Test - 5 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST 5 MM : 720

[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. Figure shows three electric field lines. If FA, FB and 4. Four equal charges Q are placed at four corners of
FC are forces on test charge q at positions A, B and a square of each side a. Find work done in removing
C respectively, then a charge Q from its centre to infinity.
A
B 2Q2
(1) Zero (2)
40 a

C 2Q 2 Q2
(3) (4)
0 a 20 a

(1) FA > FB > FC (2) FA < FB < FC 5. A sphere of radius R carries charge density such
that = kr2 where k is positive constant and r is
(3) FA > (FB = FC) (4) FA < (FB = FC)
distance from centre. Find the magnitude of electric
2. There is a point charge +q inside a hollow sphere field at distance R/2 from centre.
and a point charge q outside its surface. Find the
total flux passing throuh the sphere. kR 3 kR 3
(1) (2)
200 100
q q
(1) (2)
0 0 kR 3 kR 3
(3) (4)
5 0 400
2q
(3) Zero (4) 0 6. Four plates are arranged as shown in figure. If area
of plate is A and separation between them is d then
3. Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging equivalent capacitance between points A and B, is
from a charged body. If electric field at A and B are
EA and EB respectively and distance between A and A A
B is r then d

(1) EA > EB

EB r A
(2) EA = B
r A A0 2A0
(1) (2)
(3) EA < EB d d

EB 3 2 A0 A0
(4) EA = (3) (4)
r 2 2 d 3d

Space for Rough Work

1/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E)
7. A charge Q is divided into two parts q and (Q q) 11. q1, q2, q3 and q4 are point charges located at points
when they are kept at separation r, force is as shown in figure. S is the spherical Gaussian
Q surface of redius R. Which of the following is true
maximum if is according to Gausss law ?
(Q q )
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 S
 q1
(3) 2 (4)
8. The ratio of momenta of an electron and -particle R
which are accelerated from rest by potential  q4
difference of 100 volt is  q2  q3
2me
(1) 1 (2) m

 E1 E2 E3 dA
q1 q2 q3
me me (1) =
20
(3) m (4) 2m

 E1 E2 E3 dA
q1 q2 q3
9. The value of electric potential at any point due to any (2) = 0
1
electric dipole is k
40


(3)  E E

1

2

E3 E 4 dA = q1 q2 q3
0
pr pr
(1) k (2) k
r2 r3
 E1 E2 E3 E4 dA
q1 q2 q3 q4
(4) =
pr pr 0
(3) k (4) k
r2 r3 12. A wire is stretched so as to change its length by
10. Charges are placed on the vertices of a square as 1.5%, the percentage change in resistance of the
shown. Let E be the electric field and V the potential wire is
at the centre. If the charges on A and B are
(1) 0.75% (2) 1.5%
interchanged with those on D and C respectively,
then (3) 3% (4) 4.5%
q q
A B 13. In which case points is arranged in increasing
potential?

D C B
q Electric field
q

A C
(1) E remains unchanged, V changes
D

(2) Both E and V change

(3) E and V remains unchanged (1) VD < VC < VB < VA (2) VC < VD < VB < VA

(4) E changes, V remains unchanged (3) VC < VB < VD < VA (4) VA < VB < VD < VC

Space for Rough Work

2/20
Test - 5 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

14. The ratio of equivalent resistance between points AB V1 V2 V3

and AD in the given network, is (1)
3
R R R C1V1 C2V2 C3V3
A B (2) C1 C2 C3
R R (V1 V2 V3 ) C1 C2 C3
R (3) C1 C2 C3
D C
R R (C1 C2 C3 ) (V1 V2 V3 )
(4) (V1 V2 V3 )1/3
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 4 : 3 (4) 7 : 3 17. The work done by the battery of emf V, while the
dielectric slab of r = 3 is inserted into the capacitor
15. Find ratio of total potentials at point 1 and 2 C is
respectively.
V

+ 3Q
Q
R
1 2
C
2R

1
(1) CV 2 (2) 2CV 2
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 2

(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 CV 2
(3) CV 2 (4)
2
16. The capacitors C1, C2 and C3 are charged so that
the potentials at A, B and C are V1, V2 and V 3 18. Find the equivalent permitivity of combination, given
respectively. Find the potential of junction D. in figure.
1
A

C1 2

1 2 1 2
D (1) (2)
C2 2 1 2
C3
21 2
(3) 1 2 (4)
B C 1 2

Space for Rough Work

3/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E)
19. In the circuit shown in figure if battery is ideal, then 23. As shown in figure very thin sheet of aluminium is
current drawn from cell just after closing the key is. placed between plates of capacitor. What will happen
2 to capacity of capacitor?

Key
Al strip
E = 12 V 2 6 F

2 (1) Will increase

(1) 4 A (2) 3 A
(2) Will decrease
(3) 6 A (4) 1.5 A
(3) Remains unchanged
20. The internal resistance of 12.2 volt cell, which gives
a current of 0.4 A through a resistance of 20 , is. (4) May increase or decrease
(1) 8.5 (2) 10.5 24. The conducting sphere has a charge Q. It touches
three identical spheres one after another. Find the
(3) 12.5 (4) 15
final charge on original sphere.
21. If the key k is closed, find the charge that will flow
in capacitors. Q 2Q
(1) (2)
3 3

k C2 Q Q
C1 (3) (4)
6 8
C1 C2
(1) C1 C2 (2) C C 25. A current i flows through a cylindrical conductor.
1 2 Then, the ratio of potential differences along AB and
(3) (C1 + C2) (4) Zero BC is
22. The potential difference between points A and B is 2l
equal to
A l
A i C r/2

i = 6A
3 6
} r
B

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1

6 B 3 26. Resistivity of the material depends upon

(1) 6 V (2) 9 V (1) Temperature (2) Electric field
(3) 6 V (4) 12 V (3) Shape of material (4) Size of material
Space for Rough Work

4/20
Test - 5 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
27. V i graph is given for two conductors of same area 30. If a wire is cut into two equal parts and power loss
and length. If 1 and 2 are conductivities of of one part as compared to initial power (P) for same
1 voltage supply is
conductor 1 and 2 then find .
2 (1) P (2) P/2
V 1 (3) 2P (4) 4P

2 31. Electric field in a current carrying conductor is

(1) Finite (2) Infinite
60 (3) Zero (4) Can not say
30 32. The current reading of ammeter is i1 when k1 (only)
i is closed and i2 when k2 (only) is closed, then
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 3
28. Potential at point, D in the given circuit, is
E R A
6V

R R

R
() ()
B C k1 R R k2
A D
2 2 2 2 (1) i1 > i2 (2) i1 < i2
(3) i1 = i2 (4) i1 = 2i 2
(1) 0 V (2) 2 V
33. Current is flowing through a conductor of non-uniform
(3) 4 V (4) 2 V
cross-section as shown in the figure. Which of the
29. The i t graph for a conductor is given. Find the net following quantities, will vary along conductor?
charge flown through conductor from 0 to 4 secs.
i (A)

