DATE : 24/07/2016 Test Booklet Code

DD

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016

Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4
marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use Blue / Black Ballpoint Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
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is the same as that on this Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report
the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
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in the Attendance Sheet.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

1. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating Answer (1)

about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass
GMr
and same radius is also rotating about its Sol. gin gin r
geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of R3
the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of GM 1
gout 2
gout
rotation (Esphere / Ecylinder) will be r r2
(1) 1 : 5
g
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 2 : 3 O R r
Answer (1) 4. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius
R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of
1 2 2 2 the satellite in terms of g0, the value of acceleration
Esphere mR 1
2 5
due to gravity at the earth's surface, is
Sol.
Ecylinder 1 1 5
mR (2) mg 0 R 2
2 2
22 (1)
2(R h )
2. A light rod of length l has two masses m1 and m2
attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of 2mg0 R 2
(2)
the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod Rh
and passing through the centre of mass is
2mg0 R 2
(3)
m1 m2 2 Rh
(1) l (2) (m1 + m2)l2
m1m2
mg0 R 2
(4)
m1m2 2 2(R h )
(3) m1m2 l 2 (4) l
m1 m2 Answer (1)
Answer (4)
GMm
l Sol. Total energy =
2r
Sol. x1 CM x2
Here, r = R + h and GM = g0R2
m1 m2
m2l m1l mg0 R 2
x1 and x2 E
m1 m2 m1 m2 2(R h )
5. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from
m1m2 2
I m1x12 m2 x22 l (4 cm 2 cm) to (5 cm 4 cm). If the work done
m1 m2
is 3 104 J, the value of the surface tension of the
3. Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R, liquid is
the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is
(1) 0.125 Nm1 (2) 0.2 Nm1
shown by
(3) 8.0 Nm1 (4) 0.250 Nm1
g g Answer (1)

(1) (2) Sol. W = 2(Af Ai)T

O O W
R r R r
T =
( Af Ai ) 2
g g
3 104 J
=
(3) (4) 2[5 4 104 4 2 104 ]
O O = 0.125 Nm1
R r R r

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

6. Three liquids of densities 1, 2 and 3 (with 1 > 2 Answer (1)

> 3), having the same value of surface tension T,
rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. T1 T2 T T2
Sol. K 1 T0
The angles of contact 1, 2 and 3 obey t 2

(1) 0 1 2 3
2 3T 2T
K (2.5T T )
10

(2) 1 2 3
2
T
K (1.5)T
10

(3) 1 2 3
2
1
K=
1 2 3 0 15
(4)
2
Answer (1) T x T x
Now, K T
10 2
2T cos
Sol. h
r g
3T
r cos (as T, h and r are constants) Solving x
2

9. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a
1 < 2 < 3
process described by the equation PV 3 = constant.
The heat capacity of the gas during this process is
Its rise so 0 1 2 3
2
7. Two identical bodies are made of a material for which 5
(1) R (2) 2R
the heat capacity increases with temperature. One 2
of these is at 100C, while the other one is at 0C.
If the two bodies are brought into contact, then 3
(3) R (4) R
assuming no heat loss, the final common 2
temperature is
Answer (3)
(1) More than 50C
Sol. PV3 = constant polytropic process with n = 3
(2) Less than 50C but greater than 0C
(3) 0C R
C = Cv
1 n
(4) 50C
Answer (1) R R
=
Sol. Loss of heat by hot body = Gain of heat by cold body r 1 1 n

Tc1 1 Tc2 2 R R
= 5 R
1 3
Tc1 Tc2 1 2 1
3
8. A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10. The temperature inside a refrigerator is t2 C and the
10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that room temperature is t1 C. The amount of heat
Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The delivered to the room for each joule of electrical
temperature of the body at the end of next energy consumed ideally will be
10 minutes will be
t1 273 t2 273
3 4 (1) (2)
(1) T (2) T t1 t2 t1 t2
2 3

7 t1 t2 t1
(3) T (4) T (3) t 273 (4) t t
4 1 1 2

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

Answer (1)
3 m
Dividing,
Q2 1 5 m 1
Sol. K
W t1 1
9 m
t2
25 m 1
t2W 9m + 9 = 25m
Q2
t1 t2
16m = 9
t2W
Q1 Q2 W W 9
t1 t2 m=
16

t1W t1 273 13. The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the
= t t t t
1 2 1 2 same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe
L metre long. The length of the open pipe will be
11. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume
V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The L
mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of (1) 2L (2)
2
the following gives the density of the gas?
(3) 4L (4) L
Pm P
(1) (2) Answer (1)
(kT ) (kTV )

P 3V 3V
(3) mkT (4) Sol. 2L 4L
(kT ) 1

Answer (1) L1 = 2L

P kT 14. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have

Sol. frequencies (n 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to
m
give beats. The number of beats produced per
Pm second will be

kT (1) 4 (2) 3
12. A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of (3) 2 (4) 1
a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has
Answer (3)
negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled
down and released, it oscillates with a time period Sol. (n 1) and (n + 1) suppose to form frequency n
of 3 s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the
n and n will be at resonance
time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value
of m in kg is n 1 and n produce 1 beat

4 16 n + 1 and n produce 1 beat

(1) (2)
3 9 Number of beats formed are 2.

9 3 15. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30 with

(3) (4) an electric field intensity 2 105 N/C. It experiences
16 4
a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge on the dipole,
Answer (3) if the dipole length is 2 cm, is

m (1) 2 mC
Sol. T1 3 2
K (2) 5 mC

m 1 (3) 7 C
Then, T2 = 5 = 2
K (4) 8 mC

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

Answer (1) 17. The potential difference (VA VB) between the points
A and B in the given figure is
Sol. PE sin

qlE sin

(1) +3 V (2) +6 V
q
lE sin (3) +9 V (4) 3 V

4 Answer (3)
= 2 mC
2 102 0.5 2 105
Sol.
16. A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate separation
d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric
materials having dielectric constants k1, k2, k3 and VA VB = (2 2) + 3 + (2 1)
k4 as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric =4+3+2
material is to be used to have the same capacitance
C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is =9V
given by 18. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a
230 V main supply. When a resistance R is
connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb
consumes 500 W. The value of R is
(1) 46 (2) 26
(3) 13 (4) 230
Answer (2)

P 500
Sol. I 5A
2 V 100
(1) k (k1 k2 k3 ) 2k 4
3 Voltage across resistance R will be
230 100 = 130 V
2 3 1
(2) k k k k k
1 2 3 4 130
R 26
5
1 1 1 1 3
(3) k k k k 2k 19. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a
1 2 3 4 circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the
(4) k = k1 + k2 + k3 + 3k4 centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular
coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of
Answer (2) this coil of n turns will be

Sol. k1, k2 and k3 are in parallel so Arithmetic mean. (1) n2B (2) 2nB
(3) 2n2B (4) nB
k k 2 k3
keq 1
3 Answer (1)

keq is in series with k4. So harmonic mean. 0 I

Sol. B , when made n turns radius becomes r '
2r
2 1 1
r
k keq k4 n 2r ' 2r r '
n
2 3 1 0 nI I
Now, B ' n 2 0 n 2B
k k1 k2 k3 k 4 2r ' 2r

