ETOOSINDIA JEE (Main)

ETOOS ALL INDIA ENGG. TE ST SERIES AIETS PAPER 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360

 Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u ll y . Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n u t es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
 Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions

1. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display
the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the
examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.
2. Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:
a. To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options.
b. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option.
c. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Next button.
3. 1/4 {one fourth) marks i. e. one mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for a question.
4. No candidate is allowed to use any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc., while attempting the test.

B. Exam Specific Instructions:

1. There will be 90 questions and 180 minutes duration will be given to attempt these questions.
2. The questions are divided into 3 sections: Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics, containing 30
questions each.
3. Each question is allocated 4 (four) marks for each correct.
4. One fourth marks will be deducted for incorrect question of each question. No deduction from the
total score will be made if no answer is given.
5. There is only one correct answer for each question.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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 Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6  1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1  1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 Js
= 6.625  10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,

N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Chemistry
1. AgCl is crystallized from molten AgCl containing a little CCl2. The solid obtained will
have
(a) cationic vacancies equal to number of Cd2+ ions incorporated
(b) cationic vacancies equal to double the number of Cd2+ ions
(c) anionic vacancies
(d) neither cationic nor anionic vacancies
1. Sol. (a)
In the crystallization, some Ag+ ions will get replaced by as many half of Cd2+ ions. Thus the
cation vacancies will be the same as the number of Cd2+ is ions incorporated.

2. For the reaction at 25°C, X2O4 (l) → 2XO2(g) ΔH = 2.1 Kcal and ΔS = 20 cal K–1. The
reaction would be
(a) spontaneous
(b) non-spontaneous
(c) at equilibrium
(d) unpredictable
2. Sol. (a)

3. A C60 molecule has the geometry of a soccer ball having

(a) both single and triple bonds with C—C bond lengths being 1.54 Å and 1.20 Å
respectively.
(b) both single and double bonds with C—C bond lengths being 1.54 Å and 1.34 Å
respectively
(c) both double and triple bond with C—C bond lengths being 1.34 Å and 120 Å
respectively
(d) both single and double bonds with C—C bond lengths being 1.45 Å and 1.38 Å
respectively
3. Sol. (d)

4. While Fe3+ is stable, Mn3+ is not stable in acid solution because

(a) O2oxidises Mn2+ to Mn3+
(b) O2oxidises both Mn2+ to Mn3+ and Fe2+ to Fe3+
(c) Fe3+oxidises H2O to O2
(d) Mn3+ oxidises H2O to O2
4. Sol. (b)

5. A compound ―X‖ is white, amphoteric solid. It becomes yellow on heating but again
becomes while on cooling. Compound ―X‖ is

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(a) CaO
(b) Al2O3
(c) As2O3
(d) None of these
5. Sol. (d)

6. A 100 ml solution of 0.1 N HCl was titrated with 0.2 N NaOHsolution. The titration was
discontinued after adding 30 ml of NaOH solution. The remaining titration was
completed by adding 0.25 N KOH solution. The volume of KOH required for completing
the titration is
(a) 70 ml
(b) 32 ml
(c) 35 ml
(d) 16 ml
6. Sol. (d)

7. The value of kp for the reaction at 27°C B r2 (l)  C l 2 ( g ) 2B rC l( g ) is ‗1 atm‘. At

equilibrium in a closed container partial pressure of BrCl gas is 0.1 atm and at this
temperature the vapour pressure of Br2(l) is also 0.1 atm. Then what will be minimum
moles of Br2(l) to be added to 1 mole of Cl2, initially, to get above equilibrium situation:
(a) 10/6 moles
(b) 5/6 moles
(c) 15/6 moles
(d) 2 moles
7. Sol. (c)

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8. The EMF of the cell is for this reaction

Mg(s) |Mg2+ (0.1 M)||Ag+ (1 × 10-4M)|Ag
o o
E 
 0 .8 V , E 2
  2 .3 7 V
Ag /Ag Mg /M g

