Test 33

INSIGHTS
MOCK TEST SERIES 2015: TEST – 33 SOLUTIONS

1. Solution: d)
Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is a Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India

programme to uplift rural India. The programme is being launched in collaboration with the
Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), National Institutes of Technology (NITs) and other leading
Government Engineering Institutes like College of Engineering, Pune across the country.
Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is being coordinated and steered by IIT Delhi. The programme involve
engaging with neighbouring communities and using technologies for their upliftment. The
programme is currently being planned and is yet to be launched.
2. Solution: d)
The layer of earth that is just below Lithosphere and goes deeper inside the surface is known as
Asthenosphere. The balance between pressure and temperature is such that the rocks in this layer
of the earth have little strength, and they behave like butter under a knife. This is the part of the
mantle that slows down seismic waves as it consists of molten rocks
If we consider the entire mantle as whole, Asthenosphere comprises just over 6% in volume, but it
is very important in tectonic plate movement as because of the liquidity of this layer, the overlying
layer called Lithosphere is able to move.
What is the difference between Lithosphere and Asthenosphere?
• The difference between lithosphere and Asthenosphere pertain to their compositions.
• While lithosphere is hard and rigid, Asthenosphere is a layer made up of molten rocks.
• Lithosphere stretches from the top of the earth’s crust down to first 100 kilometers while
Asthenosphere lies beneath lithosphere
• Rocks are under severe pressure in Asthenosphere, whereas they face much less pressure in
lithosphere.
• The mineral composition of lithosphere is varied as it contains more than 80 minerals whereas
Asthenosphere is mainly comprised of silicates of iron and magnesium.
• The depth of the lithosphere is about 100 kilometers, whereas the depth of Asthenosphere is 400-
700 kilometers.
3. Solution: a)
Diastrophism refers to deformation of the Earth's crust, and more especially to folding and
faulting. Diastrophism can be considered part of geo-tectonics. Diastrophism comes from the
Greek word meaning a twisting.
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INSIGHTS MOCK TEST SERIES 2015: TEST – 33 SOLUTIONS

All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism.
They include: (i) orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and
affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust; (ii) epeirogenic processes involving uplift or
warping of large parts of the earth’s crust; (iii) earthquakes involving local relatively minor
movements; (iv) plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates.
4. Solution: c)
President is a part of the Parliament. But he only addresses the Parliament (does not take part in
the proceedings).
Attorney general can do so. He also enjoys all the privileges and immunities available to the MPs.
CAG only guides the PAC in ensuring the accountability of the executive to the Parliament.
5. Solution: a)
The importance of the traditions of the Alvars and Nayanars was sometimes indicated by the claim
that their compositions were as important as the Vedas.
For instance, one of the major anthologies of compositions by the Alvars, the Nalayira
Divyaprabandham, was frequently described as the Tamil Veda, thus claiming that the text was as
significant as the four Vedas in Sanskrit that were cherished by the Brahmanas.
6. Solution: c)
The Acts of Parliament do not apply fully to these areas. Governor specifies to what extent these
laws are applicable to the 6th schedule areas.
Laws made on matters like land, forests etc. (except on customary or religious matters) require the
assent of the Governor.
7. Solution: d)
The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the
union territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their
own local legislatures.
The Lt. governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An
ordinance has the same force as an act of the assembly. Every such ordinance must be approved by
the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time.


But, he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended. Further, no
such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.
8. Solution: d)
He constitutes a finance commission after every five years to review the financial position of the
panchayats and the municipalities.
He also lays the reports of the State Finance Commission, the State Public Service Commission
and the Comptroller and Auditor-General relating to the accounts of the state, before the state
legislature.
9. Solution: d)
In his oath, a judge of the Supreme Court swears:
• to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India;

• to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India;
• to duly and faithfully and to the best of his ability, knowledge and judgement perform the
duties of the Office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will; and
• to uphold the Constitution and the laws.
First three are the same as that of an MP. Fourth one is peculiar to judges.
The President swears:
• to faithfully execute the office;

• to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law; and
• to devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India.
10. Solution: c)
Committee on Petitions examines petitions on bills and on matters of general public importance. It
also entertains representations from individuals and associations on matters pertaining to Union
subjects.
The Lok Sabha committee consists of 15 members, while the Rajya Sabha committee consists of 10
members.
11. Solution: a)
They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned in the
Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment.


They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of
the situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition varies from time to time.
Their membership varies from three to eight. They usually include only Cabinet Ministers.
However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership.
12. Solution: d)
The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his
office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the
President. He can also be removed from the office before completion of his term.
A formal impeachment is not required for his removal. He can be removed by a resolution of the
Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority (i.e., a majority of the total members of the House)
and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. But, no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 day’s
advance notice has been given. Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his
removal.
The Vice-President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes
charge. He is also eligible for re-election to that office. He may be elected for any number of terms.
13. Solution: a)
The Constitution of J&K was adopted on 17 November 1957, and came into force on 26 January
1957. Its salient features (as amended from time to time) are as follows:
• It declares the State of J&K to be an integral part of India.

• It secures justice, liberty, equality and fraternity to the people of the state.
• It says that the State of J&K comprises all the territory that was under the ruler of the state
on 15 August 1947. This means that the territory of the state also includes the area which is
under the occupation of Pakistan.
14. Solution: c)
As per Bommai case (1994), secularism is one of the basic features of the Constitution. Hence, a
state government pursuing anti-secular politics is liable to action under Article 356.
However, it would be improper to impose in cases of
• Maladministration in the state or allegations of corruption against the ministry or stringent

financial exigencies of the state.
• Where the state government is not given prior warning to rectify itself except in case of
extreme urgency leading to disastrous consequences.


15. Solution: b)
The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by
an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern)
and provided a zonal council for each zone.
Each zonal council consists of the following members: (a) home minister of Central government.
(b) chief ministers of all the States in the zone. (c) Two other ministers from each state in the zone.
(d) Administrator of each union territory in the zone.
16. Solution: b)
Under the Constitution, the jurisdiction of each state is confined to its own territory. Hence, it is
possible that the acts and records of one state may not be recognised in another state. To remove
any such difficulty, the Constitution contains the “Full Faith and Credit” clause.
Full faith and credit is to be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and
judicial proceedings of the Centre and every state. The expression ‘public acts’ includes both
legislative and executive acts of the government. The expression ‘public record’ includes any
official book, register or record made by a public servant in the discharge of his official duties.
17. Solution: a)
Ajivjkas have often been described as fatalists: those who believe that everything is predetermined.
The other school belonging to the tradition of the Lokayatas are usually described as materialists.
They believe the world to be a play of elements which will all pass on the earth and space when one
dies.
Texts from these traditions have not survived, so we know about them only from the works of
other traditions.
18.Solution: c)
Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma.
This can be achieved only by renouncing the world; therefore, monastic existence is a necessary
condition of salvation.
Jaina monks and nuns (women) took five vows: to abstain from killing, stealing and lying; to
observe celibacy; and to abstain from possessing property.


