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IBPS BANK P.O/M.T - CWE

MOCK TEST - IX
REASONING ABILITY (1) N (2) P
(3) O (4) I
Directions (1 - 4) : Study the following (5) J
information carefully and answer the questions given
Directions (5 - 7) : Study the following
below :
information carefully and answer the questions given
Seven persons I, J, K, L, M, N and O are below :
sitting in a circle at equidistance but not necessarily
Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T. U, V and W - are
in the same order. Some of them are facing towards
standing in a straight line at equidistance. Some of
the centre and some are facing outside the centre. O
them are facing North while some others are facing
is facing outside. J sits second to the right of O. N is
South. R is third to the left of W. W is facing North. T
sitting second to the left of P. P is not an immediate
is third to the right of W. S is second to the left of Q.
neighbour of J or O. N is not an immediate neighbour
Q is not an immediate neighbour of W or R. Both the
of K faces towards the centre. K and P face the same
immediate neighbours of P face South. The immediate
direction. I is sitting second to the right of N. The
neighbour of V faces opposite direction. Immediate
immediate neighbour of M faces outside. I and M
neighbours of U face opposite direction (If U is facing
face the same direction as that of J.
North, immediate neighbour of U face South and vice-
1. Who amongst the following are not facing versa). V faces just opposite of Q. U is not an
the centre ? immediate neighbour of P and faces opposite direction
(1) K, N, O and J with respect to that of P (If U faces South P faces
(2) I, M, J and P North and vice-versa). T faces the same direction as
(3) J, M, I, O and N that of V.
(4) P, K, O and N
5. Who among the following are facing North ?
(5) None of these
(l) P, V, W and Q (2) R, W, U and Q
2. Which of the following is the Js position (3) U, S, T and Q (4) P,W,S and Q
with respect to N ? (5) None of these
(1) Third to the right
6. Who among the following is to immediate
(2) Fourth to the right
left of S ?
(3) Third to the left
(1) U (2) T
(4) Second to the left
(3) V (4) W
(5) Fifth to the left
(5) None of these
3. Which of the following is the Ks position
7. How many persons are there between P and
with respect to M?
U?
(1) Third to the left
(l) Three (2) Four
(2) Third to the right
(3) Two (4) one
(3) Fourth to the left
(5) There is no person
(4) Second to the right
(5) None of these Directions (8-11) : Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
4. Who among the following is sitting exactly
below :
between M and K?
1
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When a word and number arrangement machine
is given an input line of words and numbers, it
arranges them following, a particular rule. The
following is an illustration of input and rearrangement:
(All the numbers are two digit numbers).
Input : bear 24 binders brave 91 17 but 68 bailer
35 be 74
Step I : 19 bear 24 binders brave 17 but 68 bailer
35 74 be
Step II : 47 19 bear 24 binders brave 17 68 bailer
35 be but
Step III : 86 47 19 24 binders brave 17 bailer 35 be
but bear
Step IV : 53 86 47 19 24 binder 17 bailer be but
bear brave
Step V : 42 53 86 47 19 binders 17 be but bear
brave bailer
Step VI : 71 42 53 86 47 19 be but bear brave bailer
binders
Step VI is the last step of the above
arrangement as the intended arrangement is
obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps,
find out the appropriate steps for the given
input.
Input : tyre 71 toughen 59 tip 82 13 thanks to 68
table 46
8. If in the last step, 1 is added to each of the
odd numbers and 2 is subtracted from each
of the even numbers, then how many numbers
multiple of 4 will be formed?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) More than three (4) None
(5) One
9. If in step III, 28 interchanges its position
with table and 59 also interchanges its
position with tip then which of element will
be to the immediate left of 46?
(1) 28 (2) to
(3) table (4) tip
(5) 59
10. Which of the following combinations
represents the third and the ninth element in
2
second last step of the given input from the
left end?
(1) 95 and tip (2) table and 86
(3) 17 and to (4) 86 and tip
(5) tyre and 17
11. Which element comes exactly between 59
and thanks in Step II of the given input?
(1) toughen (2) 46
(3) 13 (4) table
(5) 68
Directions (12-16): In each question below a
statement is given followed by two courses of action
numbered I and II. A course of actions & practicable
and feasible step or administrative decision to be taken
for follow-up, improvement or further action in regard
to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the informa-
tion given in the statement, you have to assume every-
thing in the statement to be true and decide which of the
suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursu-
ing.
Give answer (1) if only a follows.
Give answer (2) if only II follows.
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
12. Statement: Four cases of pick pocketing were
reported at one of the most renowned five star
hotels last evening.
Courses of action:
I. The hotel staff should be instructed to
be vigilant and report any suspicious
person or activity.
II. More CCTV cameras should be installed
near the dining and reception areas of
the hotel where these incidents took
place.
13. Statement: Despite repeated warnings to
students and parents from the college, some
students have finally not fulfilled the mandatory
criteria of 75% attendance in order to appear for
exams.
Courses of action:
I. The college should stop adhering to this
particular criteria.
II. Either the parents or guardians of the
defaulters should be called for a meeting.
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14. Statement: The students residing at the hostel
of a university had to stay without electricity
and water for 48 hours not because of
shortages but because of negligence by the
hostel staff.
Courses of action:
I. The management of the university should
look into the matter and take strict action
against such negligence.
II. The students should leave the hostel and
find some alternate accommodation.
15. Statement:: Local villagers have reported that
instances of illegal cutting of trees have
increased over the last few months in the
forest area.
Courses of action:
I. The locals should be encouraged to
report any such activities in the future as
well.
II. Authorities should immediately look into
the matter and put a stop to such illegal
activities.
16. Statement : The packets of many of the
packaged eatables convey incorrect
information about the ingredients and nutrient
content.
Courses of action:
I. All such products should be banned from
the market if after a warning also correct
information is not provided.
II. The issue should be ignored as long as
the eatables are popular among the
public.
Directions (17-19): In each question below is
given a statement, followed by two assumptions / in-
ferences numbered I and II. An assumption is some-
thing supposed or taken for granted and an inference
is something which can be directly inferred from the
given facts. You have to consider the statement and the
following assumptions/ inferences and decide which
of those is/are implicit in the statement.
Give answer (1) if only I is Implicit.
Give answer (2) if only II is Implicit. .
Give answer (3) if either I or II Implicit
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II Implicit.
Give answer (5) if both I and II Implicit.
17. Statement: Using calculator for simpler
calculations adversely affects mathematical
abilities of children.
3
I. Using calculator for complex calculations
may not affect mathematical abilities
adversely.
II. Complex calculations cannot be done
manually without the help of a calculator.
18. Statement: For underwater battles only
weaponary X should be used.
I. Not all weaponry can function well
under water.
II. There are different kinds of weaponry
available for battles on ground and under
water.
19. Statement: An advertisement by Easy Air. a
private airliner Travel to Meerut by our
airlines and get a chance to win an all
expenses paid holiday to Bangkok
1. Easy Air Flights are available for
Bangkok.
II. The city of Meerut has an airport.
Directions (20-21): Read the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions which fol-
low:
Ruling governments in the west are being pun-
ished by the voters for ever rising unemployment rates.
Their parliament is abuzz with campaigns marked by
criticism of India as an outsourcing hub. India is seen
by many in the west as a land of call centres and back
offices with cheap labour that costs people in the west,
their jobs.
20. Which of the following statements would
weaken the argument given in the passage?
(1) Outsourced jobs do not require highly
skilled and qualified employees.
(2) Nearly 34% of the unemployed people
would secure jobs in the west if
outsourced jobs were insourced by their
organisations.
(3) After suffering heavy losses in the
elections the governments in the west are
expected to change their decision on
outsourcing to India.
(4) Outsourcing a dynamic, two-way
relationship has created jobs and growth
in India as well as the west.
(5) Although outsourcing to India allowed
many companies in west to focus on their
core operations. They heavily
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compromised the quality and the
standards of their back office jobs.
21. Which of the following can be a possible
repercussion of the opposition to outsourcing
in the west?
(1) Jobs which are currently outsourced to
India would be transferred to another
country which in all probability would
be China.
(2) Cali centres and back offices employees
in India would expect a salary at par
with their western counter parts.
(3) In-sourcing of jobs by the west would
render thousands of Indians unemployed.
(4) If in-sourced in the west itself, the
companies would not be able to employ
professionals and experts of same quality
as available in India.
(5) The western companies which earlier
outsourced to India would benefit
financially as offices would not have to
be set overseas.
Directions (22-24): Read he following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions which fol-
low:
P is son of Q. Q is mother of R. R is wife of T.
T is father of V. V is brother of W. Y is mother of T.
22. Which of the following is true based upon
the relationships given above?
(1) W is grand-daughter of Y
(2) R is sister of P
(3) V is son of Q
(4) V is brother-in-law of Y
(5) None is true
23. How is T related to P ?
(1) Son-In-law (2) Brother
(3) Father-In-law (4) Brother-In-law
(5) Cannot be determined
24. Which of the following is/are required to
establish that W is the daughter of R ?
(1) No extra information is required as the
relation can be established from the given
information
(2) R has only three children, one son and
two daughters
(3) Q has only one grandson
4
(4) Y has only two children, a son and a
daughter
(5) Either (2) or (3)
25. Each consonant in the word BLARING is
replaced with the previous letter and each
vowel is replaced with next letter in the
English alphabetical series and the new letters
are rearranged alphabetically. Which of the
following will be the third letter from the
right end?
(1) K (2) B
(3) M (4) J
(5) F
26. B is 7 metres away in the north of A. A moves
9 metres towards east from the starting point,
takes a right turn and walks 2 metres, then
takes a left turn and moves 1 metre and finally
he takes a left turn and moves 9 metres. Now,
how far and in which direction is A from the
B?
(1) 5 metres East (2) 10 metres West
(3) 5 metres West (4) 10 metres East
(5) None of these
Directions (27-30) : In each of the following
questions, three statements followed by two
Conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given Conclusions
logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or
Conclusion II follows
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion I follows
Give answer (3) if both the Conclusion I
and Conclusion II follows
Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II follows
Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor
Conclusion II follows
27. Statements :
No hour is a day.
All months are days.
Some hours are calendars.
Conclusions
I. No month is an hour.
II. All calendars being days is a possibility.
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28. Statements : 31. Which of the following combinations of