(a) 2.96 V (b) 3.2 V

(c) 1.9 V (d) 4.4 V
8. Sol. (a)

9. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) A colloidal solution is a heterogeneous two-phase system
(b) Silver sol in water is an example of lyophilic solution.
(c) Metal hydroxides in water are examples of lyophobic solution
(d) Liquid-liquid colloidal solution is not stable system
9. Sol. (b)

10. Which of the following will show optical isomersim as well as geometrical isomerism.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(c)
10. Sol. (d)

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Mathematics
1 1 1
31. If S(n) = 1 +   ......  , (n  N ) , then S(1) + S(2) + ………+ S(n-1) is equal to
2 3 n
(a) nS(n) – n
(b) nS(n) – 1
(c) (n - 1)S(n - 1) – n
(d) None of these

31. Sol. (a)

32. The largest power of 2 that divides [(3 + √11)2n+1] is

(where [.] greatest integer function)
(a) n
(b) n + 1
(c) n – 1
(d) None of these
32. Sol. (b)

33. If (ax2 + c)y + (a‘x2 + c‘) = 0 and x is a rational function of y and ac is negative, then
(a) ac‘ + a‘c = 0
a c
(b) 
a' c'
(c) a + c = a‘2 + c‘2
2 2

(d) ac‘ + a‘c = 1

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33. Sol. (b)

34. If Z = ii, where i = √-1, then

(a) z is purely real
(b) z is purely imaginary
(c) |z| = 1
1  1 
(d) a rg ( Z )    ta n  
 2 

34. Sol. (a)

35. If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that |A| = 2, then |(adjA–1)–1| is

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
35. Sol. (c)

1
1
36. If f is continuous function, f : [0, 1] → R and satisfy the equation  f ( x )( x  f ( x ))d x  ,
12
then 0

(a) f(x) = x
(b) f(x) = x2/4
(c) f(x) = x/2
(d) none of these
36. Sol. (c)

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37. If A(z1) and B(z2) are two points on circle |z| = r, then the tangents tot the circle at A and
B will intersect at
2 2
z1  z 2 z 1z 2
(a) (b)
z1  z 2 z1  z 2
2 2
2 z 1z 2 z1  z 2
(c) (d)
z1  z 2 2  z1  z 2 
37. Sol. (c)

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38. If y = f(x) be concave upward function and y = g(x) be a function such that f‘(x).g
(x).f(x) = x4 + 2x2 + 10, then
(a) g(x) has atleast one root between two consecutive roots of f(x) = 0
(b) g(x) has at most one root between two consecutive roots of f(x) = 0
(c) if α and ß are two consective roots of f(x) = 0, the αß > 0
(d) when f(x) increases g(x) decreases
38. Sol. (a)

39. For a point P on ellipse the circle with PS and PS‘ and PS‘ as diameter intersect the
auxiliary circle of ellipse at A, A1 and B, B1 respectively, then which of the following
is/are incorrect?
(a) A and A1 coincide, B and B1 coincide
(b) segment AB is tangent to ellipse at P
(c) tangents at A and B on auxiliary circles are perpendicular
(d) SA and S‘B are parallel
39. Sol. (c)

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40. If u and v are two unit vectors such that u  v  u  w and w  u  v then value of
u v w  is
 

(a) 1
(b) – 1
(c) 0
(d) None of these
40. Sol. (a)

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Physics

61. A particle is moving so that its displacement s is given as s = t3- 6t2 + 3t + 4 meter. Its
velocity at the instant when its acceleration is zero will be -
(a) 3 m/s
(b) -12 m/s
(c) 42 m/s
(d) -9 m/s
61. Sol. (d)

62. A body starts from rest and is uniformly accelerated for 30 s. The distance travelled in the
first 10s is x1, next 10 s is x2 and the last 10 s is x3. Then x1 : x2 : x3 is the same as
(a) 1 : 2 : 4
(b) 1 : 2 : 5
(c) 1 : 3 : 5
(d) 1 : 3 : 9
62. Sol. (c)

