Incorrect

Q.1) What is the most important tool when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse?

A. Enhancing the client's assertiveness (Your Answer)

B. Developing a system of social support
C. Planning ahead and being prepared (Correct Answer)
D. Signing behavioral contracts
Correct

Q.2) Which of Newton's laws of motion is described as follows" A body at rest will stay at
rest and a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity)
unless acted upon by an external force.

A. Law of gravity
B. Law of reaction
C. Law of inertia (Your Answer)
D. Law of acceleration
Correct

Q.3) A plyometric exercise program BEST addresses which aspect of muscular fitness?

A. muscular hypertrophy
B. muscular strength
C. muscular power (Your Answer)
D. muscular endurance
Incorrect

Q.4) When working with a client whose personality style is classified as "expressor," which
of the following approaches would be the BEST option for a personal trainer?

A. Offer incentives and rewards; stimulate the client's thoughts and provoke ideas
(Correct Answer)
B. Be clear, concise, and business-like; appeal to the need for action and problem-
solving
C. Be candid, open and patient, personally interested and supportive, and goal oriented
(Your Answer)
D. Provide consistent, accurate follow-ups; supply information to supply the need for
detail
Incorrect

Q.5) Which of the following is an adaptation specifically seen with regular weightbearing
exercise?

A. Increase in respiratory capacity

 B. Improved cardiac output efficiency
C. Increase in body density (Correct Answer)
D. Improved lean body mass (Your Answer)
Correct

Q.6) Which of the following observations during the passive straight-leg raise represents
normal length of the hamstring?

A. Raised leg achieves 70 degrees of movement

B. Pelvis rotates posteriorly after the raised leg passes 70 degrees of movement
C. Raised leg stops just short of 90 degrees of movement (Your Answer)
D. Opposite leg lifts off the mat as the raise leg approaches 80 degrees of movement.
Correct

Q.7) At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other
ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics?

A. While registering for an ACE certification exam (Your Answer)

B. Once the candidate earns his or her first ACE certification
C. Upon receiving a printed copy of the ACE Code Of ethics with the printed ACE
certification
D. When accepting his or her first job as an ACE-certified Personal Trainer
Correct

Q.8) How can a personal trainer MOST effectively incorporate mind-body exercise into
personal-training sessions for clients?

A. including some Iyengar poses and yogic-breathing during cool-down (Your

Answer)
B. enhancing power training through slow,controlled yogic breathing
C. adding yogic breathing to high-intensity intervals to facilitate greater minute
ventilation
D. incorporating inverted poses as part of a comprehensive warm-up
Correct
Q.9) Low-intensity exercise is the best way to lose weight because it burns a higher
percentage of fat than exercise at a higher intensity.

A. True
B. False (Your Answer)
Explanation
During high-intensity exercise, the total number of calories burned is much higher than
during low-intensity exercise, and negates the higher percentage coming from fat.
During low-intensity bouts, a higher percentage of calories is coming from fat, but the
total number of fat calories is less than during high-intensity workouts. It is important to
remember that the total number of calories burned is what determines weight loss,
 regardless of the source of those calories.
Correct

Q.10) What plyometric drills would provide the MOST appropriate progression for a client
who can successfully perform a predetermined number of vertical jumps and single
linear jumps?

A. depth jumps
B. multidirectional jumps
C. hops and bounds
D. multiple linear jumps (Your Answer)
Correct

Q.11) During a treadmill test, a client complains of leg cramping but feels that she will be
able to finish the test. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

A. Monitor her progress closely and stop the test is her pain worsens
B. Allow her tom complete the test, as treadmill tests measure cardiorespiratory
fitness, not muscular endurance
C. Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare
provider (Your Answer)
D. Have her rest for a few minutes and rehydrate before continuing the test from
the stopping point
Correct

Q.12) What should you do FIRST with a person who suddenly falls to the floor while
exercising?

A. Ask the person what let to the injury.

B. Check for any medical jewelry to determine the cause of the condition.
C. Assess the person's pulse and blood pressure
D. Assess if the person is conscious and asking if he or she is okay (Your Answer)
Correct

Q.13) What do the credentials for registered dietitians (R.D.), occupational therapists (OTR),
athletic trainers (ATC), registered nurses (RN), and massage therapists (LMT) all have
in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise?

A. Each of them requires a bachelor's degree as a minimum eligibility requirement

B. They are all accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies
(Your Answer)
C. All of them require CPR, AED, and first aid as eligibility requirements
D. As allied healthcare professions, they share the same scope of practice
Correct
Q.14) According the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can
rehabilitate clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries.

A. True
B. False (Your Answer)
Incorrect

Q.15) Clients who are beginning the basics of a particular movement and are ready for
specific feedback are in which stage?

A. Cognitive (Your Answer)

B. Associative (Correct Answer)
C. Autonomous
D. Affective
Incorrect

Q.16) You are working with a client who has type 1 diabetes and checks his blood glucose
levels prior to each exercise session. Which of the following pre-exercise blood
glucose levels would make you postpone the exercise session until blood sugar is under
control?