Some comics are books. Person City Destination is correct ?
All comics are novels. (1) P Mumbai Finance
No novel is an article. (2) R Chennai Human Resources
Conclusions : (3) T Kolkata Marketing
I. Some novels are books. (4) S Chennai Sales
(5) U Delhi Marketing
II. All articles being books is a possibility.
32. Which of the following two persons visit
29. Statements : Mumbai?
No liquid is fluid. (1) Q and V (2) R and S
All solids are liquids. (3) Q and S (4) R and U
All gases are solids. (5) Q and U
Conclusions :
I. At least some solids are fluids. 33. T belongs to which department ?
(1) Marketing (2) Sales
II. All gases are liquids.
(3) Human Resources (4) Finance
30. Statements : (5) Cannot be determined
Some flutes are guitars. 34. Who among the following belongs to the
No guitar is a piano. Sales Department ?
Some pianos are drums. (1) Q and Z (2) R and V
All drums are violins. (3) Q and V (4) R and Z
Conclusions : (5) U and Z
(1) All pianos are violins.
35. Which of the following cities is visited by S?
(2) No flute is a piano.
(1) Mumbai (2) Kolkata
(3) Some drums are definitely not flutes.
(3) Delhi (4) Chennai
(4) All violins being guitars is a possibility. (5) Either Chennai or Delhi
(5) All violins being flutes is a possibility.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (31 - 35) : Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given Directions (36-40): Each of the questions given
below : below consists of a question and two statements num-
bered I and II given below it. You have to decide
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and Z are whether the data provided in the statements is suffi-
going to the four destinations viz., Chennai, Delhi, cient to answer the question. Read both the statements.
Mumbai and Kolkata and they represent four different Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone
departments viz., Human Resources, Sales, Finance is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
and Marketing but not necessarily in the same order. statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the ques-
At least two persons belong to the same department tion.
and at least two of them visit the same destination. Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone
P belongs to the Finance department and he visits is sufficient to answer the question. while the data in
the same city as that of V. V does not belong to the statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the ques-
tion.
Finance. Marketing or Human Resources Department.
V does not visit Kolkata or Mumbai. R visits Chennai Give answer (3) if the data in statement I alone
and belongs to the Human resources Department. The or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the ques-
person who belongs to the Finance Department other tion.
than P visits Chennai, Q and V belongs to the same Give answer (4) if the data in both the state-
Department. U visits Mumbai and he does not belong ments I and II is not sufficient to answer the question.
to Sales and Marketing Department. The two persons
who belong to the Marketing Department visit Give answer (5) if the data in both the state-
Kolkata. S does not belong to the Marketing ments I and II together s necessary to answer the ques-
Department. tion.

