an ATC channel and check the morse code.
select ident and check the indication on the instrument panel.
press the ident and monitor the indication on the ramp test set.
237) A pressure gauge is fitted to a Dead Weight Tester. The
piston area is 0.25 sq.in. and the total
mass of the mass carrier and masses is 5lb. If the pressure
gauge is accurate what pressure in pounds
per square inch (PSI) will it read?
1.25 psi.
20 psi.
200 psi.
238) When testing a fuel metering unit, how is it checked?
With the meter in series with the unit.
With the unit disconnected.
With the meter in parallel with the unit.
239) When using a bonding tester
ensure prongs penetrate anodised layer.
ensure prongs do not penetrate anodising layer.
an anodised component cannot be tested.
240) On a static leak tester, pressure is released by
an internal balance valve in the tester.
slowly opening the release knob for 3 minutes.
a bleed valve in the tester.
241) A fuel calibration test set when used to check an aircraft
with half a fuel load is connected
to gauge with fuel level in parallel.
to gauge with fuel level capacitance.
to gauge with fuel level in series.
242) A capacitive fuel contents system should be tested with
a ratiometer.
a Wheatstone bridge.
a decade box.
243) Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is tested with a
light source and optometer.
multimeter.
calibrated light generator and opto-power meter.
244) When using transistorized test equipment, what should the
output be?
Not affected by impedance.
High impedance.
Low impedance.
245) Bonding lead testers are attached with

a 60 feet lead is connected to the main earth and a 6 foot test lead is
connected to check the resistance
between selected points.
a 6 feet test lead is connected to the main earth and a 60 feet lead is
connected to check the resistance
between selected points.
either of the leads can be connected anywhere.
246) On a Bonding Tester the number of probes on the 60 ft and
6ft leads respectively are
1 and 2.
2 and 2.
2 and 1.
247) The damping force in a meter
prevents oscillation of the pointer.
returns a pointer to zero.
assists the pointer to move over the scale.
248) The width of a visible outline on a drawing is
0.3 mm.
0.5 mm.
0.7 mm.
249) What does GA stand for on a drawing?
General assembly.
General arrangement.
Gradient Axis.
250) Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by
organizations approved by
SBAC.
British Standards Institute.
CAA in accordance with the BCARs.
251) This symbol found on an engineering drawing would mean
cylindricity.
angularity.
concentricity.
252) Which pictorial projection shows one face in true elevation
and line of depth normally draw at
30 or 45 to the horizontal?
Oblique.
Perspective.
Isometric.
253) If a design amendment is made on a drawing
a new issue number and date must be allocated to the drawing.
the old issue number is retained, with the amendment date added.
no change in issue number or date is necessary.
254) The British Standard for Engineering Drawings is
BS 306.
BS 307.
BS 308.
255) P.C.D. is an abbreviation for
Pitch Circle Diameter.
Pitch Cord Diameter.
Precision Circle Dimension.
256) This represents
bearing on shaft.
squared shaft.
relief valve.
257) This represents
an internal thread.
a counterbored hole.
an external thread.
258) Drawing numbers are
the same as serial numbers.
changed after each drawing amended after May 28, 1999.
unique to each drawing.
259) Hatching lines are usually drawn at:
30.
45.
60.
260) The scale of an engineering drawing is shown as 1 : 4. This
indicates it is
drawn to a quarter.
drawn to scale.
drawn four times larger.
261) Effective continuity is not possible unless which of the
following conditions exists?
The portion of the circuit under test must constitute a simple series
circuit with no parallel paths.
All circuit earths are disconnected.
All manually operated switches must be off.
262) An orthographic projection usually shows
one, three-dimensional view of an object.
a pictorial view of the object.
three, two-dimensional views of an object.
263) When dimensioning a drawing, the dimension lines should
be
the minimum number of dimensions necessary to enable the component
to be manufactured.
as many dimensions as possible.
only size dimensions.
264) S.W.G. is an abbreviation for
Standard Wire Gauge.
Screw Width Gauge.
Standard Water Gauge.
265) What colour is used to indicate a tertiary structure on a
diagram or drawing?
Red
Green
Yellow
266) Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary

structures?
Highly stressed parts but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft.
Highly stressed parts and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft
and loss of life.
Lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor
component brackets etc.
267) This symbol found on an engineering drawing would mean
angularity.
cylindricity.
concentricity.
268) This symbol means
first angle projection.
third angle projection.
second angle projection.
269) The abbreviation B.A. means
British Assembly.
British Association.
British Arrangement.
270) This tolerance symbol means
position.
angularity.
diameter.
271) Where are correct layout, dimensioning, numbering and
reference procedures for engineering
drawing are to be found?
BS 31
BS 1916
BS 308
272) 10 : 1 on an engineering drawing indicates
the drawing is full size.
the drawing is one tenth full size.
the drawing is ten times full size.
273) When reading an engineering drawing, this symbol means
profile of a line.
profile of a surface.
profile of a position.
274) Lines known as short dashes (thin) are used on drawings to
indicate
hidden detail.
visible outlines.
cutting revolved.
flatness.
perpendicularity.
position.
276) Any change to a drawing
must be notified to the S.B.A.C.
must be accompanied by the new issue number and date.
requires a new drawing number.
277) This symbol on a drawing means

washed and packed.
solution treated and precipitated.
solution treated and requiring precipitation.
dimensionality.
diameter.
concentricity.
279) Break lines are used
to show where components are expected to break.
in sectional drawing.
where it would be inconvenient (because of limited space) to draw long
lengths of the same section.
280) An oblique projection
is the same as an isometric projection.
has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing
depth drawn at 90.
has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing
depth drawn at a constant angle.
281) A drawing in which the sub-assemblies or parts are shown
as brought together on the aircraft is
called
an installation drawing.
a detail drawing.
a sectional drawing.
282) A thread on a drawing is labeled 1/2-20 UNF 1B. The
thread is
either external or internal, depending on the application.
external.
internal.
283) NTS on a drawing stands for
Not True Scale.
No Tolerance System.
Not To Scale.
284) A hydraulic system schematic drawing would indicate the
type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid.
specific location of the individual components within the aircraft.
direction of fluid flow through the system.
285) Which statement is true regarding an orthographic
projection?
There are always at least two views.
It could have as many as eight views.
One-view, two-view, and three-view drawings are the most common.
286) A line used to show an edge which is not visible is a
break line.
phantom line.
hidden line.
287) One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the
size and shape of components within a system.
functional location of components within a system.
physical location of components within a system.
288) This type of break line represents
round bar.
round tube.
square tube.
289) What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing
or blueprint to represent an edge or
object not visible to the viewer?
Alternate short and long light dashes.
Medium-weight dashed line.
Light solid line.
290) A specific measured distance from the datum or some other
point identified by the
manufacturer, to a point in or on the aircraft is called a
zone number.
station number.
specification number.
291) This electrical symbol represents a
double pole double throw switch.
double pole single throw switch.
single pole double throw switch.
variable inductor.
air core inductor.
iron core inductor.
Zener diode.
PNP transistor.
NPN transistor.
294) In a first angle orthographic projection the plan view is
placed
above the front elevation.
below the side elevation.
below the front elevation.
295) When a cutting plane on a drawing cuts a web
longitudinally, the web is
sectioned the same as the rest of the view.
not sectioned.
sectioned with different direction of hatch.
push to reset circuit breaker.
push-pull circuit breaker.
toggle switch circuit breaker.
fuse.
flexible coupling.
light bulb.
298) When a cutting plane goes through a bush and bolt
assembly, on the sectioned view
both the bush and the bolt will be hatched.
the bush will be hatched but the bolt will not.
neither the bush nor the bolt will be hatched.
299) This symbol indicates that
chisels must not be used.
machining is required on a particular surface.
machining is required on all surfaces.
300) This is a diagram of
a voltage regulator.
a potentiometer.
a voltage divider.
301) Which of the following lines indicate hidden detail on a
drawing?
A broken line as shown in 2.
A broken line as shown in 3.
A continuous line as shown in 1.
302) The letter A.F.D. in a circle stamped on a material indicates
that it has
been anodic flaw detected.
been annealed fired and doped.
an across flats diameter bolt.
303) Where would Zone 324 be found in ATA 100?
Between rear spar of wing and trailing edge of wing.
Tip of horizontal stabilizer.
Fwd of the wing rear spar.
304) This is a diagram of a
potentiometer.
variable resistor.
rheostat.
305) The latest drawing is identified by the
issue number.
amendment number.
date.
306) A geometric tolerance symbol indicating that one edge
must be parallel to a datum edge would
be shown in which of the following conventions?
Convention A
Convention B
Convention C
307) Tolerances are classified in two ways, these are
Dimensional and isometric.
Upper and lower.
Dimensional and geometric.
308) The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is
1 : 600
1 : 400
1 : 200
309) What is the maximum bow allowed in a strut?
1 in 200
1 in 500
1 in 600
310) Which of the following shafts would you use to obtain a

clearance fit in a bush 0.750 inch
diameter?
0.752 inch.
0.748 inch
750 inch
311) A tolerance is
a permitted difference between new and worn dimensions.
a permitted variation on a dimension to allow for inaccuracy of
equipment.
a required difference in dimension between mating parts to obtain a
certain class of fit.
312) A transition fit is one in which the shaft is
larger than the hole.
smaller than the hole.
the same size as the hole.
313) The length of a blended repair of corrosion should be no
less than
5 times its depth.
10 times its depth.
20 times its depth.
314) If there is a positive allowance between the smallest
possible hole and the largest possible shaft,
the fit is known as
a transition fit.
a clearance fit.
an interference fit.
315) After mechanical removal of corrosion on an aluminium
alloy casting, the length of the blended
recess should be
no less than ten times the depth.
no less than twenty times the depth.
no more than twenty times the depth.
316) A press fit requires
some sort of driving force.
the shaft to be shrunk by cooling.
the hole to be expanded by heat.
317) What is the typical acceptable limit of a dent on a frame
member?
One and a half times the skin thickness.
Twice the skin gauge and 0.75 inch diameter.
One gauge depth and 0.75 inch diameter.
318) A light drive clearance between 3/4 inch diameter bolt and
hole, on a drawing would be shown
as
0.005 Inches.
0.0015 Inches.
0.0025 Inches.
319) In a front release connector the pin will be
released from rear and extracted from the front.
released from the front and extracted from the front.
released from the front and extracted from the rear.
320) A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the
other end should have a bend
radius of no less than
3 times the diameter of the wire.
321) Glycol deicer fluid in contact with a silver cable can cause
a fire.
disintegration of the cable insulation.
corrosion.
322) With a rear release connector, the pin will be
released from the front and extracted from the rear.
released from the rear and extracted from the front.
released from the rear and extracted from the rear.
323) The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated
copper or aluminium connector is
135C.
200C.
260C.
324) What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic insert/extract tool
be used on?
16 - 14
12 - 10
22 - 18
325) Can the insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool?
No.
Yes by turning a knob.
Yes by adjusting the pins.
326) What gauge of pin would a red plastic insert/extract tool be
used on?
12 - 10
22 - 18
16 - 14
327) What cable would you use where temperatures are going to
exceed 200C?
Tinned copper or aluminium.
Silver plated copper or aluminium.
Nickel plated copper or aluminium.
328) How long should a fireproof cable last in a fire?
5 minutes
15 minutes
50 minutes
329) What gauge of pin would a blue plastic insert / extract tool
be used on?
12 - 10
16 - 14
22 - 18
330) The insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheel-
wells should normally be not less than
2 megohms.
5 megohms.
10 megohms.
331) What causes knuckling on older type electrical cables?
Over-temperature soldering.
Applying cable ties too tightly.
Excessive pull through forces.
332) To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out
a milli-volt drop test.
a continuity check.
a bonding check.
333) The maximum bonding resistance on an aircraft primary
structure should be
0.01 ohms.
0.001 ohms.
0.05 ohms.
334) Before effecting a crimp, the bare ends of a cable should be
tightly twisted.
twisted lightly in the direction of the lay.
straightened out.
335) The number of the dots impressed on the insulation of the
pre-insulated connectors during
crimping indicates that
the correct connector has been used.
the correct tool was used to effect the connection.
the crimp is properly formed.
336) The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG
crimping tool can be changed by
varying the torque applied to the handles.
using different coloured crimping pliers and terminations.
changing the position of the pins.
337) When referring to fuses, HRC means
high rupture capacity.
hot running capacity.
high running current.
338) When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire
is coloured
blue.
green and yellow.
brown.
339) A hole is placed in the lowest point of electrical cable
conduit
to allow for pull-through of the cables.
to secure the conduit to a piece of aircraft structure.
to allow for drainage of moisture.
340) The minimum distance between electrical cable splices is
3 feet.
12 inches.
500 mm.
341) A fire resistant cable is proof tested by exposure to a
standard fire for
5 minutes.
15 minutes.
30 minutes.
342) When fitting coaxial cable connectors it is important to