1
i i
2 3 4
t(s) V
1
(1) Conductivity and current
1
(2) Resistivity and current
(1) 4 C (2) 2 C (3) Current density and electric field
(3) Zero (4) Cant be determined (4) Current density and current
Space for Rough Work

5/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E)
34. If equivalent resistance between points A and X is 38. The charge flowing through resistor R varies as
5 and equivalent resistance between A and B is Q(t) = t t2. The total heat produced in R is
10 then find R2.
3R
A X (1)
(1) 2
R1
(2) 5 2V 3R
3 (2)
2
(3) 3 2V
R2 3R
(4) 10 (3)
B 3
35. Equivalent resistance between points A and B in 3R
given network is. (4)
6
54 39. A dielectric slab of thickness t is inserted between
(1) A 6
13 plates of a parallel plate capacitor as shown. The
variation of electric field between the plates is best
36
(2) represented in
13 2
3 3
32 t
(3)
13 +
25 +
(4) B +
13 6
+
36. Each of three resistors having resistance R can +
dissipate maximum power P. What is the maximum +
possible power of the circuit, comprising of the three +
resistors? d
(1) 3P (2) 2P
(3) 1.5P (4) 2.5P E E
37. Find the power consumed in circuit (in steady state)
4 4 (1) (2)

x x
5 2 F x=d x=d
2 F
E E
2 2

(3) (4)
2V
(1) 1.5 W (2) 2 W x
x=d x
(3) 1 W (4) 3 W x=d
Space for Rough Work

6/20
Test - 5 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
40. Forty electric bulbs are connected in series across 43. Find the reading of ammeter in given circuit
220 V supply. After one bulb is fused remaining 39 4
are again connected in series across the same
supply. Compare the illumination.
6V A
(1) More with 40 bulbs than with 39
(2) More with 39 bulbs than with 40
(3) Equal in both cases 1 8V
(4) In ratio of 402 : 392 (1) 0
41. Find the equivalent resistance RAB (2) 2 A
(3) 8 A
R
R R (4) 4 A
44. Find the value of RAB
A
R
R
R R R

A B
B
(1) R R

(2) 2R
3R 3
(3) (1) 3R (2) R
8 2
R
(4) 2R
4 (3) 2R (4)
3
42. A cell developes same power in the external circuit
when connected with two resistors r 1 and r 2 45. The resistance of a resistor at tC is given by
separately. The internal resistance of cell, is R = R0(1 + at + bt2) where R0 is resistance at 0C.
(1) r1r2 coefficient of resistance at temperature t, will be

a 2bt
r1r2 (1)
(2) r r 1 at bt 2
1 2
(2) (a + 2bt)
r r
(3) 1 2 1 at bt 2
2 (3)
a 2bt
(4) r12 r22 (4) Constant

Space for Rough Work

7/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E)

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Cinnabar is the ore of 52. The function of fluorspar (CaF2) in the electrolytic
reduction of alumina is
(1) Zn (2) Cd
(1) As a catalyst
(3) Hg (4) Ag
(2) To lower the temperature of the melt and to
47. Froth floatation process for the concentration of make the fused mixture more conducting
sulphide ore is an illustration of the practical
application of (3) To decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the
anode
(1) Adsorption (2) Absorption
(4) All of these
(3) Sedimentation (4) Coagulation
53. Leaching of Ag2S is carried out by heating it with a
48. In which of the following metallurgy, no reducing dilute aqueous solution of
agent is required?
(1) NaCN only
(1) Mercury from cinnabar
(2) HCl
(2) Zn from zinc blende
(3) NaOH
(3) Iron from haematite
(4) NaCN in presence of O2
(4) Aluminium from bauxite
54. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a
49. The technique used to separate relatively chemically constituent in it
unreactive metals such as Ag, Au, Pt and Pd from
impurities by blast of hot air at higher temperature is (1) Invar (2) Steel
called (3) Bell metal (4) Bronze
(1) Liquation (2) Distillation 55. The element which is not present in the alloy,
(3) Zone refining (4) Cupellation german silver, is

50. In zone refining method, the molten zone (1) Cu (2) Ag

(1) Consists of impurities only (3) Zn (4) Ni

(2) Contains more impurity than the original metal 56. A flux is

(3) Contains the purified metal only (1) A substance used to increase the melting point
of the metal
(4) Moves to either side
(2) A substance used in metallurgy to convert the
51. In the electrolytic refining of copper, Ag and Au can impurities to new low fusible substance
be found in
(3) A substance that reacts with metal to save it
(1) On anode (2) In electrolyte solution from evaporation
(3) In anode mud (4) In cathode mud (4) All of these
Space for Rough Work

8/20
Test - 5 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
57. Which is correct as per the Ellingham diagram? 63. When dil.H2SO4 is added to aqueous solution of
(1) More negative the G of oxide formation of a potassium chromate, yellow colour of solution turns
metal, more is the stability of the oxide to orange colour. It indicates

(2) More negative the G of oxide formation of a (1) Chromate ions are reduced
metal, better is the reducing property of the (2) Chromate ions are oxidised
metal
(3) Monocentric complex is convert into dicentric
(3) G vs T plot representing the change C CO complex
goes downard
(4) Oxygen get removed from chromate ions
(4) All of these
64. The correct formula of mercurous ion is
58. Consider the following reaction at 1100C
(1) Hg+ (2) Hg2+
(i) 2C + O2 2CO; G = 460 kJ/mol
(3) Hg22+ (4) All of these
(ii) 2Zn + O2 2ZnO; G = 360 kJ/mol
Based on these, select the correct alternative 65. Which of the following pair of transition metal ions
are the best oxidising agents in aqueous solutions?
(1) Zinc can be oxidised by CO
(1) V2+ and Cr2+ (2) Ti2+ and Cr2+
(2) Zinc oxide can be reduced by carbon
(3) Mn3+ and Co3+ (4) V2+ and Fe2+
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
66. Which of the following is red in colour?
(4) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect
(1) Cu2O (2) CuF
59. Heating mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S will give
(3) ZnF2 (4) ZnCl2
(1) Cu + SO2 (2) Cu + SO3
(3) CuO + CuS (4) Cu2SO3 67. Fentons reagent is

60. Thomas slag is (1) SnCl2 + HCl (2) AgNO3 + NH4OH

(1) Ca3(PO4)22H2O (2) Ca3(PO4)2CaSiO3 (3) CuSO4 + NaOH (4) FeSO4 + H2O2
(3) MgSiO3 (4) CaSiO3 68. The following is known as Bordeaux mixture.
61. Which is the correct statement about Cr 2 O 72 (1) Borax and copper sulphate
structure?
(2) Orthoboric acid and ferrous sulphate
(1) It has neither Cr Cr bond nor O O bond
(3) Sodium borate and zinc sulphate
(2) It has one Cr Cr bond and six O O bonds
(4) Copper sulphate and lime
(3) It has no Cr Cr bond but has six O O bonds
69. Ce4+ is stable. This is because of
(4) It has one Cr Cr bond and seven Cr O bonds
(1) Half-filled 5d-orbitals
62. The spin only magnetic moment of Fe3+ ion in (BM)
is approximately. (2) All paired electrons in 5d-orbitals
(1) 4 (2) 7 (3) Noble gas configuration
(3) 5 (4) 6 (4) Fully filled 5d-orbitals
Space for Rough Work

