Fiitjee Package Questions PDF

10-10-02
General Physics
9. Assignment (Subjective Problems)
LEVEL-I
1. 10 rotations of the cap of a screw gauge is equivalent to 5 mm. The cap has 100
dimensions. Find the least count. A reading taken for the diameter of wire with
the screw gauge shows 4 complete rotations and 35 on the circular scale. Find
the diameter of the wire.
2. A certain pendulum clock with a 12hr dial happens to gain 1 min/day. After setting
the clock to the correct time how long it will take to indicate correct time again?
3. The mass of a block is 87.2g and its volume is 25cm3. What are its density upto
correct significant figures?
4. The radius of a sphere is (5.3 0.1) cm. Find the percentage error in its volume.
5. The Van-der-Waals interaction between two molecules separated by a distance r

is given by the energy
A B
E = 6 + 12 . Find the dimensions of A and B.
r r
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Part-I-PH-GP-2
LEVEL-II
1. In an experiment for finding the specific heat of alcohol, as copper calorimeter of

mass 190 gm is filled with alcohol, and the total mass is found to be 390 gm.
When it is heated by using a 50 W heater for 9 minute the following reading were
recorded with a thermometer and stop watch.
Time (minute) 0 1.5 3 4.5 6 7.5 9
Temperature ( C) 25 38 49 58 65 70 75
Find the specific heat capacity of alcohol. It is not required to take the radiation
correction into account.
MI
2. Suppose, the torque acting on a body, is given by = KL +
Where L = angular momentum, I = moment of inertia & = angular speed
What is the dimensional formula for KM?
3. When a current of (2.5 0.1)A flows through a wire it develops a potential
difference of (20 1)V. What is the resistance of wire?
4. What is the fractional error in g calculated from T = 2 . Given fractional errors

g
in T and are x and y respectively?
5. A planet of mass m rotates around a star of mass M. The time period of

revolution is T, while the average distance of the planet from the star is a. It is
known that there exists a relationship between them: find it. Assume the
dimensional expression for G.
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10. Assignment (Objective Problems)

LEVEL- I
1. ML 1T 2
is the dimensional formula of
(A) force (B) coefficient of friction
(C) modulus of elasticity (D) energy
2. The dimensional formula of coefficient of viscosity is
(A) MLT 1 (B) M 1L2 T 2
(C) ML 1T 1
(D) none of these
3. On the basis of dimensional equation, the maximum number of unknown that can
be found, is
(A) one (B) two
(C) three (D) four
4. If v stands for velocity of sound, E is elasticity and d the density, then find x in the
x
d
equation v .
E
(A) 1 (B)
(C) 2 (D) 1/2
5. The multiplication of 10.610 with 0.210 upto correct number of significant figure is
(A) 2.2281 (B) 2.228
(C) 2.22 (D) 2.2
6. The measurement of radius of a circle has error of 1%. The error in

measurement of its area is
(A) 1% (B) 2%
(C) 3% (D) none of these
7. Dimensional formula of latent heat
(A) M0L2T-2 (B) MLT-2
(C) ML 2T-2 (D) ML2T-2
8. In case of measurement of g, if error in measurement of length of pendulum is
2%, the percentage error in time period is1 %. The maximum error in
measurement of g is
(A) 1 % (B) 2 %
(C) 4 % (D) no error.
9. If length of pendulum is increased by 2%. The time period will
(A) increases by 1% (B) decreases by 1%
(C) increases by 2% (D) decreases by 2%
10. If radian correction is not considered in specific heat measurement. The
measured value of specific heat will be
(A) more than its actual value. (B) less than its actual value.
(C) remains same as actual value. (D) none of these.
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11. The S.I. unit of universal gas constant is

(A) Watt K-1mol-1 (B) N K-1mol-1
(C) JK-1mol-1 (D) erg K-1mol-1
12. The dimensional formula of couple

(A) ML2T-2 (B)MLT-1
(C) ML -1T-1 (D) M1L1T-2
13. An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and x is calculated from x = ab2/c3. If

the maximum percentage error in a, b and c are 1%, 3% and 2% respectively,
the maximum percentage error in x will be
(A) 13% (B) 17%
(C) 14% (D) 11%
14. Dimensional formula of thermal conductivity is

(A) ML2T-3 -1 (B) ML2T-2 -4
(C) ML 2T-2 -1 (D) MLT-3 -1
15. Three measurements 7.1J, 7.2J and 6.7J are made as experiment the result with
correct number of significant figures is
(A) 7.1 J (B) 7.06 J
(C) 7.0 J (D) 7J
16. If P represents radiation pressure, c represents speed of light and Q represents

radiation energy striking a unit area per second, then non-zero integers x, y and
z, such that PxQycz is dimensionless, may be
(A) x = 1, y =1, z = 1. (B) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1.
(C) x = 1, y =1, z = 1. (D) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
17. A spherical ball of mass m and radius r is allowed to fall in a medium of viscosity
. The time in which the velocity of the body increases from zero to 0.63 times
the terminal velocity is called time constant ( ). Dimensionally can be
represented by
mr 2 6 mr
(A) (B)
6 g2
m
(C) (D) none of these.
6 r
18. Which of the following is a possible dimensionless quantity?

(A) Velocity gradient (B) Pressure gradient
(C) Displacement gradient (D) Force gradient
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19. In specific resistance measurement of a wire using a meter bridge, the key k in
the main circuit is kept open when we are not taking readings. The reason is
(A) the emf of cell will decrease.
(B) the value of resistance will change due to joule heating effect.
(C) the galvanometer will stop working.
(D) none of these.
20. In the experiment of verification of Ohms law the error in the current
measurement is 1%, while that in the voltage measurement is 2%. The error in
the resistance has a maximum value of
(A)1% (B) 2%
(C) 3% (D) none of these.
LEVEL - II
1. Which of the following are not the dimensions of calorie?

(A) [ML2T-2] (B) [MLT-2] (C) [ML-2T-1] (D) [ML2T-1]
2. Which of the following are not the dimensional formula for kinetic energy?
(A) [M2L2T] (B) [ML2T-2] (C) [M0L-1] (D) [ML2T]
3. Which of the following are dimensionally wrong?

(A) Pressure = Energy per unit area
(B) Pressure = Energy per unit volume
(C) Pressure = Force per unit volume
(D) Pressure = Momentum per unit volume per unit time
dv
4. Given that: F A ,
dx
dv
where F is force, A is area and velocity gradient, then which of the following are not
dx
the dimensional formula of ?
(A) [ML-1T-1] (B) [ML-1T] (C) [ML-2T-2] (D) [ML2T-1]
5. A particle moving along a straight line with uniform acceleration has velocities 7 m/s at
P and 17 m/s at Q,R is the mid point of PQ. Then:
(A) the average velocity between R and Q is 15 m/s
(B) the ratio of time to go from P to R and that from R to Q is 3:2
(C) the velocity at R is 10 m/s
(D) the average velocity between P and R is 10 m/s
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LEVEL - III
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. Column I Column II
(A) Amount of substance (P) Second
(B) Time (Q) Kelvin
(C) Temperature (R) Mole
(D) Electric current (S) Ampere
(T) Kilogram
2. Column I Column II
(A) Speed (P) MLT1 1 2
(B) Force (Q) M1L 1T 2
(C) Pressure (R) M1L2T 2
(D) Work (S) M2L2 T 2

(T) M0L1T 1
Integer Answer Type Questions
3. The unit of force and length are doubled, the unit of energy will be ____ times.
4. The heat dissipated in a resistance can be obtained by the measurement of resistance,

the current and time. If the maximum error in the measurement of these quantities is 1%,
2% and 1% respectively, the maximum error in the determination of the dissipated heat
is ___%.
5. The relative density of a material is found by weighing the body first in air and then in
water. If the weight in air is (10.0 0.1) gm and weight in water is (5.0 0.1) gm then the
maximum permissible percentage error in relative density is ____%
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11. Answers to the Subjective Assignment

LEVEL - I
1. 2.175 mm 2. 720 days
3. 3.5g/cc 4. 5.7%
5. [A] = ML8T 2, [B] = ML4T 2
LEVEL-II
1. 2300 J/kg-k 2. T4
3. (8 0.7) 4. (y+2x)
1/2
5. T= (GM) a 3/2
12. Answers to the Objective Assignment
LEVEL -I
1. C 2. C
3. C 4. D
5 B 6. B
7. A 8 C
9. A 10. A
11. C 12. A
13. A 14. D
15. C 16 B
17. C 18. C
19. B 20. C
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LEVEL-II
1. (B), (C), (D) 2. (A), (C), (D)
3. (A), (C), (D) 4. (B), (C), (D)
5. (A), (B), (D)
LEVEL-III
1. A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
2. A-T, B-P, C-Q, D-R
3. 4
4. 6
5. 5
***
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KINEMATICS
LEVEL I
1. A cricketer hits a ball from the ground level with a velocity v 0 = (20 i + 10 j )
m/sec. Find the velocity of the ball at t = 1 sec, from the instant of projection
(g = 10 m/sec2).
2. A body is projected vertically up with a speed V0. Find the magnitude of time
average velocity of the body during its ascent.
3. A bomb is released from an aeroplane flying with a horizontal velocity of

magnitude 100 m/sec at an altitude of 1 km. What is the displacement during the
time of its flight?
4. A football player kicks the football so that it will have a hang time (time of flight)
of 5s and lands 50 m away. If the ball leaves the players foot 1.5m above the
ground, what is its initial velocity (magnitude and direction)? (g = 10 m/sec2)
5. A rocket is fired vertically up from the ground with a resultant vertical acceleration
of 10 m/s2. The fuel is finished in 1 minute and it continues to move up
(a) what is the maximum height reached ?
(b) After how much time from then will the maximum height be reached?
(Take g = 10 m/s2 )
6. A ball is falling from the top of a cliff of height h with an initial speed V. Another
ball is simultaneously projected vertically up with the same speed. When do they
meet ?
7. If an object travels one-half its total path in the last second of its fall from rest,
find (a) the time and (b) the height of its fall. Explain the physically unacceptable
solution of the quadratic time equation.
8. A particle starts moving due east with a velocity v1 = 5 m/sec. for
10 sec. and turns to north with a velocity v2 =10 m/sec. for 5 sec. Find the
average velocity of the particle during 15 sec. from starting.
9. A particle is moving with a speed v0 in a circular path of radius R. Find the ratio of
average velocity to its instantaneous velocity when the particle describes an
angle (< /2).
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10. To a man moving due east with a speed v in a rain, the rain appears to fall
vertically. If he changes his speed by a factor n, the rain appears to fall at an
angle to vertical. Find the speed of the rain.
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LEVEL II
1. Two particles are projected horizontally in opposite directions with v1 & v2 from
the top of a pole. If the particles move perpendicular to each other just before
striking the ground, find the height of the pole.
2. A cannon fires successively two shells with velocity vo = 250 m/s; the first at the
angle 1 = 60o and the second at the angle 2 = 45o to the horizontal, the
azimuth being the same. Neglecting the air drag, find the time interval between
firings leading to the collision of the shells.
3. An aeroplane flies in still air at a speed of 400 km/hr. Air is blowing from the
south at a speed of 50 km/hr. The pilot wants to travel from point A to point B
north-east of A and then to return. Calculate the direction he must steer (a) on
his onward journey (b) on his return journey. If the distance AB is 1000 km then
calculate the time taken in two journeys.
4. Two particles move in a uniform gravitational field with an acceleration g. At the

initial moment the particles were located at one point in space and moved with
velocities v1 = 3.0 m/s and v2 = 4.0 m/s horizontally in opposite directions. Find
the distance between the particles at the moment when their velocity vectors
become mutually perpendicular.
5. A point moves rectilinearly with deceleration whose modulus depends on the

velocity v of the particle as w = a v, where a is a positive constant. At the initial
moment the velocity of the point is equal to vo. What distance will it traverse
before it stops? What time will it take to cover that distance?
6. Find the ratio between the normal and tangential acceleration of a point on the
rim of a rotating wheel when at the moment when the vector of the total
acceleration of this point forms an angle of 30 with the vector of the linear
velocity.
7. A fan rotates with a velocity corresponding to a frequency of 900 rev/min. When

its motor is switched off, the fan uniformly slows down and performs 75
revolutions before it comes to a stop. How much time elapsed from the moment
the fan was switched off to the moment it stopped?
8. A motor cyclist, going due east with a velocity of 10 m/s, finds that the wind is
blowing directly from the north. When he doubles his speed, he finds that the
wind is blowing from north east. In what direction and with what velocity is the
wind blowin?.
9. The acceleration vector of a particle having initial speed V0 changes with

distance as a x . Find the distance covered by the particle when its speed
becomes twice the initial speed.
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10. An observer in a train moving with a uniform velocity finds that a car moving
parallel to the train has a speed of 10 km/h in the direction of motion of the train.
An object falls from the car and the observer in the train notices that the car has
moved on for one minute, turned back, and moved with a speed of 10 km/h and
picked up the object two minutes after turning. Find
(a) the velocity of the train relative to the ground and
(b) the velocity of the car during its forward and reverse journeys.
Assume that the object comes to rest immediately on fall from the point of
view of the observer on the ground.
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LEVEL- I
1. A stone is released from an elevator going up with acceleration 5 m/s2. The
acceleration of the stone after the release is:
(A) 5 ms-2 (B) 4.8 ms-2 upward
(C) 4.8 down ward (D) 9.8 ms-2 down ward
2. The locus of a projectile relative to another projectile is a

(A) straight line (B) circle
(C ) ellipse (D) parabola
3. A car accelerates from rest at constant rate of 2 m/s2 for some time. Then its
retards at a constant rate of 4 m/s2 and comes to rest. What is the maximum
speed attained by the car if it remains in motion for 3 seconds
(A) 2 m/s (B) 3 m/s
(C) 4 m/s (D) 6 m/s
4. The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = ct2 and
y = bt2. The speed of the particle is given by:
(A) 2t (c + b) (B) 2t (c 2 b2 )
(C) t (c 2 b2 ) (D) 2t (c 2 b2 )
5. A particle parallel to x-axis as shown in the figure y

such that at all instant the y axis component of its
v
position vector is constant and is equal to b. The
angular velocity of the particle about the origin is
v v
(A) (B) sin
b b O x
v
(C) sin2 (D) vb
b
6. A particle is projected vertically upwards and it attains maximum height H. If the

ratio of times to attain height h(h < H) is 1/3, then h equals
(A) 2/3. H (B) 3/ 4. H
(C) 4/3 . H (D) 3/2. H
7. A boy B drags a wedge A by an in

extensible string passing over the 1
pulleys 1,2,3 & 4 as shown in the 2
figure If all the pulleys are smooth and A
3 4
the boy walks with constant velocity of
magnitude v, the magnitude of relative V B
velocity between the boy and the
wedge is equal to
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(A) v (B) 2v
(C) 1.5v (D) 1.25v
8. A swimmer wishes to reach directly opposite bank of a river, flowing with velocity
8 m/s. The swimmer can swim 10 m/s in still water. The width of the river is 480
m. Time taken by him to do so:
(A) 60 sec (B) 48 sec
(C) 80 sec (D) None of these
9. A man can swim at a speed of 5 km/h w.r.t. water. He wants to cross a 1.5 km
wide river flowing at 3 km/h. He keeps himself always at an angle of 60 o with the
flow direction while swimming. The time taken by him to cross the river will be
(A) 0.25 hr. (B) 0.35 hr.
(C) 0.45 hr. (D) 0.55 hr.
10. A disc of radius R is rotating inside a room A boy standing near the rim of the
disc, finds the water droplets falling from the ceiling is always hitting on his head.
As one drop hits his head the next one starts from the ceiling. If height of the
roof above his head is H. Angular velocity of disc is:
2gR 2gH
(A) 2
(B)
H R2
2g 2g
(C) (D) 2
H H
11. The acceleration-time graph of a particle moving a (m/s2)

along a straight line is as shown in figure. At what 10
time the particle acquires its initial velocity?
(A) 12 sec.
(B) 5 sec.
(C) 8 sec.
(D) 16 sec. 4 t(sec.)
12. What are the speeds of two objects if they move uniformly towards each other,
they get 4m closer in each second and if they move uniformly in the same
direction with the original speeds they get 4m closer in each 10 sec ?
(A) 2.8 m/s and 1.2 m/s (B) 5.2 m/s and 4.6 m/s
(C) 3.2 m/s and 2.1 m/s (D) 2.2 m/s and 1.8 m/s
13. From the top of a tower, a stone is thrown up. It reaches the ground in 5 sec. A
second stone is thrown down with the same speed and reaches the ground in
1sec. A third stone is released from rest and reaches the ground in
(A) 3 sec. (B) 2 sec.
(C) 5 sec. (D) 2.5 sec.
14. A particle has an initial velocity of (3 i 4j )m/s and a constant acceleration of

(4 i 3j ) m/s2. Its speed after one second will be equal to
(A) 0 (B) 10 m/sec
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(C) 5 2 m/sec (D) 25 m/sec
15. A balloon starts rising from the ground with an acceleration of 1.25 m/s2. After 8
seconds, a stone is released from the balloon. After releasing, the stone will
(A) cover a distance of 40 m till it strikes the ground.
(B) have a displacement of 50 m till it reaches the ground
(C) reach the ground in 4 seconds.
(D) begin to move down instantaneously
16. Two balls are dropped from the top of a high tower with a time interval of t0
second, where t0 is smaller than the time taken by the first ball to reach the floor
which is perfectly inelastic. The distance S between the two balls, plotted against
the time lapse t from the instant of dropping the second ball is best represented
by
(A) (B)
S S
t t
O O
(C) (D)
S S
t t
O O
17. The K.E. (K) of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the
distance covered s as K as 2 . The force acting on particle is
2as2 2as
(A) (B) 1/2
R s2
1
R
1/2
s2
(C) 2as 1 (D) none of these.
R2
18. Two particles P and Q start from rest and move for equal time on a straight line.
Particle P has an acceleration of X m/s2 for the first half of the total time and 2x
m/s2 for the second half. Particle Q has an acceleration of 2X m/s2 for the first
half of the total time and X m/s2 for the second half. Which particle has covered
larger distance?
(A) Both have covered the same distance
(B) P has covered the larger distance
(C) Q has covered the larger distance
(D) data insufficient
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19. A particle is moving in a circle of radius R in such a way that at any instant the
normal and tangential components of its acceleration are equal. If its speed at
t = 0 is v0 the time taken to complete the first revolution is
(A) R/v0 (B) v0 /R
(C) R/v0 (1 e-2 ) (D) R/v0 (e-2 )
20. A motor boat of mass m moves along a lake with velocity v0. At t = 0, the engine
of the boat is shut down. Resistance offered to the boat is equal to v. What is
the total distance covered till it stops completely?
mv 0 3mv 0
(A) (B)
2
mv 0 2mv 0
(C) (D)
2
LEVEL- II
x t3
1. A particle moves along positive branch of the curve y where x , x and y
2 3
are measured in metres and t in seconds, then
1
(A) the velocity of particle at t = 1 s is i j
2
1
(B) the velocity of particle at t = 1 s is i j
2
(C) the acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is 2i j
(D) the acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is i 2j
2. Figure shows two blocks, each of mass m. The system

is released from rest at the position, shown in fig. If v2,a2
initial acceleration of blocks A and B are a1 and a2 B
respectively and during the motion velocities of A and
B are v1 and v 2 respectively, then :
A v1
(A) a1 a2 cos (B) a2 a1 cos 1
(C) v1 v 2 cos (D) v 2 v1 cos
3. The string shown in the figure is passing over

small smooth pulley rigidly attached to trolley
A. If speed of trolley is constant and equal to
VA. Speed and magnitude of acceleration of A
block B at the instant shown in figure is

(A) vB = vA, aB = 0 (B) aB = 0 x=3cm
3 16v A B
(C) vB vA (D) aB
5 125
4. A particle is projected from the ground in earths gravitational field at an angle

with the horizontal then
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(A) center of curvature of projectiles trajectory at the highest point is below the
ground level if tan 1 2
(B) centre of curvature of projectiles trajectory at the highest point is above the
(C) center of curvature of projectiles trajectory at the highest point is above
(D) center of curvature of projectiles trajectory at the highest point is below the
ground level is tan 1 2
5. Two different balls of masses m1 and m2 are m1 m2

allowed to slide down from rest and from
same height h along two smooth inclined h
planes having different angles of inclination
and . Then
(A) the final speed velocity acquired by them
will be the same
(B) the final speed acquired by them will be
different
(C) the times taken by them to reach the bottom will be the same
(D) the times taken by them to reach the bottom will be in the ratio (sin /sin )
6. A particle is moving along a curve. Then

(A) if its speed is constant it has no acceleration
(B) if its speed is increasing the acceleration of the particle is along its direction
of motion
(C) if its speed is constant the magnitude of its acceleration is proportional to its
curvature.
(D) the direction of its acceleration cannot be along the tangent.
7. A particle of mass m moves along x-axis as follows : it starts from rest at t = 0

from the point x = 0, and comes to rest at t = 1 sec at the point x = 1. No other
information is available about its motion at intermediate times (0 < t < 1). If
denotes the acceleration of the particle then,
(A) cannot remain positive for all t in the interval 0 t 1.
(B) | | can not exceed 2at any point in its path.
(C) | | must be 4 at some point or points in its path.
(D) must change sign during the motion, but no other assertion can be made
with the information given :
8. Mark the correct statements for a particle going on a straight line

(A) if the velocity is zero at any instant, the acceleration should also be zero at
that instant
(B) if the velocity is zero for a time interval, the acceleration is zero at any instant
within the time interval
(C) if the velocity and acceleration have opposite sign, the object is slowing down
(D) if the position and velocity have opposite sign, the particle is moving towards
the origin
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9. A particle initially at rest is subjected to two forces. One is constant, the other
is a retarding force proportional to the particle velocity. In the subsequent motion
of the particle :
(A) the acceleration will increase from zero to a constant value
(B) the acceleration will decrease from its initial value to zero
(C) the velocity will increase from zero to maximum & then decrease
(D) the velocity will increase from zero to a constant value.
10. Which of the following statements are true for a moving body?
(A) If its speed changes, its velocity must change and it must have some
acceleration
(B) If its velocity changes, its speed must change and it must have some
acceleration
(C) If its velocity changes, its speed may or may not change, and it must have
some acceleration
(D) If its speed changes but direction of motion does not change, its velocity may
remain constant
COMPREHENSIONS
Comprehension I:
Using the concept of relative motion, answer the following Y
question. Velocity of the river with respect to ground is given by
V0. Width of the river is d. A swimmer swims (with respect to V0
d
water) perpendicular to the current with acceleration a = 2t
O X
(where t is time) starting from rest form the origin O at t = 0.
1. The time of crossing the river is

(A) (D)1/3 (B) (2d)1/3
(C) (3d)1/3 (D) Information is insufficient
2. The drift of the swimmer is

(A) V0(D)1/3 (B) V0(2d)1/3
(C) V0(3d)1/3 (D) None of these
3. The equation of trajectory of the path followed by the swimmer

x3 x2
(A) y (B) y
3V03 2V02
x x
(C) y (D) y
V0 V0
Comprehension II :
When a particle is projected at some angle with the horizontal, the path of the
particle is parabolic in nature. In the process the horizontal velocity remains
constant but the magnitude of vertical velocity changes. At any instant during
flight the acceleration of particle remains g in vertically downward direction.
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During flight at any point the path of particle can be considered as a part of circle
and radius of that circle is called the radius of curvature of the path of particle.
Consider that a particle is projected with velocity u = 10 m/s at an angle = 60
with the horizontal then :
Answer the following questions
4. The radius of curvature of path of particle at the instant when the velocity vector of the
particle becomes perpendicular to initial velocity vector is
20 10
(A) m (B) m
3 3 3 3
40 80
(C) m (D) m
3 3 3 3
5. The magnitude of acceleration of particle at that instant is

(A) 10 m/s 2 (B) 5 3 m / s2
(C) 5 m/s2 (D) 10 3 m / s2
6. Tangential acceleration of particle at that instant will be

(A) 10 m/s 2 (B) 20 m/s2
(C) 5 m/s2 (D) 5 3 m / s2
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. A body is projected with a velocity of 60 m/s at 30 to horizontal (g = 10 m/s2) :

Column A Column B
(A) Initial velocity vector (p) 60 3 i 40 j

(B) Velocity just after 3 sec (q) 30 3 i 10 j
(C) Displacement just after 2 sec (r) 30 3 i 30 j
(D) Velocity just after 2 sec (s) 30 3 i
2. Match the following :

Column II
Column I (velocitytime graph)
(accelerationtime graph)
(A) +a (p)
V
t
a
t
(B) (q)
a V
t t
RSM79-P1-KM-PH-76
(C) (r)
a
V
t
t
(D) (s)
a
V
t t
RSM79-P1-KM-PH-77
12. Hints to Subjective Assignments

LEVEL - I
1. Apply vy = vo sin gt; vx = vocos

2. Find the maximum height reached.
3. Vertical displacement of bomb = 1km
Horizontal displacement of bomb = velocity of plane time of flight.
4. Vertical displacement of the projectile is 1.5 meter and horizontal displacement
is 50 meter.
5. Find velocity of the rocket after 1 minute.
6. They meet when their separation is zero.
7. Use kinematical equations.
8. Use vector method to find out displacement vector.
9. First find out time to move through an angle . Then find the displacement during
this time and average velocity.
10. Draw the vector diagram clearly.
LEVEL- II
1. Use the concept of dot product.

2. Write equations for their positions at a time t. Solve these equations.
3. Draw the vector diagram clearly in two cases. Note that velocity of plane in still
air + velocity of air = velocity of plane in blowing air.
4. Use the concept of dot product.

dv
5. Deceleration equals to v = a v.
dx
6. Normal acceleration is (v2/R) while tangential acceleration is R .
7. Use simple kinematical equations.
8. Draw the vector diagram clearly.
dv
9. Acceleration; a = v = x.
dx
10. Velocity of car as observed from train
= velocity of car relative to ground velocity of train relative to ground.
RSM79-P1-KM-PH-78
13. Answers to Subjective Assignments

LEVEL - I
v0
1. 20 i 2.
2
3. 1732 m, tan-1(0.707) 4. 26.64 m/s, 67.96
h
5. (a) 36 km (b) 1 minute 6.
2v
5 2
7. (a) 3.4 sec (b) 57m 8. due north of east
3
2 sin 2
9. 10. v 1 n2 cot 2
LEVEL II
v1v 2
1.
2g
2v 0 sin 1 2
2. t , 10.7 sec.
g cos 1 cos 2
3. (a) 390 56 north of east, 2.3 hour (b) 390 56 west of south, 2.75 hour
4. 2.5 m
2 2 vo
5. v 3/2
0 ,
3a a
ar 1
6.
at 3
7. 10 sec
8. 10 2 m/s, from north west
4
3v 0 3
9.
2
10. (a) 3.33 km/hr (b) 13 km/hr, 6.67 km/hr
RSM79-P1-KM-PH-79
14. Answers to Objective Assignments

LEVEL - I
1. (D) 2. (A)
3. (C) 4. (D)
5. (C) 6. (C)
7. (D) 8. (C)
9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (D)
13. (C) 14. (C)
15. (C) 16. (D)
17. (C) 18. (C)
19. (C) 20. (A)
LEVEL II
1. (B), (C) 2. (A), (C)
3. (C), (D) 4. (A), (B)
5. (A), (D) 6. (C), (D)
7. (A), (C) 8. (B), (C), (D)
9. (B), (D) 10. (A), (C)
COMPREHENSIONS
1. (C) 2. (C)
3. (A) 4. (A)
5. (A) 6. (C)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (r); (B) (s); (C) (p); (D) (a)

2. (A) (q); (B) (r); (C) (s) ; (D) (p)
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-31
LAWS OF MOTION
9. Assignments (Subjective Problems)
LEVEL I
A
1. Two blocks A and B of masses M1 and M2 B
respectively kept in contact with each other on a F
M1
M2
smooth horizontal surface. A constant horizontal
force (F) is applied on A as shown in figure. Find
the acceleration of each block and the contact
force between the blocks
2. A bob of mass m = 50 gm is suspended from the

ceiling of a trolley by a light inextensible string. If the a
trolley accelerates horizontally, the string makes an
m
angle = 30 o with the vertical. Find the acceleration of
the trolley.
3. Two small bodies connected by a light

inextensible string passing over a smooth m1 m2
pulley are in equilibrium on a fixed smooth
wedge as shown in the figure. Find the ratio of
the masses. Given that = 600 and = 300.
k
4. Both the springs shown in Figure are k
unstretched. If the block is displaced by a m

distance x and released, what will be the
initial acceleration?
F
5. A block of mass m = 1 kg is at rest on a rough horizontal m
surface having coefficient of static friction 0.2 and kinetic
force 0.15. Find the frictional forces if a horizontal force (a)
F = 1 N, (b) F = 1.96 N and (c) F = 2.5 N are applied on a
block which is at rest on the surface.
6. Two masses m1 = 5 kg, m2 = 2 kg placed on a smooth horizontal surface are

connected by a light inextensible string. A horizontal force F = 1 N is applied on
m1. Find the acceleration of either block. Describe the motion of m1 and m2 if the
string breaks but F continues to act.
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-32
7. The coefficient of static friction between a block of mass m and an incline is s =

0.3. (a) What can be the maximum angle of the incline with the horizontal so
that the block does not slip on the plane? (b) If the incline makes an angle /2
with the horizontal, find the frictional force on the block.
8. A 20 kg box is dragged across a rough level floor having a coefficient of kinetic
friction of 0.3 by a rope which is pulled upward at angle of 30 to the horizontal
with a force of magnitude 80 N.
(a) What is the normal force?
(b) What is the frictional force?
(c) What is the acceleration of the box?
(d) If the force is reduced until the acceleration becomes zero, what is the tension
in the rope?
9. A small body A starts sliding down from the A
top of a wedge (fig.) whose base is equal to

= 2.10 m. The coefficient of friction between
the body and the wedge surface is k = 0.140.
For what value of the anlge will the time of
sliding be the least? What will it be equal to?
10. A chain of length is placed on a smooth spherical surface of radius R with one
of its ends fixed at the top of the sphere. What will be the acceleration a of each
element of the chain when its upper end is released? It is assumed that the
length of the chain < ( R/2).
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-33
LEVEL II
1. A smooth wedge with elevation is fixed in an elevator moving up with uniform

acceleration a0 = g/2. The base of the wedge has a length L. Find the time
taken by a particle sliding down the incline to reach the base.
2. A body of mass 2 kg is lying on a rough inclined plane of inclination 30. Find the
magnitude of the force parallel to the incline needed to make the block move (a)
up the incline (b) down the incline. Coefficient of static friction = 0.2.
3. A spring has its end fixed to the ceiling of the elevator rigidly. It has spring
constant = 2000 N/m. A man of mass 50 kg climbs along the other end of the
spring vertically up with an acceleration of 2 m/s2 relative to the elevtater. The
elevater is going up with retardation 3 m/s2. Find extension in the spring.
4. A bar of mass m resting on a smooth horizontal plane starts moving due to the
force F = mg/3 of constant magnitude. In the process of its rectilinear motion the
angle between the direction of this force and the horizontal varies as = as,
where a is a constant, and s is the distance traversed by the bar from its initial
position. Find the velocity of the bar as a function of the angle .
5. Two blocks in contact of masses 2 kg and 4 kg in succession from down to up

are sliding down an inclined surface of inclination 30. The friction coefficient
between the block of mass 2.0 kg and the inclines is 1, and that between the
block of mass 4.0 kg and the incline is 2. Calculate the acceleration of the 2.0 kg
block if (a) 1 = 0.20 and 2 = 0.30, (b) 1 = 0.30 and 2 = 0.20. Take g = 10 m/s2.
6. A balloon is descending with a constant acceleration a, less than the acceleration

due to gravity g. The weight of the balloon, with its basket and contents, is w.
What weight, w, should be released so that the balloon will begin to accelerate
upward with constant acceleration a? Neglect air resistance.
7. In the figure shown co-efficient of friction

between the block B and C is 0.4. There is no B
friction between the block C and the surface C
on which it is placed. The block A is released

from rest, find the distance moved by the block A
C when block A descends through a height 2m. Given masses of the blocks are
mA = 3 kg, mB = 5 kg and mC = 10 kg.
F
8. Two masses m1 and m2 are connected by
means of a light string, that passes over a light
pulley as shown in the figure. If m1 = 2kg and
m2 = 5 kg and a vertical force F is applied on
the pulley then find the acceleration of the m2
m1
masses and that of the pulley when
(a) F = 35 N (b) F = 70 N (c) F = 140 N
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-34
9. In the given figure the co-efficient of friction between the m

M F
walls of block of mass m and the plank of mass M is . The
same co-efficient of friction is there between the plank and
the horizontal floor. The force F is of 100 N and the masses
m and M are of 1 kg and 3 kg respectively. Find the value
of , if the block does not slip along the wall of the plank.
10. In figure, a bar of mass m is placed on the smooth

surface of a wedge of mass M. The bar is connected to
an inextensible string passing over a light smooth m
pulley fitted with the wedge. The string is connected to M
the vertical wall. The angle of inclination of the slant
surface of the wedge is . If all contacting surfaces are
smooth, find the acceleration of the wedge.
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-35
10. Assignments (Objective Problems)

LEVEL I
1. When a body is stationary:

(A) There is no force acting on it
(B) The forces acting on it are not in a contact with it
(C) The combination of forces acting on it balance each other
(D) The body is in vacuum
2. A toy train consists of three identical compartments X, Y and Z. It is pulled by a

constant horizontal force F applied on Z horizontally. Assuming there is negligible
friction, the ratio of tension in string connecting XY and YZ is:
(A) 2:1 (B) 3:2
(C) 1:2 (D) 2:3
3. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 1 kg are in contact with each other on a

frictionless table, when a horizontal force of 3.0 N is applied to the block of mass
2 kg the value of the force of contact between the two blocks is:
(A) 4 N (B) 3 N
(C) 2 N (D) 1 N
4. A block of metal weighing 2 Kg is resting on a frictionless plane. It is struck by a

jet releasing water at a rate of 1 Kg/sec and at a speed of 5m/sec. The initial
acceleration of the block will be:
(A) 2.5 m/sec2 (B) 5.0 m/sec2
(C) 10 m/sec2 (D) none of above
5. When a force of constant magnitude always act perpendicular to the motion of a

particle then:
(A) Velocity is constant (B) Acceleration is constant
(C) KE is constant (D) None of these
6. Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the ends of string which passes over the
pulley attached to the top of a double inclined plane. The angles of inclination of
the inclined planes are and . Take g = 10 ms-2. If M1 = M2 and = , what is
the acceleration of the system?
(A) zero (B) 2.5 ms-2
(C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
7. Starting from rest, a body slides down a 45 inclined plane in twice the time it
takes to slide down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient
of friction between the body and the inclined plane is:
(A) 0.33 (B) 0.25
(C) 0.75 (D) 0.80
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-36
8. A trolley car slides down a smooth inclined plane of angle of inclination . If a

body is suspended from the roof of the trolley car by an inextensible string of
length l, the corresponding tension in the string will be
(A) mg (B) mg cos
(C) mg sin (D) None of these
9. A block of mass m is held at the top of an inclined rough plane of angle of

inclination . The coefficients of static and kinetic friction are 1 and 2
respectively. If the block is pushed down at the verge of slipping, assuming <
tan-1 1, Its acceleration down the plane is :
(A) g[Sin - 1 Cos ] (B) g[Sin - 2 Cos ]
(C) g( Sin - 1 Cos ] (D) g
10. A satellite in force-free space sweeps stationary interplanetary dust at a rate

(dM/dt) = v. The acceleration of satellite is:
(A) -2v2/M (B) - v2/M
(C) - v2/2M (D) - v2
11. Three blocks are connected on a horizontal frictionless table by two light strings,
one between m1 and m2, another between m2 and m3 . The tensions are T1
between m1 and m2 and T2 between m2 and m3. if m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 8 kg, m3 = 27
kg and F = 36 N applied on m3, then T2 will be
(A) 18 N (B) 9 N
(C) 3.375 N (D) 1.75 N
12. A force-time graph for the motion of a body is

1
shown in figure. Change in linear momentum F
between 0 and 8 s is:
(A) Zero (B) 4 N-s
0 8
(C) 8 Ns (D) None t
13. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of

mass m. If a force F is applied at one end of the rope, the force which the rope
exerts on the block is:
(A) F/(M+m) (B) F
(C) FM/(m+M) (D) 0
14. A chain of length L and mass M is hanging by fixing its upper end to a rigid
support. The tension in the chain at a distance x from the rigid support is:
(A) Zero (B) F
(L x ) (L x )
(C) Mg (D) Mg
L M
15. Two masses m and m are tied with a thread passing over a pulley, m is on a
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-37
frictionless horizontal surface and m is hanging freely. If acceleration due to

gravity is g, the acceleration of m in this arrangement will be
(A) g (B) g/(m+ m )
(C) g/m (D) g/(m- m )
16. A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall by applying a horizontal force of 5 N
on the block. If the coefficient of friction the block and the wall is 0.5, the
magnitude of the frictional force acting on the block is:
(A) 2.5 N (B) 0.98 N
(C) 4.9 N (D) 0.49 N
17. A block A of mass 2 kg rests on another block B of mass 8 kg which rests on a

horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 while that
between B and floor is 0.5. When a horizontal force of 25 N is applied on the
block B. The force of friction between A and B is:
(A) Zero (B) 3.9 N
(C) 5.0 N (D) 49 N
18. A ball weighing 10 gm hits a hard vertical surface with a speed of 5m/s and
rebounds with the same speed. The ball remains in contact with the surface for
(0.01) sec. The average force exerted by the surface on the ball is:
(A) 100 N (B) 10 N
(C) 1 N (D) 0.1 N
19. Two masses A and B each of mass M are A F

fixed together by a massless spring. A
force F acts on the mass B as shown in figure. At the instant shown the mass A
has acceleration a. What is the acceleration of mass B?
(A) (F/M)-a (B) a
(C) -a (D) (F/M)
20. An object is placed on the surface of a smooth inclined plane of inclination . It

takes time t to reach the bottom. If the same objective is allowed to slide down a
rough inclined plane of same inclination , it takes nt to reach the bottom where n
is a number greater than 1. The coefficient of friction is given by
(A) = tan (1 1/n2) (B) = cot (1 1/n2)
(C) = tan (1 1/n2)1/2 (D) = cot (1 1/n2)1/2
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-38
LEVEL II
1. In the figure small block is kept on m then =0

=0 m
F
(A) the acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is M F
m
(B) the acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is zero A B
2 m
(C) the time taken by m to separate from M is
F
2 M
(D) the time taken by m to separate from M is
F
2. In the figure, a man of true mass M is standing on a weighing m

machine placed in a cabin. The cabin is joined by a string with a
body of mass m. Assuming no friction, and negligible mass of cabin
and weighing machine, the measured mass of man is (normal force
between the man and the machine is proportional to the mass)
Mm mg
(A) measured mass of man is (B) acceleration of man is
(M m) (M m)
Mg
(C) acceleration of man is (D) measured mass of man is M.
(M m)
3. The figure shows a block of mass m placed on a smooth m

wedge of mass M. Calculate the value of M and tension in
the string, so that the block of mass m will move vertically
downward with acceleration 10 m/s2 Smooth
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
Mcot
(A) the value of M is
1 cot
M tan
(B) the value of M
1 tan
Mg
(C) the value of tension in the string is
tan
g
(D) the value of tension is
cot
4. Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 are connected g=10m/s2

through a massless inextensible string. Block of
mass m1 is placed at the fixed rigid inclined surface m1=4kg m2=2kg
while the block of mass m2 hanging at the other end Fixed
30
of the string, which is passing through a fixed
massless frictionless pulley shown in figure. The
coefficient of static friction between the block and the
inclined plane is 0.8. The system of masses m1 and
m2 is released from rest.
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-39
(A) the tension in the string is 20 N after releasing the system

(B) the contact force by the inclined surface on the block is along normal to the inclined
surface
(C) the magnitude of contact force by the inclined surface on the block m1 is 20 3N
(D) none of these
5. A force F is applied vertically upward to the pulley and it

is observed that the pulley in the figure moves upward F
with a uniform velocity of 2 m/s. The possible value(s) light pulley
of F is/are (in newtons)
(A) 150 (B) 120 g=10m/s2
(C) 75 (D) 400.
10kg 6kg
Ground
6. The coefficient of friction of all the surfaces is .
The string and the pulley are light. The blocks T1 T1
A 2m
are moving with constant speed. Choose the
correct statement T1 T1
F 3m
B
(A) F = 9 mg (B) T1 = 2 mg
(C) T1= 3 mg (D) T1 = 4 mg
7. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg are connected

10 kg 20 kg F
by a light spring as shown. A force of 200 N acts
on a 20 kg mass as shown. At a certain instant
F = 200 N
the acceleration of 10 kg mass is 12 ms-2.
(a) At that instatnt the 20 kg mass has an acceleration of 2 ms-2
(b) At that instant the 20 kg mass has an acceleration of 4ms-2
(c) The stretching force in the spring is 120 N
(d) Spring force have different magnitudes for both blocks.
8. A particle stays at rest as seen in a frame. We can conclude that

(a) the frame is inertial
(b) resultant force on the particle is zero
(c) the frame may be inertial but the resultant force on the particle is zero
(d) the frame may be non-inertial but there is a nonzero resultant force
9. A particle is observed from two frames S1 and S2. The frame S2 moves with respect to
S1 with an acceleration . Let F1 and F2 be the pseudo forces on the particle when seen
from S1 and S2 respectively. Which of the following are not possible?
(a) F1 = 0, F2 0 (b) F1 0, F2 = 0
(c) F1 0, F2 0 (d) F1 = 0, F2 = 0
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-40
10. A block of mass m slides down on a wedge of mass M

as shown in figure. Let a1 be the acceleration of the
M m
wedge and a2 the acceleration of block. N1 is the
normal relation between block and wedge and N2 the
normal reaction between wedge and ground. Friction is
absent everywhere. Select the correct alternative (s)
(a) N2 < (M + m) g (b) N1 = m (g cos q - | a1 | sin q)

(c) N1 sin q = M | a1 | (d) ma2 Ma1
COMPREHENSIONS
Comprehension I:
A car engine is so constructed as to exert a torque onto the wheels causing them to
rotate, and the wheels move forward on the road due to static friction. The force of static
friction, acting between the wheels and the road, is responsible for the forward
acceleration of the car. The force of static friction has an upper limit, known as the
limiting force of static friction proportional to the normal reaction between the wheels
and the road; this limits the maximum forward acceleration of the car.
In recent years, there has been a tendency to design lighter and more fuel efficient cars,
which drive faster than conventional cars. At very high speeds, it is observed that
conventional cars lose out on manoevrability, as friction is no longer sufficient. This is
caused by airflow around the body of the car, which produces pressure differentials that
increase the tendency of the car to get airborne. Modern designers have tried to
manipulate this airflow so as to reduce lift, decrease drag, and in some cases even
cause a downward force resulting in better traction.
1. A motorist, driving a car on a level road, desires to take a tight circular turn of radius r at
a constant speed v. The coefficient of static friction between the wheels of the car is S
and that of kinetic friction is K. He will be able to take this turn without skidding if
(choose the most appropriate option)
gr gr
(A) K (B) S
v2 v2
gr v2
(C) S , K (D) S
v2 rg
2. The car drives onto a bridge, which is convex upward, maintaining a constant speed v.
The driver, when he is on the bridge,
(A) can take a tighter turn, than when he is on a level road.
(B) cannot take a tighter turn, than when he is on a level road.
(C) can take a turn of the same radius as he could on a level road.
(D) can take tighter turns when he is getting upon the bridge, and looser turns when he
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-41
is getting off the bridge.

Assume that the driver always takes a full circular turn without skidding.
3. The car is driven at a very high constant speed v, on a straight level road. This causes a
lift L to act on the car due to airflow. The force of friction (f) acting between the driving
wheels and the road (choose the most appropriate option)
(A) is zero, since the car is moving with constant velocity.
(B) Satisfies f = S mg, where m is the mass of the car.
(C) Satisfies f = S (mg L), assuming that the wheels do not lose contact with the road.
(D) Satisfies f = D, where D is the resultant backward force on the car due to air drag
and other contact forces.
Comprehension II :
If a man is measuring his actual weight by
weighing machine as shown in the figure.
The mass of man is 60 kg, mass of
weighing machine is 20 kg and mass of lift
is 30 kg (pulley is smooth and string is
massless).
(Take g = 10 ms2)
4. The tension exerted by the man on the string

(A) 6600 N (B) 1800 N
(C) 1110 N (D) 800 N
5. Acceleration of the lift is

(A) 30 ms2 (B) 18.5 ms2
(C) 110 ms2 (D) 13.3 ms2
6. Normal reaction exerted by man on weighing machine

(A) 600 N (B) 900 N
(C) 800 N (D) 1110 N
MATCH THE FOLLOWING

1. On a rough surface
Column A Column B
(A) Body is stationary it is possible that (p) Frictional force acting on it is zero
(B) Body is just about to move (q) Frictional force acting on it is static
(C) Body is moving with uniform (r) Frictional force acting on it is limiting
acceleration then it is possible that frictional force
(D) Body is moving with uniform (s) Frictional force acting on it is kinetic
velocity
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-42
2. System of blocks are placed on a smooth String2

String1
horizontal system, as shown. For a particular
value of F, 3 kg block is just about to leave 5kg 37 3kg 1kg F
3
ground. (tan 37 = )
4
Column II
Column I
(A) Tension in string 1 (p) 80 N
(B) Tension in string 2 (q) 64 N
(C) Net force by ground on 5 kg block (r) 50 N
(D) Net force on 3 kg block (s) 24 N
5kg
3. In the above arrangement all pulleys are light =0.5
A
and frictionless, threads are ideal, = 0.5 at all 4kg
surfaces. 37 B =0.5
C 2.5kg
Column I Column II
(A) Net force on block A (p) 0
(B) Net force on block B (q) 5
(C) Net force on block C (r) 10
(D) Tension in string (s) 20
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-43

LEVEL-I
1. Draw the F.B.D. and find the forces acting on A & B. Vertical forces will balance
each other and apply Newton's second law in horizontal
2. Draw the F.B.D. and resolve the forces in vertical and horizontal direction, write
down eqs. and find a.
3. Draw the F.B.D. and resolve all forces along and perpendicular to plane, apply
Newton's second law.
4. F=ma
a=2kx/m 2 k x
5. N-mg=ma N=contact force on the box.
F
6. a
m1 m2
7. Calculate the angle of repose.
8. a = g(sin - cos )
9. a1 = 4a2 where a1 is acceleration of m and a2 is acceleration of M.
10. Constant velocity means a = 0

T mg= 0
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-44
LEVEL-II
1. Pseudo force (ma0) and weight mg act vertically downward. Resolve along the
incline.
2. Take a small element of chain at an angular position
3. a = m2g/(m1+m2)
4. Write constraints equations and solve.
5. a relative = a1 - a2, where a1 and a2 be the retardation of m and M respectively.
6. Find acceleration of mass relative to earth. Then apply Newtons second law.
7. First consider relative motion between the blocks. Find common acceleration
and sec whether Fe = Mc .a flim
8. Draw the F.B.D. of pulley block system .Find the maximum tension
corresponding to the force F and check whether motion is possible or not.
If possible then apply equations of motion and constraint relation for the
accelerations of masses and pulley.
9. mg ma
F g(M m)
g .
M m
(M + m) g F - 2 g (M + m)
dv
10. Write the acceleration as v and integrate.
ds
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-45

LEVEL I
F M2F
1. a= ,N 2. 5.7 m/s2
M1 M2 M1 M2
m1 1 2kx
3. 4.
m2 3 m
5. (a) 1N (b) 1.96 N (c) 1.5 N
F 1
6. m / s2 , m2 will move with constant velocity and m will accelerate
m1 m2 7
with 1/5 m/s2

7. (a) tan-1 s = tan-1 0.3 = 16.70 (b) 0.145 mg
8. (a) 160 N, (b) 48 N (c) 1.06 m/s2 (d) 55.42 N
1
9. tan 2 = - , = 490 , tmin= 1.0 s
k
10. (Rg/l) / {1- cos(l/R) }
LEVEL II
16L
1. 2. (a) 13.46 N (b) 0
3 3g
3. 0.225 m 4. v= (2g / 3a) sin
2 wa
5. 3.7 m/s2, 2.97 m/s2 6.
g a
7. 2m.
15 15
8. (a) a1 = a 2 = 0 = ap (b) a1 = m/s2, a2 = 0 , ap = m/s2
2 4
29
(c) a1 = 25 m/s2, a2 = 4 m/s2, ap = m/s2
2
mg sin
9. = 0.5 10.
M 2m(1 cos
RSM79-P1-LOM-PH-46

LEVEL I
1. (C) 2. (C)
3. (D) 4. (A)
5. (C) 6. (A)
7. (C) 8. (B)
9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (B)
17. (B) 18. (B)
19. (A) 20. (A)
LEVEL II
1. (B), (D) 2. (A), (C)

3. (A), (D) 4. (A), (B), (C)
5. (A), (B) 6. (A), (B)
7. (B), (C) 8. (C), (D)
9. (D) 10. (A), (B), (C)
COMPREHENSION
10. (D) 11. (B)

12. (D) 13. (A)
14. (C) 15. (A)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (p), (q), (r); (B) (q), (r); (C) (s); (D) (s)
2. (A) (q); (B) (r); (C) (p); (D) (s)
3. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (q); (D) (r)
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-31
WORK, ENERGY & POWER

LEVEL I
1. An object of mass 5 kg falls from rest through a vertical distance of 20 m and

attains a velocity of 10 m/s. How much work is done by the resistance of the air
on the object? (g = 10m/s2).
2. A train of mass 100 metric tons is drawn up an incline of 1 in 49 at the rate of 36

km per hour by an engine. If the resistance due to friction be 10 N per metric ton,
calculate the power of the engine. If the steam is shut off, how far will the train
move before it comes to rest?
A
3. Shown in the figure is a smooth
vertical frame of wire along which B
H
a small bead moves from the point h
A. Find its speed at the point B.
4. A rubber ball after falling through a height h penetrates into the water through a
distance x. Find the average force imparted by water on the rubber ball in ideal
conditions.
5. A bus of mass 1000 kg has an engine which produces a constant power of 50

kW. If the resistance to motion, assumed constant is 1000 N, find the maximum
speed at which the bus can travel on level road and the acceleration when it's
travelling at 25 m/s.
6. A particle of mass m is projected up the

v0
smooth inclined plane of inclination with a
speed v0. ( 2gl sin ) as shown in the l
figure. Find the maximum height travelled m
by the particle.
7. A block of mass m collides with a horizontal weightless spring of force constant k.

