Explanation of Electrical Engg.

Objective Paper-I (ESE - 2016)

SET - A
+ +

+
1. Permeance is inversely related to + q

+
+

+ +
(a) resistance (b) conductance r

R
+ + +
+
(c) reluctance (d) capacitance Sol. (d)

+
+

+
Sol. (c)

+
+
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Permeance [P] is a measure of the quantity
Capacitance of a spherical capacitor is given
of flux for a number of current turns in
by:
magnetic circuits. In electromagnetic theory,
it is inverse of reluctance.
C = 4 r where = 0r
2. Consider the following statements regarding an
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ideal core material:
C is independent of charge q.
1. It has very high permeability.
4. The characteristic impedance of a transmission
2. It loses all its magnetism when there is no line depends upon
current flow.
(a) shape of the conductor
3. It does not saturate easily.
(b) surface treatment of the conductor
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Which of the above statements are correct ? (c) conductivity of the material
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (d) geometric configuration of the conductor
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Sol. (d)
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Sol. (d) The characteristic impedance of a transmission

An ideal core materials has line is determined by the geometry and
(i) It has very high permeability. materials of the line. Also, for a uniform line it
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(ii) It loses all its magnetism when there is is not dependent on its length.
no current flow.
R j L
(iii) It does not saturate easily. Zo =
G j C
(iv) Has low I2R loss due to eddy currents.
3. The capacitance of a conducting sphere of R = Resistance per unit length
radius r with a total charge of q uniformly
distributed on its surface is L = Inductance per unit length
(a) proportional to qr (b) independent of r
G = Conductance of dielectric per unit length
q
(c) proportional to (d) independent of q
r C = Capacitance per unit length.

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5. In a series R-L-C circuit supplied by a source
of 125V at a resonant frequency of 220 Hz,
the magnitudes of the voltages across the
capacitor and the inductor are found to be
7.
where: 0 = Permeability of free space
0 = Permittivity of free space.
The magnitude of magnetic field strength H is

R
4150V. If the resistance of the circuit is 1
then the selectivity of the circuit is independent of

(a) 33.20 (b) 3.32 (a) current only

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(c) 0.0301 (d) 0.301 (b) distance only
Sol. (a) (c) permeability of the medium only
Quality factor is the measure of selectivity. (d) both current and distance

At resonance, Sol. (c)

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The dimension of Magnetic field strength H is
VL
Q = Ampere/meter (A/m) and is independent of
VR permeability of the medium.
It depends only on current carried by the
4150
= conductor and distance of the point from the
125 conductor where H is measured.
M

= 33.2 8. Consider the following types of transmission

6. The value of characteristic impedance in free lines:
space is equal to 1. Open-wire line
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0 2. Twin-lead wire
(a) (b) 00
0 3. Coaxial cable
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The capacitance per metre will be least in which

1 0 of the above transmission lines?
(c) 0 0 (d) 0
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Sol. (a) (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

The impedance/characteristic impedance of Sol. (a)

a meduim is gievn by: = (1) Open wire line: r = radius of conductor

For free space, it is given by:

s

0
0 = 0

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 A+q
C= (F/m)
s
ln r
r
EC
(2) Twin lead wire : r = radius of conductor
EB
0 r

R
r
D EA
+q 30 +q
B C
C= (F/m)

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D
ln
r
(3) Coaxial Cable: The magnitude of electric field due to charge
+q (at A) at point O will be:

a
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1 q
| EA | =
4 0 r 2
b

Similarly,
2
C = (F/m)
b
ln 1 q

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a | EB | =
4 0 r 2 = | EC |
For a given radius r of the conductor, the
distance between the condutors in Twin Lead

b Let | E A | = | EB | = | EC | = K
wire is less than open wire line. Also,
a
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ratio in coaxial cable is small. Hence, Now, the direction of the fields or as below:
Capacitance per unit length of open wire line is
least. EC EB
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9. Three equal point charges are located at the

vertices of an equilateral triangle on the 30 30
circumference of a circle of radius r. The total
electric field intensity at the centre of the circle
would be
EA
3q
(a) zero (b) r 2 Net field in the vertical direction
0
Ey = EB sin 30 + EC sin 30 EA
q q
(c) r 2 (d) 3 r
0 0 EB EC K K
Sol. (a) = 2 EA = K
2

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 Ey = 0 Now,

Net field in Horizontal direction The current I is uniformly distributed over its
cross sectional area. The current density is
Ex = EB cos 30 EC cos 30 given by:

R
=(EB EC) cos 30 I

(z)
J = a2

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Ex = (K K) cos 30 = 0
Electric field at the surface :

Net electric field at centre O will be zero.

J I

(z)
E = = a2
10. The Poynting vector on the surface of a long 0 0
straight conductor of radius a and conductivity
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0, which carries current I in the z-direction, is On the surface of the wire, the magnetic field

strength H will be:
I2 I2
(a) 3
ar (b) ar
0 b 0 2a2 I
H = ( )
2a
I2 I2
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(c) ar (d) ar
0 2a3 0 2a3 Poynting vector P = E H

Sol. (d)
I I

= 2
(z )
2a
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Consider, a long straight conductor carrying 0 a

current I as shown in figure.
z 2
I
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P =
( r)
a y 2 3
2 0 a

2
I
x I
0 P = 2 3
(a r )
2 0 a

11. Consider the following applications in respect

of a square corner reflector:
1. Radio astronomy
Let the unit vectors in the cylindrical co-ordinate 2. Point-to-point communication
system be r , , z 3. TV broadcast

Which of the above application is/are correct?

Poynting vector is given by P E H

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 (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Magnetic field intensity (B) for a very long
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 straight conductor carrying a current I at a
distance r:
Sol. (d)
I
Square corner Reflector are directional antenna
used at VHF and UHF. They have moderate r

R
gain (10 to 13 db), High Front to Back ratio dl
and wide band widt h. Hence, they are
extensively used in applications like:

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(1) Radio Astronomy Applying Amperes law

(2) Point to point Communication links & data

links
H.dl = I

(3) Television Receiving antenna. H dl = I

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12. The variation of |B| with distance r from a very
long straight conductor carrying a current I is H. 2r = I
correctly represented by I
H =
2r
Since B = H
M

|B|
(a) I
r B =
2r

1
ie. B ; rectangular hyperbola.
r
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|B| So,
(b)
r Variation of B with r is,
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|B|

|B| rectangular
(c) hyperbola
r

O r
13. The resistivity of hard drawn copper at 20C is
|B|
(d) 1.9106 cm. The resistivity of annealed
r copper compared to hard drawn copper is

Sol. (d)
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 (a) lesser (b) slightly larger Sol. (c)
(c) same (d) much larger Superconductivity in a material can be
Sol. (a) destroyed by:
i) increasing the temperature of material above

R
Localised strains produced by mechanical
treatment of copper increases its resistivity. transition temperature, Tc
Hence, a hard drawn copper wire has higher ii) applying a magnetic field above a certain
resistivity than annealed copper. ie. the

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limit, called critical field, Hc
resistivity of annealed copper compared to hard
drawn copper is lesser. T 2
Hc H0 1
14. The number of electrons excited into the Tc

conduction band from valence band (with =
iii) Passing a current above a certain limit, Ic.
forbidden energy gap and k = Boltzmanns
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constant) is proportional to Ic = 2rHc

E 2E where, Hc is critical field, and r is radius of

(a) exp (b) exp superconductor wire.
kT kT
16. The relative permeability of a medium is equal
E 2E to (with M = magnetization of the medium and
(c) exp (d) exp
M

kT kT H = magnetic field strength)

Sol. (c) M M
(a) 1 (b) 1
The number of electrons excited into the H H
conduction band from valence band, M M
(c) 1 (d) 1
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H H
n e(E/kT)
Sol. (a)
15. Superconductiv ity in a material can be
Since, B = (H+M)
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destroyed by
1. increasing the temperature above a certain rH = (H+M)
limit. rH = H + M
2. applying a magnetic field above a certain
(r1)H = M
limit.
M
3. passing a current above a certain limit. (r1) =
H
4. decreasing the temperature to a point below
ie. realtive permeability of a medium.
the critical temperature
Which of the above are correct? M
r 1
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only H

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 17. The electrical resistivity of many metals and

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 alloys drops suddenly to zero when they are (a) residual conductivity
cooled to a low temperature (i.e., nearly equal
(b) dielectric conductivity
to liquid helium temperature). Such materials
(metals and alloys) are known as (c) ionic conductivity
(d) bipolar conductivity
(a) piezoelectric materials
Sol. (c)
(b) diamagnetic materials

(c) superconductors
(d) high-energy hard magnetic materials
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The conductivity of the insulator is very small
but not zero. It is associated with the motion
of ions and is therefore called ionic conductivity.

