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CCNA ICND1/ICND2 Exam

1. The ____________ layer is responsible for finding the network


resources broadcast from a server and adding flow control and error
control.
Answer: Application Layer
2. If you wanted to have 16 subnets with a Class C network ID, which
subnet mask would you use?
A. 255.255.255.252
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C
3. Which of the following are associated with the application layer of
the OSI model? (choose two)
A. ping
B. Telnet
C. FTP
D. TCP
E. IP
Answer: B, C
4. Convert the following MAC address into a EUI-64 address:
0a0c.abac.caba.
Answer: 2001:db8:1:1:080c:abff:feac:caba
5. Which protocol should you block with an ACL to stop a ping into
your corporate network?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. UDP
E. ARP
Answer: C
7. A switch has a port that is alternating between green and amber.
Which condition could this indicate?
A. The port is experiencing errors
B. The port is administratively disabled
C. The port is blocked by STP
D. The port is normal
Answer: A
8. Which type of IPv6 address is used just like a regular public routable
address in IPv4?
Answer: Global Unicast
9. What will a switch do with a frame received on a port that has a
destination MAC address not in the mac address-table?
A. The switch will send an ARP request out all ports except the
port from which the data originated.
B. The switch will flood the data out all ports except the port
from which the data originated.
C. The frame will be forwarded to the switches default-gateway
D. The frame will be dropped
Answer: B
10. Which subnet mask is the most efficient for point-to-point serial
links when using VLSM?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 255.255.255.252
D. 255.255.255.254
Answer: C
11. Segmentation and reassembly of data from the upper-layer
applications occurs at what layer?
A. The Application layer
B. The Presentation layer
C. The Session layer
D. The Transport layer
Answer: D
12. What prevents a sending host on one side of the connection from
overflowing the buffers in the receiving host?
A. Resistors
B. Flow control
C. BRI
D. Full duplex
Answer: B
13. What controls how much information is transferred from one end to
the other?
A. Broadcast domains
B. IEEE
C. Windowing
D. Bit registers
Answer: C
14. Which command is used to manually encrypt passwords on a Cisco
router?
A. Router#service password-encryption
B. Router(config)#service-password-
encryption
C. Router(config)#service password-
encryption
D. Router(config)#set password encrypt on
Answer: C
15. The OSPFv3 protocol uses multicast address _________?
Answer: FF02::5
16. Name the two sublayers and the specification number of the
IEEE Ethernet Data Link layer:
A. _________________________
B. _________________________
Answer:
A: Media Access Control (MAC) 802.3
B: Logical Link Control (LLC) 802.2
17. The IPV6 address ::1 represents what?
Answer: The localhost address, or loopback address for IPv6
18. What are two reasons that a network administrator would use access
lists? (Choose two)
A. To control vty access into a router
B. To control broadcast traffic through a router
C. To filter traffic as it passes through a router
D. To filter traffic that originates from a router
Answer: A, C
19. Which OSI layer is responsible for combining bits into bytes and
bytes into frames?
A. The Transport layer
B. The Network layer
C. The Data Link layer
D. The Physical layer
Answer: C
20. State the term applied to each layers Protocol Data Unit (PDU):
A. Transport layer: _______________
B. Network layer: ________________
C. Data Link layer: _______________
D. Physical layer: ________________
Answer:
A: Transport layer: Segment
B: Network layer: Packet
C: Data Link layer: Frame
D: Physical layer: Bits
21. State the three layers in the Cisco hierarchical model:
A. _____________
B. _____________
C. _____________
Answer:
A: Core layer
B: Distribution layer
C: Access layer
22. __________ addresses identify multiple interfaces, which is
somewhat similar to multicast addresses; however, the big difference
is that the __________ packet is only delivered to one address, the
first one it finds defined in the terms of routing distance. This
address can also be called one-to-one-of-many, or one-to-nearest.