9/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E)
70. The point of dissimilarity between lanthanoids and 77. Maximum denticity of the ligand, N(CH2CH2NH2)3
actionoids is can be
(1) Outermost shells configuration (1) 3 (2) 5
(2) General oxidation state (+3) (3) 4 (4) 2
(3) Group number 78. The complex used as an anticancer agent is
(4) Radioactive - nature (1) mer - [CoCl3(NH3)3] (2) Cis - [PtCl2(NH3)2]
71. Choose the correct
(3) Cis - K2[PtBr2Cl2] (4) Na2[CoCl4]
(1) Cr2+ is stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ in
aqueous medium 79. When AgNO3 solution is added in excess to 1M
solution of octahedral complex, CoCl3x NH3, one
(2) Cu2+ undergoes disproportionation in aqueous mole of AgCl is formed. What is the value of x?
medium
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Silver is not a transition element
(3) 3 (4) 4
(4) All are correct
80. Which can exist both as diastereoisomers and
72. CrO 42 (yellow) changes to Cr 2O 72 (orange) in
enantiomers?
pH = x and vice-versa in pH = y. Hence, x and y
are (1) [Pt(en)3]4+ (2) [Pt(en)2ClBr]2+
(1) 6, 8 (2) 6, 5 (3) [Ru(NH3)4]Cl2 (4) [PtCl2Br2]
(3) 8, 6 (4) 7, 7 81. Consider the following statements:
73. The product of I with MnO4 in alkaline medium is I. [NiCl4]2 is square planar while [Ni(CN)4]2 is
(1) I2 (2) IO3 tetrahedral
(3) IO (4) IO4 II. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas
74. Gold dissolves in aqua-regia forming [Fe(CN)6]3 is weakly paramagnetic

(1) [AuCl2NO3] (2) [AuCl2] III. Hexaaquomanganese (II) ion contains five
unpaired electrons
(3) [AuCl4] (4) [Au(NO3)4]
Choose the incorrect statement
75. When Zn is treated with excess of NaOH, the
product obtained is (1) Only III (2) I & II only
(1) Zn(OH)2 (2) ZnOH (3) Only I (4) II & III only
(3) Na2ZnO2 (4) ZnO 82. The increasing order of the crystal field splitting
76. The IUPAC name of complex [Co(NH3)4Cl2] Cl is power of some common ligands is

(1) Dichloro tetraammine cobalt (III) chloride (1) Cl < F < OH < H2O < CN
(2) Tetraamminedichlorocobalt (III) chloride (2) CN < H2O < OH < F < Cl
(3) Tetraamminedichlorocobalt (II) chloride (3) F < CN < OH < Cl < H2O
(4) Tetraamminedichlorocobalt (IV) chloride (4) H2O < Cl < OH < CN < F
Space for Rough Work

10/20
Test - 5 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
83. In solid CuSO 45H 2O, number of H 2O molecule 87. In metal carbonyl (organometallic) complexes, the
coordinated to copper is equal to MC bond is
(1) 5 (2) 4 (1) Ionic
(3) 1 (4) 2 (2) Covalent with ionic character
84. Facial and meridional isomerism will be exhibited by (3) Only covalent
(1) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (4) Both and coordinate covalent
(2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
88. Ziegler - Natta catalyst is an organometallic
(3) [Co(en)3]Cl3 compound containing
(4) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (1) Iron (2) Titanium
85. [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(CN)6]4 differ in (3) Rhodium (4) Zirconium
(1) Geometry & magnetic moment 89. The -bonded organometallic compound which has
(2) Geometry & hybridisation ethene as one of its component is
(3) Magnetic moment & colour (1) Zeises salt (2) Ferrocene
(4) Hybridisation & number of d-electrons (3) Dibenzene chromium (4) Tetraethyl tin
86. The species with spin only magnetic moment of 90. Which of the following carbonyls will have the
24 BM is strongest CO bond?
(1) [CoF3(H2O)3] (2) [CoCl4]2 (1) [V(CO)6] (2) [Fe(CO)5]
(3) [NiCl4]2 (4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (3) [Mn(CO)6]+ (4) [Cr(CO)6]

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Select odd one out w.r.t. life span of organisms. 93. Select correct statements for asexual reproduction.
(1) Life span is specific for each organism (a) It involves only mitotic division
(2) Life span of organisms is necessarily correlated (b) Offsprings produced are blueprints of parents
with their complexity
(c) Cannot occur in higher plants
(3) Small sized organisms can also have long life
span (d) Simple but a slow method of reproduction

(4) Life span refers to period from birth to natural (e) Always occurs without gamete formation and
death syngamy
92. The organisms which do not show senescence but (f) Can occur through specialised or unspecialised
reproduce either asexually or sexually are parts of organisms
(1) Amoeba, Paramoecium, Saccharomyces (1) a, c, f
(2) Wheat, bacteria, protozoans (2) c, d, e
(3) Radish, Amoeba, Euglena (3) a, d, e
(4) Worker honey bee, Chlamydomonas, Diatoms (4) a, b, f
Space for Rough Work

