Aiatsoymeo2016t10 Solution

Test - 10 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
Time : 3 Hrs. T EST 10 MM : 720
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. The dimensional formula for coefficient of mutual 6. In the figure shown below, the spring and string are
inductance is massless. Now if the string is cut, then the
acceleration of mass m just after the string is cut
(1) ML T 2 A 1 (2) MLT 2 A 2 will be ( g : acceleration due to gravity)
(3) ML2 T 2 A 1 (4) ML2 T 2 A 2
2. A plate has a length (5 0.1) cm and breadth

(2 0.01) cm. The area of the plate (in cm2) should
be expressed as m
(1) ( 10 0.02) (2) (10 0.25)

2m
(3) (10 0.1) (4) (10 0.04)
3. An object moving with a speed of 4 m/s is 3g
(1) 2g (2)
dv 2
decelerated at a rate given by 2 v , where v
dt
is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the g
(3) 3g (4)
object to come to rest would be 2
(1) 4 s (2) 1 s 7. A machine gun fires 6 bullets per second. If the mass
(3) 2 s (4) 0.5 s of each bullet is 20 gram and the velocity of each
bullet is 500 m/s then the power ( in kW) of the gun
4. A bullet moving with a speed of 500 m/s can just is
penetrate twelve planks of equal thickness. Number
of such planks penetrated by the same bullet when (1) 7.5 (2) 15
the speed is halved is (3) 150 (4) 1.5
(1) 3 (2) 6 8. A mass moves with a velocity v and collides
(3) 9 (4) 8 inelastically with another identical mass. After
collision the first mass moves with velocity v in a
5. A disc of radius R = 30 cm is rotating at 1200 RPM. direction perpendicular to the initial direction of
Acceleration of a point on its circumference motion. The speed of second mass after collision
(in m/s2) is approximately will be
(1) 2240 (2) 4740 (1) 2 v (2) v
(3) 3440 (4) 5840 (3) Zero (4) v 2
Space for Rough Work
1/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 10 (Code A)
9. A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger 14. A pendulum clock which keeps correct time at 25C
circular disc of radius 2R, such that the is kept at 45C. If the thermal coefficient of linear
circumference of the discs coincide. The centre of expansion of the pendulum is 12 106 per C then
mass of the new disc is at a distance x from the the loss in time per day is approximately
centre of the bigger disc where x is equal to
(1) 10 s
R R
(1) (2) (2) 20 s
3 2
(3) 30 s
R R
(3) (4) (4) 40 s
4 5
10. A hollow sphere rolls down an inclined plane 15. One mole of hydrogen gas at temperature T0 is
inclination 30. The linear acceleration of the centre mixed with one mole of helium gas at temperature
of mass of the sphere is ( g = 10 m/s2) 7T0
. The equilibrium temperature of the gas
(1) 6 m/s2 (2) 5 m/s2 3
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 3 m/s2 mixture will be
11. A wire of length L and radius R is fixed at one end.
5T0 3T0
On pulling the other end of the wire with a force F, (1) (2)
the increase in length is x. If another wire of same 3 2
material but of length 2 L and radius 2 R is stretched
with a force 2F, the increase in its length will be 7T0
(3) 2T0 (4)
4
x
(1) x (2)
2 16. An ideal gas is expanding such that pT3 = constant.
x The thermal coefficient of volume expansion of the
(3) (4) 2 x gas is ( p : pressure, T : absolute temperature)
4
12. On a wide rectangular water tank, there are two 4 3
holes on each along the opposite sides. The cross- (1) (2)
T T
sectional area of each hole is 200 cm2 and the
vertical distance between the holes is 50 cm. If the
tank is filled with water then the net force on the 2 1
(3) (4)
tank (in newton) when the water flows out of the T T
holes is (density of water = 1000 kg/m3)
17. A body starts SHM from its mean position with a
(1) 800 (2) 600 time period of 4 second. After what time will its
(3) 400 (4) 200 potential energy be one fourth of its total energy?
13. If the work done in blowing a bubble of volume V is
1 1
W, then the work done in blowing a soap bubble of (1) s (2) s
volume 8V will be 2 3
(1) 8 W (2) 4 W
1
(3) s (4) 1 s
(3) 2 W (4) W 4
2/20
18. A particle connected at the end of a spring executes 22. The potential difference between points A and B in
SHM with time period T 1. If the same mass is the circuit shown is
connected to other spring then the time period 2F 1F
becomes T2. Now if the two springs are connected A
in parallel then the same mass executes SHM with
time period T. Hence,
2
(1) T 2 T1 T22 1F B 2F
(2) T T1 T2
12 volt
T T
(3) T 1 2 (1) 2 V (2) 4 V
2
(3) 6 V (4) 8 V
T1T2 23. In the circuit given below, the points A, B and C are
(4) T at 60 V, 30 V and 20 V respectively. The potential
T12 T22
of junction x is
19. A siren sounding whistle of frequency 3100 Hz is
moving with uniform velocity 36 km/h towards a hill C
which reflects the sound waves. The speed of sound
in air is 320 m/s. The frequency of the reflected 2
sound heard by the siren car driver is A
2 x
(1) 3200 Hz (2) 3300 Hz 3
(3) 3400 Hz (4) 3500 Hz
B
20. A transverse wave propagating on a stretched string
of linear density 0.6 gram/metre is represented by (1) 30 V (2) 32.5 V
the equation y = 0.3sin(3x + 120 t). The tension in
(3) 47.5 V (4) 37.5 V
the string (in newton) is (Here x is in metre and t is
in second) 24. A certain current on passing through a galvanometer
produces a deflection of 100 divisions. When a shunt
(1) 0.48 (2) 0.96 of 4 is connected, the deflection reduces to 2
(3) 1.44 (4) 1.92 divisions. The galvanometer resistance is
21. Two point charges 4q and q are located at x = 0 (1) 98 (2) 196
and x = L respectively. The location of a point on the (3) 392 (4) 200
x-axis where the net electric field due to these two
25. A wire oriented in the East-West direction carries a
point charges is zero at a distance
current towards West. Direction of the magnetic field
(1) L from q (2) L from +4q at a point to the north of the wire is
(1) Vertically down (2) Vertically up
L L
(3) from q (4) from +4q (3) East (4) West
2 2
3/20
26. A particle charge Q is moving in a circle of radius R 31. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside
with uniform speed v. The equivalent magnetic world contained in a circular horizon. If the fish is
moment is equal to 30 cm below the surface of water, then the radius of
4
(1) Qv R 2 (2) Q R 2 the circle (in cm) is (take w = )
3
30 60
Qv R 2 Qv R (1) (2)
(3) (4) 7 7
2 2
27. Magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnetic substances 90 45