19. Solution: b)
The khanqah was the centre of social life in Sufism.
We know about Shaikh Nizamuddin’s hospice (c. Fourteenth century) on the banks of the river
Yamuna in Ghiyaspur, on the outskirts of what was then the city of Delhi.
It comprised several small rooms and a big hall ( jama’at khana) where the inmates and visitors
lived and prayed. The inmates included family members of the Shaikh, his attendants and
disciples.
20. Solution: d)
21. Solution: a)
People began transplanting paddy since ages. This meant that instead of scattering seed on the
ground, from which plants would sprout, saplings were grown and then planted in the fields.
This led to increased production, as many more plants survived.
However, this also required a large amount of labour and resources.
22. Solution: b)


While Magadha became a powerful kingdom, places like Vajji, with its capital at Vaishali (Bihar),
was under a different form of government, known as gana or sangha.
In a gana or a sangha there were not one, but many rulers. Sometimes, even when thousands of
men ruled together, each one was known as a raja. These rajas performed rituals together. They
also met in assemblies, and decided what had to be done and how, through discussion and debate.
For example, if they were attacked by an enemy, they met to discuss what should be done to meet
the threat. However, women, dasas and kammakaras could not participate in these assemblies.
Both the Buddha and Mahavira belonged to ganas or sanghas.
23. Solution: a)
The Buddha taught that life is full of suffering and unhappiness. This is caused because we have
cravings and desires (which often cannot be fulfilled).
Sometimes, even if we get what we want, we are not satisfied, and want even more (or want other
things).
The Buddha described this as thirst or tanha. He taught that this constant craving could be
removed by following moderation in everything.
24. Solution: a)
The empire that Ashoka ruled was founded by his grandfather, Chandragupta Maurya, more than
2300 years ago.
Chandragupta was supported by a wise man named Chanakya or Kautilya. Many of Chanakya’s
ideas were written down in a book called the Arthashastra.
The treatise contains details on administration, kingdom economy, politics, ethics and several
other matters that are helpful in governing a kingdom.
25. Solution: d)
He did not believe in idol worship and all the rituals propagated by the Brahmins.
He believed in the Vedic truth of one God. Salvation for him was to be attained while living in the
world with right conduct.
He rejected that attaning Moksha or liberation was the aim of life.
26. Solution: d)


In June 1920, Jawaharlal Nehru began going around the villages in Awadh, talking to the villagers,
and trying to understand their grievances. By October, the Oudh Kisan Sabha was set up headed by
Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.
Within a month, over 300 branches had been set up in the villages around the region. So when the
Non- Cooperation Movement began the following year, the effort of the Congress was to integrate
the Awadh peasant struggle into the wider struggle. The peasant movement, however, developed in
forms that the Congress leadership was unhappy with. As the movement spread in 1921, the
houses of talukdars and merchants were attacked, bazaars were looted, and grain hoards were
taken over .
27. Solution: b)
Not all social groups were moved by the abstract concept of swaraj. One such group was the
nation’s ‘untouchables’, who from around the 1930s had begun to call themselves dalit or
oppressed. Congress had ignored the dalits for long, for fear of offending the sanatanis, the
conservative high-caste Hindus.
Thus, they began organising themselves, demanding reserved seats in educational institutions, and
a separate electorate that would choose dalit members for legislative councils. Political
empowerment, they believed, would resolve the problems of their social disabilities.
Dalit participation in the Civil Disobedience Movement was therefore limited, particularly in the
Maharashtra and Nagpur region where their organisation was quite strong.
28. Solution: d)
In Kheda, Gujarat, the peasants were frequently plagued by poverty, famines, scant resource,
untouchability, alcoholism and British discrimination. The famine of Chhappania Akal and some
subsequent famines had destroyed the agrarian economy of the region and the peasants were still
dying out of starvation.
Yet the authorities refused to grant remission of revenue. Gandhiji thus led the movement as the
spiritual leader of the peasants, with Sardar Patel.
29. Solution: c)
The All India Home Rule League was a national political organisation founded on april 1916 to lead
the national demand for self-government, termed Home Rule, and to obtain the status of a
Dominion within the British Empire as enjoyed by Australia, Canada, South Africa, New Zealand
and Newfoundland at the time.


30. Solution: a)
The "Berlin committee for Indian independence" was established in 1915 by Virendra Nath
Chattopadhya, including Bhupendra Nath Dutt & Lala Hardayal under "Zimmerman plan" with
the full backing of German foreign office.
Their goal was mainly to achieve the following four objectives:
1: Mobilize Indian revolutionaries abroad. 2: Incite rebellion among Indian troops stationed
abroad 3: Send volunteers and arms to India. 4: Even to Organized an armed invasion of British
India to gain India's independence and sent British back to home.
31. Solution: d)
At Barin’s suggestion Aurobindo Ghosh agreed to the starting of a paper, Yugantar, which was to
preach open revolt and the absolute denial of the British rule and include such items as a series of
articles containing instructions for guerrilla warfare.
32. Solution: c)
Vande Mataram—literally, "I praise thee, Mother"—is a poem from Bankim Chandra Chatterjee's
1882 novel Anandamath.
It was written in Bengali and Sanskrit.
It is a hymn to the Mother Land. It played a vital role in the Indian independence movement, first
sung in a political context by Rabindranath Tagore at the 1896 session of the Indian National
Congress. Thereafter, it became popular as the theme song of the Swdeshi movement. The
movement was also called as the Vandemataram movement.
33. Solution: c)
During the 1870s young leaders in Bombay also established a number of provincial political
associations, such as the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha (Poona Public Society), founded by Mahadev
Govind Ranade (1842–1901).
It started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of
India. It started as an elected body of 95 members elected by 6000 persons on April 2, 1870. The
organisation was a precursor to the Indian National Congress which started with its first session
from Maharashtra itself.
34. Solution: a)


Option A does not cover every area of moral policing. You are to choose the most appropriate
option.
This article clears the idea with reference to pornography. Ban on child pornography was recently
in news.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/not-for-moral-policing-centre/article7523707.ece
35. Solution: b)
On this day in 1893, Sir Rudalph Diesel (inventor of the diesel engine) for the first time
successfully ran mechanical engine with Peanut Oil. His research experiment had predicted that
vegetable oil is going to replace the fossil fuels in the next century to fuel different mechanical
engines. Thus to mark this extraordinary achievement, World Biofuel Day is observed every year
on 10th August.
The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas celebrated ‘World Bio Fuel Day’ on Monday with
Minister Dharmendra Pradhan announcing the availability of high-speed diesel (HSD) blended
with bio-diesel at select outlets around the country.
This is the first time in India that biofuel-blended diesel will be sold in retail outlets.
www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/biodiesel-being-sold-at-select-
pumps/article7523658.ece
36. Solution: d)
• Aims to provide educational intervention by giving the bridge courses to the trainees and
getting them Certificates for Class XII and X from distance medium educational system.
• Aims to provide trade basis skill training in four courses at the same time of formal
education, in field of a) Manufacturing b) Engineering c) Services d) Soft skills.
• It intends to cover people in between 17 to 35 age group from all minority communities as
well as Madrasa students.
This scheme will provide avenues for continuing higher education and also open up employment
opportunities in the organised sector.
37. Solution: d)
Initially ISRO imported the raw material for aerospace grade Titanium alloys with high purity
Titanium sponge from countries like Russia, China and Japan despite the fact that India is
endowed with the third largest reserve of Titanium bearing minerals.


38. Solution: c)
The app was launched in Bihar that aims to help people learn about computers and Internet
through self learning modules. The app envisages offering digital literacy to tribal and Dalit
women in the State which is free and available on Google app store.
Telecom ministry also launched “Disha handbook” that has pictographic lessons on computers
operations. This initiative was taken by Ministry to spread out digital literacy in women from tribal
and Dalit background in Bihar.
39. Solution: d)
Union Government has decided to allow Aadhaar enrollment of Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs),
Overseas Citizen of India (OCIs) and Non-Resident Indians (NRIs).
It was announced by Union Planning Minister Rao Inderjit Singh in written reply to Lok Sabha.
This move will help all persons on the Indian soil (including resident Indian, OCI/PIO, NRIs and
visa holding visitors) to authenticate their identity digitally.
40. Solution: d)
It is remotely piloted high speed target drone system developed by Aeronautical Development
Establishment, a Bengaluru unit of DRDO in 1985. It has two variant commissioned in the armed
forces Lakshya 1 & 2.
Specification:
• It can be launches from ground or ship and requires zero length launcher.
• Recovered by two stages – parachute and sea.
• Its flight path can be pre-programmed based upon the type of mission.
• It is seven feet long flies with the maximum speed of Mach 0.7.
• Has ability to fly at low level and is equipped with cruise missile also.
41. Solution: c)
Egypt has recently launched a major expansion of the Suez Canal.
• Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt. It links the Mediterranean with the
Red Sea through Isthmus of Suez. It was first opened in 1869 after a decade of construction.


