Examiner's Report

Q1.

In (a) almost all candidates could correctly draw a food chain with only a small percentage
drawing the arrows incorrectly. In (b) students were given a table of results of an investigation
into the ability of two different species of predator, lacewings and hoverflies, to control aphids.
In (b) (I) most candidates could suggest a reason why lacewings might be better predators to
use to control aphids than hoverflies, with the better responses earning two marks. In (b) (ii)
fewer responses gained credit for one reason why hoverflies might be better predators to use to
control aphids than lacewings. In part (c) (i) and (ii) candidates were asked to identify biotic and
abiotic factors that could affect aphid numbers. Most could name one biotic and one abiotic
factor and the best could identify two of each.

Q2.

This question required students to complete a passage on air pollution and most scored 9 or 10
marks. The most common errors being gas combining with oxygen in red blood cells and failing
to name methane gas produced from the digestive system of cows.

Q3.

This question required candidates to draw a food web to show the information given in the
question. Over half of the candidates scored full marks on this item. The most common errors
were omitting plants or putting the arrows the wrong way. Most candidates were able to
correctly identify the description of primary consumer in 1(a)(ii). In part (b) candidates had to
interpret graphical data form an experiment using quadrats. In b(i) almost all answers gave the
correct response to the preferred habitat. In (b)(ii) most candidates could suggest one or two
reasons why hares might prefer a habitat but only the best candidates were able to give three
correct suggestions. Correct suggestions included availability of plants, greater nutrient content,
easier to digest and an area away from predators. In part (c)(i) most candidates could correctly
calculate the percentage of quadrats containing hare faeces. In part (d) only about a third of
candidates were able to describe how quadrats should be laced at random and should be of the
same size to ensure the data collected is valid.

Q4.
This question gave candidates a table showing the area of land used, in hectares, to grow tea
plants at different altitudes (height above sea level) in Sri Lanka. In part (a) they were asked to
describe the changes that have taken place in the area of land used to grow tea plants between
1990 and 2000. A substantial number of responses gained no marks while other responses
earned full credit. All the examiners were looking for was three statements about how land use
had changed over time. Those candidates who had been given practice looking at data and
trends easily scored full marks. Some responses described in detail the changes from one year
to the next but did not comment on the overall change.

Part (b) (i) required candidates to explain how growing plants at higher altitude could affect their
growth. Most gained 2 marks by recognising that at high altitude the lower temperature reduces
rates of respiration and photosynthesis thus reducing growth. In (b) (ii) most candidates could
name two factors, other than temperature, that could affect the growth of tea plants.

In (c) candidates were asked to describe how the tea grower could use a quadrat to estimate the
total mass of tea plants growing in a large area of land. This item discriminated well between
candidates. Only the best were able to gain full marks for explaining how they would use random
numbers and coordinates to sample several quadrats, taking samples of plants from each and
weighing them, and finally multiplying the average mass from a quadrat by the size of the field.
Some responses described 'spinning around to launch a quadrat' or 'throwing the quadrat over
the shoulder' or 'throwing with eyes shut'.

Q5.

This question tested candidate understanding of air pollution. Candidates usually perform well
with this style of question, no doubt helped by the considerable scaffolding in place. The
examiners were impressed by most answers, though it was noted that methane production by
cows and CFC production from old refrigerators seemed less well known. Most candidates were
aware that burning of fossil fuels releases sulphur dioxide into the air which leads to the
formation of acid rain. Candidates who wrote that carbon monoxide combines with red blood
cells lost credit as the examiners only accepted haemoglobin. Most candidates were aware that
greenhouse gases contribute to global warming.

Q6.

This question had a passage to complete on organisms and their ecology. Most candidates
scored at least 4 marks with the most common errors being confusing reliability and accuracy
and population with community.

Q7.
Part (a) required candidates to describe how smoking damages the lungs. The majority of
candidates were able to gain credit with many response gaining all 5 marks for describing how
smoking damages cilia, causes bronchitis, leads to bacterial build up, emphysema, damage to
alveolar walls and reduction in surface area and thus less diffusion. Credit was also given for
reference to tar build up and carcinogens in smoke.

Likewise in part (b) most candidates could write about how carbon monoxide will increase the
risk of producing a smaller baby, with most gaining full credit.

Q8.