(3) (4)
is 7 7
(1) Greater than one 32. A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal
parts by a plane perpendicular to the principal axis.
(2) Less than one If the power of the original lens is 6 D, then the focal
length (in metre) of a cut lens will be
(3) Zero
(4) Equal to one 1 1
(1) (2)
12 6
28. The flux associated with a coil changes from 1.5 Wb
to 3 Wb within 102 s. The charge flown in the coil, 1 1
(3) (4)
if its resistance is 7.5 k is 4 3
(1) 100 C (2) 200 C 33. In Youngs double slit experiment intensity at a point
(3) 400 C (4) 500 C 1

is ( ) of the maximum intensity. If is the
4
29. The self inductance of the coil of a motor is 0.1 H. wavelength of light used and d is slit separation then
In order to derive maximum output power at 50 Hz, the angular position of this point is
it should be connected to an approximate
capacitance of 1 1
(1) sin 4 d (2) sin 3 d

(1) 400 F (2) 300 F
(3) 200 F (4) 100 F 1 1
(3) sin 2d (4) sin
d
30. Arrange these electromagnetic waves in the
decreasing order of frequency 34. It is observed that cathode rays of velocity v
describe an approximate circular arc of radius 0.5 m
(A) Microwaves (B) X-ray in an electric field 200 N/C. If the velocity of cathode
(C) Radiowaves (D) Violet light rays is doubled then the value of electric field so that
the rays describe the same circular arc is
(1) ABCD (2) BDAC (1) 200 N/C (2) 400 N/C
(3) BDCA (4) ABDC (3) 800 N/C (4) 1200 N/C
4/20
35. The transition from state n = 4 to n = 1 in a 41. A bomb of mass 3 kg explodes in air into two pieces
hydrogen atom results in UV radiation. Now the of masses 2 kg and 1 kg. The smaller mass starts
infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from at a speed of 4 m/s. The total energy of the
explosion is
(1) n = 5 to n = 1 (2) n = 6 to n = 2
(1) 12 J (2) 24 J
(3) n = 4 to n = 2 (4) n = 4 to n = 3
(3) 6 J (4) 36 J
36. In the nuclear reaction
42. A ball is dropped vertically from a height of 10 m on
14 14 1
NY C 1H , then Y will be horizontal floor. If the coefficient of restitution e = 0.5
7 6
for the collision, then the vertical height attained by
(1) Electron (2) Proton the ball after first collision is
(3) Positron (4) Neutron (1) 10 m (2) 5 m
37. Choose the correct statement about nuclear force (3) 7.5 m (4) 2.5 m
(1) It is not a central force 43. Weight of a body of mass M decreases by 1% when
it is taken to a depth H in a mine. Percentage
(2) It is independent of charge
change in the weight of the body when it is raised
(3) It is short range forces to a height H above the surface is
(4) All of these (1) 2% increase
38. The half life of a radioactive sample is 10 minute (2) 2% decrease
Initial number of nuclei is N0. Time taken between
(3) 1% decrease
40% decay to 85% decay is
(4) 0.5% decrease
(1) 10 minute (2) 20 minute
44. A cube of side 20 mm has its upper face displaced
(3) 30 minute (4) 40 minute
by 0.2 mm when a tangential force of 6 kN is
39. Two projectiles A and B thrown with speeds in the applied on it. The shearing modulus of the cube is
ratio 3 2 acquired the same heights. If A is (1) 1.5 109 N/m2 (2) 3 109 N/m2
thrown at an angle of 45 with the horizontal, then (3) 4.5 109 N/m2 (4) 6 109 N/m2
the angle of projection of B will be
45. Identify the logic operation performed by the circuit
(1) 30 (2) 60 shown here
(3) 37 (4) 90
40. A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an
angle of 30 with the horizontal. The coefficient of
static friction between the block and the plane is
0.85. If the frictional force on the block is 20 N, the
mass of the block (in kg) is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 8 (2) 6 (1) OR gate (2) NOT gate
(3) 4 (4) 2 (3) AND gate (4) NAND gate
5/20
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Which of the following is a covalent solid? 50. The aromatic chemical species is
(1) Dry ice
(2) Ice
(1) (2) N
(3) Diamond
H
(4) Gold
47. Identify the auto-reduction reaction O

(1) 2Cu 2O Cu 2S 6Cu SO 2 (g)

(3) (4)
(2) ZnS O2 ZnO SO2 (g) ( )
O

(3) ZnCO3 ZnO CO2 (g)
51. Identify the set of chemical species, containing only
(4) 4FeS 2 11O 2 (g) 2Fe 2O 3 8SO 2 (g) electrophiles
48. Choose the incorrect match

(1) BF3 , AlCl3 ,NO2
COOH

(1) : Cyclohexanoic acid (2) NH3 ,CH3 ,H3O

(2) CH3CH2CN : Propanenitrile
(3) AlCl3 ,H2O,C2 H5
O
(4) SO3 ,NO2 ,CO 2
(3) H C CH2 CH2 CN : 4-Oxobutanenitrile
52. Which of the following gas is not responsible for
O greenhouse effect?
OH (1) O3 (2) NO
(4) : 6-Hydroxycyclohex-2-enone
(3) CH4 (4) N2
49. Conductivity of an electrolytic solution is independent 53. Consider the following reaction:
of CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O
(1) Nature of electrolyte What is the mass of 10% impure CaCO3 required to
(2) Concentration of electrolyte react completely with 50 mL of 0.50 M HCl?
(3) Distance between the electrodes (1) 2.78 g (2) 3.75 g
(4) All are correct (3) 0.9375 g (4) 1.37 g
6/20
54. Match the following 58. Consider the following statements:
Column-I Column-II I. Water has structure similar to that of diamond

