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SSC GS 21.

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh


2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009

GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST -21


1. What was the theme for Human Development 1. ekuo fodkl fjiksVZ 2015 dh Fkhe dk fo"k;? D;k Fkk
Report 2015?
(A) n jkbt vkWiQ n lkmFk
(A) The Rise of the South
(B) Gender and Human Development (B) tksUMj ,aM weu MsoyiesaV
(C) Rethinking Work for Human (C) fjfFkafdax odZ iQkWj weu MsoyiesaV
Development
(D) Xykscykbts'ku fon v weu iQsl
(D) Globalization with a Human Face.
2. Which of the following statement (s) is/are 2. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku ? lgh gS@gSa
correct? 1. Hkkjr esa fiNys10 o"kksZa esa vkFkd fodkl yxHkx
1. India's economic development has been
constant in the last ten years decade.
fLFkj jgk gSA
2. Food production since last few years has 2. [kk|kUu dk mRiknu fiNys dbZ o"kksZa ls c<+&?kV
been varying distinctly. dwV%
Code :
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
3. What is the meaning of economic growth 3. Hkkjrh; vFkZO;oLFkk esa vkFkd fodkl dk vFkZ gS
in the Indian economy?
(A) izfr O;fDr vk; esa o`fA
(A) Increase in per capita income
(B) Uninterrupted growth in service sector (B) lsok {ks=k esa fujarj o`fA
(C) Regular growth in G.D.P. (C) th-Mh-ih- esa fujarj o`fA
(D) Increase in the share of Industry sector
(D) vFkZO;oLFkk esa m|ksx {ks=k dh fgLlsnkjh c<+uk
in the economy.
4. What is the natural growth rate of 4. tula[;k dh izkfrd o`f nj D;k gS\
population? (A) v'kksf/r(Crude) tUenj rFkk v'kksf/r e`R;q nj ds
(A) Difference between Crude Birth Rate and
Crude Death Rate plus net migration
varj esa fuoy izoklu dk ;ksxA
(B) Difference between Crude Birth Rate and (B) v'kksf/r tUenj rFkk v'kksf/r e`R;q nj dk varjA
Crude Death Rate (C) fdlh fo'ks"k o"kZ esa tUe dqy f'k'kqvksa dh la[;kA
(C) Number of infants born in a particular
(D) buesa ls dksbZ ughaA
year.
(D) None of these 5. tux.kuk lafo/ku dh fdl lwph ds varxZr vkrk? gS
5. Census is a part of which list in the (A) leorhZ lwph
Constitution?
(B) la?k lwph
(A) Concurrent List
(B) Union List (C) jkT;&lwph
(C) State List (D) ;g ekuo lalk/u fodkl ea=kky; ds v/hu gSA
(D) It is under the Ministry of Human
Resource Development.
6. buesa ls dkSu&ls dFku {ks=kh; xzkeh.k cSdksa
(RRB's) ds ds
6. Which of the following statements are correct ckjs esa lgh? gSa
regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)? 1. ;g lekt ds lHkh oxksZa dks .k iznku djrk gSA
1. It provides loans to all sections of the
2. bls 1975 esa LFkkfir fd;k x;kA
society.
2. It was established in 1975. 3. budh dqy iwath esa dsUnz ljdkj }kjk ukckMZ ds ek
3. Central Government through NABARD ls yxk;h x;h iwath dk va'k
30 izfr'kr gSA
provides 30% of their total capital.
4. {ks=kh; xzkeh.k cSadksa }kjk fn;s x;s .k esa lok
4. Majority of the loans sanctioned by the
Regional Rural Banks are given to the va'k izkFkfed {ks=k dk gksrk gSA
primary sector. dwV%
Code :
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj 4 (B) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 2 and 4 only (C) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 4 (D) dsoy 2 vkSj 4

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 1


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
7. In relation to Indian Council of Agricultural 7. Hkkjrh; f"k vuqla/ku ifj"kn
(ICAR) ls lacaf/r fuEu
Research, consider the following statements: dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
1. It is an autonomous institution under
the Department of Agricultural Research 1. ;g f"k vuqla/ku ,oa f'k{k.k dk;Z foHkkx_ f"k ,oa
and Education; Ministry of Agriculture "kd dY;k.k ea=kky; ds varxZr Lok;k fudk; gSA
& Farmers Welfare. 2. bldk eq[;ky; psUubZ esa gSA
2. It is headquartered in Chennai.
3. bldk loksZPp izkf/dj.k vlhe ckWMh gS tks f"k ds
3. It's supreme authority is the general body
whose chairman is the Agricultural lqj{kk v;{k gksrs gSaA
Secretary. 4. ;g laLFkk yky cgknqj 'kkL=kh vlk/j.k ;qok oSKkfud
4. This institution declares the Lal Bahadur iqjLdkj dh ?kks"k.kk djrh gSA
Shastri Extraordinary Young Scientist
award. dwV%
Code : (A) 1 dsoy (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) dsoy 1 vkSj4 (D) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj4
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only 8. fu/Zurk tky D;k?gS
8. What is the Poverty Trap?
(A) When a person does not get a job, and (A) fdlh O;fDr dks jkstxkj uk feys tcfd og igys ls
he is already poor then he gets caught fu/Zu gS rks og fu/Zurk dh fLFkfr esa iQlrk pyk
in the cycle of poverty. This is what is tkrk gSA bls gh fu/Zurk tky dgrs gSaA
known as Poverty Trap.
(B) tc fdlh O;fDr dh vk; fujarj ?kVrh tk, rFkk
(B) When a person's income is decreasing
continuously while his expenditure is miHkksx esa fujarj o`f gks jgh gks rks bl izdkj d
increasing, then this situation is known fLFkfr fu/Zurk tky dgykrh gSA
as Poverty Trap. (C) ,d fu/Zu O;fDr dke uk djuk pkgs rFkk ljdkj }kjk
(C) If a poor person does not want to do a
job and only wants to derive benefit from eqgS;k djk;h tk jgh lkekftd lqj{kk ;kstukvksa ij
the social welfare schemes on the fuHkZj jguk ilan djs rks og fujarj fu/Zu cuk jgrk gS
government then he remains poor and rFkk ,slh fLFkfr fu/Zurk tky dgykrh gSA
such a situation is known as Poverty (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Trap.
(D) None of these 9. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
9. Consider the following statements : 1. jk"Vh; tula[;k vk;ksx ds v;{k dsUnzh; x`g ea=kh
1. The Chairman of the National gksrs gSa
Commission on Population is the Union 2. iqjk(PURA) ekWMy foijhr izotu (Rerverse
Home Minister.
2. PURA model promotes reverse migration. Migration) dks izksRlkfgr dj ldrk gSA
3. National Commission on Population is 3. jk"Vh; tula[;k vk;ksx LokLF; ,oa ifjokj dY;k.k
under the Ministry of Health and Family ea=kky; ds varxZr dk;Zjr gSA
Welfare.
4. 2011 ds tux.kuk vkdM+ksa ds eqrkfcd 2001&2011
4. According to the census 2011, between
2001-2011, the increase in female ds e; efgykvksa dh lk{kjrk o`f nj iq#"kksa ds
literacy rate was more than male literacy eqdkcys vf/d FkhA
rate. mijksDr esa ls dkSu&ls dFku lgh gSa\
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 4
10. Companies Act, 2013 has initiated Corporate 10. dEiuh vf/fu;e] 2013 us dEifu;ksa ds fy;s dkjiksjsV
Social Responsibility for private companies. lks'ky jslikfUlfcfyVh
(CSR) dh /kj.kk dh 'kq#vkr dhA
In relation to CSR, consider the following
statements : lh,lvkj ds laca/ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. The idea of CSR is only applicable to 1. lh,lvkj dh vo/kj.kk] dsoy lkoZtfud dEifu;ksa
public companies. ij ykxw gksrh gSA
2. If a company pays for its employees 2. fdlh dEiuh }kjk vius deZpkfj;ksa ij fd;k x;k O;;
expenditure on (welfare and
entertainment) of donates to a political (dY;k.k ;k euksjatu ds fy;s) rFkk jktuhfrd nyksa
party, then that is taken as CSR. dks fn;k x;k pank blesa 'kkfey fd;k tkrk gSA
3. Expenditure on environment conservation 3. i;kZoj.k laj{k.k ds fy;s fd;k x;k O;; blesa 'kkfey
by the company is not included in CSR.
Which of the above statements (s) is/are
ugha fd;k tkrk gSA
correct? mijksDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) None of these (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 2


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
11. In relation to India's unorganised sector, 11. Hkkjr esa vlaxfBr {ks=k ds laca/ esa fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj
consider the following? dhft;s%
1. It generate a small in India's Gross
Domestic Product. 1. ;g Hkkjr ds ldy ?kjsyw mRikn dk ,d NksVk lk Hkkx
2. It provides employment to majority of the mRiUu djrk gSA
working class in India. 2. ;g Hkkjr dh dkedkth vkcknh ds cgqer dks jkstxkj
3. This sector is not regulated by any policy iznku djrk gSA
or rules.
Which of the these statement (s) is/are 3. ;g {ks=k fdlh Hkh dkuwu ;k fuxe }kjk fofu;fer ugha
correct? gSA
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 only buesa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 2 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (B) dsoy 2
12. What is the Net Interest Margin?
(A) This is the difference between the total (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
interest paid and interest earned by the 12. 'kq C;kt gkf'k;k D;k? gS
national government on the loans. (A) ;g fdlh ns'k dh ljdkj }kjk dqy pqdk;s x, C;kt
(B) The minimum rate of interest maintained rFkk .k ij olwys x, C;kt dk varj gksrk gSA
by the banks on their loans.
(C) This margin is the difference between the (B) cSadksa }kjk vius fn;s x, .k ij ,d U;wure Lrj dk
interest given on deposits and interest C;kt nj j[kk tkukA
earned on the loans cannot be availed (C) ;g ektu cSadksa dh rjiQ ls tek ds cnys fn;s tkus
below this rate of interest. oyks C;kt rFkk .k ij olwys x, C;kt dk varj gksrk
(D) This margin is related to the home loans.
That means home loans cannot be gSA
availed below this rate of interest. (D) ;g ektu gkse yksu ls lacaf/r gSA vFkkZr~ blls de
13. On which of the following, the concept of C;kt nj ij gkse yksu ugha fy;k tk ldrk gSA
Price Erosion is applicable? 13. ewY; kl dh vo/kj.kk buesa ls fdl ij ykxw gksrh
? gS
1. Human Capital
2. Physical Capital 1. ekuo iwath
3. Currency 2. HkkSfrd iwath
Code : 3. eqnzk
(A) 2 and 3 only (B) 3 only dwV%
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) All of the above
(A) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (B) dsoy 3
14. In what form does the Constitution of India
provide for the transfer of resources from (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (D) mijksDr lHkh
union to the states? 14. Hkkjr dk lafo/ku dsanz ls jkT;ksa dks lalk/uksa dk gLrka
1. In the form of sharing the Tax revenues. fdl :i esa djus dh O;oLFkk djrk gS\
2. By giving loan.
1. dj ds cVokjs ds :i esaA
3. Grant-in-aid.
4. Grant for implementing the five year 2. .k nsdjA
plan. 3. lgk;rk esa vuqnkuA
Code : 4. iapo"khZ; ;kstuk dks f;kfUor djus ds vuqnkuA
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
dwV%
(C) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
(D) All are correct (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (D) lHkh lgh gSaA
15. The demand will definitely increase in an 15. fdlh vFkZO;oLFkk esa ekax fuf'pR; :i ls c<+sxh ;fn%
economy if:
(A) jk"Vh; vk; esa o`f gks jgh gSA
(A) National income is increasing
(B) Rate of inflation is high (B) eqnzkLiQhfr dh nj ph gksA
(C) There is fast growth in the population (C) tula[;k esa rhoz o`f gks jgh gksA
(D) Per capital income is increasing (D) izfr O;fDr vk; esa o`f gks jgh gksA
16. If for any reason the investment expenditure
16. ;fn fdlh dkj.ko'k fdlh vFkZO;oLFkk esa fuos'k O;; esa
is increasing in an economy, if shows that
(A) Consumption expenditure is decreasing. o`f gks jgh gS rks ;g n'kkZrk gS fd%
(B) GDP is continuously increasing (A) miHkksx O;; ?kV jgk gSA
(C) There is a reduction in the interest by a (B) ldy ?kjsyw mRikn esa yxkrkj o`f gks jgh gSA
certain degree
(C) C;kt esa fuf'pr ek=kk esa dVkSrh dh xbZ gSA
(D) Foreign trade is increasing at a faster
rate. (D) fons'kh O;kikj rhoz xfr ls c<+ jgk gSA

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 3


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
17. If there is increased public expenditure and 17. ;fn fdlh vFkZO;oLFkk }kjk vf/d lkoZtfud O;; rFkk
expansion in the tax net of an economy, then dk nk;js dk foLrkj fd;k tk, rks mlds }kjk
it is :
(A) ladqfpr jktdks"kh; uhfr dk ikyu fd;k tk jgk gSA
(A) Following a contractionary fiscal policy.
(B) Following expansionary fiscal policy. (B) jktdks"kh; uhfr dk foLrkj fd;k tk jgk gSA
(C) Benefiting the industry and the higher (C) dj dh nj de djds m|ksx txr rFkk mPp oxZ dks
class by reducing the tax rate. ykHkkfUor fd;k tk jgk gSA
(D) None of these (D) buesa ls dksbZ ughaA
18. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true?
18. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\
1. After 1991, the role of public sector 1. 1991 ds ckn ls lkoZtfud {ks=k dh Hkwfedk esa deh
undertaking has decreased and their vkbZ gS ij mudh dq'kyrk rFkk ykHkns;rk esa o`f g
efficiency and profitability has increased. gSA
2. Government has initiated the process of 2. ljdkj us lkoZtfud m|eksa esa fofuos'k ds ek;e ls
privatization in public sector undertaking
through disinvestment.
futhdj.k dh izf;k viukbZ gSA
Code : dwV%
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
19. Which of the following, if improved, will 19. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdles lq/kj fd;s tkus ij Hkkjr dks
enhance the Human Development Index
formulated by United Nation Development
la;qDr jk"V fodkl dk;Ze }kjk fuer ekuo fodkl
Programme? lwpdkad esa mPp LFkku izkIr? gks ldsxk
1. Excessive credit facilities for weaker 1. detksj oxksZ dks vR;f/d lk[kA
section. 2. vf/d cPpksa dk Ldwy tkuk
2. More children attending schools. 3. cky dqiks"k.k esa deh vkukA
3. Decrease in child malnutrition.
4. ySafxd lekurk dk fodkl gksukA
4. Improvement in gender equality.
Code : dwV%
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) All of the above (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) mijksDr lHkh
20. Consider the following statements: 20. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India
1. Hkkjrh; mPp U;k;ky; dk U;k;{ks=k la?kh; ekeyksa rd
is limited to federal matters whereas the
jurisdiction of American Supreme Court lhfer gS\
covers federal matters. 2. Hkkjrh; mPpre U;k;ky; dk ,d {ks=k lykgdkjh
2. Supreme Court of India has advisory U;k;{ks=k gS tcfd vesfjdh mPpre U;k;ky; ds ikl
jurisdiction, whereas American Supreme dksbZ lykgdkjh U;k;{ks=k ugha gSA
Court has no such advisory jurisdiction.
Which of the above statements (s) is/are mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa
correct? (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 21. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
21. Consider the following statements: 1. jkT;iky jkT; fof/ ds rgr fdlh vijk/ esa ltk
1. Governor can grant pardon or suspend
any sentence awarded according to state izkIr O;fDr dks {keknku dj ldrk gS ;k naM dks
law. LFkfxr dj ldrk gSA
2. Governor can not abolish death penalty 2. jkT;iky e`R;qnaM dh ltk dks ekiQ dj ldrk] pkgs
of any one even if it is given according to fdlh dks jkT; fof/ ds rgr gh e`R;q dh ltk feyh
state law. gksA
3. Governor can remit or commute the
punishment awarded to any one by court 3. jkT;iky dksVZ ek'kZy (lSU; vnkyr) ds rgr ltk
martial (Military Court). izkIr O;fDr dh ltk dks de dj ldrk gS ;k cny
Which of the above statements (s) is/are ldrk gSA
correct ? mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&ls dFku lgh gSa\
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
22. Which of the following provision is mentioned 22. lafo/ku esa mPp U;k;ky; ds U;k;k/h'kksa dh la[;k ds ckjs
the Constitution about number of judges in
high court?
esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k izko/ku
? gS
(A) The parliament enjoys the power to (A) laln dks la[;k r; djus dh 'kfDr nh xbZ gSA
determine the number (B) ;g lqizhe dksVZ ds eq[; U;k;k/h'k ds foosdkf/dkj
(B) It is to the discretiory power of Chief ij NksM+k x;k gSA
Justice of India.
(C) It is to the discretionary power of the (C) bls jk"Vifr ds foosdkfkdkj ij NksM+ fn;k x;k gSA
President (D) bls jkT;iky ds foosdkfkdkj ij NksM+ fn;k x;k gSA
(D) It is to the discretionary power of the 23. mPp U;k;ky; ds U;kf;d {ks=k ds laca/ esa fuEufyf[kr esa
Government
23. Which of the following pair is incorrectly
ls dkSu&lk ;qXe lqesfyr ugha gS\
matched in the context of jurisdiction of the (A) xksok U;kf;d {ks=k & cacbZ mPp U;k;ky;
high court? (B) v#.kkpy izns'k U;kf;d {ks=k
&xqokgkVh
mPpU;k;ky;
(A) Goa Jurisdiction - Bombay High (C) iqnqPpsjh U;kf;d {ks=k
& enzkl mPp U;k;ky;
Court
(B) Arunchal Pradesh - Guwahati High (D) vaMeku o fudksckj }hi lewg & rfeyukMq mPp
Jurisditcion court U;kf;d {ks=k U;k;ky;
(C) Puducherry and - Madras High 24. fuEufyf[kr ;qXeksa esa ls dkSu&lk lgh lqesfyr ugha gS
Nicobar Court
(D) Andaman and - Tamil Nadu dsUnz 'kkflr izns'k dk;Zdkjh in
Nicobar High Court (A) paMhx<+ & iz'kkld
24. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly (B) fnYyh & mijkT;iky
matched?
(C) vaMeku&fudksckj & iz'kkld
Union Territory Executive Post
(A) Chandigarh - Administrator }hi lweg
(B) Delhi - Deputy Governor (D) iqMqpsjh & mijkT;iky
(C) Andaman and - Administrator 25. fnYyh ds eq[;ea=kh dks dkSu fu;qDr djrk gS\
Nicobar Islands
(D) Puducherry - Deputy Governor (A) jk"Vifr
25. Who appoints the Chief Minister of Delhi? (B) mijkT;iky
(A) President (C) iz/kuea=kh
(B) Deputy Governor
(C) Prime Minister (D) loksZPp U;k;ky; dk eq[; U;k;k/h'k
(D) Chief Justice of India 26. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
26. Consider the following statements : 1. Hkkjr ds eq[; vk;qDr o nks vU; fuokZpu vk;qDrksa d
1. Chief Election Commissioner of India and
ikl leku 'kfDr;k gksrh gSa rFkk muds osru] Hkks
two other election commissioner same
powers and their salary, allowances and vU; vuqykHk Hkh ,dleku gksrs gSaA
other benefits are also same. 2. jkT;ksa esa gksus okys iapk;r o fuxe pqukoksa ls Hk
2. Election Commission of India has no any fuokZpu vk;ksx dk dksbZ laca/ ugha gSA
relation with the panchayat and
municipal elections held in states. mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gS\
Which of the above statement (s) is/are (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
correct? (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
27. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
27. Consider the following statements : 1. lafo/ku esa Hkkjrh; fuokZpu vk;ksx ds lnL;ksa dh
1. The Constitution does not determine the ;ksX;rk fu/kZfjr ugha dh xbZ gSA
eligibility of members of the Election 2. lafo/ku esa bl ckr dk mYys[k ugha fd;k x;k gS fd
Commission of India.
2. The Constitution does not mention the Hkkjrh; fuokZpu vk;ksx ds lnL;ksa dh dk;Zdky fdruh
tenure of members of the Election gksxhA
Commission India. 3. lafo/ku esa lsokfuo`fk ds ckn fuokZpu vk;qDrksa
3. The Constitution does not ban the
election commissioners for other ljdkj }kjk vU; nwljh fu;qfDr;ksa ij jksd ugha yxkbZ
appointments by government after their xbZ gSA
retirement. mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&ls dFku lgh gSa\
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 only 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
28. Consider the following statements: 28. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. The President can remove the Chairman
1. jk"Vifr la?k yksd lsok vk;ksx ds v;{k ;k nwljs
or other members of Union Public Service
Commission on the ground of lnL;ksa dks muds dnkpkj ds dkj.k Hkh gVk ldrk gS]
misbehaviour also but in these cases, fdarq ,sls ekeyksa esa jk"Vifr dks ;g ekeyk tkp ds
President has to send the matter to the fy;s mPpre U;k;ky; esa Hkstuk gksrk gSA
Supreme Court for the probe.
2. It is not mandatory for the President to 2. mPpre U;k;ky; }kjk bl ekeys esa nh xbZ lykg
accept the advice given by the Supreme jk"Vifr ds fy;s ck;dkjh ugha gSA
Court on this matter. mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct? (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 29. la;qDr jkT; lsok vk;ksx ds v;{k o lnL;ksa dh fu;qfDr
29. Who appoints the Chairman and members
of Joint State Public Service Commission?
fdlds }kjk dh tkrh ?gS
(A) Governor (A) jkT;iky
(B) Chief Justice of High Court (B) mPp U;k;ky; ds eq[; U;k;k/h'k
(C) President (C) jk"Vifr
(D) Governor on the advice of Cabinet
30. Which of the following is a Constitution (D) eaf=keaMy dh lykg ij jkT;iky
Body? 30. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d laoS/kfud ?fudk; gS
(A) National Commission for Backward Class (A) fiNM+k oxZ ds fy, jk"Vh; vk;ksx
(B) National Human Rights Commission
(C) National Commission for Minorities (B) jk"Vh; ekuokf/dkj vk;ksx
(D) National Commission for Scheduled (C) jk"Vh; vYila[;d vk;ksx
Caste (D) jk"Vh; vuqlwfpr tkfr vk;ksx
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Originally there was no any provision
31. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
about special officer for linguistic 1. ewy :i ls Hkkjr ds lafo/ku esa Hkk"kkbZ vYila[;d
minority classes in Constitution of India. oxksZa ds fy;s fo'ks"k vf/dkjh ds laca/ esa dksbZ izko
2. The headquarter of this special officer ugha FkkA
developed with 7 th constitutional
amendment is in Allahabad (Uttar 2. 7osa lafo/ku la'kks/u }kjk LFkkfir bl fo'ks"k vf/dkjh
Pradesh). dk eq[;ky; bykgkckn (mkj izns'k) esa gSA
Which of the above statement(s) is/are mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa
correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
32. Consider the following statements in the 32. Hkkjr ds fu;a=kd ,oa egkys[kk
(CAG) ijh{kd ds lanHkZ esa
context of Comptroller and Auditor General
of India (CAG):
fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. Though he is appointed by the President, 1. og jk"Vifr dh [kq'kh ij in ij ugha jg ldrk] ;|fi
he does not hold his office during the bldh fu;qfDr jk"Vifr }kjk gh gksrh gSA
pleasure of the President. 2. bldk osru ,oa vU; lsok 'krsZa laln }kjk fu/kZfjr
2. His salary and other service conditions
are determined by the Parliament. His gksrh gSaA bldks osru mPp U;k;ky; ds U;k;k/h'k ds
salary is same as the salary of High Court cjkcj gksrk gSA
Justice. 3. dksbZ Hkh ea=kh laln ds nksuksa lnuksa esa fu;a
3. No minister can represent the
Comptroller and Auditor General is both egkys[kk ijh{kd dk izfrfuf/Ro ugha dj ldrk vkSj
the houses of the Parliament and no dksbZ ea=kh mlds }kjk fd;s x, fdlh dk;Z dh ftEesnkjh
minister can take the responsibility of ugha ys ldrkA
any act done by him.
Which of the above statements are correct?
mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&ls dFku lgh gSa\
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
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33. Which of the following is not the eligibility 33. mPp U;k;ky; ds U;k;k/h'k ds :i esa fdlh O;fDr dh
provision for appointment of a person as high
fu;qfDr ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ;ksX;rk dk
court justice?
(A) He must be a citizen of India. izko/ku ugha? gS
(B) He should have experience of 10 years (A) og Hkkjr dk ukxfjd gksA
in judicial functions in India. (B) mls Hkkjr ds U;kf;d dk;Z esa 10 o"kZ dk vuqHko gk
(C) He has served as an advocate of a high
(C) og mPp U;k;ky; (;k ,sls nks ;k vf/d U;k;ky;ksa)
court (or of two or more such courts) in
succession at least for 10 years. esa yxkrkj de ls de 10 o"kZ rd vf/oDrk jg pqdk
(D) He must be a distinguished jurist in the gksA
opinion of the President. (D) jk"Vifr ds er esa lEekfur U;k;oknh gksA
34. Which of the following statement is incorrect
34. Hkkjr ds egkU;k;oknh (vVkWuh tujy) ds lanHkZ esa fuEufy
in the context of Attorney General of India?
(A) Attorney General gets all allowances and esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh ?ugha gS
privileges as a Member of Parliament. (A) egkU;k;oknh dks ,d laln lnL; dh rjg lHkh Hkks
(B) Attorney General has right to speech and ,oa fo'ks"kkf/dkj feyrs gSaA
to participate in the functions of both
(B) egkU;k;oknh dks laln ds nksuksa lnuksa esa cksyus
the houses of the Parliament.
(C) Attorney General has right to participate dk;Zokgh esa Hkkx ysus dk vf/dkj gSA
in the joint session of both the houses of (C) egkU;k;oknh dks erkf/dkj lfgr laln ds nksuksa lnuksa
Parliament with having right to vote. dh la;qDr cSBd esa Hkkx ysus dk vf/dkj gSA
(D) Attorney General of India holds his of
(D) Hkkjr dk egkU;k;oknh jk"Vifr ds izlkn&i;ZUr inq ij
during the pleasure of the President.
35. National Development Council is: cuk jgk gSA
(A) A constitutional body 35. jk"Vh; fodkl ifj"kn gS%
(B) A Statutory body (A) ,d laoS/kfud fudk;
(C) Neither Constitutional nor Statutory
(B) ,d lkafof/d fudk;
body
(D) None of these (C) u laoS/kfud vkSj u gh lkafof/d fudk;
36. Consider the following statements : (D) buesa ls dksbZ ughaA
1. National Human Right Commission can 36. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
probe into only such cases of which
1. jk"Vh; ekuokf/dkj vk;ksx mUgha ekeyksa esa tkp
occurrence has not completed one year.
2. Tenure of Chairman and member of ldrk gSA ftUgsa ?kfVr gq, ,d o"kZ ls de le; gqvk
National Human Right Commission is for gksA
5 years or upto completion of the age of 2. jk"Vh; ekuokf/dkj vk;ksx ds v;{k o lnL; dk
65 years (which occurs first).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
dk;Zdky 5 o"kZ vFkok tc mudh mez 65 o"kZ gks (tks
correct? Hkh igys gks)] dk gksrk gSA
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
37. Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed
(C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
by the President on the recommendation of
3 members committee. This Committee 37. dsUnzh; lrdZrk vk;qDr dh fu;qfDr jk"Vifr }kjk ,d 3
includes : lnL;h; lfefr dh fliQkfj'k ij gksrh gSA bl lfefr esa
(A) Prime Minister, Lok Sabha Speaker and 'kkfey gksrs gS%
Leader of Opposition (in Lok Sabha)
(A) iz/kuea=kh] yksd lHkk v;{k o yksd lHkk esa foi{k
(B) Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition (in
Lok Sabha), Any central Cabinet dk usrk
Minister. (B) iz/kuea=kh] yksd lHkk esa foi{k dk usrk] dsUnzh; dS
(C) Prime Minister, Home Minister, Lok dk dksbZ ea=kh
Sabha Speaker.
(C) iz/kuea=kh] x`gea=kh] yksd lHkk v;{k
(D) Prime Minister, Home Minister, Leader
of Opposition in Lok Sabha. (D) iz/kuea=kh] x`gea=kh] yksd lHkk esa foi{k dk usrk

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38. Consider the following statements: 38. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
1. Central Information Commission 1. dsUnzh; lwpuk vk;ksx esa ,d eq[; vk;qDr ,oa lwpuk
includes a Chief Commissioner and
information commissioners whose
vk;qDr gksrs gS] ftudh la[;k 10 ls vf/d ugha gksuh
number should not exceed 10. pkfg,A
2. Salary, allowances and other service 2. eq[; lwpuk vk;qDr ds osru] Hkks ,oa vU; lsok 'krsZ
conditions of the Chief Information Hkkjr ds eq[; fuokZpu vk;qDr ds leku gksrh gSA
Commissioner is same as the salary of 3. lwpuk vk;ksx dk izko/ku ewy lafo/ku esa ugha Fkk
Chief Election Commissioner of India.
3. There was no provision of Information
ijarq 2005 esa lafo/ku la'kks/u ds }kjk bls laoS/kfud
Commission in original constitutional fudk; dk ntkZ fn;k x;kA
body. mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&ls dFku lgh gSa\
Which of the above statements are correct? (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
39. Consider the following statements :
39. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj ?dhft,
1. According to official language act 1963 1. jktHkk"kk vf/fu;e 1963 ds vuqlkj] jk"Vifr ds
acts, ordinances, orders, Hindi izkfkdkj ls izdkf'kr vf/fu;e] v;kns'k] vkns'k]
translated sub rules published within the fu;e o mifu;eksa ds fganh esa vuqokn vkf/dkfjd
authority of the President will be ys[k ekus tk,axsA
assumed official record.
2. Supreme Court hears only those 2. mPpre U;k;ky; dsoy mUgha ;kfpdkvksa dks lqurk gS
litigations which are only in English. tks dsoy vaxzsth esa gksaA
Which of the above statement (s) is/are mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa
correct? (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) Both1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Which of the following pair is not matched? 40. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ;qXe lqesfyr ? ugha gS
(A) Eighth scheduled - 14 Languages (A) ewy :i ls vkBoha& 14 Hkk"kk,
consists originally (B) 21osa lafo/ku la'kks/u
& fla/h Hkk"kk
(B) 21st constitutional - Sindhi Language (C) 71osa lafo/ku la'kks/u
& dksad.kh] ef.kiqjh] usikyh
amendment added
}kjk tksM+h xbZ Hkk"kk,
(C) 71st Constitutional - Konkani,
amendment added Manipuri, Nepali (D) 92osa lafo/ku la'kks/u
& eSfFkyh] Mksxjh] Hkkstiqjh]
(D) 92nd Constitutional - Maithali, Dogari, }kjk tksM+h xbZ laFkkyh Hkk"kk,
amendment added Santhali language 41. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
41. Consider the following statements : 1- vf[ky Hkkjrh; lsok, la;qDr :i ls dsUnz o jkT;
1. All India Services are jointly controlled
ljdkjksa }kjk fu;af=kr gksrh gSA
by central and State Governments.
2. Any disciplinary action (imposing 2- bu vf/dkfj;ksa ds fo# dksbZ Hkh vuq'kklukRed
punishments) against these officers can dk;Zokgh ('kkfLr;ksa dk vkjksi.k) dsoy jkT; ljdkj
be taken only by state Government. }kjk dh tk ldrh gSA
3. Sarder Vallabh Bhai Patel is called The 3- ljnkj cYyHkHkkbZ iVsy dks ^vf[ky Hkkjrh; lsokv
father of All India services
dk tud* dgk tkrk gSA
Which of the above statement (s) is/are
correct ? mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa
(A) 3 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 3 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
42. Consider the following statements : 42. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
1. The Constitution describes about two
1. lafo/ku esa nks izdkj ds vYila[;dksa&/ked o Hkk"kk
types of minorities religious and
linguistic minorities. vYila[;dksa dk mYys[k gSA
2. Constitution, no where describes about 2. lafo/ku esa ^vYila[;d oxZ* dh O;k[;k dgha ij Hkh
minority class. ugha gSA
Which of the above statements (s) is/are mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa
correct?
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
43. Which of the following statement is incorrect 43. vf/dj.k ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
in the context of Tribunal? xyr gS\
(A) Under article-324 (A) tribunal is formed (A) vuqPNsn&323(A)ds varxZr dsoy yksd lsokvksa ls
only for cases related to public services.
lacafkr ekeyksa ds fy;s vf/dj.k xfBr fd;k tkrk
(B) Under article-323 (B) tribunal is formed
for cases related to other than public gSA
service. (B) vuqPNsn&323(B)esa yksd lsok ds vfrfjDr vU; ekeyksa
(C) Under article-323 (A) Parliament only ds fy;s vf/dj.k xfBr fd;k tkrk gSA
form tribunal (C) vuqPNsn&223(A)ds rgr dsoy laln gh vf/dj.k
(D) Under article - 327(B) State Legislature dk xBu djrh gSA
only forms the tribunal (D) vuqPNsn&327(B)ds rgr dsoy jkT; fo/kf;dk gh
44. Which of the following statement (s) about vf/dj.k dk xBu dj ldrh gSA
fiber is/are correct? 44. js'ks ds laca/ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lg
1. Fiber in diet is made up of
Carbohydrates.
gS@gSa\
2. Coarse grains are rich sources of fiber 1. Hkkstu esa fo|eku js'kk dkcksZgkbMsV dk cuk gks
in diet. 2. Hkkstu esa eksVs vuktksa esa js'kk izpqj ek=kk esa
3. Rice has the highest fiber content. gSA
Code : 3. pkoy esa js'ks dh lokZf/d ek=kk gksrh gSA
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only dwV%
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
45. Which of the following state government (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
launched Maha Digital Locker?
(A) Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu
45. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl jkT; ljdkj us egkfMftVy ykWdj
(C) Maharashtra (D) Gujarat vkjaHk fd;k\
46. Which of the following agencies of ISRO is (A) dsjy (B) rfeyukMq
not correctly matched with its location? (C) egkjk"V (D) xqtjkr
(A) Vikram Sarabhai - Thiruvanathapuram 46. bljks(ISRO) dh fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh ,tsalh viuh
Space Centre vofLFkfr ls lgh lqesfyr ugha? gS
(B) Salish Dhawan - Sriharikota (A) foe lkjkHkkbZ varfj{k& dsUnz
fr#vuariqje
Space Centre (B) lrh'k /ou varfj{k dsUnz & Jh gfjdksVk
(SDSC-SHAR)
(C) varfj{k vuqiz;ksx dsUnz& vgenkckn
(C) Space Application - Ahmedabad
Centre (SAC) (D) ekLVj dUVksy iQSflfyVh & caxyw:
(D) Master Control - Bengaluru 47. Hkkjr fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl@fdu lewg (lewgksa) dk
Facility (MCF) lnL; gS?
47. India is a member of which of the following 1. ijek.kq vkiwrdrkZ lewg
group(s)? 2. oklsuj O;oLFkk
1. Nuclear Suppliers Group 3. vkWLVsfy;k lewg
2. Wassenaar Arrangement 4. felkby izkS|ksfxdh fu;a=k.k O;oLFkk
3. Australia Group
4. Missile Technology Control Regime
dwV%
Code: (A) dsoy 4 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 4
(A) 4 only (B) 1 and 4 only (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) None of these 48. Mh,u, :ijs[kk gS%
48. DNA Profiling is : 1. iw.kZ thukse vuqe
1. Full genome sequencing. 2. fdlh O;fDr dh igpku djus dh rduhd
2. Technique to identify individuals dwV%
Code: (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
49. Which of the following is/are correct about 49. bljks(ISRO) ds vkfnR; fe'ku ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr
ISRO's Aditya Mission? esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku ?lgh gS@gSa
1. It is for the study of other planets in the 1. bldk y{; lkSjeaMy ds vU; xzgksas dk v;;u djuk
solar system. gSA
2. Satellite will be launched in Geostationary 2. mixzg dk iz{ksi.k Hkw&LFkSfrd d{kk esa fd;k tk,x
orbit. dwV
Code : (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
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50. Contactless credit card uses which of the 50. laidZ sfMV dkMZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa fdl izk|ksfxdh
following technology? mi;ksx gksrk gS\
(A) Near Field Communication (A) fudVorhZ {ks=kh; lapkj
(B) Microwave Communication
(B) lw{e rjax lapkj
(C) Bluetooth Communication
(D) High-Speed Circuit-Switched Data (C) CywVwFk lapkj
51. WiMax stands for: (D) vfr mPp ldV fLoPM MkVk
(A) Worldwide interoperability for Microwave 51. WiMax ls vfHkizk; gS%
Access. (A) oYMZokbM baVjksisjsfcfyVh iQkWj ekbksoso ,
(B) Wireless Maximum (B) ok;jysl eSDlhee
(C) Wireless international Microwave Access (C) ok;jysl baVjus'kuy ekbksoso ,Dlsl
(D) World wide Microwave Access
(D) oYMZokbM ekbksoso bDlsl
52. Which of the following is not an SI unit?
(A) Meter (B) Kilogram 52. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu
SI bdkbZ ugha gS\
(C) Second (D) Celsius (A) ehVj (B) fdyksxzke
53. Which of the following statement (s) is/are (C) lsdsaM (D) lsfYl;l
correct about super-conductivity? 53. vfrpkydrk ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@
1. It is phenomenon of exactly zero electrical dFku lgh gS@gSa\
resistance. 1. ;g lgh 'kwU; fo|qr izfrjks/ dh ifj?kVuk gSA
2. Expulsion of magnetic fields occurs in
2. vfrpkydksa esa pqacdh; {ks=kksa dk ckgj dh vksj iz
superconductors.
Code: gksrk gSA
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only dwV%
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
54. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
correct about Optical Fibres? 54. izdk'kh; rarqvksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu
1. They are only made up of glass. dFku lgh gS@gS
?
2. They use the principle of Total Internal 1. ;s dsoy dkp ls fuer gksrs gSaA
Reflection.
2. ;s iw.kZ vkarfjd ijkorZu ds flkar mi;ksx djrs gSaA
3. Power can be transmitted through
Optical Fibers. 3. izdk'k rarqvksa ds tfj;s fo|qr iks"k.k fd;k tk ldrk
Code : gSA
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only dwV%
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
55. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (C) dsoy 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
correct? 55. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku ? lgh gS
1. Static friction is generally more than the
1. LFkSfrd ?k"kZ.k lkekU;r% xfrd ?k"kZ.k ls vf/d gks
Kinetic friction.
2. Friction does not depend on the area of gSA
contact. 2. ?k"kZ.k Li'khZ {ks=kiQy ij fuHkZj ugha djrk gSA
Code : dwV%
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
56. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 56. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku ?lgh gS@gSa
correct?
1. vkosf'kr pkyd ds vanj fo|qr {ks=k 'kwU; gksrk gSA
1. The electric field inside the charged
conductor is zero. 2. fo|qr /kjk izokfgr djus okys rkj ds vanj paqcdh;
2. Magnetic field inside the current carrying {ks=k 'kwU; gksrk gSA
wire is zero. dwV%
Code : (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksukssa (D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 57. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdudk mi;ksx tkZ HkaMkj.k ds fy;
57. Which of the following can be used to store
fd;k tk ldrk gS\
energy?
1. Compressed Air 2. Spring 1. laihfMr ok;q 2. fLizax
2. Battery 4. Capacitor 3. cSVjh 4. dSisLVj
Code : dwV%
(A) 4 only (B) 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 4 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 10
Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
58. Arrange the following in order of increasing 58. fuEufyf[kr dks muds c<+rs izfrjks/ ds e esa yxk,%
resistance:
1. pkanh 2. ,Y;wfefu;e
1. Silver 2. Aluminium
3. Gold 4. Copper 3. lksuk 4. rkack
Code : dwV%
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 3, 1, 4, 2
(A) 1] 2] 3] 4 (B) 3] 1] 4] 2
(C) 1, 4, 3, 2 (D) 1, 4, 2, 3
59. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (C) 1] 4] 3] 2 (D) 1] 4] 2] 3
correct about resistance? 59. izfrjks/ ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls
1. Resistance is always inversely lgh gS@gS\
proportional to area.
1. izfrjks/ ges'kk {ks=kiQy ds O;qRekuqikrh gksrk g
2. Resistance is always directly proportional
to length. 2. izfrjks/ ges'kk yackbZ ds vuqekuqikrh gksrk gSA
3. Resistance is always directly proportional 3. izfrjks/ ges'kk rkieku ds vuqekuqikrh gksrk gSA
to temperature.
dwV%
Code :
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) only 3 (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 3
(C) only 1 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 1 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
60. Which of the following statement (s) is/are 60. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh ? ugha gS@gSa
incorrect?
1. Current carrying wire creates a magnetic 1. fo|qr /kjk izokfgr djus okyk rkj pqacdh; {ks=k
field. fuer djrk gSA
2. Two parallel current carrying wire in the 2. ,d gh fn'kk esa fo|qr /kjk izokfgr djus okys nks
same direction attract each other.
Code :
lekukarj rkj ,d&nwljs dks vkd"kr djrs gSaA
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 dwV%
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
61. Which of the following process is not a
(C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
physical process?
(A) Crystallization 61. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu HkkSfrd izf;k
? ugha gS
(B) Sublimation (A) fLVyhdj.k (B) oZikru
(C) Dissolution of sugar in water (C) ty esa 'kdZjk dk fo?kVu
(D) iQyksa dk iduk
(D) Ripening of fruits
62. Which of the following process is used in 62. tkp iz;ksx'kkykvksa esa jDr tkp ds fy;s fuEufyf[kr esa
diagnostic laboratories for blood test? fdl izf;k dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk?gS
(A) Centrifugation (B) Distillation (A) vidsanz.k (B) vklou
(C) Crystallization (D) Chromatography
(C) fLVyhdj.k (D) kseSVksxzkiQh
63. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct? 63. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh dFku gS@gS\
1. Uranium-235 and Uranium - 238 are 1. ;wjsfu;e&235 rFkk ;wjsfu;e&238 leU;wVkWfud g
isotones
2. IywVksfu;e&238 rFkk ;wjsfu;e&236 leLFkkfud gS
2. Plutonium - 238 and Uranium - 236
isotopes. dwV%
Code : (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
64. Which of the following is not correctly
64. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lgh lqesfyr ugha gS\
matched? (A) vk;ksMhu&123 & Fkk;jkW;M mipkj
(A) Iodine - 123 - Thyproid treatment (B) dksckYV&60 & dSalj mipkj
(B) Cobalt - 60 - Treatment of Cancer
(C) iQkLiQksjl&32 & Y;wdhfe;k fpfdRlk
(C) Phosphorus-32 - Leukemia Therapy
(D) Sodium - 24 - Tracing the Blood flow (D) lksfM;e&24 & jDr izokg dk irk yxkuk

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 11


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
65. Match the following chemicals with their 65. fuEufyf[kr jlk;uksa dks muds lkekU; ukeksa ds lkFk lqesf
common name: dhft;s%
Chemical Common Name jlk;u lkekU; uke
A. Sodium Bicarbonate 1. Laughing Gas A. lksfM;e ckbdkcksZusV 1. ykfiQax xSl
B. Sodium Carbonate 2. Baking Soda B. lksfM;e dkcksZusV 2. csfdax lksMk
C. Nitrous Oxide 3. Plaster of Paris C. ukbVl vkWDlkbM 3. IykLVj vkWiQ isfjl
D. Hydrated Calcium 4. Washing Soda D. gkbMsVsM dSfYl;e4. okf'kax lksMk
Sulphate lYiQsV
Code : dwV%
A B C D A B C D
(A) 2 1 4 3
(A) 2 1 4 3 (B) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 4 1 3 (C) 1 2 3 4
(C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 1 3 2 4
(D) 1 3 2 4 66. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa ghfy;e dk mi;ksx ugha gksrk gS\
66. In which of the following Helium is not used? (A) xgjs leqnz esa xksrk[kksjh esa
(A) Deep Sea Diving (B) ukfHkdh; fj,DVj esa
(B) Nuclear Reactor (C) csyu esa xeZ gok ds fy,
(C) Hot Air Balloons (D) foKkiu Nkius ds fy,
(D) Advertisement Signs 67. ihry cukus ds fy;s fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl /krq dk
67. Which of the following metal is used with mi;ksx gksrk? gS
copper in making Brass? (A) lhlk (B) tLrk
(A) Lead (B) Zinc (C) fVu (D) fudsy
(C) Tin (D) Nickel 68. ,Y;wfefu;e ds la'kks/u esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdudh
68. Which of the following are the requirements
vko';drk gksrh?gS
in refining of aluminium?
1. dkcZu 2. k;ksykbV
1. Carbon 2. Cryolite
3. lksfM;e gkbMkWDlkbM 4. fo|qr
3. Sodium Hydroxide 4. Electricity
Code : dwV%
(A) 1 and 4 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 4 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) All of these (C) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 4 (D) mijksDr lHkh
69. Which of the following is endothermic 69. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu "ek'kks"kh vfHkf;k gS\
process? (A) 'olu (B) izdk'k la'ys"k.k
(A) Respiration (B) Photosynthesis (C) vip; (D) ikpu
(C) Catabolism (D) Digestion 70. vkWDVsu la[;k lEc gksrh gS%
70. Octane number is related to: (A) isVksy dh xq.kokk ls
(A) Quality of Petrol (B) Hkkstu dh xq.kokk ls
(B) Quality of Food (C) ok;q dh xq.kokk ls
(C) Quality of Air (D) ty dh xq.kokk ls
(D) Quality of Water 71. ehFksu fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdu xSlksa esa gksrk gS\
71. Methane is present in which of the following
1. ck;ksxSl 2. ,y-ih-th-
gases?
3. lh-,u-th 4. Hkki vaxkj xSl
1. Biogas 2. LPG
3. CNG 4. Water gas
dwV%
Code : (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) dsoy 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 72. vnj[k mnkgj.k gS%
72. Ginger is an example of : (A) :ikarfjr xkB dk (B) :ikarfjr tM+ dk
(A) Modified Node (B) Modified Root (C) :ikarfjr rus dk (D) eq[; tM+ dk
(C) Modified Stem (D) Tap Root 73. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu :ikarfjr ikk
? gS@gSa
73. Which of the following is/are a modified leaf? 1. dSDVl ds dkVs
1. Spines of Cactus 2. eVj ds ikS/s esa yrk,
2. Tendrils in Pea plant dwV%
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 12


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
74. Endoplasmic Reticulum is associated with 74. vrnzZO;h tkfydk fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds la'ys"k.k ls
synthesis of the which of the following? lac gS
?
1. Protein 2. Lipid 1. izksVhu 2. fyfiM
Code:
dwV%
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Arrange the following elements present in (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
earth's crust in increasing order? 75. fuEufyf[kr rRoksa dks HkwiiZVh esa mudh mifLFkfr d
(A) Si, Al, Fe, Ca (B) Ca, Fe, Al, Si ij c<+rs e esa ltkb;s%
(C) Fe, Al, Ca, Si (D) Fe, Ca, Al, Si (A) Si, Al, Fe, Ca (B) Ca, Fe, Al, Si
76. Which of the following will have cellulose as (C) Fe, Al, Ca, Si (D) Fe, Ca, Al, Si
a constituent? 76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fduesa lsY;wykst ,d vo;o ds :i esa
1. Cotton fiber 2. Plant cell wall gksrk?gS
3. Paper 1. dikl js'kk 2. ikni dksf'kdk fHkfk
(A) 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only 3. dkxt
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
dwV%
77. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
(A) dsoy 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
correct?
1. Oxygen travels from atmosphere to lungs (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
due to Diffusion Process. 77. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\
2. Diffusion is to the concentration 1. ok;qeaMy ls iQsiQM+s esa vkWDlhtu folj.k izf;k
gradient. vkrh gSA
Code: 2. folj.k lkUnzrk dk vuqikr gksrk gSA
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only dwV%
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
78. With regards to Environment Impact
(C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
Assessment, which of the following
78. i;kZoj.k izHkko ewY;kadu ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr
statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Public can express their opinion.
dkSu&lk@ls dFku ?lgh gaS
2. Environment Impact Assessment was 1. turk viuk fopkj j[k ldrh gSA
introduced in 1978 with respect to 2. rkih; fo|qr la;a=kksa ds esutj i;kZoj.k izHkko ewY;kd
thermal power plants. dk vkjaHk 1978 esa gqvk FkkA
Code : dwV%
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
79. Which of the following statement (s) is/are 79. i;kZoj.k lqj{kk vf/fu;e ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls
correct about Environment Protection Act?
dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh ? gS@gSa
1. The Act is to implement the decisions of
1. bl vf/fu;e ds vuqlkj ekuo i;kZoj.kksa ij la;qDr
the United Nations. Conference on the
Human Environments. jk"V lEesyuksa ds fu.kZ;ksa dks ykxw djuk gSA
2. The Act was passed in the wake of the 2. ;g vf/fu;e Hkksiky =kklnh dks esutj j[krs gq,
Bhopal Tragedy. ikfjr fd;k x;k FkkA
Code : (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 80. ekWf.V;y izksVkdkWy ds laca/ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuk
80. Which of the following statement (s) is/are? dkSu&lk@ls lgh? gS@gSa
correct related to Montreal Protocol?
1. ;g vkstksu ijr ds laj{k.k ls lEc varjkZ"Vh; laf/
1. It is an international treaty to protect
ozone layer.
gSA
2. India is a signatory to Montreal Protocol. 2. Hkkjr us ekWf.V;y izksVksdkWy dk gLrk{kj fd,A
Code : dwV%
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksukas(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 13


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
regards

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
81. Which of the following statement (s) is/are 81. dkcZu dj ds laca/ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFk
correct about Carbon Tax? lgh gS@gSa\
1. Carbon Tax aims at reducing greenhouse
1. dkcZu dj dk ms'; xzhu gkl xSlksa dks de djuk
gases.
2. India does not levy Carbon Tax. gSA
Code : 2. Hkkjr dkcZu dj mnxzg.k ugha djrk gSA
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only mijksDr dFkuksa esa dkSu&lk@ls lgh ugha gSa\
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
82. Which of the following statements are
correct? (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
1. 2010 was the International Years of 82. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&ls dFku lgh gS\
Biodiversity. 1. 2010 dks varjkZ"Vh; tSo&fofo/rk o"kZ ?kksf"kr f
2. 2001-2010 was the UND Decade on x;k FkkA
Biodiversity.
2. 2001&2010 dks tSo&fofo/rk ij ;w-,u-Mh- n'kd
3. Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary
agreement to Convention on Biological ?kksf"kr fd;k x;k FkkA
Diversity. 3. ukxks;k izksVksdkWy tSo&fofo/rk vfHkle; ls lEc
4. 13th COP to the convention will take place ,d iwjd le>kSrk gSA
in Cancun Mexico. 4. 13ok lh-vks-ih- dSudwu] eSfDldksa esa vk;ksftr fd
Code :
tk,xkA
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only dwV%
83. Which of the following statement is incorrect (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
about Ecomark? (C) dsoy 3 vkSj 4 (D) dsoy 1] 3 vkSj 4
(A) The logo of Ecomark consists of Earthern 83. bdksekdZ ds laca/ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFk
pot.
(B) It is certification mark of BIS
xyr gS?
(C) It is only for Food Products (A) bdksekdZ dk ykxksa feV~Vh dk ?kM+k gSA
(D) The purpose of Ecomark is to increase (B) ;g ch-vkbZ-,l- dk izek.ku fp gSA
consumer awareness (C) ;g dsoy [kk| mRiknksa ds fy;s gSA
84. Which of the following is an example of Mixed (D) bdksekdZ dk ms'; miHkksDrk tkx:drk esa c<+ks
Farming?
(A) Production of Wheat along with pulses
djuk gSA
in same fram. 84. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fefJr f"k dk mnkgj.k
? gS
(B) Production on the Paddy along with (A) ,d gh [ksr esa xsgw vkSj nky dh mit
Grams in same farm. (B) ,d gh [ksr esa /ku vkSj puk dh mit
(C) Production of Wheat along with Cattle (C) ,d gh [ksr esa xsgw dh mit vkSj i'kqpkj.k
rearing in same farm
(D) Production of Wheat along with Pulses (D) fHkUu [ksr esa xsgw vkSj nky dh mit
in different farm. 85. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu iQly p.k ds ?ykHk gS
85. Which of the following are the benefits of the 1. moZjdksa dh de vko';drk
crop rotation? 2. e`nk moZjrk esa o`f
1. Less requirement of Fertilisers
3. lw=kfe dh la[;k esa deh
2. Improvement in Soil fertility
3. Reduction in Nematodes 4. [kj&irjokjksa esa deh
4. Reduction in Weeds dwV%
Code : (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) dsoy 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
86. tSoeaMy fjtoZ ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&l
86. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct in the context of Biosphere Reserve? dFku lgh gS@gSa
?
1. Agriculture is allowed in Buffer Zone 1. e;orhZ {ks=k esa f"k dh vuqefr gSA
2. Core area has been granted legal 2. ewy dks oS/kfud :i ls laj{k.k fn;k x;k gSA
protection. dwV%
Code :
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 14


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
87. Which of the following biomes are found in 87. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&ls thokse Hkkjr esa ik, tkrs gSa
India? 1. vknzZ i.kZikrh 2. dks.k/kjh@'kadq/kjh
1. Moist Deciduous 2. Coniferous
3. Alpine 4. Grassland 3. vYikbu 4. ?kklHkwfe
Code : dwV%
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
88. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
88. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku jk"Vh; gfjr U;k;kfkd
correct in the context of National Green
Tribunal? ds lanHkZ esa lgh ? gS@gSa
1. National Green Tribunal is constitutional 1. jk"Vh; gfjr U;k;kf/dj.k ,d laoS/kfud fudk; gSA
body. 2. ubZ fnYyh esa eq[; ihB ds vfrfjDr jk"Vh; gfjr
2. Apart from Principle bench in New Delhi U;k;kf/dj.k ds 4 {ks=kh; ihB gSaA
National Green Tribunal has 4 regional
benches. dwV%
Code: (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 89. ok;q xq.kokk lwpdkad ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr e
89. Which of the following statements are correct
dkSu&ls dFku lgh ? gSa
about Air Quality Index?
1. It is a color coded scheme. 1. ;g ,d o.kZ vk/kfjr ;kstuk gSA
2. Central Pollution Control Board provides 2. dsanzh; iznw"k.k fu;a=k.k cksMZ fofHkUu 'kgjksa d
the Air Quality Index value for various xq.kokk lwpdkad eku miyC/ djkrk gSA
cities. 3. ;g 8 iznw"kdksa ds Lrj ij fopkj djrk gSA
3. It considers level of 8 pollutants.
4. It divides the air into 6 categories. 4. ;g ok;q dh 6 Jsf.k;ksa esa foHkDr djrk gSA
Code : dwV%
(A) 1 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 4 (B) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
90. Which of the following international
organisational convention is not correctly
90 fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk varjkZ"Vh; laxBu vius eq[;ky
matched with its headquarter? ls lgh lqesfyr ugha? gS
(A) UNFCCC - Bonn, Germany (A) ;w-,u-,iQ-lh-lh-lh- & ckWu] teZuh
(B) IUCN - Paris, France (B) vkbZ-;w-lh-,u & isfjl] izQkl
(C) IPCC - Geneva, Switzerland (C) vkb-ih-lh-lh- & tsusok fLoV~tjyS.M
(D) World Wildlife - Gland, Switzerland
Fund a (D) fo'o oU;tho dks"k & XykaM] fLoV~tjyS.M
91. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 91. vksfyo fjMys leqnzh dNq, ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr es
correct about olive riddle sea turtle? dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh ? gS@gSa
1. They are generally found in tropical 1. ;s lkekU;r% m".kdfVca/h; v{kka'kksa esa ik, tkrs gS
latitudes.
2. lkbV~l ds rgr buds O;kikj ij izfrca/ yxk;k x;k
2. Their trade is banned under CITES.
Code : gSA
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only dwV%
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
92. Which of the following is/are correctly (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
matched?
1. National Environmental Engineering 92. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh lqesfyr
? gS@gS
Research Institute - Nagpur 1. jk"Vh; i;kZoj.kh; vfHk;kaf=kdh vuqla/ku laLFkku
2. Gorewada Wildlife Rehabilitation Centre ukxiqj
- Pune 2. xksjsokM+k oU; tho iquokZl dsUnz & iq.ks
3. Ecology Degradation Management
3. ikfjfLFkfrdh voe.k izca/u laLFkku & dksydkrk
Institute - Kolkata
Code : dwV%
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(C) 1 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 1 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
93. Which of the following city/cities of India 93. fuEufyf[kr esa Hkkjr ds fdu uxj@uxjksa ds uxj fuxe us
has/have inked an agreement vit U.K. to izkfrd vkinkvksa ds nkSjku ukxfjdksa dk lko/ku djus d
start a mobile app for keeping citizens alert fy;s ^eksckby ,si* dh 'kq:vkr djus ds fy;s ;w- ds- ls
during natural calamities? le>kSrk fd;k?gS
1. Delhi 2. Kolkata
1. fnYyh 2. dksydkrk
3. Mumbai 4. Pune
3. eqacbZ 4. iq.ks
Code :
(A) 1 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only dwV%
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 4 (B) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3
94. Consider the following statements in the (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (D) dsoy 2
context of Swachh Survekshan, 2016. 94. ^LoPN losZ{k.k 2016* ds lanHkZ esa fuEukafdr dFku
1. In this survey under Swachh Bharat fopkj dhft;s&
Mission, 70 cities having population 1. LoPN Hkkjr fe'ku ds rgr bl losZ{k.k esa 10 yk[k ls
above 10 lakhs have been included. vf/d tula[;k okys 70 uxjksa dks 'kkfey fd;k x;k
2. This survey aims at assessing the gSA
cleanliness activities in selected cities
2. bl losZ{k.k dk ms'; pqfuank uxjksa ds LoPNrk ifjn`';
and knowing about the efforts of these
cities for better cleanliness through
dk vkdyu djuk rFkk vko';d j.kuhfr;ksa }kjk
necessary strategies. LoPNrk dks csgrj cukus ds :i esa uxjksa ds iz;kl dks
3. From amongst metropolitan cities of the tkuuk FkkA
country only Delhi and Chennai have 3. ns'k ds egkuxjksa esa fliQZ fnYyh vkSj psUubZ gh
succeeded to acquire position in top ten. nl esa LFkku izkIr dj lds gSA
Which of the above statements (s) is/are mijksDr dFkuksa esa dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
correct? (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) dsoy 2 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 95. ^ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k dh yksp* ds fo"k; esa fuEufyf[kr esa
95. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh ? gS@gSa
correct about Elasticity of Ecosystem?
1. blesa ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k fdlh Hkh izdkj dh {kfr dks
1. In this, Ecosystem becomes capable to
tolerate any kind of damage, along with lgu djus esa l{ke gksrk gS lkFk gh ,slh {kfr ls Lo;a
acquires capability for self reconstruction iquuekZ.k dh {kerk Hkh j[krk gSA
from this kind of damage. 2. f"k ifr;k] fuoZuhdj.k] tyok;q ifjorZu rFkk
2. Agriculture methods, Deforestation, vfreRL;u vkfn esa ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k ds yksd dks
Climate change and Over fishing have izHkkfor fd;k x;k gSA
affected the elasticity of ecosystem. dwV%
Code : (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
96. fuEufyf[kr ikS/ksa esa dkSu&ls vko`rchth
(Angiosperms)
96. Which of the following plants are
angiosperms?
gS
?
1. Cuscuta 2. Rafflesia 1. vejcsy 2. jSysf'k;k
3. Loranthus 3. yksjsUFkl
Code : dwV%
(A) 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
97. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 97. tykkUr e`nk (Waterlogged Soil) ds lanHkZ esa
correct in the context of waterlogged soil? fuEufyf[kr esaa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku ? lgh gS@gSa
1. Oxygen is primarily found in this type of 1. ,slh e`nk esa vkWDlhtu dh iz/kurk gksrh gSA
soil.
2. bu e`nkvksa esa ikS/ksa dh tM+s mPp 'olu nj dks izn
2. Roots of plants in these soils shows high
respiration rate.
djrh gSaA
3. Big air vacuoles are found in plants 3. bu e`nkvksa esa mxus okys ikS/ksa esa cM+s&cM
growing up in these soils. ik, tkrs gSaA
Code : dwV%
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 16


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
98. Consider the following statements : 98. fuEufyfy[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. Organic element in the soil is found in 1. de rkieku vkSj vf/d o"kkZ ds dkj.k vf/d pkbZ
deficiency and Nitrogen in much amount
due to low temperature and heavy
ij e`nk esa dkcZfud rRo dh deh rFkk ukbVkstu dh
rainfall at high altitude. vfkdrk gks tkrh gSA
2. Generally Xerophytes are found at low 2. lkekU;r% de pkbZ ij e:n~Hksnh(Xerophytes)
altitude. ikS/s ik, tkrs gSaA
Which of the above statement(s) is/are mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
correct?
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
99. Which of the following statements are correct 99. ^[kk| k`a[kyk* ds fo"k; esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&ls d
in the context of Food Chain? lgh gSa
?
1. There exists strong relation among 1. blesa mRiknd miHkksDrk rFkk vi?kVd ds chp ?kfu"
product consumer and decomposer in it.
2. In it, flow of energy in multi directional
laca/ gksrk gSA
3. Food Chain starts always with green 2. blesa tkZ dk izokg cgqfn'kh; gksrk gSA
plant. 3. fdlh [kk| ka`[kyk dh 'kq:vkr ges'kk gjs ikS/ksa ls
Code: gksrh gSA
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only dwV%
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
100. The structure of Ecological System refers
to: (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
(A) Combination of bio community under 100. ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k dh lajpuk ls rkRi;Z gS
which species, their number biomass, (A) tSo leqnk; dk la;kstu ftlds varxZr tkfr;k] mudh
life cycle and distribution are included. la[;k] tSoHkkj
(Biomass)] thouor vkSj forj.k
(B) Quantity of now living matters and their bR;kfn 'kkfey gSaA
distribution
(B) futhZo inkFkksZa dh ek=kk vkSj mudk forj.kA
(C) Range of gradient of Existence.
(D) All of the above. (C) vfLrRo dh ijkl ;k izo.krkA
(D) mijksDr lHkhA

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009

ROUGH

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009

GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST- 21 (ANSWER KEY)


1. (C) 21. (A) 41. (B) 61. (D) 81. (A)
2. (B) 22. (C) 42. (C) 62. (A) 82. (D)
3. (C) 23. (D) 43. (D) 63. (D) 83. (C)
4. (B) 24. (C) 44. (B) 64. (A) 84. (C)

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5. (B) 25. (A) 45. (C) 65. (B) 85. (D)
6. (D) 26. (C) 46. (D) 66. (D) 86. (B)

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7. (C) 27. (D) 47. (D) 67. (B) 87. (D)
8. (C) 28. (A) 48. (B) 68. (D) 88. (B)
9. (B) 29. (C) 49. (D) 69. (B) 89. (D)
10. (D) 30. (D) 50. (A) 70. (A) 90. (B)
11. (B) 31. (C) 51. (A) 71. (A) 91. (C)
12. (C) 32. (B) 52. (D) 72. (C) 92. (C)
13.
14.
15.
(D)
(C)
(D)
33.
34.
35.
(D)
(C)
(C)
53.
54.
55.
m
(C)
(B)
(C)
73.
74.
75.
(C)
(C)
(B)
93.
94.
95.
(D)
(C)
(C)
16. (C) 76. (D) 96. (D)
36. (C) 56. (A)
17. (B)
Ca
37. (D) 57. (D) 77. (B) 97. (C)
18. (B) 38. (A) 78. (A) 98. (B)
58. (C)
19. (C) 39. (C) 79. (C) 99. (C)
59. (A)
20. (C) 40. (D) 80. (C) 100. (D)
60. (D)
KD

Note : If your opinion differ regarding any answer, please


message the mock test and Question number to 8860330003

Note : If you face any problem regarding result or marks


scored, please contact : 9313111777

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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009

GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST-21 (SOLUTION)


1. (C) 14. (C) In the Constitution of India, the provision
2. (B) India's economic development has not for the distribution of resources has been
been constant in the last decade and it in the form of sharing the tax revenues
has been fluctuating. Hence, statement and through the grants-in-aid. Statement
1 is wrong. Statement 2 is correct, as food (2) and (4) are wrong. There is no such
production has been varying since last few provision in the Constitution of India.
years.

s
15. (D) If the per capita income is increasing in
3. (C) Regular G.D.P. growth has been the economy, then the demand will
considered as the major indicator of definitely increase.

