NEET (UG) 2017

Paper Solution
 NEET(UG) - 2017

NEET (UG) - 2017

Time: 3hrs Total Marks: 720

PHYSICS

Q.1 A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2 : 3 . They are connected in series and the new force
constant is k ' . Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k " . Then k ': k " is : -
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 1 : 11
(3) 1 : 14 (4) 1 : 16
Sol: (2)
Ratio of lengths of the spring segments 1 : 2 : 3 1: 2:3
1 x, 2 2x, 3 3x
1
As we know k . i
So in parallel combination
k '' k1 k 2 k 3
1 1 1
k '' fro i
1 2 3

1 1 1 11
k '' . ii
x 2x 3x 6x
In series combination
1 1 1 1

k ' k1 k 2 k 3
Using (i),
1
1 2 3 6x
k'
1
k' iii
6x
Dividing (iii) by (ii),
k ' 1 6x 1

k '' 6x 11 11
Thus k ': k " 1:11.

Q.2 The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelengths 1 4000 and 2 6000 is:
(1) 9 : 4 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 16 : 81 (4) 8 : 27
Sol: (2)
1
Resolving power

o
RP1 2 6000 A 3
o
RP2 1 4000 A 2

Q.3 The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and
260 Hz . What is the fundamental frequency of the system?
(1) 20 Hz (2) 30 Hz
(3) 40 Hz (4) 10 Hz
Sol: (1)
v
Fundamental frequency of open closed pipe f ?
4
Frequency of n th harmonic is given as
v
fn nf n where n 1,3,5,.....
4
Difference between any two consecutive frequencies of

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v 2v
f3 f1 (3 1) 260 220 40 Hz
4 4
v
20 Hz
4
So fundamental frequency 20 Hz

Q.4 Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from a height of 1 km . It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m / s .
Take ' g ' constant with a value 10 m / s 2 . The work done by the (i) gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air is :-
(1) (i) 1.25 J (ii) 8.25 J
(2) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J
(3) (i) 10 J (ii) 8.75 J
(4) (i) 10 J (ii) 8.25 J
Sol: (3)
Given: m 1g 103 kg, h 1km 1000 m, v 50 m / s
Work done by the gravity (Wg ) mgh
Wg 103 10 103 10 J
1
By work-energy theorem, Wg Wres KE mv 2
2
1
10 Wres 10 3 (50) 2
2
Wres 8.75 J

e2
Q.5 A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and is [ c is velocity of light, G
4 0
is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge] :-
1/2 1/2 1/2
e2 1 e2 1 e2 1 e2
(1) c2 G (2) (3) G (4) 2
G
4 0 c 2 G 4 0 c 4 0 c 4 0
Sol: (4)
c
e2
[L] [c]a [G ]b
4 0
[L] [LT1]a[M1L3T2 ]b[ML3T2 ]c
[L] [La3b3cMbcTa2b2c ]
On comparison of powers,
a 3b 3c 1
b c 0
a 2b 2c 0
On solving,
1 1
a 2, b ,c
2 2
1
1 e2 2
L 2 G
c 4 0

Q.6 Two rods A and B of different materials are welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal conductivities are K1
and K 2 . The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be :-

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3 K1 K 2 K 1 K2
(1) (2) K1 K2 (3) 2 K1 K 2 (4)
2 2
Sol : (4)
Thermal resistance is given as
d
R . i
KA
1 1 1
In parallel
R e q R1 R 2
K eq (2A) K 1A K 2 A
fro i
d d d
K1 K 2
K eq
2

Q.7 A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor
is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system :-
(1) Decreases by a factor of 2
(2) Remains the same
(3) Increases by a factor of 2
(4) Increases by a factor of 4
Sol: (1)
Energy stored in capacitor is given as
1
U CV 2
2
1
Initially, U i CV 2
2
After connecting identical capacitor in parallel, equivalent capacitance will be
Ceq C C 2C
Q
Q CV V
C
Q V
Charge remains same, Vf
2C 2
2

Finally, U f Ceq Vf2 [2C] U i

1 1 V 1
2 2 2 2
Thus the total electrostatic energy of resulting system will decrease by a factor of 2 .

Q.8 In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3V . The resistance of collector
is 3 k . If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 k , the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is :-
(1) 15 and 200 (2) 150 and 15000
(3) 20 and 2000 (4) 200 and 1000
Sol: (2)
Given: RC 3k, 100, RB 2k, VC 3V
RC 3k
Voltage gain, A v 100 150
RB 2k
Power gain Av 100 150 15000

Q.9 Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram:

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Match the following:

Column 1 Column 2
P. Process I a. Adiabatic
Q. Process II b. Isobaric
R. Process III c. Isochoric
S. Process IV d. Isothermal

(1) P c, Q a, R d, S b
(2) P c, Q d, R b, S a
(3) P d, Q b, R a, S c
(4) P a, Q c, R d, S b
Sol: (1)
Process (1) volume constant Isochoric
Process (2) adiabatic
Process (3) Temperature constant Isothermal
Process (4) Pressure constant isobaric

Q.10 Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is e , the other is (e e) . If the net of
electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic
size) apart is zero, then e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen mh 1.67 1027 kg ]
(1) 1023 C (2) 1037 C (3) 1047 C (4) 1020 C
Sol: (2)
K (e)2 Gm 2
2
d2 d
G 6.67 1011
e m 1.67 1027 C
K 9 109
e 1.436 1037 C

Q.11 The resistance of a wire is ' R ' ohm. If it is melted and stretched to ' n ' times its original length, its new resistance
will be :-
R R
(1) (2) n 2 R (3) (4) nR
n n2
Sol: (2)
Resistance of wire is
2
R
A volume
R 2
2
R2
2

R1 1
2
R n
2 1 ( R1 R given)
R 1
R 2 n2R

Q.12 The given electrical network is equivalent to:

(1) OR gate (2) NOR gate (3) NOT gate (4) AND gate

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Sol: (2)

y1 A B
y 2 y1 y1 y1 A B A B
y y2 A B
NOR GATE

Q.13 The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T
(Kelvin) and mass m , is :-
h 2h 2h h
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3mkT 3mkT mkT mkT
Sol: (1)
Kinetic energy of thermal neutron with equilibrium is
3
K .E. KT . i
2
In general kinetic energy is given as
1
K.E. mv 2
2
m2 v 2
K.E.
2m
2mK.E p2
p 2mK.E .. ii
De-Broglie wavelength is given as
h h
.fro ii
p 2m K.E
h
.fro i
3
2m KT
2
h

3 mKT

Q.14 Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Sol: (4)

In forward bias V1 V2

only

is in forward bias

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Q.15 A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 104 turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and
radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate
to 0A from 4A in 0.05 s . If the resistance of the coil is 10 2 . The total charge flowing through the coil during this time
is:-
(1) 16C (2) 32C (3) 16C (4) 32C
Sol: (2)
Given: n 2 104 , N 100, r 0.01 m, i1 0A, i 2 4 A, dt 0.05, R 10 2
d
By Faraday law of electromagnetism, i
dt
By Oh s la , IR
dq

R dt
d dq

Rdt dt
d
q .. ii
R
Magnetic flux is given as
d NAdB NA(B 2 B1 )
d Nr 20n(i 2 i1 ) ( B 0ni)
Substituting this in equation (ii), we get,
1
q 0nNr 2 (i 2 i1 )
R
1
q 4 10 7 2 10 4 100 (10 2 ) 2 (4 0)
10 2
q 32C

Q.16 Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary
escalator in time t1 . On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in
time t 2 . The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be
t1t 2 t1t 2 t1 t 2
(1) (2) (3) t1 t 2 (4)
t 2 t1 t 2 t1 2
Sol: (2)
v1 velocity of Preeti
v 2 Velocity of escalator
length of escalator
As Preeti walks up the stationary escalator in time t1
velocity time v1t1 . i
Escalator moves a distance in time t 2

v2 ii
t2
Whe alki g up the o i g escalator, perso s elocity v1 v2
Time taken is
t1t 2
t
v1 v 2 t1 t 2
t1 t2

Q.17 Young's double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright
fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly:-
(1) 1.59 (2) 1.69 (3) 1.78 (4) 1.25
Sol: (3)

