.. - 1. Model Q Paper (I and II) Number-01

*MUDRA* Model Question Paper for NET-LS & JRF of UGC-CSIR in Life Sciences
PAPER-I
General Science & Life Sciences
Time: 2:15Hrs. Max. Marks: 200
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Note: 1. Each Question carry 2 marks

2. For every wrong question 0.25% (1/2 mark) deducted from obtained marks
3. Section A and Section B questions mark on same Answer sheet
4. Use HB pencil only
5. From Section A attempt 25 Q out of 40 and from Section B attempt 75 out of 100
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Section A (General Science)
1. A fuse wire is characterized by

a) High resistance and high melting point
b) Low resistance and high melting point
c) High resistance and low melting point
d) Low resistance and low melting point
2. A shooting star is
a) A small star moving away from the earth at a very high speed
b) A fast moving satellite that shines by sunlight
c) A heavenly object that shines because it is heated by the friction of the earths
atmosphere as it falls at a great speed
d) A star of an extremely high density
3. By what process is heat transmitted from the filament of an evacuated electric bulb to the glass?
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) Heat cannot be transmitted through a vacuum
4. The green wavelength of sunlight is absorbed by:

a) Xanthophylls b) Phycocyanin
c) Chlorophyll b d) Phcoerythrin
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(Model Question Paper No. 1) www.mudralifesciences.com
5. If the length of a heater coil is reduced by 10 percent of its original length, then the power consumed by
the heater will
a) Increase over 10% b) Decreased by 10%
c) Increase by 0.5% d) Decreased by 0.5%
6. One thousand microns is equal to

a) 10 5 m b) 10 3 m
c) 10 4 m d) 10 2 m
7. The Leaning Tower of Pisa does not fall because

a) It is tapered at the top
b) It covers a large base area
c) Its centre of gravity remains at the lowest position
d) The vertical line through the centre of gravity of the tower falls within its base.
8. The difference between explosion and combustion is that

a) Combustion is a chemical reaction while an explosion is caused by physical factors
b) Combustion takes place only in air while an explosion can occur even without air
c) There is rapid increase of pressure in confined spaces in case of an explosion, but no
such change occurs during combustion
d) Combustion is accompanied by loss of heat while an explosion is accompanied by
absorption of heat
9. The total output of photosynthesis including the organic matter used up in respiration during the period of
measurement is called:
a) Net primary productivity b) Gross primary productivity
c) Net community productivity d) Secondary productivity
10. Haemoglobin is
a) The coloring matter of leaves of plants
b) The coloring matter of blood
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c) A compound present in milk

d) A compound that transmits signals to the brain
11. In solution of HF and acetic acid,

a) CH3COOH behaves as a base b) CH3COOH remains unionized
c) HF remains unionized d) HF behaves as a base
12. The value of the universal gravitational constant, G is

a) 6.67 1011 Nm2/kg2 b) 6.67 10+9Nm2/kg2
c) 6.67 10 9 Nm2/kg2 d) 6.67 10+11 Nm2/kg2
13. When a pencil is partly immersed in water in a beaker and held in a slanting position, the immersed
portion appears
a) Bent towards the bottom
b) Bent towards the water surface
c) Bent in a zigzag manner
d) As if it was not immersed
14. Respiration occurs in

a) Colourless cells only b) Green cells only
c) Somatic cells only d) All the living cells
15. A codon
a) Is a sequence of three bases in a row
b) Signals that three particular amino acids be incorporated into a growing peptide
c) Helps position in the new amino acids correctly by hydrogen bonding with an
anticodon of tRNA
d) May have more than one meaning depending upon its location in the mRNA polymer
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16. Which of the following are false statements?

I) Ozone is an allotropic form of oxygen.
II) Phosphorus is present in DNA and RNA
III) Halogens occur in free state in nature.
IV) The compounds of chlorine are used as cooling agents
a) I, IV b) II, IV
c) III, IV d) I, II
17. A cube of wood supporting a block of mass 200 grains just floats in water. When the block is removed,
the cube rises by 2 cm. What is the size of the cube?
a) 6 cm b) 8 cm
c) 10 cm d) 12 cm
18. The incorrect gas is a mixture of
a) Silk Polyamide b) Butane and propane
c) Methane and ethylene d) Carbon dioxide and oxygen
19. RuBisCO is made up of:

a) 14 sub units b) 15 sub unit
c) 16 sub units d) 18 sub unit
20. In which of the following areas is salinity likely to be the highest

a) Indian Ocean b) Red Sea
c) North Pacific d) North Atlantic
21. A veena player compares with a tuning fork the fundamental frequency generated by one of the strings
of the veena and hears 4 beats per sec. He then tightens the string a bit and hears only 3 beats per second.
Then
a) The string has a higher frequency than the tuning fork and must be tightened more
b) The string has a lower frequency than the tuning fork and must be tightened more to
make the frequencies equal
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c) The string has a lower frequency and its tension has to be relaxed to make the
frequencies equal
d) The string has a higher frequency than the fork and has to be loosened for equality
with fork
22. A. It is advantageous to use microbial enzymes in organic synthesis than mammalian enzymes.
R. Microorganisms can be made available. If needed, in much higher amounts than the animals.
a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are incorrect
c) A is correct and R is incorrect
d) Both A and R are correct and R is not the explanation of A
23. The term nife refers to

a) Earthquakes b) Core of the earth
c) Crust of the earth d) Ocean beds
24. TATA box is found in:

a) Promoter region of gene rich in A, T bases
b) Promoter region of gene rich in G.C. bases
c) Operator region of gene rich in A, T, bases
d) Operator region of gene rich in G.C. bases
25. Consider List I (chemical compound) and List II (function) and match them
List I List II
a) Chloromycetin 1. Vitamin
b) Serpasil 2. Antibioctic
c) Disparlure 3. Trangquilizer
d) Ascorbic acid 4. Agrochemical
The correct answer code is:
a) a-1; b-3; c-2; d-4 b) a-4; b-3; c-2; d-1
c) a-2; c-3; c-4; d-1 d) a-4; b-2; c-3; d-1
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26. The species that will not give positive test for CN ions is
a) NaCN b) Ca(CN)2
c) CH3CN d) [Fe(H2O)4 Cl2]CN
27. 19 girls and 9 boys are asked to stand in a circle. In an such arrangement, it is always the case that there
are:
(a) 2 boys standing next to each other

(b) 2 girls standing next to each other
(c) 3 boys standing next to each other
(d) 4 girls standing next to each other
28. Metamorphic rocks originate from
a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Both igneous and sedimentary rocks
d) None of these
29. Which of the following is not associated with nucleus?