Answer: anycast
23. You just replaced three old hubs with three new Cisco switches.
Which two technologies should be implemented to help to prevent
unauthorized access to the company payroll server? (Choose two)
A. access lists
B. STP
C. VTP
D. VLANs
E. Wireless LANs
Answer: A, D
24. Which of the following are Layer 2 switch functions?
A. Address learning.
B. Network learning.
C. Forward/filter decisions
D. Loop avoidance
Answer: A, C, and D
25. What happens if a frame is received on a switch port and the
destination hardware address is not listed in the MAC database of a
switch?
A. The frame is deleted.
B. The frame is transmitted out of the interface on which it was
received.
C. The frame is broadcasted out of all active interfaces.
D. The frame is broadcasted out of all active interfaces except
the interface on which it was received.
Answer: D
26. Which two of the following will prevent a broadcast storm?
A. Forward/Filter decisions
B. Address learning
C. Bridges
D. Router
E. layer 3 switch
Answer: D, E
27. A router solicitation is sent out using the all-routers multicast
address of _______ . The router can send a router advertisement to
all hosts using the _________ multicast address.
Answer: FF02::2, FF02::1
28. There are ________ bits (_____ hex characters) in an IPv6 field.
Answer: 16, four
29. You can configure NAT three ways on a Cisco router: ________,
_________ and ___________.
Answer: static, dynamic, and NAT Overload (PAT)
30. Which of the following commands under the vty lines sets the router
to only except Secure Shell (SSH) connections and not telnet?
A. transport input ssh
B. transport input ssh telnet
C. transport only ssh
D. transport only ssh no telnet
Answer: A
31. Which type of attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are
requesting a TCP connection to a server?
A. denial of service
B. brute force
C. reconnaissance
D. Trojan horse
Answer: A
32. To place an access list on an interface, use the _____________
command in interface configuration mode.
Answer: ip access-group
33. Name the four layers of the DoD reference model:
A. ________________
B. ________________
C. ________________
D. ________________
Answer:
A: Process/Application layer
B: Host-to-Host layer
C: Internet layer
D: Network Access layer
34. A company is installing IP phones. The phones and office computers
connect to the same device. To ensure maximum throughout for the
phone data, the company needs to make sure that the phone traffic is
on a different network form that of the office computer data traffic.
What is the best network device to which to directly connect the
phone and computers, and what technology should be implemented
on this device? (Choose two)
A. Hub
B. Router
C. Switch
D. STP
E. Subinterfaces
F. VLAN
Answer: C, F
35. IPv6 unicast routing is running on the Corp router. Which of the
following addresses would show up with the show ipv6 int
brief command?
Corp#sh int f0/0
FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is AmdFE, address is 000d.bdc9.af12 (bia
000d.bdc9.af12)
[output cut]
A. FF02::3c3d:0d:bdff:fec9:af12
B. FE80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fec9:af12
C. FE80::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3c9:af12
D. FE80::3c3d:2d:ffbd:3bc9:af12
Answer: B.
36. A host sends a type of NDP message providing the MAC address
that was requested. Which type of NDP was sent?
A. NS
B. RS
C. RA
D. NA
Answer: D
37. Which of the following information can be provided by a DHCP
server?
A. IP address
B. Subnet mask
C. Domain name
D. Default gateway (routers)
E. DNS
F. WINS information
G. All of the above.
Answer: G
38. Which of the following protocols creates a virtual circuit to transmit
data?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. ICMP
Answer: B
39. Match the following protocols with their port numbers:
A. FTP: ____________ port 144
B. News: ___________ port 23
C. Telnet: ___________ port 69
D. TFTP: ___________ port 53
E. DNS: ____________ port 21
F. POP3: ____________ port 110
G. UDP: ____________ port 6
H. TCP: ____________ port 17
Answer:
A: FTP: port 21
B: News: port 144
C: Telnet: port 23
D: TFTP: port 69
E: DNS: port 53
F: POP3: port 110
G: UDP: port 17
H: TCP: port 6
40. Which protocol is used to find the hardware address of a host from a
known IP address?