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Sol. (c)
20. An intrinsic semiconductor has equal number
The electrical resistivity of many metals and of electrons and holes in it. This is due to
alloys drops to zero when they are cooled to
(a) doping (b) free electrons
a low temperature, such materials are known
as superconductors. (c) thermal energy (d) valence electrons
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Sol. (c)
eg. (i) Mercury has zero resistivity below 4.2K.
In intrintic semiconductor, all carriers from the
(ii) Aluminium has zero resistivity at 1.19K
electron-holes pairs generated when thermal
18. The dielectric strength of rubber is 40000 V/ energy breaks the covalent bonds. Electrons
mm at frequency of 50 Hz. What is the and holes are thus always present in equal
thickness of insulation required on an electrical concentration in an intrintic semiconductor. ie.
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conductor at 33 kV to sustain the breakdown ne = nh.

(a) 0.33 mm (b) 8.3 mm 21. When a very small amount of higher conducting
(c) 8.3 cm (d) 0.083 mm metal is added to a conductor, its conductivity
will
Sol. (a)
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(a) increase
Thickness of the insulation required (b) decrease
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Applied Voltage (c) remain the same

=
dielectric strength (d) increase or decrease depending on the
impurity
33 103 Sol. (b)
= mm
40000
Alloying elements invariably decreases the
= 0.825mm conductivity of the metal to which they are
To sustain the breakdown, the thickness of added ie. it does not depend on whether the
the insulating material should be more than added metal has higher conductivity or, lower
the thickness calculated above. conductivity than the metal to which it is added.

19. The conductivity of insulating materials (a very 22. An electrically balanced atom has 30 protons
small value) is called as in its nucleus and 2 electrons in its outermost

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 shell. The materials made of such atom is or acceptors have lost their carriers, the
resistance starts to increase again slightly due
(a) a conductor
to the reducing mobility of carriers. At higher
(b) an insulator temperatures, they behav e like intrinsic
(c) a semiconductor semiconductors as the carriers from the donors/
acceptors become insignificant compared to the
(d) a superconductor

R
thermally generated carriers.
Sol. (a)
24. In the slice processing of an integrated circuit
Since atomic number = number of protons in

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an atom = 30
Electronic configuration is,
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10
Given , number of electrons in outermost shell
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= 2
The elements having small number of valence
electrons, which are loosely held, forms metallic
bond. However a valence electron of a metal
atom has a small ionization energy, and in the
solid state this valence electron is relatively
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(a) components are formed in the areas where
silicon dioxide remains
(b) components are formed in the areas where
silicon dioxide has been removed
(c) the diffusing elements diffuse through silicon
dioxide
(d) only on diffusion process is used
Sol. (a)
In the slice processing of an integrated circuit,
the surface of the wafer are coated with a

free to leave one atom in order to assoicate
with another nearby. Such a free electrons can
be moved under the influence of an electric
field, and it is responsible for the electrical
conductivity of the metal. Hence, the material
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layer of silicon dioxide (SiO 2) to from an
insulating base and to present any oxidation
of the silicon which would cause impurities.
The SiO2 is formed by subjecting the wafer to
superheated steam at about 1000C under

made of such atom is a conductor. several atmospheres of pressure to allow the

oxygen in the water vapour to react with the
23. The temperature coefficient of resistanc of a silicon. Controlling the temperature and length
doped semiconductor is
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of exposure controls the thickness of the SiO2

(a) always positive layer.

(b) always negative 25. Permanent magnet l oses the magnetic

behaviour when heated because of
(c) zero
(d) positive or negative depending upon the 1. atomic vibration
level of doping 2. dipole vibration
Sol. (d) 3. realignment of dipoles
Doped semiconductor or ex trinsis Which of the above are correct?
sem iconductor hav e v ery com plicated
temperature profile. As temperature increases (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
starting from absolute zero, resistance first (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
decreases steeply as the carriers leave the
Sol. (a)
donors or acceptors. After most of the donors

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 Permanent magnetism is lost upon heating (c) 65.6 (d) 54.7
because of alomic vibrations and dipole Sol. (b)
vibrations. Due to heat, domain gets jumbled Flux meter: Specification
and lose their alignment.
Air gap flux density = 0.05 wb/m 2
26. The magnetic field required to reduce the
residual magnetization to zero is called Number of turns on moving coil = 40

(a) retentivity (b) coercivity Area of moving coil = 750 mm 2

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(c) hysteresis (d) saturation Now,
Sol. (b) N = 10

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The magnetic field required to reduce the A = 200 mm2
residual magnetization to zero is called
B = 0.5 wb/m2
coercivity This magnetic field is applied
externally in the opposite direction. Deflection = ?
Constant of flux meter, G = NBA
B
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2
(Wb/m ) G = 40 0.05 750 10 6 = 1500 10 6
Flux linking with search coil
Br
= 0.5 200 10 6

Hc = 100 10 6 Wb
H(A/m)
M

Change in flux linking the coil

= 2 100 10 6 (since flux meter is reversed)
= 200 10 6
G
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Change in flux,
In the B-H curve shown above, Br is residual N
magnetization and Hc is coercivity. N 10
= 200 10 6 rad
1500 10 6
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27. A certain f l uxmeter has t he f ollowing G

specifications: 4
= rad
Air gap flux density = 0.05 Wb/m 2 3

Number of turns on moving coil = 40 76.5

Area of moving coil = 750 mm 2 28. Consider the following statements:

If the flux linking 10 turns of a search coil of
200 mm2 area connected to the fluxmeter is
reversed in a uniform field of 0.5 Wb/m2, then
the deflection of the fluxmeter will be
(a) 87.4 (b) 76.5
1. Both f erromagnetic and ferrimagnetic
materials have domain structures; each
domain has randomly oriented magnetic
moments when no external field is applied.
2. Both f erromagnetic and ferrimagnetic

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 materials make those domains that have (c) 74 V (d) 37 V
favourable orientation to the applied field
grow in size. Sol. (c)

3. The net magnetic moment in ferromagnetic IB

materials is higher than that in ferrimagnetic Hall voltage, VH = RH
t
materials.

R
where, RH is Hall coefficient,
4. The net magnetic moment in ferrimagnetic
materials is higher than that in ferromagnetic I is current flowing in the material,

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material. B is applied magnetic flux density,
Which of the above statements are correct? and t is thickness of material.
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 So,
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Sol. (d) 100 1
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VH = 7.4 1011 volt
0.1 103
Like antiferromagnetic material, ferrimagnetic
materials have magnetic moments of adjacent = 7.410-5 volt
atoms which are aligned in opposite direction.
But the magnetic moments are not equal so = 74 V.
that there is a net magnetic moment ie. net 30. A Zener regulator has an input voltage varying
M

magnetic moment are not zero or, material
exhibits a net magnetic moement.
But the net magnetic moment in ferrimagnetic
material is lesser than that of ferromagnetic
material
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between 20 V and 30 V. The desired regulated
voltage is 12 V, while the load varies between
140 and 10k . The maximum resistance in
series with the unregulated source and Zener
diode would be

Ferromagnetic : pm 0 (a) 3.3 (b) 6.6

(c) 36.6 (d) 93.3

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Antiferromagnetic : pm= 0
Sol. (d)
Ferrimagnetic pm 0 RS
N
IL

So,
Iz
IS
Statement (3) is correct.
+ +
Load

Hence option (d) VS 12 V 12 V

29. The Hall voltage, VH, for a thin copper plate of [20 V 30 V] Vz
0.1 mm carrying a current of 100 A with the
flux density in the z-direction, Bz = 1 Wb/m2 RL
and the Hall coefficient, RH = 7.4 1011 m3/ [140 10 k]
C, is
Applying KVL,
(a) 148 V (b) 111 V

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 3. current to increase
V s Vz
IS = Rs Which of the above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
Now, If Rs is maximum
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
Is will be minimum Sol. (d)
Applying KCL at N Short circuit reduces the resistance of network
and as a result current from the source also

R
Is = Iz + IL
increase.
Now, for Zener diode to work as a voltage
regulator the current through the series resistor Hence, the correct option will be d.