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

20. A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a Answer (2)

uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium
state. The energy required to rotate it by 60 is W. R
Sol. Better tuning means low bandwidth =
Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this L
new position is
23. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region
of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at
3W
(1) 3W (2) r
2 dB
a rate . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the
dt
2W W region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region
(3) (4)
3 3 of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then
the e.m.f. generated is
Answer (1)

Sol. W = PE(cos 1 cos 2)

R R
W = PE(cos 0 cos 60)
1 2

PE r r
= dB 2 dB 2
2 (1) r in loop 1 and r in loop 2
dt dt
r
PE = 2W dB
(2) R 2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt
= PE sin = 2W sin 60 = 3W r
dB 2
21. An electron is moving in a circular path under the (3) r in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt
influence of a transverse magnetic field of
(4) Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
3.57 102 T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 1011 C/kg,
the frequency of revolution of the electron is Answer (3)
(1) 100 MHz Sol. Magnetic flux linked with area of loop 1 is r2
r
(2) 62.8 MHz dB 2
So emf in loop 1 is r .
(3) 6.28 MHz dt
Magnetic flux linked with area of loop 2 is zero
(4) 1 GHz
So emf in loop 2 = 0
Answer (4)
24. The potential differences across the resistance,
11 2
qB 1.76 10 3.57 10 capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and
Sol. f =
2m 2 3.14 100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power
factor of this circuit is
= 109 Hz = 1 GHz
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.8
22. Which of the following combinations should be
(3) 1.0 (4) 0.4
selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for
communication? Answer (2)

(1) R = 25 , L = 2.5 H, C = 45 F R VR 80
Sol. cos
(2) R = 15 , L = 3.5 H, C = 30 F z V 80 (100 40)2
2

(3) R = 25 , L = 1.5 H, C = 45 F 80
0.8
(4) R = 20 , L = 1.5 H, C = 35 F 100

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

25. A 100 resistance and a capacitor of 100 27. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5
reactance are connected in series across a 220 V (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed
source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from
peak value of the displacement current is the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab
is
(1) 11 A
(1) 10 (2) 12
(2) 4.4 A
(3) 16 (4) 8
(3) 11 2 A Answer (2)
Sol. d = (d1 + d2)
(4) 2.2 A
= 1.5(5 + 3) = 12 cm
Answer (4)
28. The interference pattern is obtained with two
Sol. R = 100 , Xc = 100 coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the
interference pattern, the ratio
200 V 220 V
Imax 2.2 A
100 100 Imax Imin
Imax Imin
26. Two identical glass (g = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of
focal length f each are kept in contact. The space will be
between the two lenses is filled with water (w = 4/3).
2 n n
The focal length of the combination is (1) (2)
n 1 n 12
(1) f

(2) 4f / 3 2 n n
(3) (4)
n 1 2
n 1
(3) 3f / 4
Answer (1)
(4) f / 3
I1
Answer (3) Sol. I n
2

1 2 1 3
(g 1) , g , R f

Sol. 2 2
f R R 2 Imax I1 I2 n 1 I2

1 2 2 2

2 2
f1 = (w 1) R 3R 3f Imin I1 I2 n 1 I2

1 1 1 1 1 1 2 Imax Imin 4 n 2 n

feq f f f1 R R 3R Imax Imin 2(n 1) n 1

1 1 1 2 29. A person can see clearly objects only when they lie

feq f f 3f between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order
to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision
1 2 2 to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens,

feq f 3f the person has to use, will be

1 4 (1) Concave, 0.25 diopter

feq 3f (2) Concave, 0.2 diopter
(3) Convex, +0.15 diopter
3f
feq
4 (4) Convex, +2.25 diopter

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

Answer (1) 32. Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode

C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of
Sol. Maximum distance of distinct vision = 400 cm.
emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of
So image of object at infinity is to be formed at energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will
400 cm. reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A
Use lens formula relative to C is
(1) +4 V (2) 1 V
1 1 1
(3) 3 V (4) +3 V
v u f
Answer (3)
1 1 1
Sol. Emax = E
400 f
2 eV = 5 eV = 3 eV
P = 0.25 D
Now eV0 = E'
30. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed = 6 eV 3 eV = 3 eV
immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. So stopping potential is 3V.
The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel
33. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd
beam of wavelength 5 105 cm. The distance of orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength
the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the . When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit,
centre of the screen is the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be
(1) 0.25 cm 9 20
(1) (2)
(2) 0.20 cm 16 7
(3) 0.15 cm
20 16
(3) (4)
(4) 0.10 cm 13 25
Answer (3) Answer (2)
y 1
Sol. y Sol.
a f 1 1
R 2 2
f f 2 3
y
a
1
31. Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength '
1 1
fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff R 2 2
wavelength (0) of the emitted X-ray is 3 4

2h 1 1

(1) 0
mc ' 22 32
20
1 1 '
2 2 7
2m 2c 2 3 3 4
(2) 0
h2 34. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes.
The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and
(3) 0 = 85% decay of the same radioactive substance is
(1) 30 (2) 45
2mc 2
(4) 0 (3) 60 (4) 15
h
Answer (3)
Answer (4) Sol. Number of active nuclei falls from
60% to 15%
h p2 h2 hc
Sol. Momentum P = E 1
2m 2m 2 0 So sample becomes th
4
hc 1
0 2m 2 th
h2 =
22
2mc 2 So number of half-lives = 2
Time t = 2 30 = 60 minute
h
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

35. For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage 38. Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c)
across the collector resistance of 2 k is 4 V. If the and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are three
current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 fundamental constants. Which of the following
and the base resistance is 1 k then the input combinations of these has the dimension of length?
signal voltage is
hG hc
(1) 20 mV (2) 30 mV (1) 5/2 (2)
c G
(3) 15 mV (4) 10 mV
Gc hG
(3) 3/2 (4)
Answer (1) h c 3/2
Sol. Rc = 2 k V0 = 4 V Answer (4)
4V 4V Sol. L hacbGc
IC
RC 2k = 2 mA [L]1 = [M1L2T1]a [LT1]b [M1L3T2]c
Solving,
I
C 100
IB 1 1 3
a , c , b
2 2 2
IC
IB 2 10 5 A hG
100 L
c 3/2
Vin = IBRi = 2 105 1 k= 20 mV 39. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same
time in a straight line and their positions are
36. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as represented by xP(t) = at + bt 2 and xQ(t) = ft t 2.
shown in the figure below. The current flowing through At what time do the cars have the same velocity?
the resistance R1 will be
af af
2 (1)
2(b 1)
(2)
2(1 b )
R1 D1 D2 f a af
10 V (3) (4)
R2 3 R3 2 2(1 b ) 1 b
Answer (3)
(1) 10.0 A (2) 1.43 A
dxP
(3) 3.13 A (4) 2.5 A Sol. v P a 2bt
dt
Answer (4) dx
vQ Q f 2t
Sol. D1 is reverse biased dt
D2 is forward biased vP = vQ
a + 2bt = f 2t
10 V
I = 2.5 A 2t + 2bt = f a
(2 2)
f a
37. What is the output Y in the following circuit, when t
2(b 1)
all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1?
40. In the given figure, a = 15 m/s2 represents the total
A acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise
B P
Q Y direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given
C
instant of time. The speed of the particle is
(1) 0, 0 (2) 1, 0
(3) 1, 1 (4) 0, 1
30

