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JRN INSTITUTE OF AVIATION TECHNOLOGY

414/2, RANI KHERA MORE, MUNDKA, DELHI -110 041

SUBJECT :- MATERIAL & HARDWARE-I

INTRODUCTION

1. Which of the following bonds produces amorphous solids? (Module 6 Part I Page 7)
a. covalent bond b. ionic bond
c. metallic bond d. as in (b) and gases and liquids are amorphous.

2. The strength of _______ force determines how strong a substance is: (Module 6 Part I
Page 10)
a. covalent force b. van Der Waals force c. dipole moment d. both (b)
and (c)

3. As the temperature drops, groups of atoms in a liquid loose energy to form individual
cells called: (Module 6 Part I Page 12)
a. dendrite b. seed crystal c. nuclei d. both (b) and (c)

4. If the rate of cooling is slow, the metal becomes: (Module 6 Part I Page 13)
a. fine grained b. coarse grained c. ultra fine grained d.
may be (a) or (b)

5. MTCS (Module 6 Part I Page 13)


a. chill crystals are coarse and adjacent to mould walls
b. coloumnar crystals are elongated
c. equiaxed crystals are present between chill and columnar crystals
d. all of the above are correct

6. The property of a metal to exist in one form at a particular temperature and


transform into another when cooled below a transition temperature is called: (Module
6 Part I Page 14)
a. polymorphism b. as in (a) and allotropy
c. as in (b) and electromorphism d. all of the above

7. The point above which the forces of attraction are overcome and the planes of atoms
slip over each other to form deformations is called: (Module 6 Part I Page 15)
a. elastic point b. yield point c. breaking stress d.
ultimate breaking stress

8. _________ occurs because of cold working: (Module 6, Part-I Page-16)


a. work hardening b. annealing c. strain hardening d.
both (a) and (b)

9. Substitutional solution is formed when atoms of solute are _______ than the atoms of
solvent: (Module 6, Part-I Page-19)
a. smaller b. larger c. equivalent size d. does not matter

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SUBJECT :- MATERIAL & HARDWARE-I

10. When the solute atoms position themselves in the spaces between the solvent atoms
it forms: (Module 6, Part-I Page-19)
a. substitutional solution b. interstitial solution c. intermittent solution
d. both (b) and (c)

11. These are formed when metals that are chemically very different combine, or metal
and non-metal combine. (Module 6, Part-I Page-19)
a. solid solutions b. eutectics c. intermetallics d. hyper
eutectic

12. Which of these has a layered structure? (Module 6, Part-I Page-20)


a. solid solutions b. eutectics c. intermetallic

13. The curved line in an equilibrium diagram where liquification begins is called:
(Module 6, Part-I Page-22)
a. solidus b. liquidus c. semisolidus d. semiliquidus

14. Coring occurs due to (Module 6, Part-I Page-25)


a. fast cooling rates b. slow cooling rates
c. non dependent on cooling rates d. non homogenous mixture

15. Materials tendency to fracture without plastic deformation is called: (Module 6,


Part-I Page-28)
a. yielding b. strain c. brittleness d. both (b) and (c)

16. Materials resistance to bending or impact forces:


a. hardness b. toughness c. creep strength d. fatigue
strength

17. The value of stress which can be endured for an infinite number of cycles without
fatigue damage is called: (Module 6, Part-I Page-29)
a. fatigue limit b. fatigue stress c. yield limit d. yield
stress

18. MTCS (Module 6, Part-I Page-22)


a. the upper critical temperature is fixed for all types of steels
b. the lower critical temperature is fixed for all types of steels
c. the upper critical temperature depends upon the carbon content of steel
d. both (a) and (c)

19. Which of these is the purest form of iron? (Module 6, Part-I Page-35)
a. pig iron b. wrought iron c. cast iron

20. Rate of cooling is ________ to final hardness (Module 6, Part-I Page-36)

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a. directly proportional b. inversely proportional c. does not depend


upon

21. At room temperature steel exists as: (Module 6, Part-I Page-36)


a. ferrite b. pearlite c. austenite d. martensite

22. Combined structure of ferrite and cementite is: (Module 6, Part-I Page-36)
a. hyper eutectoid b. hypo eutectoid c. semi eutectoid d. may be (a) or
(b)

23. Combined structure of ferrite and pearlite is: (Module 6, Part-I Page-36)
a. hyper eutectoid b. hypo eutectoid c. semi eutectoid d. may be
(a) or (b)

24. If the rate of cooling is high the structure produced is: (Module 6, Part-I Page-39)
a. pearlite b. ferrite c. martensite d. cementite

25. MTCS (Module 6, Part-I Page-40)


a. white cast iron has the property of self-lubrication
b. grey cast iron is a combination of ferrite and pearlite
c. white cast iron is a combination of ferrite and pearlite
d. both (a) and (c)

26. Percentage of carbon in high carbon steel approximately ranges from: (Module 6,
Part-I Page-40)
a. 0.3 to 0.7 b. 0.7 to 1.5 c. 0.3 to 1.5 d. there is no
such specification

27. MTCS (Module 6, Part-I Page-43)


a. Nickel has graphitizing effect on steel
b. Ni helps in a formation of austenitic steel
c. INVAR steel is used for making precision measuring instruments
d. All of the above

28. Which of the following stainless steels contains carbon in large proportions?
(Module 6, Part-I Page-45)
a. ferritic b. martensitic c. austenitic d. none

29. Which of the following stainless steels contains nickel? (Module 6, Part-I Page-45)
a. ferritic b. martensitic c. austenitic d. none

30. Surface hardness is a property of : (Module 6, Part-I Page-46)


a. silicon steel b. manganese steel c. chrome vanadium steel
d. stainless steel

31. Temper brittleness and weld decay can be avoided by: (Module 6, Part-I Page-45)

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a. decreasing the rate of cooling b. increasing the rate of


cooling
c. as in (a) and adding small amount of molybdenum d. both (b) and (c)

32. Chrome vanadium steel is used for making: (Module 6, Part-I Page-47)
a. spanners b. ball bearings c. roller bearings d. all of the above

33. Which metal improves the casting characteristics of cast iron? (Module 6, Part-I
Page-47)
a. silicon b. vanadium c. tungsten d. nickel

34. Which if the following metals increases magnetic properties of steel? (Module 6,
Part-I Page-46)
a. silicon b. tungsten c. cobalt d. chromium

35. Which of these metals slows the heat treatment transformation time? (Module 6,
Part-I Page-46)
a. cobalt b. as in (a) and tungsten c. as in (a) and boron d. only (c)
is correct

36. Which of the following steels has the property of self hardening? (Module 6, Part-I
Page-48)
a. tool steel b. high speed steel c. free cutting steel d.
maraging steel