5
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36. What is the two digit positive number? II. One of the variables is greater than 83.
1. Sum of the two digits of the number is
8. Directions (41-50) : What should come in place
II. Sum of the two digits is 3 more than the of the question mark (?) in the following equations?
higher digit. 41. 350% of ? 50 + 248 = 591
37. The symbol represents one of the (1) 4900 (2) 4890
following operations: addition, subtraction, (3) 4850 (4) 4950
multiplication or division. What is the value (5) None of these
of 6 4?
I. 0 5 = 5 II 5 0 = 5 1
42. of 3842 + 15% of ? = 2449
2
38. At what time did Poonam finish the Job? (1) 3520 (2) 3250
I. Poonam started working without a break (3) 3350 (4) 3540
on the job at exactly 9 a.m. and by noon (5) None of these
she had utilised exactly half the time that
it took her to finish the job. 3 7
II. Poonam took exactly 6 hours to finish 43. By how much is th of 968 less than th of
the job. 4 8
1008?
39. Last year an employee received an annual (1) 154 (2) 146
salary of ` 6,18,000 which was paid in equal (3) 165 (4) 158
pay-cheques throughout the year. What was (5) None of these
the salary received in each of the
paycheques? 44. 360 225 2 379 ?
I. The employee received a total of 24
(1) 17 (2) 19
paycheques during the year.
II. The employee received a paycheque (3) 279 (4) 289
twice a month each month during the (5) None of these
year.
?
40. Is the sum of integers x and y greater than 45. 93 812 273 3
85? (1) 3 (2) 4
I. The product of x and y is greater than (3) 5 (4) 6
85. (5) None of these
Directions (46-50) : Refer to the table and answer the given questions.
Data related to performance of 6 batsmen in a tournament :
Name of the Number of Average runs Total balls faced in Strike rate in the
batsman matches played in scored in the the tournament tournament
the tournament tournament
M 22 56 - -
N 18 - - 153.6
O - - 900 110
P - 36 1200 84 -
Q - - - 140
R 24 51 1368 -
Note
(i) Strike rate = (Total runs scored/Total balls faced) 100
(ii) All the given batsmen could bat in all the given matches played by them.
(iii) Few values are missing in the table (indicated by ), A candidate is expected to calculate the
missing value, if it is required to answer the given question, on the basis of the given data and
information.

6
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46. If the runs scored by R in the last 3 matches (1) 16 (2) 28

of the tournament are not considered, his (3) 18 (4) 21
average runs scored in the tournament will (5) 24
decrease by 9, If the runs scored by R in the
Directions (51 - 54) : Study the following
22nd and 23rd match are below 140 and no two
information carefully and answer the questions.
scores among these 3 scores are equal, what is
the minimum possible runs scored by R in the A city X has six villages around it. The population
24th match? of village A is 25% of the population of city X while
(1) 65 (2) 85 that of village B is 20% of that of city X. The
(3) 70 (4) 60
2
(5) 75 population of village C is th of that of city X. The
5
47. The respective ratio between total number of population of village D is 60% of that of village C.
balls faced by O and that by Q in the The population of village E is 85% of that of village
tournament is 5 : 3. Total number of runs B. The population of village F is 21000 which is 35%
scored by Q in the tournament is by what of that of city X.
percent less than the total number of runs
scored by O in the tournament? 51. What is the population of city X ?
(1) 60000 (2) 80000
3 9 (3) 65000 (4) 64000
(1) 21 (2) 25
11 11 (5) None of these
1 5 52. The respective ratio of between the population
(3) 29 (4) 27
11 11 of village A and village D is
(1) 24 : 23 (2) 25 : 24
7
(5) 23 (3) 25 : 23 (4) 11 : 12
11 (5) None of these
48. Batsman M faced equal number of balls in 53. The difference between the population of
first 11 matches he played in the tournament village C and village D is
and last 11 matches he played in the (1) 9000 (2) 9500
tournament. If his strike rate in first 11 (3) 9600 (4) 8800
matches and last 11 matches of the tournament (5) None of these
are 83 and 71 respectively, what is the total
number of balls faced by him in the 54. By what per cent is the population of village
tournament? E less than that of village A ?
(1) 1800 (2) 1500 (1) 40% (2) 35%
(3) 1700 (4) 1600 (3) 30% (4) 32%
(5) 1400 (5) None of these

49. In the tournament, the total number of balls Directions (55 - 60) : The following questions
faced by batsman N is 402 less than the total are based on a pie-chart and a table. The pie chart
number of runs scored by him. What is the deals with percentage wise distribution of sales of
average number of runs scored by batsman mobile phones of three brands by a store X in the
N in th tournament? year 2013 where as the table deals with the ratio of
(1) 64 (2) 62 respective sales. You are required to study -the pie-
(3) 54 (4) 68 chart and the table carefully to answer the questions.
(5) 65
50. What is the number of matches played by
batsman P in the tournament?