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mD
For bright fringe, y m m
d
(2n 1) D
For dark fringe, y n
2d
(y8 )Bright , medium (y5 )Dark , air
8 m D 2(5) 1 D

d 2 d
8 D 9 D
m
d 2 d
16
1.78
9

Q.18 A beam of light from a source L is incident normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from the source.
The beam is reflected back as a spot on a scale placed just above the source I . When the mirror is rotated through a small
angle , the spot of the light is found to move through a distance y on the scale. The angle is given by:-
y x x y
(1) (2) (3) (4)
x 2y y 2x
Sol: (4)
On keeping the incident ray fixed, if the mirror is turned through an angle , then the reflected ray turns by an angle 2
from its initial path.

y
tan 2
x
y
2
x
y

2x

Q.19 If 1 and 2 be the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other, then the true
angle of dip is given by :-
(1) tan2 tan21 tan22
(2) cot 2 cot 21 cot 22
(3) tan2 tan21 tan22
(4) cot 2 cot 21 cot 22
Sol: (4)
At angle from magnetic meridian ,
tan tan
tan 1 cos
cos tan 1
For other plane,
tan tan tan
tan 2 sin
cos (90 ) sin tan 2
sin 2 cos2 1
tan 2 tan 2
1
tan 2 2 tan 2 1
1 1 1

tan 2 tan 1 tan 2
2 2

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cot 2 2 cot 2 1 cot 2

Q.20 Tow cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m / s and 16.5 m / s respectively. The
driver of the first car blows a horn having a a frequency 400 Hz . The frequency heard
by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m / s ] :-
(1) 361 Hz (2) 411 Hz
(3) 448 Hz (4) 350 Hz
Sol: (3)

As we know for given condition,

v v observer 340 16.5
fapp f 0 400
v v source 340 22
fapp 448 Hz

Q.21 Two blocks A and B of masses 3 m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The
whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B
immediately after the string is cut, are respectively :-

g g g g
(1) ,g (2) g, g (3) , (4) g ,
3 3 3 3
Sol: (1)
Before cutting the strip:-

The force on the spring pulling up is 4mg

After cutting the strip:-

Net force on block A is FA 4mg 3mg mg

Magnitude of acceleration of block A is
FA g
aA
3m 3
Magnitude of acceleration of block B is
mg
aB g
m

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Q.22 A thin prism having refracting angle 10 is made of glass of refractive index 1.42 . This prism is combined with
another thin prism of glass of refractive index 1.7 . This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting
angle of second prism should be :-
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 4
Sol: (1)
For dispersion without deviation
1 2
A1(1 1) A2 (2 1)
10(1.42 1) A2 (1.7 1)
A 2 6o

Q.23 The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the earth is the same as at a depth d below the surface of
earth. Then :-
3 1
(1) d 1 km (2) d km (3) d 2 km (4) d km
2 2
Sol: (3)
2h d
gh g 1 , gd g 1
R R
g h gd
2h d
g 1 g 1
R R
d 2h 2 km

Q.24 A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F. because the method
involves :-
(1) Potential gradients
(2) A condition of no current flow through the galvanometer
(3) A combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances
(4) Cells
Sol: (2)
In zero deflection condition, potentiometer draws no current.

Q.25 A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt power at 500 K . If the radius were halved and the
temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be :-
(1) 450 (2) 1000
(3) 1800 (4) 225
Sol: (3)
r1
Given: r1 12 cm, P1 450 watt, T1 500 K , r2 , T2 2T1 , P1 ?
2
By Stefa s la ,
P r 2T4
2 4
P r T
1 1 1
P2 r2 T2
P2 1800 watt

Q.26 Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance R 9.0 each, two
identical inductors with inductance L 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf 18 V . The
current ' i ' through the battery just after the switch closed is,...... :-

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(1) 0.2 A (2) 2 A (3) 0 ampere (4) 2 mA

Sol: (Bonus)
When battery is switched off, capacitor is shorted and inductor is act as open switch.
At t 0

18
i1 2A
R 9
Current through the battery is
i 2i1 2 2 4A (Bonus)
OR
According to question language :
Capacitor is not mentioned so i 2 A

Q.27 Radioactive material ' A ' has decay constant '8 ' and material ' B ' has decay constant ' ' . Initially they have same
1
number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of material ' B ' to that ' A ' will be ?
e
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
7 8 9
Sol: (1)
A 8, B
N(t ) N0et
NA
NB (given)
e
8 t
N 0e
N 0et
e
t 8t 1
7t 1
1
t
7
1
Best answer is t
7

Q.28 The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials:-

A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram.

(1) In all the four cases the work done is the same
(2) Minimum work is required to move q in figure (a)
(3) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (b)
(4) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (c)
Sol: (1)

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W qV
As V is same in all conditions, work will be same.
Q.29 Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship.
The two will :-
(1) Move towards each other.
(2) Move away from each other.
(3) Will become stationary
(4) Keep floating at the same distance between them.
Sol: (1)
Astronauts move towards each other under mutual gravitational force.

Q.30 The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x 5t 2 2t 2 and y 10t respectively, where x and y are
in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t 2s is :-
(1) 5 m / s2 (2) 4 m / s2 (3) 8 m / s2 (4) 0
Sol: (2)
Given: x 5t 2 2t 2 and y 10t
dx dy
vx 5 4t , v y 10
dt dt
dv dv y
ax x 4, ay 0
dt dt
Acceleration is given as
a axi ay j
a 4i m / s 2

Q.31 One end of string of length l is connected to a particle of mass ' m ' and the other end is connected
to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed ' v ' the net force on the particle
(directed towards centre) will be
( T represents the tension in the string):-
mv 2 mv 2
(1) T (2) T (3) Zero (4) T
l l
Sol: (4)
Net force on the particle in uniform circular motion is centripetal force, which is provided by the tension in string.
mv 2
i.e. T F
l

Q.32 A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with amplitude of 3 cm . When the particle is at
2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its time period in
seconds is :-
5 4 2 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 5 3
Sol: (2)
Amplitude A 3 cm
When particle is at x 2 cm
Its |velocity| = |acceleration|
i.e., A2 x2 2x
A2 x2 9 4 5

x 2 2
Time period is given as
2 2 4
T 2
5 5

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Q.33 Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I 0 is incident on P1
. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45 with that of P1 . The intensity of
transmitted light through P2 is :-
I0 I0 I0 I0
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 16 2
Sol: (2)

I0
I1 I 0 cos 2 450
2
I0 I
I 2 cos 2 45o 0
2 4
I0 I
I 3 cos 2 45o 0
4 8

Q.34 The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ' B ' . If it is subjected to uniform pressure ' p ' , the fractional decrease in
radius is :-
B 3p p p
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3p B 3B B
Sol: (3)
Bulk modulus is given as
P V 3R
B and
V V R

V
P
B
3R
R
R P
( P P )
R 3B

Q.35 In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is Erms 6V / m . The peak
value of the magnetic field is :-
(1) 2.83 108 T (2) 0.70 108 T (3) 4.23 108 T (4) 1.41108 T
Sol: (1)
E0 cB0
E0
Erms
2
Erms 2 cB 0
Erms 2 6 2
B0 2.83 108 T
c 3 108

Q.36 A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm . What is the angular acceleration of the
cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N ?
(1) 0.25 rad / s 2 (2) 25 rad / s 2 (3) 5 m / s2 (4) 25 m / s 2

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Sol: (2)
Torque, I .. i
RF, I mR 2
So equation (i) becomes
RF mR 2

F 30
25 rad / s 2
mR 30 40
100

Q.37 Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through centre and perpendicular to
the plane of disc with angular velocities 1 and 2 . They are brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of
rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is:-
1 I 1
I 1 2 (2) I 1 2 I 1 2 I 1 2
2 2 2 2
(1) (3) (4)
4 8 2
Sol: (1)
Angular momrntum, L I
By conservation of angular momentum,
I1 I2 2I
1 2

2
1 2 1 2
(K .E.)1 I1 I 2
2 2
2
2
1
(K.E.)f 2 I 2 I 1
2 2
1
Loss in K.E. (K.E.)1 (K.E.)f I (1 2 ) 2
4

Q.38 The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250 1010 m . The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver
surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536 1010 m is :-
(Given h 4.14 1015 eVs and c 3 108 ms1 )
(1) 0.6 106 ms1 (2) 61103 ms1
(3) 0.3 106 ms1 (4) 6 105 ms1
Sol: (1 or 4)
o o
Given: 0 3250 A and 2536 A
Kinetic energy of photoelectron,
1
mv 2 h h 0
2
1 1 1
mv 2 hc
2 0
2hc 1 1
v
m 0