(a) Centrosome (b) Nucleoli
(c) Karyolymph (d) Chromatid
30. What would be the output of following program
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c)4 (d) 6
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31. The specificity of a protein depends upon

(a) quantity in which it is present in the system
(b) linear sequence of amino acids molecules
(c) other proteins present in the system
(d) time of its synthesis
32. The female of a species of insects lays about 300 eggs in June-July. Half of them hatch successfully
(equal proportion of males and females) by October. Forty percent, of the larvae form pupae by
January, and adults emerge from one third of the pupae by March. Mating takes place during May, and
20% of the adult insects manage to mate successfully. Thereafter, all the adults die after the females
have laid eggs in June-July. There are no sex specific differences in survival, mortality, successful
completion of developmental stages and mating success. If 10 fertilized females are released in a very
large enclosure in June-July 9,001 how many eggs are likely to b laid during June-July 2005?
(a) 48000 (b) 6000
(c) 36000 (d) 24000
33. On a PC, how much memory is available to application software?

a) 1024 Kilobytes b) 760 Kilobytes
c) 640 Kilobytes d) 560 Kilobytes
34. The CPU chip used in the computer is partially made out of:
a) Copper b) Iron
c) Gold and silver d) Silica
35. The binary equivalent of the Hexadecimal number 7BD is

a) 11110111101 b) 111010111101
c) 101110111101 d) All of the above
36. What is the name of the earliest calculating machine which was based on concepts found in modern
computers but was unfortunately never built?
a) Babbages Difference Engine b) Pascals Adder
c) Leibnitzs Multiplier d) Differential Analyser
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37. Standing state is used to show

a) The amount of inorganic substances present in on ecosystem
b) The amount of organic substances present in an ecosystem
c) The Biomass present in an ecosystem
d) The amount of dead material present in an ecosystem
38. White blood cell have major function as-

a) defensive role b) respiration
c) tumor suppressor d) phagocytosis of cell debris
39. Bug in computer terminology means

a) logical error
b) Syntax error
c) Organism effecting computer
d) high level computer
40. Which state has recently registered an increase in green cover?

a) Madhya Pradesh b) Uttaranchal
c) Uttar Pradesh d) Delhi
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Section B (Life Sciences)
1. Which type of forest cover the maximum area in our country?

a) Tropical rain forest b) Tropical moist deciduous forest
c) Tropical dry deciduous forest d) Tropical dry evergreen forest
2. Which of the following is true for non-competitive inhibition?

(a) E+1=E1 (b) ES + 1 = ESI
(c) E+I=ET,ES+I=ESI (d) None of these
3. Alley Cropping is
a) Cultivation between rows of trees and shrubs
b) Cultivation on terraces in hilly areas
c) Growing crops every alternate year
d) Rearing of livestock in cropland
4. Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product of human placenta?

(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin (b) Prolactin
(c) Estrogen (d) Progesterone
5. Bacterial chromosomes is circular and there are no ends to rotate. Which enzymes are involved in making
free ends and to rotate them?
(a) Topoisomerase I (b) Topoisomerase II
(c) Topoisomerase I and II (d) None of these.
6. DNA repair is carried out by which of the polymerases in eukaryotes?

(a) and (b) and
(c) and (d) and .
7. Humic substances are widely present in aquatic environment, they

a) Are formed due to acids present in rain water
b) Are anthropogenic compounds as they form due to human activity
c) Are broad class of naturally occurring polymers
d) Form during degradation of animal proteins
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8. The world conservation was prepared by

a) UNEP b) UNEP and WWF
c) IUCN, UNEP and WWF d) IUCN and WWF
9. DNA fingerprinting refers to

(a) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
(b) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
(c) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
(d) Techniques used for identification of fingerprints of individual
10. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t).
If a plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant that is rrtt,
(a) 25% will be tall with red fruit
(b) 50% will be tall with red fruit
(c) 75% will be tall with red fruit
(d) All the offspring will be tall with red fruit
11. Which one of the following genes is defective in patients suffering from severe combined
immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)?
(a) Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductor (CFTR)
(b) Adenosinedeaminase
(c) Ribonucleotide reductase
(d) a2-microglobulm
12. Dry seeds endure higher temperature than germinating seeds as

(a) Hydration is essential for making enzymes sensitive to temperature
(b) Dry seeds have hard covering
(c) Dry seeds have more reserve foods
(d) Seedlings are tender.
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13. Mitochondria and chloroplast carry out oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation,
respectively, by means of
(a) Conformational coupling (b) Chemiosmotic coupling

(c) High energy intermediate coupling (d) Sliding filaments
14. Two populations of land snails have been effectively isolated from each other for a long period.
According to the biological species concept, which of the following would demonstrate that the two
populations have become separate species?
(a) The two populations behave differently when subjected to same dose of pesticides
(b) Sterile hybrids are produced when member of the two populations are experimentally mated
(c) DNA nucleotide sequence are different between two populations
(d) The two populations have different electrophoretic pattern of proteins
15. Turnover number of an enzyme is dependent upon

(a) Size of an enzyme
(b) Active sites
(c) Molecular weight of an enzyme
(d) Concentration of substrate.
16. Hydrolysis of starch is more efficiently catalysed by