7
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Percentage wise Distribution of sales of mobile (3) 68.4 (4) 64.8

phones by 6 stores- A B, C, D, E and F. (5) None of these
Total number of mobile phones sold = 66000 59. The respective ratio between the number of
Samsung brand mobile phones sold by stores
E and F is
(1) 187 : 110 (2) 291 : 1l7
(3) 117 : 291 (4) 110 : 187
(5) None of these
60. By what per cent is the number of all mobile
phones sold by store D more than that sold
by store B ?
(1) 75% (2) 125%
(3) 90% (4) 150%
Ratio of mobile phones sold by all stores (5) None of these

Stores Nokia Samsung HTC 61. Twice the square of a number is six times the
Brands other number. What is the ratio between the
first number and the second number?
A 2: 3. 2
(1) 1 : 4
B 6: 5: 5
(2) 2 : 5
C 3: 3: 2
(3) 1 : 3
D 5: 2: 2
(4) Cannot be determined
E 3: 3: 5 (5) None of these
F 7: 6: 7
62. The sum of four consecutive even number is
284. What would be the smallest number?
55. The difference between the number of HTC
(1) 72 (2) 74
brand mobile phones sold by store A and that
(3) 68 (4) 66
of Samsung brand mobile phones sold by
(5) 70
store C is
(1) 5280 (2) 4880 63. In a test, minimum passing percentage for
(3) 5220 (4) 5260 girls and boys is 35% and 40% respectively.
(5) None of these A boy scored 483 marks and failed by 117
marks. What are the minimum passing marks
56. What was the total number of Nokia brand
for girls?
mobile phones sold by stores A, C and D ?
(1) 425 (2) 520
(1) 17260 (2) 17160
(3) 500 (4) 625
(3) 16160 (4) 18160
(5) None of these
(5) None of these
64. In an exam Ritiz scored 52 per cent marks.
57. How many mobile phones (including all three
Sunil scored 64 per cent marks and Ravi
brands) were sold by stores D. E and F ?
scored 74 percent of marks. The maximum
(1) 29360 (2) 30630
marks of the exam are 750. What are the
(3) 30360 (4) 31360
average marks scored by all the three boys
(5) None of these
together?
58. What will be the corresponding central angle (1) 475 (2) 485
in circular representation for the total number (3) 450 (4) 490
of mobile phones sold by the store D ? (5) None of these
(1) 76.8 (2) 72.8