R
Answer (2) a
O
Sol. Output Y A B C A B C

When A, B, C are 0 Y = 1 (1) 5.0 m/s (2) 5.7 m/s

When A, B, C are 1 Y = 0 (3) 6.2 m/s (4) 4.5 m/s

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

Answer (2) 43. Two identical balls A and B having velocities of

0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s respectively collide elastically
v2
Sol. a cos 30 in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the
r collision respectively will be
3 v2 (1) 0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s
15
2 2.5 (2) 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
v = 5.7 m/s
(3) 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
41. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60 and
(4) 0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s
gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the
figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the Answer (1)
wall on the ball will be
Sol. They will exchange their velocity, so
m
V vB = 0.5 m/s and vA = 0.3 m/s

44. A particle moves from a point ( 2i 5 j) to

60
60 (4 j 3k ) when a force of (4i 3 j) N is applied.
How much work has been done by the force?
V
(1) 11 J
(1) 2mV (2) 5 J

mV (3) 2 J
(2)
2 (4) 8 J
mV
(3) Answer (2)
3
r r r
(4) mV Sol. s r2 r1 (4 j 3k ) ( 2i 5 j)

Answer (4) 2i j 3k
r r r r
Sol. | J | | P2 P1 | 2mV cos mV F 4i 3 j
ur r
42. A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a W F s 8 3 5 J
velocity of 400 ms1 strikes a wood block of mass 45. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m
2 kg which is suspended by light inextensible string with moments of inertia IA and IB (IB > IA) have equal
of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and LB be their
the block found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. angular momenta respectively, then
The speed of the bullet after it emerges out
horizontally from the block will be (1) LA = 2LB
(2) LB > LA
(1) 80 ms1
(3) LA > LB
(2) 120 ms1
(3) 160 ms1 LB
(4) LA
2
(4) 100 ms1
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
L2
Sol. Apply conservation of linear momentum. Sol. E
2I
CM rises through height h, so its velocity after EA = EB
collision = 2gh
L2A L2
0.01 400 2 2gh 0.01 v B
2I A 2IB
v = 120 m/s IB > IA LB > LA

10
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

46. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is 52. A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across
(1) Ribozyme (2) Ligase a plant stem by a suitable method. The sap was
tested chemically. Which one of the following test
(3) Deoxyribonuclease (4) Lysozyme results indicates that it is phloem sap?
Answer (1) (1) Alkaline
Sol. Ribozyme is RNA acting like an enzyme or (2) Low refractive index
biocatalyst.
(3) Absence of sugar
47. Select the mismatch.
(4) Acidic
(1) Large central vacuoles Animal cells
Answer (1)
(2) Protists Eukaryotes
Sol. Alkaline pH (7.8 8.0) is present in phloem sap
(3) Methanogens Prokaryotes
whereas xylem sap is acidic.
(4) Gas vacuoles Green bacteria
53. You are given a tissue with its potential for
Answer (1) differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the
Sol. Large central vacuole is present in plant cells. following pairs of hormones would you add to the
medium to secure shoots as well as roots?
48. Select the wrong statement
(1) Auxin and cytokinin
(1) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of
bacterial cells (2) Auxin and abscisic acid

(2) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells (3) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
(3) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism (4) IAA and gibberellin
(4) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan Answer (1)
Answer (1) Sol. Auxins and cytokinin induce development of root
and shoot in a culture medium (respectively).
Sol. Pili and fimbriae are surface structures of the
bacteria that do not play a role in motility. 54. Phytochrome is a
49. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is (1) Glycoprotein (2) Lipoprotein
(1) Microsome (2) Ribosome (3) Chromoprotein (4) Flavoprotein
(3) Mesosome (4) Lysosome Answer (3)
Answer (4) Sol. Photochrome is a blue-green pigment which absorb
red and far red light. It is a coloured protein i.e.
Sol. The isolated lysosomal vesicles have found to be
chromoprotein.
very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes.
55. Which is essential for the growth of root tip?
50. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in
(1) Fe (2) Ca
(1) G1 phase (2) G2 phase
(3) Mn (4) Zn
(3) M phase (4) S phase
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
Sol. Calcium is required by dividing and differentiating
Sol. DNA replication occurs in S-phase of cell cycle.
cells.
51. Which of the following biomolecules is common to
respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, 56. The process which makes major difference between
carbohydrates and proteins? C3 and C4 plants is

(1) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (1) Calvin cycle

(2) Pyruvic acid (2) Photorespiration

(3) Acetyl CoA (3) Respiration

(4) Glucose-6-phosphate (4) Glycolysis

Answer (3) Answer (2)

Sol. Acetyl CoA is common to fat, carbohydrate and Sol. Photorespiration is present in C3 plants but absent
protein catabolism. in C4 plants.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

57. Which one of the following statements is not 60. In majority of angiosperms
correct? (1) There are numerous antipodal cells
(1) Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive
(2) Reduction division occurs in the megaspore
structures are called zoospores mother cells
(2) In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise
(3) A small central cell is present in the embryo sac
from the internodes present in the modified stem
(4) Egg has a filiform apparatus
(3) Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water,
drains oxygen from water that leads to the death Answer (2)
of fishes Sol. Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis to
(4) Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction form megaspore.
are called clone 61. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought
Answer (2) about by the agency of
Sol. In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from (1) Insects or wind (2) Birds
the nodes present on modified stem. (3) Bats (4) Water
58. Which one of the following generates new genetic Answer (1)
combinations leading to variation?
Sol. Water hyacinth and water lily are aquatic plants
(1) Parthenogenesis pollinated by insect or wind.
(2) Sexual reproduction 62. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent
(3) Nucellar polyembryony to
(4) Vegetative reproduction (1) Megasporophyll
Answer (2) (2) Megaspore mother cell
Sol. Sexual reproduction generates new genetic (3) Megaspore
recombination leading to variations.
(4) Megasporangium
59. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
Answer (4)
correct option using the codes given below
Sol. Integumented and stalked megasporangium is called
Column-I Column-II
ovule.
a. Pistils fused together (i) Gametogenesis
63. Taylor conducted the experiments to prove
b. Formation of gametes(ii) Pistillate semiconservative mode of chromosome replication
c. Hyphae of higher (iii) Syncarpous on
Ascomycetes (1) Vicia faba
d. Unisexual female (iv) Dikaryotic (2) Drosophila melanogaster
flower (3) E. coli
Codes : (4) Vinca rosea
a b c d Answer (1)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) Sol. Semiconservative mode of chromosome replication
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) was proved by Taylor in Vicia faba.