fit the correct lock nuts.
make sure the outer cup is fitted the correct way round.
not damage any seals fitted.
343) When inserting pins into a front release connector the
inserting tool should be used with the gap
facing which direction?
The centre of the connector.
Either direction.
The outside of the connector.
344) When using a hydraulic crimping tool, after completing the
crimping operation, the crimp is
formed when when
the bypass valve opens and the ram returns to neutral.
the foot pedal force is at maximum.
the bypass valve closes and the ram returns to neutral.
345) The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures
above 260C is which of the following?
Nomex
Teflon
Nylon
346) What is the minimum bend radius of a loom adequately
supported at a terminal block?
10 * diameter
8 * diameter
3 * diameter
347) How are front release pins removed?
The tool is inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the front.
The tool is inserted from the rear and the pin Is removed from the front.
The tool is inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the rear.
348) If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened so as to compress
the dielectric, how will the
capacitance change?
Stay the same.
Increase.
Decrease.
349) What is the minimum bend radius of a single co-axial cable?
6 * diameter.
8 * diameter.
10 * diameter.
350) When carrying out millivolt drop checks on a circuit, what is
an approximate guide for a
correct reading?
5 millivolts for every 10 amps flowing.
351) When using a heat shrink gun, what should the

temperature of the gun be set to?
100 below the heat shrink temperature.
15 below the heat shrink temperature.
100 above the heat shrink temperature.
352) In an electrical cable 1EF6B22NMS, what does the letter E
represent?
Circuit function.
Cable size.
Segment letter.
353) On a coaxial cable, cable impedance is
proportional to length.
not effected by length.
inversely proportional to length.
354) A secondary earth is
not less than 0.5mm cross sectional area.
18 AWG.
22 AWG.
355) To prevent wet arc tracking
cable grips should be tight.
ensure hot stamp printing is controlled.
cables should not be stretched.
356) When splicing a cable with a soldered joint, the operation is
finished when
the solder has melted.
the solder sleeve disappears.
the solder and insulation have formed.
357) When manufacturing an electrical connector the unused
holes are
filled with connectors.
filled with connectors and blanked.
covered with blanks.
358) Co-axial cable is preferred to airframe cable in which
application?
Where the diameter of cable is not important.
High frequency interference.
Low frequency interference.
359) Forward release electrical connectors are removed by the
wire being
pushed forwards.
twisted to the right.
pulled backwards.
360) When crimping wires, the wires should be
straight.
lightly twisted.
twisted.
361) Why are copper wires used in electrical systems?
They have high permeability.
They do not give off a magnetic field.
They have a low resistance to current.
362) When crimping wires, the wire should
be flush with the crimp.
extend 0.8 mm beyond the crimp.
be beneath the crimp.
363) 1EF6B22 NMSV. What does the B mean?
Segment letter.
Cable number.
Circuit function.
364) A white/blue insertion-extraction tool would be used on a
cable of what size?
10
16
22
365) The value of the insulation resistance of an electric motor
compared to its supply leads is
greater.
same.
smaller.
366) When securing wire after it leaves an LRU, cable bundle
bends should be not less than
minimum radius of five times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable
bundle.
minimum radius of three times the outside diameter of the cable, or
cable bundle.
minimum radius of eight times the outside diameter of the cable, or
cable bundle.
367) When terminating an aluminium cable, what preparations
would be carried out before
crimping?
Degrease stripped cable.
Just terminate.
Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide.
368) An in-line splice should be positioned on the
terminal of the loom.
outside of the loom.
outer surface of the loom for easy inspection.
369) A conductor after being crimped. The maximum amount of
conductor which protrudes from
the terminal end should be
1/32 inch
1/8 inch
1/16 inch
370) Two or more operations should be performed to strip wire
with hand operated wire stripper if
the total stripping length exceeds
0.25 inch.
0.50 inch.
0.75 inch.
371) A cable loom should be protected by conduit when fed
through the
main equipment centre.
wheelwell door.
cargo compartment ceiling.
372) The size of proper conduit for electrical wires must be
25% larger than the maximum diameter of wires.
75% larger than the maximum diameter of wires.
100% larger than the average diameter of wires.
373) Blue metal extract tool would be used with contacts sized
12.
16.
22.
374) A Silver coated conductor in an unpresurised area is subject
to moisture and has a damaged
coating would be likely to cause
Wet Arc Tracking.
Knuckling Through.
Red Plague.
375) When riveting, the distance from the edge to the rivet
(land) should not be less than
1D.
2D.
4D.
376) The strength of a riveted joint compared to that of the
original metal is
75%.
100%.
125%.
377) A repair has a double riveted joint. The shear strength
would be
75%.
100%.
125%.
378) The standard minimum rivet row spacing is
2 1/4 D.
3 D.
4 D.
379) What is the normal spacing between rivets?
2 D.
3 D.
4 D.
380) In British rivets (solid) what is the length grading unit?
1/16
1/10
1/32
381) If the thickness of a single sheet of material, about to be
joined by riveting was 1/16 of an inch
thick what would be the approximate diameter of the rivets to
be used?
1/16 inch
3/16 inch
1/8 inch
382) Regarding riveting, which of the following is correct?
Both of the above are correct.
The length of a countersunk rivet (flush head) is measured from the end
of the rivet to the top of the
countersunk head.
The length of a round head or flat head is measured from the end of the
rivet to underside of rivet head.
383) When riveting, a certain clearance must exist between the
rivet and the hole in which it is fitted,
to allow for shank expansion. If the clearance is too large, what
could be the result?
Indentations by rivet head on the material.
Separation of the sheets may occur.
Sheet may tend to buckle.
384) To replace one 1/8 inch rivet
three 1/16 inch rivets would be required.
two 1/16 inch rivets would be required.
four 1/16 inch rivets would be required.
385) If treated rivets have not been used within the prescribed
time they can be re-treated. What is
the maximum number of times that they can be heat-treated?
If no more in Stores, as many times as required.
Twice only.
Three times.
386) Rivets kept at a temperature of between 15C and 20C
are usable for
150 days.
150 minutes.
150 hours.
387) Avdel rivets are closed by
a broaching process.
a tapered mandrel.
a squeezing process.
388) What is the purpose of the Avdel pin tester?
To test the tightness of the pin in the rivet.
To test the tightness of the rivet in the hole.
To test the shear strength of the pin.
389) The stems of an Avdel rivet are
removed with the riveting tool.
nipped off and milled flush with the head.
removed with a taper punch.
390) What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter Type F?
40 to 60 lbs per sq. inch
391) When countersinking rivet holes in a material
a special countersinking bit with a pad to prevent drilling too deep should
be used.
a plain countersinking bit should be used.
the rivet head should stand 1/32 of an inch above the surface.
392) The riveting defect in the figure shown is
too much hammering.
the dolly was not square.
the snap was not square.
393) Rivet allowance is
the distance the rivet is positioned from the edge of the repair plate.
the amount of material required to form the rivet on installation.
the distance between rivets in the same row.
394) What is the approximate distance of the sphere of influence
of a rivet?
2D
4D
5D
395) Rivet clearance is
the distance between rivets in the same row.
the amount that the rivet hole diameter exceeds the rivet diameter.
the distance between rows of rivets.
396) The minimum rivet pitch is
2 1/2 * the rivet diameter.
3 * the rivet diameter.
2 * the rivet diameter.
397) The riveting defect in the figure shown is
the snap was not square.
the hole was too small.
an incorrect snap has been used.
398) The grip of a rivet is
the length of rivet left to form the head.
the thickness of plates which can be fastened.
the area of the plates held firmly together.
399) The strength of a riveted joint is determined by
shear strength and pitch of rivet.
pitch and tensile strength of rivet.
shear strength of rivet and material it is made of.
400) If the bearing strength of a metal is greater than the shear
strength of the rivet, what will occur?
Rivet will joggle.
Rivet will show incorrectly installed.
Rivet will pull through the metal.
401) When carrying out a pressure test on a pipe it should be
twice the working pressure for two minutes.
1.5 times the working pressure.
three times the working pressure for five minutes.
402) When checking a hose after installation it should be
checked for freedom of movement
by flexing through the normal operating range plus 15.
by flexing through the normal operating range only.
by flexing +/-15 either side of the neutral position.
403) The three electrical checks carried out on aircraft are (1)
continuity (2) bonding (3) insulation.
What is the order in which they are executed?
2-1-3
1-2-3
2-3-1
404) If the outer cover of a flexible hose is found to be cracked.
It is unserviceable since it may have a restricted flow.
It may still be serviceable.
It is unserviceable since it may leak.
405) A rigid hydraulic pipe requires shaping. It should be carried
out
after annealing.
after age hardening.
as supplied.
406) Fretting corrosion on a braided pipe would mean it was
unserviceable and should be replaced.
not necessarily unserviceable.
only unserviceable if the corrosion penetrates the braids.
407) Pipe flaring is carried out
as supplied.
in the annealed state.
after normalizing.
408) To allow for shrinkage, vibration and whip all straight hoses
must be
2% longer than the distance between the fittings.
409) A flexible hose that cannot be internally inspected by eye or
introscope can be ball tested by
suspending from one end at a time to check
a ball of 95% of bore of hose can be pushed through with a metal rod.
a ball of 98% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight.
a ball of 90% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight.
410) Hoses are normally pressure tested to
maximum working pressure.
2 times maximum working pressure.
1.5 times maximum working pressure.
411) A fluid line marker with a skull & crossbones is
fluid line carries toilet waste.
warning symbol.
radioactive symbol.
412) The international marking for a water injection pipeline is a
series of
chevrons.
squares.
dots.
413) The international marking for a fire protection pipe line is a
series of
circles.
squares.
diamonds.
414) To prevent corrosion where aluminium alloy pipelines are
supported by rubber cleats, the pipe
should be treated over the area of contact with
french chalk.
varnish.
petroleum jelly.
415) The international marking for an instrument air pipe line is
a
series of dots.
zig zag line.
wavy band.
416) The maximum distance between end fittings to which a
straight hose assembly is to be
connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length should be
51 inches.
51.5 inches.
3 inches.
417) The length of a hose assembly with elbowed end fittings is
taken from
the maximum length of the straight portion of hose.
the extreme overall length.
the centre of the bore at the nipple extremity.
418) The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipe line
is a series of
dots.
diamonds.
rectangles.
419) The resistance between a flexible hose and a component
should not exceed
0.05 ohm.
0.5 ohm.
1 ohm.
420) Bore tests of flexible hoses are carried out using a suitable
ball or bobbin of
25% of the diameter of the end fittings.
421) Aluminium alloy pipe used for hydraulics systems is flared
normalized.
as supplied.
annealed.
422) Identify the parts required to make up a flared-tube fitting?
Sleeve and nut.
Ferrule and nut.
Body, sleeve and nut.
423) The flare angle on an AGS pipe is
32 degrees.
45 degrees.
90 degrees.
424) Repair to aluminium pipe can be done using burnishing
if damage is surface only.
if damage is no more than 5%.
if damage is no more than 10%.
425) Rigid pipes are designed with bends to
allow for expansion and contraction due to heat and absorb vibration.
absorb vibration.
fit to the aircraft structure.
426) You find a pipe with a flare end fitting of 74. What
specification has it been manufactured to?
A.G.S.
S.A.E.
A.N.
427) Bonding connections between flexible and rigid pipes are