2 12400 1.6 1019 714

v 2536 3250
9.1 1031
v 0.6 106 m / s 6 105 m / s

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Q.39 A 250 -Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 A and subjected to
magnetic field of strength 0.85 T . Work done for rotating the coil by 180 against the torque is:-
(1) 4.55 J (2) 2.3 J
(3) 1.15 J (4) 9.1 J
Sol : (4)
Work MB[cos 1 cos 2 ]
Work MB[cos 0 cos 180o ]
W NiAB [1 (1)]
W 9.1 J

Q.40 The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is :-
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 0.5 (4) 2
Sol: (2)
For last line of Balmer : n1 2 & n2
1 1 1 1 1
RZ 2 2 2 RZ 2 2 2
B 1
n n 2 2
4
B i
RZ 2
For last line of Lyman series : n1 1 & n2
1 1 1 1 1
RZ 2 2 2 RZ 2 2 2
L 1
n n 2 1
1
L . ii
RZ 2
Dividing (i) by (ii),
4
B R
4
L 1

R

1
Q.41 A carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is
10
10 J , the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is :-
(1) 90 J (2) 99 J (3) 100 J (4) 1 J
Sol: (1)
W
Efficiency of heat engine is
Q1
10
0.1
Q1
10
Q1 100 J
0.1
Q1 Q 2 W
Q 2 Q1 W 100 10 90 J

Q.42 A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O 2 and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T . Neglecting all vibrational modes, the
total internal energy of the system is :-
(1) 15 RT (2) 9 RT (3) 11 RT (4) 4 RT
Sol: (3)
f
U nRT
2
5 3
U total (2)RT (4) RT
2 2

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Utotal 11RT
Q.43 An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same current 'I
along the same direction is shown in fig. Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire ' B ' is given by :-

2 0i 2 2 0i 2 0i 2 0i 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
d d 2 d 2 d
Sol: (3)
0i1i 2
F force per unit length
2 d
( i)i i 2
F1 0 0 F2
2d 2d

0i 2
Fnet F12 F22
2d

Q.44 A U- tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with water, is
poured into one side until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water
rises by 65 mm from its original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is :-

(1) 425kg m3 (2) 800 kg m3 (3) 928 kg m 3 (4) 650 kg m3

Sol: (3)
As water and oil are stationary, the pressure exerted by both columns in tube would be equal.
i.e. P(oil ) P( water )
0g 140 103 wg 130 103 (pressure is given as P gh )
130
0 103 928 kg / m 3
140

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Q.45 Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body
(b) Central of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body is zero
(c) A couple on a body produce both translational and rotation motion in a body
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a large load
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)
Sol: (4)
Centre of mass may lie on centre of gravity net torque of gravitational pull is zero about centre of mass.
Load
Mechanical advantage 1
Effort
Load Effort

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BIOLOGY

Q.46 Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes?
(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
Sol: (1)
Holoenzyme is a catalytically active enzyme consisting of an apoenzyme combined with its cofactor. Cofactors can be
inorganic ions or non-protein, organic molecules, known as coenzymes.
Hence, Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

Q.47 A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not cause the release of:
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor (2) Aldosterone
(3) ADH (4) Renin
Sol: (1)
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), exerts a vasodilator effect on the kidney and also reduces tubular reabsorption of sodium.
Both actions result in increased urinary elimination of salt and water and tend to restore atrial pressure toward the normal.
Hence, Its main function is to lower blood pressure and to control electrolyte homeostasis.
This shows it is involved in decreasing the blood pressure and hence is A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not cause the
release of Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).
It will be released when there is need of lowering blood pressure.

Q.48 Which cells of "Crypts of Lieberkuhn" secrete antibacterial lysozyme?

(1) Paneth cells (2) Zymogen cells (3) Kupffer cells (4) Argentaffin cells
Sol: (1)
Paneth cells are located at the base of crypts of Lieberkuhn.
Paneth cells produce large amounts of -defensins and other antimicrobial peptides, such as lysozymes and secretory
phospholipase A2 sPLA2 .
Hence, the correct choice is Paneth cells.

Q.49 Which of the following are not polymeric?

(1) Proteins (2) Polysaccharides (3) Lipids (4) Nucleic acids
Sol: (3)
Proteins are polymers of molecules called amino acids, some contain thousands.
Nucleic acids are polymers of individual nucleotide monomers.
Polysaccharides are formed by three or more monosaccharides.
Lipids are formed when a glycerol molecule combines with compounds called fatty acids, therefore they are not
polymers because they contain one molecule and are not macromolecules.

Q.50 Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into?

(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac (3) Embryo (4) Ovule
Sol: (2)
In most of the angiosperms, megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis and forms four haploid megaspores. Out of these 4
megaspores, 3 get degenerated (to provide more nourishment to the remaining one).
The remaining one is the Functional megaspore commonly present towards chalazal end.
This gives rise to female gametophyte or embryo sac on development.
Hence, the correct choice is embryo sac.

Q.51 Myelin sheath is produced by:

(1) Astrocytes and Schwann cells (2) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
(3) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes (4) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes
Sol: (4)
Myelin is made by two different types of support cells.
In the central nervous system CNS , the brain and spinal cord cells called oligodendrocytes wrap their branch-like

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extensions around axons to create a myelin sheath.

In the nerves outside of the spinal cord, Schwann cells produce myelin.
Hence, the correct choice is Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes.

Q.52 Attractants and rewards are required for:

(1) Entomophily (2) Hydrophily (3) Cleistogamy (4) Anemophily
Sol: (1)
In order to materialize and maximize pollination, flowers have developed a set of attributes which are aimed at attracting
the pollinators.
These floral attributes are called as attractants.
Rewards are the things for which that animal pollinators visit flowers, like Nectar, Pollen, Resin, Oils, etc.
Insect pollinated flowers requires attractants and rewards.
Pollination by insects is known as Entomophily.
Hence, the correct choice is Entomophily.

Q.53 Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on:

(1) Pre-synaptic membrane (2) Tips of axons
(3) Post-synaptic membrane (4) Membrane of synaptic vesicles
Sol: (3)
Information from one neuron flows to another neuron across a synapse.
The synapse contains a small gap separating neurons.
The synapse consists of:
1. a presynaptic ending, that contains neurotransmitters, mitochondria and other cell organelles
2. a postsynaptic ending, that contains receptor sites for neurotransmitters
3. a synaptic cleft or space between the presynaptic and postsynaptic endings.
Hence, the correct choice is postsynaptic ending.

Q.54 Coconut fruit is a:

(1) Berry (2) Nut (3) Capsule (4) Drupe
Sol: (4)
A coconut is a fibrous one-seeded drupe, also known as a dry drupe.
Hence, the correct choice is drupe.

Q.55 Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this
feature?
(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport
(1) only (a) (2) (a), (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (c) (4) only (d)
Sol: (4)
Red blood cells are initially produced in the bone marrow with a nucleus. They then undergo a process known
as enucleation in which their nucleus is removed.
The absence of a nucleus is an adaptation of the red blood cell for its role.
It allows the red blood cell to contain more hemoglobin and, therefore, carry more oxygen molecules.
It also allows the cell to have its distinctive bi-concave shape which aids diffusion.
He e, the orre t hoi e is All their i ter al spa e is a aila le for o ge tra sport .

Q.56 Capacitation occurs in:

(1) Epididymis (2) Vas deferens
(3) Female reproductive tract (4) Rete testis
Sol: (3)
Capacitation is a functional maturation of the spermatozoan.
Sperm have to undergo capacitation in the female reproductive tract before they are able to fertilize the egg.
He e, the orre t hoi e is fe ale reprodu ti e tra t .

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Q.57 Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?

(1) Eubacteria (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Mycobacteria (4) Archaebacteria
Sol: (4)
Halophiles are extremophiles that thrive in environments with very high concentrations of salt.
The largest classification of halophiles is in the Archaea domain.
He e, the orre t hoi e is Ar hae a teria .

Q.58 Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when :

(1) K N (2) K N
(3) K N (4) The value of ' r ' approaches zero
Sol: (1)
A population growing in a habitat with limited resources shows logistic growth curve.
For logistic growth
dN K N dN K N
rN rN
dt K dt K
K N
If K N then 0
K
dN
the 0 ,
dt
The population reaches asymptote.
He e, the orre t hoi e K=N .

Q.59 Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents:
(1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
(3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows
(4) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population
Sol: (1)
Artificial Selection is a form of selection in which humans actively choose which traits should be passed onto offspring.
This selection leads to the offspring becoming more and more productive with each generation the character is pushed in
one direction.
For a quantitative character, the effects of directional selection show increased values of a trait.
Directional selection pushes the mean value of the character in one direction.
In stabilizing selection, the organisms with the mean value of the trait are selected. In disruptive selection, both extremes
get selected.
He e, the orre t hoi e Dire tio al as it pushes the ea of the hara ter i o e dire tio .