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 64. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from
one linkage group to another is called
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Duplication (2) Translocation
Answer (3)
(3) Crossing-over (4) Inversion
Sol. Syncarpous Pistils fused together.
Answer (2)
Gametogenesis Formation of gamete.
Sol. Translocation is a phenomenon of transfer of a gene
Dikaryotic hyphae Hyphae of ascomycetes
segment between non-homologus chromosome, i.e.,
Pistillate flower Unisexual female flower. different linkage group.
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65. The equivalent of a structural gene is 69. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same
(1) Cistron restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a
recombinant plasmid using
(2) Operon
(1) Taq polymerase (2) Polymerase III
(3) Recon
(3) Ligase (4) Eco RI
(4) Muton
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
Sol. In DNA recombinant technology, linking of foreign
Sol. Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a DNA and plasmid is made possible by DNA ligase
polypeptide. which is also called "molecular glue".
Eukaryotic structural gene is monocistronic whereas 70. Which of the following is not a component of
prokaryotic structural gene is polycistronic. downstream processing?
66. A true breeding plant is (1) Purification (2) Preservation
(1) Produced due to cross-pollination among (3) Expression (4) Separation
unrelated plants
Answer (3)
(2) Near homozygous and produces offspring of its
Sol. After the completion of biosynthetic pathway,
own kind
downstreaming processing includes all the steps
(3) Always homozygous recessive in its genetic involved in isolation, purification and preservation of
constitution products. All the steps before the completion of
(4) One that is able to breed on its own pathway are included in upstreaming processing i.e.,
expression of genetic material.
Answer (2)
71. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces
Sol. True breeding line is one that, having undergone
blunt ends?
continuous self pollination, shows the stable trait
inheritance and expression for several generations. It (1) Eco RV (2) Xho I
is both homozygous recessive as well as dominant (3) Hind III (4) Sal I
in genetic constitution.
Answer (1)
67. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA
as well as ribozyme in bacteria? Sol. Eco RV cuts the DNA in the centre of restriction
sites forming blunt ends.
(1) 18 S rRNA
The pallindromic sequence for Eco RV is
(2) 23 S rRNA
(3) 5.8 S rRNA 5 3
G AT AT C
(4) 5 S rRNA C T AT A G
Answer (2) 3 5
Sol. 23S rRNA is a component of larger subunit of 72. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-
ribosome and it act as peptidyl transferase year-old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA)
(ribozyme). deficiency?
68. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for (1) Chemotherapy (2) Immunotherapy
(1) Addition of preservatives to the product (3) Radiation therapy (4) Gene therapy
(2) Availability of oxygen throughout the process Answer (4)
(3) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture Sol. Gene therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old
vessel girl child with ADA deficiency.
(4) Purification of product 73. How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have
Answer (2) been identified till date by Norman Myers?

Sol. Stirred-tank bioreactor is provided with stirrer for (1) 25 (2) 34

availability of oxygen throughout the process. (3) 43 (4) 17
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

Answer (2) Answer (2)

Sol. Today the number of hotspots identified by ecologists
is 34 covering an area less than 2% of land surface
with about 20% of human population living there.
74. The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal
vent ecosystem are
(1) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(2) Blue-green algae
(3) Coral reefs
(4) Green algae
Answer (1)
Sol. The primary producers of the deep sea hydrothermal
vent ecosystem are Archaebacteria, they have
chemosynthetic mode of nutrition.
75. Which of the following is correct for r-selected
species?
(1) Large number of progeny with large size
(2) Small number of progeny with small size
(3) Small number of progeny with large size
(4) Large number of progeny with small size
Sol. Parthenium hysterophorus is an exotic or alien
species which causes extinction of native (or)
indegenous species.
78. Red list contains data or information on
(1) Plants whose products are in international trade
(2) Threatened species
(3) Marine vertebrates only
(4) All economically important plants
Answer (2)
Sol. IUCN [International Union Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources] (or) WCU [World Conservation
Union] maintains red list which is a catalogue for
threatened species.
79. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?
(1) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall
(2) They are heterotrophic
(3) They are both unicellular and multicellular
(4) They are eukaryotic
Answer (1)
Sol. Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin and
polysaccharides.

Answer (4) 80. Methanogens belong to

(1) Archaebacteria
Sol. r-selected species species whose population
growth is function of biotic potential (r). They have (2) Dinoflagellates
large number of progeny with small size. (3) Slime moulds
76. If '+' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, '' sign (4) Eubacteria
to detrimental and '0' sign to neutral interaction, then Answer (1)
the population interaction represented by '+' '' refers Sol. Methanogens, halophiles and thermoacidophiles are
to archaebacteria.
(1) Amensalism 81. Select the wrong statement.
(2) Commensalism (1) 'Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the cell walls
of diatoms
(3) Parasitism
(2) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
(4) Mutualism
(3) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in
Answer (3) water
Sol. Parasitism Parasite is benefitted (+) but host is (4) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible
harmed () so it is a (+, ) type of population Answer (4)
interaction.
Sol. The cell walls of diatoms are embedded with silica
77. Which of the following is correctly matched? and thus the walls are indestructible.
(1) Age pyramid Biome 82. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry
information on
(2) Parthenium hysterophorus Threat to
(1) Name of collector
biodiversity
(2) Local names
(3) Stratification Population
(3) Height of the plant
(4) Aerenchyma Opuntia
(4) Date of collection
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)
Answer (3) Answer (4)
Sol. The herbarium sheets carry a label providing Sol. Radial or actinomorphic symmetry is found in flowers
information about date and place of collection, like mustard, Datura, Chilli.
english, local and botanical names, family, collector's 88. Free-central placentation is found in
name.
(1) Argemone (2) Brassica
83. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme
environmental conditions because of (3) Citrus (4) Dianthus
(1) Superficial stomata Answer (4)
(2) Thick cuticle Sol. Dianthus, Primrose Free central placentation.
(3) Presence of vessels Argemone Parietal placentation.
(4) Broad hardy leaves Citrus Axile placentation.
Answer (2) 89. Cortex is the region found between
Sol. In conifers, the needle like leaves, thick cuticle and (1) Pericycle and endodermis
sunken stomata help to reduce water loss. (2) Endodermis and pith
84. Which one of the following statements is wrong? (3) Endodermis and vascular bundle
(1) Algin is obtained from red algae, and (4) Epidermis and stele
carrageenan from brown algae
Answer (4)
(2) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and
Gracilaria Sol. Cortex is the region present between epidermis and
stele.
(3) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food
90. The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses
(4) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in
the immediate environment (1) Characterize the sapwood
Answer (1) (2) Are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into
Sol. Algin is obtained from brown algae, and carrageenin vessels
from red algae. (3) Are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem
85. The term 'polyadelphous' is related to vessels
(1) Androecium (4) Originate in the lumen of vessels
(2) Corolla Answer (2)
(3) Calyx Sol. Tyloses are balloon - shaped structures in xylem
(4) Gynoecium vessels developed by xylem parenchyma cells.
Answer (1) 91. Match the stages of meiosis of Column-I to their
Sol. The stamens may be united into one bundle characteristic features in Column-II and select the
(monoadelphous), or two bundles (diadelphous) or correct option using the codes given below:
into more than two bundles (polyadelphous). Column-I Column-II
86. How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, a. Pachytene (i) Pairing of homologous
Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, chromosomes
gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths
in their flowers? b. Metaphase I (ii) Terminalization of
chiasmata
(1) Four
c. Diakinesis (iii) Crossing-over takes place
(2) Five
d. Zygotene (iv) Chromosomes align at
(3) Six
equatorial plate
(4) Three
Codes
Answer (1)
a b c d
Sol. Brassicaceae, A2+4 Mustard, Radish, Turnip
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Lamiaceae, A2+2 Salvia
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
87. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of
(1) Trifolium (2) Pisum (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) Cassia (4) Brassica (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