achieved by
ti-wrapping the bonding lead to the pipes.
using a corrugated strip.
tucking the bonding leads between the flexible and rigid pipes.
428) Springs are manufactured from
high carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements.
low carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements.
high carbon alloy steel with low strength requirements.
429) A wear check on a cylinder head valve spring should include
length under load.
diameter and length.
length off-load.
430) Material used for springs is
high carbon or alloy steel with low working stresses.
low carbon steel or alloy steel with high working stresses.
low carbon steel or alloy steel with low working stresses.
431) Needle roller bearings
are susceptible to brinelling.
can accept a small amount of misalignment.
are designed to carry axial loads.
432) When rotating a ball bearing by hand, a regular click
indicates
damage to the balls.
intergranular corrosion in the outer ring.
a cracked ring.
433) Brinelling of a wheel bearing could be caused by
rotation of the outer race in the wheel housing.
heavy landing.
overheating of the brakes.
434) Brinelling of a bearing is
bluing of the bearing due to overheating.
shallow smooth depressions caused by the rollers being forced against
the cup, due to overtorquing.
indentations in the race surface caused by continual static vibration.
435) A tapered roller bearing is designed to take
radial loads only.
both radial and axial loads.
axial loads only.
436) Small indentations in the race of a ball bearing indicate
overtorquing.
corrosion.
brinelling.
437) When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it should be carefully
positioned using
a steel drift with light blows.
a copper or aluminium tube drift.
a soft steel or brass tube drift.
438) Graphite prevents seizure and conducts heat. It is normally

used in
lithium based greases.
sodium based greases.
copper based greases.
439) False Brinelling of a bearing is
movement of the outer ring relative to its housing.
indentations on the race-way due to load transferred through the bearing
when static.
a scoring of the race-way surfaces due to ball or roller skidding.
440) On completion of assembly the bearing housing
should be examined for end float.
packed fully with grease.
lightly packed with grease.
441) When checking a ball bearing for corrosion and foreign
matter
rotate at operational speed and check for roughness.
make a strip down inspection.
oscillate and rotate slowly to listen for roughness.
442) What type of load is a journal load?
Radial
Axial
Centrifugal
443) Bearings to be cleaned for further examination should be
wiped free of all grease on outer
surfaces with the aid of dry compressed air for cages and rolling
parts. The bearings should then be
soaked in
M.E.K.
lead free gasoline.
white spirit.
444) After cleaning a bearing should be dried with
left in free air to dry naturally.
clean, warm, dry compressed air.
lint free rags.
445) Thrust bearings transmit
thrust loads, thus limiting axial movement.
radial loads, thus limiting axial movement.
thrust loads, thus limiting radial movement.
446) Chipping of a ball bearing indicates
brinelling.
chattering.
spalling.
447) A Hardy Spicer coupling has what type of bearings?
Ball Bearings.
Needle bearings.
Plain bearings.
448) Graphite greases are used for
medium temperature applications.
high temperature applications.
low temperature applications.
449) If during an engine overhaul, ball or roller bearings are
found to have magnetised but
otherwise have no defects, they
are in an acceptable service condition.
must be degaussed before use.
cannot be used again.
450) Ball and roller bearings are made from a combination of low
carbon steel and a percentage of
chromium.
nickel.
nickel chrome.
451) On inspection a bearing is found to have distortion, what
action should be taken?
Reject bearing.
No action required. Some distortion is normal.
Blend out distortion and re-grease bearing.
452) On inspection a bearing is found to show signs of
overheating, what action should be taken?
Reject bearing.
No action required. Some overheating is normal.
clean up bearing and repack with grease.
453) When a bearing has 2 parts and the inner ring and outer
ring is installed
neither of the practices are allowed.
the inner ring can be removed from its inner shaft for cleaning.
the outer ring can be removed from its housing for inspection.
454) A chain removed for routine inspection, it
does not need proof loading.
must be proof loaded to 50%.
must be proof loaded to 150%.
455) An aircraft control chain is connected using
nuts and bolts.
quick release pins.
a split link and spring clip.
456) If a control chain can be lifted clear of a tooth, it should be
rejected as unserviceable.
removed and an elongation check carried out.
cleaned, re-tensioned and inspected after a period of time.
457) To check a chain for articulation
it should be run over the finger through 180 and checked for
smoothness and kinks.
move each link individually and check for tightness.
lay on a flat surface and check for kinks.
458) How do you remove a tight link from a chain which is to be
used on an aircraft control system?
Dismantle, inspect, rectify and re-assemble the chain.
If the chain has a tight link, the chain has to be removed from service.
You may be able to remove the tight link by applying a light tap with a
hammer.
459) The initial lubricant on a new chain

must be replaced with grade altitude grease.
should be removed and replaced with the approved oil.
should not be removed.
460) Control chains should be fitted in an aircraft
with the minimum of slack in the chain.
so that the chain can be removed easily.
with as much slack as possible to allow for contraction.
461) Backlash is a type of wear associated with
gears.
rivets.
bearings.
462) After a chain has been cleaned in paraffin it should be
hung up to drip dry.
dried in hot air.
washed in soapy water then hung to drip dry.
463) What fraction of the minimum breaking load should be the
proof load for a chain?
0.1
1/3
0.1%
464) If corrosion is found on a chain
replace the chain.
clean off the corrosion and if acceptable re-fit the chain.
lubricate the chain.
465) The three principle dimensions specified for a chain is the
diameter of the rollers and
pitch and chain length.
the pitch and width between the inner plates.
the pitch and width across the outside of the plates.
466) The distance between the centres of the rollers of a chain is
called
pitch.
crest.
length.
467) Which of the following formulas should be used to calculate
the percentage extension of an
aircraft control chain? Note: M = Measured length under load in
inches X = Number of pitches
measured P = Pitch of chain in inches.
M + (X * X) * 100 / P * M
X-(M * P) * 100 / M * P
M-(X * P) * 100 / X * P
468) The maximum allowable extension of a chain assembly over
a nominal length is
2%
3%
5%
469) A feather key locates a gear on a shaft and permits

a positive drive with the gear firmly locked.
a positive and strong drive transmission.
a positive drive and axial movement.
470) A chain is removed by
nuts and bolts.
spring clips.
removing chain links on an endless chain.
471) The box unit in a Teleflex control run which is not suitable
for heavily loaded controls is called
Double entry.
Single entry.
Straight lead.
472) How do you check a chain for elongation?
Hang chain up, check sight line and measure.
Adjust the end fittings.
Lay flat on a table, apply tensile load and measure.
473) Proof testing after cable installation is
sometimes required.
not required.
always required.
474) A control cable that has been contaminated with acid
should be
cleaned.
rejected.
cleaned, inspected, and reinspected after a period of time.
475) How would you use a Pacific T5 tensiometer?
Use correct chart and correct riser.
Use a standard riser and use the chart to correct for different sized
cables.
Use a load meter to apply the correct load.
476) What is the purpose of an aileron balance cable?
Allows for hands off flying.
Equalizes control cable tension.
Relieves pilot loads.
477) How would you inspect a cable for fraying?
Run your fingers the full length of the cable.
Operate the controls and feel for stiffness.
Run a rag the full length of the cable.
478) When manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable can
be cut by
using a hacksaw with the cable under tension.
using an oxy-acetylene torch.
using a chisel on a flat metal surface.
479) The check for a cable pulling out of a swaged fitting is by
seeing that the cable is still past the safety holes in the swage.
looking for a shiny surface on the cable near the fitting.
seeing that there are no broken wires near the fitting.
480) Large control cables (45 to 120 cwt) may have tension loads
that can break the locking wire or
lease lock nuts. How is this overcome?
The cable is kept slightly slack.
Duplicating the number of cables to cut down on individual tensile loads.
A tube is fitted over the turnbuckle assembly and drilled to take up to 3
bolts, to prevent independent
rotation of any part.
481) To correctly tension cables it can help
to use a cable with turnbuckles at least every eight feet.
to take up initial slack by additional pulleys.
to have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles
equally.
482) A cable is replaced
when a shiny portion is found.
when each strand is worn to limits.
if a chemical spillage is suspected.
483) What is the proof loading for cables after swaging?
1/3 minimum breaking strain
2/3 minimum breaking strain
50% minimum breaking strain
484) The best way to check control cables for broken wires is to
run a rag along the cable in both directions.
examine them visually.
increase the tension and check with a magnifying glass.
485) If the turnbuckles in a control system are tightened
excessively the result will be
the cable will break.
the cables will vibrate excessively and cause failure of controls.
the aircraft will be heavy on controls.
486) A control cable is proof loaded to ensure that
the end fittings on the cable are secure.
it will not stretch after fitting in an aircraft.
it will not break after fitting in an aircraft.
487) British turnbuckles are checked for safety by
looking through the hole and checking for threads showing.
attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole.
attempting to push locking wire through the hole.
488) A suspected chemical spillage on a cable, you should
clean, inspect and refit immediately.
replace the cable.
clean the cable and inspect 24 hours later.
489) HTS aircraft control cables are protected from corrosion by
Galvanising.
cadmium coating.
zinc plating.
490) What is the purpose of the hole in the swaged end fitting on
a swaged cable?
To ensure the cable end passes the inspection hole on drilled through
type fittings but leaves the locking
wire hole clear.
To allow trapped air to escape.
To allow a split pin to be inserted.
491) The inspection hole in a turnbuckle is
to allow the locking wire to pass through for the purpose of locking.
to ensure that the locknuts are adequately tightened.
to ensure that the turnbuckle is in safety.
492) Swaging of a cable end fitting is checked by
measuring the length of the barrel before and after swaging.
using a go / no-go gauge on the barrel.
looking for cracks on the swage indicating poor swaging.
493) A flight control cable is replaced if
single wires are blended together.
the protective fluid coating is missing.
a wire is 20% worn.
494) In aircraft control cables, when a lock is fitted to the control
surface
it will prevent the control surface movement but not the control column
movement.
it will prevent the control surface and the control column movement.
it will not prevent the control surface movement but will lock the control
column.
495) When checking cable tensions you are looking for
free movement only.
full and free movement.
artificial feel.
496) A cable should be replaced when individual wires are worn
greater than
40%.
60%.
20%.
497) The purpose of a joggle is
to act as a tear stopper.
to make the holes for a rivet line up.
to produce a flush fit at a metal joint.
498) Caustic soda applied to a metal turns black. This would
indicate the metal is
magnesium alloy.
duralumin.
aluminium.
499) Removal of a scratch from a sheet of metal requires
polishing.
blending.
burnishing.
500) When dimpling a sheet of metal you would require
an oversized rivet and special reaction block.
a male and female die.
a male die only.
501) The skin on an aircraft is normally manufactured from