11/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
94. The most common asexual spore produced in
Penicillium, called conidia is
(1) Non-motile thin walled and dispersed by water
(2) Formed on special hyphal branches called
conidiophores
(3) Endogenously produced in basipetal order at the
tip of sterigmata
(4) Haploid, unicellular and thick walled
95. Water hyacinth is called terror of Bengal because
(1) It is an exotic weed
(2) Introduced in Bengal for its beautiful flowers and
shape of leaves
(3) It drains oxygen from water and causes death of
fishes
(4) It grows at a phenomenal rate in running water
reservoirs
96. Artificial method of vegetative propagation in which
new plants are raised from root cuttings, is done in
(1) Tamarind (2) Snake plant
(3) Rose (4) Walnut
97. Oblique or sloping cut is given to both stock and
scion so that the two can fit together properly in
(1) Wedge grafting (2) Whip grafting
(3) Approach grafting (4) Crown grafting
98. The period between two consecutive flowering is
called interflowering period
(1) Is actually a recovery phase
(2) Can also occur in biennial plants
(3) Is observed in all perennials including bamboo
(4) Is not a part of the mature phase of the plant
99. Majority of sexually reproducing organisms produce
(1) Homogametes
(2) Heterogametes
(3) Non-motile male gametes and non-motile female
gametes
(4) Male and female gametes by mitosis
Space for Rough Work
12/20
Test - 5 (Code E)
100. Chromosome number in meiocytes of apple, maize
and rice are respectively
(1) 34, 10, 24 (2) 20, 34, 24
(3) 34, 20, 12 (4) 34, 20, 24
101. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. Marchantia
(1) Male and female sex organs are born on
separate thalli
(2) Archegonium has long neck and swollen venter
(3) Sex organs are born on stalked upright special
branches called gametophores
(4) Only male sex organ is covered by sterile jacket
102. Pollen germination in angiosperms
(1) Starts even before its release from anther
(2) Cannot occur in nutrient medium containing
sugar solution and minerals
(3) Occurs on stigma when the pollen is compatible
(4) More than one options are correct
103. The most vital event of sexual reproduction is
(1) Zygote development
(2) Gametogenesis
(3) Successful gamete transfer
(4) Fusion of gametes
104. Organisms exhibiting external fertilization
(1) Show great synchrony between the sexes
(2) Release a large number of gametes into the
surrounding medium
(3) Are extremely vulnerable to predators,
threatening their survival up to adulthood
(4) All are correct
105. Formation of embryo from zygote includes all except
(1) Reduction division (2) Equational division
(3) Cell differentiation (4) Mitosis
Test - 5 (Code E)
106. In flowering plants, after fertilisation
(1) Only petals and stamens wither and fall
(2) The pistil does not remain attached to the plant
(3) The ovary wall develops into pericarp and the
ovules turn into seeds
(4) The sepals remain attached to the fruit in only
few genera of solanaceae
107. Consider the following statements
a. Fibrous bands of -cellulose are present in wall
of epidermis in anther wall
b. Tapetum cells possess dense cytoplasm and
are polyploid
c. Increase in DNA content of tapetum is due to
endomitosis
d. The epidermis of anther wall is single layered and
protective in function
(1) (a) & (b) are correct
(2) Only (a) is incorrect
(3) (b) & (c) are incorrect
(4) (a) & (c) are correct
108. Total number of microspore tetrads formed in a
dithecous anther if each sporangia has 50
microspore mother cells would be
(1) 50 (2) 200
(3) 800 (4) 100
109. How many statements are correct for pollen grains?
a. Represent partially developed microgametophytes.
b. Sculpturing of exine is genetically controlled but
has no taxonomic significance.
c. The inner wall is discontinuous and made up of
cellulose and pectin.
d. They are rich in nutrients.
e. Pollen viability may be even for several months
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 5
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
110. Ovules in angiosperms
(1) Are also called integumented dehiscent
megasporangium
(2) May be either one or many in each ovary
(3) May have poorly developed nucellus in
polypetalae
(4) Has chalaza, representing its apical part
111. Megaspore mother cell in ovule
(1) Generally differentiates in chalazal region of the
nucellus
(2) Is a large cell containing dense cytoplasm and
a prominent nucleus
(3) Divides by mitosis to form a linear tetrad that
further divides to form eight nuclei
(4) More than one options are correct
112. Largest cell in polygonum type of embryo sac is
(1) Synergid (2) Egg
(3) Central cell (4) Antipodal cells
113. Synergids in embryo sac
(1) Generally have micropylar nucleus and chalazal
vacuole
(2) Lack a cell wall on their micropylar side at
maturity
(3) Consist of filiform apparatus that guides pollen
tube entry in ovule
(4) Generally possess a chalazal nucleus and
micropylar ovule
114. Which of the following conditions can result in
assured seed set even in the absence of pollinators?
(1) Homogamy (2) Monocliny
(3) Pollen compatibility (4) Cleistogamy
13/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E)
115. Water pollinated flowers and pollens are often 120. Formation of diploid embryo sac directly from cell of
characterised by all except nucellus without its differentiation into megasporocyte
is
(1) Presence of mucilage covering on pollens
(2) Long, ribbon like pollens floating passively inside (1) Apospory
water (2) Diplospory
(3) Majority of hydrophytes flowers are submerged in (3) Sporophytic budding
water and have feathery stigma
(4) Non-recurrent agamospermy
(4) Flowers are non-showy and nectarless
121. How many of the traits of garden pea can express
116. The outbreeding device which prevents both only in homozygous state?
autogamy and geitonogamy is
(1) Herkogamy (2) Heterostyly Yellow pod colour, yellow seed colour,
terminal flowers, Full shape of pod,
(3) Dioecy (4) Monoecy
green seed colour, white flower colour
117. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. endosperm in
angiosperms. (1) 4 (2) 3
(1) Genetically all the three nuclei forming primary (3) 2 (4) 5
endosperm nucleus are similar
122. Proportion of the offsprings expected to have
(2) The PEN undergoes free nuclear divisions to genotype BbCcDDEe, if a cross is made between
form many nuclei BbCcDdEE and bbCcDDEe genotype is
(3) The number of free nuclei formed before
cellularisation varies greatly 1 2
(1) (2)
16 16
(4) Endosperm development precedes embryo
formation 8 8
(3) (4)
118. During development of embryo in dicots 256 64
(1) The embryonal cell divides twice vertically and 123. Identify the given pedigree and choose the correct
once transversely to form single tiered octant option.
stage
(2) The embryo develops from a part of zygote only
(3) Heart shape stage precedes the globular stage
(4) Suspensor is directed towards chalazal end of
ovule
(1) Autosomal dominant pedigree
119. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of
attachment of scutellum in grass embryo is (2) X-linked recessive pedigree
(1) Epicotyl (2) Coleoptile (3) Y-linked pedigree
(3) Coleorhiza (4) Epiblast (4) X-linked dominant pedigree
Space for Rough Work

14/20
Test - 5 (Code E)
124. Genotypic and phenotypic ratios cannot be same in
(1) Monohybrid test cross
(2) F2 generation in flower colour of snapdragon
(3) Codominance
(4) A cross between F 1 progeny and dominant
parent
125. The gene interaction with F 2 phenotypic ratio
9 : 6 : 1 is
(1) Supplementary genes
(2) Epistatic genes
(3) Polymeric genes
(4) Duplicate genes
126. Choose wrong statement for chromosomal theory of
inheritance
(1) Proposed by Sutton and Boveri
(2) Behaviour of chromosome movement was
studied in mitosis
(3) Genes and chromosome both occur in pairs
(4) Independent pairs of genes and chromosomes
segregate independent of each other
127. All are correct for Drosophila melanogaster, except
(1) Their life span is about one year
(2) The male and female flies are easily
distinguishable
(3) They could be grown on simple synthetic
medium in the laboratory
(4) Mating between two parents produce a large
number of flies
128. Recombinant offsprings in F2 generation found in
Morgans experiments were 37.2 per cent
(1) When crosses were made between white eyed
miniature winged female and red eyed long
winged males
(2) Because the genes were loosely linked on the
same chromosome
(3) Indicates the strength of linkage between genes
w and m is less than between genes y and m
(4) More than one options are correct
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
129. XX XO type of sex-determination
(1) Shows female heterogamety
(2) Is found in round worm, cockroach and
Melandrium
(3) Produces 50% (A + O) type of sperms
(4) Do not show segregation of chromosomes
130. Sex-limited traits in human beings are exemplified by
(1) Short index finger in male
(2) Porcupine skin and hypertrichosis
(3) Deep male voice
(4) Pattern baldness
131. How many monosomic are possible if an organism
has 16 chromosomes in zygote?
(1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 4 (4) 7
132. Downs syndrome is due to
(1) 21st trisomy (2) Translocation
(3) Duplication (4) Inversion
133. Find out the odd one w.r.t. chemical mutagen
acridines.
(1) Brings out oxidative deamination of adenine and
guanine
(2) Interfere DNA replication and intercalate between
bases in DNA
(3) Induces frame-shift mutation
(4) Is exemplified by Thalassaemia
134. Mendelian disorders in human beings
(1) Are mainly determined by mutation in single
gene
(2) Can be autosomal or sex-linked
(3) May show dominant or recessive behaviour
(4) All are correct
15/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E)