Answer (4) 96. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active
Sol. Pachytene - Stage of crossing over sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during
muscle contraction.
Metaphase-I - Chromosome align at equatorial plate
(1) Magnesium
Diakinesis - Terminalisation of chiasmata
(2) Sodium
Zygotene - Pairing of homologous chromosome
92. Which hormones do stimulate the production of (3) Potassium
pancreatic juice and bicarbonate? (4) Calcium
(1) Gastrin and insulin Answer (4)
(2) Cholecystokinin and secretin Sol. Calcium ions bind with TpC unit of troponin which is
(3) Insulin and glucagon responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin
(4) Angiotensin and epinephrine for crossbridge activity during muscles contraction.

Answer (2) 97. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number
can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss
Sol. Cholecystokinin and secretin both hormones
of blood from the body.
increase the secretion of pancreatic juice.
(1) Leucocytes (2) Neutrophils
93. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the
lungs is (3) Thrombocytes (4) Erythrocytes
(1) More than that in the blood Answer (3)
(2) Less than that in the blood Sol. Deduction in thrombocytes (platelets) can cause
(3) Less than that of carbon dioxide clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood
from the body.
(4) Equal to that in the blood
Answer (1) 98. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on
hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular
Sol. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli of lungs is
glucose uptake and utilization.
104 mm of Hg that is more than that of blood in
pulmonary artery (40 mm of Hg). (1) Glucagon
94. Choose the correct statements. (2) Secretin
(1) Meissner's corpuscles are thermoreceptors (3) Gastrin
(2) Photoreceptors in the human eye are (4) Insulin
depolarised during darkness and become
Answer (4)
hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus
Sol. Insulin is a peptide hormone which acts mainly on
(3) Receptors do not produce graded potentials
hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular
(4) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure glucose uptake and utilisation so it decreases the
Answer (2) blood glucose level.
Sol. Photoreceptors (Rod cells) in human eye are 99. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal
depolarised during darkness and become system, may occur due to
hyperpolarised in response to the light stimulus.
(1) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+
95. Graves' disease is caused due to
(2) Decreased level of estrogen
(1) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland
(3) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation
(2) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland of joints
(3) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland
(4) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular
(4) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland junction leading to fatigue
Answer (1) Answer (2)
Sol. Grave's disease is due to the hypersecretion of Sol. Osteoporosis in aged female after menopause is due
thyroid gland. to decreased level of estrogen.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

100. Serum differs from blood in Sol. LNG-20 (Levonorgestrel) is a hormone releasing
(1) Lacking albumins IUDs.

(2) Lacking clotting factors 105. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
vasectomy?
(3) Lacking antibodies
(1) No sperm occurs in epididymis
(4) Lacking globulins
(2) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
Answer (2)
(3) Irreversible sterility
Sol. Serum is plasma without clotting factors. It never
clot. (4) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid

101. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some
air always remains in the lungs which can never be
expelled because
(1) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling
at the lung walls
(2) There is a positive intrapleural pressure
Answer (1)
Sol. In vasectomy, sperms occur in epididymis. In this,
vas deferens are cut so sperms are not present in
semen.
106. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due
to in-vitro fertilization is transferred into

(3) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the (1) Fallopian tube
atmospheric pressure (2) Fimbriae
(4) There is a negative pressure in the lungs (3) Cervix
Answer (1) (4) Uterus
Sol. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some Answer (4)
air always remains in the lung which can never be
Sol. In intrauterine transfer (IUT), embryo more than 8
expelled because there is a negative intrapleural
blastomeres formed due to in-vitro fertilization is
pressure pulling at the lung walls.
transferred in uterus.
102. The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine
107. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway
gland because
of transport of sperms?
(1) It only stores and releases hormones
(1) Rete testis Epididymis Efferent ductules
(2) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus Vas deferens
(3) It secretes enzymes (2) Rete testis Vas deferens Efferent ductules
(4) It is provided with a duct Epididymis
Answer (1) (3) Efferent ductules Rete testis Vas deferens
Sol. Posterior pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland Epididymis
because it only stores and releases hormones. (4) Rete testis Efferent ductules Epididymis
103. The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of Vas deferens
sodium is Answer (4)
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule Sol. Pathway of transport of sperms in human male is
(2) Bowman's capsule
Rete testis Efferent ductules (Vasa efferentia)
(3) Descending limb of Henle's loop Epididymis Vas deferens.
(4) Distal convoluted tubule 108. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
Answer (1) correct option using the codes given below:
Sol. Proximal convoluted tubule is involved in active Column-I Column-II
reabsorption of sodium.
a. Mons pubis (i) Embryo formation
104. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD?
b. Antrum (ii) Sperm
(1) Multiload-375 (2) Lippes loop
c. Trophectoderm (iii) Female external genitalia
(3) Cu7 (4) LNG-20
Answer (4) d. Nebenkern (iv) Graafian follicle

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

Codes: Answer (4)

a b c d Sol. Genetic drift operates in small isolated inbreeding
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) population

(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 112. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of
heterozygous individual is represented by
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (1) 2pq

Answer (1) (2) pq

Sol. Correct matching is: (3) q2
(a) Mons pubis - Female external genitalia (4) p2
(b) Antrum - Graafian follicle Answer (1)
(c) Trophoectoderm - Embryo formation
Sol. In Hardy Weinberg equation,
(d) Nebenkern - Sperm
p2 = Homozygous dominant individuals
109. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen,
progesterone are produced by 2pq = Heterozygous individuals

(1) Placenta q2 = Homozygous recessive individuals

(2) Fallopian tube 113. The chronological order of human evolution from
(3) Pituitary early to the recent is

(4) Ovary (1) Ramapithecus Australopithecus

Homo habilis Homo erectus
Answer (1)
Sol. Hormones secreted by placenta are hCG, hPL, (2) Ramapithecus Homo habilis
estrogen and progesterone. Australopithecus Homo erectus

