ELECTRICIAN 8. The schematic diagram, Fig.

5A,
represents a:
A. Compound wound motor
1. D.P.D.T. stands for: B. Series wound motor
A. Duplex pole dead-throw switch C. Shunt wound motor
B. Double- pole duplex terminal D. Universal motor
C. Double-pole double-throw switch 9. The schematic diagram, Fig 5B,
D. Direct power to direct terminal represents a:
2. Small switches are classified as: A. Shunt wound motor
A. Rotary C. tumbler B. Flat compounded motor
B. Pushbutton D. all of the above C. Series wound motor
3. A.D.C. compound-wound generator D. Compound wound motor
that has a voltage drop from no-load to 10. The schematic diagram, Fig. 5C,
full-load is said to be: represents a:
A. Under compounded A. Flat-compounded motor
B. Over-compounded B. Shunt-wound motor
C. Flat-compounded C. Series-wound motor
D. None of the above D. Compound-wound motor
4. T.P.S.T. stands for: 11. The symbol represents a
A. Triple-pole standard terminal normally:
B. Triple-pole single-throw switch A. Open contactor
C. Temporary-pole standard terminal B. Closed switch
D. Tandem-pole single-throw switch C. Open switch
5. If a transformer was plugged into a D.C. D. Closed contactor
circuit:
A. It would blow a fuse
B. The primary would overload and
the secondary would be dead
C. The secondary burn out
D. Any of the above
6. The horsepower of a motor with an
effective resistance of 2 ohms on a 110- 12. The symbol represents a:
volt line is: A. Circuit breaker
A. 16 horsepower C. 10 horsepower B. Fuse
B. 12 horsepower D. 8 horsepower C. Ammeter
7. An ammeter reads 230 amps and the D. Rheostat
voltmeter 115. The power in Kw. at the 13. The symbol represents a
time of the reading is: normally:
A. 26, 450 C. 264.5 A. Open switch
B. 26.45 D. 2645 B. Open contactor
C. Closed switch
 D. Closed contactor B. Strength of field
14. In cold weather the specific gravity of a C. Number of armature conductors
battery: D. All of the above
A. Rises 21. This symbol represents a:
B. Lowers A. Four-way switch
C. Remains the same B. Triple-pole switch
D. None of the above C. Three-way rotary switch
15. Which of the following will not cause a D. Double-pole switch
generator to vibrate? 22. Another name for an A.C. generator is:
A. Misalignment A. A dynamometer
B. Loose bolt B. A dynamotor
C. Loose pigtails C. An alternator
D. Faulty speed governor D. Any of the above
16. A series-wound motor is used to run a 23. The approximate brush pressure on
pump driven with a belt. If the belt generator collector rings is:
breaks, the motor will: A. 2 psi
A. Over speed and run out of control B. 4 psi
B. Stop C. 6 psi
C. Slow down D. 8 psi
D. Keep running at the same speed 24. Which of the following is not found on
17. Which of the following would cause a A.C. generator?
generator to fail to build up? A. Slip rings
A. Field connections reversed B. Commutator
B. Speed too low C. Brushes
C. Machine short-circuited D. Field coils
D. Any of the above 25. The electrical symbol
18. 60-cycle means that the cycle is represents a:
repeated: A. Transformer
A. 60 times a minute B. Buzzer
B. 60 times a second C. Bell
C. 60 times an hour D. Relay
D. None of the above 26. Excitation for an A.C. generator can be
19. A step-up transformer: taken from a:
A. Raises voltage and decreases A. Battery
amperage B. Separate exciter
B. Raises voltage and amperage C. Converter
C. Decreases voltage and amperage D. Any of the above
D. Decreases voltage and increases 27. The circuit represents a:
amperage A. Series circuit
20. The voltage of a D.C. generator depends B. Parallel circuit
on which of the following? C. Series parallel circuit
A. Speed of armature D. None of the above
28. The circuit represents a: C. Change A.C. to D.C. or D.C. to A.C.
A. Compound motor D. Reverse the rotation of the
B. Shunt motor generator
C. Series motor 35. Grooves around the circumference of
D. Induction motor the commutator indicate :
29. The output frequency of an A.C. A. Improper brushes
generator which operates at 60 RPM B. High mica
and has 12 fields poles is: C. Improper brush staggering
A. 12 cps D. Open armatures circuit
B. 6 cps 36. Which of the following connection
C. 18 cps would be most likely to endure the
D. 24 cps instrument attached?
30. All electric splices shall be electrically A. Ammeter in series in the circuit
and mechanically secure without solder B. A voltmeter connected across the
and unless an approved splicing device line
is used they shall be: C. An ammeter connected across the
A. Welded line
B. Soldered D. A voltmeter in series with the line
C. Brazed 37. Which of the following expression
D. Any of the above correctly state ohms law?
31. The frequency of an A.C. current is: A. Volt equals amps times resistance
A. Cycles per minute B. Amps equal volt divided by
B. Cycles per minute60 resistance
C. Cycle per second C. Resistance equal volts divided by
D. B or C amps
32. The symbol Represents a: D. All of the above are correct
A. Compound motor 38. When selecting the size of wire to be
B. Series motor used in the circuit, the most important
C. Shunt motor item to consider is the :
D. Repulsion motor A. Resistance of the circuit
33. Emergency lights supplied by the B. Voltage of the circuit
emergency lighting system shall be C. Amperage of the circuit
lighted continuously at all times except D. Amount of wire to be used
in the : 39. If the step- down transformer has 120
A. Machinery spaces volts in the primary and the turns ratio
B. Passageways is 6 to 1 the secondary will put out :
C. embarkation decks A. 60 volts
D. Crews messroom B. 16 volts
34. A reverse power relay is used to: C. 20 volts
A. Reverse the rotation of the motor D. 720 volts
B. Protect the generator from a power 40. Which of the following instruments can
reversal be used to measure wire?
 A. Anemometer C. The armature coils revolve and the
B. Megger field coils are stationary
C. Micrometer D. A or C
D. Dividers 47. The horsepower of an 1800 Kw motor
41. Which of the following is required to is:
induce a voltage and current in a wire? A. 1800 horsepower
A. A magnetic field B. 2412 horsepower
B. A conductor in a closed circuit C. 2142 horse power
C. Motion between A and B D. 2421 horsepower
D. All of the above 48. Which of the following will not cause a
42. Which of the following splices must be hot motor bearing?
used in board ship? A. Insufficient lubrication
A. Pigtail B. Loose brushes
B. T tap C. Overload
C. Western union D. Misalignment
D. Underwriters 49. In a three-phase circuit the phases are:
43. Which of the following D.C. loads will be A. 360apart
found on vessels with A.C. ships service B. 180 apart
systems? C. 160 apart
A. General alarm system D. 120 apart
B. Emergency lighting 50. Which of the following is not found on a
C. Rectifying for battery lighting D.C. generator?
D. All of the above A. Pigtails
44. Which of the following items is B. Brushes
necessary to keep a storage battery in C. Stationary armature
good operation? D. Brush holders
A. Maintain proper specific gravity 51. The purpose of staggering brushes is to:
B. Keep cool and well ventilated A. Even out the load
C. Maintain proper level of electrolyte B. Prevent uneven wear on the
D. All of the above commutator
45. A synchronous motor is one that turns: C. Reduce chattering
A. At twice the speed of the generator D. Cover more area on the
B. At half the speed of the generator commutator for more power
C. In a given ratio with the number of
52. When using Ohms Law, would solve
poles involve for:
D. At the same speed as the generator A. Amperage
46. In A.C. generators: B. Voltage
A. The armature coils are stationary C. Watts
and the field coils revolve D. Resistance
B. The armature and field coils both 53. An insulator is a:
revolve
 A. Substance that offers a resistance C. Milliohms
to current flow D. Microhms
B. Substance that offers a low 60. The power supply for a megger is
resistance to current flow obtained from:
C. Substance that absorb electricity A. Any 115-volt D.C. circuit
D. Form of a condenser B. Any 115-volt A.C. circuit
54. The capacity of #14 rubber-insulated C. Flashlight batteries
wire is: D. A magneto
A. 30 amps 61. Current measuring instruments must
B. 20 amps always be connected in:
C. 15 amps A. Series with the circuits
D. 60 amps B. Parallel with the circuit
55. Retentivity is the power of a metal has C. Series-parallel connection
to retain: D. Shunt
A. The current in a circuit 62. The negative plate in a nickel-iron
B. Magnetic lines of source storage battery is:
C. Electron flow within the circuit A. Iron
D. Electricity when moving at high B. Nickel
speeds C. Lead
56. Residual magnetism is the magnetism: D. Steel
A. In a field coil 63. A D.C. compound-wound generator that
B. In the rotor does not charge speed with variations
C. Remaining in a substance after it in load is said to be:
has been removed from a magnetic A. Over-compounded
field B. Flat-compounded
D. Gained in converting D.C. to A.C. C. Under-compounded
57. Which of the following is not good D. Over-flat-compounded
conductor of electricity? 64. Frequency depends on the:
A. Copper A. Speed of the machine
B. Mica B. Size of the machine
C. Silver C. Number of poles
D. Aluminum D. A and C
58. A megger is: 65. The correct amount of grease to put in
A. An instrument for measuring motor bearings is to fill the bearing:
current A. Completely
B. A hand-cranked A.C. generator B. Race and half-fill the housing
C. A hand-cranked D.C. generator C. Race with heavy grease and the
D. A meter for measuring the housing with light grease
thickness of insulation D. Race with a light grease and the
59. A megger is used to measure: housing with a heavy grease
A. Kilohms 66. A magnet that is heated will:
B. Megohms A. Increase in magnetism
 B. Decrease in magnetism 73. The proper color for color for a
C. Become demagnetized commutator is:
D. Not change its magnetism A. Dark brown
67. An open armature coil can be detected B. shiny brown
by: C. glazed chocolate
A. An increase in motor speed D. reddish brown
B. A decrease in motor speed 74. the resistance of two 60-amp 6-volt
C. Sparking at the brushes batteries connected in series is:
D. A ring of fire running around the A. 15 ohms
commutator B. .20 ohms
68. If a voltmeter is connected across a line, C. .10 ohms
it must be protected with a: D. .25 ohms
A. Shunt 75. If the charging rate to a battery was too
B. High-resistance coil in the armature high, it would:
circuit A. Increase the terminal voltage
C. Low-resistance coil in the armature B. Increase the specific gravity
circuit C. Increase the rate of hydrogen
D. Shunt and a coil of high resistance liberation
69. If two A.C. generators are to be D. Decrease the terminal voltage
operated in parallel, the load is 76. In a three-wire 115-230 volt distribution
distributed evenly by: system, the voltage between the
A. Means of rheostat neutral and negative is:
B. A balance coil A. 230 volts
C. Adjusting the governor settings B. No voltage
D. Changing excitation C. 345 volts
70. The type of D.C. motor used for high- D. 115 volts
starting torque and low starting current 77. Which of the following statement is
is the: true?