135. Phenylketonuria in human beings is 141. Urethra acts as urinogenital duct in

(1) Sex-linked recessive disorder (1) Human male (2) Human female
(2) An example of pleiotropic gene (3) Male frog (4) Female frog
(3) Due to absence of enzyme tyrosinase 142. Which of the following function is not contributed by
(4) Because of decreased synthesis of amino acid Sertoli cells?
phenylalanine
(1) To form blood-testis barrier
136. Which of the following process is not included in pre-
(2) To release mullerian factor for the development
fertilization event?
of mullerian duct
(1) Spermatogenesis
(3) To release androgen binding protein
(2) Oogenesis
(4) To absorb the parts being shed by developing
(3) Cell division and cell differentiation in a embryo spermatozoa
(4) Gamete transfer 143. Which of the following is not a function of
137. Which of the following statements is not true? testosterone?
(1) Maximum life span is the characteristic of (1) Spermatogenesis
population
(2) Development of prostate gland and seminal
(2) Life expectancy is the characteristics of vesicle
population
(3) Catabolic effects on protein and carbohydrate
(3) Life span cannot necessarily be correlated with metabolism
size of an organism
(4) Influences the male sexual behaviour
(4) Life expectancy is the number of years an
individual can expect to live for, and based on 144. Read the following statements.
average life span (A) Failure of testes to descend into scrotum is
138. Simple binary fission is present in known as cryptorchidism.

(1) Amoeba (2) Vorticella (B) The ligamentous connective cord which connects
testis to abdominal cavity is gubernaculum.
(3) Euglena (4) Paramoecium
(C) Abdominal testes are found in whale.
139. Out of all these phases of oestrous cycle in which
phase, there is suspension of estrous cycles events? (D) Sustentacular cells provide nourishment to
spermatids.
(1) Proestrous (2) Anoestrous
(3) Metestrous (4) Oestrous Find out the correct option.

140. The type of parthenogenesis in which the only male (1) All are correct
develops from unfertilized eggs is known as (2) (A), (C) & (D) are correct
(1) Arrhenotoky (2) Amphitoky (3) (B), (C) & (D) are correct
(3) Thelytoky (4) Vegetative reproduction (4) Only (A) & (C) are incorrect

Space for Rough Work

16/20
Test - 5 (Code E)
145. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Leydig cells secrete a group of hormones called
androgen
(2) Cowpers gland secretes a viscous mucus which
acts as a lubricant
(3) Urethra runs through corpus spongiosum
(4) LH controls the function of Sertoli cells
146. A cross-section at the mid-point of the middle piece
of a human sperm will show
(1) Mitochondria and centrioles
(2) 9+2 arrangement of microtubules and
mitochondria
(3) Centrioles, mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement
of microtubules
(4) 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules only
147. In which phase of cell division is oocyte arrested till
puberty?
(1) Metaphase-I (2) Metaphase-II
(3) Prophase-I (4) Prophase-I and II
148. Correctly matched pairs are
(A) Areola Pigmented circular area around the
nipple
(B) Ejaculatory duct A common duct formed by
the union of vas deferens and duct of seminal
vesicle
(C) Clitoris Erectile body in female and is
analogous to glans penis of male
(D) Membranous urethra Smallest part of urethra
(1) (A) & (B) are correct
(2) (A), (B) & (D) are correct
(3) (A), (B) & (C) are correct
(4) All are correct
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
149. Prostaglandins, inositol and fructose are the
components present in the secretion of
(1) Prostate gland
(2) Seminal vesicles
(3) Bulbourethral glands
(4) Cowpers glands
150. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in male
reproductive system gets blocked, the gametes will
not be transported from
(1) Seminiferous tubules to tubuli recti
(2) Tubuli recti to rete testis
(3) Rete testis to epididymis
(4) Epididymis to vas deferens
151. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
menstruation?
(1) Increased secretion of progesterone in secretory
phase
(2) Breakdown of myometrium during menstruation
(3) LH and FSH attain peak level during ovulation
(4) At menopause, there is abrupt increase in
gonadotropic hormones
152. Ovulation in human female normally takes place
during the menstrual cycle
(1) At the mid of proliferative phase
(2) At the end of proliferative phase
(3) At the beginning of proliferative phase
(4) Just before the end of the secretory phase
17/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E)
153. Read the following statements 157. All of the following are diploid cells formed during
(A) When the number of sperms falls below 20 spermatogenesis except
million/ml, the male is likely to be infertile (1) Male germ cell
(B) 200 secondary spermatocytes are required to (2) Spermatogonia
form 400 spermatozoa
(3) Primary spermatocyte
(C) Withdrawl of progesterone is the immediate
(4) Secondary spermatocyte
cause of menstruation
158. Match the following with correct combination.
(D) Prostate gland is paired chestnut shaped gland
which lie at the base of bladder a. Acrosome (i) Sperm activation
Choose the correct option. b. Capacitation (ii) Golgi bodies
(1) (A), (B) & (C) are correct c. Gastrulation (iii)Wider part of oviduct
(2) (B), (C) & (D) are correct d. Ampulla (iv) Morphogenetic movements
(3) (B) & (C) are correct Choose the correct option
(4) (A) & (C) are correct (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
154. Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(1) Found in female ovaries 159. Which of the following organs are developed by
(2) Source of progesterone and estrogen mesoderm?
(3) Characterised by yellow colour (1) Pituitary, lungs, gonads
(4) Related with regeneration of endometrium (2) Adrenal medulla, muscular tissue, connective
155. If the size of a fertilized egg of frog is compared with tissue
the size of its morula and gastrula stages, then the (3) Blood, muscular tissue, bone
correct observation is
(4) Liver, thyroid, kidneys
(1) Zygote will be smaller, while morula and gastrula
160. The cells of Rauber are
will be larger
(1) Trophoblast cells in contact with uterine wall
(2) Zygote and morula will be of same size while
gastrula will be larger (2) Cells of trophoblast in contact with inner cell
mass of blastocyst
(3) All the three will be of same size
(4) There is progressive increase in size from (3) Cells of myometrium
zygote to gastrula (4) Cells of endometrium
156. The chemical fertilizin and antifertilizin are present 161. If a mammalian ovum does not fertilize, which one of
respectively in the following will not occur?
(1) Immature ovum and immature sperm (1) Rapid decrease amount of progesterone
(2) Mature sperm and mature ovum (2) Primary follicle develops into graffian follicles
(3) Mature ovum and mature sperm (3) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
(4) Immature sperm and immature ovum (4) Estrogen secretion further decreases
Space for Rough Work