8
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65. In a test, minimum passing percentage for
girls and boys is 30% and 45% respectively.
A boy scored 280 marks and failed by 80
marks. How many more marks did a girl
require to pass in the test if she scored 108
marks?
(1) 132 (2) 140
(3) 160 (4) 112
(5) None of these
66. Rehaan purchased a bike for Rs. 54.000. He
sold it at a loss of 8 per cent. With that money
he again purchased another bike and sold it
at a profit of 10 per cent. What is his overall
loss/profit ?
(1) Loss of Rs. 657
(2) Profit of Rs. 567
(3) Loss of Rs. 648
(4) Profit of Rs. 648
(5) None of these
67. Seema purchased an item for Rs. 9,600 and
sold it at a loss of 5 percent. From that money
she purchased another item and sold it for a
gain of 5 percent. What is her overall gain/
loss ?
(1) Loss of Rs. 36 (2) Profit of Rs. 24
(3) Loss of Rs. 54 (4) Profit of Rs. 36
(5) None of these
68. The compound Interest earned on a sum in 3
years at 15% per annum compounded
annually is Rs. 6500.52. What is the sum ?
(1) Rs. 12480 (2) Rs. 10500
(3) Rs. 14800 (4) Rs. 13620
(5) None of these
69. 10 women can complete a work in 7 days
and 10 children take 14 days to complete the
work. How many days will 5 women and 10
children take to complete the work?
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
70. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 36
days. 18 women can complete the same piece
of work in 60 days, 8 men and 20 women work
together for 20 days. If only women were to
complete the remaining piece of work in 4
days, how many women would be required?
9
(1) 70 (2) 28
(3) 66 (4) 40
(5) None of these
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (71-85) : Read the following pas-
sage based on an Interview to answer the given questions
based on it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you
locate them while answering some of the questions.
A spate of farmer suicides linked to harassment
by recovery agents employed by micro finance institu-
tions (MFIs) in Andhra Pradesh spurred the state gov-
ernment to bring in regulation to protect consumer in-
terests. But, while the Bill has brought into sharp focus
the need for consumer protection, it tries to micro-man-
age MFI operations and in the process it could scuttle
some of the crucial benefits that MFIs bring to farm-
ers, says the author of Microfinance India, State Of The
Sector Report 2010. In an interview he points out that
prudent regulation can ensure the original goal of the
MFIs social uplift of the poor.
Do you feel the AP Bill to regulate MFls is
well thought out? Does it ensure fairness to the bor-
rowers and the long-term health of the sector?
The AP Bill has brought into sharp focus the
need far customer protection in four critical areas. First
is pricing. Second is lenders liability whether the
lender can give too much loan without assessing the
customers ability to pay. Third is the structure of loan
repayment - whether you can ask money on a weekly
basis from people who dont produce weekly incomes.
Fourth is the practices that attend to how you deal with
defaults.
But the Act should have looked at the positive
benefits that institutions could bring in, and where they
need to be regulated in the interests of the customers. It
should have brought only those features in.
Say, you want the recovery practices to be con-
sistent with what the customers can really manage. If
the customer is aggrieved and complains that somebody
is harassing him, then those complaints should be in-
vestigated by the District Rural Development Author-
ity.
Instead what the Bill says is that MFls cannot
go to the customers premises to ask for recovery and
that all transactions will be done in the Panchayat of-
fice. With great difficulty, MFIs brought services to the
door of people. It is such a relief for the customers not
to be spending time out going to banks or Panchayat
offices, which could be 10 km away in some cases. A
facility which has brought same relief to people is be-
ing shut. Moreover, you are practically telling the MFI
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where it should do business and how it should do it.
Social responsibilities were inbuilt when the
MFIs were first conceived. If MFIs go for profit with
loose regulations, how are they different from mon-
eylenders?
Even among moneylenders there are very good
people who take care of the customers circumstance,
and there are really bad ones. A large number of the
MFIs are good and there are some who are coercive
because of the kind of prices and processes they have
adopted. But Moneylenders never got this organised.
They did not have such a large footprint. An MFI brought
in organisation, it mobilized the equity, it brought in
commercial funding. It invested in systems. It appointed
a large number of people. But some of them exacted a
much higher price than they should have. They wanted
to break even very fast and greed did take over in some
cases.
Are the for-profit MF1s the only ones ha-
rassing people for recoveries?
Some not-for-profit outfits have also adopted
the same kind of recovery methods. That may be be-
cause you have to show that you are very efficient in
your recovery methods and that your portfolio is of a
very high quality if you want to get commercial fund-
ing from a bank.
In fact, among for-profits there are many who
have sensible recovery practices. Some have fortnightly
recovery, some have monthly recovery. So we have dif-
fering practices. We just describe a few dominant ones
and assume every for-profit MFI operates like that.
How can you introduce regulations to ensure
social upliftment in a sector that is moving towards
for-profit models?
I am not really concerned whether someone
wants to make a profit or not. The bottom-line for me is
customer protection. The first area is fair practices. Are
you telling your customers how the loan is structured?
Are you being transparent about your performance?
There should also be a lenders liability attached to what
you do. Suppose you lend excessively to a customer
without assessing their ability to service the loan, you
have to take the hit.
Then theres the question of limiting returns.
You can say that an MFI cannot have a return on assets
more than X, a return on equity of more than Y. Then
suppose there is a privately promoted MFI, there should
be a regulation to ensure the MFI cannot access equity
markets till a certain amount of time. MFIs went to
markets perhaps because of the need to grow too big
too fast. The government thought they were making
profit off the poor, and thats an indirect reason why
they decided to clamp down on MFIs. If you say an
10
MFI wont go to capital market, then it will keep politi-
cal compulsions under rein.
71. Which of the following best explains
structure of loan repayment in this context
of the first question asked to the author?
(1) Higher interest rate
(2) Payment on weekly basis
(3) Giving loan without assessing ability to
pay
(4) Method of dealing with defaults
(5) Total amount of loan
72. The author is of the view that ________.
(1) the bill to regulate MFIs is not needed
(2) the bill neglects the interests of the
customers
(3) the positive aspects of MFIs should also
be considered
(4) most of the MFIs are not good
(5) MFIs must be told what and where they
should do business
73. One of the distinct positive feature of MFIs is
that _________.
(1) they brought services to the door of
people
(2) they dealt with default very firmly
(3) they provided adequate customer
protection
(4) they are governed by the local people
(5) they have highly flexible repayment plan
74. What is the difference between MFIs and
moneylenders?
(1) There is no difference
(2) A large number of moneylenders are
good whereas only a few MFIs are good
(3) Moneylenders gave credit at lower rate
of interest than that of MFIs
(4) MFIs adopted a structure and put a
process in place, which was not the case
with moneylenders
(5) Moneylender appointed large number of
local people as against more outside
people in MFIs
75. Which of the following is positive outcome of
the AP Bill to regulate MFIs ?
(1) The banks have started this service in
remote areas
(2) It highlighted some areas of customer
protection
(3) It highlighted the bad practices being
followed by moneylenders .
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(4) MFIs invested in systems and brought in 81. Exacted

commercial funding (1) perfected (2) demanded
(5) It will help convert MFIs into small (3) estimated (4) corrected
banks (5) accurate
76. The author is recommending _______. 82. Scuttle
(1) Not-for profit MFIs (1) delay (2) mix
(2) For-profit MFIs (3) shuffle (4) destroy
(3) Stoppage of commercial funding to MFIs (5) smoothen
(4) Customer satisfaction irrespective of
83. Spurred
Not-for profit or for-profit MFIs
(5) Public sector promoted MFIs (1) agitated (2) instigated
(3) reflected (4) disapproved
77. Why did MFls go to the equity markers? (5) prompted
(1) To repay the loan
Directions (84-85) : Choose the word or group
(2) To lower interest rate
of words which is most opposite in meaning of the
(3) There were political compulsions
word printed in bold.
(4) To become a public sector institution
(5) To grow very fast 84. Under rein
78. Which of the following has not been (1) under wrap (2) without target
indicated as one of the features of fair (3) let loose (4) no clout
practices for customer protection? (5) under-cloud
(1) Providing information about loan 85. Coercive
structuring. (1) gentle (2) promoting
(2) MFIs should also be held liable for some (3) progressive (4) natural
of their actions. (5) opinionated
(3) Not to raise money from capital market.
(4) MFIs should also inform public about Directions (86-90): Rearrange the following
their own performance also. six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
(5) To provide credit as per the rational sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer
assessment of their ability to service the the questions given below them.
loan (A) Two of the best-performing major
economies in 2010 were China and
79. Which of the following could possibly be Brazil, with growth estimated at 7.5%
most plausible reason for banning recovery and 10.5% respectively.
by going to customers premises? (B) Despite that limp growth, major US stock
(1) To protect the family members. market indexes are up between 11% and
(2) To protect the customer from harassment 20% for the year.
and coercion.
(C) Even knowing where economies are
(3) To reduce the undue expenses of MFIs headed sometimes is of no help to an
resulting in lower interest rates. investor.
(4) To account systematically the money (D) It is hard to anticipate the direction of
recovered in the books of accounts. financial markets.
(5) To keep Panchayat office out of these (E) But as of December, stock markets of
transactions. both nations were in the red for the year.
Directions (80-83): Choose the word which is (F) By contrast, the US economy is likely to
most nearly the same in meaning as the word/group have expanded at only about 2.6% for
of words printed in bold. the year.

