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General Awareness

1. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of -

(A) films
(B) Literature
(C) Sports
(D) Politics
(E) Status
ANS (A)

2. Which of the following is not a food crop?

(A) Wheat
(B) Barley
(C) Maize
(D) Gram
(E) Cotton
ANS (E)

3. Union Budget always presented first in -

(A) The Loksabha


(B) The Rajyasabha
(C) Joint session of Parliament
(D) Meeting of the Union cabinet
(E) The State Assemblies
ANS (A)

4. The Government of India has earmarked about Rs. 70,000 crore in Union
Budget to help which of the following sections of the society ?

(A) Children who are bonded labour


(B) Persons working in hazardous industries
(C) Farmers
(D) People living below poverty line
(E) None of these
ANS (E)

5. Jose Louise has taken over as the prime minister of -

(A) France
(B) Argentina
(C) Spain
(D) New zealand
(E) Italy
ANS (C)
6. The conference of Economic/ Finance Ministers of ASEAN was held recently
in -

(A) Jakarta
(B) Bali
(C) New Delhi
(D) Tokyo
(E) Islamabad
ANS (B)

7. Which of the following International forums/ organizations has made a


decision of not to go for reckless lending?

A) G-7
(B) G-8
(C) SAARC
(D) World Bank
(E) IMF
ANS (E)

8.Mahmood Ahmadinejad who was in India on an official visit recently is the -

(A) Prime Minister of Iraq


(B) President of Iran
(C) Prime Minister of Iran
(D) President of Iraq
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

9. India recently started "Maitree Express" to which of the following


destinations ?

(A) Islamabad
(B) Karanchi
(C) Dhaka
(D) Kathmandu
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

10. The first ever General elction took place in which of the following
countries in Indian sub-continent ?

(A) Bhutan
(B) China
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Sri Lanka
ANS (A)
11. As per the latest figures published in the newspapers the growth of
economy in India for the fiscal year ended March 2008 has been at which of
the following levels ? About -

(A) 6 %
(B) 6.5 %
(C) 7 %
(D) 7.5 %
(E) 9 %
ANS (E)

12. Name of B.S.Yeddyurappa was recently in news as he has taken over as


the -

(A) Governor of Karnataka


(B) Chief Minister of Karnataka
(C) Governor of Andhra Pradesh
(D) Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

13. The Govt. of India Planning to put up a bill in the parliament to ensure
free and compulsory education for all those who are of the age of -

(A) 3 Years
(B) 5 Years
(C) 6-14 Years
(D) 12-20 Years
(E) Upto 21 Years
ANS (C)

14. "World No Tobacco Day" is observed on which of the following days ?

(A) Ist May


(B) 10th May
(C) 21st May
(D) 31 st May
(E) 1st June
ANS (D)

15. Late Vijay Tendulkar who died recently was a famous -

(A) Social Work


(B) Politician
(C) Sportsman
(D) Play Wright
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

16. Mnay times we erad in newspapers about the GM Crops.What is the full
form of GM ?

(A) Genetically Marketed


(B) Genetically Modified
(C) Green & Moisturious
(D) Globally Marketed
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

17. Barack Obama whose name was in news recently is from which of the
following countries ?

(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

18. Which of the following is an Oscar winning documentary on climate


change in which former US Vice President Al Gore has featured as a
narrator ?

A) An inconvenient truth
(B) The Sea
(C) Road to prediction
(D) Remember My Name
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

19. Defence minister from 27 nations recently gathered at which of the


following places to discuss security amongst the countries of Asia Pacific
Region ?

(A) Beijing
(B) New Delhi
(C) Singapore
(D) Kuala Lumpur
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

20. Who amongst the following is NOT a Lawn Tennis Player ?

(A) Serena Williams


(B) Katarina Srebotnik
(C) Andy Murray
(D) Nichlas Almagro
(E) Ricky Ponting
ANS (E)

21. The head office of the Stae Bank Of India is located in -

A) Kolkat
(B) New Delhi
(C) Pune
(D) Ahmedabad
(E) None of these
ANS (E) Mumbai

22. Which of the following is NOT the name of the sensitive index of any
global stock exchange ?

(A) Nasdaq
(B) Nikkei
(C) Kospi
(D) Dow
(E) Combix
ANS (E)

23. Mnay times we read the term 'ECB'in financial newspapers.What is the
full form of 'ECB'?

(A) Essential Commercial Borrowing


(B) Essential Credit & Borrowing
(C) External Credit & Business
(D) External Commercial Borrowing
(E) None Of These
ANS (D)

24. Who amongst the following is the new face in Union Cabinet after it was
reshuffled recently ?

A) Mnai Shankar Aiyer


(B) Rahul Gandhi
(C) Priyanka
(D) Jyotiraditya Scindia
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

25. Who amongst the following has taken over as the chief minister of
Nagaland ?

(A) Manik Sarkar


(B) Dinesh Nandan Sahay
(C) P.Longon
(D) K.Shankaranarayanan
(E) None of these
ANS (E)

SBI BANK CLERK MODEL QUESTIONS

General English

1. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. If there is no error, the
answer is 'd' (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
(a) You would not have used (b) such an insulting language (c) if you would have been
accompanied (d) by your elder brother. (e) No error
Answer - c
2.Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. If there is no error, the
answer is 'd' (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
All the furnitures have been (a)/ replaced by the owner of the house (b)/ before shifting. (c)/
No error. (d)
Answer - a
3.Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. If there is no error, the
answer is 'd' (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
As soon as I shall reach New Delhi (a)/ I shall send you the file (b)/ you have asked for. (c)/
No error. (d)
Answer - a
4.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as
your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space.
He does not suffer from any ....... disease at all.
a. Acute
b. Chronic
c. Temporary
d. Irregular
Answer - b
5.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as
your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space.
We are not sure if their business is strictly .........
a. Prudent
b. Honest
c. Judicious
d. Legitimate
Answer - a
6.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as
your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space.
The claims made by the manufacturer of the product are so extravagant that only the ...... will
accept them on face value.
a. Cynical
b. Gullible
c. Rich
d. Indifferent
Answer - b
7.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as
your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space.
Justice should be ..... even-handedly.
a. Discharged
b. Performed
c. Declared
d. Administered
Answer - d
8.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as
your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space.
The leader of the opposition party condemned the communal riots in ... terms.
a. Unambiguous
b. Unparliamentary
c. Unequivocal
d. Uncontrollable
Answer - c
9.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as
your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space.
They should spend less time ... about and more with their children.
a. Gallivanting
b. Gravitating
c. Frisking
d. Flirting
Answer - c
10.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as
your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space.
The Government's handling of the situation led to ...... violations of human rights.
a. Tumultuous
b. Obvious
c. Ostensible
d. Flagrant
Answer - d
11.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as
your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space.
A bullet ........ his cheek.
a. Grazed
b. Glazed
c. Grasped
d. Screamed
Answer - a
12.In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as
your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space.
The injured man was still groggy and could only give a ..... account of the accident.
a. Garish
b. Gangling
c. Garbled
d. Garrulous
Answer - c

13. In each of these questions, the given sentence has a blank space. Four alternative words
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are given after the sentence. Select from the alternatives that word as
your answer which you consider most appropriate for the blank space.
The teacher's counsel had a ........ effect on the mischievous student's conduct.
a. Memorable
b. Salutary
c. Sudden
d. Forceful
Answer - b
14.In these questions, pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the
blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
The majority of village folk in India are illiterate and .... superstitious.
(a) Overtly (b) Delicately (c) Stubbornly (d) Covertly (e) Critically
Answer - c
15.In these questions, pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the
blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
I must admit, my parents stood by me in my times of ...... .
(a) Passion (b) Duress (c) Involvement (d) Development (e) Criticism
Answer - b

BANK CLERK MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2

NUMERICAL ABILITY TEST


1. Sum of smallest six digit no. and greatest five digit no. is:
a. 199999

b. 201110

c. 211110

d. 1099999

e. None of these

2. Value of 112 * 54. is :

a. 6700

b. 70000

c. 76500

d. 77200

e. None of these

3. 1399*1399

a. 1687401

b. 1901541

c. 1943211

d. 1957201

e. None of these

4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5’s. The smallest such no. is

a. 41625

b. 42135
c. 42515

d. 42735

e. None of these

5. If n is –ve no. then which of the following is least.

a. 0

b. –n

c. 2n

d. n2

e. None of these

6. If -1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y-3x is :

a. 0

b. -3

c. -4

d. -5

e. None of these

7. The least prime no. is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

e. None of these

8. The sum of prime no.’s b/w 60 and 75 is:

a. 199

b. 201

c. 211

d. 272

e. None of these

9. Total no. of even prime no.’s is :

a. 0

b. 1
c. 2

d. None

e. None of these

10. How many No’s B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5.

a. 40

b. 100

c. 110

d. 120

e. None of these

11. The digit in unit’s place of product 81*82……..*89 is:

a. 0

b. 2

c. 6

d. 8

e. None of these

12. The sum of first 45 natural no’s is :

a. 1035

b. 1280

c. 2070

d. 2140

e. None of these

13. The unit’s digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is :

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6

e. None of these

14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11

a. 235641
b. 245642

c. 315624

d. 415624

e. None of these

15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural no’s is:

a. 6

b. 12

c. 24

d. 120

e. None of these

16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by:

a. 3

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

e. None of these

17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is :

a. 10

b. 20

c. 35

d. 80

e. None of these

18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is :