37. Chromium is added to steel to: (Module 6, Part-I Page-47)


a. give a fine grain structure and reduce brittleness
b. increase its work hardening capacity
c. increase hardness and corrosion resistance

38. Austenitic steel: (Module 6, Part-I Page-45)


a. does not expand or contract b. does not respond to heat treatment
c. is magnetic

39. Steel is the term given to: (Module 6, Part-I Page-35)


a. iron that contains a percentage of carbon in solution
b. iron that contains one or more elements in addition to carbon
c. a metal that is predominantly made of iron

40. Which of these marking methods are not used on aircraft structures? (Module 6,
Part-I Page-51)
a. acid etching b. embossing c. grit blasting d.
electrical etching

41. Which of the following methods of marking is used in the casting stage of material?
(Module 6, Part-I Page-51)

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SUBJECT :- MATERIAL & HARDWARE-I

a. machine engraving b. stamping c. adhesive labels d. embossing

42. Adhesive labels can be made up of: (Module 6, Part-I Page-52)


a. non metallic materials b. metal foil c. rubber d. all of
the above

43. Metal marking should consist of: (Module 6, Part-I Page-53)


a. specification numberb. manufacturer name c. batch number d. all of
the above

44. Intermetallics are formed in which of these steels? (Module 6, Part-I Page-49)
a. tool steel b. high speed steel c. maraging steels d. all
of the above

45. Which of these metals is never used with steel alone? (Module 6, Part-I Page-47)
a. cobalt b. chromium c. vanadium d. boron

46. Which of these is the weakest bond? (Module 6, Part-I Page-9)


a. ionic bond b. covalent bond c. metallic bond

47. Work hardening occurs due to: (Module 6, Part-I Page-16)


a. hot working b. cold working c. strain hardening

48. When no solute dissolves in solvent anymore, the solution is said to be: (Module 6,
Part-I Page-18)
a. saturated b. supersaturated
c. hypersaturated d. hyposaturated

49. How many liquidus are present in an equilibrium diagram? (Module 6, Part-I Page-
22)
a. one b. two c. three d. both (a) and (b)

50. Which of the following metals is allotrophic?


a. iron b. as in (a) and Carbon c. manganese d. all
of the above

FERROUS

51. Ferrous metals are so-called because their main constituent is:- (Module 6, Part-I
Page-35)
a. carbon b. iron c. cementite

52. A metals resistance to fracture under the action of external bending or impact
forces is called:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-28)
a. hardness b. strength c. toughness

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53. The maximum percentage of carbon of carbon that can be dissolved in iron at room
temperature is:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-36)
a. less than when the iron is above its upper critical temperature
b. more than when it is above its upper critical temperature
c. the same regardless of the temperature of the iron

54. Steel is a term given to:-


a. iron that contains a percentage of carbon is solution
b. iron that contains one or more elements in addition to carbon
c. a metal that is predominantly made of iron

55. High carbon steel contains:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-41)


a. 0.2% to 0.5% carbon b. 0.7% to 1.5% carbon c. 2% to 5% carbon

56. An alloy containing 75% nickel and 25% cobalt would be called:- (Module 6, Part-I
Page-42)
a. nickel steel alloy b. high nickel alloy c. low cobalt steel alloy

57. Stainless steels must contain a minimum chromium percentage of:- (Module 6, Part-
I Page-44)
a. 3% b. 5% c. 12%

58. Chromium is added to steel to:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-43)


a. give a fine grain structure and reduce brittleness
b. increase its work hardening capacity
c. increase hardness and corrosion resistance

59. Temper brittleness is a feature of:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-45)


a. nickel steel b. austenitic stainless steel c. high carbon steel

60. A property of Inver steel is that it:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-43)


a. has an extremely low coefficient of expansion
b. has very high permeability
c. self-hardness under mechanical pressure

61. A small percentage of lead is added to some steels to:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-47)
a. improve their machinability b. reduce their brittleness c. improve their wear
resistance

62. A suitable material for use in an aircraft landing gear structure would be:- (Module
6, Part-I Page-46)
a. high carbon steel b. tungsten, cobalt alloy steel c. chrome,
molybdenum alloy steel

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63. A suitable alloy for use in an engine turbine wheel would be:- (Module 6, Part-I
Page-44)
a. ferritic stainless steel b. martensitic stainless steel c. medium
carbon steel

64. Austnitic steel:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-45)


a. does not expand or contract b. does not respond to heat treatment
c. is magnetic

65. When carbon steel is being tempered it is cooled:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-66)
a. slowly in t he furnace b. freely in still air c. by quenching

66. When nickel is added to steel its main effect is to increase:-


a. toughness b. hardness c. corrosion resistance

67. The heat treatment that softens steel and makes it more ductile is called:- (Module
6, Part-I Page-59)
a. tempering b. annealing c. normalizing

68. The heat treatment that relieves locked up stresses and refines grain structure is
called:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-62)
a. tempering b. annealing c. normalizing

69. The fatigue limit for a component is defined as:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-89)
a. the maximum load that can be endured for an infinite number of load cycles
b. the load at which the component will instantly fail
c. the minimum load that can be endured for an infinite number of load cycles

70. Yield stress is the maximum stress that can be endured without:- (Module 6, Part-I
Page-87)
a. fracture b. permanent distortion c. work hardening

71. The hardness test that is most suited to very hard and very soft materials is the:-
(Module 6, Part-I Page-78)
a. brinell hardness test b. vickers hardness test c. barcol hardness test

72. An impact test result for metal test pieces is a measure of the:- (Module 6, Part-I
Page-90)
a. energy remaining after impacting and breaking the test piece
b. energy at the start of the pendulums swing
c. energy absorbed by the test piece

73. Which of these statements of false?


a. brittle material cannot have high tensile strength
b. brittle material cannot have high toughness

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c. brittle material cannot have high ductility

74. Tungsten and chromium will harden carbon steel by:- (Module 6, Part-I Page-47)
a. dissolving in ferrite and creating a fine grain structure
b. distorting the grain structure
c. reacting with carbon and forming carbide

75. The term high speed steel refers to alloy steels that are used for:- (Module 6, Part-I
Page-48)
a. high speed aircraft b. high speed cutting tools c. high rotational
speed components

76. In American steel codes, the first number identifies (Module 6, Part-I Page-56)
a. the type of steel b. the major alloying element
c. percentage of major alloying element. d. carbon content

77. 6XXX is a type of (Module 6, Part-I Page-56)


a. vanadium steel b. chromium steel
c. chrome-vanadium steel d. nickel steel

78. In British steel codes, the last two figures identify (Module 6, Part-I Page-55)
a. 100 times the percentage of carbon content b. state that the material is
supplied in
c. type of steel d. tensile strength of the material

79. In British steel codes, the first three digits identify the (Module 6, Part-I Page-33)
a. type of steel b. state that the material is in
c. fatigue loading of the material d. carbon content

80. SAE 5820 has (Module 6, Part-I Page-56)


a. nickel as the major alloying element b. it has 0.2% carbon
c. it has 0.8% nickel d. all of the above are correct.

