CONFIDENTIAL AS/APR2007/BIO120

UNIVERSITI TEKNOLOGI MARA

FINAL EXAMINATION

COURSE : INTRODUCTION TO BIOLOGY

COURSE CODE : BIO120
EXAMINATION : APRIL 2007
TIME : 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. This question paper consists of two (2) parts : PART A (20 Questions)

PART B (7 Questions)

2. Answer ALL questions from all two (2) parts.

i) Answer PART A in the Objective Answer Sheet

ii) Answer PART B in the Answer Booklet. Start each answer on a new page.

3. Do not bring any material into the examination room unless permission is given by the
invigilator.

4. Please check to make sure that this examination pack consists of:

i) the Question Paper

ii) an Answer Booklet - provided by the Faculty
iii) an Objective Answer Sheet - provided by the Faculty

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

This examination paper consists of 9 printed pages
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CONFIDENTIAL 2 AS/APR 2007/BIO120

PART A (30 MARKS)

1. Which of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization

from the least to the most complex level?

A. Organelle, tissue, biosphere, ecosystem, population, organism.

B. Cell, community, population, organ system, molecule, organelle.
C. Organism, community, biosphere, molecule, tissue, organ.
D. Molecule, cell, organ system, population, ecosystem, biosphere.

2. The dynamics of any ecosystem include the following major processes

A. the flow of energy from sunlight to producers.

B. the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers.
C. the recycling of chemical nutrients.
D. the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers, and the
recycling of chemical nutrients.

3. Once labour begins in childbirth, contractions increase in intensity and frequency until
delivery. The increasing labour contractions of childbirth is an example of

A. a bioinformatics system.
B. positive feedback.
C. negative feedback.
D. feedback inhibition.

4. Collecting data based on observation is an example of ; analyzing

these data to reach a conclusion is an example of reasoning.

A. hypothesis-based science; inductive

B. the process of science; deductive
C. discovery science; inductive
D. descriptive science; deductive

5. What is the primary reason for including a control group within the design of an
experiment?

A. To ensure that the results obtained are due to a difference in only one
variable.
B. To ensure that the experimenter can perform a more complete statistical
analysis.
C. To demonstrate in what way the experiment was performed incorrectly.
D. To accumulate additional facts that can be reported to other scientists.

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6. The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as

A. technology.
B. deductive science.
C. inductive science.
D. anthropologic science.

7. A covalent chemical bond is one in which

A. electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that
the two atoms become oppositely charged.
B. protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the
requirements of both atoms.
C. outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the
outer electron shells of both atoms.
D. outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to the inner electron shells of
another atom.

8. Van der Waals interactions result when

A. hybrid orbitals overlap.

B. electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule.
C. molecules held by ionic bonds react with water.
D. two polar covalent bonds react.

9. The nutritional information on a cereal box shows that one serving of a dry cereal has
200 kilocalories. If one burn one serving of the cereal, the amount of heat given off
would be sufficient to raise the temperature of 20 kg of water how many degrees
Celsius?

A. 0.2°C
B. 1.0°C
C. 2.0°C
D. 10.0°C

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10. One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid
(H2CO3). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3)
and a hydrogen ion (H+). Thus,

H2CO3 < » HCO3" + H+

If the pH of the blood drops, one would expect

A. a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the

concentration of HCO3'.
B. the concentration of hydroxide ion (OH) to increase.
C. the concentration of bicarbonate ion (HCO3) to increase.
D. the HCO3" to act as a base and remove excess H+ with the formation of
H2CO3.

11. Which is the best description of a carbonyl group?

A. An oxygen joined to a carbon by a single covalent bond.

B. A nitrogen and two hydrogens joined to a carbon by covalent bonds.
C. A carbon joined to two hydrogens by single covalent bonds.
D. A carbon atom joined to an oxygen by a double covalent bond.

12. Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because

A. the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is

galactose.
B. humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the beta (P) glycosidic linkages of
starch but not the alpha (a) gycosidic linkages of cellulose.
C. humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the alpha (a) glycosidic linkages of
starch but not the beta (P) glycosidic linkages of cellulose.
D. the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is maltose.

13. The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is - CH2OH. The R group or side
chain of the amino acid alanine is - CH3. Where would you expect to find these
amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?