The block compresses the spring by x. Calculate the maximum momentum of the
block.
8. Prove that K. E. of two identical trains with respect to heliocentric frame of

reference moving in opposite directions on equatorial line with same speed (w.r.t
earth) are not equal.
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-32
9. A small mass m starts from rest and slides down the smooth spherical surface of
R. Assume zero potential energy at the top. Find (a) the change in potential
energy (b) the kinetic energy (c) the speed of the mass as a function of the angle
made by the radius through the mass with the vertical.
10. An ideal massless spring can be compressed
by 1 m by a force of 100 N. This same spring is
placed at the bottom of a frictionless inclined
plane which makes an angle = 30o with the
horizontal. A 10 kg mass is released from rest
o
at the top of the incline and is brought to rest 30
momentarily after compressing the spring 2
meters.
(a) Through what distance does the mass slide before coming to rest?
(b) What is the speed of the mass just before it reaches the spring?
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-33
LEVEL - II
1. A spring of mass m and stiffness k is fitted

v
to a block of mass M. The system is moving m
with a constant velocity v on a smooth M
horizontal surface. If the system collides

with a wall, find the maximum compression
of the spring before it recoils, assuming that
the total energy is conserved.
2. A body of mass m is pushed with the initial velocity v0 up an inclined plane of

angle of inclination . The coefficient of friction between the body and the plane
is . What is the net work done by friction during the ascent of the body, comes
to stop.
3. A block of mass m slides from the top of an inclined plane of angle of inclination
& length l. The coefficient of friction between the plane and the block is . Then it
is observed cover a distance d along the horizontal surface having the same
coefficient of friction , before it comes to a stop. Find the value of d.
4. A particle of mass m moves along a straight line on smooth horizontal plane,

acted upon by a force delivering a constant power P. If the initial velocity of the
particle is zero, then find its displacement as a function of time t.
5. The figure shows a ball A of mass m A

connected to a light spring of stiffness k. R
Another identical ball B is connected with
the ball A by a light inextensible string as B /4
shown in the figure. Other end of the
spring is fixed. Initially the spring is in
relaxed position. A vertical force F acts m1
on B such that the balls move slowly.

What is the work done by the force in pulling the ball B till the ball A reaches at
the top of the cylindrical surface. The ball A remains in contact with the surface
and co-
6. A body of mass m was slowly hauled up the hill. F

(Fig.) by a force F which at each point was directed
along a tangent to the trajectory. Find the work m
h
performed by this force, if the height of the hill is h,
the length of its base l, and coefficient of kinetic l
friction k.
7. A particle of mass m moves along a circle of radius R with a normal acceleration

varying with time as wn = at2, where a is a constant. Find the time dependence of
the power developed by all the forces acting on the particle, and the mean value
of this power averaged over the first t seconds after the beginning of motion.
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-34
8. A bob hangs from a rigid support by an inextensible string of length . If it is

displaced through a distance keeping the string straight & released, find the
speed of the bob at the lowest position.
9. A body is projected from the top of a smooth fixed frictionless semi circular
vertical tube of radius R with a speed gR . Find the speed of the body when it
descends through a vertical distance R/2.
10. Two blocks of masses m1, and m2 connected by a light m1

spring of stiffness k, are kept on a smooth horizontal
surface as shown in the figure. What should be the
initial compression of the spring so that the system will
be about to break off the surface, after releasing the
m2
block m1?
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-35

LEVEL I
1. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal momenta. Their kinetic energies E1
and E2 are in the ratio:
(A) m1 : m2 (B) m1 : m2
(C) m2 : m1 (D) m12 : m22
2. A chain of mass M, length hangs from a pulley. If it is wound such that half of
the chain remains overhung, the work done by the external agent is equal to
Mg 3
(A) (B) Mg
2 4
3
(C ) Mg (D) None of these
8
3. A block of mass m is suspended by a light thread T

from an elevator. The elevator is accelerating
upward with uniform acceleration a. The work
done during t secs by the tension in the thread is: m
m m
(A) ( g a )at 2 (B) ( g a)at 2
2 2
m
(C) gat2 (D) 0.
2
4. It is easier to draw up a wooden block along an inclined plane than to haul it

vertically, principally because:
(A) the friction is reduced
(B) the mass becomes smaller
(C) only a part of the weight has to be overcome
(D) g becomes smaller
5. A motor boat is travelling with a speed of 3.0 m/sec. If the force on it due to water
flow is 500 N, the power of the boat is:
(A) 150 KW (B) 15 KW
(C) 1.5 KW (D) 150 W
6. Two masses of 1 gm and 4 gm are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio
of the magnitudes of their linear momenta is:
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-36
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 16
7. A system of two bodies of masses m
and M being interconnected by a k
spring of stiffness k moves towards a m
rigid wall with a K.E. E . If the body M M
sticks to the wall after the collision, the
maximum compression of the spring
will be
m.E 2m.E
(A) (B)
k (M m)k
2m.E 2M.E
(C ) (D)
Mk (M m)k
8. Two identical blocks each of mass m being interconnected by a light spring of

stiffness k is pushed by a force F as shown in the figure. The maximum potential
energy stored in the spring is equal to:
F2 F2
(A) (B) F
2k 4k
F2
(C) (D) None of these
8k
9. A stone tied to a string of length is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end
of the string at the centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest
position and has a speed u. The magnitude in its velocity as it reaches a
position, where the string is horizontal, is
(A) u2 2g (B) 2g
(C) u2 g (D) 2(u2 g )
10. A cord is used to raise a block of mass m vertically through a distance d at a

constant downward acceleration g/4. The work done by the chord is
(A) mgd/4 (B) 3Mgd/4
(C) -3Mgd/4 (D) Mgd
11. A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying on a smooth table and one-third
of its length is hanging vertically down over the edge of the table. If g is
acceleration due to gravity, the work required to pull the hanging part onto the
table is:
(A) MgL (B) MgL/3
(C) MgL/9 (D) MgL/18
12. An engine pumps a liquid of density d continuously through a pipe of area of

cross-section A. If the speed with which the liquid passes through a pipe is v,
then the rate of liquid flow is
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-37
(A) Adv3/2 (B) (1/2) adv

2
(C) Adv /2 (D) Adv2
13. A body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest to v1 in time t1. As a function of
t, the instantaneous power delivered to the body is:
(A) mv1/t1 (B) mv12/t1
(C) mv1t2/ t1 (D) mv12t/t12
14. A man M1 of mass 80 Kg runs up a staircase in 15 s. Another man M2 also of

mass 80 Kg runs up the stair case in 20 s. The ratio of the power developed by
them will be:
(A) 1 (B) 4/3
(C) 16/9 (D) None of the above
15. How much work is done in raising a stone of mass 5 Kg and relative density 3
lying at the bed of a lake through height of 3 meter? (Take g = 10 ms-2):
(A) 25 J (B) 100 J
(C) 75 J (D) None of the above
16. A person is pulling a mass m from

ground on a rough hemispherical surface
upto the top of the hemisphere with the R
help of a light inextensible string as m
shown in the figure. The radius of the
hemisphere is R. The work done by the
tension in the string is:
(A) mgR(1+ ) (B) mgR
(C) mgR(1- ) (D) mg(R/2).
17. A small mass m is sliding down on a smooth m
curved incline from a height h and finally
k
moves through a horizontal smooth surface. A h
light spring of force constant k is fixed with a
vertical rigid stand on the horizontal surface,
as shown in the figure. The maximum
compression in the spring if the mass m
released from rest from the height h and hits
the spring on the horizontal surface is:
2mgh mgh
(A) (B)
k k
mgh
(C) (D) None of these.
2k
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-38
18. A block of mass m moves towards a light

spring of stiffness k on a smooth horizontal v k
plane. If it compresses the spring through a m
distance x0, the magnitude of total change in

momentum of the block is:
(A) 2 km x 0 (B) 0
(C) km x 0 (D) - 2 km x 0 .
19. If v, P and E denote the velocity, momentum and kinetic energy of the particle,
then:
(A) P = dE/dv (B) P = dE/dt
(C) P = dv/dt (D) none of these
20. Energy required to accelerate a car from 10 to 20 m/s compared with that
required to accelerate from 0 to 10 m/s is
(A) twice (B) four times
(C) three times (D) same
LEVEL II
1. A bob of mass m is attached at one end of a string of length l. B
Other end of the string is fixed point O. Bob is rotating in a

circular path of radius l in horizontal plane about O with constant v
O
speed v, as shown in the figure. The average force exerted by l
string on the bob during its :
m
A
mv 2 2mv 2
(A) half revolution will be (B) half revolution will be
l l
2mv 2
(C) one fourth revolution will be (D) one revolution will be zero
l
2. A ball of mass m attached to the lower end of a light vertical spring of force constant k.
The upper end of the spring is fixed. The ball is released from rest with the spring at its
normal (unstretched) length, and comes to rest again after descending through a
distance x
(A) x = mg/k
(B) x = 2mg/k
(C) the ball will have no acceleration at the position where it has descended through x/2
(D) the ball will have an upward acceleration equal to g at its lowermost position
3. A long block A is at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A small v

B
block B, whose mass is half of A, is placed on A at one end and A
projected along A with some velocity u. The coefficient of friction
between the blocks is
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-39
u
(A) the blocks will reach a final common velocity
3
(B) the work done against friction is two-thirds of the initial kinetic energy of B
(C) before the blocks reach a common velocity, the acceleration of A relative to B is
2
g
3
(D) before the blocks reach a common velocity, the acceleration of A relative to B is
3
g
2
4. The ring shown in the figure is given a constant m smooth horizontal rail
horizontal acceleration (a0 = g / 3 ). Maximum

deflection of the string from the vertical is 0, l
then
(A) 0 = 30 particle
m
(B) 0 = 60
(C) at maximum deflection, tension in string is equal to mg
2mg
(D) at maximum deflection, tension in string is equal to
3
5. Figure shows a block P of mass m resting on a horizontal P

smooth floor at a distance l from a rigid wall. Block is k
m
pushed toward right by a distant 3l and released. When
2 l
block passes from its mean position another block of
mass m1 is placed on it which sticks to it due to friction so
that the combined block just collides with the left wall.
5m
(A) m1 .
8
5m
(B) m1 .
4
3 K
(C) Velocity of block m at mean position is
2 m
(D) Velocity of block m at mean position is
6. A heavy stone is thrown from a cliff of height h in a given direction. The speed with which
it hits the ground
(A) must depend on the speed of projection
(B) must be larger then the speed of projection
(C) must be independent of the speed of projection
(D) may be smaller than the speed of projection
7. You lift a suitcase from the floor and keep it on a table. The work done by you on the
suitcase does not depend on
(A) the path taken by the suitcase (B) the tame taken by you in doing so
(C) the weight of the suitcase (D) your weight
8. No work is done by a force on an object if

(A) the force is always perpendicular to its velocity
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-40
(B) the force is always perpendicular to its acceleration

(C) the object is stationary but the point of application of the force moves on the object
(D) the object moves in such a way that the point of application of the force remains
fixed
9. A particle of mass m is attached to a light string of length l, the other end of which is
fixed. Initially the string is kept horizontal and the particle is given an upward velocity .
The particle is just able to complete a circle.
(A) the string becomes slack when the particle reaches its highest point
(B) the velocity of the particle becomes zero at the highest point
1
(C) the kinetic energy of the ball in initial position was m 2 mg l
2
(D) the particle again passes through the initial position
10. The kinetic energy of a particle continuously increases with time.

(A) the resultant force on the particle must be parallel to the velocity at all instants
(B) the resultant force on the particle must be at an angle less than 90 all the time
(C) its height above the ground level must continuously decrease
(D) the magnitude of its linear momentum is increasing continuously
COMPREHENSION
Comprehension I :
According to the principle of conservation of linear strut 3 string

strut
momentum if the external force acting on the
system is zero, the linear momentum of the M
system will remain conserved.
It means if the centre of mass of a system is initially at rest, it will remain at rest in the
absence of external force, that is the displacement of centre of mass will be zero. A
plank of mass M is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. Two light identical springs
each of stiffness K are rigidly connected to struts at the end of the plank as shown in the
figure. When the springs are in their unextended position the distance between their free
ends is 3 . A block of mass m is placed on the plank and pressed against one of the
springs so that it is compressed to l. To keep the block at rest it is connected to the strut
by means of a light string. Initially the system is at rest. Now the string is burnt.
1. The maximum displacement of plank is

5m 5m
(A) (B)
M M m
3m 4m
(C) (D)
M m M m
2. Maximum velocity of plank is

Km m
(A) (B)
(M m) (M m)
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-41
Km Km
(C) (D)
M(M m) (M m)
3. Maximum kinetic energy of block m is

Km2 Km2
(A) (B)
2M(M m) M(M m)
KM 2
(C) (D) none of these
2(M m)
Comprehension II :
v0
A small particle of mass m is given an initial velocity v 0 tangent to A
r0
the horizontal rim of a smooth cone at a radius r0 from the vertical
centerline as shown at point A. As the particle slides to point B, a
r B
vertical distance h below A and a distance r from the vertical
centerline, its velocity v makes an angle with the horizontal v
tangent to the cone through B.
4. The value of is
1 v 0r0 1 v 0r0
(A) cos (B) cos
v 20 2gh(r0 h tan ) v 02 2gh(r0 h tan )
1 v 0r0 1 v 0r0
(C) cos (D) cos
v 20 2gh(r0 h tan ) r0 v 02 2gh
5. The speed of particle at point B

(A) v 02 2gh (B) v 02 2gh
(C) v 02 gh (D) 2v 02 2gh
6. The minimum value of v0 for which particle will be moving in a horizontal circle of radius
r0.
2gr0 gr0
(A) (B)
tan 2 tan
gr0 4gr0
(C) (D)
tan tan
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. A long wire PQR is made by joining two wires PQ and QR of equal radii. PQ has length
4.8 m and mass 0.06 kg. QR has length 2.56 m and mass 0.2 kg. The wire PQR is under
a tension of 80 N. A sinusoidal wave-pulse of amplitude 3.5 cm is sent along the wire PQ
from the end P. No power is dissipated during the propagation of the wave-pulse.
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-42
Column I Column II
(A) The time taken by the wave pulse to reach the (p) 0.14
other end R of the wire (in sec)
(B) The amplitude of the reflected wave pulses (q) 2.0
after the incident wave pulse cross the joint Q.
(in cm)
(C) The amplitude of the transmitted wave pulses (r) 32
after the incident wave pulse cross the joint Q.
(in cm)
(D) Velocity of wave in QR (in m/s) (s) 1.5
2. A particle of 500 gm mass moves along a horizontal circle of radius 16 m such that
normal acceleration of particle varies with time as an = 9t2.
Column II
Column I (given values are in proper unit)
(A) Tangential force on particle at t = 1 second (in (p) 72
Newton)
(B) Total force on particle at t = 1 second (in Newton) (q) 36
(C) Power delivered by total force at t = 1 second (in (r) 7.5
Newton)
(D) Average power developed by total force over first (s) 6
one second (in watt)
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-43

LEVEL I
1. Use work energy theorem

2. Work done by engine + work done by gravity + work done by frictional force = 0, as
there is no change in kinetic energy.
3. Use conservative work concept
4. Work done by resistive force of water = change in K.E.
5. Use relation for power
7. Consider F.B.D. of both the components
8. Resultant velocity of a train w.r.t. sun (heliocentric frame) = vector sum of velocity of
train w.r.t. earth velocity of earth.
9. (a) Decrease in P.E. = increase in K.E.
(b) Net force along radius and towards the centre provides the necessary centripetal
force.
10. Consider equilibrium of body and apply work energy.
LEVEL II
1. Think about the reference frame and apply energy concept

3. Use conservation of energy to find out the velocity at the bottom of incline plane.
Then use work-energy theorem.
4. Use the concept of work.
5. Use work energy theorem.
6. Use work energy theorem.
7. Normal acceleration is given as time dependent, hence v is time dependent now find
dv /dt
8. Use work energy theorem (Note: work done by tension is zero)
9. Consider F.B.D. of the particle and apply work energy theorem
10. Think the condition of breaking off
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-44
10. Answers to the Subjective Assignments

LEVEL I
1. -750 J 2. 210 kW, 238 m
h
3. 2g(H h) 4. mg 1
x
2
(v 2
0 2 g sin ) sin 2
5. 50 m./sec., 2 m/sec . 6. sin
2g
7. ( km ) x
9. (a) mgR (1 cos ), (b) mgR (1 - cos ), (c) v = 2gR(1 cos )
10. (a) S = 4 m, (b) v = 2 5 m/s
LEVEL II
(3M m) mv 02
1. v 2.
3k 2(tan )
1/ 2
8Pt3
3. [sin - cos ]/ 4.
9m
1
5. mgR [ 1 ]
2 4 2
mRat
6. mg (h + kl) 7. P = mRat, <P> =
2
8. gl 9. 2gR
( 2m1 m2 )g
10.
k
RSM79-P1-WEP-PH-45

LEVEL I
1. (C) 2. (C)
3. (A) 4. (C)
5. (C) 6. (C)
7. (B) 8. (A)
9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (D)
13. (D) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (A)
17. (A) 18. (C)
19. (A) 20. (C)
LEVEL II
1. (B), (D) 2. (B), (C), (D)
3. (A), (B), (D) 4. (A), (D)
5. (B), (C) 6. (A), (B)
7. (A), (B), (D) 8. (A), (C), (D)
9. (A), (D) 10. (B), (D)
COMPREHENSION
1. (B) 2. (C)
3. (C) 4. (A)
5. (A) 6. (C)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (p); (B) (q); (C) (s); (D) (r);
2. (A) (s); (B) (r) ; (C) (p); (D) (q)
RSM79-P1-C-PH-33
COLLISION
LEVEL I
1. Two particles A and B of which lighter particle has mass m, are released from
infinity. They move towards each other under their mutual force of attraction. If
their speeds are v and 2 v respectively find the K.E. of the system.
2. A bullet of mass 0.01 kg travelling at a speed of 500 m/s strikes a block of mass
2 kg which is suspended by a string of length 5 m. The centre of gravity of the
block is found to rise a vertical distance of 0.2 m. What is the speed of the bullet
after it emerges from the block?
3. A body of mass 1 kg initially at rest, explodes and breaks into three fragments of
masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The two pieces of equal mass fly off perpendicular to
each other with a speed of 15 m/s each. What is the velocity of the heavier
fragment?
4. Steel ball of mass 0.5 kg is fastened to a cord 20 cm long and fixed at the far end
and is released when the cord is horizontal. At the bottom of its path the ball
strikes a 2.5 kg steel block initially at rest on a frictionless surface. The collision is
elastic. Find the speed of the block, just after the collision.
5. A particle loses 25% of its energy during collision with another identical particle
at rest. Find the coefficient of restitution.
6. A body of mass 3 kg collides elastically with another body at rest and then
continues to move in the original direction with one half of its original speed.
What is the mass of the target body?
7. An automatic gun fires 600 bullets a minute. The mass of each bullet is 4 gm and
its initial velocity is 500 m/s. Find the mean impact force experienced by the gun.
8. A skater of mass m standing on ice throws a stone of mass M with a velocity of v

m/s in a horizontal direction. Find the distance over which the skater will move
back if the coefficient of friction between the skaters and the ice is .
9. A steel ball with a mass of m = 20 g falls from a height of h1 = 1 m onto a steel

plate and rebounds to a height of h2 = 81 cm. Find: the impulse of the force
received by the plate during the impact.
10. A ball collides with an inclined plane of inclination after falling through a
distance h. If it moves horizontally just after the impact, find the coefficient of
RSM79-P1-C-PH-34
restitution.
RSM79-P1-C-PH-35
LEVEL II
1. A block of mass m moving with a velocity v hits a light spring of stiffness K

attached rigidly to a stationary sledge of mass M. Neglecting friction between all
contacting surface, find the maximum compression of the spring.
2. A small empty bucket of mass M is attached to a long inextensible cord of length

. The bucket is released from rest when the cord is in a horizontal position. In its
lowest position the bucket scoops up a mass m of water, what is the height of the
swing above the lowest position?
3. A uniform thin rod of mass M and length L is standing vertically along the y-axis
on a smooth horizontal surface, with its lower end at the origin (0,0). A slight
disturbance at t = 0 causes the lower end to slip on the smooth surface along the
positive x-axis, and the rod starts falling. (a) What is the path followed by the
centre of mass of the rod during its fall. (b) Find the equation of trajectory of a
point on the rod located at a distance r from the lower end. What is the shape of
the path of this point?
4. A block of mass M with a semicircular track of radius R rest on a horizontal

frictionless surface. A uniform cylinder of radius r and mass m is released from
rest at the top point A. The cylinder slips in the semicircular frictionless track.
How far the block moved when the cylinder reaches the bottom of the track?
5. A block of mass M is hanging from a rigid support by an in-extensible light string.

A ball of mass m hits it with a vertical velocity v at its bottom. Find the change in
momentum of the ball assuming inelastic collision.
6. Two identical blocks A and B of mass M each are kept on each other on a
smooth horizontal plane. There exists friction between A and B. If a bullet of
mass m hits the lower block with a horizontal velocity v and gets embedded into
it. Find the work done by friction between A and B.
7. A cannon and a supply of cannon balls are inside a sealed railroad car. The
cannon fires to the right, the car recoils to the left. The cannon balls remain in the
car after hitting the far wall. Show that no matter how the cannon balls are fired,
the railroad car cannot travel more than , assuming it starts from rest
8. Two wooden blocks of mass M1 = 1 kg, M2 = 2.98 kg lie separately side by side
smooth surface. A bullet of mass m = 20 gm strikes the block M1 and pierces
through it, then strikes the second block and sticks to it. Consequently both the
blocks move with equal velocities. Find the percentage change in speed of the
RSM79-P1-C-PH-36
bullet when it escapes from the first block.

9. A steel ball is suspended by a light inextensible string of O
length from a fixed point O. When the ball is in equilibrium
it just touches a vertical wall as shown in the figure. The ball
is first taken aside such that string becomes horizontal and
then released from rest. If co-efficient of restitution is e, then
find the maximum deflection of the string after nth collision.
10. A body of mass M with a small disc of mass m

m v
placed on it rests on a smooth horizontal plane.
M
The disc is set in motion in the horizontal direction
with velocity v. To what height (relative to the
initial level) will the disc rise after breaking off the
body M? All surfaces are frictionless.
RSM79-P1-C-PH-37
10. Assignments (Objective Problems)

LEVEL I
1. If the KE of a body becomes four times of its initial value, then the new
momentum will be more than its initial momentum by;
(A) 50% (B) 100%
(C) 125% (D) 150%
2. A bullet in motion hits and gets embedded in a solid block resting on a frictionless
table. What is conserved?
(A) Momentum and KE (B) Kinetic energy alone
(C) Neither KE nor momentum (D) Momentum alone
3. The centre of mass of a body:

(A) Lies always at the geometrical center
(B) Lies always inside the body
(C) Lies always outside the body
(D) Lies within or outside the body
4. The spacecraft of mass M moves with velocity V in free space at first, then it
explodes breaking into two pieces. If after explosion a piece of mass m comes to
rest, the other piece of space craft will have a velocity:
(A) MV/(M m) (B) MV/(M + m)
(C) mV/(M m) (D) mV/(M + m)
5. A bomb travelling in a parabolic path under the effect of gravity, explodes in mid
air. The centre of mass of fragments will:
(A) Move vertically upwards and then downwards
(B) Move vertically downwards
(C) Move in irregular path
(D) Move in the parabolic path the unexploded bomb would have traveled
6. If a ball is thrown upwards from the surface of earth:

(A) The earth remains stationary while the ball moves upwards
(B) The ball remains stationary while the earth moves downwards
(C) The ball and earth both moves towards each other
(D) The ball and earth both move away from each other
7. Fast neutrons can easily be slow down by

(A) The use of lead shield. (B) Passing them through heavy water.
(C) Elastic collision with heavy nucleus (D) Applying a strong electric field.
RSM79-P1-C-PH-38
8. A body is hanging from a rigid support by an inextensible string of length 'l' . It is

struck inelastically by an identical body of mass m with horizontal velocity
v = 2gl , the tension in the string increases just after the striking by
(A) mg (B) 3 mg
(C) 2 mg (D) None of these
9. A bullet weighing 10 gm and moving at 300 m/s strikes a 5 kg ice and drops
dead. The ice block is sitting on a frictionless level surface. The speed of the
block after the collision, is
(A) 6 cm/sec (B) 6 m/sec
(C) 60 mc/sec (D) 60 m/sec.
10. A massive ball moving with speed v collides with a tiny ball having a mass very
much smaller than the mass of the first ball. If the collision is elastic, then
immediately after the impact, the second ball will move with a speed
approximately equal to:
(A) v (B) 2v
(C) v/2 (D)
11. A bag of mass M hangs by a long thread and a bullet (mass m) comes
horizontally with velocity v and gets caught in the bag. Then for the combined
system (bag + bullet):
(A) Momentum is mMv/(M + m) (B) KE is (1/2) Mv2
(C) Momentum is mv (D) KE is m2v2/2(M + m)
12. A surface is hit elastically and normally by n balls per unit time, all the balls
having the same mass m and moving with the same velocity u. The force on the
surface is:
(A) mnu2 (B) 2mnu
2
(C) (1/2)mnu (D) 2mnu2
13. A bullet of mass m hits a target of mass M hanging by a string and gets
embedded in it. If the block rises to a height h as a result of this collision, the
velocity of the bullet before collision is:
(A) v 2gh (B) v 2gh [1 (m / M)]
(C) v 2gh [(1 M / m)] (D) v 2gh [1 (m / M)]
14. Two particles of mass M and 2 M are at a distance D apart. Under their mutual
force they start moving towards each other. The acceleration of their centre of
mass when they are D/2 apart is:
(A) 2 GM/D2 (B) 4 GM/D2
(C) 8 GM/D2 (D) Zero
15. A body of mass 1 kg initially at rest, explodes and breaks into three fragments of
mass in the ratio 1 : 1 :3. The two pieces of equal mass fly off perpendicular to
RSM79-P1-C-PH-39
each other with speed of 15 m/sec. each. The speed of havier fragment is:
(A) 5 2 m/s (B) 45 m/se
(C) 5 m/s (D) 156 m/s
16. A sphere of mass m1 = 2kg collides with a sphere of mass m2 = 3kg which is at
rest. Mass m1 will move at right angle to the line, joining centres at the time of
collision, if the coefficient of restitution is
(A) 4/9 (B) 1/2
(C) 2/3 (D) 23
17. In a free space, a rifle of mass M shoot a bullet of mass m at a stationary block of
mass M distance D away from it. When the bullet has moved through a distance
d towards the block, the centre of mass of the bullet-block system is at a distance
from rifle of
mD d dM m
(A) (B) from a rifle
M m M
md MD
(C) . (D) None of these.
M m
18. Two identical billiard balls are in contact on a table. A third identical ball strikes
them symmetrically and come to rest after impact. The restitution is
2 1
(A) (B)
3 3
1 3
(C) (D)
6 2
19. A sphere of mass m moving with a constant velocity hits another stationary
sphere of the same mass. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then ratio of
velocities of the two spheres after collision will be:
1 e 1 e
(A) (B)
1 e 1 e
e 1 e 1
(C) (D)
e 1 e 1
20. A neutron travelling with a velocity v and kinetic energy E collides elastically head
on with the nucleus of an atom of mass number A at rest. The fraction of total
energy retained by the neutron is:
2 2
A 1 A 1
(A) (B)
A 1 A 1
2 2
A 1 A 1
(C) (D)
A A
RSM79-P1-C-PH-40
LEVEL II
1. Velocity of a particle of mass 2 kg changes from v1 2i 2j m / s to v 2 ( i j)m / s

after colliding with a plane surface
1
(A) the angle made by the plane surface with the positive xaxis is 90 + tan1
3
1 1
(B) the angle made by the plane surface with the positive xaxis is tan
3
1 1
(C) the direction of change in momentum makes an angle tan with the +ve xaxis
3
1 1
(D) the direction of change in momentum makes an angle 90 tan with the
3
plane surface
2. Choose the correct statement (s) of the following :

(A) force acting on a particle for equal time intervals can produce the same change in
momentum but different change in kinetic energy
(B) force acting on a particle for equal displacements can produce same change in
kinetic energy but different change in momentum
(C) force acting on a particle for equal time intervals can produce different change in
momentum but same change in kinetic energy
(D) force acting on a particle for equal displacements can produce different change in
kinetic energy but same change in momentum
3. In an elastic collision between two particles

(A) the total kinetic energy of the system is always conserved
(B) the kinetic energy of the system before collision is equal to the kinetic energy of the
system after collision
(C) the linear momentum of the system is conserved
(D) the mechanical energy of the system before collision is equal to the mechanical
energy of system after collision
4. A ball of mass 1 kg is thrown up with an initial speed of 4 2 kg

m/s. A second ball of mass 2 kg is released from rest from u=0
some height as shown in the figure.

(A) The centre of mass of the two balls comes down with 4 m/s
acceleration g /3.
1 kg
(B) The centre of mass first moves up and then comes
down
(C) The acceleration of the centre of mass is g downwards
(D) The centre of mass of the two balls remains stationary.
5. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are placed on a m2 m1 F

horizontal table with coefficient of friction and are
joined by a spring. Initially, the spring has its natural
RSM79-P1-C-PH-41
length. If F is minimum force which, when applied on

m1, will make the other block m2 just move. (k is the
spring constant) and x is elongation in spring at that
instant.
m1g m2g
(A) F m2 g (B) x
2 k
m2g 2 m2g
(C) F m1g (D) x
2 k
6. A ball A of mass m moving with velocity n collides head on with a stationary ball B of
mass m. If e be the coefficient of restitution, then which of the following is correct?
1 e
(A) The ratio of velocities of balls A and B after the collision is
1 e
1 e
(B) The ratio of the final and initial velocities of ball A is
2
1 e
(C) The ratio of velocities of balls A and B after collision is
1 e
1 e
(D) The ratio of the final and initial velocities of the ball B is
2
7. When a bullet is fired from a gun
(A) Kinetic energy of bullet is more than that of gun
(B) Acceleration of bullet is more than that of gun
(C) Momentum of bullet is more than that of gun
(D) Velocity of bullet is more than that of gun

8. A ball of mass m moving horizontally at a speed n collides with the bob of a simple
pendulum at rest. The mass of the bob is also m.
(A) If the collision is inelastic, the height to which the two balls rise after the collision is
v2
8g
(B) If the collision is inelastic, the kinetic energy of the system immediately after the
collision becomes half of that before collision
v2
(C) If the collision is perfectly elastic, the bob of the pendulum will rise to a height of
2g
(D) If the collision is perfectly elastic, the kinetic energy of the system immediately after
the collision is equal to that before collision
9. In which of the following cases the center of mass of a rod is certainly not at its centre?
(A) the density continuously increases from left to right
(B) the density continuously decreases from left to right
RSM79-P1-C-PH-42
(C) the density decreases from left to right upto the centre and then increases
(D) the density increases from left to right upto the centre and then decreases
10. A nonzero external force acts on a system of particles. The velocity and the acceleration
of the center of mass are found to be 0 and a0 at an instant t. It is possible that
(A) 0 = 0, a0 = 0 (B) 0 = 0, a0 0
(C) 0 0, a0 = 0 (D) 0 0, a0 0
COMPREHENSION
Two blocks A and B of mass m and 2 m respectively are

connected together by a light spring of stiffness K. The system
m 2m
is lying on a smooth horizontal surface with the block A in
A B
contact with a fixed vertical wall as shown in the figure. The
block B is pressed towards the wall by a distance x0 and then
released. There is no friction anywhere.
1. If spring takes time t to acquire its natural length then average force on the block A by
the wall is
2mK x 0
(A) 0 (B)
t
mK 0x Km x 0
(C) 3 (D)
2 t 3 t
2. The maximum speed acquired by the block A is

2 K 4 K
(A) x0 (B) x0
3 2m 3 2m
K 1 K
(C) x0 (D) x0
2m 3 2m
3. If natural length of the spring is l, then maximum separation between the blocks is
x0
(A) (B) x0
3
x0
(C) (D) x0
3
RSM79-P1-C-PH-43
If external forces on a system is zero. Linear momentum

remains conserved. Coefficient of restitution e is
defined as ratio of velocity of separation and velocity of M
approach along line of impact. A disc of mass M and
radius of curvature R is lying on the ground (frictionless). V R
A small ball of mass M moving on the ground with a
velocity V strikes the disc and collides with it. The
coefficient of restitution being e.
4. Velocity of approach for the system (ball + disc) is

(A) V cos (B) V sin
(C) V (D) zero
5. Velocity of the disc after collision is

V cos eV cos
(A) (B)
2 2
V cos (1 e) V cos (1 e)
(C) (D)
2 2
6. The speed of the ball after the collision.

cos2 (1 e)2
(A) eV cos (B) V sin2
4
sin2 cos2 (1 e)2
(C) V cos2 (1 e)2 (D) V sin2
4 4
MATCH THE FOLLOWING

1. A ball A of mass m1, initially moving with velocity u 1, collides with another ball B of mass
m2, moving with velocity u2 in a straight line in the same direction. After collision
velocities of the balls A and B are 1 and 2 respectively then (e is the coefficient of
restitution between the balls).
Column A Column B
(A) If u2 = 0, e = 1/2 and m1 >> m2 then (p)
u1
1
(B) If u2 = 0 , e = 1/3 and m2 >> m1 then (q)
3u1/2
1
(C) If u2 = 0, e = 1 and m1 >> m2 then 1 (r) u1/3
(D) If m1 = m2, u2 = 0, e = 1 then 2 1 = (s) Zero
RSM79-P1-C-PH-44
2. Initially spring connecting A and B are 3kg 3kg 6kg

elongated by a distance of 3 cm and placed on C A B
smooth horizontal surface. When spring is in its
N
natural length (block A moving right and block B Spring constant K 200
is moving left) block C moving towards A with m
speed 0.4 m/s (towards right) collides and get
stuck with it.
Column I Column II
(in proper unit)
(A) Velocity of B before collision (m/s) (p) 0.1
(B) Velocity of center of mass of whole (q) 0.2
system after colliding (m/s)
(C) Amplitude of oscillation of combined (r) 0.03
body (m) (rounded off to one significant
figure)
(D) Loss of energy during collision (J) (s) 0.05
3. A body is initially moving towards right explodes into two pieces 1 and 2. Direction of
motion of the pieces is shown in Column I and possible mass ratio are shown in Column
II.
Column I Column II
(A) V1 (p) m1>m2
V2
(B) V1 (q) m1=m2
1
2
V2
(C) V1 (r) m1<m2
V2
(D) V1 (s) Impossible for any masses
1
2
V2
RSM79-P1-C-PH-45

LEVEL I
1. Apply COM.
2. Apply COM then COE.
3. Apply COM.
4. Apply COE then COM.
5. From KE find final velocity of first particle. Then apply conservation of linear
momentum
6. Apply COM .
7. Apply Newtons Second Law for variable mass.
8. Apply COM then relate work- energy.
9. Impulse equals to change of momentum
10. Remember momentum conservation along horizontal
LEVEL II
1. Remember that during maximum compression of spring, relative velocity of the

bodies is zero.
2. This is completely inelastic collision.
3. x coordinate of cm remains constant
4. x coordinate of cm remains constant
5. Apply COM
6. Apply COM
7. System cm has same x coordinate
8. Apply COM
9. Apply definition of e and apply COE
10. Apply COM in horizontal direction then apply COE.
RSM79-P1-C-PH-46

LEVEL I
1. 3mv2 2. 100 m/sec.

2
3. 5 2 m/sec. 4. m/sec.
3
5. 1/ 2 6. 1 kg
M2v 2
7. 20 N 8.
2m2 g
9. 0.171 kgm/sec. 10. e = tan2
LEVEL II
Mm
1. v 2. {M/(M+m)}2L
k(M m)
m
3. Straight line 4. (R r )
M m
Mmv 1 Mm 2 v 2
5. 6.
(M m) 2 (m 2M)((m M)
8. 25 %
v2 M
9. cos-1 (1e2n) 10.
2g M m
RSM79-P1-C-PH-47

LEVEL - I
1. (B) 2. (D)
3. (D) 4. (A)
5. (D) 6. (D)
7. (B) 8. (C)
9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (D)
15. (A) 16. (C)
17. (D) 18. (A)
19. (A) 20. (A)
LEVEL - II
1. (A), (C) 2. (A), (B)
3. (B), (C), (D) 4. (B), (C)
5. (B), (C) 6. (B), (C)
7. (A), (B), (D) 8. (A), (B), (C), (D)
9. (A), (B) 10. (B), (D)
COMPREHENSION
1. (B) 2. (B)
3. (A) 4. (A)
5. (C) 6. (B)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING

8. (A) (p); (B) (r); (C) (p); (D) (p)
9. (A) (p); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (s)
10. (A) (s); (B) (s); (C) (p), (q), (r); (D) (p), (q), (r)
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-24
ROTATIONAL MECHANICS
LEVEL I
1. A ring having mass M, radius R is kept on F

horizontal surface as shown in the figure. Find
the minimum value of co-efficient of friction so
that ring will not slip. Also find
(a) the direction and the magnitude friction acting on the ring.
(b) acceleration of ring.
(c) angular acceleration of ring.
2. A disc is rotating about one of its diameters with a kinetic energy E. If the mass
and the radius of the disc are m and r respectively, find its angular momentum.
3. A solid uniform disk of mass m and radius R is pivoted about a horizontal axis
tangential to the rim of disc. A particle of mass m is attached to a point on the
rim of disk, diametrically opposite to the pivot. The combination is now released
from rest, with the plane of disc initially horizontal. Find the angular velocity
when the small particle reaches its lowest point.
4. The flywheel of a gasoline engine is required to give up 300 J of kinetic energy

while its angular velocity decreases from 600 rev min-1 to 540 rev. min-1. What
is the moment of inertia of the flywheel ?
5. A cord, with one end fixed to a horizontal ceiling, is wrapped over a flywheel of
radius 'r'. The wheel is allowed to fall. Find the angular acceleration of the
wheel and the tension in the cord.
6. A uniform disc of radius r, and mass `M kg can rotate without friction about a
fixed vertical axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane. A
cord is wound at the rim of the disc and a uniform force of F Newton is applied
on the cord. Find the tangential acceleration of a point on the rim of the disc.
7. A ball is thrown in such a way that it slides with a speed v0 initially without rolling
on a rough horizontal plane. Prove that it will roll without sliding when its speed
5
falls to v 0 .
7
8. A disc of mass m, radius r being wrapped over by a light and inextensible string
is pulled by force F at the free end of the string. If it moves on a smooth
horizontal surface, find (a) linear (b) angular acceleration of the disc.
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-25
9. Show that a cylinder will slip on an inclined plane of inclination if the

1
coefficient of static friction between plane and cylinder is less than tan .
3
10. A uniform rod of mass M and length a lies M

on a smooth horizontal plane. A particle of
A
mass m moving at a speed v A a V
perpendicular to the length of the rod a
4
strikes it at a distance a/4 from the centre m v m
and stops after the collision. Find
Before Collision After Collision
(a) the velocity of the centre of the rod
and
(b) the angular velocity of the rod about its
centre just after the collision.
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-26
LEVEL - II
1. A boy stands on a freely rotating platform with his arms stretched. His rotation
speed is 0.25 rev./s. But when he draws them in, his speed is 0.80 rev./s. Find
(a) the ratio of his moment of inertia in the first case to that in the second.
(b) the ratio of K.E. in the first case to that in the second.
2. A sphere of mass m and radius R rolls without sliding on a horizontal surface. It

collides with a light spring of stiffness K with a kinetic energy E. If the surface
(AB) under the spring is smooth, find the maximum compression of the spring.
v
A B
3. A uniform rod of mass m & length 0 is rotating

with a constant angular speed about a vertical
axis passing through its point of suspension. Find
the moment of inertia of the rod about the axis of
rotation if it makes an angle to the vertical (axis
of rotation) .
4. Where should a spherical shell placed

h m
on a smooth horizontal surface (shown R
in the figure) be hit by a cue that it will R
roll without sliding ?
5. In the figure shown two particles m & M are

interconnected by an inextensible and light
l m
string. M is in equilibrium due to revolution
of particle m. Now M is pulled down slowly
through a distance l/2. Find the change in
angular speed of particle m.
M
6. A solid sphere is projected up along an inclined plane of inclination =300 with a

speed v = 2m/sec. If it rolls without slipping, find the maximum distance
traversed by it (g = 10 m/sec -2).
v
m
7. A bullet of mass m collides inelastically at the
R
periphery of a disc of mass M and radius R, with
a speed v. The disc rotates about a fixed O
M
horizontal axis. Find the angular velocity of the
disc bullet system just after the impact.
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-27
8. Two heavy metallic plates are joined together at A

900 to each other. A laminar sheet of mass Q
30Kg is hinged at the line AB joining the two
heavy metallic plates. The hinges are P B
frictionless. The moment of inertia of the
laminar sheet about an axis parallel to AB and
passing through its centre of mass is 1.2 Kg-m2.
Two rubber obstacles P and Q are fixed, one on each metallic plates at a
distance 0.5 m from the line AB. This distance is chosen so that the reaction
due to the hinges on the laminar sheet is zero during the impact. Initially the
laminar sheet hits one of the obstacles with an angular velocity 1 rad/s and
turns back. If the impulse on the sheet due to each obstacle is 6N-s,
(a) Find the location of the centre of mass of the laminar sheet from AB.
(b) At what angular velocity does the laminar sheet come back after the first
impact?
(c) After how may impacts, does the laminar sheets come to rest..
9. A boy rolls a hoop over a horizontal path with a speed of 7.2 km/h. Over what
distance can the hoop roll uphill at the expense of its kinetic energy? The slope
of the hill is 1 in 10.
10. A solid sphere of radius R is moving on a rough horizontal plane. At certain

instant, it has translational velocity v0 in right direction and an angular velocity
v0
in clockwise sense. When its translational velocity is 0.75 v0. It has a
4R
perfectly elastic collision with a smooth vertical wall which is normal to its path.
Find the speed of the sphere when the sphere starts rolling.
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-28

LEVEL I
1. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc and a circular ring of the same
masses and radii about a tangential axis parallel to the their planes is
(A) 6 : 5 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 5 : 6 (D) none of these
2. A wheel of mass 2 kg having practically all the mass concentrated along the
circumference of a circle of radius 20 cm, is rotating on its axis with an angular
velocity of 100 rad/s. The rotational kinetic energy of the wheel is
(A) 4J (B) 70J
(C) 400 J (D) 800 J
3. A rod of length L is hinged from one end. It is brought to a horizontal position

and released. The angular velocity of the rod when it is in vertical position is
2g 3g
(A) (B)
L L
g g
(C) (D)
2L L
4. If a solid sphere, disc and cylinder are allowed to roll down an inclined plane
from the same height
(A) cylinder will reach the bottom first
(B) disc will reach the bottom first
(C) sphere will reach the bottom first
(D) all will reach the bottom at the same time
5. A uniform solid circular cylinder of radius r is placed on a rough 0
horizontal surface and given a linear velocity v = 2 0r and v0
angular velocity 0 as shown in the figure. The speed of cylinder

when it starts rolling
3
(A) 5/2 0R (B) 0R
2
5 2
(C) 0R (D) 0R
3 3
6. When there is no external torque acting on a body moving in elliptical path, which of
the following quantities remain constant
(A) kinetic energy (B) potential energy
(C) linear momentum (D) angular momentum
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-29
7. A solid homogeneous sphere is moving on a rough horizontal surface, partly rolling

and partly sliding. During this kind of motion of this sphere
(A) total kinetic energy is conserved
(B) angular momentum of the sphere about the point of contact with the plane is
conserved
(C) only the rotational kinetic energy about the centre of mass is conserved.
(D) angular momentum about the centre of mass is conserved.
8. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about its axis with a constant
angular velocity . Two objects, each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite
ends of the diameter of the ring. The wheel now rotates with an angular velocity.
(A) M/(M + m) (B) {(M - 2m)/(M +2m)}
(C) {M/(M + 2m)} (D) {(M + 2m)/M}
9. A sphere moving at some instant with horizontal velocity vc in right and angular
velocity in anti clockwise sense. If v c = R . The instantaneous centre of
rotation is
(A) at the bottom of the sphere (B) at the top of the sphere
(C) at the centre of the sphere (D) any where inside the sphere
10. A thin bar of mass M and length L is free to rotate about a fixed horizontal axis
through a point at its end. The bar is brought to a horizontal position and then
released. The angular velocity when it reaches the lowest point is
(A) directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to its mass.
(B) independent of mass and inversely proportional to the square root of its length
(C) dependent only upon the acceleration due to gravity.
(D) directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to the acceleration
due to gravity.
11 A triangular plate ABC is free to rotate about two points C

A and B on smooth horizontal floor. A force F is applied
perpendicular to AB so as to rotate the plate about A
A B
and B separately. If 1 & 2 are the corresponding r
accelerations for the cases then 1/ 2 will be
(A) 1
(B) <1
(C) > 1
(D) dependent on the force and the dimensions of the plate.
12. A uniform rod AB of mass m and length at rest on a smooth horizontal surface.
An impulse P is applied to the end B. The time taken by the rod to turn through
a right angle is
(A) m /12P (B) m /6P
(C) m / 6P (D) none of these
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-30
13. A thin hollow sphere of mass m is completely filled m

with an ideal liquid of mass m. When the sphere
m
rolls with a velocity v kinetic energy of the system
is equal to
1
(A) mv2 (B) mv2
2
4 4
(C) mv2 (D) mv2
3 5
14. A string is wrapped several times round a solid cylinder and then the end of the
string is held stationary while the cylinder is released from rest with an initial
motion. The acceleration of the cylinder and tension in the string will be
2g mg mg
(A) and (B) g and
3 3 2
g mg g mg
(C) and (D) and
3 2 2 3
15. A thin rod of mass m and length is bent into a V- O
shaped frame at its mid point as shown in the

figure. The moment of inertia of the system about
an axis passing through O perpendicular to the
plane of the frame is equal to
m 2 m 2
(A) (B)
12 3
2
m m 2
(C) sin2 (D) sin
12 3
16. A cubical block of mass M and edge a slides down a rough inclined plane of
inclination with a uniform velocity. The torque of the normal force on the block
about its centre has a magnitude
(A) zero (B) Mga
(C) Mg(a/2)sin (D) Mga cos
17. A string of negligible thickness is wrapped several times around a cylinder kept
on a rough horizontal surface. A man standing at a distance from the cylinder
holds one end of the string and pulls the cylinder towards him. There is no
slipping anywhere. The length of the string passed through the hand of the man
while the cylinder reaches his hands is
(A) (B) 2
(C) 3 (D)
18. A uniform circular disc of radius r is placed on a

v0
rough horizontal surface and given a linear
velocity v0 and angular velocity 0 as shown. The 0
disc comes to rest after moving some distance to

the right. It follows that
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-31
(A) 3 v0 = 2 0 r (B) 2 v0 = 0 r
(C) v0 = 0 r (D) 2 v0 = 3 0 r
19. Two uniform solid spheres having unequal masses and unequal radii are
released from rest from the same height on a rough incline. If the spheres roll
without slipping,
(A) the heavier sphere reaches the bottom first
(B) the bigger sphere reaches the bottom first
(C) the two spheres reach the bottom together
(D) the information given is not sufficient to tell which sphere will reach the
bottom first.
20. A rod of mass m is released on smooth horizontal surface making angle with
horizontal. Then which of the following statement is incorrect.
(A) Acceleration of rod along vertical is less than g.
(B) Acceleration of centre of mass along horizontal is zero.
(C) Angular acceleration of rod is not constant.
(D) Momentum of the rod along vertical will remain constant.
LEVEL II
1. The mathematical statement v vc v ' , where v c is the velocity of centre of mass, v '
is the velocity of the point with respect to the centre of mass and v is the total velocity
of the point with respect to ground
(A) is true for a rolling sphere
(B) is true for a block moving on frictionless horizontal surface
(C) is true for a rolling cylinder
(D) none of these
F3 F2
2. A spool of wire rests on a horizontal surface as shown in
figure. As the wire is pulled, the spool does not slip at
contact point P. On separate trails, each one of the forces F4
F1, F2, F3 and F4 is applied to the spool. For each of these
F1
forces the spool
(A) will rotate anticlockwise if F1 is applied
P
(B) will not rotate if F2 is applied
(C) will rotate anticlockwise if F3 is applied
(D) will rotate clockwise is F4 is applied
3. A wheel is rolling on a horizontal plane. At a certain C

instant, it has velocity v and acceleration a of c.m.
as shown in the figure. Acceleration of a
B
(A) A is vertically upwards v
(B) B may be vertically downwards A
(C) C cannot be horizontal
(D) Some point on the rim may be horizontal leftwards.
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-32
4. A thin rigid uniform circular disc rolls without slipping Y Translatory

on a horizontal rigid surface (or the ground). At a B C.M. frame
certain instant, its position w.r.t. ground frame is as Y
shown in the figure. v
A X
(A) sector ABC has greater kinetic energy than sector O C
ADC w.r.t. ground frame
X
(B) sector BO C has greater kinetic energy than D
Ground frame
sector CO D w.r.t ground frame
(C) sector BO C has the same kinetic energy as sector AO B w.r.t. ground frame
(D) all the sectors AO B, BO C, CO D and AO D have same kinetic energy w.r.t. the
centre of mass frame
5. A particle moving on a horizontal frictionless plane collides elastically with a uniform

smooth rod lying on the same plane and which is hinged to rotate about a vertical axis
passing through one of its ends. Then,
(A) angular momentum of the system about any point is conserved
(B) linear momentum of the particle is conserved perpendicular to the rod
(C) kinetic energy of the system (rod + particle) remains unchanged after the collision
(D) linear momentum of the system (rod + particle) is conserved
6. In the figure shown, the plank is being pulled to the right with a constant speed v. If the
cylinder does not slip then:
(A) the speed of the centre of mass of the cylinder is 2v.