81. The primary motive of annealing is to (Module 6, Part-I Page-59)


a. make the steel soft and brittle b. make the steel ductile and tough
c. make the steel soft and ductile d. as in (a) and make the steel workable

82. Stress relief is a process normally used on (Module 6, Part-I Page-59)


a. mild steel b. wrought steel
c. carbon steel having more than 0.4% carbon d. none of the above

83. In annealing cooling is done in (Module 6, Part-I Page-60)


a. the oven b. as in (a) and sometimes buried in ashes
c. as in (b) and cooled inside the furnace d. all of the above

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84. Heating temperature of spheroidising is (Module 6, Part-I Page-60)


a. above upper critical temperature
b. below lower critical temperature
c. above lower critical temperature

85. In full annealing the heating temperature is (Module 6, Part-I Page-61)


a. 30 to 50 degrees above lower critical temperature
b. 30 to 50 degrees above upper critical temperature
c. 30 to 50 degrees below lower critical temperature
d. may be (a) or (b)

86. Cementite breaks up and forms globules of cementite in (Module 6, Part-I Page-61)
a. stress relief b. spherodising c. full annealing d. granodising

87. The object of normalizing is (Module 6, Part-I Page-62)


a. to restore the whole structure to a uniform state b. object becomes less brittle
and tougher
c. it relieves any internal stresses. d. all of the above

88. Cooling in normalizing is done in (Module 6, Part-I Page-62)


a. water b. oil c. still air d. furnace

89. In tempering (Module 6, Part-I Page-66)


a. brittleness is reduced b. makes it tough
c. value of hardness changes d. both (b) and (c) are correct

90. Which of the following are types of hardness testing? (Module 6, Part-I Page-80)
a. wohler test b. charpy test
c. as in (a) and brinells hardness test d. rockwell hardness testing

91. Which of the following processes need nitralloy for case hardening? (Module 6, Part-
I Page-71)
a. iontriding b. carbonitriding c. both (a) and (b) d. all of the above

92. Penetrator in brinells hardness tester is: (Module 6, Part-I Page-75)


a. diamond tipped b. steel ball c. hardened steel ball d. both (a)
and (b)

93. The basic principle of hardness testing is: (Module 6, Part-I Page-75)
a. resistance to impact b. resistance to penetration
c. resistance to breakage d. resistance to bending

94. Which of the following combinations is correct? (FAA 9A-219)


a. B-scale, 3000 kg, steel ball, red b. C-scale, 150 kg, steel ball, red
c. B-scale, 100 kg, steel ball, red d. C-scale, 150 kg, steel ball, black

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95. Rockwell tester measures the (FAA 9A-219)


a. dia of indentation b. depth of indentation
c. diagonal of indentation d. average of diagonals of indentation

96. Which of these are portable hardness testers? (Module 6, Part-I Page-81)
a. barcol b. brinell c. as in (a) and shore scleroscope d. all of the
above

97. Percentage elongation is the ratio between increase in _____ length by original
______ length. (Module 6, Part-I Page-86)
a. gauge, parallel respectively b. gauge, gauge c. parallel, gauge d.
gauge, total

98. Impact testing is done to check the ________ of a material (Module 6, Part-I Page-89)
a. hardness b. toughness c. ductility d. yield strength

99. Partial case hardening can be done by (Module 6, Part-I Page-71)


a. electrodepositing copper b. coat the area with fireclay
c. machine the case off after carburizing d. all of the above

100. In iontriding the material to be case hardened is made the (Module 6, Part-I Page-
72)
a. cathode b. anode c. electrolyte d. any of the above

MATERIAL TESTING

101. Which if the following are types of impact tests? (Module 6, Part-I Page-
89)
a. bend tests b. izod test c. as in (b) and charpy test d. all of the
above are correct.

102. MTCS: (Module 6, Part-I Page-89)


a. impact testing tests the resistance to penetration of a material
b. kinetic energy of a heavy swinging pendulum is used for the test
c. the greater the impact resistance of the material, lesser will be the energy used in
fracturing it
d. all of the above

103. MTCS (Module 6, Part-I Page-90)


a. in izod test the test piece is mounted in cantilever position
b. the machined notch is made facing the pendulum
c. the striker impacts the test piece at a position above the notch
d. all of the above

104. MTCS (Module 6, Part-I Page-91)

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a. the charpy test piece is supported at each end b. notch is at the middle of
the test piece
c. notch faces away from the striker d. all of the above

105. MTCS (FAA 9A-218)


a. the penetrator in brinnells hardness tester is hardened steel ball.
b. the radius of the ball is 10mm
c. pressure of 3000 kg is used on non-ferrous metals.
d. all of the above

106. for what duration is the pressure maintained in brinells hardness tester
(FAA 9A-218)
a. 10 sec for ferrous metals b. 10 sec for non-ferrous metals
c. 30 sec for ferrous metals d. both (a) and (c) are correct

107. brinells hardness number is found out by measuring the (FAA 9A-
218)
a. depth of penetration b. diameter of impression
c. force applied by the tester d. Both (a) and (c) are correct

108. The specimen in Impact Test is notched: (Titterton, Pg 16)


a. to Break the specimen b. to make the specimen a weak.
c. its a Test requirement d. none

109. Rockwell tester measures (Page 218, FAA 9)


a. depth b. dia of impression c. area of impression d.
onlyb is correct

110. Outer circle of Rockwell hardness tester gauge is ___________ (Page 218, FAA 9)
a. Red b. Black c. Green d. only a. is
correct

111. C scale has range: (Ref. Titt, Pg.16)


a. 0-100 b. 20-70 c. 50-100 d. 100-150

112. For checking the Hardness of very thin A1 sheet which Testing method is
appropriate? (Ref. Titt, Pg.17)
a. Brinell b. Rockwell c. Vickers d. Store scelero scope

113. While carrying out Bending Test of a sheet or strip it is to be bent to (Titterton,
Page 17)
a. 1600 b. 1800 c. 1900 d. 2000

114. Appropriate range of Barcol Tester is: (FAA 9A, 220)


a. 25-75 Brinell b. 25-80 Brinell c. 25-100 Brinell d. 25-125 Brinell

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115. While using extensometer to find out elastic limit it should be attached to
(Titterton, Pg 5)
a. cross head b. specimen c. anywhere d. a and c

116. In Rockwell hardness testing while using steel ball of 1/16 dia the to be read is
(Titterton, Pg 219)
a. white b. black c. red d. pink

117. In Rockwell hardness testing while using diamond cone dial to be read is
(Titterton, Pg 219)
a. red b. black c. white d. pink

118. While using Diamond Pyramid Hardness Testing Machine the Hardness numbers
are (Titterton, Pg 15)
a. identical to Brinell Hardness b. identical to Rockwell Hardness
c. identical to Barcol Tester d. none of the above.