A. Serine would be in the interior, and alanine would be on the exterior of the
globular protein.
B. Alanine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the
globular protein.
C. Both serine and alanine would be in the interior of the globular protein.
D. Both serine and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.

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CONFIDENTIAL 5 AS/APR 2007/BIO120

14. A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 purines and 120
pyrimidines. This DNA molecule could be comprised of

A. 120 adenine and 120 uracil molecules.

B. 120 thymine and 120 adenine molecules.
C. 120 cytosine and 120 thymine molecules.
D. 240 adenine and 240 cytosine molecules.

15. Which of the following comparisons between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is
INCORRECT?

A. The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means that they are structurally less
complex than eukaryotes.
B. The lack of internal membranes means that prokaryotes cannot
compartmentalize function to the same extent as eukaryotes.
C. All membrane function in prokaryotes is accomplished in the plasma
membrane, while in the eukaryotes, these functions are more distributed
among the organelles.
D. The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means that the basic cellular functions
are different in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.

16. Which type of organelle is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids,
and steroids?

A. Ribosome
B. Lysosome
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Mitochondria

17. Which of the following is NOT a known function of the cytoskeleton?

A. To maintain a critical limit on cell size.

B. To provide mechanical support to the cell.
C. To maintain the characteristic shape of the cell.
D. To hold mitochondria and other organelles in place within the cytosol.

18. The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animals

A. enables the membrane to stay fluid more easily when cell temperature drops.
B. enables the animal to remove hydrogen atoms from saturated phospholipids.
C. enables the animal to add hydrogen atoms to unsaturated phospholipids.
D. makes the membrane less flexible, allowing it to sustain greater pressure
from within the cell.

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19. Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the
cell membranes?

A. Phospholipids and cellulose.

B. Nucleic acid and proteins.
C. Phospholipids and proteins.
D. Glycoproteins and cholesterol.

20. A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood. In an attempt to
replenish body fluids, distilled water, equal to the volume of blood lost, is transferred
directly into one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this
transfusion?

A. It will have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of viruses and
bacteria.
B. The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid is
hypotonic compared to the cells.
C. The patient's red blood cells will swell because the blood fluid is hypotonic
compared to the cells.
D. The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid is
hypertonic compared to the cells.

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CONFIDENTIAL AS/APR 2007/BIO120

PART B (70 MARKS)

QUESTION 1

Give the definition of the following terms:

a) Evolution

b) Taxonomy

c) Biogeography
(3 marks)

QUESTION 2

a) What are the main criteria for separating plants, fungi, and animals into kingdoms?
(4 marks)

b) Briefly describe:

i) Negative feedback

ii) Positive feedback

(8 marks)

QUESTION 3

a) What does this molecule segment represent?

H H H

N N N

H O H O H
(1 mark)

b) Draw the amino acid alanine (R group: CH3) and serine (R group: CH2OH) and then
show how a dehydration reaction will form a peptide bond between them.
(8 marks)

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CONFIDENTIAL AS/APR 2007/BIO120

QUESTION 4

a) Draw the electron shell diagram for these atoms:

ii) 12Mg

iii) 8O

iv) 6C
(8 marks)

b) Define the following and show where each of them is placed relative to the symbol of an
element such as C:

i) atomic number

ii) mass number

Which of these four numbers (atomic number, mass number, atomic mass and valence)
is most related to the chemical behavior of an atom? Explain.
(5 marks)

c) Explain whether the following molecules contain nonpolar or polar covalent bonds,

i) Nitrogen molecule N^s N

ii) Methane
H

H H

iii) Ammonia
N

H H H
(6 marks)

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QUESTION 5

Explain the properties of water that contribute to the fitness of the environment for life. For
each property provide an appropriate example of benefit to life.
(10 marks)

QUESTION 6

a) Create a diagram or flow chart to trace the development of a secretory product (such as
a digestive enzyme) from the DNA code to its export from the cell.
(8 marks)

b) Compare and contrast the processes of facilitated diffusion and active transport.
(4 marks)

QUESTION 7

Explain the theory behind dialysis machines that are used in hospitals to cleanse the blood
of patients with kidney diseases.
(5 marks)

END OF QUESTION PAPER

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