ii. Water has maximum density at 0C
a. 2 (i) Constant e/m
iii. In ice each H2O - molecule is bonded to other
b. Photon (ii) Probability three H2O molecules
c. Electron (iii) Massless particle Choose the incorrect statement(s)
(1) Only iii (2) i & ii
h
d. x P (iv)
4 (3) i & iii (4) i, ii & iii
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) 59. Which of the following is the weakest bond?
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (1) Metallic bond (2) Ionic bond
55. Two elements A and B form covalent compounds AB2 (3) Hydrogen bond (4) Covalent bond
and AB4. When 1 g of each is dissolved separately 60. Consider the following statements about fullerenes:
in 20 g benzene, AB2 lowers the freezing point by
2C and AB4 lowers the freezing point by 1.11C. i. Fullerenes contains five and six membered
The atomic masses of A & B will be respectively carbon rings fused with each other
[Kf(benzene) = 5.0 km1]
ii. Fullerenes have all their carbons in sp 2 -
(1) 20 & 40 (2) 15 & 30 hybridized state
(3) 25 & 50 (4) 10 & 20 iii. Fullerenes are thermodynamically more stable
than graphite
56. Given : E 1.09 V Choose the correct statement(s):
Br 2 /Br
What would be the EMF of the following cell at (1) Only iii (2) Only ii & iii
25C? (3) Only i & ii (4) i, ii & iii
Pt(s) | Br2 (l) | Br (0.010)M || H (0.04M) | 61. Choose the correct match:
H2 g(1 bar) | pt(s) (1) [Zn(NH3)4]2(+) : Tetrahedral : Paramagnetic
(1) 1.2906 V (2) 2.1906 V (2) [Ni(H2O)6]2(+) : Octahedral : Diamagnetic
(3) 2.1906 V (4) 1.2906 V (3) [Ni(CN)4]2() : Square planar : Paramagnetic
57. Which of the following pairs will not form a co- (4) [Fe(CO)5] : Trigonal bipyramidal : Diamagnetic
ordinate covalent bond with each other? 62. Which of the following is not a chelate ligand?
(1) NH3 & BF3 (2) AlCl3 & AlCl3 (1) en (2) CN()
(3) CH4 & AlCl3 (4) BF3 & HF (3) ox (4) edta
7/20
63. What is the difference in H and U for the 68. Which of the following is a homopolymer?
combustion of 1 mole of CH4(g) at 27C [R = 2 cal
K1 mol1]? (1) Buna-S (2) Buna-N
(1) 1200 cal (2) 600 cal (3) PVC (4) Novolac
(3) +600 cal (4) +1200 cal 69. Calgon is a trade name given to
64. Consider the following reactions:
(1) Calcium silicate
BaO(s) + 2HCl(g) BaCl2(s) + H2O(g); H = 360 kJ
(2) Baking soda
BaCO3(s) + 2HCl(g) BaCl2(s) + H2O(g) + CO2(g);
H = 94 kJ (3) Sodium-aluminium silicate
What will be the H value for the reaction (4) Sodium hexametaphosphate
BaO(s) + CO2(g) BaCO3(s)?
70. Which isomer of C6H14 will give maximum number of
(1) 266 kJ (2) +266 kJ monochloro derivatives upon free radical chlorination?
(3) 454 kJ (4) +454 kJ
(1) 2-Methylpentane (2) 3-Methylpentane
65. The value of G and S per mole when H2O(l) boils
at 1 atm respectively are [Given : Hvap = 2.0723 (3) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane (4) Hexane
kJ/g]
71. Which of the following is aromatic?
(1) 37.30 kJ/mol & 1000 J/mol-K
(2) 100 kJ/mol-K & 37.30 J/mol-K
(1) (2)
(3) 100 kJ/mol & 1000 J/mol-K
(4) Zero & 100 J/mol-K
66. The solubility product of PbBr2 is 3.2 105 at a
certain temperature. What will be its solubility? (3) (4) All are aromatic
(1) 1 104 mol/L (2) 8 104 mol/L

72. Bronze does not contain
(3) 2 103 mol/L (4) 3.2 106 mol/L
67. Identify the meso form of the tartaric acid: (1) Cu (2) Zn
(3) Mn (4) Sn
COOH OH
HOOC H 73. A hydrogenation reaction is carried out at 500 K. If
H OH
(1) (2) H OH the same reaction is carried out in the presence of
H OH a catalyst at the same rate, the temperature required
COOH COOH is 400 K. If the catalyst lowers the activation barrier
by 20 kJ/mol, then the activation energy of the
COOH reaction is
H OH
(3) HO (1) 100 kJ/mol (2) 200 kJ/mol
COOH (4) All are meso form
H (3) 50 kJ/mol (4) 300 kJ/mol
8/20
77. Arrange the following in the increasing order of acidic
NH2
- strength
NaNO2 + HCl HBF4 NaNO 2
74. X Y Cu Z
0C OH OH OH OH
CH3
The compound Z is
OCH3
CH3 NO2 OCH3 NO2
I II III IV
(1) (2)
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I
CH3 CH3
(3) IV > II > I > III (4) IV > I > II> III
NO2 NO2 78. The main constituent of photochemical smog is
(1) NO (2) SO2

(3) (4)
NO2 (3) SO3 (4) NO2
79. The boiling points of HCl & H2O are respectively

75. The compound which will not undergo Cannizzaro 85C and 100C. The azeotropic mixture of HCl and
reaction is H2O will boil at
O O (1) 90C (2) 121C
(1) CHO (2) H C C H (3) 108.5C (4) 15C
O
80. Consider the following graph
Cl O CHO
(3) Cl C C H (4)
Cl
x T = constant
Fraction y
76. The compound which will not show positive iodoform of
molecules z
test is
X
(1) CH3 CH2 OH (2) CH3 CH CH3
speed
O
OH
The gases x, y and z can be respectively
C
(3) CH3 (4) CH3 CH2 CH C2H5 (1) Ar, Kr, Ne (2) Kr, Ar, Ne
(3) Ne, Ar, Kr (4) Ar, Ne, Kr
9/20
81. The compound having maximum dipole moment is 84. Choose the incorrect match
CH3 CH3 (1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 : Basic character
(2) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Dipole moment
(1) (2) (3) PI3 > PBr3 > PCl3 > PF3 : Bond angle
(4) PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < NH3 : Melting point
OH NO2
85. The number of electrons in 4f-subshell of Gd 3
NO2 CH3 (Z = 64) is
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) (4)
(3) 8 (4) 5
86. The compound in which d-d- transition is not
possible is
(i) DIBALH (1) [Zn(NH3)4]2(+) (2) [Ni(CN)4]2()
82. Z . The compound Z is
(ii) H3O (major) (3) [Sc(H2O)6]3(+) (4) All of these
O 87. Consider the following statements.
OH OH I. Bond angle in PH4 is higher than that of PH3
II. Covalency of N in N2O5 is 5
(1) (2)
III. K a2 is less than K a1 for H2SO4 in water
OH OH Choose the correct statements
O OH (1) Only I & II (2) Only II & III

