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Civil Engineering interview questions and answers

1.) What are the steps involved in the concreting process,


explain?

The major steps involved in the process of concreting are as follows:


1. Batching
2. Mixing
3. Transporting and placing of concrete
4. Compacting.

> Batching: The process of measurement of the different materials for the making of
concrete is known as batching. batching is usually done in two ways: volume batching
and weight batching. In case of volume batching the measurement is done in the form
of volume whereas in the case of weight batching it is done by the weight.
> Mixing: In order to create good concrete the mixing of the materials should be first
done in dry condition and after it wet condition. The two general methods of mixing
are: hand mixing and machine mixing.
> Transportation and placing of concrete: Once the concrete mixture is created it must
be transported to its final location. The concrete is placed on form works and should
always be dropped on its final location as closely as possible.
> Compaction of concrete: When concrete is placed it can have air bubbles entrapped
in it which can lead to the reduction of the strength by 30%. In order to reduce the air
bubbles the process of compaction is performed. Compaction is generally performed
in two ways: by hand or by the use of vibrators.

2.) Describe briefly the various methods of concrete curing.

Curing is the process of maintaining the moisture and temperature conditions for
freshly deployed concrete. This is done for small duration of time to allow the
hardening of concrete. The methods that are involved in saving the shrinkage of the
concrete includes:
(a) Spraying of water: on walls, and columns can be cured by sprinkling water.
(b) Wet covering of surface: can be cured by using the surface with wet gunny bags or
straw
(c) Ponding: the horizontal surfaces including the slab and floors can be cured by
stagnating the water.
(d) Steam curing: of pre-fabricated concrete units steam can be cured by passing it
over the units that are under closed chambers. It allows faster curing process and
results in faster recovery.
(e) Application of curing compounds: compounds having calcium chloride can be
applied on curing surface. This keeps the surface wet for a very long time.

3.) What do you understand by preset during the installation


process of bridge bearings?

During the installation of bridge bearings the size of the upper plates is reduced to
save the material costs. This process is known as preset. Generally the upper bearing
plate comprises of the following components:
> Length of bearing
> 2 x irreversible movement.
> 2 x reversible movement.
The bearing initially is placed right in the middle point of the upper bearing plate. No
directional effects of irreversible movement is considered. But since the irreversible
movement usually takes place in one direction only the displaced direction is placed
away from the midpoint. In such cases the length of the upper plate is equal to the
length of the length of the bearing + irreversible movement + 2 x reversible movement.

4.) Why are steel plates inserted inside bearings in elastomeric


bearings?

In order to make a elastomeric bearing act/ function as a soft spring it should be made
to allow it to bulge laterally and also the stiffness compression can be increased by
simply increasing the limiting amount of the lateral bulging. In many cases in order to
increase the compression stiffness of the bearing the usage of metal plates is made.
Once steel plates are included in the bearings the freedom of the bulge is restricted
dramatically, also the deflection of the bearing is reduced as compared to a bearing
without the presence of steel plates. The tensile stresses of the bearings are induced
into the steel plates. But the presence of the metal plates does not affect the shear
stiffness of the bearings.

5.) What reinforcements are used in the process of


prestressing?

The major types of reinforcements used in prestressing are:


> Spalling Reinforcement: The spalling stresses leads to stress behind the loaded
area of the anchor blocks. This results in the breaking off of the surface concrete. The
most likely causes of such types of stresses are Poisson`s effects strain
interoperability or by the stress trajectory shapes.
> Equilibrium reinforcements: This type of reinforcements are required where several
anchorages exist where the prestressing loads are applied in a sequential manner.
> Bursting Reinforcements: These kinds of stresses occur in cases where the stress
trajectories are concave towards the line of action of load. In order to reduce such
stresses reinforcements in the form of bursting is required.
6. In the design of bridge arguments what considerations should be made
to select the orientation of the wing walls?
Some of the most common arrangements of wing walls in cases of bridge arguments are as follows:
> Wing walls parallel to abutments: This method is considered to take least amount of time to build
and is simple as well. But on the downside this method is not the most economical. The advantage of
this type of design being that they cause the least amount of disturbance to the slope embankment.
> Wing walls at an angle to abutments: This design method is considered to be the most economical
in terms of material cost.
> Wing walls perpendicular to abutments: The characteristic of this design is it provides an alignment
continuous with the bridge decks lending a support to the parapets.

7. In case if concrete box girder bridges how is the number of cells


determined?
When the depth of a box girder bridge exceed 1/6th or 1/5th of the bridge width then the design
recommended is that of a single cell box girder bridge. But in case the depth of the bridge is lower
than 1/6th of the bridge width then a twin-cell or in some cases multiple cell is the preferred choice.
One should also note that even in the cases of wider bridges where there depths are comparatively
low the number of cells should be minimized. This is so as there is noticeably not much improvement
in the transverse load distribution when the number of cells of the box girder is higher than three or
more.

8. Under what circumstances should pot bearings be used instead of


elastomeric bearings?
Pot bearings are preferred over elastomeric bearings in situations where there are chances of high
vertical loads in combinations of very large angle of rotations. Elastomeric bearings always require a
large bearing surface so that a compression is maintained between the contact surfaces in between
the piers and the bearings. This is not possible to maintained in high load and rotation environment.
Also the usage of elastomeric bearings leads to the uneven distribution of stress on the piers. This
results in some highly induced stresses to be targeted at the piers henceforth damaging them. Due to
the above reasons pot bearings are preferred over elastomeric bearings in such cases.

9. Why should pumping be not used in case of concreting works?


During the pumping operation the pump exerted pressure must overcome any friction between the
pumping pipes and the concrete, also the weight of the concrete and the pressure head when the
concrete is placed above the pumps. Since only water is pump able, all the pressure generated is by
the water that is present in the concrete. The major problem due to pumping are segregation effects
and bleeding. In order to rectify and reduce these effects, generally the proportion of the cement is
increased in order to increase the cohesion , which leads to the reduction of segregation and
bleeding. Also if a proper selection of the aggregate grading can vastly improve the concrete pump
ability.

10. Why should curing not be done by ponding and polythene sheets?
The primary purpose of curing is to reduce the heat loss of concrete that is freshly placed to the
atmosphere and in order to reduce the temperature gradient across the cross-section of the concrete.
Ponding is not preferred for curing as this method of thermal curing is greatly affected by cold winds.
In addition to that in ponding large amounts of water is used and has to be disposed off from the
construction sites. Polythene sheets are used on the basis that it creates an airtight environment
around the concrete surface henceforth reducing the chances of evaporation over fresh concrete
surfaces. But the usage of polythene can be a drawback as it can be easily blown away by winds and
also the water lost by self-desiccation cannot be replenished.

11. What are the different type of slump test indications?


Slump tests are performed to empirically measure the workability of fresh concrete. It is used to
measure the consistency of the concrete. In general there are three different types of slumps that
occur in slump tests. They are as follows:
> True Slump
> Shear Slump
> Collapse Slump

True Slump: This type of slump is characterized by the general drop of the concrete mass evenly
without visible signs of deterioration or disintegration.
Shear Slump: It indicates that the concrete mix is deficient in cohesion. This type of slump leads to
segregation and bleeding. Henceforth in the long run effecting the durability of the concrete.
Collapse Slump: This type of slump is indicates that the mix of concrete is simply too wet. The mix is
considered to be harsh and lean.

12. Why is propping required for long structures once the formwork is
removed?
Once the process of concreting is performed the striking of the formworks should be done as soon as
possible as delay in this process can lead to the discoloration of the concrete structures. In case of
long structures particularly long span structures once the structures have attained enough strength to
support themselves it is essential to provide them with propping as creep deflection can take place
which can greatly reduce the integrity of the structure. Due to the above mentioned reasons propping
should be done after the removal of formwork. Also the props should not be made to stand long as it
can lead to overstress for the structures.

13. Explain the mechanism of cavitations in pipes and drains?


The formation of air bubbles in a fluid due to low pressure conditions lower than the saturation
pressure is known as cavitations. This is considered to be a high potential damage condition where
the strength and durability of the pipes can be greatly reduced. Cavitation works on the principle of
Bernoulli's Equation. When fluids are at high velocities the pressure head of fluids reduce accordingly.
But since the fluid pressure is lower than the saturation pressure the dissolved gases get released
from the flowing fluid. These air bubbles suddenly collapse on entering a region of high pressure. This
leads to the damage of the pipelines as a high level of dynamic pressure is created.

14. For what purpose bedding is used under storm water drains, explain?
Beddings are primarily made up of granular or concrete materials. They are primarily used for the
following purposes:
> They are used to provide a more uniform support for the under pipes so that the bending moment
longitudinally can be reduced greatly.
> In order to enable the pipes to get more load-supporting strength.
> They are also used to act as a platform to achieve a more correct alignment and level pre and post
construction.
> In case of pipes which contain spigot and socket joints, it enables pipes to get supported along pipe
lengths in place of sockets. Otherwise it can lead to uneven stress being induced on the pipes
eventually damaging it.

15. Why are pull-out tests performed for soil nails?


Pull out tests are performed for primarily the following reasons:
> In order to detect and the verification of the bond strength among the soil and the grout adopted
during the design of soil nails. This is considered to be as the primary objective of performing pull out
tests for soil nails.
> For the detection of any slippage or occurrence of creeps.
> To detect the elastic and deformations (plastic) of any of the test nails employed. Observations are
made during the loading and unloading cycles of the soil nails repetitively.
> To achieve the perfect balance the test nails should always be loaded so that the ultimate soil/grout
mixture with an upper limit of 80%.

16. Describe briefly the advantages and disadvantages of using plastic and
timber fenders?
The advantages and disadvantages of using plastic fenders are as follows:
Plastic fenders are low in strength with a relatively high resistance to abrasion. Plastic fenders are
resistant to chemical and biological attacks. Plastic fenders have moderate energy absorption
capacity. The berthing reactions are also comparatively moderate and depends on the point of
contact. Also since they are made from recycled material they are environmental friendly.
The advantages and disadvantages of using timber fenders are:
timber fenders are low in strength and are very susceptible to marine borer attacks and rotting. The
energy absorption capacity is very low. Also generally the contact pressure between the vessels and
the fender are high.

17. Explain why concrete barriers have curved surface profiles?


The concrete safety fencings are made to contain vehicles in their carriageway being travelled so as
to reduce the chances of rebounding into the roads leading to more hazards. In the case of normal
fencings upon vehicle crashes the fencings give away so as to absorb as much energy as possible
henceforth reducing the impact on the vehicles. But in the case of concrete barriers their purpose is
not to absorb energy of vehicles crashing into the barrier but to retain them. They have a curved
design so as to allow the vehicles that hit them to slightly go up on the barrier but not overturn. They
also prevent the vehicle from again getting back on the road by rebounds. This helps in vastly
reducing the chances of other vehicle hazards.

18. Why is the use of granular sub-base in concrete carriageways not


preferred, explain?
Some of the reasons why granular sub-base is not preferred in concrete carriageways:
> Sub bases are permeable and hence water can seep through them easily. The soil particles get
pumped out through the joints on the application of traffic loads. This results in the creation of voids
underneath the pavement structure. This leads to the weakening of the concrete surface and it can
crack easily upon intense traffic loads.
> Instead if lean concrete is used for carriageways it greatly increases the strength of the roads and
the load carrying capacity of the roads is increased.
> Sub-bases implementation requires a lot of workmanship which can lead to an un-uniform
distribution of the sub-base. This can lead to the cracking of the carriageway when there is severe
traffic loading.

19. Why are separation membranes used between concrete pavement slab
and sub-base?
The purpose of separation membrane between the concrete pavement slab and the sub-base are as
follows:
> The separation membrane reduces the frictional forces between the concrete slabs and the sub-
base. The membrane aids the movement of the concrete slab in reference to the sub-base when
changes in the level of the moisture and temperature occurs.
> It aids in the segregation of sub-base materials from freshly placed concrete.
> The separation membrane also helps in the reduction of cement and water loss in the form of
immature concrete. Immature concrete greatly affects the strength of the concrete. It also affects the
durability of it.
A good example of a separation membranes is polythene sheeting which is commonly used.

20. In the roof of a pumping station explain briefly the components of a


waterproofing system.
The components of a typical waterproofing system on the roof of a pumping station are as follows:
> Right above the structural finish level of the roof ( concrete ) a uniform thickness screed is applied
so as to facilitate the application of the waterproofing membrane. The surface provide for the
membrane should always possess good cohesion properties and must be thin so as to prevent any
un-uniformity. This thin layer also acts as a layer of thermal insulation.
> Right above this layer the waterproofing membrane is deployed to secure the water tightness of the
roof.
> In order to enhance the thermal insulation of the roof an insulation board is sometime placed right
above the waterproof membrane. The insulation board helps in the maintenance of a stable
temperature in both weathers.

21. During reclamation how can the occurrence of mud waves can be
rectified?
There are several solution to the rectification of the problem of mud waves:
> Complete removal of all the disturbed mud: This method can be considered to be one of the fastest
methods. As soon as the disturbed mud is removed some filling material is used to replace the
disturbed mud. But economically this method can be expensive as compared to others.
> Accelerated consolidation of disturbed mud: In this method surcharging loads are placed on top of
the mud waves. Along with this band drains are installed to accelerate the consolidation process. This
method is quite slow compared to the other methods.
> Partial removal of the disturbed mud: This method is the hybrid of the above two methods where the
top layer is removed whereas the lower level is treated with the surcharging process.

22. In reclamation works what are the importance of geotextiles and sand?
The primary purposes of geotextiles and sand in reclamation works are as follows:
> Geotextiles: They are used to separate the marine mud from the reclamation fill. Also geotextiles
are used as reinforcements in reclamation processes to increase its stability. It is still debated as to
whether the usage of geotextiles is better or are the old processes followed are better as the
performance has not been comparable to the conventional methods.
> Sand: In reclamation process sand is used to spread the load of any future public dumps placed on
top of it. Sand also acts as a drainage for the excess pore water pressure of band drain installations.

23. In block work seawalls what is the purpose of slip joints?


Joints which are formed from the cope level to the toe level of seawalls through a complete vertical
plane are known as slip joints. Such joints are designed so as to handle the differential settlements
between the seawalls adjacent panels. In the slip joints the aggregates inside the half-rounds
channels enables some vertical movements. These vertical movements are induced by differential
settlements. This enables in the interlocking of the adjacent panels of the seawalls to link the panels
in one unit against the earth pressure ( lateral ) which is exerted on the seawalls.

24. For a washout valve why are two gate valves required in normal
practice?
The washout valves are primarily used for normal maintenance works such as that of water main.
This can be like to allow water to flow out during the cleaning of the water main. The junctions at
which a pipe branches out to a washout point usually a gate valve is installed so that the two pipelines
are separated. The gate valve installed above usually remains open during normal operation. Another
gate valve is installed further downstream and this remains closed during normal operation of the
washout valve. In case this valve is not installed then the pipe section of the branched out pipe would
remain dry during normal operation and high chances of damage and leakage can take place. When
the downstream valve is installed the branched out water main contains water under normal
operation. With two gate valves installed a leakage can be detected immediately.

25. What are the different approaches in designing the floors of the service
reservoirs?
In general there are two main approaches of designing the reservoir floors to prevent leakage of water
due to seasonal and shrinkage movements:
> In this approach the movement joints of the reservoir floor panels are such that the free expansion
and contraction of the panels takes place. Every panel is isolated from the other panels and two
panels have a sliding layer between them to help in sliding.
> The second method does not provide any room for free movement. With seasonal and shrinkage
movements, some cracks are designed to voluntarily occur on the floors of the service reservoirs.
These tiny cracks are spread throughout the floor and are simply too minute to cause any leakage or
corrosion of the floors. But the difference also in this method is that the amount of reinforcement used
is much more than the first approach.

1. How can you distinguish between sorption, absorption and adsorption?


2. What is modular elasticity?
3. Discuss some applications of modular elasticity.
4. What is difference between engineering stress and true stress?
5. What are some structures that are subjected to fatigue?
6. What is the tensile strength of wood?
7. Explain soil analysis?
8. What is soil enforcement?
9. How can you achieve soil enforcement?
10. What is a bearing capacity of soil?
11. Why does the pressure increase under soil?
12. How to increase a bearing capacity of soil?
13. What you understand by building codes?
14. Explain moment of inertia and its importance.
15. Which is the best book for building construction?
16. How do we determine the specific gravity of a cement?
17. What are the causes of building collapse?
18. Explain the latest method to detect a crack in a building?
19. How do we test on design and style in a software?
20. Explain different types of RCC pipes.
21. Explain the design for RCC multi-storied building?
22. What are the benefits of RCC pipes over steel designed pipes?
23. Elaborate advantages & disadvantages of using crusher dust instead of sand in RCC work.
24. How can you produce desired alloys and discuss their applications in daily life.
25. Can inverted beams used in pipes during construction? If yes, explain how it can be
implemented?
26. What is rigging?
27. What are the techniques to measure road difference?
28. Explain major differences between routing maintenance and major maintenance.
29. What you understand by Richter scale?
30. How do we calculate the power of centrifugal pump?
31. What is a tensile strength? What is the tensile strength of wood?
32. Difference between pre-tensioning and post-tensioning.
33. Explain the difference between shear and tensile strength.
34. Why the statue of liberty is made of Copper?
35. What is the difference between TOR steel and TMT steel?
36. Which code is used for TOR & TMT steel bar?
37. Explain major difference between auto level and dumpy level?
38. What is the L/D ratio of cantilever beam?
39. What is the ratio of steel and concrete to use in slabs , beams, columns ?
40. What is pre-stressed concrete?
41. What are the ingredients of pre-stressed concrete?
42. What do you mean by honeycomb in concrete?
43. Why is concrete cube test carried out?
44. How do you calculate the power of centrifugal pump?
45. What is aggregate?
46. What is absolute pressure? How absolute pressure is calculated?
47. What is the absolute pressure scale?
48. What is gravity flow?
49. What is a projection line?
50. What is horizon or horizontal mining?