• Strategically and economically it is one of the most important waterways in the world
providing the shortest sea link between Asia and Europe
The canal was nationalised by Egypt in 1956 after brief war against the UK, France and Israel. The
canal has been a significant income source for Egypt since then
42. Solution: c)
The draft agreement outlines 17 non-binding goals with 169 specific targets that comprise different
socio-economic issues. These goals will succeed 8 MDGs which was adopted in 2000.
It has broader sustainability agenda dealing with ‘five Ps’ people, planet, prosperity, peace, and
partnership. It seeks to address the universal need for development that works for all people and
root causes of poverty.
It calls for eradicating hunger and poverty, improving living standards, ensuring quality education,
affordable and reliable energy, achieving gender equality and taking urgent action to combat
climate change etc.
43. Solution: a)
The South Pole lies almost at the centre of Antarctica.
As it is located in the South Polar Region, it is permanently covered with thick ice sheets. There are
no permanent human settlements.
Many countries have research stations in Antarctica. India also has research stations there. These
are named as Maitri and Dakshin Gangotri.
44. Solution: d)
In your 7th NCERT books, Switzerland is given as the answer. But it is wrong. Check out this link.
Recently Gold has been discovered. It does not mine Gold though.
http://www.myswitzerland.com/en-in/minerals-paradise-binn-valley.html
http://www.azomining.com/Article.aspx?ArticleID=125
45. Solution: d)
Mangoes grow on trees that range from 30 to 100 feet. Native to India, mangoes have been grown
since prehistoric times.


Lotus are native to India and are, in fact, sacred to a number of Indian religions, including
Buddhism.
Jasmine is a very fragrant, evergreen vine or shrub. Jasmine is native to India and other tropical
areas of Asia, Africa and Australia. There are many varieties of jasmine, with over 150 varieties
known.
46. Solution: a)
Flood Basalt Provinces are volcanoes outpour highly fluid lava that flows for long distances. Some
parts of the world are covered by thousands of sq. km of thick basalt lava flows. There can be a
series of flows with some flows attaining thickness of more than 50 m. Individual flows may extend
for hundreds of km.
The Deccan Traps from India, presently covering most of the Maharashtra plateau, are a much
larger flood basalt province. It is believed that initially the trap formations covered a much larger
area than the present.
47. Solution: b)
Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused by
pole-fleeing force and tidal force.
The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth. You are aware of the fact that the earth
is not a perfect sphere; it has a bulge at the equator. This bulge is due to the rotation of the earth.
48. Solution: b)
The mapping of the ocean floor and palaeomagnetic studies of rocks from oceanic regions revealed
the following facts:
• It was realised that all along the mid-oceanic ridges, volcanic eruptions are common and
they bring huge amounts of lava to the surface in this area.
• The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable
similarities in terms of period of formation, chemical compositions and magnetic
properties. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges are normal polarity and are the youngest.
The age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest.
• The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks.
49. Solution: c)
Rocks (igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic) of the earth’s surface are exposed to denudational
agents, and are broken up into various sizes of fragments.


Such fragments are transported by different exogenous agencies and deposited.
These deposits through compaction turn into rocks. This process is called lithification. In many
sedimentary rocks, the layers of deposits retain their characteristics even after lithification.
Hence, we see a number of layers of varying thickness in sedimentary rocks like sandstone, shale
etc.
50. Solution: d)
Weathering mantles with different profiles have various mineral and chemical zones that give way
to one another on the vertical, from the slightly altered bedrock to the intensively altered
outcropping rocks, and that are characteristic of the particular mantle.
The formation of the weathering mantle depends on climate, the composition of the bedrock,
hydrogeological conditions, the relief of the terrain, tectonic structure, the duration of
development, the age during which development occurred, and degree of mobility of the earth’s
crust.
The thickest weathering mantles form in periods of tectonic inactivity in regions with moist, warm
climates. Decomposition of a large mass of organic matter leads to the formation of CO2 and
organic acids that filter from the soil into the weathering mantle, decompose rocks at a deep level,
and leach out the soluble products of weathering.
51. Solution: a)
When river enters a bend, the velocity of water is naturally higher at one end of the bank than the
other end of the bank.
This difference causes erosion of bank at one side due to higher velocity. The other side being at
lower velocity causes deposition of material.
52. Solution: d)
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends
roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator.
This layer contains dust particles and water vapour.
All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer. The temperature in this layer decreases
at the rate of 1°C for every 165m of height. This is the most important layer for all biological
activity.


53. Solution: c)
The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 Watt/m2 in the tropics to about 70
Watt/m2 in the poles.
Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least.
Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics.
Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans.
In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.
54. Solution: d)
When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects
(rather than nuclei in air above the surface) such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is
known as dew. The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air, high relative
humidity, and cold and long nights.
For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is above the freezing point.
55. Solution: b)
Between the latitudes 35 and 40 N and S of the equator, the rain is heavier on the eastern coasts
and goes on decreasing towards the west. But, between 45 and 65 N and S of equator, due to the
westerlies, the rainfall is first received on the western margins of the continents and it goes on
decreasing towards the east.
The central parts of the tropical land and the eastern and interior parts of the temperate lands
receive rainfall varying between 50 - 100 cm per annum. Here moisture also an important reason.
56. Solution: c)
Mediterranean climate occurs around Mediterranean sea, along the west coast of continents in
subtropical latitudes between 30° - 40° latitudes e.g. — Central California, Central Chile, along the
coast in south eastern and south western Australia.
These areas come under the influence of sub tropical high in summer and westerly wind in winter.
Hence, the climate is characterised by hot, dry summer and mild, rainy winter. Monthly average
temperature in summer is around 25° C and in winter below 10°C. The annual precipitation ranges
between 35 - 90 cm.
57.Solution: d)


Factors affecting ocean salinity are mentioned below:
• The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depends mainly on evaporation and
precipitation.
• Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from rivers,
and in polar regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice.
• Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.
• The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and density of
water are interrelated.
• Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of an area.
58. Solution: d)
The vertical motion refers to the rise and fall of water in the oceans and seas. Due to attraction of
the sun and the moon, the ocean water is raised up and falls down twice a day.
More saline water subsides down in the ocean and less dense water comes on the surface. It is a
dynamic process.
The upwelling of cold water from subsurface and the sinking of surface water are also forms of
vertical motion of ocean water.
59. Solution: a)
This is from your NCERT book. It has been listed by IUCN as critically endangered.
60. Solution: a)


61. Solution: d)
A study of rainfall patterns does not reveal the whole truth behind the water availability in various
regions in India. Rains in India are largely due to the monsoons. This means that most of the rain
falls in a few months of the year.
Despite nature’s monsoon bounty, failure to sustain water availability underground has resulted
largely from the loss of vegetation cover, diversion for high water demanding crops, and pollution
from industrial effluents and urban wastes. Irrigation methods like dams, tanks and canals have
been used in various parts of India since ancient times.
62. Solution: d)
The Chipko Andolan was the result of a grassroot level effort to end the alienation of people from
their forests. The movement originated from an incident in a remote village called Reni in
Garhwal, high-up in the Himalayas during the early 1970s.
There was a dispute between the local villagers and a logging contractor who had been allowed to
fell trees in a forest close to the village.


Inherent in such a competition to control a natural resource is the conservation of a replenishable
resource. Specifically the method of use was being called into question.
The Chipko movement quickly spread across communities and media, and forced the government,
to whom the forest belongs, to rethink their priorities in the use of forest produce.
63. Solution: a)
The Ganga Action Plan, a multi-crore project came about in 1985 because the quality of the water
in the Ganga was very poor.
Coliform is a group of bacteria, found in human intestines, whose presence in water indicates
contamination by disease-causing microorganisms.
The coliform level in Ganga increased so much that it indicated the water to be unsafe for humans.
64. Solution: a)
Concave mirror can direct divergent light beams into a point of light.
This point of light has the concentrated energy of sun’s rays which increases the energy efficiency
of the solar cooker.
65. Solution: d)
The water at the surface of the sea or ocean is heated by the Sun while the water in deeper sections
is relatively cold. This difference in temperature is exploited to obtain energy in ocean-thermal-
energy conversion plants.
These plants can operate if the temperature difference between the water at the surface and water
at depths up to 2 km is 293 K (20°C) or more. The warm surface-water is used to boil a volatile
liquid like ammonia. The vapours of the liquid are then used to run the turbine of generator. The
cold water from the depth of the ocean is pumped up and condense vapour again to liquid.
66. Solution: d)
In a bio-gas plant, a slurry of cow-dung and water is made in the mixing tank from where it is fed
into the digester. The digester is a sealed chamber in which there is no oxygen.
Anaerobic micro-organisms that do not require oxygen decompose or break down complex
compounds of the cow-dung slurry. It takes a few days for the decomposition process to be
complete and generate gases like methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide.