110. If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is (3) Australopithecus Homo habilis
homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability Ramapithecus Homo erectus
of their son being colour-blind is (4) Australopithecus Ramapithecus
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.75 Homo habilis Homo erectus
(3) 1 (4) 0 Answer (1)
Answer (4) Sol. The chronological order of human evolution from
Sol. Colourblindness is X-linked recessive disease and early to the recent is
shows criss-cross inheritance.
Ramapithecus Australopithecus
XCY XX Homo habilis Homo erectus
(Colour-blind (Normal vision
man) woman) 114. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
C events in the origin of life?
Progeny X Y
C
X XX XY (i) Formation of protobionts
C
X XX XY (ii) Synthesis of organic monomers
100% - carrier daughters (Phenotypically normal) (iii) Synthesis of organic polymers
100% - Normal son (iv) Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
111. Genetic drift operates in (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) Large isolated population (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) Non-reproductive population
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) Slow reproductive population
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) Small isolated population
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Answer (2) (3) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired
immune response
Sol. Correct sequence of events in the origin of life is
(4) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule
Synthesis of organic monomers
of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of
reverse transcriptase
Synthesis of organic polymers
Answer (1)

Sol. Causative agent of AIDS is HIV which is enveloped
Formation of protobionts virus that contains two identical molecules of ssRNA
and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
Formation of DNA-based genetic systems 119. Among the following edible fishes, which one is a
115. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must marine fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty
fulfill the traits given below, except acids?
(1) It should be able to generate its replica (1) Mangur (2) Mrigala
(2) It should be unstable structurally and chemically (3) Mackerel (4) Mystus
(3) It should provide the scope for slow changes Answer (3)
that are required for evolution Sol. Mackerel is a marine fish having rich source of
(4) It should be able to express itself in the form of omega-3 fatty acids.
'Mendelian characters' 120. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
Answer (2) correct option using the codes given below :
Sol. A molecule which is unstable structurally and Column-I Column-II
chemically can not act as a genetic material. a. Citric acid (i) Trichoderma
116. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium
transcription on one strand of the DNA which is
called the c. Statins (iii) Aspergillus

(1) Coding strand (2) Alpha strand d. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus

(3) Antistrand (4) Template strand Codes :

Answer (4) a b c d

Sol. The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyse the (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
polymerisation in only one direction that is 5 3, (2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
the strand with polarity 5 3 act as template and
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
is called as template strand.
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
117. Interspecific hybridization is the mating of
Answer (1)
(1) Two different related species
(2) Superior males and females of different breeds Sol. Microbe Product

(3) More closely related individuals within same Aspergillus niger - Citric acid
breed for 46 generations Trichoderma polysporum - Cyclosporin-A
(4) Animals within same breed without having Monascus purpureus - Statins
common ancestors
Clostridium butylicum - Butyric acid
Answer (1)
121. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a
Sol. Interspecific hybridization is mating of animals of two good index for pollution for water bodies receiving
different related species. effluents from
118. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS (1) Dairy industry
causative agent HIV?
(2) Petroleum industry
(1) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical
molecules of single-stranded RNA and two (3) Sugar industry
molecules of reverse transcriptase (4) Domestic sewage
(2) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus Answer (2)

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)
Sol. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is not a good Answer (4)
index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents
from petroleum industry as the generated waste is Sol. Cholera is caused by a bacterium Vibrio cholerae
mostly non-biodegradable in nature. and tetanus is caused by a bacterium Clostridium
tetani.
122. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by
127. Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly
(1) G. F. Gause (2) MacArthur
classification and select the correct option using the
(3) Verhulst and Pearl (4) C. Darwin codes given below:
Answer (1)
Column-I Column-II
Sol. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by
G. F. Gause. a. Family (i) Diptera
123. Which of the following National Parks is home to the b. Order (ii) Arthropoda
famous musk deer or hangul?
c. Class (iii) Muscidae
(1) Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh
d. Phylum (iv) Insecta
(2) Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh
Codes:
(3) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir
(4) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur a b c d

Answer (3) (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Sol. Conservation of Musk deer or Hangul. (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
124. A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in (3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) Drying of the lake due to algal bloom (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) Increased population of fish due to lots of Answer (4)
nutrients
Sol. Housefly belongs to
(3) Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
(i) Phylum - Arthropoda
(4) Increased population of aquatic organisms due to
minerals (ii) Class - Insecta
Answer (3) (iii) Order - Diptera
Sol. Micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic (iv) Family - Muscidae
matter consume oxygen as a result there is a sharp
decline in oxygen causing mortality of fish and other 128. Choose the correct statement.
aquatic creatures. (1) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired
125. The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain fins.
shall occur in (2) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart.
(1) Seagull (2) Crab
(3) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum.
(3) Eel (4) Phytoplankton
(4) All mammals are viviparous
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
Sol. Maximum DDT concentration occurs in fish eating
birds like seagull due to biomagnification. This Sol. Cyclostomes belong to the division agnatha. They are
happens because a toxic substance accumulated by jawless vertebrates without paired fins.
an organism cannot be metabolised or excreted, 129. Study the four statements (AD) given below and
thus passed to higher trophic level. select the two correct ones out of them:
126. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused A. Definition of biological species was given by
by bacteria? Ernst Mayr.
(1) Typhoid and smallpox
B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in
(2) Tetanus and mumps plants.
(3) Herpes and influenza C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by
(4) Cholera and tetanus R.H. Whittaker.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)
D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is
synonymous with growth.
The two correct statements are
(1) C and D
(2) A and D
(3) A and B
(4) B and C
Answer (2)
Sol. Photoperiod affect reproduction in plants.
Bionomial nomenclature system was given by
Carolus Linnaeus
130. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which
part of the reproductive system?
(1) Mushroom glands
(2) Testes
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Seminal vesicles
Answer (4)
Sol. In male cockroach, sperms are stored in seminal
vesicle.
131. Smooth muscles are
(1) Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
(2) Involuntary, cylindrical, striated
(3) Voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
(4) Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
Answer (4)
Sol. Smooth muscles are involuntary, fusiform, nonstriated
muscles.
132. Oxidative phosphorylation is
(1) Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
(2) Addition of phosphate group to ATP
(3) Formation of ATP by energy released from
electrons removed during substrate oxidation
(4) Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group
from a substrate to ADP
Answer (3)
Sol. Oxidative phosphorylation uses energy of oxidation-
reduction of substrate to generate ATP.
21
133. Which of the following is the least likely to be
involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of
most proteins?
(1) Electrostatic interaction
(2) Hydrophobic interaction
(3) Ester bonds
(4) Hydrogen bonds
Answer (3)
Sol. Ester bond is formed between sugar and phosphate
in a nucleotide.
134. Which of the following describes the given graph
correctly?
B
Potential Energy
A
Substrate
Product
Reaction
(1) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence
of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(2) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence
of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(3) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of
enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(4) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence
of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
Answer (1)
Sol. Potential energy of substrate is more than the
product. So it is an exothermic reaction. 'A'
represents the activation energy in the presence of
enzyme while 'B' in the absence of enzyme i.e.,
enzyme lowers down the activation energy.
135. When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which
checkpoint should be predominantly activated?
(1) G2 / M
(2) M
(3) Both G2 / M and M
(4) G1 / S
Answer (4)
Sol. G1 / S check point of cell cycle is a major check point.
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

136. Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal 139. The number of electrons delivered at the cathode
solution? during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in
60 seconds is (charge on electron = 1.60 1019 C)
(1) Umix = 0
(1) 6 1020 (2) 3.75 1020
(2) P = Pobs Pcalculated by Raoult's law = 0
(3) 7.48 1023 (4) 6 1023
(3) Gmix = 0
Answer (2)
(4) Hmix = 0
Sol. Q = I t
Answer (3)
= 1 A 60 s
Sol. Gmix for ideal solution is positive.
= 60 C
137. The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product
1.6 1010 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be 60
No. of electrons =
(1) 1.6 109 M (2) 1.6 1011 M 1.602 1019
(3) Zero (4) 1.26 105 M = 3.75 1020
Answer (1) 140. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule
(1) Gives up a proton
Sol. AgCl(s) Ag (aq) Cl() (aq)
S S S (2) Accepts OH from water releasing proton
()
NaCl Na (aq) Cl (aq) (3) Combines with proton from water molecule
0.1 M 0.1 M
(4) Contains replaceable H+ ion
Ksp(AgCl) = S(S + 0.1) Answer (2)
Q S << 0.1 Sol. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule accepts
S + 0.1 0.1 OH() from water releasing proton.

1.6 1010 = S 0.1 B(OH)3 + H2O [B(OH)4]()(aq) + H(+)(aq)

141. AIF3 is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is
S = 1.6 109 M
due to the formation of
138. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two
(1) K3[AIF6]
compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2
weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the (2) AIH3
atomic weights of X and Y are (3) K[AIF3H]
(1) 60, 40 (2) 20, 30 (4) K3[AIF3H3]
(3) 30, 20 (4) 40, 30 Answer (1)
Answer (4) Sol. Fact.
Sol. For XY2, 142. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron
Q 0.1 mole XY2 10 g but the reverse is not possible. It is because

1 mole XY2 100 g (1) Zinc has lower melting point than iron

and X + 2Y = 100 (i) (2) Zinc has lower negative electrode potential than
iron
For X3Y2,
(3) Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than
Q 0.05 mole X3Y2 9 g iron
1 mole X3Y2 180 g (4) Zinc is lighter than iron
and 3X + 2Y = 180 (ii) Answer (3)
On solving,
Sol. E Zn2( ) /Zn 0.76 V
X = 40

EFe 2( )
/Fe
0.44 V
and Y = 30
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

143. The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as Option (4) :

(1) Quicklime O 2()
O
1

(2) Milk of lime

C ; N
O O
O +1 O

(3) Aqueous solution of slaked lime
1 1 1 1
(4) Limewater
Both have 32 electrons with trigonal planar structure.
Answer (2)
147. In context with beryllium, which one of the following
Sol. Fact. statements is incorrect?
144. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in (1) It forms Be2C
NO2 , NO3 and NH4 respectively are (2) Its salts rarely hydrolyze
(3) Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric
(1) sp2, sp3 and sp (2) sp, sp2 and sp3
(4) It is rendered passive by nitric acid
(3) sp2, sp and sp3 (4) sp, sp3 and sp2
Answer (2)
Answer (2) Sol. Salts of beryllium is readily hydrolysed due to
presence of vacant p-orbital.
O ()
148. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately
O = +1
N = O
(+)
;

Sol. 1 N ;
O 1
O
strong oxidizing agent. Which of the folllowing

sp +1

reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour?

sp2
(1) 3S + 2H2SO4 3SO2 + 2H2O
(+) (2) C + 2H2SO4 CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
H
(3) CaF2 + H2SO4 CaSO4 + 2HF
N
H H (4) Cu + 2H2SO4 CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
H
sp3 Answer (3)
Sol. CaF2 + H2SO4 CaSO4 + 2HF
145. Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most
likely to behave as a Lewis base? In this reaction there is no change in oxidation state
of any atom.
(1) PF3 (2) CF4
149. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have
(3) SiF4 (4) BF3 electron density along the axes?
Answer (1) (1) dxz, dyz
Sol. In PF3, P has a lone pair of electrons. (2) d z2 , d x 2 y 2
146. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic
(3) d xy , d x 2 y 2
and isostructural?

(1) CIO3 , CO32 (2) SO32 , NO3 (4) d z2 , d xz

(3) CIO3 , SO32 (4) CO32 , NO3 Answer (2)

Sol. z y
Answer (3 & 4)
Sol. Option (3) :
2()
x
Cl () ; S
O O ()

O O O O

()

Both have 42 electrons with pyramidal structure. dz 2 dx 2 y 2

23
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

150. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are 155. Which of the following can be used as the halide
component for Friedel-Crafts reaction?
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
(1) Bromobenzene (2) Chloroethene
(2) Planar triangle, sp3d3
(3) Isopropyl chloride (4) Chlorobenzene
(3) Square planar, sp3d2
Answer (3)
(4) Octahedral, sp3d2
Sol. Isopropyl chloride would form stable carbocation
Answer (4)

Sol. XeF4, has octahedral geometry where hybridisation of H3C C CH3
Xe is sp3d2.
H
151. Among the following, which one is a wrong
statement? 156. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are
coplanar?
(1) p-d bonds are present in SO2
(2) SeF4 and CH4 have same shape CH3 CN
(1) (2) C C
(3) I3 has bent geometry CH3 CN

(4) PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist

Answer (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. Shape of SeF4 would be see saw whereas that of
CH4 would be tetrahedral.
152. The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the
following species is
(1) CN C6H5 Br NH3
Answer (4)
(2) Br CN NH3 C6H5
Sol. Biphenyl is a planar system, where all the carbon

(3) CN Br C6H5 NH3 atoms and H-atoms are in same plane.

(4) NH3 CN Br C6H5 157. Which one of the following structures represents
nylon 6,6 polymer?
Answer (1)
Sol. Fact. H2 H2
C H C H
153. Which one of the following statements related to (1) C C
lanthanons is incorrect? NH2 CH2 66
(1) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius
decreases from Pr to Lu H2 H2
C H C H
(2) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than H2 H2 C C
aluminium C H C H 6
(2) C C CH3 COOH
(3) Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing NH2 Cl 6
agent in volumetric analysis
(4) Europium shows +2 oxidation state O
Answer (2) H2 H ( CH ) NH
(3) C( C N 2 6

C 2 C
Sol. Fact.
H2
154. Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin O n

complexes of
H2 H2
(1) d 8 (2) d 4 C H C H
(4) C C
(3) d 9 (4) d 7
NH2 CH3 66
Answer (1)
Sol. Fact. Answer (3)
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