A. Squirrel-cage motor A. An increase in current decreases in
B. Compound-wound motor temperature
C. Wound-rotor motor B. An increase in current increases in
D. Synchronous motor temperature
71. Any motor can be constructed to be: C. An increase in current has no effect
A. Dripproof in temperature
B. Short-proof D. Any increase in current will double
C. Explosion-proof the temperature
D. A or C 78. Which of the following statement is
72. If a battery overheats , it will: true
A. Evaporate water A. Any increase in temperature will
B. Decrease in specific gravity double the resistance
C. Discharge itself B. An increase in temperature lower
D. All of the above resistance
 C. An increase in temperature lowers B. Short circuit
resistance C. Open circuit
D. An increase in temperature D. Any of the above
increase resistance 86. Frequency depends on the:
79. Which of the following statement is A. Amount of excitation current
true? applied
A. Like poles attract each other B. Number of poles
B. Like poles repel each other C. Speed of the motor
C. Unlike poles repel each other D. B and C
D. None of the above 87. A hydrometer is used to measure the:
80. When mixing sulphuric acid and water A. Internal temperature of a battery
for an electrolyte for a battery: B. Acid content of a battery
A. Add water to the acid C. Specific gravity of the battery
B. Add acid to the water electrolyte
C. Add acid and water together D. Water content of the battery
D. Alternate acid and water 88. A fully charged battery reads from:
81. Before working on an electrical circuit: A. 1.280-1.300
A. Open the awitch B. 1.025-1.075
B. Tag the switch do not close C. 1.050-1.350
C. Have required tools and meters D. 1.200-1.500
ready 89. One ground lamp burning bright and
D. All of the above the other burning dim would indicate a:
82. An A.C. series-wound motor will A. Ground on both legs of the circuit
operate on: B. Short circuit
A. A.C. only C. Ground on the side of the dim light
B. D.C. only D. Ground on the side of the bright
C. A.C. or D.C. light
D. Any of the above 90. In a three-wire system the ground wire
83. Electron tubes can: is:
A. Convert currents and voltages A. Black C. white
B. Amplify weak signals B. Green D. red
C. Generate high frequencies 91. An autotransformer is used in the
D. All of the above motor-starting circuit to:
84. A circuit that has one wire in contact A. Limit the current
with the hull of the ship is a: B. Reduce the voltage
A. Series circuit C. Control the speed
B. Grounded circuit D. Increase the voltage
C. Short circuit 92. A rheostat is a device that regulates the
D. Closed circuit strength of an electric current by:
85. A circuit that has two or more wires in A. Varying the resistance in the circuit
contact with the hull of the ship is the: B. Varying the voltage in the circuit
A. Closed circuit
 C. Increasing magnetic field in the A. Drawing sandpaper between brush
circuit and commutator
D. Varying the current in the circuit B. Drawing crocus cloth between
93. An exciting current is one that brush and commutator
required to: C. Drawing emery cloth between
A. Build up a dead circuit brush and commutator
B. Create a magnetic field D. Using a half-round file to shape
C. Excite a synchronous motor them
D. Build up the voltage in a battery 100. Transformers are used with:
94. Damp armature windings will cause: A. D.C. current
A. Reduced voltage B. A.C. or D.C. current
B. Reduced current C. A.C. current
C. Overheating D. Synchronous current
D. Increased resistance 101. Synchronization means:
95. A synchronous motor is one that: A. In synchrony
A. Is synchronized B. At the same time as
B. Turns in synchronization with the C. Equal speeds
alternator D. Cycle for cycle
C. Converts D.C. to A.C.
102. When using Ohms Law, would solve
D. None of the above for:
96. Dirty lead-acid type batteries should be A. Amperage
cleaned off with: B. Voltage
A. Soap and water C. Resistance
B. Sodium chloride D. Watts
C. Baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) 103. The size of electrical wires is measured
D. Potassium hydroxide in:
97. If a motor caught on fire, the first thing A. Centimeters
to do is: B. B.W.G.
A. Use a CO2 extinguisher on it C. Circular mils
B. Use a dry chemical extinguisher on D. Cu. In.
it 104. In a series circuit the total current is:
C. Secure the motor A. The same as that of the largest
D. Slow down the motor until it cools branch circuit
off B. The same throughout all parts of
98. If a number of storage batteries are the circuit
connected in series, the terminal C. The same as that of the smallest
voltage is: branch circuit
A. The same D. None of the above
B. Increased 105. Another name for an overcurrent
C. Decreased protection device is a:
D. None of the above A. Magnetic breaker
99. New brushes are fitted by:
 B. Thermal breaker 113. The rating of a storage battery that
C. Fuse delivers 15 amps for 12 hours is:
D. All of the above A. 180 ampere hours
106. #14 wire is not: B. 150 ampere hours
A. Larger than #16 C. 27 ampere hours
B. Smaller than #12 D. 360 ampere hours
C. Larger than #18 114. A 6-cell lead-acid battery produces:
D. Smaller than #16 A. 6 volts C. 9 volts
107. A mil is: B. 12 volts D. none of the above
A. 1/10 C. 1/1000 115. How many 1.5 volt batteries are
B. 1/100 D. 1/1,000,000 required to supply a load of 12 volts if
108. As the load of a series motor is the batteries are connected in series?
increased, the speed will: A. 12 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10
A. Increase 116. How many 1.5 volt batteries are
B. Decrease required to supply a load of 12 volts if
C. Remain the same the batteries are connected in parallel?
D. None of the above A. 12 B. 6 C. 3 D. none of the above
109. If the load was suddenly released from 117. A 24-volt lead-acid storage battery
a series motor, it would: consist of:
A. Speed up A. 8 cells C. 12 cells
B. Slow down B. 6 cells D. none of the above
C. Stop 118. The normal cell voltage of a fully
D. Continue to operate at same speed charged alkaline battery is:
110. If the load was suddenly released from A. 1.0 volt C. 1.5 volts
a shunt motor, it would: B. 2.0 volts D. 2.5 volts
A. Speed up 119. On a three-phase three-lamp ground
B. Slow down detector, what would be the indication
C. Continue to operate at same speed if one phase is grounded?
D. Stop A. All three lamps would be bright
111. Which of the following groups of B. One lamp dark and the others
motors are D.C. motors? bright
A. Compound and synchronous C. one lamp bright and the others dark
B. Series and induction D. None of the above
C. Series, shunt and compound 120. A step-down transformer lowers:
D. Induction and synchronous A. Voltage and amperage
112. A shunt motor would be best suited B. Voltage and increases amperage
for: C. Amperage and increases voltage
A. Constant speed results D. None of the above
B. An anchor windlass 121. High mica between commutator bars
C. A cargo winch is removed by:
D. Any of the above A. Removing
B. Burning
 C. Undercutting A. Overhead drip pans
D. Chiseling B. A wooden handrail
122. If the manufacturers specifications for C. A rubber mat or wood platform
brush pressure are not known, a safe D. A or C
pressure would be: 130. To protect battery terminals from
A. 2 to 3 psi corroding, they should be covered with:
B. 1 to 3 psi A. Grease
C. 1 to 1-1/2 psi B. Tape
D. None of the above C. 3-in-1 oil
123. The normal cell voltage of a fully D. White lead
charged lead-acid battery is: 131. The lead plates in storage batteries are
A. 2 to 2.2 volts separated by:
B. 1.4 to 1.8 volts A. Rubber
C. 1.2 to 1.4 volts B. Wood
D. None of the above C. Glass
124. A commutator is made of: D. Any of the above
A. Copper bars 132. Commutator segments are made of:
B. Bronze bars A. Zinc
C. Nickel bars B. Brass
D. Steel bars C. Copper
125. Brushes are made of: D. Nickel
A. Lead C. carbon 133. Which of the following materials
B. Castile D. lignite would you use to clean a commutator?
126. H2SO4 is: A. Sandpaper
A. Sulphuric acid B. Oilcloth
B. Hydrochloric acid C. Emery cloth
C. Hydraulic acid D. Monks cloth
D. Muriatic acid 134. An ohmmeter measures:
127. Electric cables leading through a deck A. Voltage
are protected by: B. Insulation resistance
A. Metal casings C. Resistance
B. Kick pipes D. Amperage
C. Watertights unions 135. A megger measures:
D. Ground wires A. Insulation resistance
128. A short in a D.C. armature motor B. Grounded voltage
would be detected by: C. Voltage
A. Brush sparking D. Synchronism
B. Ground lights 136. All electric cables run through
C. Blackened bars watertight bulkheads must be:
D. A or C A. Welded on both sides of the
129. The USCG R & R require that engine- bulkhead
room switchboards be equipped with:
 B. Installed with watertight packing D. Under-flat-compounded
glands 143. The safety factor in using a double-
C. Grounded on both sides of the pole switch is the fact that:
bulkhead A. Both line wires are dead when
D. Fitted with unions on each side of switch is turned off
the bulkhead B. It can be replaced easily
137. Storage batteries are not allowed to be C. It will stand greater loads
stored in the: D. It can be used on any voltage
A. Engine room 144. represents a:
B. Radio stack A. Double spilce
C. Pump room B. T tap
D. Any of the above C. Pigtail splice
138. Which of the following devices D. Western union splice
prevents overload on a generator? 145. The electrical symbol represents a :
A. Rheostat A. Circuit breaker
B. Circuit breaker B. Transformer-iron core
C. Fusestat C. Thermostat
D. Any of the above D. Variable resistor
139. Which of the following controls the 146. The electrical symbol
voltage output? represents a:
A. The number of field coils A. Rheostat
B. The size of the field coils B. Thermal element
C. The amount of current flowing C. Variable resistor
through the field coils D. Circuit breaker
D. The speed of the prime mover 147. The total voltage and amperage of two
140. If the load was removed from a series 50-amp 6-volt batteries connected in
wound motor, it would: series is:
A. Slow down A. 12 volts, 100 amps
B. Stop B. 12 volts, 50 amps
C. Speed up C. 6 volts, 100 amps
D. Remain the same speed D. 6 volts, 50 amps
141. If the was removed from a shunt 148. The symbol represents a:
wound motor, it would: A. Double-pole single throw switch
A. Slow down B. Double-throw single-pole switch
B. Stop C. Double-pole double-throw switch
C. Speed up D. None of the above
D. Remain at the same speed 149. The resistance of two 60-amp 6-volt
142. A D.C generator that has a voltage rise batteries connected in parallel is:
from no-load to full-load is said to be: A. 20 ohms
A. Under-compounded B. 10 ohms
B. Over-compounded C. .05 ohms
C. Flat-compounded D. .15 ohms
150. The electrical symbol C. 142 ohms
represents a: D. 143 ohms
A. Balance relay 158. A megger is always used on:
B. Series relay A. Grounded circuit
C. Main control switch B. Short circuit
D. Thermocouple C. Live circuit
151. Ships service and emergency D. Deenergized circuit
alternators used aboard ship are: 159. What protective device is used on a
A. Three-phrase dead front switchboard to take the
B. Two-phrase place of the fused knife switch on a :live
C. Four-phrase front board?
D. Single-phrase A. Open-type circuit breaker
152. To produce a frequency of 60 csp, an B. Motor-operated circuit breaker
8-pole alternator must operate at: C. Enclosed-type circuit breaker
A. 960 rpm D. A fusestat
B. 480 rpm 160. The procedure for starting a D>C
C. 1920 rpm generator and cutting it in on the line is:
D. 900 rpm A. Star the prime mover, adjust the
153. The unit of electrical pressure is the: voltage, close the main switch,
A. Amp close the circuit breaker
B. Volt B. Close the circuit breaker, start the
C. Watt prime mover, adjust the voltage,
D. Ohm close the main switch
154. The unit of electrical resistance is the: C. Start the prime mover, adjust the
A. Amp voltage, close the circuit breaker,
B. Volt close the main switch
C. Watt D. Adjust the voltage, start the prime
D. Ohm mover, close the circuit breaker,
155. The unit of electrical current is the: close the main switch
A. Amp 161. The purpose of the commutator and
B. Volt brushes on a D.C. generator is to:
C. Watt A. Change A.C. to D.C. current
D. Ohm B. Change D.C to A.C. current
156. The galvanometer is used to measure: C. Neutralize armature reaction
A. Small voltages D. Carry current to outside circuit
B. Small currents 162. A universal series motor can be
C. Large currents operated on:
D. Large voltages A. D.C. current only
157. The resistance of a 100-watt bulb in a B. A.C. 3-phrase current only
120-volt current is: C. A.D. or D.C.