Q.60 Select the mismatch:

(1) Rhodospirillum Mycorrhiza (2) Anabaena - Nitrogen fixer
(3) Rhizobium Alfalfa (4) Frankia Alnus
Sol: (1)
Rhodospirillum is Free Living Nitrogen Fixing Bacteria whereas Mycorrhiza
is a mutually beneficial or symbiotic association of a fungus with the root of a higher plant.
The most common fungal partners of mycorrhiza are Glomus species.
Hence, the orre t hoi e for the i orre t pair is Rhodospirillu M orrhiza .

Q.61 Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food:

Select the best option from the following statements:
(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment
(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A
(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments
Options:
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (c) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)

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Sol: (1)
Common carotenoids found in foods are beta-carotene, alpha-carotene, lutein, zeaxanthin, lycopene, and cryptoxanthin.
Among these, beta-carotene is most efficiently converted to retinol.
Retinol is also called preformed vitamin A.
It can be converted to retinal and retinoic acid, other active forms of the vitamin A family.
Thus, Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A
Photopigments are unstable pigments that undergo a chemical change when they absorb light. Retinal is the light-absorbing
portion of all the visual photopigments.
He e, the orre t hoi e is a , a d d .

Q.62 The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with:
(1) Acetocarmine (2) Aniline blue
(3) Ethidium bromide (4) Bromophenol blue
Sol: (3)
The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide
followed by exposure to UV radiation ( pure DNA fragments cannot be seen in the visible light without staining).
Hence, the correct choice is Ethidium bromide.

Q.63 The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from:

(1) Stomach (2) Kidneys (3) Intestine (4) Heart
Sol: (3)
The hepatic portal vein is one of the most important veins that receive blood from the body into the liver for filtration and
processing, and is part of the hepatic portal system that receives all of the blood draining from the abdominal digestive tract,
as well as from the pancreas, gallbladder, and spleen.
Hence, the correct choice is Intestine.

Q.64 The vascular cambium normally gives rise to:

(1) Primary phloem (2) Secondary xylem (3) Periderm (4) Phelloderm
Sol: (2)
The secondary growth starts when the vascular cambium cells starts dividing. This leads to the production of two cells.
Among which one can turn into either secondary phloem cell or secondary xylem cell.
The vascular cambium cell divides produces secondary phloem to outside of the dicot stem and secondary xylem inside.
Hence, the correct choice is secondary xylem.

Q.65 Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct
statement:
(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis
(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
(3) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules
(4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis
Sol: (2)
Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorder in which the body makes an abnormal form of hemoglobin.
Sickle cell anemia causes the body to produce abnormally shaped red blood cells.
In thalassemia, patients have defects in either the or globin chain, causing less or abnormal production of
hemoglobin.
Hence, the correct choice is Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules

Q.66 The genotypes of a husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi
Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(1) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(2) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes

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Sol: (2)
IA IB
IA IA IA Blood type A IA IB Blood type AB
i IA i Blood type A IB i Blood type B

Four genotype are obtained from the cross IA IB x Ia i

They are IA IA , IA IB . IA i,IB i .
The phenotype i.e., Blood type obtained are 3 i.e., A, AB & B .
Hence the correct choice is 4 phenotype & 3 phenotype.

Q.67 Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture?

(1) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
(2) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
(3) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
(4) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
Sol: (2)
Cell-wall properties of guard cells are crucial for stomatal action; the radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell
walls allows cell expansion in the correct direction and ensures stomatal opening.
Hence, the correct choice is Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells.

Q.68 In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of:

(1) Adventitious root (2) Stem (3) Leaf (4) Stipules
Sol: (2)
The thorn is a pointed, hard structure and is a modified stem in Bougainvillea.
Hence, the correct choice is stem.

Q.69 Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?
(1) Biodiversity hot spots (2) Amazon rainforest
(3) Himalayan region (4) Wildlife safari parks
Sol: (4)
Ex-situ conservation is the preservation of components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats.
In-situ conservation is on site conservation or the conservation of genetic resources in natural populations of plant or animal
species, such as forest genetic resources in natural populations of tree species.
Out of the given options wildlife safari park is example of ex-situ conservation whereas biodiversity hotspots, amazon
rainforests and Himalayan region are examples of in-situ conservation.
Hence, the correct choice is wildlife safari park.

Q.70 Root hairs develop from the region of:

(1) Elongation (2) root cap (3) Meristematic activity (4) Maturation
Sol: (4)
Root hairs are found only in the zone of maturation, and not the zone of elongation, possibly because any root
hairs that arise are sheared off as the root elongates and moves through the soil.
Hence, the correct choice is Maturation.

Q.71 A disease caused by an autosomal primary non- disjunction is:

(1) Klinefelter's Syndrome (2) Turner's Syndrome
(3) Sickel Cell Anemia (4) Down's Syndrome
Sol: (4)
Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosomes to disjoin, or separate, and move away to opposite poles. During reproduction,
if a zygote receives a third copy of a chromosome from the gamete, it becomes trisomic. This leads to autosomal
nondisjunction.
Down syndrome is usually caused by an error in cell division called "nondisjunction." Nondisjunction results in an embryo
with three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two. Prior to or at conception, a pair of 21st chromosomes in
either the sperm or the egg fails to separate. As the embryo develops, the extra chromosome is replicated in every cell of

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the body. This type of Down syndrome, which accounts for 95% of cases, is called Trisomy 21.
Hence, the correct choice is Down syndrome.

Q.72 The water potential of pure water is:

(1) Less than zero (2) More than zero but less than one
(3) More than one (4) Zero
Sol: (4)
Pure water has the maximum water potential which by definition is zero.
Hence, the correct choice is zero.

Q.73 Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis?
(1) Condensation nuclear membrane disassembly arrangement at equator centromere division segregation
telophase
(2) Condensation crossing over nuclear membrane disassembly segregation telophase
(3) Condensation arrangement at equator centromere division segregation telophase
(4) Condensation nuclear membrane disassembly crossing over segregation telophase
Sol: (1)
The correct sequence of events during mitosis would be as follows
(i) Condensation of DNA so that chromosomes become visible occurs during early to mid-prophase.
(ii) Nuclear membrane disassembly begins at late prophase or transition to metaphase.
(iii) Arrangement of chromosomes at equator occurs during metaphase, called congression.
(iv) Centromere division or splitting occurs during anaphase forming daughter chromosomes.
(v) Segregation also occurs during anaphase as daughter chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles.
(vi) Telophase leads to formation of two daughter nuclei.
Hence, the correct choice is Condensation nuclear membrane disassembly arrangement at equator
centromere division segregation telophase.

Q.74 The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called:
(1) Downstream processing (2) Bioprocessing
(3) Postproduction processing (4) Upstream processing
Sol: (1)
Biosynthetic stage for synthesis of product in recombinant DNA technology is called upstreaming process while after
completion of the biosynthetic stage, the product has to be subjected through a series of processes before it is ready for
marketing as a finished product. The processes include separation and purification, which are collectively referred to as
downstream processing.
Hence, the correct choice is downstream processing.

Q.75 A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is:

(1) Corpus cardiacum (2) corpus luteum
(3) Corpus allatum (4) Pineal gland
Sol: (2)
The human corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine gland that develops after ovulation from the ruptured follicle during
the luteal phase. It is an important contributor of steroid hormones, particularly progesterone, and is critical for the
maintenance of early pregnancy.

Q.76 Which of the following is made up of dead cells?

(1) Collenchyma (2) Phellem
(3) Phloem (4) Xylem parenchyma
Sol: (2)
Phellem or cork is a tissue formed on the outer side of phellogen or cork cambium. It is composed of dead cells and is
protective in function.
Hence, the correct choice is Phellem.

Q.77 An example of colonial alga is:

(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix (3) Spirogyra (4) Chlorella

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Sol: (1)
Volvox is motile colonial fresh water alga with definite number of vegetative cells.

Q.78 Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II) and select the
correct option :
Column I Column II
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
(d) AIDS (iv) Human papilloma-Virus

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(i) Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by bacteria called Neisseria gonorrhoeae or gonococcus.
Hence, Gonorrhoea Neisseria (Bacteria).
(ii) Syphilis is caused by the bacteria Treponema pallidum.
Hence , Syphilis Treponema (Bacteria)
(iii) Genital warts are symptoms of a contagious sexually transmitted disease caused by some types of human papillomavirus
(HPV).
Hence, Genital Warts Human papilloma virus (Virus) .
(iv) AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) is a syndrome caused by a virus called HIV (human immunodeficiency
virus).
Hence , AIDS HIV (Virus)
Hence, the correct choice is a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i.