Thebalance.com

Engineer Interview Questions

Tell me about the most challenging engineering project that you have been
involved with during past year.
Describe the most challenging written technical report or presentation that
you've had to complete.
Describe an experience with a difficult client. How did you handle the
situation? What would you have done differently?
Tell me about your greatest success in using logic to solve an engineering
problem.
Give me an example of a time when you applied your ability to use analytical
techniques to define problems or design solutions.
What checks and balances do you use to make sure that you don't make
mistakes?
Do you have any patents? If so, tell me about them. If not, is that something
you see yourself pursuing in the future? Why or why not?
What engineering skills have you developed or improved upon during the past
year?
Which software packages are you familiar with? What is the most interesting
thing you know how to do with one of these packages?

What are you doing to stay current with the latest technology?

Civil Engineer Interview Questions

What appeals to you about working for our company?


Why did you apply for this particular job?
Why did you select civil engineering as your field or major?
Describe a time when you questioned your choice of engineering as a career or
major.

Describe an occasion when you worked on a team and something did not go
well. How did you respond?
Share a situation when a project or proposal of yours met resistance or was not
adopted in a timely fashion. How did you handle this dilemma ?

Questions About Your Personal Attributes

What strengths make you a good civil engineer?


What was your professional development plan for the past two years?
Describe a time when you received criticism from a supervisor or professor.
How did you respond?
Describe your ideal boss.
What is an example of a problem where you had to think on your feet?
What will be the biggest challenge for you with this position?

Questions About Your Resume

Why are you currently unemployed?


What have you accomplished outside of school and work that you are proud
of?
What are your salary expectations?
Where would you like to be with your career five years from now?
Describe something you omitted from your resume and how that would make
you a good fit for the position.

Problem Solving Questions

Describe any situations where you took initiative or displayed an


entrepreneurial approach.
Give me an example of how you applied your problem solving skills to a
design challenge.
Share an example of how you have applied your skills to on-site work.

Describe your most successful engineering project. What enabled you to


achieve this success?
What about on-site work is most challenging for you?

Technical Questions

What is the required information to repair a midbeam in a building?


Describe any projects or coursework which equip you to work on design issues
for water systems.
How much oil is necessary to pollute the ocean?
Do you have any security clearance to work on classified projects? If you have
worked on a DOD project, describe a challenge which you encountered.
What are the ways to filter the contaminants in drinking water?
What are sources of contaminants in water?
Describe the differences between Corsim and Vissim models.
How have you best applied computer technology to your work during the past
year?
What software have you learned to use or mastered more fully during the past
year?

Targetjobs.co.uk

Got an interview for a graduate job in civil engineering,


construction or surveying? Treat the interview as a
mutually beneficial conversation: be polite, be professional
but, above all, be yourself.
Dont just choose examples from your degree pick ones
from different areas of your life.
Construction, engineering and surveying interviewers are typically senior members of the
team youd be joining, and they are looking to find out more about you. Are you someone
whom they could safely send to client meetings straight away? Would you fit well in a
multidisciplinary project team? Can you get things done? If you have a related degree, do you
know your stuff?

Part of the way in which you can answer these questions is in how you treat the interview: see
it as a respectful conversation rather than a grilling.

Dont be afraid to ask them questions or ask their opinions. The interview is as much for you
to work out whether youd get on with the employer as it is the other way around.

Types of graduate construction, civils and surveying interviews


The most common types of interviews are:

telephone (sometimes used by recruiters as a first interview)


face-to-face, based around competencies and your CV
technical.
You can expect to be asked about your skills and attributes, why you want the job, your
understanding of the industry and your career aspirations. Here are some hints on how to
approach some of the more common questions.
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Possible interview question 1: Tell us about yourself


This is the most likely first question of any interview. It invites you to share something about
your background and is supposed to ease you into the interview. Focus on your academic and
work background and why you want to work for the employer.

Know your CV: remember the dates of your work placements and be ready to talk about the tasks
you did and skills you picked up.
Practise your pitch in front of a volunteer to ensure you sound natural and confident you should
be able to ad lib to fit the occasion.
Possible interview question 2: Give an example of when you...
Interviewers use competency-based questions to find out whether you have the skills for the
job, so expect to be asked for example of times when you used particular skills.

Dont just choose examples from your degree pick ones from different areas of your life. It does
make candidates stand out if they can call on examples from other areas of their lives, such as
internships, part-time jobs or extracurricular activities, Neemita Mepani, graduate resourcing
partner at AMEC, reflects.
Try to use different examples from those that you used in your application form or covering letter.
To ensure that you provide employers with a detailed picture of your capabilities, follow the STAR
format when giving your examples. Explain the Situation, the Tasks you had to complete, the
Actions you took and the Results of your actions. Place the most emphasis on the actions and the
results.
Possible interview question 3: 'What would you do if...?
Scenario-based questions ask you how you would tackle a likely work-based situation, such
as liaising with a team member who has a conflicting agenda to yours. The aim of these
questions is to see how you think and go about solving problems.

Dont be afraid to ask them questions to clarify what theyre asking before answering.
Take the time to think. If youre nervous about pausing for too long, take a drink of water a
useful delaying tactic.
In your answer you could call upon times when you faced similar situations in your past, if
appropriate not only from any construction-related work experience you have but also from any
group work at university, involvement in student societies or part-time work.

Possible interview question 4: 'What do you know about the


company?
You may also be asked what youd expect from the company as a graduate employee, about
the opportunities and threats facing the company and about your understanding of the
industry. This is where research pays dividends. Before your interview, find out:

What does the firm do? is it a contractor or a consultant? In which markets or service areas does it
operate? Is it a local, national or international company?
What are the organisations core values and aims?
Who are its main competitors? Is it generally perceived as doing better or worse than them?
What is it currently shouting about on Twitter, in the news and on its website?
Some useful resources include:

The TARGETjobs employer hubs (all we know about graduate employers in one place).
The employers website their graduate section and corporate site.
National newspapers and trade press.
Your careers service, which has details about companies and contact details for graduates who
may work for employers youre interested in.
As part of your answer, you could ask them their opinion on the companys direction.

Possible interview question 5: 'What do you know about the job role
and career path?
Questions assessing your knowledge of what the job role in that company entails and how
your career path would pan out are designed to find out how committed you are to the career
youve chosen and whether you have a realistic understanding of what the day job is like.
Follow-up questions might include What do you think you will be doing day to day?, the
classic Where do you think youll be in five years? and What do you think you will find
most challenging in the role?.This is another instance when you need to have done your
research:

Your answer should partly be based on what you know about the company whether it a
contractor or consultant and the type of projects they work on, for example.
You should also bear in mind the typical career path of people in your role, such as a professional
qualification, and relate it back to the training and development in that company. In five years'
time, for example, would you usually be chartered?
Take into consideration which areas are growing within the company and why or why not.

Possible interview question 6: 'What could you bring to the company,


role or team?'
This question could also be phrased as why should we hire you?.

Your answer should partly be based around your skills (such as teamwork), and your enthusiasm
for the industry, the job and the company.
If you have studied an industry-related degree, consider what you can offer in terms of your
technical knowledge: during your course you should have been exposed to the latest thinking in
terms of sustainability and methodology. While you should not make out you know it all, your
knowledge should add some value to the team.
Asking your own questions in construction interviews
All interviewers will give you the opportunity to ask questions, and this is a great opportunity
to find out more about the organisation. Avoid asking about salary, anything thats covered in
detail on the company website or for help on your final year project. Good topics to ask about
include:

how the employer tackles issues such as sustainability


landmark projects
what the interviewer enjoys most about their job
Its impressive to ask a question that has come out of some of the research youve done
yourself, for example, I read that you were focusing on X sector. How is this affecting Y?.

Tackling technical engineering and building surveying interviews


If you have a built environment degree or are going for an engineering job, expect to face
some questions on your technical knowledge how you apply basic principles to a work-
based situation. This might involve a formal technical interview, a technical exercise, a
presentation or some technical questions within a more general interview.

In a technical interview, we want to know whether you can apply the theory from your
degree course in the real world, says Aman Rai, part of the graduate recruitment team at
Arup. We may ask you to come up with a solution to a problem and then ask you what
would happen if we changed the design in a particular way.

Top tips on preparing for a technical assessment


Practise sketching diagrams and brush up on your numeracy.
Read through your coursework and be prepared to talk about your project work and dissertation.
Ask a friend to give you feedback on the clarity of your explanations of technical solutions.
Research the companys specialist areas of work.

placement.fresherworld.com

Civil interview questions and Answers


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How do you measure concrete?
Cubic feet, Cubic yards, Cubic Meter

Which is stronger solid steel rod or hollow steel pipe?


On a per pound basis, steel pipe is stronger in bending and is less likely to buckle in axial
compression.

What is the tallest man made structure in the world?


The tallest man made structure is the KVLY-TV mast which is 2063 feet tall. The worlds
tallest man made structure is Burj Dubai which is 800 meter tall.
What is braced excavation all about?
Excavations are braced to prevent the cave-in of surrounding unstable soil.

What is the meaning of soil reinforcement?


Soil reinforcement is the act of improving soil strength to enable it support or carry more
load.

Two common examples are:

a) Mixing a soil amendment such as lime into weak clayey soil and re-comPActing to
improve soil-bearing caPAcity (often done under the road base in highway construction)
b) Installing plastic or composite webbing layers (called geo-grid material) alternating
with comPActed soil to produce a stronger sloped soil structure (often done on steep
roadway embankments to improve strength and stability)

What is aggregate?
Aggregate is the component of a composite material used to resist compressive stress.

What year was the keystone power plant in Indiana County constructed?
1967 began commercial operation on unit 1.
What is the force exerted by the Tacoma narrows bridge?
The force exerted to the Tacoma narrows bridge was initially the wind resistance. The
wind resistance caused the whole bridge to act as a system with forced vibration with
damping.

What are the uses of alloys in daily life and how are alloys made?
Alloying is not always done to produce a 'superior' material, but to produce materials
having a desired requirement in the industry or elsewhere. A classic case is of lead
solder (containing lead & tin), in which the melting point of the constituent elements are
lowered, not necessarily a desirable property.

Alloying can be carried out using hot press method (a sheet of material is sandwiched
with alloying material), rolling the heated base metal in a drum full of alloying metal
powder, using hot spraying, galvanizing (dipping the base in a molten solution of alloying
material) etc. Sometimes the alloying material is added in small proportions to the
molten base metal (e.g., in production of different types of steel).

10 What is the worlds largest concrete dam?


The Grand Coulee Dam is said to be the largest concrete dam. Currently the world's
largest concrete dam is the Itaipu Dam, an accomplishment of two neighboring
countries, Brazil and Paraguay in South America.

Though it is not finished yet, the Three Gorges (or Sandapong) Dam on the Yangtze
River in China will take over as the largest upon its completion, which is slated for 2009.

What are the main reasons of building collapse?


There are several reasons for building collapse. Passage of time is the main reason. Also,
weak foundations, natural calamities like earthquakes, hurricanes, etc., are the major
reasons for building collapse. Bombing and destruction is also another major reason.

State the applications of modulus of elasticity.


Modulus of elasticity is related to the flexibility of the material. The value of modulus of
elasticity is pretty important in case of deflection of different materials used in building
construction.

How are the freeway bridges built?


The traffic that is likely to go over the bridge at a time is estimated and the cement,
rocked with rebar stanchions is placed over the freeway to build a bridge. Off-ramp from
freeway to the bridge and on-ramp from the bridge to the freeway are constructed.
Cement slabs are used to build a platform.

What is the basic difference in absorption, adsorption, and sorption?


Absorption refers to the phenomenon where an atom, molecule or ions enter any bulk
phase like gas, solid or liquid. Absorption refers to the phenomenon where energy of
photon is transferred to other entity.
Adsorption is similar to absorption. It refers to the surface rather than a volume.
Adsorption takes place when the gas or liquid solute accumulates on the surface of solid.
A substance diffuses in liquid or solid to form a solution.

Difference between routine maintenance and major maintenance for school


facilities:
Routine maintenance is handling the minor repairs of the school campus. Major
maintenance can be total reconstruction or renovation of the school.

What is soil analysis?


Soil analysis is the testing of soil to determine the nutritional and elemental composition
of soil. It is generally tested for knowing the contents of nitrogen, potassium and
phosphorous.

State the building codes.


These codes are the set of specifications to ensure the safety associated with any
building construction. These codes are associated with the height, spacing, and
installation of the building. These codes play an important role in vacating the building in
case of any emergency situations.
From these interview questions, you will get an idea of the questions interviewer can ask
you in the civil engineering position interview. Refer to some more sample questions
here and revise all the answers carefully.

What are the steps involved in the concreting process, explain?

The major steps involved in the process of concreting are as follows:


1. Batching
2. Mixing
3. Transporting and placing of concrete
4. Compacting.

> Batching: The process of measurement of the different materials for the making of
concrete is known as batching. batching is usually done in two ways: volume batching
and weight batching. In case of volume batching the measurement is done in the form of
volume whereas in the case of weight batching it is done by the weight.
> Mixing: In order to create good concrete the mixing of the materials should be first
done in dry condition and after it wet condition. The two general methods of mixing are:
hand mixing and machine mixing.
> Transportation and placing of concrete: Once the concrete mixture is created it must
be transported to its final location. The concrete is placed on form works and should
always be dropped on its final location as closely as possible.
> Compaction of concrete: When concrete is placed it can have air bubbles entrapped in
it which can lead to the reduction of the strength by 30%. In order to reduce the air
bubbles the process of compaction is performed. Compaction is generally performed in
two ways: by hand or by the use of vibrators.

Describe briefly the various methods of concrete curing.

Curing is the process of maintaining the moisture and temperature conditions for freshly
deployed concrete. This is done for small duration of time to allow the hardening of
concrete. The methods that are involved in saving the shrinkage of the concrete
includes:
(a) Spraying of water: on walls, and columns can be cured by sprinkling water.
(b) Wet covering of surface: can be cured by using the surface with wet gunny bags or
straw
(c) Ponding: the horizontal surfaces including the slab and floors can be cured by
stagnating the water.
(d) Steam curing: of pre-fabricated concrete units steam can be cured by passing it over
the units that are under closed chambers. It allows faster curing process and results in
faster recovery.
(e) Application of curing compounds: compounds having calcium chloride can be applied
on curing surface. This keeps the surface wet for a very long time.

What do you understand by preset during the installation process of bridge


bearings?

During the installation of bridge bearings the size of the upper plates is reduced to save
the material costs. This process is known as preset. Generally the upper bearing plate
comprises of the following components:
> Length of bearing
> 2 x irreversible movement.
> 2 x reversible movement.
The bearing initially is placed right in the middle point of the upper bearing plate. No
directional effects of irreversible movement is considered. But since the irreversible
movement usually takes place in one direction only the displaced direction is placed
away from the midpoint. In such cases the length of the upper plate is equal to the
length of the length of the bearing + irreversible movement + 2 x reversible movement.

Why are steel plates inserted inside bearings in elastomeric bearings?

In order to make a elastomeric bearing act/ function as a soft spring it should be made
to allow it to bulge laterally and also the stiffness compression can be increased by
simply increasing the limiting amount of the lateral bulging. In many cases in order to
increase the compression stiffness of the bearing the usage of metal plates is made.
Once steel plates are included in the bearings the freedom of the bulge is restricted
dramatically, also the deflection of the bearing is reduced as compared to a bearing
without the presence of steel plates. The tensile stresses of the bearings are induced into
the steel plates. But the presence of the metal plates does not affect the shear stiffness
of the bearings.

What reinforcements are used in the process of prestressing?

The major types of reinforcements used in prestressing are:


> Spalling Reinforcement: The spalling stresses leads to stress behind the loaded area of
the anchor blocks. This results in the breaking off of the surface concrete. The most
likely causes of such types of stresses are Poisson`s effects strain interoperability or by
the stress trajectory shapes.
> Equilibrium reinforcements: This type of reinforcements are required where several
anchorages exist where the prestressing loads are applied in a sequential manner.
> Bursting Reinforcements: These kinds of stresses occur in cases where the stress
trajectories are concave towards the line of action of load. In order to reduce such
stresses reinforcements in the form of bursting is required.

6. In the design of bridge arguments what considerations should be made to


select the orientation of the wing walls?
Some of the most common arrangements of wing walls in cases of bridge arguments are
as follows:
> Wing walls parallel to abutments: This method is considered to take least amount of
time to build and is simple as well. But on the downside this method is not the most
economical. The advantage of this type of design being that they cause the least amount
of disturbance to the slope embankment.
> Wing walls at an angle to abutments: This design method is considered to be the most
economical in terms of material cost.
> Wing walls perpendicular to abutments: The characteristic of this design is it provides
an alignment continuous with the bridge decks lending a support to the parapets.

7. In case if concrete box girder bridges how is the number of cells determined?

When the depth of a box girder bridge exceed 1/6th or 1/5th of the bridge width then
the design recommended is that of a single cell box girder bridge. But in case the depth
of the bridge is lower than 1/6th of the bridge width then a twin-cell or in some cases
multiple cell is the preferred choice. One should also note that even in the cases of wider
bridges where there depths are comparatively low the number of cells should be
minimized. This is so as there is noticeably not much improvement in the transverse load
distribution when the number of cells of the box girder is higher than three or more.

8. Under what circumstances should pot bearings be used instead of


elastomeric bearings?

Pot bearings are preferred over elastomeric bearings in situations where there are
chances of high vertical loads in combinations of very large angle of rotations.
Elastomeric bearings always require a large bearing surface so that a compression is
maintained between the contact surfaces in between the piers and the bearings. This is
not possible to maintained in high load and rotation environment. Also the usage of
elastomeric bearings leads to the uneven distribution of stress on the piers. This results
in some highly induced stresses to be targeted at the piers henceforth damaging them.
Due to the above reasons pot bearings are preferred over elastomeric bearings in such
cases.

9. Why should pumping be not used in case of concreting works?

During the pumping operation the pump exerted pressure must overcome any friction
between the pumping pipes and the concrete, also the weight of the concrete and the
pressure head when the concrete is placed above the pumps. Since only water is pump
able, all the pressure generated is by the water that is present in the concrete. The
major problem due to pumping are segregation effects and bleeding. In order to rectify
and reduce these effects, generally the proportion of the cement is increased in order to
increase the cohesion , which leads to the reduction of segregation and bleeding. Also if
a proper selection of the aggregate grading can vastly improve the concrete pump
ability.