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economic growth in Indian economy. 16. (C)
4. (B) Natural growth rate of population is the 17. (B)
difference between Crude Birth Rate and
18. (B)
Crude Death Rate. 19. (C) If the government ensures that more
5. (B) children are attending schools it will
6. (D) Central government provides 50% of the enhance the education standards and by
total capital of the RRBs through NABARD reducing child malnutrition the health
and RRBs give loans to the cobwebbed
sections of the society. Hence correct
option is (D).
m standard will improve Improving the main
components of HDI-Health education, per
capita income will enhance the Human
7. (C) Statement I is correct. Statement 2 Development Index. Hence statements 2
because ICAR is headquartered in the and 3 are correct.
Ca
New Delhi Statement. 3 is wrong because 20. (C)
the Chairman of the general body is 21. (A) Governor has no power of relaxation or to
Agricultural Minister. Statement is commute any punishment awarded by
correct. Hence (c) is correct answer. court martial. These powers are vested
8. (C) in the President.
9. (B) Statement 1 is incorrect because 22. (C)
Chairman of the National Commission on 23. (D) Andaman and Nicobar island
Population is the Prime Minister. Rest all
Jurisdiction-Calcutta High Court.
KD

three statements correct. 24. (C) Deputy Governor is the executive head of
10. (D) CSR's Idea is applicable to both public and
Andaman & Nicobar islands.
private companies. Payment made by
company to its employees and donation 25. (A)
to a political party is not to be considered 26. (C)
as CSR. Expenditure by the companies on 27. (D)
conservation of Environment is considered 28. (A) The advice given by Supreme Court
as CSR. during examining the charge of
11. (B) It provides employment to almost 90% of misbehaviour on members of Union
the population and contributes to almost Public Service Commission in mandatory
half of the GDP. Currently, various rules for the President.
have been made for the people working 29.(C)
in this sector along with various social 30. (D) National Commission for Scheduled Caste
security measures have been initiated. is a constitutional body. This has been
12. (C) set up by article 338 of the Constitution.
13. (D) Price erosion means the decrease in the Other National Commissions like
value of a product with the time. Physical National Woman Commission (1992)
Capital like machines face continuous National Commission for Minorities
erosion of value. Human capital too (1993) etc, are Statutory Commissions
erodes with the age because the but not the constitutional because these
efficiency goes down. The value of have been set up by the parliament act.
currency also undergoes erosion on the 31. (C) (I)The provision of special officer for
basis of supply and demand. linguistic by seventh constitutional
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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
amendment act, 1956 was made under 46. (D) Master Control Facility - Hassan.
article 350 B of Part XVII of the 47. (D) India is trying to be the member of all 4
Constitution. groups but a present it is member of none
(II) The headquarter of the Commissioner of the groups.
is in Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh). It's 3
48. (B) DNA profiling (also called DNA
regional offices are in Belgaum
fingerprinting, DNA testing, or DNA
(Karnataka), Chennai (Tamil Nadu) and
typing) is forensic technique used to
Kolkata (West Bengal). identify individuals by characteristics of
32. (B) The salary of Comptroller and Auditor their DNA. A DNA profile is a small set of
General of India is same as salary of DNA variations that is very likely to be

s
justice of Supreme court. different in all unrelated individuals there
33. (D) by being as unique to individuals as are

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34. (C) Attorney General of India can participate fingerprints. DNA profiling should not be
in joint session of both the houses of the confused with full genome sequencing.
Parliament without having right to vote. 49. (D) It will be placed into a Low Earth Orbit of
35.(C) National Development Council was 800 km. The ambitious solar mission will
established in August, 1952 on the study the sun's outer most layers, the
recommendations of executive of the corona and the chromosphere. It will
Government of India. collect data about coronal mass ejection,
36. (C) Tenure of Chairman or member of the
National Human Right Commission is for
5 years or upto completion of the age of
70 years.
m which will also yield information for space
weather prediction. After a seven year
long wait, Aditya, India's first dedicated
scientific mission to study the sun, is
37. (D) likely to get a go-ahead from the Prime
Minister's Office (PMO). It will be
Ca
38.(A) Information Commission is not a
constitutional body. launched in 2019-20 timeframe.
50. (A) Contactless payment systems are credit
39. (C)
cards and debit cards, key fobs, cards or
40. (D) 92nd constitutional amendment added
other devices, including smartphones and
Maithali, Boda, Dogari and Santhali
other mobile devices, that use radio-
languages. frequency identification (RFID) or Near
41. (B) Any disciplinary action against All India Field Communication (NFC) for making
Services officers can be taken only by the
secure payments.
Central Government.
KD

51. (A) WiMAX is an OFDMA-based data-centric


42. (C) technology ideal for use in delivering 4G
43. (D) Under article 323(B), both parliament and mobile services. WiMAX is currently
state legislature have right to form being used by operators across the world
tribunal. precisely for this purpose. Today, WiMAX
44.(B) Dietary fiber consists of non-digestible is being embedded in hundreds of devices
Carbohydrates. Dietary fibers are found including USB dongles, MiFi devices,
in fruits, vegetables and whole grains and laptops and cellular phones.
coarse cereals. Dietary fibers are 52. (D) The SI unit of temperature is Kelvin.
important for our digestive health and Celsius is not an SI unit.
regular bowel movements.
Fiber also can improve cholesterol and 53. (C)
blood sugar levels and can assist in 54.(B) Total Internal Reflection (TIR) is the
preventing some diseases such as reflection of the total amount of incident
diabetes, heart disease and bowel cancer. light at the boundary between two media.
Rice have very low level of fiber as it is This can only occur when the light in a
medium with a higher refractive index
mainly made of digestible carbohydrates.
reaches a boundary with a medium of
45. (C) Maha Digital Locker is an online
lower refractive indees. In optical fiber,
repository developed by Government of
Total Internal Reflection principle is used
Maharashtra, where users can upload
to transfer signals. Optical fibers are
important documents that are required
for government jobs and services. Users made up of glass as well as plastics.
must have Aadhaar number to avail this 55. (C) Static friction is a friction between two
facility. or more solid objects that are not moving

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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
relative to each other. Kinetic (or 72. (C) In some plants, stems are modified to
dynamic) friction occur when two objects perform different functions. Underground
are moving relative to each other and rub stems of potato, ginger, turmeric,
together. zaminkand, colocasia are modified to
Friction is independent of the area of store food in them.
contact. 73. (C) Leaves are often modified to perform
56. (A) functions other than photosynthesis.
57. (D) Compressed air and spring have potential They are converted into tendrils for
energy Battery and Capacitor have climbing as in peas or into spines for
defence as in cacti.

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electric energy.
The fleshy leaves of onion and garlic store
58. (C)
food. In some plants such as Australian
59. (A) Resistance is directly proportional to the acacia, the leaves are small and short-

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length and indirectly proportional to the
lived.
area. Resistance has no fix relationship
with temperature. In conductors, 74. (C) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum is
frequently observed in the cells actively
resistance increases with increase in
involved in protein synthesis and
temperature whereas in semiconductors
secretion. They are extensive and
and insulators, resistance decreases with
continuous with the outer membrane of
increase in temperature.
60. (D) Parallel currents flowing in same
direction attract and antiparallel currents
repel.
m
75. (B)
the nucleus. The smooth endoplasmic
reticulum is the synthesis of lipid.

76. (D) Plant cell walls are made up of cellulose.


61.(D) Ripening of fruits involves various
Paper made from plant pulp and cotton
chemical reactions and so is not a
Ca
fibre is cellulosic.
physical process.
77. (B) Oxygen travels from atmosphere to Lungs.
62. (A) Centrifugation is a process used to
separate or concentrate materials Because of the pressure gradient.
78. (A) Environment Impact Assessment (EIA)
suspended in a liquid medium.
was introduced in India in 1978 with
63. (D) Isotopes have same number of protons.
respect to river valley projects. Later the
U-235 and U-238 are isotopes. Isotones
EIA legislation was enhanced.
have same number of neutrons U-236 and
Environment Impact Assessment is now
Plutonium-238 are Isotones.
mandatory for 30 categories of projects.
KD

64. (A) Iodine-123 is radioactive isotope of Iodine


79. (C) Environment Protection Act, 1986 is Act
and is used for Brain imaging. enacted by Parliament of India. In the
65. (B) wake of the Bhopal Tragedy, the
66. (D) Helium is mixed with oxygen in the Government of India enacted the
cylinder for deep sea diving. Helium is Environment Protection Act of 1986 under
used to keep nuclear reactors cool. Article 253 of the Constitution. The
67. (B) purpose of the Act is to implement the
68. (D) decisions of the United National
Conference of the Human Environments.
69. (B) In thermodynamics, the term exothermic
They relate to the protection and
process describes a process or reaction
improvement of the human environment
that releases energy from the system,
and the prevention of hazards to human
usually in the form of heat, also in a form
beings, other living creatures, plants and
of light.
property.
70. (A) Octane number is a standard measure of
80. (C) The Montreal Protocol (A protocol to the
the performance of an engine or aviation
Vienna Convention for the protection of
fuel , In broad terms, fuels with higher
the ozone layer) is an international treaty
octane rating are used in high
which aims at protection of ozone layer
performance petrol engines that require
by phasing out the production of
higher compression ratios. numerous substances that are
71. (A) LPG mainly contains Butane. Water gas responsible for ozone depletion. It was
is obtained from opium and used agreed on 16 th September, 1987 and
medicinally to relieve pain. entered into force on January, 1989.
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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
81. (A) A carbon tax is a tax levied on the carbon 88.(B) National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a
content of fuels. India has been levying statutory body and is established through
st
Carbon Tax on Coal since I July, 2010. NGT Act, 2010.
The rate has been increased to ` 200 per NGT has 5 Benches - Principle Bench in
tonne in the Budget 2015-16. Few New Delhi and 4 regional benches each
countries like United States, Russia, and in Pune, Bhopal Chennai, Kolkata.
China are against Carbon Tax. 89. (D) The Ministry for Environment, Forests
and Climate Change launched The
82. (D) 2010-2020 is the UN Decade on
National Air Quality Index (AQI) in New
Biodiversity Nagoya Protocol provides a Delhi in 2014 under the Swachh Bharat
transparent legal framework for the fair

s
Abhiyan. It is outlined as One Number
and equitable sharing of benefits arising One Colour-One Description for the
out of the utilization of genetic resources common man to judge the air quality

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which is one of the objective of CBD. within his vicinity. The AQI considers
83. (C) Ecomark is a certification mark issued eight pollutants (PM10, PM25, SO2, CO, O3,
by the Bureau of Indian Standards (B.I.S.) NH3 and Pb)
to products conforming to a set standards There are six AQI categories, namely
aimed at the least impact on the Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted,
ecosystem. The marking scheme was Poor, Very Poor and Severe.
started in 1991. Ecomark is for a few hold 90. (B) IUCN's Headquarter is located at Gland,
and consumer products.
84. (C) The use of a single farm for multiple
purposes, as the growing of cash crops or
m91. (C)
Switzerland.
Olive Ridley turtle is a medium sized
species of sea turtle found in tropical
waters, primarily in the Pacific and
the raising of livestock is called as mixed
Indian Oceans. Although they are found
farming.
Ca
in abundance but their population has
85. (D) been declined by half. The coast of Odisha
86. (B) The core zone is fully protected and in India is the largest mass nesting site
natural area of the Biosphere Reserve for them.
which is least disturbed by human 92. (C) Gorewada Wildlife Rehabilitation
activities. It is legally protected, Centre- Nagpur
ecosystem in which entry is not allowed Ecology Degradation Management
except with permission for some special Institute-Delhi
purpose. Destructive sampling for 93. (D)
KD

scientific investigations is prohibited. 94. (C) This survey includes 73 cities having
The buffer zone surrounds the core zone population above 10 lakhs. Mysore was
and is managed to accommodate a greater selected as the most cleanest city
variety of resource use strategies, whereas New Delhi got fourth position
research and educational activities. The and greater Mumbai got tenth position
transition zone, the outermost part of the from amongst top 10.
Biosphere Reserve, is an area of active 95. (C)
cooperation between the reserve 96. (D) All the given plants are angiosperms, they
management and the local people, lack chlorophyll. All these are parasitic
wherein activities like settlements are plants.
conducted in harmony with the 97. (C) Due to much water oxygen does not enter
conservation goals. in water logged soil, consequently roots
87. (D) A biome is large ecosystem where plants, of plants become unable to respiration.
Plants growing up in these soils carry air
animals, insects, and people live in a
certain type of climate. Most deciduous vacuole to store air.
forests are mostly found in Eastern India 98. (B) Organic elements in the soil are
increased, Nitrogen increases and their
and peninsular India's western found in
pH value decreases due to low
Eastern India and peninsular India's
temperature and heavy rainfall at high
western Ghat. Coniferous forests are
altitude.
found in middle Himalayas. Alpine biome
99. (C) Flow of energy in any food chain is always
is found in upper himalayas. Grasslands
unidirectional.
are found in Terai-Duar Region in the
100.(D)
base of Himalayas and many other areas.
(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 5

Compiled By Abhijeet Singh


2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009

GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST -22


1. Consider the following statements : 1. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
1. A large part of Africa lies in the Southern
1. vizQhdk dk ,d cM+k Hkkx nf{k.kh xksykZ esa vkrk
Hemisphere.
2. North America is the fourth largest 2. mkjh vesfjdk nqfu;k dk pkSFkk cM+k egk}hi gSA
continent of the world. 3. vVykaf.Vd egklkxj dh rV js[kk cgqr nkarsnkj gSA
3. The coastline of Atlantic Ocean is highly mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
indented.
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 3
Which of the statements above is/are
correct? (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 only (B) 3 only 2. Hkw&leqnz forj.k ;k fo'o ds egk}hiksa dh fLFkfr rFkk izeq
(C) 1 & 2 only (D) 1, 2 & 3
egklkxj izHkkfor djrs gSa&
2. The land-sea distribution or the positions of
the world's continents and major oceans (A) izeq[k nkc ifV~V;k tks fd lkekU; ok;qe.Myh; ifjlapj.k
influences: ls fodflr gksrh gSaA
(A) The major pressure belts that develop (B) e; v{kka'kh; pokrksa dk fodkl] /zqoh; rFkk miks".k
from the general circulation of the
atmosphere
dfVcU/h; ok;q jkf'k;ksa ds vfHklj.k ij
(B) The development of the mid-latitude (C) (A) vkSj(B) nksuksa
cyclonic depressions, at the convergence (D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
zone between polar and subtropical air 3. vf/d pkbZ ij tkus ls ekuo LokLF; ij fuEUfyf[kr esa
masses
(C) Both (A) and (B) ls fdl ij izHkko iM+sxk\
(D) None of above 1. gkbiksfLd;k 2. gkbiksFkfeZ;k
3. Which among the following are related to 3. ,Fksjksflysjksfll 4. izQkWLVfoV~l
high altitude effects on human health?
5. iQsiQM+ksa esa lwtu
1. Hypoxia 2. Hypothermia
3. Atherosclerosis 4. Frostbites (A) 1, 3 dsoy 4 (B) 1, 2, 3 vkSj5
5. Pulmonary edema (C) 2, 3, 4 vkSj5 (D) 1, 2, 4 vkSj5
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2, 3 and 5 4. C;wiQksVZ iSekus ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhf
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 4 and 5
4. Consider the following regarding Beaufort 1. ;g ok;q esa mifLFkr ueh dh ek=kk dks ekirk gSA
scale 2. C;wiQksVZ la[;k ok;q cy dks ns[krh gS tSls 2 eUn iou
(1) It is used to measure the amount of ds fy;s rFkk 12 gjhdsu ds fy;sA
moisture present in the winds
fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
(2) Beaufort number shows the force of wind
such as 2 for before, 12 for hurricane (A) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(B) dsoy 1
etc (C) u rks 1 vksj u gh (D)
2 dsoy 2
Which of the above statements is/are true? 5. ^Hkkjr LVst mRltZu ekud* vuqiz;ksx ds ckjs esa fuEu
(A) Both 1 and 2 (B) 1 only
(C) Neither 1 nor 2 (D) 2 only
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
5. Which of the following is/are regarding 1. ;g Bs-V ekudksa dks 1vizSy2020 ls f;kfUor
Bharat Stage Emission Norms applicable in djsxkA
India? 2. orZeku esa BS-IV
ge dk vuqlj.k dj jgs gSa rFkk
1. India will implement BS-V norms from
April 1, 2020. vizSy2017 rd lEiw.kZ Hkkjr dks blds varxZr
2. At present, we are following BS-IV and 'kkfey fd;k tk;sxkA
by April 2017 the entire country will be lgh fodYi pqfu;s&
covered under this.
(A) dsoy 1
Choose the correct options:
(A) 1 only (B) dsoy 2
(B) 2 only (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 only (D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
(D) None of the above
Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 1
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
6. Consider the following statements about the 6. ewY; fLFkrhdj.k (PSF)
dks"k ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij
Prise Stabilisation Fund (PSF). fopkj dhft,&
1. It has been set up by Ministry of
1. ;g f"k eU=kky; }kjk LFkkfir fd;k x;k gSA
Agriculture.
2. The Corpus Fund for the PSF is deposited 2. PSF ds fy;s dks"k /u dh Hkkjr dh lafpr fuf/ esa
in the Consolidated Fund of India. tek fd;k tkrk gSA
3. The corpus fund is utilised for the PSF 3. ;g dks"k /u tu vko';drk gksrh gSPSF ;kstuk ds
scheme whenever need arises. fy;s iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA
Which of the statements above is/are mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSaA
correct?
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) None of the above (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (D) mi;qZDr esa dksbZ ugha
7. Consider these statements about Carbon 7. fo|qr vkx ds nkSjku vfXu'kkedksa esa dkcZu MkbZ vkW
Dioxide being used as a fire extinguisher ds iz;ksx ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
during electric fire. 1. dkWcZu MkbZ vkWDlkbM vkWDlhtu ls gYdh gSA
1. CO2 is lighter than oxygen.
2. ;g fo|qr ;a=kksa dks gkfu ugha igqpkrhA
2. It does not harm the electrical
equipment. 3. cSfdax lksMk dk Hkh iz;ksx vfXu'kked ds :i esa iz;ksx
3. Baking Soda is also used a fire fd;k tkrk gSA D;ksafd vkx ds lehi jlk;u dkcZuMkbZ
extinguisher became near the fire, these vkWDlkbM dks cq>k nsrs gSaA
chemicals give off CO2. mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
Which of the following statements given (A) 1] 2 rFkk 3 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
above is/are correct?
(C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) dsoy 2
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 2 only 8. fuEu bZ/uksa esa ls lgh e esa dSyksjh eku dks n'kkZ,\
8. Which among the following is correctly (A) gkbMkstu
>LPG>Mhty>ck;ksxSl >dks;yk
arranged fuel by decreasing order of calorific (B) Mhty>gkbMkstu
>LPG>dks;yk >ck;ksxSl
value? (C) gkbMkstu
>LPG>ck;ksxSl>dks;yk>Mhty>dks;yk
(A) Hydrogen>LPG>Diesel>Biogas>Coal
(D) LPG>ck;ksxSl>dks;yk>Mhty>gkbMkstu]
(B) Diesel>Hydrogen>LPG>Coal>Biogas
(C) Hydrogen>LPG>Biogas>Diesel>Coal 9. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,
(D) LPG>Biogas>Coal>Diesel>Hydrogen 1. oYduhdj.k og izf;k gS ftlesa lYiQj feykdj
9. Consider the following statements: izkfrd jcj dks yEcs le; rd pyus ds fy;s cuk;k
1. Vulcanization is process for converting tkrk gSA
natural rubber into more durable 2. xSYouhdj.k esa LVhy ;k yksgs ij laj{kd pkanh dk ysi
materials by addition of sulfur.
fd;k tkrk gSA
2. Galvanization process of applying a
protective silver coating to steel or iron. 3. xSYouhdj.k yksgs ij tax ls cpko ds fy;s dh tkrh
3. Galvanization is used to prevent rusting gSA
of iron. mi;qZDr esa dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
Which of the above statement(s) is/are (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
correct?
(C) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
10. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
10. Consider the following statements : 1. Dyksjhu xSl dk ihyk] gjk jax gksrk gSA
1. Chlorine gas has a yellow green colour. 2. yksjhu xSl ihyh gksrh gSA
2. Flourine gas is pale yellow 3. vf; xSlsa tSls ghfy;e] fuvksu] vkWxZu vkfn jaxghu
3. Noble gas like He, Ne, Aretc are colourless xSls 9 gSaA
gases
4. ukbVkstu gYdh uhyh gksrh gSA
4. Nitrogen is light blue
Which of the above statements are true? dkSu ls dFku lR; gSa&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) dsoy 3 vkSj 4 (D) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 4
Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 2
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
11. Which of the following pairs are correctly 11. dkSu ls ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa&
matched? 1. ,aVh Mafix M~;wVh % ;fn vk;krksa dks ljdkj }kjk
1. Anti dumping duty : If imports are
subsidized by lfClMh nh tk;s
Government 2. dkm.Vj osfyax 'kqYd;fn %dEiuh lkekU; ewY;
2. Counter Vailing duty : If a company ls de nke ij csprh gSA
sells below nor-
3. laj{kd rjhds % ?kjsyw m|ksx dks vk;kr jsys
mal value
3. Safeguard measures : To protect do- ls j{kk djuk
mestic industry fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;s&
from import (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
surge
(C) dsoy 3 (D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
Select the correct answer using code given
below. 12. m|hfIr ds lUnHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 1. fdlh inkFkZ ds ijek.kqvksa ls mPp rki ij mkstuk ls
(C) 3 only (D) None of the above izdk'k ds mRltZu dks m|hfIr dgrs gSaA
12. Consider the following statements regarding
2. ,d m|hfIr cYo ds VXlVu fiQykses.V dks xeZ djus
incandescence:
1. The emission of light from a substance, ij mRiUu izdk'k esa dbZ vko`fk;k gksxh gSa rFkk blf
whose atoms are excited by high ;g liQsn izrhr gksrh gSA
temperature, is called incandescence. 3. lw;Z Hkh m|hfIr dk ,d mnkgj.k gSA
2. The light from the heated tungsten
filament of an incandescent bulb consist
mi;qZDr esa dkSu&lk@ls dFku vlR; gS@gSaa&
of many frequencies and therefore it (A) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (B) dsoy 1
appears white. (C) mi;qZDr lHkh (D) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
3. The sun is also an example of 13. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku ?xyr gS
incandescence.
(A) thjks okV ds cYc dk fuekZ.k O;ogkfjd :i esa
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect? vlEHko gSA
(A) 2 and 3 only (B) 1 only (B) fo|qr cYcksa esa ukbVkstu xSl dks Hkjk tk ldrk gSA
(C) All of the above (D) 1 and 3 only (C) bldh mPp pkydrk ds dkj.k cYc ds fiQykesUV esa
13. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) Construction of a zero watt bulb is VaxLVu dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA
practically impossible (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ughaA
(B) Nitrogen gas can be filed in electric bulbs 14. fuEufyf[krG7 ns'kksa esa ls iznw"k.k izfr'kr esa vizoklh
(C) Tungsten is used as the filament of the tula[;k dks c<+rs e esa O;ofLFkr dhft,%&
bulb due to its high conductivity
(D) None of the above 1. ;w-,l-,s 2. dukMk
14. Arrange the following G7 countries in terms 3. teZuh 4. izQkUl
of increasing immigrants to population 5. ;wds
percentage. fn;s x;s dwV ls lgh mkj pqus&
1. U.S.A 2. Canada
3. Germany 4. France (A) ;wds >izQkal
>teZuh
>dukMk >;w-,l-,s
5. U.K (B) izQkUl>;wds
>;w-,l-,s
>dukMk >teZuh
Select the answer from below. (C) izQkUl>;wds
>;w-,l-,s
>teZuh>dukMk
(A) U.K<France<Germany<Canada<U.S.A (D) ;wds >izQkUl
>teZuh>;w-,l-,s
>dukMk
(B) France<U.K<U.S.A<Canada<Germany
(C) France<U.K<U.S.A<Germany<Canada 15. iz/kuea=kh xzke lM+d ;kstuk ds lanHkZ esaa fuEufyf[kr d
(D) U.K.<France<Germany<U.S.A<Canada ij fopkj djsa%
15. Consider the following statements about 1. ;g dk;Ze lM+d ,oa ifjogu ea=kky; ds varxZr
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojnan. vkrk gSA
1. It comes under the Ministry and Road
Transport and Highways. 2. bldk dk;Ze ds lanHkZ esa] gkbZ&LihM (HSD) Mhty
2. 50% cess on High Speed Diesel (HSD) is ij yxk;k tkus okyk vf/'ks"k egRoiw.kZ gSA
50%
earmarked for this programme. 3. bldk izeq[k y{;2022 rd lHkh ekSleksa esa dk;Zjr
3. It aims to achieve rural connectivity
through all weather roads by 2022.
lM+dksa ds }kjk xzkeh.k igqp dks c<+kuk gS]
Choose the correct option from below? dwV ds lgk;rk ls lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa%
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 ,oa2 (B) dsoy 2
(C) 3 only (D) All of the above (C) dsoy 3 (D) mijksDr lHkh
Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 3
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
16. The Kudumbashree program by the Kerala 16. dsjy ljdkj }kjk izkjaHk dqnqEcJh dk;Ze mDr {ks=k e
government works in the area of:-
dk;Zjr gS%
1. Reducing maternal mortality.
2. Providing micro credit 1. ekr`Ro e`R;qnj dks ?kVkus ds fy,
3. Enhancing entrepreneurship 2. lw{e lk[k eqgS;k djokus ds fy,
4. Providing housing 3. m/e'khyrk dks c<+kok nsus ds fy,
Select the correct answer from the options
4. vkokl iznku djus ds fy,
given below?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only dwV ds lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsaA
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only (A) dsoy 1 ,oa2 (B) dsoy 1, 3 ,oa4
17. Which of the following schemes has an (C) dsoy 2 ,oa3 (D) dsoy 1, 2 ,oa4
impact on women empowerment?
1. ICDS 2. ASIDE
17. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ^efgyk l'kfDrdj.k* ij izHkko
3. Swadhar 4. Ujjawala Mkyrs gS%&
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. ^vkbZlhMh,l* 2. ^,,lvkbZMhbZ*
given below. 3. Lok/kj 4. mTtoyk
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
dwV ds lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa%
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (A) dsoy 1, 2 ,oa3 (B) dsoy 1, 3 ,oa4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 2, 3 ,oa4 (D) 1, 2, 3 ,oa4
18. Post implementation of 14 th Finance 18. 14osa fok vk;ksx ds f;kUo;u ds i'pkr~ fuEufyf[kr esa
Commission recommendations, which of the
following schemes have not been delinked ls dkSu&lh Ldhe dks dsUnz leFkr lwph ls fudkyk x;k
from Central support? gS%&
1. Backward Region Grant Fund (BRGF) 1. fiNM+k {ks=k vuqnku (BRGF)dks"k
2. National e-Governance plan 2. jk"Vh; bZ&xousZl Iyku
3. Mid Day Meal scheme
4. Modernisation of police forces 3. e;kgu Hkkstu ;kstuk
Select the correct answer using the codes 4. iqfyl cyksa dk vk/qfudhdj.k
given below. dwV ds lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa%&
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 3 and 4 only
(A) dsoy 1, 2 ,oa3 (B) dsoy 3 ,oa4
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Which of the following command of Air Force (C) dsoy 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 ,oa4
is not matched properly with their respective 19. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,;j iQkslZ dek.M vius eq[;ky;
headquarter? ls lgh lqesfyr ugha gS\
Command Headquarter
dek.M eq[;ky;
(A) South Western
Command Gandhinagar (A) nf{k.k if'pe dek.M - xka/huxj
(B) Eastern (B) iwohZ dek.M & dksydkrk
Command Kolkata (C) j[k&j[kko dek.M & ukxiqj
(C) Maintenance
(D) nf{k.k dek.M & f=k:ouariqje
Command Nagpur
(D) Southern 20. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa&
Command Thiruvantapuram 1. fo'kk[kk fn'kkfunsZ'k fofHkUu izf;kRed fn'kkfunsZ'
20. Consider the following statements:- leqPp; gS ftldk iz;ksx ;kSu 'kks"k.k ds fLFkfr;ksa esa
1. Vishaka Guidelines were a set of
procedural guidelines for use in India in
gksrk gSA
case of sexual harassment. 2. bu fn'kkfunsZ'kksa dh ?kks"k.kk loksZPp U;k;ky; ds
2. These guidelines were promulgated by dh xbZA
the Supreme Court. 3. efgykvksa dk dk;Z{ks=k ij ;kSu 'kks"k.k - vfkfu;e
3. The Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and 2013 (izfrca/] vojks/] f'kdk;r) us fo'kk[kk funsZ'kksa
Redressal) Act, 2013 superseded the dk LFkku ys fy;kA
Vishaka Guidelines. mijksDr esa ls dkSu ?lR; gS
Which of the statements are correct? (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 1 ,oa2
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 1 ,oa3 (D) 1, 2 ,oa3
Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 4
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
21. Consider the following statements regarding 21. Hkkjr esa vuqlwfpr tkfr ds dY;k.k ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[k
welfare of Schedule Castes in India.
dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa&
1. Article-338 of the Indian Constitution
has provision for National and State 1. Hkkjr ds lafo/ku ds vuqPNsn
-338 ds varxZr jk"Vh;
Commission for Schedule Castes. ,oa jkT; Lrjh; vuqlwfpr tkfr vk;ksx dh O;oLFkk
2. Chairman of National Scheduled Caste gSA
Commission has tenure of 3 years.
Select the correct answer using codes given 2. jk"Vh; vuqlwfpr tkfr vk;ksx ds v;{k dk dk;Zdky
below. 3 o"kZ gksrk gS_
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 fn;s x;s dFku ls lgh mkj pqfu;s&
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
22. Which of the following can be associated
judicial activitism? (C) 1 ,oa2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 uk gh2
1. Democratization of judicial system 22. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu U;kf;d lf;rk ls lacaf/r
? gS
2. Overburdening of judiciary 1. fo'okl ds Lora=krk dh lqj{kk
3. Violation of principle of separation of
2. O;fDrxr xfjek dh lqj{kk
power
Select the correct answer using codes given 3. Hkkjr dk ,d la?kh; iztkrkaf=kd x.kjkT; gksuk
below? dwV ds lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa%&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(A) dsoy 1 ,oa2 (B) dsoy 1 ,oa3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
23. Which of the following is correct? (C) dsoy 2 ,oa3 (D) 1, 2 ,oa3
1. The 1st Five Year Plan concentrated on 23. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk ?lR; gS
industrial development and neglected 1. izFke iapo"khZ; ;kstuk ds vkS|ksfxd fodkl ij ;ku
agriculture.
2. The 2nd Five Year Plan concentrated on
fn;k rFkk f"k dh vis{kk dhA
agriculture and neglected industries. 2. f}rh; iapo"khZ; ;kstuk ds f"k ij ;ku fn;k rFkk
3. Removal of poverty was the foremost m|ksx dh mis{kk dhA
objective of 5th Five Year Plan. 3. xjhch gVkvksa ikapoh ;kstuk dk eq[; ms'; FkkA
Select the correct answer using codes given
below. fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only (A) 1, 2 vkSj 3 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
(C) 3 only (D) None of above (C) dsoy 3 (D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
24. Which of the following statements regarding
President's rule are correct?
24. jk"Vifr 'kklu ds ckjs esa dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa
1. Proclamation of President's rule must be 1. jk"Vifr 'kklu dh mn~?kks"k.kk dk vuqeksnu laln }kjk
approved by Parliament within two nks eghus ds vanj fd;k tkuk vko';d gSA
months of Proclamation. 2. jkT;iky jk"Vifr 'kklu ds le; v;kns'k tkjh dj
2. Governor can issue ordinances during
President's rule. ldrk gSA
3. Maximum duration of President rule is 3. jk"Vifr 'kklu dh vf/dre vof/ rhu o"kZ gSA
three years. fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
Select the correct answer using codes given
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj3
below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj
3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 25. vf[ky Hkkjrh; lsokvksa ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFk
25. Which of the following statement regarding lR; gS?
All India Services are correct?
1. A bill creating new All India Services can 1. vf[ky Hkkjrh; lsokvksa ds l`tu laca/h fo/s;d dsoy
be introduced in Rajya Sabha only. jkT;&lHkk esa yk;k tk ldrk gSA
2. The bill creating All India services has to 2. vf[ky Hkkjrh; lsokvksa laca/h fo/s;d lk/kj.k cgqer
be passed by simple majority.
Select the correct answer using codes given
ls ikfjr gks ldrk gSA
below. fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj u gh
2
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26. The Gahirmatha Wildlife sanctuary is 26. xkfgjekFkk oU; tho vH;kj.; fdlds fy;s izfl gS\
famous for :
(A) Being the nesting beach for Olive Ridley (A) vkWfyo fjMos dNqvksa dk vkJ; LFkyA
sea turtles. (B) lqes| iztkfr Mqxkaxk dk iztuu LFkyA
(B) Being the breeding ground for the
(C) ,dek=k LFkku Hkkjr esa tgk ij 'khrdky esa lkbcsfj;u
vulnerable species-dugong.
(C) Being the only place in India where su vkrs gSA
Siberian crane visits during winter (D) Hkkjr esa ,dek=k LFkku tgk ij ladVkiUu fiXeh gkW
months.
(D) Beings the only place in India where the ik;s tkrs gSaA
critically endangered pygmy hog is found. 27. xq#Roh; rjaxksa ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
27. Consider the following statements regarding
gravitational waves: 1. xq#Roh; rjaxsa fdlh Hkh nzO;eku okys d.k ls mRiUu gk
1. Gravitational waves can be produced by ldrh gSA
any particle with mass.
2. xq#Roh; cyksa dh 'kfDr lHkh ewy cyksa esa lokZf/d
2. Strength of a gravitational force is the
highest among all fundamental forces. gksrh gSA
Which of the above statements are dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
CORRECT?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) None of these (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) dksbZ ugha
28. Indian government has recently released the
state of Forest Report 2015. Consider the 28. Hkkjrh; ljdkj us gky gh esa jkT; ou 2015
fjiksVZ&
tkjh
following statements. dh gSA fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%&
1. This is the 14th report in the series.
1. ;g ka`[kyk14 dh
oha fjiksVZ gSA
2. It is based on interpretation of LISS III
sensor data of indigenous Resourcesat - 2. ;g fons'kh fjiksVZ
II mixzg ds
LISS III lsalj vkadM+k
II satellite. vk/kfjr O;k[;k gSA
3. It says that India's forest and tree cover
has decreased by 5081 sq km 3. blds vuqlkj Hkkjr dk ou {ks=k
5081 fdeh-2 de gks
4. The report states that the majority of the x;k gSA
increase in forest cover has been
4. fjiksVZ ds vuqlkj vf/dka'k ou o`f [kqys ouksa fo'ks"kd
observed in open forest category mainly
outside forest areas ckg~; ou {ks=kksa esa gqbZ gSA
Which of the above statement (s) is/are mi;qZDr esa ls vlR; dFku crkb,%&
incorrect?
(A) 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj
3
29. Consider the following statements:
1. Komagata Maru was a ship bound to 29. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%&
Canada from Hong-Kong carrying 1. dkekxkVk ek: ,d tgkt Fkk tksfd iatkc ls Hkkjrh;ksa
Indians from Punjab.
dks ysdj gkaxdkax ls dukMk tk jgk FkkA
2. The Komagata Maru incident amplifies
the activities of the Ghadar party, an 2. dkekxkVk ek: ?kVuk us xnj ikVhZ dh xfrfof/;ksa dks
extremist organisation. xnj ikVhZ ds :i esa c<+k fn;kA
3. Gandhi undertook a fast unto death in
India until Indians board the Komagata 3. tc rd dkekxkVk ek: tgkt dk dukMk esa izos'k
Maru ship were permitted entry into ugha gks x;k egkRek xka/h us vkej.k vu'ku j[kkA
Canada.
4. dkexkVk ek: ?kVuk ls vdkyh&vkUnksyu mRiUu gqvk
4. The Komagata Maru incident resulted in
the Akali movement. fuEu esa ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
Select the correct answer from the following:
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj 4
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30. Consider the following statements about 30. Hkkjr esa VakltsaMjksa rFkk muds vf/dkjksa ds ckjs e
transgenders and their rights in India
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%&
1. Transgender people as a group are
recognised in India as having a third 1. VkaltsaMj yksxksa dks ,d lewg ds :i esa Hkkjr esa r`rh
gender. fyax ds :i esa igpku nh x;h gSA
2. Transgender people are provided OBC 2. laln }kjk dkuwu ls VkaltsaMj yksxks dks f'k{kk esa
OBC
status in education and employment
reservation in India by law from the
ntkZ fn;k x;k gS rFkk jkstxkj esa vkj{k.k fn;k x;k gSA
Parliament. 3. mPpre~ U;k;ky; ds vuqlkj] VkaltsaMj 'kCn esa] iq#"
3. In India according to the SC, the term lefyaxh efgyk lefyaxh rFkk mHk;fyaxh dh 'kkfey
transgender does not include gay, lesbian ugha fd;k tkrk gSA
and bisexual people.
4. Section 377 of IPC has been struck down 4. LGBT leqnk;ksa ds vf/dkjksa dks ekU;rk nsus gsrq
by the Supreme Court in recognition of mPpre~ U;k;ky; }kjk Hkkjrh; naM lafgrk ds rgr
the rights of the LGBT community. kkjk
377 dks lekIr dj fn;k x;k gSA
Select the correct answer from the following.
fuEu esa ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj3
31. Which organisation publishes the Freedom (C) dosy 2, 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj4
of Press Index? 31. dkSu&lk laxBu izsl LorU=krk lwpdkad izdkf'kr ? djrk gS
(A) Reporters Sans Frontieres (RSF)
(A) fjiksVZl lUl izQkf.V;lZ
(RSF)
(B) International Freedom of Expression
Exchange(IFEX) (B) b.Vjus'kuy izQhMe vkWiQ ,Dlizs'ku ,Dlpstu
(IFEX)
(C) International Press Institute (IPI) (C) b.Vjus'kuy izsl bULVhV~;wV
(IPI)
(D) Freedom House (FH) (D) izQhMe gkml (FH)
32. Consider the following statements
1. Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty 32. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa%
(CTBT) is a multilateral treaty whose 1. O;kid ukfHkdh; ijh{k.k izfrcU/(CTBT)
lfU/ ,d
objective is to prevent the spread of cgqi{kh; lfU/ gS ftldk y{; ukfHkdh; gfFk;kjksa ds
nuclear weapons, to promote cooperation iQSyko dks jksduk] ukfHkdh; tkZ ds 'kkafriw.kZ mi
in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy,
achieving nuclear disarmament. esa lg;ksx dks c<+kok nsuk rFkk fu%'kL=khdj.k dks i
2. India, Pakistan and Israel did not ratified djuk gSA
both Non-Proliferation Treaty and 2. Hkkjr] ikfdLrku rFkk btjkby us ijek.kq vizlkj lfUk
Comprehensive Nuclear-Test Ban Treaty
(CTBT).
rFkk O;kid ukfaHkdh; ijh{k.k ij izfrcfUkr lfUk
Which of the following statements given (CTBT) nksuksa dks gh Lohdkj ugha fd;k gSA
above is/are correct? mijksDr fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu lh@ls lgh gS\
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
33. Consider the following statements about (C) 1 rFkk2 nksuksa (D) uk gh1 uk gh2
India's Intend ed dete rmined 33. Hkkjr ds vfHkfgr jk"Vh; fu/kZj.k ;ksxnku
(INDC) ds ckjs
contributions: esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%&
1. India has agre ed to pe ak its 1. Hkkjr 2030 rd vius xzhu gkl xSl mRltZu dh
greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.
2. India Government has agreed for mPprk rd igqapus ij lger gqvk gSA
reduction in the emissions intensity 2. Hkkjr ljdkj ldy ?kjsyw mRikn esa rhozrk ls deh
of its GDP by 33 to 35 per cent by ykus ds fy,2005 ls 2030 rd 35% fiQlnh ls
2030 from 2005 level.
33 fiQlnh rd lgefr trkbZ gSA
3. India has agreed to create additional
carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes 3. Hkkjr 2030 rd vfrfjDr ou rFkk o`{kkoj.k }kjk
of CO2 equivalent through additional 2.5 ls 3 fofy;u Vu dkWcuZ&MkbZ&vkWDlkbM ds cjk
forest and tree cover by 2030. dkWcZu flad cukus dks rS;kj gqvk gSA
4. India has agreed to produce 100% of
its energy require ments from 4. Hkkjr 2050 rd uohdj.k tkZ ds ek;e ls100%
renewable energy by 2050. tkZ mRiknu ij lger gqvk gSA
Select the correct answer from the fuEu esa ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
following. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj4
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34. Which of the these is not a good reason to 34. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk ,d lgh dkj.k ugha gS ;g dgus dk
say that Indian elections aredemocratic? fd Hkkjrh; fuokZpu yksdrkfU=kd
? gS
(A) India has the largest number of voters
(A) Hkkjr ds fo'o esa lcls vf/d ernkrk gSA
in the world
(B) Hkkjr dk fuokZpu vk;ksx vf/d 'kfDr'kkyh gSA
(B) India's Election Commission is very
powerful (C) Hkkjr esa gj fdlh dks 18 o"kZ dh vk;q ;k vf/d gksus
(C) In India, everyone above the age of 18 ij er nsus dk vf/dkj gSa
has a right to vote (D) Hkkjr esa gkjus okys ny dks fuokZpd ds fu.kZ; dks
(D) In India, the losing parties accept the Lohdkj djuk gksrk gSA
electoral verdict
35. xkakh&bfoZu le>kSrs ij gLrk{kj dc gq, Fks&
35. Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed on:
(A) 10 ekpZ] 1930 (B) 20 ekpZ] 1931
(A) March 10, 1930 (B) March 20, 1931
(C) March 12, 1930 (D) March 5, 1931 (C) 12 ekpZ] 1930 (D) 5 ekpZ] 1931
36. Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh 36. paMhx<+ dk okLrqfon~ ys dkscqZft;k fdl ns'k dk jk"V
was a national of Fkk\
(A) The Netherlands (B) Portugal (A) uhnjySaM~l (B) iqrZxky
(C) U.K (D) France (C) ;w- osQ- (D) izQkal
37. Who among the following music composers
37. fuEufyf[kr esa ls og laxhrdkj dkSu gS tks ofkj (cgjk)
was deaf?
(A) Beethovan LV. (B) Bach J.S Fkk\
(C) Richard Strauss (D) Johannes Brahms (A) chFkksou ,y- oh-(B) ck[k ts- ,l-
38. What was the basis for constituting the (C) fjpMZ LVkWl (D) tsgkUl czEl
constituent Assembly of India?
38. Hkkjr dh lafokku lHkk xfBr djus dk vkkkj D;k Fkk\
(A) The Resolution of the Indian National
(A) Hkkjrh; jk"Vh; dkaxzsl dk izLrko
Congress
(B) The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 (B) oSQfcusV fe'ku Iyku]
1946
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947 (C) Hkkjrh; Lora=krk vfkfu;e]
1947
(D) The resolutions of the Provincial/state (D) Hkkjrh; Mksfefu;u osQ izkarh;@jkT; fokku&eaMy
Legislatures of the Dominion of India
izLrko
39. 'Dual citizenship' is a feature of
(A) Unitary government
39. ^nksgjh ukxfjdrk*] fuEu esa ls fdldh fo'ks"krk gSa\
(B) Federal government (A) ,dkRed ljdkj
(C) Parliamentary government (B) la?kh; ljdkj
(D) Presidential government (C) lalnh; ljdkj
40. The chapter on Fundamental Duties
(D) jk"Vifr&'kkflr ljdkj
includes
(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble 40. ekSfyd dkZO;ksa osQ v;k; esa 'kkfey gSa&
ideals which inspired out freedom (A) mu mnkk vkn'kksZa dks latksus rFkk viukus dks d
movement. ftUgksaus gekjs Lora=krk vaknksyu dks izsfjr fd;kA
(B) Duty to vote in General Election (B) vke pquko esa er nsus dk drZO;A
(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity
(C) yksxksa esa Hkzkr`Ro Hkko iSnk djus dk dkZO;A
among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on (D) ml jktuhfrd ny osQ lkFk cus jgus dk drZO;
whose ticket one contested election ftldh fVdV ij fdlh us pquko yM+k gksA
41. Which of the following city is situated in 41. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk 'kgj lqnwj iwoZ esa fLFkr gSa
the fathest east? (A) y[kumQ (B) tcyiqj
(A) Lucknow (B) Jablapur
(C) gSnjkckn (D) ps=kbZ
(C) Hyderabad (D) Chennai
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42. Match List I with List II and select the correct 42. lwph(I) vkSj lwph
(II) dk feyku dhft, vkSj lwfp;ksa osQ
answer using the codes given below the lists uhps fn, x, owQV dk iz;ksx dj lgh mkj pqfu, %
: lwph(I) lwph(II)
List - I List - II
(a) vle (1) flyoklk
(a) Assam 1. Silvassa
(b) Dadra and Nagar 2. Gangtok (b) nknjk vkSj ukxjk gosyh
(2) xSaxVkssd
Haveli (c) y{k}hi (3) fnliqj
(c) Lakshadweep 3. Dispur (d) flfDde (4) dojkh
(d) Sikkim 4. Kavaratti a b c d
a b c d (A) 3 2 1 4
(A) 3 2 1 4 (B) 3 1 4 2
(B) 3 1 4 2 (C) 4 1 3 2
(C) 4 1 3 2 (D) 1 2 4 3
(D) 1 2 4 3 43. fuEufyf[kr esa ls feyku dhft,%&
43. Match the following : ufn;k uxj
(Rivers) (Towns)
(a) xkserh (1) xqokgkVh
(a) Gomti 1. Guwahati
(b) Brahmaputra 2. Rajahmundry (b) cziq=k (2) jkteaqnzh
(c) Godavari 3. Tiruhirapalli (c) xksnkojh (3) fr:fpjkiYyh
(d) Kaveri 4. Lucknow (d) dkosjh (4) y[kumQ
a b c d a b c d
(A) 3 4 2 1 (A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 1 3 4 (B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
44. Match the following :
Dam State 44. ckkksa vkSj mu jkT;ksa dk esy feykb, ftlesa os fLFkr g
(a) Tungabhadra (1) Kerala ckk jkT;
(b) Lower Bhawani (2) Andhra Pradesh (a) rqaxHknzk (1) osQjy
(c) Idukki (3) Tamil Nadu (b) yksvj Hkokuh (2) vkUkz izns'k
(d) Nagarjuna Sagar (4) Karnataka (c) bnqDdh (3) rfeyukMq
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) ukxktqZu lkxj (4) dukZVd
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 2 4 3 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) 4 3 1 2 (A) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 4 2 3 (B) 2 4 4 1
45. One of the essential conditions of perfect (C) 2 1 3 4
competition is : (D) 1 4 2 3
(A) Product differentiation 45. iw.kZ izfr;ksfxrk dh vko';d 'krksZa esa ls ,d gS&
(B) multiplicity of prices for identical (A) mRiknksa esa HksnHkko
products at any one time (B) fdlh ,d le; esa ,d tSls mRiknksa osQ fy, fofHkUu
(C) many sellers and a few buyers izdkj osQ ewY;
(D) Only one price for identical good at any (C) foozsQrk vfkd] ysfdu [kjhnnkj de
one time. (D) fdlh ,d le; esa ,d tSls lkekuks osQ fy, ,d
46. If people's income of a country is denoted in leku ewY;
a curved line space that it has increased,
46. fdlh ns'k dh turk dh vk; osQ 'krred forj.k dh oozQ
then what does it denote?
(A) the income is increasing js[kk }kjk f?kjk gqvk {ks=k f?kjk gqvk {ks=k ,d vofk es
(B) the income is decreasing gqvk fn[kkbZ nsrk gSA ;g D;k lwfpr djrk gS\
(C) dissimilarity is decreasing in income (A) mudh vk; c<+ jgh gS
distribution. (B) mudh vk; ?kV jgh gS
(D) dissimilarity in income distribution is (C) vk; forj.k esa vlekurk de gks jgh gS
increasing (D) vk; forj.k esa vlekurk es foLrkj gks jgk gS
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47. What is found in frequency modulation? 47. vko`fk ekWMqys'ku esa D;k izkIr gksrk gS\
(A) Fixed frequency (A) fu;r vko`fk
(B) Fixed dimension
(B) fu;e vk;ke
(C) Change in frequency and dimension
(D) Change in dimension only (C) vko`fk vkSj vk;ke esa ifjorZu
48. A particle is moving in a circular path of (D) osQoy vk;ke esa ifjorZu
radius r at a constant speed v. Which one of 48. dksbZ d.k ,dleku pyv ls f=kT;k
r ds ,d o`kkdkj iFk
hte following graphs correctly represents its esa xfreku gSA fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d vkys[k mlds
acceleration a ?
a a
Roj.ka dk lVhd fu:i.k djrk gS?
a a
(A) (B)
r r (A) (B)
a a r r
a a
(C) (D)
r r (C) (D)
49. Light waves are r r
(A) electro-mechanical waves 49. izdk'k rjaxs gksrh gS&
(B) electro-magnetic waves (A) fo|qr ;kfU=kdh; rjaxsa
(B) fo|qr&pqEcdh; rjaxs
(C) electro-optical waves (C) fo|qr&izdk'kh; rjaxsa
(D) pqEcdh;&izdk'kh; rjaxsa
(D) magnetro-optical waves
50. Which one of the following is the correct 50. Hkkjr esa rsy'kks/d dkj[kkuksa dk fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&
sequence of their time of establishment ,d vuqe] muds LFkkiuk&dky ds lUnHkZ esa lgh gSa
(starting from the earliest) ? (vk|re ls izkjEHk gksdj) \
(A) Barauni-Haldia-Guwahati-mathura (A) cjkSuh&gfYn;k&xqokgkVh&eFkqjk
(B) Barauni-Mathura-Guwahati-Haldia
(B) cjkSuh&eFkqjk&xqokgkVh&gfYn;k
(C) Guwahati-Haldia-Mathura-Barauni
(D) Guwahati-Barauni-Haldia-Mathura (C) xqokgkVh&gfYn;k&eFkqjk&cjkSuh
51. Movements of tides are mostly determined by (D) xqokgkVh&cjkSuh&gfYn;k&eFkqjk
(A) albedo effect 51. Tokjksa dk lapyu vf/djr fdlds }kjk fu/kZfjr gksrk
? gS
(B) wind velocity
(A) ,sfYcMks izHkko (B) iou osx
(C) rotation of the Earth
(D) revolution of the Earth (C) i`Foh dk ?kw.kZu (D) i`Foh dh ifje.k
52. Consider the following statements 52. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,A
1. In the First Round Table Conference, 1. izFke xksyest lEesyu esa MkW- vEcsMdj us nfyr oxZ
in Ambedkar demanded separ ate ds fy, vyx fuokZpd eaMy dh ekax j[khA
electorates for the depressed classes.
2. In the Poona Act, special provisions for 2. iwuk ,DV esa LFkkuh; fudk;ksa rFkk flfoy lsokvksa
representation of the depressed people nfyr oxks ds izfrfuf/Ro ds fy, fo'ks"k mica/ j[ks
in the local bodies and civil services were x;s FksA
made. 3. r`rh; xksyest lEesyu esa Hkkjrh; jk"Vh; dkaxzsl us
3. The Indian National Congress did not
above part in the Third Round Table Hkkx ugha fy;k FkkA
Conference. mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu ls dFku lgh gSa\
Which of the statements given above is/are (A) 1 vkSj2 (B) 2 vkSj3
correct? (C) 1 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
53. Hkkjr ds lkaLfrd bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa ^iapk;ru* 'kCn
53. With reference to the cultural history of fdls fufnZ"V djrk gS\
India, the term 'Panchayatan' refers to (A) xzke ds T;s"B tuksa dh lHkk
(A) an assembly of village elders (B) /kfeZd laiznk;
(B) a religious sect (C) eafnj jpuk 'kSyh
(C) a style of temple construction
(D) an administrative functionary (D) iz'kklfud vf/dkjh
54. Which one of the following pairs of islands 54. fuEufyf[kr }hiksa ds ;qXeksa esa ls dkSu lk ,d ^nl va'k
is separated from each other by the "Ten tyekxZ* }kjk vkil esa i`Fkd fd;k tkrk gS\
Degree Channel"? (A) vaMeku ,oa fudksckj
(A) Andaman and Nicobar
(B) Nicobar and Sumatra (B) fudksckj ,oa lqek=kk
(C) Maldives and Lakshadweep (C) ekynhi ,oa y{k}hi
(D) Sumatra and Java (D) lqek=kk ,oa tkok
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55. Which of the following was not a feature of 55. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu Hkkjr ljdkj vf/fu;e] 1858 dh
Government of India Act, 1858 ? fo'ks"krk ugha Fkh \
1. Internal upheaval in the British East
India Company urged British 1- fczfV'k bZLV bafM;k daiuh dh vkarfjd mFky&iqFky
Government to pass this Act. fczfV'k ljdkj dks bl vf/fu;e dks ikfjr djus ds
2. It provisioned for the creation of the fy, foo'k fd;kA
Indian Civil Services under the control
2- blus jkT; lfpo ds fu;a=k.k okyh Hkkjrh; flfoy
of the Secretary of the State.
3. According to it, a council of fifteen lsok ds fuekZ.k dk izko/ku fn;kA
members was appointed to assist the 3- blds varxZr Hkkjr ds jkT; lfpo dh lgk;rk ds
secretary of the State for India. fy, 15 lnL;ksa dh ,d ifj"kn dk xBu fd;k x;k
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
FkkA
(A) 1 only (B) 3 only fuEufyf[kr dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu, %
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 3
56. Consider the following statements : (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
1. White label ATMs are managed by the
56. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft, %
respective banks only
2. White label ATMs accept the debit cards 1. OgkbV yscy ,Vh,e dk izca/u lacaf/r cSadksa }kjk Lo;a
of all banks. fd;k tkrk gSA
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. OgkbV yscy ,Vh,e] lHkh cSadksa] ds MsfcV dkMZ Loh
correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
djrs gSaA
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa \
57. For identifying 'Wetland of International (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
importance' which of the following criteria (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
needs to be fulfilled under Ramsar convention?
57. jkelj lEesyu ds vuqlkj ^vUrjkZ"Vh; egRo okyh vknzZHkw
1. If the wetland supports vulnerable,
endangered and threatened ecological dk ntkZ izkIr djus ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdu ekunaMksa
communities dk ikyu djuk vko';d gksrk gS ?
2. If the wetland supports population of 1. ;fn vknzZHkwfe ladVxzLr] xEHkhj :i ls ladVxzLr vkS
plants or animal species important for
maintaining the biological diversity of a nqyZHk ikfjfLFkfrd leqnk;ksa dk vf/okl gSA
particular biogeographic region 2. ;fn vknzZHkwfe fdlh fof'k"V tSo&HkkSxksfyd {ks=
3. If the wetland supports significant tSo&fofo/rk ds laj{k.k ds fy, egRoiw.kZ tUrq ,oa
proportion of indigenous fish subspecies ouLifr iztkfr;ksa dk vf/okl gSA
that contribute to global biological
diversity 3. ;fn vknzZHkwfe oSf'od tSo fofo/rk ds {ks=k esa ;ksxn
4. If the wetland regularly supports 20,000 ds fy, Lons'kh eNfy;ksa dh miiztkfr dk vf/okl
or more water birds. gSA
Select the correct answer using the codes 4. ;fn vknzZHkwfe fu;fer :i20,000 ls ;k mlls
given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 4 only vfkd ty if{k;ksa dks vkJ; nsrk gSA
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only fuEufyf[kr dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu, %
58. Consider the following statements with (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj4
reference to the 'Mars Oribitor Mission (C) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj4 (D) dsoy 2, 3 vkSj4
(MOM) :
1. Indian Space Research Organisation 58. eaxy;ku ds laca/ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
became the first Asia Space agency to 1. Hkkjrh; varfj{k vuqla/ku laLFkku ,f'k;k dk igyk]
reach Mars after NASA and Soviet Space vesfjdk ds uklk rFkk :l dh varfj{k ,tsalh ds ckn
program. fo'o dk rhljk ,slk laLFkku gS ftlus eaxy;ku HkstkA
2. MOM is currently in areocentric orbit.
3. The objective of mission was the develop 2. orZeku esa eaxy;ku dh d{kk pkdkj gSA
technologies for interplanetary mission 3. eaxy;ku fe'ku dk ms'; varxzZgh; rduhd dk fodkl
and to study mineralogy and martian djuk rFkk eaxy ds [kfut ,oa ok;qeaMy dk v;;u
atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above are
fd;k tk ldsA
correct ? mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&ls ?dFku lgh gS
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 2 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
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59. Which of the following statements regarding 59. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku Hkkjrh; fuokZpu vk;ksx ds
Election Commission of India are correct? lanHkZ esa lgh gSA
1. Election Commission is an all- India
body and it conducts all the elections in 1. Hkkjr dk fuokZpu vk;ksx ,d vf[ky Hkkjrh; fudk;
India. gS] tks Hkkjr esa lHkh izdkj ds pquko lEiUu djkrk gSA
2. The appointment of Elect ion 2. Hkkjr ds eq[; fuokZpu vk;qDr rFkk {ks=kh; vk;qDrk
Commissioners and Regional
dh fu;qfDr jk"Vifr }kjk dh tkrh gS rFkk mUgsa jk"Vif
Commissioners is made by the President
of India and they can be removed by him dh bPNkuqlkj vkSj mlh ds }kjk gVk;k tk ldrk gSA
at his will 3. Hkkjrh; lafo/ku] pquko vk;ksx dh Lora=krk dks cuk,
3. The Constitution debars retiring Election j[kus ds fy, lnL;ksa dks lsokfuo`fRr ds i'pkr~ fdlh
Commissioners fr om fur ther
appointment by the government to
vU; in ij fu;qfDr ls jksdrk gSA
maintain independence of the 4. Hkkjrh; lafo/ku esa fuokZpu vk;ksx ds lnL;ksa ds
Commission. dk;Zdky dk mYys[k ugha gSA
4. Constitution hasn't specified the term fuEufyf[kr dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pfu,%
of service of the members of the Election
(A) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj3
Commission.
Select the correct answer using the codes (B) dsoy 2, 3 vkSj4
given below: (C) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) None of the above
60. Consider the following statements :
60. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft, %
1. To protect and improve the environment 1. i;kZoj.k dk laj{k.k rFkk lao/Zu djuk vkSj ouksa rFkk
and to safeguard forests and wild life. oU; thoksa dh j{kk djukA
2. To defend the country and render 2. ns'k dh j{kk djuk vkSj vkoku fd;s tkus ij jk"V dh
national services when called upon to
do so. lsok djukA
3. To strive towards excellence in all 3. O;fDrxr vkSj lkewfgd xfrfof/;ksa ds lHkh {ks=kksaa
spheres of individual and collective mRd"kZ dh vksj c<+us dk lrr iz;kl djukA
activity. mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu ls dFku lafo/ku esa mfYyf[
Which of the following statements are parts
of Fundamental Duties as mentioned in the ewy dkZO;ksa dk? Hkkx gS
constitution ? (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj3
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) dsoy 2 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 61. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh LFkkuh; iou@iousa vius Hkw&H
61. Which of the following local winds is/are not
correctly matched with its/their regions? ls lgh lqesfyr ugha gS@gS
?
1. Harmattan : Africa 1. gjeSV~Vu & vizQhdk
2. Mistral : Canada 2. feLVy & dukMk
3. Sirocco : california
3. fljksdks & dSyhiQksu;k
4. Minuano : Brazil
Selct correct answer using the codes given 4. feuqvkuksa & czkthy
below : (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) dsoy 1 vkSj4 (D) dsoy 4
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 4 only
62. Which of the following events made the
62. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ?kVuk us fczfV'k bZLV bafM;k daiu
English East India company the legitimate dks caxky lwcs dk okLrfod Lokeh cuk fn;k \
masters of the Bengal Suba? (A) cDlj dh yM+kbZ] 1764
(A) Battle of Buxar, 1764 (B) Iyklh dh yM+kbZ] 1757
(B) Battle of Plassey, 1957
(C) iQ#Z[kfl;j dk iQjeku] 1717
(C) Farrukh Siyar's Farman, 1717
(D) Ibrahim Khan's Farman, 1690 (D) bczkfge [kku dk iQjeku] 1690
63. The first newspaper which was published 63. Hkkjr esa izdkf'kr gksus okys izFke lekpkj i=k dk uke Fkk
in India was: (A) fn dydkk kfudy
(A) The Calculatta Chronical
(B) The Calculatta Gazette (B) fn dydkk xtV
(C) The Oriental Magazine of Calcutta (C) fn vksfj,UVy esxthu vkWiQ dydkk
(D) The Bengal Gazette (D) fn caxky xtV
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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
64. Which was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 64. MkW- ch- vkj- vEcsMdj us lafo/ku dk ^n; vkSj vkRek*
as the 'heart and soul' of the constitution? fdls dgk Fkk \
(1) Right to Equality
(2) Right against Exploitation (A) lekurk dk vf/dkj
(3) Right to constitutional Remedies (B) 'kks"k.k ds fo# vf/dkj
(4) Right to Freedom of Religion (C) lkafo/kfud mipkjksa dk vf/dkj
65. January 26th Selected as the date for the (D) /eZ dh Lora=krk dk vf/dkj
inauguration of the constitution, because:
65. lafo/ku ds mn~?kkVu ds fy, 26 tuojh dks pquk x;k Fkk]
(A) It was considered to be an auspicious
day D;ksafd&
(B) On that day the Quit india Movement (A) ;g 'kqHk fnu ekuk x;k Fkk
was started in 1942 (B) ml fnu 1942 esa Hkkjr NksM+ksa vkUnksyu 'kq: fd;k x
(C) The congress had observed it as the Fkk
Independence Day in 1930
(C) dkaxzsl us bls 1930 esa Lok/hurk fnol ds :i esa
(D) None of these
66. The most important feature of the Indian euk;k Fkk
Parliament is that: (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(A) it is the Union Legislature in India 66. Hkkjrh; laln dh lcls egRoiw.kZ fo'ks"krk gS fd%&
(B) it also comprises the President
(A) ;g Hkkjr esa la?k fo/kue.My gS
(C) it is bicameral in nature
(D) the upper House of the Parliament is (B) blesa jk"Vifr Hkh 'kkfey gS
never dissolved (C) ;g f}lnuh Lo:i dh gS
67. The moon is showing its same face to the (D) laln~ dk ijh lnu dHkh Hkax ugha gksrk
earth becuase : 67. i`Foh ls pkan dk ik'oZ fn[kkbZ nsrk gS] D;ksafd&
(A) It is not rotating about its own axis
(B) Its rotation and revolution are opposite (A) og vius v{k dk ?kw.kZu ugha djrk gS
(C) Its periods of rotation and revolution are (B) mldk ?kw.kZu rFkk ifje.k ,d&nwljs ds foijhr gS
the same (C) mlds ?kw.kZu vkSj ifje.k dh vof/ ,d gh gS
(D) Its rotation is faster than its revolution (D) mlds ifje.k dh vis{kk ?kw.kZu vf/d rst gS
68. In whcih state is Jawahar Tunnel located?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
68. tokgj lqjax fdl jkT; esa gS\
(B) Jammu and Kashmir (A) fgekpy izns'k (B) tEew vkSj d'ehj
(C) Uttaranchal (C) mkjkapy (D) xksok
(D) Goa 69. lalkj esa rkts ikuh dh lcls cM+h >hy ^ysd lqihfj;j*
69. Where is Lake superior, the largest dgka ij fLFkr gS \
freshwater lake in the world, located?
(A) USA (B) Brazil (A) la;qDr jkT; vesfjdk
(B) czkthy
(C) Canada (D) Russia (C) dukMk (D) :l
70. Match the rivers given below with the cities 70. fuEufyf[kr ufn;ksa vkSj mu 'kgjksa dk esy feykb, ftuesa
through which they flow : gksdj os cgrh gSa %
City River
'kgj unh
a. Bangkok 1. Hwangpu
b. Shanghai 2. St. Lawrence a. cSdkd 1. kaxiw
c. Dresden 3. Chao phraya b. 'ka?kkbZ 2. lsaV ykWjsal
d. Montreal 4. Elbe c. MSLMsu 3. pkvks izQs;k
a b c d d. ekWfUV;y 4. ,Ycs
(A) 3 1 4 2
a b c d
(B) 2 4 3 1
(A) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(B) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
71. During which five year plan did India lay
(D) 1 2 3 4
down the objective of the need to ensure
env ironmental sustainability of the 71. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl iapo"khZ; ;kstuk ds nkSjku Hkkjr es
development strategy? fodkl uhfr ds i;kZoj.kh laiks"k.k dks lqfuf'pr djus dh
(A) 6th Five Year Plan vko';drk okyk ms'; fu/kZfjr fd;k Fkk \
(B) 7th Five Year Plan (A) 6Bha iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
(B) 7oha iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
(C) 8th Five Year Plan
(C) 8oha iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
(D) 9oha iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
(D) 9th five Year Plan
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72. What are the main components of basic 72. fdlh vFkZO;oLFkk dh lkekftd vk/kfjr lajpuk ds ?kVdksa
social infrastructure of an economy? esa D;k vkrs gaS \
(A) Education, industry and Agriculture (A) f'k{kk] m|ksx vkSj f"k
(B) Education, Health and Civil amenities (B) f'k{kk] LokLF; o vU; ukxfjd lqfo/k,a
(C) Transport, Health and Banks
(C) ;krk;kr] LokLF; vkSj cSad
(D) Industry, Trade and Transport
(D) m|ksx] O;kikj vkSj ;krk;kr
73. Basic infrastructure facilities in Economics
are known as: 73. vFkZ'kkL=k esa vk/kj&lajpukRed lqfo/kvksa dks fuEufy
(A) Human capital esa ls fdl :i esa ekuk tkrk gS \
(B) Physical capital (A) ekuo iwth
(C) Social overheads capital (B) HkkSfrd iwth
(D) Working capital (C) lkekftd ijh ykxr iwth
74. When aggregate supply exceeds aggregate (D) dk;Z'khy iwth
demand 74. tc leLr ekx dh vis{kk leLr iwr] vf/d gks] rc&
(A) unemployment falls (A) csjkstxkjh ?kVrh gS
(B) prices rise
(B) nke c<+rs gSa
(C) inventories accumulate
(C) eky dk lap; gksrk gS
(D) uneployment develops
75. What are the blood corpuscles that help to (D) csjkstxkjh iSnk gksrh gS
build up resistance against diseases? 75. fuEufyf[kr esa ls os jDr df.kdk, dkSu&lh gS tks jksxksa d
(A) leucocytes (B) Monocytes izfrjks/ djus esa lgk;rk djrh gS \
(C) Neutrophils (D) Lymphocytes (A) 'osr dksf'kdk,
76. The Indian Naval Ship being converted into (B) dsanzd jDr dksf'kdk,
a maritime museum is : (C) U;wVksfiQy (mnklhu jkxh)
(A) Sagar Samrat (B) Kanishka (D) ylhdk dksf'kdk,
(C) Samrat Ashoka (D) Vikrant 76. Hkkjrh; ukSlsuk iksr ftls leqnzh laxzgky; esa ifjorr fd;k
77. Which of the following statement is/are
tk jgk gS] ----- gSA
correct about MAGLEV technology?
(A) lkxj lezkV (B) dfu"d
1. It is a magnetic suspension technology
to keep object suspended with no (C) lezkV v'kksd (D) fokar
support. 77. eSxyso (MAGLEV) izkS|ksfxdh ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr
2. This technology is frequently used in dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\
airplanes and ships. 1. ;g pqEcdh; fuyacu izkS|ksfxdh gS] tks fcuk fdlh
Select the answer using the codes given vk/kj ds fdlh oLrq dks fuyafcr djrh gSA
below: 2. ;g izkS|ksfxdh ok;q;ku vkSj leqnzh tgktksa esa O;kid
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only :i ls iz;qDr gksrh gSA
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 fuEufyf[kr dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu,%
78. The Economic Survey of India mentions
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
about a 'Golden Rule of Fiscal Policy'. Which
(C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) u rks1 vkSj u gh
2
of the following statements is correct
regarding this rule? 78. Hkkjr dk vkfFkZd losZ{k.k ,d ^jktdks"kh; uhfr ds
(A) According to it, the Government of India Lof.kZe&fu;e* dh ckr djrk gSA fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa esa ls
is expected to borrow lesser than the dkSu&lk dFku bl fu;e ds lanHkZ esa lgh gS\
inflation rate. (A) blds vuqlkj] Hkkjr ljdkj dks eqnzkLiQhfr dh nj ls
(B) According to it, plan and non-plan de nj ij de .k ysuk pkfg,A
expenditures dichotomy must be (B) blds vuqlkj] ;kstuk vkSj xSj&;kstuk O;; dks f}foHkktu
removed. eqDr gksuk pkfg,A
(C) According to it, the Government of India (C) blds vuqlkj] Hkkjr ljdkj dks dsoy iwth&fuekZ.k
is expected to borrow only for capital
ds fy, .k ysuk pkfg, u fd pkyw [kkrs ds fokh;u
formation and not to fund for current
ds fy,A
expenditure
(D) None of these (D) buesa ls dksbZ ughaA
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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
79. Consider the following statements with 79. ckS ,oa tSu laiznk; ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa
reference to Buddhism and Jainism:
1. Both religions denied the existence of
fopkj dhft,%
god or gods. 1. nksuksa laiznk; nso ;k nsoksa ds vfLrRo dks udkjrs g
2. Both religions allowed to practice more 2. nksuksa laiznk; ,d ls vf/d /eZ esa vkLFkk j[kus dh
than one religion.
3. Both religions were based upon Pacifism
vuqefr nsrs FksA
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. nksuksa laiznk;ksa dk vk/kj 'kkafrokn FkkA
correct? mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj3
(C) 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
80. Consider the following statements: (C) dsoy 2 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
1. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act 80. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
gave constitutional status to the Gram
Sabha. 1. 74oka lafo/kfud la'kks/u vf/fu;e xzke lHkk dks
2. A Gram Sabha means a body consisting lafo/kfud ntkZ iznku djrk gSA
of the persons elected by the villagers 2. xzke lHkk ,d ,slk fudk; gksrk gS] ftlesa xzke
above the age of 18 years residing in
the area of the Gram Panchayat. iapk;r ds {ks=kk/hu fuokl djus18okys
o"kZ ;k mlls
3. The Constitution envisages that Gram vf/d vk;q ds xzkeh.kksa }kjk lnL; fuokZfpr fd;s tkrs
Sabha will select beneficiaries under gSaA
var ious schemes of the cent ral
government undertaknen for rural 3. lafo/ku bldk izko/ku djrk gS fd xzke lHkk xzkeh.k
development. fodkl gsrq Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk mBk;s x;s fofHkUu
Which of the statements given above is/are dk;Zeksa ds rgr ykHkkfFkZ;ksa dk p;u djsxhA
correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\
(C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 2
81. The differernce between Articles 358 and 359 (C) dsoy 3 (D) dsoy 2 vkSj3
is given below:
1. Article 358 is confined to Fundamental 81. vuqPNsn358 vkSj359 ds e; varj fuEufyf[kr gS %
Rights under Article 19 only, whereas 1. vuqPNsn 358 dsoy vuqPNsn 19 ds ekSfyd vf/dkj
Article 359 extends to all t hose rd gh lhfer gS] tcfd vuqPNsn359 lHkh ekSfyd
Fundamental Rights.
2. Article 358 operates only in case of vf/dkjksa ij ykxw gksrk gSA
external emergency, whereas Article 359 2. vuqPNsn 358 dsoy ckgjh vkikr fLFkfr esa ykxw gksrk
operates in case of both external gS tcfd vuPNsn359 ck; vkSj vkarfjd nksuksa gh
emergency as well as inter nal
emergency. izdkj dh fLFkfr esa ykxw gksrk gSA
3. Article 358 extends to the entire country 3. vuqPNsn 358 dsoy ckgjh vkikr fLFkfr esa ykxw gksrk
whereas Article 359 may extend to the gS tcfd vuqPNsn359 iwjs ns'k esa ;k mlds Hkkx esa
entire country or a part of it.
Which of the statements given above is/are ykxw gksrh gSA
incorrect? mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lgh ugha gS@
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None of the above
82. Which of the following statements regarding (C) 1, 2 vkSj3 (D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
the Fundamental Duties as mentioned in 82. Hkkjrh; lafo/ku esa fufgr ekSfyd drZO;ksa ds lanHkZ
the Constitution of India is/are correct? fuEufyf[kr dkSu lk@@ls dFku lgh gS@gaS \
1. They can be enforced through writ
jurisdiction. 1. bUgsa fjV {ks=kkf/dkj ds }kjk ykxw fd;k tk ldrk gSA
2. They have formed a part of the 2. viuk ysus vxhdj.k ds i'pkr~ ;s lafo/ku dk ,d
constitution since its adoption. Hkkx cu x, gSaA
3. They are applicable only to citizens of
India. 3. ;s dsoy Hkkjr ds ukxfjdksa ij gh ykxw gksrs gSaA
Which of the statements given above is/are fuEufyf[kr dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu, %
correct? (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only (C) dsoy 3 (D) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
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83. Which type of materials will reach at the 83. Tokykeq[kh foLiQksV ds i'pkr~ fuEu esa ls dkSu ls ink
surface of earth when volcanic eruption
occurs?
i`Foh dh lrg ij igqprs gSa\
1. Pyroclastic debris 1. ikbjksDykfLVd eyck
2. Volcanic bombs 2. Tokykeq[kh ce
3. Nitrogen compounds 3. ukbVkstu ;kSfxd
4. Sulphur compounds
5. Minor amounts of chlorine, hydrogen 4. lYiQj ;kSfxd
and argon 5. Dyksjhu] gkbMkstu vkSj vkxZu dh vYi ek=kk
Select the correct answer using the codes fuEufyf[kr ladsrksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu,%
given below:
(A) dsoy 1, 3 vkSj 5 (B) dsoy 1, 2, 4 vkSj 5
(A) 1, 3 and 5 only (B) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(C) 2, 4 and 5 only (D) All of the above (C) dsoy 2, 4 vkSj 5 (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
84. Which of the following statements is not 84. fczfV'k lkezkT; esa Hkkjr ds xoZuj tujy ds laca/ esa
correct about the Governor General of dkSu&lk dFku lgh ugha gS\
British India?
(A) Lord William Bentinck was regarded as (A) ykMZ fofy;e csafVd dks Hkkjr dh vk/qfud if'peh
'the father of modern western education f'k{kk ds tud ds :i esa ekuk tkrk FkkA
in India'. (B) ykMZ MygkSth us lrh izFkk dk mUewyu fd;k FkkA
(B) Lord Dalhousie abolished sati practice.
(C) ykMZ dSfuax us O;ixr flkar dks okil fy;k FkkA
(C) Lord Canning had withdrawn Doctrine
of Lapse. (D) ykMZ gkfMax
-I us jkstxkj esa vaxzsth ek;e esa f'kf{kr
(D) Lord Hardinge-I gave preference to yksxksa dks ojh;rk iznku dhA
English educated persons in the 85. Hkkjr dh ,d iQly dh fuEu fo'ks"krk,a gS
employment.
85. Following are the features of an Indian crop: 1. tyks<+ ;k nkseV e`nk bldk [ksrh ds fy, vkn'kZ ekuh
1. Clayey or loamy soils are considered tkrh gSA
ideal for its cultivation. 2. ;g tyHkjko rFkk flafpr {ks=kksa esa vknzZ ,oa 'kq"d n
2. It is grown in both lowland and irrigated
land in the wet season and the dry
izdkj dh tyok;q esa mxkbZ tkrh gSA
season. 3. inek] tequk vkSj galk bldh mPp mRiknu okyh
3. Some of its high yielding varieties are iztkfr;ka gSA
Padma, Jamuna and Hansas. mi;qZDr fo'ks"krk,a fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl iQly
? dh gS
Which of the following is the correct crop?
(A) Rice (B) Wheat (A) /ku (B) xsagw
(C) Sugarcane (D) Tea (C) xUuk (D) pk;
86. Consider the following feat ures of a 86. ,d fo'ks"k ou ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj
particular forest:
1. Here winter is absent
dhft, %
2. The average temperature of the three 1. 'khydky dh vuqifLFkfrA
warmest and three coldest months do 2. rhu lcls xje vkSj rhu lcls BaMs eklksa ds rkieku
not differ by more than 50C. ds e; varj 50C ls vf/d ugha gksrk gSA
3. Soil is poor in nutrients and acidic in
nature. 3. e`nk esa iks"kd rRoksa dh deh gksrh gS vkSj ;g vEyh;
Which of the following forests depict the gksrh gSA
above characteristics? fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ou mi;qZDr fo'ks"krkvksa ds la
(A) Tropical forests
(B) Temperate forests
esa lgh gS \
(C) Boreal forests (A) m".kdfVca/h; ou(B) 'khrks".k ou
(D) Savanna forests (C) oksfj;y ou (D) lokuk ou
87. Consider the following statements regarding 87. uhyfxjh tSo&eaMy HkaMkj ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dF
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve:
1. This reserve is the 2nd biosphere reserve ij fopkj dhft, %
in India. 1. ;g Hkkjr dk nwljk tSo&eaMy HkaMkj gSA
2. This reserv e falls under the 2. ;g ekykckj o"kkZ ou ds tSo HkkSxksfyd {ks=k ds varx
biogeographic region of the Malabar rain
forest.
vkrk gSA
3. The sholas of this reserve are a treasure 3. bl tSo&eaMy HkaMkj ds varxZr vkus okys 'kksyk ou
house of rare plant species. nqyZHk ouLifr iztkfr;ksa ds L=kksr gSA
Which of the statements given above are mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu ls dFku ? lgh gS
correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 1 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj
3
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88. Consider the following matches: 88. fuEufyf[kr ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft, %
(Types of : (Feature) (fookg dk : (fo'ks"krk
)
Marriage)
1. Arsa : Marr iage wit hout izdkj)
dowry and bride-price. 1. vk"kZ : fcuk ngst fn, vkSj fcuk
2. Prajapatya : Bride-price in the form okw&ewY; okyk fookg
of cow and a bull. 2. iztkikR; : xk; vkSj cSy ds :i esa
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched?
okw&ewY;
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only mi;qZDr ;qXeksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gS
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
89. Consider the following pairs: (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) u rks1 vkSj u gh
2
(Environmental : (Issues) 89. fuEufyf[kr ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft, %
agreements)
1. Montreal : Ozone depleting (i;kZoj.kh; : (eqn~ns
)
Protocol of substance le>kSrs)
1987 1. ekWfUV;y lEesyu]
: vkstksu dks {kfr igqpkus okys
2. Bonn : The conservation of 1987 inkFkZA
Convention migratory species
2. ckWu lEesyu] : izoklh iztkfr;ksa dk laj{k.kA
of 1979
3. Basel : Regulation of trans- 1979
Convention boudary movement, 3. csly lEesyu] : thfor ifjektr thoksa ds iz;ksx
of 1989 use of living modified 1989 ds fy, ,d ns'k ls nwljs esa ys
organisms. tkus dh xfrfof/;ksa dk fu;a=k.kA
4. Rotterdam : Consensual inter- 4. jksV~VjMe lEesyu : dqN [krjukd jlk;uksa vkSj
convention of national trade in
1998 cer tain hazardous 1998 dhVuk'kdksa dk vke lgefr ls
chemicals and pesti- varjkZ"Vh; O;kikjA
cides. mi;qZDr ;qXeksa esa ls dkSu&lk ;qXe lgh?lqesfyr ugha g
Which of the pairs given above is not (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
correctly matched?
(C) dsoy 3 (D) dsyo 4
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 3 only (D) 4 only 90. Hkkjr esa jkT; fo/ku e.My ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuk
90. Which one among the following is not correct esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh ugha gS \
with reference to state legislature? (A) lafo/ku esa jkT;ksa esa fo/ku ifj"kn ds l`tu vkSj
(A) The Constitution does not mention the mRlknu ds ckjs esa dksbZ mYys[k ugha gSA
abolition or creation of legislative
councils in states. (B) jkT; ds fo/kue.My esa nwljk lnu cukus ds fopkj
(B) The idea of having a second chamber in dh lafo/ku lHkk esa vkykspuk dh xbZ FkhA
the states was criticized in the (C) fo/ku ifj"n LFkk;h fudk; gksrh gS vkSj ;g fo?kfVr
constituent assembly. ugha gksrh gSA
(C) Legislative council is a permanent body
(D) jkT; fo/kue.My ds nksuksa lnuksa esa vojks/ dh
and is not subject to dissolution.
(D) The Constitution does not provide for fLFkfr esa lafo/ku esa fdlh ladYi dk izko/ku ugha
the resolution of any deadlock between gSA
the two Houses in states. 91. egkRek xk/h ds canh ds ckn ued lR;kxzg dk usr`Ro
91. When Mahatma Gandhi was arrested who fdlus fd;k Fkk\
among the following took over the
leadership of Salt Satyagraha? (A) fouksck Hkkos
(A) Vinoba Bhave (B) ljnkj cYyHkHkkbZ iVsy
(B) Sardar Valllabh Bhai Patel (C) vCckl cYyHkHkkbZ iVsy
(C) Abbas Tyabji (D) ekSykuk vcqy dyke vktkn
(D) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
92. fdl Hkkjrh; jktusrk us fuEufyf[kr tknqbZ 'kCn dgs Fks]
92. Which Indian statesman used these magic
words, Long years ago we made a trust with ^^dbZ o"kZ igys fu;fr ds lkFk gekjh HksaV gqbZ Fkh vkS
destiny, and now the time comes when we le; vk x;k gS fd ge vius ok;ns dks iwjk djsa---**
shall redeem our pledge... ? (A) eksgunkl djepan xk/h
(A) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi (B) ljnkj cYyHkHkkbZ iVsy
(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose (C) usrkth lqHkk"kpanz cksl
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) tokgjyky usg:
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93. Who said that the real seat of taste is not 93. fdlus dgk Fkk fd ^^Lokn dk okLrfod LFkku fpg~ok ugha]
the tongue, but the mind ? cfYd eu gS** \
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh (A) vjfoan ?kks"k (B) egkRek xk/h
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) cky xaxk/j fryd (D) Lokeh foosdkuUn
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Swami Vivekananda
94. ikuh ds fdlh nzO;eku 0dksls- ls 10 ls- rd xje
94. When heated from 0 to 10C volume of a djus ls mlds vk;ru esa&
given mass of water will : (A) vkuqfed o`f gksxh
(A) Increase gradually (B) vkuqfed deh vk,xh
(B) Decrease gradually (C) c<+us ds ckn deh gksus yxsxh
(C) Increase and then will decrease (D) ?kVus ds ckn o`f gksus yxsxh
(D) Decrease and then will increase 95. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu foLr`r LisDVe(Anti-izfrtSfod
95. Which among the following is a large
biotic) gS \
spectrum Antibiotic?
(A) iSjkflVkeksy (B) esfuflyhu
(A) Paracetamol (B) Pencillin
(C) Ampicillin (D) Chlormphenicol (C) ,Eihflyhu (D) DyksjSEiQsfudkWy
96. Which of the following diseases affects 96. efgykvksa esa iq#"kksa dh vis{kk fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu
women easily than that of men ? chekjh gksus dh izo`fk vf/d gksrh gS \
(A) Heart attack (B) Hepatitis (A) gn&?kuklzrk (B) tBj'kksFk
(C) Joint arthritis (D) Arthritis (C) xfB;k laf/'kksFk (D) xfB;k
97. Which among the following elements 97. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk rRo ikS/ksa esa ikuh vkSj dSfY
increases the absorption of water and
ds vo'kks"k.k dks c<+krk gS \
calcium in plants ?
(A) eSaxuht (B) cksjksu
(A) Manganese (B) Boron
(C) Copper (D) Molybdenum (C) rkck (D) eksfyCMsue
98. What was the basis of transfer of power to 98. ykWMZ ekmUVcsVu }kjk 15 vxLr ds fnu Hkkjr dks l
India on 15th August by ? gLrkUrj.k dk D;k vk/kj Fkk \
(A) On t his day the Indian National (A) bl fnu Hkkjrh; jk"Vh; dkaxzsl us ^iw.kZ Lojkt* dh
Congress had demanded Poorna ekx j[kh Fkh
Swaraj (B) bu fnu egkRek xk/h us ^Hkkjr NksM+ksa vkUnksy
(B) On this day Mahatma Gandhi started
?kks"k.kk dh Fkh
Quit India Movement.
(C) vUrfje ljdkj cuus dh o"kZxkB
(C) Anniversary of formation of interim
Government. (D) ,Mfejy ekm.VcsVsu ds le{k tkikuh lsuk ds leiZ.k
(D) Anniversary of the surrender of Japanese dh o"kZxkB
army before Admiral Mountbatten 99. Hkkjr dks ,d ^x.kjkT;* eq[; :i ls blfy, ekuk tkrk gS]
99. India is considered as Republic mainly D;ksafd %
because : (A) jkT;k;{k dk pquko gksrk gSA
(A) the head of the State is elected. (B) mls 15 vxLr 1947 dks Lora=krk feyh FkhA
(B) it gained independence on 15 August 1947
(C) mldk viuk fyf[kr lafo/ku gSA
(C) It has its own written constitution
(D) mldh ljdkj lalnh; iz.kkyh ds vuqlkj gS
(D) it is having a Parliamentary
100. Cement is made hard with 100. lhesUV esa dBksjiu fdlds dkj.k gksrk gS\
(A) dehydration (A) futZyhdj.k
(B) hydration and dissociation of water (B) ty;kstu vkSj ty&vi?kVu
(C) Dissociation of water (C) ty&vi?kVu
(D) Polymerisation (D) cgqydhdj.k