119. In Diamond Pyramid Testing a diamond Penetrater, square Base Pyramid is used
have included angle of (Titte, 15)
a.1200 b. 1250 c. 1360 d. 1460

120. In Diamond Pyramid Testing load applied for homogenous material is (Titterton, Pg
15)
a. 20 kg b. 30 kg c. 40 kg d. 50 kg

121. In Diamond Pyramid Testing load applied for softer material is (Titterton, Pg 15)
a. 2 kg b. 3 kg c. 4 kg d. 5 kg

122. Shore scleroscope hardness testing is used to find out (Titterton, Pg 15)
a. quality of Heat Treatment b. hardness induced by Heat Treatment
c. used for soft materials only d. to obtain comparative hardness

123. In shore scleroscope Testing normally rebounds taken are (Titterton, Pg 15)
a. 5 Rebounds b. 3 Rebounds
c. 4 Rebounds d. depends on the metal being tested

124. The scale on shore scleroscope ranges from (Tittert, 15)


a. 0-100 b. 0-120 c. 0-125 d. 0-130

125. For testing hard & soft metals the commonly used scales are: (FAA-9A,P-219)
a. B & C b. E & B c. G & D d. none

126. Solid solution of cementite in gamma iron is [T-46]


a. cementite b. parlite c. austenite d. ferrite

127. Steel with less than 0.85% of carbon are known as [T-45]

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a. critical point b. hyper eutectoid c. point of sublimation d.


hypo eutectoid

128. Low carbon steel have __________ critical points. [T-44]


a. 2 b. 1 c. 5 d. 3

129. All critical points are united at a carbon % of [T-44]


a. 0.4 % b. 0.85% c. 1% d. .001%

130. The life of thermocouple is affected by [ 9A- 206]


A) Maximum temperature B) Furnace atmosphere C) Circuit used
a. A only b. B only c. A & C d. A & B

131. In pyrometer color of hearth or works gives [ 9A, 207]


a. extremely difficult to detect c. least accurate temperature
b. moderate temperature d. most accurate temperature

132. In solid carburizing, a depth of case of ------- inch obtained, when it is heated at
temperature of 1650 degree F and for the time period of ----------- hours [ T 71]
a. 1/32 , 2 hr b. 1/64 , 4 hr c. 1/64 , 2 hr d.
1/32, 4 hr

133. Ammonia gas is passed over the heated parts for nitriding for a period of
(Titterton, Pg 77)
a. 5-40 hrs b. 10-50 hrs c. 10-100 hrs. d. 20-100
hrs.

134. Within 50 hours of heating & ammonia atmosphere the depth of case is (Titterton,
Pg 77)
a. 0.015 b. 0.020 c. 0.025 d. 0.030

135. In flame hardening the parts are heated by ----- and is known as workshop method
(Hajra Choudhary, Pg 140)
a. welding torch b. open hearth c. Electric furnace d. blow pump

136. After cyaniding quenching is done in : (Titterton, Pg 75)


a. brine b. water c. oil d. either b. or c.

137. What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after it has been
annealed:
a. rapid cooling; high strength b. slow cooling; low strength
c. slow cooling; increased resistance to wear FAA-9A-211

138. The reheating of a heat treated metal, such as with a welding torch:
a. has little or no effect on a metals heat treated characteristics

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b. has a cumulative enhancement of effect on the original heat treatment


c. can significantly alter a metals properties in the reheated area
A/C Material & Process by George F.T., P-48

139. Why is steel tempered after being hardened:


a. to increase its hardness and ductility
b. to increase its strength and decrease its internal stress
c. to relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness
A/C Material & Process by George F.T., P-50

140. Last two digits in the designation of steel represents:


a. percentage of carbon b. one hundredth of carbon
percentage.
c. one hundredth of carbon percent middle range d. none
(Ref. Titt, Pg.28)

NON FERROUS

141. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum:
a. aluminium alloy containing 11 percent copper
b. aluminium alloy contain zinc
c. 99 percent commercially pure aluminium
FAA-9A-199

142. Alclad is a metal consisting of: FAA-9A-201


a. aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure aluminum core
b. pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core
c. a homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy

143. Aluminium is used on the Aircraft construction because of (FAA 9A Pg 198)


a. light metal b. abundantly available in the nature
c. Easy to produce d. because of strength to weight ratio

144. In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates:
a. the major alloying element
b. the number of major alloying elements used in the metal
c. the percent of alloying metal added
FAA-9A-199

145. The best known alloy of 2000 series is (FAA 9A, Pg 199)
a. 2014 b. 2024 c. 2025 d. 2011

146. In 5000 series of aluminium alloy it is an alloy of (FAA 9A, Pg 199)


a. Silicon b. manganese c. magnesium d. zinc

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147. Anti-corrosion treatment given to aluminium alloys is (FAA 9A - 183)


a. chromating b. nitriding c. galvanizing d. anodizing

148. Heat treatments given to aluminium alloys is (FAA 9A, Pg 212)


a. annealing b. solution treatment
c. precipitation treatment d. all are correct

149. Aluminium alloys are annealed by heating to a temperature and quenching in


water. (Titterton 164)
a. 640-6700F b. 650-6800F c. 660-7000F d. 700-7200F

150. In extrusion of aluminium alloys a cylinder of aluminium alloy is heated to a


temperature------and then forced by a hydraulic ram (Titterton 152)
a. 700-8000F b. 750-8500F c. 800-9000F d. 850-9500F

151. For carrying out heat treatment on 2117 aluminium alloy the process carried out is
(Titterton 156)
a. annealing b. solution treatment
c. precipitation treatment d. none of the above.

152. In Alelad, aluminium coating : (FAA 9A, Pg 201)


a. prevents contact with corrosive agents b. protecting the core
electrolytically
c. preventing scratching or abrasions. d. all are correct

153. Magnesium alloys having internal residue stress when subjected to corrosive
atmosphere (Titterton 23c.
a. white powder will be formed on the surface b. black or brown powder will be
formed on the surface.
c. inter crystalline corrosion will be formed. d. surface will have crack or
fracture.