80. Manage 86. Which of the following would be the

(1) afford (2) assess SECOND sentence?
(3) thrust (4) administer (1) A (2) C
(5) use (3) D (4) E
(5) F

11
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87. Which of the following would be the The general result is a constant conditional of
FOURTH sentence? status tension. Under natural (99) this tension remains
(1) A (2) B tolerable because of the limited size of the social group-
(3) C (4) E ings. lf, however, in the artificial environment of cap-
(5) F tivity, the group size becomes too big, or the space avail-
able too small, then the status rat race soon gets out of
88. Which of the following would be the FIFTH hand, dominance battles rage uncontrollably and the
sentence? leaders of the packs, prides, colonies or tribes come
(1) A (2) B under (100) strain.
(3) C (4) D
(5) F 91. (1) feel (2) struggle
(3) war (4) envy
89. Which of the following would be the FIRST (5) stress
sentence?
(1) B (2) C 92. (1) allots (2) inherits
(3) D (4) E (3) approves (4) acquires
(5) E (5) desires
90. Which of the following would be the THIRD 93. (1) stable (2) equitable
sentence? (3) equal (4) calm
(1) A (2) B (5) unstable
(3) D (4) E 94. (1) aheading (2) looking
(5) F (3) feeling (4) moving
Directions (91-100) : In the following passage (5) growing
there are blanks each of which have been numbered. 95. (1) throned (2) thrown
Against each number, there are five words one of (3) overthrown (4) insulted
which fills the blank appropriately. Find the (5) picked
appropriate word in each case.
96. (1) they (2) junior
In any organized group of mammals, no matter (3) elder (4) everyone
how co-operative; there is always a (91) for social (5) each one
dominance. As he pursues this, each adult individual
(92) a particular social rank, giving him his position, 97. (1) above (2) sides
or status, in the group hierarchy. The situation never (3) top (4) behind
remains (93) for very long, largely because all the (5) below
status strugglers are (94) older. When the over lords, 98. (1) go (2) feel
or top dogs, become senile their seniority is (3) struck (4) run
challenged and they are (95) by their immediate (5) come
subordinates. There is then renewed dominance
squabbling as (96) moves a little farther up the social 99. (1) forces (2) conditions
ladder. At the other end of the scale, the younger (3) pressures (4) preconditions
members of the group are maturing rapidly, keeping (5) upbringing
up the pressure from (97). In addition. certain
100. (1) severe (2) unwanted
members of the group may suddenly be (98) down
(3) stress (4) productive
by disease or accidental death, leaving gaps in the
(5) desirable
hierarchy that have to be quickly filled.

12
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SOLUTIONS
(1 - 4) :
According to the given sitting arrangements, the
sitting order of I, J, K, L, M, N and O is
P
M K
N (8-11) :
J
O table 46
I
1. (3) From the above figure, we can see that P
and K are facing the centre, while N, O, I,
J and M are facing outwards.
2. (1) J is sitting third to the right of N. J is fourth
to left of N.
3. (4) K is sitting second to the right and fifth to
the left of M.
4. (2) P is sitting exactly between M and K.
(5 7) : From the given standing arrangements of
persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W we
disclose their positions.
8. (2) 31 + 1 = 32; 64 2 = 62;
R P V W U S T Q
5. (4) Among the following, P, W, S and Q are
facing North.
6. (1) U is standing to the immediate left of S.
7. (3) There are two persons V and W be-
tween P and V.
(8-11) : After careful analysis of the given input
and various steps of rearrangement it is
evident that in each step two elements (one
word and one number) are rearranged. In the
first step the highest number moves to the
extreme left position and its digits are
interchanged while the word which contains
least number of letters, moves to the extreme
right position. In the second step, the second
highest number moves to the extreme left
position and its digits are interchanged while
the word which contains the second lowest
number of letters moves to the extreme right
position. The same procedure is continued
till all the numbers and words get rearranged
following the rule mentioned above.
Input : tyre 71 toughen 59 tip 82 13 thanks to 68
Step I : 28 tyre 71 toughen 59 tip 13 thanks 68
table 46 to
Step II : 17 28 tyre toughen 59 13 thanks 68 table
46 to tip
Step III : 86 17 28 toughen 59 13 thanks table 46
to tip tyre
Step IV: 95 86 17 28 toughen 13 thanks 46 to tip
tyre table
Step V : 64 95 86 17 28 toughen 13 to tip tyre table
thanks
Step VI: 31 64 95 86 17 28 to tip tyre table thanks
toughen
95 + 1 = 96; 86 2 = 84;
17 + 1 = 18; 28 2 = 26;
The number 32, 84 and 96 are multiples
of 4.
9. (1)
Step III : 86 17 28 tough 59 13 thanks table 46 to tip tyre
28 will be to the immediate left of 46.
10. (4) Second last step means Step V :
3rd element from the left in Step V 86
9th element from the left in Step V tip
11. (3) The element 13 comes exactly between
59 and thanks in Step II.