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GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST- 22 (ANSWER KEY)


1. (B) 21. (B) 41. (A) 61. (B) 81. (D)
2. (C) 22. (D) 42. (B) 62. (A) 82. (D)
3. (D) 23. (C) 43. (C) 63. (D) 83. (D)
4. (D) 24. (B) 44. (C) 64. (C) 84. (B)
5. (B) 25. (B) 45. (D) 65. (C) 85. (A)

s
6. (D) 26. (A) 46. (C) 66. (D) 86. (A)
7. (C) 27. (A) 47. (B) 67. (C) 87. (B)
8. (A) 28. (C) 48. (D) 68. (B) 88. (D)

pu
9. (C) 29. (B) 49. (B) 69. (A) 89. (C)
10. (B) 30. (B) 50. (D) 70. (A) 90. (A)
11. (C) 31. (A) 51. (C) 71. (D) 91. (C)
12. (C) 32. (B) 52. (C) 72. (B) 92. (D)
13. (C) 33. (B) 53. (C) 73. (C) 93. (B)
14. (C) 34. (A) 54. (A) 74. (C) 94. (D)
15. (B) 35. (D) 55. (A) 75. (A) 95. (C)
16.
17.
18.
(C)
(B)
(C)
36.
37.
38.
(D)
(A)
(B)
56.
57.
58.
m
(B)
(D)
(C)
76.
77.
78.
(D)
(A)
(C)
96.
97.
98.
(D)
(B)
(D)
19. (B) 39. (B) 59. (D) 79. (A) 99. (A)
20. (D) 40. (A) 60. (C) 80. (C) 100. (A)
Ca
KD

Note : If your opinion differ regarding any answer, please


message the mock test and Question number to 8860330003

Note : If you face any problem regarding result or marks


scored, please contact : 9313111777

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GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST-22 (SOLUTION)


1. (B) Africa is divided almost at in half by the 8. (A) Fuels in decreasing order of calorific
equator. But northern of Africa lies in value : Hydrogen > LPG> CNG>
Northern Hemisphere is larger among M et ha n e> D i es e l> Ke r os en e> P et r o l
the two. >Biogas>coal>wood>cow dung.
Continents rank on basis of size: 9. (C) Galvanization is the process of applying
1. Asia 2. Africa 3. North America 4.
a protective zinc coating to steel or iron,
South America 5. Antarctica 6. Europe

s
to prevent rusting. Vulcanization or
7. Australia
2. (C) The positions of the worlds's continents vulcanisation is a chemical process for
and major oceans significantly converting natural rubber or related

pu
influences the major pressure belts that polymers into more durable materials via
develop from the general circulation of the addition of sulfur.
the atmosphere. Land gains and loses 10. (B) Hydrogen, Nitrogen and Noble gases are
heat much more quickly than seawater. all colourless. Chlorine gas has a yellow
Consequently, the large landmasses of green colour. Flourine gas is pale yellow.
the Americas and Asia become much
11. (C) 1. anti dumping duty : If a company
warmer in summer and much colder in

3. (D)
winter.
Atherosclerosis is a condition where
the arteries become narrowed and
hardened due to an excessive buildup of
m sells below
normal value
2. counter vailing duty : If imports are
subsidized by
plaque around the artery wall. The Government
3. safeguard measures : To protect
Ca
disease disrupts the flow of blood around
the body, posing serious cardiovascular domestic
complication. Hypothermia is a industry from
potentially dangerous drop in body import surge
temperature, usually caused by 12. (C) The emission of light from a substance,
prolonged exposure to cold temperatures. whose atoms are excited by high
4. (D) Beaufort scale is used to measure the temperature, is called incandescence.
wind speed. It is an empirical measure The light from the the heated tungsten
that relates wind speed and observed filament of an incandescent bulb consist
KD

condition at sea or land. Modern of many frequencies and therefore it


Beaufort scale ranges from 0 (calm
appears white. The sun is also an
condition) to 12 (hurricane)
example of Incandescence.
5. (B) BS IV norms are followed in most parts
of India and by April 1, 2017 entire 13. (C) Power of an electric bulb is zero when
country will be recovered under BS IV. resistant will become infinite which is
India will implement BS-VI norms from not practically possible. Nitrogen is
April 1, 2020. almost inert gas and doesn't react with
6. (D) The PSF scheme is set up by the metal filament even at a high
Department of Commerce. The Corpus temperature. Tungsten is used as
Fund for the PSF is deposited in the filament because of its high melting
Public Account of GOI. However the point and hardness.
Corpus Fund is not utilized. Only the 14. (C) France<U.K<U.S.A<Germany<Canada
interest on corpus fund is utilised for 15. (B) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana is
the PSF Scheme. In Union Budget 2016- under the authrity of the Ministry of
2017, a corpus of ? 900 crore has been
Rural Development and had begun on 25
provided for the PSF to support market
December 2000. It is fully funded by the
interventions.
central government. The Government
7. (C) CO2 being heavier than oxygen, covers
has brought forward the target date by 3
the fire like a blanket. Since the contact
years from 2022 to 2019. The Primary
between the fuel and oxygen is cut off,
the fire is controlled. The added source of funding for the Programme is
advantage of CO2 s that in most cases it from the Cess on High Speed Diesel, 50%
does not harm the electrical equipment. of which is earmarked for Rural roads.
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16. (C) Kudumbashree was launched by the 22. (D) Judicial activism has had manifold
Government of Kerala in 1998 for wiping impact on the political system. It has
out absolute poverty from the State democratised the judicial system by
through concerted community action giving not just to individuals but also
under the leadership of Local Self groups access to the courts. It has
Governments. It is built around three forced executive accountability. It has
critical components - 1. micro credit, 2. also made an attempt to make to
entrepreneurship and 3. empowerment. electoral system much more free and
17. (B) The Swadhar Scheme purports to
fair.
address the specific vulnerability of
23. (C) The first 5 year plan concentrated on

s
each of group of women in difficult
circumstances through a Home-based agriculture. The second 5 year plan
holistic and integrated approach. concentrated in industries. Removal of

pu
Ujjawala-is a comprehensive scheme for poverty was the foremost objective of
the prevention of trafficking, rescue and fifth 5 year plan when Indira Gnadhi
rehabilitation of women and child was the prime minister, with the famous
victims of trafficking for commercial slogan Garibi Hatao being the clarion
sexual exploitation in India. call at that time.
Integrated Child Development Services 24. (B) Proclamation of President's Rule must
(ICDS) is an Indian government welfare be approved by Parliament within two
programme which provides food,
preschool education, and primary
healthcare to children under 6 years of
age and their mothers...So, except
m months of Proclamation.
- President can issue ordinances during
President's rule.
- Maximum duration of President's rule
ASIDE, all others have an impact on
is 3 years.
women empowerment.
Ca
25. (B) If the Council of States has declared by
18. (C) Scheme delinked from support of the
resolution (not bill) supported by not less
Centre:
1. National e-Governance Plan than two thirds of the members present
2. Backward Regions Grant Funds and voting that it is necessary of
3. Modernization of Police Forces expedient in the national interest so to
4. Rajiv Gandhi Panchayat Sashaktikaran do, Parliament may by law provide for the
Abhiyaan (RGPSA) creation of one or more all India services
(including an all India judicial service)
5. Scheme for Central Assistance to the
26. (A) Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary is a
States for developing export
KD

marine wildlife sanctuary located in


infrastructure
Odisha and is a very popular tourist
6. Scheme for setting up of 6000 Model
Schools attraction of Odisha in India. It extends
7. National Mission on Food processing from Dhamra River mouth in the north
to Mahanadi river mouth in the south.
8. Tourist Infrastructure
It is very famous for its beach for olive
19. (B) Commands of Airforce Headquarter
Western New Delhi ridley sea turtles.
Eastern Shillong 27. (A) Gravitational waves can be produced by
Central Allahabad any particle with mass.
South Western Gandhinagar - Strength of gravitational wave is the
Training Bangalore mallest among all fundamental forces.
Maintenance Nagpur - Gravitational force < Weak force <
20. (D) Vishaka Guidelines were procedural Electromagnetic force < Strong force.
guidelines pronouced Supreme Court in 28. (C) The India State of Forest Report 2015 is
1997 to be used in the case of sexual the 14th report in the series. It is based
Harassment of Women at Workplace Act on interpretation of LISS III sensor data
which was legislated in 2013. of indigenous Resourceasat-II. satellite.
21. (B) - Article 338 provides for creation of The Government today announced that
National Commission for Scheduled India's forest and tree cover has
Castes. There is nor provision for State increased by 5, 081 sq km.
Commission for SCs under this article. 29. (B) Komagata Maru was a ship bound to
- The tenure of Chairman and other
Canada from Hong-kong carrying
members is of 3 years. Indians from Punjab.
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- The Komagata Maru incident amplified per cent by 2030 from 2005 level.
the activities of the Gandhi was not in - There is no such promise about 100%
Indians from Punjab. energy from renewable sources.
- Gandhi was not in India during the 34. (A) Mere presence of large number of voters
incident, which happened in 1914. He does not make elections democratic. The
has no relation with the incident. voter turnout is good criteria to measure
- The Akali movement started in 1919 as whether elections are democratic or
an offshoot from the Singh Sabha not.
Other criteria are :
movement. It has no relation with the
- Power and independence of election
incident.

s
commission
30. (B) Transgender people as a group are - Acceptance of the verdict by the political
recognised in India as having a third parties.

pu
gender. 35. (D) Through the mediation of sir Tej Bhadur
- Transgender people are supposed to be sapru and Sri Jayakar, a pact was
provided OBC status in education and concluded between Gandhiji and Lord
employment reservation in India Irwin on March 5, 1931. According to this
according to SC directive but it has not pact, the Government agreed:
yet materialised by law from Parliament. (i) to withdraw all ordinances and cases
- In India according to the SC, the term pending against the political workers.

-
transgender does not include gay,
lesbian and bisexual people.
Section 377 of IPC is still in force in
India.
m (ii) Moustache and beard are added to
Buddha's face
(iii)The figures of this school follow a given
ratio between the size of the face and
31. (A) The Press Freedom Index is an annual rest of the body.
ranking of countries compiled and 36. (D) Le carbusier was a Swisis by origin, but
Ca
published by Reporters Without Borders french by Professional.
based upon the organization's 37. (A) Ludwig van Beethoven was a German
assessment ofthe countries press composer and pianist. A crucial figure
freedom records in the previous year. It in the transition betwen the classical
reflects the degree of freedom that and Romantic eras in Western art
music.
journalists, news organizations, and
38. (B)
netizens enjoy in each country, and the
39. (B) The concept of dual nationality means
efforts made by the authorities to
that a person is a citizen of two countries
respect and ensure respect for this
KD

at the same time.


freedom. 40. (A) The 42nd Amedoment brough about
32. (B) The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Substantial chargs of for reaching
Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral treaty consequences. It was enacted during an
by which states agree to ban all nuclear emergency imposed by Indira Gnadhi.
explosions in all environments, for SOCIALIST, SECULAR and INTERGRITY
military or civilian purposes. Non- were added to the Preamble.
Proliferation Treaty or NPT, is an 41. (A) Lucknow is the capital city of the Indian
international treaty whose objective is state of Uttar Pradesh. It is situated on
to prevent the spread of nuclear 2630' & 2710' North latitude and 8030'
weapons and weapons technology, to and 81 13' East longitude.
promote cooperation in the peaceful 42. (B) List I List II
uses of nuclear energy, and to further A. Assam 3. Dispur
the goal of achieving nuclear B. Dadra and
disarmament and general and complete Nagar havali 1. Silvassa
C. Lakshadweep 4. Kavaratti
disarmament. India, Pakistan and
D. Sikkim 2. Gangtok
Israel did not ratified both Non-
43. (C) Gomti - Lucknow
Proliferation Treaty and Comprehensive
Brahmaputra - Guwahati
Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). Kaveri - Tiruchirappali
33. (B) India has not agreed anything regarding Godawari - Rajahmunadr
its peak cmissions. China however has 44. (C) Tungabhadra - Karnataka
agreed to peak its emissions by 2030. Lower Bhawani - Tamil Nadu
- India has agreed for reduction in the Idukki - Kerala
emissions intensity of the GDP by 35 Nagarjuna - Andhra Pradesh

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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
45. (D) Samuel Hoare was the secretary of the
46. (C) state. Poona Pact had no provisions for
47. (B) civil services and local bodies
48. (D) The given situation is uniform circular reservation.
motion. In this case, the centripetal 53. (C) Panchayatan is a style of temple
construction. A Panchayatan temple
v2 has four subordinate shrines on four
acceleration ac = as |v | is constant
r corners and the main shrine is in the
center of the podium, which comprises
1
a . Hence, the graph between 'a' their base.

s
r Examples of Panchayatan temples are
a Kandariya Mahadeva temple in
and 'r' is

pu
Khajuraho, Brahmeshwara temple in
r Bhubaneshwar and pashavatara temple
49. (B) Light waves are electro-magnetic in Deogarh.
54. (A) The 'Ten Degree Channel' is channel
waves. In this, wave electric E and
that separates the Andaman and
magnetic fields B are always Nicobar islands in the Bay of Bengal.
perpendicular to the direction of travel The two sets of islands together form

50. (D)
of the wave.
Guwahati oil refinery is the first public
sector oil refinery of India, started in
m the Indian Union Territory (UT) of
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The
channel is approximately 10 km wide,
running essentially along an East-West
January, 1962. It is operated by the
orientation. It is so named as it lies on
Indian Oil Corporation. Barauni refinery
Ca
the 10-degree line of latitude, North of
lies in the state of Bihar, and was made
the equator.
with the collaboration of the USSR in
55. (A) Indian rebellion of 1857 urged the
July, 1975. Mathura oil refinery is also British Government to pass the
ow ed by the Indian Oil Corporation. It Government of India Act, 1858.
was started in Mathura (Uttar Predesh) 56. (B) White label ATMs are owned and run by
in October, 1983. a company that is not in bank in itself.
51. (C) Tides are periodic rise and fall of sea Non bank entities opening these ATMs
levels. They are caused by the ae free to choose the location of the
KD

gravitational forces of the Moon and the ATMs keeping in mind rural-urban
Sun, However, they are also influenced ratio.These ATMs accept debit cards of
by the rotation of the Earth and the all banks.
relative position of the Moon, which 57. (D) For wetland tobe. declared Wetland of
causes the level of tide to change in a International importance it should
given location. support vulnerable, endangered or
52. (C) First Round Table Conference was held threatened ecological communities
on 12th November, 1930to 19th 58. (C) Mars Orbiter Mission is a spacecraft
January, 1931. orbiting Mars in areocentric orbit. With
the success of the mission ISRO became
First Round Table Conference was
the. first Asian space agency and fourth
presided by the head of labour party
agency in the world to reach Mars after
Ramsay macDonald
NASA, Soviet Space Program and
First Round Table Conference 89
European Space Agency.
members, participated, in this there
59. (D) Though Election Commission is an all
were 16 members from British Political India body it is not concerned with the
Party. Congress did not participated in elections of the Panchayat and
the First Round Table Conference. Third Municipalities in the states. The
Round Table Conference was held on President of India appoints the. Election
17th November to 24th December, 1932. Commissioners and Regional
Only 46 delegates attended the Third Commissioners but they are removed on
Round Table Conference Congress the basis of resolution passed by both
boycotted Third Round Table Conference
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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
Houses of Parliament with special 69. (A) Lake Superior is the largest of the five
majority, on the grounds of : proved traditionally demarcated Great Lakes of
misbehavior or incapacity. The North America. Area is 82100 km2.
Constitution, hasnt debarred the 70. (A) Shanghai is the largest city by
retiring election commissioners from population in the People's Republic of
any further appointment by the china and the largest city proper by
government. population in the world located in the
60. (C) To protect and improve the Yangtze River Delta in eastern China,
environment and to safeguard forests Shanghai sits at the mouth of the
and wild life are directive principle of Yangtze River in the middle portion of

s
state policy. the Chinese coast. Bangkok is the
61. (B) Harmaltan blows from West Africa. capital city of Thailand and the most
populous city in the country. The city

pu
Mistral is a cold wind flowing northerly
from central France and the Alps to occupies 1, 568.7 square kilometres in
Mediterranean. Siroccos blows in North the Chao Phraya River delta in Central
Africa and Southern Europe while Thailand. Dresden is the capital city of
Minuano flous from Southern Brazil. the Free State of Saxony in Germany.
62. (A) The Battle of Buxar was fought on 23 It is situated in a valley on the River
October 1764 between the forces under Elbe, near the Czech border. Montreal
the command of the British East India
Company led by Hector Munro and the
combined Muslim army of Mir Qasim,
the Nawab of Bengal.
m is located in the southwest of the
province of Quebec. The city proper
covers most of the island of Montreal at
the confluence of the Saint Lawrence
63. (D) Hicky's Bengal Gazette was an English and Ottawa Rivers.
71. (D) The Ninth Plan recognized the internal
Ca
newspaper published from Kolkata (then
Calcutta), India. It was the first major link between rapid economic growth and
newspaper in India, started in 1780. It the equality of life of the mass of the
was published for two years people. Ensuring environmental
64. (C) Dr. B R Ambedkar, the chairman of the sustainability of the development
Drafting committee, called the process through social mobilization and
fundamental right to constitution participation of people at all level was
remedies as the heart and soul of the one of the specific objective of the Ninth
Indian constitution. Plan as approved by the National
KD

65. (C) Development Council. In the Ninth Plan


66. (D) Although all the four options form the document, policies and programmers
distinctive features of the Indian during the Eight Plan period were
Parliament, the most important feature reviewed, shortcomings identified and
is that its upper house (Rajya Sabha) is new policy framework suggested
permanent. It doesn't get dissolved overcoming the shortcomings and
unlike the Lok Sabha. ensuring sustainability of the
67. (C) Because it is "tidally-locked" to the development process not only in
Earth. The Earth's gravity slows down economic terms but also in terms of
the moon's rotation, so that it rotates social and environmental factors.
at the same speed as it revolves around 72. (B) Social infrastructure refers to the
the Earth. facilities and mechanisms that ensure
68.(B) Jawahar Tunnel or Banihal Tunnel, education, health care, community
named after the first Prime Minister of development, income distribution,
India, was constructed for round-the- employment and social welfare. It
year surface transport by Mr. Alfred includes health care system, including
Kunz and C. Barsel (both were German) hospital, the financing of health care,
between 1954 and 1960. The Jawahar including health insurance, the
tunnel has been operational since 22 systems for regulation and testing of
December, 1956. The length of tunnel medications and medical procedures;
is around 2.5 km, and it is situated the educational and research system,
between Banihal an Qazigund. This including elementary and secondary
facilitates round- the-year road schools, universities, specialized
connectivity to Srinagar From Jammu.
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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
colleges, research institutions: Social confined to citizens only and do not
welfare systems; Sports and extend to foreigners.
recreational infrastructure, such as
83. (D)
parks, sports facilities, the system of
84. (B) Lord William Bentinck abolished sati
sports leagues and associations:
Cultural infrastructure; and business practice.
travel and tourism infrastructure, 85. (A)
including both man- made and natural 86. (A)
attractions, etc. 87.(B) Nilgiri Biophere reserve was the 1st
73. (C) Social overheads capital is the capital

s
biosphere reserve in India and this
spent on social infrastructure, such as Biosphere is rich in plant diversity.
schools, universities, hospitals,
88. (D) In Prajapatya types of marriage, father of
libraries. They are capital goods of types

pu
which are available to anybody, hence bride used to marry her without giving
social; and are not tightly linked to any dowry and without demanding the bride-
particular part of production, hence price. While when a bridge price and
overhead. Because of their broad cow and bull were given as token dowry
availability they often have to be then this type of marriage was called
provided by the government. Examples
Arsa.

74. (C)
75. (A)
of social overhead capital include roads,
schools, hospitals, and public parks.
m
89. (C) The Basel Convention is on the control of
trans-boundary movements
hazardous Wastes and their disposal.
of

76. (D) The ex-aircraft carrier of the Indian 90.(A) Article 169 envisages abolition or creation
Navy, INS Vikrant is being converted of Legislative Councils in states.
Ca
into a floating museum and
91. (C) Abbas Tyabji was an Indian freedom fighter
rechristened Indian Museum Ship
(IMS) Vikrant. She is now anchored from Gujarat, who once served as the
opposite to Middle Ground near Gateway Chief Justice of the (Baroda) Gujarat
of India in Mumbai. This is with a view High Court. Mahatma Gandhi appointed
to meet the enormous demand of the
Tyabji, at age seventy-six, to replace
public to see the ship and also assess
the economic viability of sustaining him as leader of the salt Satyagrah in
her. The preliminary focus of the May 1930 after Gandhis arrest. Tyabji
KD

museum is to highlight the role of the was arrested soon afterward and
ship as the cradle of naval aviation in
imprisoned by the British Indian
the country.
77. (A) MALGEV Technology is frequently used Government. Gandhi and others
in trains across the world. respectfully called Tyabji the Grand Old
78. (C) Man of Gujarat.
79. (A) Buddhism was based upon compassion. 92. (D) Tryst with Denstiny was speech made
by Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime
80. (C) 73rd Constitutional amendment act
Minister of independent India. The
gives Constitutional status to the Gram speech was made to the India
Sabha. A person who attained the age Constituent India. The speech was
of 21 years, may be elected as a made to the Indian Constituent
member of the Gram sabha. Assembly, on the eve of Indias
81. (D) Independence, towards midnight on 14
August 1947. In focuses on the aspects
82. (D) Fundamental duties can be enforced by
that transcend Indias history. It is
parliament through law, but not through considered to be one of the greatest
writ jurisdiction. Unlike the some of the speeches of all time and to be a
Fundamental Rights which extends to landmark erearation that captures the
all persons whether citizen or essence of the triumphant culmination
foreigners, the Fundamental Duties are of the hundred-year non-violent Indian
freedom struggle against the British

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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
Empire in India. The phrase 98. (D) In Lord Mountbattens words, as told to
rendezvous with destiny was used by Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre:
Franklin D. Roosevelt in his 1936 The date I chose came out of the blue. I
Democratic National Convention chose it is reply to a question. I was
speech, inspiring the similar phrase determined to show I was master of the
tryst with destiny by Jawaharlal whole event. When they asked had we
Nehru. set a date, I knew it had to be soon. I
93. (B) hadnt worked it out exactly then
94. (D) When heated from 0 to 10 C volume of I thought it had to be about August or
a given mass of water will first decrease September and I then went out to the

s
and then increase. If the word ice or 15th August. Why ? Because it was the
solid is not mentioned, the word second anniversary of Japans
surrender.

pu
water means liquid water. Water vapor
can be produced from the evaporation or 99. (A) A republic is form of government is
boiling of liquid water. So the volume which the country is considered a
first decreases and then increases public matter (Latin : res publical), not
again when water droplets form from the the private concern or property of the
vapours due to stoppage of heat. rulers, and where offices of states are
95. (C) Ampicillin is the large spectrum anti- subsequently directly or indirectly
elected or appointed rather than
biotic most commonly used. Ampicillin
is a beta-lactam antibiotic that is part
of the amino-penicillin family and is
roughly equivalent to its successor,
m definition of a republic is a government
where the head of state is not a
monarch. In modern republics
amoxicillin in terms of spectrum and legitimized both by a constitution and
level of activity. It can sometimes result by popular suffrage. Montesquieu
Ca
in reactions that range in severity from included both democracies, where all the
a rash (in the case of patients that may people have a share in rule, and
unwittingly have mononucleosis) to aristocracies or oligarchies, where only
potentially lethal allergic reactions some of the people rule, as republican
such as anaphylaxis. However, as with forms of government.
other penicillin drugs, it is relatively 100. (A) Cements (e.g., Portland cement) harden
non-toxic and adverse effects of a because of hydration, chemical
serious nature are encountered only reactions the occur can harden even
rarely.
KD

underwater or when constantly exposed


96. (D) For women, heart disease symptoms
to wet weather. The chemical reaction
may be subtle-but when a heart attack
strikes, women are more likely to die that results when the anhydrous
than men. Women are also at twice the cement power is mixed with water
to men. Researchers say when men produces hydrates that are not water
have heart disease it affects the larger soluble.
blood vessels, but in women, the small
blood vessels become diseased
97. (B) Boron increases the absorption of water
and calcium in plants. It helps in the
metabolic activities in plants.

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GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST -23


1. The Petrapole Integrated Check Post (ICP) 1. iSVkiksy baVhxzsVsM psd iksLV (vkbZlhih) Hkkjr vkSj f
has been launched between India and
which of the following neighboring
esa ls fdl ns'k ds lkFk 'kq: fd;k gS\
countries? (A) E;kaekj (B) HkwVku
(A) Myanmar (B) Bhutan (C) usiky (D) ckaXykns'k
(C) Nepal (D) Bangladesh
2. iz/kuea=kh dkS'ky fodkl ;kstuk ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf
2. Consider the following statements about
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana. dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa%
1. The scheme will be implemented 1. bl dk;Ze dk f;kUo;u jk"Vh; dkS'ky fodkl fuxe
through National Skill Development ds }kjk fd;k tk,xkA
Corporation.
2. bl dk;Ze ds varxZr Lohr izf'k{k.k dk;Zeksa ds
2. It provides monetary reward for
successful completion of approved liQrkiwoZd laiUu djus ij ekSfnzd ikfjrksf"kr
training programmes. (Monetary reward) dk Hkh izko/ku gSA
Select the correct answer from the options fn;s x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa%
given below? (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 ,oa2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 u gh2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 3. jk"Vh; [kk| lqj{kk fe'ku ds varxZr fdlds mRiknu dks c<+k
3. The National Food Security
1. Rice 2. Wheat dk y{; gS%&
3. Fruits 4. Vegetables 1. pkoy 2. xsgw
5. Pulses 6. Coarse cereals 3. iQy 4. lCth
Select the correct answer using the codes 5. nky 6. eksVs vukt
given below. fn, x, ladsrksa dk iz;ksx djds lgh mkj p;u djsa%
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (A) dsoy 1, 2, 3 ,oa4
(B) 1, 2 and 5 only
(B) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 5
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(D) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only (C) dsoy 1, 2, 3 vkSj 5
4. Which of the following unit of Armed Forces (D) dsoy 1, 2, 5 vkSj 6
is not matched correctly with present 4. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&ls l'kL=k cyksa esa ls lgh laxBu d
organisation? izeq[k lqesfyr ugha gS%&
(A) Garuda - Indian Air Force (A) x:M+k - Hkkjrh; ok;q lsuk
(B) Marcos - Indian Navy
(B) ekdksZl - Hkkjrh; ukSlsuk
(C) COBRA - CRPF
(D) Rapid Action Force- India Army (C) dkscjk - lhvkjih,iQ
5. Consider the following statements about (D) jSfiM ,D'ku iQkslZ - Hkkjrh; lsuk
Tejas: 5. ^rstl* ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa&
1. It is a single seat, double jet engine light 1. ;s flaxy lhV okyk] Mcy tsV bZ/u ykbZV dkWEcsV
combat aircraft ,;jkV gS_
2. Tejas is a supersonic aircraft 2. rstl ,d lqijlksfud ,;jkV gS_
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
mijksDr esa ls dkSu?lR; gS
(C) Neither 1 nor 2 (D) Both 1 and 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
6. Which of the following statements are (C) uk rks1 uk gh2 (D) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa
correct about Nirbhaya Missile? 6. ^fuHkZ; felkbZy* ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij
1. Nirbhay Missile is a long range djsa&
supersonic missile. 1. fuHkZ; felkbZy ,d yach nwjh dk lqijlksfud felkby gS_
2. It can carry conventional as well as
2. ;g iajijkxr vL=kksa ds lkFk&lkFk U;wfDy;j gfFk;kjks
nuclear weapon.
3. The missile is powered by a solid rocket Hkh iz;ksx dj ldrk gS_
booster for takeoff. 3. bl felkby dks iz{ksi.k gsrq tkZ ,d csl jkWdsV cwLV
Select the correct answer using the code }kjk nh tkrh gSA
given below. mijksDr esa ls dkSu lR; gS\
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only (A) 1, 2 vkSj3 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 only (C) dsoy 1 vkSj3 (D) dsoy 2

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7. Which of the following organisations brings 7. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk laxBu oSf'od lekos'ku lwpdkad
out Global Financial Inclusion Index? fudkyuk ?gS
(A) International Monetary Fund
(B) United Nations Economic and Social (A) vUrjkZ"Vh; eqnzk dks"k
Council (B) la;qDr jk"V vkFkd rFkk lkekftd ifj"kn~
(C) World Bank (C) fo'ocSad
(D) OECD
(D) vksbZlhMh
(OECD)
8. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) Redflag is joint Airforce exercise of 8. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls dFku ?xyr gS
India with USA. (A) jsMySx Hkkjr vkSj vesfjdk dh lsok ds chp le>kSrk
(B) Varuna is the joint Naval exercise of gSA
India with France.
(B) o:.k ,d Hkkjr&izQkal ds e; gksus okyk ,d la;qDr
(C) Hand-in-Hand in joint Military training
exercise with China leqfnzd lSU;kH;kl gSA
(D) Mitrashakti is joint exercise of India (C) gkFkksa esa gkFk phu ds lkFk gksus okyk ,d la;qDr
with Nepal izf'k{k.k vH;kl gS_
9. Which of the following statements regarding
(D) fe=k'kfDr Hkkjr&usiky dk la;qDr vfHk;ku gS_
NITI Aayog are correct?
1. It is a statutory body
9. uhfr vk;ksx ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls dFku l
2. It has five regional councils gS
?
3. The regional councils will be chaired by 1. ;g ,d oS/kfud laLFkk gS_
State Chief minister in rotation 2. blds ikap {ks=kh; ifj"kn gS_
Select the correct answer using codes given
3. {ks=kh; ifj"knksa dh v;{krk jkT;ksa ds eq[;eaf=k;ksa
below?
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 ph; izfek ds vuq:i gksrk gSA
(C) 3 only (D) None of the above ladsrksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa&
th
10. 74 Constitutional Amendment Act has
(A) dsoy 1 (B) 1 ,oa3
provision for which of the following?
1. Constitution of State Election (C) dsoy 3 (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
Commission 10. 74ok lafo/ku vf/fu;e fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk izkokku
2. Constitution of Finance Commission djrk gS?
3. Audit of accounts a Municipalities by
1. jkT; fuokZpu vk;ksx dk xBu
CAG
Select the correct answer using codes given 2. fok vk;ksx dk xBu
below. 3. GAG ds }kjk uxjikfydk ds vkWfMV dk izko/ku
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 only dwV ds lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa%&
(C) 3 only (D) None of these
11. The book In the Name of Democracy: JP (A) dsoy 1 ,oa2 (B) dsoy 1
Movement and the Emergency has been (C) dsoy 3 (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
authored by whom? 11. iqLrd bu nh use vkWiQ Mseks djSlh % tsih eksesaV ,M
(A) Keith Richards (B) Bipan Chandra bejtalh fdlds }kjk fy[kh xbZ gS\
(C) Ajit Ranade (D Milind Deora (A) dhFk fjpMZl (B) fofiu pUnz
12. Which of the following are the objectives (C) vthr jkukMs (D) fefyan nsoM+k
given in Preamble?
12. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls ms'; izLrkouk
? esa gS
1. Securing liberty of faith
2. Ensuring dignity of individual 1. /ked fu"Bk dh ds Lora=krk dh lqj{kk
3. Constitution India into a Federal 2. O;fDrxr xfjek dh lqj{kk
Democratic Republic 3. Hkkjr dk ,d la?kh; iztkrkaf=kd x.kjkT; gksuk
Select the correct answer using codes given
below?
dwV ds lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa%&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 2 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj
3

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13. Which of the following taxes or levies are 13. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls dj dsUnz ljdkj }kjk yxk, tkrs
levied by Centre but collected and
appropriated by Centre and States? gSa ijUrq laxzfgr ,oa miHkksx dsUnz ,oa jkT; nksuksa }kjk
1. Service Tax 2. Cess gSa\
3. Surcharge 4. Stamp duty
1. lsok dj 2. pqaxh(cess)
Select the correct answer using codes given
below? 3. ljpktZ 4. LVkWEi M~;wVh
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 dwV ds lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa%&
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 2 and 3 (A) dsoy 1 (B) 1 vkSj2
14. Consider the following statements
1. Goa was ruled by Portuguese and French (C) dsoy 1 vkSj4 (D) dsoy 2 vkSj3
2. Goa became a state in 1961. 14. mi;qZDr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%&
3. Marathi speaking area also merged with 1. xksok ij iqrZxkfy;ksa rFkk izQkalhfl;ksa }kjk 'kklu
Goa
Select the correct answer using codes given x;kA
below. 2. xksok 1961 esa jkT; cukA
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 only 3. ejkBh cksyus okys {ks=k dks Hkh xksok esa feyk fy;k
(C) 2 and 3 (D) None of the above
15. Which of the following statements is/are fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
correct? (A) 1, 2 ,oa3 (B) dsoy 2
1. Hyderabad and Junagarh were (C) 2 ,oa3 (D) mi;qZDr esa dksbZ ugha
integrated
2. Kashmir was integrated through the
15. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku? lR; gS@gSa
Instrument of Accession 1. gSnkjkckn rFkk twukx<+ dks Hkkjr esa tuer losZ{k
3. Both Nagaland and Mizoram were feyk;k x;k FkkA
integrated to India with the use of army
2. d'ehj dks Hkkjr esa foy; ls feyk;k x;k FkkA
independence.
4. Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and 3. Lora=krk ds ckn ukxkyS.M rFkk fetksje nksuksa dks l
Jharkhand were made new based on iz;ksx }kjk Hkkjr esa feyk;k x;k FkkA
linguistic reorganization. 4. Nkhlx<+] mkjk[k.M rFkk >kj[k.M Hkk"kk;h iqu
Select the correct answer using codes given
below. vkkkj ij u;s jkT; cuk;s x;s FksA
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 only fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 2 only (A) 2, 3 vkSj
4 (B) dsoy 2
16. Which of the following statement regarding
Inter-State council under Article 263 are (C) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj3 (D) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
correct? 16. vuqPNsn&263 ds vUrxZr vUrjkZT;h; ifj"kn~ ds ckjs esa fuEu
1. Parliament can establish Inter-State esa ls D;k lR;?gS
council.
2. Its recommendations are binding in 1. laln vUrjkZT;h; ifj"kn~ dh xfBr dj ldrh gSA
nature. 2. bldh vuqla'kk, ck;dkjh izfr dh gksrh gSA
3. Central Council of Health was the first 3. bl micU/ ds rgr xfBr gksus okyh igyh ifj"kn~
council to be established under this
provision.
dsUnzh; LokLF; ifj"kn~ FkhA
Select the correct answer using codes given fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
below. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) dsoy 3 (D) mi;qZDr esa dksbZ ugha
(C) 3 only (D) None of the above
17. Which of the following statement about the 17. U;k;ikfydk ds ckjs esa dkSu&lk dFku lR; gS%&
judiciary are true? 1. laln }kjk ikfjr izR;sd dkuwu dks mPpre U;k;ky; }kjk
1. Every law passed by the Parliament vuqeksnu dh vko';drk gksrh gSA
needs approval of the Supreme Court
2. Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes 2. lafo/ku dh Hkkouk ds foijhr dkuwu gksus ij U;k;ikfydk
against the spirit of the Constitution bldks fujLr dj ldrh gSA
3. High courts can issue writs in case of 3. mPp&U;k;ky; ewy vf/dkj rFkk vU; laoS/kfud vf/
violation Fundamental Rights and other
Constitutional Rights, but not in case of dkjksa ds mYya?ku ij fjV tkjh dj ldrk gS fdUrq dkuwuh
legal rights. vf/dkj ds ekeyksa esa ughAa
Select the correct answer using codes given fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
below.
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only
(C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 3 (D) 2 vkSj3