A. 88 mg/dL (Correct Answer)

B. 110 mg/dL
C. 155 mg/dL (Your Answer)
D. 215 mg/dL
Correct

Q.17) What has been shown to be the BEST predictor of back health?

A. Endurance of the core and postural muscles acting on the low back (Your
Answer)
B. Range of motion of spinal flexion and extension
C. Strength of the core and postural muscles acting on the low back
D. Range of motion of the spinal rotatores
Correct

Q.18) A client must achieve a 1,000- calorie deficit per day in order to lose 1lbs per week.

A. True
B. False (Your Answer)
Incorrect

Q.19) What is the GREATEST LIMITATION associated with using the heart-rate reserve
(HRR) to calculate exercise target heart rate?
 A. Target heart rate must be calculated as a %HRR using the Karvonen formula
B. Accurate programming using HRR requires actual measured maximum heart
rate (MHR) and resting heart rate (Correct Answer)
C. New MHR prediction equations are more accurate that MHR=220-age
D. Exercise percentages were established through population-based research
(Your Answer)
Correct

Q.20) Which of the following is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic
cardiovascular disease?

A. Body mass index of 28 kg/m

B. HDL cholesterol of 66mg/dl
C. Serum cholesterol of 195 mg/dl
D. Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg (Your Answer)
Incorrect

Q.21) Use the following information to answer the question: Gender: Female Age: 39 years
Family history: Father has type 1 diabetes; Mother just diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
Smoking: Never smoked Current exercise: swims 3-4 days per week for 30-45 minutes
BMI: 31 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 128/82 mmHg Total serum Cholesterol: 224 mg/dL
LDL cholesterol: 122 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 64 mg/dL Fasting plasma glucose: 95
mg/dL Goals: Lose 30 lbs; enhance exercise program and improve diet to prevent
diabetes What is this client's "total score" for artherosclerotic cardiovascular disease
using the ACSM risk factor thresholds?

A. 0 (Correct Answer)
B. +1 (Your Answer)
C. +2
D. +3
Incorrect

Q.22) Which of the following individuals is MOST liekly to adhere to a supervised physical
activity program?

A. A highly motivator beginner who elects to begin a vigorous-intensity exercise

program
B. An individual who perceives his health to be poor and had been encouraged by his
doctor to exercise
C. As obese man who is motivated by a fear of adverse health conditions that are
common in his family (Your Answer)
D. A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control
over his health (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

Q.23) Which of these follow-up actions would be most appropriate for an individual who
 answers "yes" to the following questions on the PAR-Q? "Is your doctor currently
prescribing drugs for your blood pressure or heart conditions?" "In the past month,
have you had chest pain when you were not doing physical activity?"

A. Slowly and progressively start becoming more physically active (Your

Answer)
B. Take part is a fitness appraisal before beginning exercise
C. Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness
appraisal (Correct Answer)
D. Delay becoming much more physically active until feeling better
Correct

Q.24) Which of the following is WITHIN the scopr of practice for personal trainers?

A. Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program

adherence
B. Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design (Your
Answer)
C. Evaluating client injuries while designing rehabilitative exercise programs
D. Recommending effective supplements for clients who skip meals
Correct

Q.25) Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary categories of potential
determinants for physical activity?

A. Personal attributes
B. Physical attributes (Your Answer)
C. Environmental factors
D. Physical-activity factors
Correct

Q.26) Which of the following program modifications would be MOST important when
teaching yoga to a client who is deconditioned or has chronic disease?

A. increase breath suspensions at the end of expiration to 4-5 seconds

B. minimize poses with the head below the heart (Your Answer)
C. avoid slow transitions from one pose to the next
D. increased time holding Iyengar poses for clients with hypertension
Correct

Q.27) Which pair of shoulder muscles is BEST strengthened by shoulder shrugs performed
with resistance?

A. Rhomboid major and rhomboid minor

B. Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior
 C. Levator scapulae and trapezius (Your Answer)
D. Teres major and latissimus dorsi
Correct

Q.28) Which of the following terms is defined as the product of muscular strength and
movement speed?

A. muscular endurance
B. muscular power (Your Answer)
C. absolute strength
D. relative strength
Correct

Q.29) Which of the following is NOT one of four types of tissue found in the human body?

A. Muscular
B. Nervous
C. Epithelial
D. Vascular (Your Answer)
Incorrect

Q.30) Which of the following repetition ranges is recommended to stimulate bone changes in
clients who have osteopenia and/or osteoporosis?

A. 6-8 (Correct Answer)

B. 10-12
C. 12-16 (Your Answer)
D. 15-20
Correct

Q.31) An older adult client who is interested in trying mind-body exercise has decided that tai
chi might be the best fit for her needs and abilities. Which form of tai chi would you
recommend?

A. Original Chen style

B. Change style
C. Wu style
D. Sun style (Your Answer)
Correct

Q.32) During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a client
be wokring at an RPE of 3-4?

A. Phase 1 (Your Answer)

B. Phase 2
 C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
Correct

Q.33) A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate reguarly in an
exercise program __________.