2024 aluminium alloy.
502) The mold point is
the mid point in the thickness of a sheet of metal to which the radius
dimension is calculated.
the centre of curvature of a radiused corner in a metal fabricated
component.
an imaginary point from which real base measurements are provided.
503) Relief holes are
holes drilled in a battery container to provide drainage.
holes drilled in the corner of a metal box to prevent cracking.
holes drilled to stop a crack.
504) Faying surfaces are
surfaces that are in contact with each other.
surfaces that are stressed.
surfaces that have been treated with anti-corrosion compound.
505) In sheet metal bending, how would you measure the bend
radius to calculate the bend
allowance?
Measure to the inside of the bend radius.
Measure to the outside of the bend radius.
Measure to the inside of the bend radius plus half the metal thickness.
506) When dimpling sheet with a squeeze dimpling tool
the jaws are not adjustable.
adjust the jaws to accommodate different material gauges.
use a lubricant.
507) Bend radius on sheet metal is
inside radius + 1/2 thickness.
inside radius.
outside radius.
508) Zinc Chromate applied between faying surfaces will
improve adhesion thus relieving the amount of riveting necessary.
improve bonding between them.
inhibit dissimilar metal (electrolytic) corrosion.
509) If a non-ferrous metal being examined by chemical test
turns black when caustic soda is applied
to the surface, the metal is
duralumin.
alclad.
aluminium.
510) What is the maximum resistance between the main earth
system and a metal plate on which the
earthing device (tyre) is resting?
10 megohms
1 megohm
100 megohms
511) The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a

cornice or box brake is measured and
marked
one-half radius from either bend tangent line.
one radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brake.
one radius from either bend tangent line.
512) If copper sulphate is used on magnesium alloy it will
effervesce to a copper colour.
have no effect.
effervesce to a black colour.
513) If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and
bend allowance tables are not
available, the neutral axis of the bend can be
found by adding approximately one-half of the stock thickness to the
bend radius.
found by subtracting the stock thickness from the bend radius.
represented by the actual length of the required material for the bend.
514) The formula for setback for a 90 bend is
(1/2R + T).
(R + T).
(R + 1/2T).
515) Caustic soda placed on the edge of alclad will turn
white black white.
all white.
black white black.
516) In marking a light alloy
the scriber must be held at an angle to give a smooth line where bending
is required.
caustic soda is used.
a pencil is used to mark the material and all marks removed after
bending.
517) When assembling metals of different potential, corrosion
may be inhibited by application of
zinc or chromic acid & assemble while wet.
zinc or barium chromate & assemble while wet.
nothing - assemble bare.
518) Steel wire brushes or steel wool should
be used to clean magnesium alloys.
be used to clean aluminium sheet.
never be used on light alloys.
519) When a piece of metal is bent, the surface of the metal on
the outside of the bend is
in compression.
neither in tension or in compression.
in tension.
520) The sight line of a bend is
at the tangent line.
half a radius from the tangent line.
one radius from the tangent line.
521) The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal

without critically weakening the part is
called the
maximum radius of bend.
minimum radius of bend.
bend allowance.
522) Scribers are used to
produce an accurate finish.
make centre pop marks for drilling.
mark guide lines on material.
523) A hole drilled at the intersection of two bends in a
fabricated sheet metal component is called
a drain hole.
a crack stopper.
a relief hole.
524) Dissimilar metal diffusion bonding gives
high strength and ductility.
high strength and stiffness.
high strength and brittleness.
525) Marking out on stainless steel can be clarified by
application of
ammonia.
copper sulphate.
sal ammoniac.
526) When drawing lines on aluminium alloy sheet prior to
bending
a thin coat of zinc chromate primer should be used, ready for pencil lines.
a scriber should be used.
a wax pencil should be used.
527) After solution treatment of aluminium alloy, the effect of
immediate refrigeration at a
temperature with the range -15C to -20C is
to suspend natural ageing for a limited period.
to permanently soften the metal to retard the onset of fatigue.
to increase the rate of artificial ageing.
528) Diffusion bonding and superplastic forming provides
high strength and high ductility.
high strength and high stiffness.
high stiffness and high ductility.
529) In a composite repair lay-up, how much should each layer
extend beyond the layer below it?
2 - 3 inches
1 - 2 inches
3 - 4 inches
530) To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it
would be sprayed with
polyurethane paint.
ferrous paint.
aluminium paint.
531) A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair

using the potted compound repair
technique. What non-destructive testing method is used to
determine the soundness of the repair
after the repair has cured?
Eddy current test.
Metallic ring test.
Ultrasonic test.
532) A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for
inspecting for delamination in Redux
bonded structure of light aluminium alloys is
ultrasonic.
eddy-current.
magnetic flow.
533) Why is an extra layer of fibreglass added to a composite
repair?
To provide additional flexibility.
For sacrificial sanding.
To increase the strength of the repair.
534) How do you reduce or remove electrostatic charges which
may build up on fibreglass surfaces?
No special treatment is necessary because fibre glass is an insulator.
The surface is treated with a special conductive paint.
The surface is impregnated with copper strips.
535) Prior to aluminium alloy bonding we use
alkaline etch.
acid etch.
solvent wipe.
536) Glass reinforced panels are bonded by
special conductive paint.
wire mesh.
bonding strips to conductors.
537) What solvents could you use to clean tools used for
fibreglass repairs?
Trichloroethylene or acetone.
Lead free petrol/kerosene.
acetone or MEK.
538) Chopped strand mat is a good general purpose mat because
it has short fibres.
it gives equal properties in all directions.
it is a stiffer than woven cloth.
539) Before soldering stainless steel it must be
pickled.
cleaned with emery cloth.
sand papered.
540) Insufficient heat used in soldering will cause
the joint to oxidize.
a high resistance joint potential.
contamination of the joint.
541) A dry joint when soldering is caused by
too much flux.
too large an iron.
too little heat.
542) The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be
oxidizing.
carbonising.
neutral.
543) A flux is used in soldering to
to dissolve oxides.
etch the metals surface for more adhesion.
to prevent solder spikes.
544) Plumbers solder is grade
B.
C.
D.
545) Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering
operations?
To increase heat conductivity.
To prevent overheating of the base metal.
To chemically clean the base metal of oxide film.
546) When making a small soldered electrical connection, using
flux-cored solder
the connection should be heated first and then solder applied.
the soldering iron and solder should be applied simultaneously to the
connection.
the soldering iron should be loaded with solder and then applied to the
connection.
547) The type of flux to be used when soft soldering on aircraft
is
active.
non-active.
either active or non-active.
548) The operational temperature of soldering irons is
fjust above the melting point of solder.
below the melting point of the base metal.
60C above the melting point of solder.
549) What elements is solder made from?
Tin, lead and copper.
Tin and lead only.
Tin, lead and silver.
550) General purpose solders are graded by
a colour coding.
a letter coding.
a numerical coding.
551) What solder should be used to solder aluminium?
D.T.D. 685 lead-silver-tin solder.
90% tin and 10% zinc.
wire flux cored solder.
552) Solder can be used to join
some dissimilar metals.
only copper based metals.
similar metals only.
553) A flux is used in soldering to
dissolve oxides.
prevent solder spikes.
etch the metal surface for more adhesion.
554) On completion of soldering a non-activated flux
must be cleaned off with an acid solution.
need not be cleaned off.
must be cleaned off with a selected solvent.
555) A dry joint in soldering is most likely to be caused by
flux not used.
components not hot enough.
wrong solder used.
556) What action is taken when soldering flux residue may have
lodged in deep crevices of an
assembly?
It must be immersed in a weak solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsed
thoroughly in running water.
It must be immersed in a weak solution of phosphoric acid and rinsed in
water.
It must be thoroughly rinsed with a weak solution of sulphuric acid and
washed in cold water.
557) A phosphate based flux paste is for soldering
aluminium.
brass.
stainless steel.
558) The soldering method where molten solder is pumped from
the bottom of a bath through a slot
so that a stationary wave of solder appears on the surface is
known as the
rotary bath method.
stationary wave method.
standing wave bath method.
559) Solders are available in two forms:
stick solder with a rosin core and solder in a wire form having a rosin
core.
solder in a wire form needing a separate flux and stick solder needing no
flux at all.
stick solder needing a separate flux and solder in wire form having a
rosin core.
560) A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until
after the working face has been
fluxed.
polished.
tinned.
561) High temperature solder is used where the operating
temperature is high. It is an alloy of
lead / copper / antimony.
tin / zinc / antimony / silver.
tin / lead / antimony / silver.
562) Soft solder is suited for joints, which are
subjected to fatigue.
subjected to strong forces.
subjected to small forces.
563) Silver solder melts within the range
400C - 550C.
200C - 400C.
600C - 850C.
564) Silver soldering is suited for
electronic component soldering.
high temperature applications.
general soldering work.
565) Silver solder is made from
tin, copper and zinc.
copper, tin and silver.
copper, zinc and silver.
566) The materials most commonly soldered in soft soldering are
brass and mild steel.
stainless steel and titanium.
aluminium and magnesium.
567) What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminium?
Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod.
Removes dirt, grease, and oil.
Minimises or prevents oxidation.
568) The shielding gases generally used in the Tungsten Inert
Gas (TIG) welding of aluminium
consist of
nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen.
a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon.
569) Which items listed below is the most important
consideration when selecting a welding rod?
Thickness of the metal to be welded only.
Type of torch.
Type and thickness of the metal to be welded.
570) What is a good weld?
Build up by 1/8 inch in the middle of the weld.
An oxide coating on the base metals.
Sides sloping to the base metals.
571) Brazing material is made from
copper zinc and silver.
copper and tin and lead.
copper, silver and tin.
572) Filing or grinding a weld bead
may be necessary to avoid adding excess weight or to achieve uniform
material thickness.
may be performed to achieve a smoother surface.
reduces the strength of the joint.
573) The primary reason for using flux when welding aluminium
is to
prevent oxides from forming ahead of the weld.
prevent molten metal from flowing too widely.
promote better fusion of the base metal at a lower temperature.
574) In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is

used to
lower the temperature required to properly fuse the metal.
prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle.
concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its dissipation.
575) After welding you would normalise to
remove oxidation from the welded joint.
remove carbon build up from the welded joint.
release the stresses from the material.
576) The flux used during brazing is a mixture of water and
zinc chloride.
hydrochloric acid.
borax powder.
577) Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is
important, therefore, when
welding aluminium to use a
solvent.
filler.
flux.
578) Which statement concerning a welding process is true?
In the oxyacetylene welding process, the filler rod used for steel is
covered with a thin coating of flux.
In the metallic-arc welding process, filler material, if needed, is provided
by a separate metal rod of the
proper material held in the arc.
The inert-arc welding process uses an inert gas to protect the weld zone
from the atmosphere.
579) When inspecting a butt-welded joint by visual means
the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base
metal.
the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base
metal.
look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead.
580) What is undesirable in a good weld?
Oxides mixed in with the filler material.
Fusing the edges of materials to be joined.
100% penetration by filler material.
581) In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of
the tip opening determines the
temperature of the flame.
melting point of the filler metal.
amount of heat applied to the work.
582) The most important consideration(s) when selecting
welding rod is/are
material compatibility.
current setting or flame temperature.
ambient conditions.
583) When inspecting a weld, you should make sure that
the parent (or basis) materials are fully fused together.
the weld has inclusions inside the bead.
there are voids either side of the weld.
584) Fore and aft limits of the CG