154. Which ore has highest concentration of Magnesium (Titterton 195)


a. carnallite b. magnesite c. dolomite d. sederite

155. Which rivet is suitable for joining magnesium alloy sheets (Titterton 225)
a. 2017 b. 3003 c. 5056 d. 1100

156. In Magnesium Alloy Aging done after Solution heat treatment will (Titterton
200)
a. increases Hardness b. increases Yield Strength
c. minimizes Growth at high temperatures d. all of the above

157. Brass alloy with 40% Zn is called : (Titterton 140)/9A,Pg 203)


a. hg-tensile brass b. manganese bronze c. muntz metal d. got
metal

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158. Beryllium copper can be (9A 203)


a. heat treated b. bear wear and tear c. both a and b d.
can be case hardened

159. Brass is a Alloy of (9A -203)


a. copper & Tin b. copper & Lead c. copper & Zinc d. copper , Tin &
Zinc

160. What is true about Inconel (Titterton 123)


A. Its a Alloy of Nickel & Chromium
B. It can be hardened by heat treatment
C. It can retain its properties at high temperatures
a. Only A b. A & B c. A & C d. B & C

161. Cold Worked metal has (FAA 9A , Pg 194)


a. very good strength and hardness b. as in (a. and no internal stresses
c. as in b and distorted crystals d. as in (c. and low ductility

162. K monel is a : (9A 204)


a. nickel-chromium alloy b. nickel-copper alloy
c. nickel-copper-chromium alloy d. nicekl-copper-aluminium alloy

163. Which one is a non-magnetic alloy : (9A 204)


a. K monel b. magnesium alloy c. CRS d. all the
above are correct

164. The % of Ni is highest in the following alloy: (Titterton 123)


a. Monel b. In conel c. K-monel d. nichrome

165. Monel is a Alloy of (Titterton 129)


a. Nickel & Chromium b. Nickel & Copper c. Nickel & Aluminum d.
Molebdenum & Nickel

166. K Monel is alloy of (Titterton 132)


a. Ni, Mo b. Ni, Cu c. Ni, Cu, Al d. Ni, Fe

167. In appearance titanium is similar to (9A 201)


a. nickel b. Brass c. cadmium d. c & R.S

168. Pure aluminium is (FAA 9A, Pg 198)


a. white lustrous metal b. white and grayish c. grey in appearance
d. resemble Nickel

169. Tensile strength of pure aluminium is (FAA 9A, Pg 198)

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a. 12000 psi b. 12500 psi c. 13000 psi d. 13500 psi

170. Aluminium is very ductile and can be drawn into wire of the dia of (FAA 9A, Pg
198)
a. 0.001 b. 0.003 c. 0.004 d. 0.005

171. In comparison with mild steel Aluminium is (Titterton,Pg 146)


a. heavier than mild steel b. same weight as mild steel
c. half of the weight of mil d steel

172. The major impurities in 1000 series of Al-alloy is/are: (FAA 9A, Pg 199)
a. silicon b. zinc c. silicon & iron d. silicon & zinc

173. All materials used in aircraft construction must: (FAA 9 A, Pg 19b.


a. Have a good strength / weight ratio. b. Be thoroughly reliable
c. Have specific properties the material selected for d. All the above answers
are correct.

174. Precipitation heat treatment of aluminium alloys consists of (FAA 9A, Pg 21d.
a. ageing material which has been previously subjected to solution heat
treatment
b. precipitating impurities from Al-alloys
c. putting the alloying constituents to crystallise at the core
d. none of the above

175. Appearance of magnesium is (FAA 9A , P 20d.


a. milky white b. blueish white c. yellowish white d.
silvery white

176. Magnesium can be produced from (9A, 20d.


a. dolomite, magnesite & waste solution of potash
b. dolomite, Bauxite, underground sea brine.
c. dolomite, Mica, Magnesite & Underground sea water.
d. dolomite, Magnesite, Potash & Underground sea water Brine.

177. When Magnesium alloys having different composition are in contact & are under
the influence of moisture. (Titterton 233)
a. stress corrosion will be formed b. galvanic corrosion will be formed
c. no effect d. surface will become passive.

178. Surface contamination due to metallic impurities on magnesium alloys is to be


removed by (Titterton 233)
a. by anodic cleaning b. by filing c. acid pickling d.
alkaline treatment

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179. Magnesium alloys having internal residue stress when subjected to corrosive
atmosphere (Titterton 233)
a. white powder will be formed on the surface b. black or brown powder will be
formed on the surface.
c. inter crystalline corrosion will be formed. d. surface will have crack or
fracture.

180. Muntz metal is composed of (FAA 9A Pg 20c.


a. 60% copper and 40% zinc b. 65% copper and 35% zinc
c. 63% copper and 37% zinc d. 80% copper and 20% zinc

181. Tensile strength of Muntz Metal is (FAA 9A Pg 20c.


a. 40,000 psi b. 50,000 psi c. 60,000 psi d. 70,000 psi

182. Bronze is an alloy of : (FAA 9A Pg 20c.


a. copper and zinc b. copper and tin c. nickel and tin d. copper
and nickel

183. Season cracking can be relieved by :- (Titterton 145)


a. low temp. Annealing b. normalizing c. tempering d.
high tempr. Annealing

184. While carrying out moistening test of titanium it leave ---- on the glass (9A 20a.
a. brownish line b. greyish line c. black line d. dull appearance

185. Titanium has the property of (9A 201).


a. low thermal conductivity & low co-efficient of expansion
b. high thermal conductivity & low co-efficient of expansion
c. low thermal conductivity & High co-efficient of expansion
d. none of the above.

186. While comparing with CRS Titanium is -------- lighter (9A 20a.
a.10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 50%

187. Pure Titanium is softer, to make it fatigue resistant and quench hardenable it is
alloyed with (9A 20b.
a. iron, molybdenum & chromium b. cobalt, tungsten & chromium
c. molybdenum & vanadium d. iron, silicon & chromium

188. Annealing of titanium is carried out by heating it to --- for a period of ------- (9A
217)
a. 1200-15500F for 16 min b. 1200-16000F for 16 hours
c. 1200-1650 F for several hrs
0
d. 1200-16500F as recommended

189. Tensile strength of aluminium can be increased by (FAA 9A, Pg 198)


a. rolling and cold working b. by adding alloying elements

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c. by heat treating aluminium alloys d. all are correct

190. Alclad materials are held only for the minimum time the soaking temperature
___(T-152)
a. to prevent the cladding from being separated from the core-material
b. to prevent the diffusion of the alloying constituents from the core to
cladding
c. to prevent the loss of strength of the core metal
d. none of the above

191. Aging at any predefined temperature is known as (FAA 9A, Pg 21d.


a. natural Aging b. artificial Aging
c. solution Heat Treatment d. stabilizing

192. Solution heat treatment of all alloys is surnamed because (Titterton, Pg 156)
a. during this treatment the alloying constituents are solidified in aluminium
b. during this treatment the alloying elements enter into the solid solution in
the aluminium
c. during this treatment the percentage composition of the aluminium alloy gets
changed in the solid solution
d. none of the above

193. Precipitation heat treatment of aluminium alloys consists of (FAA 9A, Pg 214).
a. ageing material which has been previously subjected to solution heat
treatment
b. precipitating impurities from Al-alloys
c. putting the alloying constituents to crystallize at the core
d. none of the above