Sol. Nylon-6,6 is the co-polymer of adipic acid and CH3

hexamethylene diamine. NO2
Sol. H3C C
O O H H CH3
|| || | |
nHO C (CH2 )4 C OH nH N (CH2 )6 N H No acidic H-atom on the carbon atom having
NO2-group.
O O H H 161. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that
the genetic information flows from
C ( CH2)4 C N (CH2)6 N + 2nH2O
(1) DNA Carbohydrates Proteins
n
(2) DNA RNA Proteins
158. In pyrrole
(3) DNA RNA Carbohydrates
4 3
(4) Amino acids Proteins DNA
5 2
N1 Answer (2)
Sol. Fact.
H
162. The correct corresponding order of names of four
the electron density is maximum on
aldoses with configuration given below
(1) 3 and 4 (2) 2 and 4
CHO CHO
(3) 2 and 5 (4) 2 and 3 H OH HO H
Answer (3) H OH H OH
Sol. At 2 and 5 negative charge is more stable. CH2OH CH2OH

159. Which of the following compounds shall not produce CHO CHO
propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination
HO H H OH
or direct only elimination reaction?
HO H HO H
H2 CH2OH CH2OH
(1) H3C C CH2OH
respectively, is
(2) H 2C C O (1) D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose
H2 (2) L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose
(3) H3C C CH2Br
(3) D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose
(4) H2C CH2 (4) L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose
C Answer (3)
H2 Sol. Fact.
Answer (2) 163. In the given reaction
Sol. H 2C C O , has only two carbon atom, cannot
HF
be converted into propene as the conditions are + 0C P
given.
160. Which one of the following nitro-compounds does the product P is
not react with nitrous acid?
F
H2
H3C C (1) (2)
H3C
(1) CH NO2 (2) H3C C NO2
H3C H3C
CH3 H2 F
H3C C
(3) (4)
(3) H3C C (4) C NO2
H NO2 H2
O
Answer (2) Answer (2)

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

166. The correct structure of the product A formed in the

HF reaction
Sol. H
O
H2(gas, 1 atmosphere)
164. A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A A
Pd/carbon, ethanol
reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give an
unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol,
forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the is
molecular formula C 12 H10 N2O. The structure of
compound A is
O
NO2
(1) (1)

CN
OH
(2)

(2)
CONH2
(3)

OH
NH2
(4) (3)

Answer (1)
OH
NO2 NH2
Sn/HCl HNO2
Sol. (4)

OH

N2Cl Answer (1)

O O
H2(gas, 1 atm.)
Sol. Pd/carbon, ethanol
N=N OH

167. Which among the given molecules can exhibit

165. Consider the reaction tautomerism?
CH3CH2CH2Br + NaCN CH3CH2CH2CN + NaBr O O
O
This reaction will be the fastest in Ph
Ph
(1) Methanol I II III
(2) N, N-dimethylformamide (DMF). (1) Both I and III
(3) Water (2) Both I and II
(4) Ethanol
(3) Both II and III
Answer (2)
(4) III only
Sol. Q The reaction is S N 2, most suitable solvent
should be polar aprotic i.e., DMF Answer (4)
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)
Sol. Bridge-head carbocation is unstable, therefore, 171. The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm3 solution of
O AgNO 3 with electrolytic conductivity of
tautomerism will be shown only by and the 5.76 103 S cm1 at 298 K
(1) 11.52 S cm2/mol
OH (2) 0.086 S cm2/mol
enolic form would be .
(3) 28.8 S cm2/mol
(4) 2.88 S cm2/mol
168. The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic acids
Answer (1)
COOH COOH COOH
1000 5.76 10 3 1000
O Sol. m
O M 0.5
I II III
= 11.52 S cm2/mol
is 172. The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten
(1) II > III > I (2) III > II > I at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because
the
(3) II > I > III (4) I > II > III
(1) Rate is inversely proportional to the surface
Answer (1) coverage

Sol. On the basis of I effect, the correct acidic strength (2) Rate is independent of the surface coverage
would be (3) Rate of decomposition is very slow
(4) Rate is proportional to the surface coverage
COOH COOH COOH
> > Answer (4)
O
O Sol. Rate is proportion to the surface coverage
II III I
173. The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the
169. The compound that will react most readily with electrolytes used for the coagulation of As2S3 are
gaseous bromine has the formula given below :

(1) C2H2 I. (NaCl) = 52

II. (BaCl2) = 0.69
(2) C4H10
III. (MgSO4) = 0.22
(3) C2H4
The correct order of their coagulating power is
(4) C3H6
(1) II > I > III (2) III > II > I
Answer (4)
(3) III > I > II (4) I > II > III
Sol. In gas phase allylic substitution takes place. Answer (2)
170. Which one of the following compounds shows the
1
presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond? Sol. Coagulating power
Coagulation value
(1) HCN
(2) Cellulose 174. During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the
time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas
(3) Concentrated acetic acid using a current of 3 amperes is
(4) H2O2 (1) 110 minutes (2) 220 minutes
Answer (2) (3) 330 minutes (4) 55 minutes
Sol. Fact. Answer (1)

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-DD)

Sol. For 1 mole Cl2, 2 F electricity is required

Sol. C5H5N + H2O C5H5N H + OH
For 0.1 mole Cl2, 0.2 F electricity will be
required t=0 C

Q=It t = eq. C(1 ) C C

Q 0.2 96500
or, t 110 min.
I 3 60 C 2
Kb C 2
175. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which 1
n = 3 and l = 1?
(1) 6
Kb 1.7 109
(2) 10
C 0.1
(3) 14
(4) 2 = 1.3 104
Answer (4) % = 1.3 104 100 = 0.013%
Sol. An orbital can accommodate maximum of
179. In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the
2 electrons with anti-parallel spins.
coordination numbers for calcium ion (Ca2+) and
176. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is
fluoride ion (F) are
changed isothermally from p i to p f, the entropy
change is given by (1) 6 and 6
p (2) 8 and 4
(1) S nRln i
pf (3) 4 and 8
p
(2) S nRT ln f (4) 4 and 2
pi
Answer (2)
p
(3) S RT ln i Sol. In CaF2,
pf
Ca2(+) has fcc arrangement and F() ions are present
p
(4) S nRln f in all tetrahedral voids.
pi
Co-ordination numbers for Ca2(+) and F() ions are
Answer (1)
8 and 4.
p
Sol. S nRln i 180. If the Ecell for a given reaction has a negative value,
pf which of the following gives the correct relationships
177. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution
for the values of G and Keq?
of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) G > 0; Keq > 1
(3) 3 (4) 0 (2) G < 0; Keq > 1
Answer (3) (3) G < 0; Keq < 1
Sol. Ba(OH)2 Ba2(+) + 2OH()
(4) G > 0; Keq < 1
van't Hoff factor = 1 + 2 = 3
178. The percentage of pyridine (C 5H 5N) that forms Answer (4)
pyridinium ion (C 5H5N+H) in a 0.10 M aqueous
o
pyridine solution (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 109) is Sol. Q Ecell ve
(1) 0.013% (2) 0.77% G = +ve & Keq = ve
(3) 1.6% (4) 0.0060%
i.e., G > 0 & Keq < 1
Answer (1)

  
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