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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
18. Consider the following statements about 18. fe'ku bUnz/uq"k ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%
Mission Indradhanush.
1. A nine pronged plan launched by Indian 1. lkoZtfud {ks=kd (PSB)
cSadksadh dk;Ziz.kkyh esa lqkkj
government to revamp functioning of ds fy;s Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk 'kq: dh x;h ukS&Lrjh ;kstukA
public sector Banks (PSB)
2. bldk ms'; lk[k lq/kj rFkkPSB dh dk;Ziz.kkyh esa
2. It seeks to achieve the objective of
economic growth revival through jktuhfrd gLr{ksi dks de djds vkFkd lao`f ds
improving credit and minimizing to ms'; dks izkIr djuk gSA
political inter ferrous in the functioning
of PSBs. fn;s x, dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqfu,%&
Select correct statements using the codes (A) dsoy1 (B) dsoy2
given below.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj u gh2
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 19. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%&
19. Consider the following statements.
1. Scientists from DRDO have indigenously 1. DRDO ds oSKkfudksa us Lons'kh :i ls fo'o ds lcls
developed world's lighted synthetic gYds f=ke inkFkZ flfydk ,vjkstsy dks fodflr fd;k
material called Silica Aero Gel gSA
2. The matrix of aero gel is made up of 90%
air. 2. ,vjkstsy dh eSfVDl90% ls vf/d ok;q ls cuh gSA
3. ISRO will use this material on moon 3. ISRO dk iz;ksx Hkkjr fe'ku pUnz;ku&2 esa djsxkA
rover in Chandrayaan-2 mission of
India. fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqus%&
Choose the correct statements using the (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
codes given below-
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) dsoy 2 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 20. ^LoPN Hkkjr midj* ds ckjs esa dkSu&lk dFku lR; gS\
20. Which of the following statement is correct
about newly imposed Swachh Bharat Cess 1. LoPN Hkkjr midj dh nj lHkh dj ;ksX; lsokvksa ij
1. The rate of Swachh Bharat Cess 0.5% 0.5% gSA
on all taxable services.
2. ;g 15 uoEcj]2015 ls izHkko esa gSA
2. It was applicable with effect from 15th
Nov 2015 3. ;g dks"k Hkkjr dh lafpr fuf/ esa tk;sxk rFkk jkT;ksa ds
3. The funds would go to the Consolidated lkFk lk>k ugha fd;k tk;sxkA
Fund of India and would not be shared
with the states fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqus%&
Choose the correct statements using the (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
codes given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) dsoy 2 vkSj3 (D) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 21. gky gh esa Hkkjr us lkekftd lqj{kk le>kSrs ij fdl ns'k ds
21. The Social Security Agreement (SSA) has
been signed between India and with
lkFk feydj gLrk{kj fd;k gS\
which country, recently? (A) vkfLV;k (B) gaxjh
(A) Austria (B) Hungary (C) tkiku (D) LohMu
(C) Japan (D Sweden 22. fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%&
22. Consider the following statements.
1. lafo/ku lHkk dSfcusV fe'ku ds rgr uoEcj]
1946 esa
1. The Constituent Assembly was
constituted in November 1946 under the xfBr dh xbZ FkhA
the Cabinet Mission Plan. 2. lafo/ku lHkk389 esa lnL; FksA
2. The strength of Constituent Assembly
was to be 389. 3. dsoy izkUrksa ds lhVksa dk vkoaVu tula[;k ds vuqik
3. Only provinces were to be allotted seats ij gksuk FkkA
in proportion to their population.
Select the correct answer using codes given fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
below. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) dsoy 2 vkSj3 (D) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

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https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
23. Which of the following are the demerits of 23. fuEu esa ls vkuqikfrd izfrfuf/Ro dh dfe;k gSa&
proportional representation?
1. There is no scope for organizing by- 1. mi&pqukoksa dks djkus dh dksbZ laHkkouk ughaA
elections 2. ;g izR;k'kh rFkk ernkrk ds e; fudV lEidZ dks
2. It eliminates intimate contact between lekIr dj nsrk gSA
voters and candidates.
3. It promotes minority thinking 3. ;g vYila[;d lksp dks c<+kok nsrk gSA
4. It decreases the significance of party 4. ;g nyh; O;oLFkk ds egRo dks de djrk gSA
system fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
Select the correct answer using codes given
below. (A) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj3 (B) dsoy 2, 3 vkSj 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj
4
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 24. lafo/ku ds fdl Hkkx esa vkFkd U;k; dk micU/
? gS
24. Which of the following parts of the 1. msf'kdk 2. ekSfyd drZO;
Constitution had provisions for economic
justice? 3. ewy vf/dkj 4. jkT; uhfr funs'kd rRo
1. Preamble fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
2. Fundamental Duties (A) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj3 (B) dsoy 1, 3 vkSj 4
3. Fundamental Rights
4. Directive principles of the State Policy (C) dsoy 2, 3 vkSj4 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj 4
Select the correct answer using codes given 25. 1991 esa dkSu&lk y{k.k u;h vkFkd uhfr gS\
below. 1. u;s cSadksa dh ykblsUl tkjh djukA
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. futhdj.k rFkk fofuos'k
25. Which among the following statements is/ 3. fons'kh izR;{k fuos'k ds fu;eksa dks vklku cukukA
are the features of New Economic policy of fn;s x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s lgh mkj dk p;u djs%
1991-
1. Issue of New bank licenses. (A) 1, 2 rFkk3 (B) dsoy 2 rFkk3
2. Privatisation and Disinvestment (C) dsoy 2 (D) dsoy 1 rFkk2
3. FDI Norms were eased. 26. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk jktuhfrd ny jk"Vh; jktuhfrd
Select the correct answer using the code
given below ny gS?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only 1. lektoknh ikVhZ
(C) 2 only (D) 1 and 2 only 2. Hkkjr dk lkE;oknh(ekDlZ
ny )
26. Which of the following political parties is/
are national political parties? 3. turk ny
1. Samajwadi Party 4. jk"Voknh dkWxzsl ny
2. Communist Party of India (Marxist) fn, x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s lgh mkj dk p;u djsa%
3. Janata Dal United
4. National Congress Party (A) dsoy 2 rFkk4 (B) dsoy 1, 2 rFkk
4
Select the correct Answer Using the Code (C) dsoy 4 (D) dsoy 2
given below. 27. 1991 ds vkfFkZd lq/kjksa ds ihNs dkSu? ls dkj.k Fks
(A) 2 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 4 only (D) 2 only 1. [kkM+h dk ;q
27. Which were the reasons behind the 1991 2. Hkqxrku ladV esa 'ks"k jkf'k
Economic reforms? 3. lhfer fons'kh eqnzk Hk.Mkj
1. Gulf War
2. Balance of Payment Crisis 4. laoS/kfud la?k dk iru
3. Limited Foreign Exchange Reserves fn, x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s lgh mkj dk p;u djsa%
4. Collapse of Soviet Union (A) dsoy 2 vkSj3 (B) 1, 2 rFkk3
Select the correct Answer using the code
given below. (C) 2, 3 rFkk4 (D) 1, 2, 3 rFkk
4
(A) 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 28. laosnu'khy jk"V lwpdkad fdl laxBu }kjk izdkf'kr fd;k
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 tkrk gS%&
28. The Fragile States Index is published by the
organisation: (A) VkalijsUlh b.Vjus'kuy
(A) Transparency International (B) iQ.M iQkWj ihl
(FFP)
(B) Fund For Peace (FFP) (C) ;weu jkbV okp
(C) Human Rights Watch
(D) Amnesty International (D) ,eusLVh b.Vjus'kuy

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
29. Match the following : 29. lqesfyr dhft,
List-A List-B
(a) Internal Security
lwph
-A lwph
-B
Academy 1. Pune (a) vkUrfjd lqj{kk vdkneh 1. iq.ks
(b) India Defence (b) Hkkjrh; j{kk fo'ofo|ky; 2. ekm.V vkcw
University 2. Mount Abu
(c) Hkkjrh; iqfyl vdkneh 3. xqM+xko
(c) Indian Police Academy 3. Gurgaon
(d) National Defence (d) jk"Vh; j{kk vdkneh 4. gSnjkckn
Academy 4. Hyderabad lwph dwV pqfu;s
Select the correct code? A B C D
A B C D
(A) 1 3 4 2
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 3 2 1 4 (B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 3 4 1 (C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 2 3 4 (D) 1 2 3 4
30. Which of the following is included in Social 30. fuEu esa ls D;k lkekftd volajpuk esa 'kkfey gS&
infrastructure? 1. f'k{kk 2. ;krk;kr
1. Education 2. Transport
3. Housing 4. Health 3. vkokl 4. LokLF;
Select the correct answer from following fn;s x;s dwV ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
code: (A) dsoy 1, 2, 3 (B) dsoy 2, 3, 4
(A) 1, 2, 3 only (B) 2, 3, 4 only
(C) 1, 3, 4 only (D) only 1, 2, 3, 4 (C) dsoy 1, 3, 4 (D) dsoy 1, 2, 3, 4
31. The worlds first Zika vaccine test on 31. nqfu;k dk igyk Vhdk ftdk ijh{k.k equ";ksa ij fdl ns'k }kjk
humans will be conducted by which vk;ksftr fd;k tk;sxk\
country?
(A) Canada (B) France (A) dukMk (B) izQkal

(C) China (D) South Korea (C) phu (D) nf{k.k dksj;k
32. Consider the following statements in 32. bafnjk vkokl ;kstuk
(IAY) ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj
context with the Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY): dhft, :-
1. The beneficiaries of the schemes are
1. bl ;kstuk ds ykHkFkhZ iwoZ lSU; dehZ] xjhch js[kk ds
BPL people ad families of ex-servicemen
of the armed forces & paramilitary ds yksx ;k vZ lSU; cyksa esa ekjs x;s dehZ gSA
forces killed in action. 2. ykHkFkhZ
IAY ds rgr fu/kZfjr fof'k"V izfr:i ds vuqlkj
2. The beneficiary is needed to construct
IAY houses as per the architectural
?kj cukrk gSA
specification and layout given under IAY. 3. bafnjk vkokl ;kstuk dk ykHk ysus gsrq O;fDr ds ikl
3. A person must have a plot to avail the tehu gksuh pkfg,A
benefits of Indira Awas Yojana.
Which among the above statements is/are
mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gS%&
correct? (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) dsoy 1 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
33. Consider following statements about Janani
33. tuuh lqj{kk ;kstuk ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,
Suraksha Yojana: (1) ;g ekrkvksa dks udn lqfo/k miyC/ djkrh gSA
(1) It provides cash Assistance to mothers. (2) ;g xHkZorh efgykvksa dks laLFkkxr izlo dks c<+kok
(2) It promotes institutional delivery to poor
pregnant women.
gSA
Which of the above statements is/are mi;qZDr esas ls dkSu lk@ls lgh gS@gSa
correct? (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj u2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
34. During Bhopal Disaster, people were exposed 34. Hkksiky =kklnh ds nkSjku] yksd fdl jlk;u dk f'kdkj
? gq;s Fks
to which chemical? (A) feFkkby vkblkslk;ukbV
(A) Methyl Isocyanite
(B) ukbVksfly DyksjkbM
(B) Nitrosyl Chloride
(C) Hydrogen Cyanide (C) gkbMkstu lkbukbM
(D) Carbon Monoxide (D) dkcZu eksuks vkWDlkbM

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
35. Consider the following statements 35. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj djs%
1. Operation Flood is the program related 1. vkWijs'ku yM 'osr kfUr ls lacaf/r dk;Ze gSA
to the white revolution.
2. Hkkjr esa iwWthxr oLrqvks ds mRiknu dks c<+kus d
2. Silver Revolution is for increasing the
capital good production in India. flYoj kfUr dh x;h FkhA
3. Yellow Revolution is described for the 3. Hkkjr esa rsy ds cht ds mRiknu dks c<+kus ds fy;s ihyh
increased oil seed production in India kfUr dk ft dh x;h FkhA
Which of the statements given above is/are
fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa dkSu? lgh gS
correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 rFkk
2 (B) dsoy 2 rFkk
3
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 1 rFkk
3 (D) 1, 2 rFkk
3
36. Match the following Table 1 with (Table 2):- 36. LrEHk
-I dks LrEHk
-II ls lqesfyr dhft,
1. Energy 2. Current capacity 1. tkZ 2. orZeku {kerk
(a) Solar 1. 4060 MW
(a) lkSj 1. 4060 esxkokV
(b) Wind 2. 23.76GW
(c) Biomass 3. 4.4 GW (b) ok;q 2. 23.76 esxkokV
(d) Nuclear 4. 5780MW (c) tSoHkkj 3. 4.4 xhxkokV
A B C D (d) ukfHkdh; 4. 5780 esxkokV
(A) 4 1 2 3 A B C D
(B) 1 2 3 4 (A) 4 1 2 3
(C) 3 2 4 1 (B) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4 (C) 3 2 4 1
37. Consider the statements with respect to (D) 2 3 1 4
Global Green House Gas emissions by 37. fofHkUu {ks=kksa }kjk oSf'od xzhu gkml xSl mRltZu d
sectors:
1. Agriculture contributes more GHG
fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
emission as compared to manufacturing 1. fuekZ.k rFkk fofuekZ.k {ks=k dh rqyuk esa f"k {ks=
and construction sector. xzhu gkml xSl mRltr djrk gSA
2. Land-use change and forestry 2. Hkwfe iz;ksx esa cnyko vkSj ou foHkkx ls gkml xS
contributes more GHG emission as
mRltZu esa f"k ls vf/d ;ksxnku gSaA
compared to agriculture.
Choose the correct answer from the codes fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;s&
given below. (A) dsoy1 (B) dsoy2
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) None of the above 38. ljdkj ds LekVZ flVh dk;Ze ds vUrxZr dkSu lh ;kstuk,
38. Government under the Smart City program
endeavours to include which of the following
vkrh gSa&
schemes: 1. vezqr
1. AMRUT, 2. LoPN Hkkjr vfHk;ku
2. Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM), 3. jk"Vh; fojklr 'kgj ds fodkl vkSj lao/Zu ;kstuk
3. National Heritage City Development and 4. fMftVy Hkkjr
Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY),
5. 'kgjksa esa lHkh ds fy, vkokl
4. Digital India,
5. Housing for all in cities fn;s x;s fodYiksa ls lgh mkj nsa
Choose the correct option from below? (A) 1, 2, 4 vkSj5 (B) 2, 3, 4 vkSj5
(A) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (C) 1, 2, 3 vkSj4 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 vkSj
5
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
39. tSu /eZ ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
39. Consider the following statements about
Jainism; (1) tSu /eZ us o.kZ&O;oLFkk dh vkykspuk dh rFkk osnk
(1) Jainism condemned the varna system loksZPprk dks vLohdkj fd;kA
& denied the supremacy of the Vedas. (2) tSu /eZ us bZ'oj dh lkk dks Lohdkjk fdUrq ftUu ds
(2) Jainism recognized the existence of uhps j[kkA
gods but placed them lower then jina.
mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku ? lR; gS@gSa
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj u2

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
40. Consider the following statements about the 40. nsocUn vkUnksyu ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhf
Deoband Movement:
1. It was founded by Maulana Hussain 1. bldh LFkkiuk ekSykuk gqlSu vgen }kjk dh x;h FkhA
Ahmed 2. blus dqjku dh mnkjoknh O;k[;k gSA
2. It provided a liberal interpretation of the mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
Quran.
Which of the above statements is/are (A) dsoy 1 (B) 2 vkSj4 dsoy
correct? (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj u2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 4 only
41. lkdZ f'k[kj lEesyu Hkkjr esa igyh ckj fdl 'kgj }kjk
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 or 2
41. Indias first-ever SAARC Tourism Summit vk;ksftr fd;k tk,xk\
will be hosted by which city? (A) ubZ fnYyh (B) vkxjk
(A) New Delhi (B) Agra
(C) vkSajxkckn (D) iVuk
(C) Aurangabad (D) Patna
42. fnYyh dk dkSu lk 'kgj muds laLFkkidksa ds lanHkZ esa
42. Which of the following cities of Delhi are not
matched correctly with their respective lqesfyr ugha gSA
founders? 1. tgkiukg - fiQjkst'kkg rqxyx
1. Jahanpanah - Feroz Shah Tughlaq
2. nhu iukg- gqek;w
2. Dinpanah - Humayun
3. Tughlakabad - Muhammod Bin Tughlaq 3. rqxydkckn - eqgEen fcu rqxyd
4. Shahjahanabad - Shah - Jahan 4. 'kkgtgkukckn- 'kkgtgk
Choose the right answer from the code given
below? uhps fn;s x;s dwV ls lgh mkj pqusa&
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only (C) dsoy 3 (D) dsoy 1 vkSj3
43. Which of the following are classical
languages of India? 43. Hkkjr esa fuEu esa ls dkSu 'kkL=kh;? Hkk"kk, gS
1. Tamil 2. Kannada 1. rfey 2. dUuM+
3. Gujarati 4. Odia
3. xqtjkrh 4. mfM+;k
Choose the correct answer from the
following given code: fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqfu;s
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only (A) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj3 (B) dsoy 1, 3 vkSj 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44. Consider the following statements regarding (C) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj 4
Natural Gas. 44. izkfrd xSl ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj
1. Natural gas is a mixture of gases dhft,&
containing Butane and Propane.
2. Natural gas is a fossil fuel used as a 1. izkfrd xSl C;wVsu vkSj izksisu xSl dk feJ.k gksrh g
source of energy for heating, cooking, 2. izkfrd xSl ,d thok'e bZa/u gS ftldk iz;ksx xeZ
and electricity generation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
djus] [kkuk cukus ;k fo|qr fuekZ.k esa tkZ L=kksr
correct :i esa gksrk gSA
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lR; gS@gSa&
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
45. Consider the following statements regarding (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
Transformers. (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj u2
It is used to: 45. VkUliQkelZ ds ckjs esa fuEu ij fopkj dhft,&
1. Convert low AC Voltage into High AC
Voltage ;g iz;qDr gksrk gS&
2. Convert High AC Voltage into Low AC 1. ;g AC dks mPp foHko AC okYVst esa cnyrk gSA
Voltage
2. ;g AC oksYVst dks fuEuAC foHko
okYVst cnyrk gSA
3. Convert Direct current to Alternating
current 3. ;g fn"V /kjk dks izR;korhZ /kjk esa cnyrk gSA
4. Regulate the fluctuation of voltage. 4. oksYVst ds mrkj&p<+ko dh fu;a=k.k djukA
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj3
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 2 only (C) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 4 (D) dsoy 2

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 8


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
46. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to 46. leqnz rFkk egklkxjksa esa Tokj vkrk gS fdl dkj.k&
which among the following?
1. Gravitational Force of the sun 1. lw;Z dk xq:okd"kZ.k cy
2. Gravitational Force of the moon 2. pUnzek dk xq:Rokd"kZ.k cy
3. Centrifugal Force of the earth 3. i`Foh dk vidsUnzh cy
Select the correct answer using codes given
below. fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;s&
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dfsoy1 vkSj2
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
47. Consider the following statements regarding
the emblem of India. 47. Hkkjr ds izrhd fpUgksa ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fo
1. The emblem of India is an adaptation of dhft,A
the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sanchi.
1. Hkkjr dk ;g izrhd fpUg flag dh v'kksd dh
2. The emblem form a part of the official
letterhead of the Government of India jktkkuh lkph ls fy;k x;k gSA
and appears on all Indian currency as 2. ;g izrhd fpUg Hkkjr ds vf/dkfjd i=k dk 'kh"kZd
well.
3. The usage of the emblem is regulated gksrk gS rFkk eqnzkvksa ij Hkh izn'kr gksrk gSA
and restricted under State Emblem of 3. izrhdksa ds iz;ksx dk fn'kk funsZ'ku vkSj euk gh Hk
India (Prohibition of Improper Use) Act, jkT; izrhd(vuqfpr iz;ksx izfrjksk
) vfkfu;e 2005
2005.
Which among the above statements is/are ds }kjk gksrk gSA
true? mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lR;- dFku gS@gS
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) All the above
48. Which of the following statements regarding (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
Financial Emergency are correct? 48. fokh; vkikr ds ckjs esa dkSu&lk dFku ? lR; gS
1. Constitution specifies no maximum
1. lafo/ku esa fokh; vkikr ds fy;s dksbZ vf/dre le;
time limit of the duration for Financial
Emergency. lhek fu/kZfjr ugha fd;k x;k gSaA
2. Financial Emergency must be approved 2. fokh; vkikr lnu ds nksuksa lnuksa }kjk fo'ks"k cgqe
by both Houses of Parliament with
special majority.
ikfjr gksuk pkfg,A
Select the correct answer using the codes fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh fodYi pqfu;s
given below. (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 both (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj u2
49. Which of the following types of Urban 49. jkT; ljdkj }kjk fdl izdkj dh 'kgjh lkk LFkkfir dh tkrh
Governments are established by State gS&
Government ?
1. Municipality 1. uxj ikfydk
2. Notified Area Committee 2. vf/ lwfpr {ks=k lfefr
3. Port Trust
3. cUnjxkg U;kl
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqfu;sa&
(A) only 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
50. Consider the following statements related
with the Mohiniyattam Dance. 50. eksfguh vV~Ve u`R; ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft
1. Mohiniyattam is considered as a dance 1. eksfguhvV~Ve dks gky ds mn~Hko dk u`R; ekuk tkrk
form which has recent origin
2. References of Mohiniyattam can be 2. eksfguhvV~Ve dk lUnHkZ O;ogkj ekyk] etgkexye
found in the texts Vyavaharamala ukjk;.ke~ ukeiq=kh esa feyrk gSA
Mazhamagalam Narayanan Namputiri 3. ;g u`R; yL; 'kSyh ls lEcfU/r gSA
3. The dance form belongs to Lasya style
Which among the following statements are dkSu lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
true? (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj2
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) None of the above

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 9


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
51. Who has been appointed as the Managing 51. 2019 vkbZlhlh fdsV fo'o di ds eq[; lapkyd ds :i
Director of the 2019 ICC Cricket World Cup?
(A) Phil Simmons (B) Steve Elworthy
esa fdls fu;qDr fd;k x;k gS\
(C) Steve Waugh (D Trevor Bayliss (A) fiQy flel (B) LVho boksZFkh
52. Which of the following committees consists (C) LVho okW (D) Vsoj csfyl
of members from both the Houses? 52. fuEu esa fdu lfefr;ksa esa lnu ds nksuksa lnuksa ds lnL; gk
1. Committee on Welfare of SC/ST
2. Committee on Privileges gSaA
3. Ethics Committee 1. vuqlwfpr tkfr@tu tkfr dY;k.k lfefr
Select the correct answer using the codes 2. fo'ks"kkf/dkj lfefr
given below. 3. vkpkj lfefr
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqfu;s
53. Which of the following statements regarding (A) dsoy 1 (B) 1 vkSj2
Vice President are correct? (C) dsoy 3 (D) 1 vkSj3
1. He can act as President only for a 53. mi&jk"Vifr ds ckjs esa dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa
maximum period of six months.
2. He can be removed from the office on 1. og vf/dre N% eghus rd jk"Vifr dh rjg dk;Z dj
the grounds of proved misbehavior and ldrk gSA
incapacity. 2. mUgsa nqO;Zogkj ls rFkk v{kerk ds vkkkj ij gVk;k
3. Resolution for his removal must be ldrk gSA
passed by special majority in Rajya
Sabha and then agreed by Lok Sabha. 3. mldks gVkus lEcU/h izLrko jkT; lHkk }kjk fo'ks"
Select the correct answering using codes cgqer ls ikfjr gksuk pkfg, rFkk yksdlHkk dh lgefr
given below. gksuh pkfg,A
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 3 only ladsrksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;s
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
54. What is Digi Locker? (A) dsoy 1, 3 (B) dsoy 3
(A) Digital locker service provided by State (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj
3
Bank of India. 54. Mhth ykWdj D;k ? gS
(B) Digital space developed by Revenue
(A) Hkkjr ds LVsV cSad }kjk fMftVy ykWdj dh lsok miyC
Department to store tax related
information and check financial frauds. djk;h x;hA
(C) A digital locker service launched by (B) fMthVy Lisl dks jktLo foHkkx }kjk dj laca/h lwpuk
Government of India to provide digital rFkk fokh; xM+cM+h dh ns[kjs[k dh lwpuk dks j[k
space for storing the documents of
resident Indians.
fy;s fodflr fd;k x;k gSA
(D) None of the above (C) Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk fMftVy ykWdj dk vkjEHk Hkkjrh;
55. Consider the following statements regarding fuokfl;ksa ds nLrkostksa dks j[kus ds fy;s fd;k x;kA
the cave paintings in India (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
1. Bhimbetaka - Madhya Pradesh
2. The Ajanta Caves - Maharashtra
55. Hkkjr esa xqiQk fp=kksa ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj
3. Sittanavasal - Karnataka 1. HkhecsVdk - e;&izns'k
4. Badami cave - Tamil Nadu 2. vtUrk xqiQk - egkjk"V
Which among the above options is/are 3. flkkuokly - dukZVd
correctly matched?
4. cknkeh xqiQk,- rfeykMq
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 and 4 only mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu&lk@lh lgh lqesfyr gSa
56. Which of the following are features of the (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj2
Parliamentary Democracy? (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) dsoy 3 vkSj4
1. Balance between popular participation
and elite rule 56. fuEu esa dkSu lk lalnh; yksdra=k dh fo'ks"krk, gS\
2. Responsibility of government to the 1. yksd Hkkxhnkjh rFkk vfHktkr 'kklu ds chp lUrqyu
elected representative and not to the 2. ljdkj dh fuokZfpr izfrfuf/;ksa ds izfr ftEesnkjh u fd
public yksxksa ds izfr
3. Parliamentarians are designated the
responsibility of thinking and acting on 3. lnu dks yksxksa ds izfr lkspus vkSj dk;Z djus dk
behaff of people. mkjnkf;Ro gSA
Select the correct answer using the codes mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu lk@ls lR; gS@gSa
given below. (A) 1 vkSj3 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 (D) None of these (C) 2 vkSj3 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 10


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
57. Which of the conditions lead to recognition 57. jk"Vh; ny ds :i esa fu/kZj.k gsrq lapkyu? n'kk, gS
of a party as a national party?
1. ;fn ;g vke pqukoksa
2% lhVs thrrs gS rFkk ;s izR;k'kh
1. If it wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha
at a general election and these pkj vyx jkT;ksa ls fuokZfpr gSA
candidates are elected from four states. 2. ;g pkj jkT;ksa esa jkT; Lrjh; ny ds :i esa fpfUgr gSA
2. If it is recognized as a state party in four fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;s
states
Select the correct answer using the codes (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
given below. (C) 1 vkSj 3 nksuksa (D) u rks1 vkSj u gh 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 58. bZLV bf.M;k dEiuh ds fdl vf/fu;e us igyh ckj dEiuh
(C) 1 and 3 both (D) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Which among the following East India rFkk lalnh; cksMZ funs'kdksa }kjk igyh ckj nksgjh ljd
Company acts for the first time introduced O;oLFkk izkjEHk dh x;hA
Dual System of Government by the company (A) jsX;wysfVax vf/fu;e]
1773
and by a Parliamentary board of directors:
(B) fiV~l bf.M;k vf/fu;e 1784
(A) Regulating Act 1773
(B) Pitt's India Act 1784 (C) pkVZj vf/fu;e 1813
(C) Charter Act of 1813 (D) pkVZj vf/fu;e 1833
(D) Charter Act of 1833
59. fFk;kslksfiQdy lkslk;Vh ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fo
59. Consider the following statements about
Theosophical society: dhft,&
1. It was founded in London, England in 1. bldh LFkkiuk baXyS.M 1875 ds yanu
bZ- esa gqbZ FkhA
1875 2. lkslk;Vh us tknw&Vksus dks viuk;kA
2. The society practised occultism
3. The theosophical society helped the 3. fFk;kslksfiQdy lkslk;Vh us Hkkjrh; kfUrdkfj;ksa
Indian revolutionaries. enn dh FkhA
Choose the correct option from below? fn;s x;s fodYiksa ls lgh mkj pqfu;s
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 only (D) All of the above (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
60. Which of the following events occurred (C) dsoy 2 (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
under the Governor Generalship of Warren 60. okjsu gsfLVax ds dk;Zdky dkSu&lh ?kVuk, gqbZ Fkh\
Hastings:
1. lkyckbZ dh lfU/
1. The Treaty of Salbai
2. Codification of Hindu and Muslim Laws 2. fgUnw ,oa eqfLye fof/;ksa dk lafgrdj.k
3. Bengal White mutiny 3. caxky 'osr fonzksg
Choose the correct option from below? fn;s x;s fodYiksa ls lgh mkj ? pqfu;s
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only (D) All of the above (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
61. Who has been appointed as the new (C) dsoy 1 (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
chairman of Airports Authority of India 61. Hkkjrh; foeku iku izkf/dj.k ds u,s v;{k ds :i esa
(AAI)?
fu;qDr fd;k x;k gS
(A) Guruprasad Mohapatra
(B) J P Alex (A) xq:iz'kkn egkik=k (B) ts ih ,ysDl
(C) R K Srivastava (C) vkj ds JhokLro (D) v:.k dqekj
(D Arun Kumar 62. flfoy lsok ds laca/ esa fuEu dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@lss
62. Which of the following statements regarding gSa
Civil Services are correct?
1. vf[ky Hkkjrh; lsok ds lnL; jk"Vifr ds izlkn i;Zar
1. Members of All India Services hold office
during the pleasure of President. lsok xzg.k djrs gSaA
2. The Constitutional provisions in part 2. lafo/ku ds HkkxXIV ds vf[ky Hkkjrh; lsok ds izkokku
XIV, related to All India Services don't tEew rFkk d'ehj ij ykxw ugha gksrk gSA
apply to Jammu and Kashmir.
3. UPSC is consulted in disciplinary 3. vf[ky Hkkjrh; lsokvksa esa vuq'kklukRed ekeyksa
matters related to All India Services. UPSC ls lykg yh tkrh gSA
Select the correct answer using the codes fn;s x;s dwVksa ds }kjk lgh mRkj pqusa&
given below.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (A) 1 rFkk 2 (B) 1 rFkk3
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 11


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
63. Which of the following pairs are correctly 63. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk lqesfyr lR; gS\
matched? 1. LFkkuh; ljdkj - vof'k"V lwph
1. Local Governments : Residuary List
2. Social and Economic Planning : 2. lkekftd rFkk vkFkd ;kstuk - leorhZ lwph
Concurrent List 3. U;k; iz'kklu: la?k lwph
3. Administration of Justice : Union List fn;s x;s dwVksa ds }kjk lgh mkj pqusa&
Select the correct answer using the codes (A) dsoy 1 (B) 1 rFkk3
given below. (C) dsoy 2 (D) 2 rFkk3
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 only (D) 2 and 3 64. CykfVax isij (lks[rk dkxt) ls L;kgh vo'kks"k.k esa 'kkfey
64. The absorption of ink by blotting paper gS
involves (A) L;kgh ds i`"V ruko
(A) Surface tension of ink (B) izlkj] CykfVax isij ds ek;e ls
(Diffusion)
(B) Diffusion through blotting
(C) lkbiQfuax izf;k
(C) Siphoning action
(D) Capillary action (D) dSfiyjh izf;k
65. It is easier to pull an object rather than 65. ,d oLrq dks [khapuk vklku gS tcfd bls /Ddk nsuk dfBu
push it because- gS D;ksafd&
(A) Rolling friction is less than sliding (A) jksfyax fizQD'ku (?kw.kZu)] LykbfMax fizQD'ku ls d
friction
(B) The normal force increases while
gSA
pushing leading to more friction (B) /Ddk nsrs le; lkekU; cy c<+ tkrk gS tks fd ?k"kZ.k
(C) The normal force decreases while dks vkSj c<+k nsrk gSA
pushing leading to more friction. (C) lkekU; cy vf/d gks tkrk gS tc ?k"kZ.k vf/d gksrk
(D) When pulling, gravity aids the user but gSA
while pushing gravity acts against the
user. (D) [khaprs le; xq:Rokd"kZ.k lgk;d gksrk gS tcfd kDdk
66. Consider the following is true about CAG? nsrs le; xq:Rokd"kZ.k mi;ksxdrkZ ds fo: dk;Z
1. He complies and maintains the djrk gSA
accounts of both state and central 66. CAG ds fo"k; esa fuEu dFkuksa esa & lR; gS@gSa
government. 1. og dsUnz rFkk jkT; ljdkj nksuksa ds [kkrksa dk laxzg d
2. He audits the accounts of local bodies
on request from President or Governor. gSA
3. He also prepares audit report on Public 2. ;g dsUnz rFkk jkT; ljdkj nksuksa ds [kkrksa dk laxzg v
Undertakings ns[kjs[k djrk gSA
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. ;g ljdkjh mieksa laca/h vkWfMV fjiksVZ Hkh rS;kj
given below.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
gSA
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 lgh dwV dh p;u djsa&
67. Which of the following was not a demand of (A) 1 rFkk2 (B) 1 rFkk3
Delhi Manifesto? (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 rFkk 3
(A) The purpose of Round Table conference 67. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh ekx fnYyh ?kks"k.kk i=k dh
should be to formulate a scheme for
implementation of the dominion status.
Fkh
?
(B) Immediate set up of Constituent (A) xksy esat lEesyu dk ms'; vf/jkT; ds ntsZ dks ykxw
assembly djus ds fy;s ;kstuk cuk;k FkkA
(C) The Congress should Have majority (B) lafo/ku lHkk dk 'kh?kz xBuA
representation at the Round Table (C) xksy est lEesyu esa dkWxzsl ds cgqer dks izfrfuf/Ro
Conference.
(D) Amnesty and general policy of djukA
conciliation. (D) {keknku rFkk lqyg dh lkekU; uhfrA
68. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health 68. lhek (ySM) ls 'okl laca/h [krjukd chekjh gSA isVksy esa
hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol ySM dh feykoV ij izfrcU/ ds ckotwn Hkh dkSu ls L=kksr
has been banned, what still are the sources ySM fo"kkDrrk ds dkSu ls?L=kksr gSA
of lead poisoning?
1. PVC plastic 1. PVC IykfLVd
2. Pens and pencils 2. isu rFkk isfUly
3. Paints 3. isUV~l
4. Hair oils and cosmetics 4. gs;j vkW;y rFkk lkSUn;Z mRiknksa esa
Select the correct answer using codes given
below.
fn;s x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s lgh mkj dk p;u djsa
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) 1, 2 rFkk3 dsoy (B) 1 rFkk 3 dsoy
(C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) 2 rFkk4 dsoy (D) 1, 2, 3 rFkk4
(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 12
Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
69. Neem cake can be used in which among 69. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl iz;ksx esa uhe dsd mi;ksx fd;k tkrk
the following applications:
gS%
1. Insecticide 2. Organic Manure
3. Soil Treatment 1. dhVuk'kd 2. tSfod [kkn
Choose the correct option: 3. e`nk mipkj
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only lgh fodYi dk p;u djs:
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
(A) dsoy 1 (B) 1 rFkk2 dsoy
70. Mirage occurs due to
(A) Presence of water in the atmosphere. (C) 2 rFkk3 dsoy (D) 1, 2 rFkk3
(B) Unequal heating of different parts of the 70. ejhfpdk fdl dkj.k gksrh gS&
atmosphere. (A) ok;qe.My es ty dh mifLFkfr ds dkj.kA
(C) Sun's rays beings vartically above the
(B) ok;qe.My ds fofHkUu d.kksa esa vleku rkiA
earth.
(D) Light getting reflected on the dust/small (C) lw;Z dh fdj.ks yEc :i ls /jrh ij vkrh gSA
particles in the air (D) ok;q esa /wy@lw{e d.kksa ds ij izdk'k dk ijkorZuA
71. Who will be the new Chief Economist and 71. fo'o cSad(WB) ds u;s eq[; vFkZ'kkL=kh vkSj ofj"B mik;{k
Senior Vice- President of the World Bank
fdldks cuk;k x;k gS\
(WB)?
(A) Justin Yifu Lin (A) tfLVu fyu ;kiqQ (B) ekVu jofy;u
(B) Martin Ravallion (C) ikWy jksej (D) j?kqjke jktu
(C) Paul Romer 72. dukZVd ;q ds lUnHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr fodYiksa ij fop
(D) Raghuram Rajan djsa&
72. Consider the following options regarding lwph1 lwph 2
Carnatic Wars.
1. igyk dukZVd ;q a. ,Dl yk 'kisy ds lfUk
List 1 List 2
1. First Carnatic War a. Ended by Treaty }kjk lekIr
of Aix La 2. f}rh; dukZVd ;q b. ikW.Mhpsjh dh lfUk
Chapelle }kjk lekIr
2. Second Carnatic b. Ended by
3. r`rh; dukZVd ;q c. isfjl dh lfUk }kjk
War Treaty
Pondicherry lekIr
3. Third Carnatic War c. Ended by Treaty mijksDr esa ls dkSu lgh lqesfyr gS&
of Paris (A) dsoy 1 (B) 1 rFkk 2 dsoy
Which of the above are correctly matched?
(C) 2 rFkk3 dsoy (D) dsoy 3
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 only 73. bu ,sfrgkfld ?kVukvksa dks e esa yxk;s&
73. Arrange these historical events in correct 1. jkSysV ,DV
sequence beginning from the earliest. 2. lkbeu deh'ku
1. Rowlatt Act
3. caxky foHkktu
2. Simon Commission
3. Partition of Bengal 4. ekysZ fe.Vks lq/kj
4. Morley-Minto reforms (A) 4-3-2-1 (B) 4-1-2-3
(A) 4-3-2-1 (B) 4-1-2-3 (C) 3-4-2-1 (D) 3-4-1-2
(C) 3-4-2-1 (D) 3-4-1-2 74. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh /krq [kfut ds lkFk lgh lqesfyr
74. Which of the following metals is matched
gS
?
correctly with the minerals?
1. Magnetic - Manganese 1. eSxukbV - eSxuht
2. Malachite - Copper 2. eSykdkbV - rkack
3. Cassiterite - Tin 3. lsLVjkbV & fVu
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa dkSu&lk@ls
? lgh gSa
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (A) 1 rFkk2 dsoy (B) 2 rFkk
3 dsoy
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) All of the above (C) 1 rFkk3 dsoy (D) mijksDr lHkh

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 13


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
75. Consider the following statements 75. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa&
1. Rustin of iron becomes faster at higher 1. vR;f/d rkieku ij yksgs esa tax rsth ls yxrh gSA
temperature
2. vR;f/d rki ij phuh rsth ls ?kqyrh gSA
2. Sugar dissolves faster at higher
temperature fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa? lgh gSa
Which of the following statements are (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
correct?
(C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) u rks1 vkSj u gh 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2
76. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
76. Consider the following statements : 1. vkLVsfy;k esa flel xehZ esa euk;k tkrk gSA
1. Christmas is celebrated in summer in 2. 21ekpZ dks fo"kqor js[kk ij lw;Z dh fdj.ksa lh/h fxjrh
Australia gSaA
2. Direct rays of the sun fall on the equator
fuEu esa ls vlR; fodYi pqusaA
on 21st March.
Choose the incorrect option from below? (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 77. Hkkjrh; Hkw&xeZ losZ{k.k ds u;s ^vukoj.k* izkstsDV d
77. Regarding the new Uncover project of the
Geological Survey of India, consider the fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
following statements: 1. ;g xgjk;h esa fNis gq;s tek [kfutksa dh [kkst ij dsfUnzr
(1) It is focused on probing for deep seated/ gSA
concealed mineral deposits.
2. ;g MkV jk"Vh; [kfut vUos"k.k uhfr dk egRoiw.
(2) It is one of the important action of the
draft National Mineral Exploration Policy dk;Z fcUnq gSA
(NMEP)/ dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gSa&
Which of the Statements is/are true? (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) u rks 1 vkSj u 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
78. By 2100 global surface temperature is 78. 2100 rd oSf'od rkieku ds2-4C c<+us dh mEehn gSA
expected to rise by 2-4 degree Celsius. Which bl ifj?kVuk dk buesa ls D;k izHkko?ugha gksxk
amongst these is not a possible impact of 1. vfu;fer ekulwu ls Hkkjr esa iQly mRiknu esa egRoiw.k
this phenomenon.
1. India will see a significant decrease in deh vk;sxhA
crop yields due to erratic monsoons. 2. c<+rh tula[;k rFkk flapkbZ vko';drkvksa dks iw.kZ
2. More energy will be required for meeting djus gsrq vkSj vf/d tkZ dh t:jr gksxhA
rising population needs and irrigation.
3. ty rFkk osDVj tfur jksxksa esa o`f gksxhA
3. Increased incidences of water borne and
vector borne diseases. fn;s x;s fodYiksa ls lgh mkj pqusa&
Choose the correct option from below? (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) dsoy 1 (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
(C) 1 only (D) All of the above
79. Which among the following statements
79. Hkkjrh; f"k {ks=k ds fo"k; esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
about Agriculture sector in India is true? gS\
1. The estimated agriculture growth rate 1. 2014&15 esas vuqekfur f"k lao`f nj dsoy 4 ls
has been just above 4% in 2014-15.
vfkd gqbZA
2. More than 50% of net cropped area are
in rain fed. 2. 50 ls vf/d f"k {ks=k o"kkZ flafpr gSA
3. Share of agriculture to GDP has fallen 3. Hkkjr dh GDP esa f"k dk ;ksxnku 50 ls uhps gks x;k
below 50%. gSA
Which of the statements above is/are
correct?
mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) None of the above (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) mi;qZDr esa dksbZ ugha

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 14


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
80. Which of the following factors are 80. Hkkjr esa lw{e flapkbZ dks de viukus gsrq dkSu ls dkj
responsible for low adoption of micro
irrigation in India? ftEesnkj gSa\
1. Fragmented landholdings. 1. fc[kjh gq;s Hkw&tksr
2. High investment cost
3. Large number of small and marginal 2. mPp ykxr fuos'k
farmers. 3. cM+h la[;k esa NksVs rFkk lhekUr fdlku
Which of the statements above is/are
correct? mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lR; gS&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) All of the above
81. Who is the newly elected Prime Minister of (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
Australia? 81. vkLVsfy;k ds u;s iz/kuea=kh dkSu pqus x, gS\
(A) Sally Young
(A) lSyh ;qok (B) rkU;k ifycZld
(B) Tanya Plibersek
(C) ehVj dklxzkso (D) eSYde VuZcy
(C) Peter Cosgrove
(D) Malcolm Turnbull 82. egkRek xka/h jk"Vh; jkstxkj xkj.Vh ;kstuk
(MGNREGA)
82. Consider the following statements about the ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural 1. MGNREGA dk ms'; de ls de 100 fnuksa dk
Employment Guarantee Scheme
(MGNREGA): jkstxkj izR;sd xzkeh.k ifjokj dks ,d fokh; o"kZ es
1. MGNREGA aims to provide at least 100 miyC/ djkuk gSA
days of wage employment in a financial
year to every rural household. 2. MGNREGA dk ykHk de ls de 1@3 efgykvksa dks

1 feysxkA
2. At least rd of the beneficiaries of
3 3. ;fn MGNREGA vkosnudrkZ dks jkstxkj miyC/
MGNREGA must be women. ugha djk;k tkrk gS rks vkosnudrkZ udn gtkZus dk
3. If employment is not provided to
applicants to MGNREGA, the applicants gdnkj gksxkA
are entitled to be paid compensation 4. de ls de 50 (dks"k }kjk) dk;Z dks xzke iapk;r ds
4. At least 50 per cent (by fund) of the works
have to be implemented through the ek;e ls ykxw djok;k tk;sxkA
Gram Panchayats. fuEu esa ls lgh fodYi pqfu;s&
Select the correct answer from the following.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C)dsoy 2 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
83. Consider the following statements about
President's rule 83. jk"Vifr 'kklu ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
1. President 's rule can imposed in state if 1. ,d jkT; esa jk"Vifr 'kklu yxk;k tkrk gS ;fn ,slh fLFkfr
situation has arisen in which the
government of the state cannot be mRiUu gks x;h gS fd jkT; dh ljdkj laoS/kfud micU/
carried on in accordance with the ksa ls ugha pyk;h ldsA
tk
provisions of the Constitution.
2. jk"Vifr 'kklu ds nkSjku] laln jkT; lwph ds fdlh Hkh fo"k;
2. During President's rule, Parliament
becomes empowered to make laws with ij dkuwu cukus ds fy, l{ke gks tkrh gSA
respect to any matter in the State List
in relation to that state.
3. jk"Vifr 'kklu yxkus dh mn~?kks"k.kk ykxus dh frfFk d
3. A proclamation imposing President's eghus ds vUnj laln ds nksuksa lnuksa ls vuqeksfnr gksuh p
rule must be approved by both the
4. jk"Vifr 'kklu ,d lky ls T;knk ugha yxk;k tk
Houses of Parliament within two months
from the date of its issue. ldrkA
4. President's rule cannot be extended lgh mkj pqfu;s&
beyond one year.
Select the correct answer from the following. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 15


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
84. Consider the following statements about the 84. Vkal iSlsfiQd lk>snkjh ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhf
Trans Pacific Partnership (TPP): 1. TPP esa dsoy ogh ns'k 'kkfey gSa ftudh lhek iz'kkar
1. TPP includes only nations which border
the Pacific Ocean. egklkxj ls yxrh gSA
2. China is a member of TPP. 2. phuTPP dk lnL; gSA
3. The Yarn forward rule in the context of 3. TPP ds lanHkZ esa ;kuZ iQkjoMZ fu;e mYys[k djrk gS
TPP refers to a rule that prescribes TPP lnL; ns'k L=kksr ;kuZ ls 'kqYd vf/ekurk izkIr dj
sourcing yarn from TPP member
countries to avail duty preference.
ldrs gSaA
4. TPP is expected to help increase India's 4. mEehn gSTPP fd esa Hkkjr ds lsok rFkk oLrq O;kikj fu;kZr
export in goods and services to TPP c<+kus esa enn djsxh] D;ksafd blls O;kikj izfrjks/ de gks
member nations due to the easing of lgh dFku pqfu,%&
trade barriers.
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3
Select the correct answer from the
following. (C) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only 85. vUrjkZ"Vh; ckSfd lEink(IIP) lwpdkad
fdlds }kjk izdkf'kr
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 fd;k tkrk gS\
85. The International Intellectual Property (IIP)
(A) fo'o O;kikj laxBu (WTO)
Index is published by
(A) World Trade Organisation (WTO) (B) fo'o ckSfd lEink laxBu (WIPO)
(B) World Intellectual Property Organisation (C) oSf'od ckSfd lEink dsUnz(GIPL) vesfjdh dkWelZ
(WIPO) pSEcj dk
(C) Global Intellectual Property Centre (D) fo'o cSad
(GIPC) of US Chamber of Commerce
(D) World Bank 86. gky gh eas ikfjr fo/s;d ds ckjs esa fuEu 2016 ds dFkuksa ij
86. Consider the following statements about the fopkj dhft,%&
recently passed Aadhaar Bill, 2016. 1. Hkkjr esa jgus okys lHkh fuoklh] fons'kh Hkh tks Hkk
1. All residents of India, including foreign jgrs gSa vk/kj la[;k izkIr dj ldrs gSaA
citizens who reside in India can avail
2. vk/kj la[;k ukxfjdksa ds izek.k ds fy, gksrk gS ;g
Aadhaar number.
2. Aadhaar number acts as a proof of ykHk dsoy Hkkjrh; ukxfjd gh mBk ldrs gSaA
citizenship and can be availed only by 3. vk/kj la[;k Hkkjrh; fof'k"V igpku izkf/dj.k
(UIDAI)
Indian citizens. }kjk nh tkrh gSA
3. Assigning of Aadhaar number is done
4. LPG lfClMh rFkk eujsxk osru izkIr djus ds fy;s
by the Unique Identification Authority
of India (UIDAI) vk/kj la[;k vfuok;Z gSA
4. Aadhaar number has been made lgh fodYi pqfu,%&
mandatory for availing the LPG subsidy (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 4
as well as MGNREGA wages. (C) dsoy 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only 87. jk"Vh; LoPN tkZ dks"k(NCEF) dsckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 fopkj dhft,%&
87. Consider the following statements about the 1. NCEF dks;yk] fyXukbV rFkk ihV ij LoPN tkZ
National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF): midj dk iz;ksx djds cuk;k x;k gSA
1. NCEF is a fund created using the clean
2. LoPN tkZ midj Hkkjr esa csps tkus okys isVksfy
energy cess on coal, lignite and peat.
2. Clean energy cess also covers rFkk izkfrd xSl dks Hkh 'kkfey djrk gSA
petroleum and natural gas sold in India. 3. tyok;q ifjorZu ij jk"Vh; dk;Z ;kstuk
(NAPCC) esa
3. NCEF can be used for Mission projects fe'ku izkstsDV igpku dsNCEFfy;s dk mi;ksx fd;k
indentified in the National Action Plan
tk ldrk gSA
on Climate Change (NAPCC).
4. Projects relating to coal gasification, coal 4. dks;yk xSlhdj.k] dksy csM ehFksu] jksy jsy ls lEcfUk
bed methane, shale oil can be financed izkstsDVNCEF
dh ls fok fn;k tk ldrk gSA
using NCEF. lgh dFku pqfu,%&
Which of the above are correct?
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 1] 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 16


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
88. Arrange the following lakes in the 88. fn;s x;s ladsrksaa dh lgk;rk ls fuEu >hyksa dks {ks=kiQ
ascending order of their areas using the
codes given below:
c<+rs e esa yxkb,%&
1. Superior 2. Victoria 1. lqihfj;j 2. foDVksfj;k
3. Baikal 4. Great Bear 3. cSdky 4. xzsV fc;j
Choose the correct option from below?
uhps fn;s x;s fodYiksa ls lgh mkj pqfu,%&
(A) 4-2-1-3 (B) 2-1-4-3
(C) 2-3-1-4 (D) 4-3-2-1 (A) 4&2&1&3 (B) 2&1&4&3
89. Recently Shyama Parsad Mukherjee (C) 2&3&1&4 (D) 4&3&2&1
Rurban Mission to develop a cluster of smart
89. gky gh esa ';kek eq[kthZ uxjh;&xzkeh.k fe'ku dks LekVZ
villages was launched. Which of the
following statements regarding are correct? ds lewg ds fodkl ds fy;s vkjEHk fd;k x;kA fuEufyf[kr
1. The mission aims to create 500 such esa ls dkSu ls dFku lgh
? gS
Urban growth clusters over the next 5
1. bl fe'ku dk ms'; vxys 5 o"kksZa500esa
,sls 'kgjh
years.
2. Critical Gap Funding upto 30 percent of lao`f lewgksa dk fodkl djuk gSA
the project cost will be provided. 2. ffVdy xSi iQf.Max ;kstuk 30%dks
rd dh ykxr
3. Open defecation free is a precondition
miyC/ djk;sxhA
for a group of village to be selected for
the mission. 3. fe'ku ds fy;s [kqys esa 'kkSp eqDr xkoksa dk pqu
Select the correct answer using codes given izkFkfed 'krZ gksxhA
below.
fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsaA
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
90. Which of the following statements regarding (C) 2 vkSj 3 nksuksa (D) 1 rFkk 3 dsoy
Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana are 90. jk"Vh; LokLF; chek ;kstuk ds lUnHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr e
correct?
1. Scheme provides health insurance to dkSu lgh gS
unorganized workers. 1. ;g ;kstuk vlaxfBr etnwjksa ds fy, ;kstuk iznku djrh
2. MGNREGA workers are also covered gSA
under the scheme.
3. The scheme is implemented by Labour 2. ;g ;kstukMGNREGA etnwjksa ds varxZr vkrk gSA
and Employment Ministry 3. bl ;kstuk dks Je rFkk m|ksx ea=kky; }kjk ykxw fd;k
Select the correct answer using codes given tkrk gSA
below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only fn;s x;s dwV ls lgh mkj pqus%
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (A) 1 rFkk 2 dsoy (B) 1 rFkk 3 dsoy
91. What is the motto of the Election (C) 2 rFkk 3 dsoy (D) 1] 2 rFkk 3
Commission of India (ECI) for year 2016?
91. 2016 esa Hkkjrh; fuokZpu vk;ksx dk eq[; flkar D;k
(A) Voter is at highest priority
(B) Healthy support for citizens
gS\
(C) None is above than polls (A) ernkrk loksZPp izkFkfedrk gS

(D) No voter to be left behind (B) LoPN ukxfjdksa dks leFkZu djuk
92. Which of the following are the components (C) ernku ls ij dksbZ ugha
of tax expenditure? (D) fdlh ernkrk dks ihNs ugha NksM+k tk,xk
1. Cost of collecting tax. 92. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk rRo dj O;;?dk gS
2. Revenue foregone as a result of
concessions and exemptions. 1. dj ,d=k.k dh ykxr
3. Amount of tax revenue gone on interest 2. fj;k;r vkSj NwV ds :i esa NksM+ fn;k x;k jktLoA
payment 3. dj jktLo dh jkf'k C;kt ds Hkqxrku esaA
Select the correct answer using codes given
below. fn;s x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s lgh mkj pqusa&
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1 vkSj 3 dsoy (D) 1] 2 rFkk 3

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 17


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
https://www.facebook.com/groups/AkankshaSuccessAcademy https://telegram.me/SSC_Zone

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
93. Which among the following is the correct 93. Lora=krk ds ckn jkT;ksa ds xBu ds e esa fuEufyf[kr esa
order in formation of states after
dkSu lgh e esa
? gS
independence?
1. ukxkyS.M 2. v:.kkpy izns'k
1. Nagaland 2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Meghalaya 4. Punjab 3. es?kky; 4. iatkc
Select the correct answer from the codes fn;s x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s lgh mkj dk p;u djsa
given below: (A) 1, 2, 3,4 (B) 1, 4, 3, 2
(A) 1, 2, 3,4 (B) 1, 4, 3, 2 (C) 1, 4, 2, 3 (D) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 4, 2, 3 (D) 2, 3, 4, 1 94. jsyos usVodZ dks ?kVrs e esa ns'kksa dks lgh e dk p
94. Select the correct order of countries in djsa&
terms of decreasing railway network.
(A) phu>USA>Hkkjr >:l >dukMk
(A) China>U.S.A>India>Russia>Canada
(B) U.S.A>Russia>China>India>Canada (B) USA>:l >phu>Hkkjr >dukMk
(C) U.S.A>China>Russia>India>Canada (C) USA>phu>:l >Hkkjr >dukMk
(D) China>U.S.A>Russia>Canada>India (D) phu>USA>:l >dukMk >Hkkjr
95. Which of the following trenches is matched 95. fuEufyf[kr [kkbZ;ksa esa ls dkSu lh muds egklkxj ds lk
correctly with their oceans?
lgh lqesfyr gS
?
1. Mariana Trench - Indian Ocean
1. ekfj;kuk VsUo fgUn egklkxj
2. Tonga Trench - Pacific Ocean
3. South Sandwich 2. Vksxk VsUp iz'kkUr egklkxj
Trench - Atlantic Ocean 3. n lS.Mfop VsUp vVykafVd egklkxj
Choose the correct answer from the codes fn, x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqusa&
given below. (A) 1 rFkk 2 dsoy (B) 2 rFkk 3 dsoy
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 rFkk 3 dsoy (D) 1] 2 rFkk 3
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
96. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ekSfyd vf/dkj Hkkjrh; lafokku
96. Which of the following fundamental rights
is available under the Indian Constitution? ds vUrxZr vkrk gS
(A) Right of work (A) dke dk vf/dkj
(B) Right to adequate livelihood (B) i;kZIr thou Lrj dk vf/dkj
(C) Right to protect one's culture (C) fdlh ds laLfr ds laj{k.k dk vf/dkj
(D) Right to higher education (D) mPp f'k{kk dk vf/dkj
97. Consider the following statements about
97. BIOFIN (c;ksMk;olVh iQkbusUl busf'k;sfVo)
ds ckjs esa
BIOFIN (Biodiversity Finance Initiative).
fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,A
1. It is a global partnership for
environmental conservation launched by 1. ;g i;kZoj.k laj{k.k ds fy;s ,d oSf'od lk>snkjh gS]
the United Nations development tks la;qDr jk"V fodkl dk;Ze
(UNDP) - 2015
Programme (UNDP) in 2012. 'kq: fd;k x;k gSA
2. It partners in parallel with Global
2. ;g ns'kksa esa izkstsDV gsrq oSf'od i;kZoj.k
(GEF) lqfo/k
Environment Facility (GEF) for in-
country projects. ds lkFk lekUrj :ils dk;Z djrk gSA
3. It helps countries achieve the 20 Aichi 3. tSo fofo/rk vfHkle;(CBD) j.kuhfr ;kstuk
2011-
Targets defined in the Convention of 2020 esa ifjHkkf"kr
20 vkbph y{;ksa dks izkIr djus esa
Biological Diversity (CBD) Strategic Plan ns'kksa dks enn djsxkA
for 2011-2020.
4. Hkkjr igys ls ghBIOFIN esa 'kkfey gSA
4. India has already joined BIOFIN.
Select the correct answer from the following. fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 2
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj 4

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98. Which of the following is not instance of an 98. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk ewy vf/dkjksa ds iz;ksx dk mnkgj.k u
exercise of a fundamental right? gS
?
(A) Workers from Bihar go to the Punjab to
(A) fcgkj ds Jfedksa dk iatkc ds [ksrksa esa tkdj dke
work on the farms.
(B) Private schools giving free education to djukA
economically weaker section (B) futh fo|ky;ksa }kjk vkFkd :i ls detksj fo|kFk;ksa
(C) Men and women government employees dks eqr f'k{kk nsukA
get the same salary (C) iq#"k rFkk efgyk deZpkfj;ksa }kjk leku osru izkIr
(D) Parent's property is inherited by their
children
djukA
(D) cPpksa }kjk iSf=kd lEifk izkIr djukA
99. Consider the following statements about the
99. Hkkjr esa fo|eku fons'kh vf/fu;e
(FCRA) ds ckjs esa fuEu
foreign contributions regulation act (FCRA)
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%&
existing in India:
1. FCRA vf/fu;e jktusrkvksa rFkk jktuSfrd cyksa dks
1. FCRA act prohibits politicians and
political parties from accepting foreign fons'kh vuqnku ysus ij izfrca/ yxkrk gSA
contributions. 2. FCRA vf/fu;e lekpkj i=kksa dks fons'kh vuqnku ysus
2. FCRA act prohibits Newspapers from ls izfrcaf/r djrk gSA
accepting foreign contributions. 3. FCRA fu;eksa ds rgr fons'kh dEifu;ksa dh Hkkjrh;
3. Under FCRA norms, Indian subsidiary
of foreign companies are now treated
lg;ksxh dEifu;ksa dks vc Hkkjrh; dEiuh ekuk tk;sxkA
as Indian companies. 4. dksbZ Hkh lkafof/d fudk; ftldk ys[kkadu
CAG }kjk
4. Any statutory body that is audited by fy;k tkrk gSFCRA fofu;eksa ls NwV izkIr gSA
CAG is exempted from FCRA fuEu esa ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
regulations. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj3
Select the correct answer from the following
(C) dsoy 2 vkSj 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj
4
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 100. 8ok varZjk"Vh; Hkkjrh; lqj{kk lfer dk vk;kstu fdl
100. 8th International India Security Summit laxBu ds }kjk fd;k x;k Fkk\
was organized by which organization. (A) ,lkspSe(ASSOCHAM)
(A) ASSOCHAM (B) x`g ea=kky;
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) j{kk ea=kky;
(C) Ministry of Defence
(D) NITI AAYOG (D) uhfr vk;ksx

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GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST- 23 (ANSWER KEY)


1. (D) 21. (C) 41. (C) 61. (A) 81. (D)
2. (C) 22. (A) 42. (D) 62. (D) 82. (D)
3. (D) 23. (A) 43. (C) 63. (C) 83. (B)
4. (D) 24. (B) 44. (B) 64. (D) 84. (B)
5. (B) 25. (B) 45. (A) 65. (C) 85. (C)
6. (B)

s
26. (A) 46. (D) 66. (C) 86. (A)
7. (C) 27. (D) 47. (B) 67. (B) 87. (C)
8. (D) 28. (B) 48. (A) 68. (B) 88. (D)
9. (D)

u
29. (C) 49. (A) 69. (D) 89. (B)
10. (D) 30. (D) 50. (C) 70. (D) 90. (C)
11. (B) 31. (A) 51. (B) 71. (C) 91. (D)

p
12. (A) 32. (A) 52. (A) 72. (B) 92. (B)
13. (A) 33. (C) 53. (A) 73. (D) 93. (B)
14. (D) 34. (A) 54. (B) 74. (B) 94. (B)
15. (C) 35. (C) 55. (B) 75. (B) 95. (B)
16. (C) 36. (B) 56. (D) 76. (D) 96. (C)

m
17. (B) 37. (A) 57. (B) 77. (C) 97. (D)
18. (B) 38. (D) 58. (B) 78. (D) 98. (D)
19. (B) 39. (B) 59. (C) 79. (C) 99. (D)

a
20. (D) 40. (C) 60. (A) 80. (D) 100. (A)

C
D
K
Note : If your opinion differ regarding any answer, please
message the mock test and Question number to 8860330003

Note : If you face any problem regarding result or marks


scored, please contact : 9313111777

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GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST-23 (SOLUTION)


1. (D) The Petrapole Integrated Check Post (ICP) 7. (C) The Global Financial Inclusion Index (Global
has been launched by Prime Minister Findex) was developed by the World Bank's
Narendra Modi and Bangladesh Prime Development Research Group in recognition
Minister Sheikh Hasina through video of the need for better data to support the
conferencing at Petrapole, West Bengal to financial inclusion agenda. The Global
boost India-Bangladesh trade ties. The Findex is consistently measures individuals
purpose of the Petrapole ICP is to provide usage of financial products across countries
better facilities on the security, customs

s
and over time.
and immigration front. 8. (D) Mitrashakti was the exercise of Indian Army
2. (C) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas a unique with Srilanka. Suryakitan is the joint
intiative by the Government of India that

u
military exercise with Nepal.
aims to offer 24 lakh I ndian youth 9. (D) NITI Aayog is formed through Executive
maningful, industry relevant, skill based resolution.
training. Under this scheme, the trainces

p
The NITI Aayog will comprise the following.
will be offered a financial reward and a
Prime Minister of India as the Chairperson
government certification on successful
completion of training and assessment, Governing Council comprising the Chief
which will help them in securing job for a Ministers of all the states and Lt. Governors
of Union Territories.

m
better future. National Skill Development
Corporation is the implementing agency for Regional Councils will be formed to address
this scheme. specific or a region. These will be formed

a
3. (D) In View of the stagnating food grain for a specified tenure. The Regional
porudction and increasing consumption Councils will be convened by the Prime
need of the growing population, Government Minister and will comprise of the Chief
of I ndia has launched this Centrally Ministers in the region. These will be

C
Sponsored Scheme, National Food Security chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog
Mission in October 2007. of his nominee.
4. (D) The Rapid Action Force (RAF) is a specialised 10. (D) State Finance Commission and State
wing of the Indian CRPF (Central Reserve Election Commission were created through
Police Force). It was established on 11 73rd Amendment and provisions are giver

D
December 1991 with headquarters in New under art 243-I and 243-K respectively.
Delhi, and became fully operational in 73rd and 74th Amendment act empowers
October 1992, to deal with riots, riot like states legislature to make provisions for
situations, crowd control, rescue and relief maintenance of accounts and auditing of

K
operations, and related unrest. It currently such accounts and therefore does not
has 10 specialised trained and equipped prescribe for auditing by CAG.
battalions. 11. (B) The book In the Name of Democracy: JP
5. (B) The HAL Tejas is an Indian single-seat, Movement and the Emergency was
single-jet engine, multi-role light fighter authored by Bipan Chandra, an Indian
developed by Hindustan Aeronautics historian. The book is a valuable
Limited (HAL). Its design is highly contribution to our understanding of those
manoeuvrable with a tailless compound turbulent years of emergency of 1975-77 and
delta wing configuration. The Tejas is the JP movement. Through the book, we can
second supersonic fighter developed by looks at these happenings sequentially and
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) after
can understand their character and the
the HAL HF-24 Marut.
nature of the challenge they (Prime
6. (B) Nirbhay in an all-weather, low-cost, long- Minister Indira Gandhi and Jayaprakash
range sub soniccruise missile capable of
carrying conventional and nuclear war Narayan) posed to our democracy.
heads. The missile is powered by a solid 12. (A) Preamble resoves to constitute India into
rocket booster for take off which is developed a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic
by Advanced system Laboratory (ASL). Upon Republic.
reaching the required velocity and height, The word Federal is not used in
Turbofan engine in the missile takes over Preamble.
for further propulsion. It also talks of securing justice; liberty
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of thought, expression, belief faith and 20. (D) Swachh Bharat Cess (Clean India Cess) is
worship; equality; a levy/tax imposed by the Union
It also talks about promotion of fraternity Government on all services, which are
assuring the dignity of individual; unity liable to service tax, for raising funds for the
and integrity of India. Sanitation campaign of the Government
13. (A) Financial relations between centre and known as Swachh Bharat Cess are first
state are provided in articles 268 to 293. The credited to the Consolidated Fund of India
taxes or duty can be levied, collected and and the Central Government may, after due
apportioned by either centre or state and appropriation made by Parliament, utilise
therefore accordingly grouped. the money for such specified purpose as it
Only Service tax (under art 268A) is may consider necessary.

s
levied by centre and collected and 21. (C) The Social Security Agreement (SSA) has
apportioned by Centre and State. been signed between India and Japan,
14. (D) which will come into force on October 1,

u
(1) Goa was ruled by Portuguese only. 2016. As per the pact, an Indian worker on
(2) Goa became a state in 1987 after a short-term contract in Japan will be
annexation to Indian union in 1967. An exempt from making a social security

p
opinion poll was conducted asking people contribution there. The same applies to
of Goa to decide if they wanted to be a Japanese workers in India.
part of Maharastra or remain separate.
The majority voted in favour of 22. (A) The Constitution of India was drafted by
remaining outside Goa. the Constituent Assembly, and it was
15. (C)
16. (C)

am
17. (B) Not every law needs approval by judiciary,
only those laws which violated Provisions of
the Constitution, infringes Fundamental
Rights are reviewed by Judiciary.
implemented under the Cabinet Mission
Plan on 16 May 1946.
Under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946,
election were held for the first time for the
Constituent Assembly.

