Warning!
This practice exam is to help students revise and become familiar with the structure and timing of the
exam. This practice exam will not help you to memorise answers for the final exam.
None of the questions in this practice exam will be appearing in the final exam.
Some questions will have a similar format, but they will differ and the answers will be different.
Do not assume that memorising the answers to questions in this practice exam will help you in any
way.
Time:
Reading time = 10 minutes
Exam Duration = 120 minutes
Weight:
The written exam is worth 60% of the overall marks
Materials Allowed:
Dictionary no annotations
not electronic
Instructions:
Multiple Choice Section Answering Requirements
This section is marked electronically; all questions must be answered on the answer sheet provided
by completely shading the bubble corresponding to the most appropriate of the alternatives shown.
Failure to do so will result in a mark of zero for this section of the exam.
You must also complete the student ID section, by shading the appropriate bubbles, and by writing it
in the Student ID field. Also make sure that you write your name in the Name Field and sign the
answer sheet. You may detach the answer sheet from the paper.
Select the most correct answer. Each correct answer is worth 1 mark.
Every incorrect answer will be given mark penalty. Blank answers will be given zero marks.
There are no multiple answer questions in this section.
Make any alterations to your answers very clear: an ambiguous answer will be treated as no answer
and be given a mark penalty. Note that any alternative or statement that is partially false or
partially incorrect should be treated as being false or incorrect.
This section is marked electronically; all questions must be answered on the answer sheet provided at the end
of this exam paper.
There are 30 questions in this section. Each correctly answered question is worth 1 mark.
1. This device receives data in one port and sends it out all other ports. It will not filter out
fragments. What type of device is it?
A. Repeater
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Router
2. Which OSI layer will synchronise data from a web server to multiple browser windows on a
client?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data-link
D. Session
3. How does the receiving device know how large the Frame is?
A. All frames are a fixed size
B. The frame check sequence indicates the end of the frame
C. All frames end with 1 byte of alternating 1's and 0's
D. The type/length field indicates the size of the frame.
7. Which of the following IP addresses would be appropriate for a Web server that is required to
have worldwide availability?
A. 10.168.255.9 255.255.0.0
B. 172.16.18.10 255.255.255.0
C. 172.38.0.1 255.255.0.0
D. 192.168.10.5
8. Which of the following addresses would be appropriate for an ad hoc network that will only
ever be used for about 10 minutes to transfer files between the two laptops of international
delegates at a conference.
A. fe80::7423:5ab2:1615:91c0 43.75%
B. fec0::7423:5ab2:1615:91c0 34.375%
C. fed0::7423:5ab2:1615:91c0 7.292%
D. ::1 14.583%
9. Analysing the first 10 bits of an IPv6 address, which of the following is a Unique-local
address?
A. 1111 1101 00
B. 1111 1110 10
C. 0011 1110 10
D. 0011 1110 11
10. Which type of design would you give to a temporary employee who was given the
responsibility of connecting new workstations to the network and configuring them with static
IP addresses?
A. Conceptual design
B. Logical design
C. Rational design
D. Physical design
11. PC1 has the IP address 192.168.25.190/27. If there were no routers attached to this LAN,
could it ping PC2 with the IP address 192.168.25.194/27?
A. Yes they are in the same subnet
B. No they are in different subnets
C. No PC1 has an address reserved for a subnet ID
D. No PC2 has an address reserved for a broadcast address
A. 1022
B. 1024
C. 510
D. 512
14. If the last available address of every subnet is reserved for the router, which address should
be configured for this device's default gateway? IP: 136.186.238.128 SN: 255.255.248.0
A. 136.186.238.255
B. 136.186.238.254
C. 136.186.239.254
D. 136.186.240.254
15. In order to best plan my risk mitigation, I would like to rank the sub-projects by their over-all
risk, and not just the risk of each task. Which risk management technique will enable me to
do this?
A. Qualitative techniques
B. Probability
C. Probability/Impact Matrix
D. Expected Monetary Value
16. Which of the following troubleshooting tools will allow us to identify a distant router that is
having intermittent errors?
A. Ping
B. Pathping
C. Tracert
D. Arp
17. Which of the following roles cannot be run on a Windows Server 2008 R1 server core
installation?
A. DHCP Server
B. DNS Server
C. Streaming Media Services
D. Application Server
A. Full Control
B. Modify
C. Change
D. Read
19. A user Pam tries to access a file ABC.DOC on PC1. The file has NTFS permission Full
Control configured for Pam. The file resides in a shared folder with the share permissions
Read. Pam logs into PC1 in order to access the file.
What sort of access will Pam have to the ABC.DOC?
A. Pam will only have Read permission as Share permissions override NTFS permissions
B. Pam will have Full Control as NTFS permissions always override Share permissions
C. Pam will have Read permission as the most restrictive permission applies
D. Pam will have Full Control as Share permissions are not applied
20. Which group strategy would best suit a company that has a single domain with five
departments? Some departments are comprised of up to four teams. Sometimes access to
resources needs to be based on department membership, other times access needs to be
based on team membership.
A. I G A
B. I G DL A
C. I G G DL A
D. I G U DL A
21. A GPO named RemoveLockPC is linked to the Domain. Another GPO named EnableLockPC
is linked to the site. A GPO linked to the OU is not configured for the Remove Lock Computer
setting. A user account resides in the OU. When they log in and press Ctrl+Alt+Del what will
be the setting?
22. A DNS client has tried to ping www.swin.edu.au. Which of the following is checked first in the
process of resolving an IP address for this URL?