(a) Sulphuric acid (b) Diastase
(c) Both (d) None of these
17. Duodenum has characteristic Brunners gland which secrete two hormones called
(a) Kinase, estrogen
(b) Secretin, cholecystokinin
(c) Prolactin, parathormone
(d) Estradiol, progesterone
18. A pure or nearly pure water contains a BOD of approximately

a) 30 mg/L b) 20 30 mg/L
c) 0 3 mg/L d) 10 12 mg/L
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19. Cholera is caused by

a) Escherichia coli b) Salmonella choleri
c) Vibrio choleri d) Escherichia choleri
20. According to World Health Organisation (WHO), the permissible limit for coliforms in drinking water is
a) 100/L b) 0/L
c) 1/L d) 10/L
21. Which of the following is an advantage of confocal microscopy over conventional fluorescence
microscopy?
a) The interaction of a laser beam with the cell surface allows the imaging of individual
macromolecules.
b) The use of electrons instead of light to image the specimen results in greatly increased
resolving power.
c) Optical sections can be taken at different depths in a specimen.
d) Only scattered light enters the microscope lens, making the object appear illuminated
against a dark background.
22. Which of the following properties is common to all cytoskeletal motor proteins (such as kinesins,
dyneins, and myosis)?
a) An actin-binding domain
b) Two globular-head domains
c) The ability to bind to biological membranes
d) ATPase activity
23. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12 hours night period cycles and it flowered while in
the other set night phase was interrupted by flash of light and it did not produce flower. Under which
one of the following categories will you place this plant?
(a) Long day
(b) Darkness neutral
(c) Day neutral
(d) Short day
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24. ELISA is used to detect viruses, where

(a) DNA-probes are required
(b) Southern blotting is done
(c) Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent
(d) Catalase is the key reagent
25. The term zygotic induction refers to

(a) Embryogenesis of the fertilized egg
(b) Process of fertilization
(c) Prophage induction in a F ~ (F minus) recipient bacteria after Hfr strain mediated conjugation
(d) Prophage entering the lytic cycle after UV irradiation of a lysogen
26. Which of the following is not caused by virus?

a) Ranikhet (New Castle) disease b) Blue tongue
c) Babesiosis d) Mareks disease
27. What would be the effect of addition of 2,4 D on the production of berberine by cell culture of
Thalictrum minus.
a) To stimulate growth and thereby urease secondary metabolite production
b) Stimulate dedifferentiation and thereby decrease secondary metabolite production
c) Stimulate proliferation and reduce secondary metabolite production
d) None of the above
28. Osmotrophs are also known as

a) Phagotrophs b) Saprotrophs
c) Chemotrophs d) Hexicology
29. Viviparous germination of seeds occurs

a) When the fruit falls on the ground
b) While the fruit is attached to the mother plant
c) When the seed is released from the fruit
d) Only when they receive proper conditions in soil
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30. Which of the following techniques is NOT ideal for immobilizing cell free enzymes?
a) Physical entrapment by encapsulation
b) Covalent chemical bonding to surface carriers
c) Physical bonding by flocculation
d) Covalent chemical bonding by cross linking the precipitate
31. The full length coding sequence of an eukaryotic gene was expressed in bacteria and the protein was
purified. However, in the functional assay, no activity was detected for the purified protein. The reason
could be
a) The host bacteria produced an enzyme that inhibited the activity of the expressed
eukaryotic protein
b) The purified protein was contaminated with bacteria
c) The host bacteria did not produce the essential co factors
d) No post translational modification on the protein expressed in bacteria
32. The mobility of DNA in agarose gel electrophoresis is solely based on its
a) Charge b) Conformation
c) Size d) None of the above
33. Which of the following fluorescent probes is used to monitor the progress of amplification in Real time
PCR?
a) SYBR green b) Rhodamine
c) FITC d) Cyan blue
34. A colour blind daughter may be born if the
(a) Father is normal and mother is colour blind
(b) Father is colour blind and mother is normal
(c) Father is normal and mother is a carrier
(d) Father is colour blind and mother is a carrier
35. The linked characters will always inherit together till they are
(a) Delinked due to segregation
(b) Masked by dominance
(c) Mutated
(d) Separated due to crossingover.
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36. Which one of the following pairs refers to paralagous protein?

(a) Rat myoglobin and rat hemoglobin
(b) Rat myoglobin and mouse myoglobin
(c) Rat myoglobin and mouse hemoglobin
(d) Rat myoglobin and rat cytochrome
37. Nucleosome core is made of

(a) H1, H2A, H2B and H3 (b) H1, H2A, H2B and H4
(c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 (d) H1, H2A, H2B, H1 and H4
38. Nullisomy is the term used for the condition when an organism has
(a) An additional chromosome

(b) One chromosome less than normal
(c) A complete set of chromosomes except one homologous pair
(d) None of the above
39. Black lung disease is found in the people working in

a) Electroplating industry b) Paint industry
c) Organic solvents industry d) Coal mines
40. Which part of the human body is most affected by chronic lead toxicity?
a) Muscles and bones b) Nervous system
c) Reproductive system d) Vascular system
41. Pyrology is the study of

a) Distribution of animals in relation to temperature
b) Role of fire in ecology
c) Distribution of plants in forests in relation to sunlight
d) Variation in species distribution in relation to ambient temperature
42. Lianas is
a) Woody climbers found in tropical rain forest
b) Example of sacred groves found in Brazil
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c) An association of marine algae forming a network in sea