10. Why should curing not be done by ponding and polythene sheets?

The primary purpose of curing is to reduce the heat loss of concrete that is freshly
placed to the atmosphere and in order to reduce the temperature gradient across the
cross-section of the concrete. Ponding is not preferred for curing as this method of
thermal curing is greatly affected by cold winds. In addition to that in ponding large
amounts of water is used and has to be disposed off from the construction sites.
Polythene sheets are used on the basis that it creates an airtight environment around
the concrete surface henceforth reducing the chances of evaporation over fresh concrete
surfaces. But the usage of polythene can be a drawback as it can be easily blown away
by winds and also the water lost by self-desiccation cannot be replenished.
Civil Engineering Interview Questions & Answers

1. What are the causes of building collapse?


The PAssage of time is one reason. Buildings also collapse due to weak foundations.
Earthquakes, hurricanes and other natural disasters can also damage the structure of
the buildings and cause it to collapse. Bombings or demolition of buildings is also other
reasons.

2. What are the applications of modulus of elasticity?


As the term implies, "Modulus of Elasticity relates to the elasticity or "flexibility" of a
material. The value of modulus of elasticity is very much significant relating to deflection
of certain materials used in the construction industry. Take for example the general E
value of mild carbon steel is about 200 GPA comPAred to about 70 GPA for aluminum.
This simply translate that aluminum is 3 times flexible than steel.

3. How do you measure concrete?


Cubic feet, Cubic yards, Cubic Meter

4. Which is stronger solid steel rod or hollow steel pipe?


On a per pound basis, steel pipe is stronger in bending and is less likely to buckle in axial
compression.

5. What is aggregate?
Aggregate is the component of a composite material used to resist compressive stress.

6. How do you calculate the power of a centrifugal pump?


The input power, that is, the power required to operate the pump should be stated in Hp
(horsepower) on the pump's nameplate. It can also be calculated by the 3-phase power
equation:
P(in Hp) = VI(1.7c) = Rated Voltage x Rated Current x 1.73/ %Efficiency
If this is a consumer grade pump that operates on 120Vac, then the equation becomes P
= VI, simply multiply the operating voltage, 120 x current (which is the number followed
by the letter "A".The output power, which really is not technically power, but rated in
Gpm (gallons per minute), or caPAcity should also be on the nameplate. If you have the
make, model, and (not necessarily needed) the serial number (also on the nameplate)
you could call the manufacturer's customer service dept. As an application engineer, I
have contacted countless manufacturers, and service dept's for assistance. It is now big
deal to them, they will be happy to answer your questions.

7. What is rigging?
In sailing, the ropes used to move the sails around so the boat will move in the right
direction when the wind blows.

8. What is absolute pressure?


Absolute pressure is simply the addition of the observed gage pressure plus the value of
the local atmospheric pressure.

9. How do we calculate absolute pressure?


Absolute is equal to gauge pressure plus atmospheric.

10. What is Gravity flow?


Gravity flow is fluid flowing due to the forces of gravity alone and not to an applied
pressure head. In the Bernoulli equation, the pressure term is omitted, and the height
and velocity terms are the only ones included.

11. What do you mean by honeycomb in concrete?


Some people call it an air pocket in the concrete or a void. It is the exposed course
aggregates on surface of concrete without covered by mortar or surrounding the
aggregate particles.

12. What is the purpose of the gap in the road on this bridge?
Purpose of the gap in the road is to allow the road to exPAnd and contract with
temperature changes without causing damage or deformation to the road.

13. What is a projection line?


Projection line is the way, in which the earth is shown on a flat piece of Paper.

14. What are moment of inertia and its importance in civil engineering?
The moment of inertia measures the opposition any kind of body will have against a
certain momentum (along that same axis) trying to rotate that body.

15. What is the absolute pressure scale?


Absolute pressure is calculated from a vacuum (0 PSI) and atmospheric pressure
is14.7PSIa or 14.7 PSI above a vacuum 1PSI on a tire pressure gauge is called 1PSIg =
15.7PSIa 10PSIg=24.7PSIa 100PSIg=114.7PSIa etc.

16. What is diversion tunnel in a dam?


When a dam is to be built, a diversion tunnel is usually bored through solid rock next to
the dam site to byPAss the dam construction site. The dam is built while the river flows
through the diversion tunnel.

17. How do you maintain water pressure?


If you have water pressure and wish to maintain it, do not cause flow in the line, which
will reduce pressure due to friction. To keep pressure up, reduce friction by increasing
the line size or eliminating some other restriction.

18. What are some structures that may be subjected to fatigue?


Bridges, hydraulic presses, burners trains

19. Why does the pressure increase under soil?


Soil pressure increases with depth due to the overburden or self-weight of the soil and
due to loads imposed upon the soil.
For example, the pressure variation below the depth of soil is linear and the relation is
given by pressure = unit wt * depth. As depth increases, there will be a linear increase
in the soil pressure.

20. What is the distance between railway tracks?


4 feet, 8 1/2 inches.
Civil Engineering Interview Questions

1. What happens to Load at yielding ?


2. What is Critical Path in Ms-Project ?
3. where will be the reinforcement of slab placed when there is an inverted beam and
the bottom of the beam and slab are at same level ?
4. What is Passive earth pressure ?
5. Which condition will prevail for the design of a swimming pool ? when th e pool is
empty or when it is filled ?
6. What will be the effect of over reinforcement ?
7. What is Planning ?
8. What is the comprevsive strength of Brick ?
9. What is the water absorption of first class brick ?
10. Why we provide steel in Concrete ?
11. Define Shear Force and in a structure subjected to gravity loads where will be the
shear force ?
12. Which are the Steel tests ?
13. Which are the concrete Tests?
14. Initial & final setting time of concrete?
15. Brick strength is more or concrete block?
16. Why in Pakistan Bricks are used so much?
17. In a cantilever where will the steel be provided and why?
18. What is Plinth Level and Sill Level?
19. How many bricks are there in 100cft?
20. 28 days compressive strength of concrete in PSI?
21. What is slump Test?
22. How can u check the diameter of steel after the construction?
23. What is specific gravity?
24. How cracks in concrete can be avoided?
25. Types Of DPC and its Thickness used?
26. 28 Days Strength of Concrete (1:2:4)?
27. Strength of brick?
28. what is Brest Wall?
29. what is Brick crushing strength(PSI)?
30. what is Bearing Capacity,How to determine it?
31. How much is the curing time period?
32. How many types of slabs are there & how to design it?
33. How many are the types of joints?
34. Why joints are provided?
35. How many bricks are there in 100cft?
36. Types Of DPC and its Thickness used?
37. How many bricks are there in 100 cft?
38. Which are the Steel tests ?
39. How much is the cover for slab?
40. What is Packing Factor ?
41. Forces in a Shear Wall are in plane or out of plane ?
42. What is fineness modulus ? and its sieve # ?
43. What is Base Shear ?
44. What is Time period of a building and its relation with frequency ?
45. There are two buildings one taller and one shorter whose time period will be grater
and similarly the frequency ?
46. Workability ?
47.Sulphate Resisting Cement ?
48. Special thing in designing a overhead reservoir ? which is different from an ordinary
design
49. Maximum %age of Steel in columns and beams ?
50.Types of foundation?

indiabix.com (Dock and Harbors)

1. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912, the ratio


of length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels is
A. 5.5 and 6.0 to 1

B. 6.2 and 6.8 to 1

C. 7.4 and 7.8 to 1

D. 8.2 and 8.5 to 1


Answer: Option C
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2. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


An artificial barrier which makes the enclosed area safe for anchorage of ships, is
A.
known as break water

The break water whose inside is used as a plateform for loading and unloading is
B.
called a mole

The length of the quay wall is governed by the length of the largest vessel likely to be
C.
berthed

D. All the above.


Answer: Option D
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3. Buoys which support the cables to which vessels are attached are of
A. cylindrical shape

B. drum

C. pear shaped

D. spherical shape

E. all of these.
Answer: Option E
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4. The beach is built:


A. with largest material locally available to the waves

B. with large material locally available to the waves

C. with fine material locally available to the waves

D. with finest material locally available to the waves.


Answer: Option A
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5. Flow of air from one place to the other is caused due to


A. the sum of elevation

B. pressure head

C. velocity head

D. all of the above.


Answer: Option D
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6. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. For nautical purposes, low water level is generally referred to by the navigators

B. The depth of the bed of the sea from the surface of water is called sounding
C. The contour lines on the bed of a water body are called fathoms

D. All the above.


Answer: Option D
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7. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


The direction of the littoral drift depends upon the direction of the wave with respect to
A.
the coastline

B. The direction of a river opening to the sea determines the direction of no littoral drift

Harbour in the path of littoral drift is not constructed to avoid a build up of sand on one
C.
side and erosion on the other

D. all of the above.


Answer: Option D
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8. A low wall built out into the sea more or less perpendicular to the coast line, to resist the
travel of sand and shingle along a beach, is called
A. break water

B. break wall

C. groins

D. shore wall.
Answer: Option C
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9. At a place the shore line is along North West-South East. The wind is blowing from the north.
The littoral drift will be along
A. south east

B. south

C. south west

D. west

E. north west
Answer: Option A
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10. If F is the fetch, the straight line distance of open water available in kilometres, the height of
the wave in metres is
A. 0.15 F

B. 0.20 F

C. 0.28 F

D. 0.34 F
Answer: Option D
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11. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912, the ratio
of length to width at the entrance for passenger vessels is :
A. 7.25 to 1

B. 7.80 to 1

C. 8.11 to 1

D. 8.44 to 1
Answer: Option D
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12. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. The operation of removing material from the sea or river bed is known as

B. Dredging

C. Digging

D. None of these.
Answer: Option A
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13. Littoral drift


A. is the raised line of sand, parallel to the sea coast

B. is the slow movement of surface water at sea caused by the wind

C. is a current parallel to the shore, caused due to tangential component of the wind
D. is a current perpendicular to the shore line caused due to wind.
Answer: Option C
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14. The heaviest line is used to democrate


A. the low water line

B. the high water line

C. the limit of swamps

D. the direction of current.


Answer: Option B
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15. Which one of the following statements is correct?


A. The soundings are made with respect to the mean low water

B. The soundings which are below the datum are written in black on the map

C. The spot heights of the features above datum are written in red on the map

D. The decimal point of the sounding value is at the exact position of the sounding

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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16. Pick up the correct statement function following:
A. The coarse material which has a smaller angle of repose, causes a steeper beach slope

B. The coarse material which has a greater angle of repose, causes a steeper beach slope

The flattening out of the beach is caused due to the movement of small and uniform
C.
particles leeward.

D. both (b) and (c).


Answer: Option D
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17. The wavelength is computed by Bertin's formula (where T is the period in seconds).

A.
B.

C.

D.

Answer: Option B
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18. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. The regular periodic rise and fall of the surface of the sea, is called tide.

The average difference in water level between high tide and low tide at a place, is
B.
called tidal range

C. The movement of water caused by the action of tide, is called a tidal current

D. all of the above.


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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19. Depth of borings for soil investigation, is generally kept below low water level
A. 30 m

B. 35 m

C. 45 m

D. 40 m
Answer: Option C
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20. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted on hydrographic
maps ?
A. shore line

B. light houses

C. church spires

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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21. A lead line or sounding line


A. is stretched thoroughly when wet before it is graduated

B. should be soaked in water for about one hour prior to taking soundings

C. is adjusted at regular interval

D. is generally used for depths exceeding 6 m

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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22. The smoothened surface of the front face of the guay walls, is known as fending which is
made of
A. granite stone

B. timber

C. steel

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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23. The shore line survey includes :


A. depicting the shore line

B. depicting the prominent details on shore line

C. depicting the high water line

D. depicting the low water line

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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24. Which one of the following statements is not relevant to hydrographic survey :
A. establishment of a chain of bench marks near the shore line
B. establishment of horizontal control points on the shore

C. determination of the sea bed profile

D. depicting the irregularities in the shore line, islands and projecting rocks

E. none of these.
Answer: Option E
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25. The important component of a sea port is


A. terminal buildings

B. the docks

C. the harbour

D. all of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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26. Cretans :
A. are the harbours established on the island south east of Greek mainland

B. are the natives of crete, an island south of Greek mainland

C. are the plants, grown in the neighbourhood of harbours

D. none of the above.


Answer: Option B
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27. The fixed mooring does not require


A. mooring post

B. bollard

C. anchors

D. capstan.
Answer: Option C
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28. The low water datum for a lake is defined as the surface of the lake when it is at elevation
A. 180.5 m above M.S.L.

B. 190.5 m above M.S.L.

C. 170.5 m above M.S.L.

D. 200.0 m above M.S.L.


Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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29. P and Q are two stations on the shore line at distance d. If the angle between Q and the
boat O and P is a and the angle between P and Q at boat O is , the x and y. Coordinate
along PQ and perpendicular to PQ from O are :

A.

B.

C.

D. none of the above.


Answer: Option A
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30. A harbour is a place where


A. ships get shelter and protection against destructive forces due to sea waves

B. facilities are provided for receiving cargo and passengers

C. port buildings are constructed for commercial purposes

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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31. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: In a dry dock block made of hard wood,
A. spacing of the blocks is 1.35 m

B. the lowest block is 1.8 m long 40 cm x 40 cm in cross-section

C. the middle block is 1.6 m long 40 cm x 40 cm in crosss-section


D. the top block is 1.2 m long 40 cm x 40 cm in cross-section

E. none of these.
Answer: Option E
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32. On a hydrographic map, the following feature is shown :


A. datum

B. high and low water lines

C. depth contours

D. land and water areas

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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33. Due to the impact of water wave on a sea shore structure


A. hydrostatic pressure coupled with a strong momentary impact is caused

B. vibrations are subjected

C. internal pressure is developed

D. weakens the foundation

E. all of the above.


Answer: Option E
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34. The horizontal angles from the boat between A and B and B and C, the stations on the shore
are respectively 1and 2. The distances AB = L1 and BC = L2. For calculating the angle
2 at C between the boat and station B is obtained by using the following formula: where ( is
horizontal angle between A and C at B).

A.

B. t tan 2 = 360 - (1 + 2 + ) =

C.
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
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35. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


The breakwater which can be used as a platform for loading and unloading of cargo is
A.
called a mole

The brick masonry retaining wall which is used for loading and unloading of cargo is
B.
called guay wall

C. Three types of break waters are generally provided in harbours

D. All of the above.


Answer: Option D
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36. The dock wall is designed as a gravity retaining wall and is tested for
A. back fill pressure when the dock is empty

B. maximum water pressure from the dock without any back fill

the load charge transmitted to the dock by the movement of loaded vehicles or trains
C.
on the way

D. all of the above.


Answer: Option D
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37. The shape of docks and basins is generally kept


A. rectangular ways

B. diamond shape guays

C. inclined gauys

D. all of these.
Answer: Option D
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38. Surf zone is :


A. the fathom line of 10 m depth

B. the fathom line of 5 m depth

C. the swell of the sea breaking on the shore or reefs

D. the coast line attacked by the waves.


Answer: Option C
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39. Which one of the following lines is used for tying a ship with a dock
A. bow line

B. stern line

C. spring line

D. break line

E. all of these.
Answer: Option E
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40. Soundings are required for


A. making nautical charts for navigation

B. ascertaining the areas subject to scour or silting

C. obtaining detailed information for construction

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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41. If h and h1 are the heights of a light house and the observer in a ship in metres above M S L
then the horizontal distance from the ship to the light house in kilometres is
A. 3.86 (h + h1)

B. 3.86 (h - h1)

C. 3.86 (h x h1)

D. 3.86 (h + h1)
Answer: Option A
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42. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


The artificial barrier constructed to enclose "n area for safe anchorage, is called break
A.
water

The smoothened surface at the top end of the vertical face of a guay wall, is called
B.
fending

C. The effective berthing lengths of inclined guays can be adjusted

D. All the above.


Answer: Option D
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43. For location of soundings a range and one angle from the shore involves the following
operations. Which one is correct ?
A. A range line is established

The first and the last soundings and every tenth soundings are fixed by angular
B.
observations

C. The intermediate soundings are fixed by the time intervals

D. All the above.


Answer: Option D
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44. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. the Mediterranean sea is considered to be a huge harbour

B. the Caspean sea is considered to be a big harbour

C. the Red sea is considered to be harbour

D. none of the above.


Answer: Option A
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45. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. a harbour without any port complex, is called a refuge harbour

B. a harbour used for fishery, is called fishery harbour


the terminal building of a commercial harbour consists of an administrative block,
C.
customs clearance and ware-houses.