are determined by the pilot when calculating the loading data.
are specified by the manufacturer.
are determined by the licensed engineer after a major check and
weighing.
585) What angle of turn will double the weight of the aircraft?
30
45
60
586) The basic equipment of an aircraft is
that equipment which is required for every role of the aircraft for which
the aircraft is operated plus
unusable fuel.
all equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a particular flight.
the crew equipment, and other equipment including fuel and oil
necessary for a particular flight.
587) Aircraft measurements aft of the datum are
either positive or negative.
positive.
negative.
588) A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is required by
all aircraft above 2730 kg MTWA.
all aircraft not exceeding 2730 kg MTWA.
all aircraft regardless of weight.
589) Aircraft below 5700kg not used for commercial air transport
purposes are required to be
reweighed
every 2 years.
every 5 years.
as required by the CAA.
590) Variable load is weight of
crew, their baggage and equipment relevant to role.
fuel, oil and non-expendable equipment relevant to role.
basic weight plus operating weight.
591) Aircraft must be reweighed
after two years from manufacture only.
after two years from manufacture then at periods not exceeding five
years.
at periods not exceeding five years.
592) For purposes of calculating weight and C of G position, an
adult male (with baggage) is
considered to have a mass of
85 kg.
65 kg.
75 kg.
593) Points forward of the datum point are
negative.
neutral.
Positive.
594) Where would you find documented, the fore and aft limits
of the C of G position?
In the aircraft Maintenance Manual.
In the Flight Manual (or the documentation associated with the C of A).
In the technical log.
595) Previous weighing records are
retained for 2 yrs only.
are kept with aircraft records.
destroyed after 5 yrs.
596) A Load Sheet is compiled in the order of
Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load, Basic Weight.
Basic Weight, Variable Load, Disposable Load, Fuel Load.
Basic Weight, Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load.
597) A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule must be signed by
the CAA.
the pilot.
a Licensed aircraft engineer.
598) An aircraft which has its C of G forward of the Forward Limit
the take-off run will not be affected.
will have a longer take-off run.
will have a shorter take-off run.
599) The basic weight of an aircraft is
the pilot, flight crew and their luggage.
the passengers, baggage and fuel.
the aircraft, minimum equipment, unusable fuel and oil.
600) When an aircraft has been reweighed under EU OPS, what
should be done to the old Weight
and Balance Report?
Kept in the aircraft logbook.
Destroyed after 3 months.
Kept in the weight and balance schedule.
601) If the C of G of an aircraft with a full complement of fuel is
calculated. Then
the C of G will always be within limits if it was within limits with full fuel
tanks.
the C of G must be recalculated with zero fuel to ensure it will still be
within limits.
the C of G will only need to be recalculated if the fuel weight is behind
the aircraft C of G position.
602) Cargo placed aft of the datum will produce a
neutral moment.
negative moment.
positive moment.
603) A load sheet
need not be carried on the aircraft if one remains at base.
is always carried on the aircraft.
is never carried on the aircraft.
604) The Datum point on an aircraft, for measuring C of G
position could be
the front bulkhead.
anywhere on the aircraft.
the nose of the aircraft.
605) Increasing the weight of an aircraft

increases the glide range.
has no affect on the glide range.
decreases the glide range.
606) A load Sheet must be signed by
a licensed aircraft engineer.
the Commander of the aircraft.
the Loading Officer.
607) What is meant by empty weight?
Basic weight only.
Basic weight minus unusable fuel plus oil.
Basic weight plus unusable fuel plus oil.
608) A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is to be raised
in triplicate, for the CAA, the operator and the maintenance organisation.
in duplicate, for the CAA and the operator.
once only, for the CAA.
609) Where would you find the information on the conditions for
weighing the aircraft?
Maintenance Manual.
Technical Log.
Flight Manual in conjunction with the documents associated with the
CofA.
610) In aeronautical weighing terms
all arms for forward of the reference datum are positive (+) and all arms
aft of the reference datum are
negative (-).
all reference datum are as per company procedures.
all arms for forward of the reference datum are negative (-) and all arms
aft of the reference datum are
positive (+).
611) Details on recording of weight and C of G position can be
found in
BCAR section A.
Air Navigation Order.
Airworthiness Notices.
612) If a new Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is issued,
the old one must be retained for
one year.
two years.
six months.
613) A weighing cell is based on the variation of
induced voltage with displacement.
resistance with strain.
differential currents with stress.
614) When weighing an aircraft using elastic load cells, the load
cells go
as a single unit or combination of units under the aircraft wheels.
between undercarriage and aircraft.
between top of jack and the aircraft.
615) When weighing an aircraft with load cells

only the main wheels are weighed.
the aircraft is jacked.
a load cell should be placed under each set of wheels.
616) When weighing an aircraft, the hydrostatic weighing units
are positioned
either under or on top of each jack.
one under each jack.
one on top of each jack.
617) When weighing an aircraft by the weighbridge method, the
aircraft is
only levelled laterally.
jacked and levelled.
resting on the wheels.
618) When mooring an aircraft what type of rope should be
used?
Nylon.
Fibre, tied tight due to stretch when wet.
Fibre, with some slack due to shrinkage when wet.
619) Removal of ice by the use of deicing fluid on the aircraft,
before flight
must be 1 hour before flight to enable fluid to be cleaned from aircraft.
will provide sufficient prevention of ice formation until take off.
may remove ice for a period of time depending on the airfield conditions.
620) When deicing an aircraft with pressure deicing fluid, the
sensors on the outside of the aircraft
should
have their heating switched on.
be fitted with blanks or bungs.
not be blanked.
621) When Ground Power is connected to aircraft, the
generators are
paralleled to supply.
paralleled to supply for ground starting only.
never paralleled.
622) If ice and snow is found on the wings of an aircraft. Before
flight the
snow should be removed but ice can remain because it has no
appreciable affect on the airflow.
all snow and ice must be removed.
ice should be removed but snow can remain because the airflow will
remove it.
623) There is ice and snow on a helicopter blade. You
wipe off excess snow and leave ice.
leave a layer of ice.
remove all traces of ice and snow.
624) Why is the last part of towing an aircraft, done in a straight
line?
To relieve side pressure from the main wheels.
To relieve hydraulic pressure from the steering mechanism.
To allow nose wheel chocks to be placed at 90 degrees to the aircraft.
625) Aluminium clad alloy sheet should not be polished with
mechanical buffing wheels as this
will cause large static charges to build up.
may remove the aluminium coating.
may remove the alloy coating.
626) An aircraft should be cleared of snow
using air blast.
using cold fluid.
using hot fluid.
627) When refueling an aircraft from a tanker, why are the
aircraft and tanker bonded together?
To discharge static electricity from the aircraft to the tanker.
To maintain the aircraft and tanker at the same electrical potential.
To enable the aircraft re-fuel pumps to be operated from the tanker
electrical supply.
628) When turning and towing an aircraft, why should sharp
radiuses be avoided?
Power steering leaks could occur.
Scrubbing of main-wheel tyres could occur.
Scrubbing of nose-wheel tyres could occur.
629) When an aircraft is pulled out of soft ground, the
equipment should be attached to
the tail cone.
the main gear.
the nose gear.
630) When a helicopter lands, how does the pilot signal to
ground staff when it is safe to approach
the aircraft?
Turn the anti collision lights off.
Flash the landing lights.
Flash the Nav lights.
631) When the park brake has been applied on an aircraft which
has a pressurized hydraulic system
and is reading maximum system pressure, the brake gauges to
the left and right main wheels will
read
no indication.
full system pressure.
full scale deflection.
632) De-icing fluid Type 1 is used
for short holdover times.
where the ambient temperature is below -10degrees Centigrade.
where holdover times are long.
633) When picketing a helicopter you
tie down one blade.
fit sleeves to the blades to protect them if they strike the ground.
fit sleeves and tie off all blades.
634) Which is bad practice for removing the ice and snow in the
cold weather?
Dry snow by hot air.
Deep ice by de-icing fluid.
Use brush for deep wet snow.
635) Taper pins resist what loads
compression.
shear.
tension.
636) What test do you do on a bonded join?
Shear
Peel
Tension
637) What would you use to check the run-out on a control rod?
Micrometer + ball bearing.
DTI + V blocks.
3 leg trammel + feeler gauge.
638) Taper pins are used in which of the following applications?
To take compression loads.
To take shear loads.
To take compression and shear loads.
639) When using a D.T.I. to check the run-out of a shaft, readings
of -15 to +25 would indicate a
run-out of
0.025 inches.
0.020 inches.
0.040 inches.
640) A dent is measured in a tubular push-pull rod by
passing a ball down its bore.
callipers and feeler gauges.
a steel ball and micrometer.
641) What is used on Magnesium to re-protect it?
Selenious Acid
Deoxidine
Chromic Acid
642) In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery
acid, neutralizing is carried out
by washing with distilled water.
by applying a coating of Vaseline.
with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate.
643) After carrying out an identification test of aluminium alloy
with caustic soda, the caustic soda
should be neutralized with
Chromic anhydride solution.
Copper sulphate solution.
Phosphoric acid.
644) To neutralize spilled battery acid on aluminium alloy, use
sulphuric acid.
bicarbonate of soda.
caustic soda.
645) Hydrogen embrittlement of high tensile steel is caused if it
is treated with
Zinc Chromate.
Phosphoric acid.
Nitric acid.
646) Dents in a tubular push-pull rod are not allowed

anywhere on the rod.
in the middle third of the rod.
in the end thirds of the rod.
647) When checking a diode forward bias function, the positive
lead of the ohmmeter should be
placed on the
cathode and the negative lead to the anode.
anode and the negative lead to the cathode.
cathode and the negative lead the earth.
648) The bonding resistance of primary structure must not
exceed
0.05 ohms.
0.005 ohms.
0.5 ohms.
649) When replacing a bonding connection and the original
conductor cannot be matched exactly,
which of the following replacements would you use?
One manufactured from the same type of material, but of greater cross
sectional area should be selected.
One manufactured from any piece of Nyvin cable having the correct
current capacity may be used.
One manufactured from any conducting material of the same cross
sectional area be used.
650) What is a typical minimum insulation resistance value for
an aircraft undercarriage bay?
10 megohms
5 megohms
2 megohms
651) The recommended insulation resistance of a DC motor is
2 megohms.
0.5 megohms.
5 megohms.
652) Bonding value for secondary structure is a maximum of
1 ohm.
0.05 ohms.
0.5 ohms.
653) Wrinkling of an aircraft skin will
cause rivets to pull.
weaken the skin.
increase drag on the aircraft.
654) You have removed a bolt from a critical bolted joint for
inspection and rectification. What
action should you take prior to inspection?
Before any inspection is carried out, the nut/bolt and hole must be
cleaned with a solvent such as
trichloroethylene.
Clean the bolt shank and thread and re-grease and replace bolt and
check for side-play.
A preliminary inspection should be made before the hole is cleaned.
655) On inspection of a critical bolted joint you witness black or

grey dust or paste. What type of
corrosion has taken place and what type of material is involved?
Exfoliation corrosion in magnesium alloys.
Galvanic corrosion in magnesium alloys.
Fretting corrosion in aluminium alloys.
656) What is indicated by the wrinkling of the underside of an
aircraft skin?
Hogging
Fretting
Sagging
657) What is used to re-protect magnesium?
Selenious acid
Deoxidine
Chromic acid
658) What is used on magnesium to remove corrosion?
Strontium chromate
Chromic acid / sulphuric acid solution
Selenious acid
659) Galvanic corrosion refers to a type of
corrosion between two pieces of material.
plating process.
surface corrosion.
660) Chromating used on magnesium alloys produces
chromium surface electrochemically.
a chromate film surface.
metal chromates on the electrochemically.
661) Chromating used on magnesium alloys
uses chromium and converts the surface electrochemically.
uses chromates and converts the surface chemically.
uses chromium, which is deposited on the surface.
662) When carrying out a bonding test in the presence of an
anodic coating, what should you do?
Take account of the resistance of the coating.
Disregard the resistance of the coating.
Penetrate the coating so a good electrical contact is made.
663) Maximum value of resistance between all isolated parts
which may be subjected to appreciable
electrostatic charging and the main earth.
0.5 Megohm or 100 kilohm per sq.ft. of surface area whichever is less.
1 ohm
0.05 ohm
664) Removal of corrosion from aluminium clad alloy is best
done
mechanically by buffing.
chemically by trichloroethylene.
chemically by sulphuric acid solution.
665) Control methods for galvanic corrosion include