A. RARP
B. ARP
C. DNS
D. DHCP
Answer: B
41. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 192 is:
A. 11100000
B. 11000000
C. 01000000
D. 10000000
Answer: B
42. What are the four simple steps that Cisco recommends for network
troubleshooting?
A. ________________
B. ________________
C. ________________
D. ________________
Answer:
A: Ping the loopback (127.0.0.1)
B. Ping the IP address of the host NIC
C. Ping the IP address of the default gateway
D. Ping a device on a different subnet
43. When discussing reserved IP addresses which of the following is
interpreted to mean all networks?
A. Node address of all 1s
B. Network address of all 1s
C. Network address of all 0s
D. Node address of all 0s
Answer: B
44. Which of the following are methods of connection to a Cisco router?
A. Console port
B. Telnet
C. Auxiliary port
D. All of the above
Answer: D
45. True or False: When a router first powers up it will look for and load
a valid configuration file from flash memory.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
46. Which of the following describes an instant message?
A. provides a way to look at and interact with information on the
Internet
B. allows users to create and send text to other users in real time
C. allows users to send messages and files to users on or outside
their network
D. allows users to store and retrieve information from a central
location
Answer: B
47. Which mode enables you to view and change the configuration of a
Cisco router?
A. Basic Management mode
B. Extended Setup mode
C. User mode
D. Privileged mode
Answer: D
48. The running-config is stored in what memory?
A. NVRAM
B. DRAM
C. Flash memory
D. Short-term memory
Answer: B
49. What command mode must you be in if you wish to change the
configuration of a router?
A. User mode
B. Administrative Exec mode
C. Privileged mode
D. Superuser mode
Answer: C
50. When setting the auxiliary password what command must you
remember to use so the router will prompt for authentication?
A. Logon
B. Login
C. Authentication
D. Password
Answer: B
51. Which command is used to manually encrypt your passwords?
A. Manual encryption
B. Manual-encryption
C. Service password encryption
D. Service password-encryption
Answer: D
52. Which command is used to enable an interface?
A. No shutdown
B. Interface turn on
C. Interface turn-on
D. No shut-down interface
Answer: A
53. What is the default administrative distance of a static route if you
use an exit interface instead of a next hop address?
A. 1
B. 0
C. 15
D. 110
Answer: B
54. Which of the following information will enable a router to route
packets?
A. Possible routers to all remote networks
B. The best route to each remote network
C. How to maintain and verify routing information
D. The destination address
E. The neighbor routers from which it can learn about remote
networks
F. All of the above.
Answer: F
55. True or False: Routers, by default, only know about their directly-
connected networks.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
56. To enable OSPFv3, you enable the protocol at the interface level.
The command string is
_____________________________________.
Answer: ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id.
57. ____________________ is the process of an administrator manually
adding routes in each routers routing table.
Answer: Static routing
58. ____________________ is used to send packets with a remote
destination network not in the routing table to the next hop router.
Answer: Default routing
59. ____________________ is the process of using protocols to find and
update routing tables on routers.
Answer: Dynamic routing
60. On what type of networks can default routing be used?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. Stub
D. Homogeneous
Answer: C
61. State the definition of an autonomous system (AS).
________________________________________
Answer: An autonomous system (AS) is a collection of networks
under a common administrative domain.
62. For what purpose is an administrative distance (AD) used?
A. To administer a remote network
B. To administer a remote router
C. To rate the trustworthiness of a remote network
D. To rate the trustworthiness of routing information received on
a router from a neighbor router
Answer: D
63. State the three classes of routing protocols:
A. __________________
B. __________________
C. __________________
Answer:
A: Distance vector routing protocols.
B: Link state routing protocols.
C: Hybrid routing protocols.