24. MountTop is a call centre that runs 24/7. Employees are assigned to one of 3 eight hour
shifts. An administrator configures a GPO that removes access to the control panel and links
it to an OU that has 100 user accounts in it and 40 computer accounts. The administrator
does not want to reboot every computer, neither does she want to get everyone to log off an
on again as these steps would be too disruptive. She does not have time to type gpupdate on
every PC. What is the maximum time the Administrator must wait before she can be confident
that the control panel will not appear to the users using these computers
A. 5 minutes
B. 40 x 5 minutes
C. 90 minutes
D. 120 minutes
25. I want to protect my administrators group, and want to prevent others from adding accounts
to this group. Which Group Policy tool would enable me to do this?
27. Which of the following are valid reasons for using the Expected Monetary Value technique over
the Probability Impact Matrix?
A. It is quantitative
B. It handles estimates well
C. It allows sub-project risk to be estimated
D. It produces precise numbers
28. Which of the following would be causing a bottleneck in a quad-core server that had 20 GB of
RAM and a 250GB HDD?
A. System: Processor Queue length = 9
B. Logical Disk: Free space = 50GB
C. Physical Disk: % Idle Time = 25%
D. % Processor Time = 80%
29. A user moves a file that has been encrypted using EFS from a NTFS volume D to an
unencrypted folder on another NTFS volume E. What will be the final encryption status of the file
after it has been moved?
A. It will retain its encrypted status
B. It will inherit an unencrypted status from its new parent folder
C. It will inherit an encrypted status from its new parent folder
D. It will lose its encrypted status as the new volume does not support NTFS
30. Which of the following tools would be the most appropriate to use in order to ascertain whether a
server was experiencing a bottleneck in its CPU?
A. Remote Desktop Connection
B. Remote Desktops MMC snapin
C. Reliability and Performance Monitor, run remotely with focus directed to the server
D. Reliability and Performance Monitor, run locally on the server
1. Acme is launching 18 new branches in cities where they currently have no existing branches, and
consequently need a new subnetting plan to support these branches. The Acme CIO has asked
that each subnet should host at least 550 devices. If a choice needs to be made between the
number of subnets and the size of each subnet, then the number of subnets should be maximised
as much as possible in order to allow growth in the total number of the branches.
Identify and explain three examples where the requirements for two or more project management
knowledge areas overlap or compete?
(3 Marks)
3. A user has their user account and the account of their computer in the AccountsReceivable OU.
Assuming that all GPOs are configured correctly, what will be the Wallpaper that appears on their
computer when they log on to the domain?
___________________________________________________
Label the GPOs that apply to user and computer accounts in the AccountsReceivable OU,
according to their precedence i.e. for the GPO that overrules the other GPOs, for the GPO
with the next highest precedence, etc.
(3 Marks)
NTFS
Allow Deny
Full Control
SHARE
Allow Deny
Modify
Full Control
Group A Read & execute
Change
List folder contents
Read
Read
Write
NTFS
Allow Deny
Full Control
SHARE
Allow Deny
Modify
Full Control
Group B Read & execute
Change
List folder contents
Read
Read
Write
NTFS
Allow Deny
Full Control
SHARE
Allow Deny
Modify
Full Control
Group C Read & execute
Change
List folder contents
Read
Read
Write
NTFS
Allow Deny
Full Control
SHARE
Allow Deny
Modify
Full Control
Group D Read & execute
Change
List folder contents
Read
Read
Write
Figure 1
Question 4 is continued next page
Question 4 continued
YourAnswer:
Placeticksintheappropriateboxes
(a) User1 is a member of Groups A, B and C and logs on to andsummarisebelow.
another server. SHARE
What are User1s net permissions? (1 Mark) Allow Deny
Full Control
Change
Read
Share permissions
do not apply
NTFS
Allow Deny
Full Control
Modify
Read & execute
List folder contents
Read
Write
Theeffectivepermissionis:
______________________
Read
Share permissions
do not apply
NTFS
Allow Deny
Full Control
Modify
Read & execute
List folder contents
Read
Write
Theeffectivepermissionis:
______________________
5. You have been employed to replace an incompetent network administrator. In order to start
troubleshooting the problems you have an assistant put together a map of the network and the IP
configuration of the devices.
Figure 2
Analyse the above diagram and identify 3 PCs with configuration errors. Explain whether these
errors affect the PCs ability to communicate with other PCs. List examples and justify your choice.
(3 Marks)
PC11 PC13
PC11 PC12
PC12 PC23
6. sWin, Ltd. is based in Melbourne has expanded to include operations in India and China and now
contains three domains: the sWin.com domain, the in.sWin.com domain, and the cn.sWin.com
domain.
You need to grant access to all IT Support staff across all domains to the Admin_tools and
IT_Policy shared folder in the sWin domain. IT Managers will need to update the IT policies from
time to time.
You will also need to grant these users access to other resources in the future.
Design a group strategy that will meet the needs of this organisation.
Ensure that you address the group types, group scopes, group memberships, NTFS permissions,
Share permissions, account locations and resource locations in your design.
(6 marks)
a. Explain two reasons why an Administrator may want to divide their IP address space into different
subnets.
(2 marks)
b. Describe the tools Microsoft have made available to use with Windows Server 2012 to help
centralise the administration of IP addresses, both globally accessible and local.
(2 marks)
c. List two technologies that can assist an administrator when transitioning an IPv4 address space
to IPv6.
(2 marks)
End of Exam
Student Id ->
If you have a 7 digit ID shade 2 left columns as 0 (i.e. zero)
Name:
Signature:
2. 17.
Not like this:
Student ID must be shaded in above.
e.g.
3. 18.
4. 19.
5. 20.
6. 21.
7. 22.
8. 23.