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63. In the arrangement shown in figure, pulleys are massless and frictionless and threads are
inextensible. The Block of mass m1 will remain at rest, if

1 1 1
(a)   (b) m1 = m2 + m3
m1 m2 m3

4 1 1 1 2 3
(c)   (d)  
m1 m2 m3 m3 m2 m1

63. Sol. (c)

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64. Two objects A and B of masses mA and mB are attached by strings as shown in fig. If
they are given upward acceleration, then the ratio of tension T1 : T2 is -

m A  mB  m A  mB 
(a) (b)
mB m A

m A
 mB m A
 mB
(c) (d)
m A
 mB m A
 mB

64. Sol. (a)

65. A uniform square plate ABCD has a mass of 10kg. If two point masses of 3 kg each are
placed at the corners C and D as shown in the adjoining figure, then the centre of mass
shifts to the point which is lie on -
(a) OC
(b) OD
(c) OY
(d) OX
65. Sol. (c)
For square plate ABCD centre of mass is at O but when two point masses of 3 kg placed
at C & D then centre of mass shifts on the line OY because centre of mass is in that part
which has higher mass.
66. Two particles having mass ratio n : 1 are interconnected by a light inextensible string that
passes over a smooth pulley. If the system is released, then the acceleration of the centre
of mass of the system is :
2
2  n  1
(a) (n –1) g (b)   g
 n  1
2
 n  1  n  1
(c)   g (d)  g
 n  1  n  1

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66. Sol. (c)

67. A small sphere is moving at a constant speed in a vertical circle. Below is a list of
quantities that could be used to describe some aspect of the motion of the sphere
I - kinetic energy
II - gravitational potential energy
III - momentum
Which of these quantities will change as this sphere moves around the circle ?
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) III only
(d) II and III only

67. Sol. (d)

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68. A system of two blocks A and B are connected by an inextensible massless strings as
shown. The pulley is masselss and frictionless. Initially the system is at rest when, a
bullet of mass 'm' moving with a velocity 'u' as shown hits the block 'B' and gets
embedded into it. The impulse imparted by tension force to the block of mass 3m is :

(a) 5mu / 4 (b) 4mu / 5

(c) 2mu / 5 (d) 3mu / 5
68. Sol. (d)

69. A pendulum bob is swinging in a vertical plane such that its angular amplitude is less
than 90°. At its highest point, the string is cut. Which trajectory is possible for the bob
afterwards.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

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69. Sol. (c)

At highest point velocity is zero.
After word it fall freely

70. Equations y = 2A cos2ωt and y = A(sin ωt + 3 cos ωt) represent the motion of two
particles.
(a) Only one of these is S.H.M
(b) Ratio of maximum speeds is 2 : 1
(c) Ratio of maximum speeds is 1 : 1
(d) Ratio of maximum accelerations is 1 : 4

70. Sol. (c)

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JEE Main - XI Mock Test 1

Physics - Maths

Question No. 33

=
The percentage of copper in a copper(II} salt can be determined by using a thiosulphate titration. 0.305 gm of a copper{II) salt was dissolved in water and added to1 an exces.-s of potassium iodide solution liberating iodine
i
according to the following equat on
2
2Cu" (aq) + 4J- (aq) 2Cul(s) + 12 (a q)
The iodine liberated required 24.5cm 3 of a0.100 mole dm·3 solution of sodium thiosulphate
2s20?· (aq) + li(aq) ---4 21- (aq) + s,o.'- (aq )
the percentage of copper, by mass in the copper (II) salt is. [Atomic mass of copper = 63.5]

Options
064.2

051.0

048.4

025.5

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Ph sics

Question No. 3

If u1 and Uz are the units selected in two systems of measu,ement and n1 and 112 their numerical values, then

0
Options
n,u, = n,u,

(n, -u,) = (n, -u,)

Hint
Physical quantity (p) = Numerical value (n) x Unit (u)
If physical quantity remains constant then n « 1/u

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