A. 120 ohms D. A.C. current only
B. 144 ohms
163. The advantage of D.C. motors over B. Series-parallel circuit
A.C. motors is the fact that they: C. Series-series circuit
A. Require less maintenance D. Series circuit
B. Offers a better means of controlling 171. If three resistance of 2, 4, and 6 ohms
speed are connected in parallel, the total
C. Are less expensive resistance is:
D. Can be started across the line A. 2.05 ohms
164. This schematic diagram represents: B. 1.09 ohms
A. An open circuit C. 0.05 ohms
B. A grounded circuit D. 12 ohms
C. A closed circuit 172. Which of the following formulas would
D. A parallel circuit solve for amperage?
165. This symbol represents a: A. R/E B. RE C. E/R D. R+E
A. Triple-pole multi-throw switch 173. Volts X amps equals:
B. Triple-throw triple-pole switch A. Kilowatts
C. Triple-pole double-throw switch B. Watts
D. Triple-pole single-throw switch C. Ohms
166. The symbol represents a D. Watt-hours
normally: 174. The chemical symbol for carbon
A. Closed switch dioxide is:
B. Open switch A. CO2 B. CO C. C2O D. C2O2
C. Open contactor 175. The safest solvent to use for cleaning
D. Closed contractor electric motors is:
167. The symbol represents a: A. Carbon tetrachloride
A. Normally open switch B. Diluted muriatic acid
B. Normally open contactor C. Carbon dioxide
C. Normally closed switch D. Trichloride ethylene
D. Automatically 176. Which of the following would cause
168. This schematic diagram represents a: sparkling at the brushes?
A. Series circuit A. High mica
B. Parallel circuit B. Dirty commutator
C. Series-parallel circuit C. Brushes not set in neutral plane
D. Double-grounded circuit D. Any of the above
169. Before using a megger it should be 177. The synchronous speed of a 4-pole 60-
tested. This is done by placing the test cycle A.C. motor is:
leads together and turning the crank. A A. 1800 rpm C. 1200 rpm
perfect reading, indicating that the B. 2400 rpm D. 3600 rpm
leads and megger are in good condition, 178. The symbol represents
reads: a:
A. 100 B. 500 C. Zero D. 220 A. Ground C. Relay
170. This schematic diagram represents a: B. Battery D. Transformer
A. Parallel circuit
179. Which of the following A.C. motors has C. Equal to the difference between
its rotor energized by D.C.? that in its largest branch and that in
A. Synchronous C. Repulsion its smallest branch
B. Squirrel-cage D. Wound-rotor D. None of the above
180. The symbol represents a: 187. D.C. generates are represents:
A. Battery C. Rheostat A. KVA B. KwA C. Kw D. HP
B. Ground D. Contactor 188. This circuit represents:
181. The type of A.C. motor used for high- A. A D.C. series circuit
starting torque and low-staring current B. An induction motor
is the: C. A D.C. shunt motor
A. Squirrel-cage motor D. A D.C. compound-wound motor
B. Compound-wound motor 189. A Universal motor must be a:
C. Wound-rotor motor A. Series-wound motor
D. Synchronous motor B. Shunt-wound motor
182. Which of the following switches will be C. Compound-wound motor
found on an electric life-boat which? D. A or C
A. Limit switch 190. The electrolyte in a lead- acid storage
B. Master switch battery is:
C. Emergency disconnect switch A. HCl B. H2SO C. CaCl D. MgCl
D. All of the above 191. If the load is removed from a series
183. When would you ground an electric motor, the speed will:
hand tool? A. Decrease
A. When it is a D.C. machine B. Remain the same
B. When it is an A.C. machine C. Increase
C. Any machine that operates on over D. None of the above
100 volts 192. The horsepower of a 50 Kw motor is:
D. Only when working on wet steel A. 67 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100
plates 193. How many Kw will a generator put out
184. A bar magnet has: if it is driven by a 75 horsepower
A. One pole C. Four poles engine?
B. Two poles D. All of the above A. 60.75 C. 55.95
185. A horseshoe magnet has: B. 50.25 D. 54.50
A. One pole C. Four poles 194. One kilowatt is equal to:
B. Three poles D. Two poles A. 1.25 hp C. 1.50 hp
186. The total resistance in a series circuit B. 1.33 hp D. 2.00 hp
is: 195. What is the smallest sized wire allowed
A. The same as in found in its largest aboard a ship?
branch A. 12 B. 16 C. 10 D. 14
B. Equal to the sum of the resistance 196. The total voltage and amperage of two
in its branches 50-amp 6-volt batteries connected in
parallel is:
A. 6 volts, 100 amps
 B. 6 volts, 50 amps C. No circuit breaker
C. 12 volts, 100 amps D. No safety handrail or rubber mat
D. 12 volts, 50 amps 204. A synchronous motor is excited with:
197. The resistance of a 60-watt bulb in a A. Synchronizer
120-volt line is: B. A.C. current
A. 200 ohms C. D.C. current
B. 220 ohms D. 3-phase current
C. 240 ohms 205. Salt water in contact with storage
D. 110 ohms batteries will develop:
198. A wattmeter shows the : A. Carbon dioxide
A. Voltage B. Nitrogen gas
B. Amperage C. Carbon monoxide
C. Combined volts and amps or load D. Chlorine gas
delivery 206. The ordinary 6-volt lead-acid storage
D. resistance battery consists of:
199. which of the following will cause A. 6 cells
generator brushes to burn? B. 3 cells
A. Brushes not in neutral plane C. 4 cells
B. Generator overloaded D. 12 cells
C. Water brush springs 207. The total resistance of a parallel circuit
D. All of the above is always:
200. The electric power in watts used by a A. Larger than that of the branch with
toaster using 5 amps with a resistance the greatest resistance
of 22 ohms is: B. Equal to the sum of the individual
A. 5.50 branch resistances
B. 550 C. Equal to the reciprocal of the sum
C. 110 of the individual branch resistances
D. 220 D. Smaller than that of the branch
201. Twelve (12) 100-watt lamps in parallel with the lowest resistance
in a 120-volt circuit will draw: 208. If a parallel circuit has 3 branches of
A. 100 amps C. 10 amps unequal resistance:
B. 1 amp D. 15 amps A. The current through each branch is
202. Which of the following meters is not the same
found on a D.C. board? B. The total resistance is equal to the
A. Ammeter sum of the individual branches
B. Voltmeter C. The voltage drop across each
C. Rheostat branch is the same
D. synchroscope D. The voltage drop across each
203. A dead front board is a board with: branch is directly proportional to
A. Insulated switches and no open the resistance of that branch
terminals 209. Soft iron is most suitable for use in a:
B. No switches on it A. Permanent magnet
 B. Temporary magnet C. Cut down on losses by eddy
C. Natural magnet currents
D. Solid magnet D. Decreases heat losses
210. Electricity in a battery is produced by: 217. The total resistance in this circuit is:
A. Chemical action A. 1 ohm
B. Chemical reaction B. 1 1/3 ohms
C. A chemical acting on metallic plates C. 1 ohms
D. All of the above D. 1 1/6 ohms
211. The capacity of #14 insulated wire is: 218. The total resistance in this circuit is:
A. 20 amps A. 29 ohms
B. 15 amps B. 6 1/3 ohms
C. 25 amps C. 12 2/9 ohms
D. 30 amps D. 14 ohms
212. Residual magnetism is the: 219. The total resistance in this circuit is:
A. Magnetism in a natural magnet A. 10 ohms
B. Magnetism in a solenoid magnet B. 4 1/3 ohms
C. Magnetism remaining in a C. 4 ohms
substance after it has been D. 4 2/3 ohms
removed from the influence of the 220. The symbol represents a:
magnetic field A. Series-wound motor
D. Magnetism in a transformer B. Shunt-wound motor
213. Permeability is the: C. Compound-wound motor
A. Power a piece of metal has on a D. Flat-compounded motor
magnet 221. The symbol represents a:
B. Power found in a transformer A. Compound-wound motor
C. Power found in an electromagnet B. Series-wound motor
D. Ease with which metals may C. Shunt-wound motor
become magnetized or D. Over-compounded motor
demagnetized 222. The symbol represents a:
214. Retentivity is the power: A. Shunt-wound motor
A. A metal has 4 retaining magnetic B. Series-wound motor
lines of force C. Universal motor
B. An electromagnet can maintain D. Compound-wound motor
C. A natural magnet can maintain 223. Which of the following valves could a
D. Relationship between two motors rheostat be compared with?
215. Most generators will withstand an A. Globe valve
overload of: B. Check valve
A. 30% C. 50% C. Throttle valve
B. 25% D. 35% D. Safety valve
216. Armature coils are laminated to: 224. Which of these devices will not be
A. Increase the lines of force found on a D.C. switchboard?
B. Increase the magnetism A. Frequency meter
 B. Synchroscope 233. To reverse the rotation of a 3-phase
C. Current transformer A.C. propulsion motor, change:
D. All of the above A. The first- and third-phase leads
225. Interpoles are connected in: B. Any 2 of the 3 leads
A. Series with the armature C. The positive and ground leads
B. Parallel with the armature D. The second- and third-phase leads
C. Parallel with the series field 234. To reverse the rotation of a D.C.
D. Series with the shunt field motor, reverse:
226. What determines the voltage of a lead- A. The field leads
acid cell? B. The armature leads
A. The type of electrodes C. The field or armature leads
B. The strength of the electrolyte D. Any of the above
C. The size of the plates 235. To reverse the rotation of an A.C.
D. None of the above motor, reverse:
227. Counter EMF is measured in: A. Any two of the three leads
A. Amps B. The field leads
B. Ohms C. The armature leads
C. Volts D. The field and armature leads
D. coulombs 236. The resistance of a 110-volt circuit
228. An ammeter reads 230 and the using 5 amps of current is:
voltmeter 115. The power output in Kw A. 2 ohms C. 1 ohm
is: B. 22 ohms D. 2.2 ohms
A. 2.645 C. 26.45 237. A circuit that does not provide a
B. 26.54 D. 264.5 complete path for the flow of current is:
229. One horsepower equals: A. An open circuit
A. 1000 watts C. 100 watts B. A closed circuit
B. 746 watts D. 940 watts C. A series circuit
230. Which of the following gases is given D. A grounded circuit
off by storage batteries? 238. An ammeter is connected in a circuit
A. Oxygen C. nitrogen in:
B. Hydrogen D. carbon monoxide A. Series parallel
231. A dead board is: B. Parallel
A. A board with no power C. Series
B. A board with no switches D. contact
C. A board with no circuit beaker 239. a voltmeter is connected in a circuit in:
D. None of the above A. parallel
232. Which of the following can be used to B. series parallel
convert A.C to D.C. ? C. Series
A. Motor generator D. relay
B. Synchronizer 240. in a compound-wound motor, part of
C. Rectifier the line current flows through the:
D. A and C A. stator
 B. shunt field coils D. Nothing; it will come back itself on
C. Interpoles charging
D. frame 248. Sparking and grooving of commutator
241. the electrical power in kilowatts used may be caused by:
by a 220-volt motor drawing 15 amps is: A. Overload
A. 3.8 C. 4.0 B. Incorrect spring tension
B. 3.6 D. 3.3 C. Wrong type of brushes
242. The electrolyte in a nickel-iron storage D. Any of the above
battery is: 249. The magnetic brake on an electric
A. Sulphuric acid winch is operated by:
B. Carbonic acid A. A power failure
C. Potassium hydroxide B. Heavy weights
D. Calcium hydroxide C. The stoppage of the motor
243. When the electrolyte contracts in a D. A or C
battery, the specific gravity: 250. D.C. electric winches are usually:
A. Rises C. stays the same A. Shunt-wound
B. Lowers D. doubles itself B. Series-wound
244. If the resistance of a circuit is doubled C. Compound-wound
and the applied voltage kept constant, D. Series-parallel wound
the current will: 251. Ambient temperature is the:
A. Be quadrupled A. Normal surrounding compartment
B. Be doubled temperature
C. Be cut in half B. Maximum temperature at which
D. Remain the same motors can be operated
245. Static electricity is most often C. Minimum temperature at which
produced by: motors can be operated
A. Pressure D. Normal operating temperature of a
B. Heat motor
C. Magnetism 252. If the secondary of a transformer is
D. friction stepped down, the primary will have:
246. In D.C. circuits the power is expressed A. Fewer turns
as the product of: B. More turns
A. Coulombs and amperes C. Twice as many turns
B. Amperes and voltage D. Half as many turns
C. Amperes and ohms 253. A generator driven by a 75-
D. Coulombs and volts horsepower engine will theoretically
247. The electrolyte in an alkaline battery produce:
was low, you would add: A. 55.95 Kw
A. Alkali solution B. 5.559 Kw
B. Acid C. 75 Kw
C. Distilled water D. 750 Kw
254. Three resistance of 2, 4, and 6 ohms C. 6.0 cycles
are connected in parallel. The combined D. 60 cycles
resistance is: 257. Heating a magnet will:
A. .109 ohms A. Have no effect on it
B. 10.9 ohms B. Destroy its magnetic properties
C. 1.09 ohms C. Increase its magnetic properties
D. None of the above D. Decrease its magnetic properties
255. Two A.C. generators are to be 258. Which of the following would cause a
connected in parallel. The synchronizing heat bearing?