Q.79 The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD' s is:

(1) They inhibit gametogenesis
(2) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) They inhibt ovulation
(4) The suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
Sol: (4)
Copper IUDs primarily work by disrupting sperm motility and damaging sperm so that they are prevented from joining with
an egg.
Cu2 interfere in the sperm movement, hence suppress the sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
He ce, the correct choice is The suppress sper otility a d fertilisi g capacity of sper s .

Q.80 Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids?

(1) Secondary treatment (2) Primary treatment
(3) Sludge treatment (4) Tertiary treatment
Sol: (2)
Primary treatment is a physical process which involves sequential filtration and sedimentation.
Hence, the orre t hoi e is Pri ar treat e t .

Q.81 An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is:

(1) Ventral tubular nerve cord (2) Pharynx with gill slits
(3) Pharynx without gill slits (4) Absence of notochord
Sol: (2)
Pharyngeal gill slits are present in hemichordates as well as in chordates.
Notochord is present in chordates only.
Ventral tubular nerve cord is characteristic feature of non-chordates.
He e, the orre t hoi e is Phar ith gill slits .

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Q.82 The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of:
(1) Hershey and Chase (2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(3) Hargobind Khorana (4) Griffith
Sol: (1)
Hershey and Chase concluded that DNA, not protein, was the genetic material.
Hershey and Chase gave unequivocal proof which ended the debate between protein and DNA as genetic material.
He e, the orre t hoi e is Hershe a d Chase .

Q.83 Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?
(1) Trichomes - Glandular or non-glandular (2) Seed - Green or Yellow
(3) Pod - Inflated or Constricted (4) Stem - Tall or Dwarf
Sol: (1)
During his experiments Mendel studied seven characters.
The seven different traits are Pea shape (round or wrinkled) Pea color (green or yellow) Pod shape (constricted or inflated)
Pod color (green or yellow) Flower color (purple or white) Plant size (tall or dwarf) Position of flowers (axial or terminal).
The Nature of trichomes i.e., glandular or non-glandular was not considered by Mendel.
He e, the orre t hoi e is Tri ho es Glandular or non-gla dular .

Q.84 Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to:
(1) Halophytes (2) Psammophytes
(3) Hydrophytes (4) Mesophytes
Sol: (1)
Halophytes growing in saline soils show Vivipary which is in-situ seed germination and Pneumatophores for gaseous
exchange
He e, the orre t hoi e is Haloph tes .
Q.85 The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of:
(1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Synovial joint
(3) Saddle joint (4) Fibrous joint
Sol: (2)
Synovial joints are freely movable joint which allow considerable movements. Pivot joint is a type of synovial joint which
provide rotational movement as in between atlas and axis vertebrae of vertebral column.
He e, the orre t hoi e is S o ial joi t .

Q.86 With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
(2) C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower temperature
optimum
(3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 enriched atmosphere for higher yield
(4) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight
Sol: (2)
In C3 plants photosynthesis is decreased at higher temperature due to increased photorespiration. C 4 plants have higher
temperature optimum because of the presence of pyruvate phosphate dikinase enzyme, which is sensitive to low
temperature.
He e, the orre t hoi e is C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C 4 plants have
u h lo er te perature opti u .

Q.87 DNA fragments are:

(1) Negatively charged (2) Neutral
(3) Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
(4) Positively charged
Sol: (1)
DNA fragments are negatively charged because of phosphate group.
He e, the orre t hoi e is Negati el harged .

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Q.88 Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(1) Nuclear membrane (2) Plasma membrane
(3) Glycocalyx (4) Cell wall
Sol: (3)
Sticky character of the bacterial wall is due to glycocalyx or slime layer.
This layer is rich in glycoproteins.
He e, the orre t hoi e is Gl o al .

Q.89 Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice ?
(1) amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
(2) peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
(3) lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase
(4) amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
Sol: (3)
Pancreatic juice is a liquid secreted by the pancreas, which contains a variety of enzymes, including trypsinogen,
chymotrypsinogen, elastase, carboxypeptidase, pancreatic lipase, nucleases and amylase.
Rennin and Pepsin enzymes are present in the gastric juice. Maltase is present in the intestinal juice.
He e, the orre t hoi e is lipase, a lase, tr psi oge , pro ar o peptidase .

Q.90 Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals?

(1) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon (2) Whales, Dolphins, Seals
(3) Trygon, Whales, Seals (4) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
Sol: (2)
Whales, Dolphins, Seals is the correct combination of aquatic mammals.

Q.91 Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of:
(1) Ethylene (2) Auxins (3) Gibberellic acid (4) Cytokinins
Sol: (2)
Auxins prevent premature leaf and fruit fall.
NAA prevents fruit drop in tomato; 2,4-D prevents fruit drop in Citrus.
He e, the orre t hoi e is Au i s .

Q.92 Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs:
(1) Testes Vasa efferentia Kidney Seminal Vesicle Urinogenital duct Cloaca
(2) Testes Vasa efferentia Bidder's canal Ureter Cloaca
(3) Testes Vasa efferentia Kidney Bidder's canal Urinogenital duct Cloaca
(4) Testes Bidder's canal Kidney Vasa efferentia Urinogenital duct Cloaca
Sol: (3)
In male frog the sperms will move from Testes Vasa efferentia Kidney Bidder s a al Urinogenital duct Cloaca.

Q.93 In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilization?
(1) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(2) Artificial Insemination
(3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(4) Intrauterine transfer
Sol: (2)
Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm count in the
ejaculates, could be corrected by artificial insemination (AI).

Q.94 Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?

(1) Grassland ecosystem (2) Pond ecosystem (3) Lake ecosystem (4) Forest ecosystem
Sol: (4)
High productive ecosystem are Tropical rain forest, Coral reef , Estuaries , Sugarcane fields.
Hence, the correct choi e is Forest E os ste .

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Q.95 Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of:
(1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (2) Tidal Volume (3) Expiratory Reserve Volume (4) Residual Volume
Sol: (4)
Volume of air present in lungs after forceful expiration as residual volume which prevents the collapsing of alveoli even after
forceful expiration.

Q.96 Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in:
(1) Tropical Rain Forest (2) Grassland (3) Temperate Forest (4) Tropical Savannah
Sol: (1)
The tropical rain forest have five vertical strata on the basis of height of plants. i.e., ground vegetation, shrubs, short canopy
trees, tall canopy trees and tall emergent trees.

Q.97 Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
(2) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
(3) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.
(4) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
Sol: (4)
Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but impermeable to electrolytes while ascending limb is
impermeable to water but permeable to electrolytes.

Q.98 Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time:

(1) Laws of limiting factor (2) Species area relationships
(3) Population Growth equation (4) Ecological Biodiversity
Sol: (2) Alexander Von Humboldt observed that within a region species richness increases with the increases in area.
Q.99 Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of:
(1) Fucus (2) Funaria (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Marchantia
Sol: (3)
Chlamydomonas has haplontic life cycle hence showing zygotic meiosis or initial meiosis.

Q.100 If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is
deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?
(1) 11 (2) 33 (3) 333 (4) 1
Sol : (2)
If deletion occurs at 901st position the remaining 98 bases specifying for 33 codons of amino acids will be altered.

Q.101 Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:
(1) Bee (2) Wind (3) Bat (4) Water
Sol: (2)
Wind pollination or anemophily is favoured by flowers having a single ovule in each ovary, and numerous flowers packed in
an inflorescence. Wind pollination is a non-directional pollination.

Q.102 Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immune-
response is responsible for such rejections?
(1) Cell - mediated immune response (2) Hormonal immune response
(3) Physiological immune response (4) Autoimmune response
Sol: (1)
Non-acceptance or rejection of graft or transplanted tissues/organs is due to cell mediated immune response.

Q.103 Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are:

(1) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic (2) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
(3) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic (4) Haplontic, Diplontic
Sol: (2)
Ectocarpus has haplodiplontic life cycle and Fucus has diplontic life cycle.

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Q.104 A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as:
(1) Vector (2) Plasmid (3) Structural gene (4) Selectable marker
Sol: (4)
In recombinant DNA technology, selectable markers helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively
permitting the growth of the transformants.