64. RIP uses only ______________ to determine the best path to an
internetwork.
Answer: hop count
65. RIP can perform load balancing for up to how many equal-cost links
by default in pre 15.0 code?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Six
Answer: D
66. What is the default maximum hop count for RIP?
A. One
B. Six
C. Fifteen
D. Sixteen
Answer: C
67. A solution for routing loop problems that reduces incorrect routing
information and routing overhead in a distance-vector network by
not enabling information to be sent back in the direction from which
it was received is known as ________________.
Answer: split horizon.
68. An IPv6 link-local address always start with?
Answer: FF80::/10
69. A _________ unicast range start with FC00::/7.
Answer: unique local.
70. A _________ packet is addressed and delivered to only a single
interface
Answer: unicast.
71. Bridges and switches use which of the following to filter a network?
A. Network addresses.
B. Network addresses and subnet masks
C. ATM addresses
D. MAC addresses
Answer: D
72. Which type of cable should be used when connecting between Cisco
switches?
A. Straight-through
B. Cross-over
C. Null modem
D. Cisco proprietary DB9
Answer: B
73. Your hosts is connected to a switch and you have steady green lights
on both your NIC and the switch port. However, when you ping
from the host, you receive a request timed out message. What
layer of the OSI does the problem most likely exist?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Physical
Answer: B
74. A host receives a frame and computes the checksum and determines
that the frame is damaged. The frame is discarded. At what layer of
the OSI model did this happen?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Physical
Answer: C
75. What command will you type on a serial interface to verify the cable
type that is connected?
A. show interfaces s0/0
B. show processes s0/0
C. show run
D. show controllers s0/0
Answer: D
76. Which switch IOS command allows access to high-level commands,
such as debug?
A. ip default-gateway
B. hostname
C. ip address
D. configure terminal
E. enable
Answer: E
77. How does a switch populate the switch table?
A. by reading broadcasts sent through the switch
B. by reading the destination hardware address of a frame
C. by reading the source hardware address of a packet
D. by reading the source hardware address of a frame
Answer: D
78. Which switch IOS command allows access to configuration
commands that affect the system as a whole?
A. ip default-gateway
B. hostname
C. ip address
D. configure terminal
E. enable
Answer: D
79. Name two different types of links in a switched environment:
A. __________________________
B. __________________________
Answer:
A: Access links
B: Trunk links
80. Which of the following is used to store a Cisco routers IOS by
default?
A. Flash memory
B. NVRAM
C. RAM
D. DRAM
Answer: A
81. Which of the following is used to store a router and switch
configuration?
A. Flash memory
B. NVRAM
C. RAM
D. DRAM
Answer: B
82. _________________ is used to control how the router boots up.
Answer: The configuration register
83. Which switch IOS command allows the switch to be managed from
remote networks?
A. ip default-gateway
B. hostname
C. ip address
D. configure terminal
E. enable
Answer: A
84. Which CDP command output provides parameters for the CDP timer
and holdtime?
A. sh cdp nei
B. sh cdp
C. sh nei
D. sh cdp neighbor detail
Answer: B
85. The ______________ command shows the hop or hops that a packet
traverses on its way to a remote device.
Answer: traceroute
86. The ______________ command is used to provide name resolution
on the router on which it was built.
Answer: ip host
87. Which switch IOS command sets the switch management IP
address?
A. ip default-gateway
B. hostname
C. ip address
D. configure terminal
E. enable
Answer: C
88. State the two methods of authentication that can be used with PPP
links:
A. ____________
B. ____________
Answer:
A: Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
B: Challenge Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
89. True or False: Named access lists are an exclusive replacement for
extended IP access lists.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
90. The access list type that only examines the source IP address in a
packet, is:
A. Source Access List
B. Standard Access Lists
C. Extended Access Lists
D. Simple Access Lists
Answer: B
91. Indicate whether the following statements are either true or false.
A. Packets are always compared to each line of the access list in
sequential order.