A. has good self-efficacy related to exercise (Your Answer)

B. is in the contemplation stage of behavior change
C. has very strong self- esteem
D. is completely intrinsically motivated
Incorrect

Q.34) Which type of yoga is also known as "power yoga"?

A. anusara yoga (Your Answer)

B. ashtanga yoga (Correct Answer)
C. viniyoga
D. kripalu yoga
Incorrect

Q.35) Which of the following techniques will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise?

A. narrowing the base of support

B. lowering the center of mass (Correct Answer)
C. looking up and down during the exercise
D. closing the eyes (Your Answer)
Correct

Q.36) Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume
during steady-state exercise?

A. increasing heart rate

B. increasing stroke volume (Your Answer)
C. increasing vasoconstriction in non-working muscles
D. releasing vasopressin and aldosterone
Correct

Q.37) For which of the following clients would a medical exam and graded exercise test be
recommended before training begins?

A. low-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise

B. low-risk client wanting to perform vigorous exercise
C. moderate-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise
 D. high-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise (Your Answer)
Correct

Q.38) What are the five primary movements that are the focus of the movement-training
phase?

A. Squatting, lunging, swinging, throwing, and arching movements

B. Jumping, hopping, pushing, pulling, and arching movements
C. Squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling, and rotational movements (Your Answer)
D. Jumping, hopping, swinging, throwing, and rotational movements
Incorrect

Q.39) Which contemporary form of mind-body exercises includes a moderate-level aerobic

component that fosters spontaneity?

A. Nia (Correct Answer)

B. pilates (Your Answer)
C. Alexander methond
D. Feldenkrais method
Incorrect

Q.40) What business structure puts a personal trainer at the GREATEST risk for losing
personal assests in the event of a lawsuit filed by a client for an incident related to
personal training services provided?

A. C-corporation (Your Answer)

B. sole proprietorship (Correct Answer)
C. limited liability corporation
D. subchapter S-coporation
Incorrect

Q.41) A regular group exercise participant with no competitive goals would be classified in
which phase of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT Model?

A. Phase 1: Aerobic-base training

B. Phase 2: Aerobic-efficiency training (Correct Answer)
C. Phase 3: Anaerobic-endurance training (Your Answer)
D. Phase 4: Anaerobic-power training
Incorrect

Q.42) A muscle with which of the following muscle arrangements has the LOWEST force
production, but the HIGHEST speed of contraction?

A. Unipennate (Your Answer)

B. Bipennate
 C. Multipennate
D. Longitudinal (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

Q.43) Use the following information to answer the question: Gender: Male Age: 47 years
Family history: Mother has hypertension; father had coronary bypass surgery at age 59
Smoking: Quit smoking 20 years ago Current exercise: Walks dog 1-2 times per day
for 10 minutes per walk BMI: 29 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 132/86 mmHg Total serum
Cholesterol: 216 mg/dL LDL cholesterol: 138 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 48 mg/dL
Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg/dL Goals: Lose 20lb; increase muscle strength and
cardiorespiratory fitness What is this client’s “total score” for atherosclerotic
cardiovascular disease using the ACSM risk factor thresholds?

A. +1
B. +2 (Your Answer)
C. +3 (Correct Answer)
D. +4
Correct

Q.44) What is the first progression made when utilizing the double-progressive training
protocol.

A. adding resistance in 5% increments

B. adding reps to the set (Your Answer)
C. adding sets to the workout
D. reducing the rest intervals
Correct

Q.45) Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop a client while he or she is performing
the sharpened Romberg test?

A. The client's feet move on the floor

B. The client's eye open
C. The client exceeds 30 seconds with good postural control (Your Answer)
D. The client's arms move from the folded position
Correct

Q.46) Which of the following terms is defined as the belief in one's own capabilities to
successfully engage in a behavior?

A. Intrinsic motivation
B. Self-efficacy (Your Answer)
C. Extrinsic motivation
D. locus of control
Correct
Q.47) A male client who weighs 190 pounds has a one-rep max of 225 pounds on the bench
press exercise. His relative strength for this exercise in ___________.

A. 225 pounds
B. .84
C. 35 pounds
D. 1.18 (Your Answer)
Explanation
Relative strength = (absolute strength/body weight) pg 221
Correct

Q.48) Using reinforcement to help a client progress from doing a quarter lunge to performing
a full lunge and then eventually adding resistance is an example of which process?

A. Shaping (Your Answer)

B. Operant conditioning
C. Cognition and behavior
D. Observational learning
Correct

Q.49) What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele?

A. To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence

through easily achieved initial successes (Your Answer)
B. To move them through the various phases of the ACE IFT Model with the
ultimate goal of improving fitness and performance
C. To reach the stage of resistance training during which external loads are
introduced, as this will improve their performance of activities of daily living
D. To teach them the importance of daily exercise and continue with their
programs even during times of illness or discomfort
Correct

Q.50) Which slow-acting hormones stimulates the mobilization of free fatty acids from
adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, and decreases the rate of
glucose utilization in the cells?

A. Growth hormone
B. Glucagon
C. Insulin
D. Cortisol (Your Answer)