d) Bushy vegetation found in Central Africa
43. When nonsense mutations occur in the reading frame of mRNA, protein synthesis gets terminated at the
nonsense mutation to deliver a truncated polypeptide. However, in certain bacterial strains, this does
not happen; these bacterial cells are able to synthesize full-length polypeptide. This phenomenon is
due to
(a) Compensatory frame shift mutation that occurs elsewhere in the mRNA
(b) Involvement of suppressor RNAs
(c) Polypeptide splicing at the broken point
(d) Post-transcriptional editing of the nonsense mutation
44. The sediment at the bottom of a lake contains small proportions of deuterium and 13C, the stable isotopes
of hydrogen and carbon respectively. The methane produced by the methanogenic bacteria from the lake is
subjected to complete combustion in air, which contains a small proportion of 170, to produce CO2 and
H2O. How many distinct species of CO2 and H20 (i.e., compounds differing only in the atomic weights of
the constituent atoms) will be formed?
(a) 2 of CO2 and 3 of H2O (b) 4 of CO2 and 4 of H2O
(c) 6 of CO2 and 6 of H2O (d) 3 of CO2 and 2 of H2O
45. The phenomenon of genetic drift is mod Hkdy to occur in population! that are
(a) Small and inbred (b) Undergoing gene flow
(c) Allopatric (d) Large and panmictic
46. Neurospora Crassa is widely used in genetics because of all the following-except one.
(a) It is a haploid plant and mutation can be easily detected
(b) It can easily be cultured
(c) Life cycle is short
(d) Spores are not affected by mutagen.
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47. Phenograms are used to study

a) Events in life history of plants
b) Vegetative growth in plants
c) Effects of light on vegetation growth in plants
d) Distribution of vegetation in relation to climate
48. The net ecosystem production (NEP) is a function of

a) Gross primary production (GPP) and is independent of autotrophic respiration (Ra)
b) GPP, Ra, heterotrophic respiration (Rh) and can be either positive or negative
c) GPP, Ra, heterotrophic respiration (Rh) and can be positive
d) Net primary production (NPP)
49. Which of the following accounts for the extent of proliferation observed in the retrovirus-infected cells
not treated with growth factors?
a) The v erbB product has a function similar to that of activated EGF receptor.
b) EGF binds to both the EGF receptor and the v erbB product.
c) The v erbB product activates both the LCGF and the EGF receptors.
d) The v erbB product antagonizes the action of the EGF receptor.
50. When DNA replicates semiconservatively, which of the following is true of each daughter DNA
molecule?
a) Both strands are newly synthesized
b) One strand is newly syntheses whereas the other is a strand from the parent DNA
molecule.
c) Both strands are the original strands of the parent molecule.
d) One strand has more AT-rich regions that the other strand has.
51. Which of the following takes place during anaphase of mitosis in an animal cell?
a) Kinetochore microtubules elongate to push chromosomes towards the Metaphase plate.
b) The chromosomes align on the metaphase plate.
c) Sister chromatids remain attached to each other at the centromere and move toward the
pole as a unit.
d) Polar microtubules elongate and slide to push the spindle poles apart
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52. In the vertebrates, the hormones which control osmoregulation are-

a) Vasopressin and Thyrotrophin
b) Aldosterone and Corticotrophin
c) Thyrotrophin anf Corticotrophin
d) Vasopressin and Aldosterone
53. What does heat fixation of a bacterial smear accomplished?

a) More quickly dry the specimen
b) Cause the bacteria to adhere to the slide
c) Cause the bacteria to shrink and adhere to the slide
d) Cause organisms to adhere to the slide, kill microbes and make them stain more
readily
54. Match the following bacterial morphology designations with their description
1. Coccus a) Rod-shaped
2. Bacillus b) Grape like cluster
3. Spirillum c) Round spheres
4. Vibrio d) Corkscrew shaped
5. Staph e) Cube of 4 cells
6. Tetrad f) Curved rods
a) 1-c; 2-d; 3-a; 4-b; 5-f; 6-e b) 1-c; 2-a; 3-d; 4-f; 5-b; 6-e
c) 1-a; 2-c; 3-f; 4-d; 5-e; 6-b d) None of these
56. The two columns given below indicate some of the fermentation products and the microbial cultures
used for their production. Identify the correct set of groups from the four options.
Fermentation products Microbial cultures
A) Ethanol 1 Aspergillus niger
B) Streptomycin 2 Zymomonas mobilis
C) Citric acid 3 Streptomces griseus
D) Cellulase 4 Trichoderma reesei
a) A 1; B 2; C 3; D 4 b) A 2; B 3; C 1; D 4
c) A 2; B 3; C 4; D 1 d) A 4; B 3; C 2; D 1
57. Larger islands may have greater species diversity than smaller islands because larger islands
a) Are in the tropics
b) are farther from continents than smaller islands are
c) have more habitats than smaller islands do
d) have greater genetic drift than smaller islands do
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58. Two of the premises that form the basis of Darwins concept of natural selection are
a) Ecotype and race
b) heritability and fitness
c) uniformitarianism and catastrophism
d) Geographic and reproductive is isolation
Questions 59 62
The apical meristem of root tips of maize (Zea mays) has a quiescent (inactive) center, together with
actively dividing cells that initiate the root cap or stele (vascular tissue). Root tips were subjected to acute x-
irradiation at two dosages, which affected mitosis and cell division in the three regions, as shown below.
AVERAGE DUCATIONS OF THE CELL CYCLE (IN HOURS)

AFTER ACUTE X-IRRADIATION
Dose (rad) Time After Quiescent center Dividing cells of Stele (Vascular
Irradiation Root Cap tissue)
(days)
0 -- 174 12 28
900 3 89 54 44
900 6 124 52 60
1,800 3 62 134 137
1,800 6 64 149 86
1,800 9 181 56 56
59. The first change in the quiescent center in irradiated roots, as shown in the table, was
a) An increase in the number of polyploidy cells
b) An increase in the length of the cell cycle
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c) A decrease in the number of cell cycles

d) A decrease in the length of the cell cycle
60. Increased dosages of irradiation had which of the following effects?