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must satisfy 32. An air-cored soleniod of 250 turns has a cross-
sectional area A = 80 cm 2 and length l = 100
IS IZ min IL max cm. The value of its inductance is
So, at limiting case, (a) 0.425 mH (b) 0.628 mH
(IZ)min = 0 (c) 0.751 mH (d) 0.904 mH
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Sol. (b)
and IS = IZ min IL max
oN2 A
Inductance (L) =
IS = IL max l
Putting all the values
M

VL 12
Hence, IL max R
140
0.0857 A o 2502 80 104
L min L=
100 102
VS Vz = 0.628mH.
Now, Is
Rs 33. The current in a coil changes uniformly from
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10 A to 1 A in half a second. A voltmeter

20 12 connected across the coil gives a reading of
1.2103 = 36 V. The self-inductance of the coil is
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Rs
(a) 0.5 H (b) 1 H
[ Is is to be minimised Vs has to be
minimized so that Vs Vz is minimised] (c) 2 H (d) 4 H
Sol. (c)
8
Rs = = 93.3 10A
0.0857

31. A short in any type of circuit (series, parallel or

combination) causes the total circuit
1. resistance to decrease 1A
2. power to decreases 1/2 sec

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 di
10 1 R = 100 10
= 9 2 18
dt1/ 2
36. For a series R-L circuit
Voltmeter reading is 36 V
di
i(t) = 2 sin t 45
L = 36
dt If L = 1 , the value of R is

R
36 (a) 1 (b) 3
L= 2H
18 (c) 3 (d) 3 3

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34. In a mutually coupled circuit, the primary current Sol. (a)
is reduced from 4A to zero in 10 s. A voltage Here = 45
of 40000 V is observed across the secondary.
The mutual inductance between the coils is XL
tan = 1 =
R
(a) 100 H (b) 10 H
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R = L
(c) 0.1 H (d) 0.01 H
Sol. (c) R =1

Mdi1 37. A single-phase full-wave rectifier is constructed

Secondary induced voltage (v 2) = using thyristors. If the peak value of the
dt
sinusoidal input voltage is Vm and the delay
M

di1 40
=
dt 10 10 6 angle is radian, then the average value of
3
40 output voltage is
M = 40000
10 10 6
(a) 0.32Vm (b) 0.48Vm
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M = 0.1 H
(c) 0.54Vm (d) 0.71Vm
35. N resistors each of resistnace R when
Sol. (a)
connected in series offer an equiv alent
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resistance of 50 and when reconnected in Average value of output voltage of single phase
parallel the effective resistance is 2 . The full wave rectifier is
value of R is
2Vm
V0 = cos
(a) 2.5 (b) 5
(c) 7.5 (d) 10

Sol. (d) = = 60
3
NR = 50 (when connected in series)..(1)
R 2Vm
= 2 (when connected in series) ...(2) V0 = cos60
N
By equation (1) & (2) = 0.32Vm

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38. The potential difference VAB in the circuit
2502
2 2
= 250 250
1A
100 150
= 60 W
+ VAB
40. Thevenins equivalent of a circuit, operating at
VA
VB
1 3 = 5 rad/s, has
5V

R
VOC = 3.71 15.9V
4 3
ZO = 2.38 j0.667
At this frequency, the minimal realization of the

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is Thevenins impedance will have
(a) 0.8 V (b) 0.8 V (a) a resistor, a capacitor and an inductor
(c) 1.8 V (d) 1.8 V
(b) a resistor and a capacitor
Sol. (b)
(c) A resistor and an inductor
Writing node equations:
(d) a capacitor and an inductor
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VA 5 VA Sol. (b)
1 = 0 ... (i)
1 4
Given Z 0 = 2.38 j0.667
VB 5 VB Here R = 2.38
and = 1 ... (ii)
3 3 and X = 0.667
By (i) & (ii), This represent a capacitance (as it is
M

We get, VA = 16/5 negative).

VB = 4 41. Analog-to-digital convertor with the minimum
VAB = VA VB= 0.8 number of bits that will convert analog input
39. Two bulbs of 100 W/250 V and 150 W/250 V signals in the range of 05 V to an accurancy
are connected in series across a supply of 250 of 10 mV is
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V. The power consumed by the circuit is (a) 6 (b) 9

(a) 30 W (b) 60 W (c) 12 (d) 15
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(c) 100 W (d) 250 W Sol. (b)

Sol. (b) Analog to digital converter:
2502 Range of input signals = 05 V
Resistance of first bulb (R 1)=
100 Accuracy = 10 mV
2
250 Minimum number of bits required = ?
& Resistance of second bulb (R 2) =
150
Full Scale Voltage
V2 Accuracy =
Total power consumed = 2n
R1 R2

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 2 2
5V 4 4
2n = irms = 32
10 10 3 V
2 2

2n = 5 102 = 25
= 5A
2n = 500

R
2
Power dessipated = irms R
n9 = 25 10
= 250 Watts

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Option = (b)
44. Thevenins equivalents of the network in Fig.
42. Three 30 resistors are connected in parallel
(i) are 10 V and 2 . If a resistance of 3 is
across an ideal 40 V source. What would be
connected across terminals AB as shown in
the equivalent resistance seen by the load
Fig. (ii), what are Thevenins equivalents?
connected across this circuit?
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A A
(a) 0 (b) 10
3
(c) 20 (d) 30
B B
Sol. (a)
Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
Given
A (a) 10V and 1.2 (b) 6V and 1.2
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40V (c) 10V and 5.2 (d) 6V and 5.2

B Sol. (b)
Equivalent resistance seen by load is the 2
thevenin resistance of this circuit across AB. A
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Since, RTH = 0
10V 3
Load will see zero resistance.
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43. The current i(t) through a 10 resistor in series

with an inductance is given by 3
VAB = 10
32
i(t) = 3+4 sin (100t+45) + 4 sin (300t+60)A
3
The RMS value of the current and the power = 10
dissipated in the the circuit are respectively 5
= 6V
(a) 5A and 150 W RTH = 3||2
(b) 11A and 250 W 3 2
=
(c) 5A and 250 W 5
(d) 11A and 150 W = 1.2
Sol. (c) 45. A voltage source, connected to a load, has an
RMS value of current e.m .f . of 10V and an impedance of

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 (500+j100) . The maximum power that can 47. Consider the following values for the circuit
be transferred to the load is shown below:

(a) 0.2 W (b) 0.1 W 100

(c) 0.05 W (d) 0.01 W
VR
Sol. (c)
v(t) 250 2 sin600t L 150 V
For transfer of maximum power

R
ZL = 500 j100
Circuit will be like = I
100j

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1. VR 100 2 V
500 500 2. I = 2A
10V
3. L = 0.25 H
100j
Which of the above values are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
VL2
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Power transferred to load = (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
R
Sol. (*)
10 / 2 2
= None of the options is correct.
500
V = [VR2 + VL2]1/2
= 0.05 W
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46. An ideal transformer is rated 220/110 V. A VR = 2502 1502

source of 10V and internal impedance of 2 = 200V.
is connected to the primary. The power
transferred to a load ZL connected across the 200
secondary would be a maximum, when |ZL| is IR = = 100A
2
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(a) 4 (b) 2 and VL = I XL

150 = 2(600)L
(c) 1 (d) 0.5
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L = 0.125H
Sol. (d)
48. The response of a series R-C circuit is given
220
Turn ratio (a) = 2 by
110
Transferring load to primary side: q0
2V
Z L will become a2Z L I(s)
C
For maximum power transfer 1
Rs
|a2Z L| = 2 RC

2
|Z L| = .5 where q0 is the initial charge on the capacitor.
4
What is the final value of the current?