(B) the speed of the centre of mass of the cylinder is zero.
(C) the angular velocity of the cylinder is v/R.
(D) the angular velocity of the cylinder is zero.
7. If a cylinder is rolling down the incline with sliding.

(A) after some time it may start pure rolling
(B) after sometime it will start pure rolling
(C) it may be possible that it will never start pure rolling
(D) none of these
8. Which of the following statements are correct.

(A) friction acting on a cylinder without sliding on an inclined surface is always upward
along the incline irrespective of any external force acting on it.
(B) friction acting on a cylinder without sliding on an inclined surface is may be upward
may be downwards depending on the external force acting on it.
(C) friction acting on a cylinder rolling without sliding may be zero depending on the
external force acting on it.
(D) nothing can be said exactly about it as it depends on the friction coefficient on
inclined plane.
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-33
9. A paritcle falls freely near the surface of the earth. Consider a fixed point O (not
vertically below the particle) on the ground.
(A) Angular momentum of the particle about O is increasing .
(B) Torque of the gravitational force on the particle about O is decreasing.
(C) The moment of inertia of the particle about O is decreasing .
(D) The angular velocity of the particle about O is increasing.
10. A body is in equilibrium under the influence of a number of forces. Each force has a
different line of action. The minimum number of forces required is
(A) 2, if their lines of action pass through the centre of mass of the body.
(B) 3, if their lines of action are not parallel.
(C) 3, if their lines of action are parallel.
(D) 4, if their lines of action are parallel and all the forces have the same magnitude.
COMPREHENSION
A circular ring having mass M = 4 m and radius y

A
R is attached to a small smooth ring of mass m
B
kept at point A. The ring is threaded onto a x
horizontal fixed frictionless wire.
Initially the bigger ring is held horizontally alongside the wire in such a manner that
initially the planes of both the rings are at 90 to each other and the planes of smaller
and bigger rings are perpendicular to the plane of the paper (x-y plane). Now the bigger
ring is released from rest. After release the planes of smaller and bigger ranges remain
perpendicular to the plane of paper (x-y plane).
1. The angular speed of bigger ring at the instant it is vertical is

5 g g
(A) (B) 2
6 3R 3R
g g
(C) 10 (D)
85R 3R
2. The speed of small ring at this instant is

5 gR
(A) gR (B) 8
3 85
20 4 gR
(C) gR (D)
15 3 3
3. Speed of point B is
gR gR
(A) (B) 2
3 3
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-34
gR gR
(C) 4 (D) 12
3 85
The figure shows a uniform smooth solid A

4m
cylinder A of radius 4 m rolling without
slipping on the 8 kg plank which in turn is
8 kg
supported by a fixed smooth surface. Block
B, is known to accelerate down with 6 m/s 2.
(Take g = 10 m/s2) B
2 kg
2
6 m/s
4. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder ?

4 2 6 2
(A) rad s (B) rad s
5 5
(C) 2 rad s2 (D) 1 rad s2.
5. What is the ratio of the mass of the cylinder to the mass of block B ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4.
6. If unwrapped length of the thread between the cylinder and block B is 20 m at the
beginning, when the system was released from rest, what would it be 2 s later ?
(A) 28 m (B) 30 m
(C) 22 m (D) 32.5 m
MATCH THE FOLLOWING

C
1. A rigid body is rolling without slipping on the horizontal
surface :
B V
60
D
A
Column A Column B
(A) Velocity at point A i.e., V A (p) V 2
(B) Velocity at point B i.e., V B (q) Zero
(C) Velocity at point C i.e., VC (r) V
(D) Velocity at point D i.e., VD (s) 2V
2. A uniform disc is acted upon by some forces and it rolls on a horizontal plank without
slipping from north to south. The plank, in turn lies on a smooth horizontal surface.
Match the following regarding this situation :
Column II
Column I
(A) Frictional force on the disc by the (p) May be directed towards north
surface
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-35
(B) Velocity of the lowermost point of the (q) May be directed towards south
disc
(C) Acceleration of centre of mass of the (r) May be zero
disc
(D) Vertical component of the acceleration (s) Must be zero
of centre of mass
3. In each case, there is sufficient friction for regular rigid uniform body to undergo pure
rolling on a rigid horizontal surface. Now Match the Column I and II
Column II
Column I
(A) (p) The direction of static friction may be
h F forward or may be backward or static
R friction may be zero
disc
(B) (q) The direction of static friction is
F towards backward
R
disc
(C) (r) The angular acceleration will be
R
clockwise
h
F
disc
(D) F
(s) Acceleration of the centre mass will
h be along direction F
disc
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-36
9. HINTS (Subjective)
LEVEL- I
1. Draw F.B.D., applying Newtons law and torque equation.
2. L=I
3. Conserve net energy
4. Apply work energy theorem
5. Draw FBD.
6. Find - ; tangential acceleration = R
7. Draw a FBD, assume friction, pure rolling starts when v = R
8. Draw FBD, apply Newton 2nd law, find torque and relate it to angular
acceleration.
9. Draw FBD on the inclined plane, assume backward friction apply 2nd law.
10. Conserve linear momentum and angular momentum about CM of rod.
LEVEL- II
1. Conserve angular momentum.
2. KEsphere = + PEspring = 0
md
3. I = r2 dm where r = sin , dm = .
0
4. For pure rolling v = R ; angular impulse about centre = I0
5. Draw FBD, T - Mg = 0, T = Centripetal force, conserve angular momentum
6. KE + PE = 0
7. Conserve angular momentum
8. Moment of impulse = charge in angular momentum
9. KE + PE = 0
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-37
10. Momentum of solid sphere can be conserved.
LEVEL- I
F F
1. opposite to the applied force , clockwise sense.
2M 2MR
mE
2. .R
2
12g
3. 4. 0.81 kg-m2
11r
g mg 2F
5. , 6.
2r 2 M
F 2F mv 3mv
8. (a) (b) 10. (a) V = (b) =
m mR M Ma
LEVEL II
10E
1. (a) 16/5 (b) 5/16 2.
7k
m 20 sin2 2
3. 4. R
3 3
Mg
5. 3 6. 0.56m
m
v 12 mv
7. 8. 0,
M (M 6m)
R 1
2m
9. 4m
v0
10.
28
RSM79-PH-PII-RM-38
LEVEL - I
1. (C) 2. (C)
3. (B) 4. (C)
5. (C) 6. (D)
7. (B) 8. (C)
9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (A)
13. (C) 14. (A)
15. (A) 16. (C)
17. (B) 18. (B)
19. (C) 20. (D)
LEVEL - II
1. (A), (B), (C) 2. (B), (C)

3. (A), (B), (C), (D) 4. (A), (B), (C), (D)
5. (C) 6. (B), (C)
7. (A), (C) 8. (B), (C)
9. (A), (C), (D) 10. (B), (C), (D)
COMPREHENSION
1. (C) 2. (B)
3. (D) 4. (D)
5. (B) 6. (A)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r);
2. (A) (p), (q), (r); (B) (p), (q), (r); (C) (p), (q), (r); (D) (s)
3. (A) (p), (s), (r); (B) (q), (r), (s); (C) (q), (r), (s); (D) (p), (r), (s)
RSM79-PH-PII-GR-19
GRAVITATION
LEVEL I
1. Three identical bodies, each of mass m, are separated by a distance a and are
found to start moving towards one another under mutual force of gravitational
attraction. If at t = t0, the separation between any two is a/2, find the speed of
each body at time t0.
2. If the radius and density of a planet are two times and half respectively of those
of earth, find the intensity of gravitational field at planet surface and escape
velocity from planet.
3. A mass M is split into two parts m and (M m), which are the separated by a
m
certain distance. What ratio of maximizes the gravitational force between
M
the parts?
4. Four massive particles, each of mass m, are kept at the vertices of square of side
. With what speed should the system rotate in its plane about its centre so as to
remain stable?
5. Two concentric spherical shells have masses M1, M2 and radii R1, R2 (R1< R2).
What is the force exerted by this system on a particle of mass m if it is placed at
a distance (R1 + R2)/2 from the centre?
6. A body stretches a spring by a particular length at the earth's surface at the

equator. At what height above the South Pole will it stretch the same spring to
the same length? Assume the earth to be spherical.
7. Find the radius of the circular orbit of a satellite moving with an angular speed
equal to the angular speed of earth's rotation.
8. What is the true weight of an object, that weighed exactly 10.0 N at the north
pole, at the position of a geostationary satellite?
9. What should be the period of rotation of the earth so that every object on the
equator is weightless?
10. A particle is fired vertically upward with a speed 15 km/s. (a) Show that it will
escape from the earth and (b) With what speed will it move in interstellar space?
Assume the presence of the earths gravitational field only.
RSM79-PH-PII-GR-20
LEVEL II
1. With what speed should a satellite be projected from earths surface so that it
starts resolving around earth at a height of 2600 km in circular orbit? (Radius of
earth = 6400 km, g at surface = 9.8 m/sec2)
2. A thin spherical shell of radius 3R and mass M and a hollow sphere of mass 3M
with R and 2R as internal and external radii are placed concentrically at O. Find
5R
the gravitational field & the gravitational potential at Q where OP = and
2
OQ = 4R.
3. Two small dense stars rotate about their common centre of mass, as a binary
system with the period of 1 year for each. One star is of double the mass of the
other and the mass of the lighter one is 1/3 the mass of the sun. The distance
between the earth and the sun is R. If the distance between two stars is r, then
obtain the relation between r and R.
4. What is the magnitude of the m M

d
gravitational force on the particle of L
mass m due to the rod?
5. A system consists of a thin ring of radius r and of mass M and a straight wire of
linear mass density of infinite length placed along the axis of the ring with one
of its ends at the centre of the ring. Find the force of interaction between the wire
and the ring.
6. Two massive particles of mass m1 and m2 are released from rest from a very
large distance. Find the speeds of the particles when their distance of separation
is r.
7. A particle of mass m is kept on the axis of a fixed circular ring of mass M and
radius R at a distance x from the centre of the ring. Find the maximum
gravitational force between the ring and the particle.
8. A double-star, with two stars masses m1 and m2, rotates with constant angular
speed. If the maximum distance of separation is R, then find the minimum value
of angular speed.
9. A projectile is fired vertically upward from the surface of earth with a velocity Kve
where ve is escape velocity and K<1. Neglecting air resistance, show that the
maximum height to which it will rise, measured from the centre of earth, is
R
where R is the radius of earth.
1 K2
10. A planet of mass m moves along an elliptical orbit around the sun so that its
maximum and minimum distances from the sun (mass = M) are equal to r1 and r2
respectively. Find the angular momentum of this planet relative to the sun.
RSM79-PH-PII-GR-21

LEVEL I
1. The ratio of the inertial mass to gravitational mass is equal to

(A) 0.5 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) no fixed number.
2. If the radius of earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same,
the acceleration due to gravity on the earths surface would
(A) decrease (B) remains unchanged
(C) increase. (D) none of these
3. Keplers third law of planetary motion provides information about

(A) areal velocity of a planet (B) nature of motion of a planet
(C) ratio of time periods of two planets (D) all the above
4. If a particle is slowly brought from reference point to another point P in a

gravitational field, then work done per unit mass by the external agent is (at that
point)
(A) gravitational force (B) gravitational field intensity
(C) gravitation potential (D) none of the above
5. The atmosphere is held to the earth by

(A) winds (B) gravity
(C) clouds (D) none of the above.
6. The time period of simple pendulum of infinite length is

R
(A) infinite (B) 2
g
g 1 R
(C) 2 (D)
R 2 g
7. When a satellite has an elliptical orbit, the plane of the orbit

(A) sometimes passes through the centre of earth
(B) does not pass through the centre of earth
(C) passes through the centre of earth always
(D) none of the above.
8. The earth revolves round the sun in an elliptical orbit. Its speed is
(A) going on decreasing continuously
(B) greatest when it is closest to the sun
(C) greatest when it is farthest from the sun
(D) constant at all the points on the orbit.
RSM79-PH-PII-GR-22
9. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving round the earth in
circular orbits of radii r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. Which of the following
statements is true regarding their speeds v1 and v2 ?
(A) v1 = v2 (B) v1 < v2
(C) v1 > v2 (D) (v1/r1) = (v2/r2).
10. Two satellites are orbiting around the earth in circular orbits of same radius. One
of them is 10 times greater in mass than the other. Their period of revolutions are
in the ratio
(A) 100:1 (B) 1:100
(C) 10:1 (D) 1:1
11. A person brings a mass of 1 kg from infinity to a point A. Initially the mass was at
rest but it moves at a speed of 2 m/s as it reaches A. The work done by a person
on the mass is 3J. The potential at A is:
(A) -3 J/kg (B) -2 J/kg
(C) -5 J/kg (D) none of these.
12. Let V and E be the gravitational potential and gravitational field at a distance r
from the centre of a uniform spherical shell. Consider the following two
statements, (A) The plot of V against r is discontinuous and (B) The plot of E
against r is discontinuous.
(A) Both A and B are correct (B) A is correct but B is wrong
(C) B is correct but A is wrong (D) both A and B are wrong.
13. Two satellites A and B move round the earth in the same orbit. The mass of B is
twice the mass of A. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Speeds of A and B are equal
(B) The potential energy of earth + A is same as that of earth + B
(C) The kinetic energy of A and B are equal
(D) The total energy of earth + A is same as that of earth + B.
14. The minimum speed of a particle projected from earths surface so that it will
never return is/are
GM
(A) (B) 22.1 km/sec
R
(C) 4g0R (D) none of above
15. A body of mass m is approaching towards the centre of a hypothetical hollow

planet of mass M and radius R. The speed of the body when it passes the centre
of the planet through a diametrical tunnel is
GM 2GM
(A) (B)
R R
(C) Zero (D) none of these.
RSM79-PH-PII-GR-23
16. The energy required to remove a body of mass m from earths surface is/are
equal t
GMm
(A) (B) mgR
R
(C) mgR (D) none of these.
17. A small mass m is moved slowly from the surface of earth to a height h from
the surface. The work done (by external agent) in doing this is
(A) mgh, for all values of h. (B) mgh, for h << R.
1 1
(C) mgR for h = R (D) mgR , for h = R
2 2
18. The escape velocity of a particle of mass m varies as:
(A) m2 (B) m
(C) m0 (D) m-1.
19. Two particles of masses m1 & m2 are infinitely separated and their gravitational
potential energy is chosen zero. Their gravitational energy, when they are
separated by r, is
Gm1m2 Gm1m2
(A) 2
(B)
r r
Gm1m2 Gm1m2
(C) 2
(D)
r r
20. The gravitational field at a point on the axis of a uniform disc,

(mass = M, radius = a) forming at the point, is
GM Gm
(A) cos (B) 1 cos
a a
2GM GM
(C) 2
1 cos (D) 2 1 sin
a a
LEVEL II
1. A particle of mass m and charge q is projected vertically upwards. A uniform electric

field E is applied vertically downwards. If the total potential energy is U (gravitational
plus electrostatic) and height is h (<< radius of earth) (Assume U to be zero on
earths surface) then :
(A) work done by the gravity mgh
(B) work done by electrostatic force qEh
(C) graph potential energy versus height (h) is straight line
(D) graph of potential energy versus height (h) is parabola.
2. A body of mass m is projected vertically upwards with velocity V from earths surface
and attains height h, then
(A) if V = V e (where Ve is escape velocity) then h =
RSM79-PH-PII-GR-24
V2
(B) if V is very small then h
2g
mgR
(C) if h = R, then projection kinetic energy is
2
(D) if h = R then total energy is negative.
3. A, B, C are vertices of an equilateral triangle imagined in free A

space (no gravity). First a mass m is brought from infinity to m
point A and the work done in doing so is W A. Then keeping m
fixed at A, another identical mass m is brought from infinity to
point B. The work done is W B. The work done by the another
identical mass m brought from infinity to C is W C keeping A and
B fixed. Then
B C
(A) W A = 0 (B) W A < W B
(C) WC > W B > W A (D) W A > W B > W C.
4. A particle is dropped from a height equal to the radius of the

earth above the tunnel dug through the earth as shown in the R
figure.
R : Radius of earth.
M : Mass of earth.
(A) Particle will oscillate through the earth to a height R on
both sides C
(B) Particle will execute simple harmonic motion
(C) Motion of the particle is periodic
2GM
(D) Particle passes the centre of earth with a speed =
R
5. Inside a uniform sphere of mass M and radius R, a cavity A

of radius R/3 is made in the sphere as shown.
(A) Gravitational field inside the cavity is uniform.
(B) Gravitational field inside the cavity is nonuniform. R
(C) The escape velocity of a particle projected from point B
88GM R/3
A is .
45R C
(D) Escape velocity is defined for earth and particle system only.
6. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform density the acceleration due to gravity
(A) at a point outside the earth is inversely proportional to the square of its distance from
the centre
(B) at a point outside the earth is inversely proportional to its distance from the centre
(C) at a point inside is zero
(D) at a point inside is proportional to its distance from the centre.
7. Gravitational potential at the centre of curvature of a hemispherical bowl of radius R and

mass M is V.
(A) gravitational potential at the centre of curvature of a thin uniform wire of mass M,
bent into a semicircle of radius R, is also equal to V.
RSM79-PH-PII-GR-25
(B) In part (A) if the same wire is bent into a quarter of a circle then also the gravitational
potential at the centre of curvature will be V.
(C) In part (A) if the same wire mass is nonuniformly distributed along its length and it is
bent into a semicircle of radius R, gravitational potential at the centre is V.
(D) none of these
8. In a solid sphere two small symmetrical cavities are created whose centres lie on a
diameter AB of sphere on opposite sides of the centre.
(A) The gravitational field at the centre of the sphere is zero.
(B) The gravitational potential at the centre remains unaffected if cavitiesare not present
(C) A circle at which all points have same potential is in the plane of diameter AB.
(D) A circle at which all points have same potential is in the plane perpendicular to
the diameter AB.
9. A communications Earth satellite

(A) goes round the earth from east to west
(B) can be in the equatorial plane only
(C) can be vertically above any place on the earth
(D) goes round the earth from west to east
10. If a satellite orbits as close to the earth's surface as possible,

(A) its speed is maximum
(B) time period of its rotation is minimum
(C) the total energy of the earth plus satellite system is minimum
(D) the total energy of the earth plus satellitesystem is maximum
COMPREHENSION
I. The escape velocity is the least velocity required by a body to escape away from the
gravitational pull of the earth. In the escaping condition kinetic energy is equal to
potential energy, i.e., total energy of the body is zero. The escape velocity is
independent of angle of projection. Escape velocity depends on the mass of central
body as well as radius of central body. When velocity of orbiting body increases, its
kinetic energy increases and hence total energy.
1. A projectile is fired with a velocity less than escape velocity. Then sum of its kinetic and
potential energy is
(A) negative (B) positive
(C) zero (D) may be positive or zero.
2. As the radius of orbiting body decreases, its time period

(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains unchanged (D) none of these.
3. For the planets orbiting around the sun, the quantity which remains constant is
(A) linear speed (B) kinetic energy
(C) angular speed (D) angular momentum.
RSM79-PH-PII-GR-26
II. The gravitational field strength E and gravitational y

potential V are related as
V V V
E i j k
x y z
In the figure, transversal lines represent
x
equipotential surfaces. A particle of mass m is O 10cm 20cm 30cm
released from rest at the origin. The gravitational -30V -40V
-10V -20V
unit of potential, 1V 1cm 2 / s 2
4. y-component of E at the point whose co-ordinates are (4cm, 4cm) is

(A) 1 cm/s2 (B) 8 cm/s2
2
(C) 4 cm/s (D) none of these
5. Speed of the particle (v) (y is in cm and v is in cm/s) as function of its y-co-ordinate is

(A) v 2 y (B) v 2.y
(C) v = 2y (D) v 2y 4y2 2y 2
6. A particle of mass m (where m is the mass in y

gram) is released from point O with initial velocity
zero. The work done by gravitational force on the
particle, when it is taken from O to B, is 2 2
(A) 30 m, unit 1V=1cm /s
B
(B) 15 m, unit 90
(C) 30 m, unit
x
(D) + 15 m, unit O 10cm 20cm 30cm
-30V -40V
-10V -20V
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
I.
Column A Column B
(A) Gravitational potential (p) On the surface of planets with
density ratio 1 : 2
(B) Escape velocity (q) Conservation of angular momentum
(C) Ratio of the acceleration due to (r) Varies with the reference point
gravity 1 : 2
(D) Orbiting satellites (s) Does not depend on the angle
II.
Column A Column B
(A) When v < v0 (p) The path of satellite is hyperbolic
(B) When v = vesc 2 v0 (q) The satellite will strike the earth
(C) When v > vesc (r) The orbit of satellite is elliptical
(D) vesc > v > v0 (s) The path of satellite is parabolic
RSM79-PH-PII-GR-27
12. Hints (Subjective)

LEVEL- I
1. Apply COE
4
2. g = g GR ,
3
Ve = 2gM/R
G M1 m
5. The force exerted on m by M1 = 2
R1 R 2
2
2GM
7. r=
r2
g R2
8. g= 02
r
LEVEL- II
1. Apply COE
6. |m1 v1 + m2 v 2 | = 0 ; K1 + U1 = K2 + U2
7. Each portion of the ring having a mass m attracts the particle towards itself with
G( m)m
a force F given as F =
r2
8. Gravitational force provides necessary centripetal acceleration to keep the stars
in their respective orbits.
10. Use conservation of angular momentum and conservation of energy.
RSM79-PH-PII-GR-28

LEVEL I
1. 2Gm / a 2. g, 15.84 km/sec
m 1 Gm 1
3. 4. 1
M 2 2 2
4GM1m
5. 6. 10.83 km
(R1 R2 )2
7. 42297 km 8. 0.23 N
9. 84 minute 10. (b) 9.98 km/s
LEVEL II
12GM GM
1. 8.99 103 km/sec 2. ,
25R2 R
GMm
3. r=R 4.
d L d
GM
5.
r
2G 2G 2 GMm
6. m2 , m1 . 7. (Fx)max=
m1 m2 r (m1 m2 )r 3 3 R2
G(m1 m2 ) 2 GM r1r2
8. = 10. m
R3 (r1 r2 )
RSM79-PH-PII-GR-29

LEVEL I
1. B 2. C
3. C 4. C
5. B 6. B
7. C 8. B
9. B 10. D
11. C 12. C
13. A 14. D
15. B 16. B
17. C 18. C
19. D 20. C
LEVEL II
1. (A), (B), (C) 2. (A), (B), (C), (D)
3. (A), (B), (C) 4. (A), (C), (D)
5. (A), (C) 6. (A), (D)
7. (A), (C) 8. (A), (D)
9. (B), (D) 10. (A), (B), (C)
COMPREHENSION
1. (A) 2. (B)
3. (D) 4. (A)
5. (A) 6. (A)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (r), (s); (B) (s); (C) (p); (D) (q)
2. (A) (r), (q); (B) (s); (C) (p); (D) (r)
***
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-34
FLUID MECHANICS
LEVEL I
1. There are three different liquids (liquid 1, liquid 2 and liquid 3) having density
13.6 gm/cc., 1.3 gm/cc and 0.8 gm/cc. Liquid 1 is poured in a uniform U-tube,
which is kept vertical. Liquid 2 & liquid 3 are poured separately into the two arms
till upper surface of liquid 2 & 3 are same. What is the height of liquid 3 if the
height of liquid 2 is 16cm?
2. A very narrow hole exists at a height (H h) from the bottom of a tank, which
contains water upto a height H. Find the distance where stream of water coming
out from the hole will strike the floor.
3. Two cylindrical vessels of radius r = 100m are filled with water upto heights H
and 2H respectively. If the vessels are connected by a narrow tube through two
holes made at their bottom, find the work done by gravity.
4. A garden hose having an internal diameter of 0.75 in. is connected to a lawn

sprinkler that consists merely of an enclosure with 24 holes, each 0.050 in. in
diameter. If the water in the hose has a speed of 3.0 ft/sec. at what speed does it
leave the sprinkler holes?
5. A cube floating on mercury has one-fourth of its volume submerged. If enough

water is added to cover the cube, what fraction of its volume will remain
immersed in mercury? Does the answer depend on the shape of the body?
6. A seated tank containing a liquid of density C

A a
moves with a horizontal acceleration a as h
shown in the figure. Find the difference in
B
pressure between the points A and B.
7. Find the work done in increasing the radius of a soap bubble from initial radius r1
to final radius r2. Given T = surface tension of soap solution.
8. If n identical water droplets falling under gravity with terminal velocity v coalesce
to form a single drop which has the terminal velocity 4v. Find the number n.
9. A U-tube is partially filled with a liquid. The horizontal part of the tube is 2 m.
The tube is accelerated horizontally with a constant acceleration of 5 m/s2. What
is the difference in the heights of the liquid in the two arms of the U-tube?
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-35
10. If the velocity gradient of water near the surface of a deep river is 6 s1, find the
shearing stress between the horizontal layers of water (coefficient of viscosity of
water = 10 2 poise)
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-36
LEVEL II
1. A silver block of mass 3.15kg is connected to a string and is then immersed in a

liquid of relative density 0.82. Find the tension in the string, if relative density of
silver is 10.5.
2. Water is flowing continuously from a tap having a bore of internal diameter

8 10-3 m. Calculate the diameter of the water stream at a distance 2 10-1 m
below the tap. Assume that water velocity as it leaves the tap is 4 10-1 m/s.
3. There are two identical small holes (cross section area = ) opposite sides of a
tank containing a liquid. (density ) The tank is opened at the top. The difference
is height between the two holes is h. As the liquid comes out of the two holes,
find the net horizontal force. The tank will experience.
4. Two cylindrical tanks of cross-sectional area

A1 and A2 with their bases at the same level A1 A2
each contain a liquid of density . The height
of liquid in the tanks are H1 and H2, H1
respectively. The tanks are joined together H2
through a pipe of cross-sectional area a as
shown in the figure.
(a) Find the time taken to equalize the a
levels in the tanks.
(b) What is the work done by gravity in
equalizing the levels?
5. A long cylindrical tank of cross-section area

20kg
0.5m2 is filled with water. It has an opening at a
height 50 cm from the bottom, having area of
cross-section 1 10-4 m2 . A movable piston of
cross-section area almost equal to 0.5 m2 is fitted
on the top of the tank such that it can slide in the
tank freely. A load of 20 kg is applied on the top
of the water by piston, as shown in the figure.
Find the speed of the water jet with which it hits
the surface when piston is 1m above the bottom
(Ignore the mass of the piston).
6. The vertical arms of U-tube have unequal radius R and r (R > r). If a liquid of
surface tension T and density rests in equilibrium inside the U-tube, find the
level difference h between the meniscuses in the two arms.
7. A small hollow vessel which has a small hole in it is immersed in water to a depth
of 40 cm before water enters into the vessel. Calculate the radius of the hole.
[Surface tension of water = 70 10 3 N/m, density of water = 103 kg/m3]
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-37
8. A rectangular tank of height 10 m filled with

water, is placed near the bottom of an incline
10 m x
of angle 300. At height x from bottom a small
hole is made (as shown in figure) such that 30
0
the stream coming out from hole, strikes the

inclined plane normally. Find x.
9. Water flows through a tapering horizontal tube of radii of cross section of the
ends r1 = 20 cm and r2 = 10 cm. The velocity of water at the points for the radius
of cross section r1 is v1 = 1m/sec. Find the force imparted by the emerging water
at the other end of the tube.
10. Two soap bubbles of radii a and b combine under isothermal conditions to form a
single bubble of radius c without any leakage of air. If P o = atmospheric pressure and
4T a 2 b 2 c 2
T = surface tension of soap solution, show that Po =
c 3 a3 b3
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-38

LEVEL - I
1. A and B are two metallic pieces. They are fully immersed in water and then
weighed. Now they show same loss of weight. The conclusion therefore is:
(A) A and B have same weight in air
(B) A and B have equal volumes
(C) The densities of the materials of A and B are the same
(D) A and B are immersed to the same depth inside water.
2. An ice cube contains a large air bubble. The cube is floating on the surface of
water contained on a trough. What will happen to the water level, when the cube
melts?
(A) It will remain unchanged (B) It will fall
(C) It will rise (D) First it will and then rise
3. In a hydraulic lift, used at a service station the radius of the large and small
piston are in the ratio of 20 : 1. What weight placed on the small piston will be
sufficient to lift a car of mass 1500kg?
(A) 3.75Kg (B) 37.5Kg
(C) 7.5Kg (D) 75Kg
4. Water and mercury are filled in two cylindrical vessels upto same height. Both
vessels have a hole in the wall near the bottom. The velocity of water and
mercury coming out of the holes are v1 and v2 respectively. Thus
(A) v1 = v2 (B) v1 = 13.6v2
(C) v1 = v2/13.6 (D) v 1 = (13.6 )v 2
5. An ice cube contains a glass ball. The cube is floating on the surface of water
contained in a trough on the surface of water contained in a trough. What will
happen to the water level, when the cube melts?
(A) It will remain unchanged (B) It will fall
(C) It will rise (D) First it will fall and then rise
6. A square hole of side length is made at a depth of y and a circular hole is

made at a depth of 4y from the surface of water in a water tank kept on a
horizontal surface. If equal amount of water comes out of the vessel through the
holes per second then the radius of the circular hole is equal to(r, << y) :
(A) / 2 (B) / 2
(C) / (D) / 2
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-39
7. In the figure shown a liquid is flowing through a P vP

tube at the rate of 0.1 m3/sec. The tube is
branched into two semi circular tubes of cross
sectional area A/3 and 2A/3. The velocity of
liquid at Q is (the cross-section of the main tube Q vQ
(A) = 10 -2 m2 and VP = 20 m/sec.):
(A) 5 m/sec (B) 30 m/sec
(C) 35 m/sec (D) None of these.
8. A small hole is made at a height of h = (1/ 2 ) m from the

bottom of a cylindrical water tank and at a depth of h = 2
m from the upper level of water in the tank. The distance,
where the water emerging from the hole strikes the ground
is:
(A) 2 2m (B) 1 m R
(C) 2 m (D) None of these.
9. The excess pressure inside one soap bubble is three time that inside a second
soap bubble. The ratio of the volumes of the two bubbles
(A) 1/9 (B) 9/1
(C) 1/27 (D) 27/1
10. An air bubble of diameter 2 mm rises steadily through a solution of density

1750 kg/m3 at the rate of .35 cm/sec. Coefficient of viscosity of the solution is
(Assume mass of the bubble to be negligible)
(A) 9 poise (B) 6 poise
(C) 11 poise (D) 4 poise
A
11. The velocity of the water flowing from the inlet pipe is less
than the velocity of water flowing out from the spin pipe B.
(A) variation of water level in vessel will be irregular. B
(B) water level will remains constant.

(C) the water level will perform periodic oscillation motions.
(D) none of the above.
12. In a streamline flow of a liquid

(A) every particle has its own velocity, different from others.
(B) all particles move with a constant velocity, even if the path is curvilinear.
(C) At a point on the streamline, particle can have two velocities.
(D) At a point on the streamline, particle can have only one velocity along the
tangent.
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-40
13. A metallic sphere floats in an immiscible mixture of water ( w = 103 kg/m3) and a
liquid ( L = 13. 5 103 kg/m3) such that 4/5 portion is in water and (1/5)th portion
is in the liquid. The density of the metal in kg/m3 is
(A) 4.5 103 (B) 4.0 103
(C) 3.5 10 3 (D) 3.0 103
14. A stream line body with relative density d1 falls into air from a height h1 on the
surface of a liquid of relative density d2, where d2 is greater than d1. The time of
immersion of the body into the liquid will be
2h1 d1 2h1
(A) (B)
g d2 d1 g
2h1 d1 2h1 d2
(C) (D)
g d2 g d1
15. A tank is filled with water to a height H. Two holes are made on its side wall, one
at a height of h from the bottom and other at a depth h from the top. The
horizontal jets starting from the two holes meet the ground or side (in level with
the bottom of the tank) at the same point. This distance of this point from the
side of the tank is
(A) [4h(H h)] (B) [h(H h)]
(C) [2h(H h)] (D) [3h(H h)]

16. Which of the following graphs best represents the relation between the height h of
the liquid in a capillary tube and radius of the capillary tube?
h h
(A) (B)
r r
h h
(C) (D)
r r
17. A boat floating in a tank is carrying passengers. If the passengers drink water,
how will it affect the water level of the tank?
(A) It will go down
(B) It will rise
(C) It will remain unchanged
(D)It will depend on atmospheric pressure.
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-41
18. A cylinder is filled with non viscous liquid of density d to a height h0 and a hole is
made at a height h1 from the bottom of the cylinder. The velocity of liquid issuing
out of the hole is
(A) (2gh 0 ) (B) 2g(h0 h1 )
(C) ( dgh1 ) (D) (dgh0 )
19. A spherical ball of mass m and radius r is allowed to fall in a medium of viscosity .
The time in which the velocity of the body increases from zero to 0.63 times the
terminal velocity is called time constant ( ). Dimensionally can be represented by
mr 2 6 mr
(A) (B)
6 g2
m
(C) (D) none of these.
6 r
20. A large bottle is fitted with a capillary siphon. Ratio of times taken to empty the bottle
when it is filled with (i) water (ii) petroleum of relative density 0.8.
( water = 0.001poise, water = 0.002 poise, dwater = 1000 kg/m3)
(A) 5/4 (B) 4/5
(C) 2/5 (D) 3/5
LEVEL - II
C
1. A Siphon tube is used to remove liquid from a container as
shown in figure. In order to operate the Siphon tube it must H
A
initially be filled with the liquid.
h
(A) Speed of the liquid through the Siphon is 2g(h y)
B
(B) Pressure at C is Patm g h H y y
(C) Pressure at PA is less then PD D
(D) Pressure at PA equal to PD
2. A circular cylinder of radius R and height H is filled with water

2
to a height H. It starts rotating about its axis with constantly
3
H 2H
increasing angular speed. Choose the correct alternatives. 3
(A) at all speeds, shape of the free surface is parabolloid
(B) the free surface touches first the brim of cylinder and then
the base of the cylinder
(C) the free surface cannot touch the base without spilling water
(D) the free surface touches the brim as well as base at the same instant
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-42
3. The vessel shown in the figure has two sections of areas of cross
section A1 and A2. A liquid of density fills both the sections, up to A1
h
a height h in each. Neglect atmospheric pressure
(A) the pressure at the base of the vessel is 2h g A2 X
(B) the force exerted by the liquid on the base of the vessel is h
2h gA2
(C) the weight of the liquid is < 2h gA2
(D) the walls of the vessel at the level X exert a downward force h g (A2 A1) on the
liquid
4. A small body of density is dropped from rest at a height h into a lake of density ,
where > . Which of the following statement or statements is or are correct if all
dissipative effects are neglected? (neglect viscosity)
(A) the speed of the body just entering the lake is 2gh
(B) the body in the lake experiences upward acceleration equal to {( / ) 1} g
(C) the maximum depth to which the body sinks in the lake is h /( )
(D) the body does not come back to the surface of the lake
5. A target object is placed at the bottom of a tank of depth 20 m,

and filled with a liquid of density 500 gm/cc. Another object of
density 100 gm/cc is dropped onto it, from a height of 45 m from 45m
the upper surface of the liquid. (take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) The second object will collide with the target.
(B) The second object does not collide with the target.
(C) The least separation between object and target is 11.25 m.
20m
(D) The retardation of the object in the liquid is 40 ms2.
6 A closed vessel is half filled with water. There is a hole near the top of the vessel and air
is pumped out from this hole.
(a) The water level will rise up in the level
(b) The pressure at the surface of the water will decrease
(c) The force by the water on the bottom of the vessel will decrease
(d) The density of the liquid will decrease
7 In a streamline flow,
(a) the speed of a particle always remains same
(b) the velocity of a particle always remain same
(c) the kinetic energies of all the particle arriving at a given point are the same
(d) the momenta of all the particles arriving at a given point are the same
8 Water is flowing is streamline motion through a tube with its axis horizontal. Consider
two points A and B in the tube at the same horizontal level.
(a) The pressure at A and B are equal for any shape of the tube
(b) The pressures are never equal
(c) The pressure are equal if the tube has a uniform cross-section
(d) The pressure may be equal if tube has non-uniform cross-section
9 There is a small hole near the bottom of an open tank filled with a liquid. The speed of
the water ejected does not depend upon
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-43
(a) area of the hole (b) density of the liquid

(b) height of the liquid from the hole (d) acceleration due to gravity
10. Water is flowing through a long horizontal tube. Let PA and PB be the pressures at two
points A and B of the tube
(a) PA may be equal to PB
(b) PA may be greater than PB
(c) PA may be smaller than PB
(d) PA = PB only if the cross-sectional area at A and B are equal
COMPREHENSION
I. Hydrostatic force on a submerged curved surface :

consider first a vertical flat surface of height h and width W.
The pressure at a depth y below the liquid surface
P= gy where : density of liquid
dF= ( gy) (Wdy)
= gW y dy
h
F= dF = gW y dy
0
1
= gWh 2
2
This result may be interpreted as

h
F = (Wh) g
2
= Projected area pressure at the centroid of the projected area
Projected area can be considered as the image of the surface (flat or curved) on a
screen.
Thus,
FX = Force in X-direction
= Projected area normal to X-direction pressure at the centroid of the projected
area
1. For the flat surface discussed in the passage, the total

torque of the hydrostatic force about point O is
2 1
(A) g wh 3 (B) g wh 3
3 3
1
(C) g wh 3 (D) g wh 3
2
2. The line of action of the resultant horizontal force acts at a distance r below point O.
The value of r is
h h
(A) (B)
2 3
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-44
2h h
(C) (D)
3 b
3. A flat plate of height 1m and width 1m is hinged at its

middle as shown in the figure. To the left of the plate is a
liquid of density . To prevent the rotation of the plate, a
force F is applied from the other side at the bottom. The
value of F is
g
(A) Zero (B)
2
g g
(C) (D)
4 6
II. A cylindrical tank having crosssectional area A = 0.5 m2

is filled with two liquids of density 1 = 900 kg m3 and 2 = h
600 kg m3, to a height h = 60 cm each as shown in figure.
A small whole having area a = 5 cm2 is made in right h
vertical wall at a height y = 20 cm from the bottom. A F y
horizontal force F is applied on the tank to keep it in static
equilibrium. The tank is lying on a horizontal surface.
Neglect mass of cylindrical tank comparison to mass of
liquids. (take g = 10 ms-2)
4. The velocity of efflux

(A) 10 ms1 (B) 20 ms1
(C) 4 ms1 (D) 35 ms1
5. Horizontal force F to keep the cylinder in static equilibrium, if it is placed on a smooth

horizontal plane
(A) 7.2 N (B) 10 N
(C) 15.5 N (D) 20.4 N
6. Minimum and maximum values of F to keep the cylinder in static equilibrium just after
the water starts to spill through the hole. If the co-efficient of static friction between
contact surfaces is 0.01.
(A) 0, 40 N (B) 5.4 N, 52.2 N
(C) 0, 70 N (D) 0, 52.2 N
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-45
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. With regard to dependence of quantities given in column a on the quantities

mentioned in column b, match columns a and column b.
column I Column II
(A) Youngs modulus of a substance (p) Depends on area of cross-section
(B) Bulk modulus of a substance (q) Depends on the nature of
material
(C) Modulus of rigidity of a substance (r) Depends on temperature
(D) Volume of a substance (s) Depends on length
2. A cube of ice edge 4 cm is placed in an empty cylindrical glass of inner base area 64
cm2. Assume that ice melts uniformly from each side so that it always remains its cubical
shape then edge of the ice cube is x and height of water formed in cylindrical glass is h
at the instant the ice cube just leaves contact with the bottom of the glass.
(density of ice = 0.9 gm/ml, density of water = 1 gm/ml). Then match the following :
Column II
Column I
(A) X (p) 0.9 cm
(B) H (q) 1 cm
(C) Volume of ice melted (r) 56.7 cm3
(D) Volume of water formed (s) 63 cm3
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-46
LEVEL- I
1. Pressure at A = Pressure at B 3gh + 1 g (H h) = 2gH
1 2
2. Hh= gt t = {2(H h)/g}1/2
2
3. Calculate the change of potential energy of the system.
4. Apply continuity equation.
5. v g = (v/4) g = /4
LEVEL- II
1. T = mg Fb = mg V g
2. Applying Bernoulli 's theorem, we get

1 1
v12 + gh = v 22 (pressure being same)
2 2
3. Force = rate of change of momentum
A1
4. dh2 = dh1 (continuity equation )
A2
The difference in levels decreases by
A1 A 2
dh = dh1 + dh2 = dh1
A2
20 10N
5. Pressure at the top is P1 = P0 +
0.5m2
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-47
9. Answers to the subjective assignment

LEVEL I
1. 15.4 cm 2. 2 (H h) / h
3. 19.24 J 4. 29 ft/sec.
5. 0.19, NO 6. PB PA = h g = a
7. 8 T(r 22 r 12 ) 8. 8
9. 1 m. 10. 10 3 N/m2
LEVEL II
1. 29.04 N
2. 3.54 10-3 m
3. 2 gh
A1A 2 2(H1 H2 ) 1
4. (a) (b) gA1A 2 (H1 H2 )2
a( A1 A 2 ) g 2
5. 4.56 m/s
2T 1 1
6.
g r R
7. 3.6 10 5 m
8. 8.33 m.
9. 502.65 N.
RSM79-PH-PII-FM-48
10. Answers to the objective assignment
LEVEL I
1. B 2. A
3. A 4. A
5. B 6. C
7. D 8. D
9 C 10. A
11. C 12. D
13. C 14. A
15. A 16. C
17. D 18. D
19. C 20. C
LEVEL II
1. (A), (B), (D) 2. (A), (B), (C)

3. (A), (B), (C), (D) 4. (B), (C)
5. (B), (C), (D) 6. (B), (C)
7. (C), (D) 8. (C)
9. (A), (B) 10. (A), (B), (C), (D)
COMPREHENSION
1. (B) 2. (C)
3. (D) 4. (C)
5. (A) 6. (D)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (q), (r); (B) (q), (r); (C) (q), (r); (D) (p), (r), (s)
2. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r)
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-29
SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION

LEVEL I
1. The equation of a simple harmonic motion is given by x = 6 sin 10 t + 8 cos 10 t,

where x is in cm, and t is in seconds. Find the resultant amplitude.
2. A particle of mass 4 g performs S.H.M. between x = - 10 cm and x = + 10 cm

along x-axis with frequency 60 Hz, initially the particle starts from x = +5 cm. Find
(a) equation of motion of the particle.
(b) the initial phase, amplitude and time period of the particle.
(c) velocity- displacement and acceleration displacement curve of this motion.
(d) plot the graphs of (i) KE vs displacement
(ii) PE vs displacement
(iii) Total energy vs displacement
3. A cubical body (side .1 m and mass 0. 02 kg) floats in water. It is pressed and
then released so that it oscillates vertically. Find the time period. (density of
water = 1000 kg/m3).
m
4. Find the time period of the motion of a particle shown
in figure. Neglecting the small effect of the bend near 10 cm
0
45 60
0
the bottom.
5. Consider a situation shown in the figure. Show that if k

2m 3m
the blocks are displaced slightly in opposite directions
and released, they will execute S.H.M. calculate the
time period.
6. A uniform rod of mass m and length is pivoted at one end. It is free to rotate in
a vertical plane. Find the time period of oscillation of rod if it is slightly displaced
from vertical and released.
7. A particle is executing SHM. A and B are the two points at which its velocity is
zero. It passes through a certain point P at intervals of 0.5 and 1.5 sec with a
speed of 3 m /s. Determine the maximum speed and also the ratio AP/PB.
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-30
Q
8. A ball is suspended by a thread of length L at the point O
on the wall PQ which is inclined to the vertical by a small O
angle to the thread with the ball is now displaced

through a small angle away from the vertical and also
from the wall if the ball is released, find the period of C
P
oscillation of the pendulum when B
(a) <
(b) > . Assume the collision on the wall to be perfectly elastic.
M
9. A small solid cylinder of mass M attached to a horizontal k
R
massless spring can roll without slipping along a
horizontal surface. Show that if the cylinder is displaced
and released, if executes S.H.M. Also find its time
period.
10. The friction coefficient between the two blocks shown in

figure is and the horizontal plane is smooth (a) If the k
m
system is slightly displaced and released find the
M
magnitude of the frictional force between the blocks when
the displacement from the mean position is x. (b) what
can be the maximum amplitude if the upper block does not
slip relative to the lower block ?
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-31
LEVEL II
1. Determine the period of oscillation of

mercury of mass m = 200g poured into a x
bent tube whose right arm forms an angle