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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46. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:


As a wave of sea water approaches the coast line, it is generally accompanied by a
A.
drift of water in the direction of wave advance

B. The on-shore wind helps to produce wave action as well as rise of M.S.L.

C. A falling hydraulic gradient occurs in the direction of the wave

D. The wave while receding carries finer particles out to deep water.
Answer: Option C
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47. In a wet dock system,


A. minimum required depth of water for the vessels is maintained

B. entrance locks are provided with massive gates

the locks of dock gate are operated by means of heavy bascule bridges and
C.
connected machinery

D. the cost of construction is quite heavy

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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48. A roadstead :
A. is a protected area of water where boats can move safely

B. is the end of the road at the harbour

C. may be protected by break water walls

D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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49. The width of the entrances of the harbours is restricted to
A. 100 m

B. 125 m

C. 150 m

D. 180 m
Answer: Option D
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50. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. The tides at any place occur a little less than 1 hour later, each succeeding day

The difference in time in solar hours and minutes from any lunar transit to the
B.
succeeding transit, is called high water level

C. The influence of the earth's gravity alone produces level-tidal less sea

D. The spinning force is maximum at the equator and zero at the poles

E. All of the above.


Answer: Option E
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1. Location of soundings by range and one angle is done by the surveyor


A. on the shore

B. on the boat

C. on the shore or on the boat

D. none of the above.


Answer: Option C
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2. The variation of atmospheric potential is caused due to :


A. difference in temperature over the surface of the earth

B. change in the density of air

C. both (a) and (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).


Answer: Option C
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3. Location of soundings by two angles from the shore requires establishing


A. one range line parallel to shore

B. one range line perpendicular to shore

C. two range lines mutually perpendicular

D. no range line.
Answer: Option D
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4. The floating mooring does not require


A. cables

B. anchors

C. bollard

D. buoy.
Answer: Option C
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5. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. The maritime structures should be designed to withstand wave motion of air

B. The wind vortex results in conical depression in the air surface

C. A tube of air rotating at hundreds of kilometres per hour forms a tornado

D. all of the above.


Answer: Option D
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6. In tropical regions,
A. the surface gets heated more effectively than the arctic areas

after heating, the air becomes lighter and is displaced by cool air from the polar
B.
regions
C. the rising tropical air flows towards the polar region in the upper strata

D. all of the above.


Answer: Option D
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7. For large vessels, the buoys are strengthened by connecting it to a number of anchors
having
A. one legged mooring

B. two legged mooring

C. three legged mooring

D. four legged mooring

E. all the types as above.


Answer: Option E
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8. On the sea shore structures, the water wave impact causes


A. direct compressive force due to its horizontal component

B. shear force due to deflected vertical force

C. compressive force due to collapse of the wave

D. suction force due to water returning after striking

E. all of the above.


Answer: Option E
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9. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Spring tides are caused at new and full moon

B. Neap tides are caused when the moon is in her quarters

C. Spring tides are roughly twice the height of neap tides

Flood tides and Ebbstides are caused after 24 hours and 50 minutes corresponding to
D.
a lunar day

E. All of the above.


Answer: Option E
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10. A dock:
is a marine structure for berthing of vessels for loading and unloading cargo and
A.
passengers

is an artificial basin for vessels where the variation of water in the shore does not
B.
affect the level of water

C. is provided with a dock gate

D. is provided with an arrangement to pump out water when required

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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indiabix.com (Building Construction)


1. In case of Raymond pile
A. lengths vary from 6 m to 12 m

B. diameter of top of piles varies from 40 cm to 60 cm

C. diameter of pile at bottom varies from 20 cm to 28 cm

D. thickness of outer shell depends upon pile diameter

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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2. Queen closer may be placed


A. in header course

B. in stretcher course

C. in header course next to first brick

D. in stretcher course next to first brick

E. in any position.
Answer: Option C
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3. Dado is usually provided in
A. dinning halls

B. bath rooms

C. living rooms

D. verandah

E. roofs.
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4. The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings, is known as
A. strip footing

B. strap footing

C. combined footing

D. raft footing

E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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5. The foundations are placed below ground level, to increase


A. strength

B. workability

C. stability of structure

D. all the above.


Answer: Option C
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6. Stud(s) of a common wooden partition
A. are vertical wooden members

B. is the upper horizontal wooden member

C. is the lower horizontal wooden member

D. are the intermediate horizontal wooden members.


Answer: Option A
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7. Pick up the correct statement from the following :
A. inclined borings are made for taking samples under existing structures

B. inclined borings are occasionally used instead of vertical holes.

the spacing of inclined borings is kept such that one bore hole is vertically above the
C.
bottom of an adjacent bore hole.

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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8. Pick up the commonly adopted geophysical method in civil engineering from the following :
A. the seisomic method

B. electrical resistivity method

C. gravitational method

D. magnetic method

E. both (a) and (b) of the above.


Answer: Option E
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9. To ensure that supporting area of an offset footing of a boundary wall is fully compressive,
the C.G. of load must act
A. at the centre of the base

B. within the middle third of the base

C. within the middle fifth of the base

D. neither (a), (b) nor (c).


Answer: Option B
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10. The 9 cm x 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as
A. stretcher

B. face

C. front
D. header

E. side.
Answer: Option D
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11. The taper of precast concrete pile should not be more than
A. 1 cm per metre length

B. 2 cm per metre length

C. 4 cm per metre length

D. 5 cm per metre length.


Answer: Option B
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12. The under surface of an arch, is called


A. soffit

B. intrados

C. haunch

D. back.
Answer: Option A
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13. The raft slab is projected beyond the outer walls of the structure by
A. 5 to 10 cm

B. 15 to 20 cm

C. 25 to 30 cm

D. 30 to 45 cm

E. 60 cm.
Answer: Option D
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14. The process of making the back ground rough, before plastering, is
A. dubbing
B. hacking

C. blistering

D. peeling.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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15. Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because its


A. bearing capacity is low

B. permeability is uncertain

C. particles are cohesive

D. property to undergo a volumetric change due to variation of moisture content.


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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16. The loose pockets in soil mass can be bridged safely by providing a raft foundation provided the
soft area is smaller than
A. the column spacing

B. one-third the column spacing

C. half the column spacing

D. three-fourth the column spacing

E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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17. The portion of a brick cut across the width, is called


A. closer

B. half brick

C. bed

D. bat.
Answer: Option D
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18. The concrete slump recommended for beams and slabs ; is
A. 25 to 50 mm

B. 25 to 75 mm

C. 30 to 125 mm

D. 50 to 100 mm

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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19. The member which is placed horizontally to support common rafter of a sloping roof, is
A. purlin

B. cleat

C. batten

D. strut.
Answer: Option A
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20. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Louvered door is generally provided in bath rooms

B. Flush door is generally provided in dinning room

C. Revolving door is generally provided in cinema halls

D. Sliding door is generally provided in show rooms

E. All the above.


Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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21. Grillage foundation
is used to transfer heavy structural loads from steel columns to a soil having low bearing
A.
capacity

B. is light and economical

does not require deep cutting as the required base area with required pressure intensity is
C.
obtained at a shallow depth

D. is constructed by rolled steel joists (R.S.J.) placed in single or double tier


E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
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22. The exterior angle between outer faces of a wall, is known as


A. turn

B. junction

C. quion

D. all the above.


Answer: Option C
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23. In jack arch floor, the rise is kept


A. 1/6th of the span

B. 1/8th of the span

C. 1/10th of the span

D. 1/12th of the span

E. 1/15th of the span.


Answer: Option D
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24. While designing a stair, the product of rise and going is approximately kept equal to
A. 350

B. 420

C. 450

D. 500

E. 600.
Answer: Option B
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25. For constructing a terrazo floor. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :
A. a base course is prepared as in cement concrete flooring

a 32 mm thick layer of cement concrete (1 : 2 : 4) is laid on the base course and the
B.
surface is made smooth by trowelling

C. glass strips are driven into the layer according to the pattern required

after final grinding is over, oxalic acid mixed with water is spread over and rubbed hard
D.
with soft material

E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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26. The entrained concrete is used in lining walls and roofs for making
A. heat insulated

B. sound insulated

C. neither (a) nor (b)

D. both (a) and (b).


Answer: Option D
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27. The pile which is provided with a bulb filled with concrete at its lower end, is known as
A. Simplex pile

B. Mac-Arthur pile

C. Raymond pile

D. Franki pile

E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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28. In case of multi-storeyed buildings, the forms to be removed first are


A. sides of beams and girders

B. column forms

C. bottom of beams and girders

D. all the above at the same time.


Answer: Option A
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29. For providing a raft foundation, the following activities are involved
1. ramming the foundation bed
2. excavation of the soil upto required depth
3. laying the reinforcement over the foundation bed
4. curing the cement concrete placed over reinforcement
5. pouring the cement concrete over the reinforcement.

The correct sequence is


A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

B. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

C. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4

D. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4.
Answer: Option C
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30. The maximum permissible deflection of a timber beam supporting a roof, is


A. L/100

B. L/150

C. L/260

D. L/360

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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31. The angular steps used for changing direction of the stairs, are called
A. round steps

B. angular steps

C. winders

D. radial steps

E. circular steps.
Answer: Option C
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32. During percussion drilling


ground water observations are hindered due to entry of the slurry in the soil below the
A.
bottom of the hole

B. caving or mixing of strata are caused in soft soils or cohesionless soils

C. the soil to a considerable depth below the bottom of the hole gets disturbed

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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33. In English garden wall bond


A. one course of headers to three or five course of stretchers

B. queen closer in provided in each heading course

C. the middle course of stretchers is started with a header to give proper vertical joints

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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34. A projecting piece usually provided to support a truss, is


A. cornice

B. coping

C. frieze

D. lintal.
Answer: Option C
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35. The line of intersection of the surfaces of a sloping roof forming an external angle exceeding
180, is
A. ridge

B. hip

C. valley
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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36. A solid core of rock is formed in side the cylinder in the case of
A. auger boring

B. percussion drilling

C. diamond drilling

D. wash boring.
Answer: Option C
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37. The single stage well point system of dewatering an excavation can be used if the depth of
excavation does not exceed
A. 5m

B. 10 m

C. 15 m

D. 20 m

E. 25 m.
Answer: Option A
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38. The piece of a brick cut with its one corner equivalent to half the length and half the width of
a full brick, is known as
A. queen closer

B. bevelled closer

C. king closer

D. half king closer.


Answer: Option C
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39. The brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face of a wall, is known as
A. header
B. stretcher

C. closer

D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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40. A wooden block hinged on post outside a door, is known


A. cleat

B. stop

C. horn

D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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41. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :
The function of foundation is to distribute the load of super structure over a large bearing
A.
area

B. No timbering is required for shallow trenches

C. Shallow foundations can be constructed on made-up soil

D. Grillage foundation is classified as a shallow foundation

E. Black cotton soil is very good for foundation bed.


Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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42. In horizontal D.P.C, thickness of cement concrete (1 : 2 : 4) is


A. 2 cm

B. 4 cm

C. 6 cm

D. 8 cm

E. 10 cm.
Answer: Option B
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43. Which one of the following factors is considered for the orientation of buildings :
A. the direction of the prevailing winds in the area

B. the exposure of the walls and roof of the buildings to the rays of sun

C. the extent up to which the sunrays penetrate with the verandah.

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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44. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :


A. Cement is added to lime mortar to increase its hydraulic properties only

B. Lime surkhi mortar is used for pointing the walls

C. Lime should be slaked before preparing lime mortar

D. High early strength concrete is generally used in cold weather.


Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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45. Which one of the following rocks is used for monumental buildings :
A. granite

B. marble

C. sand stone

D. slate.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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46. The Auger borings are not common
A. in soils that require lateral support

B. in cohesive soils

C. in soft soils

D. none of the above.


Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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47. The form work from the underside of slabs, can be removed only after
A. 1 day

B. 4 days

C. 7 days

D. 14 days.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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48. Arches in the form of masonry arcs struck from more than four centres, are called
A. two curved arches

B. gothic arches

C. ogee arches

D. drop gothic arches.


Answer: Option C
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49. If () is the angle of repose of soil of weight w kg/m3, the horizontal pressure p at a depth
of h metres per metre length of wall, is

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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50. According to Rankine's formula, minimum depth of foundations, is


A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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1. Cast iron piles


A. are suitable for works under sea water

B. resist shocks or vibrations

C. are suitable for use as batter piles

D. are useful for heavy vertical loads.


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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2. The depth of an arch is the distance between


A. ground level and springing line

B. crown and springing line

C. crown and ground level

D. intrados and extrados.


Answer: Option D
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3. Expansion joints in masonry walls are provided if length exceeds


A. 10 m

B. 20 m

C. 30 m
D. 40 m

E. 50 m.
Answer: Option D
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4. The platform at the end of a series of steps, is known as


A. platform

B. relief

C. rest

D. landing

E. stop.
Answer: Option D
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5. Raft foundation are generally preferred to when the area required for individual footing, is more
than
A. 25% to total area

B. 30% of total area

C. 40% to total area

D. 50% of total area.


Answer: Option D
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6. You are asked to design and supervise a truss for a factory to have spans 6 m to 9 m. The type
of the truss you will use, is
A. mansored truss

B. queen post truss

C. king post truss

D. collar truss

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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7. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. The retaining wall should be structurally capable to resist the applied earth pressure

The section of the retaining wall should be so proportioned that it may not overturn by
B.
the lateral pressure

C. The retaining wall should be safe against sliding

The foundation of the retaining wall should not be stressed beyond safe bearing
D.
capacity ; due to its weight and the force resulting from the earth pressure

to drain off water from the earth retained, weep holes are provided near the top of the
E.
retaining wall.
Answer: Option E
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8. The arrangement of supporting an existing structure by providing supports underneath, is


known as
A. shoring

B. underpinning

C. jacking

D. piling
Answer: Option B
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9. The process of keeping concrete moist for a certain period after its finishing, is known as
A. finishing of concrete

B. curing of concrete

C. placing of concrete

D. compaction of concrete

E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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10. The inclined surface of an abutment to receive the arch, is known as


A. skew back

B. soffit
C. spandril

D. haunch.
Answer: Option A
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11. The strength of brick masonry in 1:6 cement mortar, is


A. 20 tonnes/m2

B. 40 tonnes/m2

C. 50 tonnes/m2

D. 60 tonnes/m2

E. 75 tonnes/m2.
Answer: Option C
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12. The dimensions of a half queen closer, are


A. 9 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm

B. 9 cm x 9 cm x 4.5 cm

C. 9 cm x 4.5 cm x 9 cm

D. 1.8 cm x 4.5 cm x 9 cm.


Answer: Option C
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13. In case of foundations on sandy soil, maximum permissible differential settlement, is usually
limited to
A. 15 mm

B. 25 mm

C. 35 mm

D. 45 mm

E. 55 mm.
Answer: Option B
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14. For heavy embankments and dams, of height h, the depth of exploration of soil should not be
less than
A. h/4

B. 1/2 h

C. h

D. 2 h.
Answer: Option D
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15. For different layers of cement concrete floor. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :
A. The lowest layer consists of consolidated ground

B. A 10 cm thick clean sand is laid on consolidated ground

C. A 10 cm lime concrete (1 : 4 : 8) is laid on clean sand

D. A 10 cm thick cement concrete (1 : 2 : 4) is laid on top layer.


Answer: Option D
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16. Rotary drilling
A. is not suitable for deposits containing very coarse gravel

B. hinders the ground water observations and permeability test

C. is not economical for holes of less than 10 cm.

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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17. In places where the soil is soft and has small resistance to the flow of concrete, which one of
the following types of piles, is used
A. vibro pile

B. pressure pile

C. Franki pile

D. pedestal pile.
Answer: Option A
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18. In grillage foundations a minimum 15 cm cover is provided on


A. upper flange of top tier

B. lower beam of lower tier

C. ends of external beams

D. none to these.
Answer: Option B
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19. The skirting/dado in a bath roof should be upto


A. ceiling

B. 15 cm above floor level

C. 200 cm

D. level of the tap.


Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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20. The maximum bearing capacity of soil is that of


A. black cotton soil

B. loose fine sandy soil

C. dry coarse sandy soil

D. hard rocks

E. soft clay soil.


Answer: Option D
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21. The columns of multi-storeyed buildings are designed to withstand the forces due to
A. dead loads

B. live loads

C. wind loads
D. earthquakes

E. all of these.
Answer: Option E
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22. The black cotton soil


A. undergoes volumetric changes

B. swells excessively when wet

C. shrinks excessively when dry

D. has a tendency of swelling and shrinking due to clay particles

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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23. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:


A. In dog-legged stairs, no space between its flights is provided

B. In open newel stair, a rectangular well is provided

In geometric stair, a curved shaped well between forward and backward flights, is
C.
provided

D. In geometrical stair, two quarter space landing is provided.


Answer: Option D
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24. Exposed portions of vertical surface at right angles to the door or window frame, are known
as
A. jambs

B. lintels

C. reveals

D. soffits.
Answer: Option C
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25. To obtain good bonding in brick masonry
A. first class bricks are used

B. vertical joints in alternate courses are kept in plumb line

C. bats are used where necessary

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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6. Raft foundations are used for :
A. providing increased area of foundation over poor bearing capacity of soil

B. spanning over small soft or loose pockets

C. counter acting the hydrostatic effect

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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27. For brick construction, the lime-sand mortar, is


A. 1:1

B. 1:2

C. 1:3

D. 1:4

E. 1:5.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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28. An arch constructed with finely dressed stones, is known


A. ashlar arch

B. rubble arch

C. gauged arch

D. axed arch.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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29. Cavity wall is generally provided for


A. heat insulation

B. sound insulation

C. prevention of dampness

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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30. Dampness causes


A. efflorescence

B. bleaching of paints

C. crumbling of plaster

D. growth of termites

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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31. The foundation which consists of a thick reinforced cement slab covering whole area to support
heavy concentrated structural loads, is known as
A. combined footing

B. strap footing

C. raft footing

D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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32. Bearing capacity of soils cannot be improved by


A. draining sub-soil water

B. ramming crushed stone in soil

C. driving sand piles

D. watering surface of soil


E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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33. To support a heavy structure in sandy soil, the type of foundation generally used, is
A. combined footing

B. raft footing

C. pier footing

D. strap footing

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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34. A floor constructed with 3 mm marble chips, is known


A. mosaic floor

B. terrazo floor

C. chips floor

D. marble floor.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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35. The position of a brick when laid on its side 9 cm x 9 cm with its frog in the vertical plane, is
called
A. brick on edge

B. brick on end

C. brick on bed

D. brick held vertically.


Answer: Option B
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36. Dutch bond is a modification of


A. English bond

B. stretcher bond

C. header bond

D. single Flemish bond.


Answer: Option A
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37. The 19 cm x 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as
A. stretcher

B. face

C. front

D. header

E. side.
Answer: Option A
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38. The depth of the ground water table may be ascertained by


A. looking through the well in the vicinity

B. standing on the well in the vicinity

C. measuring the depth of water in the well

D. none of the above.


Answer: Option C
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39. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


A. the pile driven in sand is called sand pile

B. the drilled hole filled with sand is called sand pile

C. the sand piles are used for bearing purposes

D. None of these.
Answer: Option A
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40. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


A. the cost of square rooms is less

the expenditure on the foundation and roof for the double storeyed building is nearly half
B.
of that for the ground storeyed building.