(3) Only I & III (4) Only I, II & III
(3) (4) 88. Chemical name of vitamin C is
(1) Ascorbic acid (2) Adipic acid
O OH
(3) Crotonic acid (4) Saccharic acid
83. Consider the following statements :
89. Identify the biodegradable polymer
I. Ethers are better Lewis bases than ketones
(1) Nylon-6, 6 (2) Nylon-6
H H H H
(3) Nylon - 2, 6 (4) All of these
II. is more acidic than
90. Which of the following is a cationic detergent?
(1) Cetyltrimethylammonium chloride
III. BF3 is a stronger Lewis acid than [(CH3O)3B]
Choose the correct statements. (2) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(1) Only I & II (2) Only II & III (3) Polyethylene glycol stearate
(3) Only I & III (4) I, II & III (4) Sodium p-dodecylbenzene sulphonate
10/20
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Read the following statements carefully. 94. Salvinia is
A. Lower the taxa, less are the characteristics that (1) Archegoniate, heterosporous spermatophyte
the members within the taxon share.
(2) Thalloid, homosporous tracheophyte
B. Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated in-vitro
(3) Heterosporous, aquatic tracheophyte
C. Panthera and Felis are different genera of same
species. (4) Free living, non-archegoniate, anthophyte
D. Herbaria serve as quick referral system in 95. Zygotic meiosis is present in life cycle of
taxonomic studies.
(1) Fucus, Diatoms
Choose the correct statement:
(2) Volvox, Chlamydomonas
(1) A and B (2) B and D
(3) Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia
(3) C and D (4) A and D
(4) Spirogyra, Sphagnum
92. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F)
I. Paramoecium has a cavity that opens to the 96. In which of the following plants, placenta forms a
outside of the cell surface. ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and ovules
are borne in two alternate rows ?
II. The sole members of kingdom monera are very
complex in structure but very simple in (1) Argemone (2) Dianthus
behaviour. (3) Marigold (4) Pea
III. Viroids are only proteinaceous infectious agents. 97. The features correct for family Solanaceae are
IV. Morels and truffles have edible ascocarp.
(i) o K(5) C(5) A5 G
_ (2)
I II III IV
(ii) Papilionaceous corolla
(1) T F F T
(iii) Endospermic seed
(2) T F T F (iv) Tricarpellary superior ovary
(3) F T T T Mark correct option
(1) (i) & (iii) (2) (ii) & (iv)
(4) F T T F
(3) (i) & (ii) (4) (iii) & (iv)
93. How many of the given organisms are unicellular,
eukaryotes and aquatic in habitat ? 98. Casparian strips are present in
Mycoplasma, Gonyaulax, Euglena, Albugo, (1) Endodermis of dicot root

Diatoms, Nostoc, Rust, Paramoecium (2) Endodermis of dicot stem
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Epidermis monocot stem