a) Shorter cell cycle in quiescent center cells at high dosage that at low dosage.
b) Longer duration cell cycle in quiescent center cells at high dosage than at low dosage.
c) Shorter duration of cell cycle in meristematic cells of the cap and stele at high than at
low dosage.
d) Uniformity of rates in all regions.
61. Six to nine days after irradiation, which of the following statements is correct about the cells of the
quiescent center?
a) They retained a high level of mitotic activity.
b) They returned to a relatively low level of mitotic activity.
c) The level of mitotic activity continued to fluctuate.
d) They retained a permanent low level of mitotic activity.
62. The quiescent center in roots of maize is significant because

a) Root meristems are not responsible for root growth
b) Irradiation damages all root meristem cells equally
c) Quiescent center cells can continue meristem growth if other meristem cells are
damaged by irradiation
d) The quiescent center cells will have the most radiation damage of all the meristem
cells.
63. Blood fibrinogen is converted into fibrin during

a) CO2 transport b) Oxygen transport
c) An immune repose d) Clot formation
64. All of the following are found in vertebrate smooth muscle EXCEPT.
a) Sarcomeres b) Thin filaments
c) Thick filaments d) Tropomyosin
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65. Which of the following shows a taxonomically closely related group?

a) Earthworm, ringworm, tape worm
b) Silverfish, cuttlefish, starfish
c) Housefly, dragonfly, butterfly
d) Sea horse, sea anemone, sea urchin
66. In calves that consume large quantities of milk, the curdling of milk takes place due to
a) A large variety of useful bacteria
b) The high acid content of gastric juice
c) The action of rennin
d) The action of pepsin
67. Honey is formed by
a) Worker bees from juicy plants
b) The action of digestive juices of worker bees on nectar collected from flowers
c) The selective absorption of fructose by worker bees from juicy plants and its
processing in their guts
d) Worker bees in the nectarines of flowers
68. Because the cells of islets of Langerhans are worm out completely, one would expect to find
a) Low blood glucose level
b) Normal blood glucose level but high urine glucose level
c) High blood glucose level but low urine glucose level
d) High blood glucose level and high urine glucose level
69. Acetyl CoA, a common key compound in intermediary metabolism, is produced in the body by
1. Breakdown of glucose under aerobic conditions
2. Anaerobic breakdown of glucose
3. oxidation of fatty acids
4. Breakdown of anti ketogenic amino acids
a) 1, 3 b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 4 d) 2, 3, 4
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70. The most likely period in which a woman may conceive is

a) From the 7th to 10th day of the menstrual cycle
b) From the 15th to 19th day of the menstrual cycle
c) On the 14th day of the menstrual cycle
d) At any time in the menstrual cycle
71. Which of the following events are associated with photosynthesis? Select the correct answer using the
codes below the events:
1. Capture of light energy by photosynthetic pigments
2. Consumption of cellular ATP
3. Reduction of carbondioxide
4. Synthesis of sugars
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 4 d) only 4
72. Consider the following discoveries in life sciences:

1. Principles of heredity
2. Nucleus
3. DNA as the genetic material
4. Light essential for photosynthesis
The correct chronological sequence of these discoveries is:

a) 2, 3, 1, 4 b) 1, 2, 4, 3
c) 4, 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 1, 3, 4
73. A normal couple has five children, two of whom suffer from a somewhat uncommon genetic disorder
that has, however, appeared occasionally in this familial line. What kind of gene is involved in this case?
a) Codominant b) completely dominant
c) Completely recessive d) Incompletely dominant
22
74. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Sonora 64 is a drawf variety of wheat that played a significant role in the green
revolution of India. It is called so because:
Reason (R): A scientist, P. Sonora, developed it in 1964, through mutation breeding.
In view of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
75. The culture fluids of 1000 to 5000 colonies of hybridoma are screened for monoclonal antibody by
P Western blot analysis
Q Antigen capture analysis
R Northern blot analysis
S Antibody capture analysis
Choose the correct pair from the following
a) P,Q b) Q,R
c) R,S d) Q,S
76. Microbial cells possessing the sex factor can

(a) Act as males (b) Act as females
(c) Conjugate with females (d) All
78. Ribosomes similar to those of bacteria are found in

(a) Pancreatic endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Liver mitochondria
(c) Skeletal muscle cytoplasm
(d) Daisy chloroplasts.
79. Chromosomes are formed by

(a) DNA, RNA and proteins (b) DNA only
(c) RNA only (d) Proteins
23
80. Webbed neck is characteristic of

(a) XXX (b) YY (c) XXY (d) XO
81. Bateson used the terms coupling and repulsion for linkage and crossing over. Name the correct parental
or coupling type along with its cross over or repulsion?
(a) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, AABB
(b) Coupling AABB, aaBB; Repulsion AABB, aaBB
(c) Coupling aaBB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, aabb
(d) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion aaBB, aaBB
Question 82 83
A common method of measuring community productivity in a pond is by measuring oxygen
production or consumption in light (transparent) and dark (opaque) bottles filled with pond water. The
oxygen concentration in each bottle is measured, the bottles are sealed, and then suspended from floats near
the surface of the pond. After 24 hours, the oxygen concentration is again measured in each bottle.
Representative data are presented below.
Initial oxygen concentration (Initial) = 10 mg . L 1
Oxygen concentration in light bottle after 24 hours (light) = 12 mg . L 1

Oxygen concentration in dark bottle after 24 hours (Dark) = 7 mg . L 1
82. Daily respiration can be determined be determined by which of the following calculations?
a) Light (12 mg. L 1) Initial (10 mg. L 1) = 2 mg. L 1 oxygen
b) Light (12 mg. L 1) Dark (7 mg. L 1) = 5 mg. L 1 oxygen
c) Initial (10 mg. L 1) Dark (7 mg. L 1) = 3 mg. L 1 oxygen
d) Initial (10 mg. L 1) + Dark (7 mg. L 1) = 17 mg. L 1 oxygen
83. After 24 hours, the light bottle had a higher concentration of oxygen (12 mg. L 1) than it did initially
(10 mg. L 1). This difference represents
a) Gross primary production
b) Net primary production
c) Secondary production
d) Net community respiration
24
84. Which of the following country is worlds largest fish consumer?