194. In weighs Mg ------- as much as aluminium (9A, P 204).


a. 1/3 b. 2/3 c. 1/4 d. 1/8

195. The lightest structural metal is (9A, 204).


a. magnesium b. silver c. platinum d. gold

196. Beryllium copper is used for (FAA 9A Pg 203).


a. precision Bearing & Roller Bearings
b. roller bearing, Engine bolts & Engine washers
c. bushes & needle bearing
d. diaphragms, Bushings, Resistance welding electrodes

197. Muntz metal is used to make ------ (FAA 9A Pg 203)


a. washers & locking washers b. turn buckles c. bolts & nuts d.
none of these

198. The solid solution of cu in zinc is : (FAA 9A Pg 20c.

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a. steel b. brass c. monel metal d. sterling silver

199. What is true about Inconel (Titterton 123)


A) Its a Alloy of Nickel & Chromium B) It can be hardened by heat
treatment
C) It can retain its properties at high temperatures
a. only A) b. A) & B) c. A) & C) d. B) & C)

200. Titanium is resistant to (9A 201)


a. intercrystalline corrosion b. stress corrosion
c. galvanic corrosion d. surface contamination

201. Heat treatment carried out on titanium is (9A 217)


a. stress relieving b. refining c. normalizing d. none of these

202. After stress relieving process the titanium component is pickled in for removing
the scales. (9A 217)
a. sulphuric acid & Hydrochloric acid b. nitric acid & hydrofluoric acid
c. nitric acid & sulphuric acid d. phosphoric acid & hydrochloric acid

203. Titanium components can be case hardened by (FAA 9A, 9A 217)


a. nitriding & cyaniding b. cyaniding & carburizing
c. induction Hardening d. nitriding & carburizing

CORROSION

204. Which of these is a requirement for formation of corrosion? (FAA 9A 171)


a. metal that will corrode b. dissimilar conductive structure
c. presence of electrolyte d. all of the above

205. Dry corrosion is also known as: (FAA 9A 171)


a. reduction b. oxidation c. crystallization d. anodization

206. Which of these is a protective scaling:


a. phosphate layer b. rust c. aluminium oxide layer d. both (a)
& (c)

207. Which of these causes direct chemical attack? (FAA 9A 171)


a. battery acids b. residual welding flux
c. caustic cleaning solutions d. all of the above

208. Short, well defined edge will walls that run almost perpendicular to the surface of
the metal (FAA 9A 171)
a. crack b. lap c. seam d. pit

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209. Dissimilar metal corrosion is also known as: (FAA 9A 171)


a. galvanic corrosion b. non-uniform corrosion
c. crevice corrosion d. all of the above

210. The metal that is destroyed because of corrosion acts as: (FAA 9A 171)
a. anode b. cathode
c. electrolyte d. any of the above can correct

211. The metal that remains unaffected even after corrosion acts as: (FAA 9A 171)
a. anode b. cathode c. electrolyte d. any of the above

212. In oxygen concentration cell corrosion metal decays: (jepessen)


a. in the open surface b. in the area between the skins c. any part of the
skin

213. In metal ion concentration cell corrosion, OH- ions are more concentrated in:
(Jeppessen)
a. open area b. enclosed area
c. equal concentration d. cannot be determined

214. In metal ion concentration cell corrosion, anodic area is: (Jepessen)
a. enclosed area b. open area c. wherever electrolyte is present

215. Which corrosion occurs because of the wash primer applied of a surface, not dried
properly:- (Jepessen)
a. crevice corrosion b. oxygen conc. Cell corrosion
c. filiform corrosion d. all of the above

216. Which corrosion occurs under polyurethane metal finishes? (Jepessen)


a. filiform corrosion b. intergranular corrosion
c. fretting corrosion d. cavitation corrosion

217. MTCS about intergranular corrosion (Jepessen)


a. caused due to non-uniform grain structure b. improper heat treatment
c. also called metallic cancer d. all of the above

218. Which of those corrosions generally occurs beneath the surface and is invisible
initially (FAA 9A 172)
a. filiform b. exfoliation c. intergranular d. cavitation

219. MTCS:- (FAA 9A 172)


a. exfoliation is the severe form of fretting corrosion
b. material can be used even after it has got exfoliation corrosion
c. exfoliation causes the material to delaminate
d. all of the above

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220. Which of these corrosion is caused due to the combined effect of tensile force a
corrosive environment? (FAA 9A 172)
a. crevice corrosion b. cavitation corrosion c. stress corrosion
d. erosion corrosion

221. When two parts normally at rest, can move relative to one another, ____________
corrosion occurs:- (FAA 9A 173)
a. dissimilar metal corrosion b. erosion corrosion
c. cavitation corrosion d. fretting corrosion

222. Which of these terms is associated with fretting corrosion: (FAA 9A 173)
a. false brinelling b. true brinellin c. rivet puffing d.
both (a) and (c)

223. The reaction which mercury attacks aluminium, is called:- (Jeppessen)


a. oxidation b. reduction c. amalgamation d.
hydration

224. If mercury is spilled, _______ is used to remove it:- (Jeppessen)


a. vaccum cleaner b. rubber section bulb c. medicine dropper
d. all of the above

225. Crystals of ______________ are to protect fuel from microbiological corrosion:-


(Jeppessen)
a. sodium bicarbonate b. potassium dichromate c. silica gel d.
both (b) & (c)

226. Ni-cad battery electrolyte spillage is neutralized by: (Jeppessen)


a. acidic agent b. basic agent c. neutral agent d. salt

227. Electrolyte of lead acid battery:- (Jeppessen)


a. acidic b. basic c. alkaline d. both (b) & (c)

228. Microbiological corrosion generally takes place in:- (Jeppessen)


a. fuel tanks b. battery compartment c. engine mount d. both (a) & (c)

229. When Magnesium alloys having different composition are in contact & are under
the influence of moisture. (Titterton 233)
a. stress corrosion will be formed b. galvanic corrosion will be formed
c. no effect d. surface will become passive.