B. Packets are compared to all lines of the access list.
C. There is an implicit deny at the beginning of each access
list.
Answer:
A: True
B: False. Packets are compared with lines of the access list only until
a match is made.
C: False. There is an implicit deny at the end of each access list.
92. Extended access lists (IP) check for which of the following? (Choose
all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Destination IP address
C. Protocol field
D. Port number
Answer: A, B, C, D
93. Standard access lists (IP) check for which of the following?
A. Source IP address
B. Destination IP address
C. Protocol field
D. Port number
Answer: A
94. _____________ are used with access lists to specify a host, network,
or part of a network.
Answer: Wildcards
95. __________________ is located at the subscribers premises.
Answer: Customer Premises Equipment (CPE)
96. The ______________ is the last responsibility of the service
provider.
Answer: Demarcation (demarc)
97. The ________________ connects the demarc to the closest
switching office.
Answer: Local loop
98. The _______________ connects the customer to the providers
switching network.
Answer: Central Office (CO)
99. Which switch IOS command sets the system name?
A. ip default-gateway
B. hostname
C. ip address
D. configure terminal
E. enable
Answer: B
100. _______________ is used to encapsulate packets that connect a T1
between a Cisco router and a non-Cisco router
Answer: PPP
101. ______________ is a proprietary connection-oriented protocol used
at the Data Link layer and carries no identification of the type of
protocol being carried inside its encapsulation.
Answer: High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
102. What protocol can be used to synchronize the time on network
devices?
A. Network time protocol
B. Time sync protocol
C. Sync time protocol
D. Network sync protocol
Answer: A
103. DHCP can provide all of the following but what?
A. IP address
B. Domain name
C. Default gateway
D. Computer name
Answer: D
104. Which two of the following commands are required when
configuring SSH on your router? (Choose two.)
A. enable secret password
B. exec-timeout 0 0
C. ip domain-name name
D. username name password password
E. ip ssh version 2
Answer: C, D
105. Which if the following is not an issue addressed by STP?
A. Broadcast storms
B. Gateway redundancy
C. A device receiving multiple copies of the same frame
D. Constant updating of the MAC filter table
Answer: B
106. Which of the following statements is true with regard to ISL and
802.1q?
A. 802.1q encapsulates the frame with control information; ISL
inserts an ISL field along with tag control information.
B. 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
C. ISL encapsulates the frame with control information; 802.1q
inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information.
D. ISL is a standard.
Answer: C
Unlike ISL which encapsulates the frame with control information,
802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information.
107. Ethernet networking uses what protocol to help devices share the
bandwidth evenly while preventing two devices from transmitting
simultaneously on the same network medium?
A. STP
B. Ethernet collision avoidance protocol
C. CSMA/CD
D. CSMA/CA
Answer: C
108. True or False: Content Addressable Memory (CAM) filter table uses
software technology to build and maintain their MAC filter tables.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
109. Cisco EtherChannel allows us to bundle up to how many active ports
between switches?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: D
110. You want to ping the loopback address of your IPv6 local host. What
will you type?
A. ping 127.0.0.1
B. ping 0.0.0.0
C. ping ::1
D. trace 0.0.::1
Answer: C
111. Which of the following statements about IPv6 addresses are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Leading zeros are required.
B. Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal
fields of zeros.
C. Two colons (::) are used to separate fields.
D. A single interface will have multiple IPv6 addresses of
different types.
Answer: B, D
112. To enable OSPFv3, which of the following would you use?
A. Router(config-if)#ipv6 ospf 10 area
0.0.0.0
B. Router(config-if)#ipv6 router rip 1
C. Router(config)#ipv6 router eigrp 10
D. Router(config-rtr)#no shutdown
E. Router(config-if)#ospf ipv6 10 area 0
Answer: A
113. In reserved IP addressing, the network address is all 1's. What does
this mean?