switch should be closed when: A. Poor alignment
A. One light is bright and one dim B. Overload
B. Both lights are dim C. Bearing too tight
C. Both lights are bright D. All of the above
D. One is bright and the other out
256. The frequency of a 2-pole
turboalternator turning at 3000 RPM is:
A. 50 cycles
B. 5.5 cycles
ANSWERS TO ELECTRICIAN
1. C 34. B 67. D 100. C 133. A 166. C 199. D 232. D
2. D 35. C 68. B 101. D 134. C 167. A 200. B 233. B
3. A 36. C 69. C 102. C 135. A 168. C 201. C 234. D
4. B 37. D 70. B 103. C 136. B 169. C 202. D 235. A
5. B 38. C 71. D 104. B 137. D 170. D 203. A 236. B
6. D 39. C 72. D 105. D 138. B 171. B 204. C 237. A
7. B 40. C 73. C 106. D 139. C 172. C 205. D 238. C
8. A 41. D 74. B 107. C 140. C 173. B 206. B 239. A
9. C 42. C 75. C 108. B 141. D 174. A 207. D 240. B
10. B 43. D 76. D 109. A 142. B 175. D 208. C 241. D
11. D 44. D 77. B 110. C 143. A 176. D 209. B 242. C
12. B 45. C 78. D 111. C 144. D 177. A 210. D 243. A
13. C 46. D 79. B 112. A 145. B 178. B 211. B 244. C
14. A 47. B 80. B 113. A 146. C 179. A 212. C 245. D
15. C 48. B 81. D 114. B 147. B 180. A 213. D 246. B
16. A 49. D 82. C 115. C 148. C 181. C 214. A 247. C
17. D 50. C 83. D 116. D 149. C 182. D 215. B 248. D
18. B 51. B 84. B 117. C 150. B 183. C 216. C 249. D
19. A 52. A 85. B 118. C 151. A 184. B 217. B 250. C
20. D 53. A 86. D 119. B 152. D 185. D 218. C 251. A
21. C 54. C 87. C 120. B 153. B 186. B 219. D 252. B
22. C 55. B 88. A 121. C 154. D 187. C 220. B 253. A
23. A 56. C 89. C 122. C 155. A 188. D 221. B 254. C
24. B 57. B 90. B 123. B 156. B 189. A 222. D 255. B
25. C 58. C 91. B 124. A 157. B 190. B 223. C 256. A
26. D 59. B 92. A 125. C 158. D 191. C 224. D 257. B
27. B 60. D 93. B 126. A 159. C 192. A 225. A 258. D
28. B 61. A 94. C 127. B 160. C 193. C 226. B
29. B 62. A 95. B 128. D 161. A 194. B 227. C
30. D 63. B 96. C 129. D 162. C 195. D 228. C
31. D 64. D 97. C 130. A 163. B 196. A 229. B
32. B 65. B 98. B 131. D 164. C 197. C 230. B
33. C 66. C 99. A 132. C 165. D 198. C 231. A
 MACHINIST
1. If the lips of a drill are off different
lengths:
A. The drill will not cut]
B. The hole will be larger than the drill
C. The hole will be smaller than the
drill
D. None of the above
2. A brazed joint is:
A. Stronger than a soldered joint
B. Weaker than a soldered joint
C. The same strength as a soldered
joint
D. Three times as strong as a soldered
joint
3. Brazing requires:
A. Hard solder C. more heat
B. Soft solder D. A and C
4. Lead is used in solder because:
A. It has a high melting point
B. It has a low melting point
C. It is cheap
D. B and C
5. The name of the taper shanks used on
drill is:
A. Miller C. starrett
B. Morse D. stanley
6. The higher the melting point of the
solder, the:
A. Weaker the solder joint
B. Softer the solder joint
C. Stronger the solder joint
D. Harder the solder joint
7. If the angle on a drill is less than 59:
A. The drill will make a larger hole
B. The drill will make a smaller hole
C. The hole will take longer to drill and
more power is required to drive the
drill
D. The drill will not center properly
8. Soda added to water is used for cooling
instead of plain water because:
A. It reduces the amount of heat
generated
B. It improves the finish
C. It overcomes rusting
D. All of the above
9. If a drill speed is too great, it will:
A. Cut faster
B. Lose its temper
C. Cut slower
D. Not cut
10. The lip clearance of a drill should be
approximately:
A. 20-25
B. 5-10
C. 12-15
D. 15-20
11. If the cutting edges of a drill are cut at
different angles:
A. The drill will not cut
B. The hole will be larger than the drill
C. The hole will be smaller than the
drill
D. None of the above
12. The correct cutting angle on a drill for
ordinary work is:
A. 45 B. 50 C. 59 D. 65
13. A piece of stock 8 long is 4 diameter
on one end and 1-1/2 diameter at the
other end. The taper per foot is:
A. 4 C. 3/16
B. D. 5/16
14. A piece of stock 8 long is 3 diameter
on one end and 1-1/2 diameter at the
other end. The taper per foot is:
A. B. C. 3/16 D. 5/16
15. A piece of stock 6 long is 2 diameter
at one end and is cut with a taper of
to the foot. The diameter of the small
end will be:
A. 1-1/2 C. 1-1/4
 B. 1-3/4 D. 2
16. If a piston ring is to be made 1/64
larger in diameter per inch diameter of
the cylinder which it is to fit, the
required diameter for a piston ring to fit
an 8 cylinder will be:
A. 8-1/4 C. 8-3/16
B. 8-1/8 D. 8-5/32
17. In the above problem, if a gap clearance
of .003 is to be left for each inch
diameter of the cylinder, the required
amount to be cut from the ring will be:
A. .750 C. .500
B. .675 D. .4167
18. When cutting, a drill will squeal due
to:
A. Drill being ground improperly
B. Drill being too hot
C. Insufficient lubrication
D. Any of the above
19. center drilling is the operation of:
A. Drilling a center in an odd-shaped
piece of metal
B. Drilling and countersinking with
one tool
C. Centering with one tool and drilling
with another
D. Drilling a center in a piece of stock
in a drill press
20. In referring to threads, pitch is:
A. The distance of the full length of
the thread
B. The distance from a point on one
thread to a corresponding point on
the next thread measured parallel
to the axis
C. The distance from the top of one
thread to the bottom of the next
thread
D. The distance from the bottom of a
head on a bolt to the first thread
21. A tool bit for cutting an American
National thread should be ground with
a:
A. 45 angle
B. 90 angle
C. 60 angle
D. 30 angle
22. An approximate safe rule for cutting
new pistons for steam pumps is to
allow:
A. .002 between piston and cylinder
for each inch diameter of piston
B. .001 between piston and cylinder
for each inch diameter of piston
C. .010 between piston and cylinder
for each inch diameter of piston
D. .0001 between piston and cylinder
for each inch diameter of piston
23. An approximate safe rule for cutting
new piston rings for steam pumps is to
make the ring:
A. 1/32 larger in diameter per inch
diameter of cylinder
B. 1/16 larger in diameter than that
of the cylinder
C. 1/16 larger in diameter per inch
diameter of cylinder
D. .005 larger in diameter per inch
diameter of cylinder
24. The gap clearance for new piston rings
for steam pumps should be
approximately:
A. .003 for each inch diameter of
cylinder
B. .001 for each inch diameter of
cylinder
C. .010 for each inch diameter of
cylinder
D. .050 for each inch diameter of
cylinder
25. What does 3/8-16 means to you?
A. 16 pieces, 3/8 long
 B. 3/8 square, 16 long B. Dressing
C. Gear with 16 teeth and a 3/8 C. Sizing
arbor hole D. rounding
D. 3/8 diameter, 16 threads per inch 32. the tool used to check external pipe
26. When using a drill press, the work threads is called a:
should be held with: A. plug gage
A. The hand B. thread gage
B. A gloved hand C. Pitch gage
C. A vise or clamped D. Ring gage
D. pliers 33. The tool used to check internal pipe
27. tapered shanks are used on large drill threads is called a:
presses so that: A. Plug gage
A. a drill can be centered more easily B. Thread gage
B. the drill can be easily forced out of C. Pitch gage
the sleeve with a drift D. Ring gage
C. The shank will it turn when cutting 34. The tool used to cut gears is called a:
D. The shank can be reground when A. Gear cutter
worn B. Gear hob
28. Which if the following is not a common C. Gear center
drill shank D. Gear threader
A. Straight 35. If you use a dry grinding wheel for
B. Taper sharpening tool bits, dip the end of the
C. Fluted of the bit in water frequently to
D. bit prevent:
29. the cutting angle on a drill for drilling A. Burning your fingers
mild steel should be: B. Annealing the cutting edge of the
A. 39 bit
B. 49 C. Hardening to the tip
C. 59 D. The tip from crystallizing
D. 69 36. A piece of tool steel held against an
30. When installing a new grinding wheel, emery wheel will give off:
always use: A. White sparks with stars on the ends
A. Blotting paper gaskets on each side B. Yellow sparks
of the wheel C. No sparks
B. Copper gaskets on each side of the D. Green sparks
wheel 37. Grinding wheels have a range of soft to
C. Only the steel washers provided hard abrasive materials depending on
with the machine the use. Most manufacturers letter
D. None of the above their wheels from A to Z. the hardest is
31. The operation of truing a grinding marked:
wheel is known as: A. E B. A C. Z D. E1
A. Centering
38. The main difference between a planer
and a shaper is that:
A. The planer has an offset table and
the shaper has a horizontal table
B. The shaper has a rotating table and
the planer has a horizontal table
C. The table of a planer has a
reciprocating motion pass the tool
head while the table of the shaper
is stationary and the tool head has a
reciprocating motion
D. One is larger than the other
39. One of the factors involved in the
choice of a grinding wheel is:
A. The kind of material to be ground
B. The amount of stock to be removed
C. The kind of finish required
D. All of the above
40. The tang of a file is the part that:
A. Does the cutting
B. Fits into the handle
C. Has no teeth
D. Is opposite the handle
41. A pillar file has:
A. One safe edge
B. Three safe edges
C. Two safe edges
D. A or C
42. In general, files are divided into two
classes called:
A. Single-cut and double-cut
B. Fine and coarse
C. Rough and smooth
D. Shapes and sizes
43. The length of a file is measured from:
A. End to end
B. Point to heel
C. Point to end
D. Heel to end
44. A pillar file is used to:
A. Filling slots
B. Filling keyways
C. Filling against a shoulder
D. Any of the above
45. A flexible hacksaw blade has a tendency
to:
A. Snap easily
B. Buckle or run out of line when too
much pressure is applied
C. Cut too fast
D. Cut on a slant
46. Soldering is the process of:
A. Holding two metals together by
heating
B. Joining two metals by a third soft
metal that is applied in a molten
state
C. Holding two different kinds of
metals together by heating
D. Joining two metals together by
heating
47. When soldering, flux is used to:
A. Keep the solder from running off
the metal
B. Keep the metal from getting too
hot
C. Keep the tip of the soldering iron
clean
D. Remove and prevent oxidation of
the metals
48. One of the most important factors that
is often overlooked when soldering is
the fact that:
A. The surfaces to be soldered must
be clean
B. The two metals to be soldered
must not be the same
C. The two metals to be soldered
must be the same
D. All surfaces should be dipped in
acid first
49. A surface should be prepared fro
soldering by:
A. Filling the surfaces
 B. Scraping the surfaces A. Hydrochloric acid
C. Acid-cleaning the surfaces B. Sulphuric acid
D. Any of the above C. Nitric acid
50. The hand tool used for cutting threads D. Any of the above
on round stock is the: 56. Another name for hydrochloric acid is:
A. Stock and die A. Sulphuric acid
B. Die wrench B. Muriatic acid
C. Stock C. Nitric acid
D. Stock cutter D. Acetic acid
51. A tapered piece of stock is 2 long, 1- 57. Hard solder is made of:
1/8 diameter at one end and A. Copper and zinc
diameter at the other end. The taper B. Tin and zinc
per foot is: C. Tin and copper
A. 2 B. 2-1/2 C. 2-1/4 D. 2-1/16 D. Tin and lead
52. Sweating is the process of: 58. Soft solder is made of:
A. Soldering two different kinds of A. Copper and zinc
metal together B. Tin and lead
B. Separating two pieces of metal that C. Tin and copper
have been soldered together D. Tin and zinc
C. Tinning two surfaces, applying flux 59. Soft solder melts at approximately:
between them, holding the tqo A. 250 B. 350 C. 450 D.550