reducing cyclic stressing and increasing cross sectional area.
joining similar metals and using jointing compounds.
ensuring correct heat treatments and correct alloying.
666) The treatment for stress corrosion is
not the same as fatigue corrosion.
the same as for surface corrosion or surface cracks in sheet metal.
always the replacement of the part.
667) Very light corrosion on aluminium alloy can be removed by
using a solvent.
rubbing with wire wool.
using Alocrom 1200.
668) To remove corrosion on Fe metals use
selenious acid rust remover.
sulphuric acid rust remover.
phosphoric acid rust remover.
669) An intervention defect is one where
the engineer has the discretion on whether to intervene.
there is a requirement for the maintenance engineer to intervene.
the defect occurred because of some previous maintenance action.
670) Vapour phase inhibitor should be used
when re-protecting after corrosion.
when degreasing a component.
when painting an aircraft.
671) When carrying out insulation resistance checks
the measurement is always infinity if the cable is installed correctly.
the measurement will also show cable continuity.
the measurement varies depending upon the ambient conditions of the
aircraft under test.
672) How is damage classified on an aircraft skin?
Negligible, repairable, replacement.
Negligible, allowable, replacement.
Negligible, allowable, repairable.
673) When carrying out a millivolt drop test on a terminal, the
maximum value should be
50mV/10A.
10mV/10A.
5mV/10A.
674) A jury strut is used
as a reference when checking the C of G position.
as a datum when placing the aircraft in a rigging position.
to support the structure during repairs.
675) How do you check the resistance of a fire bottle cartridge?
Use an insulation tester.
Use a multimeter.
Use a light and bulb.
676) If after forming a crimp in an electrical condutor a high

resistance is suspected, how would you
carry out a check without disturbing the connection?
Use a multimeter set to millivolts and carry out a millivolts drop test.
Carry out an insulation check.
Use a multimeter set to ohms to check the resistance.
677) Damaged chromate film should be repaired by using
phosphoric acid 10% by weight in water.
selenious acid 10% by weight in water.
selenious acid 20% by weight in water.
678) When inserting a helicoil insert, which way does the tang
face?
Away from the hole.
Towards the hole.
Towards the mandrel.
679) On a patch repair you should use
material one gauge thicker than the original structure.
the same rivet spacing as the original structure.
only aluminium alloy rivets.
680) What tap do you use when fitting a Helicoil?
The same as the original thread size.
The next size up from the original tap size.
The tap supplied with the Helicoil kit.
681) When fitting a thread insert
the hole should be expanded using a tap supplied by the insert
manufacturer.
the insert should be tapped in using a hammer.
a thread the next size up from the original should be tapped.
682) A stud broken off below the surface is removed by
using a stud box.
a stud remover tool fitted into a drilled hole.
cutting a slot in it and removing with a screwdriver.
683) A thread insert is made from
white metal.
aluminium alloy.
stainless steel.
684) On a composite repair the vacuum should be
above required level.
below required level.
at the required level.
685) If bridging strips or bonding cords are fractured, what
action may be taken?
The broken ends can be repaired with an in-line splice.
A new conductor should be fitted.
The broken ends can be soldered.
686) A UNF threaded wire thread insert may be identified
by a black painted tang.
by a red painted tang.
by an unpainted tang.
687) Transducers used in ultrasonic testing exhibit which of he
following effects?
Hyper-acoustic
Ferromagnetic
Piezoelectric
688) The eddy current method of N.D.T. uses
AC or DC.
Direct current.
Alternating current.
689) To measure the thickness of a paint finish, what type of NDT
inspection is used?
A woodpecker
Ultrasonic
Radiographic
690) When carrying out a dye penetrant test, after the developer
has been applied it should be
inspected
after 30 minutes.
as soon as the developer is dry and again after approximately 10
minutes.
after 1 hour.
691) During a colour contrast test the penetrant time should be
longer for a small crack.
shorter for a small crack.
longer for a wide crack.
692) How should a dye penetrant field kit be stored?
At a cold temperature in a darkened room.
In direct sunlight.
At room temperature away from direct sunlight.
693) When carrying out a colour contrast test on a pressure
vessel
the dye should be applied to the outside and the developer to the inside.
the dye should be applied to the inside and the developer to the outside.
both the dye and the developer should be applied to the outside.
694) When leak testing with a colour contrast field kit, the soak
time for a component less than 1/8 in.
(3mm) thick would be
at least twice the normal soak time.
at least 3 times the normal soak time.
at least the normal soak time.
695) When using a colour contrast dye penetrant kit, and a small
crack is suspected in the material
less developer should be used.
less inhibitor should be used.
a magnifying glass is recommended.
696) What NDT method would you use to detect delamination?
Colour contrast dye penetrant.
Ultrasound.
Eddy current.
697) Magnetic particle testing detects faults

transverse.
longitudinally.
longitudinal and transverse.
698) Dye penetrant in a cold climate
takes longer to work.
is not affected.
works more quickly.
699) If after spraying the developer, red blotches appear, the
part
has sub-surface defects.
was not cleaned properly.
is porous.
700) What is the purpose of the developer in a dye penetrant
inspection?
It acts a s a blotter to draw out the penetrant that has seeped into the
crack.
It is drawn to the crack by electrostatic attraction.
It seeps into the crack and makes it show up.
701) The main advantage of dye penetrant inspection is
the part to be inspected does not require cleaning.
the defect must be opened to the surface.
the penetrant solution works on any non-porous material.
702) To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection
usually requires
the surface to be highly polished.
a longer than normal penetrating time.
that the developer be applied to a flat surface.
703) When checking an item with the magnetic particle
inspection method, circular and longitudinal
magnetization should be used to
evenly magnetize the entire part.
ensure uniform current flow.
reveal all possible defects.
704) Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle
inspection using either circular or
longitudinal magnetisation?
transverse.
longitudinal.
45.
705) Surface cracks in aluminium castings and forgings may
usually be detected by
submerging the part in a solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsing with
clear water.
gamma ray inspection.
the use of dye penetrants and suitable developers.
706) Which of these metals is inspected using the magnetic
particle inspection method?
Magnesium alloys.
Aluminium alloys.
Iron alloys.
707) One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic
particle inspection is by
slowly moving the part out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength.
slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength.
subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage AC.
708) The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic
particle inspection utilises a
ferromagnetic material that has
low permeability and high retentivity.
high permeability and low retentivity.
high permeability and high retentivity.
709) What non-destructive testing method requires little or no
part preparation, is used to detect
surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be
used to separate metals or alloys and
their heat-treat conditions?
Eddy current inspection.
Magnetic particle inspection.
Ultrasonic inspection.
710) Gamma Ray Testing of combustion chambers will show up
black on lighter background.
grey on white background.
light grey on black background.
711) Which of these non-destructive testing methods is suitable
for the inspection of most metals,
plastics and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?
Eddy current inspection.
Magnetic particle inspection.
Ultrasonic inspection.
712) Ultrasonic flaw detectors use
high frequency sound waves.
a magnetic field.
x-rays.
713) Defects are indicated in the dye penetrant crack detection
test by
red lines on a white background.
yellowish green marks.
green lines and dots.
714) NDT using colour dye process at temperatures below 15C
will
not be affected by the temperature.
retard the penetrant action of the dye and penetration time is extended.
mean choosing alternative NDT method.
715) When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the dye
penetrant should be applied
on the outside with developer on the outside.
on the inside, with developer on the outside.
on the inside with the developer on the inside.
716) In order for dye penetrant inspection to be effective, the
material being checked must
be non-magnetic.
be magnetic.
have surface cracks.
717) Which of the following metals can be inspected using the

magnetic particle inspection method?
Aluminium alloys.
Iron alloys.
Magnesium alloys.
718) After completion of electromagnetic crack detection, the
test piece must be
allowed to cool to room temperature as slowly as possible.
de-magnetised before returning to service.
allowed to lose any residual magnetism over as long a period possible.
719) Which of the following N.D.T. techniques cannot be used on
a component manufactured from
austenitic stainless steel?
Magnetic - particle.
Penetrant dye.
Hot oil and chalk.
720) Fluorescent penetrant processes for the detection of cracks
or material defects are used with
a tungsten light source.
an infra-red light source.
an ultra-violet radiation source.
721) What is an isotope the power source of?
X-Rays
Ultra Violet Rays
Gamma Rays
722) Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified
as having a fatigue crack under
which condition?
The discontinuity pattern is straight.
The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part.
The discontinuity is found in a non-stressed area of the part.
723) When inspecting a component which is being subjected to
the hot fluid chalk process, the
examination for defects should be carried out
whilst the item is still quite hot.
immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet.
when the item is quite cool.
724) Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect
defects
perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetisation.
parallel to the long axis of the part.
perpendicular to the long axis of the part.
725) An indication of porosity when using a penetrant dye crack
detection method is
areas where dye is not showing.
an area of scattered dots of dye.
closely spaced dots of dye formed in a line.
726) In a test for adequate demagnetization of a component

after a magnetic particle test, the test
compass should not deflect
more than 1 when standing due east of the component.
more than 1 when standing due south of the component.
more than 1 when standing north-east of the component.
727) If on application of developer it all turns to a pinkish hue,
what has happened?
Thin porosity.
The hue has pinked.
Incorrect cleaning.
728) If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and
clear, the most probable cause is that
the part
is not damaged.
was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied.
was not thoroughly cleaned before developer was applied.
729) The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle build-up
forming
a single line.
parallel lines.
a fern-like pattern.
730) When carrying out a penetrant dye crack test, before the
dye is applied the surface being tested
should be
etch primed.
thoroughly degreased.
painted with developer fluid.
731) When carrying out a dye penetrant inspection, what time
should elapse after applying the
developer before inspecting the component?
Initial inspection after 30 seconds followed by a 2nd inspection after 10
minutes.
After 15 minutes.
After 10 minutes.
732) When should the developer be applied to the component?
After excess penetrant has been removed and the area completely dried.
Before applying penetrant.
Before the penetrant dries.
733) To check the structure of a wing
ultrasound NDT is used.
high voltage X-rays are used.
low voltage X-rays are used.
734) Which of the following NDT methods requires that the
orientation (or direction) of the defect be
known before the test can commence?
Ultrasonic and Dye Penetrant.
Magnetic Particle and Ultrasonic.
X-Ray and Magnetic Particle.
735) Which of the following defects could not be detected by