a) United States b) China
c) Japan d) India
85. The biggest drawback of using cost benefit analysis in environmental impact assessment is
a) Its theoretical approach
b) Conversion of intangible aspects into monetary units
c) Choice of discount rate
d) Rudimentary nature of the process
86. Public participation is ideally most important at which stage of EIA process?
a) Proposing mitigation measures
b) Post monitoring of the project
c) In evaluating the relative significance of the likely impacts
d) In determining the scope of EIA
87. Among the following cleanest fuel is

a) Coke b) Gasoline/Petrol
c) Natural Gas d) Deseal
88. What is the disadvantage in using electrostatic precipitators for air pollution control
a) Small particles cant be removed b) High pressure drop
c) Problem in handling hot gases d) High initial cost
89. Which of the following hormones have been studied from the coleoptile?
a) Auxins b) Gibberellins
c) Cytokinins d) Ethylene
90. Avena coleoptile test to find out the amount of growth promoting hormones was discovered by:
a) F.W. Went b) L.J. Oudus
c) K.V. Thimann d) F. Skoog
25
91. In addition to the requirement of macronutrients, plants also need micronutrients.

a) Fe, Mn, Cu, Zn, Mo, B and Cl
b) Cs, Sr, I, Mn, Zn, Ba and Cl
c) C, H, O, S, P Ca and K
d) C, Na, Mn, Mg, Cu, Mo and Cl
92. Dormancy in mustard seeds is due to:

a) Impermeability of seed coat to water
b) Hard seed coat which does not allow proper growth of embryo
c) Germination inhibitor
d) Immature embryo
93. Soils of climax tropical rain forests are

a) Poor in all nutrients b) Rich in all nutrients
c) Rich in nitrogen only d) Rich in phosphorus only
94. Transmembrane domains of proteins are

(a) -sheets (b) -helical (c) random coils (d) unstructured
95. Isozymes can be characterized by

(a) The different chemical reactions that they catalyze
(b) The differences in their elution profile from a size-excluaion column
(c) Differences in their amino acid sequences
(d) All of the above
96. Sodium Dodecyl Sulphate (SDS) is used while separating proteins by polyacrylamide gel
electrophoresis because
(a) It helps in solubilization of proteins thereby making it easier to separate
(b) It binds to proteins and confers uniform negative charge density thereby making them move during
electrophoresis
(c) Decreases the surface tension of the buffer used for electrophoresis
(d) stabilizes the proteins
26
97. Absorption of UV radiation by proteins and nucleic acids is due to transition of Electrons between the
(a) Vibrational energy levels
(b) Rotational energy levels
(c) Nuclear energy levels
(d) Electronic energy levels
98. During the course of prolonged starvation and fasting, glucose or glycogen is synthesized from non -
carbohydrate precursors by the process of
a) Glycogenesis b) Glycolysis
c) Gluconeogenesis d) Glycogenolysis
99. Which of the following scientists was awarded Nobel Prize for his work on photosynthesis?
a) Robert Hooke b) Melvin Calvin
c) FF Blackman d) CB Van Niel
100. How many divisions must occur in a cell of root tip to form 128 cells?
(a) 128 (b) 127 (c) 64 (d) 3
*********************************
27
28
PAPER-II
LIFE SCIENCES
Time: 2:30Hrs. Max. Marks: 200

Note: 1. Question number 1 is compulsory
2. From question 2 to 43 attempt any 15
3. First 15 questions will be assigned
4. Use one side of page to solve that complete question
1. a) Give graphical representation of relative initial velocity as a function of a substrate

concentration A and as the function of the logarithm of the substrate concentration B
for yeast invertase on sucrose (5)
b) Describe a method to measure plant transpiration (5)
c) What is the best method to determine Hardness of water? (5)
d) Out line merits and demerits of Thakthajans system of classification (5)
2. A protein molecule, in its fold native state, has one favored conformation. But when it is
denatured, it becomes a random coil, with many possible conformations
a) What must be the sign of S for the change native denatured? (6)
b) Will the contribution of S to the free energy change be + or ve.--
What requirement does this impose on H if proten are to be stable structures? (6)
3. a) Write significance of Km and Vm Values with respect to enzyme action and kinetics (5)
b) Describe an approach by which the specific sequence of codons of mRNA -
can be studied by its role in Amino acid sequence in polypeptide (5)
c) Give the action of succinodehydrogenase on succinic acid in presence of -
hydrogen acceptor (2)
4. a) What are the two isomeric forms of Hexoses? Show with the help of a diagram. (6)
b) How could one determine the degree of polymerization of a sample of amylopectin? (6)
1
5. a) Draw diagrams of deoxyribonucleotide showing phosphodiester bond and

glycosidic linkage (3)
b) How many types of nucleotides occurs in nature? (3)
c) What is the major difference between B-form of DNA and Z-form of DNA? (6)
6. a) Leukemia is a neoplatic proliferation of white blood cells . Clinicians are currently

testing deoxycoformycin, an adenosine deaminase inhibitor, as a possible antileukemic
agent. Why might one expect this therapy to e effective? (6)
b) Explain the biochemical basis for the fact that one can synchronize cell population by
treating them with deoxythimidine (6)
7. a) What are the functions G1 and G2 in interphase of cell cycle? (4)

b) What is Go, specify its significance (3)
c) Write role of cdk in cell cycle (3)
8. a) It is observed that chloride ions are acts as negative allosteric effectors for hemoglobin.
Suggest a possible explanation for why this should be so? (6)
b) Compare and contrast short-term memory and long term memory relative to storage
capacity and duration of the memory (6)
9. a) Plasma membrane has fluidity explain with suitable experiment (4)