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

e. None of these

19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687:
a. 98928

b. 99479

c. 99615

d. 100166

e. None of these

20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is

a. 6

b. 12

c. 14

d. 18

e. None of these

21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99:

a. 99909

b. 99981

c. 99990

d. 99999

e. None of these

22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be

a. 1

b. 2

c. 7

d. 21

e. None of these

23. The diff. b/w 2 no’s is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The
smaller no. is :

a. 240

b. 270

c. 295

d. 360

e. None of these
24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then dividend is :

a. 4236

b. 4306

c. 4336

d. 5336

e. None of these

25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest such no. is :

a. 9947

b. 9987

c. 9989

d. 9996

e. None of these

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION :

1) a

2) 1120000/16 = b

3) (1400-1)*(1400-1) = d

4) 555555/13 = d

5)c 6)c 7)c 8)d 9)b 10)c 11)a 12)a 13)c 14)d

15)c 16)d 17)a 18)c 19)c 20)c 21)c

22)d 23)b 24)d 25)b

SBI BANK CLERK MODEL TEST PAPER

NUMERICAL ABILITY
1.Let R = qs—4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal to

a. 11
b. 14c. 20
d. 21
Answer-d
2. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x is

a. -1
b. 0
c. 1
d. 2
Answer -b

3. 0.333 .... × 0.444 .... is equal to

a. 0.148148148 ....
b. 0.777 ....c. 0.121212 ....
d. 1.333 ....
Answer-a

4.

Answer-d

5. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we get

a. 96
b. 104
c. 108
d. 109
Answer-d

6. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27

a. 54
b. 64
c. 81
d. 91
Answer-d

7. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25
seconds. The length of the train is -

a. 125m
b. 135 m
c. 159 m
d. 175 m
Answer-c

8.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps
are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time
will it take to fill the tank by tap B?
a. 7 min & 15 sec
b. 7 min & 45 sec
c. 8 min & 5 sec
d. 8 min & 15 sec
Answer-d

9. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what
ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half
water?

a. 7:5
b. 1:2
c. 2:1
d. 6:5
Answer-a

10.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have
been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What
is the original speed of the car?

a. 45 km/hr
b. 50 km/hr
c. 55 km/hr
d. 65 km/hr
Answer-c

11. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km
per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him was

a. 450 km
b. 675 km
c. 337.5 km
d. 1350 km
Answer-b

12. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A's share,
4 times B's share and 7 times C's share are all equal. The share of C is

a. Rs. 84
b. Rs. 147
c. Rs. 196
d. Rs. 240
Answer-a

13. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3
months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit
of Rs. 9500 is

a. Rs. 3500
b. Rs. 3000
c. Rs. 2500
d. Rs. 4000
Answer-c
14.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the
year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is

a. Rs. 1700
b. Rs. 1800
c. Rs. 2000
d. Rs. 2200
Answer-c

15.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and
then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the
work in

a. 48 days
b. 60 days
c. 75 days
d. 90 days
Answer-d

16.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right circular
cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder is

a. 1848 cm3
b. 1232 cm3
c. 1078 cm3
d. 980 cm3
Answer-c

17.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in
the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is

a. 30 cm
b. 60 cm
c. 72 cm
d. 108 cm
Answer-b

18.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds.
The area of the field is-

a. 125 sq. cm
b. 112.5 sq. cm
c. 110 sq. cm
d. 100√2 sq. m
Answer-b

19.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are
together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is -

a. 10 cm
b. 24 cm
c. 26 cm
d. 27.5 cm
Answer-b
20.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same as

a. 4 : 1
b. 2 :1
c. 7 : 5
d. 7 :10
Answer-a

21. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to
that of the cube is

a. √π : √6
b. √π : √6
c. √π : √3
d. √6 : √π
Answer-d

22.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and
10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash payment, then what is the
cash price of the table?

a. Rs. 2400
b. Rs. 2160
c. Rs. 2100
d. Rs. 2052
Answer-d

23. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of
interest per annum is

a. 10%
b. 12%
c. 15%
d. 16⅔ %
Answer-c

24.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the
agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs.
126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, is

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer-b

25.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years?

a. Rs. 1,20,000
b. Rs. 1,92,000
c. Rs. 1,24,000
d. Rs. 96,000
Answer-b

26. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 12½%
d. 25%
Answer-d

27. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of
oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120.
The total number of oranges bought by him was

a. 30 dozen
b. 40 dozen
c. 50 dozen
d. 60 dozen
Answer-d

28.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for
Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity is

a. Rs. 370
b. Rs. 385
c. Rs. 390
d. Rs. 400
Answer-c

29.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is
increased by 5% then the amount will increase to

a. Rs. 950
b. Rs. 980
c. Rs. 1010
d. Rs. 1040
Answer-d

30.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of
the three numbers is 44, the largest number is

a. 24
b. 36
c. 17
d. 72
Answer-d

31.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of
paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the
number of tins required for painting the house is -

a. 15
b. 12
c. 10
d. 20
Answer-a

32.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the
ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should
his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before,
assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500?

a. Rs. 300
b. Rs. 350
c. Rs. 375
d. Rs. 475
Answer-d

1. Balmiki Prasad Singh has taken over as Governor of _____

(A) Goa
(B) Bihar
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Sikkim
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

2. The Paralympic Games in September 2008 were held at _____

(A) Tokyo
(B) New York
(C) Madrid
(D) Stckholm
(E) Beijing
Ans (E)

3. Which of the folowing is/are True about the National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) which
was in news recently?

(1) The NRAA was set-up in 1955 at the initiative of the then Prime Minister J.L.Nehru
(2) NRAA was established to co-ordinate the work of five ministries associated with the
development of rainfed
areas
(3) NRAA is now converted into a Corporation of the same name

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1 , 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

4. Dalichi Sankyo has recently taken over which of the following Companies/Corporation of
Indian base /

(A) Jet Airways


(B) Ranbaxy
(C) Bhilai Steel Plant
(D) National Textiles Corporation
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
5. The recent report on Global Development Finance released by the World Bank has
projected India 's GDP growth rate at which of the following levels?

(A) 5 %
(B) 6 %
(C) 7 %
(D) 8 %
(E) 9 %

Ans (C)

6. which of the following cities is placed at the top of the list of cities found suitable for "Global
Commerce" compiled by the master cards? (Result of the survey were published in various
financial newspaper)

(A) London
(B) New York
(C) Tokyo
(D) Beijing
(E) Mumbai

Ans (D)

7. The New Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for banks in commonly known as ___

(A) Credit Policy


(B) Monetary Policy
(C) KYC Norms
(D) Basel Accord
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

8. As we all know Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in the percentage of the deposit banks keep in
reserve with them . This ratio is also known as ___

(A) Repo Rate


(B) Reserve Repo Rate
(C) SLR
(D) Liquidity Ratio
(E) None of these
Ans (E)

9. The sudden turn of events in the economic environmental globally , in the last four to five
month have resulted in slowing down of India 's economic growth. Which of the following
is/are the event(s) which has/have put their impact on Indian economy?

(1) Turmoil in US Credit market


(2) Large scale increase in the prices of crude oil and foodgrains
(3) Adoption of Basel II norms by the banks

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2 only
(E) All 1,2 & 3
Ans (D)

10. Which of the following is India 's Tax GDP ratio ?

(A) 5 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 25 %
(D) 30 %
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

11. Which of the following is known as 'Himadri' ?

(A) It is India's Space Craft launched to study the moon


(B) It is India's first Research Station in Arctic Region
(C) It is new battle tank produced by India
(D) It is new warship inducted in the Indian Navy recently
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

12. The Govt. of India recently announced a subsidized pricing policy based on nutrients in it
of which of the following to protect the interest of the farmers ?

(A) Seeds
(B) Pesticides
(C) Fertilizers
(D) Organic Manure
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

13. The next Non-Aligned Movement SAummit 2009 is scheduled to be held in ___

(A) India
(B) Egypt
(C) Brazil
(D) South Africa
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

15. Ghulam Nabi Azad was in the news recently as he has resigned from the post of the ___

(A) Governor, Jammu & Kashmir


(B) Chief Minister , Jammu & Kashmir
(C) Governor , Jharkhand
(D) Chief Minister, Jharkhand
(E) Governor, Manipur

Ans (B)

15. When the growth of GDP in a country slows down suddenly,people start losing
their jobs and the situation continues for several weeks,what name is given to this state of
economy (A big was in this state recently.) ?
(A) Inflation
(B) Recession
(C) Deflation
(D) Economic Boom
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

16. "Lisbon Treaty" is the treaty accepted/adopted by the members of which of the following
organizations recently ?

(A) NATO
(B) SAARC
(C) European Union
(D) Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG)
(E) None of these

Ans (C)

17. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing
___

(A) Treasury Bill


(B) Momerandom of Association
(C) Kisan Vikas Patra
(D) National Saving Certificate
(E) Commercial Papers
Ans (E)

18. Russia has recently made a ceasefire Agreement with which of the following nations ?

(A) Ukraine
(B) Kazakhastan
(C) Croatia
(D) Georgia
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

19. The Govt. of India has decided to build a Nuclear Power Plant in which of the following
North Eastern States ?

(A) Manipur
(B) Assam
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
(E) None of these
Ans (E)

20.India won it's individual Gold Medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 in which of the following
events ?

(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Lawn Tennis
(D) Swimming (E) Rifle Shooting
Ans (E)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate
them while answering some of the questions.

The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold
ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been
placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.