Q.105 A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:

(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy (2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
(3) Cleistogamy and xenogamy (4) Autogamy and xenogamy
Sol: (1)
When unisexual male and female flowers are present on different plants the condition is called dioecious and it prevents
both autogamy and geitonogamy.

Q.106 Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle?

(1) There is one point in the cycle where FAD is reduced to FADH2
(2) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
(3) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA ) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid
(4) There are three points in the cycle where NAD is reduced to NADH H
Sol: (3)
Krebs cycle starts with condensation of acetyle CoA (2C) with oxaloacetic acid (4C) to form citric acid (6C).

Q.107 Phosphoenol pyruvate PEP is the primary CO2 acceptor in:

(1) C4 plants (2) C2 plants (3) C3 and C4 plants (4) C3 plants
Sol: (1)
PEP is 3C compound which serves as primary CO2 acceptor in the mesophyll cell cytoplasm of C4 plants like maize,
sugarcane, Sorghum etc.

Q.108 During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate:

(1) The lagging strand towards replication fork.
(2) The leading strand away from replication fork.
(3) The lagging strand away from the replication fork.
(4) The leading strand towards replication fork.
Sol: (3)
Two DNA polymerase molecules work simultaneous at the DNA fork, one on the leading strand and the other on the lagging
strand.
Each Okazaki fragment is synthesized by DNA polymerase at lagging strand in 5' 3' direction. New Okazaki fragments
appear as the replication fork opens further.
As the first Okazaki fragment appears away from the replication fork, the direction of elongation would be away from
replication fork.

Q.109 Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?
(1) t RNA (2) m RNA (3) mi RNA (4) r RNA
Sol: (4)
rRNA is most abundant in animal cell. It constitutes 80% of total RNA of the cell.

Q.110 GnRH , a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on:

(1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH .
(2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH .
(3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin.
(4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.
Sol: (1)
Hypothalamus secretes GnRH which stimulates anterior pituitary gland for the secretion of gonadotropins (FSH and LH).

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Q.111 What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?
(1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
(2) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
(3) Negatively charged fragments do not move
(4) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
Sol: (1)
During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by
agarose gel.

Q.112 Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because:
(1) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
(2) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone in adults.
(3) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth.
(4) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults.
Sol: (1)
Epiphyseal plate is responsible for the growth of bone which close after adolescence so hypersecretion of growth hormone
in adults does not cause further increase in height.

Q.113 DNA replication in bacteria occurs:

(1) Within nucleolus (2) Prior to fission (3) Just before transcription (4) During S phase
Sol: (2)
DNA replication in bacteria occurs prior to fission. Prokaryotes do not show well marked S-phase due to their primitive
nature.
Q.114 Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments ?
(1) 1840 1850 (2) 1857 1869 (3) 1870 1877 (4) 1856 1863
Sol: (4)
Mendel conducted hybridization experiments on Pea plant for 7 years between 1856 to 1863 and his data was published
in 1865 (according to NCERT).

Q.115 Viroids differ from viruses in having;

(1) DNA molecules without protein coat (2) RNA molecules with protein coat
(3) RNA molecules without protein coat (4) DNA molecules with protein coat
Sol: (3)
Viroids are sub-viral agents as infectious RNA particles, without protein coat.

Q.116 MALT constitutes about ________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
(1) 20% (2) 70% (3) 10% (4) 50%
Sol: (4)
MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue and it constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

Q.117 Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them?
(1) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid (2) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
(3) Sacchromyces cerevisiae : Ethanol (4) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
Sol: (3)
Saccharomyces cerevisiae is o o l alled Bre er s east. It auses fer e tatio of ar oh drates produ i g etha ol.

Q.118 Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as
well as animals and can survive without oxygen?
(1) Pseudomonas (2) Mycoplasma (3) Nostoc (4) Bacillus
Sol: (2)
Mycoplasmas are smallest, wall-less prokaryotes, pleomorphic in nature. These are pathogenic on both plants and animals.

Q.119 Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'?

(1) Perissodactyla (2) Caballus (3) Ferus (4) Equidae

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Sol: (1)
Horse belongs to order perissodactyla of class mammalia. Perissodactyla includes odd-toed mammals.

Q.120 Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime. Select the best option from the following
statements.
(a) Frog is a poikilotherm.
(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
(c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature.
(d) Heart is autoexcitable
Options:
(1) Only(d) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (c)and(d) (4) Only(c)
Sol: (3)
Frog or the vertebrates have myogenic heart having self contractile system or are autoexcitable; because of this condition, it
will keep on working outside the body for some time.

Q.121 Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by:

(1) mating of unrelated individuals of same breed.
(2) mating of individuals of different breed.
(3) mating of individuals of different species.
(4) mating of related individuals of same breed
Sol: (4)
Inbreeding results in increase in the homozygosity. Therefore, mating of the related individuals of same breed will increase
homozygosity.

Q.122 Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood:

(1) It is highly durable
(2) It conducts water and minerals efficiently
(3) It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls
(4) Organic compounds are deposited in it
Sol: (2)
Heartwood is physiologically inactive due to deposition of organic compounds and tyloses formation, so this will not conduct
water and minerals.

Q.123 Anaphase Promoting Complex APC is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal
cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur?
(1) Chromosomes will be fragmented
(2) Chromosomes will not segregate
(3) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur
(4) Chromosomes will not condense
Sol: (2)
Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein necessary for separation of daughter chromosomes during anaphase. If APC
is defective then the chromosomes will fail to segregate during anaphase.

Q.124 Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP ?
(1) Ribosome (2) Chloroplast (3) Mitochondrion (4) Lysosome
Sol: (3)
Mitochondria are the site of aerobic oxidation of carbohydrates to generate ATP.

Q.125 Mycorrhizae are the example of:

(1) Amensalism (2) Antibiosis (3) Mutualism (4) Fungistasis
Sol: (3)
Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association of fungi with roots of higher plants.

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Q.126 Out of ' X ' pairs of ribs in humans only ' Y ' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of
X and Y and provides their explanation:
(1) X 12, Y 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends.
(2) X 24, Y 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side.
(3) X 24, Y 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side.
(4) X 12, Y 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.
Sol: (4)
In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present in which 7 pairs of ribs ( 1st to 7th pairs) are attached dorsally to vertebral column
and ventrally to the stemum.

Q.127 In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called:
(1) oscula (2) choanocytes (3) mesenchymal cells (4) ostia
Sol: (2)

Q.128 Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols?
(1) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
(2) They cause increased agricultural productivity
(3) They have negative impact on agricultural land
(4) They are harmful to human health
Sol (2)
Choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel in poriferans (sponges). Flagella in collar cells provide circulation to
water in water canal system.

Q.129 A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check - up. The dentist observed
that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent?
(1) Canines (2) Pre-molars (3) Molars (4) Incisors
Sol: (2)
Total number of teeth in human child 20 . Premolars are absent in primary dentition.

Q.130 Select the mismatch

(1) Cycas Dioecious (2) Salvinia - Heterosporous
(3) Equisetum Homosporous (4) Pinus Dioecious
Sol: (4)
Pinus is monoecious plant having both male and female cones on same plant.

Q.131 The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is:

(1) Cotyledon (2) Endosperm (3) Pericarp (4) Perisperm
Sol: (2)
Coconut has double endosperm with liquid endosperm and cellular endosperm.

Q.132 Double fertilization is exhibited by:

(1) Algae (2) Fungi (3) Angiosperms (4) Gymnosperms
Sol: (3)
Double fertilization is a characteristic feature exhibited by angiosperms. It involves syngamy and triple fusion.

Q.133 Spliceosomes are not found in cells of:

(1) Fungi (2) Animals (3) Bacteria (4) Plants
Sol : (3)
Spliceosomes are used in removal of introns during post-transcriptional processing of hnRNA in eukaryotes only as split
genes are absent as prokaryotes.

Q.134 The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates:

(1) DNA replication is occurring.
(2) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.
(3) The DNA double helix is exposed.

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(4) Transcription is occurring.

Sol: (2)
The association of H1 protein indicates the complete formation of nucleosome.

Q.135 The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as:
(1) Buffer zone (2) Transition zone (3) Restoration zone (4) Core zone
Sol: (4)
Biosphere reserve is protected area with multipurpose activities.
It has three zones
(a) Core zone without any human interference
(b) Buffer zone with limited human activity
(c) Transition zone human settlement, grazing cultivation etc., are allowed.