(3) Five (4) Six (4) Epidermis of monocot root
11/20
99. Phelloderm is 104. Read the following statements carefully
(1) Cork A. Root pressure is responsible for upward
translocation of water in tall trees.
(2) Secondary cortex
B. Both phloem loading and unloading are passive
(3) Cork cambium processes
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Both A & B are correct
100. In a prokaryotic cell, pili and flagella are similar in (2) A is incorrect and B is correct
being
(3) A is correct and B is incorrect
(1) Locomotory structure (4) Both A & B are incorrect
(2) Made up of pilin protein 105. How many of the given features are associated with
(3) Surface appendage facilitated diffusion?
(4) Contain respiratory enzymes Uses protein transporters; ATP dependent
101. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched ? process; Highly selective process; Passive
(1) Golgi bodies Involved in glycosidation process
and glycosylation (1) Three (2) One
(2) Microbodies Present only in plant cells (3) Four (4) Two
(3) Cytoskeleton Provide support and help 106. Match the columns and choose the correct option
in molility Column-I Column-II
(4) Mitochondria Concerned with aerobic (Microbe) (Process)
respiration
a Nitrobacter (i) Ammonification
102. Arrange the following events of cell cycle in their
b Anabaena (ii) Denitrification
sequential order
c Pseudomonas (iii) Nitrogen fixation
a. Synthesis of ATP
d Bacillus (iv) Nitrification
b. Synthesis of tubulin proteins
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
c. Duplication of centrioles
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
d. Division of chromosome followed by division of
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
cytoplasm
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) a c b d (2) a b c d
107. Consider the following processes
(3) b c a d (4) b c d a
(a) CO2 fixation (b) NADPH formation
103. The longest phase of meiosis-I is
(c) RuBisCO activity (d) ATPase complex
(1) The stage of study of karyotype
Which of the following events/structure occur in
(2) Divided into five substages. thylakoid of chloroplast?
(3) Characterised by division of centromere (1) (a) & (c) (2) (b) & (d)
(4) Responsible for decondensation of chromosomes (3) (b) & (c) (4) (a) & (b)
12/20
108. Kranz anatomy is one of the important 114. Read the following events
characteristics of the leaves of plant which also a. Bringing of male and female gamete together.
shows
b. Formation of gametes
(1) Photorespiration
c. Formation of seed and fruit
(2) Low temperature tolerance
d. Formation of zygote
(3) Spatial distribution of O2 liberation and CO2 Arrange the given events according to their
fixation sequence during sexual reproduction.
(4) Use of less ATP (1) a, b, d, c (2) b, a, c, d
109. How many ATP are produced by ETS only when one (3) a, b, c, d (4) b, a, d, c
molecule of glucose is oxidised completely in a 115. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. pollination
bacterial cell?
(1) Hydrilla - Hydrophily
(1) 6 (2) 4
(2) Grass - Anemophily
(3) 15 (4) 34 (3) Waterlily - Ornithophily
110. The step of respiration common to all living being, (4) Eichhornia - Entomophily
has enzymes located in
116. The female gametophyte in angiosperm is/has
(1) Cytoplasm only (1) Eight-nucleated and seven-celled
(2) Mitochondrial matrix only (2) Produced by one meiosis and three succesive
(3) Mitochondrial matrix and cytoplasm generations of mitosis
(3) Two or more archegonia
(4) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(4) More than one option is correct
111. Which phytohormone was isolated from autoclaved
herring sperm DNA ? 117. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option.
A. __(i)__ is a form of asexual reproduction that
(1) Auxins (2) Gibberellins
mimics sexual reproduction.
(3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene B. Single large cotyledon present in maize seed is
112. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. PGRs. __(ii)__.
(1) Auxins induce delay in flowering in litchi (1) (i) Vegetative propagation
(ii) Epiblast
(2) Gibberellins induce internode elongation
(2) (i) Parthenogenesis
(3) ABA is largely antagonistic to cytokinin only
(ii) Scutellum
(4) Cytokinin induces flowering is pineapple
(3) (i) Apomixis
113. Perception of photoperiodic stimulus is received by (ii) Scutellum
(1) Shoot tip (2) Mature leaf (4) (i) Apomixis
(3) Root tip (4) All of these (ii) Epiblast
13/20
118. Flower colour of Mirabilis jalapa is an example of 124. Which of the following codond does not have any
anticodon ?
(1) Dominance (2) Incomplete dominance
(1) AUG (2) UGG
(3) Codominance (4) Pseudodominance
(3) UGA (4) AGG
119. Which of the following pairs represents autosomal
recessive disorder ? 125. VNTR
(1) Colour-blindness, Haemophilia A. Coding region of DNA
(2) Turner syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome B. Extensively used in DNA fingerprinting
(3) Muscular dystrophy, Cystic fibrosis C. Satellite DNA
(4) Sickle cell anaemia, Thalassemia (1) A, B & C are correct
120. Which of the following feature is associated with the (2) B & C are correct
trisomy of 21st chromosome ? (3) A & C are incorrect
A. Flat round face (4) A, B, C are incorrect
B. Mental retardation 126. Pusa swarnim is disease resistance variety of
C. Presence of gynaecomastia (1) Sugarcane (2) Cauliflower
D. Loss of skin pigmentation (3) Cowpea (4) Mustard
(1) Only A is correct 127. Monascus, a yeast is source of
(2) Only A & B are correct (1) Anti-inflammatory drug
(3) Only A, B & C are correct (2) Enzymes used in baking and brewing industry
(4) All are correct (3) Cholesterol lowering drug
121. Chromosomal aberration is quite common in (4) Enzymes used in bottled juice industry
(1) Cancer cells (2) Meristematic cell 128. Abingdon tortoise and goats in galapagos island are
examples of
(3) Skin cells (4) Muscle cells
(1) Commensalism (2) Competition
122. A nucleoside does not contain
(3) Amensalism (4) Protocooperation
(1) Phosphate (2) Nitrogen base
129. Kangaroo rat shows ________ adaptation to meet all
(3) Pentose sugar (4) Glycosidic bond its water requirement.
123. Which of the following events [labelled as A, B, C (1) Morphological (2) Anatomical
and D] is performed by DNA dependent DNA
(3) Physiological (4) Cryptic
polymerase ?
130. Secondary succession
C A (1) Occurs in area which never had any vegetation.
D DNA RNA Proteins
B (2) Is faster than primary succession.
(1) A (2) B (3) Does not follow any sequential steps.
(3) C (4) D (4) Never predictable and is always slow.
14/20
131. Statement I - Pyramid of biomass is inverted for 137. In which of the following, the genus name, its two
aquatic ecosystem. characters and its phylum are not correctly
matched?
Statement II - Ecological pyramids consider simple
food chains. Genus name Characters Phylum
(1) I and II correct (2) I correct ; II incorrect (1) Echinus Water canal system
External fertilisation Echinodermata
(3) I incorrect ; II correct (4) I and II incorrect
Unsegmented body
132. Which of the following protected areas is meant for (2) Unio Body is covered by Mollusca
conservation of tiger ? calcareous shell
(1) Kaziranga National Park Bilateral symmetry
(3) Sabella Annelida
Schizocoelom
(2) Keoladeo National Park
(4) Locusta Gregarious pest Arthropoda
(3) Gir National Park Chitinous exoskeleton
(4) Kanha National Park 138. Complete the following analogy
133. Which of the following is not a recently extinct
species ? Prawn Green gland Limulus
(1) Dodo (2) Steller's sea cow (1) Antennary gland (2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Kangaroo (4) Quagga (3) Gills (4) Coxal gland
134. The accumulation of toxic or non-biodegradable
139. Which of the following is a matching pair of a body
chemical in food chain is
feature and the animal possessing it?
(1) Biomagnification (2) Eutrophication
(3) Smog (4) Algal bloom (1) Paurometabolous development Aedes
135. Good ozone and bad ozone are found respectively in (2) Tympanum represents ear Hyla
(1) Troposphere and Stratosphere (3) Cloaca present Balenoptera
(2) Stratosphere and Troposphere (4) Ventral heart Apis
(3) Stratosphere and Mesosphere 140. Read the following statements.
(4) Troposphere and Mesosphere (a) In Pleurobrachia, reproduction takes place by
sexual means only
136. Given below are certain animals in box
(b) In Physalia, digestion is intracellular followed by
Pheretima, Periplaneta, Nereis, Ascidia, Octopus extracellular digestion
Pila, Hirudinaria, Chelone, Salpa, Pristis (c) In all reptiles, development is direct
Hilsa, Branchiostoma, Myxine
(d) In mammals, respiration is by lungs
How many of them are chordates having closed Choose the correct option which includes incorrect
circulatory system? statements.
(1) Five (2) Seven (1) (a) only (2) (a) & (b)
(3) Eight (4) Nine (3) (b), (c) & (d) (4) (b) only
15/20
141. Presence of lamellae is the characteristic feature of 145. The immunity responsible for graft rejection is
(1) Humoral immunity
(2) Antibody mediated immunity
(3) Cell mediated immunity
(1) (2)
(4) Both (2) & (3)
146. Sickle cell anaemia in malaria endemic area is an
example of
(1) Stabilising selection
(2) Directional selection
(3) (4)
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Balancing selection
147. Which of the following enzymes is not used for
extraction of desired gene (pure) from a plant?
142. All of the following structures are lined by compound
(1) Lysozyme (2) Cellulase
epithelium, except
(3) Ribonuclease (4) Protease
(1) Moist surface of buccal cavity
148. Given below are four statements
(2) Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands
(3) Inner lining of trachea (a) The part of fallopian tube closer to ovary is
infundibulum
(4) Moist surface of pharynx
(b) Perimetrium undergoes cyclical change during
143. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. the structures and
menstrual cycle
their location in body of cockroach.
(c) Fertilisation occurs on 14th day of the 28 days
(1) Mushroom gland 6th 7th abdominal segments menstrual cycle
(2) Testes 4th 6th abdominal segments (d) Survival of sperms depends on the pH of semen
and is more active in alkaline medium
(3) Ovary 2nd 6th abdominal segments
Choose the option which includes correct
(4) Spermatheca 7th 8th abdominal segments
statements.
144. Which of the following structures does not help in (1) (a) & (b)
excretion in female cockroach?
(2) (b) & (c)
(1) Malpighian tubule (2) Urecose gland (3) (b) & (d)
(3) Nephrocyte (4) Fat bodies (4) (a) & (d)
16/20
149. In which one of the following options the two 153. Match the column I with column II and select the
examples are incorrectly matched with their correct option from the codes given below.
particular type of immunity? a. Rhizobium meliloti (i) Scavenging of oil spills
b. Pseudomonas putida (ii) Incorporation of Nif
Type of immunity Example genes
(1) Physiological barrier Saliva in mouth, tears in eyes c. Bacillus thuringiensis (iii) Production of human
insulin
(2) Physical barrier Skin and mucus coating
d. Escherichia coli (iv) Production of Bt toxin
(3) Cellular barrier Monocyte and macrophage
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Cytokine barrier Interferon, HCl in stomach
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
150. Which of the following is not an example of ciliary (3) a(ii), b(iii),c(i), d(iv)
movement?
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) Maintenance of water current in the canal
154. Homo erectus had a large brain around
systems of sponges
(1) 650800 cc
(2) Movement of ova in fallopian tube
(2) 900 cc
(3) Movement of mucus containing dust particles in
respiratory tract (3) 1400 cc
(4) Both (1) & (3) (4) 1650 cc
151. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature 155. Identify the given antibody and select the correct
regarding Marasmus? option regarding this
(1) Patient shows wasting of muscles, thinning of
limbs, failure of growth
(2) Some fat is left under the skin of the patient
extensive oedema and swelling of body parts are
seen
(1) This is the first type of antibody to be secreted
(3) It is found in infant less than a year of age during the primary response and involve in
(4) It is produced by a simultaneous deficiency of activation of B cells
protein and calories (2) This is the most abundant class of antibody in
152. Mark the odd one w.r.t. origin from germinal layers. the blood plasma and is secreted in a
secondary response
(1) Sclera of eye
(3) This is the major form of antibody in external
(2) Adrenal cortex
secretions such as saliva and mothers milk
(3) Pituitary gland
(4) This form of antibodies promotes the release of
(4) Heart histamine
17/20
156. All the given statements are correct except one. 161. The common symptoms of both diabetes mellitus
Choose the incorrect statement and diabetes insipidus
(1) Significant digestive activity occurs in large (1) Hyperglycaemia
intestine
(2) Glycosuria
(2) The egestion of faeces to the outside through
(3) Diuresis and excessive thirst
the anal opening is a voluntary process and is
carried out by a mass peristaltic movement (4) Lack of insulin hormone
(3) Glucose and some amino acids are absorbed 162. All of the following is due to cancer of thyroid gland,
with the help of carrier ions like Na+ except
(4) The activities of gastrointestinal tract are under (1) Basedows disease
neural and hormonal control for proper (2) Toxic goitre
coordination of different parts
(3) Cretinism
157. Which of the following events occur when the
(4) Graves disease
ventricular pressure declines?
163. Which hormone present in the female urine confirms
(1) Closure of aortic and pulmonary valves
the pregnancy?
(2) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves
(1) Estrogen
(3) Opening of bicuspid and tricuspid valves (2) Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
(4) Both (1) & (3) (3) FSH
158. The ability of the kidney to concentrate urine mainly (4) Prolactin
depends on
164. Following are the examples of vestigial structure
(1) Active transport present in care of human body, except
(2) Passive transport (1) Pinna
(3) Diffusion (2) Wisdom teeth
(4) Counter current mechanism (3) Coccyx
159. Which event will be suitable for person having large (4) Plica semilunaris
amount of myoglobin in muscle?
165. In adenohypophysis part of pituitary gland different
(1) High jump (2) 100 m sprinter types of principal cells are found which secrete
different type of hormones
(3) Marathon runner (4) All of these
Mark the incorrect cell w.r.t. its secretion
160. In a resting muscle, the central part of the thick
filament is not overlapped by thin filaments. This (1) Gonadotroph Follicle stimulating hormone
region is called (2) Corticotroph Human growth hormone
(1) Z-line (2) A-band (3) Thyrotroph Thyroid stimulating hormone
(3) I-band (4) H-zone (4) Lactotroph Prolactin
18/20
166. Which of the following is an incorrect match? 170. Which structure serves as a lung, digestive tract and
(1) Osteoporosis Age related disorder kidney for the developing embryo?
characterised by decreased (1) Liver (2) Amnion
bone mass and increased (3) Placenta (4) Yolk sac
chances of fractures
171. Second polar body is released after A in B region
(2) Cartilaginous joint Between adjacent vertebrae
(1) A First meiotic division, B Ovary
(3) Gout Deposition of sodium urate
(2) A First meiotic division, B Oviduct
crystals in the soft tissues of
(3) A Second meiotic division, B Ovary
joints
(4) A Second meiotic division, B Oviduct
(4) Synovial joint Joint between two pelvic
172. The first sign of growing foetus is noticed by
girdles
(1) Movement of foetus
167. Which of the following bone on the human body (2) Appearance of body hair on developing foetus
does not articulate with any other bone?
(3) Listening of heart sound of foetus
(1) Mandible (4) Absence of menstruation
(2) Scapula 173. Find the incorrect statement
(3) Sternum (1) Sex of the child is determined at the time of
fertilization when male and female gametes fuse
(4) Hyoid
to form zygote
168. All of the following are characteristic features of major
(2) The embryo with 816 blastomeres is called a
nephrons of kidney, except
morula
(1) Vasa recta is poorly developed (3) Mammary glands differentiate during pregnancy
(2) Loop of Henle is shorter and secretes milk after child birth
(3) PCT, DCT and malpighian corpuscles are in the (4) During cleavage the nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio
cortical region of cortex decreases
(4) Loop of Henle is in deep medulla 174. After a successful in vitro fertilisation, the fertilised
egg begins to divide. Where is this egg transferred
169. The excretory products of largest gland of human
before it reaches the eight celled stage and what is
body are
this technique called?
(1) Carbondioxide and water vapour (1) Uterus, GIFT
(2) Urea and creatinine (2) Uterus, IUT
(3) Bilirubin and biliverdin (3) Fallopian tube, GIFT
(4) NaCl and lactic acid (4) Fallopian tube, ZIFT
19/20
175. Lactational amenorrhoea is due to high level of 178. Active artificially immunization is induced by the
administration of all the following, except
(1) Follicle stimulating hormone
(1) Bacterial products
(2) Luteinizing hormone
(2) Antitoxins
(3) Prolactin
(3) Toxoid
(4) Gonadotropin
(4) Vaccine
176. AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV) and X acts like HIV factory 179. Which of the following is chemically
diacetylmorphine, a white colourless, better
Choose the option which correctly fills up the blank crystalline compound?
X
(1) Marijuana (2) Hashish
(1) Helper T cell (2) Cytotoxic T cell
(3) Amphetamines (4) Heroine
(3) Memory T cell (4) Macrophage
180. Which of the following is an example of three horned
177. Which of the following plasma protein helps in dinosaur that was common in upper cretaceous
osmotic balance? period?
(1) Fibrinogen (2) Globulin (1) Brachiosaurus (2) Stegosaurus
(3) Albumin (4) Prothrombin (3) Triceratops (4) Tyrannosaurus