67. Solution: a)
Large amount of fossil fuels are burnt every day in power stations to heat up water to produce
steam which further runs the turbine to generate electricity. The transmission of electricity is more
efficient than transporting coal or petroleum over the same distance. Therefore, many thermal
power plants are set up near coal or oil fields. The term thermal power plant is used since fuel is
burnt to produce heat energy which is converted into electrical energy.
68. Solution: a)
The difference between the direct and alternating currents is that the direct current always flows in
one direction, whereas the alternating current reverses its direction periodically.
Most power stations constructed these days produce AC. In India, the AC changes direction after
every 1/100 second, that is, the frequency of AC is 50 Hz. An important advantage of AC over DC is
that electric power can be transmitted over long distances without much loss of energy.
69. Solution: c)
70. Solution: a)
The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have size smaller than the
wavelength of visible light. These are more effective in scattering light of shorter wavelengths at
the blue end than light of longer wavelengths at the red end. The red light has a wavelength about
1.8 times greater than blue light. Thus, when sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine
particles in air scatter the blue colour (shorter wavelengths) more strongly than red.
The scattered blue light enters our eyes. If the earth had no atmosphere, there would not have been
any scattering. Then, the sky would have looked dark. The sky appears dark to passengers flying at
very high altitudes, as scattering is not prominent at such heights.
71. Solution: d)


A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower. It is caused by dispersion
of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere. A rainbow is always formed in a
direction opposite to that of the Sun.
The water droplets act like small prisms. They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then
reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop. Due to the
dispersion of light and internal reflection, different colours reach the observer’s eye.
72. Solution: b)
When light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot.
This concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is
away from light. Thus, the plant appears to bend towards light.
73. Solution: c)
Animals have evolved different organs for the uptake of oxygen from the environment and for
getting rid of the carbon dioxide produced. Terrestrial animals can breathe the oxygen in the
atmosphere, but animals that live in water need to use the oxygen dissolved in water.
Since the amount of dissolved oxygen is fairly low compared to the amount of oxygen in the air, the
rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in terrestrial organisms.
Fishes take in water through their mouths and force it past the gills where the dissolved oxygen is
taken up by blood.
74. Solution: c)
Saturated hydrocarbons will generally give a clean flame while unsaturated carbon compounds will
give a yellow flame with lots of black smoke. This results in a sooty deposit on a metal plate.
However, limiting the supply of air leads to incomplete combustion of even saturated
hydrocarbons thus giving a sooty flame.


The gas/kerosene stove used at home has inlets for air so that a sufficiently oxygen-rich mixture is
burnt to give a clean blue flame. If you observe the bottoms of cooking vessels getting blackened, it
means that the air holes are blocked and fuel is getting wasted.
75.Solution: c)
All living structures are carbon based. The amount of carbon present in the earth’s crust and in the
atmosphere is quite meagre. The earth’s crust has only 0.02% carbon in the form of minerals (like
carbonates, hydrogencarbonates, coal and petroleum) and the atmosphere has 0.03% of carbon
dioxide.
Oxygen and silica are the most abundant on earth’s crust. In spite of this small amount of carbon
available in nature, the importance of carbon seems to be immense.
76. Solution: a)
Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted two laws [the River Boards Act (1956) and the
Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956)].
The River Boards Act provides for the establishment of river boards for the regulation and
development of inter-state river and river valleys. A river board is established by the Central
government on the request of the state governments concerned to advise them.
77. Solution: d)
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India audits the accounts of not only the Central
government but also those of the states.
But, his appointment and removal is done by the president without consulting the states.
Hence, this office restricts the financial autonomy of the states. The American Comptroller-
General, on the contrary, has no role with respect to the accounts of the states.
78. Solution: b)
The term ‘preamble’ refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It contains the
summary or essence of the Constitution.
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and
moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. It has been amended by the


42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words—socialist, secular and
integrity.
79. Solution: c)
Export promotion and import control will reduce the trade deficit – an important component of
BoP deficit.
Currency devaluation will make exports competitive thus increasing exports and reducing the
trade deficit.
Foreign exchange reserves are helpful to bridge (not reduce) the BoP in case there is a shortage of
foreign capital in India. It is also helpful in external crisis.
80. Solution: d)
Government’s revenues and receipts affect government spending. This in turn in affected by
taxation policies; amount of government spending etc.
Borrowing is also an important fiscal policy tool as it increases/decreases money supply in the
market.
All of these combine to form Public Debt which is the centre of fiscal policy.
81.Solution: a)
Speculative demand is the demand for financial assets, such as securities, money, or foreign
currency, that is not dictated by real transactions such as trade or financing.
Speculative demand arises from the need for cash to take advantage of investment opportunities
that may arise.
In economic theory, specifically Keynesian economics, speculative demand is one of the

determinants of demand for money (and credit), the others being transactions demand and
precautionary demand.
Speculative demand refers to real balances held for the purpose of avoiding capital loss from
holding bonds. The net return on bonds is the sum of the interest payments and the capital gains
(or losses) from their varying market value. A rise in interest rate causes aftermarket bond prices
to fall, and that implies a capital loss from holding bonds. Accordingly, the return on bonds can be
negative. Thus, people may hold money to avoid the loss from bonds.
82. Solution: a)


Disguised unemployment is unemployment that does not affect aggregate output. Disguised
unemployment exists where part of the labour force is either left without work or is working in a
redundant manner where worker productivity is essentially zero.
So addition of one more (marginal) worker will add noting to the productivity of the farm (which
means the marginal productivity of the labour is zero). An economy demonstrates disguised
unemployment where productivity is low and where too many workers are filling too few jobs.
83. Solution: a)
It is a situation where bank cash-holdings are rising and banks cannot find sufficient number of
qualified borrowers even at extraordinary low rates of interest.
It usually arises where people are not buying and firms are not borrowing (for inventory or plant
and equipment) because economic prospects look dim, investors are not investing because
expected returns from investments are low, and/or a recession is beginning. People and businesses
hold on to their cash and thus get trapped in a self-fulfilling prophecy. And everyone expects the
interest rates to rise hoping the situation to become better.
84. Solution: a)
The pace at which GR unfolded in the 1960s is not present now. New inventions in biotechnology
are being resisted; field testing is low; and consequently very few highly productive GM crop is
being used in farms.
Since 1991 public investment has been very low which is expected to be replaced by private
investment. But private investment has mostly come in producing agricultural pumps; developing
GM seeds and not in the form of increased farmer access to markets; increased investment in land
improvement and like.
85. Solution: d)
The primary policy objective of the Department of Food & Public Distribution is to ensure food
security for the country through timely and efficient procurement and distribution of foodgrains.
This involves procurement of various foodgrains, building up and maintenance of food stocks,
their storage, movement and delivery to the distributing agencies and monitoring of production,
stock and price levels of foodgrains.
86. Solution: b)


Some of the major preventive machinery for handling industrial disputes in India are as follows: 1.
Worker’s Participation in Management 2. Collective Bargaining 3. Grievance Procedure 4.
Tripartite Bodies 5. Code of Discipline 6. Standing Orders.
Read more about them here:
http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/industries/6-preventive-machineries-used-for-handling-
industrial-disputes-in-india/27996/
87. Solution: d)
http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/education/sebi-the-purpose-objective-and-functions-of-
sebi/8762/
Futures market is regulated by the Forward Markets Commission. There is a proposal by FSRLC to
merge these regulators with IRDA and PFRDA. Read the article above to understand all the details
about SEBI.
88. Solution: b)
Price rigging refers to manipulating the prices of securities with the main objective of inflating or
depressing the market price of securities. SEBI prohibits such practice because this can defraud
and cheat the investors.
On the other hand, Insider is any person connected with the company such as directors, promoters
etc. These insiders have sensitive information which affects the prices of the securities. This
information is not available to people at large but the insiders get this privileged information by
working inside the company and if they use this information to make profit, then it is known as
insider trading.
89. Solution: d)
It also provides these services:
• Managing the public debt and the issue of new loans and Treasury Bills of the Central
Government.
• Providing ways and means advances to the Central and State Governments to bridge the
interval between expenditure and flow of receipts of revenue. Such advances are to be
repaid by the government within three months from the date of borrowal.
• Advising the Central and State Governments on financial matters, such as the quantum,
timing and terms of issue of new loans. For ensuring the success of government loan
operations, the RBI plays an active role in the gilt-edged market.