The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The
second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The
other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The
relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the
company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and
watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered
them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours
looked on.

The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.

The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a
present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !”

His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.”
She kissed him on the forehead.

The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?”

“You’ll get it when you go far away.”

“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?”

His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It
is the most precious of all.”

41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?


(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these

42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?

(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these

43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?


1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?

(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad

46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?

(A) She taught him the value of patience


(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?

(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son


(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the
servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her

Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning
as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. Left
(A) Gone
(B) Quit
(C) Remaining
(D) Disappeared
(E) Forgot

49. Packed
A) Filled
(B) Squeezed
(C) Crowd
(D) Collected
(E) Untidy

50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in
the passage.

(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in
it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we
expected. (D) No error (E)

52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No
error (E)

53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking
sector. (D) No error (E)

54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to
fall. (D) No error (E)

55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below
should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the
sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is
and ‘No correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer.

56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—

(A) Every loan


(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required

57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—

(A) Taking place at


(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required

58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required

59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—

A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required

SBI BANK PO (PT) SOLVED PAPER (Held on July 6 , 2008)

General English

60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—

(A) That known when


(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6)
in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given
below them.

(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she
replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes –one lived in the valley and the other high up in the
mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t
yet figured out how to climb.

61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)
63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

Directions—(Q. 66–70): In each question below a sentence with four words printed
in bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four
words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of
the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The
letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt
and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your
answer.

66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D)
their basic needs. All correct (E)

67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)

68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All correct
(E)

69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for
customers. All correct (E)

70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon. All
correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five
words/ phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word in each case.

I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house where I …
(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in return
however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I spent with
his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines that he
possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new …(78–79)
… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)… books. This has
benefited me greatly.

71. (A) forward


(B) towards
(C) backward
(D) up
(E) around

72. (A) went


(B) sent
(C) visited
(D) travelled
(E) gone

73. (A) cared


(B) occupy
(C) guarded
(D) taught
(E) played

74. (A) them


(B) whom
(C) this
(D) now
(E) which

75. (A) expensive


(B) deserving
(C) helping
(D) demanding
(E) valuable

76. (A) opportunity


(B) ability
(C) use
(D) encouragement
(E) achievement

77. (A) distance


(B) extent
(C) time
(D) limits
(E) degrees

78. (A) activity


(B) hope
(C) hobby
(D) duty
(E) worship

79. (A) despite


(B) though
(C) by
(D) instead of
(E) while

80. (A) sell


(B) read
(C) exchange
(D) invest
(E) buy

Answers:
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D)
45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)
48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)
51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’.
52. (E)
53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’ to ‘Most’.
54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’.
55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’.
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)

1. On 7th May 2008, agni-I was test-fired. It was

(A) Ballistic Missile


(B) Surface to air missile
(C) Land to sea missile
(D) Air to air missile

2. Which of the following High Courts has recently quashed the merit list issued in 2006
and 2007 by the centre and the
UPSC

(A) Bhopal High Court


(B) Rajasthan High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Guwahati High Court

3. Recently the Acronym START came into News. START stands for”

(A) Strategic Association for Restructuring Trade


(B) Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty
(C) System Tracking and Reprocessing Team
(D) None of the above

4. People™s Democratic Party emerged second largest party with 33·01% in elections
held in”

(A) Bhutan
(B) Nepal
(C) Zimbabwe
(D) Italy

5. According to the World Conservation Union Report, the number of plant species in
India listed as threatened is

(A) 247 plant species


(B) 250 plant species
(C) 275 plant species
(D) 255 plant species

6. Which of the following states passed a Bill in March 2008, amending the Registration
Act 1908 to prohibit foreigners from buying land in the state

(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Goa
(D) Maharashtra

7. The renowned scientist John Wheeler who died in April 2008, was originally hailed
from

(A) Australia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Finland
(D) Britain

8. Who received Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2007

(A) Bill Gates


(B) Nelson Mandela
(C) Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation
(D) Arthur C. Clarke

9. The 2008 UNESCO/Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize awarded to

(A) Lydia Cacho Ribeiro


(B) Anna Politkovskaya
(C) May Chidiac
(D) U Win Tin

10. Which of the following Indian players has not completed 10,000 runs in Test cricket

(A) Rahul Dravid


(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Sunil Gavaskar
(D) Virendra Sehwag

11. On March 26, 2008, NASA™s space shuttle which returned safely to Earth after
completing 16 day mission to International Space Station was

(A) Discovery
(B) Endeavourer
(C) Columbia
(D) None of the above

12. Jules Verne is Europe

(A) Space shuttle


(B) Missile shield system
(C) Biggest spacecraft
(D) Mission to Antarctica

13. Indias National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the countries
first

(A) Dirrohoea map


(B) Malarial map
(C) Bird flu map
(D) Cancer map

14. The World Is What It Is™ is the biography of

(A) V. S. Naipal
(B) Khushwant Singh
(C) Amrita Preetam
(D) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

15. According to a World Bank Report India got remittances in 2007 worth

A) $ 30 billion
(B) $ 35 billion
(C) $ 25 billion
(D) $ 27 billion

16. The Summit of NATO (NORTH ATLANTIC TREATY) was held in April in

A) Romania
(B) Morocco
(C) Pakistan
(D) Indonesia
17. ACcording to latest WHO report the number of estimated TB cases found every year
in India is

(A) 2·2 million


(B) 1·9 million
(C) 1·5 million
(D) 1·7 million

18. Tata purchased Jaguar and Rover from

(A) Hyundai
(B) Maruti Suzuki
(C) Ford Motor
(D) None of the above

19. According to a survey, the country which has the highest number of internet users is

(A) U.S.A.
(B) China
(C) Japan
(D) Germany

20. Which country has won the Women's Asia Cup Cricket 2008 which was held
in Colombo in the month of May 2008 ?

(A) Brisbane
(B) Melbourne
(C) Sydney
(D) Perth

21. According to Prime Minister™s Economic Advisory Council (EAC) headed by C.


Rangrajan the economic growth rate for 2008-09 will remain at

A) 8%
(B) 8·5%
(C) 9%
(D) 8·9%

22. The Pritzkar Architecture Prize has been won by

(A) Bill Gates Foundation


(B) William Harvey
(C) Jea Nouvel
(D) None of the above
23. Which of the following cricket players has been banned for violating the player™s
code of conduct by PCB ?

(A) Danish Kaneria


(B) Shoaib Malik
(C) Mohammad Yousuf
(D) Shoaib Akhtar

24. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has now been extended to all 604
districts of the country with a total budget outlay of”

(A) 18000 crore


(B) 16000 crore
(C) 15000 crore
(D) 14000 crore

25. Inflation which soared above 7% in the month of April is measured by

A) Consumer Price Index


(B) Retail Price Index
(C) Whole Sale Price Index
(D) Industrial Price Index

26. The winner of Bahrain Grand Prix is

(A) Lewis Hamilton


(B) Kartikeyan
(C) Felipe Massa
(D) Robert Kubica

27. The winner of Miss India Earth 2008 is

(A) Tanvi Vyas


(B) Suman Kaur
(C) Rashmi Sehgal
(D) Rani Sharma

28. In face of rising prices, Central Government has decided to set strategic Reserve of
foodgrains over and above buffer stock. The limit of the reserve is

(A) 10 million tonneS


(B) 7 million tonnes
(C) 6 million tonnes
(D) 5 million tonnes

29. Which of following newspapers/magazines won six Pulitzer prizes


(A) The New York Times
(B) The Times Magazine
(C) The Washington Post
(D) The Guardian

30. ˜Leftism in India , 1917-1947’ is a book written by

(A) S. R. Chaudhuri
(B) K. Kanwar
(C) R. Nagaswamy
(D) Sudipto Chatterjee

31. Recently President Pratibha Patil visited three countries. Which of the following was
not the part of her trip

(A) Argentina
(B) Chile
(C) Mexico
(D) Brazil

32. GJM stands for

(A) General Justice Movement


(B) Gorkha Janmukti Morcha
(C) Gorkhaland Janshakti Morcha
(D) Gorkha Janjagriti Morcha

33. The elections of which of the following countries were marred by controversy

(A) ItalY
(B) Spain
(C) Zimbabwe
(D) Nepal

34. Supreme Court has upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing 27% for candidates
belonging to

(A) SCs
(B) STs
(C) OBC
(D) Minorities OBC

35. At which of the following places have the remains of early human history been found
in excavation
(A) Chittorgarh
(B) Bhavnagar
(C) Kolkata
(D) Karaikal

36. Judum™ is

(A) Terrorist organization


(B) A branch of naxalite
(C) Name of a police force
(D) An anti naxalite movement

37. When was Nepal declared a Secular Nation

(A) in 2005
(B) in 2007
(C) in 2008
(D) in 2006

38. The Director General of UN Food and Agriculture Organization of present is

(A) Jacques Diouf


(B) Kundekeh K. Yumkella
(C) Jammel Al Hiyilan
(D) Michael Griffin

39. According to a research, stem cells from skin can treat

(A) Alzhumer
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Parkinsons disease
(D) None of the above

40. When did the Olympic torch relay begin

(A) in 1950
(B) in 1952
(C) in 1953
(D) in 1963

Answers with Hints

1. (A)