together and heating 60. The flux usually used for hard solder is:
D. None of the above A. Rosin C. borax
53. If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the B. Barium D. alum
soldered area must be cleaned 61. Straight muriatic acid is often used as a
thoroughly afterwards to prevent: flux on:
A. Anyone touching it from getting A. Galvanized iron
burned B. Cast iron
B. Remaining acid from eating the C. Sheet steel
metal D. Any of the above
C. The acid from evaporating and the 62. Special solders used for aluminum
solder disintegrating usually require:
D. None of the above A. More heat
54. Solder will not unite with a metal B. Less heat
surface that has: C. The same heat as copper wire
A. Grease on it D. The same heat as sheet metal
B. Dirt on it 63. Copper is annealed by heating to a
C. Oxidation on it cherry red color and:
D. Any of the above A. Dousing in cold water
55. Prepared soldered paste flux is most B. Cooling slowly in air
popular but if you did not have any, you C. Dousing in oil
could use: D. Dousing in hot water
64. A piece of mild steel held against an 71. The jaws of a standard vise are:
emery wheel will give off: A. Soft
A. Bright shiny sparks B. Semihard
B. Light straw-colored sparks C. Hard
C. No sparks D. semisoft
D. Green sparks 72. when a lathe tool bit burns, it means
65. A gear wheel making 156 RPM has 56 that the:
teeth. It drives another gear at 91 RPM. A. speed is too slow
The number of teeth on the second B. speed is too fast
gear is: C. Material is too hard
A. 65 B. 90 C. 50 D. 96 D. Material cannot be cut
66. Tool steel can be hardened by: 73. A universal chuck cannot be used to
A. Heating red hot and plunging into cut:
water A. An eccentric
B. Heating red hot and cooling in a B. Round stock
blast of dry air C. A cam
C. Heating red hot and plunging into D. A and C
linseed or cottonseed oil 74. The lathe compound is used for:
D. Any of the above, depending on A. Angle cutting
type and use B. Grooving
67. A scriber is made from: C. Facing
A. Carbon steel D. Any of the above
B. Cold-rolled steel 75. When the dial on the cross-feed is
C. Tool steel turned .010, you remove from the
D. Hot-rolled steel diameter of the stock being cut:
68. Before applying layout blue on a piece A. .010 B. .020 C. .005 D. .015
of metal, it must be: 76. The flexible type hacksaw blade is best
A. Roughened suited for work on:
B. Hot A. Channel iron
C. Clean B. Tubing
D. cold C. Aluminum
69. A drill bit has: D. Any of the above
A. 4 flutes 77. A flexible back hacksaw blade is one
B. 3 flutes that has:
C. 2 flutes A. Only the teeth hardened
D. No flutes B. Flexible ends
70. When facing off a piece of materials in C. A movable back
the lathe chuck, the tool bit must set: D. Only the back hardened
A. Above center 78. Hacksaw blades are made of:
B. At the center A. Tool steel
C. Below center B. High-speed steel
D. Off center C. Tungsten alloy steel
 D. Any of the above B. Tool steel
79. A hacksaw blade with 24 TPI is best C. Cast iron
suited for cuttings: D. Any of the above
A. Tubing 86. The best instrument for measuring
B. Sheet metal over 18 gage thousands of an inch is the:
C. Brass and copper A. Caliper
D. Any of the above B. Tachometer
80. An all hard hacksaw blade is one that: C. Micrometer
A. Has a hard back and flexible teeth D. pyrometer
B. Has a flexible back and hard teeth 87. A hacksaw blade with 34 teeth per inch
C. Has the entire blade hardened should be used for cutting:
D. Will only fit a solid frame hacksaw A. Brass
81. A hacksaw blade can be placed in a B. Cast iron
frame in: C. Heavy stock
A. Two positions D. Thin wall tubing
B. Four positions 88. The hack saw blade should be placed in
C. One position the frame with:
D. Three position A. The teeth pointing forward
82. Files are divided into two general B. The teeth pointing backward
classes called: C. One end looser than the other end
A. Rough and smooth D. The teeth facing in any direction
B. Large and small 89. When cutting a long thin piece of metal:
C. Single-cut and double-cut A. Turn the blade upside down in the
D. Flat shapes and round shapes frame
83. A hacksaw blade with 14 TPI is best B. Turn the blade at right angles to the
suited for cutting: frame
A. Cold-rolled steel C. Use a blade with a fewer teeth per
B. Structural steel inch
C. Hot-rolled steel D. Set the blade in the frame with the
D. Any of the above facing toward you
84. The set of a saw means that: 90. A hacksaw blade with 18 teeth per inch
A. It is set properly in the frame is best suited for cutting:
B. Alternate teeth are turned slightly A. Solid stock
to left and right to make cutting slot B. Cast iron
slightly wider than the thickness of C. Aluminum
the blade D. Any of the above
C. The teeth have been case-hardened 91. A coolant is usually used when cutting
for better cutting material in a power hacksaw to:
D. The teeth are set evenly apart A. Absorb the heat of friction
85. An all hard hacksaw blade is best suited B. Prevent the blade from overheating
for work on: C. Prevent the blade from losing its
A. Brass temper
 D. All of the above 99. When filing a piece of metal in a lathe,
92. A hacksaw blade with 32 TPI is best if short quick strokes are used the
suited for cutting: finished piece will probably:
A. Small tubing A. Be out of round
B. Conduit B. Be perfect
C. Sheet metal under 18 gage C. Have small flat areas on the surface
D. Any of the above D. A and C
93. For filing lead or Babbitt, use a: 100. When turning a piece of metal in a
A. Vixen file lathe, approximately:
B. Mill file A. .100 should be left for finish-filing
C. Lead float file B. .003 should be left for finish-filing
D. A or C C. .030 should be left for finish-filing
94. For finishing a piece of work to size with D. .001 should be left for finish-filing
a file, use a: 101. Which of the following information is
A. Double-cut fine-tooth file necessary when ordering a file?
B. Single-cut fine-tooth file A. Size (length)
C. Mill file B. Shape
D. Crossing file C. Type of teeth
95. Finishing off a piece of metal with a real D. All of the above
smooth finish can be done by: 102. Never use a file:
A. Draw-filling A. That is dirty
B. Side-filling B. Without a handle
C. Mill-filling C. Without oiling
D. Flat-filling D. With a tang
96. Small pieces of metal clogged between 103. The best file to use when finishing
the teeth on a file are called: sharp corners or slots and grooves is
A. Clogs the:
B. Flats A. Mill file
C. Pins B. Square file
D. bumps C. Knife file
97. the safe edge of a file is: D. Jewelers file
A. the end opposite the handle 104. To remove metal stock rapidly with a
B. the one with the handle file, use a:
C. The edge with no teeth A. Double-cut bastard
D. None of the above B. Rasp
98. The best procedure when filing a piece C. Double-cut coarse
of metal in a lathe is to take: D. A or C
A. Short even strokes 105. On a lathe the dead center is used
B. Long slow strokes after:
C. Long fast strokes A. Boring
D. Short fast strokes B. Center-drilling
C. Drilling
 D. reaming A. harder
106. eleven-sixteenths of an inch B. softer
expressed as a decimal is: C. Less brittle
A. .6785 C. .6875 D. More brittle
B. .7685 D. .6578 114. The minimum diameter of a piece of
107. The markings on a micrometer barrel round stock necessary to make a square
are: key on a side is:
A. .025 apart C. .0025 apart A. 1.5 C. 1.0
B. .250 apart D. 2.50 apart B. 1.06 D. .75
108. When a lathe is put into back gear, it 115. A scriber is made from:
will go: A. Carbon steel
A. At the same speed backwards B. Cold-rolled steel
B. Slower C. Tool steel
C. Faster D. Hot-rolled steel
D. At a slower speed backwards 116. Before applying layout blue on a piece
109. When using a drill press, the work of metal. It must be:
should be held with: A. Roughened
A. The hand B. Heated
B. A piece of pliers C. Cleaned
C. A vise or clamp D. cold
D. Gloves on 117. a drill bit has:
110. When drilling a hole in a piece of A. 4 flutes
work held in a lathe chuck, one would B. 3 flutes
use the: C. 2 flutes
A. Compound rest D. No flutes
B. Cross-fed 118. The alignment of coupling faces can
C. Tailstock and drill chuck be checked by:
D. headstock A. Using an inside micrometer
111. copper is annealed by heating to a B. Inserting a thermocouple
cherry red color and: C. Inserting a feeler gage between the
A. dousing in cold water coupling faces at various points
B. cooling slowly in air around the circumference
C. Dousing in oil D. Rotating and measuring to nearest
D. headstock permanent fitting
112. the purpose of annealing is to make 119. A piece of cast iron held against an
a metal: emery wheel will give off:
A. harder A. Dull yellow sparks
B. medium-hard B. Bright shiny sparks
C. Softer C. Red sparks
D. shiny D. No sparks
113. the purpose of tempering is to
make a metal:
120. When cutting materials in a lathe, the B. speeds less than that when using a
softer the material being cut, the tool high-speed drill
bit should have: C. The same speed as that when using
A. More top rake a high-speed drill
B. Less top rake D. None of the above
C. Double top rake 127. When the extreme outer corners of
D. Any of the above the cutting edges of a drill wear away
121. After grinding a tool bit, the cutting too rapidly, it is an indication of:
edge should be: A. Not enough speed
A. Case-hardened B. Too much rake angle
B. Rubbed with emery cloth C. Too high a speed
C. Stoned with an oilstone D. B or C
D. Rubbed with crocus cloth 128. Referring to Fig. 6A, A is:
122. When turning s piece of round metal A. Side rake
in a lathe, the front clearance should be B. Top rake
smaller for: C. Top clearance
A. Large-diameter cutting D. Back clearance
B. Small-diameter cutting 129. Referring to Fig. 6A, B is:
C. Cutting angles A. Side rake
D. None of the above B. Top clearance
123. When cutting materials in a lathe, the C. Side clearance
harder the material being cut, the tool D. Front clearance
bit should have: 130. Referring to Fig. 6A, C is:
A. More side rake A. Side rake
B. Less side rake B. Back rake
C. More top rake C. Back clearance
D. No side rake D. Side clearance
124. Knurling is done to: 131. Referring to Fig. 6A, D is:
A. Smooth material A. Side rake
B. Polish material B. Front clearance
C. Roughen material C. Side clearance
D. Sharpen material D. Front rake
125. Removing the sharp edges from a
piece of stock is referred to as:
A. Knurling
B. Chamfering
C. Planning
D. turning
126. carbon steel drills should be operated
at:
A. speeds greater than that when
using a high-speed drill
 ANSWERS TO MACHINIST QUESTIONS

1. B 34. B 67. C 100. B

2. A 35. B 68. C 101. D
3. D 36. A 69. C 102. B
4. D 37. C 70. B 103. C
5. B 38. C 71. C 104. D
6. C 39. D 72. B 105. B
7. C 40. B 73. D 106. C
8. D 41. D 74. D 107. A
9. B 42. A 75. A* 108. B
10. C 43. B 76. D 109. C
11. B 44. D 77. A 110. C
12. C 45. B 78. D 111. B
13. B 46. B 79. D 112. C
14. C 47. D 80. C 113. C
15. B 48. A 81. B 114. B
16. B 49. D 82. C 115. C
17. D 50. A 83. D 116. C
18. D 51. C 84. B 117. C
19. B 52. C 85. D 118. C
20. B 53. B 86. C 119. A
21. C 54. D 87. D 120. B
22. B 55. A 88. A 121. C
23. C 56. B 89. B 122. B
24. A 57. A 90. D 123. B
25. D 58. B 91. D 124. C
26. C 59. B 92. D 125. B
27. B 60. B 93. D 126. B
28. C 61. D 94. B 127. D
29. C 62. A 95. A 128. B
30. A 63. B 96. C 129. D
31. B 64. B 97. C 130. A
32. D 65. D 98. B 131. C
33. A 66. D 99. D
 PUMP MAN B. Liquid plunger packing too tight
1. In the event of an oil fire: C. Cushion valves not set properly
A. Get water on deck D. Any of the above
B. Open steam or CO2 smothering 8. Pressure-vacuum valves are usually set
system to cargo holds to operate at:
C. Close off all ventilation, blowers, A. pound vacuum-one pound
doors, etc. pressure
D. All of the above B. Any point below atmospheric
2. The valve symbol pressure
represents a: C. 26 vacuum-5 pounds pressure
A. Globe valve D. Any point above atmospheric
B. Gate valve pressure
C. Check valve 9. The valve symbol represents a:
D. Plug cock A. Manifold stop valve
3. When using steam smothering on an oil B. Discharge manifold
fire, the steam: C. Manifold stop valves with operating
A. Will condense and be of no value rods
B. Will retard vaporization D. Multiple manifold
C. Will be of no value 10. Before arriving at a pier for loading, the
D. None of the above vessel should have:
4. With a reciprocating pump, failure to A. All scuppers plugged
deliver liquid may be caused by: B. All connecting and rigging gear
A. Pump not being primed ready at the connecting manifold
B. Discharge head too high C. Ullage plates loosened but not
C. Liquid plunger packing worn open
D. Any of the above D. All of the above
5. With a reciprocating pump, failure to 11. The expansion factor equals the:
obtain proper discharge pressure may A. Amount of oil in gallons times the
be caused by: number of degrees rise in
A. Too low steam pressure temperature
B. Worn piston rings B. Coefficient of expansion from 1 F.
C. Liquid plunger packing too tight times the number of degrees
D. Any of the above temperature rise
6. The valve symbol C. Amount of oil in gallons times the
represents a: number of the coefficient of
A. Cross valve expansion
B. Plug cock D. None of the above
C. Angle valve 12. The valve symbol
D. Gate valve represents a:
7. With a reciprocating pump, excessive A. Plug cock
vibration may be caused by: B. Safety valve
A. Misalignment C. Relief valve
 D. Pressure-reducing valve 19. Flashlights used aboard tankers must
13. When starting a positive displacement be:
pump, the first valve to open should be A. Waterproof
the: B. Of the three-cell type
A. Suction valve C. Approved by the Board of Fire
B. Drain valve Underwriters
C. Discharge valve D. All of the above
D. Steam valve 20. The valve symbol
14. The valve symbol represents a:
represents a: A. Globe valve
A. Gate valve B. Gate valve
B. Globe valve C. Relief valve
C. Lift-check valve D. Check valve
D. Swing-check valve 21. When filling tanks, sufficient ullage
15. A pump is said to have positive suction must be allowed to:
head when the: A. Prevent oil spillage in rough seas
A. Pump is located above the liquid B. Allow for expansion of the liquid
supply C. Prevent gas pockets
B.Pump is located below the liquid D. None of the above
supply 22. With a reciprocating pump, failure to
C. Pump is located in a separated deliver liquid may be caused by:
compartment A. Suction lift too high
D. Suction is lower than the discharge B. Air leaks in suction line
16. The pipe fitting represents a: C. Pump valves leaking
A. Coupling D. Any of the above
B. Union 23. The pipe fitting represents a:
C. Flange joint A. Reducer coupling
D. T fitting B. Coupling
17. The discharge head of a pumping C. Reducer bushing
system is: D. Bell reducer
A. The vertical distance from the 24. A pump is said to have negative
pump to the discharge level suction head when the pump is
B. The horizontal distance from the located:
pump to the discharge level A. Between the suction and discharge
C. The vertical distance from the B. Below the liquid supply
suction to the discharge C. Above the liquid supply
D. None of the above D. Any of the above
18. Cargo tanks are vented with: 25. Tools of nonsparking materials shall be
A. A vacuum valve used:
B. A pressure-vacuum valve A. When opening and closing cargo
C. Blowers tank openings
D. None of the above B. When working in pump rooms
 C. In spaces where there is a B. A three-conductor grounded cable
possibility of gas accumulation C. A guard
D. All of the above D. All of the above
26. The valve symbol 33. When working on a light fixture or
represents a: changing a bulb I allocation subject to
A. Hose gate valve gas accumulation, one must first:
B. Gate valve A. Put on a gas mask
C. Reducing valve B. Shut off current to the circuit
D. Hose valve C. Notify the first assistant engineer
27. The penalty for discharging oil in coastal D. None of the above
navigable waters of the United States is: 34. The danger of explosions is greater in:
A. A max. fine of $2,500 A. Full tanks
B. Not more than 1 yr. in jail B. Half-full tanks
C. Max. of $5,000 fine and 2 yrs in jail C. Empty compartments subject to
D. A and B vapor-air mixtures
28. No oil or water containing oil shall be D. Any of the above
pumped overboard within: 35. All petroleum vapors are:
A. 10 miles of land A. Lighter than air
B. 100 miles of land B. Heavier than air
C. 3 miles of land C. The same weight as air
D. 50 miles of land D. Any of the above
29. The hydrocarbons in gasoline vapors 36. The purpose of cleaning out tanks to
form explosive mixtures when mixed sea is to:
with air from: A. Insure tanks being in condition to
A. 10%-20% by volume receive cargo without
B. 30%-50% by volume contamination
C. 1%-6% by volume B. Minimize corrosion of tank
D. 20%-30% by volume structure
30. The valve symbol C. Reduce labor and expense of
represents a: cleaning
A. Hose globe valve D. All of the above
B. Reducing valve 37. Loose scale, rust and sediment in tanks
C. Hose gate valve must be cleaned out frequently to
D. Twin hose valve prevent:
31. The nameplate on a reciprocating pump A. Clogging of limber holes
lists the following dimensions: 7 x 6 x B. Clogging of suction lines or
4. The diameter of the liquid cylinder strainers
is: C. Contamination of future cargoes
A. 4 B. 7 C. 8 D. 6 D. All of the above
32. Portable extension lights used aboard 38. The valve symbol
tankers must always be equipped with: represents a:
A. An explosive-proof lamp fixture A. An angle valve
 B. A hose angle valve C. 3850 lbs
C. A spring-loaded valve D. 3731 lbs
D. A hose valve 45. If a centrifugal pump failed to deliver,
39. A ship loading or unloading petroleum the cause may be:
cargo is electric bonded to prevent A. Pump speed too low
sparking, due to: B. Impeller passages plugged
A. Friction C. Discharge head too high
B. Static electricity D. Any of the above
C. Ship grounds in the hole 46. A L.I.G. is any inflammable gas having:
D. Any of the above A. A low flash point
40. When transferring petroleum cargoes: B. A low liquid vapor pressure
A. A red flag shall be displayed by day C. A Reid vapor pressure exceeding 40
B. Any running lights can be used pounds which has been compressed
C. A red light shall be displayed at and liquefied by pressure
night D. Been liquefied by pressure
D. A and C 47. The minimum number of bolts
41. Overheated pump glands: permitted in a bolted flanged oil hose
A. Constitute a fire hazard coupling is:
B. May cause vapor binding A. 6 B. 8 C. 5 D. 3
C. May cause bearing wear 48. Oil hoses should be supported to
D. Any if the above prevent chafing by the use of:
42. A simplex double-acting pump 12 x 8 A. Canvas sling
x 8 makes 100 strokes per minute. The B. Tripods
slip is 6%. The discharge in gallons per C. Wooden saddles
minute is: D. A or C
A. 263.5 49. Pump control stations for electrically
B. 163.6 driven cargo pumps must be located:
C. 203.3 A. In the pump room
D. 145.3 B. Outside the pump room
43. A duplex double-acting pump 6 x 4 x C. In the wheelhouse
6 makes 50 double strokes per minute. D. None of the above
Te theoretical discharge in gallons per 50. The decision as to when and where to
minute is: allow the smoking is decided by:
A. 85.3 A. A licensed officer
B. 75.6 B. A certified tankerman
C. 65.3 C. Any member of the crew
D. 70.4 D. A or B
44. A tank 14 high and 28 in diameter is 51. Which of the following grades of oil
filled with water. The total pressure on must be loaded directly into the vessels
the bottom of the tank is: pipe lines?
A. 4785 lbs A. D and E
B. 3975 lbs B. A, B and C
 C. A, B, C and D D. Fine of $1000 and revocation of
D. All of the above license
52. There are two grades of inflammable 58. Grade E oils have a flashpoint of:
liquids that give off inflammable vapors A. 100 C or over
above 80 F.; they are grades: B. 200 F or over
A. D and E C. 150 F or over
B. A and B D. 80 F or over
C. B and C 59. Cargo hoses shall be designed to carry:
D. C and D A. At least 1 gals
53. A liquid that can be ignited at a B. 100 cu. In. per minute
temperature below 80 F. is called: C. Not less than 100 psi
A. An explosive liquid D. Not less than 125 psi
B. A flammable liquid 60. Cargo pump relief valves and pressure
C. An inflammable liquid gages shall be tested at least:
D. All if the above A. Once a month
54. Which of the following would not be B. Once every 6 months
included in a grade c oil? C. Every two yrs
A. Creosote D. Once a yr
B. Toluene 61. A wind sail is a:
C. Light naphthas A. Canvas air duck with large side flaps
D. benzene to catch and direct the air for
55. which of the following grades of oil ventilating
must be loaded directly into the vesels B. Small sail used on a lifeboat
pipe lines? C. Flat fin built behind the stack to
A. A keep soot from falling on th deck
B. B D. Metal scoop protruding from a
C. C porthole to catch the wind
D. All of the above 62. Approximately how much space should
56. A liquid that ignites a temperature be left empty in a tank to allow for
above 80F. is called: expansion due to temperature change?
A. A standard liquid A. 3%-5%
B. A combustible liquid B. None
C. A flammable liquid C. 1%-3%
D. An inflammable liquid D. 1%-5%
57. The penalty for allowing oil to go into a 63. A cofferdam is:
navigable waterway is a: A. An empty space between tank tops
A. Fine of $1,000 and 6 months and bilgas
imprisonment B. a cement baffle in a fresh-water
B. Fine of $500 to $2500 or tank
imprisonment not to exceed 1 yr, or C. A tank for storing chemicals
both the fine and imprisonment
C. Warning from the U.S. Coast Guard
 D. An empty space separating
compartments from entering
another in case of leakage
64. Which of the following fire
extinguishers would you use to
extinguish a small class B fire?
A. 15# CO2
B. A solid stream of water
C. A soda and acid
D. High-velocity fog
65. The bonding cable must be:
A. Connected anytime after loading
has started
B. Disconnected before unloading
C. Connected before cargo hoses are
connected and disconnected after
cargo hoses have been
disconnected
D. Kept connected at all times
66. Which of the following must be done
before pumps in the pump room are
opened for repair or inspection?
