2 Dr. V. V.

Acharya

Theorem 3 If y = sin(ax + b), then yn = an sin(ax + b + n 2 ).

Proof : True for n = 1 since

Chapter 1 y1 = a cos(ax + b) = a sin(ax + b + ).
2
Assume the result for n and differentiate yn . Then
Successive Differentiation
yn+1 = an+1 cos(ax + b + n ) = an+1 sin(ax + b + + ).
2 2 2
If y = f (x), we denote the nth derivative of f (x) as f (n) (x) or yn (x) Hence the result holds for n + 1 and the induction is complete.
dn y
or Dn f (x) or . Here we collect formulas for the nth derivative
dxn In a similar way, we can prove the following theorem.
in some simple cases. These can be proved by induction on n.
Theorem 1 Let y = (ax + b)m , where m is a real number. Then Theorem 4 If y = cos(ax + b), then yn = an cos(ax + b + n 2 ).

yn = m(m 1) (m n + 1)an (ax + b)mn . (1) Theorem 5If y = eax sin(bx + c), then yn = rn eax sin(bx + c + n),
where r = a2 + b2 and = tan1 (b/a).
Corollary 1 If m is a positive integer, then Proof : y1 = aeax sin(bx ax
+ c) + e cos(bx + c). Put a = r cos and
2 2
b = r sin so that r = + a + b and is given by cos = a/r, sin =
m! b/r, < . Then
yn = Dn (ax + b)m = an (ax + b)mn , (2)
(m n)!
y1 = reax sin(bx + c + ).
if n m. Also yn = 0 if n > m, since ym is a constant.
Hence the result holds for n = 1. Differentiating yn it is easy to see that
n n
1 (1) n!a
Corollary 2 If y = , then yn = . yn+1 = rn eax sin(bx + c + n + ).
ax + b (ax + b)n+1
Proof : Follows on putting m = 1 in (1). Hence the result holds for n + 1 and the induction is complete.

(1)n1 (n 1)!an In a similar way, we can prove the following theorem.

Corollary 3 If y = log(ax + b), then yn = .
(ax + b)n
Theorem 6If y = eax cos(bx + c), then yn = rn eax cos(bx + c + n),
where r = a2 + b2 and = tan1 (b/a).
Proof : Here y1 = a/(ax + b). Differentiate n 1 times i.e. apply (2)
with n 1 in place of n. Then Theorem 7 If y = af (x) + bg(x) where a, b are constants and f, g are
n times differentiable functions, then yn = af (n) (x) + bg (n) (x).
(1)n1 (n 1)!an1
yn = a ,
(ax + b)n Theorem 8 (Leibnitz) If y = uv where u = f (x), v = g(x) are func-
tions which are n times derivable at x, then at x,
so that we get the required result.    
n n
yn = un v + un1 v1 +
Theorem 2 If y = eax , then yn = an eax . 0 1
     
n n n
Corollary 4 If y = ax , then yn = ax (log a)n . + unr+1 vr1 + unr vr + uvn . (3)
r1 r n

1
FY Calculus 3 4 Dr. V. V. Acharya

Proof : We prove the formula by induction on n. The result is true for (ii) Here we first convert the product into a sum:
n = 1 since
1 1
y = sin 2x cos 3x = [sin 5x + sin(x)] = [sin 5x sin x].
   
1 1
y1 = u1 v + uv1 = u1 v + uv1 . 2 2
0 1
Now assume the result for n and differentiate (12). Then
dn 1 1 dn dn
 
n
 
n Hence yn = [sin 5x sin x] = [ sin 5x sin x]
yn+1 = un+1 v + un v1 + un v1 + un1 v2 + dxn 2 2 dxn dxn
1 1 1 n
= [5 sin 5(x + n/2) sin(x + n/2)].
2
   
n n
+ unr+2 vr1 + + unr+1 vr
r1 r1
    2) Find yn if y = 1/(x2 + a2 ).
n n
+ unr+1 vr + unr+1 vr+1 + + u1 vn + uvn+1 Solution : We have
r r
   
n n 1 1 h 1 1 i
= un+1 v + [ + ]un v1 + y= = .
0 1 (x ai)(x + ai) 2ai x ai x + ai
   