Part (a) asked candidates to explain the term decompose and most could do this. In part (b)
almost all candidates gained both marks for drawing a food chain with only a few drawing the
arrows in the wrong direction.

In part (c) a table of data was provided and candidates needed to calculate the percentage
humus using the formula provided. Most could do this but some failed to identify the correct
match of humus content in part (c) (ii). In part (c) (iii) many candiadtes could notice that the data
was not reliable as no repeat readings had been taken.

Q9.

This question showed a food chain from Asia and in (a) almost all the
candidates were able to correctly identify the producer and secondary
consumer. In (b) many candidates could correctly give two environmental
factors that affect the growth of the rice. Some answers were too vague
such as weather or climate and others mentioned biotic factors such as
pests. In part (c) the more able candidates were able to explain how a
pesticide would kill the beetles and therefore increase the rice yield.
In (d) the best responses described how by releasing a predator such as an
Asian toad the beetles would be eaten. Some candidates chose
inappropriate predators such as cats or even wrote about fertilisers.

Q10.

This question presented a food chain and in part a) candidates had to use the
information to complete a diagram, almost all gained full marks. Although
most candidates could name one type of decomposer some suggested rose
or another organism from the food chain. Part b) was correctly answered by
most candidates. Candidates had no difficulty with parts c) and d).
Q11.

This question gave candidates a simple food chain and in part (a) almost all could correctly
identify the producer and secondary consumer. In part (b) (i) most candidates could also
correctly identify from the photograph the eye structures and in (ii) complete the table to name
the part of the eye from the description. In part (c) (i) most candidates were able to state what is
meant by population. In (ii) most responses were able to describe natural selection, but once
again, not all the students linked this to explain the changes in the snail population. This item
discriminated well between candidates with the very best scoring full marks for a clear
explanation of how natural selection produces the changes shown.

Q12.

Part (a) was a gentle introduction to the paper and most candidates were able to appreciate that
the food web contained two different types of plant, six animals and two primary consumers.
Counting the number of food chains was more challenging, but many correctly established that
there are five food chains in the food web. It was pleasing to note that most candidates were
able to recall that the plants in the food web are called producers and that the hawk is a tertiary
consumer. Credit was also given if the hawk was described as a predator, or as a carnivore.

In part (c) most candidates realised that if the grasshoppers were killed the number of shrews
would decrease whilst the number of marsh grass plants would increase.

Q13.

Part (a) gave part of a food web and students had to determine the number of different groups in
the web. Most students had no difficulty with this item with the few errors observed being for the
number of secondary consumers. In part (b)(i) most responses correctly predicted that the
population of blue jays would decrease. Some students gave the reason for the change but did
not state the effect on the population size. In part (b) (ii) a significant number of students were
unable to state the meaning of population and the 'number of animals' or the 'number of people'
were given. For (c) most could give two molecules that the tick could feed on from the deer's
blood. A few students put blood cells or starch as suggestions.

Q14.

This question presented candidates with experimental data showing the effect of
temperature on insect numbers. In (a), most were able to identify the anomalous
result and better responses suggested that this could be due to the temperature
not being at 30C, more food being present in the tube or a particularly fecund
female. In (b), almost all candidates correctly counted the male and female flies
and identified which tube they came from. Only the best candidates gained both
marks in (c) for explaining that the results were reliable because they were close
together and repeated. In (d), many gained full credit for describing the effect of
temperature on insect numbers. Centres should remind candidates that repeating
the raw data is not describing and will not earn credit.

Q15.

This question gave students data on emission of greenhouse gases. In part (a) (i) most students
could give a source of nitrous oxide but fewer correct responses were seen in part (ii) with many
giving a gas stated in the stem even though they were clearly asked for another greenhouse
gas. In part (b)(i) most students were able to calculate the percentage decrease in the mass of
carbon dioxide released between 1990 and 2010, although some candidates just copied the list
of numbers from their calculators. In part (ii) most could also make some suggestions as to why
of carbon dioxide released has decreased from 1990 to 2010. Only the best candidates scored
full credit for responses that mentioned for example planting more trees, less fossil fuels burned,
more use of public transport and use of alternative energy sources such as wind or solar. In part
(b) (iii) candidates were asked to describe the changes in the mass of methane released
between 1990 and 2010. Most scored one mark with only the very best students referring to the
large reduction in methane from 1990 to 2005 and the smaller reduction from 2005 to 2010. In
part (c) candidates had to explain the advantages of reducing the mass of greenhouse gases
released into the atmosphere. Although this topic is understood by most students they need to
ensure that they link their knowledge of global warming to the context of the particular question,
in this case a reduction in greenhouse gases. Some wrote about the ozone layer of effects of
acid rain.