= 300 with the vertical. The cross-sectional x
area of the tube S = 0.50 cm2. The viscosity
of mercury is to be neglected.
2. A disk of mass m is connected to k2

two springs of stiffness k1 and k2
k1
as shown in the figure. Find the
angular frequency of the system
for small oscillation. Disc can roll
on the surface without slipping.
l l
3. A uniform bar with mass m lies symmetrically
across two rapidly rotating fixed rollers, A and B
A B
with distance ' ' between the bars centre of mass
mg
and each roller. The rollers whose direction of
rotation are shown in figure slip against the bar
with coefficient of friction . Suppose the bar is
displaced horizontally by a small distance 'x' and
then released, find the time period of oscillation.
4. A rod of length L, cross-sectional area A and density is hanging from a rigid

support by spring of stiffness k. A small sphere of mass m is rigidly attached at
the bottom of the rod. The rod is partially immersed in a liquid of density . Find
the period of small oscillations.
5. A vertical uniform tube of length , density is floating in a system of two

immiscible liquids of densities 1 and 2. Its bottom end is at the interface of the
liquids. Find the period of small oscillation.
6. Find the angular frequency of

small oscillation of block m in the k1
m
arrangement shown. Rod is
k2
massless. [Assume gravity to be
absent]
k3 l/2 l/2
7. A disc is free to rotate with an angular velocity , about an axis

passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane. A r
massless spring of force constant k = 10 N/m is attached to a

k m
particle of mass m = 0.1 kg which can slide without friction,
initially at the centre of the disc and spring in its natural length.
Find the period of the particle is is (a)10 rad/hr (b) 6 rad/hr
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-32
8. A string of natural length 2 and modulus of elasticity Y is stretched between two

fixed points A and B on a smooth horizontal table such that AB = 3 . A mass m is
attached to the mid point of the string and makes a small oscillation in a
horizontal line perpendicular to AB. Find the frequency of oscillation of m.
9. A system consisting of a smooth movable wedge of

k
angle and a block A of mass m are connected
together with a massless spring of spring constant k, m
as shown in the figure. The system is kept on a
frictionless horizontal plane. If the block is displaced M
slightly from equilibrium and left to oscillate, find the

frequency of small oscillations.
10. Find out the angular frequency of m

small oscillations of the system
shown. The T - structure is b
massless. The springs are initially
relaxed. a a
k k
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-33

LEVEL I
1. A particle moves in x-y plane according to the equation r ( i 2 j )A cos t the

motion of the particle is
(A) on a straight line (B) on an ellipse
(C) periodic (D) simple harmonic
2. Which of the following quantities are always positive in a simple harmonic motion?
(A) F. a (B) v. r
(C) a. r (D) F. r
3. The magnitude of average acceleration in half time period in a simple harmonic

motion is
2 2
2A A
(A) (B)
2
2
A
(C) (D) Zero
2
4. A small block oscillates back and forth on a smooth concave surface of radius R.
The time period of small oscillation is
R 2R
(A) T = 2 (B) T = 2
g g
R
(C) T = 2 (D) None of these
2g
5. A particle of mass 10 gm lies in a potential field v = 50 x2 + 100. The value of

frequency of oscillations in Hz is
5
(A) 5 Hz (B) Hz
10
(C) Hz (D) none of these.
3
6. When two mutually perpendicular simple harmonic motions of same frequency,

amplitude and phase are superimposed
(A) the resulting motion is uniform circular motion.
(B) the resulting motion is a linear simple harmonic motion along a straight line
inclined equally to the straight lines of motion of component ones.
(C) the resulting motion is an elliptical motion, symmetrical about the lines of
motion of the components.
(D) the two S.H.M. will cancel each other.
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-34
7. The angular frequency of small oscillations of the system

shown in the figure is
K 2K K = spring constant
(A) (B)
2m m Massless
K 4K smooth
(C) (D) pulley
4m m
m
8. A particle executes SHM with a frequency f. The frequency with which it's KE
oscillates is
(A) f/2 (B) f
(C) 2f (D) 4f
9. A simple pendulum has some time period T. What will be the percentage
change in its time period if its amplitudes is decreased by 5 % ?
(A) 6 % (B) 3 %
(C) 1.5 % (D) 0 %
10. The work done by the string of a simple pendulum during one complete
oscillation is equal to
(A) total energy of the pendulum (B) KE of the pendulum
(C) PE of the pendulum (D) Zero
10. Two uniform rods are welded together to form a letter T as l

shown in the figure. Each rod is of mass M and length l. If this A B
combination is hinged at A and kept in vertical plane then time
period of small oscillations about A is equal to
l 3l l
(A) 2 (B) 2
6 3g 2 2g
l 11l C
(C) 2 (D) 2
2g (6 5 )(g )
h
2. A cylindrical piston of mass M slides smoothly M
inside a long cylinder closed at one end, enclosing P A
a certain mass of a gas.
The cylinder is kept with its axis horizontal. If the piston is slightly compressed
isothermally from its equilibrium position, it oscillates simple harmonically, the
period of oscillation will be
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-35
Mh MA
(A) T = 2 (B) T = 2
PA Ph
M
(C) T = 2 (D) T = 2 MPhA
PAh
3. The period of the free oscillations of the system shown here if

mass M1 is pulled down a little and force constant of the spring is
k and masses of the fixed pulleys are negligible, is
M2
M1 M2 M1 4M2
(A) T = 2 (B) T = 2
k k M1
k
M2 4M1 M2 3M1
(C) T = 2 (D) T = 2
k k
4. The period of small oscillations of a simple pendulum of length l if its point of

suspension O moves a with a constant acceleration = 1 i + 2 j with respect
to earth is
(A) T = 2 2 2 1/ 2
(B) T = 2 2 2 1/ 2
{(g 2) 1} {( g 1) 2}
(C) T = 2 (D) T = 2
g {g2 2 1/ 2
1}
5. A particle moves along the X-axis according to the equation x = 10 sin 3( t).
The amplitudes and frequencies of component SHMs are
(A) amplitude 30/4, 10/4 ; frequencies 3/2, 1/2
(B) amplitude 30/4, 10/4 ; frequencies 1/2, 3/2
(C) amplitude 10, 10 ; frequencies 1/2, 1/2
(D) amplitude 30/4, 10 ; frequencies 3/2, 2
6. A pendulum makes perfectly elastic collision with block

of m lying on a frictionless surface attached to a spring
of force constant k. Pendulum is slightly displaced and k
m
released. Time period of oscillation of the system is m
m m
(A) 2 (B)
g k g k
m
(C) 2 (D) 2
g k
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-36
7. Three springs of each force constant k are connected as

shown figure. Point mass m is slightly displaced to compress A
and released. Time period of oscillation C 90 B
m m m
(A) 2 (B) 2
2k 3k
A
m m
(C) 2 (D) 2
k k 2 k 1
8. Two blocks each of mass m are connected with

springs of force constant k. Initially springs are A B
relaxed. Mass A is displaced to left and B is displaced
towards right by same amount and released then time
period of oscillation of any one block (Assume
collision to be perfectly elastic)
m m
(A) 2 (B) 2
k 2k
m m
(C) (B)
k 2k
9. If for a particle moving in SHM, there is a sudden increase of 1% in restoring

force just as particle passing through mean position, percentage change in
amplitude will be
(A) 1% (B) 2%
(C) 0.5% (D) zero.
10. S1 and S2 are two identical springs. The oscillation k k

frequency is f. If one spring is removed, frequency S2
M S1
will be
(A) f (B) 2f
(C) 2 f (D) f 2
LEVEL II
1. Equation of SHM is x = 10 sin 10 t. Find the distance between the two points
where speed is 50 cm/sec. x is in cm and t is in seconds.
(A) Zero (B) 20 cm
(C) 17.32 cm (D) 8.66 cm.
2. A simple pendulum of length L and mass M is oscillating in a plane about a

vertical line between angular limits and + . For an angular displacement
(| | < ) the tension in the string and velocity of the bob are T and v respectively.
The following relations hold good under the above condition.
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-37
(A) T cos = Mg
Mv 2
(B) T + Mg cos =
L
(C) The magnitude of tangential acceleration of he bob | aT | = g sin
(D) T = Mg (3 cos 2 cos )
3. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform, which undergoes vertical simple harmonic

motion of angular frequency . The amplitude of oscillation is gradually increased. The
coin will leave contact with the platform for the first time
(A) at the highest position of the platform (B) at the mean position of the platform
(C) for an amplitude of g/ 2 (D) for an amplitude of g /
4. The position vector of a particle that is moving in three dimensions is given by

r (1 2 cos 2 t)i (3 sin2 t) j (3t)k
in the ground frame. All units are in SI. Choose the correct statement (s) :
3
(A) The particle executes SHM in the ground frame about the mean position 1, ,3t .
2
(B) The particle executes SHM in a frame moving along the zaxis with a velocity of
3 m/s.
5
(C) The amplitude of the SHM of the particle is m .
2
4 3
(D) The direction of the SHM of the particle is given by the vector i j .
5 5
5. Which of the following will have a different time period, if taken to the moon ?
(A) A simple pendulum.
(B) A spring mass system oscillating vertically in the gravitational field.
(C) A torsion pendulum.
(D) An hourglass clock, which is essentially a vessel filled with a liquid, emptying
through a hole in the bottom.
1. Select the correct alternatives

(A) A simple harmonic motion is necessarily periodic.
(B) A simple harmonic motion is necessarily oscillatory
(C) Oscillation motion may be periodic
(D) A periodic motion is necessarily oscillatory
2. Which of the following is/are essential for simple harmonic motion?
(A) Inertia (B) Restoring force
(C) Material Medium (D) gravity
3. Which of the following is/are the characteristics(s) of SHM?
(A) projection of uniform circular motion on any straight line
(B) periodic nature
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-38
(C) displacement time graph is a sine curve

(D) acceleration is zero at the mean position
5. Which of the following will change their time period if they are taken to moon ?
(A) a simple pendulum (B) a physical pendulum
(C) a torsional pendulum (D) a spring pendulum
6. Which of the following statements are true for the oscillations of the mass suspended
with a spring?
(A) Time period varies directly as the square root of the suspended mass.
(B) A stiffer spring gives lesser time period
(C) The mass can execute oscillations in the state of weightlessness
(D) The system will have the same time period both on the moon and earth
COMPREHENSION
I. The physical pendulum is just a rigid body, of whatever P

shape, capable of oscillating about a horizontal axis
passing through it. For small oscillations the motion of a
physical pendulum is almost as easy as for a simple l CM
pendulum. Figure shows a rigid body pivoted about point L
P and displaced from equilibrium through an angle . CM
The gravitational force provides a restoring torque of
magnitude mgl sin about point P and time period is
given by
I M
T 2 Stick
mgl
1. The period of oscillation for small angular displacement of a stick of length L pivoted
about an ends is
L 2L
(A) 2 (B) 2
2g 3g
L 3L
(C) 2 (D) 2
6g 4g
2. If the stick is pivoted about a point P, distance x from the center of mass, the period of
oscillation is
L2 12x2 3L2 2x 2
(A) 2 (B) 2
12 gx 2gx
12L2 x2 2L2 3x2
(C) 2 (D) 2
12gx 2gx
3. For what value of x period of oscillation is minimum
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-39
L 2
(A) (B) L
12 3
L 2L
(C) (D)
3 3
II. If a mass attached to a spring (massless) is pulled down twice as far, the force will be
twice as much, the resulting acceleration is twice as great, the velocity it acquires in a
given time is twice as great, the distance covered in a given time is twice as great, but it
has to cover twice as great a distance in order to get back to the origin. In a linear
equation the time pattern does not change. If there were no friction the oscillation stays
on with same amplitude. However when there exists a friction of magnitude smaller for
small oscillation and larger for larger oscillation the amplitude gets dropped by the same
fraction in every cycle.
4. When the displacement from the mean position is doubled, the quantity that will vary will
be
(A) time period only (B) velocity only
(C) acceleration only (D) both (B) and (C).
5. If amplitude of an oscillation is a relative to the preceeding one in a system with initial

maximum amplitude A0 oscillating in a damping media, the amplitude just after n
oscillations will be
a a
(A) A 0 (B) A 0 a A 0
n n
(C) A0 a (n 1) (D) A0 an.
6. To solve the S.H. equation with friction, one must consider each half cycle separately
since.
(A) friction reverses its direction in each cycle
(B) the S.H. equation will not be linear
(C) friction is independent of the displacement
(D) all of these.
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. Match the Following :

Column A Column B
(A) A body is moving along a straight (p) This will may be a uniform linear
line and accelerating uniformly motion
(B) A body is moving along a straight (q) This will be a non-uniform linear
line. It covers a distance 72 m motion.
during the first six seconds of its
motion and another 72 m during
the next six seconds
(C) A body is thrown vertically upward. (r) During the motion, linear
It rises to some height and then momentum is not conserved.
falls down along the same line.
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-40
(D) A bullet is fired into air from a gun. (s) Position-time graph of the motion
will may be a straight line that is
parallel neither to x-axis nor the y-
axis.
2. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving on a straight line under the action of force

F = (8 2x) N.
Particle is released from x = 7 m
For the subsequent motion match the following (all values in Column II are in S.I. units)
Column II
Column I
(A) Amplitude of SHM is (p) 0.5
(B) Time taken to move from x = 2.5 m to (q) 3
x = 4 m (approx)
(C) Total energy of SHM system (r) 6
(D) Velocity of particle at x = 4m (s) 9
3. A block is executing SHM on a rough horizontal fext

surface under the action of an external variable II
force. I
The external force (fext) is plotted against x
position (x) from mean position on shown in III
graph.
Match which graph is possible for different
IV
motions.
Column II
Column I (Nature of graph)
x = position
v = velocity of particle
(A) x positive, v positive (p) I
(B) x positive, v negative (q) II
(C) x negative, v positive (r) III
(D) x negative, v negative (s) IV
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-41

LEVEL- I
3. F = -A gx
4. The time of motion for one cycle = 2 [tAB+ tBC ]
5. The relative acceleration = ar =a1 + a2
6. When the rod is rotated through an angle about O, the restoring torque about
the suspension point is 0 = mg( /2) .
8. The motion of simple pendulum is angular simple harmonic, so its equation of

g
motion is given by = 0 sin t, where =
L
9. Total energy E = Krot + Ktrans + U
10. The acceleration of the upper block is

kx
a = - 2x = M m
LEVEL- II
1. The difference of level in the two tubes is given by

= x + xcos = x (1+cos )
2. Total energy = Kpot + Ktran + U
3. The net horizontal force acting on the rod is given as f1 and f2 will not be equal
F = f1 f2 = (N1 N2)
4. When the block is pushed in by a distance x in the liquid, the net force acting on
the M and m system is
F = LA g + mg kx A(h0 + x) g
5. Initially the cylinder is just touching the liquid of density 2. When the cylinder is
dipped by a distance x1 further,
F = mg x1 A 2 g - 1 A 1 g
7. Restoring force = (kx m 2x)

Stress
8. Y=
Strain
9. Apply COE & COM.
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-42

LEVEL I
1. 10 cm.
1
2. (a) x = 10 sin (120 t + /6) (b) /6, 10 cm, sec.
60
3. 0.088 sec 4. 0.73 s
6m 2
5. 2 6. 2
5k 3g
2 1
7. 3 2 m/sec ;
2 1
L L 1
8. (a) T1 = 2 (b) [ 2 sin / ]
g g
3M mkx m(M m)
9. 2 10. (a) (b)
2k m M Mk
LEVEL II
2(k1 4k 2 )
1. 0.8 sec 2.
3m
m L A
3. 2 4. T2
g k A g
4k 1k 3 k 1k 2 4k 2k 3
5. 6.
g
1 2 g 4k 3 k 2 m
2Y
7. (a) 0.785 sec (b) no oscillation. 8.
3m
k mM
9. 2 2
where mred =
mred cos m sin m M
2ka 2 g
10.
mb 2 b
RSM79-PH-P3-SHM-43

LEVEL I
1. (A) 2. (A)
3. (A) 4. (A)
5. (B) 6. (B)
7. (C) 8. (C)
9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (A)
13. (C) 14. (A)
15. (B) 16. (B)
17. (A) 18. (C)
19. (C) 20. (C)
LEVEL II
1. (A), (C) 2. (C), (D)

3. (A), (C) 4. (B), (C), (D)
5. (A), (D) 6. (A), (B), (C)
7. (A), (B) 8. (B), (C), (D)
9. (A), (B) 10. (A) (B), (C), (D)
COMPREHENSION
1. (B) 2. (A)
3. (A) 4. (D)
5. (D) 6. (D)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (q), (r); (B) (p), (s); (C) (q), (r); (D) (q), (r)
2. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (q)
3. (A) (p); (B) (s); (C) (q); (D) (r)
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-46
ELASTICITY & WAVES

LEVEL I
1. If a wave form has the equation y1 = A1 sin ( t - kx) & y2 = A2 cos ( t - kx),
find the equation of the resulting wave on superposition.
2. A wave train has the equation y = 4 sin (30 t + 0.1x) where x is in cm and t in
seconds. What is the frequency of the source? How much time does a wave
pulse take to reach a point 30 cm from it?
3. When the stretching force of a wire in increased by 25 kg-wt, the frequency of the
note emitted is changed in the ratio 2/3. Calculate the original stretching force.
4. A policeman on duty detects a drop of 10% in the pitch of the horn of a moving
car as it crosses him. If the velocity of sound is 330 meters per second, calculate
the speed of the car.
5. A steel wire fixed at both ends has a fundamental frequency of 200 Hz. A person
can hear sound of maximum frequency 15 KHz. What is the highest harmonic
that can be played on this string which is audible to the person?
6. A wire of length L is fixed at both ends such that F is tension in it. Its mass per
unit length is given from one end to other end as = ox where o is constant.
Find time taken by a transverse pulse to move from lighter end to its mid point.
7. The transverse displacement of a string, fixed at both of its ends, is given as

y(x, t) = 0.06 sin 2 x cos 120 t where x, y are in meters
and t is in seconds. The length of the string is 1.5 m & its mass m = 3 10-2 kg.
Find the
(a)wavelength (b) frequency. (c) amplitude of the component of waves.
(d) maximum velocity of the particle. (e) amplitude at a distance x = 0.375 m.
8. Two closed organ pipes A and B have lengths 50 cm and 70 cm respectively.

The 5th harmonic (=2nd overtone) of A resonates with nth harmonic of B. Find n.
9. The displacement of the medium in a sound wave is given by the equation

y = A cos(ax+bt) (M.K.S. system)
where A, and b are positive constant.
(a) What is the wave length and frequency of the incident wave?
(b) Find the wave speed and maximum particle speed.
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-47
10. The intensity of sound from a point source is 1.0 x 10 -8 W/m2 at a distance of 5.0
m from the source. What will be the intensity at a distance of 25 m from the
source?
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-48
LEVEL II
1. A loop of rope is whirled at a high angular velocity , so that it becomes a taut

circle of radius R.
(i) Find the tension in the rope if the linear mass density of the rope is .
(ii) A kink develops in the whirling rope. Under what condition does the kink
remain stationary relative to an observer on the ground?
2. AB is cylinder of length 1.0 m, fitted with a flexible diaphragm C at the middle and
two thin flexible diaphragms A and B at the ends. The portions AC and BC contain
hydrogen and oxygen respectively. The diaphragms A and B are set into vibration
of the same frequency. What is the minimum frequency of these vibrations for
which the diaphragm C is a node? Under the conditions of the experiment, the
velocity of sound in hydrogen is 1100 m/s and in oxygen is 300 m/s.
3. A long tube contains air at a pressure of P and temperature T. The tube is open
at one end and closed at the other end by a movable piston. A tuning fork near the
open end is vibrating with a frequency f. Resonance is produced when the piston is
at distance L1 and L2 from the open end. Mean molecular mass of the air is M.
(a) Find the speed of sound in air.
(b) Find the adiabatic constant of the air.
4. A piston is fitted in a cylindrical tube of small cross section with the other end of
the tube open. The tube resonates with a tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz. The
piston is gradually pulled out of the tube and it is found that a second resonance
occurs when the piston is pulled out through a distance of 32.0 cm. Calculate the
speed of sound in the air of the tube.
5. Three tuning forks with unknown frequencies f 1, f2 and f3 are vibrated. 5 beats per
second are heard when f1 and f2 are vibrated, 6 beats per second for f1 and f 3,
while 7 beats per second for f2 and f3. If f2 is loaded with wax, number of beats for
f2 and f3 decreases while for f1 and f2 increases.
Find tuning forks having maximum frequency and minimum frequency in terms of f2.
6. Two rods AB and CD of equal cross- sectional area A and A

Youngs constant y1 and y2 are joined and suspended from
1
a fixed support. A block of mass M is attached to the lowest
point C. The density of the rods is negligibly small. Find B
displacement of the point C.
2
C
M
7. A string vibrates according to the equation y = 5 sin ( x/3) cos (40 t) where x and
y are in cm and t is in second.
(a) What are the amplitude and velocity of the component waves whose
superposition can give rise to this vibration?
(b) What is the distance between two successive nodes?
(c) What is the velocity of a particle of the string at position x = 1.5 cm and
t = 9/8 second?
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-49
8. How long will it take sound waves to travel distance between the points A and B
if the air temperature between them varies linearly from T1 to T2? The velocity of
sound propagation in air is equal v = T , where is a constant.
9. The first overtone of an open organ pipe beats with the first overtone of a closed
organ pipe with a beat frequency of 2.2 Hz. The fundamental frequency of the
closed organ pipe is 110 Hz. Find the lengths of the pipes.
10. A whistle emitting a sound of frequency 440 Hz is tied to a string of 1.5 m length
and rotated with an angular velocity of 20 rad/s in the horizontal plane. Calculate
the range of frequencies heard by an observer stationed at a large distance from
the whistle.
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-50

LEVEL I
1. The amplitude of resulting wave dues to superposition of y1 = A sin ( t kx) &

y2 = A sin ( t kx + ) is
(A) 2A cos (B) 2A tan ( /2)
(C) A cos sin (D) none
2. A sine wave has an amplitude A and wavelength . The ratio of particle velocity
and the wave velocity is equal to (2 A = )
(A) 1 (B) = 1
(C) 1 (D) data insufficient.
3. The equation of a wave pulse moving with a speed 1 m/sec at time t = 0 is given
1
as y = f(x) = . Its equation at time t = 1 second can be given as
1 x2
1 1
(A) y = 2
(B) y =
1 (1 x ) 1 (1 x )2
1 1
(C) y = 2
(D) y =
1 (x 1) 1
1
1 x2
4. The velocity of a transverse wave in a string does not depend on
(A) tension (B) density of material of string
(C) radius of string (D) length of string
5. The frequency of a tuning fork with an amplitude A = 1 cm is 250 Hz. The

maximum velocity of any particle in air is equal to
(A) 2.5 m/s (B) 5 m/s
(C) 3.30 / m/sec (D) none of these
6. In a resonance column experiment, the first resonance is obtained when the level
of the water in tube is 20 cm from the open end. Resonance will also be obtained
when the water level is at a distance of
(A) 40 cm from the open end. (B) 60 cm from the open end.
(C) 80 cm from the open end. (D) data insufficient.
7. A wire of length having tension T and radius r vibrates with natural frequency f.
Another wire of same metal with length 2 having tension 2T and radius 2r will
vibrate with natural frequency
(A) f (B) 2f
f
(C) 2 2f (D)
2 2
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-51
8. Under the same conditions of pressure and temperature, the velocity of sound in
oxygen and hydrogen gases are v0 and vH, then
(A) vH= vo (B) vH = 4vo
(C) vo = 4 VH (D) vH = 16 vo
9. A tuning for of frequency 600 Hz produces a progressive travelling wave having

wave velocity 300 m/s. Two particles of a medium, separated by 1.5 m, vibrate
being affected by the wave
(A) in phase (B) in opposite phase.
(C) 45 out of phase. (D) none of these
10. At t=0 source starts falling under gravity and a detector is projected S
upwards with a velocity 10 m/s. For the vertical upward motion of
detector
(A) apparent frequency received by detector = source frequency.
(B) initially apparent frequency > source frequency and finally less 5m
than source frequency.

(C) apparent frequency depends only on the detector velocity. D
(D) date insufficient.
11. A string is clamped on both ends. Which of the following wave equations is valid
for a stationary wave set up on this string? (Origin is at one end of string.)
(A) y = A sin kx. sin t (B) y = A cos kx sin t
(C) y = A cos kx. cos t (D) None of the above.
12. A string is hanging from a rigid support. A transverse wave pulse is

set up at the bottom. The velocity v of the pulse related to the
distance covered by it is given as
(A) v x (B) v x
(C) v 1/x (D) none of these x
13. The third overtone of a closed organ pipe is equal to the second harmonic of an
open organ pipe. Then the ratio of their lengths is equal to
(A) 7/4 (B) 3/5
(C) 3/2 (D) none of these
14. Standing waves can be produced in

(A) solid only (B) liquid only
(C) gases only (D) all of the above
15. If the temperature of the medium drops by 1 %, the velocity of sound in that
medium
(A) increases by 5 % (B) remains unchanged
(C) decreases by 0.5 % (D) decreases by 2 %
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-52
16. The velocity of sound through a diatomic gaseous medium of molecular weight M
at 0C is approximately.
R 3R
(A) (B)
M M
382 R 273 R
(C) (D)
M M
17. The amplitude of a wave disturbance propagating in the positive x direction is

1 1
given by y = 2
at time t = 0 and by y = at time t = 2 seconds
(1 x ) 1 ( x 2)2
where x and y are in meters. The shape of the wave disturbance does not
change during the propagation. The velocity of the wave is
(A) 0.5 m/s (B) 1 m/sec
(C) 2 m/s (D) 1.5 m/sec
18. A wave is represented by the equation y = [A sin {10 x + 15 t+ ( /3)}] where x

is in meters and t is in seconds. The expression represents
(A) A wave travelling in positive x-direction with a velocity 1.5 m/s.
(B) A wave travelling in negative x-direction with a velocity 1.5 m/s.
(C) A wave travelling in the negative x-direction having a wavelength 2 m.
(D) A wave travelling in positive x-direction having a wavelength 2 m.
19. A transverse wave is given by A sin( t x) where and are constants. The
ratio of wave velocity to maximum particle velocity is
(A) A (B) 1/ A
(C) 1 (D) none of the above.
20. Two blocks, each of mass m, are connected by a

massless thread Y and A represent Youngs modulus
and cross sectional area of wire respectively. The strain
developed in the thread is m
m
mg 1 sin mg
(A) (B)
2 yA yA
mg sin 2mg
(C) (D)
yA yA
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-53
LEVEL II
1. A wave going in a solid

(A) Must be longitudinal (B) May be longitudinal
(C) Must be transverse (D) May be transverse
2. A wave is represented by the equation
y = (0.001 mm) sin [(50 s 1)t + (2.0 m 1)x]
(A) The wave velocity = 100 m/s (B) The wavelength = 2.0 m
(C) The frequency = 25/ Hz (D) The amplitude = 0.001 mm
3. An electrically maintained tuning fork vibrates with constant frequency and constant
amplitudes. If the temperature of the surrounding air increases but pressure remains
constant, the sound produced will have
(A) Larger wavelength (B) Larger frequency
(C) Larger velocity (D) Larger time period
4. The fundamental frequency of a vibrating organ pipe is 200 Hz.
(A) The first overtone is 400 Hz (B) The first overtone may be 400
Hz
(C) The first over tone may be 600 Hz (D) 600 Hz is an overtone
5. A listener is at rest with respect to the source of sound. A wind starts blowing along the
line joining the source and the observer. Which of the following quantities do not
change?
(A) Frequency (B) Velocity of sound
(C) Wavelength (D) Time period
6. The figures represent two snaps of a travelling wave on a string of mass per unit length,
1
= 0.25 kg/m. The two snaps are taken at time t = 0 and at t s. Then
24
(A) speed of wave is 4 m/s
(B) the tension in the string is 4 N
(C) the equation of the wave is y = 10 sin ( x 4 t )
6
(D) the maximum velocity of the particle m/s
25
y(mm) y(mm)
10 10
5 5
5 x(m) 5 1 x(m)
10 10 1
t=0 t=24 s
Figure I Figure II
7. As a wave propagates,
(A) the wave intensity remains constant for a plane wave
(B) the wave intensity decrease as the inverse of the distance from the source for a
spherical wave
(C) the wave intensity decreases as the inverse square of the distance from the
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-54
source for spherical wave

(D) total intensity of the spherical wave over the spherical surface remains constant
at all times, while source is at the centre of spherical surface.
8. A source is moving across a circle given by the equation x 2+y2 = R2, with constant speed
330
v m/s, in anti-clockwise sense. A detector is at rest at point (2R, 0) w.r.t. the
6 3
centre of the circle. If the frequency emitted by the source is f and the speed of sound,
C = 330 m/s. Then
(A) the position of the source when the detector
3 R
records the maximum frequency R,
2 2
(B) the co-ordinate of the source when the detector records minimum frequency is (0,
R)
6 3
(C) the maximum frequency recorded by the detector is f
6 3
6 3
(D) the minimum frequency recorded by the detector is f
6 3
9. A wave is represented by the equation :

1
y (1mm) sin 50 s t (2.0m 1 )x + (1mm) cos 50 s 1
t (2.0m 1 )x
(A) The wavevelocity is zero, since it is a standing wave.
3
(B) A node is formed at x m.
8
(C) The amplitude of the oscillation at the antinode is 2 mm.
(D) Energy transfer occurs along the positive xaxis.
10. A very light rod AB is initially hung from a point P by P

means of two identical copper wires of the same
length as the rod as shown in the figure. Particles of
masses 1 kg and 4 kg are then attached to the ends A
and B of the rod. The ratio of the fundamental
A B
frequencies of vibration of the wires AP and BP, i.e.,
fA
=
fB
1
(A) 4 (B)
2
(C) 16 (D) 2.
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-55
COMPREHENSION
I. A narrow tube is bent in the form of a circle of radius R, as

shown in the figure. Two small holes S and D are made in the
tube at the positions right angle to each other. A source R
placed at S generates a wave of intensity I0 which is equally S
divided into two parts: one part travels along the longer path,
while the other travels along the shorter path. Both the part
waves meet at the point D where a detector is placed.
D
1. If a maxima is formed at a detector then, the magnitude of wavelength of the wave

produced is given by
R
(A) R (B)
2
R
(C) (D) all of these
4
2. If a minima is formed at the detector then, the magnitude of wavelength of the wave
produced is given by
3
(A) 2 R (B) R
2
2
(C) R (D) None of these
5
3. The maximum intensity produced at D is given by

(A) 4I0 (B) 2I0
(C) I0 (D) 3I0
II. Speed of a transverse wave depends on mass Tension = constant

and tension. Two strings of equal lengths are v 1 2
joined at B. Mass of string BC is four times mass B
C
of string AB. If a wave pulse is generated in string A
AB, which travels towards boundary at B with x=0 x=L x=2L
speed v. Equation of incident pulse is given as
yi A i sin( t kx)
Based on above information, answer the following
questions.
4. Amplitude of wave reflected back after incident on boundary at point B

Ai 2Ai
(A) (B)
3 3
Ai 2A i
(C) (D) .
3 3
5. Speed of transmitted wave on string BC is
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-56
v
(A) v (B)
2
(C) 2v (D) None of these.
6. Equations of reflected and transmitted waves respectively are :

Ai Ai
yr sin( t kx) yr sin( t kx)
(A) 3 (B) 3
2A i 2Ai
yt sin( t 2kx) yt sin( t 2kx)
3 3
Ai Ai
yr sin( t kx) yr sin( t kx)
(C) 3 (D) 3 .
2Ai 2A i k
yt sin( t 2kx) yt sin( t x)
3 3 2
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. The figure shows a string at a certain moment as a A B

transverse wave passes through it. Three particles A, B
and C of the string are also shown. Match the physical C
quantities in the left column with the description in the
column on the right.
Column A Column B
(A) Velocity of A (p) Downwards, if the wave is travelling towards right.
(B) Acceleration of A (q) Downwards, if the wave is travelling towards left.
(C) Velocity of B (r) Downwards, no matter which way the wave is
travelling.
(D) Velocity of C (s) Zero.
2. A source of sound in moving along a circular orbit of N

radius 3 m with angular velocity of 10 rad s1. A
sound detector located for away is executing linear M
A B C D
SHM with amplitude 6 m on line BCD as shown. The
5 P
frequency of detector for oscillation is per
second. The source is at A when detector at B at t =

0. Source emits a continuous sound wave of
frequency 340 Hz. (velocity of sound = 330 ms1).
Match the column A with B.
Column A Column B
(A) The frequency of sound recorded by (p) 255 H.
detector at t = 3T/4.
(B) The frequency of sound recorded by (q) 1 : 1.
detector at t = T/4.
(C) The ratio of the time period of source (r) 442 Hz.
and detector (circular motion and
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-57
SHM).
(D) Maximum velocity of (s) 2 : 1.
detector/maximum velocity of source.
(T is time period of oscillation).
3. The diagrams in Column I show transverse sinusoidal standing/travelling waveforms on

stretched strings. In each case, the string is oscillating in a particular mode, and, its shape
and other characteristics are shown at time t = 0. The maximum amplitude (in all the
cases) is A, the velocity of the waveform on the string is e, the mass per unit length of the
string is and the frequency of vibration is f (angular frequency = ).
The kinetic energy of the string (of length L) is represented by the functions in Column
II. Match the correct entries in Column II.
Column II
Column I
(A) Fixed Fixed (p) 2
end end
9 c2 2
A
A 4 L
L
(B) Fixed Free (q) 2
end
9 c2 2 2
end A sin t
A 4 L
L
(C) Free (r)
end
Free 9 2 c2 2 2
end A sin t
16 L
A
A
L
(D) (s) 2
c2 2 2
A A sin t
4 L
L
Travelling wave
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-58

LEVEL- I
1. The amplitude of the resulting wave is given as

Ar = A12 A 22
2. Compare it with the standard wave equation

y = A sin ( t + kx)
T T 2 .5
3. f1 = , f2 =
1 T
8. f1 =
2L m
P T
f2 = ; P = number of loops.
2L m
LEVEL- II
2
1. y = 2a sin x cos t
compare it with the given equation.
(2n 1)v
2. f= n = 1, 2, 3 . . .. . for Ist, 2nd, 3rd . . .. . .overtone.
4
3. The centripetal force

v2
2T sin = (dm)
R
v1 v
4. y = A cos (ax + bt) 5. n1 = , n2 = 2
4 4
v RT
6. (a) L2 L1 = (b) v =
2f M
8. P = I1A1 = I2 A2 = I1 (4 r12 ) = I2 (4 r22 )
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-59

LEVEL I
1
1. A12 A 22 sin { t kx + tan-1 (A2/A1)}. 2. (a) 15 Hz. (b) sec.
10
3. 2 kg wt. 4. 17.4 m/s
1 o 32
5. 75 6. L
3 2 F
7. (a)1 m (b) 60 Hz (c) 0.03 m (d) 7.2 m/s (e) 4.2 cm.
8. 7
2
9. (a) = (b) f = b/2 (b) b/a, Ab
a
10
10. 4 10 W/m2.
LEVEL II
4f 2M(| L 2 L1 |) 2
1. (a) 2f(L2 L1) (b) 2. f1 = f2 + 5, f3 = f2 7
RT
Mg 1 2
3. 4. 327.68 m/s.
A y1 y2
Mg 1 2
5. f1 = f2 + 5, f3 = f2 7 6.
A y1 y2
2
7. (a) 5/2 cm, 120 cm/s (b) 3 cm (c) Zero 8.
T1 T2
9. 1 = 0.993 m or 1.006 m
10. Range = 403 Hz to 484 Hz
RSM79-PH-P3-E&W-60

LEVEL I
1. (D) 2. (A)
3. (B) 4. (D)
5. (B) 6. (B)
7. (D) 8. (B)
9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (A)
13. (A) 14. (D)
15. (C) 16. (C)
17. (B) 18. (B)
19. (B) 20. (A)
LEVEL II
1. (B), (D) 2. (C), (D)

3. (A), (C) 4. (B), (C), (D)
5. (A), (D) 6. (A), (B), (C), (D)
7. (A), (C), (D) 8. (A), (B), (C), (D)
9. (B), (C) 10. (D)
COMPREHENSION
1. (D) 2. (A)
3. (B) 4. (A)
5. (B) 6. (C)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (p); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (s)
2. (A) (r); (B) (p); (C) (q); (D) (s)
3. (A) (q); (B) (r); (C) (s); (D) (p)
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-42
HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS

SECTION I
Level I
(Single Choice Questions)
1. A meter washer has a hole of diameter d1 and an external diameter d 2 , where d 2 3d1 .
On heating, d 2 increases by 0.3%. Then d1 will
(a) decrease by 0.1% (b) decrease by 0.3%
(c) increase by 0.1% (d) increase by 0.3%.
2. If I is the moment of inertia of a solid body, the change in I corresponding to a small

change in temperature T is
1
(a) I T (b) I T
2
(c) 2 I T (d) 3 I T .
3. If is the coefficient of linear expansion, the change in the period t of a physical

pendulum with temperature change of T is
1 1
(a) t T (b) t T
2 4
3 1
(c) t T (d) t T.
4 3
4. A steel scale is to be prepared such that the millimeter intervals are to be accurate within
6 10 5 mm. The maximum temperature variation during the ruling of the millimeter marks
( 12 10 6 C 1 ) is
(a) 4.0C (b) 4.5C
(c) 5.0C (d) 5.5C.
5. A block of ice at 10C is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100C. Which of the
following curves represents the phenomenon qualitatively ?
(a) (b)
-10C Heat supplied -10C Heat supplied
(c) (d)
-10C Heat supplied -10C Heat supplied .
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-43
6. A point source of heat of power P is placed at the center of a spherical shell of mean
radius R. The material of the shell has thermal conductivity k. If the temperature
difference between the outer and the inner surface of the shell is not to exceed T, then
the thickness of the shell should not be less than
2 R 2 kT 4 R 2 kT
(a) (b)
P P
R 2 kT R 2 kT
(c) (d) .
P 4P
7. Three rods A, B and C have the same dimensions. Their thermal conductivities are
k A , k B and kC respectively. A and B are placed end to end, with their free ends kept at a
certain temperature difference. C is placed separately, with its ends kept at the same
temperature difference. The two arrangements conduct heat at the same rate. kC must
be equal to
k A kB
(a) k A k B (b)
k A kB
1 k A kB
(c) (k A kB ) (d) 2. .
2 k A kB
8. A cyclic process is shown in the p-T diagram. Which of the curves show the same
process on a V-T diagram ?
P
A C
O T
B C B A
V V
(a) (b)
A C
O T O T
C C
V V
(c) (d)
A B A B
O T O T .
9. A solid at temperature T1 is kept in an evacuated chamber at temperature T2 T1 . The

rate of increase of temperatrue of the body is proportional to
(a) T2 T1 (b) T22 T12
(c) T24 T14 (d) T23 T13
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-44
10. 70 calories of heat are required to raise the temperature of 2 moles of an ideal gas at
constant pressure from 30C to 35C. The amount of heat required in calories to raise
the temperature of same gas through the same range (30C to 35C) at constant volume
is
(a) 30 (b) 50
(c) 70 (d) 90.
11. A black body radiates power P and maximum energy is radiated by it around a
wavelength 0 . The temperature of the black body is now changed such that it radiated
3 0
maximum energy around the wavelength . The power radiated by it now is
4
256 16
(a) P (b) P
81 9
64 4
(c) P (d) P.
27 3
12. Five rods having thermal conductivities k1 , k2 , k3 , k4 and k1 k3

k5 are arranged as shown. The points A and B are
A k5 B
maintained at different temperature such that no thermal
current flows through the central rod. k2 k4
(a) k1k4 k 2 k3 (b) k1 k3 , k 2 k4
k k3
(c) k1k3 k2 k4 (d) 1 .
k 4 k2
13. An ideal gas expands according to the law pV 2 = const. The molar heat capacity C is
(a) CV R (b) CV R
(c) CV 2 R (d) CV 3R .
14. If W1 is the work done in compressing an ideal gas from a given initial state through a
certain volume isothermally and W2 is the work done in compressing the same gas from
the same initial state through the same volume adiabatically, then
(a) W1 W2 (b) W1 W2
(c) W1 W2 (d) W1 2W2 .
15. The rate of emission of a black body at 0C is R. Its rate of emission at 273C is
(a) 4R (b) 8R
(c) 16R (d) 32R.
16. A body emits radiation when its temperature is

(a) >0C (b) >100C
(c) > surrounding temperature
(d) it emits radiation at all temperatures (T > 0K)
17. Radiation from a black body at the thermodynamic temperature T1 is measured by a

small detector at distance d1 from it. When the temperature is increased to T2 and the
distance to d 2 , the power received by the detector is unchanged. What is the ratio
d 2 / d1 ?
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-45
2
T2 T2
(a) (b)
T1 T1
2 4
T1 T2
(c) (d) .
T2 T1
18. Two identical containers joined by a small pipe initially contain the same gas at pressure
p0 and absolute temperature T0 . One container is now maintained at the same
temperature while the other is heated to 2T0 . The common pressure of the gases will be
2 4
(a) p0 (b) p0
3 3
5
(c) p0 (d) 2 p0 .
3
19. An ideal gas changes from state a to state b as shown in b

figure. What is the work done by the gas in the process ?
(a) zero (b) positive
T
(c) negative (d) infinite.
a
P
20. The weight of a person is 60 kg. If he gets one kilo-calorie of heat through food and the
efficiency of his body is 28%, then upto how much height he can climb ? Take g = 10 m
s-2
(a) 100 cm (b) 196 cm
(c) 400 cm (d) 1000 cm.
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-46
Level II
1. Three rods of the same dimensions have thermal 50C

conductivities 3k , 2k and k . They are arranged as
shown, with their ends at 100C, 50C and 0C. The 2k
100C
temperature of their junction is
200 3k
(a) 75C (b) C k
3
100 0C
(c) 40C (d) C.
3
2. Steam at 100C is passed into 1.1 kg of water contained in a calorimeter of water

equivalent 0.02 kg at 15C, till to 80C. The mass of steam condensed (in kg) is (Take
latent heat of steam = 540 cal g-r)
(a) 0.130 (b) 0.065
(c) 0.260 (d) 0.135.
3. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cycle (3P, V) (3P, 3V)
ABCDA as shown in following P-V diagram. The work C D
done during the cycle is
(a) PV (b) 2PV P
(c) 4PV (d) zero. B A
(P, V) (P, 3V)
O V
4. Heat energy absorbed by a system in going through a 30

cyclic processshown in figure, is
(a) 107 J (b) 104 J
10
(c) 102 J (d) 10 3
J.
10 30
P in kPa
5. A cyclic process is shown on the V T diagram. The same process
C
on a P T diagram is shown by
V
D
B
A
O T
A B D A
(a) P (b) P
D C C B
O T O T
C
C B
P P
(c) (d) D
D B
A
A
O T O T .
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-47
6. Two containers of equal volume contain the same gas at pressure p1 and p2 and
absolute temperature T1 and T2 respectively. On joining the vessels, the gas reaches a
p
common pressure p and a common temperature T. The ratio is equal to
T
p1 p2 1 p1 p2
(a) (b)
T1 T2 2 T1 T2
p1T2 p2T1 p1T2 p2T1
(c) (d) .
T1 T2 T1 T2
7. A cyclic process ABCD is shown in the p V diagram. Which of A B

the following curves represent the same process ?
p C
D
V
A B D C
(a) T D (b) B
V
C A
p T
B A B
(c) p A (d)
C V
D
D C
T T .
8. A cyclic process is shown in the p-T diagram. Which of the curves

C B
show the same process on a V-T diagram ?
C B C B p
A
p p
(a) (b) O T
A A
V V
C B
p
(c) (d) p
B A A C
V V .
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-48
9. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A B C A,

C B
as shown in figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas in 2
the cycle is 5 J, the work done by the gas in the process
C A is
(a) - 5 J (b) - 10 J 1 A
(c) - 15 J (d) - 20 J.
P(N/m )
2
10
10. If there is no heat losses, the heat released by the condensation of x grams of steam at
100C into water at 100C converts y grams of ice at 0C into water at 100C. The ratio
y/x is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 3: 1 (d) 4 : 1
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-49
SECTION II
(Other Engg Examination Questions)
1. 125 ml of gas A at 0.60 atmosphere and 150 ml of gas B at 0.80 atmosphere pressure at
same temperature are filled in a vessel of 1 litre volume. The pressure of mixture at the
same temperature will be
(a) 0.195 atmosphere (b) 0.212 atmosphere
(c) 0.120 atmosphere (d) 0.140 atmosphere
2. The length of a metallic rod is 5 m at 0C and becomes 5.01 m on heating up to 100C.