230. Titanium is resistant to (9A 201)


a. intercrystalline corrosion b. stress corrosion c. galvanic corrosion d. surface
contamination

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231. What type of corrosion can take place when parts are bolted tightly together and
yet slip slightly on one another during flexing or other movements of aircraft parts:
(CAIP BL/4-1, Pg 245 (3.1.5)
a. surface b. stress c. intercrystaline d. fretting

232. If all enclosed regions in aircraft structures are not vented and drained as
adeuately as possible, there will be a formation of (CAIP BL/4-1, Pg 246)
a. marine corrosion b. electro-chemical corrosion c. microbial corrosion
d. crevice corrosion

233. Residual flux resulting from welding is an example of (FAA-9, 171)


a. direct chemical attack b. electro- chemical attack c. only b is correct d.
both (a) and (b) are correct

234. Corrosion forms a greenish film over (FAA-9, 171)


a. aluminium b. copper c. steel d. none

235. Serious electrolytic or galvanic action can set in between two materials: (FAA 9A,
P-174)
a. if there is a slight difference in their electrical potentials
b. if one metal is anodic & other is cathodic
c. if both metal are made wet
d. due to difference in electrical potential and is the presence of an electrolyte

236. Ventilation & Draining points prevent:(CAIP BL 4-1, P-246)


a. fretting corrosion b. filliform corrosion c. crevice corrosion
d. exfoliation

237. When the metal is affected by the stress corrosion it manifests as (CAIP Pg-244)
a. brownish color b. greenish color c. whitish color d. a crack on the surface

238. In galvanic corrosion pitting effect is caused on the metal: (Jeppessen)


a. having higher potential b. having lower potential
c. potential of the metal has no bearing d. depends on moisture content of the
atmosphere

239. Oxygen concentration cell corrosion is formed (Jeppessen)


a. in the open area at the age of the skin b. between the skins at the lap joint
c. in the inner structure of grains d. at the enlarged crystal boundaries

240. On magnesium, corrosion appears in the form of : 9A(171)


a. gray or white b. green c. reddish

241. If electrical potential, between two metal are nil and it comes in contact in
electrolyte corrosion will be 9A(172)
a. too less b. too high c. none

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242. Inter granular corrosion is an attack on 9A(172)


a. surface boundaries b. grains c. centre of the grains d. grain
boundaries

243. In the small areas and sharp, deep grooves. Resembling brine marking may be
work in the rubbing surfaces of course corrosion & this corrosion is
9A(173)
a. fretting corrosion b. stress corrosion d. exfoliation

244. If cathode is small & anode is large in that case corrosive action will be J (12-9)
a. fast b. slow c. it may be (a) or (b) d. none

245. Corrosion creative on the edge of the joint even thought the metals are identical is
the type J (12-9)
a. oxidation b. pitting c. concentration cell corrosion

246. In which corrosion protective adhering film act as cathode J (12-11)


a. oxygen concentration cell b. metal iron concentration cell c. active passive cells
d. none

247. The parts tends to oxidize more rapidly when : CAIP (245)
a. temp. increases b. temp. decrease c. either (a) or (b)

248. Electrical equipments are corrode due to


a. chemical attack b. direct chemical attack
c. electrochemical attack in the surrounding structure d. all of the
above

249. Mercury attack on aluminum alloys along the J (12-14)


a. grains b. grain boundaries c. as in (b) and within the alloy
d. none

250. Which corrosion generally occurs inside pipelines (Jeppessen)


a. cavitation corrosion b. erosion corrosion c. intergranular corrosion d.
both (a) and (b)

251. Which corrosion occurs due to different constituents of alloying elements


a. cavitation b. erosion c. fretting d. galvanic

252. ___________ occurs when the fuel pressure falls below the vapour pressure of the
liquid (Jeppessen)
a. cavitation b. intergranular c. filiform d. fretting

253. Corrosion created on the edge of the joint even thought the metals are identical is
the type J (12-9)

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a. oxidation b. pitting c. concentration cell corrosion

254. Spilled mercury on aluminum (Jeppessen)


a. greatly increases susceptibility to hydrogen embrittlement.
b. may cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in prolonged contact.
c. causes rapid and severe corrosion that is very difficult to control.

255. Which of the listed conditions is NOT one of the requirements for corrosion to
occur?
a. the presence of an electrolyte.
b. electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area.
c. the presence of a passive oxide film.

256. Mercury attack on aluminum alloys along the J (12-14)


a. grains b. grain boundaries c. as in (b) and within the alloy d. none

257. Spilled mercury can be removed by J (12-14)


a. vacuum cleaner b. rubber section bulb c. medicine dropper d. all of
the above

COMPOSITE

258. The a/c structural grade of Kevlar fiber is known as: [Pg 2.3, (A.C C.F)
a. Kevlar 29 b. Kevlar 129 c. Kevlar 49 d. Kevlar 39

259. Boron fibers are made by depositing boron (an element) on to a thin filament of:
(Pg 2.6, C.A.C.F)
a. aluminium b. magnesium c. tin d. tungsten

260. Chopped fibers arranged together are called: Pg 2-11 (A.C.C.F)


a. hybrids b. mats c. fillers d. matrix

261. To drill holes in Kevlar we use (Pg 9.5, (A.C.C.F)


a. C drill bit b. brad point drill bit c. tapered drill bit d.
common drill bit

262. Which of the following is commonly referred to as magnesia-alumina silicate glass?


(Pg 2-2 (A.C.C.F)
a. E-Glass b. S-Glass c. D-Glass d. A-Glass

263. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method, a dull thud
may indicate
a. less than full strength curing of the matrix.
b. separation of the laminates.
c. an area of too much matrix between fiber layers.

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264. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern
aircraft because this type of construction
a. is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion resistant.
b. may be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the inner core material with
thermoplastic resin.
c. has a high strength to weight ratio.

265. Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally accomplished by


1. applying external heat. 2. room temperature exposure.
3. adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin. 4. applying pressure.
a. 2 and 3. b. 1 and 4. c. 1, 3, and 4.

266. The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed composite buildup depends
primarily on
a. a 60 percent matrix to 40 percent fiber ratio.
b. the orientation of the plies to the load direction.
c. the ability of the fibers to transfer stress to the matrix.

267. What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb
excess resin during curing called?
a. bleeder. b. breather. c. release.

268. Which of the following, when added to wet resins, provide strength for the repair
of damaged fastener holes in composite panels?
1. microballoons. 2. flox. 3. chopped fibers.
a. 2 and 3. b. 1 and 3. c. 1, 2, and 3.

269. Which of the following are generally characteristic of carbon/graphite fiber


composites?
1. flexibility. 2. stiffness.
3. high compressive strength. 4. corrosive effect in contact with aluminum.
5. ability to conduct electricity.
a. 1 and 3. b. 2, 3, and 4. c. 1, 3, and 5.