18/20
Test - 5 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
162. Which extra-embryonic membrane in human beings 167. The placenta of human being is
help in the formation of umblical cord?
(1) Epitheliochorial, deciduous and discoidal
(1) Allantois only (2) Haemochorial, deciduous and discoidal
(2) Allantois and yolk sac (3) Haemochorial, deciduous and metadiscoidal
(3) Yolk sac only (4) Haemochorial, non-deciduous and metadiscoidal
(4) Chorion and amnion 168. Which of the following events is not included in
163. Choose the correct statement. Expulsion stage of parturition?

(1) Embryos heart is formed by the end of the
second month of pregnancy
(2) The first movements of the foetus is observed
during the fifth month
(3) Eyelids separate at the end of fifth month
(4) Blastocyst begins to implant in the uterus after
four days of fertilization
(A) Cervix gets dilated with vagina
(B) The amnion ruptures and the amniotic fluid flows
out through vagina
(C) The infants lungs expand and it begins breathing
(D) Blood flows through the umbilical cord, ductus
arteriosus and foramen ovale ceases
(E) Placenta is expelled out

164. During embryonic development, which of the following Choose the correct option.
organ is formed first? (1) (A) & (B) only
(1) Heart (2) Brain (2) (A), (B) and (E)
(3) Kidney (4) Skin (3) (B) only
165. Pattern of cleavage in frogs and chicks embryo (4) (B), (E) only
respectively is
169. Drugs such as thalidomide taken by woman in first
(1) Holoblastic equal and meroblastic trimester of pregnancy cause all the following
malformation in the developing embryo, except
(2) Holoblastic unequal and meroblastic
(1) Amelia
(3) Holoblastic and meroblastic
(2) Phocomelia
(4) Discoidal and meroblastic
(3) Non-formation of long bones
166. Read the statements carefully.
(4) Kidney disorder
Vitelline membrane, zona pellucida, calcareous
shell, albumin, corona radiata, granulosa layer, 170. The stem cells which have potency to form all types
theca layer, shell membrane of tissues and organs in embryo are formed by

Among all the following, how many membranes are (1) Inner cell mass
formed by the contribution of ovary? (2) Trophoblast
(1) Three (2) Five (3) Cell of Rauber
(3) Two (4) Four (4) Endoderm and mesoderm
Space for Rough Work

19/20
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E)
171. Which of the following groups of hormones are 176. Infertility cases either due to inability of the male
produced in women only during pregnancy? partner to inseminate the female or due to very low
(1) Prolactin, progesterone, HCG sperm counts in the ejaculates, could be corrected
by
(2) HCG, HPL, relaxin
(1) AI (2) IUI
(3) Cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine
(3) GIFT (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Estrogen, progesterone, HCG
172. The test tube baby programme employs which one 177. Find out incorrect statement about Saheli.
of the following technique? (1) A new oral contraceptive containing a non-
(1) IUI (2) AI steroidal preparation
(3) GIFT (4) ZIFT (2) Developed in central drug research institute
173. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive Lucknow
due to the (3) Prevents ovulation
(1) Suppression of gonadotropins (4) Once a week pill
(2) Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
178. Which of the following is not the function of
(3) High concentration of estrogen and progesterone progesterone?
(4) High concentration of cortisol (1) It supports pregnancy
174. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within (2) Stimulates the formation of alveoli
(1) 72 hrs of implantation
(3) Maintains corpus luteum during pregnancy
(2) 72 hrs of coitus
(4) Uterine growth and development
(3) 72 hrs of ovulation
179. A female is having a menstrual cycle of 32 days. The
(4) 72 hrs of menstruation
ovulation will be at
175. Following statements are given regarding MTP. Read
the statements. (1) 14th day (2) 16th day

(A) MTPs are always surgical (3) 18th day (4) 12th day
(B) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester 180. The portion of the endometrium that covers the
embryo and is located between the embryo and
(C) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
uterine cavity is the
(D) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical
personnel (1) Decidua basalis

Choose the option which includes correct statements (2) Decidua umbilicus
(1) (A), (B) & (D) (2) (A), (B) & C (3) Decidua capsularis
(3) (B) & (D) (4) (B), (C) & D (4) Trophoectoderm

  

Space for Rough Work

20/20
Test - 5 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

TEST - 5 (Code-E)
Test Date : 14-02-2016 ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (3) 73. (2) 109. (1) 145. (4)
2. (2) 38. (4) 74. (3) 110. (2) 146 (2)
3. (1) 39. (3) 75. (3) 111. (2) 147. (3)
4. (3) 40. (2) 76. (2) 112. (3) 148. (2)
5. (4) 41. (3) 77. (3) 113. (1) 149. (2)
6. (Deleted) 42. (1) 78. (2) 114. (4) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (4) 44. (4) 80. (2) 116. (3) 152. (2)
9. (4) 45. (1) 81. (3) 117. (1) 153. (1)
10. (4) 46. (3) 82. (1) 118. (2) 154. (3)
11. (3) 47. (1) 83. (2) 119. (1) 155. (2)
12. (3) 48. (1) 84. (1) 120. (1) 156. (3)
13. (2) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (2) 86. (1) 122. (1) 158. (1)
15. (1) 51. (3) 87. (4) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (2) 52. (2) 88. (2) 124. (4) 160. (2)
17. (2) 53. (4) 89. (1) 125. (3) 161. (2)
18. (1) 54. (2) 90. (3) 126. (2) 162. (2)
19. (1) 55. (2) 91. (2) 127. (1) 163. (2)
20. (2) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (4) 164. (1)
21. (2) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (2) 94. (2) 130. (3) 166. (1)
23. (3) 59. (1) 95. (3) 131. (2) 167. (3)
24. (4) 60. (2) 96. (1) 132. (1) 168. (2)
25. (2) 61. (1) 97. (2) 133. (1) 169. (4)
26. (1) 62. (4) 98. (1) 134. (4) 170. (1)
27. (4) 63. (3) 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (2)
28. (4) 64. (3) 100. (4) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (3) 65. (3) 101. (4) 137. (1) 173. (1)
30. (3) 66. (1) 102. (3) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (1) 67. (4) 103. (4) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (3) 68. (4) 104. (4) 140. (1) 176. (4)
33. (3) 69. (3) 105. (1) 141. (1) 177. (3)
34. (2) 70. (4) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (3)
35. (1) 71. (1) 107. (2) 143. (3) 179. (3)
36. (1) 72. (1) 108. (2) 144. (2) 180. (3)