The cubical expansion of the metal will be
(a) 2.0 10 5 / C (b) 4.0 10 5 / C
(c) 6.0 10 5 / C (d) 2.33 10 5 / C
3. How much work has to be done in decreasing the volume of an ideal gas by an amount
of 2.4 10 4 m3 at normal temperature and constant normal pressure of 1 105 N / m 2 ?
(a) 24 joule (b) 25 joule
(c) 27 joule (d) 28 joule
4. Helium gas is filled in a closed vessel (having negligible expansion coefficient). When it
is heated form 300 K to 600 K then average kinetic energy of helium atoms will be
(a) half (b) unchanged
(c) two times (d) 2 times
5. The total area of the walls of a room is 137 m2. An electric heater is used to maintain the
temperature inside the room at + 20C, while the outside temperature is 10C. Walls
are made of three layers of different materials. The innermost layer is made of wood 2.5
cm thick middle layer is made of cement 1 cm thick and outermost layer is made of
bricks 25 cm thick. What will be the power of electric heater ? Assume that there is no
loss of heat from the roof and the floor. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of wood,
cement and brick are 0.125, 1.5 and 1 watt/mC respectively.
(a) 9000 watt (b) 8000 watt
(c) 7000 watt (d) 5000 watt
6. When the temperature of a rod is increased by 10C, then its length increases by 1%.
When a cube is made of the material of the rod and its temperature is increased by
10C, then its volume will increase by
(a) 1% (b) 5.6%
(c) 3% (d) 30%
7. The ratio of amount of heat necessary to heat a known mass of water from 0C to 50C
and convert the same mass of ice into steam will be
(a) 5/6 (b) 1/8
(c) 16/31 (d) 5/72
8. The lengths and radii of two rods made of same material are in the ratio 1 : 2 and 2 : 3
respectively. If the temperature difference between the ends for the two rods be the
same, then in the steady state, the amount of heat flowing per second through them will
be in the ratio
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-50
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 4 : 3
(c) 8 : 9 (d) 3 : 2
9. A hot liquid takes 5 minutes to cool from 70C to 60C. How long will it take to cool from
60C to 50C ?
(a) 5 minutes
(b) more than 5 minutes
(c) less than 5 minutes
(d) less or more than 5 minutes depending on the nature of liquid
10. Two metal A and B are having their initial length in the ratio 2 : 3 and coefficients of
linear expansion in the ratio 3 : 4. When they are heated through same temperature
difference, the ratio of their linear expansions is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 3
11. The length of a metal rod at 0C is 0.5 m. When it is heated, its length increases by 2.7
mm. The final temperature of the rod is (Coefficient of linear expansion of the metal = 90
10 6/C)
(a) 20C (b) 30C
(c) 40C (d) 60C
12. The pressure and temperature of an ideal gas in a closed vessel are 720 kPa and 40C
respectively. If 1/4th of the gas is released from the vessel and the temperature of the
remaining gas is raised to 353C, the final pressure of the gas is
(a) 1440 kPa (b) 1080 kPa
(c) 720 kPa (d) 540 kPa
13. A steel ball of mass 0.1 kg falls freely from a height of 10 m and bounces to a height of
5.4 m from the ground. If the dissipated energy in this process is absorbed by the ball,
the rise in temperature is (Specific heat of steel = 460 JKg 1C 1, g = 10 ms 2)
(a) 0.01C (b) 0.1C
(c) 1C (d) 1.1C
14. If a metallic sphere gets cooled from 62C to 50C in 10 minute and in the next 10
minute gets cooled to 42C, then the temperature of the surroundings is
(a) 30C (b) 36C
(c) 26C (d) 20C
15. One end of a metal rod of length 1.0 m and area of cross-section 100 cm2 is maintained
at 100C. If the other end of the rod is maintained at 0C, the quantity of heat transmitted
through the rod per minute is (Coefficient of thermal conductivity of material of rod = 100
Wkg 1K Y)
(a) 3 103 J (b) 6 103 J
(c) 9 103 J (d) 12 103 J
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-51
SECTION III
(More than One Correct Choice Questions)
1. Which of the following expressions for an ideal gas undergoing adiabatic expansion
is/are correct
(a) The expression of workdone is given by p1V1 p 2 V2 / 1
(b) The adiabatic pV lines are steeper than the isothermal lines
(c) p1V1 p 2 V2
(d) T1 1V1 T2 1V2
2. Figure shows is the P-V diagram for a Carnot cycle. In this diagram,
A
B
P
D
C
V
(a) curve AB represents isothermal process and BC adiabatic process
(b) curve AB represents adiabatic process and BC isothermal process
(c) curve CD represents isothermal process and DA adiabatic process
(d) curve CD represents adiabatic process and DA isothermal process
3. For an ideal gas,

(a) the change in internal energy in a constant-pressure process from temperature T1 to
T2 is equal to nCV (T2 T1), where CV is the molar heat capacity at constant volume
and n is the number of moles of the gas
(b) the change in internal energy of the gas and the work done by the gas are equal in
magnitude in an adiabatic process
(c) the internal energy does not change in an isothermal process
(d) no heat is added or removed in an adiabatic process
4. A spherical black body of radius r radiates power P, and its rate of cooling is R
2
(a) P r (b) P r
1
(c) R r2 (d) R
r
5. Two rods of length L1 and L2 are made of materials of co-efficients of linear expansions
1 and 2 respectively such that L1 1 = L2 2. The temperature of the rods is increased by
T and correspondingly the change in their respective lengths are L1 and L2.
(a) L1 L2
(b) L1 = L2
(c) the difference in the length (L1 L2) is a constant and is independent of rise of
temperature
(d) data is insufficient to arrive at a conclusion
6. A metal rod of length L0, made of material of Youngs modulus Y, area A is fixed
between two rigid supports. The coefficient of linear expansion of the rod is . The rod is
heated such that the compressive force in the rod is T
(a) T L0 (b) T 1/
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-52
(c) T A (d) T Y
7. The molar specific heat for a gas may have a value given by
dU dQ
(a) C V (b) C P
dT dT P
dU dV
(c) C P (d) data insufficient
dT dT
8. CP is always greater than CV due to the fact that

(a) no work is being done on heating the gas at constant volume
(b) when a gas absorbs heat at constant pressure its volume must change so as to do
some external work
(c) the internal energy is a function of temperature only for an ideal gas
(d) for the same rise of temperature, the internal energy of a gas changes by a smaller
amount at constant volume than at constant pressure
9. The first law is Thermodynamics is based on

(a) the law of conservation of energy (b) the law of conservation of heat
(c) the law of conservation of work (d) the equivalence of heat and work
10. The following are the p-V diagrams for cyclic processes for a gas. In which of these
processes is heat absorbed by the gas ?
p V
(a) V (b) p
p V
(c) V (d) p
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-53
SECTION IV
(Match the Columns)
1. Match the physical quantities given in Column I with their dimensional formulas given in
Column II
Column I Column II
A. Specific heat (p) ML2T 2K 1
B. Latent heat (q) M 0 L2T 2 K 1
C. Molar specific heat (r) ML2 T 2 mol 1K 1
D. Thermal capacity (s) M 0 L2 T 2
2. Match the thermodynamic processes on an ideal gas given in Column I with the
corresponding change in internal energy (dU), heat transfer (dQ) and work done (dW)
given in Column II.
Column I Column II
A. Isothermal process (p) dQ = dU + PdV
B. Adiabatic process (q) dW = dU
C. Isochoric process (r) dU = 0
D. Isobaric process (s) dQ = dU
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-54
SECTION V
(Passage Based Problems)
[Write-up I : Questions 1 to 3]
One mole of a mono-atomic gas is taken through the cycle shown in the given figure :
A B : adiabatic expansion
B C : cooling at constant volume
C D : adiabatic compression
D A : heating at constant volume
The pressure and temperature at A, B etc. are denoted by PA, TA, PB, TB etc., respectively.
Given that
2/5
2 1 2 1
TA = 1000 K, PB PA and PC PA . Given : 0.85 , R = 8.3 J mol K 1.
3 3 3
P A
1. The work done by the gas in the process A B is : B
(a) 1260 Joules (b) 1560 Joules
(c) 1867 Joules (d) 2160 Joules D
C
2. The heat lost by the gas in the process B C is : V

(a) 1271 Joules (b) 1371 Joules
(c) 5291 Joules (d) 1871 Joules
3. The temperature TD is :
(a) 300 K (b) 400 K
(c) 500 K (d) 600 K
[Write-up II : Questions 4 to 6]
A gaseous mixture enclosed in a vessel of volume V consists of one gram mole of a gas A with
(= CP/CV) = 5/3 and another gas B with = 7/5 at a certain temperature T. The gram molecular
weights of the gases A and B are 4 and 32 respectively. The gases A and B do not react with
each other and are assumed to be ideal. The gaseous mixture follows the equation PV19/13 =
constant, in adiabatic process.
4. Find the number of gram moles of the gas B in the gaseous mixture.
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
5. Compute the speed of sound in the gasesous mixture at T = 300 K

(a) 200 m/s (b) 400 m/s
(c) 600 m/s (d) 800 m/s
6. If T is raised by 1 K from 300 K, find the percentage change in the speed of sound in the
gaseous mixture.
(a) 0.17% (b) 0.27%
(c) 0.37% (d) 10.47%
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-55
[Write-up III : Questions 7 to 9]
The rectangular box shown in the figure has a partition which can slide without friction along the
length of the box. Initially each of two chambers of the box have one mole of a mono-atomic
ideal gas ( = 5/3) at a pressure P0, volume V0 and temperature T0. The chamber on the left is
slowly heated by an electric heater. The walls of box and partition are thermally insulated. Heat
loss through lead wire of heater is negligible. The gas in left chamber expands, pushing the
partition until the final pressure in both chambers becomes 243p0/32.
7. Final temperature of the gas in right chamber is

(a) 2.25 T0 (b) 4.5 T0
(c) 8.75 T0 (d) 12.93 T0
8. Final temperature of the gas in left chamber is

(a) 2.25 T0 (b) 4.5 T0
(c) 8.75 T0 (d) 12.93 T0
9. The work done by the gas in the right chamber is

(a) 5.5 T0 J (b) 10.5 T0 J
(c) 15.5 T0 J (d) None of these
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-56
SECTION VI
LEVEL 1
(Subjective Questions)
1. The ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure to that at constant volume is .
Find the change in internal energy of a mass of gas when the volume changes from V to
2V at constant pressure P ?
2. Find the molar heat capacity in a process of an ideal diatomic gas if it does a work of
Q/4 when a heat of Q is supplied to it?
3. In a room where the temperature is 30C, a body cools from 61C to 59C in 4 minutes.
Find the time taken by the body to cool from 51C to 49C .
4. A sphere of mass 164 g and diameter 6.0 cm floats in a bath in liquid at 0C. The
temperature of the liquid is gradually raised. When the temperature is 50C, the sphere
just begins to sink. If the density of the liquid at 0C is 1.49 g cm 3,find the coefficient of
cubical expansion of the liquid. Neglect the expansion of the sphere.
5. One mole of a certain ideal gas is contained under the weightless piston of a vertical
cylinder at a temperature T. The space over the piston opens into the atmosphere of
pressure p0 . What work has to be done in lifting the piston slowly so that the volume of
the gas under the piston increases isothermally n times?
6. The operating temperature of a tungsten filament in an incandescent lamp is 2000 K and

its emissivity is 0.30. Find the surface area of the filament of a 25 watt lamp. Stefan
constant 5.67 10 8 W m 2 K 4 .
7. A tungsten heater wire of 1 meter is rated at 3 kW m-1 and is 5.0 10 4 m in diameter. It is
embedded along the axis of a ceramic cylinder of diameter 0.12 m. When operating at
the rated power, the wire is at 1500C; the outside of the cylinder is at 20C. Find the
thermal conductivity of the ceramic.
8. A blackened solid copper sphere of radius 2 cm is placed in an evacuated enclosure

whose walls are kept at 100C. At what rate must energy be supplied to the sphere to
keep its temperature constant at 127C ? Stefan constant 5.67 10 8 J m 2 K 4
9. When a system is taken from state i to state f along the P

path iaf, it is found that Q = 50 cal and W = 20 cal. Along a f
the path ibf, Q = 36 cal (figure) (a) What is W along the
path ibf ? (b) If W = - 13 cal for the curved return path f i, i b
what is Q for this path ? (c) Take U i = 10 cal. What is
O V
Uf ?
(d) If U b = 22 cal, what is Q for the process ib and for the process bf ?
10. The ends of a meter stick are maintained at 100C and 0C. One end of a rod is
maintained at 25C. Where should its other end be touched on the meter stick so that
there is no heat current in the rod in steady state ?
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-57
Level II
1. An ideal gas, whose adiabatic exponent is equal to , is expanded so that the
amount of heat transferred to the gas is equal to the decrease of internal energy.
Find
(a) The molar heat capacity of the gas in this process,
(b) The equation of the process in the variables T, V;
(c) The work performed by one mole of the gas when its volume increases
times if the initial temperature of the gas is T0 .
2. Find temperature as a function of radius r in case of spherical shell. Inner and

outer surfaces temperature are fixed at 1 and 2 respectively. Inner and outer
radius of shell are r1 and r2 respectively.
3. Two bodies A and B have thermal emissivities of 0.01 and 0.81 respectively. The
outer surface areas of the two bodies are same. The two bodies emit total radiant
power at the same rate. The wavelength B corresponding to maximum spectral
radiancy in the radiation from B is shifted from the wavelength corresponding to
maximum spectral radiancy in the radiation from A by 1.00 m . If the
temperature of A is 5802 K calculate:
(a) The temperature of B and (b) wavelength B .
4. 20,000 J of heat energy is supplied to a metal block of mass 500 g at

atmospheric pressure. If the initial temperature of the block is 30C, find (a) the
final temperature of the block, (b) work done by the block on the surroundings
and (c) the change in internal energy of the block. Given specific heat of metal =
400 JKg 1C 1, relative density of metal = 8.0, coefficient of volume expansion of
metal = 8 10 5C 1 and atmospheric pressure = 105Pa.
CP
5. The initial pressure and volume of a given mass of gas are P0 and V0 .
CV
The gas can exchange heat with the surrounding.
V
(a) It is slowly compressed to a volume 0 and then suddenly compressed to
2
V0 / 4 . Find the final pressure.
(b) If the gas is suddenly compressed from the volume V0 to V0 / 2 and then
slowly compressed to V0 / 4 , what will be the final pressure ?
6. A thermally insulated vessel is divided into two

parts by a heat-insulating piston which can move in
the vessel without friction. The left part of the
vessel contains one mole of an ideal monatomic
gas, and the right part is empty. The piston is
connected to the right wall of the vessel through a
spring whose length in free state is equal to the
length of the vessel (figure). Determine the heat
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-58
capacity C of the system, neglecting the heat

capacities of the vessel, piston and spring.
7. A vertical cylinder of cross-sectional area S contains one mole of an ideal

monatomic gas under a piston of mass M. At a certain instant, a heater which
transmits to a gas an amount of heat q per unit time is switched on under the
piston. Determine the established velocity of the piston under the condition
that the gas pressure under the piston is constant and atmospheric pressure is
equal to p0 , and the gas under piston is thermally insulated.
8. Three rods of material x and three rods of C

material y are connected as shown in figure. All x x
the rods are of identical length and cross- 60C y 10C
x E
sectional area. If the end A is maintained at A B
60C and the junction E at 10C, calculate y y
temperature of junctions B, C and D. The D
thermal conductivity of x is 0.92 cal/cm-sC and
that of y is 0.46 cal/cm-sC.
9. Ice at 0C is added to 200 g of water initially at 70C in a vacuum flask. When 50

g of ice has been added and has all melted the temperature of the flask and
contents is 40C. When a further 80 g of ice has been added and has all melted
the temperature of the whole becomes 10C. Find the specific latent heat of
fusion of ice.
10. A hot body placed in a surrounding of temperature 0 obeys Newtons law of

d
cooling k( 0 ) . Its temperature at t = 0 is 1 . The specific heat capacity
dt
of the body is s and its mass is m. Find
(a) The maximum heat that the body can lose and
(b) The time starting from t = 0 in which it will lose 90% of this maximum
heat.
*****
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-59
PREVIOUS YEARS IIT-JEE PROBLEMS

(JUDGE YOURSELF AT JEE-LEVEL)
1. A solid body X of heat capacity C is kept in an atmosphere whose temperature is
TA 300 K. At time t 0 the temperature of X is T0 400 K. It cools according to
Newtons law of cooling. At time t1 , its temperature is found to be 350 K.
At this time (t1 ) , the body X is connected to a large body Y at atmospheric temperature
TA , through a conducting rod of length L, cross-sectional area A and thermal conductivity
K. The heat capacity of Y is so large that any variation in its temperature may be
neglected. The
cross-sectional area A of the connecting rod is small compared to the surface area of X.
Find the temperature of X at time t 3t1 .
2. Two moles of an ideal monatomic gas is taken through a P

2P1 B C
cycle ABCA as shown in the P-T diagram (figure). During
the process AB, pressure and temperature of the gas vary
such that PT = constant. If T1 300 K, calculate P1 A
(a) The work done on the gas in the process AB and T
T1 2T1
(b) The heat absorbed or released by gas in each of the process.
Give answers in terms of the gas constant R.
3. An ice cube of mass 0.1 kg at 0C is placed in an isolated container which is at 227C.

The specific heat capacity c of the container varies with temperature T according to the
empirical relation c = A + BT, where A = 100 cal/kg-K and B 2 10 2 cal/kg-K2. If the
final temperature of the container is 27C, determine the mass of the container.
(Latent heat of fusion for water 8 104 cal/kg, specific heat capacity of water
3
10 cal/kg-K).
4. A 5 m long cylindrical steel wire with radius 2 10 3 m is suspended vertically from a rigid
support and carries a bob of mass 100 kg at the other end. If the bob gets snapped,
calculate the change in temperature of the wire ignoring radiation losses.
(For the steel wire: Youngs modulus = 2.1 1011 Pa; Density = 7860 kg/m3; Specific heat
capacity = 420 J/kg-K).
5. A monatomic ideal gas of two moles is taken through a D

VD C
cyclic process starting from A as shown in the figure. The
V V V
volume ratios are B 2 and D 4 . If the temperature TA
VA AA VB B
at A is 27C, Calculate VA
A
O TA TB
T
(a) The temperature of the gas at point B,
(b) Heat absorbed or released by the gas in each process,
(c) The total work done by the gas during the complete cycle.
Express your answer in terms of the gas constant R.
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-60
6. The top of an insulated cylindrical container is covered by a

disc having emissivity 0.6 and conductivity 0.167 W/Km
and thickness 1 cm. The temperature is maintained by Oil out
circulating oil as shown :
(a) Find the radiation loss to the surroundings in J/m2 s Oil in
if temperatrue of the upper surface of disc is 127C,
and temperature of surroundings is 27.
(b) Also find the temperature of the circulating oil. Neglect the heat loss due to
convection.
17
Given 10 8 Wm 2 K 4
3
7. A diatomic gas is enclosed in a container by a movable piston of

cross-sectional area A = 1 m2 at 300 K, as shown in the figure.
The length of the gas column is 1 m. The gas is now heated to
400 K isobarically.
h=1m
(i) Find the new height of the piston.
(ii) Now the gas is compressed to its initial volume
adiabatically.
Find the final temperature of the gas.
8. In the figure shown temperature of the furnace is

Insulation Ts
maintained constant at T1. Temperature of the surrounding
medium is constant at Ts. Heat comes out of the furnace T1
through a solid cylinder of thermal conductivity K, cross T2
sectional area A and length L. The temperature of the other Furnace
Insulation
end of the cylinder is T2 = Ts + T ( T < < Ts). If T (T1
Ts), find the proportionally constant. The cylinder losses the
heat to the surrounding only through radiation. Emisivity of
the cylinder is .
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-61
ANSWERS
SECTION I
Level I
1. (d) 2. (c)
3. (a) 4. (c)
5. (a) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (c)
9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a)
13 (b) 14. (b)
15. (c) 16. (d)
17. (b) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20. (b)
Level II
1. (b) 2. (a)
3. (c) 4. (c)
5. (a) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (b)
9. (a) 10. (c)
SECTION II
(Other Engg Examination Questions)
1. (a) 2. (c)
3. (a) 4. (c)
5. (a) 6. (c)
7. (d) 8. (c)
9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (b)
13 (b) 14. (c)
15. (b)
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-62
SECTION III
(More than One Correct Choice Questions)
1. (a, b, c) 2. (a, c)
3. (a, b, c, d) 4. (b, d)
5. (b, c) 6. (c, d)
7. (a, b, c) 8. (a, b)
9. (a, d) 10. (a, b, c)
SECTION IV
(Match the Columns)
1. (a) (q) ; b (s) ; (c) (r) ; (d) (p)
2. (a) (p, r) ; b (p, q) ; (c) (p, s) ; (d) (p)
SECTION V
(Passage Based Problems)
1. (c) 2. (c)
3. (c) 4. (a)
5. (b) 6. (a)
7. (a) 8. (d)
9. (c)
SECTION VI
Level I
P(2V) P(V) PV
1. U
1 1
10
2. C R
3
3. 6 min
4. 5.5 10 4 / C
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-63
5. (n 1) RT RT n n
6. 0.918cm 2
7. 1.77J s 1m 1 K 1
8. 1.78 J s 1
9. (a) 6 cal (b) 43 cal

(c) 40 cal (d) 18 cal., 18 cal
10. 25 cm from cold end
Level II
R 1 /2 2 RT0 [1 1/ ( 1) / 2
]
1. (a) C (b) TV constant (c) W
1 ( 1)
1 1
r1 r
2. 1 ( 1 2 )
1 1
r1 r2
3. (a) 1934 K (b) B = 1.5 m.
4. (a) 130C (b) 0.05 J (c) 19999.95 J
5. 2 1
P0 (both cases)
6. C 2R
2 q
7.
5 p0 S Mg
8. TB 30 C ; TC TD 20 C
9. 90 cal/g
n10
10. (a) ms( 1 0 ) (b)
k
SUBJECTIVE UNSOLVED (IIT-JEE) LEVEL

1. Tx 300 K (12.5)e 2 KAt1 / CL
2. (a) Work done on gas = (1200 mol K) R

(b) QCA = (1200) Rln2
Q AB 2100R , Q BC 1500 R .
3. m 0.495 kg
RSM79-PH-P3-H&T-64
4. T = 4.568 10 3 C
5. (a) TB 600 K
(b) 162.6C
Q AB 1500 R
Q BC 831.6R
Q CD 900R ; QP A = 831.6 R
(c) Q = 600 R
6. (a) 595 watt/m2
(b) 162.6C
7. (i) 4 3 m, (ii) 448.8 K
K
8. Proportionality constant =
4 LTs3 K
RSM79-P4-PH-E-35
ELECTROSTATICS
LEVEL I
1. Point charges of magnitude q, 2q and 8q are to be placed on a 9 cm long straight

line. Find the positions where the charges should be placed such that potential
energy of this system is minimum.
2. Water from a metal vessel maintained at a potential of 3 volt falls in spherical

drops 2 mm in diameter through a small hole into a thin walled isolated metal
sphere of diameter 8 cm placed in air until the sphere is filled with water. Ignoring
the thickness of the metal calculate the final potential of the sphere and its
electrical energy.
3. An infinite number of charges each equal to `q are placed along the x-axis at
x = 1, x = 2, x = 4, x = 8, and so on. Find the potential and electric field at the
point x = 0 due to this set of charges. What will be the potential and electric field
if in the above set up the consecutive charges have opposite sign?
4. A uniform electric field of strength 106v/m is directed vertically downwards. A

particle of mass 0.01 kg and charge 10-6 coulomb is suspended by an
inextensible thread of length 1m. The particle is displaced slightly from its mean
position and released.
(a) Calculate the time period of its oscillation.
(b) What minimum velocity should be given to the particle at rest so that it
completes a full circle in a vertical plane without the thread getting slack?
(c) Calculate the maximum and minimum tensions in the thread in this situation.
5. Two equal charges q are kept fixed at a and +a along the x-axis . A particle of
q
mass m and charge is brought to the origin and given a small displacement
2
along the (a) X-axis and (b) Y-axis. Describe quantitatively the motion in two
cases.
6. A strip of length having linear charge density is placed near a negatively

charged particle P of mass m and charge -q (as shown in the figure) at a
distance d from the end A of the strip. Find the velocity of P as it reaches a
point at the distance d/2 from end A.
P
-q + + + + + + + + + + +
A B
FIITJEE Ltd., ICES House, Sarvapriya Vihar (Near Hauz Khas Bus Terminal), New Delhi - 16, Ph : 26515949 , 26865182, 26854102, Fax :
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-36
7. A thin fixed ring of radius R and positive charge Q is placed in a vertical plane.
A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at the centre of ring. If the particle
is given a small horizontal displacement, show that it executes SHM also find the
time period of small oscillations of this particle, about the centre of ring. (Ignore
gravity)
8. A non-conducting sphere having a cavity as shown R/2
in figure is uniformly charged with volume charge P
density . Find the potential at a point P which is at C R
a distance of x from C.
x
9. A particle of charge q and mass m moves along the x-axis under the action of an
electric field E = k cx, where c is a positive constant and x is distance from the
point, where particle was initially at rest.
Calculate :
(a) distance travelled by the particle before it comes to rest.
(b) acceleration at the moment, when it comes to rest.
+q
10. Charges +q and q are located at the q
corners of a cuboid as shown in the a

figure. Find the electric potential q
energy of the system. +q
q
a +q
q +q
3a
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-37
LEVEL II
1. (a) Two similar point charges q 1 and q2 are placed at a distance r apart in air. If a
dielectric slab of thickness t and dielectric constant k is put between the
charges, calculate the coulomb force of repulsion between them.
(b) If the thickness of the slab covers half the distance between the charges, the
coulomb repulsive force is reduced in the ratio 4 : 9. Calculate the dielectric
constant of the slab.
2. Calculate the electric field at the centre of a y

non-conducting semicircular ring of linear R
charge density as shown in the figure.
O x
O
3. A small ball of mass 2 10 3 kg having a charge of 1 C is suspended by a string

of length 0.8 m. Another identical ball having the same charge is kept at the point
of suspension. Determine the minimum horizontal velocity which should be
imparted to the lower ball so that it can make complete revolution in a vertical
circle. Take g = 10 m/s2.
4. Four charges are placed as shown in the cartesian y

co-ordinate system. Calculate the electric field at +q
(0,+a)
point P(0, 0, a)? B
(-a, 0) A +q
C -q (0,0, 0) (+a, 0) x
D
(0,-a) -q
5. Two hollow concentric conducting spheres of

30 cm
radius 10 cm and 30 cm are insulated. If the inner
sphere is given a charge 10-4 C and outer 10-6 C, P Q R
O
then calculate the intensity at the points P, Q and 10 cm
R which are situated at distance of 5 cm, 20 cm
and 90 cm from the centre respectively.
6. Some equi-potential y (cm)

10V 20 V 30 V 40 V
surfaces are shown in 20 cm

30 cm
300
figure (1) and (2). 10 20 30 40 x (cm)
What can you say
10 cm
about the magnitude
Figure 1 60 V
and direction of the
30 V
electric field? Figure 2
20 V
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-38
7. A circular ring of radius R with uniform positive charge q is located in the y-z
plane with its centre at the origin O. A particle of mass m and positive charge q is
projected from the point P 3 R ,0,0 on the positive x-axis directly towards O,
with initial speed V. Find the smallest (non zero) value of the speed such that the
particle does not return to P.
8. A very long uniformly charged thread oriented along the axis of a circle of radius
R rests on its centre with one of the ends. The charge of the thread per unit
length is . Find the flux of the vector E across the area enclosing the circle.
9. An Aluminium rod of length having net charge Q is

placed in front of a small charged Aluminium ball of mass /2
m and charge -q at a distance /2 from centre. If the

space between the strip and ball offers negligible
resistance to the motion of ball then find the velocity with
which it reaches a distance x from the strip. (The charge
distribution on Aluminium rod is uniform and it is fixed).
10. In the arrangement shown in figure,

three concentric conducting shells are
shown. The charge on the shell of
radius b is q0 . If the innermost and
outermost shells are connected to the a
earth, find their charge densities and the b
potential on the shell of radius b in terms
of a and q0. Given that a : b : c = 1 : 2 : 4 c
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-39

LEVEL - I
1. An electron of mass me, initially at rest, moves through a certain distance in a

uniform electric field in time t1. A proton of mass mp, also initially at rest, takes
time t2 to move through an equal distance in this uniform electric field. Neglecting
t
the effect of gravity, the ratio 2 is equal to
t1
1/ 2
me
(A) 1 (B)
mp
1/ 2
mp mp
(C) (D)
me me
2. If positively charged pendulum is

oscillating in a uniform electric field as
shown in figure. Its time period as
compared to that when it was
uncharged: + ++ + + ++
(A) will increase (B) will decrease
(C) will not change (D) will first increase then decrease
3. A and B are two concentric spheres If A is given a B

+ +
charge Q while B is earthed as shown in figure : ++ +
(A) The charge density of A and B are same + A +
(B) The field inside and outside A is zero +
+ + +
(C) The field between A and B is not zero
(D) The field inside and outside B is zero
4. The maximum electric field intensity on the axis of a uniformly charged ring of
charge q and radius R will be
1 q 1 2q
(A) (B)
4 0 3 3R 2 4 0 3R2
1 2q 1 3q
(C) 2
(D)
4 0 3 3R 4 0 2 2R 2
5. The figure is a plot of lines of force due to two

charges q1and q2. Find out the sign of charges
q1
(A) both negative
q2
(B) Upper positive and lower negative
(C) both positive
(D) upper negative and lower positive
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-40
6. There are two concentric metal shells of radii r1 and r2(>r1). If the outer shell has
a charge q and the inner shell is grounded, the charge on the inner shell is
(A) zero (B) (r1/r2)q
(C) r1r2q (D)
7. Electric charge q, q and 2q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle

ABC of side L. The magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is
(A) qL (B) 2qL
(C) ( 3)qL (D) 4qL
8. Three identical particles of charge Q and mass m are placed such that they form
an equilateral triangle of side . If they are released simultaneously. The
maximum speed attained by any one of the particles will be
1 1
(A) Q (B) Q
2 0m 6 0m
(C) Zero. (D) none of these.
9. A point charge q is placed at a point on the axis of a non-conducting circular

plate of radius r at a distance R (>>r) from its center. The electric flux associated
with the plate is
qr 2 qr 2
(A) (B)
4 0 R2 4 0R2
qR2 q
(C) (D)
4 0r 2 4 0
10. In the electric field due to a point charge q, a test B

charge is carried from A to the points B, C, D and E
C
lying on the same circle around q. The work done is
(A) the least along AB A
+q
(B) the least along AD
D
(C) zero along any one of the paths AB, AD, AC E
and AE
(D) the least along AE.
11. Find the charge on an iron particle of mass 2.24 mg, if 0.02 % of electrons are
removed from it.
(A) -0.01996 (B) 0.01996 C
(C) 0.02 C (D) 2.0 C
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-41
12. A thick shell with inner radius R and outer radius 3R

has a uniform charge density c/m3. It has a spherical
cavity of radius R as shown in the figure. The electric
R
field at the centre of the cavity is
(A) zero. (B) 2 R/ o
3R
(C) 3 R/4 o (D) 7 R/12 o
Cavity
13. The electric potential energy of a uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius
R having a total charge Q is
(A) Q2/4 0R (B) Q2/6 0R
2
(C) Q / 8 0R (D) Q2/16 0R
14. Two small metallic spheres each of mass m are
suspended together with strings of length and placed
together. When a quantum of charge q is transferred
to each the strings make an angle of 900 with each
other. The value of q is
(A) 0 mg (B) 2 0 mg
(C) 4 0 mg (D) 8 0 mg
15. Two concentric spheres of radii R and r have similar charges with equal surface
density ( ). The electric potential at their common centre is
(A) / 0 (B) (R r )
0
(C) (R r ) (D) none of the above

0
16. Two connected charges of +q and -q respectively are

at a fixed distance AB apart in a non uniform electric +q
field whose lines of force are shown in the figure
The resultant effect on the two charges is A
(A) a torque in the plane of the paper and no
resultant force -q
(B) a resultant force in the plane of the paper and no
B
torque
(C) a torque normal to the plane of the paper and no
resultant force
(D) a torque normal to the plane of the paper and a
resultant force in the plane of the paper
17. An electron is accelerating in gravity free region in the absence of an electric
field. It will lose its energy in form of
(A) thermal energy (B) loss in gravitational potential energy
(C) electromagnetic radiations (D) none of the above
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-42
18. A charge +10 9 C is located at the origin in free space and another charge Q at
(2, 0, 0). If the X-component of the electric field at (3, 1, 1) is zero. The value of
Q is
(A) + 2.4 10 10 C (B) - 6.2 10 20 C
(C) - 4.3 10 10C (D) - 1.2 10 20 C
B
19. The figure shows an infinite line charge of density A
C/m. The work done by the electrostatic force on r

a `unit charge, when it is moved along the path
ABC, is (plane of the curve ABC contains the line C
r
charge)
(A) zero. c/m
(B) ( /2 o)ln2
(C) ( /2 o)ln3
(D) ( /2 o)ln3
20. A charge Q is placed at the centre of a hemispherical surface of radius R. The

flux of electric field due to charge Q, through the surface of hemisphere is
(A) Q/4 0 (B) Q/4 0
(C) Q/2 0 (D) Q/2 0
LEVEL II
1. A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The magnitude of the

electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from its centre
(A) increases as r increases for r < R
(B) decreases as r increases for 0 < r <
(C) decreases as r increases for R < r <
(D) is discontinuous at r = R
2. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and separation d has charge Q. A slab of
dielectric constant k is inserted in space between the plates almost completely fills the
space. If E 0 and C0 be the electric field and capacitance before inserting the slab, then
E0
(A) the electric field after inserting the slab is
k
(B) the capacitance after inserting the slab is k C0
1
(C) the induced charge on the slab is Q 1
k
U0
(D) the energy stored in the capacitor becomes , U0 being the energy of the
k
capacitor before inserting the slab
3. In the circuit shown, a potential difference of 100 V is A 2C

applied across AB. Then C
(A) the potential difference between points C and D is 100V C C
50 V 2C
(B) the potential difference between A and C is 25 V D
B
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-43
(C) the potential difference between B and D is 25 V

(D) all the capacitors have equal charge
4. Three very large plates are given charges as shown in the Q 5Q 10Q
figure. If the cross-sectional area of each plate is the same,
then the final charge distribution on the surface of the plates
a, b, c, d, e, f is a b c d e f
(A) 7Q on surface e and 3Q on surface f
(B) -2Q on surface b and 3Q on surface a
(C) -7Q on surface d and 2Q on surface c A B C
(D) the magnitude of charges at all surfaces b, c, d, e is equal
5. S1 and S2 are two equipotential surfaces on which the potentials are not equal
(A) S1 and S2 cannot intersect
(B) S1 and S2 cannot both be plane surfaces
(C) in the region between S1 and S2, the field is maximum where they are closest to
each other
(D) a line of force from S1 to S2 must be perpendicular to both
6. X and Y are large, parallel conducting plates close to each other. Each face has an area
A. X is given a charge Q. Y is without any charge. Point A, B and C are as shown in the
figure
A B C
X Y
Q
(A) the field at B is
2 0A
Q
(B) the field at B is
0A
(C) the fields at A, B and C are of the same magnitude

(D) the fields at A and C are of the same magnitude, but in opposite directions
7. In the circuit shown, the potential difference across the 3mF capacitor is V, and the
equivalent capacitance between A and B is CAB
3 F 6 F
2 F
A 60V B
18
(A) CAB = 4 F (B) CAB = F
11
(C) V = 20 V (D) V = 40 V
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-44
8. In the circuit shown, each capacitor has a capacitance C. The emf of the cell is e. If the
switch S is closed
C S
C
C
+
(A) some charge will flow out of the positive terminal of the cell
(B) some charge will enter the positive terminal of the cell
(C) the amount of charge flowing through the cell will be Ce
(D) the amount of charge flowing though the cell will be 4/3Ce
9. If the flux of the electric field through a closed surface is zero,

(A the electric field must be zero everywhere on the surface
(B the electric field may be zero everywhere on the surface
(C the net charge inside the surface must be zero
(D the charge in the vicinity of the surface must be zero
10. Figure shows a closed surface which intersects a conducting sphere. If a positive
charged is placed at the point P, the flux of the electric field through the closed surface
closed conducting
surface sphere
(A) will remain zero (B) will become positive
(C) will become negative (D) will become undefined
COMPREHENSION
q1 q2
I. Two points charges q1 = + 1 C and q2 = 2 C are placed at
A and B respectively as shown in the figure. The distance A B
between q1 and q2 is 4 cm. 4cm
1. A line of force emanates from q1 making an angle 90 with AB. This line of force
(A) enters q2 at an angle 90 (B) enters q2 at an angle 60
(C) enters q2 at an angle 45 (D) does not enter q2 but goes off to
2. The net electric flux will be zero.

(A) over any surface that encloses a volume including A and B, but having very large
radius
(B) over any surface that includes A twice and B once
(C) over any surface that encloses a volume excluding A and B
(D) only over a surface that encloses zero volume
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-45
3. The electrostatic potential is zero at

(A) a point on the line AB between q1 and q2 but closer to q 2
(B) a point on the line AB but not between A and B
(C) infinitely many point in space
(D) no point in space
II. When an excess charge is placed on an isolated conductor, it will distribute itself on the
surface of that conductor so that all points of conductor whether on the surface or inside
the conductor becomes to same potential. This is true even if there is a cavity inside the
conductor.
If an isolated conductor is placed in an external electric field, all points of conductor still
come to a single potential regardless of whether the conductor has an excess charge.
The free electrons distribute themselves on the surface in such a way that the electric
field they produce at interior point cancels the external field that would otherwise be
there.
4. Choose the incorrect charge distribution

+
+ + +
+ + + + +
+ + +
+ + +
+ + +
(A) + + (B) +
+ + + + +
+ + + + +
+ + + + +
+ + + + +
+ + + + +
+ + + + +
(C) + + (D) + + +
5. In electrical field, equipotential surfaces must

(A) be plane surfaces
(B) be tangential to the direction of field
(C) be spaced such that surfaces having equal difference in potential are separated by
equal distance
(D) have decreasing potential in the direction of field
6. At a point inside a charged conductor,

(A) the electric field and potential must be zero
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-46
(B) the electric field is non-zero but constant

(C) potential is zero
(D) potential is constant
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. A charge q is placed inside a spherical cavity, made in X

an uncharged conducting sphere of radius R as shown. R r
A point charge Q is placed at a separation d from the
centre of solid sphere as shown in the figure. Q
Oa d
q r
Column A Column B
(A) Electrostatic potential at point X inside (p) kQ kq kq kQ
the conductor
d R r' r
(B) Electrostatic potential at point O (q) kQ
r2
(C) The magnitude of the electrostatic (r) kQ
field at point X inside the conductor
r
due to the charges induced at the
outermost surface only
(D) Electrostatic potential due to all the (s) kQ kq
induced charges at point X inside the
d R
conductor
2. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged by connecting its plates to a charged capacitor
the terminals of a battery. The battery is disconnected and a
dielectric slab is introduced partially between the plates, as shown
in the figure. Consider the change in the value of each quantity
mentioned in the first column below from the time when no
dielectric slab was introduced to the time when it was, and match
it with the nature of change in it as mentioned in column on the
right.
dielectric slab
Column A Column B
(A) Surface density of charge, (p) Increases.
(B) Electric field intensity, E (q) Decreases.
(C) Charge on the capacitor, q (r) Remains same.
(D) Net force acting on either plate, F (s) Increases at some points decreases
at others.
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-47
3. Three concentric conducting shells are arranged as

shown. The charges on the shells are Q, 2Q and Q C
B
respectively. A
2Q
1 RQ
Here K .
4 Q
0 2R
3R
Column I Column II
(A) Potential of B (p) KQ
3R
(B) Potential of C (q) KQ
2R
(C) Potential difference between A and C (r) KQ
6R
(D) Potential difference between B and C (s) Zero
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-48
LEVEL- I
kq1q2
1. Potential energy =
r
dU
For U to be a minimum, =0
dx
2. q=4 0Vr
kq kq kq
3. V=
1 2 4
kq kq kq
E=
12 22 42
qE
4 (a) g g
m
(b) For minimum velocity consider the extreme case when tension just becomes
zero at the highest point A.
1 1
Conserving energy: mv B2 mv 2A mg qE 2
2 2
(c) Maximum tension is at the lowest point
5. (a) The net force on the particle

q q
qx qx
1 2 2
=F 2 2
4 0 a x a x
(b) The net force on the particle = 2 Fcos
6. Find the potential at any point and apply energy conservation law.
7. Find the field E at a distance x from the centre of charged ring on the axis.
Consider x << R.
8. Consider negative and positive charge of same volume charge density in the
cavity.
dv dv
9. F = qE, F = v
dt dx
kq1q2
10. Take all possible combination of charges and use .
r12
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-49
LEVEL- II
2. Consider two symmetrical elemental charge and calculate their field at O.

kq
4. E r . Vector sum of field at P due to all the charges.
r3
k
5. Electric field due to an arc at its centre is 2 sin .
R 2
Intensity at the centre due to the circular wire is zero.
Apply principle of superposition.
6. FA FAB FAC
1 q2 60o
2 cos in the direction D to A
4 o a2 2
For equilibrium
Tcos = mg
Tsin = FA
7. By symmetry, horizontal components will cancel among themselves.
8.
9. Find the electric field at a distance x on the perpendicular bisector. Use
symmetry and apply kinematics principle.
10. Potential at the surface of one shell will be due to combination of other shells too.
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-50
10. Answer to the subjective Assignment

LEVEL I
1. 2q, 8q at the two ends and q at 3cm from 2q
4kq 2kq 4
2. 4800 V, 512 10-7 J 3. 2kq, , , kq
3 3 5
4. (a) 0.6 sec (b) 23.42 m/s (c) 6.588, Zero
5. (a) SHM, (b) continue to move up along the Y-axis
3
q d 2 4 0 mR
6. 7. 2
2 0m d qQ
4 1 1 2k qk
8. R3 k 9. (a) (b)
3 x R 2 c m
x2
4
kq2 1 1
10. Potential energy = 2 2 4 1
a 3 5
LEVEL II
q1q 2 q
1. (a) F = 2
(b) k = 4 7.
4 0 r t t k 4 0 mR
2k R
2. 8.
R 2 0
3. 5.86 m/s Qq ln( / 2 x )

9.
kq i j 2 m
4. Enet 0
2a2 q0
5. 0, 2.25 x 107N/C, 1.12 x 106 N/C 10. inner ,
12 a 2
6
6. (i)200 V/m (ii) 2 q0 q0
r outer = 2
,
96 a 24 0a
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-E-51
LEVEL - I
1 C 2. A
3. C 4. C
5. A 6. B
7. C 8. A
9. B 10. C
11. B 12. D
13. C 14. D
15. C 16. D
17. C 18. C
19. D 20. C
LEVEL - II
1. (A), (C) 2. (A), (B), (C), (D)

3. (A), (B), (C) 4. (A), (B), (C)
5. (A), (C), (D) 6. (A), (C), (D)
7. (A), (D) 8. (A), (D)
9. (B), (C) 10. (B)
COMPREHENSION
1. (B) 2. (C)
3. (C) 4. (D)
5. (D) 6. (D)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING

1. (A) (s); (B) (s); (C) (q); (D) (p)
2. (A) (s); (B) (q); (C) (r); (D) (q)
3. (A) (p); (B) (s); (C) (p); (D) (r)
26513942
RSM79-P4-PH-C-22
CAPACITOR
LEVEL I
1. Find the equivalent k1 k1

up to
P
capacitance between k2 k2
C1 C1
the ends P and Q. The
plates are of area A,
k1 k1
and the distance k2
C2 k2 C2
between them is d. The
k1 k1
dielectric constants are Q up to
k1 and k2 where k1 = 2 k2 k2
C1 C1
and k2 = 4 of material.
2. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor, having

V
area A, are maintained at constant potential d
difference V. If the initial separation between
the plates is d, find the work done in
increasing the separation of plates to 2d.
3. A 1 F and a 2 F capacitor are connected in series across a 1200 V supply.

(a) Find the charge on each capacitor and the voltage across each capacitor.
(b) The charged capacitors are disconnected from the line and from each other,
and are now reconnected with terminals of like charge connected together.
Find the final charge on each capacitor and the voltage across each
capacitor.
4. A capacitor is filled with two dielectrics

2 d/2 2 3
of the same dimensions but of dielectric
d
constant 2 and 3 respectively. Find the 3 d/2
ratio of capacities in the two possible A/2 A/3
arrangement.
5. A battery of 10 V is connected to a capacitor of capacity 0.1F. The battery is now

removed and this capacitor is connected to a second uncharged capacitor. If the
charge is equally distributed on these two capacitors, find the total energy stored
in the two capacitors. Find the ratio of final energy to the initial energy.
6. The distance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 0.05m. A field of
3 x 104 V/m is established between the plates and an uncharged metal plate of
thickness 0.01 m is inserted into the capacitor parallel to its plate. Find potential
difference
(a) Before the introduction of the metal plate.
RSM79-P4-PH-C-23
(b) After its introduction.

(c) What would be the potential difference if a plate of dielectric constant K = 2 is
introduced in place of metal plate?
7. Two parallel plate capacitors A and B having capacitance 1 F and 5 F are
charged separately to the same potential of 100 volt.
Now the positive plate of A is connected to the negative plate of B and negative
plate of A to the positive plate of B.
Find the final charge on each capacitors and total loss of electrical energy in the
given system.
8. Two spherical conductors of radius R and 2R, having potential 4V, and 2V are
kept isolated. Find the loss in electrostatic energy if they are connected by a
conducting wire.
A
9. Find the equivalent capacitance
between A and B, if the plates have
equal area A. d/2 k1
d
k2 k3
B
10. In the given circuit diagram, find the charge

which will flow through direction 1 and 2 when k C1
the key is closed.
C2
1 2
RSM79-P4-PH-C-24
LEVEL II
1. If the area of parallel plates shown in the

figure is A and they are placed at
distance d apart form each other, then
find the equivalent capacitance between
k1 k2
A and B. The two outer plates are
connected with a conducting wire.
A B
d d d
2. A capacitor of capacitance 0.1 F is charged until the difference in potential

between its plates is 25 V. Then the charge is shared with a second capacitor
which has air as dielectric. The potential difference falls to 15 V. If the experiment
is repeated with dielectric introduced between the plates of the second capacitor,
the potential difference is 8 V. What is the dielectric constant of the material
introduced?
3. Determine the potential difference A - B C1 A C2
between points A and B of the circuit shown in

figure. Under what condition is it equal to zero?
C3 B C4
4. Two metal plates form a parallel plate k1

Metal plate
capacitor. The distance between the
d
plates is given as d. A metal plate of
thickness (d/2), and two dielectric slabs k2
of thickness (d/4) is introduced between v
the plates as shown in the figure. If the
metal plate is removed find the work
done in slowly removing it. (The plates
of capacitor is connected to a battery
having potential difference v)
C
5. Find the equivalent capacitance A
between A and B in the circuit shown C C

C
below. If the ends A and B are C
connected across a 12 V cell, find the C C
C
electrostatic potential energy of the B
C
system. (the capacitance of each
capacitor is 100 F)
RSM79-P4-PH-C-25
6. Each capacitor has a capacitance of C

S
5 F. Find the charge that will flow through
MN when the switch S is closed.
C C
M N 50 V
7. In the figure shown, determine the E1

potential differences on the plates of C2
C1
capacitors C1 = 3 F, C2 = 7 F, if value of
E1 = 12kV, E2 = 13kV.
E2
8. Find the equivalent capacitance between A A B

and B, if the plates have equal area A and
the separation between the plates is d.
9. A uniform electric field E exists between the plates of a capacitor. The plate
length is and the separation of the plates is d.
(a) An electron and a proton start from the negative plate and positive plate
respectively and go to the opposite plates. Which of them wins this race?
(b) An electron and a proton are projected parallel to the plates from the midpoint
of the separation of plates at one end of the plates. Which of the two will have
greater deviation when they start with the
(i) same initial velocity
(ii) same initial kinetic energy, and
(iii) same initial momentum?
10. Figure shows a parallel plate capacitor having

square plates of edge a and plate separation d.
The gap between the plate is filled with a
dielectric of dielectric constant k which varies
from the left plate to the right plate as k = ko + k
x, where ko and are positive constants and x
is the distance from the left end. Calculate the
capacitance.
RSM79-P4-PH-C-26

LEVEL - I
1. The equivalent capacitance between A C
and B is C
(A) C A
B
(B) 2C C
C
(C) 1.5 C
(D) none of the above C
2. In the circuit shown in the figure, the capacitor C is

charged to a potential Vo. The heat generated in the C
+ S
circuit when the switch S is closed, is
(A) C Vo2 (B) 2C Vo2
(C) 4C Vo2 (D) 8C Vo2 3Vo
3. The plates of a parallel plate charged capacitor are not parallel, the interface
charge density is
(A) is higher at the closer end (B) is non-uniform
(C) is higher at inclined plate. (D) none of the above
4. There are n identical capacitors, which are connected in parallel to a potential

difference V. These capacitors are then reconnected, in series. The potential
difference between the extreme ends is :
(A) zero (B) nV
(C) (n 1) V (D) none of the above
5. The force with which the plates of a pa0rallel plate capacitor having a charge Q
and area of each plate A, attract each other is
(A) directly proportional to Q2 and inversely to A.
(B) inversely proportional to Q2 and directly to A.
(C) does not depend upon Q2 and is inversely proportional to A.
(D) none of the above
6. The equivalent capacitance between points A and B 3 F 3 F 3 F

A
for the given figure is
(A) 1 F (B) 2 F 2 F 2 F 3 F
(C) 3 F (D) 4 F
B
3 F 3 F 3 F
RSM79-P4-PH-C-27
A
7. The equivalent capacitance between A and B is
C
(A) 6 C C
(B) 4C C
(C) 2C C C C
B
(D) none of the above
8. A dielectric slab of thickness 4 mm is placed between the plates of a parallel

plate capacitor. If the distance between plates is reduced by 3.5 mm, the
capacity of the capacitor remains same. Find the dielectric constant of the
medium.
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
9. The effective capacitance between A and B will be 2 F

(A) 0.5 F (B) 1.5 F A 1 F
(C) 2 F (D) 2.5 F 1 F 2 F
B
2 F
10. If the capacitance between two

successive plates is C, then the
B
capacitance of the equivalent system A
between A and B is
C
(A) (B) 3C
3
2 3
(C) C (D) C
3 2
RSM79-P4-PH-C-28
LEVEL II
1. Two capacitors are once connected in parallel and then in series. If the
equivalent capacitance in two cases are 16F and 3F respectively, then
capacitance of each capacitor is
(A) 16 F, 3F (B) 12 F, 4 F
(C) 6F, 8F (D) none of these
2. Two dielectrics of equal size are inserted inside a

parallel plate capacitor as shown. With what factor A
the effective capacitance increases ?
d k1 k2
k1k 2 k k2
(A) (B) 1
k1 k 2 2
2k1k 2
(C) (D) none of above
k1 k 2
10 V
3. What is the energy stored in the capacitor between
terminals a and b of the network shown in the figure?
(Capacitance of each capacitor C = 5 F). C C
(A) 1 J (B) 0.25 J a
b
C C
(C) zero. (D) 15.6 J
4. One of the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor is connected to a non

conducting spring of stiffness K and the other plate is fixed. The other end of the
spring is also fixed. In equilibrium distance between the plates is d, which is twice
of the elongation in the spring. If length of the spring is halved by cutting it, the
distance between the plates in equilibrium will be (Consider that in both the
cases spring is in nature length, if the capacitor is uncharged)
3d 5d
(A) (B)
4 4
3
(C) 2d (D) d
2
5. Two identical parallel plate capacitors of same dimensions are connected to a

DC source in series. When one of the plates of one capacitor is brought closer to
other plate
(A) the voltage on the capacitor whose plates came closer is greater than the
voltage on the capacitor whose plates are not moved.
(B) the voltage on the capacitor whose plates came closer is smaller than the
voltage on the capacitor whose plates are not moved.
(C) the voltage on the two capacitors remain equal.
(D) the applied voltage is divided equally between the two capacitors.
RSM79-P4-PH-C-29
6. You are given 32 capacitors of 4 F capacitance each. How do you connect all of
them so that the effective capacitance becomes 8 F?
(A) 4 capacitors in series and 8 such groups in parallel.
(B) 2 capacitors in series and 16 such groups in parallel.
(C) 8 capacitors in series and 4 such groups in parallel.
(D) All of them in series.
7. Figure shows a spherical capacitor with inner sphere

earthed. The capacitance of the system is
a b
4 ab 4 b2
(A) (B)
b a b a
(C) 4 0 (b + a) (D) none of these
8. The charge flowing across the circuit on closing K

the key K is equal to
C C
(A) CV (B) V
2 1 2C
(C) 2CV (D) zero
V
+
9. The potential difference across the capacitor 3 F

of 2 F is 2 F
6 F
(A) 10 V (B) 60 V
(C) 28 V (D) 56 V 3 F
70V
10. What is the potential at point O? +5v

(A) 4.27 V (B) 17 V
(C) zero (D) 34V 4 F 1 F
O
+6v +3v
3 F 3 F
+3v
RSM79-P4-PH-C-30
LEVEL- I
1. Find the value of C1 and C2 and analyse it as the series parallel combination.
2. The capacitance changes so the energy changes.
3. The charges in series combination are equal.
4. In first case, capacitors in series and in second case they are in parallel.
5. Total charge remains conserved.
6. If capacitance changes, the electrostatic energy changes.
7. Find the equivalent capacitance and charge distribution.
8. Find common potential and electrostatic potential energy.
9. Capacitance with dielectrics k 2 , k 3 are in parallel and capacitor with dielectric
k1 is in series with the above combination.