Q16.

This question presented data on global temperature change over 300 years. Most
students were able to accurately plot this data. However, some students drew
the line extrapolating back to the origin when no data was available. Others
chose a scale that made plotting difficult. Many candidates were able, in (b), to
identify the two periods between which the greatest change in temperature took
place. Those candidates that examined the data carefully gained credit. Those
that just assumed the greatest change would be in recent years failed to earn
the mark. In (c) most could name a greenhouse gas and many could explain
that a greenhouse gas is one that contributes to global warming. Most could also
suggest how human activities could have contributed to the temperature change
between 1970 and 1995.

Q17.
The graph was done well by most candidates. Credit was given for a suitable scale on the y axis
that used at least half the grid, plotting points accurately, drawing a neat line through the points,
putting the independent variable on the x axis and the dependent variable on the y axis. Marks
tended to be lost by failing to label the axes or by not providing a key. Part (b) credited those
who understand the term 'explain'. Sadly, this command word continues to challenge
candidates. Examiners gave no credit to candidates who described the pattern in the data. An
explanation was required which included reference to pests initially being killed by the pesticide
and then explaining that those not killed had a mutation that provided resistance. Therefore,
they reproduced and passed on the allele for resistance to their offspring. Credit was also given
to those candidates who suggested that the pesticide may not have been reached all parts of
the area being treated or that the pesticide was biodegradable or washed away. The mean mark
for this question part was 1.02.

In part (c), candidates seldom mentioned the credit worthy ideas of greater decrease in pest
numbers or that the decrease lasted longer. Most candidates made reference to the specificity of
biological control and that unlike pesticide there is no reapplication needed and pest resistance
cannot happen.

Most candidates scored highly in part (d). The mean mark was 3.30. The use of many quadrats
placed randomly to count organisms is well understood. Only the better candidates realised the
need to multiply their average value by the total number of quadrats that could be placed in an
area to gain an estimate of the population. Credit was given for the idea of random placing,
replication, counting and multiplying with any sensible apparatus that could be used in an
ecological survey of this type. For example, the use of baited traps or pheromone traps was
accepted.

Q18.

The question showed a food web from leaf litter and in (a) candidates could usually correctly
identify the number of trophic levels, food chains, predators and consumers. Part (b) showed a
Tullgren funnel and in (i) candidates had to suggest why the insects moved away from the light
source. Most could identify one stimulus with the best responses naming both heat and gravity
as the stimuli the insects are exposed to. In part (ii) most candidates could state the difference
in the number of millipedes from the two areas and the better responses could explain the
difference in terms of food availability or response to light, temperature or predators. Some
candidates wrote about shelter or being safe but did not explain from what. In (iii) most could
draw a quadrat with a few responses from candidates that had never seen, let alone, used a
quadrat.

Q19.

This question described an experiment to see if nitrate ions help a plant to

grow. In part a) the best candidates were able to suggest that oxygen
needs to be provided for respiration and to allow the roots to absorb ions by
active transport. The better candidates were also able to recognise that
keeping the apparatus covered in black paper would exclude light to prevent
photosynthesis by algae in the ion solution. Other candidates gained some
credit for reference to excluding light or preventing photosynthesis. In part
b) candidates needed to measure the length of the two plants. Most were
able to do this and the examining team allowed a range of values for each
length. The candidates who did not earn the marks were either way out with
their measurements or wrote 8.5mm. Almost all candidates could suggest
that repeating the experiment would improve the reliability of the
investigation and most could identify two factors that should be kept the
same. In part c) many candidates gained full marks for explaining how
soluble nitrates could dissolve in rain and leach into the river leading to an
algal bloom (eutrophication). This growth would block sunlight reduce
photosynthesis and reduce oxygen levels leading to death of aquatic
animals and plants. Some candidates also went on to describe the role of
decomposers, but this was not necessary to earn full credit.

Q20.