• The bank also tenders advice to the government on policies concerning banking and
financial issues, planning as well as resource mobilisation.
• The Reserve Bank represents the Government of India as member of the International
Monetary Fund and the World Bank.
90. Solution: d)
In India, to check the rise in prices of food-grains, edible oils, sugar etc., the Government has often
taken steps to increase imports of goods in short supply to enlarge their available supplies.
When inflation is of the type of supply-side inflation, imports are increased to augment the
domestic supplies of goods. To increase imports of goods in short supply the Govern-ment reduces
customs duties on them so that their imports become cheaper and help in containing inflation.
For example in 2008-09 the Indian Government removed customs duties on imports of wheat
and rice and reduced them on oilseeds, steel etc. to increase their supplies in India.
91. Solution: c)
It is a trade that profits by exploiting price differences of identical or similar financial instruments,
on different markets or in different forms. Arbitrage exists as a result of market inefficiencies; it
provides a mechanism to ensure prices do not deviate substantially from fair value for long periods
of time.
92. Solution: c)
Refer to the link. Also refer to the next sub-heading in the article.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free-radical_theory_of_aging#Effects_of_calorie_restriction
93. Solution: c)
A transgene is a gene or genetic material that has been transferred naturally, or by any of a number
of genetic engineering techniques from one organism to another. The introduction of a transgene
has the potential to change the phenotype of an organism.
In its most precise usage, the term transgene describes a segment of DNA containing a gene
sequence that has been isolated from one organism and is introduced into a different organism.
This non-native segment of DNA may retain the ability to produce RNA or protein in the
transgenic organism, or it may alter the normal function of the transgenic organism's genetic code.


94. Solution: d)
Biopesticides are certain types of pesticides derived from such natural materials as animals, plants,
bacteria, and certain minerals. Biopesticides fall into three major classes:
• Microbial pesticides consist of a microorganism (e.g., a bacterium, fungus, virus or

protozoan) as the active ingredient.
• Plant-Incorporated-Protectants (PIPs) are pesticidal substances that plants produce from
genetic material that has been added to the plant.
• Biochemical pesticides are naturally occurring substances that control pests by non-toxic
mechanisms. Conventional pesticides, by contrast, are generally synthetic materials that
directly kill or inactivate the pest. Biochemical pesticides include substances, such as insect
sex pheromones, that interfere with mating, as well as various scented plant extracts that
attract insect pests to traps.
95. Solution: b)
In biology, a subculture is a new cell or microbiological culture made by transferring some or all
cells from a previous culture to fresh growth medium.
This action is called subculturing or passaging the cells.
Subculture is used to prolong the life and/or expand the number of cells or microorganisms in the
culture.
96. Solution: c)
Insects, mites, nematodes, fungi, bacteria, viruses, MLOs and other organisms are known to attack
various crops of economic importance. These pests and pathogens not only reduce the quantity but
also spoil the quality of the produce to a considerable extent. These may be carried with the plants
that enter a national border.
Plant quarantine may, therefore, be defined as 'Rules and regulations promulgated by

governments to regulate the introduction of plants, planting materials, plant products, soil, living
organisms, etc. with a view to prevent inadvertent introduction of exotic pests, weeds and
pathogens harmful to the agriculture or the environment of a country/region, and if introduced, to
prevent their establishment and further spread'. Plant quarantine is thus designed as a safeguard
against harmful pests/pathogens exotic to a country or a region.
97. Solution: d)
The first two sub-headings and introduction should be read.
http://bugs.bio.usyd.edu.au/learning/resources/PlantPathology/infection/infection_process.html


98. Solution: a)
The ozone layer is typically thicker over the poles than over the equator for three reasons. First,
there is a lack of sunlight during an arctic winter to break it down.
Second, seasonal weather systems and wind patterns in the upper atmosphere push more ozone
toward the poles in winter.
Third, the vertical structure of the atmosphere affects thickness. Near the equator, the troposphere
makes up about 18 kilometres of the atmosphere. At the poles, it thins to only 8-kilometres thick.
The boundary between the layers, called the tropopause, slopes downward from the equator to the
poles like the bottom of a swimming pool. Over the Arctic, at the deepest part of the "pool", the
thicker stratosphere can hold more ozone than over the Tropics or middle latitudes.
The atmosphere over the Arctic also holds more ozone than in the Antarctic, because stratospheric
winds in the Southern Hemisphere are less effective at transporting ozone.
99. Solution: d)
Several low lying islands like Maldives (tourism hub) may be submerged due to sea-level rise.
Seawater will inundate into fresh groundwater resources because of a higher sea water pressure
due to higher levels.
Inundation of coastal marshes and estuaries may deprive several bird an fish species of their
breeding grounds.
100. Solution: d)
Nitrogen fertilizers help produce N2O which is a greenhouse gas.
Increasing forest cover will act as a carbon sink reducing the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere.
Urban heat islands preserve the day heat at night too and intensify the heat patterns caused by
global warming. Reducing them will lower the average temperature of cities.



INSIGHTS MOCK TEST -‐ 33

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 33

GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING
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2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
Write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
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8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
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(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
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for that question.
http://www.insightsonindia.com
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 20


a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
1. ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyaan’ programme
c) 1 and 3 only
relates to
d) None of the above
a) improving the Indian urban
economic growth rate
4. Who among the following can appear in
b) skill development of workers in the
the proceedings of the Parliament but
unorganized sector
without a right to vote?
c) establishment of centres of
1. President of India
excellence throughout the country
2. CAG
d) upliftment of rural India
3. Attorney General of India
4. Chairman of Finance Commission
2. Which of the following correctly

differentiates between Aesthenosphere Choose the correct answer using the codes
and Lithosphere? below.
1. Aesthenosphere is more solid than
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Lithosphere.
b) 1 and 4 only
2. The Mid-oceanic ridges occur in
c) 3 only
Aesthenosphere and not lithosphere.
d) 2 and 3 only
3. Lithosphere lies above
Aesthenosphere.
5. ‘Nalayira Divyaprabandhanam’ is known
Choose the correct answer using the codes as
below. a) a major composition of the Alvar
saints
a) 1 and 2 only b) the rulebook of Lingayats guiding
b) 2 and 3 only their social and economic conduct
c) 1 and 3 only c) the most famous Tamil translation of
d) 3 only Kabir’s work
d) the code of conduct of the
3. Diastrophism includes all those Vaishanavas in TamilNadu
processes that involve
1. Uplifting or warping of the large
parts of earth’s crust
6. Some laws made on general matters by
2. Folding of earth’s crust
the Autonomous District Councils
3. Generation of earth’s crust
established under Sixth Schedule of the
Constitution need the approval of
Choose the correct answer using the codes a) State Legislature
below. b) Parliament


c) Governor of the State b) 1 and 2 only
d) Home Minister of the State c) 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
7. Which of the following statements

regarding the governance in Union 9. “To uphold the Sovereignty and integrity
Territories is INCORRECT? of India” is a part of the Oath of the
a) Lt. Governor cannot promulgate an a) Judges of the Supreme Court
ordinance in the recess of the b) Members of the Parliament
assembly without the prior c) President of India
permission of the President. d) Both (a) and (b)
b) Parliament can enact laws for Union
Territories even where an elected
Assembly exists. 10. The Committee on Petitions in the
c) Governor of a state can be given Parliament pertains to
additional responsibility of a Union a) Privilege matters of the Members of
territory, which he governs without the Parliament
the aid and advice of the State b) Entertaining complaints regarding
Council of Ministers. political defections
d) None of the above c) Entertaining representation from
public on matters relating to the
Union List
8. Consider the following about the d) Enforcing the code of conduct of the
financial powers of the Governor of a Members of the Parliament
State.
1. No demand for a grant can be made
except on his recommendation. 11. Which of the following statements about
2. Money bills can be introduced in the Cabinet Committees is INCORRECT?
state legislature only with his prior a) Non-cabinet ministers are barred
recommendation. from its membership.
3. He can make advances out of the b) They are setup by the Prime
Contingency Fund of the state to Minister.
meet any unforeseen expenditure. c) They are not mentioned in the
4. He sees that the Annual Financial constitution.
Statement (state budget) is laid d) There are both ad hoc and
before the state legislature. permanent cabinet committees.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
12. Consider the following statements.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only