C
1. The Supreme Court can issue writ only The members of the Constituent Assembly
in case of violation of any of the were elected by the provincial assemblies
fundamental rights contained in Part- by a single, transferable vote system of
III of the constitution, while the High proportional representation.
Courts can issue writs not only in case The total membership of the Constituent

D
of violation of any legal rights of the Assembly was 389 : 292 were
citizens provided that a writ is a proper representatives of the states, 93
remedy in such cases, according to well- represented the princely states and four
established principles. were from the chief commissioner

K
18. (B) Union Govt has launched a seven pronged provinces.
plan called 'Indradhanush Mission' to 23. (A) Some of the demerits of proportional
revamp functioning of public sector Banks. representation system are :
The seven shades of the mission in cludes- There is no scope organizing by-elections
appointments, de-stressing PSBs,
It eliminates intimate contact between
Capitalization, empowerment, frame work
voters and candidates because multiple
of account tability and governance reforms.
candidates are chosen from a single
It will become functional from financial
constituency. For example in Israel whole
year 2016-71 i.e. from 1st April 2016.
country is a constituency from which all
19. (B) Scientists at the Vikram Sarabhai Space
candidates are chosen. It becomes difficult
Centre, Thiruvananthapuram, India's
for voters to ensure accountability from one
premier rocket lab recently manufactured
candidate.
the world's lightest material called silica
aerogel or blue air. This material, It promotes minority thinking because even
scientists say, has excellent thermal a party representing small minority can get
resistance and if used as a filler in soldiers its representatives elected on their own.
uniforms it can possible help save many Whereas in First Past the Post System it is
lives at the Siachen glacier. The matrix of very difficult for minorities to win from a
aerogel is made up of 99 per cent air. The single constituency.
material is likely to be used on India's moon It decreases the significance of party
rover in Chandryaan-2 mission. system: this statement is wrong, because
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proportional system increases the 31. (A) The worlds first Zika vaccine test on
significance of party system because in this humans will be conducted by Canadian
parties contest, not candidates. University to counter the explosively
24. (B) Preamble explicitly mentions securing of spreading virus. The researchers from
Economic justice as on of the aims. Laval University, based in Quebec City, will
In Fundamental Rights, article 16 which conduct the test. Till date, vaccines have
provides for reservation for certain been tested on mice. Mainly, the Zika virus
categories which are not adequately is transmitted by mosquitoes and there is
represented has ethos of economic justice. no existing treatment or vaccine for it.
There is no Fundamental Duty which talks 32. (A) Aim of India Awaas Yojana is to provide
about economic justice.

s
financial assistance to the rural poor living
25. (B) The 1991 reforms did away with the
Below the Poverty Line (BPL) for
Licence Raj, reduced tariffs and interest
construction of a house. The benefits of the
rates and ended many public monopolies,

u
allowing automatic approval of foreign direct Scheme have since been extended to the
investment in many sectors. Since the, the families of ex-servicemen of the armed
overall thrust of liberalisation has forces & paramilitary forces killed in action.

p
remained the same, although no Beside 3% of the houses are reserved for
government has tried to take on powerful the physically & mentally been earmarked
lobbies such as trade unions and farmers, for coverage of minorities. Beneficiary is
on contentious issues such as reforming free to construct IAY house of their own
labour laws and reducing agricultural choice. Hence, there is no architectural

m
subsidies. specification and layout given under IAY. A
26. (A) National Political Parties In India are person is eligible for benefits even if he/
Indian National Congress, Bharathiya she has not plot.

a
Janatha Party, Communist Party of India 33. (C) Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe
(Marxist), Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP), motherhood intervention under the National
Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) and Rural Health Mission (NHM). It is being

C
Communist Party of India (CPI). implemented with the objective of reducing
27. (D) Since 1960s, India depended on the Soviet maternal and neonatal mortality by
Union for our exports-as we failed to develop
promoting institutional delivery among poor
good economic relationships with the US
and Western Europe. After the pregnant women. The scheme is under
disintegration of soviet union India had a implementation in all states and Union

D
major problem because our primary buyer Territories (UTs), with a special focus on low
was in turmoil, Exports were down performing states (LPS). It also provides
significantly. Cash assistance to mothers.
28. (B) The Fragile States Index (FSI; formerly the 34. (A) The Bhopal disaster, also referred to as

K
Failed States Index) is an annual report the Bhopal gas tragedy, was a gas leak
published by the United States think tank - incident in India, considered the world's
Fund for Peace and the magazine Foreign worst industrial disaster. Over 500,000
Policy since 2005. people were exposed to methyl isocyanate
29. (C) Correct match is (MIC) gas and other chemicals. The toxic
Internal Security Academy -Mount Abu substance made its way into and around the
Indian Defence University - Gurgaon shanty towns located near the plant.
Indian Police Academy - Hyderabad
35. (C) Operation Flood, launched in 1970, is a
National Defence Academy - Pune project of the National Dairy Development
30. (D) Social Infrastructure is a subset of the Board (NDDB), which was the world's biggest
infrastructure sector and typically includes dairy development program. It transformed
assets that accommodate social services. India from a milk-deficient nation into the
As set out in the table below, examples of world's largest milk producer, surpassing
Social Infrastructure Assets include
the USA in 1998, with about 17 percent of
schools, universities, hospitals, prisons and
community housing, Social Infrastructure global output in 2010-11, which in 30 years
does not typically extend to the provision of doubled milk available per person, and
social services, such as the provision of which made dairy farming India's largest
teachers at a school or custodial services self-sustainable rural employment
at a prison. Telecommunication is not a generator. Yellow Revolution is described for
social infrastructure. the Increased Oil see production in India.
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Silver Revolution is for increasing the 44. (B) Natural gas is a naturally occurring
poultry and eggs. hydrocarbon gas mixture consisting
36. (B) Solar and Wind energy will increase from primarily of methane, but commonly
current 4060 MW and 23.76 GW in 2015 to including varying amounts of other higher
100GW and 60 GW by 2022 respectively and alkanes. Natural gas is a fossil fuel used as
an increase even after that. It is envisaged a source of energy for heating, cooking, and
to increase biomass installed capacity to 10 electricity generation. It is also used as fuel
GW by 2022 from current capacity of 4.4 GW. for vehicles.
Special programmes to promote small and 45. (A) Transformers are used to increase or
mini hydel projects, new and efficient decrease the alternating voltages in electric
power applications.

s
designs of water mills have been introduced
for electrification of remote villages and will 46. (D) The moon's gravitational pull to a great
continue to be promoted Nuclear energy will extent and to a lesser the sun's
gravitational pull, are the major causes for

u
be promoted from the current capacity of
5780 MW to 63 GW installed capacity by the the occurrence of tides. Another factor is
year 2032, if supply of fuel is ensured. centrifugal force, which is the force that
acts to counter balance the gravity.

p
37. (A) First statement is correct. Land use change
Together, the gravitational pull and the
and forestry contributes less to greenhouse
centrifugal force are responsible for
emissions as compared to agriculture.
creating the two major tidal bulges on the
38. (D) Under the Smart City Mission the Central
earth.
Government aims to converge various

m
47. (B) The emblem of India is an adaptation of
schemes for socio-economic development
the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath. The
viz AMRUT, Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM), emblem forms a part of the official

a
National Yojana (HARIDAY), Digital India, letterhead of the Government of India and
Skill Development, Housing for all, for appears on all Indian currency as well. The
holistic development of cities. usages of the emblem is regulated and

C
39. (B) Jainism recognized the existence of the restricted under the state Emblem of India
gods but placed them lower than the jina, (Prohibition of Improper Use) Act, 2005. It
and did not condemn the Varna system as also sometimes functions as the national
Buddhism did. According to Mahavira, a emblem of India.
person is born in a high or in a lower Varna 48. (A) - Constitution specifies no maximum time
as a consequence of his sins committed or

D
limit of the duration of Financial Emergency
virtues acquired by him in his previous and there is no requirement of repeated
birth. approvals as in National Emergency and
40. (C) Deoband Movement was founded by President Rule.

K
Moulanat Hussain Ahmed at Deoband in - Financial Emergency must be approved by
1866. It gave a liberal interpretation of both Houses of Parliament with simple
Quarn, accepted English education and also majority.
preached Hindu Muslim unity. 49.(A) Municipalities and Notifies Area
41. (C) Indias first-ever SAARC Tourism Summit Committees are established by State
will be hosted by Aurangabad, Maharashtra Government whereas Port Trust are
in October 2016. The purpose of the 2-day established by center government.
50. (C) Mohiniyattam as a dance form has come
summit is to tap Foreign Direct Investment
to the present form after a long period of
( FDI) under Make in India schemes. The evolution of Mohiniyattam can be found in
Ministry of External Affairs has chosen the texts Vyavaharmala written in 1709 by
Aurangabad for the summit. Mazhamagalam Narayanan Namputiri and
in Ghoshayatra, written later by great poet
42. (D) The correct match is
Kunjan Nambiar. The dance form belongs
Jahanpanah - Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
to Lasya style.
Dinpanah - Humayun
51. (B) Steve Elworthy, the former South Africa
Tughlaqabad - Ghayasuddin Tughlaq fast bowler, has been appointed as the
Shahjehanabad - Shah - Jehan Managing Director of the 2019 ICC Cricket
43. (C) Tamil, Kannada and Odia are the classical World Cup, which will be held in England
languages of India. Gujarati is not declared and Wales. He will also oversee the ICC
as classical language of India.
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Champions Trophy 2017 and the ICC of directors.
Womens World Cup 2017. - gave the British Government a measure
52.(A) The Committees which constitute of control over the company's affairs
members from both the Houses are : - Company became a subordinate
1. Committee on Welfare of SC/ST department of the State.
2. Committee on Empowerment of Women - Reduced the number of members of
3. Joint Committee on Office of Profit Executive Council of the GG to three.
4. Joint Committee on Salaries & 59. (C) Only Statement 2 is correct. The
Allowances of MPs theosophical society was founded in New
53. (A)1. He can act President only for a York (USA). The theosophical society

s
maximum period of 6 months. focused on revival and study of religious
philosophies of east and social reforms
2. He can be removed from the office by
particularly women's education.
introducing a resolution. Resolution for

u
his removal must be passed by special 60. (A) Statement 1 and 2 are correct. Treaty
majority in RajyaSabha and then agreed of Salbai brought a peace clause for the
by LokSabha. British with the Marathas for 20 years

p
during which British could exert
3. But no a grounds for his removal have
pressure on Mysore with the help of
been mentioned in Constitution.
Marathas. Bengal White Mutiny occured
54. (B) Dig locker is a digital locker launched
during the reign of Robert Clive.
by the Government of India in February
61. (A) Guruprasad Mohapatra, a 1986 batch
2015 to provide a secure, dedicated

m
Gujarat cadre IAS officer, has been
personal dichotic space for steering the
appointed as the new chairman of
documents of resident Indian citizens.
Airports Authority of India (AAI). Prior

a
The storage space (minimum 1 GB) is
to this appointment, he was posted as
linked to the unique Identification
the Joint Secretary in Union Ministry
Authority of Indian (Aadhar number) of
the user. of Commerce.

C
55. (B) Badami cave temples are a complex of 62. (D) 1. Under article 310, members of All India
four Hindu, Jain and possibly Buddhist Services hold office during the pleasure
cave temples located in Badami, a town of President but are given certain
in the Bagalkot district in northern part safeguards under article 311 which are
of Karnataka. Sittanavasal is a small : they can be removed by an authority

D
hamlet in Pudukkottai district of Tamil which subordinate to which appointed
Nadu. them and they cannot be dismissed or
56. (D) - Balance between popular participation their rank cannot be reduced without
an enquiry.

K
and elite rule as generally well off only
can get to Parliament based on popular 2. The Constitution provisions in part XII,
support from public. related to All India Services don't apply
- Responsibility of government to the to Jammu and Kashmir.
elected representative and not to the 63.(C) 1. Local Governments : State List
public. This responsibility is ensured 2. Social and Economic : Concurrent
through No-confidence motion in Planning List
LokSabha. 3. Administration of
- Parliamentarians are designated the Justice : Union List
responsibility of thinking and acting on Administration of Justice : constitution and
behalf of people. organization of courts, and except for the
57. (B) - A political party shall be eligible to be High Courts and Supreme Court is Under
recognised as a National party if Concurrent List.
- It secures at least six percent (6%) of 64. (D) Blotting paper has a large number of pores
the valid votes polled in any four or more (tiny holes) on its surface. Each pore acts
states, at a general election to the like a capillary tube. When a drop of ink is
House of the People or, to the State placed on a blotting paper, it spreads on the
Legislative Assembly; and paper due to capillary action.
58. (B) Pitts Act of 1784 65. (C) When we push a body, the vertical
- Introduced Dual System of Govt by the component acts downward and adds up to the
company and by a Parliamentary board weight of the body, increasing the frictional
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force and the opposite happens while pulling the heating of the roadway and the air just
leading to less frictional force. above it. While light will travel in a straight
66. (C) CAG compiles and maintains the accounts line through a uniform medium, it will
of State Governments only in 1976 he was refract when travelling through a non-
relieved of his responsibilities of uniform medium.
maintenance and compilation of accounts 71. (C) Paul Romer, the American economist, will
of Central Government. be the new Chief Economist and Senior
CAG submits three audit reports : Audit Vice-President of the World Bank (WB).
report on Appropriation Account, Report of Presently, Romer is a professor at New York
Finance Account and report on Public University (NYU) and director of NYUs
Undertakings.

s
Marron Institute of Urban Management.
He can audit accounts of any other 72. (B) In 1740 the War of the Austrian Succession
authority, apart from Government, Public broke out in Europe. The First Carnatic War
Undertakings etc, as requested by President

u
(1746-1748) was the Indian theatre of the
of Governor. War of the Austrian Succession. First
67. (B) On November 2, 1929, conference of Carnatic war also came to an end. In the

p
prominent national leaders issued a Delhi treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle (1748). The second
Manifesto which demanded Carnatic War ended with the Treaty of
1. That the purpose of the Round Table Pondicherry, signed in 1754, which
Conference (RTC) should be to formulate a recognised Muhammad Ali Khan Walajah as
scheme for implementation of the dominion the Nawab of the Carnatic. The third

m
status and the basic principle of dominion Carnatic War spread beyond southern India
status should be immediately accepted; 3. and into Bengal where British forces
That the Congress should have majority captured the French settlement of

a
representation at the conference; 3. Chandernagore (now Chandannagar) in
Amnesty and a general policy of conciliation; 1757. The war concluded with the signing
Viceroy Irwin rejected these demands on of the Treaty of Paris in 1763, which

C
December 23, 1929. returned Chandernagore and Pondichery to
68. (B) Lead is a highly poisonous metal (whether France.
inhaled or swallowed), affecting almost 73. (D) The decision to effect the Partition of
every organ and system in the body. Lead Bengal was announced in July 1905. The
are still in used in Paints, PVC Plastics, Indian Councils Act 1909, commonly in

D
lead-acid batteries, bullets and shot, July, commonly known as the Morley-Minto
weights, as part of solders, pewters, fusible Reforms (or as the Minto-Morley Reforms),
alloys, and as a radiation shield. was an Act of the Parliament of the United
69. (D) Neem cake organic manure is the by- Kingdom that brought about a limited

K
product obtained in the process of cold increase in the involvement of Indians in
pressing of neem tree fruits and kernels, the governance of British India. Rowlatt
and the solvent extraction process for neem Acts, (February 1919), legislation was passed
oil cake. According to research calculations, by the Imperial Legislative Council, the
neem cake seems to make soil more fertile legislature was passed by the Simon
due to an ingredient the blocks soil bacteria Commission, group appointed in November
from converting nitrogenous compounds 1927 by the British Conservative
into nitrogen gas. It also acts as a natural government under Stanley Baldwin to report
fertilizer with pesticidal properties. Neem on the working of the Indian constitution
cake is widely used in India to fertilize established by the Government of India of
paddy, cotton and sugarcane. Act of 1919.
70. (D) Mirages occur on sunny days. The role of 74. (B) Magnetite is chemically (Fe304) it is an
the sun is to heat the roadway to high oxide of iron, Malachite is copper carbonare
temperatures. This heated roadway in turn hydroxide, and cassiterite is tin dioxide.
heats the surrounding air, keeping the air 75. (B) For many solids dissolved in liquid water,
just above the roadway at higher the solubility increase with temperature.
temperatures than that day's average air The increase in kinetic energy the comes
temperature. Hot air tends to be less with higher temperatures allows the solvent
optically dense than cooler air. As such, a molecules to move effectively break apart
non-uniform medium has been created by the solute molecules that are held together

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by intermolecular attractions. 82. (D)
For most chemical reactions, the reaction 1. MGNREGS aims to provide at least 100
rate increase with increasing temperature. days of wage employment in financial
Temperature affects the corrosion rate of year to every rural household.
metals. The corrosion of iron and steel is 2. MGNREGS guarantees the right to work.
an example of this because temperature 3. If employment is not provided to
affects the corrosion rate by virtue of its applicants to MGNREGS, the applicants
effect on the oxygen solubility and oxygen are entitled to be paid compensation.
diffusion coefficient. 4. At least 50 per cent (by fund) of the works
As temperature increases the diffusion have to be implemented through the
coefficient of oxygen also increases which

s
Gram Panchayats.
tends to increase the corrosion rate. 83. (B) President's rule can be imposed in a
76. (D) Christmas is celebrated in summer in state if a situation has arisen in
Australia because it is located in the

u
which the government of the state
southern hemisphere. Only during an cannot be carried on in accordance with
equinox is the Earth's 23.5-degree axis not the provisions of the Constitution.
tilting toward or away from the sun: the

p
- During president's rule, the Parliament
centre of the sun is in the same plane as becomes empowered to make law with
the Equator. There are two equinoxes in a respect to any matter in the State List
year; around March 21 and around Sept. 22. in relation to that state.
In the Northern Hemisphere, March 21 is - A proclamation imposing President's

m
the spring or vernal equinox. September 22 rule must be approved by both the
is the autumnal equinox. Houses or Parliament within two
77. (C) It is the state-of-the-art project months from the date of its issue.

a
implemented in selected areas in the - President's rule can be extended
country, focused on probing for deep seated/ beyond that the general elections to the
concealed mineral deposits. Main legislative assembly of the concerned

C
components of this project are, state cannot be held on account of
characterizing Indias geological cover, difficulties.
Investigating lithospheric architecture, 84. (B) - TPP includes only nations which border
resolving 4D geodynamic and metallogenic the Pacific Ocean.
evolution, Detecting and characterizing the - China is not member of TPP.

D
distal footprints of are deposits.
- The Yarn forward rule in the context of
78. (D) All of the above are indicators of TPP refers to a rule that prescribes
phenomenon of climate change and sourcing yarn from TPP member
global warming caused due to countries to avail duty preference.

K
anthropogenic factors. - TPP is expected to decrease India's
79. (C) The estimated agriculture growth rate export in goods and services to TPP
is 0.2% in 2014-15 Statement 2 & 3 are member nations due to the easing of
correct. trade barriers between the member
80. (D) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana nations. This will consequently make it
(PMKSY) is a national mission to less attractive to import goods and
improve farm productivity and ensure services from India.
better utilization of the resources in the 85. (C) Global Intellectual Property Centre
country. The primary objectives of (GIPC) of US Chamber of
PMKSY are to attract investments in Commercepublishes the international
irrigation system at field level, develop intellectual property (IIP) index.
and expand cultivable land in the 86. (A) - All residents of India, including foreign
country, enhance ranch water use in citizen who in India can avail Aadhaar
order to minimize wastage of water, number.
enhance crop per drop by implementing
- Aadhaar number is not a poor of
water-saving technologies and precision
citizenship and can be availed by any
irrigation.
resident of India.
81. (D) Malcolm Turnbull, the leader of the Liberal
- Assigning of Aadhaar number is done by
Party, is the newly elected Prime Minister
the Unique Identification Authority of
of Australia after the 2016 Australian
India (UIDAI).
federal election.
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- Aadhaar number is purely voluntary for - Tax Expenditure corresponds to
availing the LPG subsidy as well as relaxations given when tax burden
MGNREGA wages until the SC resolves becomes difficult for the sustainability
the issue of privacy invasion by of a particular sector. Tax exemptions
Aadhaar. or incentives are given in the form of
87. (C) - NCEF is a fund created using the clean lower rates of tax relative to normal
energy cess on coal, lignite and peat. rates.
Clean energy cess was renamed to - It often result from the use of the tax
clean environment cess in the recent system to promote social goals without
budget. incurring direct expenditures.
- Clean energy cess does not cover - Reduction in tax expenditure is a part
petroleum and natural gas sold in India.
- NCEF can be used for Mission projects
indentified in the National Action Plan
on Climate Change (NAPCC).

us
- Projects relating to coal gasification, coal
93. (B)

94. (B)
of fiscal consolidation.
Nagaland-1963, Punjab-1966 Meghalaya
- 1972 Arunachal Pradesh - 1987
The US rail network, with an operating
route length over 250,000km, is the

p
bed methane, shale oil can be financed biggest in the world. Freight lines
using NCEF. constitute about 80% of the country's
88. (D) Great Bear is located in Canada. Lake total rail network, while the total
Baikal is located in Russia. Lake passenger network spans about
Victoria is located in Kenya-Tanzania- 35,000km. China's rail network, with

m
Uganda. Lake Superior is located along route length of over 100,000km, ranks
U.S-Canada as the second biggest rail network in the
89. (B) The mission aims to create 300 Rurban world. The extensive network, operated

a
growth clusters over the next 3 years, by state-owned China Railway
across the country. Corporation, carried 2.08 billion
- The funding for Rurban Clusters will be passengers (the second highest after

C
through various schemes of the Indian Railways). Russia's whole
Government converged into the cluster. network, operated by state-owned
- For the selection of clusters on objective monopoly Russian Railways, runs for
analysis at the District, Sub District and over 85,500km. The Indian nationwide
Village level, of the demography, rail network includes an operating route

D
economy, tourism and pilgrimage length of more than 65,000km. The
significance and transportation corridor network carried about eight billion
impact will done. passengers (the highest in the world)
90. (C) The Rashtriya Swathya Bima Yojna and 1.01 million tonnes of freight (fourth

K
RSBY which was earlier implemented by highest in the world) in 2013.
the Ministry is from 1st April 2015 is 95. (B) South Sandwich Trench - A deep arcuate
being implemented by the Ministry of trench in the Atlantic Ocean that is
Health and family Welfare. created by subduction and is the deepest
- The RSBY, the health insurance trench in the Southern Atlantic Ocean.
scheme for BPL (below poverty line) Tonga Trench - The trench is standing
families was launched for the workers alone in the South Pacific Ocean, the
in the unorganized sector in the FY depth of 11.03 kilometers below sea level
2007-08 and it became fully operational and lies in the western Pacific Ocean.
from 1st April 2008. It provides for IT- 96. (C) Right to work is a legal right provided
enabled and smart - card - based under MGNREGA
cashless healthy insurance, including - Right to adequate livelihood is as such
maternity benefit cover up to `30,000/ no right. There is DPSP under Article
per annum of a family occupational 39 which says that while framing
groups in the unorganized sector. policies, state would strive to provide
91. (D) adequate means of livelihood, equal pay
92. (B) - Tax expenditure is revenue foregone as for equal work, resource distribution,
a result of concessions and exemptions safety of citizens and healthy
(income, corporate and indirect taxes development of Children.
etc.) - Right to protect one's culture is

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Fundamental Right under article 29. Indian companies.
- Right to education is provided under - As per the existing regulations, funds of
Article 21A. But there is nor right to companies with more than 50% foreign
higher education. shareholding are treated as foreign
97. (D) It is a global partnership for source.
environmental conservation launched - Any statutory body that is audited by CAG
by the United Nations development is exempted from FCRA regulations by
Programme (UNDP) IN 2012. Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
- It partners in parallel with Global 100. (A) 8th International Security Summit was
Environment Facility (CEF) for in- organized by ASSOCHAM in Delhi.
country projects.
-

-
It helps countries achieve the 20 Aichi
Targets defined in the Convention on

s
Biological Diversity (CBD) Strategic Plan
for 2011-2012.
India has already joined BIOFIN.

u
p
98. (D) Workers from Bihar go to the Punjab to
work on the farms - FR under article 19
(Freedom of movement)
Private schools giving free education to
economically weaker section - FOR

m
under art 21-A
Men and women government employees
get the same salary-Right to Equality

a
Parents' property is inherited by their
children - it is governed by inheritance
laws and is not part of any fundamental

C
right.
99. (D) FCRA act prohibits politicians and
political parties from accepting foreign
contributions.
- FCRA act prohibits Newspapers from

D
accepting foreign contributions.
- Under FCRA norms, Indian subsidiary
of foreign companies are now treated as

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GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST -24


1. Consider the following statements: 1. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
1. Vocational training falls under Union
list of the 7th schedule of constitution. 1. O;kolkf;d izf'k{k.k lafo/ku dh lkroh vuqlwph ds
2. In the National Skill Development vUrxZr la?k lwph esa vkrk gSA
Corporation, the Industry stake holding
to Government stake holding is in the 2. jk"Vh; dkS'ky fodkl fuxe esa m|ksxksa rFkk ljdkj d
ratio of 49:51. va'k49:51 dk gSA
Choose the correct option from below?
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj
? pqfu,
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 Nor 2 (A) dsoy1 (B) dsoy2
2. Which of the following statements are
(C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj u gh
2
correct ?
1. The decision of Collegium is binding on 2. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku ?lR; gS@gSa
President. 1. dksysft;l dk fu.kZ; jk"Vifr ij ck;dkjh gSA
2. The decision of Collegium cannot be
challenged High Court. 2. dksysft;e ds fu.kZ; dks mPp U;k;ky; esa pqukSrh ug
Select the correct answer using the codes nh tk ldrh gSA
given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu,
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 Nor 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
3. The Project Sunrise launched by the
government of India is (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks1 vkSj u gh2
(A) A program to boost the growth of Tea 3. Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk izkjEHk fd;k x;k ^izkstsDV lujkbt* gS
industry in North-Eastern states.
(B) A program for prevention of AIDS is the (A) mkj iwohZ jkT;ksa esa pk; m|ksxksa dh o`f dks
North-Eastern states. okyh ;kstukA
(C) A program to improve the railway
networks and connectivity in the North- (B) mkjiwohZ jkT;ksa esa ,M~l ls cpko dh ;kstukA
East. (C) mkjiwohZ jkT;ksa esa jsyos usVodZ rFkk dusD
(D) A program to improve the inland water lqkkjus dh ;kstuk
ways in the North-East.
4. Which of the following is true about Central (D) mkjiwoZ esa varnsZ'kh; tyekxksZa ds lq/kj dh ;k
Chief Information Commission (CIC) and 4. fuEu dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk dFku dsUnzh; lwpuk
other Information Commission?
1. The salary allowances and service (CIC) rFkk lwpuk vk;qDrksa ds fo"k; esa lR; gS&
condition of the CIC and ot her 1. CIC rFkk vk;qDrksa ds osru] Hkks rFkk lsok 'krs
commissioners are similar to Chief
Election Commissioner and of other pquko vk;qDr rFkk vU; vk;qDrksa ds leku gSA
commissioners. 2. lnL; iquu;qfDr ds ik=k gSA
2. The members are eligible for
reappointment. 3. CIC ok"kdh fjiksVZ jk"Vifr dks izLrqr djrk gSA
3. CIC submits annual report to the fn;s x;s dwVksa esa ls lgh dwV dk p;u djsa&
President.
Select the correct answer using the codes (A) dsoy 1 (B) 1 rFkk2
given below. (C) dsoy 2 (D) 1, 2 rFkk3
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
5. dsUnz rFkk jkT;ksa ds chp dk;Zdkjh 'kfDr;ksa ds forj.k ds
5. Which of the following statements regarding esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
distribution of executive powers between 1. leorhZ dkuwuksa ds lanHkZ esa dk;Zdkjh 'kfDr jkT;
the Center and state are correct?
1. Executive power with r espect to gSA
Concurrent Legislation rests with 2. dsUnz vuqlwfpr tkfr;ksa rFkk tutkfr;ksa dh dY;k.kdk
States.
2. Center can give direction to states for ;kstukvksa dks cukus rFkk muds f;kUo;u dk fun
drawing up and executing specified jkT;ksa dks ns ldrk gSA
schemes for the welfare of SCs and STs.
Select the correct answer using the codes mijksDr dFkuksa esa lR; gS@gSa&
given below. (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 both (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 rFkk2 nksuksa (D) u rks1 vkSj u gh2

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6. Which of the following is true about Lokpal? 6. yksdiky ds fo"k; esa dkSu lk dFku?lR; gS
1. At most 50% members will be from SC/
ST/OBC/Minorities and women. 1. vf/dre 50% lnL; SC/ST/OBC vYila[;d
2. A person less than 45 years of age is rFkk efgyk;sa gksxhA
ineligible from being Chairperson of 2. 45 o"kZ ls de vk;q dk O;fDr yksdiky dk v;{k
Lokpal.
3. A minister, nominated by Pr ime cuus ds fy, v;ksX; gSA
Minister is part of the 5 member 3. iz/kuea=kh }kjk euksuhr 5 lnL;h;
ea=khp;u lfefr dk
election Committee. lnL; gksrk gSA
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. fn;s x;s dwVksa esa ls lgh mkj pqus&
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 (A) dsoy 1 (B) 1 rFkk 3
(C) 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 2 (D) 1, 2 rFkk 3
7. Which of the following statements regarding
provisions of PESA Act are correct? 7. PESA vf/fu;e ds fo"k; esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&ls dFkuks
1. Gram Sabha consists of all the persons lR; gS&
above 18 years of age.
1. xzke lHkk ds lHkh 18 lnL;o"kZ ls vf/d ds gksrs gSaA
2. Seats of Chairpersons of Panchayat at
all levels shall be reserved for the 2. iapk;r ds lHkh Lrj ij v;{kksa dh lHkh STslhVsa
ds
Scheduled Tribes. fy, vkjf{kr gksrh gSA
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. uhps fn, x, lgh dFkuksa dk p;u djsa&
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) 1 and 2 both (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) u rks1 vkSj u gh 2
8. Which of the following is true about Attorney
General? 8. egkU;k;oknh ds lEcU/ esa fuEu dFkuksa esa dkSu lR;
1. He represents Government in 1. vuqPNsn 143 ds vuqlkj] ;g mPpre U;k;ky; esa
Presidential Reference to Supreme jk"Vifr ds lanHkZ esa ljdkj dk izfrfuf/Ro djrk gSA
Court under Art 143.
2. He enjoys all the privileges and 2. bls laln lnL; ds leku lHkh vUeqfDr rFkk fo'ks"kkfkdk
immunities enjoyed by a member of izkIr gSA
Parliament. 3. ;g egkU;k;oknh ds :i esa vius dk;Z dky ds nkSjku]
3. He is debarred from private legal
practice during his tenure Attorney futh dkuwuh vH;kl ls oafpr gksrk gSA
General. lgh mkj dk p;u djsa&
Select the correct answer using the codes (A) dsoy 1 rFkk2 (B) dsoy 1 rFkk 3
given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) dsoy 2 rFkk3 (D) dsoy 1, 2 rFkk 3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only 9. 1945 esa f'keyk lEesyu ds foiQy gksus dk D;k? dkj.k Fkk
9. What led to the failure of Simla conference
(A) fgUnw egklHkk rFkk vf[ky Hkkjrh; nfyr oxZ la?k dh
in 1945?
(A) Non participation of Hindu Mahasabha HkkxhnkjhA
and all India depressed classes (B) lEesyu esa iatkc dh ;wfu;fuLV ikVhZ dh Hkkxhnk
(B) Muslim League's objection to the
participation of the unionist party of eqfLye yhx dh vkifkA
Punjab in the conference (C) eqfLye yhx dh ;g ftn dk;Zdkjh ifj"kn esa eqfLyeksa
(C) Muslim leagu's insistence that it alone dks euksuhr djus dk vf/dkj fliQZ eqfLye yhx dks
had the right to nominate Muslim's in
the executive Council gksA
(D) The opposition of congress to the veto (D) xouZj tujy ds ohVks ikoj ij dkaxzsl dh vkifkA
power of governor general 10. fuEufyf[kr ij fopkj dhft,&
10. Consider the following
1. Rejection of the demand for full-fledged 1. iw.kZ ikfdLrku ds ekax dh vLohfrA
Pakistan. 2. ekStwnk izkarh; lHkk dks pkj lewgksa esa ckaVuk
2. Placing the existing provincial 3. izkarh; fo/kulHkkvksa }kjk] vkuqikfrd izfrfuf/Ro
assemblies into four groups.
3. A constituent assembly to be elected by }kjk ,d lafo/ku lHkk dk pquko djukA
the provincial assemblies by proportional 4. vof'k"V 'kfDr;ka dsUnz esa fufgr gksukA
representation.
4. Residual powers vested with the centre.
mijksDr izko/kuksa esa ls dkSu lk@ls izko/ku dSfcus
Which of the above provisions were made ;kstuk ds rgr fd;k x;k&
under the Cabinet Mission Plan? (A) 1, 2, 3 rFkk
4 (B) dsoy 1, 3 rFkk 4
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 3 and 4 only (C) dsoy 1 rFkk 3 (D) dsoy 3 rFkk 4
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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
11. Consider the following statements about 11. Hkkjr esa flfoy lsok ds lUnHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuk
Civil Services in India? fopkj djs
1. By an Act of Parliament in 1853
1. 1853 esa laln ds vf/fu;e }kjk Lora=k izfr;ksxh ijh{kk
appointments to I.C.S were made open
through competitive exam. ds tfj;s Hkkjrh; lsod dh fu;qfDr djukA
2. After that act, examination for I.C.S. was 2. bl vf/fu;e ds ckn] Hkkjrh; flfoy lsok dh ijh{kk
conducted in London as well as in India. yUnu ds lkFk&lkFk Hkkjr esa Hkh gksrh gSA
Which of the above statements are correct? fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa dkSu&lk ? lgh gS
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
12. The Muslims in India started the Khilafat (C) 1 rFkk2 nksuksa (D) uk gh1 uk gh2
movement in 1919 for- 12. Hkkjr esa eqfLyeksa
1919 esa
us f[kykiQr vkUnksyu dh 'kq:vkr
1. Retaining Khilafat's control over the dh-
Muslim sacred places. 1. eqfLye /ked LFkyksa ij f[kykiQr ds fu;U=k.k dk
2. Ensuring sufficient territories under the cuk;s j[kus ds fy;sA
Turkish Empire.
3. Showing solidarity with anti-british 2. rqdhZ lkezkT; ds v/hu i;kZIr izns'kksa dks lqfuf'pr dj
forces. ds fy;sA
4. The cause of freedom from british forces. 3. fczfV'k cyksa ds lkFk ,d tqVrk fn[kkukA
Choose the correct option from below? 4. fczfV'k lkezkT; ls LorU=krk dk dkj.k
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh fodYi pqusa&
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 2 and 4 only
(A) 1 rFkk2 dsoy (B) 2, 3 rFkk
4 dsoy
13. Which among the following was/were the
features of Ryotwari system : (C) 1, 2 rFkk4 dsoy (D) 2 rFkk 4 dsoy
1. Collection of revenue directly from the 13. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk
/lh fo'ks"krk;sa jS;rokM+h O;oLF
peasants dh gS\
2. Provision for periodical revision of land 1. fdlkuksa ls izR;{k :i ls jktLo ,d=k djukA
revenue once in 30 years
2. 30 o"kZ esa ,d ckj Hkw&jktLo dks vkof/d la'kks/u dk
3. Transfer of Property rights from
peasants to the zamindars izko/kuA
Choose the correct option from below? 3. fdlkuksa ls lEifk vf/dkj dks tehankj dks gLrkarfjr
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only djukA
(C) 1 only (D) All of the above fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa&
14. Consider the following statements :
(A) 1 rFkk2 dsoy (B) 2 rFkk3 only
1. Christmas is celebrated in summer in
Australia (C) dsoy 1 (D) mijksDr lHkh
2. Direct rays of the sun fall on the equator 14. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
on 21st March. 1. vkLVsfy;k esa flel xehZ esa euk;k tkrk gSA
Choose the incorrect option from below? 2. 21ekpZ dks fo"kqor js[kk ij lw;Z dh fdj.ksa lh/h fxjrh
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only gSaA
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
15. What could be the main reason/reasons for fuEu esa ls vlR; fodYi pqusaA
the formation of African and Eurasian desert (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
belt? (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
1. It is located in the sub-tropical high 15. vizQhdh rFkk ;wjsf'k;k;h e#LFky ifV~V;ksa ds cuus ds f
pressure cells. ls D;k dkj.k jgs gSa\
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean
1. ;g miks".k dfVcU/h; mPp nkc {ks=kksa esa fLFkr g
currents.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. ;g m".k /kjkvksa ds izHkko esa gSA
correct in this context? mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
16. Which one among the following is Tropical
16. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk m".kdfVcU/h; ?kkl?dk eSnku gS
Grassland?
(A) Taiga (B) Savannah (A) VSxk (B) lokuk
(C) Pampas (D) Prairies (C) iEikl (D) izs;jht

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17. VIKALP is a new scheme launched by 17. Hkkjrh; jsyos VIKALP
}kjk ,d ubZ ;kstuk izkjEHk dh x;h
Indian Railway. Regarding it, which of the
following statements is/are true? gSA blds lEcU/ esa dkSu lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa
(1) It is a scheme under with passengers 1. bl ;kstuk ds rgr ;k=khIRCTC esa lwphc jsLrjk ls
can opt for their food of choices from a
number of restaurants and cuisines
viuh ilUn ds [kkus dk pquko dj ldrs gSaA
listed in the IRCTC platform. 2. bl ;kstuk ds rgr izrh{kkjr ;k=kh ;fn fodYi fy;s gSa
(2) Under this scheme wait listed to rks vxys LVs'ku ij fuf'pr lhV ik ldrs gSaA
passengers can get confirmed
accommodation in next alternative 3. ;g dsoy b.VjusV ls dh x;h fVdV ds lUnHkZ esa gh
train, if they opted so. ekU; gSA
(3) It is valid only to the tickets booked
through internet. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) dsoy 2 (D) dsoy 3
(C) 2 only (D) 3 only
18. Regarding the new Uncover project of the 18. Hkkjrh; Hkw&xeZ losZ{k.k ds u;s ^vukoj.k* izkstsDV
Geological Survey of India, consider the fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
following statements:
(1) It is focused on probing for deep seated/ 1. ;g xgjk;h esa fNis gq;s tek [kfutksa dh [kkst ij dsfUnz
concealed mineral deposits. gSA
(2) It is one of the important action of the 2. ;g MkV jk"Vh; [kfut vUos"k.k uhfr dk egRoiw
draft National Mineral Exploration
Policy (NMEP)/ dk;Z fcUnq gSA
Which of the Statements is/are true? dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gSa&
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
19. Choose the incorrectly matched one; (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) u rks 1 vkSj u 2
(A) Pascals Law : Hydraulic jack
(B) Hooke's Law : Pitot tube 19. xyr :i ls lqesfyr dks pqfu;s
(C) Bernoulli's principle: Carburetor in (A) ikWLdy dk fu;e & gkbVkWfyd tSd
reciprocating
(D) Doppler effect : Speed guns (B) gqd dk fu;e & fiVksV uyh
used by police (C) cjukSyh dk flkUr & ?kw.kZu batu esa dkO;wZjsV
20. Which of the following statements are
correct? (D) MkWiyj izHkko & iqfyl }kjk iz;qDr LihM xu
(1) Persons who are either working or 20. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
seeking work constitutes work force.
(2) A person engaged in economic activity 1. O;fDr tks ;k rks dke dj jgs gSa ;k dke dh ryk'k esa
constitutes labour force. gSa Je cy dgykrs gSaA
(3) Female workforce participation rate is
more in rural areas than urban areas. 2. vkFkd f;kdykiksa esa layXu O;fDr Je cy cukrk
Select the correct answer using codes given gSA
below.
3. 'kgjh {ks=kksa dh vis{kk xkaoksa esa efgyk dk;Z
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 only (D) None of the above vf/d gSA
21. Which of the following pairs are correctly fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;sa&
matched?
1. Sethu Bharatam : to build bridges (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
on National (C) dsoy 3 (D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
Highways
2. Bharat Mala : to improve 21. dkSu ls ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa&
connectivity in 1. lsrq Hkkjre & jk"Vh; jktekxksZ ij iqyksa dk fuekZ
land border area
only 2. Hkkjrekyk & dsoy Hkw&lhek {ks=kksa esa lEidZ
3. Sagarmala : enhancing port 3. lkxjekyk & cUnjxkg lEidZ dks c<+kuk
connectivity
Select the correct answer using codes given fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu,&
below. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
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22. Arrange the following sources of power 22. fuEufyf[kr 'kfDr L=kksrksa dks mudh {kerk ds vk/kj
based on their installed capacity.
1. Coal 2. Gas O;ofLFkr dhft,A
3. Hydro Power 4. Renewable 1. dks;yk2. xSl3. ty'kfDr 4. uohdj.k ;ksX; tkZ
Select the correct answer using codes given
below. fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;s
(A) 1-3-4-2 (B) 1-2-3-4 (A) 1-3-4-2 (B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 1-4-3-2 (D) 1-3-2-4
23. Which of the following statement regarding (C) 1-4-3-4 (D) 1-3-2-4
FDI are correct? 23. FDI ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lR; gS\
1. FDI is a source of non-debt financial
resources. 1. FDI xSl fokh; .k lalk/u ds L=kksr gksrs gSaA
2. Singapore is the largest source of FDI
in India. 2. Hkkjr esa
FDI dk lcls cM+k L=kksr flaxkiqj gSA
Select the correct answer using codes given fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;sA
below.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Which of the following pairs are correctly (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
matched? 24. fuEu esa ls dkSu ls ;qXe lgh lqesfyr
? gSa
1. Nalanda Project Universities Pilot
Project for 1. ukyUnk izkstsDVvYila[;d fo'ofo|ky;ksa ds
Development of ladk; fodkl gsrq ikbyV izkstsDV
Faculties of Minority
2. NaiManzil Scheme for 2. ubZ eafty vYila[;d efgykvksa esa usr`Ro
Leadership fodkl ;kstuk
Development of
Minority Women 3. ubZ jks'kuh enjlksa ls mkh.kZ fo|kFk;ksa d
3. NaiRoshni Basic Bridge vdknfed rFkk {kerk fodkl
Programme to bridge
the academic and vUrjky dks ikVus gsrq dk;Ze
skill development fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls mkj nsa
gaps of Madrasa
passouts (A) dsoy 1 (B) 1 vkSj 2
Select the correct answer using codes given
below. (C) 1 vkSj 3 (D) dsoy 3
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 25. fuEu esa ls dkSu ls izkFkfed {ks=kd
(PSL) ds
.kHkkx gS&
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 3 only
25. Which of the following are the part of Priority 1. uohdj.k tkZ
2. lw{e rFkk y?kq m|ksx
3. vkokl
sector lending?
1. Renewable Energy
4. fu;kZr .k
2. Micro and small enterprises fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqusa&
3. Housing
4. Export Credit (A) 1 vkSj 2 (B) 1] 2 vkSj 3
Select the correct answer using codes given
below.
(C) 1] 3] vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 26. f'k'kq fyaxkuqikr ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhf
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
26. Consider the following statements with 1. ;g 0&6 vk;q oxZ ds izfr 1000 iq:"kksa esa efgykvksa
respect to Child Sex Ratio. la[;k ekiuk
1. It is measured as number of females per
1000 males in the 0-6 years of age. 2. iatkc ds ckn gfj;k.kk esa lcls de fyaxkuqikr gSA
2. Haryana has the least Child Sex Ratio
next to Punjab.
3. v:.kkpy izns'k ds ckn dsjy esa lcls vf/d fyaxkuqikr
3. Kerala has the highest Child Sex Ratio gSA
after Arunachal Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the codes
fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqusa&
given below. (A) dsoy 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(A) 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3

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27. Which of the following factors are 27. Hkkjr esa lw{e flapkbZ dks de viukus gsrq dkSu ls dk
responsible for low adoption of micro
irrigation in India?
ftEesnkj gSa\
1. Fragmented landholdings. 1. fc[kjh gq;s Hkw&tksr
2. High investment cost
2. mPp ykxr fuos'k
3. Large number of small and marginal
farmers. 3. cM+h la[;k esa NksVs rFkk lhekUr fdlku
Which of the statements above is/are mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lR; gS&
correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) All of the above (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
28. Consider t he following statements
regarding Mercury. 28. ikjs ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
1. Mercury is the only metal which is 1. dejs ds rkieku ij dsoy ikjk gh ,d ek=k /krq gS tks
found in liquid stat e at r oom
temperature.
fd nzo voLFkk esa ik;h tkrh gSA
2. Quick Silver is its other name. 2. Rofjr pkanh bldk ,d vU; uke gSA
3. Itailtai disease is caused by Mercury 3. ejdjh fo"kkDrk ls bVkbZ jksx gksrk gSA
poisoning.
Which of the statements given above is/ mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls lgh dFkudk pquko dhft,%&
are correct? (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 2 only (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) dsoy 2
29. Consider the following statements 29. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
1. Non polar compounds dissolve other non
polar compound. 1. v/zqoh; ;kSfxd vU; v/zqoh; ;kSfxd esa ?kqyrs gSaA
2. Polar compounds dissolve ionic 2. /zqoh; ;kSfxd vk;u ;kSfxdksa rFkk vU; /zqoh; ;kSfxd
compounds and other polar compounds. ?kqyrs gSaA
Which among the statements are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only dkSu&lk@ls lR; gS@gSa&
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither1nor 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
30. Which of the following are correctly
matched? (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
1. Annapurna scheme : Min of Social 30. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa&
Justice and
Empowerment 1. vUuiw.kkZ ;kstuk % lkekftd U;k; ,oa vf/dkfjrk
2. Mid Day Meal : Ministry of Hu- eU=kky;
man Resource
2. e;kUg Hkkstu % ekuo lalk/u fodkl eU=kky;
Development
3. Wheat Based 3. xsgw vk/kfjr iks"k.k dk;Ze % efgyk ,oa cky fodkl
Nutrition Programme : Ministry of Hu- eU=kky;
man Resource
Development uhps fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqfu;sa&
Select the correct answer using codes given (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2] 3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 31. iz/kuea=kh dkS'ky fodkl (PMKVY)
;kstuk ds ckjs esa D;k
31. Which of the following statements regarding lgh gS&
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
(PMKVY) are correct? 1. ;g nhu n;ky mik;k; ;kstuk dk Hkkx gSA
1. It is a part of Deendayal Antyodaya 2. bldh jk"Vh; dkS'ky fodkl fuxe }kjk ykxw fd;k
Yojana (DAY).
2. It is implemented through National tk;sxkA
Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) 3. ;g d{kk10 rFkk d{kk 12 NksM+ pqds yksxksa dks y{
3. It will target mainly drop outs from Class cuk;sxkA
10 and Class 12.
Select the correct answer using codes given fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;s&
below. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
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32. Which of the following statements regarding 32. LVS.M vi bf.M;k ;kstuk ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&
Stand Up India scheme are correct? dFku lR; gS@gSa&
1. It will cover both green-filed and brown-
field projects .
1- ;g xzhu iQhYM rFkk czkmu iQhYM nksuksa ifj;kst
2. Both farm and non-farm enterprise are 'kkfey djsxhA
eligible for loan. 2- .k gsrq f"k rFkk xSj&f"k nksuksa m|ksx ;ksX
3. Beneficiaries include SCs, STs, and 3- ykHkkFk;ksa esa vuqlwfpr tkfr] vuqlwfpr tutkfr r
women.
efgyk;sa 'kkfey gSaA
Select the correct answer using codes given
below. fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqfu;s
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 3 only (C) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (D) dsoy 3
33. Which of the following types of winds is found 33. vkLVsfy;k egk}hi esa fuEu esa ls fdl izdkj dh ok;q ik;h
in Australian continent?
1. The North West Monsoon Winds
tkrh gS\
2. The South East Trade Winds 1. mkj if'pe ekulwu gok,
3. The North Westerly Winds 2. nf{k.k iwohZ O;kikfjd gok,
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only 3. mkjh iNqok iousa
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) All of the above (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 3
34. Consider the following statements about
Pacific Ocean. (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
1. The Northern Pacific is the deepest part. 34. iz'kkUr egklkxj ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
2. The South-West Pacific is devoid of 1. mkjh iz'kkUr lcls xgjk Hkkx gSA
marginal seas. 2. nf{k.k if'pe iz'kkUr lhekUr leqnzksa ls fojr gSA
3. The South-East Pacific has broad
3. nf{k.k if'pe iz'kkUr dh pkSM+h mi leqnzh dVd rFk
submarine ridges and plateaus.
4. The ocean floor of the Pacific Ocean is iBkj gSA
fairly uniform with broad rises and 4. iz'kkUr egklkxj dh leqnzh lrg pkSM+s mHkkjs rFkk
depression. ds lkFk dkiQh ,dle gSA
Choose the correct answer from the options fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh fodYi pqfu;sa&
given below?
(A) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4 (B) 1 vkSj 4
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 3 vkSj 4
35. Match the following? 35. lqesfyr dhft,
Sector FDI limit {ks=k FDI lhek
1. Civil Aviation A. 100%
1. ukxfjd mM~M;u A. 100%
2. FM Radio B. 49%
3. Railway Infrastructure C. 26% 2. ,iQ ,e jsfM;ks B. 49%
4. Public Sector Banks D. 20% 3. jsyos volajpuk C. 26%
Select the correct using codes given below. 4. lkoZtfud {ks=kd D.{ks=k
20%
(A) 1-B,2-D,3-A, 4-C fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh fodYi pqfu,
(B) 1-B,2-C, 3-A, 4-D (A) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(C) 1-B, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D (B) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
(D) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D (C) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
36. Which of the following are the focus areas (D) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
of Padhe Bharat-Badhe Bharat?
1. It is part of SarvSiksha Abhiyaan.
36. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&ls i<+s Hkkjr&c<+s Hkkjr
? dsfUn
2. Language skills, Mathematics and 1. ;g loZ&f'k{kk vfHk;ku dk Hkkx gSA
Science are the three focus areas under 2. Hkk"kk dkS'ky] xf.kr rFkk foKku bl ;kstuk ds rh
this scheme. izeq[k dsUnzh; {ks=k gSaA
Select the correct answer using codes given
fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;s&
below.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1, 2 vkSj3 (D) u rks1 vkSj u gh
2

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37. Consider the following statements regarding 37. vehuks vEy ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku
amino acids.
1. Amino acid are non-volatile crystalline gS@gSa&
solids which melt with decomposition at 1. vehuksa vEy fLFkj josnkj Bksl gSa tks fd mPp rki i
high temperature. nckus ls fi?ky tkrs gSaA
2. There can acidic amino acids and basic
2. vehuks vEy vEyh; rFkk {kkjh; gksrs gSaA
amino acids
3. They are insoluble in water and soluble 3. ;s ty esa v?kqyu'khy gSa rFkk v/zqoh; foyk;dksa tS
in non-polar solvents like benzene or cSathu ;k vU; esa ?kqyu'khy gSA
ether.
Which of the above statements is/are
mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku vlR; gS@gSa&
incorrect? (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only (C) mi;qZDr lHkh (D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) All of the above (D) None of the above 38. egkRek xka/h jk"Vh; jkstxkj xkj.Vh ;kstuk
(MGNREGA)
38. Consider the following statements about the
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS): 1. MGNREGA dk ms'; de ls de 100 fnuksa dk
1. MGNREGS aims to provide at least 100 jkstxkj izR;sd xzkeh.k ifjokj dks ,d fokh; o"kZ e
days of wage employment in a financial
year to every rural household. miyC/ djkuk gSA
2. At least one-third of the beneficiaries of 2. MGNREGA esa de ls de ,d frgkbZ ykHkkFkhZ
MGNREGS must be women. efgyk;sa gksaxhA
3. If employment is not provided to
applicants to MGNREGS, the applicants 3. ;fn MGNREGA vkosnudrkZ dks jkstxkj miyC/
are entitled to be paid compensation ugha djk;k tkrk gS rks vkosnudrkZ udn gtkZus d
4. At least 50 per cent (by fund) of the works gdnkj gksxkA
have to be implemented through the
Gram Panchayats. 4. de ls de 50 (dks"k }kjk) dk;Z dks xzke iapk;r ds
Select the correct answer from the following. ek;e ls ykxw djok;k tk;sxkA
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only fuEu esa ls lgh fodYi pqfu;s&
(C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
39. Consider the following statements about the (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
Right of Children to free and Compulsory (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
Education Act. 39. cPpksa dh eqr f'k{kk rFkk vfuok;Z f'k{kk (RTE) vf/fu;e
1. RTE act was enacted in 2002.
2. Education is a fundamental right in ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
India for children between the age 6 and 1. RTE vf/fu;e 2002 esa ykxw gqvk FkkA
14. 2. Hkkjr 6 esaa
ls 14 o"kZ ds cPpksa ds fy;s f'k{kk ewy vf/
3. It requires all private schools to reserve
25% of seats for the poor. dkj gSA
4. No child can be detained in India until 3. lHkh futh fo|ky;ksa25% dks lhVsa xjhcksa ds fy;s
completion of elementary education. vkjf{kr djuk vko';d gSA
Select the correct answer from the following:
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 4 only 4. izkFkfed f'k{kk tc rd iw.kZ ugha gks tk;sxh Hkkjr fd
(C) 2 and 4 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only cPpsa dks i<+kbZ ls jksdk ugha tk;sxkA
40. Consider the following statements about (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 4
President's rule:-
1. President 's rule can imposed in state if (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 4 (D) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 4
situation has arisen in which the 40. jk"Vifr 'kklu ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
government of the state cannot be 1. ,d jkT; esa jk"Vifr 'kklu yxk;k tkrk gS ;fn ,slh fLFkfr
carried on in accordance with the
provisions of the Constitution.
mRiUu gks x;h gS fd jkT; dh ljdkj laoS/kfud kksa
micU
2. During President's rule, Parliament ls ugha pyk;h tkldsA
becomes empowered to make laws with 2. jk"Vifr 'kklu ds nkSjku] laln jkT; lwph ds fdlh Hkh fo"k
respect to any matter in the State List
in relation to that state.
ij dkuwu cukus ds fy, l{ke gks tkrh gSA
3. A proclamation imposing President's 3. jk"Vifr 'kklu yxkus dh mn~?kks"k.kk ykxus dh frfFk
rule must be approved by both the eghus ds vUnj laln ds nksuksa lnuksa ls vuqeksfnr gksuh
Houses of Parliament within two months 4. jk"Vifr 'kklu dks ,d o"kZ ls vfkd ugha c<+k;k tk
from the date of its issue.
4. President's rule cannot be extended ldrk gSA
beyond one year. lgh mkj pqfu;s&
Select the correct answer from the following. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
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41. Consider the following statements about the 41. jk"Vh; ekuokf/dkj vk;ksx
(NHRC) ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij
National Human Rights Commission
fopkj dhft,&
(NHRC).
1. NHRC is a statutory body. 1. ;g ,d dkuwuh fudk; gSA
2. NHRC is constitutional body. 2. NHRC ,d laoS/kfud fudk; gSA
3. The Chairman of the NHRC can be a 3. NHRC dk v;{k mPpre~ U;k;ky; ;k mPp U;k;ky;
retired judge of the Supreme Court or
high court and is appointed by the dk lsokfuo`k U;k;k/h'k gksxk ftls jk"Vifr fu;qDr djs
President. 4. NHRC dk lnL; cuus ds fy;s] O;fDr dks mPpre
4. To be a member of the NHRC, he/she U;k;ky; dk lsokjr ;k lsokfuo`k U;k;k/h'k gksuk pkfg;
must be serving or retired justice of the
Supreme Court of India.
lgh mkj pqfu;s&
Select the correct answer from the following. (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj
2
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) dsoy 1] 3vkSj 4
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only 42. vUjkZ"Vh; ckSfd lEink(IIP)lwpdkad
fdlds }kjk izdkf'kr
42. The International Intellectual Property (IIP)
Index is published by fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) World Trade Organisation (WTO) (A) fo'o O;kikj laxBu(WTO)
(B) World Intellectual Property Organisation (B) fo'o ckSfd lEink laxBu (WIPO)
(WIPO)
(C) oSf'od ckSfd lEink dsUnz
(GIPL) vesfjdh dkWelZ
(C) Global Intellectual Property Centre
(GIPC) of US Chamber of Commerce pSEcj dk
(D) World Bank (D) fo'o cSad
43. The region in India to be studied under the 43. uklk }kjk Lis'kckm.M dk;Ze ds rgr v;;u ds fy;s
spaceward bound programme by NASA is
(A) Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh Hkkjr dk dkSu&lk {ks=k p;fur gqvk gS\
(B) Thumba, Kerala (A) JhgfjdksVk] vkU/z&izns'k
(C) Bengaluru, Karnataka (B) FkqEck] dsjyk
(D) Ladakh, J & K (C) csaxyq:] dukZVd
44. The twin balance sheet problem in the
(D) yk[k] tEew ,oa d'ehj
context of Indian economy refers to.
(A) Balance sheet crisis of Public sector
44. Hkkjrh; vFkZO;oLFkk ds lanHkZ esa ^nksgjh Hkqxrku la
Banks and PSUs. D;k gS\
(B) Balance sheet crisis of Public sector (A) lkoZtfud {ks=k ds cSadksa rFkk lkoZtfud {ks=k ds m
Banks and Private sector Banks dk rqyu i=k ladV
(C) Balance sheet crisis of Public sector (B) lkoZtfud {ks=k ds cSadksa rFkk futh {ks=k ds cSadk
Banks and Corporate houses. i=k ladV
(D) Balance sheet crisis of Government of (C) lkoZtfud {ks=k ds cSadksa rFkk dkWjiksjsV ?kjku
India and Corporate houses. i=k ladV
45. Interlinking was achieved recently between (D) Hkkjr ljdkj rFkk dkWjiksjsV ?kjkuksa dk rqyu i=k
the rivers:-
(A) Krishna and Cauvery 45. gky gh esa fdu ufn;ksa dks tksM+us esa liQyrk ? izkIr gq
(B) Tungabhadra and Cauvery (A) ".kk rFkk dkosjh (B) rqaxHknzk rFkk dkosjh
(C) Godavari and Krishna (C) xksnkojh rFkk ".kk(D) ueZnk rFkk rkih
(D) Narmada and Tapi
46. Arrange the following lakes in the
46. fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls fuEu >hyksa dks {ks=kiQy d
ascending order of their areas using the e esa yxkb,%&
codes given below: 1. lqihfj;j 2. foDVksfj;k
1. Superior 2. Victoria 3. cSdky 4. xzsV fc;j
3. Baikal 4. Great Bear
Choose the correct option from below? uhps fn;s x;s fodYiksa ls lgh mkj pqfu,%&
(A) 4-2-1-3 (B) 2-1-4-3 (A) 4&2&1&3 (B) 2&1&4&3
(C) 2-3-1-4 (D) 4-3-2-1 (C) 2&3&1&4 (D) 4&3&2&1
47. Which one of the following does not border
Panama River?
47. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu iukek ugj ls lhek ugh cukrk gS\
(A) Costa Rica (B) Pacific Ocean (A) dksLVk fjdk (B) iz'kkUr egklkxj
(C) Colombia (D) Venezuela (C) dksyfEc;k (D) osustq,yk