2. (C)
3. (B) The Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty (START-II) is a treaty
between Russia and U.S.A. for reducing their nuclear arsenals. The treaty is due to expire
in 2009.
4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (B) India™s Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the country™s
first malarial map identifying India™s 60 most malarial endemic districts that report over
50% of the country™s malaria™s cases.
14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C)
19. (B) 20. (A) India won fourth consecutive times in Women's Asia Cup Cricket 21. (B)
22. (C) The Pritzkar Architecture Prize, considered to be equivalent of Nobel Prize for
architecture has been won french architect Jea Nouvel for his creative experimentation in
architecture.
23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D)
29. (C) The Washington Post has won six Pulitzer Prizes, including Public service award
for its reporting on conditions of U.S. War Veterans.
30. (A) 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C)
34. (C) The Supreme Court on April 10, 2008 upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing a
quota of 27 per cent to the other Backward Classes in Central Educational Institutions.
35. (C)
36. (D) Salva Judam is an antinaxalite movement formed by group of people against
attack from maxalites. The movement started from Dantewada district (Chhattisgarh).
37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (B)
1. A ____ is a named location on a disk where files are stored.
A folder
B pod
C version
D none of the above
Ans (A)
2. The ____ allows you to choose where to go and is located below the Standards Buttons
toolbar.
A System menu
B Address bar
C Menu bar
D none of the above
Ans (B)
3. A ____ is a set of computer instructions that carry out a task on the computer.
A program
B database
C memory file
D none of the above
Ans (A)
4. An operating system version designed for home use is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (A)
5. A user-interface that is easy to use is considered to be ____.
A user-happy
B user-simple
C user-friendly
D none of the above
Ans (C)
6. When you press and release the secondary mouse button you are ____.
A Right-clicking
B Left-clicking
C either a. or b.
D neither a. nor b.
Ans (A)
7. Another term for hyperlink is ____.
A link
B source
C bar
D none of the above
Ans (A)
8. A ____ is a flash memory storage device that plugs into a USB port.
A USB snap drive
B USB flash drive
C USB memory maker drive
D none of the above
Ans (B)
9. An operating system version designed for use with a Media Center PC is Microsoft Windows
XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (B)
10. A graphical user interface displays ____.
A graphics
B text
C both (A) and (B).
D neither (A) nor (B).
Ans (C)
11. When you quickly press and release the left mouse button twice, you are ____.
A Primary-clicking
B Double-clicking
C pointing
D none of the above
Ans(B)
12. Underlined text, such as text and folder names is referred to as a ____.
A hyperlink
B menu
C source drive
D none of the above
Ans (A)
13. The ____ program compresses larger files into a smaller file.
A WinZip
B WinShrink
C WinStyle
D none of the above
Ans (A)
14. An operating system version designed for use with a tablet PC is Microsoft Windows XP
____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (C)
15. The ____ displays the name of every computer user on the computer.
A Wish list screen
B Command screen
C Welcome screen
D none of the above
Ans (C)
16. The ____ contains commands associated with the My computer window.
A Standards menu
B Start menu
C System menu
D none of the above
Ans (C)
17. Press the ____ button to have the window fill the entire screen.
A Close
B Maximize
C Minimize
D none of the above
Ans (B)
18. The ____ is the drive containing the files to be copied.
A source drive
B destination drive
C USB drive
D none of the above
Ans (A)
19. A ____ allows you to write on screen with a digital pen and convert that writing into
characters that the PC can
process.
A monitor RS
B tablet PC
C database manager
D media center
Ans (B)
20. A ____ is a pointing device.
A monitor
B mouse
C keyboard
D none of the above
Ans (B)

SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY MODEL PAPER

Directions : - Select the related letters / word / number / figure from the given
alternatives

1 Editor : Magazine

(a) Movie (b) Scene


(c) Drama (d) Director

2 Hinduism , Christianity , Islam : Religion

(a) Ear , Nose , Eyesight : Vision (b) Plus , Minus , Multiple : division
(c) Winter , Spring , Summer : Season (d) Humid , Hot , Tundra : Region

3 WOLF : FLOW :: WARD : ?

(a) BROW (b) DRAW


(c) CRAW (d) SLAW
4 GRAIN : TIZRM :: BRAIN : ?

(a) XRIKL (b) YIZRM(c) OPRST (d) ASQMI

5 CUT : BDTVSU :: TIP : ?

(a) UVHJOQ (b) SUHJOQ


(c) USJHQO (d) SUJHOQ

6 19 : 59 :: 17 : ?

(a) 51 (b) 53
(c) 55 (d) 57

7 14 : 20 :: 16 : ?

(a) 23 (b) 48
(c) 10 (d) 42

8 100 : 102 :: 100000 : ?

(a) 105 (b) 104


(c) 1003 (d) 1004

DIRECTIONS : (QUESTIONS 9 to 13) select the one which is different from the other
three .

9 (a) Mile (b) Centimeter (c) Litre (d) Yard


10 (a) High - Up (b) Past - Present (c) Often - Seldom (d) Fresh - Stale
11 (a) 11 - 127 (b) 9 – 85 (c) 7 – 53 (d) 5 – 29
12 (a) 26 Z (b) 24 X (c) 22 V (d) 20 S
13 (a) 8 , 64 , 112 (b) 36 , 6 , 206 (c) 48 , 4 , 202 (d) 9 , 27 , 263
14 In the following series of numerals , which digit has maximum frequency ?

846734378344563464348

(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 3

15 If the day after tomorrow is Friday , what day will the third day after tomorrow be

(a) Saturday (b) Monday (c) Sunday (d) Friday

16 If the ratio of the area of two squares is 16 : 1 , then the ratio of their perimeter is

(a) 4 : 1 (b) 16 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4

17 The shade of 18 ft high pole is 20 ft. . Find the length of shade of 27 ft long pole .

(a) 36 ft (b) 30 ft (c) 34 ft (d) 40 ft

18 A scores more runs than B but less than C . D scores more than B but less than A . Who
is the
lowest scorer ?

a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

19 In the alphabets from A to Z , which is the third letter to the right of the letter which is
midway

between K & S ?

(a) R (b) Q (c) P (d) O

20 If first November falls on Monday , then what day will the 25th November be ?

(a) Tuesday (b) Thursday (c) Wednesday (d) Friday

21 The length of room is twice its breadth . If the area of the room is 242 sq meters , then
find out its

breadth

(a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 9

22 If the product of two numbers is 10 & their sum is 7 , then the larger of the two number
is -

(a) – 2 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 3

24 Which letter is used only in one of the given words ?

Speak , Reap , Shark

(a) S (b) P (c) K (d) H

25 A tortoise covers one kilometer in 4 hours . It takes rest for 20 minutes after
very kilometer .

How much time does it takes for the tortoise to cover 3.5 kilometers ?

(a) 14 hours (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 12

26 Of which of the following words , which one will be at the 3rd position in the dictionary ?

1. socks 2. Shocks 3. Sharp 4. snooker

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

ANSWER

12345
ccbbb
6 7 8 9 10
bdaca

11 12 13 14 15
a d a c c

16 17 18 19 20
a b b a b

21 22 23 24 25
a c d c a

General Awareness - II

1. 'RBI responds to inflation threat' was the headline in leading newspaper recently. What
steps RBI has taken in its Mid Term review of the Credit Policy announced in Oct. 2004?
I. Repo rate is increased II. Bank rate has changed III. Minimum period for fixed deposits
lowered down
A. Only I and II B. Only II and III C. Only I D. Only II E. None of these

2. The Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd is likely to be merged with which of the following
Companies? (As per news paper report)
A. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd B. Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd C. Reliance Info Tech
Ltd
D. Tata Indicom E. None of these

3. For appointment of Directors in which one of the following types of organisations the RBI
has issued guidelines known as " Fit and Proper Criteria?
A. PSUs in oil sector B. Nationalised banks only C. Government departments
D. SBI and its associates E. Private Sector Banks

4. The Reserve Bank of India has recently raised the risk weight on housing loans from 50 per
cent and on Consumer Credit from 100 per cent to 125 per cent. How much more money will
the banks need to implement this decision of RBI? (Approximately)
A. Rs. 1000 crore B. Rs.1500 crore C. Rs.2000 crore D. Rs. 2500 crore E. Rs. 3000
crore'

5. The reports about the performance of crore sector infrastructural units for the first half
(April 2004-Sept.2004) were published recently. The performance was
A. not good B. good C. same as it was last year D. little better than the
projections E. None of these

6. The European Union sometime back had imposed sanctions on the USA in a dispute over
US Corporate Tax subsidies, What is the present positions of the same?
A. The sanctions will continue further for a period of two year starting from Oct. 2004
B. The sanctions are now lifted as US has agreed to reduce the subsidy
C. European Union has decided to give a temporary relief to US as the sanction will now be
applicable only from Jan. 2006
D. European Union has decided to make it more strict with financial penalty
E. None of these
7. The World Bank published its development report for 2005 in Sept. 2004. Which of the
following statements is/ are true about India's status in the regard?
I. India is the fourth largest economy in terms of purchasing power parity.
II. Indian banks are lagging behind in the field of technology and efficiency.
III. Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) are increasing day by day and needs to be dealt more
effectively
A. Only I B. Only II C. Only I and II D. Only I and III E. All of these

8. Who amongst the following is one of the Nobel Prize winners for Physics in 2004?
A. Irwin Rose B. David J. Gross C. Linda B. Buck D. Avram Hershko E.
None of these

9. Which of the following schemes was merged with Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana?
A. Annapurna Yojana B. Ganga Kalyan Yojana C. Midday Meal Scheme D. Urban Basic
Service for Poor
E. None of these