1/8
 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (1)
4kR 5
2. Answer (2) Qen =
5 32
qenclosed
 E . ds = R 2 4kR 5
0 E 4 =
2 5 32 0
q kR 5 4 kR 3
=
0 E = =
400
5 32 0R 2
3. Answer (1) 6. Deleted
At point A density of field lines are greater than B. 7. Answer (3)
EA > EB 8. Answer (4)
4. Answer (3) p2
qV =
2m
Q Q
P= 2mqV

a Pe 2me eV me
O
P = 2m 2eV
= 2m
Q Q
9. Answer (4)
kp cos
kQ V=
V0 = 4 r2
a/ 2

k p r
kQ V=
V0 = 4 2 r3
a
10. Answer (4)
V = 0

W = qV E changes due to change in direction but V
W = Q(V V0) remains unchanged as distances are unchanged.
11. Answer (3)
kQ 4 2Q 2
W = Q 0 4 2 Electric field is taken due to all the charges present,
a 40a but only enclosed charges are taken.

 E E
q1 q2 q3
2Q 2 1 2 E3 E 4 dA = 0
W =
0a
12. Answer (3)
5. Answer (4) qen
Qen E.ds = 0
 E ds =
0 at r = R
1
0
Qen = dv E1(4R2) = dv

R /2 1 R a
= 0 kr 2 4r 2dr E1(4R2) = 0 kr 4r 2dr
0

2/8
Test - 5 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

1 Ra 3 U = CV 2
E1(4R2) = 4 k
0 a 3 Work done = 2U = 2CV 2
at r = R/2 by battery
18. Answer (1)
R 2 1 (R /2)a 3
E2 4 = 4k C = C1 + C2
2 0 a 3
1A /2 2 A /2
1 C =
E2 d d
=
4E1 2a 3 A 1A 2 A
E2 =
1 d 2d 2d
E1 =
8 1 2
=
1 1 2
= a+3=5 a=2
48 2a 3 19. Answer (1)
13. Answer (2) 20. Answer (2)
14. Answer (1) 21. Answer (2)
15. Answer (1)
C1C2
kQ 3kQ kQ Charge Q =
V1 = = C1 C2
R 2R 2R
As C1 and C2 are in series.
kQ 3kQ kQ
V2 = = 22. Answer (2)
2R 2R R
V1 23. Answer (3)
1
V2 = 0 A
2
C =
16. Answer (2) d t
V1 But if t 0
0 A
C = = C0
d
C1 Capacity remains unchanged.
V 24. Answer (4)

C2 Final charge after n times

C3
Q
=
V2 2n
V3
For n = 3
Total charge at any junction = 0
Q Q
C1(V V1) + C2(V V2) + C3(V V3) = 0 Qfinal =
23 8
(C1 + C2 + C3) V = C1V1 + C2V2 + C3V3
25. Answer (2)
C V C2V2 C3V3
V = 11
C1 C2 C3 2l
VAB i
17. Answer (2) iRAB r 2
=
VBC iRBC l
1 i
Ui = CV 2 r
2
2
2
3
Uf = CV 2
2 r 2
2l 2
U =
3 1
CV 2 CV 2 = 4 = =1:2
2 2 r 2 l 4

3/8
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)
26. Answer (1) 37. Answer (3)
Resistivity is property of material hence it depends Req = 4
only on temperature and not on the dimensions of
conductor. V2 (2)2
27. Answer (4) P = R 4 =1W
eq

R1 tan 60
= 38. Answer (4)
R2 tan 30
Q(t) = t t2
l i(t) = 2t
1 3
A 3
= 1 = Current will keep flowing till time when i = 0
l 1
2
A 3 2t = 0
1 3 1 1
2 = = t=
2
1 2 3
28. Answer (4) t 2

29. Answer (3)

Heat produced= 0 i Rdt
t 2
Charge flown = area of i t graph = 0 ( 2t ) Rdt
= 2121
t
2 2 2
= R [ 4 t 4t ]dt
= 0
30. Answer (3) 0

/2
V2 2 2 t
3
t2
P1 =
R1 = R t 4 4
3 2 0
R1 3
R2 = 4 3 2 3
2 R
=
2 3 8 4
V2 V 2
P2 = = 2 R 3R
R2 1 =
6
31. Answer (1)
39. Answer (3)
32. Answer (3)
40. Answer (2)
E
i1 = (when k1 is closed) Power i2R as the net resistance of 39 bulbs are
2R
lesser hence current will increase.
E Hence due to more current illumination of each bulb
i2 = (when k2 is closed)
2R increases.
Hence i1 = i2 41. Answer (3)
33. Answer (3) R
34. Answer (2) R

R1 = 5
R
R1 + R2 = 10
A B
R2 = 5 R
35. Answer (1)
36. Answer (1)
R
Power gets added in parallel. 3R R

Hence maximum power = P + P + P 2 2 3R
RAB = =
= 3P 2R 8

4/8
Test - 5 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
42. Answer (1) 45. Answer (1)

E 2r1 E 2r2 R = R0(1 + at + bt2)

2 = 2
(r1 r ) (r2 r )
(r2 + r)2r1 = r2(r1 + r)2 1 dR
=
r22r1 + r2r1 + 2r1r2r = r12r2 + r2r2 + 2rr1r2 R dt

r2(r1 r2) = r1r2(r1 r2)

dR
r= r1r2 = R0(a + 2bt)
dt
43. Answer (1)
1
No current will flow through ammeter as it is not a = R0 (a 2bt )
part of closed circuit. R0 (1 at bt 2 )
44. Answer (4)
2R R 2R =
a 2bt
RAB =
3R 3 1 at bt 2

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3) 57. Answer (4)
Cinnabar HgS Fact
47. Answer (1) 58. Answer (2)
Adsorption 2ZnO + 2C 2Zn + CO; G = 100 kJ
48. Answer (1) 59. Answer (1)
Fact Cu2O + CuS Cu + SO2 (Self reduction)
49. Answer (4) 60. Answer (2)
In cupellation Pb like impurity is converted into PbO Thomas Slay Ca(PO4)2CaSiO3
which is volatile.
61. Answer (1)
50. Answer (2)

O O
Impurity is more soluble in molten metal as compare
to solid metal. Cr Cr
51. Answer (3) O O
O O O
Fact 62. Answer (4)
52. Answer (2)
Magjetic moment = 5(5 2) = 35 BM
(Fact)
63. Answer (3)
53. Answer (4)
2O H+
Ag2S + 4NaCN
2
Na[Ag(CN)2] + Na2SO4 
CrO42  Cr O 2
 2 7
OH
54. Answer (2)
Steel contain carbon. (Yellow) (Orange)