, 8010009955
 (c) resistors with a negative temperature
1 2V q0 e t/RC 2V q0 coefficient
(a) (b)
R C R C (d) resistors with a positiv e temperature
(c) Infinity (d) Zero coefficient
Sol. (d) Sol. (b)
Variable resistor are two types: general

R
i(t) t = lim sI(s)
s 0
purpose resistors and precision resistors. The
2V q general-purpose resistors may be sub-divided
s s 0
C into wire-wound and carbon-composition type.
lim

TE
= s 0 L Precision resistor are always wire-wound.
RS
RC 52. In nodal analysis, the preferred reference node
= 0 is a node that is connected to
Final value of current is zero. 1. ground
49. What should be done to find the initial values
AS
2. many parts of the network
of the circuit variables in a first-order R-C circuit 3. the highest voltage source
excited by only initial conditions?
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) To replace the capacitor by a short circuit (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) To replace the capcitor by an open circuit (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) To replace the capacitor by a voltage source Sol. (d)
M

(d) To replace the capacitor by a current source

53. Two networks are said to be dual when
Sol. (c)
(a) their node equations are the same
For findng the initial values of the circuit
variables, capacitor is replaced by a voltage (b) the loop equaitons of one network are
source. analogous to the node equations of the other
S

50. In a parallel resistive circuit, opening a branch (c) their loop equations are the same
results in (d) the voltage sources of one network are the
current sources of the other
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1. increase in total resistnace

2. decreas in total power Sol. (d)
3. no change in total voltage and branch 54. Reciprocity theorem is applicable to a network
voltage 1. containing R, L and C elements
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. whcih is initially not a relaxed system
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. having both dependent and independent
Sol. (d) sources
In a parallel resistive circuit opening a branch Which of the above is/are correct?
results in (i) increase in total resistance (ii) (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
total power decreases (iii) voltage and branch
voltage do not change. (c) 2 and 3only (d) 1, 2 and
Sol. (a)
51. The precision resistors are
(a) carbon composition resistors Limitations of reciprocity theorem
(b) wire-wound resistors 1. Applicable to only single source network

, 8010009955
 2. Network should be linear (c) 5 V and 12.5 (d) 2.5 V and 6.25
3. Network should not have any time varying Sol. (d)
element
55. Which of the following is true for the complete
response of any network voltage or current
variables for a step excitation to a first-order 5A 1 RL
circuit?

R
(a) It has the form k1eat
1
(b) It has the form k

TE
(c) It may have either the form (a) or the form
of (a) plus (b)
5V RL
(d) It has the form e+at
Sol. (c)
Complete response of any network voltage
AS
or current variable is in the form A Bet/ convert it in voltage source.
Where A and B are constants and is the for maximum power transfer RL should be 1
time constant of circuit. (2.5)2
Power transferred to R = = 6.25 W
56. A piezoelectric crystal has a coupling coefficient 1
K of 0.32. How much electrical energy must be
applied to produce output energy of 7.06 58. Three star-connected loads of 360 each
M

103 J? and three delta-connected loads of 960

(a) 25.38 mJ (b) 22.19 mJ each are connected in parallel and fed from a
(c) 4.80 mJ (d) 2.26 mJ three-phase balanced source having line-to-
Sol. (none) netural voltage of 120V. The line currents drawn
S

from the supply will be

Coupling coefficient (k) =
(a) 10 A each (b) 20 A each
mechanical energy stored (c) 80 A each (d) 160 A each
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electrical energy applied

Sol. (c)
Star connected load:
7.06 10 3
0.32 =
electrical energy applied
360
Electrical energy applied = 68.94 mJ
57. If a constant current generator of 5 A, shunted
by its own resistance of 1 , delivers maximum 360
360
power P in watts to its load RL , then the
voltage across the current generator and P are
(a) 5 V and 6.25 (b) 2.5 V and 12.5

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 Delta connected load: (c) 16 kW (d) 19 kW
960 Sol. (b)
Given, Line current = 54 A
Line voltage = 400 V

R
Case I: When current coil is connected to R-
Converting to
star configuration phase and potential coil is connected between
R-phase and neutral.

TE
VR
9 60= 3 60
3 IR

360
AS

360

Now these two loads are connected in

parallel.
Equivalent load = Vy
VB
M

Wattmeter reading, P = VRN IR cos

360
2 400
10 103 = 54 cos
3
S

360
360 2 cos= 0.80
2
Case II: When current coil is connected to R-
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phase and potential coil between B and y

phase.
120
Line current = 3 / 2 80A VR
IR
59. A wattmeter reads 10 kW, when its current coil
is connected in R phase and the potential coil
is connected across R and neutral of a (90
+
balanced 400 V (RYB sequence) supply. The )
line current is 54 A. If the potential coil
reconnected across B-Y phases with the current VBy
coil in R phase, the new reading of the
wattmeter wil be nearly
VB Vy
(a) 10 kW (b) 13 kW

, 8010009955
 So, wattmeter reading, (b) unbalanced star-connected load only
(c) balanced delta-connected load only
P = | VBy | | IR | cos(90 ) = VBy IR sin (d) balanced or unbalanced star as well as
delta-connected loads
= 400 54 0.6 = 12.96 kW 13 kW
Sol. (d)
60. The phase voltage of a three-phase, star-
connected alternator is V. By mistake, the Two wattmeter method:
connection of R phase got reversed. the new Wattmeter

R
line voltages will have a relationship P1
1
VYB i1

TE
(a) VRY VBR v1
3
v3 O
VBR C
(b) VRY VYB 3 v2
3 i3
P2
VRY 2
AS
(c) VYB VBR i2
3 Wattmeter
Two wattmeter method Star connection
(d) VRY VYB VBR
Wattmeter
Sol. (a) P1
i1i3
Under normal condition, phases are like this: 1 i1
P1
M

B v3 v1
O
R i3
C i3i2
3
Y i2
v2
S

P2 i2i1
phase is reversed:
But in question R 2
i2
Phasor diagram becomes Wattmeter
IE

Two wattmeter method Star connection

B
Sum of instantaneous readings of two
60 wattmeters, whether connected in star or
R 60
Delta = v ii1 + v 2i2 + v 3i3
Y Therefore, the sum of the two wattmeter
reading is equal to the power consumed by
Clearly |VRY| = |VRB| |VBY|
the load. This is irrespective of whether the
Correct options is a load is balanced or unbalanced.
61. Two -wattmeter method of power measurement Note: However, One wattmeter method can
in three-phase system is valid for be used only when the load is balanced.
(a) balanced star-connected load only 62. Consider the following statements regarding the

, 8010009955
 effect of adding a pole in the open-loop transfer Unit-step resopnses of the system with the
function on the closed-loop step response: closed-loop transfer function in above equation
1. It increases the maximum overshoot.
= 1, n 1, and Tp 0,1,2, and 5
2. It increases the rise time.
3. It reduces the bandwidth. Fugure illustrates the unit-step tesponses of
Which of the above statements are correct?

R
the closed-loop system when n = 1, = 1, and
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only Tp = 0,1,2 and 5. These responses again show
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only that the addition of a pole to the forward-path

TE
Sol. (a) transfer function generally has the effect of
increasing the maximum overshoot of the
To study the general effect of the addition of a
closed-loop system.
pole, and its relative location, to a forward-path
transfer function of a unity-feedback system, As the value of Tp increases, the pole at1/Tp
consider the transfer function moves closer to the origin in the s-plane, and
AS
the maximum overshoot increases. These
n2 responses also show that the added pole
G(s) = increases the rise time of the step response.
s(s 2n )(1 Tp s)
This is not surprising. since the additional pole
The pole at s = 1/Tp is considered to be added has the effect of reducing the bandwidth of the
to the prototype second-order transfer function. system, thus cutting out the high-frequency
components of the signal transmitted through
M

The closed-loop transfer function is written

the system.
Y(s) G(s)
M(s) = = 63. A CRO screen has 10 divisions on the
R(s) 1 G(s)
horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin
(314t + 45) is examined with a line base setting
n2
S

of 5 ms/div, the number of signals displayed

=
Tp s3 (1 2n Tp )s 2 2n s n2 on the screen will be
(a) 1.25 cycles (b) 2.5 cycles
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(c) 5 cycles (d) 10 cycles

2.0
Sol. (b)
Tp = 5.0
Tp = 2.0
Given 10 divisions on horizontal scale.
Tp = 1.0 V(t) = 5 sin (314t + 45)
1.0
Tp = 0.5
Here, f = 50 Hz
T = 20 m sec.
0 5 10 15 20 Meaning: V(t) has the waveform extending
Time (sec) upto 20 msec.