A. Remove all personnel, ventilate and
gas-free pump room, and flush
pump out with water
B. Seal off the pump room
C. Wait for shipyard crew to do work
D. None of the above
67. LPG stands for:
A. Low-pressure gas
B. Liquid petroleum gas
C. Light petroleum gas
D. None of the above
68. Upon release to the atmosphere,
liquefied gases:
A. Will explode
B. Vaporize quickly
C. Will burn
D. None of the above
69. LNG stands for:
A. Light natural gases
B. Light neoprene gasket
C. Low normal gases
D. Liquid natural gas
70. It is important to avoid bodily contact
with liquid gas products because:
A. Their effect on skin is similar to
frostbite
B. They burn like acid
C. They are very poisonous
D. Any of the above
71. Grade D oils have a flash point below:
A. 150 and over 80 F
B. 100 and over 50 F
C. 350 and over 200 F
D. 200 and over 150 F
72. A person should not enter a tank that is
not gas-free unless he has a:
A. Gas mask and flame safety lamp
B. Fresh-air mask, a safety harness
and lifeline
C. Flame safety lamp and lifeline
D. Fresh-air mask and a flashlight
73. If scuppers were plugged and you had
an oil spill, you would:
A. Remove plugs and wash overboard
B. Leave on deck until ship got to sea
C. Mop up with sawdust or opther
absorbent material
D. Any of the above
74. Under each hose connection will be
found:
A. A flame arrester
B. A scupper
C. A drip pan or bucket
D. All of the above
75. For emergency lighting purposes:
A. Any type of flashlight may be used
B. Only a 3-cell explosion-proof
flashlight nay be used
C. Only 2-cell vapor-proof flashlight
may be used
D. Any of the above may be used
76. The valve in the LIG cargo piping which B. Prevent spilled oil from getting into
closes automatically at a given rated the engine room
flow of vapor or liquid is called the: C. Prevent spilled oil from getting into
A. Loading-relief valve the pump room
B. Excess-flow valve D. Prevent a deck spill from running
C. Pressure-relief valve overboard
D. Any of the above 83. Most commercial gasolines are
77. The device used for preventing the classified as:
passage of flames into enclosed spaces A. Grade C
is called: B. Grade E
A. Flame-relief valve C. Grade B
B. Flame stopper D. Grade D
C. Safety valve 84. The device used for the automatic
D. Flame arrester regulation of pressure or vacuum in
78. LIG stands for: enclosed spaces is called a:
A. Low initial gravity A. Double-effect valve
B. Liquefied inflammable gases B. Double-pressure valve
C. Liquid internal gases C. Pressure-vacuum relief valve
D. Any of the above D. Relief valve
79. When loading or discharging cargo by 85. The device used for the retention or
day, display: quenching of sparks in exhaust pipes of
A. A red flag internal combustion engines is called a:
B. A red flag and black ball A. Spark arrester
C. A red light B. Carburetor drip
D. Any of the above C. Loop seal
80. Which of the following grades of oil D. silencer
may be loaded directly into the tanks 86. there are three grades of inflammable
through an open tank hatch? liquids that dive off inflammable vapors
A. A and B at or below 80 F. They are grades:
B. C A. B, C and D
C. D and E B. A, B and C
D. Any of the above C. C, D and E
81. When loading or discharging cargo at D. None of the above
night, display: 87. The flash point of a liquid is the:
A. A red flag A. Temperature at which it burns
B. A red flag and a red light freely
C. A red electric lantern B. Point at which it explodes
D. A red kerosene lamp C. Temperature at which it changes
82. When loading, scuppers, are plugged from a liquid to gas
to: D. Temperature in degrees F. at which
A. Keep the sides of the ship clean in it gives off inflammable vappors
case of a spill
88. The tendency for a liquid to give off
inflammable vapor is determined by
the:
A. Setting of the pressure-vacuum
valve
B. Reid vapor pressure method
C. Saybolt method
D. Reid pressure-vacuum method
ANSWERS TO PUMPMAN
23. A 46. C 69. D
1. D 24. C 47. D 70. A
2. A 25. D 48. D 71. A
3. B 26. A 49. B 72. B
4. D 27. D 50. D 73. C
5. D 28. B 51. B 74. C
6. C 29. C 52. A 75. B
7. D 30. A 53. C 76. B
8. A 31. D 54. C 77. D
9. C 32. D 55. D 78. B
10. D 33. B 56. B 79. A
11. B 34. C 57. B 80. C
12. C 35. B 58. C 81. C
13. C 36. D 59. C 82. D
14. D 37. D 60. D 83. C
15. B 38. B 61. A 84. C
16. B 39. B 62. C 85. A
17. A 40. D 63. D 86. B
18. B 41. A 64. A 87. D
19. C 42. B 65. C 88. B
20. B 43. C 66. A
21. B 44. D 67. B
22. D 45. D 68. B
 GENERAL, EMERGENCY & FIRE-
FIGHTING
1. It is alright to use a solid stream of
water on a:
A. Class C fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class A fire
D. All of the above
2. If a fireman pulled s hot burner, the
first thing he must do is:
A. Notify the engineer on watch
B. Get out of the fire room
C. Shut off the oil supply
D. Ring the fire alarm
3. A dry chemical extinguisher is
recommended for use on:
A. Oil fires
B. Small electrical fires
C. Fires in mattresses or clothing
D. A and B
4. Before releasing the fixed CO2
extinguisher system into the engine
room:
A. Secure all fans and ventilation
B. Warn all personnel
C. Secure fires
D. All of the above
5. If you were in a compartment
wearing an OBA, you would
evacuate the area if:
A. You had trouble breathing
B. The safety whistle sounded
C. The pressure gage sank to the
red mark
D. Any of the above
6. When using a foam-type fire
extinguisher, direct the stream of
foam:
A. Directly on the fire
B. Back and forth across the flames
C. Directly in the path of the fire
D. Against a bulkhead or other
nearly vertical area so that
foam runs down and spreads or
fans out over the fire
7. The special fire-fighting nozzle that
can deliver either a solid stream of
water or a fog effect is called a:
A. Combination nozzle
B. Fire nozzle
C. Fog nozzle
D. Pitot nozzle
8. The fresh air supply for the
conventional type OBA is supplied
by:
A. An air compressor
B. An oxygen cylinder
C. A hand-operated pump
D. Any of the above
9. What is used on passengers vessels to
prevent fire from spreading through
the ventilating system?
A. Fireproof materials
B. Water sprinklers
C. CO2 extinguishers in the vent
system
D. Automatic closing fire dampers
10. To change from a high velocity fog
to a low velocity fog, one would
attach:
A. A different nozzle
B. An applicator
C. A different combination nozzle
D. Any of the above
11. A smoke-detecting system indicates
the presence of fire by which of the
following means?
A. Smell
B. Visual
C. Alarm signal
D. All of the above
12. The OBA can be used safely by:
A. Two persons
 B. As many persons as there are B. All the portable extinguishers in
hoses attached the engine room
C. One person C. The fixed CO2 system
D. A person holding a safety D. All the fire extinguishers
certificate available
13. Which of the following fire 18. In the fixed CO2 system the CO2 is
extinguisher would be effective on discharge through a:
an oil fire but dangerous to use on A. Perforated pipe
an electrical fire? B. Horn
A. Foam C. Nozzle
B. CO2 D. Any approved type
C. Soda acid 19. Fire hydrant valves cannot be
D. Dry chemical installed pointing:
14. Fire can be prevented from A. Vertically up
spreading by: B. Vertically down
A. Sealing off the affected area C. Horizontal
B.Removing combustibles from the D. Facing inboard
immediate area 20. Class A fire-resistant bulkheads
C. Cooling the surrounding area must resist fire and smoke
D. All or any of the above penetration for at least:
15. The control valve for the fixed CO2 A. 15 minutes
system in the engine room is B. 30 minutes
located: C. 60 minutes
A. On the bridge D. 45 minutes
B. Near the main throttle 21. Class B fire-resistant bulkheads
C. Adjacent to the engine-room must resist fire and smoke
escape penetration for at least:
D. In the chief engineers room A. 15 minutes
16. The purpose of wire screen mesh o B. 30 minutes
the gooseneck vents from fuel-oil C. 60 minutes
tanks is to prevent: D. 45 minutes
A. Rags and other foreign matter 22. A foam fire extinguisher can be
from getting into the tank used on a:
B. Water from entering the tank in A. Class B fire
rough seas B. Class A fire
C. Flame entry into the tank in case C. Class C fire
of fire on deck D. A and B
D. A and C 23. A dry chemical fire extinguisher can
17. If the fire in the engine room of an be used on a:
oil-burning vessel got out of A. Class B fire
control, one should use: B. Class C fire
A. The 40-gallon foam extinguisher C. Class A fire
 D. A and B C. Light diesel oil
24. Before entering a compartment D. Naphta-type fuels
with a flame safety lamp: 31. When using an OBA, the nitrogen
A. Lock it and leave the key outside accumulation should be removed
the space to be inspected every:
B. Be sure to empty the strainer A. Time you think of it
C. Lock it B. 30 mins
D. Replace the safety glass C. 5 mins
25. An all-purpose gas mask canister is D. 15-20 mins
painted: 32. The admission valve on an OBA will
A. White close when:
B. Green A. Oxygen is almost gone
C. Red B. Bypass is opened
D. Blue C. You exhale
26. A CO2 fire extinguisher must be D. Safety valve is jammed
recharge when found to be: 33. Fire hoses can be disconnected
A. 15% below required weight when:
B. 10% below required weight A. Taking seas in heavy weather
C. 25% below required weight B. Fueling ship
D. Empty C. There is danger in damage when
27. Portable fire extinguishers must be loading cargo
recharge every: D. A and C
A. 12 months 34. A gas mask can only be used when
B. 6 months there is:
C. 18 months A. At least 16% oxygen present
D. 24 months B. Less than 16% oxygen present
28. According to R & R, life jackets must C. Less than 10% oxygen present
be dyed: D. None of the above
A. Any bright color 35. A gas mask:
B. India orange A. Purifies air
C. Sun orange B. Generates oxygen
D. Bright orange C. Generates pure air
29. Crew training in use of the oxygen- D. None of the above
breathing apparatus (OBA) is the 36. A flame safety lamp:
responsibility of the: A. Determines hydrogen deficiency
A. Master B. Detects flames in the fire
B. Chief mate C. Determines oxygen deficiency
C. chief engineer D. Will go out if no flames are
D. A and C present
30. Flame safety lamps use: 37. If a flame safety lamp burns
A. White gasoline normally with a dim flame, it shows
B.Leaded gasoline the presence of:
 A. Less than 10% oxygen D. Turn extinguisher upside down
B. At least 16% oxygen and open valve
C. No oxygen 43. An OBA supplies its own oxygen,
D. No hydrogen under normal breathing conditions,
38. The abandon-ship signal is: independent of the atmosphere, for
A. Six or more blasts on the ships approximately:
whistle A. 60 mins
B. Seven or more blasts on the B. 30 mins
ships whistle and same on C. 45 mins
general alarm system D. 90 mins
C. Seven or more blast, followed by 44. A gas mask supplies its own oxygen
one long blast on ships whistle independent of the atmosphere for:
D. Seven long rings and one long A. 60 mins
ring on general-alarm system B. 45 mins
39. Watertight bulkheads are used to: C. 30 mins
A. Make water tanks airtight D. None of the above
B. Store water 45. The fire signal is:
C. Divide the ship into watertight A. continuous ringing of the general
sections for safety purposes alarm for not more than 10 sec
D. Protect passenger quarters B. 6 short and 2 long blasts on the
40. The collision bulkhead is: ships whistle
A. At the bow of the ship C. continuous ringing of the
B. The first watertight bulkhead in general alarm for not less than
the ship 10 sec and same on the ships
C. On the bridge deck bell or whistle
D. Between passenger and cargo D. None of the above
areas 46. A fire in electrical equipment is
41. On hearing the fire-alarm signal a considered a:
crewman should: A. Class C fire
A. Man the nearest fire hose B. Class B fire
B. Report to his fire station C. Class A fire
C. Report to the bridge D. Class D fire
D. Report to his fire station wearing 47. A fire in oil, grease, etc, is
life jacket considered a:
42. To operate a CO2 extinguisher: A. Class C fire
A. Turn extinguisher upside down B. Class A fire
and strike on deck to break seal C. Class B fire
B. Remove locking pin on valve at D. Class D fire
top of cylinder and open valve 48. A fire in wood, paper, rags, etc, is