20/20
Test - 10 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
TEST - 10 (Code-A)
Test Date : 17-04-2016 ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (4) 73. (1) 109. (4) 145. (3)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (2) 110. (1) 146. (4)
3. (3) 39. (2) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (1)
4. (1) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (4)
5. (2) 41. (1) 77. (3) 113. (2) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (4) 78. (1) 114. (4) 150. (1)
7. (2) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (4) 44. (1) 80. (2) 116. (4) 152. (3)
9. (1) 45. (1) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (4) 46. (3) 82. (4) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (1) 47. (1) 83. (4) 119. (4) 155. (1)
12. (4) 48. (1) 84. (2) 120. (2) 156. (1)
13. (2) 49. (3) 85. (2) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (2) 86. (4) 122. (1) 158. (4)
15. (2) 51. (1) 87. (3) 123. (4) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (4) 88. (1) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (4) 89. (3) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (4) 54. (2) 90. (1) 126. (4) 162. (3)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (2)
20. (2) 56. (1) 92. (1) 128. (2) 164. (1)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (4) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (4)
23. (4) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (1) 167. (4)
24. (2) 60. (3) 96. (4) 132. (4) 168. (4)
25. (1) 61. (4) 97. (1) 133. (3) 169. (3)
26. (4) 62. (2) 98. (1) 134. (1) 170. (3)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (2) 64. (1) 100. (3) 136. (1) 172. (3)
29. (4) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (1) 173. (4)
30. (2) 66. (3) 102. (1) 138. (4) 174. (4)
31. (3) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (4) 68. (3) 104. (4) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (2) 69. (4) 105. (1) 141. (2) 177. (3)
34. (3) 70. (1) 106. (4) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (1) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (4)
36. (4) 72. (3) 108. (3) 144. (2) 180. (3)
1/7
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 10 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (4) 14. Answer (1)
2. Answer (2)
T 1
T = 10.3 s
3. Answer (3) T 2
0 1
0 15. Answer (2)
dv 2 dt 2 v 4 2 t 0 t 2s
t t
v 2
0
4 n1 Cv1 T1 n2 Cv 2 T2
Tmix =
n1 Cv1 n2 Cv 2
4. Answer (1)
Number (velocity)2 16. Answer (1)
5. Answer (2)
V 4 T
V T4 =
2 V T
1200 2
a = 2 R = 0.3 4737 m/s2
60 17. Answer (2)
6. Answer (1) A T 1
Here x t s
3 mg mg = ma a = 2g 2 12 3
1 1 2
n mv 2 6 20 103 500 15kW 1 1 1
2 2 T
T1T2
2 2 K = K1 + K2 or T 2 T1 T2 T12 T22
8. Answer (4)
19. Answer (2)
2 2
v v v 2
320 10
f 3100 3300Hz
9. Answer (1) 320 10
10. Answer (4)
20. Answer (2)
g sin 3g sin
a 3m/s2 T 2
k2 5 v T v 2 6 10 4 40 0.96N .
1
r2
21. Answer (1)
11. Answer (1)
FL 2F 2L q 4q
x= x 2
x L
Ax 4 A x x L x 2