The vast majority of candidates were able to name grass as the producer in the food chain. Part
(b)(i) was more challenging, but the correct answer of 1600 was evident in many scripts. Credit
of one mark was available to candidates with an incorrect answer but with 96,000, 1.6 or a
number divided by 60 in their working.

In part (b)(ii), many candidates appreciated that a limited oxygen supply would result in a
change to less energy yielding anaerobic respiration and that this form of respiration produces
lactic acid which would affect enzyme function.

Many candidates were able to demonstrate excellent understanding of natural selection in part
(c). Examiners credited answers that made reference to mutation, variation, survival,
reproduction and the passing on of the allele for striped coat. Some candidates failed to gain full
credit due to imprecise language such as not stating the terms survive or mutation. Many also
lost credit by referring to characteristics being passed on rather than genes.

Part (d)(i) was more challenging with only the better candidates appreciating that the light would
reflect back through the retina again, thus stimulating more sense cells. Part (d)(ii) required a
structural adaptation but examiners were allowed to reward a suitable physiological adaptation.
Some correctly stated that there were more rod cells.

Part (e) discriminated very well with only the better candidates appreciating that meat is protein
and that amylase cannot digest protein. Many candidates gained credit by making reference to
the converse of these ideas. So, an answer stating that a lion does not eat starch and that
amylase digests starch gained full marks. Many candidates lacked precision in their answers and
lost credit by stating carbohydrate rather than starch.

Q21.

In this question the style of question asked in part (a)(i) has been a feature of several past
papers and yet there are still students who draw pyramids of biomass, or put the arrows in the
wrong direction. These students could still gain one mark providing they wrote all three names
and put the parakeet in the middle. Part (a)(ii) was answered very well and it was pleasing to
note that most students are aware of the digestion of starch by amylase into maltose. In part (b),
most were able to correctly calculate 25.5 as the volume of oxygen used when flying in part (i),
but many struggled in part (ii) to gain all three marks. Most appreciated that the volume of
oxygen used would increase but only the best students appreciated the link between this and
the need to respire more because of the heat loss that would occur when moving to a colder
environment.

Q22.

This question described an investigation using a trap to compare organisms

caught during the day with organisms caught at night. In parts (a) and (b)
candidates needed to count the organisms and complete a tally chart and
then use this data to plot a bar chart. Most candidates were able to this and
scored well. The most common errors occurred in the bar chart with
candidates only plotting data from nigh time or not labelling the y axis on
their chart. For part (c) (i) candidates needed to compare the data for day
and night. Some did this well but others merely repeated the data from the
table such as 7 woodlice in the day and 15 at night. Very few gained full
marks in (ii) for explaining the changes in the number of woodlice. In part
(d) only the best candidates could explain how the organisms could have
preyed on each other, escaped from the trap reducing the number, or bred
to increase the number. In part (e) most candidates could explain what a
'habitat' is but did much less well on 'population' and 'community'.

Q23.

This question tested knowledge and understanding of the carbon cycle and the greenhouse
effect.

Part (a) (i) challenged many which suggest that seeing an unfamiliar diagram of the carbon cycle
posed problems. Weak candidates named A as fossilisation. Part (a) (ii) was well answered.

Part (b) required students to describe the consequences of an enhanced greenhouse effect. Most
candidates were able to provide excellent accounts gaining full marks, helped by a generous
mark scheme. A common error was confusing global warming with the destruction of the ozone
layer.

Part (c) was well answered with most candidates appreciating that burning less fossil fuels,
planting more trees, using renewable energy or reducing cattle farming are all ways to reduce
the build-up of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

Q24.
Students were given a food chain and data from which they had to plot an
accurate pyramid of numbers. Although many gained full marks in (a), some
presented the data in the wrong order or did not draw the pyramid to scale. In
(b), most could describe how a pyramid of biomass would be a regular pyramid
and that the producers would have a larger biomass than for example the primary
consumers. In (c), some candidates did not realise the question asked about
energy transfer from the producer to the primary consumer so that answers
referring to losses due to movement or excretion were not relevant. The best
candidates gained full credit for describing losses due to respiration in the plant
and the primary consumer not eating all of the plant or not being able to digest
some parts of it. Many candidates gained full marks for describing how the
removal of the bushes would decrease the caterpillar population and therefore
reduce the dunnock population.