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CHEMISTRY

Q.136 Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution :
(1) SO2 (2) NO2 (3) P2O5 (4) CO2
Sol : (1)
7 4
KMnO 4 SO2 MnSO 4 H2SO 4 K 2SO 4
(O.A.) (R.A.) Colourless

SO2 is readily decolourises acidified KMnO4

When sulphur dioxide reacts with potassium permanganate the solution decolourizes. Color changes from Purple to
transparent (Colourless).

Q.137 Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction

X2 Y2 2XY is given below
(i) X2 X X(fast)
(ii) X Y2 XY Y (slow)
(iii) X Y XY (fast)
The overall order of the reaction will be :
(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 1.5 (4) 1
Sol : (3)
According to law of mass action
r K[X][Y 2 ] . i
From fast step (i)
[X]2
K eq
[X2 ]
[x]2 Keq [X2 ]
1
[X] K eq [X2 ] 2
. ii
From equation (i) and (ii)
1
r K K eq [X2 ] 2 [Y2 ]
1
r K[X2 ] 2 [Y2 ]
Overall order of reaction 1 0.5 1.5

Q.138 The element Z 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group and
electronic configuration ?
(1) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f 14 6d10 7s2 7p2
(2) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f 14 6d10 7s2 7p4
(3) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f 14 6d10 7s2 7p6
(4) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f 14 6d10 7s2 7p5
Sol : (1)
Z 114 [Rn]86 7s2 5f 14 6d10 7p2
14th gp. (carbon family)

Q.139 The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces

(1) Iodobenzene (2) Phenol (3) Benzene (4) Ethyl chlorides
Sol : (2)

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Q.140 Which one is the correct order of acidity ?

(1) CH CH CH3 C CH CH2 CH2 CH3 CH3
(2) CH CH CH2 CH2 CH3 C CH CH3 CH3
(3) CH3 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 C CH CH CH
(4) CH2 CH2 CH3 CH CH2 CH3 C CH CH CH
Sol : (1)
The higher the s-character of a bond to hydrogen, the more acidic it will be:
Correct order of acidic strength
CH CH CH3 C CH CH2 CH2 CH3 CH3
Acc. To EN and Inductive effect.

Q.141 Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction :
H3C C CH
H2 O, H2 SO2
HgSO4
Intermediate
Pr oduct
(A) (B)

H3C C CH2 H 3C C CH2 H3C C CH3

(1) A : | B: | (2) A : || B : H3C C CH
OH SO4 O

H3C C CH2 H3C C CH3 H3C C CH2 H3C C CH3

(3) A : | B: || (4) A : | B: ||
OH O SO4 O
Sol : (3)

Q.142 The equilibrium constant of the following are :

N2 3H2 2NH3 K1
N2 O2 2NO K2
1
H2 O2 H2O K3
2
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction :
5
2NH3 O2 2NO 3H2O , will be :
K

2
K 2 K 33 K2 K3 K 32 K 3 K1 K 33
(1) (2) (3) (4)
K1 K1 K1 K2
Sol : (1)
N2 3H2 2NH3 K1 ...(1)
N2 O2 2NO K2 ....(2)
1
H2 O2 H2O K3 .....(3)
2
5
For reaction 2NH3 O2 K
2NO 3H2O ....(4)
2
Equation (4) = Equation (2) 3 Equation (3) equation (1)
K 2 .K 33
K
K1

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Q. 143 Which one is the most acidic compound ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Sol : (3)

NO2 group has very strong I and R effects

Q.144 The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is :

(1) III I II (2) III II I (3) II I III (4) II III I

Sol : (3)

In p-toluidine, the presence of electron-donating CH3 group increases the electron density on the N-atom.
Thus, p-toluidine is more basic than aniline.
On the other hand, the presence of electron-withdrawing
NO2 group de reases the ele tro de sit o er the Nato i p-nitroaniline. Thus, p-nitroaniline is less basic than aniline.
Hence, the increasing order of the basic strengths of the given compounds is as follows:
p-Nitroaniline < Aniline < p-Toluidine

Q.145 Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under
an electric field ?
(1) K (2) Rb (3) Li (4) Na
Sol : (3)
Li being smallest, has maximum charge density.
LI is most heavily hydrated among all alkali metal ions. Effective size of Li in aq solution is therefore, largest .
Moves slowest under electric field.

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Q.146 The most suitable method of separation of 1: 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is :
(1) Chromotagraphy (2) Crystallisation (3) Steam distillation (4) Sublimation
Sol : (3)
The ortho and para isomers can be separated by steam distillation o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular
hydrogen bonding while p-nitro phenol is less volatile due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding which cause association of
molecule.

Q.147 HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing I ions the pair of species formed is :
(1) HgI2 , I (2) HgI24 , I3 (3) Hg2I2 , I (4) HgI2 , I3
Sol : (2)
In a solution containing HgCl2,12 I , both HgCl2 and 12 complete for I since formation constant of [Hgl4 ]2 is 1.9 1030
which is very large as compared with I3 (kf 700)
I will preferentially combine with HgCl2
HgCl2 2I Hgl2 2Cl Re d ppt
Hgl2 2I [HgI4 ]2 so lub le

Q.148 Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as :

(1) Antiseptic (2) Antipyretic (3) Antibiotic (4) Analgesic
Sol : (1)
Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as Antiseptic (Dettol).

Q.149 An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is :

1 Grig ard s reage t (2) Ferrocene (3) Cobaltocene (4) Ruthenocene
Sol : (1)
Grig ard s reage t i.e., RMgX is -bonded organometallic compound.

Q.150 A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 102 sec1 . How much time will it take for 20g of the reactant to
reduce to 5g ?
(1) 138.6 sec (2) 346.5 sec (3) 693.0 sec (4) 238.6 sec
Sol : (1)
2.303 [A]
t log 0
K [A]t
2.303 20
t 2
log t 138.6 sec
10 5

Q.151 Match the interhalogen compounds of Column-I with the geometry in column II and assign the correct. Code.
Column-I Column-II
(a) XX ' (i) T-shape
(b) XX '3 (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(c) XX '5 (iii) Linear
(d) XX '7 (iv) Square-pyramidal
(v) Tetrahedral

Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

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Sol : (1)
XX ' Linear
XX3 ' T shape sp3d Example:CIF3
XX5 ' Square pyramidal sp3d2 Example : BrF5
XX7 ' Pentagonal bipyramidal sp3d3 Example : IF7

Q.152 Concentration of the Ag ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2C4 is 2.2 104 mol L1 Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is
:-
(1) 2.66 1012 (2) 4.5 1011 (3) 5.3 1012 (4) 2.42 108
Sol : (3)

Ag2C2O4(s) 2Ag(aq) C2O24(aq)
When Ag2C2O4 dissociates, it produces 2 moles Ag and 1 mol C2O24
K sp [Ag ]2 [C2O24 ]
[Ag ] 2.2 104 M
2.2 10 4
[C2O24 ] M 1.1 10 4 M
2
K sp [Ag ]2 [C2O24 ]
Ksp (2.2 104 )2 (1.1 104 )
5.324 1012

Q.153 In the electrochemical cell : - Zn|ZnSO4 (0.01M) | | CuSO4 (1.0 M) | Cu , the emf of this Daniel cell is E1 . When the
concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01M , the emf changes to E2 . From the
RT
following, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2 ? Given, 0.059
F
(1) E1 E2 (2) E1 E2 (3) E2 0 E1 (4) E1 E2
Sol : (2)
For cell Zn| ZnSO4 (0.01 M) | | CuSO4 (1 M) | Cu
Cell reaction Zn Cu2
Zn2 Cu
0.059 Zn2
E1 Eo log 2
2 Cu
0.059 0.01
E1 E
o
log
2 1
0.059 1
E
o
log . i
2 100
When concentrations are changed,
For cell Zn | ZnSO4 (1M) || CuSO4 (0.01M) | Cu
0.059 1
E 2 Eo log
2 0.01
0.059
Eo log 100 . ii
2
E1 E2

Q.154 Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural ?

(1) Tel2, XeF2 (2) IBr2 , XeF2 (3) IF3, XeF2 (4) BeCl2, XeF2
Sol : (2)
IBr21 & Xef2 are iso-structural
(Linear shape)
And both C.A. consist of same no. of valence es

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Q.155 The IUPAC name of the compound

Is :-

(1) 5 formylhex 2 en 3 one (2) 5 methyl 4 oxohex 2 en 5 al

(3) 3 keto 2 methylhex 5 enal (4) 3 keto 2 methylhex 4 enal
Sol : (4)

Aldehydes get higher priority over ketone and alkene in numbering of principal C-chain.
3 keto 2 methylhex 4 ena

Q.156 Which one is the wrong statement ?