1. No ground has been mentioned in 3. The State government disregards
the constitution for the removal of constitutional directions given by the
the Vice President. Central government.
2. He can be elected for any number of
terms. Choose the correct answer using the codes
3. He can act as a President for a below.
maximum period of six months. a) 1 and 2 only
Choose the correct answer using the codes b) 2 and 3 only
below. c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only 15. The Zonal Councils have been
d) All of the above established by
a) The Constitution of India
b) States Reorganization Act 1956
13. The Constitution of Jammu and c) A resolution of the Central Cabinet
Kashmir (J&K) declares d) None of the above
a) The state of J&K to be an integral
part of India.
b) The state of J&K to be a temporary 16. ‘Full Faith and Credit Clause’ laid down
part of India. by the Constitution means that
c) The State of J&K to be an a) The Council of Ministers is able to
autonomous state supported and govern because it carries the
guarded by the Government of credibility of a universal adult
India. franchise.
d) J&K to be a sovereign state in b) All records and acts of the
alliance with the Government of Government of India or the states are
India. to given full faith and credit
throughout the territory of India.
c) Lok Sabha passes the Vote on
14. President’s Rule under Article 356 can Account motion based on the
be imposed on a state if credibility of the executive even
1. The state government is pursing before the annual budget is
anti-secular politics. examined thoroughly.
2. The State government has been d) None of the above
accused of corruption and
maladministration.


20. Earliest sites found to the East or South
of the Indus river system include
17. The Ajivika sect believes that 1. Kalibangan
a) Everything is pre-determined. 2. Lothal
b) The world is a random chaos. 3. Dholavira
c) The world is a play of four elements
and temporary. Choose the correct answer using the codes
d) Human will is supreme. below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
18. As per the teachings of Mahavira Jain c) 1 and 3 only
1. Monastic existence is necessary for d) All of the above
salvation.
2. Salvation cannot be attained by
women and non-brahmin castes.
3. Observing celibacy is a very 21. Instead of spreading paddy seeds on the
important condition for attaining field, saplings are sown. Why?
salvation. a) It increases survival chances of the
crop.
Choose the correct answer using the codes b) It reduces attack from pests.
below. c) It allows more use of fertilizers in the
field.
a) 1 and 2 only d) If seeds are thrown directly on the
b) 2 and 3 only ground, roots may not penetrate
c) 1 and 3 only deep.
d) All of the above
22. Under Gana or Sangha system of

19. Khanqahs are related to the governance during the period of the
a) places where Mughal rulers met their Magadha Kingdom
subjects for grievance redressal a) People ruled through their directly
b) places of rest where Sufi mystics met elected representatives
and discussed spiritual matters with b) Several Rajas ruled together and
the visitors took collective decisions.
c) art galleries where artists performed c) Only one king governed a very large
for the general public in Mughal area.
courts d) Village assemblies were self-
d) a style of decorative wall embroidery governed by popular representation
found mostly on the centre of arches
erected by Mughal rulers


23. As per Buddhist teachings constant 2. It was setup to address the subdued
craving could be removed by participation from Awadh in mass
a) Renouncing everything movements.
b) Joining the Buddhist sangha 3. The Sabha adopted strictly
c) Becoming a celibate and doing constitutional and legal methods for
penance achieving its objectives.
d) Following moderation in everything
below.
24. Arthashashtra by Kautilya was written a) 1 and 2 only

during the rule of b) 2 and 3 only
a) Chandragupta Maurya c) 1 and 3 only
b) Bindusara d) 1 only
c) Ashoka
d) Harshavardhana 27. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT concerning the Civil
Disobedience Movement?
25. According to Swami Dayanand a) Dalit participation in Civil
Saraswati Disobedience movement was limited.
1. World is an illusion and one must get b) It was launched in response to
rid of it. Montague statement that did not
2. Salvation can be attained by satisfy Indian leaders.
performing the right rituals with the c) Gandhi-Irwin pact came amidst the
learned and pious. movement.
3. Worshipping idols is one way of d) None of the above
attaining to the formless ultimate
reality.
28. Kheda Satyagraha was organized by
Choose the correct answer using the codes Gandhiji in response to
below. a) British forcing the Kheda peasants to
a) 1 and 2 only grow only particular crops on their
b) 2 and 3 only farms
c) 1 and 3 only b) Exploitative land ownership
d) None of the above structure in rural areas that resulted
in farmer suicides
c) Lack of security of tenure for Kheda
peasants
26. Consider the following about the Oudh
d) British authorities refusing to grant
Kisan Sabha setup in 1920.
remission of revenue for farmers that
1. It was established by Jawaharlal
suffered crop losses
Nehru.


3. Kal
29. The aim of the Home Rule League Choose the correct answer using the codes
Movement launched by Tilak was below.
a) Demanding purna swaraj from the
British by using both constitutional a) 1 and 2 only
and extra-constitutional methods b) 2 and 3 only
b) Overthrowing the British c) 1 and 3 only
government with support from d) All of the above
Burma
c) Gradual reform of the administration
to introduce self-government by 32. Bande Matram, for the first time, was
Indians the theme song of which movement?
d) Organizing mass movements to in a) Non-cooperation Movement
India and abroad to expose the b) Rowlatt Satyagraha
exploitative character of the British c) Swadeshi Movement
rule d) Civil Disobedience Movement
30. Which of the following statements with 33. Consider the following about the Poona
regard to the ‘Zimmerman Plan’ is Sarvajanik Sabha.
correct? 1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
1. It was formed in Europe. 2. Its objective was to serve as a bridge
2. It aimed to mobilize Indian settlers between the government and people.
abroad to help invade British India. 3. It was the first organization to
3. It was behind organizing the RIN propose the concept of Swaraj for
mutiny in India. India.
Choose the correct answer using the codes Choose the correct answer using the codes
below. below.
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only
d) All of the above d) 1 and 3 only
31. Which of the following newspapers and 34. ‘Moral policing’ with reference to the
journals advocated revolutionary Government may refer to
terrorism in British India? a) State intruding in the cultural liberty
1. Yugantar of the individual
2. Sandhya


b) State trying to regulate any area of a 1. High strength to weight ratio
citizen’s political or social life 2. Excellent corrosion resistance
c) State using excessive use of police 3. Use in Liquid propellant tanks
force even for small illegal activities
d) State mandating moral education to Choose the correct answer using the codes
be compulsory in schools and below.
colleges a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
35. 10th August was celebrated recently as d) All of the above
a) World Ecology Day
b) World Bio-Fuel Day
c) Global Commons Day 38. A new mobile app ‘Disha’ has been
d) World Conservation Day launched by the Union Telecom
Minister recently. The app is concerned
with
36. Consider the following statements about a) Promoting awareness of government
the recently launched scheme Nayi schemes in rural areas
manzil. b) Tracking individuals who are joining
1. It intends to cover people in 17-35 Naxalite cadres and help bring them
age groups. back
2. It will cover all minority c) Aiding digital literacy in the State of
communities. Bihar
3. It will intervene in education and d) None of the above
skill development for improving the
welfare of minorities.
Choose the correct answer using the codes 39. Aadhar enrolment can be done for
below. 1. Non-resident Indians (NRIs)
2. Overseas Indian Citizens
a) 1 and 2 only 3. Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs)
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only Choose the correct answer using the codes
d) All of the above below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
37. ISRO has recently started commercial c) 2 only
production at the first indigenous d) All of the above
Titanium Sponge Plant. Titanium
sponge can be useful in applicable in
aerospace and defence areas due to its