10. The National Housing Bank (NHB) is planning to revise its norms for considering Non
Performing Assets (NAPs) in housing sector. What will be the new norms in terms of days for
the scheme?
A. 180 days B. 160 days C. 120 days D. 90 days E. None of these

11. Which of the following is the permanent venue for the international film festival of India?
A. Poona B. Panaji C. Mumbai D. Bangalore E. Kochi

12. As per the reports in the newspapers the public debt is expected to increase to a record
high as Rs. 13, 45, 000 crore (approximately) in 2004-2005. What will be its percentage as
compared to Gross Domestic Product (approximately)?
A. 34 per cent B. 40 per cent C. 43 per cent D. 49 per cent E. 53 per cent

13. On whose recommendations, the Government has banned use of the popular painkiller
Roficoxib?
A. WHO B. Ministry of Health, Government of India C. National Pharma Co Vigilance
Advisory Committee
D. AIIMS E. UNESCO

14. The Prime Minister of India recently promised that if necessary he will try to replace a
most controversial act by a new more humane law. He was referring to which of the following
legislations?
A. Armed Forces (Special Powers), Act
B. Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA)
C. Securitisation Act
D. Foreign Exchange Management Act E. None of these

15. A rare astronomical phenomenon took place on June 8, 2004 after a gap of 122 years. The
event was
A. total Sun eclipse B. transaction of Venus across the Sun C. Venus and Mercury came in
a straight line and very close to each other
D. Earth came in a straight line with Sun and Moon E. None of these

16. The 2010 Football World Cup will be organised in


A. India B. China C. Brazil D. Italy E. South Africa

17. The International Federation for which of the following games completed 100 years of its
existence in May 2004?
A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Tennis D. Football E. None of these
18. The much discussed VAT system is likely to be implemented from next financial year. How
much compensation will centre make to all the states aganist their losses during first year in
terms of the compensation package it has agreed?
A. 25 per cent B. 33 per cent C. 50 per cent D. 75 per cent E. 100 per cent

19. What is the minimum period for which retail domestic term deposits can be accepted?
A. 7 days B. 14 days C. 15 days D. One month E. Three months]

20. Maria Julia Mantilla Garcia who was crowned as the Miss World recently is a citizen of
A. Britain B. France C. Italy D. Peru E. USA

21. Who amongst the following is an elected member of the Parliament from Uttar Pradesh?
A. Mukesh Ambai B. Gautam Singhania C. Kumar Mangalam Birla D. Ratan
Tata E. None of these'

22. Which of the following committees/ agencies has recommended that new agency is
required to be set up for management of internal debt in the country?
A. Vijay Kelkar Committee B. Planning Commission of India C. Parliamentary
Committee affiliated to Ministry of Finance
D. Comptroller and Auditor General of India E. None of these

23. The entourage of Vlaimir Putin which took off from Delhi for Bangalore recently was to
make an emergency landing at which of the following airports recently?
A. Hyderabad B. Pune C. Nagpur D. Mumbai E. None of these

24. Which one of the following has set up Investments Panel for marketing of products
abroad?
A. Committee on Economic Affairs, Government of India
B. Ministry of Commerce, Government of India
C. Ministry of Foreign Trade, Government of India
D. Department of Economic Affairs, Government of India
E. None of these

25. The RBI has decided to relax the prudential norms for urban cooperative banks. Loans up
to Rs. 1 lakh or gold loans only if the payment is not made within how many days?
A. 90 days B. 120 days C. 180 days D. 210 days E. 360 days

26. Expand the term SACP


A. Special Agriculture Credit Project
B. Special Agriculture Credit Plan
C. Special Agriculture Credit Policy
D. Specific Agriculture Credit Plan
E. Special Area Credit Plan

27. Which of the following scheme of the Government of India was aimed to provide insurance
security to people living below poverty line?
A. Bhagyashree Bal Kalyan Yojana B. Janashree Bima Yojana C. Ashraya Bima Yojana
D. Group Life Insurance Scheme in Rural Areas E. None of these

28. Who amongst the following is the fastest to score 10,000 runs in test cricket?
A. Sachin Tendulkar B. Allan Border C. Sunil Gavaskar D. Brian Lara E. None of
these

29. Tata Motors is planning to launch their passenger cars in which of the following countries?
A. Bangladesh B. China C. Japan D. Britain E. None of these
30. Who amongst the following is adjudged as most Admired CEO of a company according to
INS Mode Opinion Poll?
A. Mukesh Ambani B. Kumar Mangalam Birla C. Gautam Singhania D. Yash
Birla E. Anil Ambani

31. Confession of a Lover is a book written by


A. Khushwant singh B. Anita Desai C. Mulk Raj Anand D. V. S. Naipaul E.
None of these

32. Which of the following countries has accepted a deal offered by Britain, France and
Germany that would curb it's plan ti build nuclear devices that could be used for the military
purposes?
A. Libya B. Pakistan C. India D. Syria E. Iran

33. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Gandhi Peace Prize given away recently?
A. Ketumile Masire B. Kofi Annan C. Yasser Arafat D. Medha Patkar E.
None of these

34. With which one of the following country, India has entered into Energy Security Pact?
A. France B. USA C. UK D. Singapore E. Russia

35. 'World Post office Day' is celebrated on which of the following days?
A. Sept. 9 B. Nov. 9 C. Oct. 4 D. Sept. 19 E. Nov. 19

36. What is the export target India has set during this fiscal year?
A. 9 per cent B. 11 per cent C. 13 per cent D. 16 per cent E. 20 per cent

37. As per the reports published in the newspapers in CMIE estimates that the growth of
Indian Economy would be around
A. 5 per cent B. 5.5 per cent C. 6.3 per cent D. 7.3 per cent E. 8 per cent

38. The messenger space craft launched by the NASA was launched to study which of the
following planets?
A. Mars B. Venus C. Saturn D. Jupiter E. Mercury

39. The Finance Ministry, Government of India has recently cleared the setting up of a special
fund for collecting the proceeds of the 2 per cent education cess. The amount of the cess is
likely to be to the tune of approximately how much in next five year's time?
A. Rs. 15,000 crore B. Rs. 20,000 crore C. Rs. 25,000 crore D. Rs. 28,000 crore
Rs. 33,000 crore

40. Which of the following is Indian Naval Hospital Ship which is connected by air, sea and
land?
A. Vasant B. Arjun C. Tusahar D. Asvini E. None of these

41. According to the Trade Related Intellectual Properly Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, India has
to
A. move from the process patent to product patent
B. move from the product patent to process patent
C. to maintain process patent
D. to maintain product patent
E. None of these
42. In a recent development to diffuse crisis in Lebanon the UN Security Council has urged
which of the following countries to withdraw troops from Lebanon?
A. Syria B. Iran C. Saudi Arabia D. Egypt E. None of these
43. Which one of the following countries has recently got its first woman minister?
A. Saudi Arabia B. Kuwait C. UAE D. Quatar E. Jordhan

44. From which one of the following dates VAT will be implemented?
A. Jan. 31, 2005 B. Jan. 1, 2005 C. March 31, 2005 D. April 1, 2005 E. None of
these

45. Which one of the following is poised to become the country's biggest investor abroad,
clinching a deal to develop Iran's gas bowl in the South parts at a cost of $ 3 billion in phases?
A. ONGC B. RIL C. ONGC Videsh D. IOC E. HPCL

46. Under National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme, what per cent cost is to be borne by
states?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 25 D. 50 E. 75

47. Shri Sushilkumar Shinde has been sworn-in as Governor of which of the following States?
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Maharashtra C. West Bengal D. Bihar E.
Rajasthan

48. In which of the following countries some 40,000 Indians protested over the security
policies of the President of that country as they want to remain neutral in the fight between
that country and guerillas?
A. Bolivia B. Brazil C. Nepal D. Argentina E. Colombia

49. For which one of the following reasons Sethu Samudram Project has been in news?
A. It is a project to link the Palk Strait with the Gulf of Mannar
B. It is a project to link the Palk Strait with Cape Comorin
C. It is a project to develop Chennai port
D. It is a project to develop Tuti Corin Port
E. None of these

50. In which one of the following rivers is 'Bhavani Island' located?


A. Godavari Rriver B. Krishna River C. Mandvi River D. Ganges River E.
Brahmaputra River

English Language - II

Directions Q. 1-10 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow. Certain words/ phrases while are printed in bold to help you to locate them while
answering some of the questions

One of the most critical demographic events in the world today is population ageing, i.e., the
process by which the share of older individuals in the total population starts becoming larger.
The ageing phenomenon, which has been initially experienced by developed countries, is now
steadily approaching the developing world. Projections show that over the next five decades,
world median age will continue to increase, resulting in enhanced old age dependency ratios in
all parts of the world. Thus, population ageing would be a major global public unprecedented
challenges for fiscal, monetary and overall macro-economic management.