, 8010009955
 V(t) L

+5
C R

t
= + 45

5 for L = 0.2 H, R 1 and C = 1 F, is

R
T = 20 m sec
(a) 1 rad/s (b) 2 rad/s
Now, Line base setting = 5 ms/div, and total (c) 3 rad/s (d) 4 rad/s

TE
division present = 10 Sol. (b)
Total time span = 5 ms/div 10 div
= 50 msec. R
Z = jL + 1 jCR
50 m sec
Hence, number of cycle = = 2.5
20 m sec At resonance, imaginary part of Z is zero.
cycle.
AS
CR 2
64. A series R-L-C circuit is connected to a 25 V L = 0
1 ( CR)
source of variable frequency. The circuit current
is found to be a maximum of 0.5 A at a
R2C
frequency of 400 Hz and the voltage across C L=
is 150 V. Assuming ideal components, the 1 (CR)2
values of R and L are respectively put all values
M

(a) 50 and 300 mH = 2 rad/sec.

66. Which one of the following conditions will be
(b) 12.5 and 0.119 H
correct when three identical bulbs forming a
(c) 50 and 0.119 H star are connected to a three-phase balanced
S

supply?
(d) 12.5 and 300 mH
(a) The bulb in R phase will be the brightest
Sol. (c)
(b) The bulb in Y phase will be the brightest
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25 (c) The bulb in B phase will be the brightest

R=
0.5 (d) All the bulbs will be equally bright
= 50 Sol. (d)
At resonance |VL| = |VC| All the bulbs will be equally bright because
150 = 0.5 2 400 XL line current will be same in all three branches.
150 67. For the two-port network shown in the figure
L=
2 0.5 400
= 0.119 H
65. The resonant frequency for the circuit

, 8010009955
 Sol. (b)
I1 I2
+ +
V1 V2

R R

R
V1 = 60I1 + 20I2 and V2 = 20I1 + 40I2
Consider the following for the above network:
1. The network is both symmetrical and R

TE
power consumed w1
reciprocal
2. The network is reciprocal
3. A = D R

1 3R 3R
4. y11
50
AS
Which of the above is/are correct? R R
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 4
3R
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
Sol. (b)
power consumed w2
V1 60 20 I1
M

W hen load is delta connected. Power

=
V2 20 40 I2 consumed = w1. When load is star connected
z11 z22 Network is not symmetrical power consumed = w2
z12= z21 Network is reciprocal for example take only resistive network
ABCD parameters: power consumed w1
S

v1 1/ 20 2 V2 power consumed w2
= clearly w2 = 3w1
I1 3 100 I2
A D w2
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Y parameters: w1 =
3
0.02 -0.01
[y]= = z-1 69. A 100 A ammeter has an internal resistance
-0.01 0.03
of 100. For extending its range to measure
y11= 1/50. 500 A, the required shunt resistance is
68. If the total powers consumed by three identical (a) 10 (b) 15
phase loads connected in delta and star
(c) 20 (d) 25
configuration are W 1 and W 2 respectively, then
W 1 is Sol. (d)

W2
(a) 3W 2 (b)
3
W2
(c) 3 W2 (d)
3

, 8010009955
 Full scale deflection (% accuracy)
=
Voltage measured

100 A, 200 2
500 A Rsh A 100 = = 4%
100

Alternate

R
Full scale deflection, As = 200 V
Accuracy = 2% of full scale.
From above circuit,

TE
Magnitude of limiting error of voltmeter
R sh
100 A 500 A
R sh 100 A = r A s = 0.02 200 = 4 V

% limiting error is:

R sh
1= 5
R sh 100
AS
4
= 100 4%
100
Rsh + 100 = 5 Rsh
4 Rsh = 100 71. How many poles does the following function
s3 2s 1
Rsh= 25 have? F(s)
s2 3s 2
M

Alternate (a) 0 (b) 1

I = 500 A (C) 2 (d) 3
Sol. (c)
Im = 100 A , Rm = 100
S

s3 2s 1
Rm 100 100 F(s) =
Rsh = = = = 25 s2 3s 2
m1 51 4
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70. A 200 V PMMC voltmeter is specified to be (s 0.453)(3 0.226 j1.46)(s 0.226 j1.46)
accurate within 2 of full scale. The limiting F(s) =
(s 1)(s 2)
error, when the instrument is used to measure
a voltage of 100V, is F(s) has 2 poles.

(a) 8% (b) 4% 72. The degree to which an instrument indicates

the changes in measured variable without
(c) 2% (d) 1% dynamic error is
Sol. (d) (a) repeatability (b) hysteresis
% limiting error for voltage measurement (c) precision (d) fidelity

, 8010009955
Sol. (d)
Fidelity: It is defined as the degree to which
a measurement system is capable of faithfully
reproducing the changes in the input, without
any dynamic error.
Fidelily is the dynamic characteristics of a
measurement system
Howev er, repeatabilit y, hysteresis and
TE
precesion are the static characteris of a
measurement system.
Repeatability: It is defined as the variation of
scale reading and is random in nature.
Precesio n: It is a measure of the
AS
reproducibility of the measurements i.e. given
a fixed value of a variable, precesion is a
measure of the degree to which successive
measurements differ from one another.
Therefore, precesion refers to the degree of
M
agreement within a group of measurements or
instruments.
Hysteresis: It is a phenomenon which depicts
different output effects when loading and
unloading whether it is a mechanical system
S
or an electrical system.
Hysteresis, in a system, arises due to the fact
IE
that all the energy put into the stressed parts
when loading is not recov erable upon
unloading.
73. Loading by the measuring instruments
introduces an error in the measured parameter.
Which of the following devices gives most
accurate result?
(a) PMMC (b) Hot-wire
(c) CRO (d) Electrodynamic
Sol. (c)
CRO has the higher input impedance than
PMMC, hot wi re and el ectrodynamic
instruments and hence errors in the measured
parameter due to loading effects will be lesser.
Therefore, CRO gives the most accurate result.
74. A moving-coil galvanometer can be used as a
DC ammeter by connecting
R
(a) a high resistance in series with the meter
(b) a high resistance across the meter
(c) a low resistance across the meter
(d) a low resistance in series with the meter
Sol. (d)
A moving-coil galvanometer can be used as a
DC ammeter by connecting a low resistance
across the meter.
Explanation:
The coil winding of a basics moving coil
galvanometer is small and light and can carry
very small currents since the construction of
an accurate instrument with a moving coil to
carry currents greater t han 100 mA is
impracticable duie to bulk and weight of the
coil that would be required.
When heavy currents are to be measured, the
major part of the current is bypassed through
a low resistance called a shunt.
Ish Im
Shunt Rsh
Basic
Rm
meter
75. Consider the following types of damping:
1. Air-friction damping
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 2.Fluid-friction damping
3.Eddy-current damping
PMMC type instruments use which of the
above?
(a) 1 only b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Sol. (c)
PMMC type instruments use Edely-current
damping.
TE
Eddy current damping is very convenient
to use in instruments where a metallic disc
or a former and a permanent magnet
already from part of the operating system.
For these reasons this method is used in
hot wire, moving coil, and induction type
AS
instruments.
Air friction damping is used in hot wire
and moving iron instruments.
Fluid-friction damping is suitable for
instruments such as electrostatic type
where the movement is suspended rather
than pivoted.
M
76. In data acquisition system, analog data
acquisition system is used
(a) for narrow frequency width, while digital data
acquisition system is used when wide
S
frequency width is to be monitored
(b) for wide frequency width, while digital data
acquisition system is used when narrow
IE
frequency width is to be monitored
(c) when qunatity to be monitored varies slowly,
while its counterpart is preferred if the
qunatity to be monitored varies very fast
(d) when qunatity to be monitored is time-
variant, while digital data acquisition system
is preferred when quantitiy is time invariant.
Sol. (b)
Analog data system are used when wide
bandwidth is required and lower accuracy
can be tolerated.
Digital data acquisition system are used
when narrow bandwidth, high accuracy
and low per channel cost is required.
Digital data acquisition systems are used
when t he physi cal proce ss bei ng
monitored is slowly varying (example:
temperat ure) i.e., narrow bandwidth
R
required.
Digital data acquisiton systems are in
general m ore com plex t han analog
syst em s, bot h i n t erm s of t he
instrumentation involved and the volume
and complexity of input data they can
handle.
77. During the measurement of resistance by carey
foster bridge, no error is introduced due to
1.contact resistance
2. Connecting leads
3.thermoelectric e.m.f.
which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Sol. (a)
During the measurement of resistance by
Carey Foster bridge, the errors due to
contact resistances and the resistances of
connecting loads are eliminated.
Note: The effect of thermo-electric emfs can be
el i m i nat ed by m aki ng t wo sets of
measurement, one with normal battery
connection and second one with the battery
connection reversed. The true v alue of
resistance will be then the mean of the two
readings.
78. Schering bridge is a very versatile AC bridge
and is used for capacitor testing in terms of
, 8010009955
 1. capacitance value (magnitude) b
2. loss angle measurement
3. simple balance detector like PMMC p
Q
instrument
4. Prov iding saf ety to operators by