Q25.

Naming consumers in a given food chain posed little difficulty to most candidates and many
were able to suggest that having large ears would help in hearing the approach of prey or
predators. Heat loss was also credited. To gain credit in (b) (ii) answers had to include reference
to the idea of camouflage, and in part (iii) credit was given for answers that gave sensible
advantages of being able to stand such as seeing further or climbing trees. To gain both marks
in part (c) candidates needed to mention the term 'photosynthesis' in context and to make it
clear that there would be an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide and a decrease in
atmospheric oxygen. Answers that stated that carbon dioxide is converted to oxygen were not
credited for this marking point.

Q26.

This question was on pyramids in ecology. In (a) most students could explain what a trophic level
was. In (b) almost all candidates could correctly draw a pyramid of number using the data
provided. In part (c) most candidates were able to suggest why the number of the caterpillars
might be different during the winter. Most common correct answers stated fewer caterpillars due
to fewer plants for food or lower temperatures. In part (d) candidates were asked to explain why
total mass of the organisms at each level in the pyramid decreases as you move up the pyramid.
This item discriminated well between candidates with only the best candidates scoring full
marks. Some candidates did not appreciate the link between mass and energy within a pyramid
so did not discuss energy loss at each level.

Q27.

This question concerned deforestation. In part (a) candidates needed to give two reasons why
humans are removing rainforest. Most candidates could give at least one reason and many gave
two correct suggestions. Common acceptable answers included building homes, constructing
roads and for farming. In part (b)(i) candidates were required to explain how deforestation can
change the balance of gases in the atmosphere. Here one mark was available for the change in
gases and the second for the cause of the change. Many candidates were able to give the
changes in the gas concentrations but not all linked this to a reduction in photosynthesis. In
(b)(ii) candidates were often able to give one change in the soil structure but only the best
responses were able to identify soil erosion and leaching of minerals. In part (c) many answers
suggested that the impact of deforestation could be reduced by replanting or replacing trees but
fewer were able to suggest how legislation could reduce deforestation.

Q28.

This question described how water can be tested for cloudiness and thus pollution using a Secchi
disk.

In part (a) students were asked to suggest two reasons why the conclusion that the scientists
reached may not be correct. Most scored at least 1 mark usually for referring to for example
other pollutants, lack of repeat measures, light conditions or variation within a lake.

In part (b) candidates needed to examine two graphs and use them to describe the relationship
between phosphate levels and Secchi depth. Most could gain the first mark for stating that as
the phosphate level in the lake rose the Secchi depth fell. However only the better response then
described the levelling in Secchi depth and quoted data from the graph.

In part (b) (ii) candidates had to explain how the changes in phosphate levels might cause the
decrease in the number of fish. This item produced a full range of responses earning from 5 right
down to 0. The best candidates were able to earn full marks for explaining how the algal bloom
will block sunlight, preventing photosynthesis, leading to the death of plants, and subsequent
decomposition by bacteria that deplete oxygen in the lake.

In part (c) candidates had to interpret the chart provided to count the number of times the depth
was measured and decide in which moth most measurements were made. Almost all could
successfully count to 22 and most could identify October as the month.

In part (d) (i) students needed to assess the evidence and Give a reason to support the
conclusion that April was the only month in which it was unsafe to swim and then in (ii) suggest
a reason to reject this conclusion. Most responses could give a reason to support such as depth
was less than the safe swimming depth but fewer were able to identify a reason to reject the
conclusion. The better candidates noted that only one of the two readings taken in April was less
than the safe depth.

Q29.

Part (a) of this question examined understanding of the stages in the carbon cycle, a task that
candidates often find challenging. Common errors were to think that stage B or stage C could be
decomposition. Candidates who knew what the word 'carbohydrate' meant did well in part (b) (i),
but it is clear that weaker candidates have little understanding that carbohydrates found in
plants include starch, glucose, sucrose, fructose and cellulose. Only the weaker candidates
struggled to name DNA in part (ii).

Answers to part (c) ranged from the sublime to the ridiculous. Many candidates wrote about the
ozone layer which is puzzling and weaker candidates discussed the effect of heat on enzymes.
The best candidates noted that carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas which traps heat in the
atmosphere resulting in melting of ice caps, habitat destruction, possible species extinction,
migration and climate change.