C. the cost of construction of a house may be minimised by restricting the height floors

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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41. The maximum permissible differential settlement, in case of foundations in clayey soil, is usually
limited to
A. 10 mm

B. 20 mm

C. 30 mm

D. 40 mm

E. 50 mm.
Answer: Option D
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42. The compaction of concrete in the drilled pile hole is done by compressed air in the case of
A. simplex pile

B. Franki pile

C. pressure pile

D. vibro pile.
Answer: Option C
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43. The opening provided in sloping roof with its top parallel to the roof surface, is called
A. dormer window

B. sky light window

C. lantern window
D. louvered window.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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44. The type of ashlar masonry in which stones are finely chisel dressed and thickness of joints
does not exceed 3 mm, is
A. chamfered ashlar masonry

B. ashlar facing masonry

C. random coursed ashlar masonry

D. coursed ashlar masonry.


Answer: Option D
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45. The lower half portion between crown and skew back of the arch, is called
A. spandril

B. haunch

C. springing

D. soffit.
Answer: Option B
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46. The angle between skew back of a flat arch and the horizontal, is kept approximately equal to
A. 0

B. 30

C. 60

D. 90

E. 120.
Answer: Option C
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47. In clay soil


A. swelling and shrinkage characteristics prevail
B. consolidation continues even after several years of construction.

C. differential settlement is generally prevalent

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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48. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :


A. the width of the wall is constructed thicker at the base in a stepped fashion

B. a long vertical load transferring concrete structure is called a concrete pile

in pile which transfers the load to the soil by the friction between the pile and the
C.
surrounding soil is called friction pile.

the pile which transfers the load to a hard rock bed at certain depth is called load
D.
bearing

E. none of the these.


Answer: Option D
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49. Depth of lean concrete bed placedat the bottom of a wall footing, is kept
A. 10 cm

B. 15 cm

C. equal to its projection beyond wall base

D. less than its projection beyond wall base.


Answer: Option C
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50. For a wall carrying heavy load on low bearing capacity soil,
A. lean concrete bed is provided

B. thick concrete bed is provided

C. reinforced concrete bed is provided

D. (a) and (c) of the above

E. (b) and (c) of the above.


Answer: Option D
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1. In grillage foundations, distance between flanges of grillage beams, is kept
A. 40 cm

B. equal to flange width

C. twice the flange width

D. maximum of (a), (b) and (c).


Answer: Option C
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2. Herringbone bond is used for


A. walls having thickness more than 4 bricks

B. architectural finish to the face work

C. ornamental panels in brick flooring

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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3. A cut in frame of a door to receive the shutter, is called


A. louver

B. stop

C. horn

D. rebate.
Answer: Option D
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4. The alignment of a cross joint along the plumb line is


A. bed block

B. perpend

C. lintel

D. vertical line.
Answer: Option B
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5. A temporary rigid structure having platforms to enable masons to work at different stages of a
building, is known as
A. scaffolding

B. dead shore

C. raking shore

D. under pinning.
Answer: Option A
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6. The additional piles which are driven to increase the capacity of supporting loads on vertical
piles, are known
A. construction piles

B. raking piles

C. eccentric piles

D. sinking piles

E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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7. The bearing capacity of piles is determined by


A. dynamic formula

B. static formula

C. pile load tests

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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8. A covering of concrete placed on the exposed top of an external wall, is known as


A. cornice

B. coping
C. frieze

D. lintal.
Answer: Option B
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9. Auger boring
A. is the most primitive method for making a hole in the ground

B. is generally employed in cohesive and other self soils above water table

C. is most economical upto a depth of 5 metres

is done by portable power driven helical augers those diameters range from 7.5 to 30
D.
cm

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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10. A roof which slopes in four directions, is called


A. shed roof

B. gable end roof

C. hipped roof

D. gambrel roof.
Answer: Option C
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11. The stone whose crushing strength is least, is
A. granite

B. chalk

C. marble

D. slate

E. sand stone.
Answer: Option B
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12. Best type of piles for soft soil having little resistance to the flow of concrete, is
A. Simplex pile

B. Vibro pile

C. Raymond pile

D. Franki pile.
Answer: Option B
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13. A wall constructed to resist the pressure of an earth filling, is called


A. retaining wall

B. breast wall

C. buttress

D. parapet wall.
Answer: Option A
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14. Engineering news formula for obtaining safe bearing capacity of pile for drop hammer, is,

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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15. The bearing capacity of a water logged soil, may be improved by


A. grouting

B. chemical action

C. drainage
D. compaction.
Answer: Option C
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16. The inclined support at the ends of treads and rises of a stair, is known as
A. baluster

B. header

C. string

D. beam.
Answer: Option C
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17. The depth of concrete bed of the foundation depends upon


A. the projection of the concrete block beyond the footing over it

B. the upward soil pressure

C. the mix of the concrete

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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18. The vertical side member of a shutter frame, is known


A. style

B. reveal

C. mullion

D. post.
Answer: Option A
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19. The brick laid with its length parallel to the face of a wall, is a known as
A. header

B. stretcher

C. closer
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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20. Couple roof is used for spans


A. 3.5 m or less

B. 3.5 m but less than 5 m

C. 5 m but less than 6.5 m

D. 6.5 m but less than 8 m.


Answer: Option A
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21. Two columns 50 cm x 50 cm and 60 cm x 60 cm carry 80 tonnes and 120 tonnes of loads
respectively. The centre to centre distance between columns is 5.00 metres. The permissible
bearing capacity of the soil is 20 t/m2. If the footing is not to project more than 25 cm beyond the
outside of the smaller column, pick up the correct design parameters of the footing from the
following:
A. distance of C.G. of the loads from the smaller column = 3.00 m

B. the length of the foundation slab = 7.00 m

C. area of footing slab = 11.00 m2

D. width of the footing = 1.57 m.

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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22. Pick up the correct specification of one-room quarters generally adopted from the following :
A. six quarters in a row

B. the size of room is either 3.5 m x 3 m or 4.2 m x 2.5 m

C. the front verandah is kept 2 m wide.

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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23. Negative skin friction


is a downward drag acting on a pile due to downward movement of the surrounding
A.
compressible soil relative to the pile

B. develops due to lowering of ground water

C. both (a) and (b)

D. neither (a) not (b).


Answer: Option C
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24. The type of stone masonry in which stones of same height are laid in layers, is called
A. random rubble masonry

B. course rubble masonry

C. uncoursed rubble masonry

D. ashlar masonry.
Answer: Option B
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25. The range of spread from the wall base to outer edge of a brick work foundation does not
exceed
A. 1/2 horizontal to 1 vertical

B. 2/3 horizontal to 1 vertical

C. 1 horizontal to 1 vertical

D. 2 horizontals to 1 vertical.
Answer: Option C
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26. Which one of the following piles has a cast iron shoe even after removal of the hollow cylindrical
steel casing
A. simplex pile

B. pedastal pile

C. Franki pile

D. vibro pile

E. both (a) and (d) of the above.


Answer: Option E
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27. If height of the first storey of a building is 3.2 m and riser is 13 cm, the number of treads
required, is
A. 12

B. 18

C. 24

D. 25

E. 30.
Answer: Option C
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28. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


A. the sand in the sand pile is well compacted

B. the sand is kept moist at the time of placing and tamping

the top one metre of the pile is filled up with cement concrete to provide a cap for the
C.
filled up sand

D. sand piles are generally used under column loads

E. all of the above.


Answer: Option E
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29. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :


A. In king post truss, one vertical post is used

B. In a queen post truss, one vertical post is used

C. In a queen post truss, two vertical posts are used

D. None of these.
Answer: Option B
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30. For effective drainage, the finished surface of flat roof should have a minimum slope of
A. 1 in 20
B. 1 to 50

C. 1 in 10

D. 1 in 5.
Answer: Option A
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31. If the depth of an excavation is 20 metres, number of single stage well points to be installed at
various levels, is
A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

E. 6.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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32. The minimum distance between the centres of bulb of diameter du, of a multi under reamed
piles, is
A. du

B. 1.25 du

C. 1.5 du

D. 1.75 du

E. 2 du.
Answer: Option C
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33. The method of moving each brick through a small horizontal distance before it is finally laid in
any brick wall and pressing it by means of brick hammer, is known as
A. trowelling

B. laying

C. grouting

D. placing.
Answer: Option B
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34. The stone whose crushing strength is maximum, is


A. granite

B. chalk

C. slate

D. sand stone

E. marble.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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35. The vertical member running through middle of a shutter frame, is


A. style

B. reveal

C. mullion

D. post.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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36. The formWork including the props can be removed from beams, only after
A. 3 day

B. 7 days

C. 14 days

D. 21 days.
Answer: Option C
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37. The type of bond in a brick masonry containing alternate courses of stretchers and headers,
is called
A. Flemish bond

B. English bond

C. Stretcher bond
D. Header bond.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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38. While investigating the site, a thick layer of fairly firm clay over a deep layer of soft clay is
encountered. In such a situation, the following type of foundation is useful :
A. pile formation

B. raft foundation

C. grillage foundation

D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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39. The concrete slump recommended for columns, is


A. 25 to 50 mm

B. 25 to 75 mm

C. 75 to 125 mm

D. 50 to 100 mm.
Answer: Option C
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40. The inner section of a cavity wall, is generally known as


A. butress

B. leaf wall

C. pillaster

D. pillar.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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41. Nogging of a common wooden partition is


A. upper horizontal wooden member
B. lower horizontal wooden member

C. intermediate horizontal wooden member

D. vertical wooden member.


Answer: Option C
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42. Ornamental moulded course placed on the top of a wall, is


A. cornice

B. coping

C. frieze

D. lintal.
Answer: Option A
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43. The size of a floor tile commonly used, is


A. 15 cm x 15 cm x 1.8 cm

B. 20 cm x 20 cm x 2 cm

C. 22.5 x 22.5 cm x 2.2 cm

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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44. The triangular portion between any two adjacent arches and the tangent to their crowns, is
A. haunch

B. spandril

C. soffit

D. rise.
Answer: Option B
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45. The depth of excavation of foundations, is generally measured with a


A. ranging rod

B. steel tape

C. levelling staff

D. bonning rod.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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46. The floor is rubbed with oxalic acid, for making its surface
A. free from voids

B. glossy

C. durable

D. uniform.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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47. For the construction of flyovers in sandy soils, the type of foundation provided, is
A. strap footing

B. raft footing

C. combined footing

D. pier footing

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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48. If a is the offset of concrete bed in cms, and d is the depth of concrete bed in cms, then
A. d = 0.445 a

B. 0.557 a

C. d = 0.775 a

D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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49. The type of bond in which every course contains both headers and stretchers, is called
A. English bond

B. Flemish bond

C. Russian band

D. Mixed bond.
Answer: Option B
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50. Pile foundation is generally provided if soil is


A. compressible

B. water logged

C. made up

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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1. To stagger vertical joints in successive courses of a wall, a piece of brick is generally used at the
end of the course, which is known as
A. bat

B. header

C. stretcher

D. closer.
Answer: Option D
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2. The concrete slump recommended for foundations, is


A. 25 to 50 mm

B. 30 to 125 mm

C. 50 to 100 mm

D. 75 to 125 mm

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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3. The minimum thickness of walls built in cement mortar (1 : 6) for a single storey building, is
A. 10 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 20 cm

D. 25 cm

E. 30 cm.
Answer: Option C
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4. The form work from the slabs excluding props, can be removed only after
A. 1 day

B. 4 days

C. 7 days

D. 14 days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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5. The pile provided with one or more bulles in its vertical shaft, is generally known as
A. under-ream pile

B. friction pile

C. bearing pile

D. sheet pile.
Answer: Option A
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6. To construct a 10 cm thick partition wall, you will prefer
A. English bond

B. Flemish bond

C. Header bond

D. Stretcher bond.
Answer: Option D
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7. The pile which supports the load due to friction between pile face and surrounding soil, is
generally known as
A. bearing pile

B. friction pile

C. sheet pile

D. battered pile.
Answer: Option B
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8. The voussoir placed at crown of an arch, is known as a


A. key

B. soffit

C. springer

D. haunch.
Answer: Option A
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9. The vertical members fixed between steps and hand rail, are known
A. balusters

B. strings

C. newel posts

D. soffits.
Answer: Option A
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10. Pick up the consideration to the taken while designing a hospital from the following :
the operation theatre unit to be detached as it requires sterlized zone but near the ward
A.
for the patients and doctor

B. the mortuary should be detached from the main circulation with a postmortem room

C. causalty unit should be provided a separate entrance


D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
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11. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :
A. Horizontal D.P.C. is provided at plinth level in internal walls

B. D.P.C. is provided under door and verandah openings

C. Vertical D.P.C. is not provided in internal walls

D. Cement concrete is a rigid damp-proofing material.


Answer: Option B
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12. For plastering the exposed brick walls, the cement sand mortar should be
A. 1:2

B. 1:3

C. 1:4

D. 1:6

E. 1:8.
Answer: Option C
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13. The construction joints in buildings are provided after


A. 10 m

B. 15 m

C. 20 m

D. 40 m

E. 60 m.
Answer: Option D
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14. The arrangement made to support an unsafe structure temporarily, is known as


A. shoring
B. scaffolding

C. underpinning

D. jacking

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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15. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


A. D.P.C. should be continuous

B. D.P.C. should be of good impervious material

C. D.P.C. may be horizontal or vertical

D. All the above.


Answer: Option D
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16. An arch may fail due to
A. uneven settlement of abutments

B. sliding of voussoirs

C. crushing of the material

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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17. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


A. Cavity of a cavity wall should start near ground level

B. Cavity of a cavity wall should terminate near eaves level of sloping roof

C. Cavity of a cavity wall should terminate near coping of flat roof with parapet wall

Damp proof course for two leaves of a cavity wall, is laid separately but at the same
D.
level

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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18. In soft clay of low bearing capacity, the type of steel pile generally used, is
A. H-pile

B. screw pile

C. disc pile

D. pipe pile

E. raking pile.
Answer: Option B
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19. Stability of an existing structure may be disturbed by


A. rising of water table

B. vibrations caused by traffic movements

C. mining in the neighbourhood

D. excavation in the neighbourhood

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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20. According to National Building Code, the hydrants in water mains is provided at minimum
interval of
A. 50 m

B. 60 m

C. 75 m

D. 90 m.
Answer: Option C
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21. Open test pit is only suitable upto a depth of
A. 2 metres

B. 2.5 metres

C. 3 metres

D. none of the above.


Answer: Option C
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22. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


A. English bond is used for brick masonry to support heavy loads

B. Double-flemish bond is suitable for brick masonry to give uniform face appearance

C. The double-flemish bond is used for the construction of single brick residential building

D. The stretcher bond is used for the construction of half brick masonry brick

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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23. The projections of head or sill of a door or window frame, are


A. transoms

B. horns

C. stops

D. chocks.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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24. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


A. the first coat of stucco plaster is called scratch coat

B. the second coat of stucco plaster is called brown coat

C. the third coat of stucco plaster is called white coat

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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25. The local swelling of a finished plaster, is termed


A. cracking

B. dubbing
C. blistering

D. hacking.
Answer: Option C
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26. The form work from the sides of beams can be removed only after
A. 1 day

B. 4 days

C. 7 days

D. 14 days.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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27. In soils possessing low bearing capacity, the type of foundation generally provided, is
A. column footing

B. grillage footing

C. raft footing

D. mat footing

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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28. Which one of the following activities is not correct as applicable to brick corbels
the maximum projection of the corbel should not be more than the thickness of the
A.
wall

the maximum projection of each corbel course should be limited to a quarter brick at a
B.
time

C. the discontinuous corbels are used to carry heavy concentrated loads

D. stretcher bond is generally used for the construction of brick corbel.


Answer: Option D
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29. Pick up the correct statements from the following :


A. cracks appear on the plastered surface in the form of hair cracks

in brick work, the efflorescence is removed by applying a solution of zinc sulphate and
B.
water

C. excessive thermal variations in the backing or plaster causes the plaster to fall

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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30. Rotary drilling is the fastest method in case of


A. rocky soils

B. clay soils

C. sandy soil

D. all of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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31. The type of pointing in which upper side of mortar joints is kept about 12 mm inside the face of
the masonry and bottom is kept flushed with face of wall, is
A. truck pointing

B. recessed pointing

C. struck pointing

D. grooved pointing.
Answer: Option C
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32. The steel pile which is generally sunk in soft clay or loose sand of low bearing capacity, is
A. H-pile

B. pipe pile

C. screw pile

D. disc pile

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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33. The stepped structure provided for lateral support of a structure, is
A. retaining wall

B. breast wall

C. buttress

D. parapet wall.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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34. In the method of tube boring of soil investigation, the following is essential :
A. a tube of about 2 metres length and 20 cm diameter with a cutting edge

B. a flap valve at the bottom of tube is provided to extract the soil sample

the tube is raised and lowered by 4 thick rope moving over a pulley suspended on a
C.
tripod stand

the tube is dropped to fall under gravity in side a metalic casing pipe which is driven
D.
as the depth of excavation proceeds.