10. Compare the charge distribution in both the cases.
LEVEL- II
1. Find individual capacitance and arrange it in the circuit.

2. The total charge has to be conserved.
3. Charge on C1 and C2 will be equal and C3 & C4 will be equal.
4. Find out total energy in both the cases and difference between them.
5. Apply series parallel concept.
6. Find the equivalent capacitance
7. Apply KVL and charge conservation.
8. Potential on extreme plates will be equal and potential on inner plates will be
equal.
9. Force on the charges is due to electric field. Find accelerations. Use kinematics.
10. Take an elemental capacitance of thickness dx. Write capacitance for this then
integrate.
RSM79-P4-PH-C-31
8. Answers to the subjective Assignment

LEVEL I
2
1 0 AV
1. Ceq = 1.07 0A /d 2. W=
4 d
3200
3. (a) 800 C, 800V, 800 C, 400V. (b) 1600/3V,1600/3 C, C
3
24 1
4. 5. 2.5J,
25 2
6. (a) 1500 Volt (b) 1200 Volt (c) 1350 Volt
2
5 16 0Rv
7. 0.6 x 10-4C; 3.33 x 10-4C; x 10 2
J 8.
3 3
2A 0 (k 2 k 3 )(k1 )
9.
d 2k1 k 2 k 3
c 1c 2
10. Charge flown through path 2= -
c1 c2
Charge flown through path 1= c2
LEVEL II
A 0 k1k 2 k1 k 2
1. 2. 3.2
d (k1 k 2 )
C2C3 C1C4
3. A B E , when C1/C2 = C3/C4.
C1 C2 C3 C4
4 A 0 v 2k12k 22
4.
d(k1 k 2 )(k1 k 2 2k1k 2 )
5. 125 F, 9000 J 6. 333.3 C
2 0A
7. 700 V, 300V 8.
d
9. (a) Electron (b) (i) Electron (ii) Both equal deviation (iii) Proton
2
0a
10.
d
ln 1
K0
RSM79-P4-PH-C-32
LEVEL - I
1. A 2. D
3. A 4. B
5. A 6. A
7. C 8. D
9. C 10. B
LEVEL - II
1. B 2. B
3. C 4. B
5. B 6. A
7. B 8. B
9. B 10. A
RSM379P4-PH-CE-38
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
LEVEL I
1. A wire of resistance 15 is bent to form a regular hexagon ABCDEFA. Find the

equivalent resistance of the loop between the points (a) A and B, (b) A and C
and (c) A and D.
2. Find the potential difference Va - Vb E1 R1

in the circuits shown in figure
a b
R3
E2 R2
2 4A 2
3. Find the P.D. between points A and
B in the branch of a circuit shown 5v
9v
in figure. Which point is at higher
potential A B
4. In the circuit shown in figure 4000 6000

V1 and V2 are two voltmeters having
S
resistances 6000 and 4000 respectively
V1 V2
E.M.F. of the battery is 250 volts, having
6000 4000
negligible internal resistance. Two
resistances R1 and R2 are 4000 and E=250V
6000 respectively. Find the reading of the
voltmeters V1 and V2 when
(i) Switch S is open
(ii) Switch S is closed
5. A galvanometer of resistance 95 , shunted by a resistance of 50 ohm gives a

deflection of 50 divisions when joined in series with a resistance of 20 k and a
2 volt battery, what is the current sensitivity of galvanometer (in div/ A) ?
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-39
6. A part of a circuit in steady state 1 amp

3
along with current flowing in the 2 6 D
branches, with value of each A I1
2 amp
resistance is shown in figure. 4 F
2
3 I3
Calculate the energy stored in the 2 amp I2
B C 4
capacitor C. 3
6
1 amp
7. Calculate the current through 3 resistor 3

and the power dissipated in the entire
4
circuit shown in figure. The emf of the 8
battery is 1.8 V and its internal resistance 2 6
is 2/3 .
6
8. A capacitor of capacitance 10 F is connected to a battery of emf 2V. It is found

that it takes 50 ms for the charge on the capacitor to become 12.6 C. Find the
resistance of the circuit.
9. Three 60 W 120 V light bulbs are A

connected across a 120 V power line
shown in figure. Find (a) the voltage
B C
across each bulbs (b) the total power
dissipated in the three bulbs.
10. A heater is designed to operate with a 10 B C

power of 1000 watts in a 100 volt line.
It is connected in combination with a
R
resistance R, to a 100 volt mains as
shown in figure what should be the
100 V
value of R so that the heater may
operate with a power of 62.5 watts.
11. Two resistors 400 ohm and 800 ohm are connected in series with a 6V battery. It
is desired to measure the current in the circuit. An ammeter of10 ohm resistance
is used for this purpose. What will be the reading in the ammeter? Similarly if a
voltmeter of 10, 000 ohm resistance is used to measure the potential difference
across 400 ohm, what will be the reading of the voltmeter?
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-40
12. Two cells, having emf. of 10 V and 8V respectively, are r2

10 r1 8V
connected in series with a resistance of 24 in the V
external circuit.
If the internal resistances of each of these cells in ohm
are 200% of the value of their emf respectively, find the
R = 24
current in the circuit.
13. A galvanometer having 50 divisions provided with a variable shunt S is used to

measure the current when connected in series with a resistance of 90 and a
battery of internal resistance 10 . It is observed that when the shunt resistances
are10 and 50 respectively, the deflection are respectively 9 and 30 divisions.
What is the resistance of the galvanometer ?
14. Find the current flowing through the branch B 10 V

AC in the steady state as also the charge on
the capacitor C. If the externally applied R
potential are now withdrawn, how will the R
charge on the capacitor vary as a function of
A C
time? (R = 1k , C = 10 F) 5V R 0V
15. In the circuit shown in figure, R1 = 1 , R2 = 2 , R2

C1 = 1 F, C2 = 2 F and E = 6V. Calculate charge R1 C1
on each capacitor in steady state. C2
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-41
LEVEL II
1. A battery of emf 1.4 V and internal resistance 2 is connected to a

100 resistor through an ammeter. The resistance of the ammeter is 4/3 . A
voltmeter is also connected to find the potential difference across the resistor.
(i) Draw the circuit diagram.
(ii) The ammeter reads 0.02A. What is the resistance of the voltmeter?
(iii The voltmeter reads 1.10 V. What is the error in reading?
2. Calculate the potential difference 3 F 1 F

B
between the points A and B between
the points B and C of figure in steady 3 F 1 F
state.
1 F
A 20 10 C
100 V
3. Find the equivalent resistance of the circuits shown in figure between the points a
and b. Each resistor has a resistance r.
a b
a b
4. In network shown in figure below 6 6V

A
calculate potential difference
between A and B. 4V 2 3 1
4V
B
5. In the network of resistors each of B

resistance R as shown in the figure,
calculate the equivalent resistance F
between the junctions A and E.
E G
A C
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-42
6. (a) In the shown circuit all the resistors are of R R C
same resistance R = 11 and C = 2 F. They R

R
are connected through a battery of 10 V. R R
R
When cell is switched on, find
(i) maximum current in the circuit R R
(ii) energy stored in capacitor after time t.
V
7. In the given circuit (see fig.), E1 = 3 volts, R1 E1

E2 = 2 volts, E3 = 6 volts, R1 = 6 , R2 = 2
R3 = 4 , R4 = 3 and C = 5 F. Find the C R2 R3
current in R3 and energy stored in the
capacitor at steady state. E2
R4
E3
8. Find how the voltage across the capacitor C

S
varies with time t (figure) after the shorting
of the switch S at the moment t = 0 E R C
9. In the circuit shown in figure, a voltmeter 30 V

reads 30 V when it is connected across V
300
400 resistance. Calculate what the
same voltmeter will read when it is 400
connected across the 300 resistance.
60 V
10. An ammeter and a voltmeter are connected in series to a battery with emf
E = 6.0 V. When a certain resistance is connected in parallel with the voltmeter,
the reading of the latter decreases = 2.0 times, whereas the reading of the
ammeter increases by the same factor. Find the voltmeter reading after the
connection of the resistance.
11. Three equal resistances each of R ohm R

A C B
are connected as shown in figure. A D
R R
battery of 2 V and internal resistance
0.1 is connected across the circuit.
Calculate the value of R for which the
2V, 0.1
heat generated in the circuit is maximum.
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-43
12. Find the current flowing through the resistance R1 2
of the circuit shown in figure if the resistances are R2
equal to R1 = 10 . R2 = 20 and R3 = 30 and 1

R1
O
the potentials of the points 1, 2, and 3 are equal R3
to 1 = 10V, 2 = 6V and 3 = 5V.
3
13. Find a potential difference A - B between the plates R3 C

of a capacitor C in the circuit shown in figure. If the A B
sources have emf's E1 = 4.0 V and E2 = 1.0 V and the E2
R2 R1
resistances are equal to R1 = 10 , R2 = 20 , and R3
= 30 . The internal resistances of the sources are
negligible E1
14. A constant voltage V = 25 V is maintained R1 C R2

between points A and B of the circuit (figure).
Find the magnitude and direction of the current A B
flowing through the segment CD if the
R3 R4
resistances are equal to R1 = 1.0 , R2 = 2.0 ,
R3 = 3.0 and R4 = 4.0 . D
15. Consider an "alternator chain" shown below

R R
A
2R 2R
B
R R
Find the equivalent resistance between A and B.
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-44

LEVEL I
1. By increasing the temperature the resistance of a conductor

(A) increases. (B) decreases.
(C) remains constant. (D) initially increases then decreases.
2. A battery of emf V volts, resistance R1

R1 R2
& R2, a condenser C and switches S1
and S2 are connected in a circuit as C
V
shown in figure. The capacitor C gets S2
S1
fully charged to V volts when
(A) S1 & S2 are both closed (B) S1 & S2 are both open
(C) S1 closed and S2 open (D) S2 closed & S1 open.
3. The equivalent resistance of

a circuit between A and B is A B
3 6 6
(A) 3 (B) zero.

3
(C) 6 (D)
2
4. In the circuit shown in figure, the voltmeter reading
would be
3V
(A) 0 volt. (B) 0.5 volt. A V
(C) 1 volt. (D) 2 volt. 1 2
5. The V-I graph for a conductor at temperatures T1 and

T2
T2 are as shown in the figure, (T2 T1) is proportional
to V T1
(A) cos 2 (B) sin 2
(C) cot2 (D) tan 2
I
6. If a copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1 % longer. The percentage change in

its resistance is
(A) 0.2 % increase (B) 0.2% decrease
(C) 0.1 % increase (D) 0.1 % decrease
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-45
R1 R2
7. In the circuit shown in figure E1 = 7V, E2 = 7V R1 = R2 =
1 and R3 = 3 respectively. The current through the
E1 E2
resistance R3 is R3
(A) 2A
(B) 3.5A
(C) 1.75A
(D) none of these
8. The figure shows in apart of an electric circuit, then 5A

I
the current I is
6A 1A
(A) 1 A (B) 3A
(C) 2 A (D) 4 A 2A
3A
9. A cell of e.m.f E and internal resistance r is connected across a resistance r. The

potential difference between the terminals of the cell must be
(A) E (B) E/2
(C) E/4 (D) 3E/2
10. A conductor carries a current of 50 A if the area of cross-section of the

conductor is 50 mm2 then value of the current density in Am 2 is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1
1
(C) 10 (D) 3/10
500
11. In the adjoining circuit, the battery E1 has an G
E.M.F. of 12 volts and zero internal resistance.
E1 X E2
While the battery E2 has an E.M.F. of 2 volts if
the galvanometer G reads zero than the value
of the resistance X in ohms is
(A) 10 (B) 100
(C) 14 (D) 200
12. Nine similar resistors of resistance R are connected as A

shown in the figure. Equivalent resistance between points A
and B is
3 4
(A) R (B) R B
5 3
9
(C) R (D) R
5
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-46
1A
13. Referring to the adjoining circuit which of the following is/are A
R
true
(A) R = 80 ohms
4
(B) R = 6 ohms
(C) R = 10 ohms
(D) Potential difference between points A & E is 2V
14. In a gas discharge tube if 3 1018 electrons are flowing per sec from left to right
and 2 1018 protons are flowing per second from right to left a given cross
section the magnitude and direction of current through the cross section
(A) 0.48A, left to right (B) 0.48 A, right
(C) 0.80A, left to right (D) 0.80 A, right to left
15. In a portion of some large electrical network, current in certain branches are
known. The values of (VA - VB) and (VC - VD) are X and Y respectively. Where x
and y are
7A 5V
2 4 6
A
3V 4V 2A B
8 10
9V 3A
D
C
(A) X = 29 V, Y = 26 V (B) X = 58V, Y = 52 V

(C) X = 58 V, Y = 52 V (D) X = 29 V, Y = 26 V
16. A 50 V battery is connected across a 10 resistor and a current of 4.76 A flows. The
internal resistance of the battery is
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.1
(C) 0.2 (D) 0.3
17. For the circuit shown which of the following statements is true ?
V 1 = 30V V2 = 20V
S1 S3 S2
+ +
C1 = 2pF C2 = 3pF
(A) with S1 closed, V1 = 1 5 V, V2 = 20 V

(B) with S3 closed V1 = V2 = 25 V
(C) with S1 & S2 closed, V1 = V2 = 0
(D) with S1 and S3 closed, V1 = 30 V, V2 = 20 V
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-47
18. In the given circuit ammeter and voltmeter are ideal and 3 6 V,1
battery of 6V has internal resistance 1 . The reading of

V 3
voltmeter and ammeter is
3
4 4 A
(A) zero, (B) V, zero
3 3
(C) 6 A, 0.1 A (D) 3.6 V, 0.6A
19. The maximum power dissipated by external resistance R by a cell of an external
emf E and internal resistance r is E2/4R which is obtained for
(A) R < r (B) R > r
(C) R = r (D) any value of R.
20. An electric current of 16 A exists in a metal wire of cross section 10 6 m2 and

length 1m. Assuming one free electrons per atom. The drift speed of the free
electrons in the wire will be
(Density of metal =5 103 kg/m3, atomic weight = 60)
(A) 5 10 3 m/s (B) 2 10 3 m/s
(C) 4 10 3 m/s (D) 7.5 10 3 m/s
21. A circuit consists of a resistance R connected to n similar cells. If the current in

the circuit is the same whether the cells are connected in series or in parallel
then the internal resistance r of each cell is given by
(A) r = R/n (B) r = nR
(C) r = R (D) r = 1/R
22. A cell of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r is connected in series with an external
resistance nr then the ratio of the terminal potential difference to E.M.F. is
1
(A) 1/n (B)
n 1
n n 1
(C) (D)
n 1 n
23. To measure a potential difference across a resistor of resistance R a voltmeter

of resistance Rv is used. To measure the potential with a minimum accuracy of
95 % then
(A) Rv = 5R (B) Rv = 15 R
(C) Rv = 10 R (D) Rv 19 R
24. A cell of E.M.F. E and internal resistance r supplies currents for the same time t
through external resistance R1 and R2 respectively. If the heat produced in both
cases is the same then the internal resistance is
1 1 1 R R2
(A) (B) r = 1
r R1 R 2 2
(C) r = R1R 2 (D) r = R1 + R2
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-48
25. A battery of 10 volt is connected to a resistance of 20 ohm through a variable

resistance R, the amount of charge which has passed in the circuit in 4 minutes,
if the variable resistance R is increased at the rate of 5 ohm/min.
(A) 120 coulomb (B) 120 loge2 coulomb
120 60
(C) coulomb (D) coulomb
loge 2 loge 2
26. ABCD is a square of side 'a' metres and is made of I2 ax

A B
wires of resistance x ohms/metre. Similar wires are I1
connected across the diagonals AC & BD. The ax ax
effective resistance between the corners A & C will be
a 2x
(A) (2 2) ax (B) 6ax a 2x
(C) 3ax (D) (3 2) ax D ax C
27. To get maximum current in a resistance of 3 , one can use n rows of m cells
(connected in series) connected in parallel. If the total no. of cells is 24 and the
internal resistance is 0.5 ohm then
(A) m = 12, n = 2 (B) m = 8, n = 3
(C) m = 2, n = 12 (D) m = 6, n = 4
28. In the circuit below the resistance R has a value that
depends on the current. Specifically, R is 20 ohms
R
when I is zero and the increase in resistance in ohms is 250 V
numerically equal to one half of the current in amperes.
What is the value of current I in circuit ?
(A) 8.33 amp (B) 10 amp
(C) 12.5 amp (D) 18.5 amp
29. The potential difference between points A & B in a section of a circuit shown is
(A) 5 volts (B) 1 volts
(C) zero volts (D) 13 volts
1 amp. 2 amp.
2 2 2 2
1 B
3 amp. A 1
3V 2V
30. Two cells of the same e.m.f. e but different internal + - + -

resistances r1 and r2 are connected in series with an e, R1 e, R2
external resistance 'R'. the potential drop across the
first cell is found to be zero. The external resistance
R is R
(A) r1 - r2 (B) r1 / r2
(C) r1 r2 (D) r1 + r2
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-49
LEVEL II
1. In the circuit shown in the figure the point F is 5

A G C
grounded as shown. Which of the following is
a wrong statement? 2 3
(A) Potential at E is zero
(B) Potential at D is zero A E
10 V 3V
(C) The current in the circuit will be 0.5 A G 4
F
(D) The current in the circuit is same whether or D
not F is grounded
2. Ohms law may be expressed as

(A) potential difference, V I (electric current)
(B) electric current density, J E (electric field)
v
(C) , symbols having usual meaning
I A
v
(D) resistance, R constant
I
3. A wire frame in the form of a tetrahedron ABCD is connected to

a dc source. The resistance of all the edges of the tetrahedron
are equal. Choose the correct statement (s)
(A) the electric current through DC is zero
(B) if we remove anyone of the edges AD, AC, DB or BC, the
change in current remain same
(C) the current through AB is maximum
(D) the change in current will be same if AB or DC is removed
4. A uniform wire of resistance R is bent in the form of a ring. Four C
points A, B, C and D are marked on the ring as shown in the figure.

A battery of emf E may be connected across the ring in two ways : B D
Case I : Battery is connected between B and D
Case II : Battery is connected between A and B.
Choose the correct statement(s)
(A) In each case same current flows out of the battery A
(B) In case I more current comes out of the battery
(C) In case II more current comes out of the battery
(D) In case I resistance is more than in case II
5. A piece of germanium (material used for making semiconductors) and a piece of copper
(material used for making conducting wires) are cooled from room temperature to 85 K.
R1 and R2 be the resistance of the pieces respectively and 1 and 2 are the temperature
coefficients of resistance of materials respectively.
(A) R1 decreases and R2 increases (B) R1 increases and R2 decreases
(C) 1 < 0, 2 >0 (D) 1 > 0, 2 >0
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-50
6. A number of resistors R1, R2, R3, are connected in series such that Rs is the
equivalent resistance of series combination. A current I is flowing in the circuit due to a
potential V applied across the circuit. V 1, V2, V3, .. are potentials across R1, R2,
R3, respectively.
(A) same current I will flow through each resistor
(B) V1 + V2 + V3 + .. = V
R1 R2 R3
(C) V1 = V, V2 V, V3 V ;
RS RS RS
(D) data insufficient
7. A circuit has an equivalent resistance R0. A voltmeter of resistance Ru is applied across
the circuit to measure the potential drop across R 0. The new equivalent resistance of the
circuit is
R 0R
(A) R0 (for R0 < < R ) (B)
R0 R
(C) R0 + R (D) data insufficient
8. In the circuit shown,

2
0.2 F
6V 2.8
(A) a current of 0.9 A flows through 2 resistor when steady state is reached
(B) a potential drop of 4.2 V appears across the resistance 2.8
(C) a potential drop of 1.8 V appears across the capacitor C
(D) a potential 4.2 V appears across the capacitor C
9. In the given circuit the point A is 9 V higher than point B
A B C D
6V 15V 24V
1 2 1
R
(A) R = 1 (B) R = 7
(C) potential difference between B and D is 30 V
(D) potential difference between B and C is 15 V
10. Two identical fuses are rated at 10 A. If they are joined

(A) in parallel, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 20 A
(B) in parallel, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 5 A
(C) in series, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 10 A
(D) in series, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 20 A
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-51
COMPREHENSION
I. A frame is formed by nine identical wires of C R F

R R
resistance R each as shown in the figure. R R
A R B
R R R
D E
1. The equivalent resistance between A and B is

5 1
(A) R (B) R
11 11
15 6
(C) R (D) R
11 11
2. Choose the incorrect statement.

(A) the ratio of current through CF and DE is 1
(B) the ratio of current through CD and FE is 1
(C) the ratio of current through AC and AD is 6/5
(D) the ratio of current through AC and AD is 5/6
3. Choose the correct statement.

(A) C and D are at same potential (B) VC + VE = VA + VB
(C) VD + VF < VA + VB (D) E and C are at same potential
II. The figure shows an potentiometer arrangement. The E = 10V

uniform wire AB (shown in the figure) has a total r=1
resistance of 99 . (The galvanometer shown in figure
has zero resistance) 99 cm
A B
1 Jockey
G
cell
4. When jockey is touchal with wire AB at point C such that AC = 40 cm. There is no
current in galvanometer. So emf of cell is
(A) 4 V (B) 5/4 V
(C) 5 V (D) 6 V
5. If jockey is touched at point B then potential difference across uniform wire AB is

(A) 6.93 volt (B) 8.93 volt
(C) 9.93 volt (D) None of the above
6. If jockey is touched at point A then potential difference across the cell is

(A) 3 volt (B) 2.5 volt
(C) 2 volt (D) None of the above
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-52
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. A battery has an emf E and internal resistance r. A variable resistor R is connected

across the terminals of the battery.
Column I Column II
(A) Current in the circuit is maximum (p) R
when
(B) Potential difference across the (q) R=0
terminals is maximum when
(C) Power delivered to the resistor is (r) E
maximum when i
r
(D) Power delivered to the load is zero (s) r=R
when
(Item of Column I can match one or more than one item in Column II)
2. Assume a tetrahedron ABCD made up of conducting wires, r D
C
each side of which has resistance r. Now match the following r
column : r r
r
A r B
Column I Column II
(A) Two dimensional equivalent of the (p) D
tetrahedron r
r C r
r r
A r B
(B) Equivalent resistance between C and (q) D
r r r
D r
2
A r r
B
C
r
(C) If a battery is connected between any (r) C
two points, the potentials of the other A B
two points are always equal
D
r
(D) If a battery is connected between any (s) C
two points, the electric current coming
out is same
A B
3. Column I shows some circuits and Column II its equivalent resistance between 1 and 2.
(All resistances are equal to R)
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-53
Column I Column II
(A) 1 (p) 8
R
7
2
(B) (q) R
1 2
(C) (r) R
2
1 2
(D) (s) 2R
1 2
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-54

LEVEL- I
1. Apply series parallel concept.

2. Apply KVL and KCL.
3. Apply KVL from A to B.
4. When switch is open V1 and V2 are in series.
5. Find current through Galvanometer
6. Apply KVL, KCL
7. Note that 3, 8 + 6, 2 + 4 and 6 ohm are in parallel.
8. Apply equation for charging of capacitor.
9. Find out resistance of each bulb.
10. Find out resistance of heater, then current through it.
11. Total resistance of the circuit equals to (400 + 800 + 10) ohm.
13. Apply Galvanometer formula. Deflection is proportional to current.
14. For the capacitor charging resistance equals to 2R R / 2R + R, Pd = 5 V.
LEVEL- II
1. First draw diagram.

2. Total potential difference across 3 F and 1 F in the upper branch which are in
series equals to 100 V.
3. Is there a hidden Wheatstone bridge somewhere ?
4. Current flowing in a each loop is independent of the other loop. Find the current
then apply KVL.
5. Note symmetry of the circuit and equipotential points.
6. Write basic differential equation for charging of each capacitors by 18 KVL. First
find the potential difference across C at steady state, time constant equals to
RC
.
2
7. At steady state no current in C. Then apply KVL to remaining circuit.
9. From the data it is clear that voltmeter resistance is such that equivalent
resistance of 400 ohm and Rv is 300 ohm.
10. Apply the concept of shunt resistance.
11. Make A and D as a single point and B and C as common point.
12. Assume potential of point O is 0 and write KCL for point O.
13. No current through C. Apply KVL to remaining circuit.
14. CD has some resistance. Current through CD equals to current through R1
current through R2.
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-55

LEVEL I
E1 E2
R1 R2
1. (a) 2.08 , (b) 3.33 , (c) 3.75 2.
1 1 1
R1 R2 R3
3. (i) vA-vB= 12 v, (ii) A 4. (i) 150 V, 100 V (ii) 125 V, 125 V
1 DIv
5. 6. 1.8 10 3 J
2 A
7. 0.4 A, 1.62 W 8. 5k
9. (a) 80 V, 40 V, 40 V, (b) 40 W 10. 5
11. 4.96 mA, 1.95 V 12. 0.3 A.
13. 233
t
14. 5 mA, 50 C, q(t) = 50 C e 6. 67ms 15. q1=2 C, q2 = 12 C
LEVEL II
1. 200 ohm, 0.23 V 2. 25 V, 75 V
r 4r
3. , 4. - 0.5 V
2 5
7R 1
5. 6. .666 A , CV 2 (1 e t / RC 2
)
12 2
2t
-6 E RC
7. 1.5 A, 14.4 10 J. 8. 1 e
2
9. 22.4 V 10. 2V
11. 0.3 12. 0.202 A
13. - 1V 14. 1A
15. ( 5 + 1)R
26513942
RSM379P4-PH-CE-56

LEVEL I
1. A 2. C
3. D 4. A
5. C 6. A
7. A 8. B
9. B 10. B
11. B 12. A
13. B 14. D
15. C 16. A
17. D 18. D
19. C 20. B
21. C 22. C
23. D 24. C
25. B 26. A
27. A 28. B
29. D 30. A
LEVEL II
1. (A), (B) 2. (A), (B), (D)

3. (A), (B), (C) 4. (C), (D)
5. (A), (C) 6. (A),(B), (C)
7. (A), (B) 8. (A), (B), (C)
9. (B), (C) 10. (A), (C)
COMPREHENSION
1. (C) 2. (C)
3. (B) 4. (A)
5. (A) 6. (D)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (q), (r); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (q), (p), (r)
2. (A) (p), (q), (r), (s); (B) (p), (q), (r), (s); (C) (p), (q), (r), (s); (D) (p), (q), (r), (s)
3. (A) (q); (B) (r); (C) (r); (D) (p)
26513942
RSM79-PH-P5-M-27
MAGNETICS
8. Subjective Problems
LEVEL I
1. Two straight infinitely long and thin parallel wires are spaced 0.1 m apart and
carry a current of 10 ampere each. Find the magnetic field at a point which is at a
distance of 0.1 m from both wires in the two cases when the currents are in the
(a) same and (b) opposite directions (Given o = 4 10-7 Tm/A).
2. A beam of protons with a velocity 4 105 m/sec enters a uniform magnetic field of
0.3 Tesla at an angle of 60o to the magnetic field. Find the radius of the helical path
taken by the proton beam. Also find the pitch of the helix, which is the distance
travelled by a proton in the beam parallel to the magnetic field during one period of
rotation. [Mass of proton =1.67 10-27 Kg, charge on proton = 1.6 10-19 C]
3. A long horizontal wire P carries a current of 50A. It is rigidly fixed. Another fine
wire Q is placed directly above and parallel to P. The weight of wire Q is
0.075 N/m and carries a current of 25A. Find the position of wire Q from P so that
the wire Q remains suspended.
4. A circular coil of average radius 6 cm has 20 turns. A current of 1.0 A passes

through it. Calculate the magnetic induction at
(a) the centre of the coil
(b) at a point on the axis 8 cm away from the centre.
5. (a) A proton is moving in a magnetic field. The field B is into the plane of the
page. The velocity vector v lies in the plane of the page, perpendicular to B .
Describe the motion of proton.
(b) In part (i), if the radius of the circle is 0.5m and the magnitude of the magnetic
field is 1.2 Wbm-2 , find the frequency of revolution and the kinetic energy of
the proton. Charge of the proton = 1.60 10-19 C. Mass of the
-27
proton=1.67 10 kg.
B
6. In the framework of wires shown in figure, a i
current of i amperes is allowed to flow. A

R2
Calculate the magnetic induction at the centre
O. If angle is equal to 90 , then what will be O
the value of magnetic induction at O ? R1
E i
RSM79-PH-P5-M-28
7. A loop of flexible conducting wire of length 0.5 m lies in a magnetic field of 1.0T
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Show that when a current is passed
through the loop, it opens into a circle. Also calculate the tension developed in
the wire if the current is 1.57 amp.
8. A beam of protons move undeviated through a region of space having uniform
transverse electric and magnetic fields. These fields are mutually perpendicular
and their values are 120kv/m and 50 mT respectively. If this beam strikes a
grounded target, then what will be the force exerted by the beam on the larger.
Given that beam current is equal to I = 0.8mA and mass of the
proton= 1.673 10 27 kg .
9. A wire is bent in the form of a circular arc with a

straight portion AB. If current flowing in the wire is i O
i, find the magnetic induction at the centre O. 2 R
A B
C
10. Show that the force on a wire between a y

and b of arbitrary shape of figure is the F
x
same as force on the straight wire between
b
the same two points when they carry the
same current from a to b and are placed in
the same magnetic field. Also find the force.
a
RSM79-PH-P5-M-29
LEVEL II
1. A framework AKLA forming three sides of a square is made B

from a copper wire having cross-sectional area 2.5 10-6 A A
2 i
meter . The framework can turn about a horizontal axis AA, i
as shown in figure. The wire is placed in a vertical uniform

magnetic field. If on passing a current of 16 amp, through the
wire, the framework deflects through an angle = 20o, then K i
what is the value of magnetic induction? Given that density of L
K L
copper = 8.9 gm/c.c.
x
2. The magnetic field existing in a region is given by B Bo 1 k . A square
l
loop of edge and carrying a current i, is placed with its edges parallel to the
X-Y axes. Find the magnitude of the net magnetic force experienced by the loop.
3. A regular polygon of n sides is formed by bending a wire of total length 2 r which

carries a current i. (a) Find the magnetic field B at the centre of the polygon. (b)
By letting n , deduce the expression of the magnetic field at the centre of a
circular current.
y
4. A wire loop carrying a current I is placed in the x-y plane as M
shown in the figure. a v x
(a) If a particle with charge +Q and mass m is placed at 120

o
I R +Q
the centre P and given a velocity v along NP, find its P
o
30
instantaneous acceleration.
(b) If an external uniform magnetic induction field B B i N
is applied, find the force and the torque acting on the
loop due to this field.
5. Two long straight parallel wires are 2 meters apart, perpendicular A

x
to the plane of the paper. The wire A carries a current of 9.6A,
1.6m
directed into the plane of the paper. The wire B carries a current 2m
such that the magnetic field of induction at the point P, at a

S
distance of (10/11) m from the wire B, is zero. Find B
1.2m
(a) the magnitude and direction of the current in B, (10/11)m

(b) the magnitude of the magnetic field induction at the point S, P
(c) the force per unit length on the wire B.
6. A very long wire bent at right angle at O. Now current P

d
I = 10 A is passed in the wire. Find the magnetic
induction at a point P lying on the perpendicular to O
the wire at O at a distance d = 35 cm.
RSM79-PH-P5-M-30
7. In the adjoining diagram, a current-carrying loop pqrs is i1

q
p
placed with its sides parallel to a long current-carrying wire.
The currents i1 and i2 in the wire and loop are 20 A and 16 A a
i2
respectively.
If a = 15 cm, b = 6 cm and d = 4 cm, what will be the force
s r
on current-loop pqrs? What will be the difference in the d b
force, if the current i2 in the loop becomes clockwise instead
of anticlockwise?
y
8. A current i = 5 amp flows through a thin wire as shown in
D
the figure. C
(a) Find the magnetic field produced by the current at point E

G 10cm
O in the figure. F O A
x
(b) If there exists an external magnetic field 20 cm J

B 14 i 14 j T, calculate the torque acting on the wire. H I
9. Two long parallel wires carrying currents 2.5 A P Q

i2=IA
and I A in the same direction (directed into i2=2.5A
x
R v
x x
plane of the paper) are held at P and Q
respectively such that they are perpendicular to r2=2m
the plane of paper. The points P and Q are r1=5m B
located at distance of 5 meters and 2 meters
respectively from a collinear point R.
(a) An electron moving with a velocity of 4 105 m/s along the positive x-
direction experiences a force of magnitude 3.2 10-20 N at the point R. Find
the value of I.
(b) Find all the positions at which a third long parallel wire carrying a current of
magnitude 2.5 amperes may be placed so that magnetic induction at R is zero.
10. The diagram shows combination of three E

(2)
y
R (1)
cuboidal spaces (1), (2) and (3). Space 1 V
Q
0
O x
and 3 contain electric field E as shown 90 P
while space 2 has magnetic field B. A L R/2

(3)
particle of charge q and mass m is
E
projected as shown with velocity V0cos i +
R
V0 sin j .
Find the value of E, so that this particle enters the magnetic field parallel to the x-
axis and just passes through point P along the electric field at that point. Find its
speed at P. (Neglect the effect of gravity)
RSM79-PH-P5-M-31
9. Objective Problems
LEVEL I
1. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance b are carrying a current i
amp each. The magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by one wire on the
other is:
(A) 0(i2/b2) (B) 0i2/2 b
(C) 0i/2 b (D) 0i/4 b
2. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near i

a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to
one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the
loop. If a steady current I is established in the wire as I
shown in the figure, the loop will:
(A) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire (B) move away from the wire
(C) move towards the wire (D) remain stationary
5 cm
3. The resulting magnetic field at the point O due w x
to the current carrying wire shown in the figure:

5 cm
(A) points out of the page
u v O z
(B) points into the page 10A O y 10A
(C) is zero
(D) is the same as due to the segment WX along.
4. A particle enters the region of a uniform

magnetic field as shown in figure. The path
V
of the particle inside the field is shown by
dark line.
The particle is:
(A) electrically neutral
(B) positively charged
(C) negatively charged
(D) information given is inadequate
5. In the given figure, what is the magnetic field induction at I

point O?
r O
I I 0I
(A) 0 (B) 0
4 r 4r 2 r
I 0I I 0I
(C) 0 (D) 0
4r 4 r 4r 4 r
RSM79-PH-P5-M-32
6. An electron is revolving around a proton in a circular orbit of diameter 1A . If it

produces a magnetic field of 14 wb/m2 at the proton, then its angular velocity will
be about
(A) 8.75 1016 rad/s (B) 1010 rad/s
(C) 4 10 15 rad/s (D) 1015 rad/s
7. Electrons at rest are accelerated by a potential of V volt. These electrons enter

the region of space having a uniform, perpendicular magnetic induction field B.
The radius of the path of the electrons inside the magnetic field is:
1 mV 1 2mV
(A) (B)
B e B e
V 1 V
(C) (D)
B B e
8. Two long parallel wires carry currents i2 and i2 (i1 > i2) when the currents are in
opposite direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is
30 T. If the direction of i2 is changed, the field becomes 10 T. The ratio i1/i2 is
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 4
9. An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into

shape as shown in figure. It carries a current I A. r
and the radius of circular loop is r metre. Then the O
magnetic induction at the centre of the circular
loop is:
(A) 0 (B)
i i
(C) 0 ( 1) (D) 0 ( 1)
2 r 2 r
10. A charged particle is released from rest in a region of steady and uniform electric
and magnetic fields which are parallel to each other. The particle will move in a
(A) straight line (B) circle
(C) helix (D) cycloid
C
11. A conductor of mass m and length , carrying current
i (direction as shown in the figure) is placed on
B
smooth inclined making angle with horizontal. A
magnetic field B is directed vertically upwards. Then
for equilibrium of conductor tan is given by
2mg mg
(A) (B)
Bi Bi
mg Bi
(C) (D)
2Bi mg
RSM79-PH-P5-M-33
12. The magnetic field at centre of a hexagonal coil of r/2

r
side carrying a current i is
3 0I I O
(A) (B) 0
4
I
(C) 0
(D) zero
3
13. A conductor AB of length L carrying a current I1 is placed Y
perpendicular to a long straight conductor x-y carrying a

current I2, as shown in the figure. The force on AB has
magnitude is I1
I2
II II A B
(A) 0 1 2 log(2) (B) 0 1 2 log(3) L
2 2 L/2
3 0I1I2 2 0I1I2
(C) (D) X
2 3
14. A current i flows along a thin wire shaped as shown in

figure. The radius of the curved part of the wire is r. The
field at the centre O of the coil is : O
i 0
(A) 0 (B) 0 90
4 r 2 r
A B
i i
(C) 0 (D) 0 (3 +4)
2 r 8 r
15. A particle of mass m and charge q moves with a constant velocity v along the
positive x direction. It enters a region containing a uniform magnetic field B
directed along the negative z direction, extending from x = a to x = b. The
minimum value of v required so that the particle can just enter the region x>b is
qbB qb a B
(A) (B)
m m
qaB q b a B
(C) (D)
m 2m
16. A circular loop of mass m and radius r is kept in a horizontal y

position (X Y plane) on a table as shown in figure. A
uniform magnetic field B is applied parallel to x-axis. The I
current I in the loop, so that its one edge just lifts from the
O x
table, is:
r
(A) mg/ r2 B (B) mg/ rB
(C) mg/2 rB (D) rB/mg
17. In figure there exists uniform magnetic field B into the plane of paper. Wire CD is in the
shape of an arc and is fixed. OA and OB are the wires rotating with angular velocity as
shown in figure in the same plane as that of the arc about point O. If at some instant
OA = OB = and each wire makes angle = 30 with yaxis, the current through
resistance R is (wires OA and OB have no resistance)
RSM79-PH-P5-M-34
D C
y
B R A
B
30 30
O
2
B
(A) Zero (B)
R
2
B B 2
(C) (D) .
2R 4R
18. The wire loop shown in figure carries a current as i
shown. The magnetic field at the centre O is:

i 1 1
(A) zero (B) 0 R2 R1
4 R1 R 2
S R O Q P
0i 1 1 0i 1 1
(C) (D)
4 R2 R1 2 R1 R2
19. The magnetic field strength at a point P distant r due to an

infinite straight wire as shown in the figure carrying a current i is: r P
(A) 0 (B) 0 i/ 2 2 r i r
i
(C) ( 0 i/ 2 r) (D) 0 2 2
4 r
20. A wire bent in the form of a sector of radius r subtending an

angle o at centre, as shown in figure is carrying a current i. The
O
magnetic field at O is:
r
i i
(A) 0 (B) 0 ( / 180 )
2r 2r
i
(C) 0 ( / 360) (D) zero
2r
LEVEL II
1. A particle of charge + q and mass m moving under

Y E
the influence of a uniform electric field E i and a P V B
uniform magnetic field B k follows trajectory from P

a
to Q as shown in figure. The velocities at P and Q
are V i and 2V j respectively. Which of the Q
2a
following statement(s) is/are correct? 2V
RSM79-PH-P5-M-35
3 mv 2
(A) E
4 qa
3 mv 3
(B) Rate of work done by electric field at P is
4 a
(C) Rate of work done by electric field at P is zero
(D) Rate of work done by both the fields at Q is zero.
2. A long, straight wire carries a current along the Z-axis. One can find two points in the X-
Y plane such that
(A) the magnetic fields are equal
(B) the directions of the magnetic fields are the same
(C) the magnitudes of the magnetic fields are equal
(D) the field at one point is opposite to that at the other point.
3. A long striaght wire of radius r carries a current distributed uniformly over its cross-
section. The magnitude of the magnetic field is
(A) maximum at the axis of the wire (B) minimum at the axis of the wire
(C) maximum at the surface of the wire (D) minimum at the surfae of the wire
4. A charged particle of mass 2 kg and charge 2 C moves with a velocity v 8i 6j m/s in
a magnetic field B 2k T. Then
(A) The path of particle may be x2 + y2 = 25.
(B) The path of particle may be x2 + z2 = 25.
(C) The time period of particle will be 3.14 s.
(D) None of these.
5. In the figure, there is a uniform conducting structure in i

which each small square has side a. The structure is kept in G D
A
uniform magnetic field B.
(A) The magnetic force on the structure is 2 2 iBa . E F
O
(B) The potential of point B = potential of point D. a
(C) Potential of point O = potential of point B. B
i
H C
(D) The magnetic force on the structure is 2 iBa . a
6. A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic field. The velocity of the particle at some
instant makes an acute angle with the magnetic field. The path of the particle will be
(A) a circle (B) a helix with uniform pitch
(C) a helix with non uniform radius (D) a helix with uniform radius
7. A striaght conductor carries a current along the x-axis. Consider the pionts A(0, a, 0),
B(0, 0, a), C(0, a, 0) and D (0, 0, a). Then
(A) all four points have magnetic fields in different directions
(B) the magnetic fields at A and C are in opposite direction
(C) the magnetic fields at A and B are mutually perpendicular
(D) all four points have same value of magnetic field in magnitude
RSM79-PH-P5-M-36
8. Select the correct alternative(s) : Two ions of equal masses, one singly-ionised and the
other doubly-ionised, are projected from the same point with the same velocity
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. Then
(A) both ions will describe circles of equal radii
(B) the singly-ionised one will describe a circle of radius double than that of the order
(C) the two circles do not touch each other
(D) the two circles touch each other
9. Two circular coils A and B with their centers lying on the same number of turns and cary
equal currents in the same sense. They are separated by a distance, have different
diameters but subtend same angle at a point P lying on their common axis. The coil B
lies exactly midway between coil A and the point P. The magnetic field at point P due to
coils A and B is B1 and B2 respectively
(A) B1 > B2 (B) B1 < B2
B1 B 1
(C) 2 (D) 1
B2 B2 2
10. When a currentcarrying coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field with its magnetic
moment antiparallel to the field.
(A) Torque on it is maximum (B) Torque on it is zero
(C) Potential energy is maximum (D) Dipole is in unstable equilibrium.
COMPREHENSION
I. A current carrying loop behaves as a small bar magnet. M y

If there is a moving charged particle nearby this loop, a v
the charged particle will experience a magnetic force x
given by Fm q(v B) . I +Q
P
If now a current carrying loop is placed in a uniform
magnetic field B , the loop experiences a torque given N
by I(A B) .
A wire loop carrying a current I is placed in the x-y plane as shown in figure.
1. The direction of magnetic field produced by the loop at point P is

(A) and into the plane (B) and outward to the plane
(C) parallel to the plane (D) none
2. If a particle with charge +Q and mass m is placed at the centre P and given a velocity v
along NP, the instantaneous acceleration of particle is
0.109 0IQv 109 0IQv
(A) (B)
ma ma
10.9 0IQv 1.09 0IQv
(C) (D)
ma ma
RSM79-PH-P5-M-37
3. If an external uniform magnetic induction field B B i is applied, the torque acting on the
loop due to field is
(A) 0.6136 a2IB (B) 6.136 a2IB
2
(C) 61.36 a IB (D) 613.6 a2IB
II.
Statement :
Magnetic force on a charged particle is given by Fm q(v B) and electrostatic force
Fe qE .
Question:
A particle having charge q = 1C and mass m = 1 kg is released from rest at origin. There
are electric and magnetic fields given by :
N
E (10i ) for x 1.8m and
C

B ( 5k)T for 1.8 m x 2.4m
A screen is placed parallel to yz plane at x = 3.0 m. Neglect gravity forces.
4. The speed with which the particle will collided the screen (in m/s) is
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 12
5. ycoordinate the particle where it collides with the screen is m.