b) Where is the distribution carbohydrates in plasma membrane write its role (4)
c) The plasma membrane contains various phospholipases that are activated by
extracellular signal to cleave specific phospholipids. What is the function of
phospholipase C in response to extracellular signals? (4)
10. a) With suitable diagram show various events during RNA splicing (4)
b) What is sigma factor? (2)
c) Zinc fingers are important in cellular regulation because they are at the catalytic site
of many kinases-explain the mechanism. (6)
2
11. a) Outline diagrammatically various steps of Transcription complex formation (6)

b) With the help of diagrammatic representation Show the organization of the
(Trp) tryptophan operon of E. coli. (6)
12. a) Give any three properties of Genetic code (6)

b) Lysogenic phage becomes lytic. Explain the reason. (6)
13. a) Name the various molecules involved in desmosomes (3)

b) With the help of some appropriate experiments prove the mobility of
plasma membrane (5)
c) Describe the structure of Integrins (4)
14. a) Giving two names of the hormones produced by these endocrine glands example
each: (4)
i) parathyroid
ii) dorsal pituitary
b) Write the possible effects of Corticotrophin Releasing Factor (CRF) in the

human system (4)
c) Which are possible direct effects of hormones on membranes? (4)
15. a) Describe the important mechanism that lead to genetic variation in gametes (4)
b) Do vaccines produce active or passive humoral immunity? Explain your answer.
Why is passive immunity less satisfactory? (4)
c) What are transgenic and knockout mice and how are they developed (4)
16. a) Outline briefly the roles of following genes in plant development in Arabidopsis thaliana:
(8)
1. Acualis1 (acl1)
2. Acualis2 (acl2)
3. Angustifolia (an)
3
4. Argonaute 1 (ago1)
5. Curly leaf (clf)
6. Ddm1
7.Pale cress (pac)
8. Revoluta (rev)
b) What are morphogens? Give names of few of them (4)
17. a) When isolated from the 32 cell embryo, animal pole cells will produce an
ectoderm specific protein and isolated vegetal pole cells will produce an
endoderm specific protein. How would you prove it by using specific experiments? (6)
b) Describe the experiment showing that grey crescent and dorsal lip have the same function. (6)
18. a) Show different activities found in thylakoids or grana during light reactions (4)
b) Write components of PS II Complex (2)
c) Calculate and explain overall efficiency of photosynthesis. (6)
19. a) Considering the evidence led Krebs to propose a cyclic pathway for oxidation of
pyruvate, discuss the type of experimental evidence that might have led to realization
of the cyclic nature of the glycolate pathway (6)
b) Given what you know about the function of the glycolate cycle and the regulation of the
citric acid cycle, propose control mechanism that might regulate the glycoxylate cycle (6)
20. a) Outline procedure for the isolation and purification of phytochrome for dark grown
oat seedling (6)
b) Explain the phenomenon of photoperiodic induction or photo-induction. Give its
physiological effect in plant (6)
21. a) Explain the mechanism of entry of water in plant through root hair (6)
b) What is exudation or bleeding" Explain the theory in support of this phenomenon (6)
4
22. a) Describe the mechanism of development of various blood cells from Pluripotent
(Haemopoetic) stem cell. (5)
b) If the Haemotocrit value of the blood is 45%, calculate the total blood volume in-
circulatory system in human. (7)
23. a) What is Cardiac output How can be the heart beat has to be analyzed by terms of
it's function (6)
b) Describe the mode of action of CO2 and H ion concentration in chemical regulation
of respiration (6)
24. a) Give graphical representation of Action potential of a nerve fibre. (6)

b) Describe the mechanism of working of excitatory transmitter substance,
acetylcholine (Ach) and noradrenaline (NA). (6)
25 a) What is in situ hybridization. Write its significance in variable gene activity. (5)
b) When recombination frequency is around/ near to 50% it is stated that the genes
must not be linked. Why? (3)
c) Explain the role of Cytological and Genetic markers in gene recombination experiments. (4)
26. a) How can we distinguish between recombinant chromosomes and parental chromosomes,
whose parental phage strains were that differed in two alleles. (6)
b) Cross between true breeding ROSE combed X SINGLE comb; Rose is Dominant over
single when F1 ROSE are interbreed F2 Ratio 3 rose 1 Single (3:1) Pea is dominant over
Single F2 3 pea & 1 single (3:1). When true breeding ROSE and PEA crossed interesting
results WALNUT results. Explain the observation giving appropriate genotypes and
phenotypes and F2 progenies (6)
27 a) Generally termed that the intrinsic rate of natural increase, is symbolized ro and
represents the growth rate of a population that is infinitely small, accordingly by which
equation the population growth can be described? (6)
5
b) What is complementation test? Two independent recessive mutations in Drosophila have

been isolated which give the same phenotype. Design cross (es) to test if the two mutations
are allelic or non-allelic. (6)
28. a) Changes which arise or appear in the germplasm, are transmitted to the offspring and
are known as heritable variations. Only these variations are the source of organic
evolution. Suggest and describe the theory behind it. (4)
b) In the case of P. malariae, the erythrocyte ruptures 72 hours after penetration; in other
plasmodia, rupture occurs after 48 hours. Why? (4)
c) Name the causative organisms for following diseases? (4)

i. Late blight of potato
ii. Dumping off of-
iii. Rust on wheat
iv. Diphtheria
29. a) Large areas of old private forests which were denuded are now owned by the state,
and they are to be rehabilitated by afforestation and other cultural practices. Several
measures have been prescribed for the conservation of the forests. What are that
measures? (6)
b) In which order the Sarraceniaceae is placed in Bentham and Hookers Classification?