There is a general consensus that ageing population reduces output growth, limits economic
welfare and lowers employment. One direct effect of population ageing is labour shortages
that are caused by declining birth rates and increasing life spans. This translates itself into a
higher old-age dependency ratio (i.e., proportion of population aged 15 to 64). Consequently,
with ageing, the economy's capacity to sustain the elderly population would decline. An
important consequence of this development is reflected in increasing fiscal pressures through
higher government spending on social security, health care and other welfare programmes for
the elderly accompanied by lower tax buoyancy consequent to falling proportions of the
productive labour force. Given the hard budget could mean lower government spending for
programmes that primarily benefit the young. With public pension schemes coming under
increasing pressure to raise contribution levels or cut the size of social safety benefits, the
issue of fiscal sustainability is one of the principal challenges facing policymakers world wide,
particularly in the context of intergenerational equity.
The experience of the US, Western Europe and other Organisation for Economic Cooperation
and Development (OECD) countries suggests that substantial demographic changes have
occured in the past few decades. Improvements in life standards, health care and nutrition
have increased life expectancy. As a result, the old-age dependency ration in OECD countries
is projected to reach nearly 50 per cent by 2050. This is going to pose a huge fiscal burden in
terms of social security, health care, pension and other related expenditures. In this regard,
an OECD exercise reveals a rise in old age pension spending, on an average, by about three to
four percentage points of GDP over the period till 2050. Expenditure relating to health and
long-term medical care is estimated to increase by more than three percentage point of GDP
over the same period. Overall, total age-related expenditures relative to GDP cold rise in
average by about seven percentage points over the period 2000-2050. In turn, this would
imply an average decline of six to seven percentage points in the primary balance to GDP ratio

1. The term " Population ageing" refers to


A. the portion of senior citizen in a developed country. B. the percentage of older people in
a developing nation
C. increase in the overall population of a developed country
D. enhancement in the proportion of older people in the population E. None of these

2. Which of the following is definitely true of population ageing?


A. It was almost simultaneously experienced by all the countries of the globe
B. The underdeveloped countries cannot experience the phenomenon.
C. Developing and developed countries experienced the phenomenon respectively in
succession
D. The challenges posed by population ageing had been witnessed in the past also.
E. None of these

3. On which of the following points related to population ageing, there is no dispute among
thinkers?
A. The direct effect of population ageing is abundance of labourers
B. Economic welfare will be enhanced due to availability to experienced people
C. Employment will be lowered significantly due to population ageing
D. Old age dependency ratio will be lowered significantly
E. None of these

4. What is most likely to happen if the dependency ratio is higher?


A. It would lower the economist's capacity to sustain the elderly population
B. Government spending on social security would significantly decline
C. Productive labour force will reduce
D. Due to increased longevity expenditure on health care will reduce
E. None of these

5. Which of the following factors is responsible for increase in longevity?


I. Substantial raise in living status II. Adequate and timely health care III. Nourishing
and healthy diet
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. All of these E. None of
these
6. Which of the following is most likely to happen by middle of the 21st century?
I. In countries like the US and Western Europe, the old-age dependency ratio is likely to touch
50 per cent
II. Six to seven points increase in primary balance to GDP ratio in OECD countries
III. Raise to the extent of three to four percentage points of GDP in age old pension spending
A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. All of these E. None of
these

Directions Q. 7-8: Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word
given in bold in the passage.

7. Span
A. width B. gap C. duration D. distance E. extent

8. Consensus
A. agreement B. consent C. harmony D. compromise E. interaction

Directions Q. 9-10: Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word given in
bold in the passage

9. Concern
A. reassurance B. comfort C. anxiety D. indifference E. neglect

10. Sustain
A. prolong B. uphold C. protract D. diminish E. quit

Directions Q. 11-20: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in
it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer.
If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

11. A. He grow up the way B. Many young children grow up C. Pampered, adored
D. and inwardly E. No error

12. A. He pulled his lips together B. close his eyes C. and I watched the first teardrop
D. fall down the side of his cheek E. No erro

13. A. One Sunday when his sons B. Rob and Jon was home C. they all gathered
D. in the living room E. No error

14. A. The audit committee of the board B. has been constituted C. by the board of
directors
D. as per instructions of the Reserve Bank of India E. No error

15.A Proper care was taken B. for the maintenance of accounting record C. as per
accordance with
D. the provisions of applicable E. No error

16. A. Know he was dying B. Morrie visited with Mitch C. his study every Tuesday
D. just as they used to back in college E. No erro

17. A. We are planning B. to set up a training college C. to train our marketing team
D. for effective marketing of our products E. No error

18. A. Nobody knew B. where I spend my day C. and nobody really


D. seemed to care E. No error
19. A. My father has B. always had a curious habit C. which I could never understand
D. of consulting astrologers E. No error

20. A. I stopped at Aurangabad B. from which I make excursions C. to the Ajanta


Caves
D. and the temple at Ellora E. No error

Directions. Q. 21-25 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.

I was born on Nov. 30, 1835 in the almost invisible village of Florida, Missouri. My parents
moved to Missouri in the early 'thirties'; I do not remember just when, for I was not born then
the cared nothing for such things. The village contained a hundred people and I increased the
population by one percent. It is more than the best men in history doing as much, not even
Shakespeare. But I did it for Florida

Recently, someone in Missouri has sent me a picture of the house I was born in. Heretofore I
have always stated that it was a palace but I shall be more careful now.

The village and two streets, each a couple of hundred yards long, covered with stiff black mud
in wet times, deep dust in dry. Most of the houses were of logs. There were none of bricks
and none of stones. There was a Church, which was a school house on week days. There were
two stores in the village. My uncle owned one of them. It was very small with a few rolls of
cloth; a few barrels of salt fish, coffee and sugar, brooms, axes and other tools here and
there; a lot of cheap hats and in pans strung from the walls. At the other end of the room,
there were bags of shot, a cheese or two, and a barrel or so of whisky. If a boy bought five or
ten cents' worth of anything he was entitled to a handful of sugar from the barrel; if a woman
bought a few yards of cloth; she was entitled to some thread; if a man bought something he
was at liberty to swallow as big a drink of whisky as he wanted.

My uncle was also a farmer and his place was in the country for miles for Florida. I have not
come across a better man than he was. I was his guest for two or three year after we
removed to Hannibal until I was eleven or twelve years old.

21.The author of the passage was born


A. in a busy village B. in a village in Mississippi C. in a village located near a river
D. in a village of Florida in Missouri. E. None of these

22. Since when the author decided not to describe his house as a palace?
A. The day he was born in the invisible village B. When he some one told him not to
bluff too much
C. When he saw a dream in which he found his house
D. When some one in Missouri had sent him a picture of the house E. None of these

23. The houses in Florida were made of


A. bricks B. stones C. marbles D. logs E. None of these

24. How was the church utilized on week days?


A. The church was as a theatre for conducting Cinema B. The villagers used it as a
vegetable market during week days
C. The church was used as a school on week days D. The log church was kept idle on
week days
E. None of these

25. Which of the following statement is true?


I. If a body bought five or ten cents worth of anything, he was entitled to some thread
II. If a woman bought a few yards of cloth, she was entitled to a handful of sugar
III. If a man bought something he was entitled to a mouth full of whisky
A. Only I B. Only II C. Only III D. I and II only E. I, II and III

Directions Q.26-30 : Rearrange the following six sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions that them:

I. Lastly, my thanks to Ramesh, for wanting to do this last thesis together.


II. And, as always, my appreciation to David, who often believes in me more than I do myself.
III. I would like to acknowledge the enormous help given to me in creating this book.
IV. For their patience, I wish to thank Joseph and John and multitude of my friends
V. Also special thanks to Thomas, my editor, for handling this project with the right touch
VI. Have you ever had a friend like Ramesh

26. Which of the following will be the first sentence after rearrangement?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V

27. Which of the following will be the second sentence after rearrangement?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V

28. Which of the following will be the third sentence after rearrangement?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V

29. Which of the following will be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?
A. II B. III C. IV D. V E. VI

30. Which of the following will be the sixth (last) sentence after rearrangement?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. VI

Directions Q. 31-40: In each of the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are given after the passage and against each, five words are
suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each
case

Human Resources Development Department has......31... heads of all Central Office


Departments to ....32....to the notice of the employees...33...to their departments....34....the
availability of professional counsellor engaged by our organisation on contract basis
to....35...counseling services to employees of Mumbai. HRDD has also sought the...36...of all
the employees to...37...the fears and unfounded notions, if any, about counseling so that
employees were...38...to come forward and avail of it. Counseling facility for employees
was...39...in Mumbai on Sept.21 with the help of a professional counsellor. The counsellor
is...40...on Mondays in the Main Building Mumbai.