2
A (v 2 v ) = A 2gh 23. Answer (4)
= 1000 200 104 2 10 0.5 = 200 N 60 x x 20 x 30

x 37.5 V
2 2 3
13. Answer (2)
R v1/3 and wR2 w v2/3 24. Answer (2)
w = 82/3 w = 4 w 2 R = (100 2)4 R = 196
2/7
QL Q mv R Qv R 37. Answer (4)

2m 2m 2
38. Answer (2)
27. Answer (1)
Two half lives = 2 10 = 20 minutes
28. Answer (2)
39. Answer (2)
1.5
Q 2 10 4 200 C
R 7.5 103 3
u1 sin1 = u2 sin2 sin2 = = 60
29. Answer (4) 2
40. Answer (3)

1 1 1
C
LC L2 0.1 2 50
2 mg sin= 20
= 104 F = 100F m = 4 kg
31. Answer (3)
1 1
2 22 1 42 12J
3 3 R 90 2 2
sin C tanC R cm
4 7 d 7
42. Answer (4)
32. Answer (4)
h = He2 = (0.5)2 10 = 2.5 m
1 1
f m 43. Answer (2)
P 3
33. Answer (2) h 2h
1% 2%
R R

I I0 cos2 120
2 3 44. Answer (1)

now,
3d 3d FL 6 103 20 103
34. Answer (3) G 1.5 109 N/m2
A x 20 10 3 2 0.2 10 3
mv 2
eE E v2 45. Answer (1)
R
[ CHEMISTRY]
47. Answer (1)
Fact N is aromatic in nature.
48. Answer (1)
H
COOH 51. Answer (1)

The correct IUPAC name of is BF3, AlCl3 and NO2 are electron deficient chemical
species.
cyclohexane carboxylic acid.
52. Answer (4)
49. Answer (3)
N2 is not a greenhouse gas CO2, CH4, NO, O3 and
Fact CFCs are greenhouse gases.
3/7
Let amount of impure (10%) CaCO3 = x g CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l); hg = 2
H U = hgRT = 2 2 300 = 1200 cal
x 90 0.50 50

100 50 1000 64. Answer (1)
54. Answer (2) Subtracting the two given reactions gives the results.
Fact 65. Answer (4)
55. Answer (3) Hvap = 37.30 kJ/mol
Tf K f m H 37.30 kJ / mol
S 100J / mol K
T 373 K
Case - I
G = H TS = 0
1 1000 66. Answer (3)
2 5
(A 2B) 20
Ksp = 4s3
A + 2B = 125 ...(i)
1
Case - II 3.2 10 5 3
S 2 10 mol / L
2
4
1 1000
1.11 5
(A 4B) 20 67. Answer (4)
A + 4B 225 ...(ii) 68. Answer (3)
From equation (i) & (ii) 69. Answer (4)
A = 25 and B = 50 Fact
Net reaction : CH3

2Br()(0.01 M) + 2H(+)(0.04M) H2(g) + Br2(l) H 3C CH CH2 CH2 CH3
0.059 71. Answer (1)