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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35. For each storey of a building, the depth of exploration should be


A. 1 metre

B. 2 metres

C. 3 metres

D. 4 metres.
Answer: Option C
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36. Pick up the correct statement from the following :
A. lime mortar with cement in the ratio of in 10 is cheaper and better for outside plaster

the lime with surkhi used as mortor for construction reduces the cost and provides equal
B.
strength to wall

C. for very cold or very hot climate, a compact and closed plan should be provided

D. on the sea coast, an exposed and open house is generally preferred


E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
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37. Pile foundations are suitable for


A. water logged soils

B. soft rocks

C. compact soils

D. multistoreyed buildings

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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38. In verandah floors outward slope is


A. 1 in 40

B. 1 in 50

C. 1 in 60

D. 1 in 70

E. 1 in 100.
Answer: Option C
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39. A floor constructed with the 4 to 6 mm marble chips, is known


A. reinforced marble floor

B. terrazo floor

C. marble floor

D. chip floor

E. mosaic floor.
Answer: Option B
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40. In flat roof of reinforced cement concrete, the recommended angle of slope, is
A. zero

B. a few degrees

C. 10

D. 200.
Answer: Option B
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41. Safe bearing capacity of black cotton soil varies from
A. 2 to 3 t/m2

B. 5 to 7.5 t/m2

C. 8 to 10 t/m2

D. 10 to 12 t/m2.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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42. Crown is located at


A. highest point on the extrados of the arch

B. highest point on the intrados of the arch

C. skew-back of the arch

D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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43. The nominal thickness of an expansion joint in brick walls, is kept more than
A. 5 mm

B. 10 mm

C. 15 mm

D. 20 mm

E. 40 mm.
Answer: Option D
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44. The nominal thickness of one brick wall in mm, is


A. 90 mm

B. 150 mm

C. 190 mm

D. 200 mm.
Answer: Option D
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45. The pile which supports the load partly by friction and partly by resting on hard stratum, is called
A. friction pile

B. bearing pile

C. friction bearing pile

D. rough pile.
Answer: Option C
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46. The sound which continues even after its source is cut off, is called
A. reverberation

B. echo

C. intensity of sound

D. interference.
Answer: Option A
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47. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :


A. In Flemish bond, headers and stretchers are laid alternately in the same course

In Flemish bond every header in each course lies centrally over every stretcher of the
B.
underlying course

C. In English bond, stretchers are laid in every course

D. In English bond, headers and stretchers are laid in alternate courses

E. None of these.
Answer: Option C
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48. Which of the following metal sheets is most effective in preventing dampness ?
A. Copper sheets

B. lead sheets

C. aluminium sheets

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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49. The least bearing capacity of soil is that of


A. hard rock

B. moist clay

C. soft rock

D. laminated

E. coarse sandy soil.


Answer: Option B
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50. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


the roof slabs of multi-storeyed buildings are constructed monolithically to carry the
A.
various floor loads

the beams of multi-storeyed buildings rest on girders and are the main load
B.
transferring members to the columns

C. the slab is spanned across the secondary beams provided between the main beams

D. All of these.
Answer: Option D
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1. The sill of a common wooden partition is


A. vertical wooden member on either end
B. lower horizontal wooden member

C. upper horizontal wooden member

D. intermediate horizontal wooden member.


Answer: Option B
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2. Suitable spacing of timber piles, is


A. 50 cm

B. 60 cm

C. 70 cm

D. 80 cm

E. 90 cm.
Answer: Option E
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3. The members which support covering material of a sloping roof, are


A. rafters

B. purlins

C. battens

D. struts.
Answer: Option A
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4. An ordinary concrete may be made water proof by adding


A. pudlo

B. impermo

C. snowcem

D. cico

E. all of these.
Answer: Option E
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5. The Auger boring method is not suitable for


A. very hard soil

B. cemented soil

C. vary soft soil

D. fully saturated cohesionless soils

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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6. The mortar in which both cement and lime are used as binding materials, is called
A. cement mortar

B. lime mortar

C. fire resistant mortar

D. gauged mortar

E. light weight mortar.


Answer: Option D
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7. The rock formed from the solidification of molten matter (magma) is called :
A. sedimentary rock

B. metamorphic rock

C. igneous rock

D. none of the above.


Answer: Option C
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8. The minimum width of a stair in residential buildings, is


A. 55 cm

B. 70 cm

C. 85 cm
D. 100 cm

E. 120 cm.
Answer: Option C
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9. The bond in which headers and stretchers are laid in alternate courses and every stretcher
course is started with a three fourth brick bat, is known as
A. English cross bond

B. Dutch bond

C. Monk bond

D. Rat-trap bond.
Answer: Option B
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10. The vertical faces of a door opening which support frame of the door, are
A. jambs

B. posts

C. reveals

D. styles.
Answer: Option A
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11. The type of pointing in which a V-shaped projection outside the wall surface, is provided, is
called
A. recessed pointing

B. weather pointing

C. V-pointing

D. tuck pointing.
Answer: Option B
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12. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


In a king post truss, principal rafter and tie beams are jointed together with a bridle
A.
joint.

Joint between the principal rafter and the king post is made by making tenon and
B.
mortice respectively

C. Joint between strut and king post, is generally of mortice and tenon type

D. All the above.


Answer: Option D
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13. Pick up the correct statement about silt soil from the following :
A. the silt soil has particle size from 0.02 mm to 0.06 mm.

B. in organic fine grained silt soil possesses no plasticity.

the least plastic type normally consists of more or less equi-dimensional grains of
C.
quartz

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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14. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


The bearing capacity of a pile is defined as the load which can be sustained by the
A.
pile without producing excessive settlement

The ultimate bearing capacity of a pile is defined as the maximum load which the pile
B.
carries and continues to sink without any further increases of load

The safe bearing capacity of a pile is obtained by dividing the ultimate bearing
C.
capacity with a suitable factor of safety

D. The factor of safety for piles is taken as 6

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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15. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Plain cement concrete is equally strong in compression as well as in tension

B. Slump test is performed to check concrete strength


C. Curing of concrete is done for proper compaction of cement

Fineness modulus is the index number expressing the relative sizes of both coarse and
D.
fine aggregates

E. Concrete is a mixture of binding material, coarse aggregate and water.


Answer: Option D
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16. A pre-stressed concrete pile is
A. easy to handle

B. lighter in weight

C. extremely durable

D. suitable for heavy load

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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17. The highest line of sloping roof, where two oposite slopes meet, is known as
A. rafter

B. ridge

C. crown

D. eave.
Answer: Option B
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18. The vertical sides of a door and window openings provided in a wall, are known as
A. verticals

B. reveals

C. jambs

D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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19. The piece of a brick cut along the centre of width in such a way that its length is equal to that
of full brick, is called
A. half brick

B. queen closer

C. king closer

D. bevelled closer.
Answer: Option B
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20. A stair should not have pitch more than


A. 25

B. 30

C. 40

D. 50

E. 60.
Answer: Option C
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21. The window which is provided in flat roof of a room, is known
A. dormer window

B. lantern window

C. louvered window

D. sky window.
Answer: Option B
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22. Gravels
A. are cohesionless aggregates

B. vary in size between 2 to 20 mm

C. never swell when they come into contact with water

D. seldom shrink when dried

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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23. A wooden block fixed on back side of a door frame on its post, is known as
A. cleat

B. stop

C. horn

D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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24. Brick nogging type of partition wall, is constructed by


A. laying bricks as stretchers in cement mortar

B. laying bricks as headers in cement mortar

C. reinforcing brick wall with iron straps

D. constructing brick work within a wooden framework.


Answer: Option D
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25. In high mountaneous region, the type of roof generally recommended for buildings, is
A. shed type

B. gable type

C. gambrel type

D. mansord type.
Answer: Option C
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26. The stone masonry of finely dressed stones laid in cement or lime, is
A. random rubble masonry

B. coursed rubble masonry

C. dry rubble masonry

D. ashlar masonry.
Answer: Option D
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27. The process of filling hollow spaces of walls before plastering, is known
A. hacking

B. dubbing out

C. blishering

D. peeling

E. all the above.


Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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28. The stone blocks approximately triangular in shape, used as steps, are known
A. stone steps

B. built up steps

C. spandril steps

D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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29. A concrete structure is set on fire and the temperature raises to 1000C. The strength of
concrete as compared to original strength reduces to
A. 10%

B. 15%

C. 20%

D. 25%.
Answer: Option C
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30. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


A. A mortar joint having a concave finishing in brick masonry, is called keyed joint

B. A mortar joint projecting beyond the face of a masonry wall, is called tucked joint
C. A mortar joint having an inward-upward slope in brick masonry, is called weathered joint

D. A mortar joint having a recess in it, is called ruled joint

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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31. The window which projects outside a room of a building for admitting more light and air, is known
A. bay window

B. casement window

C. lantern window

D. dormer window.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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32. Weep holes are provided in retaining and breast walls


A. to drain off the water from the filling

B. to ventilate the stone masonry

C. to add architectural beauty

D. to reduce the weight of the earth retained

E. to increase compaction of the earth retained.


Answer: Option A
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33. The window which is provided on a sloping roof of a building, is called


A. lantern window

B. dormer window

C. louvered window

D. rash window

E. air window.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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34. Vertical construction joints are provided where the shearing forces are minimum in the case
of
A. slabs

B. beams

C. girders

D. all of these.
Answer: Option D
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35. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


A. Isolated footing is provided under column to transfer the load safely to soil bed

B. column footings may have steps or projections in the concrete base

C. heavily loaded column base must be provided steel reinforcement in both directions

D. the concrete offset should be at least 15 cm on all sides

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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36. The bearing capacity of granite is generally
A. 5 to 10 kg/cm2

B. 15 to 20 kg/cm2

C. 30 to 35 kg/cm2

D. 40 to 45 kg/cm2.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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37. A wall constructed with stones to protect slopes of cuttings in natural ground from the action
of weathering agents, is called
A. retaining wall

B. breast wall

C. buttress

D. parapet wall.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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38. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


A. sand consists of coarse particles of silica formed due to the disintegration of rocks.

B. the grains of sand are not affected by frost

sand beds are permeable and do not allow water to rise up between pores due to
C.
capillary action

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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39. The ceiling height of a building is


A. between ceiling and ground level

B. between ceiling and floor level

C. upto roof above ground level

D. upto ceiling from the ground level.


Answer: Option B
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40. Pick up the correct statement from the following :


A combined footing is so proportioned that centre of gravity of supporting area coincides
A.
with centre of gravity of two column loads

B. A combined footing may be either rectangular or trapezoidal in shape

Rectangular footings are provided if two column loads are equal or interior column carries
C.
relatively greater load

D. Trapezoidal shaped footings may be provided under any loading

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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41. For a rectangular foundation of width b, eccentricity of load should not exceed
A. b/2

B. b/3

C. b/4
D. b/5

E. b/6.
Answer: Option E
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42. The width of the hollow space between two walls of a cavity wall should not exceed
A. 5 cm

B. 7.5 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 15 cm.
Answer: Option C
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43. The service area in a building means the area occupied by


A. stairs

B. toilets

C. light and shafts

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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44. The X-ray rooms are plastered with


A. Plaster of Paris

B. Barium plaster

C. Martin's cement

D. Keen's cement.
Answer: Option B
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45. Slate
A. is a metamorphic rock
B. splits into thin sheets along its bedding planes

C. has a smooth surface and contains alumina and silica

D. possesses good water absorption capacity

E. is found in many colours.


Answer: Option A
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46. The line of intersection of two surfaces of a sloping roof forming an internal angle less than
180, is known as
A. ridge

B. hip

C. valley

D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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47. The process of working a flat for the finishing coat, is known
A. dubbing out

B. floating

C. knetting

D. blistering.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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48. The type of arch used for high class buildings where appearance is of prime importance, is
known as
A. ashlar arch

B. rubble arch

C. gauged brick arch

D. axed brick arch.


Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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49. The minimum strength of the mortar used in load bearing brick masonry, is
A. 50 N/cm2

B. 100 N/cm2

C. 150 N/cm2

D. 200 N/cm2.
Answer: Option B
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50. In ordinary residential and public buildings, the damp proof course is generally provided at
A. ground level

B. plinth level

C. water table level

D. midway ground level and watertable level.


Answer: Option B
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1. Under reamed piles are generally used for
A. machine foundations

B. factory buildinp

C. transmission linetowers

D. tall structures.

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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2. The thickness of a reinforced brick partition wall, is generally kept


A. 5 cm

B. 10 cm

C. 15 cm

D. 20 cm

E. 25 cm.
Answer: Option B
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3. The wedge shaped bricks forming an arch ring, are called


A. Soffits

B. voussoirs

C. haunchs

D. spandrils.
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4. A pointed arch which forms isosceles or equilateral triangle, is generally known as


A. three centred arch

B. two centred arch

C. Lancet arch

D. Bull's eye arch.


Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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5. The art of bringing the floor to a true level surface by means of screads, is called
A. topping

B. bedding

C. screading

D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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indiabix.com (Concrete Technology)


1. For quality control of Portland cement, the test essentially done is
A. setting time

B. soundness

C. tensile strength

D. consistency
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
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2. If 1500 g of water is required to have a cement paste 1875 g of normal consistency, the
percentage of water is,
A. 20%

B. 25%

C. 30%

D. 35%

E. 40%
Answer: Option B
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3. Under normal conditions using an ordinary cement, the period of removal of the form work, is
:
A. 7 days for beam soffits

B. 14 days for bottom slabs of spans 4.6 m and more

C. 21 days for bottom beams over 6 m spans

D. 2 days for vertical sides of columns

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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4. Wp and Wf are the weights of a cylinder containing partially compacted and fully compacted

concrete. If the compaction factor is 0.95, the workability of concrete is


A. extremely low

B. very low

C. low

D. high

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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5. For given water content, workability decreases if the concrete aggregates contain an excess of
A. thin particles

B. flat particles

C. elongated particles

D. flaky paticles

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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6. M10 grade of concrete approximates
A. 1 : 3 : 6 mix

B. 1 : 1 : 2 mix

C. 1 : 2 : 4 mix

D. 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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7. For ensuring quality of concrete, use


A. single sized aggegates

B. two sized aggregate

C. graded aggregates

D. coarse aggregates.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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8. According to I.S. : 456, the number of grades of concrete mixes, is


A. 3

B. 4
C. 5

D. 6

E. 7
Answer: Option E
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9. The mixture of different ingredients of cement, is burnt at


A. 1000C

B. 1200C

C. 1400C

D. 1600C

E. 1800C
Answer: Option C
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10. The risk of segregation is more for


A. wetter mix

B. larger proportion of maximum size aggregate

C. coarser grading

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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11. After casting, an ordinary cement concrete on drying
A. expands

B. mix

C. shrinks

D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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12. Hydration of cement is due to chemical action of water with


A. Tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicate

B. Dicalcium silicate and tricalcium aluminate

C. Tricalcium aluminate and tricalcium alumino ferrite

D. All the above.


Answer: Option D
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13. To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or their slurry, is burnt in a rotary kiln
at a temperature between
A. 1100 and 1200C

B. 1200 and 1300C

C. 1300 and 1400C

D. 1400 and 1500C

E. 1500 and 1600C


Answer: Option D
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14. Permissible compressive strength of M 300 concrete grade is


A. 100 kg/cm2

B. 150 kg/cm2

C. 200 kg/cm2

D. 250 kg/cm2

E. 300 kg/cm2
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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15. The standard sand now a days used in India, is obtained from
A. Jaipur (Rajasthan)

B. Jullundur (Punjab)

C. Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)

D. Ennore (Madras)
E. Cuttuck (Orissa).
Answer: Option D
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16. The maximum amount of dust which may be permitted in aggregates is
A. 5% of the total aggregates for low workability with a coarse grading

B. 10% of the total aggregates for low workability with a fine grading

C. 20% of the total aggregates for a mix having high workability with fine grading

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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17. Proper proportioning of concrete, ensures


A. desired strength and workability

B. desired durability

C. water tightness of the structure

D. resistance to water

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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18. The bulk density of aggregates does not depend upon :


A. size and shape of aggregates

B. specific gravity of aggregates

C. grading of aggregates

D. size and shape of the container

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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19. Curing
A. reduces the shrinkage of concrete
B. preserves the properties of concrete

C. prevents the loss of water by evaporation

D. all of the above.


Answer: Option D
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20. While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator, the slump should not exceed
A. 2.5 cm

B. 5.0 cm

C. 7.5 cm

D. 10 cm

E. 15 cm
Answer: Option B
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21. Construction joints are provided
A. where B.M. and S.F. are small

B. where the member is supported by other member

C. at 18 m apart in huge structures

D. in concrete wall at sill level of windows

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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22. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than


A. 1/5th of mean dimension

B. 2/5th of mean dimension

C. 3/5th of mean dimension

D. 4/5th of mean dimension

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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23. The following proportion of the ingredients of concrete mix, is not in conformation to arbitrary
method of proportioning
A. 1:1:2

B. 1 : 2 : 4

C. 1 : 3 : 6

D. 1 : 2 : 8

E. 1 : 4 : 10
Answer: Option E
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24. The increased cohesiveness of concrete, makes it


A. less liable to segregation

B. more liable to segregation

C. more liable to bleeding

D. more liable for surface scaling in frosty weather

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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25. The ratio of the length to breadth of a wooden float, is


A. 4.5

B. 5.5

C. 6.5

D. 7.5

E. 8.5
Answer: Option D
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26. To ensure constant moisture content in aggregates
A. area of each aggregate pile should be large

B. height of each aggregate pile should not exceed 1.50 m

C. aggregate pile should be left for 24 hours before aggregates are used
D. conical heaps of aggregates should be avoided to prevent moisture variation

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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27. Workability improved by adding


A. air-entraining agent

B. foaming agent

C. oily-agent

D. aluminium compound

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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28. The commonly used material in the manufacture of cement is


A. sand stone

B. slate

C. lime stone

D. graphite.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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29. If 20 kg of coarse aggregate is sieved through 80 mm, 40 mm, 20 mm, 10 mm, 4.75 mm,
2.36 mm, 1.18 mm, 600 micron, 300 micron and 150 micron standard sieves and the weights
retained are 0 kg, 2 kg, 8 kg, 6 kg, 4 kg respectively, the fineness modulus of the aggregate,
is
A. 7.30

B. 7.35

C. 7.40

D. 7.45

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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30. Curing a concrete for long period ensures better


A. volume stability

B. strength

C. water resistance

D. water tightness and durability

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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31. For the construction of cement concrete floor, the maximum permissible size of aggregate, is
A. 4 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 8 mm

D. 10 mm

E. 12 mm
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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32. The process of proper and accurate measurement of concrete ingredients for uniformity of
proportion, is known
A. grading

B. curing

C. mixing

D. batching

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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33. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete mix harsh
B. Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete unworkable

C. Excess quantity of water makes the concrete segregated

D. Excess quantity of water causes bleeding in concrete

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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34. The preliminary test is repeated if the difference of compressive strength of three test
specimens, exceeds
A. 5 kg/cm2

B. 8 kg/cm2

C. 10 kg/cm2

D. 12 kg/cm2

E. 15 kg/cm2
Answer: Option E
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35. Pick up the correct proportions of chemical ingredients of cement


A. Lime : Silica : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3

B. Silica : Lime : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3

C. Alumina : Silica : Lime : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3

D. Iron oxide : Alumina : Silica : Lime : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3


Answer: Option A
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36. Transport of concrete by pumps, is done for a distance of
A. 100 m

B. 200 m

C. 300 m

D. 400 m

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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37. If X, Y and Z are the fineness modulli of coarse, fine and combined aggregates, the
percentage (P) of fine aggregates to combined aggregates, is

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Answer: Option B
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38. Slump test is done for


A. clay

B. sand

C. lime

D. concrete.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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39. The high strength of rapid hardening cement at early stage, is due to its
A. finer grinding

B. burning at high temperature

C. increased lime cement

D. higher content of tricalcium.


Answer: Option C
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40. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The weight of ingredients of concrete mix, is taken in kilograms