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48. Match the following list: 48. fuEufyf[kr lwfp;ksa dk feyku djsa
Five Year Plan Specilaity
1. First year Plan A. Growth with
iapo"khZ; ;kstuk fo'ks"krk
Stability Model 1. igyh iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
A. fLFkjrk ds lkFk o`f dk
2. Second year Plan B. Mahalanobis izfr:i
Model 2. f}rh; iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
B. egkyusfcl izfr:i
3. Fourth year Plan C. Harrod-Domar
model 3. prqFkZ iapo"khZ;C. ;kstuk
gsjkWM&MkWej izfr:i
4. Fifth year Plan D. Attainment of 4. ikpoh iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
D. vkRe fuHkZjrk dh izkfIr
self reliance fn;s x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s lgh mkj pqus
Select the correct answer using codes given
(A) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
below.
(A) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A (B) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
(B) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (C) 1-D, 2-B, 3-1, 4-C
(C) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C (D) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
(D) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D 49. jk"Vh; LokLF; chek ;kstuk ds lUnHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr
49. Which of the following statements regarding dkSu lgh gS
Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana are
correct? 1. ;g ;kstuk vlaxfBr {ks=k ds Jfedksa dks LokLF; chek
1. Scheme provides health insurance to iznku djrh gSA
unorganized workers. 2. bl ;kstuk ds rgr eujsxk ds etnwjksa dks Hkh 'kkfey
2. MGNREGA workers are also covered
under the scheme.
fd;k tkrk gSA
3. The scheme is implemented by Labour 3. bl ;kstuk dks Je rFkk m|ksx ea=kky; }kjk ykxw fd;k
and Employment Ministry tkrk gSA
Select the correct answer using codes given
fn;s x;s dwV ls lgh mkj pqus%
below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) 1 rFkk 2 dsoy (B) 1 rFkk 3 dsoy
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 rFkk 3 dsoy (D) 1] 2 rFkk 3
50. Which of the following statement sequences
50. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku vuqeksa dks rdZ&
are logical?
1. Fall in exchange rate-Cost push djrk gS\
inflation - Tight monetary policy- 1. fofu;e nj esa fxjkoV&ykxr tfur eqnzkLiQhfr&dBk
Stagflation ekSfnzd uhfr&LVsxys'ku
2. Full employment level-Demand pull
inflation-FDI/liberalization-Disinflation 2. iw.kZ jkstxkj Lrj&ekx tfur eqnzkLiQhfr&
FDI@mnkjhdj.k
Select the correct answer using codes given & voLiQhfr
below. fn, x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s lgh mkj dk p;u djs%
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Recently presumptive tax has been in news. (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) u rks 1 u gh 2
It falls in which of the category of taxation? 51. gky gh esa izdfYir@vuqekfud dj [kcjksa esa FkkA ;g f
(A) Progressive tax
djkjksi.k ds oxZ esa vkrk gS\
(B) Regressive tax
(C) Proportionate tax (A) izxfr'khy dj (B) izfrxkeh dj
(D) None of the above (C) vuqikfrd dj (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
52. Which of the following statement regarding 52. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lkSDR dFku
(fo'ks"k vkgj.k
SDR (Special Drawing Rights) are correct?
1. SDR forms part of Indian foreign vfkdkj) ds lUnHkZ esa? lgh gS
exchange reserves. 1. SDR Hkkjrh; fons'k fofue; vkjf{kr dks"k dk Hkkx gS
2. SDR forms part of India's external debt. 2. SDR Hkkjr ds ck .k dk Hkkx gSA
3. SDR value is determined on the basis of
four currencies namely Euro, Dollar, 3. SDR ds ewY; dk fu/kZj.k pkj eqnzkvksa ;wjksa] M
pound sterling and Yuan. ikm.M LVyax rFkk ;qvku ds vk/kj ij dh tkrh gSA
Select the correct answer using codes given fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsaA
below.
(A) 1 rFkk 2 dsoy (B) 1 rFkk 3 dsoy
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 rFkk 3 dsoy (D) 1] 2 rFkk 3
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53. Iodized salt is a : 53. vk;ksMhu ued gS&
(A) Mixture of Molecular iodine and (A) vk.kfod vk;ksMhu rFkk lk/kj.k ued dk feJ.kA
common salt.
(B) vk.kfod ikWVsf'k;e rFkk vk;ksMkbt rFkk lk/kj.k ue
(B) Mixture of molecular potassium iodide
and common salt. dk feJ.kA
(C) Compound formed by combination of (C) ikVsf'k;e vk;kstkbM rFkk lk/kj.k ued ds feJ.k }kjk
Potassium iodide and common salt. cuk ;kSfxdA
(D) Compound formed by combination of (D) vk.kfod vk;ksMhu rFkk lk/kj.k ued ds feJ.k }kjk
molecular iodine and common salt.
;kSfxdA
54. The magnetic lines of force due to the bar
magnet. 54. ckj eSxusV ds dkj.k cy dh pqEcdh; js[kk;sa feyrh gS&
(A) Intersects inside the body of magnet (A) pqEcd ds Hkhrj feyrh gSA
(B) Intersects at the neutral points only (B) dsoy mnklhu fcUnq ij feyrh gSA
(C) Intersects at north and south poles only (C) dsoy mkjh rFkk nf{k.kh /zqo ij feyrh gSA
(D) Cannot intersects at all
a (D) dgha Hkh ugha feyrh gSA
55. Which of the following.
A. Strait of Gibraltar 1. Between Asian 55. fuEufyf[kr dk feyku djsa&
Turkey and Eu- (a) ftczkYVj tyMe:e; 1. ,f'k;kbZ rqdhZ rFkk
ropean Turkey ;wjksfi;u rqdhZ ds chp
B. Strait of Juan De (b) tqvku Mh iqQdk tyM2. ;eu rFkk ftcwrh ds
Fuca 2. Between
e:e; chp
Yemen and
Djibouti (c) ckWliQksjl tyMe:e;3. ;w,l, rFkk dukMk ds
C. Strait of Bosphorus 3. Between USA chp
and Canada (d) ekUnsc tyMe:e; 4. Lisu rFkk eksjsDdks ds
D. Mandeb Strait 4. Between Spain chp
and Morocco A B C D
A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2 (B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 4 1 3 2 (C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 3 4 1 2 (D) 3 4 1 2
56. Consider the following statements regarding 56. vUrjkZ"Vh; fnukad js[kk ds lUnHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr d
the International Dateline. fopkj djsa
?
1. It is an imaginary straight line running 1. ;g ,d dkYifud lh/h js[kk gS tks fd mkj ls nf{k.kh
along 180 meriding of the Prime
meridian from North to South Pole.
/zqo dks
180 e;ku js[kk ls gksdj tkrh gSA
2. A traveler crossing the date line from 2. ,d ;k=kh frfFk js[kk ls iwoZ dh vksj ;k=kk djus ij ,d
east to west loses a day. fnu [kks nsrk gSA
Which of the above statement(s) is/are mijksDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lgh gS@gSa\
correct? (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 rFkk 2 nksuksa(D) uk gh 1 uk gh 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Match the following deserts with their 57. fuEufyf[kr cUnjxkgksa dks muds ns'kksa ds lkFk feyk
countries. A. Vdykedku 1. USA
A. Taklamakan 1. U.S.A B. xzsV csflu MslVZ 2. vkLVsfy;k
B. Great Basim Desert2. Australia C. isVkxksfu;k MslVZ 3. Lisu
C. Patagonia Desert 3. Spain
D. rcjukl 4. phu
D. Tabernas 4. China
5. Argentina 5. vtsZUVhuk
A B C D A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4 (A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 1 5 3 (B) 4 1 5 3
(C) 4 1 5 2 (C) 4 1 5 2
(D) 3 2 1 4 (D) 3 2 1 4

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58. Select the correct order of countries in 58. ?kVrs gq;s jsyos usVodZ ds e esa ns'kksa dks lgh e dk
terms of decreasing railway network. djsa&
(A) China>U.S.A>India>Russia>Canada
(B) U.S.A>Russia>China>India>Canada (A) phu>USA>Hkkjr >:l >dukMk
(C) U.S.A>China>Russia>India>Canada (B) USA>:l >phu>Hkkjr >dukMk
(D) China>U.S.A>Russia>Canada>India (C) USA>phu>:l >Hkkjr >dukMk
59. Which of the following trenches is matched (D) phu>USA>:l >dukMk >Hkkjr
correctly with their oceans? 59. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh [kkbZ;ksa egklkxjksa ds lk
1. Mariana Trench - Indian Ocean
2. Tonga Trench - Pacific Ocean lqesfyr gS
?
3. South Sandwich 1. ekfj;kuk VsUo fgUn egklkxj
Trench - Atlantic Ocean 2. Vksxk VsUp iz'kkUr egklkxj
Choose the correct answer from the codes 3. n lS.Mfop VsUp vVykafVd egklkxj
given below. fn, x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqusa&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (A) 1 rFkk 2 dsoy (B) 2 rFkk 3 dsoy
60. Which among the following pairs are (C) 1 rFkk 3 dsoy (D) 1] 2 rFkk 3
correctly matched: 60. fuEufyf[kr ;qXeksa esa ls dkSu lgh lqesfyr gS%
Programme/Scheme Ministry/ dk;Ze /Ldhe ea=kky;
/ljdkjh ,tsUlh
Government 1. vVy buksos'ku fe'ku
Agency
1. Atal Innovation (AIM) foKku] izkS|ksfxdh ,oa
Mission (AIM) Ministry of Science, uokpkj ea=kky;
Technology and 2. Lojkstxkj izfrHkk mi;ksx dkS'ky fodkl ea=kky;
Innovation fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa%
2. Self Employment (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
Telent Ministry of Skill
Development (C) 1 ,oa2 nksuksa (D) u rks1 ,oa uk gh 2
Which of the pairs given above is/are 61. :vcZu (RURBAN) fe'ku ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuks
correctly matched? ij fopkj djsa%&
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 1. fe'ku ds varxZr LekVZ xzkeksa ds dyLVj ds fuekZ.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 rF; gS_
61. Consider the following statements about
RURBAN mission. 2. vkiwr ds fy, ojh;rk izkIr rjhdk tks fd futh&lkoZtfud
1. The mission aims at developing a Hkkxhnkjh O;oLFkk ds }kjk lapkfyr gksxk_
cluster of smart 3. bu DyLVjksa ds p;u djus dh foosdk/hu 'kfDr&{ks=k
2. The preferred mode of delivery is through lkaln lnL; ij gksrh gSA
public private partnerships. dwV ds lgk;rk ls lgh mkj p;u djsa%
3. The discretionary powers to choose such
clusters rest (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
Choose the correct option from below? (C) dsoy 1 (D) mijksDr lHkh
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only 62. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu izfrHkkfxrk fodkl izf;k ds Hk
(C) 1 only (D) All of the above gS%&
62. Which of the following is/are part of the 1. jkT; 2. xSj ljdkjh laxBu (NGOs)
participatory development process?
1. State 2. NGOs 3. ncko lewg 4. ljdkjh lewg
3. Pressure groups 4. Cooperatives dwV ds lgk;rk ls lh mkj dk p;u djsa%
Select the correct answer using the codes (A) dsoy 1, 2 ,oa3 (B) dsoy 1, 3 ,oa4
given below. (C) dsoy 2, 3 ,oa4 (D) 1, 2, 3 ,oa4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only 63. l'kL=k cy fo'ks"k 'kfDr vf/fu;e(AFSPA) ds lanHkZ esa
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
63. Consider the following statements about fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj : djsa
Special Power Act(AFSPA): 1. dsUnz ljdkj fdlh {ks=k dks v'kkar {ks=k ?kksf"kr dj l
1. Central Government can declare an gSA
area as disturbed area. 2. vklk lSU; cyksa ds vf/dkfj;ksa dks fo'ks"k fof/d Nw
2. AFSPA provided certain legal immunity iznku djrk gSA
to the armed forces personnel.
3. Armed forces can shoot to kill for the 3. lSU; cy fdlh vijk/ esa layXu ds 'kadk ds vk/kj ij
suspicion of the commission of certain fdlh dks xksyk Hkh ekj ldrh gSA
offense 4. lSU; cyksa ds ikl fcuk okWjUV ds fdlh dks fxjrk
4. Armed forces have power to arrest a djus dk vf/dkj gksrk gSA
person without a warrant mijksDr esa ls dkSu&ls dFku ? lR; gS
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (A) 1, 2 ,oa3 (B) 1, 2 ,oa4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) 2, 3 ,oa4 (D) 1, 2, 3 ,oa4
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64. 8th International India Security Summit was 64. 8ok varZjk"Vh; Hkkjrh; lqj{kk lfer dk vk;kstu fdl
organized by which organization.
(A) ASSOCHAM
laxBu ds }kjk fd;k x;k Fkk\
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs (A) ,lkspSe(ASSOCHAM) (B) x`g ea=kky;
(C) Ministry of Defense (C) j{kk ea=kky; (D) uhfr vk;ksx
(D) NITIA AYOG
65. Which of the following is the objective of Self 65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu Lo;a lgk;rk lewg ds ms; esa ls ,d
Help Group? gSa
?
1. Income generation for poor
1. fu/Zuksa esa vk; miyC/ djkus gsrw
2. Providing access to banking services
3. Women empowerment 2. cSafdax O;oLFkk rd igqp iznk djus gsrw
4. Employment guarantee 3. efgyk 'kfDrdj.k
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below. 4. jkstxkj xkj.Vh
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only dwV ds lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa&
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
66. Which of the following statements is/are (A) dsoy 1, 2 ,oa3 (B) dsoy 1, 2 ,oa4
incorrect with regard to elections? (C) dsoy 1 ,oa4 (D) 1, 2, 3 ,oa4
1. The Model Code of Conduct comes into
66. pqukoksa ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk@ls ? dFku vlR
force as soon as the schedule for the
election is announced by the Election 1. vkn'kZ pquko lafgrk pquko vk;ksx }kjk pquko dh ?kk
Commission. ds ckn gh izHkkoh gks tkrh gSA
2. Delimitation commission is appointed
2. {ks=kksa ds HkkSxksfyd vkdkj dks fu/kZfjr djus d
by the election commission to
determine the geographical size of the pquko vk;ksx }kjk ifjlheu vk;ksx dk xBu fd;k tkrk
constituents gSA
3. Seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for
Scheduled Caste, Schedule Tribe and 3. jkT;okj tula[;k vuqikr ds vk/kj ij yksdlHkk esa
Other Backward Castes state wise on vuqlwfpr tkfr;ksa] vuqlwfpr tutkfr;ksa rFkk vU; fiNM
the basis of population ratio. oxksZa ds fy;s lhVsa fu/kZfjr gksrh gSA
Select the correct answer using codes given
below. fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 3
(C) 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only
(C) dsoy 2 (D) dosy 2 vkSj 3
67. Which of the following statement regarding
Governor's rule in Jammu and Kashmir. 67. tEew&d'ehj esa jkT;iky 'kklu ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa
1. The proclamation for Governor's rule is fopkj dhft,%&
issued by President.
2. There is no provision for President's 1. jkT;iky 'kklu dh mn~?kks"k.kk jk"Vifr }kjk dh tkrh
Rule in Jammu and Kashmir. 2. tEew&d'ehj esa jk"Vifr 'kklu dksbZ izko/ku ugha
Select the correct answer using codes given
fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
below.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (A) dsoy1 (B) dsoy2
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj u gh
2
68. Which of the following pairs regarding
disqualifications of Member of Parliaments 68. lalnksa dh v;ksX;rk ds lanHkZ esa dkSu&lk lgh lqesfyr
are correctly matched? 1. pquko fookn : mPp U;k;ky;
1. Election disputes : High Court
2. ny&cny fojks/h dkuwu : jkT;&lHkk dk lHkkifr rFkk
2. Anti-defection law : Chairman in Rajya
Sabha and Speaker yksdlHkk v;{k
in Lok Sabha 3. tu izfrfuf/Ro
3. Representation
of people act : High Court vf/fu;e (RPA) : mPp U;k;ky;
Select the correct answer using codes given fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
below.
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 vkSj3 nksuksa (D) 1, 2 vkSj 3
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69. Which of the following statements regarding 69. jk"Vh; gfjr izkf/dj.k
(NGT) ds ckjs esa dkSu&lk dFku
National Green Tribunal are correct?
1. It was established under Article 323B of
lR; gS@gSa
?
the Constitution. 1. ;g lafo/ku ds vuqPNsn 323ch ds rgr gqvk FkkA
2. Only a retired Supreme Court Judge can 2. dsoy mPpre~ U;k;ky; dk lsokfuo`k U;k;k/h'k bldk
be the Chairman. v;{k cu ldrk gSA
3. It comprises of equal number of judicial
and expert members 3. blesa leku la[;k esa U;kf;d rFkk fo'ks"kK lnL; gksrs
Select the correct answer using codes given gSaA
below. fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy2
(C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only
70. Consider the following statements regarding (C) dsoy 3 (D) dsoy1 vkSj3
Ad-hoc judges: 70. rnFkZ&U;k;k/h'kksa ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj d
1. Ad-hoc judges can be appointed to 1. rnFkZ U;k;k/h'k dsoy x.kiwr dks iwjk djus ds fy;
complete the quorum only.
2. Ad-hoc judges has to be retired judges of fu;qDr fd;s tkrs gSaA
Supreme Court or High Court. 2. rnFkZ U;k;k/h'k mPpre~ U;k;ky; ;k mPp U;k;ky; ds
Select the correct answer using codes given lsokfuo`k U;k;k/h'k gksrs gSaA
below.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) dsoy1 (B) dsoy2
71. Which of the following polities had not been (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj uk gh
2
occupant of the office of the Prime Minister 71. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk jktuhfrd ny dk dk;kZy; Hkkjr
of India?
1. Congress ds iz/kuea=kh ds dk;kZy; esa 'kkfey? ugha gS
2. Janata Party 1. dkaxzsl 2. turk ikVhZ
3. Bharatiya Janata Party 3. Hkkjrh; turk ikVhZ 3. turk ny
3. Janata Dal
Select the correct answer using the code uh;s fn;s dwVksa dk mi;ksa djrs gq, lgh mkj dk p;u dj
given below: (A) dsoy 2 rFkk 4 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 2 & 4 only (B) 2 only (C) dsoy 4 (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) 4 only (D) None of the above
72. What is Digi Locker?
72. Mhth ykWdj D;k ? gS
(A) Digital locker service provided by State (A) Hkkjr ds LVsV cSad }kjk fMftVy ykWdj dh lsok miy
Bank of India. djk;h x;hA
(B) Digital space developed by Revenue (B) fMthVy Lisl dks jktLo foHkkx }kjk dj laca/h lwpuk
Department to store tax related
information and check financial frauds. rFkk fokh; xM+cM+h dh ns[kjs[k dh lwpuk dks j[
(C) A digital locker service launched by fy;s fodflr fd;k x;k gSA
Government of India to provide digital (C) Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk fMftVy ykWdj dk vkjEHk Hkkjrh
space for storing the documents of
resident Indians.
fuokfl;ksa ds nLrkostksa dks j[kus ds fy;s fd;k x;kA
(D) None of the above (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
73. What is value Added Tax (VAT)? 73. ewY;o/r dj(VAT) D;k gS ?
(A) A simple, transparent, easily to pay tax (A) miHkksDrkvksa ij yxk;k x;k ,d ljy] ikjn'khZ] Hkqxr
imposed on consumers
(B) A new initiative taken by the djus esa vklku dj
Government to increase the tax-burden (B) mPp vk; oxZ ij dj dk Hkkj c<+kus ds fy, ljdkj
of high income groups }kjk fd;k x;k ,d u;k mie
(C) A single tax that replaces State taxes
(C) ,d vdsyk dj tks vf/izHkkj] i.;korZ dj vkfn jkT;
like, surcharge, turnover tax, etc.
(D) A new tax to be imposed on the producers djksa dk LFkku ysrk gSA
of capital goods. (D) iwthxr oLrqvksa ds mRikndksa ij yxk;k tkus okyk
74. The outcome of devaluationof currency is:- dj
(A) increased export and improvement in
balance of payment 74. ^eqnzk ds voewY;u* dh ifj.kke? gksrk gS
(B) increased export and foreign reserve (A) fu;kZr esa o`f vkSj Hkqxrku lUrqyu esa lq/kj
deficiency (B) fu;kZr esa o`f vkSj fons'kh vkjf{kr fuf/ esa deh
(C) increased import and improvement in
balance of payment (C) vk;kr esa o`f vkSj Hkqxrku lUrqyu esa lq/kj
(D) increased export and import (D) fu;kZr vkSj vk;kr esa o`f
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75. The term Gross National Production 75. ^ldy jk"Vh; mRikn* dk egRo gksrk gS
emphasises (A) ldy jk"Vh; mRikn dh rhoz o`f ij
(A) rapid growth of GNP
(B) izfr O;fDr vk; esa o`f ij
(B) increase in per capita income
(C) economic development (C) vkFkd fodkl ij
(D) sustainable development (D) fpjLFkk;h(Sustainable) fodkl ij
76. What is referred to as Depository tory 76. ^fu{ksi lsok,* fdls dgrs gSa\
Services?
(A) lkof/ fu{ksiksa dh ,d ubZ ;kstuk
(A) A new scheme of fixed deposits
(B) A method for regulating stock exchanges (B) 'ks;j cktkj dh fofu;fer djus dh ,d fof/
(C) An agency for safe-keeping of securities (C) izfrHkwfr;ksa dks lqjf{kr j[kus ds fy, ,d ,tsalh
(D) A advisory service to investors (D) fuos'kdksa ds fy, ,d lykgdkj lsok
77. The Interest Rate Policy is a component of 77. ^C;kt nj uhfr* fdldk vax gS&
(A) Fiscal Policy (B) Monetary Policy
(A) jktdks"kh; uhfr (B) eqnzk uhfr
(C) Trade Policy (D) Direct Control
78. Gresham Law in Economics relates to (C) O;kikj uhfr (D) izR;{k fu;a=k.k
(A) Supply and demand 78. vFkZ'kkL=k esa ^xzs'ke ds fu;e* dk laca/ gS&
(B) circulation of currency (A) iwr vkSj ekax ls
(C) consumption of supply
(B) eqnzk ds lapkyu ls
(D) distribution of goods and services
79. A mixed economy works primarily through (C) iwr ds miHkksx ls
the (D) inkFkksZa vkSj lsokvksa ds forj.k ls
(A) market mechanism 79. fefJr vFkZO;oLFkk pyrh gS ewyr%
(B) central allocative machinery (A) cktkj ra=k ds ek;e ls
(C) market mechanism regulated by
(B) dsUnzh; fu;a=k.k ra=k ds ek;e ls
Government policy
(D) market mechanism guided by (C) ljdkjh uhfr }kjk fu;af=kr cktkj ra=k ds ek;e ls
Government participation and planning (D) ljdkj dh Hkkxhnkjh vkSj fu;kstu }kjk funsZf'kr ckt
80. How will a reduction in Bank Rate affect ra=k ds ek;e ls
the availability of credit?
80. ^cSad nj* esa deh dk .k dh miyC/rk ij D;k izHkko
(A) Credit will increase
(B) Credit will not increase iM+sxk
?
(C) Credit will decrease (A) .k c<+ tk,xk (B) .k ugha c<+sxk
(D) None of these (C) .k de gks tk;sxk(D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
81. When a large number of investors in a 81. tc fdlh ns'k esa fuos'kdksa dh cM+h la[;k v'kkar vkFk
country transfer investments elsewhere
because of disturbed economic conditions,
ifjfLFkfr;ksa ds dkj.k vius fuos'k nwljh txg varfjd dj
it is called nsrs gSa] mls dgrs gSa&
(A) Transfer of Capital (A) iwth dk varj.k (B) iwth dk fuxZe
(B) Escape of Capital (C) iwth dk cfgxZeu(D) iwth dk iyk;u
(C) Outflow of Capital
82. ^xksYMsu gSaM'ksd ;kstuk* dk laca/ gS&
(D) Flight of Capital
82. Golden Handshake Scheme is associated (A) fons'kh dEifu;ksa dks vkeaf=kr djus ls
with (B) lkoZtfud m|eksa esa futh fuos'k ls
(A) inviting foreign companies (C) la;qDr m|e LFkkfir djus ls
(B) private investment in public enterprise (D) LoSfPNd lsokfuo`fk ls
(C) establishing joint enterprises
(D) voluntary retirement
83. eqnzkLiQhfr gksrh gS tc leLr iwr&
83. Inflation occurs when aggregate supply is (A) leLr ekax ls vf/d gks
(A) more than aggregate demand (B) leLr ekax ls de gks
(B) less than aggregate demand (C) leLr ekax ds cjkcj gks
(C) equal to aggregate demand
(D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(D) None of these
84. In Economics, production means:- 84. vFkZ'kkL=k esa mRiknu dk vFkZ gS&
(A) manufacturing (B) making (A) fofuekZ.k (B) fuekZ.k
(C) creating utility (D) farming (C) mi;ksfxrk ltZu (D) dk'rdkjh
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85. According to modern thinking, the law of 85. vk/qfud fopkj/kjk ds vuqlkj kl eku izfriQy fu;e ykxw
diminishing returns applies to:- gksrk gS&
(A) agriculture
(B) industry (A) f"k ij (B) m|ksx ij
(C) mining (C) [kuu ij (D) mRiknu ds lHkh {ks=kksa ij
(D) all fields of production 86. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk rRo leqnzh 'kSoky ls izkIr fd
86. Which of the following elements is obtained tkrk gS\
from the sea algae?
(A) vkxZu (B) lYiQj
(A) Argon (B) Sulphur
(C) Vanadium (D) Iodine (C) oSusfM;e (D) vk;ksMhu
87. Which of the following is not a component of 87. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk DyksjksfiQy dk ?kVd ugha
chlorophyll? (A) gkbMkstu (B) eSXuhf'k;e
(A) Hydrogen (B) Magnesium
(C) dkcZu (D) dSfYl;e
(C) Carbon (D) Calcium
88. Which of the following is the largest living 88. lcls cM+k thfor i{kh dkSu&lk gS\
bird? (A) eksj (B) 'kqrqjeqxZ
(A) Peacock (B) Ostrich (C) MksMks (D) VdhZ
(C) Dodo (D) Turkey 89. gkeksZu vkerkSj ij fdlesa ugha gksrs\
89. In which of the following generally hormone
is not found? (A) pwgk (B) canj
(A) Rat (B) Monkey (C) cSDVhfj;k (D) fcYyh
(C) Bacteria (D) Cat 90. Msaxw Toj dk dkj.k gS
90. The causative organism of dengue fever is:- (A) dod (iQatkbZ) (B) cSDVhfj;k
(A) Fungus (B) Bacteria
(C) izksVkstksvk (D) ok;jl
(C) Protozoa (D) Virus
91. Which of the following is considered to best 91. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldks mke dksysLVjkWy ekuk tkr
cholesterol? (A) VLDL (B) LDL
(A) VLDL (B) LDL (C) HDL (D) VkbfXyljkbM~t
(C) HDL (D) Triglycerides 92. ^FkSyklhfe;k* ,d vkuqoaf'kd chekjh gSA ;g fdldks izHkk
92. Thalassemia is a hereditary disease. It
affects:
djrh gS\
(A) Blood (B) Spleen (A) #f/j (B) o`Dd
(C) Lungs (D) Heart (C) iQqiQql (D) n;
93. Which of the following he presents a food 93. fuEufyf[kr esa ,d mRiknd] ,d 'kkdkgkjh vkSj ,d ekalkgkjh
chain involving a producer, a vegetarian dks n'kkZus okyh mi;qDr vkgkj ka`[kyk dkSu&lh gS
and a non-vegetarian?
(A) Grass - Insect - Elephant (A) ?kkl&dhV&gkFkh (B) ikni&[kjxks'k&ck?k
(B) Plant - Rabbit - Tiger (C) eRL;&dhV&sy (D) ck?k&[kjxks'k&mYyw
(C) Fish - Insect - Whale 94. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk nzO; Ropk dh ijr dks ty ds
(D) Tiger - Rabbit - Owl fy, vHks| cukrk gS\
94. Which of the following makes the skin layer
(A) dkSystu (B) esykfuu
impervious to water?
(A) Collagen (B) Melanin (C) fdjsfVu (D) dkbfVu
(C) Keratin (D) Chitin 95. [kk| izksVhu ds nks lcls le` Kkr L=kksr gSa
95. Two richest known sources of edible protein (A) ekal rFkk vaMs
are:
(B) nw/ vkSj lfCt;k
(A) meat and eggs
(B) milk and vegetables (C) lks;kchu vkSj ewxiQyh
(C) soybean and groundnut (D) ,d izdkj dk 'kSoky vkSj vU; lw{e tho
(D) some type of algae and other micro- 96. vkS|ksfxd cfg% L=kko }kjk fd, tkus okys ty iznw"k.k
organisms jksdus ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&ls vir`.k ([kjirokj)
96. Which of the following weeds has been found
useful to check water pollution caused by dks mi;ksxh ik;k x;k gS\
industrial affluents? (A) ikFksZfu;e
(A) Parthenium (B) gkFkh ?kkl
(B) Elephant grass (C) ty dqaHkh
(C) Water hyacinth
(D) mi;qZDr(1) vkSj(2) nksuksa
(D) Both (1) and (2) above

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97. Which of the following is correlated with 97. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk lg&lEcU/ jDrpki ls gS\
blood pressure? (A) ;r~ (B) o`"k.k
(A) Liver (B) Testis
(C) vXU;k'k; (D) vf/o`d~d
(C) Pancreas (D) Adrenal
98. Which of the following structures present 98. Lru/kjh thoksa dh Ropk esa ikbZ tkus okyh fuEufyf[kr e
in mammalian skin odirectly helps in dkSu&lh lajpuk 'kjhj dks xje j[kus esa izR;{k :i ls enn
keeping the body warm? djrh gS\
(A) Pigmented cells (B) Sweat glands (A) o.kZfdr dksf'kdk,(B) Losn xzafFk;k
(C) Lymph vessels (D) Blood capillaries
(C) ylhdk okfgfu;k (D) :f/j dsf'kdk,
99. Which from the following diseases usually
spreads through milk? 99. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk jksx izk;% nw/ ds ek;e ls iQS
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Jaundice gS\
(C) Disphtheria (D) Cholera (A) ;{ek (B) ihfy;k
100. Which of the largest fixator of solar energy? (C) fMIFkksfj;k (D) fo"kwfpdk
(A) Bacteria (B) Protozoa
100. lkSj tkZ dk lcls cM+k ;kSfxdhdkjd
(fixator) dkSu gS\
(C) Fungi (D) Green plants
(A) cSDVhfj;k (B) izksVkstksvk
(C) dod (D) gjs ikS/s

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ROUGH

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GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST- 24 (ANSWER KEY)


1. (A) 21. (B) 41. (A) 61. (A) 81. (D)
2. (A) 22. (A) 42. (C) 62. (D) 82. (D)
3. (D) 23. (C) 43. (D) 63. (D) 83. (B)
4. (A) 24. (A) 44. (C) 64. (A) 84. (C)
5. (A) 25. (D) 45. (C) 65. (A) 85. (D)
6. (C) 26. (D) 46. (D) 66. (D) 86. (D)

s
7. (B) 27. (D) 47. (D) 67. (D) 87. (D)
8. (A) 28. (C) 48. (D) 68. (A) 88. (B)
9. (C) 29. (C) 49. (A) 69. (D) 89. (D)

u
10. (C) 30. (C) 50. (*) 70. (A) 90. (D)
11. (A) 31. (C) 51. (C) 71. (D) 91. (C)
12. (A) 32. (D) 52. (A) 72. (C) 92. (A)

p
13. (D) 33. (D) 53. (B) 73. (A) 93. (B)
14. (D) 34. (D) 54. (D) 74. (A) 94. (C)
15. (A) 35. (B) 55. (B) 75. (*) 95. (C)
16. (B) 36. (A) 56. (B) 76. (C) 96. (C)

m
17. (B) 37. (B) 57. (B) 77. (B) 97. (D)
18. (C) 38. (D) 58. (C) 78. (B) 98. (C)
19. (B) 39. (C) 59. (B) 79. (D) 99. (A)

a
20. (C) 40. (B) 60. (D) 80. (A) 100. (D)

C
D
K
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GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST-24 (SOLUTION)


1. (A) Vocational Training comes under the
a person above age of 18 years though
concurrent list of 7th schedule in the
eligible to be part of Gram Sabha does not
constitution of India. In the National skill
automatically becomes part of it.
development corporation the Industry to
- Seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all
Government stake is in the ratio of 51 : 49.
level shall be reserved for the Scheduled
2. (A) - The decision of Collegium are binding on
Tribes;
the President after 2nd Judges case in 1992.
8. (A) - He represents Government is Presidential

s
- Since the decision of collegium is a
Reference to Supreme Court under art. 143.
executive decision, it can be challenged in
- He enjoys all the privileges and immunities
the High Court i.e Supreme Court on the
enjoyed by a member of Parliament .
grounds of being malafide.

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- Attorney General is not a full time counsel
3. (D) Union Ministry of Health and Family
for the government and he is not a
Welfare has launched Project Sunrise on for
government servant. He is not debarred from

p
prevention of AIDS among people injecting
private practice.
drugs in the 8 North-Eastern states. The
9. (C) - The Muslim League demanded that no
AIDS prevention special project aims to
other party could nominate a Muslim
diagnose 90 per cent of such drug addicts
member to the Council, which would make
with HIV and put them under treatment by

m
2020. the League the sole representative of Indian
Muslims. Congress, as a national
4.(A) - CIC and other commissioners are not
eligible for reappointment. representatives from any of the

a
communities. The conference ended in
- CIC Salary is the same as that of the Chief
failure because neither Congress nor the
Election Commissioner and of other
League was prepared do deviate from their
commissioners to that of election

C
respective
Commissioners. This will not be varied to positions on Muslim
representation.
the disadvantage of the CIC during service.
10. (C) The cabinet mission plan of 1946 proposed
- CIC submits annual report to Government
that there shall be Union of India which was
of India and not to the President.
to be empowered to deal with the defense,
5.(A) 1. Executive power with respect to
foreign affairs and communications. The

D
Concurrent Legislation rests with
States. cabinet mission recommended and
undivided India and turned down the
2. Center can give direction to states for
Muslim league's demand for a separate
drawing up and executing specified

K
Pakistan. The Cabinet mission restricted
schemes for the welfare of STs only.
the Communal representation. A
6. (C) Minimum fifty per cent of the Members will
Constituent Assembly will be formed of the
be from SC/ST/OBC/Minorities and
Women. representatives of the Provincial Assemblies
and the Princely states. Each province had
- MPs and MLAs, Persons convicted of any
to be allotted a total number of seats in
offense involving moral Panchayats or
proportion to the its population.
Municipality, a person who was removed or
11.(A) Charter Act of 1853 opened the
dismissed from the public service, A person
appointments to ICS through competitive
who holds any office of trust/profit, A person
who is affiliated to political party Carries on
examination, previously they were appointed
some business/profession cannot be
by the members of board of directoers. The
Chairperson of Lokpal. examination of the ICS was only conducted
- This selection committee is made up of
in London. Only after 1922, ICS exams were
Prime Minister - Chairperson; Speaker of
conducted in India.
Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition in Lok
12. (A) The main objectives of Khilafat Movement
Sabha, Chief Justice of India or a Judge
were :
nominated by him/her and one eminent
1. To protect the Usmania Khailafat of Turkey
jurist. 2. The protection of sacred and religious places
7. (B) Gram Sabha consists of persons whose
of Muslims i.e. BAT-UL-MUQADDAS
names are included in the electoral rolls for
3. The protection of limits of Turkey if it is
the Panchayat at the village level. Therefore
defeated in the world war
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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
13. (D) All statements are correct. Ryotwari resolving 4D geodynamic and metallogenic
system was introduced in Madras evolution, Detecting and characterizing the
presidency by Thomas Munro as permanent distal footprints of are deposits.
settlement was not possible in the absence 19. (B) Pascals law - Pressure applied to an
of zamindars in the region. Morover, by this enclosed incompressible static fluid is
time (1825) Government had a well transmitted undiminished to all parts of the
established machinery of an administration fluid. Hydraulic brakes in vehicles,
and felt that it was capable of collecting Hydraulic jacks is to lift the vehicle,
hydraulic jacks to lift the vehicle, hydraulic
revenue directly from the peasant.
actuators in aircraft landing gear etc are
14. (D) Christmas is celebrated in summer in
working on this principle.
Australia because it is located in the

s
southern hemisphere. Only during an Hooks law-It states that the stress applied
equinox is the Earth's 23.5-degree axis not to any solid body is proportional to the strain
tilting toward or away from the sun: the it produces in it within the elastic limit of
that solid body.

u
centre of the sun is in the same plane as
the Equator. There are two equinoxes in a Bernoulli's principle - In fluid dynamics,
year; around March 21 and around Sept. 22. Bernoulli's principle states that for an
inviscid flow of a nonconducting fluid, an

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In the Northern Hemisphere, March 21 is
the spring or vernal equinox. September 22 increase in the speed of the fluid occurs
is the autumnal equinox. simultaneously with a decrease in pressure
15. (A) Air rising above the equator spreads out, or a decrease in the fluid's potential energy.
cools, and descends (because colder air is Pitot tube and carburater works on this

m
heavier) in the subtropical zones at 25 to principle.
40 latitude. Descending air increases Doppler Effect - It is the change in frequency
atmospheric pressure, and subtropical of a wave for an observer moving relative to

a
climate is associated with generally clear its source. Speed guns used by the police
shies, low rainfall, and high daytime works on this effect.
temperatures of over 40C. Many the worlds 20. (C) - Persons who are working (or employed)
hot deserts are found in this subtropical or seeking or available for work constitutes

C
high-pressure belt. As for the tropical belt labour force.
of climate the subtropical zone expands - A person who has participated in any
towards the higher latitudes during the economically productive activity with or
summer months. Africa and Eurasian without compensation or profit constitutes
desert belt are located under the influence workforce.

D
of cold ocean currents. - As per Census 2011, the workforce
16. (B) A Savanna is a rolling grassland scattered participation rate for females is 25.51%
with shrubs and isolated trees, which can against 53.26% for males. Rural sector has
be found between a tropical rainforest and better female workforce participation rate

K
desert biome. Not enough rain falls on a of 30.02% compared with 53.03% for males
Savanna to support forests. Savannas are whereas for urban sector. The participation
also known as tropical grasslands. rate of females trails at 15.44% against
17.(B)With view to provide confirmed against 53.76% for males.
accommodation to waitlisted passengers and 21. (B) - Setu Bharatam programme for building
also the ensure optimal utilisation of for safe and seamless travel on National
available accommodation, a scheme called Highways, with an aim to make all National
Alternate Train Accommodation Scheme - free of railway level crossings by 2019.
VIKALP has been conceptualized by the - The Sagarmala Project therefore intends to
Railway on pilot basis in two sectors; ie., achieve the broad objective of enhancing
Delhi-Lucknow and Delhi-Jammu. And it is the capacity of major and non-major ports
only available to the tickets booked through and modernizing them to make them
internet. The wait listed passengers can opt efficient, thereby enabling them to become
for confirmed accommodation alternate drivers of port-led economic development,
trains. optimizing the use of existing and future
18. (C) It is the state-of-the-art project transport (including roads, rail, inland
implemented in selected areas in the waterways and coastal routes), setting up of
country, focused on probing for deep seated/ logistics hubs etc.
concealed mineral deposits. Main - Bharatmala project is to improve
components of this project are, connectivity in border area including
characterizing Indias geological cover, coastal boundary covering development of
Investigating lithospheric architecture, about 7000 Kms of NHs.

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
22. (A) India's total installed capacity of power 28. (C) Mercury is the only metal in liquid form
generation is 288 GW of which shares of at std temperature and pressure. Its other
different fuels are: Common names are Quicksilver,
Source: % hydrargrum. Mercury Poisoning.
Coal 61 29. (C) Note that Like dissolves Like. Non polar
Hydro 15 compounds dissolve other non polar
Renewable 13 compounds. Polar compounds dissolve ionic
Gas 8.5 compounds and other polar compounds.
Nuclear 2 30. (C) 1. Annapurna scheme : Ministry of Rural
Oil 0.3 Development
23. (C) Foreign direct investment (FDI) is made 2. Mid Day Meal : Ministry of

s
into a business or a sector by an individual Human
or a company from another country. It is Resource
different from portfolio investment, which Development
is made more indirectly into another 3. Wheat Based : Ministry of

u
country's economy by using financial Nutrition Women and
instruments, such as bonds and stocks. Programme Child
- Singapore, Mauritius and Netherland are Development

p
the top using financial instruments, such 31. (C) The scheme is independent of Deen Dayal
as bonds and stocks. Antyodaya Yojana. The scheme is being
- FDI is not only non-debt creating instrument implemented by Ministry of Skill
but also improve productivity of the economy. Development and Entrepreneurship
24. (A) 1. Nalanda Project Universities Pilot through the National Skill Development

m
Project for Corporation (NSDC). The PMKVY, will
Development of primarily focus on the first time entrants
Faculties of Minority to the labour market and target mainly drop

a
2. NailRoshni Scheme for Leader- outs from Class 10 and Class 12.
ship Development of 32. (D) - Stand Up India Scheme is intended to
Minority Women facilitate at least two such projects per bank

C
3. NailManzil Basic Bride branch, on an average one for category of
Programme to bridge entrepreneur. If is expected to benefit at
the academic and skill least
development gaps of Handholding support for both SC/ST and
Madrasa passouts Women borrowers.
25. (D) Categories under priority sector Facilitating bank loans repayable up to 7

D
- Agriculture years and between `10 lakh to `100 lakh
- Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise for Greenfield enterprises in the non farm
- Export Credit sector set up by such SC, ST and Women
- Education borrowers.

K
- Housing 33. (D) Monsoon winds are the seasonal wind of
- Social Infrastructure the Indian Ocean and Southern Asia,
- Renewable Energy blowing from the southwest in summer and
- Others from the northeast in winter.
26. (D) In India, the Child Sex Ratio is defined as 34. (D) All are correct.
the number of females per thousand males 35. (B) Sector FDI limit
in the age group 0-6 years in a human popu- 1. Civil Aviation A. 49%
lation. Haryana has the least Child Sex Ra- 2. FM Radio B. 26%
tio and Kerala has the highest Child Sex 3. Railway Infrastructure C. 100%
Ratio. 4. Public Sector Banks D. 20%
27. (D) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana 36. (A) 'Padhe Bharat Badhe Bharat' is a
(PMKSY) is a national mission to improve nationwide sub programme under the SSA.
farm productivity and ensure better Launched in 2014, this programme has
utilization of the resources in the country. been planned in a twin track approach.
The primary objectives of PMKSY are to to improve language development by
attract investments in irrigation system at creating an enduring interest in reading
field level, develop and expand cultivable and writing with comprehension; and to
land in the country, enhance ranch water create a natural and positive interest in
use in order to minimize wastage of water, mathematics related to their physical and
enhance crop per drop by implementing social world.
water-saving technologies and precision The two tracks of Padhe Bharat Badhe are
irrigation. Early Reading and Writing with

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
Comprehension (ERWC) and Early international intellectual property (IIP)
Mathematics (EM) particularly in class I and index.
II. 43. (D) Ladakh, J & K
37. (B) Amino acids are non-volatile crystalline - India and the National Aeronautics and
solids which melt with decomposition at Space Administration (NASA) entered into
high temperature. There can be acidic a partnership in January 2016 to explore
amino acids and basic amino acids. Amino the environment of Ladakh under NASA's
acids are structural units of proteins. Amino Spaceward Bound programme.
acids are soluble in water and insoluble in 44. (C) Twin balance sheet challenge is related
non-polar solvents. with the balance sheet problem of PSBs and
38. (D) corporate houses.

s
1. MGNREGS aims to provide at least 100 45. (C)
days of wage employment in financial 46. (D) Great Bear is located in Canada. Lake
year to every rural household. Baikal is located in Russia. Lake Victoria
2. MGNREGS guarantees the right to work. is located in Kenya-Tanzania-Uganda. Lake

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3. If employment is not provided to Superior is located along U.S-Canada
applicants to MGNREGS, the applicants 47. (D) Panama is bordered by Costa Rica (North),
are entitled to be paid compensation. Columbia (South), Atlantic (East), Pacific

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4. At least 50 per cent (by fund) of the works (West).
have to be implemented through the 48. (D) Ist FYP was based on Harrod Domar model.
Gram Panchayats. It is a growth model which states the rate of
39. (C) RTE act was enacted in 2009. The economic growth in an economy is
constitutional amendment was made in dependent on the level of saving and the

m
2002 (article 21A). capital output ratio.
Education is fundamental right in India for - 2nd FYP was based on Mahalanobis model
children between the ages 6 and 14. which focus on trickle down strategy.

a
It requires all private schools (except the - 4th EYP was launched after Annual three
minority institutions) to reserve 25% of Annual plans and thus focused on stability.
seats for the poor. The exception is important - 5 th FYP had two objectives' removal of

C
as it was in the news a couple of years back. poverty' (Garibi Hatao) and attainment of
No child can be detained in India until self reliance.
completion of elementary education. 49. (A) The Rashtriya Swathya Bima Yojna RSBY
40. (B) President's rule can be imposed in a state which was earlier implemented by the
if a situation has arisen in which the Ministry is from 1st April 2015 is being
government of the state cannot be carried implemented by the Ministry of Health and

D
on in accordance with the provisions of the family Welfare.
Constitution. - The RSBY, the health insurance scheme for
- During president's rule, the Parliament BPL (below poverty line) families was
becomes empowered to make law with launched for the workers in the unorganized

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respect to any matter in the State List in sector in the FY 2007-08 and it became fully
relation to that state. operational from 1st April 2008. It provides
- A proclamation imposing President's rule for IT-enabled and smart - card - based
must be approved by both the Houses or cashless healthy insurance, including
Parliament within two months from the date maternity benefit cover up to `30,000/ per
of its issue. annum of a family occupational groups in
- President's rule can be extended beyond the unorganized sector.
that the general elections to the legislative 50. (*)
assembly of the concerned state cannot be 51. (C) Presumptive taxation involves the use of
held on account of difficulties. indirect means to ascertain tax liability,
41. (A) - NHRC is a statutory body formed under which differ from the usual rules based on
Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. the taxpayer's accounts.
- The Chairman of the NHRC should be 52. (A) 1. The SDR was created by the IMF in 1969
retired chief justice of the Supreme Court as a supplementary international
and the member of NHRC are appointed by reserve asset, in the context of the
the President of India. Bretton Woods fixed exchange rate
- Members of the NHRC can be serving or system.
retired justices of the Supreme Court of 2. SDR value is determined on the basis of
India, a serving or retired chief justice of a five currencies namely Euro, Dollar,
high court or a person to human rights. pound sterling, Japnese Yen and Yuan.
42. (C) Global Intellectual Property Centre (GIPC) 3. SDR forms parts of both India's foreign
of US Chamber of Commercepublishes the exchange reserves and external debt.

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
53. (B) Mixture formed by common salt and 2.08 billion passengers (the second highest
potassium iodide known as iodized salt. By after Indian Railways). Russia's whole
the use of iodized salt we can prevent the network, operated by state-owned monopoly
goiter disease which caused by deficiency Russian Railways, runs for over 85,500km.
of iodine. The Indian nationwide rail network includes
54. (D) The two magnetic lines of force due to bar an operating route length of more than
magnet do not intersect or cross each other 65,000km. The network carried about eight
because at the point of intersection there billion passengers (the highest in the world)
will be two directions of there will be two and 1.01 million tonnes of freight (fourth
directions of the magnetic field which not highest in the world) in 2013.
possible. 59. (B) South Sandwich Trench - A deep arcuate
55. (B) The Bab-el-or Mandeb Strait is a strait trench in the Atlantic Ocean that is created

s
located between Yemen on the Arabian by subduction and is the deepest trench in
Peninsula, and Djibouti and Eritrea in the the Southern Atlantic Ocean. Tonga Trench
Horn of Africa. Bosporus is a natural that - The trench is standing alone in the South

u
forms and separates Asian Turkey from Pacific Ocean, the depth of 11.03 kilometers
European Turkey. Strait of Juan de Fuca - below sea level and lies in the western
The international boundary between Pacific Ocean.

p
Canada and united states runs down the 60. (D) Both AIM and SETU are being overseen by
centre of the Strait. Strait of Gibraltar is a the NITIA Ayog. The Atal Innovation Mission
narrow strait that connects the Atlantic (AIM) is being set up under NITI, AIM will
Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and be an Innovation Promotion Platform
separates Gibraltar and Peninsular Spain involving academics, entrepreneurs, and

m
in Europe from Morocco and Ceuta (Spain) researchers drawing upon national and
in Africa. international experiences to foster a culture
56. (B) For the part of its length, the IDL follows of innovation, R & D in India. The platform

a
the meridian of 180 longitude, roughly down will also promote a network of world-class
middle of the Pacific Ocean. To avoid innovation hubs and grand challenges for
crossing nations internally, the IDL deviates India. The Government has established a
west around the US Aleutian Islands, mechanism to be known as SETU (Self-

C
separating then from islands in the far east
of Russia, and further south, it deviates
east around various island nations in the
Pacific such as Kiribati, Samoa, Tonga and
Tokelau, These various deviations, east or
Employment and Talent Utilisation) under
NITI Aayog. SETU will be a Techno-
Financial, Incubation and Facilitation
Programme to support all aspects of start-
up businesses, and other self-employment

D
west, generally accommodate the political activities, particularly in technology-driven
and/or economic of the affected areas. areas.
57. (B) The Tabernas desert is probably the best 61. (A) The discretionary powers to choose such
example of a rea desert in Europe. It is clusters do not rest with the Member of

K
located in the southeast of Spain, in the parliament in the region. For the purposes
province of Almeria, in Andalusia. The of SPMRM, RURBAN areas refer to a cluster
Taklimakan is located in the northweastern of 15-20 villages having about 30 to 40 lakh
Chinese subdivision of Xinjiang or the population. the clusters will geographically
Uygur Autonomous Region. The Great Basin contiguous Gram Panchayats with a
desert is a large are arid region in the population of about 25000 to 50000 in plain
western states of the US. The Patagonian and coastal areas and population of 5000 to
desert might not be as well known as many 15000 is desert, hilly or tribal areas. As far
other mentioned above, it is the largest as particable, clusters of village would follow
desert in the America's and covers a luge administrative convergence units of Gram
area between the Andes Mountains in the Panchayats. Theses clusters are intended
west and the Atlantic Ocean to the east. to be well delineated areas with planned
58. (C) The US rail network, with an operating layouts prepared to be well delineated areas
route length over 250,000km, is the biggest with planned layouts prepared following the
in the world. Freight lines constitute about planning norms (as laid down in the State,
80% of the country's total rail network, while Town and Country Planning norms (as laid
the total passenger network spans about down in the state, Town and Country
35,000km. China's rail network, with route Planning Acts/similar central or State
length of over 100,000km, ranks as the statutes as may be applicable), which would
second biggest rail network in the world. be duly notified by the State/UTs. These
The extensive network, operated by state- plans would be fimally integrated with the
owned China Railway Corporation, carried District Plans/Master Plans as the case my

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
be. - Election Petitions: Any elector or candidate
62. (D) In participatory development (PD), people can file an election petition if he or she
are willingly involved in a wide range of thinks there has been malpractice during
development, Participatory development the election. An election petition is not an
seeks to engage local population in or diary civil suit, but treated as a contest
development projects. It is clear from the in which the whole constituency is involved.
definition of PD that NGOs, Pressure Groups, Election petitions are tried by the High Court
and Cooperatives are involved in it. There of the State involved.
might be some confusion over how state is 69. (D) Article 323 B empowers Parliament and
a part of PD. It is actually the state activity State Legislature to establish tribunals for
that can facilitate or hinder PD. On the other the purpose of taxation, land reforms,

s
hand, states through their policy and industries and labour etc. That does not
support can facilitate PD. In last few years, contain provision for the purpose of
the role of the state in participatory environment.
development programme to growth, - National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 (NGT) is

u
employment and redistribution. an Act of the Parliament of India which
63. (D) The 1972 amendments to AFSPA extended creation of a special tribunal to handle the
the power to declare an area disturbed to expeditious disposal of the cases pertaining

p
the Central Government whereas in the to environmental issues. It was enacted
1958 version of AFSPA, only the state under India's constitutional provision of
Governor had the power. AFSPA gives legal Article 21, which assures the citizens of
immunity to armed personnels, and allows India the right to a healthy environment.
them to use force amounting to injury of - The sanctioned strength of the tribunal is

m
death, and also arrest without warrant. currently 10 expert members and 10
64. (A) 8th International Security Summit was Judicial members although the act allows
organized by ASSOCHAM in Delhi. for up to 20 of each.

a
65. (A) The SHGs comprise very poor people who - The Chairman of the tribunal who is the
do not have access to formal financial administrative head of the tribunal also
institutions. They act as the forum for the serves as a judicial member.

C
members to provide space and support to - Every bench of tribunal must consist of at
each other. It also enables the members to least one expert member and one judicial
learn to cooperate and work in a group member. The chairman of the tribunal is
environment. The SHGs provide savings required to be a serving or retired Chief
mechanism, which suits the needs of the Justice of a High Court or a Judge of the
members. It also provides a cost effective Supreme Court of India.

D
delivery mechanism for small credit to its 70. (A) Ad hoc judges can be appointed in the
members. The SHGs significantly Supreme Court by Chief Justice of India
contribute to the empowerment of poor with the prior consent of the President, if
women. Employment Guarantee is not an there is no quorum of judges available to

K
objective of Self Help Group. hold and continue the session of the court.
66. (D) Delimitation commission is a commission Only the persons who are qualified as to be
establish by Government of India under the appointed as Juge of the Supreme Court can
provisions of the Delimitation Commission be appointed as ad hoc judge of the Supreme
Acts passed by the Parliament, Seats are Court. (Article 127).
reserved for SCs and STs in proportion to 71. (D) Janatha Party - Morarji Desai
their population ratio and not for OBC Janatha Dal - H. D D Deva Gowda
67. (D) In the state of Jammu and Kashmir, 72. (C) Dig locker is a digital locker launched
failure of constitutional machinery results by the Government of India in February
in Governor's rule, imposed by invoking 2015 to provide a secure, dedicated personal
Section 92 of Constitution of Jammu and dechotic space for steering the documents
Kashmir. of resident Indian citizens. The storage
- The proclamation is issued by the state's space (minimum 1 GB) is linked to the
Governor after obtaining the consent of the unique Identification Authority of India
President of India. (Aadhar number) of the user.
- If it is not possible to revoke Governor's rule 73. (A) A value added tax (VAT) is a form of
before within six months of imposition, consumption tax. A VAT is like a sales tax
President's Rule under Article 356 of the in that ultimately only the end consumer
Indian Constitution is imposed. is taxed. It differs from the sales tax in that,
68. (A) Disqualification under the Constitution with the latter, the tax is collected and
and RPA are decided by President after purchase by the end consumer. VAT comes
getting the opinion of Supreme Court. under the single tax system based primarily

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
or exclusively on one tax, typically chosen bank charges on the loans and advances to
for its special properties. Most of the Indian a commercial bank. Whenever the banks
States have replaced sales tax with value have any shortage of funds they can borrow
Added Tax (VAT) from 1 April, 2005. VAT is it from the central bank. Repo (Repurchase)
imposed on goods only and not services and rate is the rate at which the central bank
it has replaced sales tax. lends short-term money to the banks
74. (A) Devaluation is reduction in the exchange against securities. A reduction in the repo
value of a country's monetary unit in terms rate will help banks to get money at a
of gold, silver, or foreign currency. By cheaper rate. When the repo rate increases
decreasing the price of the price of imports borrowing from the central bank becomes
in the home country, devaluation more expensive. It is more applicable when
there is a liquidity crunch in the market.

s
encourages the home country, devaluation
discourages expenditures on imports, thus 81. (D) Flight of capital refers to the movement of
improving its balance of payments. money from one investment to another in
75. (*) search of greater stability or increased

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76. (C) It is a service offered by a securities movement of money from investments in
depository under which the depository one country to another in order to avoid
maintains book accounts recording the country-specific risk (such as high inflation

p
ownership of securities held on behalf of the or political turmoil) or in search of higher
depository's participants, for eligible returns. Capital flight is seen most
securities. commonly in massive foreign capital
77. (B) Monetary policy is the process by which outflows from a specific country, often at
the monetary authority of a country controls times of currency instability.

m
the supply of money, often targeting a rate 82. (D) The voluntary retirement scheme (VRS)
of interest for the purpose of promoting is the most humane technique to provide
economic growth and stability. The official overall reduction in the existing strength

a
goals usually include relatively stable prices of the employees. It is a technique used by
and low unemployment. The contraction of companies for trimming the workforce
employed in the industrial unit. It is also
the monetary supply can be achieved
known as Golden Handshake as it is the

C
indirectly by authorities in different the
golden route to retrenchment.
nominal interest rates. Monetary
83. (B) If the supply is less than the demand, the
authorities in different nations have
price will increase. Inflation the persistent
differing levels of control of economy-wide
increase in aggregate demand or decrease
interest rates.
in aggregate supply. This suggests two
78. (B) Gresham's law is an economic principle

D
basics sources, causes, or types of inflation-
that states; When a government
demand-pull inflation and cost-push
compulsorily overvalues one type of money
inflation. In general, prices increase as a
and undervalues another, the undervalued
result of market shortages, which occur
money will leave the country or disappear

K
when quantity demanded exceeds quantity
from circulation into. It is commonly stated
supplied. Market shortages can be created
as: Bad money drives out good. by either increases in demand or decreases
79. (D) Mixed economy is an economic system in in supply. Translating this to the
which both the state and private sector macroeconomy suggests that inflation
direct the economy, reflecting occurs when aggregate demand exceeds
characteristics of both market economies aggregate supply.
and planned economies. The basic idea of 84. (C) All factors of production like land, labour,
the mixed under private ownership; that capital and entrepreneur are required in
markets remain the profit-seeking combination at a time to produce a
enterprises and the accumulation of capital commodity. Production means creation or
remain the fundamental driving force an addition of utility. Factors of production
behind economic activity. However, unlike (or productive inputs or resources) are any
a free-market economy, the government commodities or services used to produce
would wield considerable indirect influence goods and service.
over the economy through fiscal and 85. (D) The law of diminishing returns (also law
monetary policies designed to counteract
of diminishing marginal returns or law of
economic downturns and capitalism's
increasing relative cost) states that in all
tendency toward financial crises and
productive processes, adding more of one
unemployment, along with playing a role in
factor of production, while holding all others
interventions that promote social welfare.
80. (A) Bank rate, also referred to as the discount constant (ceteris paribus), will at some
rate, is the rate of interest which a central point yield lower per-unit returns. The law

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
of diminishing returns does not imply that pains, and a characteristic skin rash that
adding more of a factor will decrease the total is similar to measles. In a small proportion
production, a condition known an negative of cases the disease develops into the life-
returns, though in fact this is common. threatening dengue hemorrhagic fever,
86. (D) Fusus vesiculosus is a brown seaweed and resulting in bleeding, low levels dengue
is also known as bladderwrack or red algae, shock syndrome, where dangerously low
according to the National Institutes of blood platelets and blood plasma leakage,
Health (NIH). Red marine algae and other or into dengue shock syndrome, where
seaweeds are common components of Asian dangerously low blood pressure occurs.
diets and are often used in dietary Dengue is transmitted by several species
supplements. The high iodine content in red of mosquito within the genus Aedes,

s
marine algae can lead to hypothyroidism or principally A. aegypti.
hyperthyroidism. 91. (C) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is one of
87. (D) Chlorophyll, a photo-receptive pigment, the major groups of lipoproteins, which, in

u
allows plants to absorb sunlight and order of sizes, largest to smallest, are
synthesize it into carbohydrates and oxygen. chylomicrons, VLDL, IDL, LDL, and HDL,
The basic formula for photosynthesis takes which enable lipids like cholesterol and
6 molecules of carbon dioxide and 6 triglycerides to be transported within the
molecules of water, reacts them in the
presence them into 1 molecules of water,
reacts them in the presence of chlorophyll
and sunlight (a catalyst), and converts them
p
water-based bloodstream. In healthy
individuals, about thirty percent of blood
cholesterol is carried by HDL. About one -
fourth to one-third of blood cholesterol is

m
into 1 molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) and 6 known as good cholesterol, because high
molecules of oxygen, Chlorophyll is a chlorin levels of HDL seem to protect against heart
pigment, which is structurally similar to and attack. Low levels of HDL (less than 40 mg/

a
produced through the same metabolic dL) also increase the risk of heart disease.
pathway as other porphyrin pigments such Medical experts think that HDL tends to
as heme. At the center of the chlorin ring carry cholesterol away from the arteries and
is a magnesium ion. The molecular formula back to the liver, where it's passed from the

C
of C 55H 70O 6N 4Mg and a structure of (2- body. Some experts believe that HDL
formyl)-chlorophyll has been deduced based removes excess cholesterol from arterial
on NMR, optical and mass spectra. plaque, slowing its buildup.
88. (B) The ostrich is the largest and heaviest bird 92. (A) Thalassemia are forms of inherited
that is alive today. Although it cannot fly, autosomal recessive blood disorders that

D
the ostrich is also the fastest -running bird originated in the Mediterranean region. In
today; it can run up to about 43 mph (70 kph). thalassemia, the disease is caused by the
It can outrun most predators, but can also weakening and destruction of red blood cells.
kick to protect itself; another strategy Whilst possessing the ability to cause

K
against threats is to crouch close to the significant complications, including
ground to camoulflage itselft. The ostrich anaemia, iron overload, bone deformities and
can grow up to 9 feet (2.7 m) tall and weight cardiovascular illness, thalassemia, which
up to 345 pounds (156 kg). The ostrich also is or was prevalent in the regions where the
has the biggest eyeballs of any bird alive trait is common.
today; each eyeball is 2 inches (5 cm) across. 93. (B) A food chain is a linear sequence of links
It has a long neck that allows it to see in a food web starting from trophic species
predators from far away. that eats no other species in the web and
89. (D) Neutering involves removing the source ends at a trophic species that is eaten by
of the hormones that control reproduction no other species in the web. Plant, rabbit
and that determine the typical physical and and tiger form species in the web. Plant
behavioral characteristics that distinguish represents producer, rabbit and tiger form
males and females. In dogs and cats, this is a food chain where plant represents
usually done by surgically removing the producer, rabbits represent a vegetarian,
testicles in males (castration) and the while tiger represents a non-vegetarian.
ovaries in females (spaying). The primary 94. (C) Keratin is family of fibrous structural
purpose of neutering is to prevent proteins. Keratin is the key structural
reproduction. material making up the outer layer of
90. (D) Dengue fever also known as breakbone human skin. It is also the key structural
fever, is an infectious tropical disease component of hair and nails. Keratin
caused by the dengue virus. Symptoms monomers assemble into bundles to form
include fever, headache, muscle and joint intermediate filaments, which are tough

(M) 9555108888, 9555208888 9


Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
and insoluble and form strong un- very close to the skin surface and can be
mineralized tissues found in reptiles, birds, found near veins; others are just under the
amphibians, and mammals. Cells in the skin and in the deeper fatty tissues near
epidermis contain a structural matrix of the muscles and can be found near arteries.
keratin, which makes this outermost layer 99. (A) There are two forms of tuberculosis that
of the skin almost waterproof, and along with cause significant disease in mammals.
collagen and elastin, gives skin its strength. Human tuberculosis, a sometimes acute,
95. (C) The richest sources of protein are animal but much more commonly, a chronic lung
foods such as chicken, meat, fish, cheese infection is caused by the bacterium,
and eggs. However, plant proteins are Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Bovine
believed to be healthier because of their tuberculosis is a very similar disease that

s
lower fat content. Plant protein is found (e.g.) infects cattle, as well as deer, goats, elk and
in beans (esp. soy beans), lentils, nuts, many other animals. This infection is
quorn and seeds. Fish and seafood are some caused by related bacterium,
of the richest sources of protein. One-half Mycobacterium bovis. Human infections

u
of a typical fillet of halibut or salmon with the bovine form of the bacteria are
provides approximately 41g of protein-rich transmitted through milk.
food option for vegetarians and non- 100.(D) Ecological productivity refers to the

p
vegetarians alike. One cup of boiled primary fixation of solar energy by plants
soybeans provides over 28g of protein. and the subsequent use of that fixed energy
96. (C) Around the world, there is an increasing by plant-eating herbivores, animal-eating
trend in areas of land, surface waters and carnivores, and the detritivores that feed
ground water affected by contamination from upon dead biomass. Ecologists refer to the

m
industrial, military and agricultural productivity Deserts, tundra, and the deep
activities due to either ignorance, lack of ocean are the least productive ecosystems,
vision, or carelessness. In the last three typically having an energy fixation of less

a
decades a special interest in the world is than 0.5 103 kilocalories per square meter
aroused by the potential of using the per year (thousands of kcal/m2/yr; it takes
biological methods in the waste water one calorie to raise the temperature of one

C
treatment. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia gram of water by 34F [1C] under standard
crassipes) constitutes an important part of conditions, and there are 1,000 calories in
an aquatic ecosystem. Water hyacinth as a a kcal). Grasslands, montane and boreal
very promising plant with tremendous forests, waters of the continental shelf, and
application in wastewater treatment is rough agriculture typically have
already proved. Water hyacinth is used to productivities of 0.5-3.0 103 kcal/m2/yr.