13
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12. (5) Clearly, both the courses of action are Now,

suitable for pursuing.
A B F J K M Q
13. (2) Only course of action II is suitable for
pursuing. 3rd from right

14. (1) Only course of action I seems to be 26. (4) From the question
suitable.
15. (5) Clearly both the courses of action are B
suitable for pursuing. N
16. (1) Only course of action I seems to be
suitable.
W9 m E
17. (4) None of the assumptions is implicit. A 9m 2m
18. (5) Both the assumptions are implicit in the
statement. S
1m
19. (5) Both the assumptions are implicit in the
statement. Required Distance = (9 + 1) metres = 10
metres Directions East
20. (5) Although outsourcing to India allowed
many companies in west to focus on their (27 - 30) :
core operations. they heavily (i) All months are days Universal
compromised the quality and the Affirmative (A-type).
standards of their back office jobs. (ii) Some hours are calendars Particular
Affirmative (I-type).
21. (3) In-sourcing of jobs by the west would (iii) No hour is a day Universal Negative
render thousands of Indiansunemployed.
(E-type)
(22 - 24) : (iv) Some hours are not days Particular
Q is mother of P and R. Negative (O-type).
R is sister of P.
V is son of R and T. 27. (3) All months are days.
R is mother of V and W.
T is father of V and W.
Y is mother-In-law of R.
Q is mother-In-law of T. No day is an hour.
22. (2) The sex of W is not given. A + E E-type Conclusion
R is sister of P. No month is an hour.
V is grandson of Q.
V is grandson of Y. This is Conclusion I.
Some calendars are hours.
23. (4) T is brother-In-law of P.
24. (2) If R has one son and two daughters, then
W is the daughter of R.
No hour is a day.
25. (1) According to the question, each consonant
I + E O-type of Conclusion
in the word BLARING is replaced with
Some calendars are not days.
the previous letter and each vowel is re-
placed with the next letter and then letters Venn diagrams of Some calendars are not
are arranged alphabetically. days.
B L A R I N G
s

1 1 +1 1 +1 1 1
er

or Days
d

Days
len
Ca

A K B Q J M F

14 I II
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or A + A A-type of Conclusion
All gases are liquids.
Days This is Conclusion II.
All solids are liquids.
III
i.e, All calendars are days.
Therefore, Conclusion II also follows.
No liquid is fluid.
28. (3) Some books are comics.
A + E E-type of Conclusion
No solid is fluid.
30. (5) Some flutes are guitars.
All comic are novels.
I + A I-type of Conclusion
Some books are novels.
Conclusion I is the converse of it. No guitar is a piano.
All comics are novels. I + A O-type of Conclusion
Some flutes are not pianoes.
No guitar is a piano.

No novel is an article.
A + E E-type of Conclusion
No comics is an article. Some pianos are drums.
Some books are novels. E + I O1-type of Conclusion
Some drums are not guitars.
Some pianos are drums.

No novel is an article.
I + E O-type of Conclusion
Some books are not articles. All drums are violins.
Venn diagram of Some books are not ar- I + A I-type of Conclusion
ticles : Some pianos are violins.
Venn diagram of all the premises :
Books
Violins

Books or
Flutes Guitars Pianos Drums

I II
or Venn diagrams of Some flutes are not pi-
anos :
Articles Flutes

Flutes Pianos or
III
Venn diagram II supports the Conclusion
II. I II
or
29. (4) All gases are solids.
Piano

All solids are liquids. III

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Venn diagrams of Some pianos are vio- 35. (4) S has visited Chennai.
lins :
Pianos
36. (4) From both the statements,
Number = 53 or 35
Pianos Violins or 37. (5) From statements I and II, 0 + 5 = 5
5+0=5
IV V 6 4 = 6 + 4 = 10
or
Violins
38. (1) From statement I,
Total time = 6 hours
The work was completed at 3 p.m.
39. (3) From statements II,
VI Salary received in each paycheque
After combining Venn diagrams II and V,
we get : 618000
= Rs. = Rs. 25750
Flutes 24
We get answer also from statement II.
40. (5) From both the statements,
if x 84, then y 2
x + y > 85

350 x
Therefore, option (5) may be true. 41. (1) 248 591
100 50
(31 35) :
7x
The given below Table given the details of eight 248 591
100
persons (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and Z) going to four
destinations (Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata), 7x
representing four different departments (Human 591 248
100
Resources, Sales, Finance and Marketing)
7x
Person City Department 343
100
P Delhi Finance
Q Mumbai Sales 343 100
x 4900
R Chennai Human Resources 7
S Chennai Finance
1 15
T Kolkata Marketing 42. (1) 3842 x 2449
2 100
U Mumbai Human Resources
V Delhi Sales 15
1921 x 2449
100
Z Kolkata Marketing
15
31. (2) According to the given information, the x 2449 1921
combination R Chennai Human Re- 100
sources. 528 100
x
32. (5) Q and U have visited Mumbai 15
33. (1) T belongs to Marketing department. x 3520

34. (3) Q and V belongs to the sales Department.

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48. (4) Balls faced in first 11 matches = x (let)

7 3
43. (5) 1008 968 According to the question,
8 4 Total runs scored in first 11 matches
882 726 156
83 x

44. (1) 360 225 2 379 100

360 450 379 Total runs scored in last 11 matches 71x

100
289 17
83 x 71x
22 56
45. (3) 93 812 273 3? 100 100
3 2 3 154 x
32 34 33 3?
100
1232

36 38 39 3 x x
1232 100
800
154
35 3 x
Total balls faced by M in the tournament
x5 = 1600
46. (1) Total runs scored by R in the last three 49. (1) Total runs scored by batsman N = x
matches
Balls faced = x 402
= 24 15 21 42
= 1224 882 = 342 x
100 153.6
Maximum runs possible in 22nd match x 402
= 139 100 x 153.6 x 153.6 402
Maximum runs possible in 23rd match
153.6 x 100 x 61747.2
= 138
Minimum score in 24th match 53.6 x 61747.2
= 342 139 138 = 65 61747.2
x 1152
47. (5) Balls faced by batsman O = 900 53.6
Balls faced by batsman Q 1152
900 Required average runs 64
3 540 8
5
50. (2) Number of matches played by P = x
Total runs scored by batsman O
36 x
110 900 100 84
990 1200
100
Total runs scored by batsman 84 12
x 28
140 540 36
Q 756
100 (51 - 54)
Required percent
Population of village F is 21000
990 756 234 10 which 35% of that of city x
100
990 99 So, it 35% 21000
260 7 21000
23 100% 100 60, 000
11 11 35
Village/City