A. This network or segment
B. Any host on this network
C. A default route
D. All networks
Answer: D
114. Layer 2 broadcasts are sent to what?
A. All nodes on a LAN
B. All nodes on a WAN
C. All networks
D. A single destination host
Answer: A
115. In IPv6 expression, using the address
2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab
Which of the following is an acceptable way to shorten this address?
A. 2001::12::1234:56ab
B. 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab
C. 21:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab
D. 2001:db8:3c4d::12::1234:56ab
Answer: B
116. Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to
run OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF
database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF
processes are running on the router.
E. All routes in the same OSPF area must have the same process
ID if they are to exchange routing information.
Answer: A, C
117. Which two of the following are true regarding the distance-vector
and link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Link state sends its complete routing table out of all active
interfaces at periodic time intervals.
B. Distance vector sends its complete routing table out of all
active interfaces at periodic time intervals.
C. Link state sends updates containing the state of its own links
to all routers in the internetwork.
D. Distance vector sends updates containing the state of its own
links to all routers in the internetwork.
Answer: B, C
118. What are the minimum factors a router must know to be able to
affectively route packets?
A. Destination address
B. Possible routes to all remote networks
C. The best route to each remote network
D. Neighbor routers
E. B&C
F. All the above
Answer: F
119. When a router boots up, it performs a POST. Where is the POST
located on a router?
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. ROM
D. NVROM
Answer: C
120. When configuring the clock rate command on a serial interface,
how many seconds is the clock rate?
A. megabytes per second
B. bytes per second
C. bits per seconds
D. gigabytes per second
Answer: C
121. What does a next hop of 0.0.0.0 mean in the show ip bgp
command output?
A. The router does not know the next hop.
B. Network is locally originated via network command in BGP.
C. It is not a valid network.
D. The next hop is not reachable.
Answer: B
122. Which command would you place on an interface connected to the
Internet?
A. ip nat inside
B. ip nat outside
C. ip outside global
D. ip inside local
Answer: B
123. If you want to exclude certain IP addresses from being issued to
hosts such as servers or printers by a router configured with dhcp,
what command can you use?
A. Router(config-dhcp)#ip exclude address ip
addresses
B. Router(config)#dhcp exclude address ip
addresses
C. Router(config-dhcp)#ip dhcp-exclude
address ip addresses
D. Router(config)#ip dhcp excluded-address
ip addresses
Answer: D
124. Standard Access Lists filter traffic based on what?
A. Source IP address in a packet
B. Destination IP address in a packet
C. Source MAC address in a frame
D. Destination MAC address in a frame
Answer: A
125. True or False: Extended access-list ranges are from 1000-1999.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Extended access-list ranges are from 100 to 199 and 20002699.
126. Overloading is the most popular form of NAT. It is also known as
what?
A. 1 to 1 NAT
B. Source addressing NAT
C. One way NAT
D. PAT
Answer: D
127. Which of the following commands sets the privileged mode
password to Cisco and encrypts the password?
A. enable secret password Cisco
B. enable secret cisco
C. enable secret Cisco
D. enable password Cisco
Answer: C
128. Which two of the following switch port violation modes will alert
you via SNMP that a violation has occurred on a port?
A. Restrict
B. Protect
C. Shutdown
D. Err-disable
Answer: B, C
129. Which Cisco IOS command is used to verify the port security
configuration of a switch port?
A. show interfaces port-security
B. show port-security interface
C. show ip interface
D. show interfaces switchport
Answer: B
130. When configuring security on switch ports, which options can you
choose from when a violation occurs on a particular port? (Choose
three)
A. protect
B. disable
C. restrict
D. shutdown
Answer: A, C, D
131. Which of the following would put switch interfaces into
EtherChannel port number 1, using LACP? (Choose two.)
A. Switch(config)#interface port-channel 1
B. Switch(config)#channel-group 1 mode
active
C. (config-if)#Switch#interface port-channel
1
D. Switch(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode
active
Answer: A, D
132. Which should you look for when troubleshooting an adjacency?
(Choose four.)