D
treat waste water from dairies, tanneries, Moist forests, moist prairies, shallow lakes,
sugar factories, pulp and paper industries, and typical agricultural systems have
palm oil mills, distilleries, etc. productivities of 3-10 103 kcal/m2/yr. The
97. (D) Blood pressure is an important indicator most productive ecosystems are fertile

K
of adrenal health and function. Mild adrenal esturies and marshes, coral reefs,
weakness is usually accompanied by normal terrestrial vegetation on moist alluvial
to high blood pressure. As Adrenal Fatigue deposits, and intensive agriculture, which
advances, low blood pressure, at rest or can have productivities of 10-25 103 kcal/
related to posture becomes more prevalent. m2/yr.
98. (C) The lymphatic system consists of a
network of specialized lymphatic vessels
and various tissues and organs throughout
the body that contain lymphocytes fight
infection and disease. The lymphatic
vessels are similar to veins but have
thinner walls. Some of these vessels are

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Compiled By Abhijeet Singh
2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009

GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST -25


1. Which among the following are the reasons 1. fuEu esa ls nky mRiknu dh /heh o`f nj ds dkSu ls dkj.k
for the slow growth pattern in the production gSa\
of pulses?
1. Substitution of pulses with other crops 1. nkyksas dk vU; iQlyksa ds lkFk izfr LFkkiuA
2. Shift in pulses cultivation to less 2. nky mRiknu dk e mitk 'kqLd Hkwfe okyh [ksrh dh
productive drylands. vksj izfr LFkkiuA
3. Limited improvement research in
pulses. 3. nky 'kks/ esa lhfer lq/kjA
4. Higher MSP offered to other food crop. 4. vU; [kk| iQlyksa dks vf/dre leFkZu (MSP)
ewY;
Choose the correct answer from the code iznku djukA
given below:
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu,&
(C) 2 and 4 only (D) All of the above (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (B) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 3
2. Consider the following statements regarding (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 4 (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
ISRO's Aditya L1 Mission?
1. Aditya - L1 is a spacecraft whose mission 2. bljks dks vkfnR;
L1 fe'ku ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj
is to study the Jupiter. dhft,\
2. This will be the first space mission in 1. vkfnR;- L1 ,d Lis'kV gS tks fd o`gLifr dk
the world to be placed at Lagrangian
v;;u djsxkA
point L1.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. ;g fo'o dk izFke vUrfj{k fe'ku gS tks fd ySxjfx;u
correct? fcUnq L1 ij LFkkfir gksxkA
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lR; gS&
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 Nor 2
3. Which of the following is true bout Gram (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
Nyayalyas according to Gram Nyayalayas (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 vkSj u2
Act, 2008?
3. xzke U;k;ky; vf/fu;e]2008 ds vuqlkj xzke U;k;ky;ksa
1. Gram Nyayalayas to have only civil
jurisdiction. ds ckjs esa D;k lR;
? gS
2. Both State and Central Government can 1. xzke U;k;ky;ksa ds ikl dsoy nhokuh {ks=kkf/dkj gksrk
add items in the schedule which can be 2. jkT; rFkk dsUnz nksuksa ljdkjksa }kjk fo"k; tksM+s
decided by Gram Nyayalayas.
Select the correct answer using the codes
gSaA ftl ij xzke U;k;ky; fu.kZ; ns ldrh gSA
given below. fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqfu;s
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) 1 and 2 both (D) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Which of the following were the (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) uk rks 1 uk gh2
recommendation of the LM Singhavi 4. fuEu esa ls dkSu lh ,y ,e fl?kaoh lfefr tks fd
Committee on Revitalization of the yksdrU=k rFkk fodkl ds fy;s iapk;rh jkt laLFkkuksa ds iq
Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy
LFkku ds fy, cuh Fkh dh fliQkfj'ks gSa&
and Development?
1. Constitutional status to PRIs 1. iapk;rh jkt laLFkkuksa dks laoS/kfud ntkZ
2. Nyaya Panchayats 2. U;k; iapk;r
3. Judicial Tribunals to adjudicate
3. iapk;rh pqukoksa esa fookn lqy>us gsrq U;kf;d vfkdj
controversies about elections to
Panchayats. ij laoSkkfud fu.kZ; ysus ds fy,
Select the correct answer using the codes fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu,
given below.
(A) 1 vkSj2 (B) 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3

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5. If Aadhaar Bill would have been presented 5. ;fn vk/kj fo/s;d fok fo/s;d Js.kh&
A ds :i esa izLrqr
as Finance Bill type A, which of the following
fd;k x;k gksrk rks fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lR; gksrk
statements would have hold true?
1. It could have been introduced only in Lok 1. bldks dsoy yksdlHkk esa yk;k tkrkA
Sabha. 2. xfrjks/ dh fLFkfr esa la;qDr cSBd cqykbZ tk ldrh Fkh
2. A joint sitting could have been called to
3. jk"Vifr ;k rks fo/s;d ij lgefr nsrk ;k ugha fdUrq
resolve the deadlock.
3. President can either given his assent okil ugha dj ldrk FkkA
or rejected the bill, but cannot returned fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;s
the bill.
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) 1 vkSj3
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below? (C) 2 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 6. iQkLVZ ikLV n iksLV iz.kkyh
(FPTP) fuEu esadhls dkSu lh
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
fo'ks"krk, gSA
6. Which of the following are the
characteristics of First Past the Post 1. blesa lkekU;r% vYila[;dksa dk izfrfuf/Ro ugha gks
System? ikrk gSA
1. In this minorities are likely to remain
2. ;g fn, x, erksa rFkk thrh lhVksa ds e; vuqikr n'kkZrk
urepresented.
2. It generates proportionality between the gSA
votes cast and seats won. 3. ;g lkekU;% nks nyh; iz.kkyh rFkk LFkk;h ljdkj dks
3. It generally leads to a two party system c<+kok nsrk gSA
and stable government
Select the correct answer using code given fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;s&
below. (A) dsoy 1 (B) 1 vkSj 3
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3
(C) dsoy 3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
7. Which of the following statements are 7. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku? lR; gS
correct? 1. dsUnzhr yksd f'kdk;r fuokj.k vkSj fuxjkuh iz.kkyh
1. Centralized Public Grievance Redress (CPGRAMS) dSfcusV lfpoky; ds yksd f'kdk;r
and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is
implemented by Directorate of Public funs'kky; }kjk f;kfUor gSA
Grievances in Cabinet Secretariat. 2. iz'kklfud lqkkj foHkkx vkSj yksd f'kdk;r izkkuea=
2. Department of Administrative Reform dk;kZy; ds vkhu gSA
and Public Grievance is under PMO.
Select the correct answer using codes given
fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;sA
below. (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) u rks1 vkSj u gh 2
(C) 1 and 2 both (D) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Identify the committee/commission based 8. fuEu izeq[k fcUnqvksa ds vk/kj ij lfefr@vk;ksx dks igpkfu
on its following significant aspects: 1. fczfV'k Hkkjr esa f'k{kk uhfr dh leh{kk gsrq bldh
1. It was appointed by Lord Ripon to review fu;qfDr ykWMZ fjiu }kjk dh x;h FkhA
Education policy of the British
Government in India 2. blus ljdkj }kjk izkFkfed f'k{kk ds lq/kj ,oa izlkj gsrq
2. It stressed that Government should pay fo'ks"k ;ku nsus ij tksj fn;kA
special attention for the extension and fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls mkj
? pqfu;s
improvement of primary education.
Choose the correct option from below? (A) izQstj vk;ksx
(1902)
(A) Fraser commission (1902) (B) lkbeu vk;ksx (1927)
(B) Simon commission (1927) (C) lSMyj vk;ksx(1917-19)
(C) Sadler commission (1917-19)
(D) Hunter commission (1882-83) (D) g.Vj vk;ksx(1882-83)

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9. Which of the following statements regarding 9. vuqlwfpr tkfr;ksa rFkk vuqlwfpr tutkfr;ksa ds fof'k"V
special provisions for SCs and STs are izkokkuksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj d
correct?
1. vuqlwfpr tutkfr;ksads fgrksa dh lqj{kk ds vk/kj ij
1. Fundamental Right under art 19 can be
restricted on the grounds of protection vuqPNsn 19 ds rgr ekSfyd vf/dkjksa dks izfrcafkr
of interests of STs. fd;k tk ldrk gSA
2. President is required to appoint a 2. jk"Vifr ls visf{kr gS fd jkT;ksa esa vuqlwfpr tu&tkfr;k
commission report on the welfare of STs
ds dY;k.k dks izR;sd nl o"kZ esa fjiksVZ ds fy, vk;ksx
in the States every year.
3. In 2012, Commission under the
dk xBu djsaA
Chairmanship of Dilip Singh Bhuria 3. 2012 esa vuqlwfpr tutkfr ds dY;k.k dh fjiksVZ ds
was appointed to report on the welfare fy, fnyhi flag Hkwfj;k dh v;{krk esa vk;ksx dk xBu
of STs. fd;k x;k FkkA
Select the correct answer using the codes
fn;s x;s dwVksa esa lgh dFku pqusa&
given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) dsoy 3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
10. Which of the following statements regarding 10. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa esa nycny fojks/h dkuwu ds fo"k; e
anti-defection law are correct? dkSu&lk dFku lR; gS&
1. Anti-defection law is not applicable on
1. euksuhr nycny ij fojksk dkuwu ykxw ugha gSA
nominated
2. Merger and slit of the political parties is 2. foy; vkSj jktuhfrd nyksa ds chp njkj ls NwV feyhA
exempted from the act. lgh dFku dk p;u djsa&
Select the correct answer using the codes (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
given below.
(C) 1 rFkk2 (D) u rks1 vkSj u gh2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) Neither 1 nor 2 11. laxe lkfgR; ds lUnHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj djs
11. Consider the following statements regarding 1. laxe lkfgR; eq[; :i ls /eZ fujis{k gS tks jkstejkZ ds
sangam Literature :- lkFk dke djrk gSA
1. Sangam literature is primarily secular,
2. rksYydkfi;e rfey Hkk"kk dh O;kdj.k ij dk;Z djrk
dealing with everyday themes.
2. The Tolkapiyam is a work on the
gSA
grammar of the Tamil language. mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls/ls dkSu&lk
lgh gS?
Which among the above statements(s) is/ (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
are true? (C) 1 rFkk2 nksuksa (D) mijksDr lHkh
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
12. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu nhu n;ky mik;k; xzkeh.k dkS'ky
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) All of the above
12. Which among the following comes under the ;kstuk(DDUGK) ds varxZr vkrk? gS
aegis of Deen Dayal Upadhyay Grameen 1. blds varxZr xzkeh.k xjhcksa ds fy, pyk, tkus okys
Kaushal Yojana? fu%'kqYd dkS'ky izf'k{k.k dk;Zeksa dk fokh;u f
1. The funds a variety of skill training tkrk gS_
programme at no cost to the rural poor.
2. bldk f;kUo;u dkS'ky fodkl ea=kky; ds }kjk fd;k
2. It it being implemented by the Ministry
of Skill Development. tkrk gS_
3. It has a provision for mandatory 3. blds varxZr lkekftd :i ls xSj ykHkkfUor lewgksa ds
coverage of socially disadvantaged fy, izko/ku gS]
groups.
dwV ds lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa%&
Choose the correct option from below?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 ,oa2 (B) dsoy 2
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) All of the above (C) dsoy 1 ,oa3 (D) mijksDr lHkh
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13. Which among the following is/are the 13. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk@ls iap'khy ds flkar gS&
principles of Panchsheel?
1. Mutual respect for each other's 1. ,d&nwljs dh {ks=kh; v[k.Mrk rFkk lEizHkqkk dk ikjL
territorial integrity and sovereignty. lEekuA
2. Respect for justice and international
2. vUrjkZ"Vh; nkf;Roksa rFkk U;k; ds fy;s lEekuA
obligations
3. Mutual non-interference in each other's 3. ,d&nwljs ds vkUrfjd rFkk ckg~; ekeyksa esa vgLr{ks
internal and external affairs
4. ikjLifjd ykHk gsrq lerk rFkk lg;ksxA
4. Equality and cooperation for mutual
benefit. 5. lHkh tkfr;ksa dh lekurk rFkk NksVs&NksVs lHkh jk
5. Recognition of the equality of all races lekurkA
and of the equality of all nations, large
and small. fn;s x, dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
Select the correct answer using codes given (A) dsoy 1, 3 vkSj
4 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj4
below.
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) dsoy 1, 2, 3 vkSj
4 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj
5
(B) 1 and 4 only 14. laln ds fojks/ l=k ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
dhft,%&
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 5
14. Consider the following statements regarding 1. ea=kh&ifj"kn~ dks fliQkfj'k ij fo'ks"k l=k jk"Vifr }
the special session of Parliament. vkgwr fd;k tkrk gSA
1. Special session can be convened by
President on the recommendation of 2. jk"Vh; vkikr dks vLohdkj djus ds fy;s jkT;&lHkk
Council of Minister. rFkk yksdlHkk dk fo'ks"k l=k cqyk;k tk ldrk gSSA
2. Special session of Rajya Sabha and Lok
fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%
Sabha can be called on the request of
members to reject National Emergency. (A) dsoy1 (B) dsoy2
Select the correct answer using codes given
(C) 1 vkSj2 nksuksa (D) u rks1 vkSj u gh
2
below.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 15. uSfrd ncko lewgksa ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 gS@gSa
?
15. Which of the following statement regarding
pressure groups are correct? 1. ;s ljdkjh uhfr;ksa dks izHkkfor djus dk iz;kl djrs gSaA
1. They attempt to influence government 2. ;s jktuSfrd 'kfDr dks ckaVrs gSaA
policies.
2. They aim to share political power. 3. ;s jktuhfrd nyksa }kjk cuk;s tkrs gSaA
3. They can be formed by political parties. fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqus%&
Select the correct answer using codes given
below. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) dsoy 2 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj
3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
16. India is a member of which of the following
16. Hkkjr fuEu esa ls fdl laxBu dk lnL;
? gS
organisations? 1. fo'o ckSfd lEink laxBu
(WIPO)
1. World Intellectual Property Organization
(WIPO)
2. iwoZ ,f'k;k lfeV
2. East Asia Summit 3. G-4 jk"V
3. G4 Nations
4. vksisd
(OPEC)
4. Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
Countries (OPEC) fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lR; gS@gSa&
Select the correct answer from the following:
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj
3 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj
4

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17. Consider the following statements about the 17. Hkkjr esa ny&cny fojks/h dkuwu ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[
Anti Defection law in India:
1. Anti-defection law is placed in the ninth
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,%&
schedule of the constitution 1. ny&cny fojks/h dkuwu lafo/ku dh ukSoha vuqlwph e
2. Anti-defection law was not present in gSA
the original constitution and was added
2. ny&cny fojks/h dkuwu ewy lafo/ku esa ugh Fkk rFk
later in 1985.
3. If an MP voluntarily gives up his bls1985 esa tksM+k x;k FkkA
membership of a political party then it 3. ;fn dksbZ lkaln LosPNk ls ,d ny dh lnL;rk NksM+ ns
is counted as defection. rks bls ny&cny ugha ekuk tk;sxkA
4. If an MP votes against his party without
obtaining prior permission then it is 4. ;fn dksbZ laln ny dh iwoZ vuqefr ds fcuk er djrh
counted as defection. gS] rks bls ny&cny ekuk tk;sxkA
Select the correct answer from the following. fuEu esa ls lgh dFku pqfu,%&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 4 only
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
18. Recently Juvenile Justice Bill was passed. (C) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj 4
Which of the following are the provisions of 18. gky gh esa cky U;k; fo/s;d ikfjr gqvkA fuEu esa ls
the bill?
dkSu&lk@ls fo/s;d ds izko/ku gS@gSa%&
1. The maximum punishment for juvenile
prescribed is three years in a special 1. cPpksa ds fy, ,d fo'ks"k x`g esa vf/dre~ ltk rhu o"kZ
home. o.kr gSA
2. The decision whether the juvenile can
2. cPps dks o;Ld ds :i esa ekuk tk, ;k ugha bldk
be tried as adult will be taken by
Juvenile Justice Board. fu.kZ; cky U;k; cksMZ ysxkA
3. Juvenile Justice Board will consist of 3. cky U;k; cksMZ esa ,d U;kf;d eftLVsV rFkk nk
Judicial Magistrate and two social lekt&lsoh gksaxsA
workers.
Select the correct answer using codes given fn;s x;s dwVksa ls lgh mkj pqusa%&
below. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
19. Great Basin, Mojave and Chihuahuan are
19. xzsV csflu] ekstkos rFkk fpgqvkgqvk fdl egk}hi ds e:LFky
names of deserts located in the continent ds uke gSa&
of (A) ,f'k;k (B) mkjh vesfjdk
(A) Asia (B) North America
(C) nf{k.kh vesfjdk (D) vizQhdk
(C) South America (D) Africa
20. A man is cooking his breakfast at a hill
20. ,d O;fDr nf{k.k Hkkjr esa igkM+ksa ij viuk uk'rk cu jgk
station in south India. Then he notices gSA og idus ds le; ij ;ku nsrk gS tks fd
about the time taken to cook, which (A) ?kVrk gS (B) fLFkj jgrk gS
(A) Decreases (B) Remains constant
(C) c<+rk gS (D) FkksM+k ?kVrk gSa
(C) Increases (D) Slightly decreases
21. By 2100 global surface temperature is 21. 2100 rd oSf'od rkieku ds2-4C c<+us dh mEehn gSA
expected to rise by 2-4 degree Celsius. Which bl ifj?kVuk dk buesa ls D;k izHkko?ugha gksxk
amongst these is not a possible impact of
1. vfu;fer ekulwu ls Hkkjr esa iQly mRiknu esa egRoiw.k
this phenomenon.
1. India will see a significant decrease in deh vk;sxhA
crop yields due to erratic monsoons. 2. c<+rh tula[;k rFkk flapkbZ vko';drkvksa dks iw.kZ
2. More energy will be required for meeting djus gsrq vkSj vf/d tkZ dh t:jr gksxhA
rising population needs and irrigation.
3. Increased incidences of water borne and 3. ty rFkk osDVj tfur jksxksa esa o`f gksxhA
vector borne diseases. fn;s x;s fodYiksa ls lgh mkj pqusa&
Choose the correct option from below? (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) dsoy 1 (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
(C) 1 only (D) All of the above
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22. Which among the following statements 22. Hkkjrh; f"k {ks=k ds fo"k; esa fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
about Agriculture sector in India is true?
gS\
1. The estimated agriculture growth rate
has been just above 4% in 2014-15. 1. 2014-15 esas vuqekfur f"k lao`f nj dsoy 4 ls
2. More than 50% of net cropped area are vfkd gSA
in rain fed. 2. 50% ls vf/d f"k {ks=k o"kkZ flafpr gSA
3. Share of agriculture to GDP has fallen
3. Hkkjr dhGDP esa f"k dk ;ksxnku 50 ls uhps gks x;k
below 50%.
Which of the statements above is/are gSA
correct? mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 1
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) None of the above
(C) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (D) mi;qZDr esa dksbZ ugha
23. Which among the following are correctly
arranged according to increasing order of 23. fuEu esa ls dkSuPHlseku ds c<+rs gq;s e ds lkFk
pH value? O;ofLFkr gSa\
(A) Vinegar-Water-Milk-Soap-Lime water (A) fljdk & ty & nw/ & lkcqu & pwuk ty
(B) Vinegar-Milk-Water-Lime Soap
(B) fljdk & nw/ & ty & pwuk ty & lkcqu
(C) Vinegar-Soap-Milk-Water-Lime water
(D) Vinegar-Lime water-Milk-Water-Soap (C) fljdk & lkcqu & nw/ & ty & pwuk ty
24. Consider the following statements (D) fljdk & pwuk ty & nw/ & ty & lkcqu
regarding Neon lamp. 24. fuvkWu ySEi ds ckjs esa fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
1. The classic neon lamp is made of glass
1. iqjkus fuvkWu ySEi dkap dh uyh ls cus gksrs gSa ftl
tube containing a mixture of neon
(99.5%) and argon gas. fuvkWu (99-5) rFkk vkWxZu xSl dk feJ.k gksrk gS
2. The Neon lamp is a low pressure gas 2. fuvkWu ySEi ,d nkc xSl fu;qZDr gksrk
ySEi
gSA
discharge lamp. 3. ;g pednkj 'khr dSFkksM (CCFL)
ySEi gksrk gSA
3. It is a cold cathode fluorescent lamp
mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa&
(CCFL).
Which of the above statements is/are (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) dsoy 3
correct? (C) mi;qZDr lHkh (D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only 25. LdS.Musfo;kbZ {ks=k esa vkrk gS&
(C) All of the above (D) None of the above
(A) ukosZ] LohMu] rFkk MsuekdZ
25. Scandinavian region consists of:
(A) Norway, Sweden and Denmark (B) izQkUl] fLoVtjyS.M rFkk bVyh
(B) France, Switzerland and Italy (C) izQkUl] teZuh rFkk fLoVtjyS.M
(C) France, Germany and Switzerland (D) ukosZ] LohMu rFkk teZuh
(D) Norway, Sweden and Germany
26. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls III
csly&
ekud ds Hkkx gSa&
26. Which of the following are the part of BASEL-
III norms? 1. iwath laj{k.k vUrjksZf/ (ciQj)
1. Capital conservation buffer 2. .k vuqikr
2. Credit ratio 3. rjyrk vko';drk
3. Liquidity requirements
fn;s x;s dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj pqfu;s&
Select the correct answer using codes given
below. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (B) 1 vkSj 3
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 27. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,&
27. Consider the following statements
1. leqnzh ty 'kq ty dh vis{kk mPp rki ij mcyrk
1. Sea water boils at a higher temperature
than pure water. gSA
2. Freezing point of seawater is higher 2. leqnzh ty dk teko fcUnq 'kq ty dh vis{kk mPp
than pure water. gSA
Which of the above statements is/are
mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa\
correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) None of these (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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28. Which of the following is endothermic 28. fuEu ns'kksa ij fopkj dhft,%&
process?
1. India 2. Russia 1. Hkkjr 2. :l
3. Saudi Arabia 4. China
5. Australia
3. lnh vjc 4. phu
Which of the above countries are not Group 5. vkLVsfy;k
of seven (G7) Members?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 mi;qZDr ns'kksa esa dkSu&lk@ls
7) dslewg
lnL; ugha
(th& gSa\
(B) 1, 2 and 3 (A) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4 (B) 1] 2 vkSj 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (C) 2] 3 vkSj 4 (D) 1] 2] 3] 4 vkSj 5
29. Which of the following are the objectives of 29. feM Ms ehy ;kstuk ds fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu?ls ms'; gS
Mid May Meal scheme?
1. Improving the nutritional status of 1. ljdkjh] LFkkuh; rFkk ljdkjh lgk;rk izkIr fo|ky;ksa esa
children in classes I-VIII in d{kk 1 ls 8 rd ds cPpksa ds iks"k.k Lrj dks lqkkjukA
Government, Local Body and
Government aided schools. 2. fo|ky; esa mifLFkfr dks lq/kjukA
2. Improving school attendance.
3. xzh"e dky ds vodk'k ds nkSjku lw[kk&xzLr {ks=kksa iz
3. Providing nutritional support to children
of primary stage in drought-affected Lrj ds cPpksa dks iks"k.kh; leFkZu miyC/ djkukA
areas during summer vacation.
Select the correct answer using codes given
fn;s x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s lgh mkj dk p;u djsa
below. (A) 1 rFkk 2 dsoy (B) 1 rFkk 3 dsoy
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 vkSj 3 dsoy (D) 1] 2 rFkk 3
30. Consider the following qualities of an 30. ,d fuos'k dh fuEufyf[kr fo'ks"krkvksa ij fopkj djsa&
investment:-
1. It is an investment with a long-term 1. ;g yEch vof/ dh o`f ds ifjis{k esa ,d fuos'k gSA
growth perspective.
2. Investments are risky
2. fuos'k tksf[ke gksrk gSA
3. Investments are illiquid 3. fuos'k vrjy gksrk gSA
Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) Angel investment fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls izdkj dh fo'ks"krk;sa ij nh x;h
(B) Venture capital gS&
(C) Mutual Fund
(D) None of the above (A) ,satsy fuos'k (B) m|eh fuos'k
31. Consider the following statements: (C) E;qpqvy iQ.M (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
1. Mauna Kea is in the Pacific Ocean
2. The USA and Canada have six time 31. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa&
zones extend from the Pacific coast to 1. ekSuk dh; iz'kkUr egklkxj esa fLFkr gSA
the Atlantic coast.
2. USA rFkk dukMk6ds
le; ekud gS tks iz'kkUr rV
Choose the in correct answer from the codes
given below?
ls vVykafVd rV rd foLr`r gSA
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only lgh mkj dk p;u djsa&
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) None (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
32. Which the correct order of countries in
terms of decreasing recoverable shale gas (C) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa(D) dksbZ ugha
reserves. 32. iqu% izkfIr ;ksX; 'kSy xSl fjtoZ ds ?kVrs e esa ns'kksa d
Which of the following chossing incorrect
answer: e dk p;u djsa\
(A) U.S.A>China>Argentina> fuEufyf[kr esaa ls vlR; fodYi pqusa
Algeria>Canada
(B) China>U.S.A>Algeria> (A) USA>phu>vtsZUVhuk
>cYthjh;k
>dukMk
Argentina>Canada
(C) China>Algeria>Argentina> (B) phu>USA>vYthjh;k
>vtsZUVhuk
>dukMk
U.S.A>Canada (C) phu>vYthjh;k
>vtsZUVhuk
>USA>dukMk
(D) China>Argentina>Algeria>
U.S.A>Canada (D) phu>vtsZUVhuk
>vYthjh;k
>USA>dukMk
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33. Which of the following regions would have 33. fuEufyfy[kr esa ls fdl {ks=k dh Hkw&e; lkxj tyok;q gS\
Mediterranean Climate?
1. South-western South Africa. 1. n if'peh n vizQhdk2. e; fpyh
2. Central Chile 3. iqrZxky rFkk Lisu 4. e; esfDldks
3. Portugal and Spain
fuEu esa ls vlR; fodYi pqusa\
4. Central Mexico
Choose the in correct answer from the codes (A) 1 rFkk 3 dsoy (B) 2 rFkk 3 dsoy
given below? (C) 1] 2 rFkk 3 dsoy (D) 2] 3 rFkk 4 dsoy
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only 34. uhps fn;s x;s dqN vdcj ds dky ds cps Lekjd gSaA mudh
34. Given below are few monuments built igpku djsa tks iQrsgiqj lhdjh ls lacfUkr ugha gSA
during the time of Akbar. Identify the one
that do not belong to Fatehpur Sikri.
1. cqyUn njoktk
1. Buland Darwaza 2. gqek;q dk edcjk
2. Humayun's tomb
3. iphlh dksVZ
3. Pechisi Court
4. Ibadat Khana 4. bcknr [kkuk
5. Tomb of Salim Chisti 5. 'kyhHk fpLrh dk edcjk
6. Agra Fort
Choose the correct answer from the code 6. vkxjk dk fdyk
given below. fn;s x;s dwV ls lgh mkj dks p;u djsa%
(A) 5, 3, 6 only (B) 2 and 6 only
(C) 3 and 6 only (D) 1, 3, 4 only (A) dsoy 5, 3, 6 (B) dsoy 2 ,oa 6
35. Consider the following statements about (C) dsoy 3 ,oa6 (D) dsoy 1, 3, 4
Chaityas. Which of the following statement
35. pSR; ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr fn, x, dFkuksa esa dkSu&lk dF
is correct?
(A) Chaityas ascribed to Asoka, were built lgh gSa\
as standing structures with a stand (A) v'kksd ls lacafkr pSR;ksa dk fuekZ.k [kM+s lajpuk
alone Stupa without a processional path
:i ls fcuk tqywl ds jkLrs ds fd;k x;k gSA
with a congregational hall adjoining it.
(B) Architecturally, Chaityas show (B) LFkkiR; 'kSyh ds vkkkj ij pSR; izkphu fMtkbu ls esy
similarities to the ancient Greek design [kkrs gSaA
concepts of column and arch.
(C) The Chaitya at Bhaja has a wooden (C) Hkt esa fLFkr pSR; esa pSR;&x`g dks ij ydM+ dh N
ceiling over Chaitya-griha. gSA
(D) Bhaja caves belonged to the Mahayana (D) Hkt xqiQk, egk;ku laiznk; ls lacafkr gSA
sect
36. Which among the following is not an 36. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ckS keZ dk v"VeegkLFkku
ashtamahasthana in Buddhism? (A) df'k;k (B) lk[;d';k
(A) Kasia (B) Sankasya
(C) Kumbhoj (D) Sravasti
(C) dqEHkkst (D) JoLrh
37. Which amongst the following statements is 37. jk"Vh; jktekxZ ftyk latksdrk ifj;kstuk ds ckjs esa fuEu e
true about Rashtriya Rajmarg Zila ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\
Sanjoyokta Pariyojana?
1. The project entails development of 1. bl ifj;kstuk }kjk
6600 fdeh- ds jktekxZ dk fodkl
6600km of highway at a cost of `6000 djuk gS] ftldh vuqekfur ykxr`6000 djksM+ gSA
crores.
2. bldk ms'; Hkkjr ds jkT;ksa ds jktkkfu;ksa dks tksM
2. The project aims to connect the capitals
of the states in India. gSA
Choose the correct answer based on the fuEu esa ls lgh dwV dk p;u djsaA
codes given below:
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(C) 1 and 2 (D) None of the above (C) 1 vkSj
2 (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
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38. Consider the following statements about 38. [kqys cktkj dh f;kvksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuk
Open Market Operations (OMO). Which is fopkj djsa vkSj lgh dFku dk p;u djsa\
the correct statements from the following?
(A) ;g ,d ek=kkRed ekSfnzd midj.k gSA
(A) Open Market Operations is a
quantitative monetary tool. (B) ;g vkFkd ekeyksa dh foHkkx ds lg;ksx ls Hkkjrh;
(B) It is conducted by RBI in collaboration fjtoZ cSad }kjk fd;k tkrk gSA
with Department of Economic Affairs. (C) ;g ljdkjh izfrHkwfr;ksa dk fch vkSj [kjhnkjh dh
(C) It is the sale and purchase of izf;k gSA ftldk izkFkfed ms'; fokh; lekos'ku gSA
government securities with the primary (D) ;g eghus esa ,d ckj vk;ksft dh tkrh gSA
aim of financial inclusion.
(D) They are conducted once a month. 39. jhjh(RIRI) dk foLrkj D;k gSa\
39. The Expansion of RIRI is? (A) C;kt dh okLrfod eqnzk LiQhfr nj
(A) Real Inflation Rate of Interest (B) ekSfnzd rdZlaxr eqnzkizlkj eanh lwpdkad
(B) Rational Inflationary Recess Indicator (C) okLrfod fuos'kd nj ladsrd
(C) Real Investor Rate Indicator (D) rdZlaxr fuos'kd jsfVax lwpdkad
(D) Rational Investor Rating Index
40. Which are the sectors where FDI is not
40. fuEufyf[kr dkSu&ls {ks=kksa esa Hkkjr esa ,iQMhvkbZ
allowed in India? ugha gSa\
1. Lottery business 1. ykWVjh O;kikj
2. Agriculture 2. f"k
3. Manufacture of Alcohol 3. 'kjkc dk mRiknu
4. Atomic Energy
4. ijek.kq tkZ
Choose the correct answer code given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 uhps fn, x, dwVksa esa lgh mkj pqusaA
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 (A) 1, 2 vkSj3 (B) 1 vkSj4
41. Which among the following is not a major (C) 1, 2, 3 vkSj4 (D) 3 vkSj4
god in Rigavedic Period? 41. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu XoSfnd dky ds ,d izeq[k nso ugha
(A) Pushan (B) Aditi gS\
(C) Siva (D) Purandara
42. Harappan Civilization is known for the use (A) iw"ku (B) vfnfr
of precious stones. Match stones mentioned (C) f'kok (D) iqjUnjk
in Section A with their sources in Section 42. gM+Iik lH;rk vueksy iRFkjksa ds bLrseky ds fy, tkuk tkrk
B. gSaA
Section A Section B fn, x, [k.M A dks [k.MB ls lqesfyr djsaA
A. Lapis Lazuli 1. Saurashtra
B. Amethyst 2. Central Asia
[k.MA [k.MB
C. Carnelian 3. Afghanistan A. ykihl yktqyh 1. lkSjk"V
D. Jade 4. Maharashtra B. uhye 2. e; ,f'k;k
Choose the correct answer from the codes C. dkjsZfu;u 3. viQxkfuLrku
given below: D. tsM 4. egkjk"V
(A) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1 fuEu esa ls lgh lqEesfyr dk p;u djsaA
(B) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
(C) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 (A) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(D) A-3 B-4 C-3 D-2 (B) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
43. Who among the following doesnt belong to (C) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
Navratna of Akbars court. (D) A-3, B-4, C-3, D-2
(A) Abul Tayal (B) Faizi 43. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu vdcj ds njckj ds uojRu esa ugha
(C) Dara Shikok (D) Mulla Do Pyaza Fkk\
44. Tripitakas are canonical books of Buddhism. (A) vcqy ok;y (B) iQSth
Match Pitakas with their contents. (C) nkjkf'kdksg (D) eqYyk nksI;ktk
Pitakas Explanation
A. Sutta Pitaka 1. Collection of
44. f=kiVd ckS keZ dk kked xzaFk gSA f=kiVd vkSj
Buddhas sermons Includes Jataka lacafkr fo"k;ksa esa lqesfyr dhft,A
stories. [k.M lacafkr fo"k;
B. Vinaya Pitaka 2. Rules of Buddhist A. lqkfiVd 1. cq ds mins'k (tkrd
Sangha dFkk;sa)
C. Abhidhamma 3. Discussion of B. fou;fiVd 2. cq la?k ds fu;e
Pitaka metaphysical
problems C. vfHkkEefiVd 3. vk;kfRed leL;kvksa dk
Choose the correct answer from the codes fparu
given below: fuEu ladsr esa ls lgh mkj pqusa\
(A) A-1 B-2 C-3 (B) A-2 B-1 C-3 (A) A-1, B-2, C-3 (B) A-2, B-1, C-3
(C) A-3 B-2 C-1 (D) A-1 B-3 C-2 (C) A-3, B-2, C-1 (D) A-1, B-3, C-2
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45. Which of the following statements is/are 45. fuEu esa ls dkSu lgh gS\
correct?
1. Aravalli is the oldest fold mountain in 1. vjkoyh Hkkjr dk ,d iqjkuk eksM+nkj ioZr gSA
India. 2. flakq rFkk lryt ,sVhlsMsUV ufn;k gSaA
2. Indus and Satluj are antecedent rivers. 3. ueZnk dk mn~xe ekyok dk iBkj ls gksrk gSA
3. Narmada originates in the Malwa
Plateau fuEu ladsr esa ls lgh mkj pqusa\
Choose the correct answer from codes given (A) 1 vkSj2 (B) 2 vkSj3
below: (C) 1 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2 vkSj3
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 46. ioZr Ja`[kyk ds lkFk pksVh;ksa dk lEesyu djsaA
46. Match the peaks with their mountain A. kwix<+ 1. lriqjk
range.
B. ftankx<+ 2. dkjkdksje
A. Dhupgarh 1. Satpura
B. Jindagadha 2. Karakoram C. vukeqMh 3. iwohZ ?kkV
C. Anamudi 3. Eastern Ghats D. xq: f'k[kj 4. if'peh ?kkV
D. Guru Shikhar 4. Western Ghats
5. vjkoyh
5. Aravalli
Choose the correct answer from the codes fuEu ladsr esa ls lgh mkj pqusa\
given below: A B C D
A B C D
(A) 1 3 4 5 (A) 1 3 4 5
(B) 2 1 4 5 (B) 2 1 4 5
(C) 3 2 4 1 (C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 1 4 5
47. Which amongst the following statement(s) (D) 2 1 4 5
is/are true about Geostrophic Wind? 47. fuEe esa ls dkSu&dkSu Hkwfo{ksih iousa ds fy, lR; gSA
1. It results from an exact balance between 1. ;g dksj;ksfyl cy izHkko ,oa ?k"kZ.k cy ds chp larqyu
the Coriolis effect and the frictional
force. ds ifj.kke Lo:i mRiUu gksrk gSA
2. Geostrophic wind are directed 2. Hkwfo{ksih iou vkblksckj ds m?okZkj funsZf'kr gk
perpendicular to isobars.
Choose the correct answer from the codes
fuEu ladsr esa ls lgh mkj pqusa\
given below: (A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 vkSj2 (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ughaA
(C) 1 and 2 (D) None of the above
48. Horse Latitudes are characterised by- 48. v'o v{kka'k(Horse Latitudes) dh fo'ks"krk gS fd
1. High Pressure 1. mPp ncko
2. Air Convergence 2. gok dk vfHklj.k
3. Air Divergence
4. Air Subsidence 3. gok dk fopyu
Choose the correct answer from the code 4. gok dk ?kVko
given below: fuEu ladsr esa ls lgh mkj pqusa\
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 (A) 1, 2 ,oa 3 (B) 2, 3 ,oa 4
49. Consider the following statements about (C) 1, 3 ,oa 4 (D) 1, 3 vkSj4
coal in India.
49. Hkkjr esa dks;yk dks ysdj fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa&
1. Coal accounts for 67% of the commercial
requirement of the country. 1. dks;yk ns'k ds O;kolkf;d ekax dkmiyCk gSaA
67%
2. Over 98 per cent of the total coal 2. Hkkjr esa
98% ls ij dks;yk dk HkaMkj r`rh;d dYi
reserves of India belong to the Tertiary
(Tertiary Period) dk gSA
Period.
3. Most expensive type of coal is 3. fcVqehul izdkj dk dks;yk lcls egaxk dks;yk gSA
bituminous. 4. ihV esa lcls vfkd ueh ik;k tkrk gS] ftlds dkj.k
4. Peat contains the highest percentage of
moisture, gives more smoke. vfkd kqvk gksrk gSA
Choose the correct answer from the code fuEu ladsr esa ls lgh mkj pqusa\
given below: (A) 1, 2 ,oa 4 (B) 1 ,oa 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 ,oa 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 ,oa 4
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50. Match the following :- 50. bUgsa feyku djsa&
1. Kunlun A. South Africa
2. Ural C. China 1. dqudwu A. nf{k.k vizQhdk
3. Drakensberg C. Turkey 2. ;wjky B. phu
4. Taurus D. Russia 3. MsdsUlcxZ C. VdhZ
Choose the correct answer based on the
codes below 4 Vkmjl D. :l
A B C D A B C D
(A) 3 1 4 2 (A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 4 1 3 (B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 4 1 2 (C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1
51. The areas which experience cold current (D) 3 2 4 1
are: 51. og {ks=k tgk ij fd BaMh tykkjk dk vuqHko fd;k tkrk gSA
(A) Western Coasts of continents in (A) egk}hiksa esa 'khrks".k izns'k ds if'peh rV
temperate region
(B) Eastern Coasts of Continents in (B) egk}hiksa esa 'khrks".k izns'k ds iwohZ rV
temperate region (C) egk}hiksa esa m".k dfVcakh; if'peh rV
(C) Western Coasts of continents in tropical (D) egk}hiksa esa m".k dfVcakh; iwohZ rV
region
(D) Eastern Coasts of Continents in tropical 52. le'khrks".k pokr ds fy, D;k lR; gSa\
region (A) xeZ gok BaMh ij ds okrkoj.k dh gok ls feydj
52. Which is true about temperate cyclones? okrkoj.k esa p dkVrs gq, okZkj ij mB tkrk gSA
(A) Warm air to be cyclonically lifted
vertically into the atmosphere coming (B) mPp v{kka'k ls uhps ds v{kka'k ds vksj vR;fkd tkZ
with colder upper atmosphere air. dk izokfgr djuk
(B) Transport excess energy from the higher (C) le'khrks".k pokr dh fn'kk izk;% if'pe ds vksj gksrk
latitudes to the lower latitudes.
(C) Direction of temperate cyclones is gSA
usually westwards. (D) le'khrks".k pokr ds dkj.k o"kkZ ugha gksrk gS
(D) Temperate Cyclones do not cause 53. fuEu tutkfr dks muds jkT; ls lEesyu djsaA
precipitation.
53. Match the tribes with their states? 1. [kklh A. fgekapy izns'k
1. Khasi A. Himachal Pradesh 2. vaxkeh B. flDde
2. Angami B. Sikkim
3. ysipk C. es?kky;
3. Lepcha C. Meghalaya
4. Lahaul D. Manipur 4. ykgkSy D. e.khiqj
Choose the correct answer based on the 1 2 3 4
codes below- (A) D C B A
1 2 3 4 (B) C D A B
(A) D C B A (C) C D B A
(B) C D A B
(C) C D B A (D) D C A B
(D) D C A B 54. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh dFku dk p;u djsaA
54. Choose the correct statement from below: (A) 'kq"d f"k ds fy, yky feV~Vh lcls mi;qDr gSa
(A) Red soil is ideal for dry farming.
(B) Black is easy to work with when it is (B) tc uhe gks rc dkyh feV~Vh esa dke djuk ljy gSA
wet. (C) ySVsjkbV feV~Vhex dssitu
dkj.k
dk fodkl gksrk gSA
(C) Literite soil develops ex situ. (D) ckaxj ,d u;k tyks<+ feV~Vh gS tksfd jakz;qDr ,oa nk
(D) Banger is new alluvium, which is porous
and loamy. gksrk gSA
55. Which of the following statements about 55. fuEu dFkuks esa ls dkSu i`Foh dh vkarfjd lajpuk ds ckjs e
Earth's interior is/are incorrect? lgh gS@gSaA
1. The density of earth's crust is higher
than that of the mantle. 1. Hkw&iiZVh dk ?kuRo eSaVy esa vfkd gSA
2. The boundary between Crust and Mantle 2. Hkw&iiZVh ,oa eSaVy ds chp ds lhek dks egksvLec
is called Mohorovicic Discontinuity. (Monororicic discontirucity) dgk tkrk gSA
3. Earth's maximum volume is constituted
by the Core. 3. i`Foh dk vfkdka'k vk;ru ksM ls cuk gSA
Choose the correct answer from the given fuEu ladsr esa ls lgh mkj pqusa\
code below: (A) 1 ,oa 2 (B) 1 ,oa 3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 ,oa 3 (D) 1, 2 ,oa 3
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56. In the richter scale, an increase from scale 56. fjDVs;j Ldsy esa] tc iSekuk
6.0 ls 7.0 rd c<+ tkrk gS
6.0 to scale 7.0 means-
1. An increase of 10 fold in the shaking bldk vFkZ ;g gS fd
amplitude. 1. ,sEiyhVh;qM 10esa
xq.kk o`f gks tkrk gSA
2. An increase of 31.5 fold in the shaking 2. ,sEiyh;qM31.6esa xq.kk o`f gks tkrk gS
amplitude.
3. An increase of 10 fold in the energy 3. tkZ esa 10 xq.kk o`f gks tkrk gS
released. 4. 31.6 xq.kk tkZ esa o`f gks tkrk gS
4. An increase of 31.6 fold in the energy
released. fuEu ladsr esa ls lgh mkj pqusa\
Choose the correct answer based on the (A) 1 ,oa 3 (B) 1 ,oa 4
codes below- (C) 2 ,oa 3 (D) 2 ,oa 4
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 2 and 4 only 57. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr djsa%&
57. Arrange these passes to their respective 1. ckseMhyk A. tEew vkSj d'ehj
states-
1. Bomdila A. J and K 2. pkaxyk B. flfDde
2. Changla B. Sikkim 3. jksgrkax C. v:.kkpy izns'k
3. Rohtang C. Arunachal Pradesh 4. tsysIlk D. fgekpy izns'k
4. Jalepla D. Himachal Pradesh
Choose the correct answer from the given fn, x, dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk pquko djsa&
code below: 1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4 (A) D C B A
(A) D C B A
(B) C A D B
(B) C A D B
(C) C B D A (C) C B D A
(D) B A D C (D) B A D C
58. Which of the following statements is 58. fuEu esa ls dkSu dFku lgh ugha gS\
incorrect?
(A) Sum is directly overhead at least once (A) lw;Z dk izdk'k de ls de ,d ckj m".k dfVcakh; {ks=k
in the Torrid Zone. (Torrid Zone) esa yEcor iM+rh gSA
(B) Sun is directly overhead only once in the
Temperate Zone. (B) lw;Z dk izdk'k izR;{k :i ls de ls de ,d ckj
(C) Torrid regions from the hottest regions le'khrks".k tksu esa yEcr gksrh gSA
on Earth. (C) VkSjhM {ks=k i`'ohd lcls xeZ {ks=k gSA
(D) Mid latitude regions have moderate
temperature. (D) e; v{kka'k {ks=k esa leku rkie ik;k tkrk gSA
59. Consider these statements about 59. fgeky;h ufn;ksa ds ckjs es fcpkj djsa&
Himalayan Rivers :-
1. Himalayan rivers are old with graded 1. fgeky;h ufn;ka oxhZr izksiQkby ds lkFk iqjkus gS]
profile, and have almost reached their yxHkx muds vkkkj Lrj ij igqap x;h gSA
base levels. 2. og vius fuf'pr tyekxZ ds lkFk ?kkfV;ksa ds lkFk
2. They have fixed course with well
adjusted valleys. vPNh rjg ls lek;ksftr gSA
3. They form trellis, radial and rectangular 3. mudk vkdkj tkyhuqek vkZU;klh; rFkk vk;rkdkj
drainage patterns.
Choose correct answer from the the codes
ty fudklh iSVuZ ij gSA
given below: uhps fn, x;s lgh dwV dk p;u djsa&
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (A) 1 vkSj2 (B) 2 vkSj3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) None of the above
60. Under the Land Boundary Agreement with (C) 1 vkSj3 (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
Bangladesh which of the following Indian 60. caxykns'k ds lkFk Hkwfe lhek le>kSrk ds vUrxZr blesa
States are part of the agreement -
1. Assam 2. Meghalaya
dkSu Hkkjrh; jkT; le>kSrs dk Hkkx gS\
3. Tripura 4. West Bengal 1. vle 2. es?kky;
Choose the correct answer from the code 3. f=kiqjk 4. if'pe caxky
given below:
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only fn, x, dwV dh lgk;rk ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsa
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only (A) 1, 3 ,oa 4 (B) 1, 2 ,oa 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 ,oa 4 (D) 1, 2 ,oa 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
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61. Consider the following statements about 61. yksd ys[kk lfefr ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj
Public Accounts Committee : djsaA
1. It was formed under the provisions of the
1. bl izkokkuksa dks Hkkjr ljdkj vfkfu;e1935 ds
Government of India Act, 1935.
2. PAC consists of 30 members, with 18 varxZr cuk;k x;k FkkA
from Lok Sabha. 2. yksd ys[kk lfefr ds30 lnL;ksa esa18ls]yksdlHkk ds
3. A private member cannot be a member lnL; gksrs gSaA
of the committee. 3. dksbZ Hkh futh lnL; lfefr ds lnL; ugha gks ldrs gSaA
Choose the correct answer from the codes
fn, x, dwVksa esa ls lgh mkj pqusaA
given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (A) 1 vkSj2 (B) 1 vkSj3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) None of the above (C) 2 vkSj3 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
62. In the case of a joint sitting of both the 62. Hkkjrh; laln ds nksuksa lnuksa dh la;qDr cSBd ds ekeys esa
houses of the Indian parliament when yksd lHkk ds v;{k vkSj mik;{k nksuksa gh cSBd d
neither the speaker of Lok Sabha nor the
v;{krk ds fy, miyCk u gks rks cSBd dh v;{krk
deputy speaker of Lok Sabha is able to
preside over the sitting, who has the vfkdkj fdls gS\
authority to preside over the sitting? (A) mifLFkr lnL;ksa }kjk fukkZfjr O;fDr
(A) A person as may be determined by the (B) jkT;lHkk ds mi lHkkifr
members present. (C) jkT;lHkk ds lHkkifr
(B) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
(D) loksZPp U;k;ky; ds eq[; U;k;kkh'kA
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
(D) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. 63. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku Hkkjrh; ck?k dh tula[;k
63. Which of the following is true about the tiger ds lanHkZ esa lgh gSa\
population found in India? 1. fo'o ds dqy ck?k tula[;k dk20% Hkkjr esa ik;k
1. India has only 20% of tiger population tkrk gSA
in the world
2. 2010-14 ds chp esa ck?kksa ds varjky 30% dh
esa
2. There is 30% increase in population
between 2010-2014 o`f gqbZA
3. Tiger census is carried out after a gap 3. ck?k tux.kuk izR;sd 3 o"kksZa ds varjky ij ,uVhlh,
of every three years by NTCA (NTCA) }kjk dh tkrh gSA
Choose the correct answer from the codes uhps fn, x, dwVksa esa ls lgh mkj pqusA
given below:
(A) dsoy 2 vkSj3 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 2 and 3 only (B) Only 2
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 vkSj3 (D) dsoy 1 vkSj3
64. Recently Govt. of India decided to switch to 64. gky gh esa Hkkjr ljdkj okguksa }kjk mRltr iznw"k.k esa
vehicular emission norm from Bharat stage djus ds fy, Hkkjr LVst
-IV ls Hkkjr LVst&
VI dks viukus
IV to Bharat Stage VI. Which of the following dk fu.kZ; fy;k gSA bl lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa esa
is true in this regard?
lgh gSa\
1. There was not much difference in
specifications of Euro-V and Euro-VI fuel. 1. ;wjks&
V ekud rFkk ;wjks&
VI ekud ds chp esa dksbZ T;knk
2. This will reduce reduces sulphur varj ugha gSA
content by one-sixth. 2. blls lYiQj ds mRltZu1/6 esa dh deh gks tk,xhA
3. Bharat Stage emission standards to 3. Hkkjr LVst mRltZu fu;ked dk ms'; okguksa vkSj
regulate output of air pollutants vehicles
dks;yk pkfyr fo|qr la;a=k ls fudys ok;q izns"kdksa ij
and coal fired power plants.
4. Moving Bharat Stage VI will result in fu;a=k.k djukA
reduction of particulate matter by up to 4. ewfoax Hkkjr -IVLrj
ls dfudk rRoksa dk mRltZu Mhty
80% in diesel cars and 50% in heavy dkjksa 80%
esa vkSj Hkkjh okguksa 50% dh esadeh
trucks. vk,xhA
Choose the correct answer based on the
uhps fn, x, dwVksa esa ls lgh mkj pqusA
codes below-
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj3 (B) dsoy 2, 3 vkSj4
(C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only (C) dsoy 2 vkSj4 (D) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj4