40. Consider the following about Lakshya 43. Maitri and Dakshin Gangotri are
developed by DRDO. a) Indian research stations in
1. It is a pilotless target aircraft. Antarctica
2. Its flight path can be pre- b) Indo-Chinese research base in upper
programmed based upon the type of Himlayas near Siachin
mission. c) Indo-Russian observatory in Arctic
3. It is equipped with cruise missile. to track climate change
d) Indo-Denmark research observatory
Choose the correct answer using the codes Arctic Ocean
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only 44. Which of these nations do NOT have any
c) 2 only known mineral deposit?
d) All of the above a) Uganda
b) Switzerland
c) Georgia
41. Suez Canal links the d) None of the above
a) Red Sea with Caspian Sea
b) Arabian Sea with Caspian Sea
c) Mediterranean Sea with Red Sea 45. Which of these crops/plants is/are NOT
d) Caspian Sea with Arabian Sea native to India and have been brought
here from abroad for cultivation?
1. Lotus
42. 193 member states of United Nations 2. Jasmine
have reached an agreement on the 3. Mango
outcome document New Sustainable Choose the correct answer using the codes
Development Agenda for the next 15 below.
years. The new agenda draft document
is called a) 1 and 2 only
a) Towards New Development: The b) 2 and 3 only
2030 Agenda for Sustainable c) 3 only
Development d) All are native to India.
b) A Brave New World: The 2030
Agenda for Sustainable Development
c) Transforming our World: The 2030 46. Consider the following about Deccan
Agenda for Sustainable Development traps.
d) People, Planet and Peace: The 2030 1. They are formed from lava flows.
Agenda for Sustainable Development 2. They are a flood basalt province.
3. They cover most of Northern
plateaus of India.


Choose the correct answer using the codes 50. Depth of weathering mantle is more in
below. tropical forests than in Tundra regions.
The factors contributing to this are
a) 1 and 2 only 1. Higher moisture and water
b) 2 and 3 only availability
c) 1 and 3 only 2. Higher temperature
d) All the above 3. More active biological weathering

47. Earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a below.
bulge at the equator. This bulge is due to a) 1 and 2 only
a) The revolution of earth around the b) 2 and 3 only
Sun c) 1 and 3 only
b) The rotation of Earth on its axis d) All the above
c) Dynamic action of Primordial heat of
earth
d) Lower gravitation force at equator as
compared to the poles 51. In a meandering large river, there is
active deposition over convex banks
whereas undercutting dominates over
the concave bank. This is because of
48. Which one of the following is NOT an a) Difference in the rush velocity of
evidence to prove ‘Sea floor spreading’? water on the convex and concave side
a) The age of rocks from the ocean floor of the bank
b) Synchronic reversing of magnetic b) Formation of ox-bow lakes in the
field in rocks of ocean floor. course of meandering
c) The way fossils are distributed across c) Change in Coriolis force as the river
different continents. meanders
d) Volcanic activity along the mid- d) Low velocity of the river
oceanic ridges
52. Troposphere is responsible for which of

49. Lithification is a process by which the following?
a) Aesthenosphere has been formed 1. Temperature variation on earth
b) Lithosphere has been formed 2. Pressure variation on surface of
c) Sedimentary rocks are formed earth
d) Igneous rocks are formed 3. Humidity, clouds and precipitation

below.
a) 1 and 2 only


b) 2 and 3 only 55. The Central parts of tropical land
c) 1 and 3 only generally receive lesser rainfall than the
d) All of the above coastal parts because
a) Westerlies are present at low lying
coastal areas in tropical areas
53. Consider the following statements. b) Moisture carried by winds reduces as
they travel inward in a continent
Assertion (A): Generally at the same latitude c) Central parts receive higher solar
rainfall is more over the oceans than on the insolation than the coastal areas
continents. d) Jet streams cannot reach inner
continental areas
Reason (R): Generally at the same latitude
solar insolation received over the oceans is
more than that on continents.
56. The Mediterranean climate is
In the context of the statements above, which characterised by hot, dry summer and
of these is true? mild, rainy winter due to the influence
of
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
1. Influence of sub-tropical high in
correct explanation for A.
summer
b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT
2. Westerly wind in winter
the correct explanation for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect. Which of the above is/are correct?
d) A is incorrect, R is correct
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
54. The conditions that support dew
d) None
formation are
1. High speed winds in the night
2. Clear sky
3. High relative humidity 57. Surface salinity of ocean water is
4. Cold nights influenced in
1. Coastal regions by the fresh water
Choose the correct answer using the codes flow
below. 2. Polar regions by the processes of
freezing and thawing of ice
a) 1 and 2 only
3. Movement of ocean currents
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only Choose the correct answer using the codes
d) 2, 3 and 4 only below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only


c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
61. Which of the following factors affect the
recharge or availability of potable
groundwater?
58. Apart from Winds, movement of ocean 1. Vegetation cover
water is influenced by 2. Diversion of water for high water
1. Temperature differences demanding crops
2. Density differences 3. Pollution from industrial effluents
3. External force of Sun
4. External force of Moon Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
below. a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
62. The Chipko Andolan (‘Hug the Trees

movement’) was concerned with
59. Zenkeria Sebastinei is a) Local communities losing control in
a) a critically endangered grass in official management of forest
Agasthiyamalai peak resources
b) a newly found frog species in b) Government’s legitimate right to cut
Western Ghats trees in a hilly area
c) an antidote to cancer found in c) Global warming caused due to
Caribbean islands discovered deforestation
recently d) Stopping alienation of people from
d) an endemic grass species of Sri their forests
Lanka that has been introduced in
India to improve pastoral lands
63. Coliform group of bacteria, found in

human intestine, if also present in water
60. Which of the following continents does indicates
NOT have any ‘Mega diversity centres’ a) Contamination of water by disease-
(ecological hotspots as characterized by causing organisms
IUCN)? b) Cultutal eutrophication of water
a) Europe c) High pH of water that is unsuitable
b) North America for drinking
c) Australia d) Presence of radiation in water
d) Africa


Assertion (A): Many thermal power plants are
set up near coal or oil fields.
64. What kind of Mirror would be best
suited for use in a solar cooker? Reason (R): The transmission of electricity is
a) Concave mirror more efficient than transporting coal or
b) Convex mirror petroleum over the same distance.
c) Plain mirror
d) A combination of convex and plain In the context of the statements above, which
mirror of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is a

possible correct explanation for A.
65. Electricity generation from ‘Ocean b) A and R both are true, and R can
thermal energy’ is based on the NOT be a correct explanation for A.
a) Heat generated from volcanic c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
eruptions at the bottom of the ocean d) A is incorrect, R is correct
b) Hot springs found in the ocean
c) Difference in the temperature of high
and low tides 68. Most power stations constructed these
d) Temperature differential between days produce Alternating Current (AC)
surface and Deep Ocean instead of Direct Current (DC). What is
the advantage of producing AC over DC?
1. In AC power can be transmitted
66. Which of the following gases are across long distances without much
generated in the decomposition process loss of energy.
of slurry in a bio-gas plant? 2. DC power generation is much
1. Methane costlier than AC generation.
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Hydrogen Which of the above is/are true?
4. Hydrogen Sulphide a) 1 only
Choose the correct answer using the codes b) 2 only
below. c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only 69. Which of the two organs of human body
d) All the above produce a significant magnetic field?
1. Heart
2. Brain
67. Consider the following statements. 3. Lungs
4. Legs


below.
73. Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms
a) 1 and 3 is much faster than that seen in
b) 2 and 4 terrestrial organisms. This may be
c) 1 and 2 because
d) 3 and 4 a) Water is a denser medium than air.
b) Aquatic organisms lie at a lower trophic
level than terrestrial organisms.
70. Sky appears dark to passengers flying at c) Amount of oxygen dissolved in water is
very high altitudes because fairly low as compared to that in air.
a) Scattering of light is not prominent d) Aquatic organisms are not biologically
at such heights as evolved as the terrestrial organisms.
b) Clouds are absent at such heights
c) The absence of polluting particles at
such heights 74. If you observe the bottom of a cooking
d) The low atmospheric pressure vessels getting blackened on a gas stove,
outside the aeroplane it means that
a) The gas fuel contains very high
71. In the formation of rainbow, which of amounts of carbon
the following phenomenon occurs? b) The gas fuel contains lead
1. Refraction of light c) The air holes of the stove are blocked
2. Dispersion of light and the fuel is getting wasted
3. Internal reflection of light d) The gas fuel contains blue carbon