Eddy Current NDT inspection?
A crack in a glass fibre reinforced plastic cowl.
A crack in a magnesium alloy wheel casting.
Heat damage of a Haynes Alloy turbine blade.
736) Which of the following methods could be used to detect the
presence of tiny drops of Mercury in
a large area of aircraft hull structure after an accident with a
mercury thermometer?
X-Ray
Magnetic Particle
Ultrasonic
737) Which of the following NDT methods requires that the
surface of the test piece is cleaned down
to bare metal?
Eddy Current.
Magnetic Particle.
Dye-penetrant.
738) When using the colour contrast NDT
the surface paint should be removed.
the surface should be lightly scuffed.
the surface should be bead blasted.
739) When using dye penetrant field kit, removal of excess
penetrant is done by applying the solvent by
spraying once direct on the part.
spraying twice direct on the part.
using a lint free cloth.
740) Liquid penetrant tests can be used to detect
internal porosity in castings.
corrosion wall thinning in pipes and tubes.
fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy parts.
741) Water-washable liquid penetrants differ from Post-
emulsification penetrants in that they
do not need an emulsifier added.
need not be removed from surfaces prior to development.
can only be used on aluminium alloys.
742) When using a post-emulsification penetrant, the timing is
most critical during
penetrant removal.
emulsification.
penetration.
743) A liquid penetrant test cannot
be used on porous materials.
locate sub-surface discontinuities.
be used on non-metallic surfaces.
744) Hot air drying of articles during liquid penetrant testing is
carried out at a temperature of
75F.
250F.
130F.
745) To check the structure of a wing, which NDT is used?
Radiographic
Dye penetrant
Magnetic Flaw
746) Magnetic Flux detection will show defects which are
transverse to the flux direction only.
longitudinal to the flux direction only.
longitudinal and transverse to the flux direction.
747) A hairline crack would show up on a dye penetrant
inspection as
a continuous line of small dots.
a thin broken line or chain.
a group of dots spread over a wide area.
748) When carrying out an ultrasonic inspection, what is the gel
used for?
To create a good sonic coupling between the the probe and the test
piece.
To reduce the friction between the probe and the test piece.
To prevent the test piece from becoming scratched by the probe.
749) Fluorescent dye penetrant is suited for what materials?
Non magnetic non-ferrous materials.
Ferrous magnetic materials.
Plastics and non magnetic materials.
750) In film radiography, image quality indicators (IQI) are
usually placed
between the intensifying screen and the film.
on the film side of the object.
on the source side of the test object.
751) Which type crack will probably cause the most build-up in
the magnetic particle indicating
medium?
Grinding
Shrink
Fatigue
752) When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the penetrant
should be applied
on the inside, with developer on the inside.
on the outside, with developer on the outside.
on the inside, with developer on the outside.
753) To detect a fault with magnetic particle flaw detection, the
test requires
two passes in any direction.
one pass in any direction.
two passes at 90 degrees to each other.
754) The substance used in ultrasound inspection is
a couplant to allow sound waves to travel.
a cleaning agent to keep the components clean.
a developer.
755) Dye penetrant defects are marked using
crayon, unless used in a highly stresses area.
pencil.
Chalk.
756) Which of the following NDT techniques cannot be used on a

component manufactured from
austenitic stainless steel?
Penetrant dye.
Magnetic particle.
Hot oil and chalk.
757) The dye penetrant field test kit consists of cans of
penetrant, cleaner, developer and a brush.
spray penetrant, spray cleaner and spray developer.
penetrant, cleaner and developer.
758) The liquid applied to a component being checked by
magnetic particle inspection is for
acting as a transmission medium for the test.
to prevent corrosion occurring from contact with the probe.
to prevent scratching of the surface by the probe.
759) Which is the preferred method of test for aluminium alloy
alloy?
Electroflux
Magnaflux
Ultrasonic
760) A composite flap panel has corrosion. What NDT method
will you use to detect?
Low voltage x-ray.
Coin tap test.
High voltage x-ray.
761) The eddy current method of flaw detection can detect
sub surface flaws only.
surface flaws and those just beneath the surface.
surface flaws only.
762) With dye penetrant how is the developer applied?
Using a tank.
As an even layer of chalk applied over the area.
At a distance of 10 to 12 inches with several passes.
763) When using the dye penetrant method crack detection, the
indications on a short, deep crack are
single dots.
circles.
long chain.
764) A deep internal crack in a structural steel member is
detected by
x-ray or ultrasonic process.
fluorescent penetrant method.
magnetic flaw method.
765) The ultrasonic method of crack detection can be used on
surface and subsurface defects on all metals.
surface and subsurface defects on ferrous metals only.
subsurface defects on all metals.
766) Porosity in cast materials
only occurs on the surface.
is only detectable on the surface.
is detectable as a surface or sub surface defect.
767) When using the fluorescent ink flaw detection method, the
component should be inspected using
an
ultraviolet lamp.
infrared lamp.
ordinary lamp and special glasses.
768) When using the dye penetrant method of crack detection, it
should not normally be used at
temperatures
above 20C.
below 0C.
above 15C.
769) When using the dye penetrant method, the part should be
kept wet with the penetrant for
5 minutes.
15 minutes.
up to one hour.
770) What NDT would you carry out on aluminium alloy?
Electroflux
Magnetic flaw
Ultrasonic
771) Where would you disconnect a chain?
At a bolted joint.
At an riveted joint.
At a spring clip joint.
772) How many times can a locking plate be used?
3 times, then discarded.
Indefinitely providing it is a good fit around the component to be locked.
Once, then discarded.
773) A hi-lock collar should be
not lubed or washed because they are lubed at manufacture.
washed in solvent before fitting.
lubricated before fitting.
774) When drilling out a rivet, use a drill
larger than the hole.
same size as the hole.
smaller than the hole.
775) When riveting two dissimilar sheets of metal together the
joint should be protected with
jointing compound.
paint.
grease.
776) The maximum temperature for Nyloc nuts is
120C.
100C.
160C.
777) What type of rivet would you use when there is access to
only one side of the work?
Blind
Pop
Hilok
778) Torque loading is carried out to provide
as tight a joint as possible.
sufficient clamping without over-stressing.
flexibility.
779) What is generally the best procedure to use when removing
a solid shank rivet?
Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a drill one size
smaller than the rivet and remove the
rivet with a punch.
Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a shank size drill
and remove the rivet with a punch.
Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size
smaller than the rivet shank and remove
the rivet with a punch.
780) What action is taken with a common circlip removed from a
component?
It is replaced with a new item on assembly.
It is checked for springiness.
It is examined for distortion.
781) The maximum bolt diameter for which a 1/16 split pin may
be used is
7/16.
1/4.
3/8.
782) Why is a shouldered stud used?
To provide a rigid assembly.
To decrease weight without loss of strength.
As a replacement for a damaged stud.
783) A thread insert is removed by
once fitted, a thread insert must not be removed.
using a drill the major diameter of the thread insert.
a special drill provided by the thread insert manufacturer.
784) When fitting Rivnuts into position, how are they secured
and prevented from rotating?
Locknut at the rear.
A locating key.
Peened.
785) Hi-loks are installed with the
thread and shank not lubricated.
shank lubricated when fitting.
thread lubricated when fitting.
786) A jury strut is one giving
a temporary support.
a part of the structure that takes only tensile loads.
additional support to a stressed area.
787) Which type of repair has to be used where the damage is

large and lost strength of the area has
to be restored?
Patch repair to the punctured skin.
Filling plate and patch.
Insert and butt strap.
788) Which of the following actions would be taken to fit a
locking device to a nut or bolt, if the
correct torque has been reached but the locking device will not
fit?
Tighten further until device fits.
File the base of the nut.
Change the nut or bolt for one that will achieve the desired condition.
789) In the Push-pull tube linkage used in aircraft flying control
systems, how is the length of the
tube adjusted?
Fit anew push-pull tube.
By adjusting end fittings at each end of the tube.
It is fixed and does not require adjusting.
790) Spotfacing is done to
provide a flat area on a rough surface.
compensate for height in lieu of a spring washer.
provide a good surface for welding.
791) When fitting a hydraulic component, the hydraulic seal
should be lubricated with
a specified hydraulic oil.
grease.
the same fluid that is used in the hydraulic system (e.g. skydrol).
792) A gap in a firewall can be plugged by
an aluminium plate.
a fireproof bung or bush.
a plastic bung.
793) In a critically bolted joint
a PLI washer can be used more than once only with self locking nuts.
a PLI washer can be affected by thread lubricant.
a PLI washer can only be used once.
794) Which of the following jointing compounds should not be
used in the vicinity of a joint where
the temperature may exceed 200C?
DTD 900
DTD 200
DTD 369
795) Why is jointing compound applied to the surfaces of
material being joined together prior to
riveting?
To act as a sealant and prevent filiform corrosion.
To inhibit electrolytic action.
To prevent swarf damage.
796) A metallic stiff nut

cannot be torque loaded.
cannot be used in areas in excess of 250C.
is pre lubricated and does not need lubricating.
797) How do you prevent earth loops forming on screened
cables?
Do not earth the screen.
Earth both ends of the screen.
Earth one end of the screen.
798) When fitting a shackle pin, fit with
head uppermost.
0.020.
a shake-proof washer under the head.
799) The threads on a stud
are of opposite hand at each end of the plain of portion.
are of the same hand at each end of the plain portion.
are continuous throughout its length and there is no plain portion.
800) The angle between starts on a double start thread is
180 degrees.
120 degrees.
90 degrees.
801) What does 18N and contiguous circles on the head of a bolt
indicate?
1.8 inch threaded portion and plain shank 1/2 inch UNF.
1.8 inch nominal length 1/2 inch BSF.
1.8 inch plain shank 1/2 inch UNF.
802) A UNF bolt is indicated by
a triangle on the head.
2-3 rings on the head.
green dye.
803) Immediately after carrying out an insulation check, which of
the following applies?
A continuity check must be carried out before switching on the circuit for
the first time.
The readings observed and the atmospheric conditions at the time
should be noted and compared to
previous readings.
The observed readings should be noted and an independent check
carried out by another engineer.
804) An Insulation test is carried out on a group of cables and a
low reading obtained. What action
would you take?
A low reading would be expected because the cables are in parallel.
Change or renew all the cables involved in the test.
Break the circuit down and carry out further checks.
805) BITE systems to be used on the ground only are deactivated
by
on take off.
the parking break.
by the undercarriage retraction.
806) After the normal function test of an individual circuit has

been completed and the circuit
switched off
a second function test must be carried out to verify the first.
the fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to check
the isolation of the circuit concerned.
a duplicate check must be carried out in accordance with AWN 3.
807) A millivolt drop check is to be carried out on a heavy duty
relay. The Millivoltmeter would be
connected to the relay
when contacts closed and power is on.
when contacts open and power off.
when contacts are open and power is on.
808) Electrical cables installed on aircraft. What is used to
indicate a fault?
Bonding test
Continuity test
Resistance test
809) When checking resistance of a cable to the starter motor
what test is carried out?
Millivolt drop test.
Safety Ohmmeter.
Time Domain Reflectometer.
810) When inspecting an aircraft after a lightning strike, you
should observe
entry damage.
all signs of burning.
entry and exit damage.
811) To ensure protection against HIRF affecting audio and
navigation aids
ensure that all audio and navigation equipment is adequately screened.
inspect and check all bonding leads to ensure their serviceability and
replace if defective.
ensure that the correct number of static wicks are fitted.
812) Which of the following is a preventive process against
HIRF?
Monitoring HIRF on the communication system.
Visual inspections.
Periodically checking aircraft bonding.
813) How do you prevent aquaplaning during landing?
Reduce flare.
Use reverse thrust.
Put flaps up.
814) Skin wrinkling on the lower surface of a wing is caused by
hogging.
tension.
sagging.
815) After a report of flight through heavy turbulence, you would
check the aircraft symmetry.
carry out a major overhaul.
not carry out any checks.
816) After a heavy landing you should check

engine compressor shaft alignment.
engine thrust alignment.
engine module alignment.
817) A lightning strike on an aircraft would show
the entry and exit point.
the entry point only.
the exit point only.
818) When an engine is not in direct electrical contact with its
mounting, how should it be bonded?
With at least one primary conductor.
With at least two primary conductors on one side of the engine.
With at least two primary conductors, one each side of the engine.
819) HIRF interference occurs when
in use on mid frequencies.
in use on low frequencies.
in use on all frequencies.
820) Non metallic parts of the aircraft
do not require to be bonded because they are non conductive.
must be bonded by bonding leads.
must be bonded by application of conductive paint.
821) Whenever possible a functional test should be carried out
on an aircraft using which power
supply?
The aircraft battery.
The aircraft generators.
An external supply.
822) How many primary bonding conductors are required on an
engine?
1 only
2 on one side
1 on each side
823) What is the primary purpose of bonding of metallic parts of
an aircraft?
To provide a return path for electrical two-wire system.
To prevent high potential differences between metallic parts from
building up.
To prevent lightening strikes.
824) In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks
between airframe and electrical
components carrying voltages greater than 50V RMS or dc
should not exceed
0.05 ohm.
1 ohm.
1 Mohm.
825) Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current
loop leakage should be protected by
earthing each alternate conductor to separate points.
connecting all conductors to a common earth.
shielding each individual conductor.
826) An aircraft with under-wing mounted engines has a heavy