R
+
incroporating Wagner earthing device c eo
a
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only

TE
Strain
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 gauge Dummy
strain
Sol. (c) gauge
d
Statements (1), (2) and (4) are correct wrt
Schering bridge.
+
AS
Vibrational galv anometer is used as a
bal ance d et ect or i n pl ace of PMMC E
instrument. As pressure under measurement changes R
79. Consider the following instruments: changes and this change in Resistance is
1. MI instrument sensed using wheatstone bridge. If pressure is
not applied e0 = 0. But, if temperature changes,
2. Electrostatic instrument
M

then resistance of strain gauge will also change

3. Electrodynamometer instrument even though pressure is not applied. So to
which of the above instruments is/are free from com pensate this error due to rise in
hysteresis and eddy-current losses? temperature, a dummy strain gauge is used
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only which cancels the effect of change in resistance
S

due to rise in temperature of actual strain

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
guage.
Sol. (b)
81. A wattmeter is measuring the power supplied
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El ect rosta t i c i nst rum ent i s f ree f rom

to a circuit whose power factor is 0.7. The
hysteresis and eddy-current losses. However,
frequency of the supply is 50 c/s. The wattmeter
MI instruments and Electrodynamometer
has a potential coil circuit of resistance 1000
instruments are subjected to serious errors
and inductance 0.5H. The error in the meter
due to hysteresis and eddy-current losses.
reading is
80. Dummy strain gauges are used for
(a) 4% (b) 8%
(a) compensation of temperature changes (c) 12% (d) 16%
(b) increasing the sensitivity of bridge Sol. (d)
(c) compensating for different expansions
cos = 0.7 = 45.57
(d) calibration of strain gauge
f = 50 Hz
Sol. (a) RP = 1000
LP = 0.5 H

, 8010009955
 XP = LP= 2fLP 0.01Rsh + 0.01 = 100Rsh
= 23.14500.5
100Rsh - 0.01 Rsh = 0.01
= 3140.5
= 157 99.99Rsh = 0.0001

XP 157 Alternate
tan = =
RP 1000 I = 100 A
tan = tan 45.57 = 1.02 Im = 10 mA, Rm = 1

R
Percentage error = tan tan100
157 I 100
= 1.02 100 multiplying factor, m = =
1000 Im 10 103

TE
16%
82. A moving-coil instrument gives full scale Rm 1
Rsh = = 0.0001
deflection of 10mA, when a potential difference m 1 10000 1
of 10mV is applied across its terminals. To
83. A 400V, three phase, rated frequency balanced
measure currents up to 100A, the same
source is supplying power to a balanced three
AS
instrument can be used
phase load carrying a line current of 5 A at an
(a) with shunt resistance of 0.0001 angle of 30 lagging. The readings of the two
wattmeters W 1 and W 2 used for measuring the
(b) with series resistance of 0.01
power drawn by the circuit, are respectively.
(c) with shunt resistance of 0.01
(a) 2000 W and 1000 W
(d) with series resistance of 0.0001
M

(b) 1500 W and 1500 W

Sol. (a) (c) 2000 W and 1500 W
Resistance of moving coil instrument . (d) 1500 W and 1000 W
Sol. (a)
100mV
S

Rm = = 1
10mA Total power = 3 4005cos30
= 3000 watts.
IE

w1 & w2 are same when power factor is unity

100A 10mA
Rsh So, correct option will be (a)
1
84. A current of 4+3 2 sin (t+30) A is passed
through a centre zero PMMC meter and a
From above circuit, moving iron meter. The two meters will read
respectively.,
Rsh
10mA = (a) 4 A and 5 A (b) 4 A and 5 A
Rsh 1 100
(c) 4 A and 5 A (d) 4 A and 5 A
0.01(Rsh + 1) = 100 Rsh Sol. (c)

, 8010009955
 PMMC always reads DC (or) average value. R = 7.26m
Hence, PMMC will read = 4 A.
Since guage factor is in negative, therefore change
in resistance due to compresive strain will decrease
Moving iron meter reads RMS value.
the resistance by 7.26m
86. The v alues of ammeter and v oltmeter
2

R
3 2 resistances are 0.1 and 2000 respectively
Hence iRMS = (4)2
2 as shown in the figure below. The percentage

error in the calculated value of R=100

TE
(voltmeter reading 200 V/ammeter reading 2
iRMS = 16 9 25 A) is nearly.

iRMS = 5A
85. A structural member is compressed to produce
AS
a strain of 5m. The nickel wire strain gauge A
has a gauge factor of 12.1. The pre-stress R
resistance of the gauge is 120. The change RA = 0.1
in resistance due to compressive stain will
(a) increase the resistance by 7.26 m V
M

(b) decrease the resistance by 7.26 m RV = 2000

(c) increase the resistance by 49.6 m (a) 2% (b) 5%
(d) decrease the resistance by 49.6 m (c) 2% (d) 5%
Sol. (b)
Sol. (b)
S

Strain = 5m/m
Ra IR
A
gauge factor = -12.1 I IV
IE

R = 120
V
R = ? RV
R
R / R
Gauge factor Gf =
strain

The given circuit arragngment may be redrawn

R / R as shown above. In this circuit the voltmeter
12.1 =
5 106 measures the true value of voltage but the
ammeter measures the sum of currents
R through the resistance and the voltmeter.
= 12.1510-6
R
R
R = 12.1510-6 120 The percentage error = 100%
Rv

, 8010009955
 converter is driven by a 2 MHz clock. Its
(200V / 2A)
= 100 conversion time is
2000
(a) 18 s (b) 16 s
100 (c) 8 s (d) 4.5 s
= 100
2000
Sol. (d)
= 5% A n bit SAR A to D converter takes maximum

R
87. What is the multiplying power of a shunt of n clock cylces for conversion.
200 resistance when used with a 8 bit SAR will take 8 clock cycles.
galvanometer of 1000 resistance?

TE
(a) 4 (b) 6 1
time = 8 sec.
(c) 12 (d) 20 2 106
Sol. (b)
= 4sec
Rsh = 200
Correct option will be (d).
AS
Rm = 1000
90. In using instrument transformers, care should
we know, be taken not to open circuit the
(a) primary of a voltage transformer when the
Rm
Rsh = secondary is connected to the rated load
m 1
(b) secondary of a voltage transformer when
the primary is energized with the rated
M

Rm 1000
m-1 = R = = 5 voltage.
sh 200 (c) primary of a current transformer when the
m-1 = 5 secondary is connected to the reated load
(d) secondary of a current transformer when
m = 6
S

the primary is carrying the rated current

88. The mesh current method Sol. (d)
1. works with both planner and non planar Current transformer is used in series for
IE

circuits protection and metering purpose.

2. uses Kirchhoffs voltage law Primary current,
which of the above is/arer correct? I1 = Io + I2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only when secondary of the current transformer is
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
left open, then I2 becomes zero,. Since, primary
Sol. (b)
is carrying the rated current, hence.
Mesh current method does not work in non
planar circuit. I0 = I1 I2 0

89. An 8-bit successive approximation A to D i.e. No-load com ponent of current (or
magnetising current) would be equal to the

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 primary rated current which is very high. Hence, So, x(KT) = (1)K1 ea(K1)T
the core of the instrument transformer leads to
= 1 ea(k 1)T
deep sat urati on and may damaged
permamently. No given option is correct.
Hence, secondary of instrument transformer is 92. A system has a t ransf er f unct ion
never left open circuit.