n n
+[ + ]unr+1 vr + + uvn+1 (1)n n! h 1 1 i
r1 r Hence yn = (i)
      2ai (x ai)n+1 (x + ai)n+1
n+1 n+1 n+1
= un+1 v+ + un+1r vr + + uvn+1 , Now, to convert the result into real form, put x = r cos , a = r sin .
0 r n+1
Then
because      
n n n+1
+ = . (x ai)n+1 = rn+1 (cos i sin )n+1
r r1 r
= rn+1 (cos(n + 1) i sin(n + 1)),
Hence the result holds for n + 1 and the induction is complete.
and similarly,
Examples : 1) Find the nth derivative of the function (x + ai)n+1 = rn+1 cos(n + 1) + i sin(n + 1)),
1
(i) y = 2 (ii) y = sin 2x cos 3x.
x 4x + 3 by DeMoivres theorem. Hence (i) becomes after substitution,
Solution : (i) Here we first express the function in partial fractions:
(1)n n!
1 1 1h 1 1 i yn = 2i sin(n + 1).
y= 2 = = . 2airn+1
x 4x + 3 (x 1)(x 3) 2 x3 x1
Hence, as r = a/ sin(n + 1), we get
Hence
dn 1 h 1 1 i (1)n n!
yn = yn = sinn+1 sin(n + 1), where tan = a/x.
dxn 2 x 3 x 1 an+2
1 h dn 1 dn 1 i
= n
n 3) Find yn if y = x2 ex cos x.
2 dx x 3 dx x 1
1 h (1)n n! (1)n n! i Solution : We apply Leibnitzs theorem to y = uv where u = ex cos x
= and v = x2 . Note that u, v have been chosen in such a way that formulas
2 (x 3)n+1 (x 1)n+1
FY Calculus 5 6 Dr. V. V. Acharya

for un , vn are already known. Moreover, in this case, v = x2 is a polyno- Hence differentiating n times using Leibnitzs theorem, we get
mial of degree 2 and so the derivatives of v of order 3 are identically n(n 1)
zero. Hence (x2 1)yn+2 + nyn+1 (2x) + yn (2) 2(n 1)xyn+1
2
n(n 1) 2n(n 1)yn (1) 2nyn = 0
yn = un x2 + nun1 (2x) + un2 (2),
2 or (x2 1)yn+2 + 2xyn+1 n(n + 1)yn = 0.
and so by (10), Exercise
yn = rn ex cos(x + n)x2 + nrn1 ex cos(x + (n 1)) 1. Find the nth derivative of the function :
+ n(n 1)rn2 ex cos(x + (n 2)), 2x + 1 x3
(i) 2 (ii) .
x +x1 (x 3)(x + 1)

where r = 2 and tan = 1/2. dn  1  n! h 1 1 i
(iii) = + .
4) Differentiate n times the following equation, with usual notation : dxn a2 x2 2a (a x)n+1 (a + x)n+1
(iv) If y = sin2 x sin 2x, then
(1 x2 )y2 xy1 + m2 y = 0. 1h n n i
yn = 2n+1 sin(2x + 4n1 sin(4x + .
4 2 2
ax
Solution : Differentiate n times the given equation. We get (v) If y = e cos x sin x, then
1
dn 2 dn dn yn = eax (a2 + 4)n/2 sin(2x + n tan1 (2/a)).
[(1 x )y 2 ] (xy 1 ) + (m2 y) = 0 2
dxn dxn dxn
2. If y = log(x + 1 + x2 ), prove that
and hence by Leibnitzs theorem, we get (i) (1 + x2 )y2 + xy1 = 0.
n(n 1) (ii) (1 + x2 )yn+2 + (2n + 1)xyn+1 + n2 yn = 0.
(1 x2 )yn+2 + nyn+1 (2x) + yn (2)
2
3. If y = ea sin x,
1
prove that
xyn+1 nyn (1) + m2 yn = 0,
(1 x )yn+2 (2n + 1)xyn+1 (n2 a2 )yn = 0.
2
or (1 x2 )yn+2 (2n + 1)xyn+1 (n2 m2 )yn = 0.
4. If y = sin mx + cos mx, prove that yn = mn (1 + (1)n sin 2mx)1/2 .
th
5) The n derivative of a composite function is usually difficult to find.
5. If y = ea tan x,
1

One method is to obtain the differential equation satisfied by the func- prove that
tion and then applying Leibnitzs theorem we get a recursive relation be- (1 + x2 )yn+2 + (2nx + 2x 1)yn+1 + n(n + 1)yn = 0.
tween the derivatives. Foe example, consider the function y = (x2 1)n .
Differentiating once we get 6. If y = sin1 x, prove that (1 x2 )yn+2 (2n + 1)xyn+1 n2 yn = 0.
7. If y = (x2 1)n , prove that (x2 1)yn+2 + 2xyn+1 n(n+ 1)yn = 0.
y1 = n(x2 1)n1 (2x), and so (x2 1)y1 = 2nxy.
8. If y = ex xn , prove that xy2 (n 1 x)y1 + y = 0. Hence, prove
Differentiating again we get that xyn+2 + (x + 1)yn+1 + (n + 1)yn = 0.

(x2 1)y2 + 2xy1 2ny 2nxy1 = 0 9. If y = tan1 x, prove that (1 + x2 )y2 + 2xy1 = 0. Hence, prove that
(1 + x2 )yn+2 + 2(n + 1)xyn+1 + n(n + 1)yn = 0.
or (x2 1)y2 2(n 1)xy1 2ny = 0.