4
(1) The uncertainty principle is E t
4
(2) Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater symmetry and more
balanced arrangement.
(3) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms
h
(4) de-Broglies wavelength is given by where m mass of the particle, v group velocity of the particle
mv
Sol : (3)
The 2s and 2p orbitals are e ited states a d the do have the same energy level
Hence, In H-like atom energy of 2s = 2p. orbital

Q.157 Which is the incorrect statement ?

1 De sit de reases i ase of r stal ith S hottk s defe t
(2) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric crystal
(3) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds in which sizes of cation and anions are almost equal
(4) FeO0 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency defect
Sol : (3)
In frenkel defect the radius of cation must be very less than anion.

Q.158 The species, having bond angles of 120o is :-

(1) ClF3 (2) NCl3 (3) BCl3 (4) PH3
Sol : (3)
BCl3 is trigonal planar, and therefore the bond angle is 120 degree.

Q.159 For a given reaction, H 35.5 kJ mol1 and S 83.6 JK 1mol1 . The reaction is spontaneous at : (Assume that H
and S do not vary with temperature)
(1) T 425 K (2) All temperatures (3) T 298 K (4) T 425 K
Sol : (1)
G H TS
For equilibrium G 0
H TS

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H 35.5 1000
Teq 425 K
S 83.6
Since the reaction is endothermic it will be spontaneous at T 425 K

Q.160 Which of the following is a sink for CO ?

(1) Micro organism present in the soil (2) Oceans
(3) Plants (4) Haemoglobin
Sol : (1)
Microorganism present in the soil.

Q.161 If molality of the dilute solutions is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (K f ) will be :-
(1) Halved (2) Tripled (3) Unchanged (4) Doubled
Sol : (3)
K f does not depend on concentration of solution. If only depends on nature of solvent so it will be unchanged.

Q.162 Which of the following is dependent on temperature ?

(1) Molarity (2) Mole fraction (3) Weight percentage (4) Molality
Sol : (1)
Temperature dependent unit is molarity.

Q.163 Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at equilibrium
(2) Enzymes catalys mainly bio-chemical reactions
(3) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme
(4) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction
Sol : (1)
Equilibrium constant is not affected by presence of catalyst hence statement (1) is incorrect.

Q.164 Identify A and predict the type of reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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Sol : (4)

Q.165 The correct order of the stoichometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complex :
CoCl3 .6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3,CoCl3.4NH3 respectively is :-
(1) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2AgCl (2) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
(3) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl (4) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
Sol : (2)
[CO(NH3 )6 ]Cl3
AgNO3
3 mol AgCl
[CO(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2
AgNO3
2 mol AgCl
[CO(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl
AgNO3
1 mol AgCl

Q.166 The correct statement regarding electrophile is :-

(1) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another
electrophile
(2) Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting pair of electrons from a nucleophile
(3) Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from
a nucleophile
(4) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
Sol : (3)
Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electron from a
nucleophile.

Q.167 A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial
volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50L . The change in internal energy U of the gas in joules will be :-
(1) 500 J (2) 505 J (3) 505 J (4) 1136.25 J
Sol : (2)
Work done in irreversible process
W Pext V
2.5 [4.5 2.5] 5 L atm
5 101.3 J 505 J
Since system is well insulated q 0
By FLOT E q W
E W 505 J

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Q.168 Which of the following reaction is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine ?
(1) Hoffmarnn hypobromamide reaction
(2) Stephens reaction
(3) Gabriels phithalimide synthesis
(4) Carbylamine reaction
Sol : (1)

Q.169 With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true ?
(1) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
(2) Both bond angle and bond length change
(3) Both bond angles and bond length remains same
(4) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
Sol : (3)
In which pair of ions both the species contain S-S bond ?

Q.170 In which pair of ions both the species contain S-S bond ?
(1) S4O62 ,S2O32 (2) S2O72 , S2O82 (3) S 4O62 , S2O72 (4) S2O72 , S2O32
Sol : (1)

Q.171 It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that :-
(1) Sn2 is oxidizing while Pb4 is reducing
(2) Sn2 and Pb2 are both oxidizing and reducing
(3) Sn4 is reducing while Pb4 is oxidizing
(4) Sn2 is reducing while Pb4 is oxidizing
Sol : (4)
Inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding on moving down the group in heavier p-block
elements is called inert pair effect.
Sn2
Sn4
(R.A) Sn2 Sn4 Stability order
Pb4
Pb2
(O.A) Pb2 Pb4 Stability order (Inert pair effect)

Q.172 Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region the complexes of Co3 is :-
(1) [Co(H2O)6 ]3 ,[Co(en)3 ]3 , [Co(NH3 )6 ]3
(2) [Co(H2O)6 ]3 ,[Co(NH3 )6 ]3 , [Co(en)3 ]3
(3) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 , [Co(en)3 ]3 ,[Co(H2O)6 ]3
(4) [Co(en)3 ]3 , [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 , [Co(H2O)6 ]3
Sol : (4)
The order of the ligand in the spectrochemical series
H2O NH3 en
Hence, the wavelength of the light observed will be in the order
[Co(H2O)6 ]3 [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 [CO(en)3 ]3

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 NEET(UG) - 2017

Thus, wavelength absorbed will be in the opposite order

i.e. [Co(en)3 ]3 ,[Co(NH3 )]3 ,[Co(H2O)6 ]3

Q.173 Consider the reactions :-

Identify A, X, Y and Z
(1) A - Methoxymethane, X - Ethanol, Y - Ethanoic acid, Z - Semicarbazide
(2) A Ethanal, X Ethanol, Y But-2-enal, Z Semicarbazone
(3) A Ethanol, X Acetaldehyde, Y Butanone, Z Hydrazone
(4) A Methoxymethane, X Ethanoic acid, Y Acetate ion, Z hydrazine
Sol : (2)
Si e A gi es positi e sil er irror test therefore, it ust e a aldeh de or -Hydroxyketone.
Reaction with semicarbazide indicates that A can be an aldehyde or ketone.
Reaction with OH i.e., aldol condensation (by assuming alkali to be dilute) indicates that A is aldehyde as aldol reaction of
ketones is reversible and carried out in special apparatus..

Q.174 Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating
?
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Sol : (1)
This is aldol condensation reaction

Mechanism

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 NEET(UG) - 2017

Q.175 Which of the following pairs of species have the same bond order ?
(1) O 2 ,NO (2) CN , NO (3) N2 , N2 (4) CO, NO
Sol : (2)
Total no. of electron in CN is 14
Total no. of electron in CO is also 14
Hence bond order of both CN & CO is 3

Q.176 Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN ion. Silver is later recovered by:-
(1) Distillation (2) Zone reflining (3) Displacement with Zn (4) Liquation
Sol : (3)
Mac arther forect process/cyanide process
Ag2S 4NaCN
O2

2Na [Ag(CN)2 ] Na2SO 4
2Na [Ag(CN)2 ]
Zn
Na2 [Zn(CN)4 ] Ag()
Soluble complex

Ag extracts by displacement with Zn.

Q.177 A 20 litre container at 400K contains CO2 (g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of
solid SrO ). The volume of the container is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container. The
maximum volume of the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will be :-
(Given that : SrCO3 (s) SrO(s) CO 2 (g) , Kp 1.6 atm )
(1) 10 litre (2) 4 litre (3) 2 litre (4) 5 litre
Sol : (4)
SrCO3(s) SrO(s) CO2(g)
K p PCO2
Maximum pressure of CO2 1.6 atm
P1V1 P2 V2
0.4 20 1.6 V2
V2 5L

Q.178 Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6 ]3 :-

(1) It is sp3d2 hybridized and tetrahedral
(2) It is d2sp3 hybridized and octahedral
(3) It is dsp2 hybridized and square planar
(4) It is sp3d2 hybridized and octahedral
Sol : (2)
[Mn(CN)6 ]3 Oxidation state of Mn is ( 3)
C.N. 6

Presence of SFL (Pairing is possible)

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 NEET(UG) - 2017

Q.179 The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to :-
(1) Actinoid contraction
(2) 5f,6d and 7s levels having comparable energies
(3) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies
(4) The radioactive nature of actinoids
Sol : (2)
Minimum energy gap between 5f,6d & 7s subshell. That why e excitation will be easier.

Q.180 Which of the following statements is not correct :

(1) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
(2) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting
(3) Denaturation makes the proteins more active
(4) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human body
Sol : (3)
Denaturation makes the protein more active.

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