landing, where would you expect to
see wrinkling of the skins?
Bottom skin caused by engine inertia.
Top skin only.
On the top and bottom skins.
827) Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF
protection failure?
Corrosion on bonding leads.
Broken or missing static wicks.
Unserviceable radio filters.
828) What is the reason for a primary bonding connections large
cross-sectional area?
To carry the static discharge current to the conducting nose wheel.
To carry lightening discharge current should the need arise.
To maintain the airframe at the same potential throughout.
829) When an aircraft has been struck by lightning
control surface bearings and hinges should be checked for stiffness in
operation.
control surface freedom of movement need not be checked provided skin
punctures are less than 3/16 inch
diameter.
control surface freedom of movement need not be checked providing the
bonding is undamaged.
830) On an aircraft which has had a heavy landing, on the lower
wing you may see
sagging.
hogging.
wrinkling.
831) After a reported lightning strike
the flight controls should be checked for full and free movement before
the next flight.
the flight controls need to be checked for full and free movement only if
a bonding lead to one of the control
surfaces is found to be burned or broken.
the aircraft and its systems must have a major overhaul before the next
flight.
832) Mandatory Warning Plaques and symbols
must be displayed on all flights.
must be displayed in the cabin only if they are legible.
need not be displayed if they are incorporated in the flight manual.
833) Following a major defect the C of A
is not affected, however may run out on a time basis.
will be invalidated and needs renewing.
Nothing will happen.
834) When storing parts you should use
monitor the temperature.
silica gel.
place in a sealed container.
835) ATA specification 100 is

the procedures which must be complied with before an aircraft can be
given a Certificate of Airworthiness
in the Transport Category (Passenger).
the International standardization of maintenance manuals, illustrated
parts catalogues, overhaul and repair
manuals, service bulletins and letters.
the American FAA specification controlling the manufacture of aluminium
and its alloys.
836) An aircraft should carry at least the following number of
spare fuses:
10.
3.
3. 3 or 10%, whichever is greater.
837) Maintenance Schedules are issued
in a folder with the operators name on the cover.
with an approval certificate by the CAA.
by the operator with CAA approval.
838) After a mandatory inspection has been carried out by a
Licensed Engineer, what is issued
a Certificate of Maintenance Review.
Certificate of Release to Service.
a Flight Release Certificate.
839) A hard time engine inspection involves
replacement with a new or overhauled component.
an in-situ function test.
removal of an engine component, its inspection and refitting.
840) Who approves Maintenance Manuals?
The CAA.
The Department of Trade and Industry.
The Board of Trade.
841) A Certificate of Release to Service must be issued after
a repair has been carried out in accordance with an approved repair
scheme.
a re-fuel has been done.
engine runs.
842) If the operator varies the content of the maintenance
schedule, what action must be taken?
Amend the Maintenance Schedule and seek the CAA approval.
Await CAA approval before amending the Maintenance Schedule.
Amend the Maintenance Schedule.
843) When is an EASA Permit to Fly conditions required?
To allow an unregistered aircraft to fly for air test.
To allow an aircraft to fly on air test to check out a modification.
After a Certificate of Maintenance Review has been signed.
844) When there is an overlap of responsibility, how is the CRS

signed?
Appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineers must each certify the
parts appropriate to their license coverage.
Only one appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer may sign the
CRS as he assumes responsibility for the operation, the other engineers
must sign the paperwork.
An appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer and an ATPL holder
sign the CRS when the aircraft is away from base.
845) Information contained in the ANO is
of a legal nature in all sections and is therefore mandatory.
of a mandatory nature where safety is concerned
written in compliance of the Civil Aviation Act of 1943 ratifying the ICAO
Convention.
846) Air Navigation General Regulations are to be found in
Airworthiness Requirements CAP 455.
British Civil Airworthiness Requirements Section A.
CAA Printed Manual CAP 393.
847) The information in the ANO is given in the form of
Articles of Law, some of which are further clarified by Schedules.
Chapters, each one dealing with a different aspect of Civil Aviation, these
chapters being backed up by the
schedules.
Regulations, each one covering a different aspect of Civil Aviation and as
such is mandatory.
848) British Civil Airworthiness Requirements
form the Technical requirements for the design and operation of aircraft
and their equipment.
interpret the ANO and form the Technical requirements for the design.
are printed by the CAA and are of an advisory nature.
849) A CMR is raised after
defect rectification.
scheduled servicing at specified intervals.
major overhaul.
850) Compliance with the ANO is restricted to
aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK Civil Register only.
aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK & Commonwealth Civil
Registers.
All civil aircraft and their equipment on the international Civil Register.
851) A Certificate of Release to service states that
a task has been carried out in accordance with the ANO.
an operator has satisfied the CAA of his competence.
the aircraft has been maintained to an approved schedule.
852) Technical and Administrative information is officially
circulated to L.A.M.E.S. in
B.C.A.R.s.
A.W.N.s.
CAIP.s.
853) Which of the following NDT methods can be carried out and
certified by a mechanic not approved specifically for NDT
inspections?
Ultrasonic
Magnetic Particle
Neither of proposed.
854) B.C.A.Rs
contain minimum requirements to be met.
are issued by Ministry of Trade and Industry.
detail mandatory requirements for aircraft design and construction.
855) The purpose of the CRS is
to ensure that the log book entry is complete.
to turn a log book or job card entry into a legal document and to ensure
that the signatory takes full
responsibility for the work done.
to comply with article 15 of the ANO which states that an aircraft must
not fly unless it is properly equipped
for the intended flight.
856) Duplicate inspections are
inspections which have to be duplicated but which can finally be certified
by one LAE or approved
signatory.
inspections certified by one approved signatory or LAE and then certified
by a second approved signatory
or LAE.
inspections signed by a mechanic and countersigned by an approved
signatory or licensed engineer.
857) The technical laws relating to Civil Aviation are contained in
the Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures.
the Air Navigation Order.
the Civil Aviation Act 1971.
858) Civil aircraft manufactured in the UK are constructed from
parts that have been
manufactured to approved drawings.
manufactured by British Aerospace.
tested to destruction.
859) Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by
organisations approved by
C.A.A. in accordance with BCAR.
British Standards Institute.
S.B.A.C.
860) Civil Aircraft Airworthiness Information Procedures
contain information of a mandatory nature.
contain approved inspection schedules.
are a guide to the general maintenance of aircraft.
861) British Civil Airworthiness Requirements
specify the minimum qualifications for aircrew and engineers.
list the minimum design requirements for aircraft.
give General technical information.
862) What work has to be recorded and signed for?
Only work which entails a duplicate inspection.
Only work involving replacements.
All work carried out.
863) Are CAAIP. mandatory?

Only selected parts which are in B.C.A.R.
Yes, but only for six months at a time.
No, nothing in CAAIPs is mandatory.
864) With a serviceable chain not required for use, how should
you store it?
Lay the chain flat in full length , lubricate and wrap in brown paper to
exclude all dirt and moisture.
Clean, lubricate, wrap the chain in grease proof paper and suspend.
Carefully coil, lubricate, lay flat and wrap in grease proof paper.
865) What is the licensed engineer responsible for when fitting a
new component to an aircraft?
That the paperwork is signed by an approved signatory.
That is has a green serviceable tag.
The correct part number, the modification state and the serviceability of
the component.
866) If an aircraft exceeded the RVSM, when shall the crew
report the incident in the appropriate
channels?
48 hrs
24 hrs
72 hrs
867) If the aircraft is away from base who may certify the second
part of the duplicate inspection?
a pilot with a licence for the aircraft type.
a pilot with a licence for any similar aircraft type.
any licensed engineer.
868) Block cumulative maintenance means that
all the checks require the same man hour input except for the major
inspections.
each check usually involves an increased aircraft down time.
all the maintenance is carried out in blocks.
869) A separate modification record book is required for
passenger aircraft exceeding 2730 kgs MTWA.
all aircraft.
passenger aircraft exceeding 3600 kgs MTWA.
870) Sector record pages from the Tech Logs, must be
at least duplicated.
retained for two years from the date of issue.
retained for four years from the last effective date.
871) Minimum equipment to be carried is listed in
JAR 145.
JAR OPS.
JAR 25.
872) What should be checked before a licensed engineer signs a
CRS?
That he/she has worked for 6 months on the aircraft type within the
previous 2 years.
That he/she has worked for 4 months on the aircraft type within the
previous 2 years.
That he/she has had continuation training within the previous 2 years.
873) Rubber components should be stored

in a cool dark area.
in warm and humid conditions.
in a well lit room.
874) Storage of components to prevent corrosion is helped
by using silica gel.
by wrapping in grease proof paper.
by placing them in a plastic box.
875) Dye penetrant kits should be stored
out of sunlight in a dry place.
in direct sunlight to keep it dry.
in a dark damp cupboard.
876) When receiving new parts it is the responsibility of the
engineer to check
it has a green serviceable label attached.
it is of the correct modification state and is serviceable.
it was designed to acceptable standards.
877) For airworthiness purposes, aircraft structural parts are
graded as
primary, secondary and tertiary.
class A, B and C.
1, 2 and 3.
878) If an unauthorized repair is carried out
the aircraft can fly with a Certificate of Fitness for Flight.
the Cof A is invalidated until an authorized repair has been done.
the Cof A is not invalidated providing a CRS is issued.
879) A C.of A. for export
does not give authority by it self for the aircraft to fly.
gives authority for the aircraft to fly.
is required before aircraft registration in a foriegn country.
880) A fitness for flight is issued for an aircraft after a major
modification by
the pilot, type rated on that particular aircraft.
a appropriate licensed aircraft engineer.
a CAA surveyor or person approved within the CAA.
881) An unauthorised repair has been carried out
sign a CRS for the repair.
apply for it as a modification.
carryout an approved repair.
882) A Part-66 licensed engineer, when signing a CRS for a non-
Part-145 company would need to
have
maintenance experience for 6 months within the last 24 months.
an aircraft type refresher in the last 24 months.
883) A National UK licensed engineer, when signing a CRS would
need to have
an aircraft type refresher in the last 24 months.
884) Vital point inspections

are points which require special certifying LAEs.
are components which involve duplicate inspections.
are lifed components.
885) On a pre flight check you notice an instrument glass is
cracked. You should
enter into technical log.
check MEL.
tell oncoming captain.
886) A Category-A licenced engineer can sign a CRS for what?
A task he has been locally trained for.
An aircraft that he has sufficient type ratings for.
A task that someone else has completed.
887) When removing a piece of equipment from an aircraft that
supports the aircraft, what should
you do?
Go ahead and remove the part.
Wait for the new part to arrive before replacing.
Fit a jury strut in place of the removed part.
888) How do you prime a dead weight tester?
Wind handle fully out and pour fluid in the reservoir.
Remove the weights and pour fluid into the hole.
Wind handle fully in and pour fluid in the reservoir.
889) What is the problem with using a megger on a piece of
equipment containing capacitors?
Fluctuating readings will occur while the capacitors charge up.
Feedback from the capacitors will blow the megger up.
Impedance in the capacitors will give a false high reading.
890) Water marks on bearings are indications of
bearing insufficiently lubricated.
intergranular corrosion.
bearing been run dry.
891) What is the allowable reaction on a rivet?
2D
1D
1.5D

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584) Fore and aft limits of the CG

605) Increasing the weight of an aircraft

615) When weighing an aircraft with load cells

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655) On inspection of a critical bolted joint you witness black or

665) Control methods for galvanic corrosion include

676) If after forming a crimp in an electrical condutor a high

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717) Which of the following metals can be inspected using the

726) In a test for adequate demagnetization of a component

735) Which of the following defects could not be detected by

756) Which of the following NDT techniques cannot be used on a

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816) After a heavy landing you should check

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835) ATA specification 100 is

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863) Are CAAIP. mandatory?

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