55. Answer (2) 64. Answer (3)

German silver contains Cu (25 30%), Zn (25 Hg22+ mercurous ion

30%) & Ni (40 50%). 65. Answer (3)
56. Answer (2) Value of electrode potentials of Mn3+ & Cr3+ are + ve
Fact (Act as oxidising agent)

5/8
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)
66. Answer (1) 79. Answer (4)
In Cu 2O copper is in +2 oxidation state due to [Ag(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
presence of unpaired electron it show colour. 80. Answer (2)
67. Answer (4) [Pt(en)2ClBr] Cis isomer show optical isomerism
Fe2+|H2O2 Fentons reagent (form enantiomers) and it in diastereomers with trans
isomers.
68. Answer (4)
81. Answer (3)
Fact
Fact
69. Answer (3)
82. Answer (1)
Ce4+ = 4f
Fact
70. Answer (4)
83. Answer (2)
Actinoids are radioactive in nature.
In CuSO45H2O one H2O is hydrogen bonded and
71. Answer (1)
other 4 with coordinated bond.
Fact
84. Answer (1)
72. Answer (1)
[Co(NH3)3Cl3] for meridional and facial isomers.
H+ 85. Answer (3)

CrO42  Cr O 2
 2 7
OH [Fe(H2O)6]2+ contain four unpaired electrons but in
[Fe(CN)6]4 all electrons are paired.
(Yellow) (Orange)
86. Answer (1)
73. Answer (2)
Co3+ = 4 unpaired electrons,
2MnO4 + H2O + I 2MnO2 + 2OH + IO3
74. Answer (3) magnetic moment = 4(4 2) = 24 BM
Au + 4H + NO3 + 4Cl [AuCl4] + NO + 2H2O 87. Answer (4)
75. Answer (3) Fact
Zn + 2NaOH Na2ZnO2 + H2 88. Answer (2)
76. Answer (2) TiCl3 + (C2H5)3Al
Tetraamminedichlorocobalt (iii) chloride. 89. Answer (1)
77. Answer (3) Zeises salt k[PtCl3(2 C2H4)]
All 4 nitrogen donate its lone pair. 90. Answer (3)
78. Answer (2) The greater +ve charge on central atom, the less
readily the metal can donate e to the * orbital of
Fact carbonyl ligand.

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (2) 95. Answer (3)
Life span is necessarily not correlated with Fishes are supplement food in Bengal.
complexity of organisms.
96. Answer (1)
92. Answer (1)
97. Answer (2)
Amoeba, Paramoecium and Saccharomyces are
Tongue/whip grafting
immortal.
98. Answer (1)
93. Answer (4)
99. Answer (2)
Asexual reproduction can occur in higher plants.
94. Answer (2) 100. Answer (4)

6/8
Test - 5 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

101. Answer (4) 125. Answer (3)

Both male and female sex organs are covered with 126. Answer (2)
sterile jacket.
Behaviour of chromosome movement was studied in
102. Answer (3) meiosis.
Pollen germination occurs in nutrient medium. 127. Answer (1)
103. Answer (4) Life cycle is about two weeks.
104. Answer (4) 128. Answer (4)
105. Answer (1) 129. Answer (3)
Zygote undergoes mitosis to form embryo. XX XY type in Melandrium.
106. Answer (3) 130. Answer (3)
107. Answer (2) Pattern baldness is sex-influenced.
Fibrous band develops on inner tangential wall of
131. Answer (2)
endothecium.
Number of monosomic is equal to haploid set of
108. Answer (2)
chromosome.
One microspore mother cell forms only one
132. Answer (1)
microspore tetrad. Total number of microspore
mother cell = 200. Downs syndrome is 21st trisomy.
109. Answer (1) 133. Answer (1)
Sculpturing of exine has taxonomic significance. Oxidative deamination of bases due to nitrous acid.
110. Answer (2) 134. Answer (4)
111. Answer (2) 135. Answer (2)
112. Answer (3) PKU is autosomal recessive disorder.
113. Answer (1) 136. Answer (3)
Synergids lack cell wall on chalazal side at maturity.
137. Answer (1)
114. Answer (4)
Maximum life span is the characteristic of species.
115. Answer (3)
138. Answer (1)
116. Answer (3)
139. Answer (2)
117. Answer (1)
140. Answer (1)
Male gamete nucleus and polar nuclei are genetically
different. Female produced by parthenogenesis is called
thelytoky.
118. Answer (2)
141. Answer (1)
Embryo development in angiosperms is meroblastic
142. Answer (2)
119. Answer (1)
Sertoli cells release antimullerian factor to prevent
120. Answer (1)
the formation of mullerian duct.
121. Answer (1)
143. Answer (3)
Full shape of pod and yellow seed colour are
dominant. Testosterone influences the development of
secondary sexual characters.
122. Answer (1)
144. Answer (2)
123. Answer (3)
Gubernaculum connects testis to scrotum.
124. Answer (4)
145. Answer (4)
Cross between F1 and dominant progeny is out
cross. FSH controls the function of Sertoli cells.

7/8
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 5 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)
146. Answer (2) 166. Answer (1)
147. Answer (3) Vitelline membrane, zona pellucida are secreted by
148. Answer (2) ovum itself, while albumin, calcareous shell and shell
membranes are contributed by oviduct.
Clitoris is homologous to glans penis of male.
167. Answer (3)
149. Answer (2)
168. Answer (2)
150. Answer (3)
Dilation of cervix and vagina, rupturing of amnion are
Vasa efferentia connects rete testis to epididymus. the events of dilation stage and expulsion of placenta
151. Answer (2) is the event after birth stage.
152. Answer (2) 169. Answer (4)
153. Answer (1) 170. Answer (1)
Prostate gland is unpaired gland. All three germinal layers of embryo are formed by
154. Answer (3) inner cell mass.

155. Answer (2) 171. Answer (2)

156. Answer (3) 172. Answer (4)

Fertilizin is present at the surface of mature ova and 173. Answer (1)
antifertilizin is present at the surface of mature
174. Answer (2)
sperm.
157. Answer (4) 175. Answer (3)

158. Answer (1) MTPs are done non-surgically also by the

administration of antiprogestin (mifepristone).
159. Answer (3)
176. Answer (4)
160. Answer (2)
177. Answer (3)
161. Answer (2)
Saheli prevents implantation.
If a mammalian ovum does not fertilize, the corpus
luteum disintegrate and the low concentration of 178. Answer (3)
progesterone will cause bleeding phase.
Mammary glands milk production and mammary
162. Answer (2) glands contraction is done by prolactin and oxytocin
163. Answer (2) hormone.

Eyelids separate at the end of 6th month. 179. Answer (3)

164. Answer (1) Luteal phase of 14 days is fixed in menstrual cycle.

165. Answer (2) 180. Answer (3)

  

8/8