B. Water and aggregates are measured in litres

C. The finished concrete is measured in cubic metres

D. 20 bags of cement make one tonne

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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41. Concrete mainly consists of
A. cement

B. aggregates

C. admixture

D. water

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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42. Vicat's apparatus is used for


A. fineness test

B. consistency test

C. setting time test

D. soundness test

E. compressive strength test.


Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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43. M 150 grade of concrete approximates


A. 1 : 3 : 6 mix

B. 1 : 1 :2 mix

C. 1 : 2 : 4 mix
D. 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix

E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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44. Workability of concrete is measured by


A. Vicat apparatus test

B. Slump test

C. Minimum void method

D. Talbot Richard test.


Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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45. The rock which is not calcareous, is :


A. lime stone

B. macl

C. chalk

D. laterite

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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46. Internal friction between the ingredients of concrete, is decreased by using
A. less water

B. fine aggregates

C. rich mix

D. more water and coarse aggregates

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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47. For road pavements, the cement generally used, is


A. ordinary Portland cement

B. rapid hardening cement

C. low heat cement

D. blast furnace slag cement

E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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48. Construction joints are generally provided in concrete


A. roads

B. retaining walls

C. lining of canals

D. lining of tunnels

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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1. Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar during transportation, is known
A. bleeding

B. creeping

C. segregation

D. shrinkage

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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2. According to the recommendations of IS : 456-1978, the expansion joints


A. are provided where plane changes abruptly

B. are provided to ensure minimum resistance

C. are supported on separate columns

D. do not carry reinforcement across them

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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3. Grading of sand causes great variation in


A. workability of concrete

B. strength of concrete

C. durability of concrete

D. handing and placing of concrete

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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4. Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using


A. low water cement ratio

B. less cement in the concrete

C. proper concrete mix

D. presaturated aggregates

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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5. Ordinary concrete is not used for concrete grade


A. M 100

B. M 150

C. M 200

D. M 250

E. M 400
Answer: Option E
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6. 1.S. Sieve Nos. 10 mm and 4.75 mm are geneally used for grading of
A. coarse aggregates
B. fine aggregates

C. neither (a) nor (b)

D. both (a) and (b)

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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7. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


The free water is the amount of water added while mixing and the amount of water
A.
held on the surface of the aggregates prior to mixing

B. The total water is the free water and the amount actually absorbed by the aggregates

C. Neither (a) nor (b)

D. Both (a) and (b).


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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8. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary port land cement, causes


A. decrease in early strength

B. reduction in chemical action with sulphates

C. increase in shrinkage

D. reduction bleeding

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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9. Too wet concrete may cause


A. weakness of concrete

B. excessive laitance

C. segregation

D. lower density

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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10. Addition of pozzolana to cement causes


A. reduction in permeability

B. loss of heat of hydration

C. reduction in bleeding

D. increase in curing time

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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11. Hardening of cement occurs at
rapid rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a decreased
A.
rate

B. slow rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a rapid rate

C. uniform rate throughout its age

D. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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12. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Lime in excess, causes the cement to expand and disintegrate

B. Silica in excess, causes the cement to set slowly

C. Alumina in excess, reduces the strength of the cement

D. Magnesium oxide in excess, remains in free state and makes the cement unsound

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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13. Batching error means inaccuracy in the quantity of


A. aggregates
B. cement

C. water

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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14. Pick up the correct statement from the following i.


A. Higher workability indicates unexpected increase in the moisture content

B. Higher workability indicates deficiency of sand

C. If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is zero

D. Concrete mix having zero slump, is unsuitable for high strength.

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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15. You are asked to construct a massive dam, the type of cement you will use, is
A. ordinary Portland cement

B. rapid hardening cement

C. low heat cement

D. blast furnace slag cement

E. white cement.
Answer: Option C
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16. The produce impermeable concrete
A. thorough mixing of concrete is required

B. proper compaction of concrete is required

C. proper curing of concrete is required

D. properly graded and non-porous aggregates are requied

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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17. Water required per bag of cement, is
A. 7 kg

B. 14 kg

C. 21 kg

D. 28 kg

E. 35 kg
Answer: Option E
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18. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:


A. The bottom and top ends of slump mould are parallel to each other

B. The axis of the mould is perpendicular to the end faces

C. The internal surface of the mould is kept clean and free from set cement

D. The mould is in the form of a frustum of hexagonal pyramid

E. None of these.
Answer: Option D
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19. ISI has specified full strength of concrete after


A. 7 days

B. 14 days

C. 21 days

D. 28 days

E. none of these.
Answer: Option E
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20. For construction of structures in sea water, the cement generally preferred to, is
A. Portland-pozzolana cement

B. quick setting cement


C. low heat Portland cement

D. rapid hardening cement

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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21. Percentage of pozzolanic material containing clay upto 80% used for the manufacture of
pozzolana cement, is
A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 50%

D. 60%

E. 70%
Answer: Option A
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22. For batching 1:3:6 concrete mix by volume, the ingredients required per bag of 50 kg
cement, are:
A. 70 litres of sand and 120 litres of aggregates

B. 70 kg of sand and 140 litres of aggregates

C. 105 litres of sand and 140 litres of aggregates

D. 105 litres of sand and 210 litres of aggregates

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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23. The process of hardening the concrete by keeping its surface moist is known
A. placing

B. wetting

C. curing

D. compacting

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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24. The grade of concrete not recommended by I.S. : 456, is


A. M 100

B. M 200

C. M 300

D. M 400

E. M 500
Answer: Option E
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25. C.R.R.I. charts are used to obtain a relatioship between strength of concrete and
A. water cement ratio

B. workability

C. grading of aggregate

D. fineness modulus

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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26. Proper batching ensures
A. economy

B. durability

C. workability

D. strength

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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27. Workability of concrete for a given water content is good if the aggregates, are
A. rounded aggregate

B. irregular aggregate
C. angular aggregate

D. flaky aggregates.
Answer: Option A
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28. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Bulking of sand is caused due to formation of a thin film of surface moisture

B. Fine sand bulks more than coarse sand

C. With 10% moisture content by weight, the bulking of sand is increased by 50%.

D. The volume of fully saturated sand, is equal to the volume of dry and loose sand

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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29. For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less than 20 cm, we use
A. internal vibrator

B. screed vibrator

C. form vibrator

D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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30. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Construction joints are necessarily planned for their locations

B. Expansion joints are provided to accommodate thermal expansion

C. Construction joints are provided to control shrinkage cracks

D. Expansion joints need not be provided in foundation concrete

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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31. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Segregation is necessary for a workable concrete

B. Consistency does not affect the workability of concrete

C. If the slump increases, workability decreases

D. If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is maximum

E. None of these.
Answer: Option E
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32. Specified compressive strengh of concrete is obtained from cube tests at the end of
A. 3 days

B. 7 days

C. 14 days

D. 21 days

E. 28 days.
Answer: Option E
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33. An aggregate is said to be flaky, if its least dimension is less than


A. 2/3 mean dimension

B. 3/4 mean dimension

C. 3/5 mean dimension

D. 5/8 mean dimension

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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34. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:


A rich mix of concrete possesses higher strength than that a lean mix of desired
A.
workability with excessive equantity of water

B. The strength of concrete decreases as the water cement ratio increases


If the water cement ratio is less than 0.45, the concrete is not workable and causes
C.
honey-combed structure

D. Good compaction by mechanical vibrtions, increases the strength of concrete

E. None of these.
Answer: Option A
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35. The percentage of the aggregate of F.M. 2.6 to be combined with coarse aggregate of F.M. 6.8
for obtaining the aggregates of F.M. 5.4, is
A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 50%

D. 60%.
Answer: Option C
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36. The final operation of finishing floors, is known as
A. screeding

B. floating

C. trowelling

D. finishing

E. all the above.


Answer: Option C
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37. The internal dimensions of a ware house are 15 m x 5.6 m, and the maximum height of piles
is 2.70 m, the maximum number of bags to be stored in two piles, are
A. 1500 bags

B. 2000 bags

C. 2500 bags

D. 3000 bags

E. 4000 bags
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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38. For an ordinary Portland cement


A. residual does not exceed 10% when sieved through IS Sieve No. 9

B. soundness varies from 5 to 10 mm

C. initial setting time is not less than 30 minutes

D. compressive stress after 7 days, is not less than 175 kg/cm2

E. all the above.


Answer: Option C
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39. The maximum thickness of concrete floor of a cement warehouse, is


A. 10 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 20 cm

D. 25 cm

E. 30 cm
Answer: Option D
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40. A construction joint is provided where


A. bending moment is small

B. shear force is small

C. the member is supported by other member

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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41. The compaction of concrete, improves
A. density

B. strength

C. durability
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
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42. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Water cement paste hardens due to hydration

B. During hardening cement binds the aggregates together

C. Cement provides strength, durability and water tightness to the concrete

D. All the above.


Answer: Option D
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43. The light weight aggregates are obtained from


A. sedimentary rocks

B. metamorphic rocks

C. igneous rocks

D. volcanic source.
Answer: Option D
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44. If the depth of moist sand in a cylinder is 15 cm and the depth of the sand when fully
inundated with water is 12 cm, the bulking of the moist sand, is
A. 10%

B. 12%

C. 15%

D. 20%

E. 25%.
Answer: Option E
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45. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


According to the petrological characteristics, concrete aggregates are classified as heavy
A.
weight, normal weight and light weight

According to the shape of the particles, concrete aggregates are classified as rounded
B.
irregular, angular and flaky

According to the surface texture of the particles, the concrete aggregates are classified as
C.
glassy, smooth, granular, rough, crystalline, honey combed and porous

D. All the above.


Answer: Option D
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46. Segregation is responsible for
A. honey-combed concrete

B. porous layers in concrete

C. surface scaling in concrete

D. sand streaks in concrete

E. all the above.


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47. Addition of pozzolana to cement


A. decreases workability

B. increases strength

C. increases heat of hydration

D. decreases curing time

E. none of these.
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48. The datum temperature for maturity by Plowman, is


A. 23C

B. 0

C. - 5.6C

D. - 11.7C
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49. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:


A. The degree of grinding of cement, is called fineness
B. The process of changing cement paste into hard mass, is known as setting of cement

The phenomenon by virtue of which cement does not allow transmission of sound, is
C.
known as soundness of cement

The heat generated during chemical reaction of cement with water, is known as heat of
D.
hydration

E. None of these.
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1. Permissible compressive strength of M 150 concrete grade is
A. 100 kg/cm2

B. 150 kg/cm2

C. 200 kg/cm2

D. 250 kg/cm2

E. 300 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
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2. Slump test of concrete is a measure ofits


A. consistency

B. compressive strength

C. tensile strength

D. impact value.
Answer: Option A
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3. Pozzolana cement is used with confidence for construction of


A. dams

B. massive foundations

C. abutments

D. R.C.C. structures

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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4. Water cement ratio is
A. volume of water to that of cement

B. weight of water to that of cement

C. weight of concrete to that of water

D. volume of concrete to that of water

E. both (a) and (b) of the above.


Answer: Option E
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5. Efflorescence in cement is caused due to an excess of


A. alumina

B. iron oxide

C. silica

D. alkalis

E. magnesium oxide.
Answer: Option D
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6. If the engineer-in-charge approves, the 10 cm cubes may be used for the work test of concrete
provided maximum nominal size of aggregate, does not exceed
A. 10 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 20 cm

D. 25 cm

E. 30 cm
Answer: Option C
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7. The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and its length varies from
A. 20 mm to 30 mm

B. 30 mm to 40 mm

C. 40 mm to 50 mm
D. 50 mm to 60 mm

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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8. The shrinkage of concrete


A. is proportional to water content is the mix

B. is proportional to cement concrete

C. increases with age of concrete

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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9. The ratio of various ingredients (cement, sand, aggregates) in concrete of grade M 200, is
A. 1:2:4

B. 1 : 3 : 6

C.
1: :3

D. 1 : 1 : 2

E. 4:2:1
Answer: Option C
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10. Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly concrete, is known
A. bleeding

B. creeping

C. segregation

D. flooding

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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11. Slump test of concrete is a meausre ofits
A. consistency

B. compressive strength

C. tensile strength

D. impact value.
Answer: Option A
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12. According to Water-Cement Ratio Law, the strength of workable plastic concrete
A. depends upon the amount of water used in the mix

B. does not depend upon the quality of cement mixed with aggregates

C. does not depend upon the quanity of cement mixed with aggregates

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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13. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:


A. In properly graded aggregates, bulk density is more

B. In single size aggregates, bulk density is least

C. In single size aggregates, bulk density is maximum

D. None of these.
Answer: Option C
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14. Saw dust can be rendered chemically inert by boiling it in water containing
A. ferrous sulphate

B. potassium chloride

C. ammonia

D. nitric acid

E. sulphuric acid.
Answer: Option A
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15. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. High percentage of C3S and low percentage of C2S cause rapid hardening

High percentage of C3S and low percentage of C2S make the cement less resistive to
B.
chemical attack

C. Low percentage of C3S and high percentage of C2S contribute to slow hardening

Low percentage of C3S and high percentage of C2S provide greater resistance to
D.
chemical attack

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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16. The factor which affects workability, is
A. water content and its temperature

B. shape and size of the aggregates

C. grading and surface textures of the aggregates

D. air entraining agents

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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17. The cement whose strength is a little lower than the ordinary cement during the first three
months but attains afterwards the same strength, is known as
A. low-heat Portland cement

B. rapid hardening Portland cement

C. Portland blast slag cement

D. Portland pozzolana cement

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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18. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Sand stones may be divided into calcareous, siliceous and ferrugineous sand stones

B. Concrete using sand stones, cracks due to excessive shrinkage

Very hard and close grained crystallined lime stones are suitable aggregates but
C.
provide low strength

D. Broken bricks produce a concrete having good fire resisting qualities

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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19. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Water enables chemical reaction to take place with cement

B. Water lubricates the mixture of gravel, sand and cement

C. Only a small quantity of water is required for hydration of cement

D. Strength of concrete structure largely depends upon its workability

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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20. Pick up the incorrect statement applicable to the field test of good cement.
A. When one thrusts one's hand into a bag of cement, one should feel warm

B. The colour of the cement is bluish

C. A handful of cement thrown into a bucket of water should sink immediately

D. By rubbing cement in between fingers, one should feed rough

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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21. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Calcium chloride acts as a retarder

B. Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as an accelerator

C. Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as a retarder

D. Calcium chloride acts as an accelerator


E. Both (c) and (d).
Answer: Option E
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22. Joints in concrete structures, are provided


A. to reduce the tensile stresses likely to be developed due to evaporation of water

B. to minimise the change in the dimensions of the slab

C. to minimise the necessary cracking

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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23. If the effective working time is 7 hours and per batch time of concrete is 3 minutes, the output
of a concrete mixer of 150 litre capacity, is
A. 15, 900 litres

B. 16, 900 litres

C. 17, 900 litres

D. 18, 900 litres


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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24. The condition not applicable to water cement ratio law, is


A. internal moisture conditions on hydration continue till complete strength is gained

B. concrete specimens may be tested at any temperature

C. concrete specimens need be of same age

D. concrete specimens need be of same size

E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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25. High temperature


A. increases the strength of concrete

B. decreases the strength of concrete

C. has no effect on the strength of concrete

D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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26. The bulk density of aggregates, is generally expressed as
A. tonnes/cubic metre

B. kg/cubic metre

C. kg/litre

D. g/cm3

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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27. The grade of concrete M 150 means that compressive strength of a 15 cm cube after 28
days, is
A. 100 kg/cm2

B. 150 kg/cm2

C. 200 kg/cm2

D. 250 kg/cm2

E. 300 kg/cm2
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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28. Allowable shear strength of concrete, depends upon


A. shear strength

B. tensile strength

C. compressive strength

D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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29. The most useless aggregate is one whose surface texture is


A. smooth

B. granular

C. glassy

D. honey combed and porous.


Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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30. To obtain a very high strength concrete, use very fine grained
A. Granite

B. Magnetite

C. Barite

D. Volcanic scoria.
Answer: Option A
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31. Concrete containing
A. silicious aggregates, has higher co-efficient of expansion

B. igneous aggregates, has intermediate coefficient of expansion

C. lime stones, has lowest co-efficient of expansion

D. All the above.


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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32. An ordinary Portland cement when tested for its fineness, should not leave any residue on
I.S. seive No. 9, more than
A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

E. 25%
Answer: Option B
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33. The top diameter, bottom diameter and the height of a slump mould are :
A. 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm

B. 10 cm, 30 cm, 20 cm

C. 20 cm, 10 cm, 30 cm

D. 20 cm, 30 cm, 10 cm

E. 30 cm, 20 cm, 10 cm
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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34. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by
A. tensile strength test

B. slump test

C. compaction factor test

D. flexural strength test

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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35. While designing an air entrained concrete


A. water cement ratio is reduced

B. proportion of aggregates is reduced

C. an allowance for the entrained air is made

D. strength of the concrete, is reduced

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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36. Pick up the incorrect statemnt from the following. For performing compressive strength test of
cement
A. cement and standard sand mortar are used in the ratio of 1 : 3

B. water is added at the rate of + 3.0 percentage of water where P is the percentage of
water for standard consistency

C. A cube mould of 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm is used

D. The perpared moulds are kept in a atmosphere of 50% relative humidity

E. The temperature of water in the submerged tank for curing moulds, should be 27 2C.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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37. For concreting tunnel linings, tran-portation of concrete is done by


A. pans

B. wheel borrows

C. containers

D. pumps

E. belt conveyors.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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38. The operation of removing humps and hollows of uniform concrete surface, is known as
A. floating

B. screeding

C. trowelling

D. finishing

E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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39. The void ratio of


A. single size coarse aggregate is roughly 0.45.

B. graded coarse aggregate is roughly 0.040


C. fine aggregate is roughly 0.45

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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40. The type of aggregates not suitable for high strength concrete and for pavements subjected to
tension, is
A. rounded aggregate

B. irregular aggregate

C. angular aggregate

D. flaky aggregate

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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41. For the construction of R.C.C. slabs, columns, beams, walls, etc. the grade of concrete mix
used, is
A. 1:3:6

B.
1: :3

C. 1 : 2 : 4

D. 1 : 1 : 2

E. 1 : 4 : 8.
Answer: Option C
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42. The type of aggregates of same nominal size, which contain less voids when compacted, are
A. rounded spherical