Ecell E logQc
n 72. Answer (3)
73. Answer (1)
0.059 1 1
= 1.09 log
2 (0.01) (0.04)2
2
20 500
E1 100 kJ / mol
= 1.2906 V 500 400
Fact (+) ()
N2Cl N2 BF NO2
58. Answer (4)
59. Answer (3)
Fact CH3 CH3 CH3
(X) (Y)
60. Answer (3)
Fact 76. Answer (4)
Fact 78. Answer (1)
4/7
HCl & H2O show negative deviation, and will form 85. Answer (2)
maximum boiling azeotrope. 86. Answer (4)
[ BIOLOGY ]
Lower taxa share more common characters. Thylakoid is the site of light reaction.
Two species belong to same genera.
108. Answer (3)
92. Answer (1)
Site of light reaction and dark reaction is respectively
93. Answer (2) mesophyll cell and bundle sheath cell in C4 plants.
Protista members 109. Answer (4)
Pteridophyte Site of glycolysis is cytoplasm.
Haplontic life cycle 112. Answer (2)
96. Answer (4) ABA is largerly antagonistic to gibberellins
Marginal placentation 113. Answer (2)
98. Answer (1) Pre-fertilisation Fertilisation Post-fertilisation
Casparian strips are layer of suberin present in 115. Answer (3)
endodermis of roots
116. Answer (4)
99. Answer (2)
Option (1) & (2) are correct
100. Answer (3)
117. Answer (3)
101. Answer (2)
118. Answer (2)
Microbodies are present in both plant and animal
cell. 119. Answer (4)
102. Answer (1) 120. Answer (2)
a - G1 phase ; b - G2 phase ; c - S-pahse ; Down's syndrome
d - M-phase 121. Answer (1)
103. Answer (2) 122. Answer (1)
Prophase I Nucleoside Sugar + Nitrogen base
104. Answer (4) 123. Answer (4)
105. Answer (1) A - Translation ; B - Reverse transcription ;
Facilitated diffusion - uses protein transporters ; C - Transcription ; D - Replication
Highly selective process ; Passive process 124. Answer (3)
106. Answer (4) Stop codon
5/7
125. Answer (2) 147. Answer (1)
126. Answer (4) Lysozyme is used as antibacterial agent.
127. Answer (3) 148. Answer (4)
Monascus - produces statins 149. Answer (4)
128. Answer (2) Cytokine barrier includes interferon.
129. Answer (3) 150. Answer (1)
130. Answer (2) 151. Answer (2)
Secondary succession occurs in area which Fat deposition is the characteristic feature of
previously had vegetation. kwashiorkor.
131. Answer (1) 152. Answer (3)
132. Answer (4)
Pituitary gland originates from ectoderm.
National park Animal Protected
153. Answer (4)
Kaziranga - Rhino
154. Answer (2)
Keoladeo - Siberian crane
155. Answer (1)
Gir - Lion
Given antibody is IgM.
133. Answer (3)
156. Answer (1)
134. Answer (1)
Digestion does not take place in large intestine.
135. Answer (2)
157. Answer (4)
Stratosphere good ozone
158. Answer (4)
Troposphere bad ozone
159. Answer (3)
136. Answer (1)
Tunicates are the chordates having open circulatory Red muscle fibres are present in marathon runner.
system. 160. Answer (4)
137. Answer (1) H-zone consists of only myosin filament.
Echinus (Sea urchin) has water vascular system. 161. Answer (3)
138. Answer (4) 162. Answer (3)
Limulus excretes by coxal gland. 163. Answer (2)
139. Answer (2) Presence of HCG is diagnosed in gravedey or
Ventral heart occurs in chordates. pregnancy test.
140. Answer (4) 164. Answer (1)
In coelenterates digestion is firstly extracellular Auricular muscle Vestigial
followed by intracellular digestion. 165. Answer (2)
141. Answer (2) Corticotroph secretes ACTH.
Given tissue is bone. 166. Answer (4)
142. Answer (3) Joint between two pelvic girdles is cartilaginous joint.
143. Answer (4) 167. Answer (4)
Spermatheca are present in 6th abdominal segment 168. Answer (4)
144. Answer (2) Major nephrons of kidney are cortical nephron.
145. Answer (3) 169. Answer (3)
146. Answer (4) Largest gland of body is liver.
6/7
170. Answer (3) 175. Answer (3)
Placenta helps in respiration and excretion in 176. Answer (4)
developing foetus.
Macrophages act as HIV factory.
171. Answer (4)
177. Answer (3)
172. Answer (3)
178. Answer (2)
173. Answer (4)
Antitoxin provides passive immunity.
During cleavage, the nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio
increases. 179. Answer (4)
174. Answer (4) Heroine is diacetyl morphine.
ZIFTZygote Intrafallopian Transfer. 180. Answer (3)

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Aiatsoymeo2016t10 Solution

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Test - 10 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST 10 MM : 720

(3) ML2 T 2 A 1 (4) ML2 T 2 A 2

2. A plate has a length (5 0.1) cm and breadth

(1) ( 10 0.02) (2) (10 0.25)

Space for Rough Work

27. Magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnetic substances 90 45

(3) 400 C (4) 500 C 1

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

48. Choose the incorrect match

Space for Rough Work

Column-I Column-II I. Water has structure similar to that of diamond

(3) 2.1906 V (4) 1.2906 V (3) [Ni(CN)4]2() : Square planar : Paramagnetic

Space for Rough Work

(1) 1 104 mol/L (2) 8 104 mol/L

Space for Rough Work

NO2 NO2 78. The main constituent of photochemical smog is

(1) NO (2) SO2

79. The boiling points of HCl & H2O are respectively

(3) Ne, Ar, Kr (4) Ar, Ne, Kr

Space for Rough Work

O OH (1) Only I & II (2) Only II & III

Mycoplasma, Gonyaulax, Euglena, Albugo, (1) Endodermis of dicot root

(1) Three (2) Four (3) Epidermis monocot stem

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(4) NaCl and lactic acid (4) Fallopian tube, ZIFT

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Hints to Selected Questions

12. Answer (4) 22. Answer (2)

= 1000 200 104 2 10 0.5 = 200 N 60 x x 20 x 30

w = 82/3 w = 4 w 2 R = (100 2)4 R = 196

40. Answer (3)

Fact 65. Answer (4)

55. Answer (3) Hvap = 37.30 kJ/mol

A + 4B 225 ...(ii) 68. Answer (3)

From equation (i) & (ii) 69. Answer (4)

56. Answer (1) 70. Answer (1)

Net reaction : CH3

0.059 71. Answer (1)

57. Answer (3) 74. Answer (2)

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