What are the other families that share similar positions? (6)
30. a) Write short note on Hydrophytes and hydrocoles and their adaptations. (4)
b) Specify variation in ear length shown by species which each occupies a different
geographical region. (4)
c) Write about Light Variations in Different Environments (4)
6
31. a) Two species live in the same habitat but they occupy different trophic niches, because
of differences in food habits. Explain the type of niche (4)
b) How the Currents in water influence lotic and a lentic community? (4)
c) Write general characteristics of biological clocks (4)
32. a) Explain the concept of survivorship curve for the species with suitable example (4)
b) "The inherent property of an organism to reproduce to survive, i.e., to increase in numbers.
It is a sort of algebraic sum of the number of young produced at each reproduction, the
number of reproduction in a given period of time, the sex ratio and their general ability to
survive under given physical conditions." Comment on this biological property with
suitable example. (6)
c) Give two examples of biennial plants (2)
33. a) Stat the principle behind continuous-flow cytofluorimetry and write its significance (4)
b) What is FISH? Give its implications (4)
c) What do you mean by Spot test? (2)
d) Write the long form of NMRI and CSF (2)
34. a) State bottleneck effect, give suitable example (3)

b) Explain the concept of 'escaped genes', in terms of organic evolution (5)
c) Give salient features of Hardy-Weinberg's law (4)
35. a) Allopatric speciation evolution may take place in two spatially isolated populations
descended from a common ancestor. What hypothesis can you suggest to explain
this finding? (6)
b) Describe the concept of "reciprocal altruism" with suitable example (6)
36. a) Illustrate with a numerical example how heterozygote advantage leads to stable coexistence
of alleles. (6)
b) Give an effect of environment on gene expression with suitable example (6)
37. a) Define parthinocarpy. In brief, list the significance of parthinocarpy in crop improvement. (6)
b) Describe the structure of typical Angiosperic megasporophyte in detail (6)
7
38. a) What are polyploids? Distinguish between euploides and doubled aneuploides (4)
b) Give protocol of Agrobacterium mediated gene transfer (6)
c) What is the full form of RFLP and RFLP (2)
39. a) On repeated cultures in vitro, one population of human liver cells appears to become
immortalized but not transformed. Design an experiment to verify the observation. (6)
b) Describe role of plasmids in recombination DNA technology (4)
c) Name any four endonucleases routinely used in genetic engineering (2)
40. a) Measuring the concentration of an absorbing species in a sample is accomplished

by which law. State it and give its biological significance (6)
b) How the X-ray Crystallography is involved in determining the structure of biomolecules? (3)
c) Give Properties of - Rays (3)
41. a) Give protocol of the Sangers method of DNA sequencing (6)

b) How can radiolabelled approaches used in detection of specific biomolecules (4)
c) Name the methods used in identification of individual level DNA (2)
42. a) State the principle behind MRI? Give significance of MRI (6)
b) How does agarose gel electrophoresis differ from a thin layer SDS page? (6)
43. a) What is Regression? Enlist its types (4)
b) Write characteristics of an ideal normal distribution (2)
c) Define Median. Table shows the frequency distribution of the number of months with
their last experiments of 70 persons who recently tested for their hemoglobin.
Compute the median. (6)
Number of Months Frequency Cumulative Frequency
0-9 8 8
10-19 13 21
20-29 15 36
30-39 21 57
40-49 10 67
50-59 3 70
Total 70
*Best of Luck*
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*MUDRA* Model Question Paper for NET-LS & JRF of UGC-CSIR in Life Sciences

Note: 1. Each Question carry 2 marks

Section A (General Science)

1. A fuse wire is characterized by

4. The green wavelength of sunlight is absorbed by:

6. One thousand microns is equal to

7. The Leaning Tower of Pisa does not fall because

8. The difference between explosion and combustion is that

c) A compound present in milk

11. In solution of HF and acetic acid,

12. The value of the universal gravitational constant, G is

14. Respiration occurs in

16. Which of the following are false statements?

19. RuBisCO is made up of:

20. In which of the following areas is salinity likely to be the highest

23. The term nife refers to

24. TATA box is found in:

(a) 2 boys standing next to each other

29. Which of the following is not associated with nucleus?

30. What would be the output of following program

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c)4 (d) 6

31. The specificity of a protein depends upon

33. On a PC, how much memory is available to application software?

35. The binary equivalent of the Hexadecimal number 7BD is

37. Standing state is used to show

38. White blood cell have major function as-

39. Bug in computer terminology means

40. Which state has recently registered an increase in green cover?

Section B (Life Sciences)

1. Which type of forest cover the maximum area in our country?

2. Which of the following is true for non-competitive inhibition?

4. Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product of human placenta?

6. DNA repair is carried out by which of the polymerases in eukaryotes?

7. Humic substances are widely present in aquatic environment, they

8. The world conservation was prepared by

9. DNA fingerprinting refers to

12. Dry seeds endure higher temperature than germinating seeds as

(a) Conformational coupling (b) Chemiosmotic coupling

15. Turnover number of an enzyme is dependent upon

16. Hydrolysis of starch is more efficiently catalysed by

18. A pure or nearly pure water contains a BOD of approximately

19. Cholera is caused by

24. ELISA is used to detect viruses, where

25. The term zygotic induction refers to

26. Which of the following is not caused by virus?

28. Osmotrophs are also known as

29. Viviparous germination of seeds occurs

36. Which one of the following pairs refers to paralagous protein?

37. Nucleosome core is made of

(a) An additional chromosome

39. Black lung disease is found in the people working in

41. Pyrology is the study of

c) An association of marine algae forming a network in sea

(a) 2 of CO2 and 3 of H2O (b) 4 of CO2 and 4 of H2O

(c) 6 of CO2 and 6 of H2O (d) 3 of CO2 and 2 of H2O

47. Phenograms are used to study

48. The net ecosystem production (NEP) is a function of

52. In the vertebrates, the hormones which control osmoregulation are-

53. What does heat fixation of a bacterial smear accomplished?

AVERAGE DUCATIONS OF THE CELL CYCLE (IN HOURS)

c) A decrease in the number of cell cycles

60. Increased dosages of irradiation had which of the following effects?

62. The quiescent center in roots of maize is significant because

MUDRA Model Question Paper for NET-LS & JRF of UGC-CSIR in Life Sciences