B. irregular

C. flaky

D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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43. For the construction of cement con-certe dams, the maximum permissible size of the
aggregates, is
A. 40 mm

B. 50 mm

C. 60 mm

D. 70 mm

E. 80 mm
Answer: Option A
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44. Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is


A. 100 kg/cm2

B. 150 kg/cm2

C. 200 kg/cm2

D. 250 kg/cm2

E. 300 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
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45. For preparing a test-specimen, it is necessary


A. to mix cement and fine aggregate by dry hand

B. to mix coarse aggregates

C. to mix water to the cement, fine aggregates and coarse aggregates

D. to oil inner surface of the mould and the base plate, before placing concrete

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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46. The aggregate containing moisture in pores and having its suface dry, is known as
A. moist aggregates

B. very dry aggregates

C. dry aggregates
D. saturated surface dry aggregate

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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47. The commercial name of white and coloured cement in India, is


A. colocrete

B. rainbow cement

C. silvicrete

D. snowcem

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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48. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. An increase in water content must be accompanied by an increase in cement content

B. Angular and rough aggregates reduce the workability of the concrete

C. Large size aggregates increase the workability due to lesser surface area

D. The slump of the concrete mix decreases due to an increase in temperature

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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49. To hydrate 500kg of cement full water needed, is


A. 100 kg

B. 110 kg

C. 120 kg

D. 130 kg

E. 140 kg
Answer: Option D
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1. Concrete gains strength due to


A. chemical reaction of cement with sand and coarse aggregates

B. evaporation of water from concrete

C. hydration of cement

D. All the above.


Answer: Option C
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2. If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sieve of
size 60 mm, the particular aggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension is less than
A. 20.5 mm

B. 30.5 mm

C. 40.5 mm

D. 50.5 mm

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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3. Non-uniform compaction may cause the concrete


A. porous

B. non-homogeneous

C. reduced strength

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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4. Log Angles machine is used to test the aggregate for


A. crushing strength

B. impact value

C. abrasion resistance
D. water absorption

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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5. If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5, it is graded as


A. very fine sand

B. fine sand

C. medium sand

D. coarse sand

E. very coarse sand.


Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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6. Pozzolanic properties exist in
A. shales

B. fly ash

C. pumicite

D. diatomaceous clay

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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7. An aggregate which passes through 25 mm I.S. sieve and is retained on 20 mm sieve, is


said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than
A. 22.5 mm

B. 18.5 mm

C. 16.5 mm

D. 15.5 mm

E. 13.5 mm.
Answer: Option E
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8. Expansion joints are provided if the length of concrete structures exceeds
A. 10 m

B. 15 m

C. 15 m

D. 35 m

E. 45 m
Answer: Option E
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9. Workability improved by adding


A. fly ash

B. hydrated lime

C. calcium chloride

D. bentonite

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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10. If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm, its workability is


A. very low

B. low

C. medium

D. high

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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11. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Sand obtained from pits, is washed to remove clay and silt

B. Sand obtained from flooded pits, need not be washed before use

C. Sea shore sand contains chlorides which cause effloresance


The chloride in sea shore sand and shingle may cause corrosion of reinforcement if the
D.
concrete is porous

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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12. The strength and quality of concrete, depend upon:


A. grading of aggregates

B. surface area of aggregates

C. shape of aggregates

D. surface texture of aggregates

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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13. The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting concrete using Ordinary Port
land Cement should not take more than
A. 30 minutes

B. 40 minutes

C. 60 minutes

D. 75 minutes

E. 90 minutes.
Answer: Option A
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14. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. While performing preliminary test on
concrete
proportions of the material and water should be the same as to be used at the work
A.
site

B. cement should be mixed by hand in order to maintain uniformity

C. concrete mix should be stored in air-tight containers

D. concrete ingredients should be kept at a temperature of 37 2C


E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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15. Sand requiring a high water cement ratio, belongs to


A. Zone I

B. Zone II

C. Zone III

D. Zone IV.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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16. Ordinary Portland cement is manufactured from
A. lime stone and clay

B. gypsum and lime

C. pozzolana

D. lime, pozzolana and clay.


Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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17. A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is


A. equal to the mean size

B. twice the mean size

C. thrice the mean size

D. four times the mean size

E. five times the mean size.


Answer: Option B
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18. To prevent segregation, the maximum height for placing concrete, is


A. 100 cm

B. 125 cm
C. 150 cm

D. 200 cm

E. 250 cm
Answer: Option A
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19. If the various concrete ingredients i.e. cement, sand and aggregates are in the ratio of 1:3:6,
the grade of concrete, is
A. M 100

B. M 150

C. M 200

D. M 250

E. M 300
Answer: Option A
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20. Water cement ratio is generally expressed in volume of water required per
A. 10 kg

B. 20 kg

C. 30 kg

D. 40 kg

E. 50 kg
Answer: Option E
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21. For a good concrete
A. aggregates should be hard and durable

B. cement should be sufficient to produce the required strength

C. water should be free from organic materials

D. mixing of ingredients should be done thoroughly so as to produce homogeneity

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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22. If the effective plan area of a warehouse is 54 sq. m, and maximum height of piles permitted
is 270 cm, the number of cement bags to be stored, is
A. 2000 bags

B. 2200 bags

C. 2400 bags

D. 2700 bags

E. 3000 bags
Answer: Option D
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23. Gypsum is added for


A. colour

B. strength

C. controlling setting time

D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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24. A concrete having a slump of 6.5 cm, is said to be


A. dry

B. earth moist

C. semi-plastic

D. plastic

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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25. Strength of concrete with passage of time


A. increases

B. decreases
C. fluctuates

D. remains constant.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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26. Cement used for normal concrete construction, is obtained by burning a mixture of
A. silicious and argillaceous materials

B. argilaceous and calcareous materials

C. silicious and catcareous materials

D. silicious, argillaceous and calcareous materials

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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27. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. The concrete gains strength due to hydration of cement

B. The concrete cured at a temperature below 23C, gains strength up to 28 days

C. The concrete does not set at freezing point

D. The strength of concrete increases with its age

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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28. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:


A. Admixtures accelerate hydration

B. Admixtures make concrete water proof

C. Admixtures make concrete acid proof

D. Admixtures give high strength

E. None of these.
Answer: Option A
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29. Higher workability of concrete is required if the structure is
A. made with cement concrete

B. thick and reinfored

C. thin and heavily reinforced

D. thick and heavily reinfored.


Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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30. Setting time of cement increases by adding


A. gypsum

B. hydrogen peroxide

C. calcium chloride

D. sodium oxide

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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31. The dimensions of a 35 litre forma for measuring aggregates by volume, are :
A. length 30 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 30 cm

B. length 39 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 32 cm

C. length 27 cm, breadth 27 cm, height 48 cm

D. length 220 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 40 cm

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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32. The shuttering of a hall measuring 4 m x 5 m, can be removed after


A. 5 days

B. 7 days

C. 10 days

D. 14 days

E. 21 days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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33. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. There should not be any loss of cement from the charged drum of the mixer

B. Cement should be mixed for at least one minute

C. 10% of water is placed in the rotating drum before adding dry material

D. 10% of water is added after placing the other ingredients in the drum

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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34. If 50 kg of fine aggregates and 100 kg of coarse agregates are mixed in a concrete whose
water cement ratio is 0.6, the weight of water required for harsh mix, is
A. 8 kg

B. 10 kg

C. 12 kg

D. 14 kg

E. 15 kg.
Answer: Option C
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35. The entrained air in concrete


A. increases workability

B. decreases workability

C. decreases resistance to weathering

D. increases strength

E. neither affects workability nor strength.


Answer: Option A
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36. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. Tricalcium silicate (C3S) hydrates rapidly
B. Tricalcium silicate (C3S) generates more heat of hydration

C. Tricalcium silicate (C3S) develops early strength

D. Tricalcium silicate (C3S) has more resistance to sulphate attack

E. None of these.
Answer: Option D
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37. Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is


A. 100 kg/cm2

B. 150 kg/cm2

C. 200 kg/cm2

D. 250 kg/cm2

E. 300 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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38. In slump test, each layer of concrete is compacted by a steel rod 60 cm long and of 16 mm
diameter for
A. 20 times

B. 25 times

C. 30 times

D. 40 times

E. 50 times
Answer: Option B
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39. If the average compressive strength is 4000 kg/cm2 and standard deviation is 500, the co-
efficient of variation is
A. 10%

B. 12.5%

C. 15%
D. 18.5 %

E. 20%
Answer: Option B
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40. For preparing ordinary concrete, the quantity of water used, is


A. 5% by weight of aggregates plus 20% of weight of cement

B. 10% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement

C. 5% by weight of aggregates plus 30% of weight of cement

D. 30% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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41. According to IS : 382-1963, a good aggregate should be
A. chemically inert

B. sufficiently strong

C. hard and durable

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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42. The 28 days cube strength of mass concrete using aggregates of maximum size 5 cm for
gravity dams should be
A. between 150 to 300 kg/cm2

B. between 350 to 600 kg/cm2

C. between 150 to 500 kg/cm2

D. below 200 kg/cm2

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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43. If P, Y and Z are the weights of cement, fine aggregates and coarse aggregates respetively
and W/C is the water cement ratio, the minimum quantity of water to be added to first batch,
is obtained by the equation
A. 0.1P + 0.3Y + 0.1Z = W/C x P

B. 0.3P + 0.1Y + 0.01Z = W/C x P

C. 0.4P + 0.2Y + 0.01Z = W/C x P

D. 0.5P + 0.3Y + 0.01Z = W/C x P

E. 0.2P + 0.5Y + 0.1Z = W/C x P


Answer: Option B
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44. For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures, the type of cement to be avoided, is
A. ordinary Portland cement

B. rapid hardening cement

C. low heat cement

D. blast furnace slag cement

E. sulphate resisting cement.


Answer: Option D
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45. Vicat apparatus is used for


A. fineness test

B. consistency test

C. test for setting time

D. test for tensile strength

E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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46. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. Space between the exterior walls of a warechouse and bag piles should be 30 cm

B. Cement bags should preferably be piled on wooden planks

Cement bags should be placed such that bags of one layer does not touch the bags of
C.
the adjacent layer
D. Width and height of the pile should not exceed 3 m and 2.70 m respectively

E. None of these.
Answer: Option E
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47. For the construction of the retaining structures, the type of concrete mix to be used, is
A. 1:3:6

B. 1 : 2 :4

C.
1: :3

D. 1 : l : 2

E. 1 : 4 : 8.
Answer: Option C
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48. An ideal ware house, is provided


A. water proof masonry walls

B. water proof roof

C. few windows which remain generally closed

D. 15 cm thick concrete floor laid on a dry course of soling

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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1. Concrete is unsuitable for compaction by a vibrator if it is
A. dry

B. earth moist

C. semi-plastic

D. plastic

E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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2. Inert material of a cement concrete mix, is
A. water

B. cement

C. aggregate

D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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3. Sands of zone I are


A. coarse

B. medium

C. medium to fine

D. fine.
Answer: Option A
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4. The lower water cement ratio in concrete, introduces


A. smaller creep and shrinkage

B. greater density and smaller permeability

C. improved frost resistance

D. greater wear resistance and improved bond strength

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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5. The cement becomes useless if its absorbed moisture content exceeds


A. 1%

B. 2%

C. 3%

D. 4%
E. 5%
Answer: Option E
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6. A concrete using an air entrained cement
A. has strength less than 10% to 15%

B. has more resistance to weathering

C. is more plastic and workable

D. is free from segregation and bleeding

E. all the above.


Answer: Option C
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7. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. The maximum size of a coarse aggregate, is 75 mm and minimum 4.75 mm

B. The maximum size of the fine aggregate, is 4.75 mm and minimum 0.075 mm

The material having particles of size varying from 0.06 mm to 0.002 mm, is known as
C.
silt

D. The material having particles of size less than 0.002 mm, is known as clay

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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8. Placing of concrete should preferably be done at a temperature of


A. 0C

B. 10C

C. 20C

D. 23C

E. 27 2C
Answer: Option E
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9. The aggregate impact value of the aggregate used in
A. building concrete is less than 45

B. road pavement concrete is less than 30

C. runway concrete is less than 30

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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10. The maximum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is that of


A. magnesium oxide

B. iron oxide

C. aluminium

D. lime

E. silica.
Answer: Option D
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11. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. Workability of the concrete mix decreases with an increase in the moisture content

B. Concrete for which preliminary tests are conducted, is called controlled concrete

C. Bulking of sand depends upon the fineness of grains

D. Concrete mix 1 : 6 : 12, is used for mass concrete in piers.

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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12. Sand generally contains salt if it is obtained from:


A. nala beds

B. river beds

C. sea beds

D. all the above

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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13. The impurity of mixing water which affects the setting time and strength of concrete, is
A. sodium sulphates

B. sodium chlorides

C. sodium carbonates and bicarbonates

D. calcium chorides

E. calcium bicarbonates
Answer: Option C
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14. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Continuous grading is not necessary for obtaining a minimum of air voids

The omission of a certain size of aggregate is shown by a straight horizontal line on


B.
the grading curve

The omission of a certain size of aggregate in concrete increases the workability but
C.
also increases the liability to segregation

D. All the above.


Answer: Option D
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15. Di-calcium silicate (C2S)


A. hydrates rapidly

B. generates less heat of hydration

C. hardens rapidly

D. provides less ultimate strength to cement

E. has less resistance to sulphate attack.


Answer: Option B
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16. On a grading curve, the gap grading is represented by
A. a horizontal line
B. a vertical line

C. N.W. inclined line

D. N.E. inclined line

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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17. Bulking of sand is


A. mixing of different sizes of sand particles

B. mixing of lime with sand

C. maximum water with sand

D. swelling of sand when wetted.


Answer: Option D
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18. Curing of pavements, floors, roofs and slabs, is done by


A. membrane method

B. ponding method

C. covering surface with bags

D. sprinkling water method

E. shading concrete method.


Answer: Option B
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19. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:


A. With passage of time, the strength of cement increases

B. With passage of time, the strength of cement decreases

C. After a period of 24 months, the strength of cement reduces to 50%

D. The concrete made with storage deteriorated cement, gains strength with time

E. None of these.
Answer: Option A
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20. The surface where two successive placements of concrete meet, is known as
A. Contraction joint

B. Expansion joint

C. Construction joint

D. both (a) and (b)

E. both (6) and (c).


Answer: Option C
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21. An excess of flaky particles in concrete aggregates
A. decreases the workability

B. increases the quantity of water and sand

C. affects the durability of concrete

D. more than 15% are not desirable

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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22. 1.S.I. has specified the full strength of concrete after


A. 7 days

B. 14 days

C. 21 days

D. 28 days

E. 35 days
Answer: Option D
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23. For given workability the grading requiring the least amount of water is one that gives
A. greatest surface area for the given cement and aggregates
B. least surface area for the given cement and aggregates

C. least weight for the given cement and aggregates

D. greatest weight for the given cement and aggregates

E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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24. The minimum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is that of


A. magnesium oxide

B. iron oxide

C. alumina

D. lime

E. silica.
Answer: Option A
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25. The specifications of a cement bag for storage, are


A. weight 50 kg

B. height 18 cm

C. plan area 3000 sq. cm

D. volume 35 litres

E. all the above.


Answer: Option E
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26. The bulk density of aggregates, depends upon
A. shape

B. grading

C. compaction

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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27. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
The bulk density of fine aggregate is usually about 10 per cent more than that of
A.
coarse aggregate of similar composition

The specific gravity of aggregate is important for the determination of the moisture
B.
content

C. The absorption and porosity of an aggregate influence the property of the concrete

D. A highly absorptive aggregate reduces the workability of concrete considerably

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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28. Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are generally provided at


A. soffit level

B. window sill level

C. floor level

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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29. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. Construction joints in columns are provided a few cm below the junction of beam

B. Construction joints in columns are provided at the bottom haunching

C. Construction joints in beams and slabs are provided within middel third

D. Constructionjoints are generally provided in positions subjected to least shear force

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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30. For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both by weight, the quantity of water
required per bag, is
A. 10 kg
B. 12 kg

C. 14 kg

D. 16 kg

E. 20 kg
Answer: Option C
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31. The concrete mix which causes difficulty in obtaining a smooth finish, possess
A. segregation

B. internal friction

C. hardness

D. bleeding

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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32. Le-Chatelier's apparatus is used for testing


A. soundness of cement

B. hardness of cement

C. strength of cement

D. durability of cement.
Answer: Option A
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33. 'Ware house pack' of cement means


A. full capacity of the ware house

B. pressure exertion of the bags of upper layers

C. pressure compaction of the bags on lower layers

D. packing the ware house

E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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34. In the method of voids for determination of the quantity of cement paste, it is assumed that
A. Voids in coarse aggregates are filled by fine aggregates

B. Voids in fine aggregates are filled by the cement paste

C. Volume of fine aggregates is equal to total voids in coarse aggregates plus 10% extra

Volume of cement paste required is equal to total volume of voids in fine aggregates
D.
plus 15% extra

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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35. If a grading curve is horizontal bet-wen the portions of 20 mm I.S. Sieve and 4.75 mm I.S. Sieve,
the graded aggregates do not contain
A. 20 mm particles

B. 10 mm particles

C. 4.75 mm particles

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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36. The size of fine aggregates does not exceed
A. 2.75 mm

B. 3.00 mm

C. 3.75 mm

D. 4.75 mm

E. 5.75 mm
Answer: Option D
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37. An aggregate is known as cyclopean aggregate if its size is more than


A. 4.75 mm

B. 30 mm

C. 60 mm
D. 75 mm

E. 90 mm.
Answer: Option D
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38. The main object of compaction of concrete, is:


A. to eliminate air holes

B. to achieve maximum density

C. to provide initimate contact between the concrete and embedded materials

D. all the above.


Answer: Option D
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39. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. The quality of water governs the strength of concrete

The quantity of water required for concreting, depends upon the grading of aggregate
B.
amd method of compaction

C. 10% excess of water reduces the strength of concrete by 15%

D. 30% excess of water reduces the strength of concrete by 50%

E. All the above.


Answer: Option E
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40. Particles of 0.002 mm size are that of


A. clay

B. sand

C. gravel

D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
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