C. Direct horn at the fire and considered a:
squeeze down on handle A. Class D fire
B. Class C fire
 C. Class A fire 55. Each persons duties at fire drills
D. Class B fire and emergency drills are:
49. A soda-acid fire extinguisher can be A. In the engine-room log
used on a: B. On the station bill
A. Class A or C fire C. In the bridge log
B. class A fire D. On the certificate of inspection
C. Class B fire 56. A spanner wrench is a special
D. Class B or C fire wrench for:
50. A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used A. Spanning flanges
on a: B. Use on the OBA
A. Class A fire C. Use on hose couplings
B. Class B fire D. Use on the flame safety lamp
C. Class C fire 57. The maximum percentage of
D. any of the above poisonous gases a canister gas mask
51. How many spare charges must be can handle is:
carried for each type of portable A. 2%
fire extinguisher? B. 4%
A. At least 100% C. 5%
B. At least 50% D. 10%
C. At least 20% 58. There is always less pressure at the
D. At least 25% fire-hose outlet than is found at the
52. The valve on the bilge suction of the discharge of the pump. This loss in
main circulator must be a: pressure is caused by:
A. Globe valve A. Leaky-pump discharge valves
B. Date valve B. Leaky-pump suction valves
C. Nonereturn valve C. Friction in piping and valves
D. Angle valve D. Leaky pitot valves
53. What type of power is required for 59. To test a canister-type gas mask:
emergency lighting? A. Squeeze the breathing tube and
A. Diesel engine try to inhale
B. Batteries B. Blow into mouthpiece
C. Semi diesel engine C. Hold hand over hole in bottom
D. Any of the above of canister and try to inhale
54. How often must mechanical D. Hold hand over hole in bottom
emergency lighting equipment be of canister and try to exhale
checked? 60. When entering an empty oil tank,
A. Operated and checked once a even after authorized inspection,
week one should always:
B. Operated under load for 2 hrs A. Have someone stand by
once a month entrance or manhole
C. Once week for 1 hr B. Secure a lifetime to oneself
D. A and B C. Take along a flame safety lamp
 D. All of the above
61. The bypass valve on the OBA should
be used:
A. To testing the apparatus
B. In normal operation
C. Only in an emergency in case
some part ceases to function
properly
D. Never
62. Before releasing fixed CO2 system
to engine room:
A. Warn all personnel on watch
B. Secure fires
C. Shut down fans and blowers
D. All of the above
63. Between the time of the fixed CO2
alarm signal and actual delivery of
the CO2 to the system there is a:
A. 10 sec delay
B. 20 sec delay
C. 30 sec delay
D. No delay
64. Before a fire can start and continue
to burn, there must be present:
A. Fuel, heat, and oxygen
B. Paper, oily rags, and heat
C. Fuel, heat, and hydrogen
D. Paper, wood, and oxygen
65. The fixed CO2 fire-extinguishing
system to the engine room is
released:
A. Electrically
B. By a remote-controlled cable
outside the CO2 room
C. By a manually-controlled valve
on the CO2 cylinders
D. By a remote-controlled cable at
the throttle platform
66. The canister-type gas mask works
on the principle of:
A. Filterizing
B. Chemical combination
C. Adsorption
D. All of the above
67. After an engine room has been
subjected to the discharge of the
fixed CO2 fire-extinguishing system,
no one should be allowed into the
engine or fire room until:
A. The engine room has been
ventilated for 24 hrs
B. A flame safety lamp burns in all
parts of the engine and fire
rooms
C. The entire area has been washed
down with fresh water
D. A sufficient amount of oxygen
has been released into the
space to make it safe
68. Which of the following designates
the proper class, type of fire and
type of fire extinguisher:
A. Class C, electrical, foam
B. Class B, trash, dry chemical
C. Class B, paint, carbon dioxide
D. Class A, wood, carbon dioxide
69. If you were in a compartment
where a fixed CO2 extinguisher was
being released, you should:
A. Notify the bridge
B. Ring the alarm
C. Evacuate immediately
D. Put on an OBA
70. Battery rooms should be well
ventilated because batteries
liberate:
A. Oxygen gas
B. Acid fumes
C. Hydrogen fumes
D. Nitrogen gas
71. If there was insufficient air for
breathing, the flame safety lamp
would:
A. Flare up and go out
 B. Go out compartment which has not been
C. Keep burning with a blue flame declared gas-free?
D. Keep burning with a yellow A. A canister-type gas mask
flame B. An all purpose gas mask
72. A class C fire is one which consists C. A fresh-air hose mask and
of burning: harness and safety line
A. Rags D. Any of the above along with a
B. Wood flame safety lamp
C. Oil 79. The admission valve on an OBA will
D. None of the above close when the:
73. The best portable extinguisher to A. Bag is deflated
use on a class B fire would be the: B. Bumper plate is raised
A. Dry chemical C. Oxygen bottle is empty
B. CO2 D. Bypass is opened
C. Soda acid 80. Cargo ships over 1000 gross tons
D. A or B are required to have a:
74. If a flame safety lamp suddenly A. Fresh-air breathing apparatus
flared up, it would indicate: B. Soft-contained gas mask
A. Excessive oxygen C. Flame safety lamp and a self-
B. Lack of oxygen contained mask
C. Explosive gases present D. All purpose breathing apparatus
D. Wick needs adjusting 81. All electric cables run through decks
75. When fighting a oil or gasoline fire, must be protected with:
never use a: A. Welded joints
A. Hugh-velocity fog B. Packing boxes
B. Low-velocity fog C. Kick pipes
C. Foam D. A ground connection
D. Solid stream of water 82. A CO2 extinguisher is dangerous to
76. In a dry chemical extinguisher the use in:
propellant is: A. extremely hot areas
A. CO2 B. extremely cold areas
B. A hand pump C. Small and closed areas
C. CCl4 D. Passenger quarters
D. HCl 83. Emergency lights must be mark
77. In a portable foam extinguisher the with a:
propellant is: A. A letter E high
A. CO2 B. Letter E in red
B. CCl4 C. Red arrow pointing to exit
C. SO2 D. Letter E in red in high
D. HCl 84. Spontaneous combustion can occur
78. Which of the following should be in:
used when it is necessary to enter a A. Oily rags
 B. Coil 91. The minimum pressure allowed on
C. Grain steam smothering system is:
D. Any of the above A. 100 psi
85. For the safety of fire hoses, fire B. 120 psi
pumps are fitted with: C. 75 psi
A. Safety valves D. 150 psi
B. Pressure gage and relief valve on 92. The safety valve on the OBA warns
discharge side of:
C. Relief valve on discharge valve A. Excessive pressure in cylinder
D. Automatic valve shutoff B. Time to leave compartment
86. The all purpose fog nozzle is because oxygen supply is
secured to the hose by a: getting low
A. Quick-closing clamp C. Too much bad air is being
B. Patented snap clamp breathed in
C. Press-on clip D. Time to purge the bottle
D. Screw thread 93. To release fire extinguishing CO2 gas
87. Batteries used for emergency to the engine room areas, one
lighting must be checked: would open the valve control to the
A. Once month engine spaces and then:
B. Every other month A. Discharge all gas to the engine
C. Every 60 days area
D. Once every 6 months B. Operate the separate manual
88. Which of the following types of control to release the gas
extinguishers is equipted with a C. Release sufficient gas to the area
safety valve? to put out the fire
A. Foam type D. Stand by for the automatic
B. CO2 type control to release the gas
C. Chemical type 94. If you were on watch and you heard
D. A and B a continuous ringing on the general
89. Fire hoses can be used only for: alarm for a period of more than 10
A. Fire drills sec, you should:
B. Fire extinguishing A. Shutdown the plant
C. Washing down decks B. Start up the fire pump
D. A and B C. Go to your fire station
90. The minimum size of piping for D. Get out of the engine room
steam smothering lines to cargo 95. On the discharge side of afire
holds is: pump you will find a:
A. 2 A. Pressure gage and safety valve
B. 1 B. Air camber and relief valve
C. 1 C. Pressure gage and relief valve
D. D. Air camber and safety valve
96. The control for the fixed CO2 system
for the engine room is located:
A. Near the main throttle
B. On the bridge
C. In the chief engineers room
D. Outside the engine-room escape
97. According to the G.R. and R.,
engine-room spaces require at
least:
A. Two means of escape
B. One means of escape
C. Three means of escape
D. Four means of escape
98. The must be enough extra safety
valves fir foam-type fire
extinguishers for at least:
A. 25% of the extinguisher
B. 35% of the extinguisher
C. 50% of the extinguisher
D. 10% of the extinguisher
99. The minimum temperature for
boiler feedwater entering a boiler
is:
A. 212 F
B. 150 F
C. 100 F
D. Any temperature
100. All steams valves over 6 in
diameter must be fitted with:
A. A rising-stem type valve
B. A bypass line and valve
C. Flange unions
D. Steam logging
101. Aflame safety lamp will go out
when the percentage of oxygen
goes below:
A. 16%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 25%
102. Normal air contains:
A. 16% oxygen
B. 21% oxygen
C. 40% oxygen
D. 25% oxygen
103. Unconsciousness will occur on
human beings when the percentage
of oxygen gets down to:
A. 16%
B. 14%
C. 10%
D. 12%
104. The pitot tube is used for:
A. Measuring water pressure in fire
lines
B. Measuring discharge pressure of
CO2 extinguishers
C. Measuring pressure in CO2
bottles
D. None of the above
105. The type of hose thread required
on water fire hose equipment is
the:
A. U.S. standard
B. National standard
C. NC standard
D. American standard
106. When the all-purpose nozzle, the
steam of water is change from the
high velocity to fog by:
A. Pushing the handle forward
B. Pulling the handle backward
 C. Putting the handle in a vertical
position
D. None of the above
107. On reporting to a vessel for the
first time, your fire station can be
found by looking at the:
A. Ships articles
B. Station bill
C. Certificate of inspection
D. Crew list in engine room
108. Air is supplied to a fresh-air
apparatus by a:
A. Hand-operated pump
B. Electric-driven pump
C. Diesel-driven pump
D. Vacuum pump
109. Fire hoses can be disconnected:
A. When using them for washing
down
B. At no time
C. When taking seas in heavy
weather
D. When fueling ship
110. Lifeboat electric gear must be
checked every:
A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 12 months
D. Months
111. Emergency generators must be
located:
A. Above bulkhead or freeboard
deck
B. In any dry place
C. Close to the engine room
D. Near the bridge
112. Diesel emergency generators must
be operated:
A. Once a week for an hr
B. Once a month for 2 hrs
C. Once a week for 2 hrs
D. Once a month for 1 hr
113. The fresh-air supply for a fresh-air
breathing apparatus is supplied by:
A. An air compressor
B. A hand-operated pump
C. An oxygen cylinder
D. A or B
114. A cofferdam is:
A. An empty space between tank
tops and bilges
B. A tank for storing chemicals
C. A cement dam in a fresh-water
tank to prevent sloshing
D. An empty space separating
compartment to prevent the
contents of one compartment
from entering another in case
of leakage
115. The fresh-air supply for the
Chimox type OBA is:
A. Supplied by an air compressor
B. Supplied by an oxygen cylinder
 C. Generated by a chemical in a
canister 1. C
D. Supplied by a hand-operated 2. C
pump 3. D
116. An explosion meter is used to 4. D
detect: 5. D
A. Oxygen content of air 6. D
B. Concentrations of flammable 7. A
gases and vapors 8. B
C. Hydrogen content of air 9. D
D. Combustibility of hydrogen and 10. B
oxygen 11. D
12. C
13. A
ANSWERS TO GENERAL 14. D
QUESTIONS 15. C
16. D 32. C 48. C
17. C 33. D 49. B
18. D 34. A 50. D
19. A 35. A 51. B
20. C 36. C 52. C
21. B 37. B 53. D
22. D 38. B 54. D
23. D 39. C 55. B
24. A 40. B 56. C
25. C 41. D 57. A
26. B 42. B 58. C
27. A 43. C 59. C
28. B 44. D 60. D
29. D 45. C 61. C
30. D 46. A 62. D
31. D 47. C 63. B
64. A 82. C 100. B
65. B 83. D 101. A
66. D 84. D 102. B
67. B 85. B 103. C
68. D 86. D 104. A
69. C 87. D 105. B
70. C 88. D 106. B
71. B 89. D 107. B
72. D 90. B 108. A
73. D 91. A 109. C
74. C 92. B 110. B
75. D 93. B 111. A
76. A 94. B 112. B
77. A 95. C 113. B
78. C 96. D 114. D
79. B 97. A 115. C
80. A 98. C 116. B
81. C 99. C