below.
75. Consider the following statements.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only Assertion (A): Carbon plays a very important
c) 1 and 3 only role in sustaining life on earth.
d) All of the above Reason (R): Carbon is the most abundant
element in the earth’s crust.
72. When growing plants detect light, a In the context of the statements above, which
hormone ‘X’, synthesises at the shoot of these is true?
tip, helps the cells to grow longer in that a) A and R both are true, and R is a
direction. The hormone ‘X’ is possible correct explanation for A.
a) Cytokinin b) A and R both are true, and R can
b) Auxin NOT be a correct explanation for A.
c) Melanin c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) Abscicic acid


d) A is incorrect, R is correct d) The Constitution of the Indian
National Congress in British India
76. Under the River boards Act, a River

board is established 79. Balance of Payments deficit can be
a) by Central government on the reduced through
request of the state governments 1. Export promotion
concerned to advise them 2. Import control
b) by Supreme Court on a petition by 3. Increasing foreign exchange reserves
the state governments concerned to 4. Devaluation of currency
advise them
c) by the Parliament based on the Choose the correct answer using the codes
exigencies of the situation below.
d) by the State governments jointly a) 1 and 2 only
after seeking permission from the b) 1, 2 and 3 only
President c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
77. Apart from Central government, the

Comptroller and Auditor general of 80.Fiscal policy of the government is
India presently is authorized to audit the related with
accounts of 1. Taxation
1. State governments 2. Government spending
2. Local governments 3. Government borrowing
3. National political parties 4. Public debt
Choose the correct answer using the codes Choose the correct answer using the codes
below. below.
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 only d) All of the above
78. The Preamble to the Indian constitution 81. As per Keynes, speculative demand for
is based on money arises due to the
a) Nehru Report 1928 a) Predictions in the market about
b) Objectives Resolution drafted by future bond interest rates
Pandit Nehru b) Needs for transaction in a market
c) Government of India Act, 1935 economy


c) Uncertainty of a household Choose the correct answer using the codes
expenditure below.
d) The fluctuations in the external
sector of the economy a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
82. Marginal productivity of labour in
agricultural sector of India is zero. This
points to
a) Disguised unemployment in Indian 85. The main objectives of food
agriculture management in India is/are
b) Potential for employment in Indian 1. Maintenance of buffer stock for
agriculture ensuring food security
c) Unemployment in Indian agriculture 2. Procurement of food grains from
d) Growing labour demand in the farmers at remunerative prices
agricultural sector 3. Distribution of food grains at
affordable prices

83. Liquidity trap is a situation where below.
a) All potential investors expect the
interest rates to move up in future a) 1 and 2 only
b) Interest rates in the market fluctuate b) 2 and 3 only
so much that bonds become non- c) 1 and 3 only
liquid d) All of the above
c) People put all their money in buying
bonds
d) All of the above 86. Which of these methods can be used in
India to solve Industrial disputes?
1. Decision by labor Unions
84. Since the 1991 economic reforms, Indian 2. Collective bargaining
agriculture has been experiencing 3. Worker’s participation in
slowdown in growth rates. This may be management
because of Choose the correct answer using the codes
1. Stagnation in green revolution below.
technology
2. Falling public investment in a) 1 and 2 only
agriculture b) 2 and 3 only
3. Low market price of agricultural c) 1 and 3 only
produce d) All of the above


below.
87. Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI) regulates a) 1 and 2 only
1. Money market b) 2 and 4 only
2. Capital market c) 1 and 3 only
3. Commodity market d) All of the above
4. Futures market

below. 90. Inflation in the country can be managed
by
a) 1 and 2 only 1. Fiscal policy
b) 2 and 4 only 2. Monetary policy
c) 1 only 3. Supply management through
d) 1, 2 and 3 only imports

below.
88. Price rigging in stock market refers to
a) Insider trading of stocks in securities a) 1 and 2 only
markets b) 2 and 3 only
b) Manipulation of securities prices so c) 1 and 3 only
as to inflate or depress their market d) All of the above
price
c) Speculative and high frequency
trading 91. The practice of purchasing a currency in
d) None of the above one market and selling it in another
market is called as
89. Which of the following banking services a) Spot trading
are provided to the government by RBI? b) Futures Trading
1. Maintaining and operating of deposit c) Arbitrage
accounts of the Central and State d) Speculative trading
Governments
2. Receipts and collection of payments
to the Central and State
92. The free radical theory of aging (FRTA)
Governments.
states that organisms age because cells
3. Making payments on behalf of the
accumulate free radical damage over
Central and State Governments.
time. Free radicals can be tackled by
4. Transfer of funds and remittance
1. Taking food rich in antioxidants
facilities to the Central and State
2. Taking high calories food to remain
Governments
energetic throughout the day


3. Reducing the intake of watery and a) Using different genetic material to
fibrous food preserve different traits of organisms
b) Changing culture vessels containing
Choose the correct answer using the codes fresh media from time to time to
below. preserve tissues
a) 1 and 2 only c) Growing genetically modified plants
b) 2 and 3 only in laboratory
c) 1 only d) None of the above
d) 1 and 3 only
96. When a plant is introduced from an

93. When a transgene is introduced into the outside country ‘Quarantine’ is
genome of an organism it can necessary because
1. Prevent the expression of an existing 1. There is a risk of entry of disease in
native gene the country via plants.
2. Enhance the expression of a native 2. Exotic species may come with the
gene plants that can disrupt ecosystems.
Which of the above is/are correct? Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only a) 1 only
b) 2 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) Both 1 and 2
d) None d) None
94. Bio-pesticides can be used for the

control of 97. Viruses can spread from host plant to
1. Weeds other plants through
2. Insects 1. Seeds
3. Pathogens 2. Pollens
3. Insect vectors
Choose the correct answer using the codes 4. Fungi
below.
a) 1 and 2 only below.
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only a) 1 and 2 only
d) All of the above b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
95. Sub-culturing is a process of


98. Ozone layer is thicker at poles as
compared to tropics. A possible reason
is
a) Lower solar insolation received at
poles to break ozone down
b) Lower breakdown of ozone layer due
to free radicals
c) Greater albedo coming from the ice
sheets at poles
d) None of the above
99. Sea-level rise is projected to have

negative impacts on
1. Human settlements
2. Tourism
3. Freshwater supplies
4. Fisheries
5. Wetlands

below.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) All of the above
100. Which of the following can help

reduce global warming and its effects?
1. Reducing the use of nitrogenous
fertilizers in agriculture
2. Increasing the vegetation cover
3. Reducing urban heat islands

below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

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INSIGHTS

MOCK TEST SERIES 2015: TEST – 33 SOLUTIONS

Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is a Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India

What is the difference between Lithosphere and Asthenosphere?

• The difference between lithosphere and Asthenosphere pertain to their compositions.

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In his oath, a judge of the Supreme Court swears:

• to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India;

The President swears:

• to faithfully execute the office;

• It declares the State of J&K to be an integral part of India.

However, it would be improper to impose in cases of

• Maladministration in the state or allegations of corruption against the ministry or stringent

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The khanqah was the centre of social life in Sufism.

This led to increased production, as many more plants survived.

However, this also required a large amount of labour and resources.

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Both the Buddha and Mahavira belonged to ganas or sanghas.

He rejected that attaning Moksha or liberation was the aim of life.

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Their goal was mainly to achieve the following four objectives:

It was written in Bengali and Sanskrit.

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• Recovered by two stages – parachute and sea.

Egypt has recently launched a major expansion of the Suez Canal.

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The South Pole lies almost at the centre of Antarctica.

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This layer contains dust particles and water vapour.

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In economic theory, specifically Keynesian economics, speculative demand is one of the

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Read more about them here:

It also provides these services:

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• Microbial pesticides consist of a microorganism (e.g., a bacterium, fungus, virus or

This action is called subculturing or passaging the cells.

Plant quarantine may, therefore, be defined as 'Rules and regulations promulgated by

The first two sub-headings and introduction should be read.

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Nitrogen fertilizers help produce N2O which is a greenhouse gas.

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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 33

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2. Which of the following correctly

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7. Which of the following statements