31. A. reported B. indicated C. referred D. advised E. invited'

32. A. tell B. ask C. show D. give E. bring

33. A. affected B. absolved C. attached D. affixed E. surrounded

34. A. regarding B. about C. upon D. aforesaid E. consequent

35. A. decide B. determine C. provide D. takeover E. spread

36. A. availability B. presence C. support D. permission E. objection


37. A. dissolve B. disperse C. dispel D. displace E. differ

38. A. asked B. directed C. diverted D. encouraged E. offered

39. A. obstructed B. observed C. started D. laid E. resulted

40. A. ready B. available C. accessible D. attainable E. approachable

Directions Q. 41-45 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the
blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete

41. All letters received from Government should.................... be acknowledged


A. suddenly B. obviously C. immediately D. occasionally E. adequately

42. The note should be.............. to all the concerned departments for their consideration
A. regulated B. requested C. carried D. forwarded E. represented

43. The process should be completed as far as possible within a week, .......... which the
matter should be brought to notice of the officer concerned
A. following B. failing C. realising D. referring E. regarding

44. The Officers are ....................to regular transfers


A. free B. open C. subject D. available E. dictated

45. Mumbai Officer...................a meeting of senior officials to discuss the high incidence of
frauds
A. attended B. convened C. reported D. registered E. asked

Reasoning

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SOUTHERN each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

2. If the letters the word COMPARE are rearranged in such that first the vowels within the
word are rearranged alphabetically followed by the consonants arranged alphabetically, which
of following will be the fifth letter from the right end after the rearrangement?
A. O B. E. C. M. D. P E. None of these

3. If every alternate letter in the word SOLITARY starting from the first letter is replaced by
the previous letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the
next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter from the right
end after the substitution ?
A. B B. S C. Z D. K E. None of these

4. The letters in the word DOSE are changed in such a way that each vowel is replaced by the
previous letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is replaced by the next letter in the
English alphabet. How many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using
each letter only once in each word?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
5. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 53146827 each of which has as
many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order
within the number?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

6. In a certain code CLIMATE is written as BUFLJMD. How is ORDERLY written in that code?
A. SMZDESP B. ZMSDPSE C. ZMSDESP D. ZMSFESP E. None of these

7. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in number 84329517 are interchanged.
Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of
the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 9 E. None of these

8. In a certain code, TOLD is written as 5132 and DEAR is written as 2648. How is LATE
written in that code?
A. 3652 B. 3246 C. 3856 D. 3456 E. None of these

9. In a certain code BEAN is written as ABNE and SALE is written as LSEA. How
is NEWS written in that code?
A. WNES B. WNSE C. SNWE D. SNEW E. None of these

10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that
does not belong to that group?
A. Coal B. Aluminium C. Plastic D. Iron E. Wood

Directions Q. 11-13 : Following questions are based on the information given below:

I.. 'P * Q' means 'P is mother of Q' II. 'P / Q' means 'P is sister of Q'
III. 'P + Q' means 'P is brother of Q' IV. 'P - Q' means 'P is father of Q'

11. Which of the following means 'K is son of R'?


A. R * K B. R - K C. K + T * R D. R - J / K + M E. None of these

12. Which of the following means 'M is paternal uncle of T' ?


A. M + J - T B. M + J * T C. M / J - T D. M + J + T E. None of
these

13. Which of the following means 'D is cousin of W' ?


A. D / M + W B. D + M / W C. D * T + W D. D - T / N * W E. None of
these

Directions Q. 14-16 : Following questions are based on the five three digits numbers given
below:

518 725 849 387 634

14. If the positions of the first and the third digits in each of the numbers are inter changed,
which of the following will be the lowest number after the rearrangement?
A. 518 B. 725 C. 849 D. 387 E. 634

15. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each of the numbers are inter changed,
which of the following will be the third from the top, when they are arranged in descending
order after the rearrangement?
A. 518 B. 725 C. 849 D. 387 E. 634
16. If the positions of the second and the third digits in each number are inter changed, which
of the following will be the difference between the highest and the lowest number after the
rearrangement?
A. 506 B. 526 C. 416 D. 516 E. None of these

Directions Q. 17-20 : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:

P, Q, R, S, T, V and J are sitting around a circle facing at the center. S is not an immediate
neighbour of V. S is second to the right of T who is second to the right of Q. R is third to the
right of J and second to the left of P.

17. Who is the immediate right of Q?


A. S B. R C. V D. Data inadequate E. None of these

18. What is J's position with respect to P?


A. Third to the right B. Second to the left C. Second to the right D. Data
inadequate E. None of these

19. How many of them are between Q and S?


A. 2 only B. 3 only C. 4 only D. 2 or 3 only E. None of these

20. Who among the following is sitting between V and R?


A. Q B. J C. T D. S E. None of these

Directions Q. 21-27 : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:

M J % 4 T E I 9 # P A $ Q 3 8 N 5 U 7 W B @ D F 1 Z 6
H

21. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

22. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

23. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement, which of the following will be
the sixth to the right of the thirteenth from the right end?
A. B B. 9 C. D D. I E. None of these

24. If all the numbers are removed from the above arrangements, which of the following will
be the fourth to the left of the twentieth from the left end?
A. H B. 4 C. B D. H E. None of these

25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. I 9 E B. 7 W 5 C. 1 D D. Q A 3 E. E K 4

26. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the
above arrangement?

J 4 E I # A Q 8 5 7 @?
A. F 1 6 B. D Z C. F 6 D. F 1 Z E. None of these

27. Which of the following is exactly midway between K and W in the above arrangement ?
A. $ B. 3 C. 8 D. A E. None of these

Directions Q. 28-33 : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by
three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.

28. Statements :
All halls are tyres
Some tyres are wheels
All wheels are cars

Conclusions :
I. Some cars are wheels II. Some cars are tyres III. Some wheels are halls
A. None follow B. Only I follow C. Only I and II follow D. Only III follows E.
Only II and III follow

29. Statements :
Some blades are hammers
Some hammers are knives
Some knives are axes

Conclusions :
I Some axes are hammers II. Some knives are blades III. Some axes are blades
A. None follows B. Only I follows C. Only II follows D. Only III follows E. None of
these

30. Statements :
All dolls are windows
All bottles are windows
All cars are bottles

Conclusions :
I All cars are windows II Some cars are dolls III. Some windows are cars
A. Only I and II follow B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. All follow E.
None of these

31. Statements :
Some benches are beads
All beads are flowers
No tree is flower

Conclusions :
I. Some trees are benches II. Some trees are beads III. No tree is bead
A. Only I follows B. Only either I or II follows C. Only either I or II follows D. Only III
follows E. None of these

32. Statements :
All breads are tables
Some tables are brushes
All brushes are paints
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are breads II. Some brushes are breads III. Some paints are tables
A. None follows B. Only II follows C. Only III follows D. Only I and II follow E. Only II
and III follow

33. Statements :
Some pictures are frames
Some frames are idols
All idols are curtains

Conclusions :
I. Some curtains are pictures II. Some curtains are frames III. Some idols are frames
A. Only I and II follow B. Only II and III follow C. Only I and III follow D. All follow E.
None of these

Directions Q.34-38 : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in the
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
B. If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question
D. If the data given in both the Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question, and
E. If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

34. Who among M, N, P, T and R is the youngest?


I. N and T are younger than P. II M is older than R and P
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

35. How many children are there in the row?


I. Manoj is twelth from the left end and fourth to the left of Hari in that row
II. Hari is eigth from the right end of that
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

36. How is 'red' written in a code language?


I. 'red and blue' is written as 'ho po da' in that code language II. 'spread red carpet' is written
as 'na da ka' in that code language
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

37. Village R is towards which directions of village M?


I. Village M is to the West of Village T which is to the South of Village R
II. Village M is to the South of Village B which is to the West of village R
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

38. How many sisters does D have?


I. D's mother has four children II. K and T are brothers of E
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions Q. 39-43 : In each question below is given a statement followed by two


assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.
You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumption is implicit in the statement and given answer
A. if only Assumptions I is implicit B. if only Assumption II is implicit C. if either Assumption
I or Assumption II is implicit
D. if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit E. if both Assumption I and II are
implicit

39. Statements :
The Government has decided to provide monetary relief to the farmers in the drought his
areas

Assumptions :
I. The farmers of the affected areas may accept the Government relief
II. The Government machinery may be able to reach the affected farmers to provide relief
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

40. Statements :
All the students of a school were instructed by the Principal to reach school at least 15 minutes
before the stipulated time for the coming month

Assumptions :
I. The parents of the students of the school may protest against the Principal's instructions
II. The parents may request the Principal to withdraw the instruction
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

41. Statements :
Railway authority has started internet booking facility of long distance trains and also deliver
the tickets at the door-step through courier service at a little extra cost

Assumptions :
I. Many customers may now book their tickets through internet resulting into less crowd at
ticket booking offices.}
II. Most of the customers may still buy their railway tickets at the booking counters
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

42. Statements :
" If you have obtained 75% or more marks in X Std. examination, your admission to our
coaching class for XII Std. is guaranteed". - An advertisement

Assumptions :
I. Bright students do not generally opt for attending coaching classes
II. The coaching class has adequate capacity to accommodate all such students
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

43. Statements :
The municipal corporation has given permission for holding funfairs in the local football ground
during the holiday season

Assumptions:
I. The local residents may protest against the Corporation's decision
II. Many people may not participate in the unfair
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions Q. 44-48: Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which
can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference
separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity and
mark answer:
A. if the inference is definitely true i.e, it properly follows from the statement of facts given
B. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of facts given
C. if the data are inadequate, i.e, from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is
likely to be true or false.
D. if the interference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
E. if the inference is definitely false, i.e, it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it
contradicts the given facts

The jeweller-next-door may have reasons to worry, thanks to the organised retail and branded
goods hitting the right cord from Indian consumers. The recent changes in lifestyle goods
industry and the diamonds industry threatens to impact the family jeweller segment, which
currently controls 97% of India's fragmented jewellery retail market. A study suggests that as
India's jewellery market matures, it is expected to get more organised and the share of family
jeweller is expected to come down. The family jeweller segment is he largest segment of the
market and hence, most likely to be impacted by these changes. Family jewellers will have to
bring in new practices and range of designs and customisation of jewellery would differentiate
the players. Currently, organised retailers are enlarging the pie but the traditional players are
not feeling the impact yet

44. Share of business of the small time jewellers will reduce substantially in the near future
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

45. Family jewellers have never customised their designs in the past.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

46. Big retail companies have the capability to bring in more competition in the jewellery
market
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

47. Family jewellers at present control about two-third share of the entire jewellery market
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

48. There is a perceptible change in the choices of the customers in recent times with regard
to lifestyle products
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions Q.49-53 : Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These
statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both
the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements and mark answer:

A. if Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.


B. if Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect
C. if both the Statements I and II are independent causes
D. if both the Statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. if both the Statements I and II are effects of some common cause

49. I. The prices of petroleum products dropped marginally last week


II. The State Government reduced the tax on petroleum products last week
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

50. I. Majority of the citizens in the locality belong to higher income group.
II. The sales in the local super market are comparatively much higher than in other localities
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
51.I. A major fire destroyed part of the oil refinery owned by a private company.
II. Government has decided to increase the supply to retailers from the public sector refineries
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

52. I. The Government medical college has decided to increase the number of seats in
undergraduate course from the next academic session
II. The Government has decided to withdraw its grant from all the Government medical
colleges from the next academic session'
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

53. I. Every year large number of people spend their vacation in various tourist destinations
within the country
II. Every year large number of people spend their vacations in
various tourist destinations outside the country
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Subject Knowledge (IT)

1. Which layers of the OSI model are included in the lower layers?
A. Application, Session, Presentation B. Physical, Transport, Data Link C. Data Link, Physical, Network
D. Session, Data Link, Physical E. None of these

2. From smallest to largest, rank the following logical pieces of the database : data block, table space, extent, segment
A. table space, segment, extent, data block B. data block, segment, extent, table space
C. Segment, extent, data block, table space D. data block, extent, segment, table space E. None of these

3. Where are cookies stored?


A. On the server B. In web.xml C. On the client D. In HTML E. None of these

4. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?


A. Through a power cable B. From an external power supply C. Directly from the computer's power supply
D. Through the USB cable E. None of these
5. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?
A. The type of drivers that come with the mouse B. The length of the mouse cord C. The type of connector the
mouse is equipped with
D. The number of buttons the mouse has E. None of these

6. Programme that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are
called..................
A. Metasearch engines B. Webcrawlers C. Spiders D. Hits E. None of these

7. You are planning on using a single network that support 208 users. Which IP address class would you choose to be
the most effect?
A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D E. Class E

8. Which of the following options is not a JSP implicit object?


A. Out B. In C. Response D. Page E. None of these

9. In Oracle, which statement is true about segments?


A. Each table has its own segment B. A segment is created every time an extent is created, extended, or altered
C. An index segment is created every time a table is created D. A segment is deleted whenever a table is truncated
E. None of these
10. All of the following are basic principles of networks, except ...............
A. each computer must have a network card B. there must be communications media connecting the network
hardware devices
C. there must be at least one connecting device D. each computer must have software that supports the movement of
information
E. None of these

11. Which of the following could be a legitimate Media Access Control address?
A. 192.168.254.3 B. 3FA2.4756.F9A3 C. A5514 D. C1.3A.77.5B E. None of these

12. The term, hypertext means .................


A. Non-sequential writing B. Hypermedia C. Blinking text D. Text with heavy formatting E. None of these

13. You receive an e-mail message that forms you that a terrible virus has been unleashed on the Internet and that you
should warn all the people in your Address Book. Which of the following have you most likely encountered?
A. A virus hoax B. A filter C. A spam D. A virus E. A worm

14. If 20 people need to communicate using symmetric-key cryptography, .................symmetric keys are needed
A. 190 B. 200 C. 20 D. 19 E. 210

15. What should you do as soon as you have successfully created the data base and the data dictionary?
A. Open the data base for users to start adding data B. Start adding a bunch of table space to allow users to use
C. Leave it running for a few days to make sure that nothing bad is going to happen
D. Shut it down and take a cold back up E. None of these

16. Which of the following is the default mask of a class A IP address?


A. 255.0.0.255 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.0.0.0 D. 255.255.255.0 E. None of these

17. What is Internet 2?


A. A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks
B. A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access
C. A new standard for Internet browsers
D. An association to develop advanced Internet technology
E. None of these

18. Which of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via at JSP action?
A. Servlet Request B. Http Servlet Request C. Servlet Response D. Http Servlet Response E. None of these

19. If you wanted to locate the hardware address to a local device, which protocol would you use?
A. ARP B. RARP C. ICMP D. PING E. PONG

20. In oracle, which table space is the minimum required when creating a new data base?
A. Undo table space B. Temporary table space C. System table space D. Users table space E. None of these

21. Data space red sign is not terribly difficult if the .........................
A. data base is structured B. data base is well- designed C. data space has no data D. data base is relatively
small
E. data base is relatively large

22. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system's hard ware?
A. Bootstrap memory B. Volatile memory C. External mass memory D. Static memory E. Random access
memory

23. Which of the following is not true about two-tier client-server data base architecture?
A. SQL statements are processed on the server B. SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients
C. Business logic is mostly processed on clients D. Business logic may be processed on the server E. None of these
24. The process by which the structure of the data base is modified to eliminate hidden dependencies and repeating
groups is .............
A. enforcing data integrity B. enforcing referential integrity C. indexing D. normalization E. None of these

25. Which of the following functions is not performed by TCP?


A. Flow control B. Sequencing C. Error checking D. Sub netting E. None of these

26. In oracle, who owns the data dictionary?


A. Oracle B. SYS C. The DBA D. SYSTEM E. None of these

27. The reason the data outputs of most ROM ICs are tri-state outputs is to .........
A. allow for three separate data input lines B. allow the bi-directional flow of data between the bus lines and the
ROM registers
C. permit the connection of many ROM chips to a common data bus D. isolate the registers from the data bus during
read operations
E. None of these

28. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first......................


A. drop the primary key B. drop the table C. drop the foreign key constraint D. All of these E. None of
these

29. In the straight CGI approach to data-base connectivity on the Internet.....................


A. the external program is located between the client and the web server
B. the external program is located between the data base server and the data base
C. the external program is located between the web server and the data base server
D. there is no external program

30. What is the name of protocol used to eliminate loops?


A. Switching B. ISL C. Frame Tagging D. Spanning Tree Protocol E. Scanning

31. The effect of the ROLLBACK command in a transaction is the following.............................


A. undo all changes to the data base resulting from the execution of the transaction
B. undo the effects of the last UPDATE command
C. restore the content of the data base to its state at the end of the previous day
D. make sure that all changes to the data base are in effect
E. None of these

32. In Oracle, what is the default number of transactions that MAXTRANS is set to if not specified?
A. 512 B. 10 C. 40 D. 1 E. 255

33. To which pin on the RAM chip does the address decoder connect in order to signal which memory chip is being
accessed?
A. The address input B. The output enable C. The chip enable D. The data input E. The data output

34. Which of the following switching methods provides the greatest frame through out?
A. Store-and-forward switching B. Frame-tag switching C. Cut-through switching D. ISL switching
E. Store-and-backward switching

35. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
A. Cipher B. Warded C. Device D. Tumbler. E. Typelock

36. A gateway is .............................


A. a device that enables users to send information simultaneously over a network without slowing down transmission
B. an electronic device that connects several computing devices to a network
C. a point in one network that is an entrance point to another network
D. a device that links two or more segments of a network and helps direct traffic
E. None of these
37. Which of the following is considered a vulnerability of SNMP?
A. Clear text community strings B. Its use of TCP C. The fact that it is on by default in Windows 2000 server
D. The fact that it is on by default in Windows XP Professional E. None of these

38. Network routing information distributed among routers is stored in which of the following?
A. Flash memory B. Route table C. Metric table D. NVRAM E. Router memory

39. If the destination did not receive a segment, how will the TCP host know to resend the information?
A. The ACK received will not include the segment number that was not received
B. The ACK received will include the segment number that was not received
C. The sending host will send a PACK to verify segment receipt
D. The destination host will send a YACK message back to the sending host
E. None of these

40. What are the effects of mixing RAM modules with different speed ratings?
A. The system runs at the speed of the slowest RAM stick
B. The system runs normally C. The system runs at the speed of the memory bus
D. The system may not run, or it crashes periodically E. None of these

41. What kind of scheme is the HTTP protocol?


A. Get/ put B. Store/ forward C. Queuing D. Search/ return E. Request/ response'

42. What type of error does a memory parity error create?


A. A fatal exception error B. An NMI error C. A corrupt windows operating system file
D. A GPF error E. A GPA error

43. Which is not a part of the Oracle data base base block?
A. Header B. Row directory C. Data D. Freelists E. None of these

44. Which of the following cannot be used as the scope when using a Java Bean with JSP?
A. Page B. Request C. Session D. Application E. Response

45. Which of the following is used for integrity?


A. DES B. Diffie-Hellman C. SED D. AES E. MD5

46. What is ISL used for?


A. To allow an Ethernet interface to understand frame tags
B. To make two Ethernet interfaces appear as one
C. To connect an Ethernet switch with a high-speed core switch such as ATM
D. To allow simultaneous routing and switching
E. None of these

47. Which of the following describes programs that can run independently, travel from system and disrupt computer
communications?
A. Trojans B. Viruses C. Idlers D. Droppers E. Worms

48. You need to configure a switch from a remote subnet. Which of the following must be configured on the switch?
A. Console port B. IP C. Hostname D. SNMP E. Default gateway

49. In Oracle, which is more appropriate to store a small list of values in a single column in each row in your address
table?
A. ORACARRAY B. Nested table C. Index organised table D. Index E. VARRAY

50. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What
might you do to attempt to locate that information?
A. Visit Google's cached page to view the older copy
B. Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information
C. Visit a partner site of the organisation to see if it is there
D. Use the way back machine
E. None of these

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