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City X 60,000
21120 3
25 Nokia 7920 ..(2)
8
Village A 60, 000 15000
100 Total no. of Mobiles sold by D
20 66000 18
Village B 60, 000 12000 11880
100 100
2 11880 5
Village C 60, 000 24000 Nokia 6600 ..(3)
5 9
Total = 2640 + 7920 + 6600 = 17160
60
Village D 24000 14400
57. (3) Total number of mobiles sold by stores
100
D, E and F = (18 + 11 + 17)% = 46%
12000 85
Village E 10200 66000 46
100 30360
100
51. (1) Population of city X = 60,000
58. (4) 100% = 360
52. (2) Respective Ratio = 15000 : 14400
= 25 : 24 360
18% 18 64.8
100
53. (3) Required difference between the
population of village C and village D is 59. (4) Total no. of mobiles sold by E
= 24000 14400 = 9600
11
66000 7260
54. (4) Required percentage 100
4800 480 7260 3
100 32% Samsung 1980
15000 15 11
(55 - 60) : Total no. of mobiles sold by F

55. (1) Total number of mobiles sold by store A 66000 17

11220
100
66000 14
9240
100 11220 6
Samsung 3366
20
2
HTC 9240 2640 Required Ratio = 1980 : 3366
7 = 110 : 187
Total number of mobiles sold by store C
60. (2) Total no. of mobile phones sold by D is
66000 32 more in percentage by
21120
100 B = 18 8 = 10%
21120 3 10 100 1000
Samsung 7920 125%
8 8 8
Difference = 7920 2640 = 5280
61. (4) Let the numbers be x and y
56. (2) Total no. of mobiles sold by A = 9240
2 x2 6 y
9240 2
Nokia 2640 ..(1) x2 3 y
7
Total no. of Mobiles sold by C = 21120 Ratio cannot be obtained between x and
y.

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62. (3) x x 2 x 4 x 6 284 650052 8000

x
4 x 284 12 4167 100
4 x 272 156 80 Rs.12480
x 68
69. (3) woman complete work in 7 days
63. (5) Let the maximum marks be x 10 children = 14 days
40% of x = 600 1 women = 2 children
x = 1500 5 women + 10 children = 20 children
Passing marks for girls By M1D1 = M2D2
35
1500 525 10 14 20 D 2
100
10 14 = 7 days
D2
64. (1) Average 52 64 74 190 63.33% 20
3 3 70. (1) 12 men can complete work in 36 days
63.33% of 750 = 475 work completed in 1 day = 12 36
65. (1) Let the maximum marks be x 18 women can complete the work in 60
45% of x = 360 days
x = 800 In one day work completed = 60 18
Minimum passing marks for girls 2 men = 5 women
= 30% of 800 = 240 Now 8 men + 20 women
Required marks = 240 108 = 132 (4 5 + 20) women = 40 women
18 women can complete the work in
92 60 days.
66. (4) First S.P 54000 49680 40 womens 20 days work
100
110 40 20 20

Second S.P 49680 =54648 18 60 27
100
Profit = 54648 54000 = 648 20 7
Remaining work 1
27 27
9600 95
67. (5) First S.P = 9120
100 1
In 1 day, a women does work
9120 105 18 60
Second S.P 9576 In 4 days a women can do.
100
Loss = 9600 9576 = 24 4 4
work
68. (1) Let the principal be Rs. x, then 18 60 18 15
3 7
15 650052 work is done in 4 days
x 1 x 27
100 100
18 15 7
23 23 23 650052 70 days
x x 27
20 20 20 100
71. (2) Payment on weekly basis
650052 12167 x 8000 x
72. (3) the positive aspects of MFIs should also
100 8000 be considered
650052 4167 73. (1) they brought services to the door of
people
100 x

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74. (4) MFIs adopted a structure and put a
process in place, which was not the case
with moneylenders
75. (2) It highlighted some areas of customer
protection
76. (4) Customer, satisfaction irrespective of
Not-for profit or for-profit MFIs
77. (5) To grow very fast is.
78. (4) MFls should also inform public about-
their own performance also.
79. (2) To protect the customer from harassment
and coercion
80. (1) The meaning of the word Manage (Verb)
as used in the passage is to be able to
deal with something; to succeed in doing
something; afford.
81. (2) The meaning of the word Exact (Verb)
as used in the passage is : to demand and
get something from somebody; to make
something bad happen to somebody.
Look at the sentence:
He was determined to exact a promise
from her.
82. (4) The meaning of the word Scuttle (Verb)
as used in the passage is: to deliberately
cause something to fail; destroy; foil.
20
Look at the sentence: Shareholders
successfully scuttled the deal.
83. (5) The meaning of the word Spur (Verb)
as used in the passage is : to encourage
somebody to do something; prompt.
Look at the sentence:
I was spurred into action by the letter.
84. (3) The meaning of the word Under rebi
(Noun) as used in the passage is: the state
of being in control.
Its antonym should be let loose.
85. (1) The meaning of the word Coercive
(Adjective) as used in the passage is :
using force or the threat of force.
Hence, its antonym should be gentle.
86. (2) C
87. (4) E
88. (5) F
89. (3) D
90. (1) A
91. (2) 92. (4) 93. (1) 94. (5) 95. (3)
96. (4) 97. (5) 98. (3) 99. (2) 100. (1)