0.6( 3 1) 0.6( 3 1)
(A) (B)
3 3
1.2( 3 1)
(C) 1.2( 3 1) (D)
3
6. Time after which the particle will collide the screen is .. second.
1 1 1
(A) 3 (B) 6 3
5 6 3 5 3
1 1 1
(C) 5 (D) 6 3
3 6 3 3 18
MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Column I Column II
2
(A) Unit of magnetic field (p) Am
(B) Unit of magnetic permeability ( 0) (q) N/Am
(C) Unit of magnetic flux ( ) (r) N/A2
(D) Unit of magnetic dipole moment (s) Nm/A

Column I Column II
RSM79-PH-P5-M-38
(A) A light conducting circular flexible loop (p) Magnetic field B is doubled.
of wire of radius r carrying current I is
placed in uniform magnetic field B, the
tension in the loop is doubled if
(B) Magnetic field at a point due to a long (q) Inductance is increased by four
straight current carrying wire at a point times.
near the wire is doubled if
(C) The energy stored in the inductor will (r) Current I is doubled.
become four times
(D) The force acting on a moving charge, (s) Radius r is doubled.
moving in a constant magnetic field will
be doubled if

Column I Column II
(A) (p) B
O x
(perpendicular
to wire) x
Straight current
carrying wire
(B) (q) B
x
O (axis of wire)
Circular current x
carrying wire
(C) (r) B
x
O (perpendicular to the x
i plane of the wires;
O being equidistant)
i
Parallel current carrying
wires in the same plane
(D) (s) B
i
x
(parallel to one
i of the wires) x
Two perpendicular current

carrying wires in the same plane
RSM79-PH-P5-M-39

LEVEL- I
1. Draw a diagram showing the position of the point where the field is to be
determined in relation to the wires.
2. Find the time period of revolution of the proton, and then find the pitch by
multiplying by v|| to B field. Use v = r to find the radius of the helix.
4. Use the expression for B for a circular coil.
5. The proton moves along a circular path ; write Newtons law for this motion.
6. Use the equation for magnetic field due to a circular arc at the centre. Field due
to both the segments are directed inward.
7. Force on a current element i in magnetic field B is F i B . Resolve the
tension radially and equate with F.
9. Find the field at the centre O due to circular part and straight part. Both the fields
add up, being in the same direction (outward).
10. Find the force acting on a small element on then resolve it ab and ot it. Then
add separately for the whole wire.
LEVEL- II
1. Calculate the magnetic force acting on the horizontal section of the wire, the
torque due to the magnetic force balances the torque due to gravity.
2. The magnetic force on all the four sections should be calculated by integration
and then find the vector sum.
3. The B-field at the centre of the polygon is the sum of the fields due to each
individual side.
4. (a) The B - field is calculated at P and then the force is calculated by using
F Q( v B ).
(b) The torque is non-zero and calculated from the expression B , where
iA .
5. The current in B is found by using the condition that the net field at P is zero.
6. Find the filed at P due to two mutual perpendicular portions separately and then
add them vectorically.
7. Forces on ps and qr are unequal and oppositely directed whereas that on pq and
rs are equal and opposite.
9. Apply the equations for magnetic field B due to straight current. Use the Lorentz
force F q( v B) where q = - 1.6 x 10-19 C.
RSM79-PH-P5-M-40

LEVEL I
1. (i) 3.46 10-5 T (ii) 2 10 5 T

2. 1.205 10 2 m, 4.4 10 2 m
3. 3.33 mm
4. (a) 2.09 10-4 T (b) 4.5 10-5 T
5. (a) circular motion (b) 1.83 x 107 Hz, 2.76 x 10-12 J.
0i 2 0i 1 3
6. ,
4 R2 R1 8 R2 R1
7. 0.125 N
8. 2.0 10 5 N
i
9. tan
2 R
10. F = Bi
LEVEL II
3
1. 99 10 T
2. iB0 i
n2 i 0 i
3. (a) 0
tan sin (b)
2 2r n n 2r
0.109 0IQv 0.109 0IQv

4. (a) at an angle 300 to ve x-axis (b) , 0.614 a2 IB
ma a
130
5. (a) 3 A (b) T (c) 2. 88 10-6 N/m
4
6. B=4 10 6 T, = 45 to the horizontal.
4
7. 1.44 10 N.
8. (a) 22.78 T in the direction k (b) 6.7 j i N-m
9. (a)4 A (b)x = 1 m w.r.t R
mV0 2 sin2
10. , V0 cos
2qL
RSM79-PH-P5-M-41
LEVEL - I
1. (B) 1. (D)
2. (C) 2. (A)
3. (B) 3. (B)
4. (A) 4. (D)
5. (C) 5. (C)
6. (A) 6. (B)
7. (B) 7. (B)
8. (C) 8. (B)
9. (D) 9. (D)
10. (A) 10. (C)
LEVEL - II
1. (A), (B), (D) 2. (B),(C),(D)

3. (B), (C) 4. (A), (C)
5. (A), (B), (C) 6. (B), (D)
7. (A), (B), (C), (D) 8. (B), (D)
9. (B), (D) 10. (B), (C), (D)
COMPREHENSION
1. (A) 2. (A)
3. (A) 4. (B)
5. (D) 6. (A)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (q); (B) (r); (C) (s); (D) (p)
2. (A) (p), (r), (s); (B) (r); (C) (q), (r); (D) (p)
3. (A) (s); (B) (q); (C) (p); (D) (r)
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-25
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
LEVEL I
1. An inductor coil stores 32 J of magnetic energy and dissipates energy as heat at

the rate of 320 W when a current of 4A is passed through it. Find the time
constant of the circuit when this coil is joined across an ideal battery.
2. It is desired to set up an undriven L-C circuit in which the capacitor is originally
charged to potential difference of 100.0 V. The maximum current is to be 1.0 A, and
the oscillation frequency is to be 1000 Hz. What are the required values of L and C?
3. A circular ring of diameter 20 cm has a resistance of 0.01 . How much charge
will flow through the ring if it is turned from a position perpendicular to a uniform
magnetic field of 2.0 T to a position parallel to the field?
8.4 10 3H
4. A coil of inductance 8.4 10 3 H and a resistance of 6
6 are connected to a 12V battery as shown in the

figure. Switch is closed at t = 0. At what time is the
magnetic energy in the coil 4.2 10 3Joule? K
12V
5. An inductor-coil of inductance 20 mH having resistance 10 is joined to an ideal

battery of emf 5.0 V. Find the rate of change of the induced emf at t = 0.
6. An inductor-coil carries a steady-state current of 2.0 A when connected across
an ideal battery of emf 4.0 V. If its inductance is 1.0 H, find the time constant of
the circuit.
7. An average emf of 20 V is induced in an inductor when the current in it is
changed from 2.5 A in one direction to the same value in the opposite direction in
0.1 s. Find the self-inductance of the inductor.
8. The figure shows a wire sliding on two x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x

parallel, conducting rails placed at a x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x
separation . A magnetic field B exists in a x xR x x x x x x x x x x x l x x
direction perpendicular to the plane of the x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x
rails. What force is necessary to keep the x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x
wire moving at a constant velocity v?
9. A semicircular copper rod of radius R rotates about an axis passing through one
of its ends and lying in the plane of the rod with an angular speed in a uniform
magnetic field B. Find the emf developed between the two ends of the rod. The
field is perpendicular to the motion of the rod.
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-26
10. A square-shaped copper coil has edges of length 50 cm and contains 50 turns. It
is placed perpendicular to an extended uniform magnetic field of strength 1.0 T
magnetic field. It is rotated in the magnetic field about one of its diagonal with
time period 0.25 s. Find the magnitude of the value of maximum emf induced in
the loop.
LEVEL II
1. A conducting bar of sufficient length is pulled with a constant

velocity in a conducting shaped rail as shown in the figure.
Inward magnetic field of induction B is present inside the X
area bounded by the bar & the rail. Find the external power v
delivered in moving the rail with constant velocity v at time t
(A = area of cross section of the bar, = resistivity of the bar)
2. An LR circuit having a time constant of 50 ms is connected with an ideal battery

of emf . Find the time elapsed before
(a) the current reaches half its maximum values,
(b) the magnetic field energy stored in the circuit reaches half its maximum value.
3. A long solenoid that has 800 turns per meter carries a current i = 3 sin (400t) A.
Find the electric field inside the solenoid at a distance 2 mm from the solenoid
axis. Consider only the field tangential to a circle having its center on the axis of
the solenoid.
4. A metallic rod of length & resistance R is free to

rotate about one of its ends over a smooth, rigid
circular metallic frame of radius in an inward O
magnetic field of induction B. What torque should be B
X
applied by an external agent to rotate the rod with
constant angular velocity ?
5. A sliding conducting bar of mass m, resistance R is B

x
released from rest. It starts sliding due to the current R
drawn from a battery of emf , in a steady inward magnetic m
field. Find the variation of its speed with time. Also find the
terminal speed of the bar.
6. An inductor of inductance 20 mH is connected across a charged capacitor of

capacitance 5 F & resulting L-C circuit is set oscillating at its natural frequency.
The maximum charge q is 200 C on the capacitor. Find the potential difference
across the inductor, when the charge is 100 C.
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-27
7. The current in the inner coil is I = 2t2. b

Find the heat developed in the outer
coil between t = 0 and t seconds. The a
resistance of the inner coil is R and
take b >> a.
8. In the figure shown is a R-L circuit connected P Q

with a cell of emf through a key k. If key k k
is closed find the current drawn by the R
2R
battery
(a) just after the key k is closed
R
(b) long after the key k is closed L
9. A very small circular loop of area 5 10 -4 m2, resistance 2 ohm and negligible
self inductance initially coplaner and concentric with a much larger fixed circular
loop of radius 0.1 m. A constant current of 1.0 A is passed through the bigger
loop. The smaller loop is rotated with constant angular velocity rad/sec about
its diameter. Calculate the (a) induced emf and (b) the induced current through
the smaller loop as a function of time.
10. A wire in the form of a sector of radius and of x x x x x x x x

x x x x x x x x
angle ( = /4) having a resistance R is free to x x x x x x x x
rotate about an axis passing through point O x x x x x x x x
O
and perpendicular to horizontal plane. A vertical
magnetic field B = B0 k exists in the space. If
the sector rotates with constant angular velocity
so that Q Joules of heat is produced per
revolution, find the constant angular velocity.
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-28

LEVEL - I
1. An inductor coil of inductance L is divided into two equal parts and both parts are
connected in parallel. The net inductance is :
(A) L (B) 2L
(C) L/2 (D) L/4
2. An e.m.f. of 5 millivolt is induced in a coil when in a nearby placed another coil,

the current changes by 5 ampere in 0.1 second. The coefficient of mutual
induction between the two coils will be :
(A) 1 Henry (B) 0.1 Henry
(C) 0.1 millihenry (D) 0.001 millihenry
A
3. In figure when key is pressed the ammeter A reads i
ampere. The charge passing in the galvanometer circuit i
of total resistance R is Q. The mutual inductance of the
G
two coils is : C1
C2
(A) Q/R (B) QR
(C) QR/i (D) i/QR
2H
4. The equivalent inductance between points P and
Q in figure is : 2/3H
P
(A) 2 H (B) 6 H
(C) 8/3 H (D) 4/9 H
4H
5. A metal disc of radius R rotates with an angular velocity about an axis

perpendicular to its plane passing through its centre in a magnetic field of
induction B acting perpendicular to the plane of the disc. The induced e.m.f.
between the rim and axis of the disc is:
2B 2R 2
(A) B R2 (B)
BR 2
(C) B R2 (D)
2
6. In the circuit shown in the adjoining diagram R1 i1 i2 R3

S i3
E = 10 volts, R1 = 2 ohms, R2 = 3 ohms, R3 = 6 ohms
and L = 5 henry. The current i1 just after pressing the E R2 L
switch S is :
(A) 2.5 amp (B) 2 amp
(C) 5/6 amp (D) 5/3 amp
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-29
7. A rectangular coil pqrs is moved away from an infinite,

straight wire carrying a current as shown in figure. Which of s r
the following statements is correct?
i
(A) There is no induced current in coil pqrs
p q
(B) The induced current in coil pqrs is in the clockwise sense
(C) The induced current in the coil pqrs is in anticlockwise
direction
(D) None of the above
8. The switch S is closed in the circuit shown at time t = 0. L =2mH
The current in the resistor at t = 0 and t = are

respectively.
(A) 0, 0 Amp. (B) 1, 0 Amp. C=2 F 10
(C) 0, 1 Amp. (D) 1, 1 Amp.
S 10 V
9. The two loops shown in the figure, have their planes

parallel to each other. A clockwise current flows in the
loop X as viewed from X towards Y. The two coils will
repel each other, if the current in the loop X is : X Y
(A) increasing (B) decreasing

(C) constant (D) none of the above cases
10. A coil of area 500 cm2 having 1000 turns is placed such that the plane of the coil
is perpendicular to a magnetic field of magnitude 4 10 5 weber/m2. If it is
rotated by 180 about an axis passing through one of its diameter in 0.1 sec, find
the average induced emf.
(A) zero. (B) 30 mV
(C) 40 mV (D) 50 mV
11. For the L shaped conductor in a uniform magnetic field

B shown in figure, the emf across its ends when it x x
x
rotates with angular velocity ' ' about an axis through
one of its ends O and normal to its plane will be x x
O
(A) 2 B 2 (B) B 2 x
1 x
(C) B 2 (D) 4 B 2
2
12. A coil of inductance 8.4 mh and resistance 6 is connected to a 12 V battery.

The current in the coil is 1.0 A approximately after time
(A) 500 ms (B) 20 s
(C) 35 ms (D) 1 ms
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-30
13. A uniform but time-varying magnetic field B(t) exists in a r

circular region of radius a and is directed into the plane of
x x
the paper, as shown. The magnitude of the induced
x ax P
electric field at point P at a distance r from the centre of x
the circular region is
(A) is zero (B) proportional to r

(C) proportional to 1/ r (D) proportional to 1/r2
14. A conductor of length 5 cm, and A

resistance 2 is moving on
frictionless rails with a constant R
R=4
velocity of 5 cm/s in a magnetic R
v=5 cm/sec R
field of intensity 3 tesla as shown R
below. If conductor is connected B
to a circuit as shown, by two lead
wires of almost negligible
resistance, then current flowing
in it is
(A) 0.25 A (B) 2.5 Amp
(C) 2.5 mA (D) 0.25 10 4 amp
R
15. A wire cd of length , mass m, is sliding without friction on
a b
conducting rails ax and by as shown in figure. The vertical <
rails are connected to one another via an external <
resistance R. The entire circuit is placed in a region of space c d
having a uniform magnetic field B. The field is to the plane

of circuit & directed outwards. The steady speed of rod cd is
y
(A) mg R/B (B) mg R/B2 2 x
2
(C) mg R/B (D) mg R/B2
16. A thin circular-conducting ring having N turns of radius R is
falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field
B
B. At the position MNQ, the speed of ring is v, the induced
e.m.f. developed across the ring is N
v
(A) Zero
M Q
BV R 2N
(B) and M is at higher potential
2
(C) N BRv and Q is at higher potential
(D) 2RBvN and Q is at lower potential
17. A circular loop of radius 1m is kept in a A

magnetic field of strength 2 T directed
perpendicular to the plane of loop. Resistance 1 m/s
of the loop wire is 2/ /m. A conductor of
length 2 m is sliding with a speed 1 m/s as
shown in the figure. Find the instantaneous B
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-31
force acting on the rod [Assume that the rod

has negligible resistance]
(A) 8 N (B) 16 N
(C) 32 N (D) 64 N
18. Two coils A and B have 200 and 400 turns respectively. A current of 1 A in coil A
causes a flux per turn of 10 3 Wb to link with A and a flux per turn of 0.8 10 3
Wb through B. The ratio of self-inductance of A and the mutual inductance of A
and B is :
(A) 5/4 (B) 1/1.6
(C) 1.6 (D) 1
19. A uniform conducting rod of mass M and length oscillates in a vertical plane
about a fixed horizontal axis passing through its one end with angular amplitude .
There exists a constant and uniform horizontal magnetic field of induction B
perpendicular to the plane of oscillation. The maximum e.m.f. induced in the rod is
B B
(A) 27 3 g 1 cos (B) 27 3 g 1 cos
8 8
3 3 g 1 cos 3 3 g 1 cos
(C) B (D) B
4 4
20. A copper rod moves with a constant angular velocity , about

a long straight wire carrying a current I. If the ends of the rod
from the wire are at distances a and b, then the e.m.f. induced
in the rod is I
i(wa) b i(wb) b a
(A) 0 ln (B) 0 ln
2 a 2 a b
0 iw(a b) b
(C) zero (D) ln
4 a
21. The time required for a current to attain the maximum value in a d.c. circuit
containing L and R, depends upon :
(A) R only (B) L only
(C) L/R (D) none of these
20
22. Consider the shown arrangement. When key k is
pressed, the steady value of current in 20 L=0.2H
resistance is :
(A) 0.1 A (B) 0.25 A
30
(C) 0.017 A (D) zero
V=5V K
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-32
B
23. The resistances P, Q, R and S in the bridge shown are
adjusted such that the deflection in the galvanometer G P Q
is zero when both the keys K1 and K2 are inserted. The G
galvanometer will show a momentary deflection, if : A C

K2
(A) first K2 is inserted and then K1 S
(B) first K1 is inserted and then K2 R

L
(C) K1 and K2 are both inserted but an additional D
resistance is put in the arm BD
(D) in all the above cases
K1
24. When a J shaped conducting rod is rotating in its

own plane with constant angular velocity about one l
L
of its ends P, in a uniform magnetic field B (directed
Q
normally into the plane of paper)then magnitude of P
emf induced across it will be
1
(A) B L2 l 2 (B) B L2
2
1 1
(C) B L2 l 2 (D) B l 2
2 2
25. The equivalent inductance between 2H 4H

points P and Q in the figure is 6H
8H
(A) 9 H P Q
2H 4H
(B) (24/13) H
(C) (12/13) H
(D) 12 H
LEVEL II
1. The SI unit of the inductance, the henry, can be written as

(A) weber / ampere (B) volt second / ampere
(C) joule / ampere 2 (D) ohm second
2. Two different coils have self-inductance L1 = 8 mH, L2 = 2mH. The current in one coil is
increased at a constant rate. The current in the second coil is also increased at the same
constant rate. At a certain instant of time, the power given to the two coils is the same.
At that time the current, the induced voltage and the energy stored in the first coils are i1
V1 and W 1 respectively. Corresponding values for the second coil at that instant rate i 2,
V2 and w2 respectively. Then :
i 1 i
(A) 1 (B) 1 4
i2 4 i2
w2 V 1
(C) 4 (D) 2
w1 V1 4
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-33
3. The magnetic flux linked with a conducting coil depends on time as = 4tn + 6, where
n is positive constant. The induced emf in the coil is e
(A) If 0 < n < 1; e 0 and |e| decreases with time.
(B) If n = 1; e is constant.
(C) If n > 1; |e| increases with time.
(D) If n > 1; |e| decreases with time.
4. In figure, there is a conducting ring having resistance R A

placed in the plane of paper in a uniform magnetic field B0.
If the ring is rotating about in the plane of paper about an r
axis passing through point O and perpendicular to the C B
plane of paper with constant angular speed in clockwise
direction.
(A) Point A will be at higher potential than O.
(B) The potential of point B and C will be same. O
(C) The current in ring will be zero.
2B0 .r 2
(D) The current in the ring will be .
R
5. In the figure shown there exists a uniform time varying A
magnetic field B = [(4 T/s) t + 0.3 T] in a cylindrical region + + +

+ +
of radius 4 m. An equilateral triangular conducting loop is + +
+ + O+
placed in the magnetic field with its centroide on the axis of + + ++
+
the field and its plane perpendicular to the field. B + + + C
(A) e.m.f. induced in any one rod is 16 V + +
(B) e.m.f. induced in the complete ABC is 48 3 V

(C) e.m.f. induced in the complete ABC is 48 V
(D) e.m.f. induced in any one rod is 16 3 V
6. An electron moves in a uniform magnetic field and follows a sprial

path as shown in figure. Which of the following statements is/are
correct
(A) Angular velocity of electron remains constant

(B) Magnitude of velocity of electron decreases continuously
(C) Net force on the particle is always perpendicular to its direction of motion
(D) Magnetic force on the electron is always perpendicular to direction of motion
decreases continuously
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-34
7. A small magnet M is allowed to fall through a fixed horizontal conducting ring R. Let g be
the acceleration due to gravity. The acceleration of M will be
M
(A) < g when it is above R and moving towards R

(B) > g when it is above R and moving towards R
(C) < g when it is below R and moving away from R
(D) > g when it is below R and moving away from R
8. The conductor AD moves to the right in a uniform magnetic field directed into the paper
D

v
B
A

(A) The free electrons in AD will move towards A
(B) D will acquire a positive potential with respect to A
(C) If D and A are joined by a conductor externally, a current will flow from A to D in AD
(D) The current in AD flows from lower to higher potential
9. The loop shown moves with a velocity v in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B,
directed into the paper. The potential difference between P and Q is e
L
v P
L L/2
B Q
1
(A) e Blv (B) e = Blv
2
(C) P is positive with respect to Q (D) Q is positive with respect to P
10. The magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of a conducting ring of radius r changes at
the rate
dB/dt.
dB
(A) The emf induced in the ring is r 2
dt
dB
(B) The emf induced in the ring is 2 r
dt
(C) The potential difference between diametrically opposite points on the ring is half of
the induced emf
(D) All points on the ring are at the same potential
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-35
COMPREHENSION
I. In figure, a square loop consisting of an inductor of L

inductance L and resistor of resistance R is placed
between two long parallel wires. The two long straight i0cos t R i0cos t
wires have time varying current of magnitude I = I0 cos t
but the direction of current in them are opposite.
a a
3a
1. Total magnetic flux in this loop is
Ia 2 0Ia
(A) 0 ln 2 (B) ln 2
4 0Ia 0Ia
(C) ln2 ln 2 . (D)
2
2. Magnitude of emf in this circuit only due to flux change associated with two long straight
current carrying wires will be
aln 2 I0 2 0 aln 2 I0
(A) 0 sin t (B) sin t
0 aln 2 I0 0 aln 2 I0
(C) cos t (D)
cos t .
2
3. The instantaneous current in the circuit will be
2 0 aln2 I0 2 0aln2 I0
(A) sin( t ) (B) sin( t )
2 2 2
R L R2 2 2
L
0 aln 2 I0 0 aln 2 I0
(C) sin t (D) sin( t ).
R2 2 2
L R2 2 2
L
L
(where tan ).
R
II. A person wants to roll a solid non-conducting y
spherical ball of mass m and radius r on a surface
whose coefficient of static friction is . He placed the
ball on the surface wrapped with n turns of closely i
B
packed conducting coils of negligible mass at the
diameter. By some arrangement he is able to pass a
current i through the coils either in the clockwise
x
direction or in the anti-clockwise direction.
A constant horizontal magnetic field B is present throughout the space as shown in the
figure. (Assume is large enough to help rolling motion)
4. If current i is passed through the coils the maximum torque in the coil is
(A) nir2 B k (B) nir2B j
(C) nir2B j (D) nir2B k
5. Angular acceleration of the ball after it has rotated through an angle ( < 180o), is
5 niB 2 niB
(A) cos (B) cos
7 m 5 m
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-36
7 niB 5 niB
(C) cos (D) cos
5 m 2 m
6. The minimum value of for which the rolling motion is possible, is
14 niB 5 niB
(A) r (B) r
5g m 7g m
7 niB
(C) 0 (D) r
5g m
MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Column I Column II
(A) LCR circuits (p) Resonant curve will be flattened
(B) Inductor (q) Sharpness indicates sensitivity
(C) More of friction or dampness (r) 1
Have resonant frequency with A
LC
Amax
(D) Radio Tuners characteristic curve (s) Mass
2. A conducting circular rigid loop near a long straight y-axis

current carrying wire as shown. Match the following
table :
i x-axis
Column I Column II
(A) If current is increased (p) Induced current in the loop is clockwise
(B) If current is decreased (q) Induced current in the loop is
anticlockwise
(C) If wire is moved away from the wire (r) Wire will attract the loop and there will be
maintaining constant current a torque about yaxis
(D) If wire is moved towards the wire (s) Wire will repel the loop and there will be
maintaining constant current no torque about yaxis
Column I Column II
(A) If an iron core is inserted in the current (p) Capacitor.
carrying solenoid, the quantities which
increases are
(B) The initial current in the circuit will be (q) Resistance.
zero when a resistance and battery in
series is connected to
(C) In L-C oscillation the maximum energy (r) Magnetic flux.
for an instant will be stored in
(D) A current carrying closed conducting (s) Inductance, inductor.
loop can have
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-37

LEVEL- I
L
1. Time constant =
R
2. Maximum current = q0
Cha n g e of flux
3. Charge flown =
Re sis tan ce
4. First find current at the given time.
5. Find expression for induced emf across the inductor.
6. First find resistance.
di
7. EMF induced = L ; di is charge of current in dt second.
dt
8. Find current through the sliding wire first.
9. It behaves as a straight rod of length 2R.
10. Find expression for emf induced at any instant t.
LEVEL- II
1. External power delivered = force on the rod due to magnetic field velocity of
the rod.
2. Use L-R circuit charging equation
r dB dB
3. Electric field = where r = 2mm, = rate of charge of magnetic field.
2 dt dt
4. Considering motion of the rod in horizontal plane only ; first find out current
through the rod, then force on a small element on the rod due to external
magnetic field.
5. Write equation of motion of the rod at any instant.
6. Use an L-C oscillating circuit relation.
7. Find flux enclosed by the smaller loop due to magnetic field of the larger loop.
8. Remember an inductor is an open circuit at t = 0 and shorting at t =
9. Find flux enclosed by the smaller loop due to magnetic field of the larger loop.
10. Induced current will flow while the loop enters in to field and again while it comes
out. There will be no current when the loop is completely in the magnetic field.
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-38
12. Answers to the Subjective Problems

LEVEL - I
1. 0.2 s. 2. C = 1.59 F, L = 15.9 mH
3. 2 Coulombs. 4. 0.97ms
5. 2.5 103 v/s 6. 0.5 s
B2 2 v
7. 0.4 H 8.
R
9. 2 B R2 10. 100 volts
LEVEL - II
2B 2 Av 3 tan ln2
1. t 2. (a) s (b) ( 50 10 3) ln(0.3) sec
20
B2 4
3. 1.2 10-3 cos 400t v/m 4.
4R
B2 2 t
E E
5. 1 e mR
; 6. 20 V
B B
2 2
4 a4 t3 3
7. 0
2
8. (a) (b)
bR 3 2R 5R
-9
9. (a) Induced emf = AB sin t = 3.14 10 sin t
9
(b) Induced current = 1.57 10 sin t
8QR
10.
B2 4
RSM79-P5-PH-EMI-39
13. Answers to the Objective Problems

LEVEL - I
1. (D) 2. (C)
3. (C) 4. (A)
5. (D) 6. (B)
7. (B) 8. (D)
9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (D)
13. (C) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (D)
17. (B) 18. (B)
19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (D)
23. (A) 24. (C)
25. (A)
LEVEL - II
1. (A), (B), (C), (D) 2. (A), (C), (D)

3. (A), (B), (C) 4. (A), (B), (C)
5. (B), (D) 6. (A), (B), (D)
7. (A), (C) 8. (A), (B), (C), (D)
9. (A), (C) 10. (A), (D)
COMPREHENSION
1. (A) 2. (A)
3. (D) 4. (A)
5. (A) 6. (B)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING

1. (A) (q), (r); (B) (s); (C) (p); (D) (q)
2. (A) (r), (s); (B) (p), (r); (C) (p), (s); (D) (q), (s)
3. (A) (r), (s); (B) (s); (C) (p), (s); (D) (p), (q), (r), (s)
c-11-09-2002
ALTERNATING CURRENT
LEVEL - I
1. If the voltage in an ac circuit is represented by the equation, v=220 2 sin(314t )

V. Calculate (a) peak and rms value of the voltage (b) average voltage
(c) frequency of AC.
2. Find the maximum value of current when inductance of two henry is connected to
150V, 50 cycle supply?
3. A coil of resistance 300 and inductance 1.0 henry is connected across an

alternately voltage of frequency 300/2 Hz. Calculate the phase difference
between the voltage and current in the circuit.
4. A 0.21H inductor and a 12 resistance connected in series to a 220V, 50Hz ac

source. Calculate the current in the circuit and the phase angle between the
current and the source voltage.
5. A capacitor of 10 F and an inductor of 1H are joined in series. An ac of 50Hz is

applied to this combination. What is the impedance of the combination?
6. A coil has a inductance of 1 henry.

(a) At what frequency will it have a reactance of 3142 ?
(b) What should be the capacity of a condenser which has the same reactance at
that frequency?
7. A 100mH inductor, a 25 F capacitor and a 15 resistor are connected in series

to a 120V, 50Hz a.c. source. Calculate
(a) impedance of the circuit at resonance.
(b) current at resonance.
(c) Resonant frequency.
8. Find the value of an inductance which should be connected in series with a

capacitor of 5 F, a resistance of 10 and an ac source of 50Hz so that the
power factor of the circuit is unity.
9. A voltage of 10V and frequency 1000Hz is applied to a 0.1 F capacitor in series

with a resistor of 500 . Find the power factor of the circuit and the average
power dissipated.
10. The inductance of a choke-coil is 0.2 henry and its resistance is 0.50 . If a
current of 2.0 ampere (rms value) and frequency 50Hz be passed through it,
what will be the potential difference across its ends?
FIITJEE Ltd. ICES House, Sarvapriya Vihar (Near Hauz Khas Bus Term.), New Delhi - 16, Ph : 2686 5182, 26965626, 2685 4102, 26515949 Fax : 26513942
RSM79-PH-P4-AC-2
FIITJEE Ltd. ICES House, Sarvapriya Vihar (Near Hauz Khas Bus Term.), New Delhi - 16, Ph : 2686 5182, 26965626, 2685 4102, 26515949 Fax :26513942
RSM79-PH-P4-AC-3
LEVEL - II
1. When 100Volt D.C. is applied across a coil, a current of one ampere flows
through it, when 100V ac of 50Hz is applied to the same coil, only 0.5amp flows.
Calculate the resistance and inductance of the coil.
2. A 50W, 100V lamp is to be connected to an ac mains of 200V, 50Hz. What

capacitance is essential to be put in series with the lamp.
10 F
3. A 10 F capacitor, an inductor and a resistor of L
100 are connected to an alternating source of 100
emf 200 2 sin100t as shown in the figure. What
is the r.m.s current in the circuit and the value of
the inductance if the current and the source
voltage attain their maxima simultaneously?
What is the average power consumed in this 200 2 sin100t
case?
4. A 200Km long telegraph wire has capacity of 0.014 F /km. If it carries an

alternating current of 50KHz, what should be the value of an inductance required
to be connected in series so that impedance is minimum?
5. A coil of negligible resistance is connected in series with 90 resistor across a

120V - 60Hz line. A voltmeter reads 36V across the resistance. Find the voltage
across the coil and inductance of the coil.
6. An ac source of angular frequency is fed across resistor R and a capacitor C is

series. The current registered is I. If now the frequency of source is changed to
( but maintaining the same voltage), the current in the circuit is found to be
3
halved. Calculate the ratio of reactance to resistance at the original frequency .
7. An alternating current of 1.5mA and angular frequency = 300 rad/s flows

through 10K resistor and a 0.50 F capacitor in series. Find the r.m.s. voltage
across the capacitor and impedance of the circuit?
8. A 750 Hz, 20 V source is connected to a resistance of 100 , an inductance of

0.1803 H and a capacitance of 10 F all in series. Calculate the time in which the
resistance (thermal capacity 2 J/ C) will get heated by 10 C. (Ignore radiation)
9. In the circuit shown there is a box and capacitance C C

connected to alternating power source of angular
frequency of 2 rad/s. Box has power factor 1 2 and
circuit has overall power factor 1. Find the impedance of
the box. ~
RSM79-PH-P4-AC-4
10. In the given circuit, power factor A B

between A and B is 0.5 and over all R L
power factor of the circuit is 1. Find V0sin10t
C = 2mF
the value of R and L.
***
RSM79-PH-P4-AC-5

LEVEL - I
1. The frequency for which a 5.0 F capacitor has a reactance of 1000 is given by
1000 100
(A) cycles / sec (B) cycles / sec
(C) 200 cycle /s (D) 5000 cycles /sec
2. In an a.c. circuit V and I are given by V = 50 sin50t volt and I = 100 sin(50t + /3)
mA. The power dissipated in the circuit
(A) 2.5 kW (B) 1.25 kW
(C) 5.0 kW (D) 500 watt
3. The average power dissipation in pure inductance in ac circuit, is

1
(A) 2
(B) 2Li2
2Li
Li2
(C) (D) zero.
4
4. Circuit as shown in figure below, choose R L C

the correct statement.
(A) current in resistance R and current in
inductor L will be in 90 phase difference. a.c. source
(B) potential drop across R and potential drop across L will be in same phase.
(C) current through C and current through L will be in 90 phase difference.
(D) current in R and current in L will be in same phase.
5. In a series L, R, C, circuit which is connected to a.c. source. When resonance is

obtained then net impedance Z will be
I
(A) Z = R (B) Z = L
C
1
(C) Z = L (D) Z =
C
6. An L,C, R series circuit is connected to a.c. source. At resonance, the applied
voltage and the current flowing through the circuit will have a phase difference of
(A) /4 (B) zero.
(C) (D) /2
7. The reciprocal of impedance is called

(A) reactance. (B) admittance.
(C) inductance. (D) conductance.
8. The root-mean-square value of an alternating current of 50Hz frequency is 10
ampere. The time taken by the alternating current in reaching from zero to
maximum value and the peak value of current will be
(A) 2 10 2 sec and 14.14 amp. (B) 1 10 2 sec and 7.07 amp.
(C) 5 10 3 sec and 7.07 amp. (D) 5 10 3 sec and 14.14 amp.
RSM79-PH-P4-AC-6
9. A coil of resistance 2000 and self-inductance 1.0 Henry has been connected to
an a.c. source of frequency 2000/2 Hz. The phase difference between voltage
and current is
(A) 30 (B) 60
(C) 45 (D) 75
10. In a series resonant circuit, the a.c. voltage across resistance R, inductance L
and capacitance C are 5V, 10V and 10V, respectively. The a.c. voltage applied to
the circuit will be
(A) 20V (B) 10V
(C) 5V (D) 25V
11. In the given figure, which voltmeter will read zero V1 V2 V3

voltage at resonant frequency rad/sec?
(A) V1 (B) V2 R L C
(C) V3 (D) V4 V4
E=Eosin t
12. A resistance R is connected in series with capacitance C Farad value of

impedance of the circuit is 10 and R = 6 so, find the power factor of circuit.
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.6
(C) 0.67 (D) 0.9
13. In a R, L, C circuit, three elements is connected in series by an a.c. source. If

frequency is less than resonating frequency then net impedance of the circuit will be
(A) capacitive (B) inductive
(C) capacitive or inductive. (D) pure resistive.
14. Using an A.C. voltmeter, the potential difference in the electrical line in a house is
read to be 234 volts. If the line frequency is known to be 50 cycles per second,
the equation for the line voltage is
(A) V = 165 sin(100 t) (B) V = 331 sin(100 t)
(C) V = 234 sin(100 t) (D) V = 440 sin(100 t)
15. In an a.c. circuit, containing an inductance and a capacitor in series, the current
is found to be maximum when the value of inductance is 0.5henry and of
capacitance is 8 F. The angular frequency of the input A.C. Voltage must be
equal to
(A) 500 (B) 5 104
(C) 4000 (D) 5000
16. An alternating voltage E (in volts) = 200 2 sin (100t) is connected to a 1 F

capacitor through an a.c. ammeter. The reading of the ammeter shall be
(A) 10mA (B) 20mA
(C) 40mA (D) 80mA
17. In a series R, L, C circuit XL = 10 , XC = 4 and R = 6 . Find the power factor of
the circuit.
RSM79-PH-P4-AC-7
1 3
(A) (B)
2 2
(C) 1/2 (D) none of the these.
18. In LCR circuit the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. For the same resonant
frequency, the inductance should be changed from L to
(A) 2L (B) L/2
(C) L/4 (D) 4L
19. A resistance (R) = 12 ; inductance (L) = 2 henry and capacitive reactance C = 5

mF are connected in series to an ac generator
(A) at resonance, the circuit impedance is zero.
(B) at resonance, the circuit impedance is 12 .
(C) the resonance frequency of the circuit is 1/2 .
(D) at resonance, the inductive reactance is less than the capacitive reactance.
20. In an A.C. circuit, the current is I = 5 sin(100 /2) amp and the A.C. potential is V
= 200 sin(100t) volt. Then the power consumption is
(A) 20 watts (B) 40 watts
(C) 1000Watts (D) 0 watts
LEVEL - II
1. An LC circuit has capacitance C1 = C and inductance L1 = L. A second circuit has

C2 = C/2 and L2 = 2L and third circuit has C3 = 2C and L3 = L/2. All the three capacitors
are charged to the same potential V and then made to oscillate. Then
(A) angular frequency of oscillation is same for al the three circuits
(B) maximum current is greatest in first circuit
(C) maximum current is greatest in second circuit
(D) maximum current is greatest in third circuit.
2. An LCR circuit with 100 resistance is connected to an ac source of 200 V and angular
frequency 300 rad/s. When only the capacitance is removed the current lags behind the
voltage by 60. When only the inductance is removed, the current leads the voltage by
60. Then in LCR circuit the current and power dissipated are :
(A) 2A (B) 1A
(C) 200W (D) 400W.
3. A current of 4A flows in a coil when connected to 12V dc source. If the same coil is
connected to a 12V, 50 rad/s source, a current of 2.4 A flows in the circuit. Then
(A) R = 4 (B) R = 3
(C) L = 4H (D) 0.08 H.
4. In the circuit shown in the figure R = 50 , E1 = 25 3 volt and R
1
E2 = 25 6 sin ( t) volt where = 100 s . The switch is
closed at t = 0 and remains closed for 14 minutes, then it is
opened ~ S
(A) The amount of heat produced in the resistor is 63000 J. 1
2
(B) The amount of heat produced in the resistor is 7000 J.
RSM79-PH-P4-AC-8
(C) If total amount of heat produced is used to heat 3 kg of water at 20C, the final
temperature will be 25C.
(D) The value of direct current that will produce same amount of heat in same time
through same resistor will be 1.5 A.
5. An alternating voltage (in volts) varies with time t (in seconds) as V = 200 sin (100 t)
(a) The peak value of the voltage is 200 V
(b) The rms value of the voltage is 220 V
(c) The rms value of the voltage is 100 2 V
(d) The frequency of the voltage is 50 Hz
6. A electric heater is connected to 100 V, 60 Hz ac supply.

(a) The peak value of the voltatge is 100 V
(b) The peak value of the current in the circuit is 2 2 A
(c) The rms value of the voltage is 100 V
(d) The rms value of the current is 2 A
7. L, C and R respectively represent inductance, capacitance and resistance. Which of the

following combinations have the dimensions of frequency ?
(a) R/L (b) 1/RC
(c) R / LC (d) 1/ LC
8. The network shown in figure is part of a circuit. The battery has negligible internal
resistance. At a certain instant the current I = 5 A and is decreasing at a rate of
103 As1. At that instant, the potential difference
E = 15 V L = 5mH
I
A R=1 B
(a) across L is 5 mV (b) across L is 5 V
(c) between points A and B is 15 V (d) between points A and B is 25 V
9. In a series LCR circuit

(a) the voltage VL across the inductance leads the current in the circuit by a
phase angle of / 2
(b) the voltage VC across the capacitance lags behind the current by a phase
angle of / 2
(c) the voltage VR across the resistance is in phase with the current
(d) the votage across the series combination of L, C and R is V = VL + VC + VR.
10. To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy, one can use
(a) DC dynamo (b) AC dynamo
(c) motor (d) transformer
RSM79-PH-P4-AC-9
COMPREHENSION
I. In the given circuit at t = 0, switch S is closed.
5mH 10 10V 20 F
S
2
1. The current through 10 resistor at any instant t; 0 < t < will be
1000 1000
1 t 5 t
(A) e 3 (B) e 3
6 6
1000 1000
1 3 t 6 3 t
(C) e (D) e .
6 5
95. The energy stored in the inductor at any instant t; 0 < t < will be
1000 1000
1 t 125 t
(A) (5 5e 3 )2 mJ (B) (1 e 3 )2 mJ
2 2
1000 1000
25 t 5 t
(C) (1 e 3 )2 mJ (D) (1 e 3 )2 mJ .
2 2
96. The energy stored in the capacitor and inductor respectively as t will be
(A) 1 mJ and 62.5 mJ (B) 62.5 mJ and 1 mJ
(C) 2 mJ and 62.5 mJ (D) 1 mJ and 60 mJ.
II. The figure represents variation of peak current i0 with i0

applied frequency of the AC source of three different LCR
1
circuits having different resistances. The value of
inductance L and capacitance C are same for all the three
2
circuits.
3
97. If R1, R2 and R3 be the resistance of circuit 1, 2 and 3 respectively, then

(A) R1 > R2 > R3 (B) R1 < R2 < R3
(C) R1 > R2 = R3 (D) R1 = R2 = R3
900 40
98. If R1 = 1 , R2 = 5 , R3 = 10 and L = mH, C = F, then the value of 0 is
(A) 250 Hz (B) 125 Hz
250 250
(C) Hz (D) Hz
6 3
99. In the previous question, the frequency with which energy oscillates between
Electric Field Energy and Magnetic Field Energy, is
1 1
(A) (B)
4 LC LC
1
(C)
2 LC
(D) the energy in the electric field does not oscillate
RSM79-PH-P4-AC-10
MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Column I Column II
(A) For square wave having peak value v0 (p) v0 > vrms > vav
(B) For sinusoidal wave having peak value v0 (q) In a pure inductance.
(C) Current leads the voltage by /2 (r) vav = vrms = v0
(D) Wattless current (s) In a pure capacitance

Column I Column II
(A) In LR series circuit if switch is closed (p) Current at t = 0 is nonzero
at t = 0 (u sin of DC source)
(B) In LC series combination switch is (q) Nothing can be said about the
closed at t = 0 (if initially the capacitor is current
fully charged
(C) If voltage V=V0 sin t is applied to pure (r) Current in the circuit is zero at t = 0
inductor at t = 0
(D) If voltage V = V0 sin t is applied at t (s) Magnetic field energy in inductor is
= 0 to LCR series circuit zero at t = 0
RSM79-PH-P4-AC-11

LEVEL - I
1. (a) 311V, 220V (b) 0 (c) 50Hz

3
2. A 3. /4
2 2
4. 3.28A, 79.7 5. 4.47

6. (a) 500Hz. (b) 0.11 F
20
7. (a) 15 (b) 8A (c) 100.7 Hz 8. 2
9. (a) PF = 0.3, PAV = 0.018 W 10. 125.6V
LEVEL - II
1. 100 , ( 3/ ) Hz. 2. 9.2 F

3. 2A, 10H, 400W 4. 0.303 H
3
5. 114V, 0.76H 6.
5
7. 10V, 1.2 104 8. 5.8 min
1
9. 10. 100 , 5H
C 2
***
RSM79-PH-P4-AC-12

LEVEL - I
1. (B) 2. (B)
3. (D) 4. (A)
5. (A) 6. (B)
7. (D) 8. (D)
9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (B)
13. (A) 14. (B)
15. (A) 16. (B)
17. (A) 18. (C)
19. (B) 20. (D)
LEVEL - II
1. (A), (D) 2. (A), (D)

3. (B), (D) 4. (A), (C), (D)
5. (A), (C), (D) 6. (B), (C), (D)
7. (A), (B), (C) 8. (B), (C)
9. (A), (B), (C) 10. (A), (B)
COMPREHENSION
4. (B) 5. (B)
6. (A) 7. (B)
8. (D) 9. (B)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (r); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (q), (s)
2. (A) (r), (s); (B) (r), (s); (C) (p); (D) (q)
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-37
OPTICS
LEVEL I
1. A thin converging lens forms a magnified image (magnification :p) of an object.

The magnification factor becomes q when the lens is moved a distance a
towards the object. Find the focal length of the lens.
2. A parallel beam of light is incident normally onto a solid glass sphere of radius R
( = 1.5). Find the distance of the image from the outer edge of the glass sphere.
3. A point object is placed in front of a silvered plano-convex lens of
refractive index n, radius of curvature R, so that its image is O
formed on itself. Calculate the object distance.

4. A convex lens focuses a distant object on a screen placed 10 cm away from it. A
glass plate (n = 1.5) of thickness 1.5 is inserted between the lens and the screen.
Where should the object be placed so that its image is again focused on the
screen?
5. A parallel beam of light tavelling in water (refractive index = 4/3) is refracted by a
spherical air bubble of radius 2 mm situated in water. Assuming the light rays to
be paraxial (i) find the position of image due to refraction at first surface and
position of final image. (ii) draw a ray diagram showing the position of both
images.
6. Find the focal length of the lens shown in the 1 < 2 < 3
figure. The radii of curvature of both the surfaces 3
1 2
are equal to R.
R R
7. A converging lens which has a focal length of 20 cm is placed 60 cm to the left of

a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. An object is placed 40 cm to the left of
lens. Find the position, nature and magnification of the final image.
8. A cylindrical glass rod has its two coaxial ends of
spherical form bulging outward. The front end has a
radius of curvature 5 cm and the back end which is O P
silvered has a radius of curvature 8 cm. The
50 cm
thickness of the rod along the axis is 10 cm. R = 5 cm R = 8 cm 1 2
Calculate the position of the image of a point object

at the axis 50 cm from front face (ang = 1.5)
9. A thin bi-convex lens of refractive index 3/2 and radius of curvature 50cm is placed
on a reflecting convex surface of radius of curvature 100cm. A point object is placed
on the principal axis of the system such that its final image coincides with itself. Now
few drops of a transparent liquid is placed between the mirror and lens such that final
image of the object is at infinity. Find refractive index of the liquid used. And also find
position of the object.
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-38
10. An object of height 2.5 cm is placed at a 1.5 f from a concave mirror where f is
the magnitude of the focal length of the mirror. The object is placed perpendicular
to the principal axis. Find the height of the image. Is the image erect or inverted ?
11. In Young's double slit experiment the fringe width obtained is 0.6 cm, when light
of wavelength 4800 A0 is used. If the distance between the screen and the slit is
reduced to half, what should be the wavelength of light used to obtain fringes
0.0045-m width?
12. In a Young's double slit experiment, the slits are 1.5 mm apart. When the slits
are illuminated by a monochromatic light source and the screen is kept 1 m apart
from the slits, width of 10 fringes is measured as 3.93 mm. Calculate the
wavelength of light used. What will be the width of 10 fringes when the distance
between the slits and the screen is increased by 0.5 m. The source of light used
remains the same.
13. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 6500Aand 5200A is used to

obtain interference fringes in a Youngs double slit experiment. Find the distance
of the third fringe on the screen from the central maximum for the wavelength
6500A.
14. In a two-slit experiment with monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a

screen placed at some distance from the slits. If the screen is moved by 5 10-2
m towards the slits, the change in fringe width is 3 10-5 m. If the distance
between the slits is 10-3 m, calculate the wave length of the light used.
15. At a certain point on a screen the path difference for the two interfering rays is
(1/8)th of a wavelength. Find the ratio of the intensity at this point to that at the
centre of a bright fringe.
16. Figure shows three equidistant slits being C
illuminated by a monochromatic parallel beam of d
light. Let BP0 AP0 = /3 and D >> . B
(a) Show that in this case d = 2 D/3. d

A
(b) Show that the intensity at P0 is three times the P0
intensity due to any of the three slits D

individually.
17. Two sources S1 and S2 emitting light of wave lengths S2
600 nm are placed at a distance of 1.0 10 2 cm. A

detector can be moved on the line S1P which is d
perpendicular to S1S2. Find out the position of first P
minimum detected. S1 D
18. White light may be considered to have from 4000 A0 to7500 A0. If an oil film
has thickness 10-6 m, deduce the wavelengths in the visible region for which the
reflection among the normal direction will be (i) weak, (ii) strong. Take of the
oil as 1.40.
19. Find the maximum intensity in case of interference of n identical waves each of
intensity I0 if the interference is (a) coherent (b) incoherent
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-39
20. A monochromatic light of = 5000 A0 is incident on two identical slits separated

by a distance of 5 10 4 m. The interference pattern is seen on a screen placed
at a distance of 1m from the plane of slits. A thin glass plate of thickness
1.5 10 6 m and refractive index = 1.5 is placed between one of the slits and
screen. Find the intensity at the centre of the screen if the intensity there is I0 in
the absence of the plate. Also find the lateral shift of the central maxima.
LEVEL II
1. The image of the object O, shown in f = 30 cm
the figure is formed at the bottom of the /4

O
tank filled with water. Using the values
given in the figure, calculate the value 36 cm 1m
85 cm
of h, i.e. the water level in the tank.
h
2. (a) The refracting angle of a prism is equal to /2. It is given that is the angle of
minimum deviation and is the deviation of the ray at grazing incidence.
Prove that sin = sin2 and cos = cos
(b) A ray of light passes through a prism, deviation equal to the angle of
incidence which, again, is equal to 2 . It is given that is the angle of prism.
1
Show that cos2 = 2
, where is the refractive index of the material
8 1
of prism.
3. A right angled prism (45o - 90o - 45o) of refractive index n has A
a plate of refractive index n1 (n1 < n) cemented to its diagonal

n1
face. The assembly is in air. A ray is incident on AB.
(i) Calculate the angle of incidence at AB for which the ray n
strikes the diagonal face at the critical angle. B C

(ii) Assuming n = 1.352, calculate the angle of incidence at AB
for which the refracted ray passes through the diagonal
face undeviated.
4. Three thin equi-convex lenses each of focal length f are separated by distance
f apart. A point object is placed at a distance of 3f in front of the first lens. Find
the position of the final image.
5. A cylindrical vessel of radius R and height 3a is completely filled
with three different immiscible liquids each of height a and n1 a
having refractive indices n1, n 2 and n3 (where n1>n2>n3)>1. A a
n2
point object is placed at the centre of the bottom of the vessel.
n3 a
The rays just suffer total internal reflection at the edge of the
vessels mouth. Find the radius of curvature of the vessel.
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-40
6. A point object is placed at a distance of 0.3 m L1

from a convex lens (focal length 0.2 m) cut into
two halves each of which is displaced by 5 S 0.0005 m
10-4m as shown in the figure. Find the position
of the image. If more than one image is
formed, find their number and the distance L2
between them. 0.3 m
7. A convex lens is divided into two parts at a y
distance 5 mm from the centre and the

two parts are placed at a separation of 5 5 mm 5 mm
x
mm as shown. A concave lens is also (0, 0) 5 mm 5 mm
divided into two parts but in the opposite

sense that of convex lens. The focal
lengths of convex and concave lenses are 90 cm 20 cm
30 cm and -50 cm respectively. Find the

co-ordinate(s) of real images when an
object is placed at a distance of 90 cm
from the plane of the convex lens.
8. Two thin convex lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 Y

L2
are separated by a horizontal distance d (where L1
d < f1, d < f2) and their centres are displaced by a

vertical separation as shown in figure. Taking
O X
the origin of coordinates O, as the centre of first
lens, what would be the x and y coordinates of
the focal point of this lens system, for a parallel d
beam of rays coming from the left ?
9. A convex lens of focal length 15 cm and a concave A

mirror of focal length 30cm are kept with their optic B
P
axes PQ and RS parallel but separated in vertical R
0.6
S
Q
direction by 0.6 cm as shown. The distance between

the lens and the mirror is 30 cm. An upright object
AB of height 1.2 cm is placed on the optic axis PQ of 30 cm 20 cm
the lens at a distance of 20 cm from the lens. If A B

is the image after refraction from the lens and
reflection from the mirror, find the distance of A B
from the pole of the mirror and obtain its
magnification . Also locate positions of A and B with
respect to the optic axis RS.
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-41
10. A transparent solid sphere of radius 2 cm and density

10 cm
floats in a transparent liquid of density 2 kept in a beaker. 2 cm
The bottom of the beaker is spherical in shape with its radius
of curvature 8 cm and is silvered to make it a concave mirror h
as shown in the figure. When an object is placed at a
distance of 10 cm directly above the centre of the sphere its
final image coincides with it. Find h (as shown in the figure),
the height of the liquid surface in the beaker from the apex of
the bottom. Consider paraxial rays only. The refractive index
of the sphere is (3/2) and that of the liquid is (4/3).
11. Sodium light has two wavelengths 1 = 589 nm and 2 = 589.6 nm. As the path
difference increases, when is the visibility of the fringes minimum ?
12. In Youngs double slit experimental setup as TA = T0

shown in the figure, the two glass plates A and S1
B each of thickness TA = T0 and TB = T0 + t2
(where is constant, t is time in sec) are placed d
S O
in the paths of rays of light coming from S1 and TB = T0+ t2
Screen
S2
S2. Find out the minimum time after which the
central maxima position O will again appear D
bright in the presence of light of wavelength .