A. Verify the AS numbers.
B. Verify that you have the proper interfaces enabled for EIGRP.
C. Make sure there are no mismatched K values.
D. Check your passive -interface settings.
E. Make sure your remote routers are no connected to the
Internet.
F. If authentication is configured, make sure all routers use
different passwords.
Answer: A, B, C, D
133. The cloud service models define which services the cloud service
providers offer. Depending on which types of service you can get
from a cloud, which of the following three service models exist?
(Choose 3)?
A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B. Cloud as a Service (CaaS)
C. Platform as a Service (PaaS):
D. Software as a Service (SaaS)
Answer: A, C, D
134. To test the local IP stack to see if it is working, what address should
you ping?
A. IP address
B. Loopback address
C. Default gateway address
D. APIPA address
Answer: B
135. What does using SDN in your network mean?
A. Network engineers will be out of a job because everything
will be automated.
B. You will have to replace all existing software.
C. You will have to replace all existing hardware.
D. You will be able to react faster when a new business
requirement arises.
Answer: D
136. Which VLAN is typically the administrative VLAN on a Switch?
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 2
C. VLAN 3
D. VLAN 5
Answer: A
VLAN 1 is the default administrative VLAN on a Cisco switch.
137. The cloud service models define which services the cloud service
providers offer. Depending on which types of service you can get
from a cloud, which of the following three service models exist?
(Choose 3)?
A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B. Cloud as a Service (CaaS)
C. Platform as a Service (PaaS):
D. Software as a Service (SaaS)
Answer: A, C, D
138. Which of the following are benefits of using a VPN in your
internetwork? (Choose three.)
A. Security
B. Private high-bandwidth links
C. Cost savings
D. Incompatibility with broadband technologies
E. Scalability
Answer: A, C, E
139. Which of the following is true regarding WAN technologies?
(Choose three.)
A. You must use PPP on a link connecting two routers using a
point-to-point lease line.
B. You can use a T1 to connect a customer site to the ISP.
C. You can use a T1 to connect a Frame Relay connection to the
ISP.
D. You can use Ethernet as a WAN service by using EoMPLS.
E. When using an Ethernet WAN, you must configure the DLCI.
Answer: B, C, D
140. What is a data-carrying mechanism that emulates some properties of
a circuit-switched network over a packet-switched network?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. Frame Relay
D. MPLS
Answer: D
141. What is the default encapsulation used by Cisco routers over
synchronous serial links.
A. PPP
B. MPLS
C. HDLC
D. 802.1Q
Answer: C
142. The following configuration was made on RouterA. What is the
purpose of the "pap" authentication configuration?
RouterA#config t
RouterA(config)#int s0
RouterA(config-if)#ppp authentication chap pap
RouterA(config-if)#^Z
RouterA#

A. It is used to verify the chap authentication.


B It is used as a backup in the event chap fails
C. It is the password for chap authentication
D. Both chap and pap are needed together to verify
authentication.
Answer: B
143. What command can be used on a Cisco router to display the ARP
cache?
A. arp -a
B. show arp address
C. show arp cache
D. show ip arp
Answer: D
144. What is the sys-id-ext field in a BPDU used for?
A. This is a 4-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define
trunking information between switches.
B. This is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define
VLANs in an STP instance.
C. This is a 4-bit field inserted into an non-Ethernet frame to
define EtherChannel options.
D. This is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define
STP root bridges.
Answer: B
145. You have four RSTP PVST+ links between switches and want to
aggregate the bandwidth. What solution will you use?
A. EtherChannel
B. PortFast
C. BPDU Channel
D. VLANs
E. EtherBundle
Answer: A
146. What configuration parameters must be configured the same
between switches for LACP to form a channel? (Choose three.)