R
c(s) 4
91. An inv erse z-transf orm x(kT) of 2 for a unit-step response
R(s) s 1.6s 4
1 e aT and 2% tolerance band, the settling time will

TE
X(z) is
(z 1)(z e aT
) be
(a) 5 seconds (b) 4 seconds
(a) 1e-akT (b) 1+e-akT
(c) 3 seconds (d) 2 seconds
(c) 1-eakT (d) 1+eakT
Sol. (a)
Sol. (*)
AS
No option is correct (s) 4
= 2
R(s) s 1.6s 4
1 eaT
x(z) =
(z 1)(z eaT ) Now,

By partial fraction S2+2 ns+n2 = s2 + 1.6s +4

M

1 eaT 1 1 Here,
=
(z 1)(z e aT
) (z 1) (z e aT ) 2 n = 1.6 and n2 = 4

1 1 z n = 0.8, n = 2
S

= z
(z 1) z 1
n = 2 = 0.8
1 z
IE

1 = 0.4
=z
z eaT z e aT
for a unit step function, settling time is given
z by
Inverse z-transfer of (1)k
z 1
4
ts =
z n
eakT
z z aT
Also Z-n f(z) f(k-n) 4 4
ts = =
0.4 2 0.8
1 z
so z (1)k-1 ts = 5 sec.
z 1
93. Consdier the f ollowing statements with
z
z1 a(k 1)
reference to the response of a control system:
z eaT e T

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 1. A large resonant peak corresponds to a
small overshoot in transient response. c(s) k
=
2. A large bandwidth corresponds to slow
R(s) s(s 4)
k
response. 1
s(s 4)
3. The cut-off rate indicates the ability of the
system to distinguish the signal from noise.
c(s) k
4. Resonant frequency is indicative of the = 2
R(s) s 4S k

R
speed of transient response.
which of the above statements are correct? Now,
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
S2 + 2ns+n2 = s2 + 4s + k

TE
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Sol. (d) Here

2 n = 4 and n2 = k
0.35 0.35
Rise time, tr =
fH BW
n = 2 n = k
AS
If BW increases, rise time (t r ) decreases
and hence response will be faster. at = 0.5

Hence option (2) is wrong. 0.5 n = 2

Moreover, resonant frequency indicates the
2
speed of transient response. Hence option n = = 4
M

0.5
(4) is correct.
Further, the cut-off rate indicates the ability of n = k
the system to distinguish the signal from noise.
k = n2
94. The open-loop transfer function of a unity
S

K k = 42 = 16
feedback system is for a damping
s(s 4) Hence k = 16
factor of 0.5, the value of the gain K must be
IE

set to 95. For a unity feedback control system, the forward

pat h transf er f unction is giv en by
(a) 1 (b) 2
40
(c) 4 (d) 16 G(s) the steady state
s(s 2)(s2 2s 30)
Sol. (d)
5t 2
error of the system for the input is
k 2
G(s) =
s(s 4) (a) 0 (b)
H(s) = 1 (c) 20t2 (d) 30t2
c(s) G(s) Sol. (b)
R(s) = 1 G(s)H(s)
Unit Parabolic Input: For a unit parabolic

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 input, the steady state error in terms of feedback, is
acceleration given as
(a) 5 r/s (b) 6 r/s
1
e(ss) = , where K a lim s 2G(s) (c) 5 r/s (d) 6 r/s
Ka s 0

Sol. (a)

R
Table below summarises the value of Ka as a
function of type of system and corresponding characteristic equation = 0
steady state errors C.E = 1+G(s) H(s) = 0

TE
Type of Position Steady 2K
System constant state error C.E. = 1+ =0
s(s 1)(s 5)
0 0 0
1 s(s+1)(s+5) +2k = 0
1 Ka
Ka
s(s2+6s+5) +2k = 0
AS
2 0
. . s3+6s2 + 5s +2k = 0
. .
. . R-H Table is
n, where n > 2 0 s3 1 5
From the results summariesed in Table we can s2 6 2K
M

compare the capabilities of various types of

systems. It is very evident that error constants s1 (302K)/6 0
are either zero, finite or infinite. The magnitude
of error constant will proportionally increase, if s0 2K 0
the inputs are greater than the unit value. for marginal stability Odd row should be zero
S

96. When gain K of the open loop transfer function

of order greater than unity is varied from zero 30 2k
=0
to infinity, the closed loop system. 6
IE

(a) may become unstable 302k = 0

(b) stability may improve
2k = 30
(c) stability may not be affected
(d) will become highly stable k = 15

Sol. (a) Now,

When gain K of the open loop transfer function 6s2 + 2k = 0

of order greater than unity is varied from zero 6s2 + 30 = 0
to infinity, the closed loop system may become
unstable. 6s2 = 30

97. The frequency of sustained oscillation for s2 = 5

marginal stability, for a control system G(s)H(s)
s = 5 = jn
2K
= and operating with negative
s(s 1)(s 5)

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 n = Sol. (c)
5 r/s.
Given,
98. Consider the following statements:
1. Adding a zero to the G(s)H(s) tends to push s2 10s 24
root locus to the left. Gc (s) =
s2 10s 16
2. Adding a pole to the G(s)H(s) tends to push
root locus to the right.
(s 4)(s 6)
3. Complementary root locus (CRL) refers to Gc (s) =

R
(s 2)(s 8)
root loci with positive K.
4. Adding a zero to the forward path transfer sz = 4, 6
function reduces the maximum overshoot

TE
sp = 2, 8
of the system.
j
which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Sol. (c)
AS
X 0 0 X
Effects of the Addition of Poles. The s=-8 s=-6 s=-4 s=-2

addition of a pole to the open-loop transfer

funciton has the effect of pulling the root
locus to the right, tending to lower the
systems relative stability and to slow down
The pole-zero plot indicates lead lag compensator.
M

the settling of the response.

Effects of the Additon of Zeros. The 100. The partial fraction expansion of the function
addition of a zero to the open-loop transfer 4z2 2z
f(z) = is
function has the effect of pulling the root z 3 5z 2 8z 4
locus to the left, tending to make the system
S

more stable and to speed up the settling of 2 12

(a) + 2
the response. z 1 (z 2)
IE

Moreover, Complementary root locus (CRL)

2 2 2
refers to root loci with negative K. (b) + +
z 1 z2 (z 2)2
99. An R-C network has the transfer function Gc(s)=
1.5 12
s2 10s 24 (c) + 2
The network could be used as z 1 (z 2)
s2 10s 16
1. lead compensator 1.5 1.5 1
(d) + +
2. lag compensator z 1 z 2 (z 2)2
3. lag lead compensator Sol. (b)
which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 4z2 2z
f(z) =
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 z 5z 2 8z 4
3

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 4z2 2z C 225
A B = Wh
f(z) = = + + 2 36
(z 1)(z 2)2 z 1 z 2 (z 2)
= 0.00625kWh
Now,
Re volutions
4z2 2z = (z2)2 A + (z1) (z2)B + (z1) C Meter constant =

R
KWh
at Z= 1, 5
=
4(1)2 2(1) = (1)2A 0.00625

TE
4 2 =A = 800 rev/kWh

A= 2 102. In a closed loop control system

at Z = 2, (a) control action is independent of output

(b) output is independent of input
4(2)2 2(2) =(21) C
AS
(c) there is no feedback
C = 12 (d) control action is dependent on output
at Z = 0, Sol. (d)
4(0)2 2(0) = 8 + 2B 12 A closed loop control system is generally
reprosented as
4 = 2B
M

B= 2 R(s) G(s) (s)