[Take = refractive index of glass]
13. Two transparent slabs having equal thickness 0.45 mm S

and refractive indices 1.40 & 1.42 are pasted on the
S1
two slits of a double slit aparatus. The separation of O
slits equals 1 mm. Wavelength of light used equals S2
600 nm. The screen S is placed at a distance 1 m from
the plane of the slits. Find the position(s) of first
maxima from the centre O of the screen.
14. A vessel ABCD of 10cm width has two small

A D
slits S1 and S 2 sealed with identical glass
plates of equal thickness. The distance S1
P
between the slits is 0.8 mm. POQ is the line O
Q
perpendicular to the plane AB and passing S 2
40cm
through O, the middle point of S1 and S2. A
monochromatic light source is kept at S, 40cm 2m 10 cm
S C
below P and 2m from the vessel, to illuminate B
the slits as shown in the figure below.

Calculate the position of the central bright fringe on the other wall CD with respect to
the line OQ. Now, a liquid is poured into the vessel and filled up to OQ. The central
bright fringe is found to be at Q. Calculate the refractive index of the liquid.
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-42
15. Consider the situation of the interference experiment P Q

P
set up as shown in the figure. The S1S2 part of the set
air
up is put in a medium whose refractive index varies rn
as = 0(1 + x) where x is the displacement from 0
0
the line PP . [Take (D>>d, D>>r) and =constant].

S O
(a) Find the nature of fringes obtained on the screen. S1
II
(b) Find the distance of nth bright fringe from the I
mediu
III
m
central fringe on the screen. [take to be small]. d Air Screen
Taking 0 as refractive index in medium I and III

P Q
and also of S1 and S2 sources.
16. In the Youngs Double Slit

experiment the point source S S 1
P
is placed slightly off the 1mm 10mm 5mm
central axis as shown in the S

O
2
figure. 1m 2m
(a) Find the nature and
order of the interference
at the point P.
(b) Find the nature and order of the interference at O.
(c) Where should we place a film of refractive index = 1.5 and what should be
its thickness so that a maxima of zero order is placed at O?
17. In a modified Youngs double-slit experiment, a monochromatic, uniform and

parallel beam of light of wavelength 6000 and intensity (10/ ) W-m-2 is incident
normally on two circular apertures A and B of radii 0.001 m and 0.002 m
respectively. A perfect transparent film of thickness 2000 and refractive index
1.5 for the wavelength of 6000 is placed in front of aperture A (figure).
Calculate the power (in watt) received at the focal spot F of the lens. The lens is
symmetrically placed with respect to the apertures. Assume that 10% of the
power received by each aperture goes in the original direction and is brought to
the focal spot.
18. In the Youngs double slit experiment the space

between the light source and the two slits is filled = 4/3 S1
Air
with a liquid of refractive index 4/3. Whereas the S
medium between the slits and screen is air. Find Screen
the position of the first bright fringe from the central S2
maxima?
D = 2 m and d = 0.25 mm and medium = 5000A .
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-43
19. The Youngs double slit experiment is done in a medium of Y

refractive index 4/3. A light of 600 nm wavelength is falling
on the slits having 0.45 mm separation. The lower slit S2 is S1
covered by a thin glass sheet of thickness 10.4 m and O
refractive index 1.5. the interference pattern is observed S2
on a screen placed 1.5 m from the slits as shown in figure.
(a) Find the location of the central maximum (bright fringe with zero path difference) on
the y-axis.
(b) Find the light intensity at point O relative to the maximum fringe intensity.
(c) Now, if 600 nm light is replaced by white light of range 400 to 700 nm, find the
wavelengths of the light that from maxima exactly at point O.
[All wavelengths in this problem are for the given medium of refractive index 4/3.
Ignore dispersion.]
20. Two plane mirrors, a source of light S S1
(emitting monochromatic light of

wavelength ) and screen are placed as
shown in the figure. Now whole of the d
setup is kept in a liquid of medium = S
Wood plate
4/3. If the angle is very small, find out P

O
the position of third minima on the screen
in terms of , r, R and .
=4/3
S2 R
r
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-44

LEVEL I
1. If the behavior of light rays through a convex lens is as

shown in the adjoining figure, then;
(A) = 2 (B) < 2
(C) > 2 (D) 2
2. A ray of light is incident at the glass-water interface at an Air
angle i, it emerges finally parallel to the surface of water, W = 4/3

r
then the value of g would be Water r
(A) (4/3)sin(i) (B) [1/sin(i)]
(C) 4/3 (D) 1 Glass i
3. A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of
the lens is covered by an opaque screen :
(A) half of the image will disappear (B) image will not form on the screen.
(C) intensity of image will increase (D) intensity of image will decrease
4. A spherical convex surface separates object and image space of refractive index
1 and 4/3 respectively. If radius of curvature of the surface is 0.1 m, its power is :
(A) 2.5 D (B) 2.5 D
(C) 3.3 D (D) 3.3 D
5. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that the angle of
incidence is equal to the angle of emergence and latter is equal to 3/4th the angle
of prism. The angle of deviation is :
(A) 45o (B) 39o
o
(C) 20 (D) 30o
6. A liquid is placed in a hollow prism of angle 60o. If angle of the minimum

deviation is 30o, what is the refractive index of the liquid?
(A) 1.41 (B) 1.50
(C) 1.65 (D) 1.95
7. A prism can produce a minimum deviation in a light beam. If three such prisms
are combined, the minimum deviation that can be produced in this beam is:
(A) 0 (B)
(C) 2 (D) 3
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-45
8. The face PR of a prism QPR of angle 30 o is silvered. A P
ray is incident on face PQ at an angle of 45o as shown

in figure. The refracted ray undergoes reflection on
face PR and retraces its path. The refractive index of 45
0
the prism is :
(A) 2 (B) 3/ 2
Q R
(C) 1.5 (D) 1.33
9. A particle moves towards a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm along its axis
and with a constant speed of 4 cm/ sec. What is the speed of its image when the
particle is at 90 cm from the mirror?
(A) 2 cm/ sec. (B) 8 cm/sec.
(C) 1 cm/sec. (D) 4 cm/sec.
10. A thin prism of glass is placed in air and water successively. If a g = 3/2 and
a w = 4/3, then the ratio of deviations produced by the prism for a small angle of
incidence when placed in air and water is :
(A) 9 : 8 (B) 4 : 3
(C) 3 : 4 (D) 4 : 1
11. A thin prism P1 with angle 4o and made from glass of refractive index 1.54 is
combined with another thin prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.72 to
produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of the prism P2 is :
(A) 5.33o (B) 4o
(C) 3o (D) 2.6o
12. Focal lengths of two lenses are f and f and dispersive powers of their materials
are and . To form achromatic combination from these, which relation is
correct?
(A) = 0, = 2 0, f = 2f (B) = 0, = 2 0, f = 2f
(C) = 0, = 2 0, f =f/2 (D) = 0, = 2 0, f = f/2.
13. A lens of refractive index is put in a liquid of refractive index . If the focal
length of the lens in air is f, its focal length in liquid will be
f 1 f
(A) (B)
1
1 f
(C) (D)
f
14. A convex lens, a glass slab, a glass prism and a spherical solid ball have been
prepared from the same optically transparent material. Dispersive power will be
possessed by:
(A) the prism only (B) the convex lens and the prism
(C) all except glass slab. (D) all the four
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-46
15. A beam of white light is incident on a hollow prism of glass as shown in the
figure. Then
(A) The light emerging from prism gives no spectrum
(B) The light emerging from prism gives spectrum but the bending i
of all colours is away from base. White
(C) The light emerging from prism gives spectrum, all the colours light
bend towards base, the violet most and red the least.
(D) The light emerging from prism gives spectrum, all the colours
bend towards base, the violet the least and red the most.
16. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours

is incident on a right-angled prism. The refractive indices
of the material of prism for the above red, green and blue
wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively. The
prism will: 45
o
(A) separate part of the red colour from the green

and blue colours
(B) separate part of the blue colour from the red and green colours
(C) separate all the three colours from one another
(D) not separate even partially any colour from the other two colours.
17. A convex lens A of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens B of focal length 5 cm
are kept along the same axis with a distance d between them. If a parallel beam
of light falling on A leaves B as a parallel beam, then the distance d in cm will be:
(A) 25 (B) 15
(C) 10 (D) 30
18. When the distance between the object and the screen is more than 4f, we can
obtain the image of the object on the screen for the two different positions of a
convex lens of focal length f. If I1 and I2 be the sizes of the two images, then the
size of the object is:
(A) (I1 + I2)/2 (B) I1 I2
(C) (I1 I2) (D) (I1/I2)
19. A layered lens as shown in the figure is made of two

types of transparent materials indicated by different
shades. A point object is placed on its axis. The object
will form:
(A) 1 image (B) 2 images
(C) 3 images (D) 7 images
20. In the displacement method, a convex lens is placed in between an object and a
screen. If the magnification in the two positions be m1 and m2 and the
displacement of the lens between the two positions is X, then the focal length of
the lens is :
(A) X/(m1 m2) (B) X/|m1 m2 |
(C) X/|m1 + m2 | (D) X/(m1 m2)2
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-47
21. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed.
The maximum and minimum intensities in the resulting beam are
(A) 5I and I (B) 5I and 3I
(C) 9I and I (D) 9I and 3I
22. In Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is . If the entire arrangement
is now placed inside a liquid of refractive index , the fringe width will become
(A) (B) /
(C) (D)
1 1
23. In a Young's double slit experiment, let S1 and S2 be the two slits, and C be the
centre of the screen. If S1CS2= and is the wavelength, the fringe width will be
(A) (B)
(C) 2 / (D) /2
24. The speed of light in air is 3 10 8 m/s. If the refractive index of glass is 1.5, find
the time taken by light to travel a distance 50 cm in glass.
(A) 2.5 10 9 sec. (B) 0.5 10 9 sec.
(C) 0.16 10 9 sec. (D) 3 10 9 sec.
25. In the Youngs double slit experiment, films of thickness tA and tB and refractive
indices A and B are placed in front of A and B respectively. If AtA = BtB , the
central maximum will
(A) not shift
(B) shift towards A
(C) shift towards B
(D) option (B), if tB > tA and option (C) if tB < tA
26. In the Youngs double slit experiment both the slits are similar. If the length of
one of the slits is halved, which of the following is true?
(A) Bright fringes becomes narrower. (B) Bright fringes become wider.
(C) Dark fringes become darker. (D) Dark fringes become brighter.
27. Waves from two different sources overlap near a particular point. The amplitude
and the frequency of the two waves are same. The ratio of the intensity when the
two waves arrive in phase to that when they arrive 900 out phase is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
28. Instead of using two slits as in Young's experiment, if we use two separate but
identical sodium lamps, which of the following occur ?
(A) general illumination (B) widely separate interference
(C) very bright maximum (D) very dark minimum
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-48
29. For best contrast between maxima and minima in the interference pattern of
Young's double slit experiment, the intensity of light emerging out of the two slits
should be
(A) equal (B) double
(C) small (D) large
30. The path difference between two interfering waves at a point on a screen is 11.5
times the wavelength. The point is
(A) dark (B) bright
(C) neither dark nor bright (D) data is inadequate
31. In an interference pattern produced by two identical slits, the intensity at the site
of maxima is I. When one of the slit is closed, the intensity at the same spot is I0.
What is the relation between I and I0
(A) I = 2I0 (B) I = 4I0
(C) I = 16I0 (D) I = I0
32. In a Youngs double slit experiment, the position of first bright fringe coincides
with S1 and S2 respectively on the either side of central maxima. What is the
wavelength of the light used? [Take D = 1m and d = 1.2 mm]
(A) 3600A (B) 5400A
(C) 7200A (D) none of these.
33. In a Young's double slit experiment, if the slits are of unequal width,
(A) fringes will not be formed
(B) the positions of minimum intensity will not be completely dark.
(C) bright fringe will not be formed at the centre of the screen
(D) distance between two consecutive bright fringes will not be equal to the
distance between two consecurive dark fringes.
34. Two identical coherent sources of light S1 and S2 separated by

a distance 'a' produce an interference pattern on the screen. S1
The wave length of the monochromatic light emitted by the
sources is . The maximum number of interference fringes
S2
that can be observed on the screen is nearly equal to
2a a D
(A) +1 (B)
a
(C) (D) 1
a
35. In Young's double slit experiment, we get 60 fringes in the field of view of
monochromatic light of wavelength 4000 A0. If we use monochromatic light of
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-49
wavelength 6000 A0, then the number of fringes obtained in the same field of
view is
(A) 60 (B) 90
(C) 40 (D) 1.5
36. In Young's double slit experiment, the 7th maximum with wavelength 1 is at a
distance d1 and that with wavelength 2 is at a distance d2 . Then d1/d2 is
(A) 1/ 2 (B) 2 / 1
2 2 2 2
(C) 1/ 2 (D) 2 / 1
37. In a two slit experiment with white light, a white fringe is observed on a screen
kept behind the slits. When the screen is moved away by 0.05 m, this white
fringe
(A) does not move at all
(B) gets displaced from its earlier position
(C) becomes coloured
(D) disappears
38. A source emits electromagnetic waves of wavelength 3m. One beam reaches
the observer directly and other after reflection from a water surface, travelling
1.5m extra distance and with intensity reduced to 1/4 as compared to intensity
due to the direct beam alone. The resultant intensity will be
(A) (1/4) fold (B) (3/4) fold
(C) (5/4) fold (D) (9/4) fold
39. Ratio of intensities of two waves are given by 4 :1. Then the ratio of the
amplitudes of the two waves is
(A) 2 :1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
40. In the Young's experiment with sodium light, the slits are 0.589 m apart. What is
the angular width of the fourth maximum ? Given that = 589 nm.
(A) sin-1 (3 10-6) (B) sin -1 (3 10-8)
(C) sin-1 (0.33 10-6) (D) sin-1 (0.33 10-8)
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-50
LEVEL II
1. An image of a bright square is obtained on a screen with the aid of a convergent lens.
The distance between the square and the lens is 40 cm. The area of the image is nine
time larger than that of the square. Select the correct statement(s) :
(A) Image is formed at a distance 120 cm from lens.
(B) Image is formed at a distance 360 cm from lens.
(C) Focal length of lens is 30 cm.
(D) Focal length of lens is 36 cm.
2. In a prism of angle A and refractive index , the maximum deviation occurs when
(A) the angle of incidence is 90
(B) the angle of incidence may be is sin 1 2
1sin A cos A
1
(C) the angle of emergence is sin sin A C
(D) the angle of emergence is equal to the angle of incidence
3. A lens of focal length f is placed in between an object and screen at a distance D. The
lens forms two real images of object on the screen for two of its different positions, a
distance x apart. The two real images have magnifications m1 and m2 respectively (m1 >
m2).
x
(A) f (B) m1m2 = 1
m1 m 2
D2 x 2
(C) f (D) D 4f.
4D
4. An interference pattern is formed on the screen, when light from two different
monochromatic sources are allowed to interfere. Then, it is true that,
(A) frequencies of light from the two sources are equal to each other
(B) the sources are coherent
(C) the sources should be located in the same medium
(D) the path difference should either be an even or, an odd multiple of , where is the
2
wavelength of light
5. A thin paper of thickness 0.02 mm having refractive index 1.45 is pasted across one of
the slit in a Youngs double slit experiment. The paper transmits 4/9 of light falling on it.
( light = 600 nm).
(A) Amplitude of light wave transmitted through the paper will be 2/3 time of incident
wave.
(B) The ratio of maximum and minimum intensity in the fringe pattern will be 25.
(C) The total number of fringe crossing the centre if an identical paper is pasted on the
other slit is 15.
(D) The ratio of maximum and minimum intensity in the pattern will be 5.
6. For refraction through a small angled prism, the angle of minimum deviation :
(A) increases with the increases in R.I. of the prism
(B) will be 2D for a ray of R.I. 2.4, if it is D for a ray of R.I. 1.2
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-51
(C) is directly proportional to the angle of the prism

(D) will decrease with the increase in R.I. of the prism
7. The radius of curvature of the left and right surface of the concave lens are 10 cm and
15 cm respectively. The radius of curvature of the mirror is 15 cm :
Water
Air
(n=4/3)
Glass
(n=3/2)
(A) equivalent focal length of the combination is 18 cm
(B) equivalent focal length of the combination is + 36 cm
(C) the system behaves like a concave mirror
(D) the system behaves like a convex mirror
3
8. A point object is placed at 30 cm from a convex glass lens g of focal length 20
2
cm. The final image of object will be formed at infinity if :
(A) another concave lens of focal length 60 cm is placed in contact with the previous
lens
(B) another convex lens of focal length 60 cm is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the
first lens
(C) the whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 4/3
(D) the whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 9/8
9. The upper portion of lens is painted black in situation as shown in figure. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct :
(A) the intensity of image will reduce by a factor of 2

(B) the distribution of brightness of image will not be symmetric
(C) the lower half of image will be brighter than upper half
(D) the upper half of image will be brighter than lower half
10. In a Youngs double-slit interference experiment the fringe pattern is observed on a

screen placed at a distance D. The slits are separated by d and are illuminated by light
of wavelength . The distance from the central point where the intensity falls to half the
maximum is :
D D
(A) (B)
3d 2d
D D
(C) (D)
d 4d
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-52
COMPREHENSION
I. A ray of light enters a spherical drop of water of

refractive index as shown in the figure.
1. Select the correct statement :

(A) Incident rays are partially reflected at point A.
(B) Incident rays are totally reflected at point A.
(C) Incident rays are totally transmitted through A.
(D) None of these.
2. An expression of the angle between incidence ray and

emergent ray (angle of deviation) as shown in the figure is
(A) 0 (B)
(C) (D) 4 + 2 . A
3. Consider the figure of question 8, the angle for which minimum deviation is produced
will be given by
2 2
1 1
(A) cos2 (B) cos2
3 3
2 2
1 1
(C) sin2 (D) sin2 .
3 3
II. A thin biconvex lens of refractive index 3/2 is placed on a horizontal

plane mirror as shown in the figure. The space between lens and the
mirror is then filled with water of refractive index 4/3.
It is found that when a point object is placed 15 cm above the lens
on the principal axis the object coincides with its own image.
4. At what distance object should be placed before water is filled so that image coincides
with object if R is radius of curvature of lens
(A) 1.5 R (B) R
(C) 2R (D) R/2
5. In the above experiment when water is present, and parallel rays are incident then it will
converge at a distance
(A) 2.25 cm (B) 15 cm
(C) 10 cm (D) 7.5 cm
6. On repeating the above experiment in which water is replaced by a liquid of refractive
index image again coincide at a distance 25 cm from the lens then refraction index of
liquid is
(A) 1.5 (B) 1.4
(C) 1.8 (D) 1.6
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-53
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. An object located between the focus and the pole of a concave mirror moves towards
the pole with a constant velocity along its principal axis. Consider the image formed by
paraxial rays. Let 0 and I represent the magnitudes (absolute values) of the angles
subtended by the object and its image at the pole of the mirror respectively; and let m be
I
defined as . Use the New Cartesan Sign Convention.
0
Column I Column II
(A) Velocity of image (p) Positive.
(B) Acceleration of image (q) Negative.
(C) d 0 (r) Zero.
, i.e., the rate at which 0
dt
changes with time
(D) dm (s) Changes from positive to negative.
dt
2. A ray of light strikes at the boundary separating two media at 1
angle . 1 and 2 are refractive indices of media with ( 2 > 1).
Column I Column II
(A) (p)
1 1 1 1
When sin then deviation in sin
2 2 2
the path of ray is
(B) Maximum deviation in the path of ray (q)
1 1
for refraction at boundary 2 sin
2
(C) Maximum deviation in the path of ray (r) Zero

for reflection at the boundary
(D) Deviation in the path at grazing angle of (s)
1 1
incidence sin sin
2
3. A plane mirror is tied to the free end of an ideal spring. The Mirror
V
other end of the spring is attached to a wall. The spring with
mirror is held vertically to the floor, can slide along it smoothly.
When the spring is at its natural length, the mirror is found to 2V
be moving at a speed of V with respect to ground frame. An
object is moving towards the mirror with speed 2V with respect
to ground frame. Then, Match the following :
Column I Column II
(A) Speed of image with respect to ground (p) V
frame when spring is at natural length
(B) Speed of image with respect to mirror (q) O
when spring is at natural length
(C) Speed of image with respect to object (r) 2V
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-54
when spring is at natural length

(D) Speed of image with respect to ground (s) 3V
frame when spring is at maximum
compressed state
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-55

LEVEL I
apq R ( 2 n)
1. 2.
q p 2 (n 1)
3. R/n 4. 190cm, right of the lens
3R
5. 5 mm from left of 2nd surface 6.
3 1
7. 60 cm behind the mirror, virtual & inverted, 3

8. 9.365cm 9. 7/6 and 100 cm
10. 5 cm and inverted 11. 72 10-7 m
12. 5.9 10-7m, 5.9 10-3 m 13. 0.117 cm
14. 6000A0 15. 0.853
17. 1.7 cm
18. For weak reflection : 7000, 4667 & 4000 A0
For strong reflection 6222, 5091, 4308 A0

19. n2I0 , nI0 20. Zero, 1.5 mm
LEVEL II
1. h = 20 cm.
3. (i) sin 1 {n sin (450 n1/n)} (ii) i = 72.90
4. -2f from third lens
1 1 1
5. R =a
n12 1 n22 1 n231 1
6. 0.6m from lens, 0.003m

7. (160, -0.5), (135, -0.75), (160, -0.15)
f1f2 d(f1 d) (f1 d)
8. ,
f1 f2 d f1 f2 d
9. 15cm, -1.5, 1.5cm below RS, 0.3cm above RS
10. 15 cm
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-56
11. 0.29 mm 12. t=

1
13. 0.6 mm 14. 2 cm, 1.0016
15. (a) circular (b) d = d2

0 d
2
16. (a) Max, 70 (b) Max, 20 (c) In front of S1, 20 m
17. 7 10-6watt 18. 0.53 cm
19. (a) y0 = 4.33 10 3m (below X axis) (b) 0.75 Imax

(c) 650 nm, 433.34 nm
15 2r R
20.
32 r

LEVEL I
1. (B) 2. (B)
3. (D) 4. (A)
5. (D) 6. (A)
7. (B) 8. (A)
9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B)
13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (A) 16. (A)
17. (B) 18. (C)
19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (B)
23. (A) 24. (A)
25. (D) 26. (D)
27. (C) 28. (A)
29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (B) 32. (C)
33. (B) 34. (A)
35. (C) 36. (A)
37. (A) 38. (D)
39. (A) 40. (A)
LEVEL II
1. (A), (C) 2. (A), (B), (C)
3. (A), (B), (C), (D) 4. (A), (B)
RSM79-PH-P5-GOP-57
5. (A), (B), (C) 6. (A), (C)

7. (D) 8. (A), (D)
9. (A), (B), (C) 10. (D)
COMPREHENSION
1. (A) 2. (D)
3. (B) 4. (B)
5. (D) 6. (D)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (p); (D) (r)
2. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (q); (D) (r)
3. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (r)
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-35
MODERN PHYSICS
LEVEL - I
1. Frequency of a photon emitted due to transition of electron of a certain element

from L to K shell is found to be 4.2 1018 Hz. Using Moseleys law, find the
atomic number of the element, given that the Rydbergs constant R=1.1 107 m 1.
2. A radioactive sample emits n -particles in 2 sec. In next 2 sec it emits 0.75 n
-particle, what is the mean life of the sample?
3. The energy of a K-electron in tungsten is 20 KeV and of an L electron is
2 KeV. Find the wavelength of X-rays emitted when there is electron jump from
L to K shell.
4. One milliwatt of light of wavelength 4560 is incident on a cesium surface.
Calculate the photoelectric current produced, if the efficiency of the surface for
photoelectric emission is only 0.5%.
5. If the wavelength of the light falling on a surface is increased from 3000 to
3040 , then what will be the corresponding change in the stopping potential?
(Given that hc = 12.4 103 eV )
6. In an experiment on photoelectric emission, following observations were made:
(i) Wavelength of the incident light = 1.98 10 7 m, (ii) stopping potential = 2.5
volt. Find threshold frequency, work-function and energy of photoelectrons with
maximum speed. (Given e = 1.6 10 19 C, h = 6.6 10 34 J-s., c = 3 108 m/s)
7. Light of wavelength 180 nm ejects photo-electrons from a plate of metal whose
work-function is 2 eV. If a uniform magnetic field of 5 10 5 Tesla be applied
parallel to the plate, what would be the radius of the path followed by electrons
ejected normally from the plates with maximum energy (h = 6.62 10 34 J-s,
m = 9.1 10 31 kg and e = 1.6 10 19 coulomb).
8. Photoelectric threshold wavelength of metallic silver is = 3800 . Ultra-violet
light of = 2600 is incident on silver surface. Calculate
(a) the value of work function in joule and eV,
(b) maximum Kinetic energy of the emitted photo electrons,
(c) the maximum velocity of the photo electrons.
(Mass of the electron=9.11 10 31 kg).
9. Consider the fusion reaction 1H2 + 1H3 2He4. If 20 MeV of energy is released
per fusion reaction, mass of 1H2 consumed per day is 0.1 gm, what is the Power
of the reactor?
10. The radiation emitted due to de-excitation of electron from n=2 to n=1 in H2 atom
falls on a metal to produce photo electrons. The electrons from the metal surface
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-36
with maximum kinetic energy are made to move perpendicular to a magnetic field
1
of T in a radius 10-3m. Find the threshold wavelength for the metal.
160
LEVEL II
1. A hydrogen atom moving with a velocity 6.24 104 m/s makes a perfectly
inelastic head on collision with another stationary hydrogen atom. Both atoms are
in ground state before collision. Up to what state either one atom may be excited.
2. An X-ray tube with a copper target is found to emit lines other than those due to
copper. The K line of copper is known to have a wavelength 1.5405 A 0 and the
other two K lines observed have wavelengths 0.7092 A0 and 1.6578 A0. Identify
the impurities (find the value of Z, atomic number). What is the minimum voltage
at which the X-ray tube should be operated?
3. Radiation falls on a target kept within a solenoid with 20 turns per cm, carrying a
current 2.5 A. Electrons emitted move in a circle with a maximum radius of 1 cm.
Find the wavelength of radiation, given that the work function of the target is 0.5
volts, e = 1.6 10 19 coulomb, h = 6.625 10 34 J s, m = 9.1 10 31 Kg.
4. Electrons in a hydrogen like atom (Z = 3) make transitions from 5th to 4th orbit
and from the 4th to the 3rd orbit. The resulting radiation is incident normally on a
metal plate and the photoelectrons are ejected. The stopping potential for the
photoelectrons ejected by light of shorter wavelength is 3.95V. Calculate the
work function of the metal and the stopping potential the photo electrons for the
longer wavelength.
5. When the voltage applied to an X-ray tube increased from V1 = 10 KV to

V2=20 KV, the wavelength interval between the K -line and the short wavelength
cut-off of the continuous X-ray spectrum increases by a factor of 3. Find the
atomic number of the element of the target.
6. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a metallic surface is

30 eV when monochromatic radiation of wavelength falls on it. When the same
surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2 , the maximum kinetic energy
photo electrons is observed to be 10 eV. Calculate the wavelength and
determine the maximum wavelength of incident radiation for which
photoelectrons can be emitted by this surface.
(h = 6.62 10 34 J-S = 4.14 10 15 eV-s, c = 3 108 m/s)
7. A monochromatic beam of light ( = 4900 ) incident normally upon a surface

produces a pressure of 5 x 10-7 N/m2 on it. Assuming that 25% of the light
incident is reflected and the rest absorbed, find the number of photons falling per
second on a unit area of thin surface.
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-37
8. A nuclear explosion is designed to deliver 1 MW of heat. How many fission

events must be required in a second to attain this power level? Assume that this
explosion is designed with nuclear fuel consisting of uranium -235. Calculate the
amount of fuel needed to run a reactor at this power level for one year. You can
assume that the amount of energy released per fission event is 200 MeV.
9. An electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is n B

300
revolving in the anti-clockwise direction in a circular orbit of
radius R.
(a) Obtain an expression for the orbital magnetic dipole moment
of the electron.
(b) The atom is placed in a uniform magnetic induction B such
that the plane normal to the electron orbit makes an angle
30o with the magnetic induction. Find the torque experienced
by the orbiting electron.
10. A radionuclide A1 with decay constant 1 transforms into a radionuclide A2 with

decay constant 2. Assuming that at the initial moment the preparation contained
only the radionuclide A1, find:
(a) the equation describing accumulation of the radionuclide A2.
(b) the time interval after which the activity of radionuclide A2 reaches the
maximum value. Assume concentration of A1 at t = 0 to be No.
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-38

LEVEL I
1. The total energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in the ground state is 13.6 eV.
Which of the following is its kinetic energy in the first excited state?
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 6.8 eV
(C) 3.4 eV (D) 1.825 eV
2. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2 hrs emits radiation of intensity
which is 32 times the permissible safe value of intensity. Which of the following is the
minimum time after which it would be possible to work safely with this source?
(A) 16 hrs (B) 5 hrs
(C) 10 hrs (D) 32 hrs
3. The ionisation potential of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 volt. The energy required to
remove an electron from the second orbit of hydrogen is:
(A) 3.4 eV (B) 6.8 eV
(C) 13.6 eV (D) 27.2 eV
4. The radius of the first Bohr orbit is a0. The nth orbit has a radius:
(A) na0 (B) a0/n
2
(C) n a0 (D) a0/n2
5. The ionisation energy of the ionised sodium atom Na+10 is :

(A) 13.6 eV (B) 13.6 11 eV
(C) (13.6/11) eV (D) 13.6 (112) eV
6. Radius of the second Bohr orbit of a singly ionised helium atom is

(A) 0.53 A0 (B) 1.06 A0
0
(C) 0.265 A (D) 0.132 A0
7. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is increased. As a result, in the

emitted radiation:
(A) the maximum wavelength increases
(B) the minimum wave length increases
(C) the minimum wavelength remains unchanged
(D) the minimum wave length decreases
8. A beam of electrons accelerated by a large potential difference V is made to

strike a metal target to produce X-rays. For which of the following values of V, the
resulting X-rays have the lowest minimum wave length:
(A) 10 KV (B) 20 KV
(C) 30 KV (D) 40 KV
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-39
9. The X-ray beam emerging from an X-ray tube

(A) is monochromatic
(B) contains all wavelengths smaller than a certain maximum wavelength
(C) contains all wave lengths larger than a certain minimum wavelength
(D) contains all wave lengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength.
10. The relation between half-life T of a radioactive sample and its mean life is:
(A) T = 0.693 (B) = 0.693 T
(C) = T (D) = 2.718 T
11. The stopping potential for the photo electrons emitted from a metal surface of work
function 1.7 eV is 10.4 V. Identify the energy levels corresponding to the transitions
in hydrogen atom which will result in emission of wavelength equal to that of incident
radiation for the above photoelectric effect
(A) n = 3 to 1 (B) n = 3 to 2
(C) n = 2 to 1 (D) n = 4 to 1
12. An electron collides with a fixed hydrogen atom in its ground state. Hydrogen atom
gets excited and the colliding electron loses all its kinetic energy. Consequently the
hydrogen atom may emit a photon corresponding to the largest wavelength of the
Balmer series. The K.E. of colliding electron will be
(A) 10.2 eV (B) 1.9 eV
(C) 12.1 eV (D) 13.6 eV
13. When a radioactive isotope 88Ra228 decays in series by the emission of three -
particles and a particle the isotope finally formed is :
(A) 84X220 (B) 86X222
216
(C) 83X (D) 83X215
14. Photo electric effect supports the quantum nature of light because:
(A) there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photo electrons are
emitted.
(B) the maximum K.E. of photoelectrons depends only on the frequency of light
and not on its intensity.
(C) even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated by light of the approximate
wavelength, the photo electrons leave the surface immediately.
(D) electric charge of photoelectrons is quantized.
15. If the electron in the hydrogen atoms is excited to n = 5 state, the number of
frequencies present in the radiation emitted is :
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 8 (D) 10
16. The ratio of magnetic dipole moment of an electron of charge e and mass m in the
Bohr orbit in hydrogen to the angular momentum of the electron in the orbit is:
(A) e/m (B) e/2m
(C) m/e (D) 2m/e
17. The wave length of K -ray line of an anticathode element of atomic number Z is
nearly proportional to:
(A) Z2 (B) (Z 1)2
1 1
(C) (D)
( Z 1) (Z 1)2
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-40
18. If 1 and 2 are the wavelengths of characteristic X-ray and gamma rays
respectively, then the relation between them is :
(A) 1 2 (B) 1 = 2
(C) 1 > 2 (D) 1 < 2
19. In the nuclear reaction given by 2He4 + 7N14 1

1H + X then the nucleus X is :
(A) Nitrogen of mass 16 (B) Nitrogen of mass 17
(C) Oxygen of mass 16 (D) Oxygen of mass 17
20. If 10% of a radioactive material decays in 5 days, then the amount of the original
material left after 20 days is approximately:
(A) 60% (B) 65%
(C) 70% (D) 75%
LEVEL II
1. Suppose the potential energy between electron and proton at a distance r is given by
Ke 2
. Application of Bohrs theory of hydrogen atom in this case shows that :
3r 3
(A) energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n6
(B) energy is proportional to m 3 (m : mass of electron)
(C) energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n 2
(D) energy is proportional to m3 (m = mass of electron)
2. X ray from a tube with a target A of atomic number Z shows strong K lines for target A
and weak K lines for impurities. The wavelength of K lines is z for target A and 1 and
2 for two impurities.
z 1
4 and z .
1 2 4
Screening constant of K lines to be unity. Select the correct statement(s)
(A) The atomic number of first impurity is 2z 1.
(B) The atomic number of first impurity is 2z + 1.
(z 1)
(C) The atomic number of second impurity is .
2
z
(D) The atomic number of second impurity is 1.
2
3. Energy liberated in the deexcitation of hydrogen atom from 3rd level to 1st level falls on
a photocathode. Later when the same photocathode is exposed to a spectrum of
some unknown hydrogen like gas, excited to 2 nd energy level, it is found that the de
Broglie wavelength of the fastest photoelectrons, now ejected has decreased by a factor
of 3. For this new gas, difference of energies of 2 nd Lyman line and 1st Balmer line is
found to be 3 times the ionization potential of the hydrogen atom. Select the correct
statement(s) :
(A) The gas is lithium.
(B) The gas is helium.
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-41
(C) The work function of photocathode is 8.5 eV.

(D) The work function of photocathode is 5.5 eV.
4. Hydrogen atoms absorbs radiation of wavelength 0 and consequently emit radiations of

6 different wavelengths of which two wavelengths are shorter than 0.
(A) The final excited state of the atoms is n = 4
(B) The initial state of the atoms may be n = 2
(C) The initial state of the atoms may be n = 3
(D) There are three transitions belonging to Lyman series.
5. For a certain radioactive substance, it is observed that after 4 hours, only 6.25% of the
original sample is left undecayed. If follows that
(A) the half life of the sample is 1 hour
(B) the mean life of the sample is 1 hour
ln2
(C) the decay constant of the sample is ln 2 hour-1
(D) after a further 4 hours, the amount of the substance left over would by only 0.39% of
the original amount
6. Let 1 be the frequency of the series limit of the Lyman series, 2 be the frequency of the
first line of the Lyman series, and 3 be the frequency of the series limit of the Balmer
series
(A) 1 2 3 (B) 2 1 3
1
(C) 3 ( 1 2) (D) 1 2 3
2
2. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from n = n1 to n = n2. The time period
of the electron in the initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible values
of n1 and n2 are
(A) n1 = 4, n2 = 2 (B) n1 = 8, n 2 = 2
(C) n1 = 8, n2= 1 (D) n1 = 6, n 2 = 3
3. Whenever a hydrogen atom emits a photon in the Balmer series,

(A) it may emit another photon in Balmer series
(B) it must emit another photon in Lyman series
(C) the second photon, if emitted, will have a wavelength of about 122 nm
(D) it may emit a second photon, but the wavelength of this photon cannot be predicted
4. When an electron moving at a high speed strikes a metal surface, which of the following
are possible ?
(A) the entire energy of the electron may be converted into an X-ray photon
(B) any fraction of the energy of the electron may be converted into an X-ray photon
(C) the entire energy of the electron may get converted to heat
(D) the electron may under go elastic collision with the metal surface
5. There are two radioactive nuclei A and B. A is an alpha emitter and B is a beta emitter.
Their disintegration constants are in ratio of 1 : 2. What should be the ratio of number of
atoms of A and B at any time t so that probabilities of getting alpha and beta particle are
same at that instant
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 3 (D) e-1
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-42
6. An electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from second excited state to first excited state
and then from first excited state to ground state. Let the ratio of wavelength, momentum
and energy of photons emitted in these two cases be a, b and c respectively. Then
1 9
(A) c (B) a
a 4
5 5
(C) b (D) c
27 27
7. The wavelengths and frequencies of photons in transitions 1, 2 and 1
3 for hydrogen like atom are 1, 2, 3, 1, 2 and 3 respectively.
Then 3
2
(A) 3 1 2 (B) 3
1 2
1 2
(C) 3 1 2 (D) 3
1 2
1 2
8. When the intensity of a light source is increased,

(A) the number of photons emitted by the source in unit time increases
(B) the total energy of the photons emitted per unit time increases
(C) more energetic photons are emitted
(D) faster photons are emitted
9. If the wavelength of light in an experiment on photoelectric effect is doubled,

(A) the photoelectric emission will not take place
(B) the photoelectric emission may or may not take place
(C) the stopping potential will increase
(D) the stopping potential will decrease
10. The collector plate in an experiment on photoelectric effect is kept vertically above the
emitter plate. Light source is put on and a saturation photocurrent is recorded. An
electric field is switched on which has a vertically downward direction.
(A) the photocurrent will increase
(B) the kinetic energy of the electrons will increase
(C) the stopping potential will decrease
(D) the threshold wavelength will increase
COMPREHENSION
I : [Question No. 1 to 3]
Many unstable nuclei can decay spontaneously to a nucleus of lower mass but different
combination of nucleons. The process of spontaneous emission of radiation is called
radioactivity. Three types of radiations are emitted by radioactive substance.
Radioactive decay is a statistical process. Radioactivity is independent of all external conditions.
The number of decay per unit time or decay rate is called activity. Activity exponentially
decreases with time.
Mean life time is always greater than half lift time.
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-43
1. Choose the correct statement about radioactivity :

(A) Radioactivity is statistical process
(B) Radioactivity is independent of high temperature and high pressure
(C) When a nucleus undergoes or decay, its atomic number changes
(D) All of these
2. If the decay constants of a radioactive element for and decay are 1 and 2
respectively. The total decay constant ( ) is :
(A) 1 2
(B) 1 2
1 2 1 2
(C) 1 2 (D) 1 2
3. The activity of radioactive substance is R1 at time t1 and R2 at time t2 ( > t1) the decay
constant is
(A) R1t1 R 2 t 2 (B) R2 R1e ( t2 t1 )
R R2
(C) R2 R1e ( t1 t 2 ) (D) 1 constant
t 2 t1
II : [Question No. 4 to 6]
All nuclei consist of two type of particles protons and neutrons. Nuclear force is the strongest
force. Stability of nucleus is determined by the neutron proton ratio or mass defect or Binding
energy per nucleons or packing fraction. Shape of nucleus calculated by quadrupole moment.
Spin of nucleus depends on even or odd mass number. Volume of nucleus depends on the
mass number. Whole mass of atom (nearly 99%) is centred at the nucleus. Magnetic moment of
nucleus measured by the nuclear magnetons.
4. The correct statement(s) about nuclear force is/are

(A) Charge independent (B) Short ranges forces
(C) Non conservative force (D) All option are correct
5. Volume (V) of the nucleus is related with mass number (A) as

(A) V A2 (B) V A1/3
2/3
(C) V A (D) V A
6. The mass defect in a particular nuclear reaction is 0.5 gram. The amount of heat energy
liberated in Joule is
(A) 4.5 10 13 Joule (B) 45 1016 Joule
15
(C) 45 10 Joule (D) 0.5 931 Joule
MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Column I Column II
(A) Particle behaviour of light (p) Reflection
(B) Electron microscope (q) Refraction
(C) Xray photon (r) Interference
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-44
(D) Spectrum (s) Photoelectric effect
2. Some quantities related to the photoelectric effect are mentioned under Column I and
Column II. Match each quantity in Column I with the corresponding quantities in Column
II on which it depends.
Column I Column II
(A) Saturation current (p) Frequency of light
(B) Stopping potential (q) Work function
(C) de-Broglie wavelength of photoelectron (r) Area of photosensitive plate
(D) Force due to radiation falling on the (s) Intensity of light (at constant
photoplate. frequency)

Column I Column II
(A) decay (p) For atoms of high atomic number
(B) Fusion (q) Mass energy equivalence
(C) Fission (r) For atoms of low atomic number
(D) Exothermic nuclear reaction (s) Involves weak forces
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-45

LEVEL I
1 2
1. 42 2. sec
ln(4 / 3)
3. 0.6887 A0 4. 1.84 10 6 Amp
5. -0.055 V
6. 9.1 1014 per sec, 6.0 10-19 J, 4.0 10-19 J
7. 0.148 m.
8. (a) 5.23 10-19 J, 3.27 eV (b) 1.5 eV (c) 0.7289 106 m/s
9. 1 MW 10. 1.81 10-7 m
LEVEL II
1. n = 2. 2. 42, 28, 17.5 KV
3. 35.24 A0 4. 2eV, (12400/ )eV,
5. 29 6. 310.5 A0, 1242 A0
7. 3 1020 m-2 sec-1 8. 3.125 1016, 356.3 gm
eh ehB 1 1t 2t
9. ; 10. N2 = N0 e e
4 m 8 m 2 1

LEVEL I
1. C 2. C
3. A 4. C
5. D 6. B
7. D 8. D
9. C 10. A
11. A 12. C
RSM79-PH-P5-MP-46
13. C 14. C
15. D 16. B
17. D 18. C
19. D 20. B
LEVEL II
1. (A), (B) 2. (A), (C)

3. (B), (C) 4. (A), (B), (D)
5. (A), (B), (C), (D) 6. (A)
7. (A), (D) 8. (B), (C)
9. (A), (B), (C) 10. (A)
11. (A), (C), (D) 12. (A), (D)
13. (A), (B) 14. (B), (D)
15. (B)
COMPREHENSION
1. (D) 2. (C)
3. (B) 4. (D)
5. (D) 6. (A)
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. (A) (p), (q), (s); (B) (r); (C) (p), (q), (r), (s); (D) (q)
2. (A) (s); (B) (p), (q); (C) (p), (q); (D) (p), (r), (s)
3. (A) (q), (s); (B) (q), (r); (C) (p), (q); (D) (q)

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10-10-02

5. The Van-der-Waals interaction between two molecules separated by a distance r

1. In an experiment for finding the specific heat of alcohol, as copper calorimeter of

4. What is the fractional error in g calculated from T = 2 . Given fractional errors

5. A planet of mass m rotates around a star of mass M. The time period of

10. Assignment (Objective Problems)

6. The measurement of radius of a circle has error of 1%. The error in

11. The S.I. unit of universal gas constant is

12. The dimensional formula of couple

13. An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and x is calculated from x = ab2/c3. If

14. Dimensional formula of thermal conductivity is

16. If P represents radiation pressure, c represents speed of light and Q represents

18. Which of the following is a possible dimensionless quantity?

1. Which of the following are not the dimensions of calorie?

3. Which of the following are dimensionally wrong?

MATCH THE FOLLOWING

(B) Force (Q) M1L 1T 2

(C) Pressure (R) M1L2T 2

(D) Work (S) M2L2 T 2

Integer Answer Type Questions

4. The heat dissipated in a resistance can be obtained by the measurement of resistance,

11. Answers to the Subjective Assignment

1. 2.175 mm 2. 720 days

5. [A] = ML8T 2, [B] = ML4T 2

12. Answers to the Objective Assignment

1. (B), (C), (D) 2. (A), (C), (D)

3. (A), (C), (D) 4. (B), (C), (D)

5. (A), (B), (D)

3. A bomb is released from an aeroplane flying with a horizontal velocity of

4. Two particles move in a uniform gravitational field with an acceleration g. At the

5. A point moves rectilinearly with deceleration whose modulus depends on the

7. A fan rotates with a velocity corresponding to a frequency of 900 rev/min. When

9. The acceleration vector of a particle having initial speed V0 changes with

11. Assignment (Objective Problems)

2. The locus of a projectile relative to another projectile is a

5. A particle parallel to x-axis as shown in the figure y

6. A particle is projected vertically upwards and it attains maximum height H. If the

7. A boy B drags a wedge A by an in

11. The acceleration-time graph of a particle moving a (m/s2)

14. A particle has an initial velocity of (3 i 4j )m/s and a constant acceleration of

(C) 5 2 m/sec (D) 25 m/sec

2. Figure shows two blocks, each of mass m. The system

(C) v1 v 2 cos (D) v 2 v1 cos

3. The string shown in the figure is passing over

block B at the instant shown in figure is

4. A particle is projected from the ground in earths gravitational field at an angle

5. Two different balls of masses m1 and m2 are m1 m2

6. A particle is moving along a curve. Then

7. A particle of mass m moves along x-axis as follows : it starts from rest at t = 0

8. Mark the correct statements for a particle going on a straight line

1. The time of crossing the river is

2. The drift of the swimmer is

3. The equation of trajectory of the path followed by the swimmer

Answer the following questions

5. The magnitude of acceleration of particle at that instant is

6. Tangential acceleration of particle at that instant will be

MATCH THE FOLLOWING

1. A body is projected with a velocity of 60 m/s at 30 to horizontal (g = 10 m/s2) :

2. Match the following :

12. Hints to Subjective Assignments

1. Apply vy = vo sin gt; vx = vocos

1. Use the concept of dot product.

4. Use the concept of dot product.