Q30.

This required a description of deforestation which almost all candidates could provide for (a) (i).
For part (ii) candidates needed to explain the effect of deforestation on the balance of oxygen
and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Again most could earn at least two marks for an increase
in carbon dioxide and a reduction in oxygen. In (b) candidates had to match pollutant gases,
their sources and their effects. The best candidates were able to score well but some candidates
had little idea about methane, carbon monoxide or sulphur dioxide.

Q31.

In part (a) students did less well with a few seeming to have no idea about genetic modification.
The better responses included extraction of the gene, that codes for growth hormone, from
human DNA using a restriction enzyme. Using the same restriction enzyme to cut a bacterial
plasmid and using ligase to insert the human gene into the plasmid to make a vector contain
recombinant DNA. In part (b)(i) students had to explain what is meant by a hormone. The
majority of students earned some credit. The best responses clearly stated that a hormone is
released by endocrine glands into the blood stream carried to target cells upon which it has an
effect. In part (ii) students had to describe how selective breeding could be used to increase milk
production. About half of the answers scored full marks. Some responses had cows mating with
other cows, some referred to cloning and some had cows marrying! The best responses
described selecting cows with high milk yield and mating these with bulls from mothers who had
high milk yield. This process could then be repeated with their offspring for many generations.

Q32.

In part (a) of this question most students were able to score at least 4 marks with excellent bar
charts. The most common loss of a mark was for not labelling the axes fully, including
appropriate units. Part (b) was well answered with most showing good understanding of abiotic
factors that affect photosynthesis, temperature and light being the most common responses. A
few gave vague references to humidity and wind speed confusing it with transpiration. Part (c)(i)
was challenging for many. The mark scheme rewarded students who appreciated that farming
practices improve primary production. The better students made the connection and scored well
but the weaker students made bland references to photosynthesis or made vague references to
farming intensity. Student understanding of selective breeding in part (ii) was impressive with
many appreciating that human involvement is part of the process. In part (d), many students
had no understanding of how to use quadrats. Students who were familiar with the technique
scored at least two marks for mentioning the importance of random sampling and repeats. The
question asked for an estimate of biomass not numbers but most students referred to counting
plants rather than weighing them.

Q33.

This question provided candidates with a passage on selective breeding into

which to fill in the appropriate words. Here performance varied between
centres. Many candidates scored full marks but others scored poorly.

Q34.

This question was on selective breeding. In part a) most candidates were

able to describe selective breeding although some confused this with
genetic modification or micropropagation. Few candidates were able to give
a sensible example of a desired characteristic from a crop plant. In part b)
most candidates could give two ways natural selection differs from selective
breeding.

Q35.

This question examined methods used to reproduce cattle with desirable characteristics. Part (a)
expected candidates to demonstrate how their knowledge of selective breeding could be used to
describe how high milk yielding cattle could be produced. Most answers showed excellent
understanding of the importance of selecting and breeding cattle that are high yielding to
produce high yielding offspring that are then used to continue this process.

In part (b) candidates were introduced to the process of embryo cloning. The fact that the uterus
is where embryos develop is known by most candidates. Part (b) (ii) allowed candidates to
consider the possible advantages of embryo cloning compared to selective breeding. Most
appreciated that embryo cloning would produce genetically identical offspring and could be a
faster process to produce large numbers of high yielding cows, with no possibility of producing
males. It was pleasing to note that the meaning of the term 'clone' and the name 'mitosis' as the
cell division responsible for producing an embryo was known by most candidates.
 Q36.

The question stem described a selective breeding programme to develop sheep in New Zealand.
In part (a) most candidates could suggest why flies are attracted to urine and faeces. In part (b)
the best candidates scored well by describing how they would mate Cheviot with bare legs and
East Friesian with bare backsides to produce sheep with both of these characteristics. Only the
offspring with the desired phenotype would be mated and this would be repeated for many
generations. In part (c) most candidates scored at least one mark by noting that in selective
breeding humans choose the parents. The better candidates also earned a second mark by
writing that selective breeding is a faster process than natural selection and that it does not
select on the basis of being the fittest. For part (d) candidates were asked to give two problems
with the use of pesticides. Only the best scored any marks with few responses including lack of
specificity, effects on food chains and development of resistance.

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