270. Mark the correct statement regarding electrical bonding of composite [Pg 5-14
(A.A.C.F)]
a. at wires may be woven into the top layer of composite
b. fine aluminium screen may be laminated under the bottom of fabric
c. It may be flame sprayed
d. all

271. Colour of Aramid fiber [Pg 2-3, (A.A.C.F)]


a. yellow b. red c. black d. pink

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272. In modern aircraft primary structure component such as fuselage and skin surface
of all is made up of [Pg 2-5, (A.A.C.F)]
a. ceramic fiber b. boron fiber c. carbon fiber d. all

273. The composite material used on many secondary structure & flight control surface
is [Pg 2-4, (A.A.C.F)]
a. fiberglass b. carbon c. Kevlar d. all

274. When inspecting a honeycomb structure wing the metallic ring test, a clear
metallic sound indicates [Pg 11-6 (A.A.C.F)]
a. core damage b. facing & core sound c. facing damage d. facing &
core separation

275. Exposure of honeycomb structures to sonic vibration usually causes (Lalit Gupta)
a. de-laminations b. radiographic corrosion c. aerodynamic smoothness
d. punctures

276. A composite can be formed into 'Contoured Shapes' by using [Pg 2-9 (A.A.C.F)]
a. warp b. weft c. bias d. selvedge edge

277. In a sandwich construction, which are the foam material [Pg 4-6 (A.A.C.F)]
a. urethane b. P.V.3. c. honeycomb d. both 'a' & 'b' are
correct

278. Hardness testing of composites [Pg 11-8 (A.A.C.F)]


a. tests strength of resin b. tests strength of hardener
c. tests strength of composite d. both 'a' & 'c' are correct

279. Which of the following must be kept under refrigeration? [Pg 3 -11 (A.A.C.F)]
a. epoxy resin b. catalyst c. pre-pegs d. thermoplastic

280. Nomex is a [4.3 (A.A.C.F)]


a. pre-peg material b. honeycomb c. fiberglass composite
d. foam material

281. Fire shield is made up of [Pg 2.6 (A.A.C.F)]


a. ceramics b. Kevlar c. carbon/Graphite d. all

282. "Out of freezer" applies to [Pg 3-14 (A.A.C.F)]


a. resin b. paint c. pre-peg d. none

283. Which composite material require special cutting tool [Pg 2-4(A.A.C.F)]
a. fiberglass b. carbon/Graphite c. aramid d. all

284. Lightening strike in composites will cause [Pg 5-13 (A.A.C.F)]

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JRN INSTITUTE OF AVIATION TECHNOLOGY
414/2, RANI KHERA MORE, MUNDKA, DELHI -110 041

SUBJECT :- MATERIAL & HARDWARE-I

a. the fibers to burn & leave bare metal structure


b. the resin to evaporate & leave bare fibers
c. non destruction to the composite parts as they are lightening proof
d. all

285. Radome is made up of (Lalit Gupta)


a. fiberglass b. carbon fibers c. aramid d. none

286. The matrix is : (Pg 3-1 (A.A.C.F)]


a. bonding material
b. bonding material which completely surrounds the fibres and transit stresses to the
fabric
c. bonding material which provide strength to the fibre
d. bonding materials which completely surrounds the fibres and gives strength
to the fibres and transmit stresses to the fibres

287. The compressive strength of carbon/graphite fibre is _______ than Kevlar [Pg 2-
5(A.A.C.F)]
a. less b. more c. equal d. (a) and (c) both

288. Styrofoam is used commonly with: [Pg 4-5 (A.A.C.F)]


a. polyester resin only b. epoxy resin as well as polyester resin
c. aramid d. epoxy resin only

289. Honey comb can be joined together with a: [Pg 4-4 (A.A.C.F)]
a. soldering b. brazing c. phenol formaldehyde resin d. foam adhesive

290. The number of threads per inch in warp or filling is known as: (FAA 15A)
a. ply b. count c. sizing d. one of the above

291. For high stress and vibration, fibre used is


a. fiberglass b. aramid c. C. G. d. none
(CF, 20)

292. A lightly woven edge produced by the weaver to prevent the edges from raveling is
referred to as
a. fill b. weft c. salvage edge d. warp
(CF, 25 )

293. Fill are added to resin to control


a. viscosity b. weight c. density 4. both (a) and (b) are correct (CF, 42)

294. Chopped fibres can be any type of fibre cut to a certain length ------ to --------in
common
a. - 1/2 b. - c. 1 d. none (CF, 43)

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JRN INSTITUTE OF AVIATION TECHNOLOGY
414/2, RANI KHERA MORE, MUNDKA, DELHI -110 041

SUBJECT :- MATERIAL & HARDWARE-I

295. Micro balloons are used as a --------- agent


a. thixotropic b. catalgtic c. monotropic d. none
(CF, 43)

296. To prevent galvanic potential between C.G. and Al which fabric is used
a. fiberglass b. aramid c. C.G. d. ceramics (CF, 56)

297. When resin & catalyst is mixed together for working, the amount of time that the
mixed resin will be workable is known as [(Pg 3-9 (CF)]
a. pot life b. working life c. shelf life d. 'a' & 'c' are correct

298. Which is a reversible process compound [Pg 3-1(CF)]


a. epoxy b. thermo set plastic c. thermoplastic d. none

299. Windshield is made up of [Pg 3.1 (CF)]


a. thermo set plastic b. thermo-plastic c. acrylic d. none

300. Each sheet of Honey comb is called [Pg 4.4 (CF)]


a. NODES b. ribbon c. nomex d. none of these

301. The greatest advantage of composites is the: (Pg 1-4


(CF)]
a. high strength to weight ratio b. fire resistance c. bullet proof d. do not
corrode

302. Which one of the following composite material is very expensive and very
dangerous to work with but still found on many military aircraft:
[Pg 2-6 (CF)]
a. kevlar b. boron c. fiber glass d. ceramic

303. In composites when core material is bonded between two thin face sheets, it
provides component which is:
[Pg 4-3 (CF)]
a. rigid b. light weight c. flexible d. both (a) & (b)

304. Two or more layers of different reinforcing material which are laminated together,
is known as :
a. intra ply b. inter ply [Pg 2-16 (CF)]
c. intra ply hybrid d. inter ply hybrid

305. The best results for drilling and countersinking 3.G. material are obtained when
using
a. carbide dagger bit b. spade bit c. dagger bit d. Hi- lock
(CF, 102)

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JRN INSTITUTE OF AVIATION TECHNOLOGY
414/2, RANI KHERA MORE, MUNDKA, DELHI -110 041

SUBJECT :- MATERIAL & HARDWARE-I

SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION:-

Q1 What is corrosion & what are the factors affecting corrosion?

Q2. Briefly describe the vacuum bagging process? List 5 advantages of composite?

Q3. What do you understand by heat treatment. Describe its various steps?

Q4. What is the purpose of case hardening. Explain atleast 3 processes?


a. carburizing b. nitriding

Q5 Write the short notes on?


a. interplay hybrid b. microbiological corrosion c. annealing

d. brinells hardness tester e. tools steel

Q6 Explain the following corrosion.


a. intergranular corrosion b. leaching c. mercury corrosion d.
fretting

Q7. Describe lightening protection of composites?

Q8. Explain any one. Impact testing and one hardness testing.

Q9. Differentiate between sacrificial and non-sacrificial corrosion.

Q10. Explain the various heat treatment process?

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