A. Virtual MAC address
B. Port speeds
C. Duplex
D. PortFast enabled
E. VLAN information
Answer: B, C, E
147. You reload a router with a configuration register setting of 0x2101.
What will the router do when it reloads?
A. The router enters setup mode.
B. The router enters ROM monitor mode.
C. The router boots the mini-IOS in ROM.
D. The router expands the first IOS in flash memory into RAM.
Answer: C
2100 boots the router into ROM monitor mode, 2101 load the mini-
IOS from ROM, 2102 is the default and loads the IOS from flash.
148. Which of the following commands provides the product ID and
serial number of a router?
A. show license
B. show license feature
C. show version
D. show license udi
Answer: D
149. Which command allows you to view the technology options and
licenses that are supported on your router along with several status
variables?
A. show license
B. show license feature
C. show license udi
D. show version
Answer: B
150. Between which two planes are SDN southbound interfaces used?
(Choose two)
A. switching plane
B. data plane
C. routing plane
D. application plane
E. OpenFlow
Answer: A, C
151. You want to send console message to a syslog server, but you only
want to send status messages of 3 and lower. Which of the following
commands will you use?
A. logging trap emergencies
B. logging trap errors
C. logging trap debugging
D. logging trap notifications
E. logging trap critical
F. logging trap warnings
G. logging trap alerts
Answer: B
152. What is With Cloud Computing and its effect on the enterprise
network, which four are advantages to cloud service builder or
provider? (Choose 4)
A. Cost reduction from standardization and automation
B. Cost reduction from non-standardization and specialized
automation of each vendor
C. High utilization through virtualized, shared resources
D. Easier administration
E. Fail-off-auto-on operations model
F. Fail-in-place operations model
Answer: A, C, D, F
153. What command is used to view the IPv6-to-MAC-address resolution
table on a Cisco router?
A. show ip arp
B. show ipv6 arp
C. show ip neighbors
D. show ipv6 neighbors
E. show arp
Answer: D
154. An IPv6 ARP entry is listed as with a status of REACH. What can
you conclude about the IPV6-to-MAC-address mapping?
A. The interface has communicated with the neighbor address
and the mapping is current.
B. The interface has not communicated within the neighbor
reachable time frame.
C. The ARP entry has timed out.
D. IPv6 can reach the neighbor address but the addresses has not
yet been resolved.
Answer: A
155. What command produced the following output?
via FE80::201:C9FF:FED0:3301 (29110112/33316), Serial0/0/0
via FE80::209:7CFF:FE51:B401 (4470112/42216), Serial0/0/1
via FE80::209:7CFF:FE51:B401 (2170112/2816), Serial0/0/2
A. show ip protocols
B. show ipv6 protocols
C. show ip eigrp neighbors
D. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
E. show ip eigrp topology
F. show ipv6 eigrp topology
Answer: F
156. You need to troubleshoot an adjacency between two EIGRP
configured routers? What should you look for? (Choose four.)
A. Verify the AS numbers.
B. Verify that you have the proper interfaces enabled for EIGRP.
C. Make sure there are no mismatched K values.
D. Check your passive interface settings.
E. Make sure your remote routers are not connected to the
Internet.
F. If authentication is configured, make sure all routers use
different passwords.
Answer: A, B, C, D
157. You have two OSPF directly configured routers that are not forming
an adjacency. What should you check? (Choose three.)
A. Process ID
B. Hello and dead timers
C. Link cost
D. Area
E. IP address/subnet mask
Answer: B, D, E
158. When do two adjacent routers enter the 2WAY state?
A. After both routers have received Hello information
B. After they have exchanged topology databases
C. When they connect only to a DR or BDR
D. When they need to exchange RID information
Answer: A
159. Which type of LSAs are generated by ABRs and referred to as
summary link advertisements (SLAs)?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5
Answer: C
160. Which of the following is not provided by the AH portion of IPsec?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Authenticity
D. Anti-replay
Answer: B