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65. Which of the following are distinguishable 65. fuEu esa ls bZdksVksu ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k ds dkSu ls var
features of Ecotone Ecosystems?
1. Change in the colour of the grasses.
;ksX; Hkkx gS\
2. A change in physical appearance of a 1. ?kkl ds jax esa ifjorZu
plant species. 2. ikSks ds HkkSfrd :i esa ifjorZu
3. Change in Species. 3. iztkfr;ksa esa ifjorZu
Choose the correct answer based on the
codes below: fuEu dwVksa esa ls lgh mkj dk p;u djsaA
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) All the above (C) dsoy 1 vkSj3 (D) mi;qZDr lHkhA
66. What is Bioassay referred to?
(A) Procedures that can determine the 66. ck;ks,sLls D;k gSa\
concentration or purity or biological (A) ,slh izf;k tks fdlh inkFkZ dh tSfod f;k vFkok
activity of a substance 'kqrk vFkok ladsnz.k dk irk yxk ldsA
(B) Biological census
(C) International organisation working for (B) tSfod tux.kuk
protection of Biosphere (C) tho e.My dh j{kk ds fy, dk;Z djus okyh vUrjkZ"Vh;
(D) None of the above laLFkkA
67. Consider the following mammals are (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
critically endangered in India?
1. Pygmy Hog (Porcula salvania) 67. fuEufyf[kr Lrukkfj;ksa esa ls Hkkjr esa dkSu&lk [krjs
2. Andaman White - toothed Shrew 1. fiXeh gkWx (lkuh cuSy)
(Crocidura andamanensis) 2. vaMeku OgkbV (OgkbV nkausnkj ddZ'kk)
3. Jenkin's Andaman Spiny Shrew
(Crocidura Jenkins) 3. tkfdu vaMeku dkaVsnkj NNwanj
4. Nicobar White-tailed Shrew 4. fudksckj NNwanj liQsn iwaN
Choose the correct answer based on the uhps fn, x, fodYiksa ds vkkkj ij lgh mkj nsa&
codes below-
(A) Only 1 & 4 (B) Only 1, 2 & 3 (A) dsoy 1 vkSj4 (B) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj3
(C) Only 2 (D) All the above (C) dsoy 2 (D) lHkh pkjksa
68. Consider the following statements about the 68. Hkkjr ds lafokku ds lacak esa fuEufyf[kr dFku ij fopkj
making of Constitution in India. Which of
them is wrong?
djsaA buesa ls dkSu xyr gS\
(A) Constituent Assembly of undivided India (A) vfoHkkftr Hkkjr }kjk lafokku lHkk dh igyh 9 cSBd
held its first sitting on 9 December 1946. fnlEcj]1946 dks gqbZA
(B) Its members were elected by indirect (B) blds lnL;ksa dk pquko vizR;{k :i ls izkarh; fokku
election by the members of the
Provisional Legislative Assemblies that lHkk ds }kjk fuokpr fd, x;s Fks ftldh LFkkiuk
had been established in 1935. 1935 esa dh xbZ FkhA
(C) Each Province and each Princely State (C) izR;sd izkUr ,oa izR;sd fj;klr ;k jkT;ksa ds lewg ds
or group of States were allotted seats
proportional to their respective tula[;k ds lekuqikfr (yxHkx
1 : 10,00,000) ds
population roughly in the ratio of 1 : vkkkj ij LFkku fukkZfjr fd;k x;k FkkA
10,00,000. (D) izR;sd jkT; esaa LFkku dk forj.k rhu eq[; oxksZa leqnk
(D) The seats in each Province were distributed
among the three main communities, eqfLyeksa] fl[kksa ,oa fgUnqvksa ds chp lacafkr tul
Muslims, Sikhs and Hindus, in proportion ds vuqikr esa ckVk x;k FkkA
to their respective populations. 69. uhps fn, x, dFku Hkkjr ds jk"Vifr ds foosdkkhu 'kfDr ls
69. Given below are few statements about the
discretionary powers of the President of
lacafkr gSA buesa ls dkSu lR; ugha gSa\
India. Which of them isnt true? (A) jk"Vifr dks ;g vfkdkj gS fd lHkh egRoiw.kZ ckrksa rF
(A) President has a right to be informed of ea=kh ifj"kn~ ds lHkh foospuksa dh
(delibration)
all important matters and deliberations tkudkjh ysA
of the Council of Ministers.
(B) President can send back the advice or (B) jk"Vifr ftruh ckj vko';d le>s mruh ckj ea=kh
bills given by the Council of Ministers ifj"kn ds lykg ,oa foks;d dks okil Hkst ldrk gSA
as many times as he deems necessary. (C) jk"Vifr dks ohVks ikoj izkIr gS ftlds }kjk og laln ls
(C) President also has veto power by which
he can withhold or refuse to give assent Hksts x;s foks;d dks fLFkfxr ;k okil dj ldrk gS
to Bills (other them Money Bill) passed (flok; fok foks;d ds)
by the Parliament. (D) tc yksd lHkk esa fdlh ikVhZ dks cgqer ugha izkIr gksr
(D) When no party gets majority in Lok
Sabha, President can use his discretion
gS] rc jk"Vifr vius foosdkkhu 'kfDr;ksa dk iz;ksx
to invite who can actually form and run djds mls vkeaf=kr dj ldrk gS tks fd okLro esa
the government. ljdkj cuk ,oa pyk ldrk gSA
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70. Consider the following statements about the 70. fuEu dFku dks Hkkjr ds eaf=k;ksa dh lfefr ds lanHkZ esa f
council of ministers in India and identify
the wrong statement. djsa ,oa xyr dFku dh igpku djsaA
(A) Indian constitution right from its (A) Hkkjrh; lafokku esa izkjaHk ls gh ;g vfuok;Z cuk fn
inception had made it mandatory that gS fd ea=kh ifj"kn~ dk vkdkj yksdlHkk ds dqy lnL;ks
the council of ministers shall not exceed
15% of the total membership of Lok dh la[;k ds 15% ;s vfkd ugha gksxkA
Sabha. (B) ea=kh ifj"kn~ lkewfgd :i ls yksdlHkk ds izfr mkjnk;
(B) The Council of Ministers is collectively gSA
responsible to the Lok Sabha.
(C) The Prime Minister allocates ranks and (C) izkkuea=kh eaf=k;ksa ds in ,oa foHkkx dk vkoaVu d
portfolios to the ministers (D) oxSj izkkuea=kh ds ea=kh ifj"kn~ dk dksbZ vfLrRo
(D) The Council of Ministers cannot exist
without the Prime Minister.
71. jkT;lHkk Hkkjrh; fokkf;dk dk nwljk lnu gSA blds lacak
71. Rajya Sabha is the 2nd chamber of Indian dkSu&lk dFku xyr gS\
Legislature. Which of the following (A) jkT;lHkk ds lnL;6 o"kksZ ds fy, pqus tkrs gSaA
statements about it is false?
(A) Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected (B) os dsoy nks gh ckj iqu% pqus tk ldrs gSaA
for a term of six years. (C) pqu x;s lnL;ksa ds vfrfjDr] jkT;lHkk12 ds ikl
(B) They can be reelected only twice. euksuhr lnL; gksrs gSa
(C) Apart from the elected members, Rajya
Sabha also has twelve nominated (D) vfkd tula[;k okys jkT; de tula[;k okys jkT;ksa
members dh rqyuk esa jkT;lHkk esa vfkd izfrfufkRo ikrs gS
(D) States with larger population get more 72. tSo fofokrk laj{k.k dk mn~ns'; i`Foh ij lHkh izdkj ds thoks
representatives in Rajya Sabha than
States with smaller population get rFkk mlds vkokl dh j{kk djuk ftlls ikfjfLFkdh ra=k
72. Biodiversity conservation is about saving lqpk: :i lapkfyr gksrk jgsA Xykscy
-200 dh lwph esa
life on Earth in all its forms and keeping
lokZfkd ladVkiUu thoksa dk laj{k.k gksrk gSA
natural ecosystems functioning. Global 200
is the list of ecoregion most crucial to dkSu&lk laxBu bl lwph dks rS;kj djrk gS\
conservation. (A) ;w ,u bZ ih
Which organisation makes this list?
(B) vkbZ ;w lh ,u
(A) UNEP
(B) IUCN (C) MCY;w MCY;w ,iQ
(C) WWF (D) ok;ksMkolVh bVajusluy
(D) Biodiversity International
73. The presence of light determines where 73. ty esa izdk'k dh igqap ds vkkkj ij mRiknd vkSj miHkksD
producers and consumers are to live in dk fukkZj.k gksrk gS
water. Which of the following is/are correct? 1. ikniyod (iQkbVksIysaVl) leqnzh lrg ikni Iyod dh
1. The littoral zone supports phytoplankton
population. tula[;k o`f esa lgk;d gSA
2. The limonitic zone supports rooted plant 2. ySesfVd {ks=k tM+h; ikSkksa ds fodkl esa lgk;d gS
population.
3. leqnz dh ryh 'khih; vkSj ?kksa?kksa ds thou ds fodkl
3. The benthic zone supports snails and
slugs. esa lgk;d gSA
Choose the correct answer based on the fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dwV lgh gS\
codes below-
(A) dsoy 1 (B) dsoy 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 3 only (D) All of the above (C) dsoy 3 (D) mi;ZqDr lHkh
74. With respect to the universal adult 74. o;Ld erkfkdkj ds n`f"Vdks.k1989ls rd] ,d o;Ld
franchise, Till 1989, an adult Indian meant
an Indian citizen above the age of 21. An Hkkjrh; dk vFkZ
21 o"kZ ds vk;q ds mij gSA lafokku ds ,d
amendment to the Constitution reduced the lalksku dh ckr dj jgs gSa\
eligibility age to 18. Which amendment are (A) 81oha lalksku]
1989
we talking about?
(A) 81st amendment, 1989 (B) 61oha lalksku]
1969
(B) 61st amendment, 1969 (C) 61oha lalksku]
1989
(C) 61st amendment, 1989
(D) 81oha lalksku]
1969
(D) 81st amendment, 1969
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75. Which of the following are methods of waste 75. fuEufyf[kr fofk;ksa esa dkSu&lk fofk vif'k"V fuiVku fo
disposal- gS\
1. Incineration
1. HkLehdj.k
2. Biological reprocessing
3. Curb side collection 2. tSfod iquizZlaLdj.k
Choose the correct answer based on the 3. djc lSd (curb side) laxzg
codes fn, x, dwVksa esa ls lgh mkj dk p;u dhft,A
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only (A) 1, 2 vkSj3 (B) dsoy 2, 3
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 3 only
(C) dsoy 1, 2 (D) dsoy 3
76. To promote pulse steps are taken worldwide:
Consider the following statements about 76. nqfu;k Hkj esa nkyksa ds mRiknu dks c<+kok nsus ds lanH
1. UN has announced 2015 as fn, x;s dFkuksa ij fopkj djsaA
international year of pulses 1. la;qDr jk"V us dks varjkZ"Vh; nkyksa ds o"kZ dh
2015
2. India is second largest producer and ?kks"k.kk dh gSaA
largest consumer of Pulses
2. Hkkjr nkyksa dh mRikndrk esa nwljk vkSj miHkks
3. Pulses have in general more protein and
fiber than any other vegetable igys LFkku ij gSA
Choose the correct answer based on the 3. nkyksa esa lCth dh rqyuk esa vfkd izksVhu vkSj lk
codes below- gSaA
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only fn, x, dwVksa esa ls lgh mkj dk p;u dhft,A
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 3 only
(A) 1, 2 vkSj3 (B) dsoy 2, 3
77. Consider the following aspects of defiance
of laws associated with civil disobedience (C) dsoy 1, 3 (D) dsoy 3
movement in India. Identify the wrong one. 77. lfou; voKk vkanksyu ls atqM+sa dkuwuksa dh voKk ds la
(A) Breaking of salt law was the main action uhps fn, x, igyqvksa ij fopkj djsa] vkSj xyr dFku dk
in most coastal states happened . pquko djsaA
(B) Refusal of chowkiddar tax was practiced
(A) vfkdka'kr% rVh; jkT;ksa esa ued dkuwu rksM+uk
in landlocked states.
(C) No rent No revenue campaign happened dk;Zokgh FkhA
in Central Provinces. (B) Hkwc jkT;ksa esa pkSdhnkjh dj nsus ls euk dj fn;k x
(D) Cunningham circular was issued in (C) e; izkarksa esa dj dh vnk;xh ls eukgh dh xbZ
Assam. (No rent No Revenue)
78. The first socialist weekly The Socialist was
(D) vle esa fua?ke ifji=k tkjh fd;k x;kA
published by :
(A) M Singaravelu (B) S A Dange 76. ^n iQLV lkslfyLV* igys lektoknh lkIrkfgd fduds }kjk
(C) MN Roy (D) S Gopal izdkf'kr fd;k x;k Fkk\
79. Consider the following statements about (A) ,e- flaxkjosyq (B) ,l , Mkaxs
Delhi Proposals by Muslim League. Identify (C) ,e- ,u- jkW; (D) ,l xksiky
the wrong statement.
(A) Sind should be made a separate
89. eqfLye yhx }kjk fn, x, fnYyh izLrko ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[k
province. dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa vkSj xyr dFku dk pquko djsA
(B) Proportional representation in Punjab (A) flak ,d vyx izkar cuk;k tkuk pkfg,A
and Bengal provinces. (B) iatkc vkSj caxky izkarksa esa vkuqikfrd izfrfufkRo
(C) Representation proportional to Muslim (C) dsanzh; fokkueaMy esa eqfLye vkcknh ds vuqlkj vkuqi
population in Central Legislature.
(D) North West Frontier province should be
izfrfufkRo
treated constitutionally on the same (D) mkj if'pekskj lhekar izkar dks laoSkkfud :i ls ,d
footing. gh Lrj ij O;ogkj fd;k tkuk pkfg,A
80. With reference to Lalit Kala Academy, 80. ^yfyr dyk vdkneh* ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij
consider the following statements : fopkj djs&
1. It was established in 1955.
1. ;g 1955 esa LFkkfir fd;k x;k FkkA
2. The academy annually honours eminent
artist, historians by electing its fellow. 2. vdkneh izfro"kZ iz[;kr dykdkjks] bfrgkldkjksa dk
3. Jamini Roy was the first fellow of Lalit lEeku djrh gS] mUgsaa viuk jRu&lnL; pqudjA
Kala Academy. 3. tkfeuh jkW; yfyr dyk vdkneh dh igyh lnL; FkhA
Which of the statements given above is/are mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gSa\
correct?
(A) 1 dsoy (B) 2 dsoy
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 vkSj 3 dsoy (D) 2 dsoy 3 dsoy

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81. Which of the following statements are true 81. Hkkjr esa varns'kh; tyekxksZa ds lacak esa dkSu&ls dF
regarding inland waterways in India : gSa\
1. Inland Waterways Authority of India 1. Hkkjrh; vUnsZ'kh; tyekxZ izkfkdj.k 1986 bZ esa vfL
(IWAI) which regulates inland
waterways came into existence in 1986.
esa vk;k Fkk] tks tyekxksZa dks fu;af=kr djrk gSA
2. Headoffice of IWAI is at Allahabad. 2. IWAI dk eq[; dk;kZy; bykgkckn esa gSA
3. The National Waterways Bill 2015 aims 3. jk"Vh; jktekxZ foks;d 2015 dk ms'; 106 vfrfjDr
at declaring additional 106 inland varjnsZ'kh; tyekxksZ dks jk"Vh; tyekxZ ?kksf"kr dju
waterway as National Waterways. 4. ty ekxZ fodkl ifj;kstuk 106 u, jk"Vh; tyekxksZ ls
4. Jal Marg Vikas Project is associated with tksM+rk gSA
106 new National Waterways.
uhps fn, x, dwVksa esa ls lgh mkj pqusaA
Choose from the codes given below:
(A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) dsoy 1 vkSj3 (D) 1, 2, 3 vkSj4
82. Consider the following statements about 82. ososy ;kstuk ds fo"k; esa fopkj djsa vkSj lgh dFku dk p;u
Wavell Plan and pick the right statement. djsa
1. According to Wavell plan, the new 1. ososy ;kstuk ds vuqlkj] dsUnz esa ubZ dk;Zdkjh ifj"
executive council at the centre will be esa lkjs Hkkjrh; gksxsa flok; ok;ljk; dsA
all Indian except for the Viceroy.
2. fons'k foHkkx ds vykok lkjs iksVZiQksfy;ksa Hkkjrh;
2. All portfolios except external affairs will
be held by Indian Members.
}kjk kkj.k gksxhA
3. Commander in Chief for the first time 3. fczVh'k Hkkjr ds bfrgkl esa igyh ckj dksbZ Hkkjrh
in the history of British India would be dekaMj&bu&phiQ gksxkA
an India. (A) dsoy 1 vkSj2 (B) dsoy 2 vkSj3
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) dsoy 1 vkSj3 (D) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) None of the above. 83. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lcls pk i{kh dkSu&lk gS\
83. Which one of the following is the tallest bird?
(A) eksj (B) isafXou
(A) Peacock (B) Penguin
(C) 'kqrqjeqxZ (D) bZeq
(C) Ostrich (D) Emu
84. Which one of the following animals is called 84. fEufyf[kr esa fdl ,d izk.kh dks fdlku dk ,d fe=k dgk
farmer's friend? tkrk gS\
(A) Ant (B) Earthworm (A) phaVh (B) dsapqvk
(C) Bee (D) Butterfly (C) ekqeD[kh (D) frryh
85. The term gene was coined by: 85. ^thu* 'kCn fdlus cuk;k Fkk\
(A) T. H. Morgan (B) W. L. Johanssen
(A) Vh ,p ekWxZu(B) MCY;w ,y tksgulsu
(C) G. Mendel (D) De Vries
86. Which one of the following creatures has (C) th esUMst (D) Mh czht
maximum number of ribs? 86. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ,d tho esa ilfy;ksa dh la[;k lcls
(A) Crocodile (B) Snake vfkd lcls vfkd gS\
(C) Ray fish (D) Flying mammal (A) exj (B) lki
87. Which one of the following is most important (C) js eRL; (D) mM~M;u Lruik;h
for the growth of children up to the age of 87. 14 o"kZ dh vk;q rd ds cPpksa ds fodkl ds fy, fuEufyf[kr
14?
esa ls dkSu&lk lcls vfkd egRoiw.kZ gSa\
(A) Protein (B) Vitamin
(C) Fat (D) Milk (A) izksVhu (B) foVkfeu
88. Study of newly born up to the age of 3 months (C) olk (D) nwk
is called 88. uotkr f'k'kq dh rhu ekg rd dh vk;q ds v;;u dks dgrs
(A) Chorology (B) Conchology gSa
(C) Nematology (D) Neonatology (A) dksjkWyksth (B) dkWUdkWyksth
89. Which one of the following does not secrete (C) uhekVkWyksth (D) fu;ksusVkWyksth
any digestive enzyme?
89. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d fdlh Hkh ikpd ,Utkbe dk
(A) Liver
(B) Salivary gland lzo.k ugha djrk\
(C) Glands of small intestine (A) ;r~ (B) ykyk xzafFk
(D) Pancreas (C) {kqnzka=k dh xzafFk;k
(D) vXU;k'k;
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90. Which one of the following is related to 90. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk lEcUk ouokZu (flfYodYoj) ds
Silviculture? lkFk gS\
(A) Culture of Hilsa
(B) Culture of silver carp (A) fgYlk dk laokZu
(C) Culture of oil-producing plants (B) flYoj dkiZ dk laokZu
(D) Forest crops (C) rsy mRiknd ikniksa dk laokZu
91. The term Genetically modify food refers to (D) taxyh iQlysa
the food:
(A) that grows under genetic measures 91. ^th ,l iQwM* ls vk'k; ml [kk| ls gS%
(B) that is genetically modified (A) tks vkuqoaf'kd mik;ksa ds vUrxZr iSnk gksrk gS
(C) that grows under geographical (B) tks vkuqoaf'kd vifjorr gS
modification
(C) tks HkkSxksfyd vifjorZu ds vUrxZr iSnk gksrk gS
(D) with greater glucose metabolism
92. Which of the following is a fish? (D) ftlesa vfkd Xywdksl mikip; {kerk gS
(A) Silverfish (B) Starfish 92. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh eNyh gS\
(C) Dogfish (D) Cuttlefish (A) flYoj&fiQ'k (B) LVkj&fiQ'k
93. Which Indian personality has been chosen
(C) MkWx&fiQ'k (D) dVy&fiQ'k
for the coveted French honour of Chevalier
Award? 93. fdl Hkkjrh; 'kf[l;r dks 'ksosfy;j iqjLdkj ds xkSjoiw.kZ
(A) Naseeruddin Shah izQsap lEeku ds fy, pqus x, gSa\
(B) Kamal Haasan (A) ulh:hu 'kkg (B) dey glu
(C) Sumitra Ghosh
(C) lqfe=kk ?kks"k (D) vfHkrkHk cPpu
(D) Amitabh Bachchan
94. Who has been appointed as the new Vice 94. gkeh HkkHkk jk"Vh; laLFkku ds u;s dqyifr ds :i esa fd
Chancellor of Homi Bhabha National fu;qDr fd;k x;k gS\
Institute (HBNI)? (A) ekq tks'kh (B) fu'kkar tSu
(A) Madhu Joshi (B) Nishant Jain
(C) ih Mh xqIrk (D) lqeu ?kks"k
(C) P D Gupta (D) Suman Ghosh
95. Who has been appointed as the new 95. Hkkjrh; fjtoZ cSad (vkjchvkbZ) ds u, xcZuj fdls fu;qDr
Governor of the Reserve Bank of India fd;k x;k gS\
(RBI)? (A) vkj xkkh (B) mtr iVsy
(A) R Gandhi (B) Urjit Patel
(C) ,l ,l eaznk (D) ,u ,l fo'oukFk
(C) S S Mundra (D) N S Vishwanathan
96. lqczr cuthZ] ftudk gky gh esa fuku gks x;k gS og fdl
96. Subrata Banerjee, who passed away
recently, was related to which sports? [ksy ls lacafkr Fks\
(A) Cricket (B) Badminton (A) fdsV (B) cSMfeaV
(C) Boxing (D) Football (C) eqDdsckth (D) iqQVckWy
97. The World Mosquito Da y is observed on
which day? 97. fo'o ePNj fnol dc euk;k tkrk gS\
(A) August 21 (B) August 22 (A) 21 vxLr (B) 22 vxLr
(C) August 20 (D) August 28 (C) 20 vxLr (D) 28 vxLr
98. Carolina Marin, who has won womens 98. dSjksfyuk efju] ftUgksaus 2016 fj;ks vksyafid esa efg
badminton singles gold medal at the 2016
Rio Olympics, is belonged to which country? cSMfeaVu ,dy dk Lo.kZ ind thrk gS og fdl ns'k fd gS\
(A) Spain (B) USA (A) Lisu (B) la;qDr jkT; vesfjdk
(C) China (D) Brazil (C) phu (D) czkthy
99. The 2016 Youth Voters Festival will be held 99. 2016 ;qok ernku egksRlo Hkkjr ds fdl jkT; esa vk;ksftr
in which state of India?
(A) Assam (B) Odisha fd;k tk,xk\
(C) Nagaland (D) Andhra Pradesh (A) vle (B) vksfM'kk
100. What is the theme of the 2016 World (C) ukxkyS.M (D) vkakzizns'k
Humanitarian Day?
100. 2016 fo'o ekuoh; fnol dk Fkhe D;k gS\
(A) Share humanity
(B) One humanity (A) 'ks;j ;weSfurh (B) ou ;weSfuVh
(C) People helping people (C) ihiy gsfYiax ihiy (D) bulikj oYMZl ;weSfuVh
(D) Inspire the Worlds humanity

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GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST- 25 (ANSWER KEY)


1. (D) 21. (D) 41. (C) 61. (D) 81. (C)
2. (D) 22. (C) 42. (C) 62. (B) 82. (D)
3. (B) 23. (B) 43. (C) 63. (A) 83. (C)
4. (D) 24. (C) 44. (A) 64. (B) 84. (B)
5. (B) 25. (A) 45. (A) 65. (D) 85. (B)
6. (B) 26. (B) 46. (A) 66. (A) 86. (B)

s
7. (D) 27. (A) 47. (D) 67. (D) 87. (A)
8. (D) 28. (D) 48. (C) 68. (D) 88. (C)
9. (A) 29. (D) 49. (B) 69. (B) 89. (C)

u
10. (A) 30. (B) 50. (A) 70. (A) 90. (D)
11. (C) 31. (C) 51. (C) 71. (B) 91. (B)
12. (C) 32. (D) 52. (A) 72. (C) 92. (C)

p
13. (B) 33. (C) 53. (C) 73. (C) 93. (B)
14. (A) 34. (B) 54. (A) 74. (C) 94. (C)
15. (B) 35. (C) 55. (B) 75. (C) 95. (B)
16. (C) 36. (C) 56. (B) 76. (D) 96. (A)

m
17. (B) 37. (A) 57. (C) 77. (D) 97. (C)
18. (B) 38. (A) 58. (B) 78. (B) 98. (A)
19. (B) 39. (D) 59. (D) 79. (A) 99. (C)

a
20. (C) 40. (C) 60. (C) 80. (D) 100. (B)

C
D
K
Note : If your opinion differ regarding any answer, please
message the mock test and Question number to 8860330003

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GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST-25 (SOLUTION)


1. (D) Government in recent times has also
- RajyaSabha has powers to reject it and
increased the MSP for pulses and gave
there is a provision of joint sitting in this
bonuses over and above MSP. Hence, net
case.
sown area under pulses increased compared
- President can give his assent, can reject
to the past. But it has to be implemented
or return the bill for reconsideration.
through active procurement as in the
6. (B) The FPTP system has proved to be simple
absence of the procurement support; the
and familiar to ordinary voters. It has helped

s
acreage under pulses could not be augmented
larger parties to win clear majorities at the
significantly.
centre and the state level.
2. (D) Aditya- L1 is a spacecraft whose mission
- The system has also discouraged political
is to study the Sun. This will be the first

u
parties that get all their votes only from one
Indian space mission to study the Sun, and
caste or community.
also the first Indian mission to be placed at
- Normally, the working of the FPTP system

p
Lagrangian point L1-far away from the Earth
results in a two-party system.
from where continuous solar observations
7. (D) 1. Centralized Public Grievance Redress and
are possible. Only NASA and ESA have
Monitoring system (CPGRAMS) is
successfully placed satellites at the L1 point
implemented by Department of
as of date.
Administrative Reforms and Public

m
3. (B) - The Gram Nyayalayas have both civil and
Grievance.
criminal jurisdiction over the offences and
2. Department of Administrative Reforms
nature of suits specified in the First, Second

a
and Public Grievance isunder Ministry of
and Third schedule of the Act
Personnel and Training.
- Both the Central and the State Government
8. (D) The Hunter Commission was a one man
can add or remove items in the Schedule.
commission which brought out the neglect

C
While the Central Government can amend
to the primary and secondary education in
the list in Schedule I and II, by notifying them
the country. The commission recommended
and thereafter laying it in the Parliament,
that the responsibility for the Primary
the State Government can amend the items
Education must be given to the Local Boards
in Part III of Schedule I or II, in the areas of
and Municipal Boards.

D
law which the state is competent to enact
9. (A) Fundamental Right under art 19 can be
law after due consultation with the respective
restricted on the grounds of protection of
High Court an notifying it. Such notification
interests of STs.
has to be laid in the State Legislature.
- President is required to appoint a

K
4. (D) L.M. Singhvi Committee studied
commission to report on administration
panchayati raj. The Gram Sabha was
of schedule areas and the welfare of STs
considered as the base of a decentralised
any time but compulsory after 10 years of
democracy, and PRIs viewed as institutions
the commencement of the Constitution.
of self-governance which would actually
- In 2002, Commission under the
facilitate the participation of the people in
Chairmanship of Dilip Singh Bhuria was
the process of planning and development. It
appointed to report on the welfare of STs.
recommended:
10. (A) 1. Anti-defection law is not applicable on
- local self - government should be
nominated members after six months of
constitutionally recognised, protected and
his nomination
preserved by the inclusion of new chapter in
2. Both merger and split of the political
the Constitution,
parties are not exempted from the act.
- non-involvement of political parties in
Through 91st constitutional the
Panchayat elections.
exception related to split was excluded.
5. (B) - Financial Bill Category A can only be
therefore at present provisions of Anti
introduced in the Lok Sabha on the
Defection law will be applicable in case of
recommendationof the President. However
split in the political party.
once it has been pased by the LokSabha, it
11. (C) The scientific analysis of the Sangam
is like an ordinary Bill and there is no literature says that this work was
restriction on the powers of the RajyaSabha composed in 120-150 years and most of
on such Bills.
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the literature was composed from 100AD 17. (B) Anti-defection law is placed in the ten
to 250AD. Sangam literature is primarily schedule of the constitution
secular, dealing with everyday theme. - Anti-defection law not present in the
Tolkppiyam is a work on the grammar of original constitution and was added later
the Tamil language and the earliest in 1985 through the 52nd amendment
extant work of Tamil literature. by the Rajiv Gandhi ministry.
12. (C) DDU-GKY is implemented by Ministry of - If an MP voluntarily gives up his
Rural Development. membership of a political party then it
Features of Deen Dayal Upadhyay Grameen is considered as defection.
Kaushlya of Yojana Enable Poor and - If an MP votes agains his party without
Marginalized to Access Benefits. obtaining prior permission then it is

s
Demand ted skill training at no cost to counted as defection.
the rural poor Inelusive Program Design 18. (B) The Act replaces the Juvenile Justice
Mandatory coverage of socially Act of 2000.
- Under the Bill, a juvenile in conflict with

u
disadvantaged groups (SC/ST 50%
Minority 15%, Wome Sandeep Sharma law can be required to spend a maximum
Shaktin 33%) of three years in a special home or fit
Pioneers is providing incentives for job facility. However, juveniles in the age

p
retention, career progression and group of 16-18 years may be tried as
foreign placements. adults in certain cases and will be given
13. (B) Panchsheel Principles are : higher punishment.
- Juvenile Justice Boards (JJBs) will be
1. Mutual respect for each other's
constituted in each district to deal with

m
territorial integrity and sovereignty.
children in conflict with law. They will
2. Mutual non-aggression.
consist of a Metropolitan or Judicial
3. Mutual non-interference in each other's
Magistrate and two social of a

a
internal affairs.
Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate and
4. Equality and cooperation for mutual
two social workers, including a women.
benefit. - Whether to treat juvenile as an adult
5. Peaceful co-existence.

C
will be decided by Children's court.
14. (A) There is provision for special sessions - In case of heinous offences, if a juvenile
in the Constitution. In this case, it can is apprehended before 21 years of age
be convened by the President on the the JJB will conduct a preliminary
recommendations of the Council of inquiry. This will determine his mental/
Ministers on the basis of a 14 days of physical capacity to commit on offence

D
advance notice to the Chairman or the and an under standing of its
speaker, as the case may be. consequences. The JJB will then pass
- In another case, if the LokSabha is not an order that recommends : (i)
in session, not less than one-tenth of interventions like counselling or

K
the Members can, on prior notice of 14 community service; (ii) staying at an
days, write to the President for observation home for a temporary or
convening a session for the rejection of long - term period; or (iii) refer the
the National Emergency (under Art. juvenile to a Children's Court to
352). The Council of Ministers does not determine whether to try him as an
play any role in this. This does not apply adult.
to RajyaSabha. 19. (B) Refer Oxford School Atlas. The Great Basin
15. (B) Pressure groups are organisations that is the largest area of contiguous endorheic
tempt to influence government policies. watersheds in North America. It is noted for
- But unlike political parties, pressure both its arid climate and the basin and range
groups do not aim to directly control or topography that varies from the North
share political power. American low point at Badwater Basin to the
- These or ganisations are formed when highest point of the contiguous United
people with common occupation, States, less than 100 miles (160 km) away
interest, aspirations or opinions come at the summit of Mount Whitney.
together in order to achieve a common 20. (C) The boiling point of a liquid depends on
objective. external pressure. In atmospheric pressure
- Some pressure groups like Youth (760 mm of Hg). the boiling point of water is
organizations, trade unions are part of 100 degree Celsius. But when pressure
or extended arm of political parties. decrease, the boiling point of water also
16. (C) Indian is a member of WIPO, East Asia decreases. It increases the cooking time.
summit and G4 nations. Thats why at higher altitudes where

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pressure is lower, cooking of food takes more - Encouraging poor children, belonging to
time. disadvantaged sections, to attend
21. (D) All of the above are indicators of schoolmore regularly and help them
phenomenon of climate change and concentrate on classroom activities.
global warming caused due to - Providing nutritional support to children
anthropogenic factors. of primary stage in drought-affected
22. (C) The estimated agriculture growth rate areasduring summer vacation.
is 0.2% in 2014-15 Statement 2 & 3 are 30.(B) - Wealthy investors like to invest their
correct. Capital in such businesses with a long-
23. (B)- pH value of a bathing soap should be tern growth perspective. This capital is
around 7.5-9. know as venture capital.

s
- Milk of lime (CaOH) or a saturated - Such investments are risky as they are
solution of lime (limewater) has a pH of illiquid, but are capable of giving
12.3 impressive returns if invested in the
- Distilled white vinegar usually right venture. The returns to the

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measures around pH 2.4. venture capitalists depend upon the
24. (C) The Neon lamp consists of a small glass growth of the company. Venture
capsule that contains a mixture of neon capitalists have the power to influence

p
and other gases at a low pressure and major decisions of the companies they
two electrodes (an anode and a cathode). are investing in as it is their money at
When sufficient voltage is applied and stake.
sufficient current is supplied between 31. (C)
the electrodes, the lamp produces an 32. (D) In 2011, the U.S Energy Information

m
orange glow discharge. Neon lamps are Administration (EIA) had estimated the
widely used indicator lamps in the U.S. had about 37 year worth of shale
displays of electronic instruments and gas that was technically recoverable.

a
appliances. China leads the world in shale gas
25. (A) Refer Atlas, Scandinavia refers to the reserves, with more than 1,115 TCF.
three kingdoms of Sweden, N o r w a y , The U.S is fourth, behind China,

C
and Denmark. Argentina, and Algeria, according to the
26. (B) BASEL-III provides three important assessment.
criteria for ensuring minimum capital 33. (C) A mediterranean climate is the climate
requirements. typical of the lands in the
- Capital requirements: common equity Mediterranean Basin. The lands around
to risk weighted asset (RWA) ratio. the Mediterranean Sea form the largest

D
- Leverage ratio: his is a non-risk-based area where this climate type is found,
leverage ratio and is calculated by but is also is found in most of California,
dividing Tier I capital by the bank's in parts of Western and South Australia,
average total consolidated assets (sum is southwestern South Africa, sections

K
of the exposures of all assets and non- of Central Asia, and in Central Chile.
balance sheet items). 34. (B)
- Liquidity requirements; The ''Liquidity 35. (C)
Coverage Ratio'' was supposed to require 36. (C)
a bank to hold sufficient high quality 37. (A)
liquid assets to cover its total net cash 38. (A) Open Market operations is a
outflows over 30 days. quantitative monetary tool used by RBI
27. (A) Sea water boils at a higher temperature to regulate inflation. It is the sale and
than pure water. Freezing point of a purchase of Government securities. It
solution is always less than freezing is conducted when there is a necessity
point of pure solvent. Thus freezing point to do so.
of sea water is lower than pure water. 39. (D) Rational Investor Rating Index assesses
28. (D) None of the countries listed are G7 the risks and rewards of competing
members. The organization was called destinations, rational investors take
G8 before Russia was suspended. into account not just macroeconomic
29. (D) The objectives of the mid day meal stability (which proxies for risks) but also
scheme are: growth which crucially determines
- Improving the nutritional status of rewards and returns.
Children in classes I-VIII in 40. (C) FDI is not allowed in the manufacture
Government, Local Body and of cigars, cheroots, cigarillos and
Government aided schools, and EGS and cigarettes, of tobacco or tobacco
AIE centres. substitutes.

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41. (C) FDI is not allowed in the manufacture 49. (B) Coal is the main source of energy in the
of cigars, cheroots, cigarillos and country and accounts for 67% of the
cigarettes, of tobacco or tobacco commercial requirement of the country.
substitutes. India has coal reserves of more than 360
42. (C) Lapis Lazuli - NE Afghanistan, Amethyst billion tonnes. Over 98 per cent of the
- Maharashtra Carnelian - Saurashtra, total coal reserves of India belong to the
Jade - Central Asia. Gondwana Period. The Gondwana coal
43. (C) Dara Shikok is the eldest son of Shah is mainly bituminous or anthracite in
Jahan. In Akbar's court there were nine which the carbon content varies
such Navratna Mulla Do Pyaza, Hakin between 60 to 90 per cent. Peat is the
Humam, Abdur Rahim Khan e Khanan, lowest and most inferior quality of coal.
Abul Tayal, Tansen, Raja Todar Mal, Raja

s
Anthracite is the highest quality of coal
Man Singh, Faizi and Birbal. containing 90 to 90 per cent carbon. It
44. (A) Vinaya Pitaka talks about the rules of has every little volatile matter and
Buddhist Sangha. Sutta Pitaka is a insignificant proportion of moisture. It

u
collection of Buddhas sermons including has short blue flame. It is the most
Jataka stories. Abhidhamma Pitaka is expensive.
a discussion of metaphysical problems 50. (A)

p
and changing patterns of life. 51. (C)
45. (A) The Aravalli hills predate the Himalayas 52. (A) Temperat cyclones are the result of the
by thousands of years. They are better dynamic interaction of warm tropical
known as the old fold mountains and and cold polar air masses at the polar
possibly formed even before the Indo-
front. This interaction causes the warm

m
Australian plate made contact with the
air to be cyclonically lifted vertically into
Eurasian plate. The Aravalli Range is
the atmosphere air. This process also
the oldest mountain range in India. An
helps to transport excess energy from

a
antecedent stream is a stream that
the lower latitudes to the higher
maintains its original course and
pattern despite the changes in latitudes. Its direction of movement is
underlying rock topography. The generally eastward. Precise movement

C
Himalayan Rivers are great examples of of this weather system is controlled by
antecedent origin. The source of the the orientation of the polar jet stream
Narmada is a small bowl, known as the in the upper troposphere. Mid-latitude
Narmada Kund, located at Amarkantak cyclones can produce a wide variety of
on the Amarkantak hill. precipitation types. Precipitation types
46. (A) The Jindhagada Peak is the tallest peak include : rain, freezing rain, hail, sleet,

D
of Eastern Ghats, located in the snow pellets, and snow.
beautiful Araku Valley of Andhra 53. (C) The Lepcha are among the indigenous
Pradesh. The highest point of Aravali peoples of Sikkim and number between
mountain range is Guru Shikhar with 30,000 and 50,000. The Lahaula are a

K
an elevation of 1,350 m (4, 429 ft) in community found in Himachal Pradesh.
Madhya Pradesh. Anamudi is the tallest The Khasi people are an indigenous
summit of Western Ghats also known tribe, the majority of whom live in the
as Sahyadhri range. state of Meghalaya which is in the north
47. (D) The geostrophic wind is the theoretical eastern part of India, with a significant
wind that would result from a exact population in the border areas of the
balance between the Coriolis effect and neighbouring state of Assam. The
the pressure gradient force. This Angamis are a Nega tribe native to
condition is called geotrophic balance. Nagaland state.
The geostrophic wind is directed parallel 54. (A) Bhangar is old alluvium. It is non-
to isobars (lines of constant pressure at porous, clayey soil and found higher up
a given height). in the plains at river terraces away from
48. (C) Horse latitudes or subtropical highs are rivers. Red soil is ideal for dry farming
subtropical latitudes between 30 and 38 because it does not require much
degrees both north and south where moisture. Black soils needs to be tilled
Earth's atmosphere is dominated by the after the first rain. The soil is sticky and
subtropical high, an area of high difficult to work unless tilled
pressure, which suppresses immediately after the first rain. Laterite
precipitation and cloud formation, and soil develops due to leaching and is in
has variable winds mixed with calm. situ.
There is air subsidence and there after 55. (B) Although the core and mantle are about
diverges. equal in thickness, the core actually
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forms only 15 percent of the Earth's presides over the sitting. If he is also
volume, while the mantle comprises 84 absent such other person as may be
percent. Density increases as we go determined by the members present at
deeper inside the earth. The boundary the sitting, shall preside.
between Crust and Mantle is called 63. (A) Question related to wild life, their
Mohorovicic Discontinuity. In earth population and conservation are being
crust their speed is up to 13 kilometers frequently asked. They remain in news
per second, because mantle is denser. quiet frequently.
56. (B) In the Richter scale, earthquake is The new tiger cencus, released by Union
measure on log scale. An increase of 1 environment minister Prakash
Richter scale means a 10-fold increase Javadekar, las year shows that India -

s
in the size of the wave and also the which has 70% of the world tiger
shaking amplitude. But the energy population - has registered an increase
released scales with 3/2 power of the of 30 per cent in country's tiger
increase in the shaking amplitude. population in the past three years. The

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Thus, the energy released increases by National Tiger Conservation Authority
31.6. (NTCA) in the country carries out tiger
57. (C) Bomdi-La connects Arunachal Pradesh census after a gap of every three years.

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with Lhasa in Tibet. Chang La Pass is 64. (B) The Bharat Stage norms were adopted
located in Ladakh at an elevation of by the then government, based on the
5,360 m. Rohtang Pass in Himachal European emission norms.
Pradesh, India. Each stage specifies a certain limit on
58. (B) Temperate Zone which lies in mid the pollutants released, which is

m
latitude regions have moderate controlled by the type of fuel made by the
temperature which range from warm to oil companies and the upgradations and
cold. Torrid region refers to the tropical modifications made by the auto firm

a
region, which does form the regions of Currently, BS-IV petrol and diesel are
earth with high temperatures. being supplied in whole of Northern
Temperate regions never have the sun India converging Jammu and Kashmir,

C
overhead in the year. Tropical regions Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh,
have the sun atleast once overhead. Uttarakhand, Delhi and parts of
59. (D) Himalayan rivers are perennial as they Rajasthan and western UP. The rest of
receive water from glacier and also the country has BS-III grade fuel.
rainfall. They are antecedent and 65. (D) There are several distinguishing
consequent leading to dendritic pattern features of an ecotone. First, an ecotone

D
in plains. Hamalayan rivers have long can have a sharp vegetation transition,
course, flowing through the rugged with a distinct line between two
mountains experiencing head ward communities. For example, a change in
erosion and river capturing, in plains colours of grasses or plant life can

K
meandering and shifting of course. They indicate an ecotone, Second, a change
are young and youthful, active and in physiognomy (physical appearance of
deepening in the valleys. a plant species) can be key indicator.
60. (C) All of the states were having small Scientists look at colour variations and
pockets of enclaves divided by the Indo- changes in plant height. Third, a change
Bangladesh border. These enclaves were of species can signal an ecotone. There
exchanged on both side of border. will be specific organisms on one side of
61. (D) The PAC is formed every year with a an ecotone or the other.
strength of not more than 22 members 66. (A) Biossay (commonly used shorthand for
of which 15 are from Lok Sabha, the biological assay or assessment), or
lower house of the Parliament, and 7 biological standardisation is a type of
from Rajya Sabha, the upper house of scientific experiment. A biological
the Parliament. None of the 22 members standardisation is a type of scientific
shall be a minister in the government. experiment. A bioassay involves the use
It was formed under the provisions of of live animal or plant or tissue or cell
Government of India Act, 1919. to determine the biological activity of a
62. (B) Normally the speaker of the Lok Sabha substance, such as a hormone or drug.
presides over a joint sitting. If the Bioassays are typically conducted to
speaker is absent, then the deputy measure the effects of a substance on a
speaker is the next in line for presiding living organism and are essential in the
over the sitting. It case even the deputy development of new drug and in
speaker is absent the Deputy Chairman monitoring environmental pollutants.

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Both are procedures by which the environmental conditions. The WWE
potency or the nature of a substance is assigns a conservation status to each
estimated by studying its effects on ecoregion in the Global 200: critical or
living matter. A bioassay can also be endangered; vulnerable; and relatively
used to determine the concentration of stable or intact. Over half of the
a particular constitution of a mixture ecoregions in the Global 200 are rated
that may cause harmful effects on endangered.
organisms or the environment. 73. (C) The littoral zone is the near shore area
67. (D) Critically Endangered Mammals where sunlight penetrates all the way
1. Pygmy Hog (Porcula salvania) to the sediment and allows aquatic
2. Andaman White-toothed Shrew plants (macrophytes) to grow. Light levels

s
(Crocidura andamanensis) of about 1% or less of surface values
3. Jenkin's Andaman Spiny Shrew usually define this depth. The limmetic
(Crocidura jenkinsi) zone is the well-lit, open surface waters
4. Nicobar White-tailed Shrew (Crocidura in a lake, away from the shore. The

u
Jenkisi) vegetation of the littoral zone surrounds
5. Kondana Rat (Millardia kondana) this expanse of open water and it is
6. Large Rock Rat or Elvira Rat above the profundal zone. This is the

p
(Cremnomys elvira) main photosynthetic body of the lake.
7. Namdapha Flying Squirrel 74. (C) 61st amendment to the Constitution in
(Biswamnomys biswasi) 1989, reduced the eligibility age to 18.
8. Malabar Civet (Viverra civettina) 75. (C)
9. Sumatran Rhinoceros (Dicerorhinus 76. (D)

m
sumatrensis) 77. (D) No rent No revenue compaign happened
10. Javan Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros sodaicus) in United Provinces. In Assam, a
68. (D) Three main communities were - powerful agitation led by students was

a
Muslims, Sikhs and general. launched against the infamous
69. (B) He can exercise suspensive veto only Cunningham circular which forced
once. If the parliamentary executive students and their guardians to furnish

C
presents it to him again, he is bound to assurances of good behaviour.
sign. 78. (B) In Bombay, SA Dange published the
70. (A) Before the 91st Amendment Act (2003), pamphlet Gandhi and Lenin and started
the size of the Council of Ministers was the first socialist weekly, the Socialist,
determined according to exigencies of In Bengal.
time and requirements of the situation. 79. (A)

D
But this led to very large size of the 80. (D) The Lalit Kala Akademi or National
Council of Ministers. Besides, when no Academy of Art is India's National
party had a clear majority, there was a Academy of Fine Arts. It was an
temptation to win over the support of the autonomous organization, established at

K
members of the Parliament by giving New Delhi in 1954 by Government of
them ministerial positions as there was India to promote and propagate
no restriction on the number of the understanding of India art, both within
members of the Council of Ministers. and outside the country.
This was happening in many States also. 81. (C)
Therefore, an amendment was made 82. (D) Lord Wavell put for, the plan before
that the Council of Ministers shall not Indians on June 14, 1945. As per the
exceed 15 percent of total number of scheme of the plan, both Viceroy and
members of the House of people (or Commander in chief would be non
Assembly, in the case of the states). Indians. All portfolios except defence will
71. (B) They can be relected for any number of be held by Indians.
times Constitution doesnt specify any 83. (C) The largest living bird is the ostrich
limits. (Struthio camelus), from the plains of
72. (C) The Global 200 is the list of ecoregions Arica and Arabia. A large male ostrich
identified by WWF, the global can reach a height at 2.8 m (9.2 it),
conservation organization, as priorities weighting over 156 kg (345 Ib).
for conservation. According to WWF, an 84. (B) Earthworms travel underground by the
ecoregion is defined as relatively large means of waves of muscular
unit of land or water containing a contractions which alternately anchored
characteristic set of natural to the surrounding soil by tiny claw-like
communities that share a large bristles (setae) set along its segmented
majority of their chut dynamics, and length. In all the body segments except

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the first, last and clitellum, there is a maintenance, development of muscles
ring of S-shaped setae embedded in the and connective tissues, transportation
epidermal pit of each segment of oxygen to all areas of the body and
(perichaetine). The whole burrowing antibody production to fight infections.
process is aided by the secretion of 88. (C) Neonatology is subspecialty of pediatrics
lubricating mucus. Worms can make that consists of the medical care of
gurgling noises underground when newborn infant. It is a hospital-based
disturbed as a result of the worm moving specialty, and is usually practiced in
through its tubricated tunnels. They neonatal intensive care units (NICUs).
also work as bilogical pistons forcing The principal patients of neonatologists
air through the tunnels as they move. are newborn infants who are ill or

s
Thus earthworm activity aerates and requiring special medical care due to
mixes the soil, and is constructive to prematurity, low birth weight,
mineralization and utrient uptake by intrauterine growth sepsis, pulmonary
vegetation. Certain species of hyperplasia or birth asphyxias.

u
earthworm come to the surface and 89. (C) Digestive enzymes are enzymes that
graze on the higher concentrations of break down polymeric macromolecules
organic matter present there mixing it into their smaller building body.

p
with the mineral soil, Because a high Digestive enzymes are found in the
level of organic matter mixing is digestive tracts of animals (including
associated with soil fertility, an humans) and in the traps of carnivorous
abundance of earthworms is beneficial plants, were they aid in the digestion of
to the organic gardener. food, as well as inside cells, especially

m
85. (B) Wilhelm Johannsen was Danish in their survival. Digestive enzymes are
botanist, plant physiologist and diverse and are found in the Saliva
geneticist. His most well-known secreted by the salivary glands, in the

a
research concerned so-called pure lines pancreatic juice secreted by pancreatic
of the self-fertile common bean. He was exocrine cells, and in the intestinal
able to show that even in populations (small and large) secretions, or as part

C
homozygous for all traits, i.e. without of the lining of the gastrointestinal tract.
genetic variation, seed size followed a 90. (D) Silviculture is the practice of controlling
normal distribution. This attributable to the establishment, growth, composition,
resource provision to the mother plant health, and quality of forests to meet
and to the position of seeds in pods and diverse needs and values. The name
of pods on the plant. This led him coin comes from the Latin silvi-(forest) +

D
the terms phenotype and genotype and culture (as in growing). The study of
first used in his paper Om arveligheds forests and woods is termed silvology.
learns Elementer. This book was Forest regeneration is the act of
rewritten, enlarged and translated to renewing tree cover by establishing

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German as Elemente der exakten young trees naturally or artificially,
Eribichkeitslere. It was in this book generally promptly after the previous
Johannsen introduced the term gene. stand or forest has been removed.
This term was coined in opposition to 91. (B) Genetically, modified food (GM foods) are
the then common pangene that foods derived from genetically modified
stemmed from Darwin's theory of organisms (GMOs), such as genetically
pangenesis. modified crops or genetically modified
86. (B) Snakes have the maximum number of fish. GMOs have had specific changes
ribs. On an average they have 200 to 400 introduced into their DNA by genetic
bones (Vertibrae) and each have a pair engineering techniques. These
of ribs on either side. techniques are much more precise
87. (A) Protein is a vital part of a healthy diet than mutagenesis (mutation breeding)
for children. This substance, though where an organism is exposed to
important for all people, is especially radiation or chemicals to create a non-
necessary for developing and growing specific but stable change. Other
bodies. Protein is used as a source of techniques by which humans modify
energy, especially when carbohydrates food organisms include selective
and fats are at insufficient levels in the breeding: plant breeding, and animal
diet. In addition, a child needs adequate breeding, and animal breeding, and
protein to support the body's production somaclonal variation.
of its own proteins. The manufactured 92. (C) The spiny dogfish shark (Squalus
proteins are used in strength acanthias) is the most common shark

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and travels in schools. They are called Ronald Ross in 1897 that female
dogfish because they travel and hunt in Anopheles mosquitoes transmit
packs. They also migrate in schools, malaria between humans and that laid
following cool waters. The spiny dogfish foundations for scientists across the
shark is found worldwide in temperate world to better understand the deadly
and subarctic waters, in the temperate role of mosquit oes in disease
and subarctic latitudes of the North
transmission and come up with
Atlantic and North pacific oceans. these
effective innovative interventions.
sharks have even been found in the
Black sea and Mediterranean sea. 98. (A) Carolina Marin, a badminton player
93. (B) Kamal Haasan, the well-known film from Spain, has won womens
badminton singles gold medal at the

s
actor, has been chosen for the coveted
French honour of Chevalier de LOrdre 2016 Rio Olympics by defeating P V
Arts et Lettres (or The Knight of the Sindhu in final by 19-21, 21-12 and 21-
15. Though, P V Sindhu has created

u
Order of Arts and Letters). The Order is
part of Frances premier award. He will history by becoming first Indian female
be the 2nd Tamil actor after thespian shuttler to grab Olympic silver in
Womens Singles Badminton in 2016

p
Sivaji Ganesan to be honoured with the
French award. Olympics. With this, Sindhu has also
94. (C) The well-known scientist P D Gupta has became the 2nd Indian female shuttler
been appointed as the new Vice to win an Olympic medal after Saina
Chancellor of Mumbai-based Homi Nehwals Bronze medal at 2012 London

m
Bhabha National Institute (HBNI) for 5 Olympics.
years. The HBNI is an aided institution 99. (C) The 2016 Youth Voters Festival will be
of the Department of Atomic Energy and held in Nagaland from September 5 to

a
is a deemed to be university under the 9, 2016. The 5-day festival will be held
UGC Act. The institute is dedicated to under the directives of the Election
encourage pursuit of excellence in Commission of India (ECI). The purpose

C
sciences (including engineer ing of the festival is t o increase the
sciences) and mathematics in a electoral participation through voter
manner that has major significance for registration and turnout to increase the
the progress of indigenous nuclear qualitative participation in terms of
technological capability. ethical and informed voting and to
provide a continuous electoral and

D
95. (B) Urjit Patel, the well-known economist
and banker, has been appointed as the democracy education to the people.
new Governor of the Reserve Bank of 100. (B) The World Humanitarian Day (WHD) is
India (RBI ). He will succeed Dr. observed every year on August 19 to

K
Raghuram Rajan on September 4, 2016. recognize the aid workers who risk
Currently, he is the deputy Governor of their lives in humanitarian service and
RBI. mobilizes people to advocate for
96. (A) Subrata Banerjee (71), the former humanitarian action. The 2016 theme
international umpire, has recently is One Humanity to stress on the
passed away in Kolkata, West Bengal. worth of shared human experiences that
His international career lasted for 15 bind people together across divides and
years, with the match between India create a common responsibility to
and Kenya in Gwalior in May 1998 demand action for the most vulnerable
marking his final international at risk of being left behind. Beside this,
appearance. He also worked as an the 2016 WHD digital campaign The
umpire coach for the BCCI in addition World Youd Rather has also launched
to serving as an umpires educator. to bring into light the very real scenarios
97. (C) The World Mosquito Day is observed faced by people in crisis.
every year on August 20 to raise
awareness about the causes of malaria
and how it can be prevented and also to
fundraise for research into the cure of
malaria. The day also marks the
historic discovery by British doctor Sir

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GS SPECIAL MOCK TEST -26


1. The Narasimham Committee (1991) on 1. fokh; lqkkjksa ij ujflEge lfefr (1991) us LFkkfir djus
financial reforms proposed for dk lq>ko fn;k Fkk\
establishment of a :
(A) cSafdax lajpuk dk pkj Lrjh; vfke
(A) Four tier hierarchy of the Banking
structure (B) cSaafdax lajpuk dk rhu Lrjh; vfke
(B) Three tier hierarchy of the Banking (C) cSafdax lajpuk dk nks Lrjh; vfke
structure
(D) 'kh"kZ laLFkkvksa }kjk ,dhr fu;a=k.k
(C) Two tier hierarchy of the Banking
structure 2. miknku ykxr ij ldy ?kjsyw mRikn
(GDP) gksrk gS
(D) Unified control by the apex institutions (A) GDP esa ls vizR;{k&dj ?kVkdj vkSj benkn
2. GDP of Factor Cost is. (subsidies) tksM+dj
(A) GDP minus indirect taxes plus subsidies
(B) GDP esa ls ewY;l Hkks tksM+dj
(B) GDP minus depreciation allowances
(C) NNP plus depreciation allowances (C) NNP esa ls ewY;l Hkks tksM+dj
(D) GDP minus subsidies plus indirect taxes. (D) GDP esa ls benkn ?kVkdj vkSj vizR;{k dj tksM+dj
3. FERA in India has been replaced by : 3. Hkkjr esa
FERA dk LFkku ys fy;k gS\
(A) FEPA (B) PEMA
(A) FEPA us (B) FEMA us
(C) FENA (D) FETA
4. NREGP is the abbreviated form of (C) FENA us (D) FETA us
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee 4. NREGP fdldk laf{kIr :i gS\
Programme
(A) us'kuy :jy ,EIykW;esaV xkjaVh izksxzke
(B) National Rural Educational Guarantee
Programme (B) us'kuy :jy ,tqds'kuy xkkjaVh izksxzke
(C) National Rapid Educational Guarantee (C) us'kuy jSfiM ,tqds'kuy xkjaVh izksxzke
Programme (D) us'kuy jsSfiM ,EIykW;esaV tujs'ku izksxzke
(D) National Rapid Employment Guarantee
Programme
5. Hkkjr dks fefJr vFkZO;oLFkk fdlds vfLrRo ds dkj.k dgk
5. India is called a mixed economy because of tkrk gS\
the existence of a. lkoZtfud {ks=k b. futh {ks=k
(a) Public Sector c. la;qDr {ks=k d. lgdkjh {ks=k
(b) Private Sector
(A) a, d (B) a, b
(c) Joint Sector
(C) c, d (D) b, d
(d) Cooperative Sector
(A) a, d (B) a, b 6. Hkkjr dh orZeku eqnzk iz.kkyh vkkkfjr gSA
(C) c, d (D) b, d (A) Lo.kZ fjtoZ iz.kkyh ij
6. The present Indian monetary system is (B) vuqikrh fjtoZ iz.kkyh ij
based on
(A) Gold Reserve System (C) ifjorZuh; djsUlh iz.kkyh ij
(B) Proportional Reserve System (D) U;wure fjtoZ iz.kkyh ij
(C) Convertible Currency System 7. ldy ?kjsyw mRikn ewY;?gksrk gS
(D) Minimum Reserve System
(A) ,d o"kZ esa fdlh vFkZO;oLFkk esa mRikfnr lHkh oLrqvksa
7. Gross Domestic Product is defined as the
value of all : dk
(A) goods produced in an economy in a year (B) ,d o"kZ esa fdlh vFkZO;oLFkk esa mRikfnr lHkh oLrqvksa
(B) goods and services produced in an vkSj lsokvksa dk
economy in a year
(C) ,d o"kZ esa fdlh vFkZO;oLFkk esa mRikfnr lHkh vfUre
(C) final goods produced in an economy in a
year
oLrqvksa dk
(D) final goods and services produced in an (D) ,d o"kZ esa fdlh vFkZO;oLFkk esa mRikfnr lHkh vfUre
economy in a year oLrqvksa vkSj lsokvksa dk
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8. The Draft of the Five Year Plans in India is 8. Hkkjrh; iapo"khZ; ;kstukvksa ds izk:i dk vuqeksnu fd;k
approved by the : tkrk gS
(A) National Development Council
(B) Planning Commission (A) jk"Vh; fodkl ifj"kn~ }kjk
(C) National Productivity Council (B) ;kstuk vk;ksx }kjk
(D) Ministry of Finance (C) jk"Vh; mRikndrk ifj"kn~ }kjk
9. Which of the biggest tax paying sector in
India? (D) fok ea=kky; }kjk
(A) Agriculture sector 9. Hkkjr esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk {ks=k lcls vfkd dj dk
(B) Industrial sector Hkqxrku djrk gS\
(C) Transport sector
(A) f"k {ks=k (B) vkS|ksfxd {ks=k
(D) Banking sector
10. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised (C) ifjogu {ks=k (D) cSfdax {ks=k
in the year : 10. Hkkjrh; fjtoZ cSad dk jk"Vh;dj.k fdl o"kZ gqvk Fkk\
(A) 1935 (B) 1969 (A) 1935 (B) 1969
(C) 1949 (D) 1980 (C) 1949 (D) 1980
11. The abbreviation SEBT stands for 11. SEBI dk iwjk :i gS%
(A) Savings and Exchange Bank of India (A) lsfoaXl ,saM ,Dlpsat cSad vkWiQ bafM;k
(B) Securities and Exchange Bank of India
(C) Survey of essential business in India (B) lsD;wfjVht ,saM ,Dlpsat cSad vkWiQ bafM;k
(D) Securities and Exchange Board of India (C) losZ vkWiQ blsU'ky fctusl bu bafM;k
12. Insurance sector in India is regulated by (D) lsD;wfjVht ,saM ,Dlpsat cksMZ vkWiQ bafM;k
(A) RBI (B) CII
12. Hkkjr esa chek {ks=k fu;af=kr fd;k tkrk gS%
(C) IRDA (D) SEBI
13. The objective of Jawahar Rojgar Yojana is (A) RBI }kjk (B) CII }kjk
is to (C) IRDA }kjk (D) SEBI }kjk
(A) Provide employment to youth in rural 13. ^tokgj jkstxkj ;kstuk* dk ms'; gS
areas
(B) create employment opportunities for (A) xzkeh.k {ks=kksa esa ;qokvksa dks jkstxkj miyCk djkuk
unemployed persons (B) csjkstxkj O;fDr;ksa ds fy, jkstxkj ds volj iSnk djuk
(C) strengthen the rural economic and
(C) xzkeh.k vkFkd vkSj lkekftd lajpuk dks lqn`<+ djuk
social structure
(D) All of the above (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
14. Which of the following sectors contributed 14. Hkkjro"kZ esa fuEufyf[kr lsDVjksa esa ls fdlds }kjk vfkd
more to the savings in India? cpr dh tkrh gS\
(A) Public sector
(B) Household sector (A) lkoZtfud {ks=k (B) ikfjokfjd {ks=k
(C) Corporate sector (C) dEiuh {ks=k (D) futh {ks=k
(D) Private sector
15. The highest foreign exchanged earners 15. fdlds fu;kZr }kjk lokZfkd fons'kh eqnzk vtr? dh tkrh gS
have been the export of : (A) bathfu;jh eky (B) jRu o vkHkw"k.k
(A) engineering goods (C) [kfut inkFkZ (D) pk;
(B) gems and jewellery
(C) minerals 16. Hkkjr ds futh {ks=k esa lcls cM+h fo|qr ifj;kstuk dgka fLFkr
(D) tea gS
?
16. Where is the biggest private sector power (A) jktkeqUnzh (vka/z izns'k)
project in India located?
(A) Rajahmundry in Andhra Pradesh (B) uSosyh (rfeyukMq)
(B) Neyvell in Tamil Nadu (C) dksjck (e; izns'k)
(C) Korba in Madhya Pradesh
(D) nkHkksy (egkjk"V)
(D) Dabhol in Maharashtra
17. What is the Gram Samridhi Yojana in 17. buesa ls fdlds cnys esa ^xzke Le`f ;kstuk* pykbZ xbZ gS\
replacment of : (A) bfUnjk vkokl ;kstuk
(A) Indra Awas Yojana (B) tokgj jkstxkj ;kstuk
(B) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
(C) izkkuea=kh dh jkstxkj ;kstuk
(C) Prime Minister's Employment Scheme.
(D) I. R. D.P (D) vkbZ-vkj-Mh-ih-

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18. The concept that under a system of free 18. eqDr m|e ifr ds varxZr miHkksDrk gh r; djrs gSa fd
enterprise, it is consumers who decide what fdu inkFkksZa rFkk lsokvksa dk mRiknu fd;k tk,xk vkSj fdl
goods and services shall be produced and in
ek=kk esa] bl ladYiuk dks dgrs gSa&
what quantities is known as :
(A) Consumer Protection (A) miHkksDrk laj{k.k (B) miHkksDrk dk fu.kZ;
(B) Consumer's Decision (C) miHkksDrk dk vfkeku
(D) miHkksDrk izHkqRo
(C) Consumer Preference 19. leqnzh ty] LoPN ok;q vkfn dh vFkZ'kkL=k esa ekuk tkrk gS&
(D) Consumer's Sovereignty (A) fxiQu oLrq,a
19. Seawater, fresh air, etc, are regarded in
(B) ?kfV;k oLrq,a
Economics as :
(A) Giffen goods (B) inferior goods (C) uSlxd(Free) oLrq,a
(C) free goods (D) normal goods (D) lkekU; oLrq,a
20. In the price of tea falls, demand for coffee 20. ;fn pk; dk nke de gks tk,] rks dkWiQh dh ekax &
will : (A) c<+sxh (B) ?kVsxh
(A) Increase (B) decrease (C) mruh gh jgsxh (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) remain same (D) None of these
21. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh en Je vkiwr dk fukkZj.k ugha
21. Which of the following does not determine
supply of labour? djrh gS?
(A) size and age-structure of population (A) tula[;k dk vkdkj ,oa vk;q lajpuk
(B) Nature of work (B) dk;Z dk Lo:i
(C) Marginal productivity of labour (C) Je dh lhekar mRikndrk
(D) Work-leisure ratio
(D) dk;Z&iqQjlr (vodk'k) vuqikr
22. Capital formation in an economy depends
on
22. fdlh vFkZO;oLFkk esa iwth fuekZ.k fuHkZj djrk gS\
(A) Total Income (B) Total demand (A) dqy vk; ij (B) dqy ekx ij
(C) Total savings (D) Total production (C) dqy cpr ij (D) dqy mRiknu ij
23. If the tax rate in increases with the higher 23. ;fn vk; ds mPp Lrj ij dj dh nj c<+ tk, rks bls dgk
level of income, it shall be called
tk,xk %
(A) Proportional tax
(A) lekuqikfrd dj (B) vkjksgh dj
(B) Progressive tax
(C) Lump sum tax (C) ,dlq'r dj (D) vojksgh dj
(D) Regressive tax 24. ewy ykxr fdlds cjkcj gksrh gS\
24. Prime cost is equal to (A) ifjorhZ ykxr esa iz'kklfud ykxr dk ;ksx
(A) Variable cost plus administrative cost (B) ifjorhZ ykxr esa fu;r ykxr dk ;ksx
(B) Variable cost plus fixed costs
(C) ifjorhZ ykxr ek=k
(C) Variable cost only
(D) Fixed cost only (D) fu;r ykxr ek=k
25. New capital issue is placed in 25. u;k iwth fuxZe j[kk tkrk gS
(A) Secondary market (A) f}rh;d cktkj esa
(B) Grey market (B) vyH; oLrq cktkj esa
(C) Primary market
(C) izkFkfed cktkj esa
(D) Black market
26. Bank deposits that can be withdraw without (D) dkyk cktkj esa
notice are called 26. tks [kpkZ dj fn;k x;k gks vkSj olwy u gks lds] mls dgrs
(A) account without notice are called gSa
(B) fixed deposits (A) vknkrk [kkrk fu{ksi(B) lkofk fu{ksi
(C) variable deposits
(C) ifjorhZ fu{ksi (D) ekx fu{ksi
(D) demand deposits
27. An expenditure that has been made and 27. tks [kpkZ dj fn;k x;k gks vkSj olwy u gks lds] mls dgrs
cannot be recovered is called gSa
(A) Variable cost (B) Opportunity cost (A) ifjorhZ ykxr (B) fodYi ykxr
(C) Sunk Cost (D) Operational cost (C) fueXu ykxr (D) izpkyfud ykxr
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28. In which of the following cases, kinetic 28. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ekeys esa xfrt tkZ dk iz;ksx dke
energy is being used in performing work? djus ds fy, fd;k tk jgk gS\
(A) Paddling the bicycle to cover a distance (A) dqN nwjh r; djus ds fy, lkbfdy ds iSMy pykuk
(B) Driving a car to cover a distance (B) dqN nwjh r; djus ds fy, dkj pykuk
(C) Wind mill grinding wheat grain (C) iou pDdh }kjk xsgw ds nkus ihluk
(D) Rowing a boat in the lake (D) >hy esa ukSdk pykuk
29. A passenger standing in a bus is thrown 29. tc cl lglk eqM+rh gS rc cl esa [kM+k ;k=kh ckgj dh vksj
outward when the bus taken a sudden turn. fxjrk gSA bldk dkj.k gS %
This happens due to
(A) ml ckgj dh vksj d"kZ.k
(A) Outward pull on him
(B) Inertia of motion (B) xfr dk tM+Ro
(C) Change in momentum (C) laosx esa ifjorZu
(D) Change in acceleration (D) Roj.k esa ifjorZu
30. When pressure is increased the melting 30. nkc c<+kus ls ciQZ dk xyukad %
point of ice (A) c<+rk gS
(A) increases (B) vifjor jgrk gS
(B) does not change
(C) ?kVrk gS
(C) decrease
(D) depends on the impurities in the ice (D) ciQZ esa v'kqrkvksa ij fuHkZj djrk gSA
31. Longitudinal waves cannot travel through 31. vuqnS?;Z rjaxs fdlesa ls ugha xqtj ldrha\
(A) Vacuum (B) Solid (A) fuokZr (B) Bksl
(C) Liquid (D) Gas (C) nzo (D) xSl
32. Electrostatic precipitator is used to control 32. fL