- -ve feedback
Hence, + +ve feedback

H(s)
2 2 12

S

F(z) = z 1 z 2 z 2 2 from the given diagram it is clear that control

action depends on output.
101. If an energy meter makes 5 revolutions in 100
103. The characteristic polynomial of a system can
IE

seconds, when a load of 225 W is connected,

be defined as
the meter constant is
(a) denominator polynomial of given transfer
(a) 800 rev/kWh (b) 222 rev/kWh
function
(c) 147 rev/kWh (d) 13 rev/kWh
(b) numerator polynomial of given transfer
Sol. (a) function
Energymetere: (c) numerator polynomial of a closed loop
transfer function
Load = 225W
(d) denominator polynomial of a closed loop
5 revolutions in 100sec
transfer function
100 Sol. (d)
Energy supplied = 225 Wh
3600 The characteristic equation polynomial of a
system i s always represented as the

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 denominator polynomial of a closed loop tranfer = 60t degree/sec.
function.
R(s) = 60/s2
104. For a critically damped system, the closed loop
poles are So, steady state error,

(a) purely imaginary s.R(s)

ess = Lt
(b) real, equal and negative s 0 1 G(s)H(s)

(c) complex conjugate with negative real part

R
(d) real, unequal and negative s. 60 / s2
Lt
Sol. (b) 1 = s 0 1 57.3K

TE
s s 10
For critically damped system = 1
K = 10.47
S1,2 = n jn 1 2
106. Gain margin is the factor by which the system
at = 1 gain can be increased to drive it to
AS
S1, 2 = n (a) stability

j (b) oscillation

(c) the verge of instability

(d) critically damped state

M

Sol. (c)
X
-n, -n Gain margin is the factor by which the system
gain can be increased to drive it to the verge
of instability.
S

107. Nichols chart is used to determine

Both the roots are real, negative and equal.
(a) transient response
IE

105. A second order position control system has an (b) closed-loop frequency response
57.3K (c) open loop frequency response
open loop transfer function G(s) =
s(s 10) (d) settling time due to step input
What value of K will result in a steady state
error of 1, when the input shaft rotates at 10 Sol. (b)
r.p.m.?
The Nichols chart is useful for determining
(a) 21.74 (b) 10.47 the frequency response of the closed loop from
(c) 5.23 (d) 0.523 that of the open loop.
Sol. (b) 108. For a type-I system, the intersection of the initial
slope of the Bode plot with 0dB axis gives
Input, r(t) = (102180/60t

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 (a) steady-state error of two statements, one labelled as statement
(I) and the other as statement (II). Examine
(b) error constant these two statements carefully and select the
(c) phase margin answers to these items using the code given
below:
(d) cross-over frequency

R
Code:
Sol. (b)
(a) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
Type of system (N) Initial Slope Intersection with individually true and statement (II) is the

TE
0 DB axis at
correct explanation of statement (I).
0 Initial Slope Parallel to 0 db axis
1 20 db decade =K (b) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
2 40 db decade = K1/2
3 60 db/decade = K1/3
individually true but statement (II) is not the
correct explanation of statement (I)

(c) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is
N 20 N db decade 1/N
=K
AS
false
For the type zero system draw a line upto 1st corner frequency (lowest)
having 0 db/ dec (d) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is
For the type 1 system draw a line having a slope of 20 db/dec upto
true.
= K. 110. Statement (I):
For type 2 system draw line having slope of 40 db/dec upto = K

Now draw a line upto 2nd corner frequency by adding the For type-II or higher systems, lead compensator
slope of next pole or zero to the previous slope and so on may be used.
M

Hence, for type-1 system, it represents error constant.

Statement (II):
109. The desirable features of a servomotor are
Lead compensator increases the margin of
(a) low rotor inertia and low bearing friction stability.
(b) high rotor inertia and high bearing friction.
S

111. Statment (I):

(c) low rotor inertia and high bearing friction
Stability of a system deteriorates when integral
(d) high rotor inertia low bearing friction control is incorporated into it.
IE

Sol. (a) Statement (II):

The desirable features of a servomotor are:
(i) Low rotor inertia to obtain good accelerating
characteristics.
(ii) Low bearing friction to obtain maximum
torques.
(iii) X/R ratio is kept high.
(iv) Diameter of the rotor is small.
Direction:
Each of the followin eleven (1) items consists
With integral control action, the order of a
system increases and higher the order of the
system, more the system tends to become
unstable.
Sol. (a)
If more integrator is used in control action,
then order of the system starts to increase
and hence the system tend to become
unstable.
112. Statement (I):

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 Self-loops can exist in block diagram but not in
signal flow graph.
Statement (II):
Both block diagram and signal flow graphs are
applicable to linear time invariant systems.
Sol. (d)
SII : Power is energy per unit time and also is
the product of terminal voltage and current. It
has the unit watt
dw
P =
dt
Statement I and Statement II are individually
correct but statement II is not the correct

R
Self loop exist in signal flow graph but not in explanation of statment I.
block diagram.
115. Statement (I):
113. Statement (I):

TE
The gauuge factor of a strain gauge is the
ratio of strain to per unit change in resistance.
Statement (II):
Poissons effect is defined as producing less
AS
strain with opposit e sign on the plane
perpendicular to the applied load.
Sol. (a)
Sol. (d)
Statement (I) is false becaue guage factor of
a strain guage is the ratio of per unit change
in resistance to strain.
M
The electrical conductivity of a solid solution
alloy drops off rapidly with increased alloy
content.
Statement (II):
A solid solution has a less regular structurer
than a pure metal.
The electrical conductivity of a solid solution
alloy drops off rapidly with increased alloy
content because the lattice periodicity gets

destroyed and led to new scattering centres

R / R R / R for the conduction electrons.
Gf = =
L / L 116. Statement (I):
In type-0 and type-1 systems, stable operation
S

L
where = strain = is possible if gain is suitably reduced.
L
Statement (II):
114. Statement (I):
IE

Any one of the compensators lag, lead, lag-

Voltage is the energy per unit charge created
by charge separation.
Statement (II):
Power is energy per unit of time.
Sol. (b) SI : Voltage is energy per unit charge created
by charge separation and has the unit of Volt
lead may be used to improve the performance.
Sol. (b)
Both statements are correct individually but
statement (II) is not the correct explanation of
A.
117. Statement (I):

dw Open loop system is inaccurate and unreliable

V . due to internal disturbances and lack of
dq
adequate calibration.

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 Statement (II):
Closed loop system is inaccurate as it can not
account environmental or parametric changes
and may become unstable.
Sol. (c)
Open loop system is inaccurate and unreliable
due to internal disturbances and lack of
adequate caliberation.
TE
Closed loop system can account environmental
or parametric changes and may also become
unstable. The parametric change is sensed
and minimised due to presence of feedback
mechanism and error at output is reduced.
AS
118. Statement (I):
A constant temperature type hot wire
anemometer is suitable for turbulent flow
measurements.
Statement (II):
M
When the resistance of the hot wire is kept
constant by incroporating current feedback, the
bandwidth is increased.
Sol. (a)
S
Statement (II) is the correct expalantion of
statement (I).
IE
119. Statement (I):
Optical pyrometers are used as transducers
for the measurement of flame temperature in a
boiler.
Statement (II):
Non-invasive methods are suitable for flame
temperature measurement in a boiler.
Sol. (a)
Statement (I) is true. Optical pyrometers are
used f or measurem ent of v ery high
temperature where physical contact with the
process to be measured is impracticable or
impossible.
Statement (II) is also true. Since flame
temperature in a boiler is very high and rapidly
moving, hence non-invasive methods such as
R
optical pyrometers are suitable.
Theref ore statement (II) is the correct
explanation of statement (I).
120. Statement (I):
The null voltage of an LVDT can not be reduced
to an insignificant value.
Statement (II):
Hall effect transducers are primarily used to
measure flux density.
Sol. (b)
Statemennt (I) is true. The null voltage of an
LVDT can not be reduced to an insignificant
value. To make null voltage equal to zero, we
need core made of infinite permeability which
is not possible in practical.
Note. In practice, the core of LVDT is made of
high permeability, nickle iron which is hydrogen
annealed. This gives low harmonics, low null
voltage and a high sensitivity. This is slotted
longitudinally to reduce eddy current losses.
Stat ement (II) is alse true. Hall ef f ect
transducers are primarily used to measure
1. Flux density
2. Measurement of displacement
3. Measurerment of current
4. Measurement of power.
Individually, both statements (I) & (II) are
correct. But statement (II) is not the correct
explanation of statement (I). Hence answer will
be (b).
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