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1. What is the biggest cause of death amongts 15-19 year olds?

a)CNS related
b)injury and poisoning
c)unknown causes
d)heart disease
e)cancer
2. The average age for first sexual intercourse is
a)16
b)18
c)14
d)17
e)15
3. Which of the following is MOST common during adolescence?
a) skin conditions
b) respiratory conditions
c) significant mental health problems
d)diabetes
e) musculoskeletal conditions
4. The prevalence of mental health problems is estimated to be about
a)37%
b)1%
c)6%
d)11%
e)25%
5. Which of the following is the most common cause of chronic urticaria?
a)IgE-mediated
b)Pharmacological
c)Infection
d)Physical agents
e)Idiopathic
6. Presents with delayed separartion of the umbilical cord, delayed wound healing, chronic skin ulcers
and deep seated infections.
a)Major immunoglobulin deficiencies
b)Defects in leucocyte function
c)Defects of bacterial phagocytic function
d)Opsonisation defects
e)Severe combined immunodeficiency
7. Abnormal response in chronic granulomatous disease
a)Nitroblue tetrazolium test
b)Full blood count
c)Chromosomal fragility test
d)total haemolytic compliment
e)tests of chemotaxis
8. Patients cannot make a normal response of the Epstein barr virus infection and either succumb to
the infection or develop secondary malignancy
a)Duncan's syndrome
b)Chronic granulomatous disease
c)Di George syndrome
d)Ataxia telangiectasia
e)Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
9. An immune defect in Which of the following is least likely to be associated with increased
susceptability to fungal infactions?
a)Combined cellular and humoral
b)Opsonisation
c)Neutrophils
d)T lymphocytes
e)B lymphocytes
10. A defect in DNA repair
a)Chronic granulomatous disease
b)Ataxia telangiectasia
c)Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)Di George syndrome
e)Duncan's syndrome
11. The progression from eczema or food allergy in infancy to asthma or allergic rhinitis in later
childhood is known as the
a)progressive hypothesis
b)autoimmune presupposition
c)allergic march
d)hygiene hypothesis
e)wedge theory
12. A reaction initiated by specific immunological mechanisms. Can be IgE mediated or non IgE
mediated.
a)Allergy
b)Hypersensitivity
c)Anaphylaxis
d)Intolerance
e)Atopy
13. Extra folds under the eyes associated with allergic disease
a)Morgan-Stanley folds
b)Marlow-Backs folds
c)Morgan-Dennie folds
d)Marlow-Hinds folds
e)Marlow-Deanshaw folds
14. Immunodeficiency associated with maldevelopment of the 5th branchialarch causing heart
malformation, palatal defects, absence of the thymus and hypocalcaemia
a)Ataxia telangiectasia
b)Duncan's syndrome
c)Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d)Di George syndrome
e)Chronic granulomatous disease
15. Triad of immunodeficiency, thrombocytopaenia and eczema
a)Duncan's syndrome
b)Ataxia telangiectasia
c)Chronic granulomatous disease
d)Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
e)Di George syndrome
16. A severe, life threatening, generalised or systemic hypersensitivity reaction
a)Intolerance
b)Anaphylaxis
c)Atopy
d)Allergy
e)Hypersensitivity
17. Peanut allergy affects 1 in ___ children (according to Lissauer, 2007)
a)300
b)500
c)1000
d)70
e)120
18. Objectively reproducible symptoms or signs following a defined stimulus at a dose tolerated by
normal persons
a)Allergy
b)Anaphylaxis
c)Atopy
d)Hypersensitivity
e)Intolerance
19. Usually due to exposure to the house dust mite or a pet
a)eczema
b)anaphylaxis
c)asthma
d)urticaria
e)perennial allergic rhinitis
20. A personal and/or familial tendency, usually in childhood or adolescence, to become sensitised and
produce IgE antibodies in response to ordinary exposure to antigens.
a)Atopy
b)Intolerance
c)Allergy
d)Hypersensitivity
e)Anaphylaxis
21. Cause susceptibility to bacterial infections, esp. Neisseria meningitidis. May also lead to
autoimmune diseases such as SLE
a)Severe combined immunodeficiency
b)Opsonisation defects
c)Defects of bacterial phagocytic function
d)Major immunoglobulin deficiencies
e)Defects in leucocyte function
22. An inherited disorder where phagoctyic cells fail to produce superoxide after ingestion of micro-
organisms due to a lesion in a membrane associated NADPH oxidase.
a)Chronic granulomatous disease
b)Di George syndrome
c)Duncan's syndrome
d)Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
e)Ataxia telangiectasia
23. Test for leucocyte adhesion deficiency
a)tests of chemotaxis
b)Nitroblue tetrazolium test
c)Chromosomal fragility test
d)Surface adhesion molecules (CD18, CD11b)
e)total haemolytic compliment
24. Defects which lead to this include purine metabolism abnormalities, abnormal lymphocyte
maturation and IL-2 receptor gamma chain deficiency
a)Defects of bacterial phagocytic function
b)Major immunoglobulin deficiencies
c)Opsonisation defects
d)Severe combined immunodeficiency
e)Defects in leucocyte function
25. Test for ataxia telangiectasia
a)tests of chemotaxis
b)Chromosomal fragility test
c)Nitroblue tetrazolium test
d)Full blood count
e)total haemolytic compliment
26. A heterogenous group of inherited disorders characterised by profoundly defective cellular and
humoral immunity. Presents in the first 6 months with unusual and severe failure to thrive.
a)Opsonisation defects
b)Defects of bacterial phagocytic function
c)Major immunoglobulin deficiencies
d)Defects in leucocyte function
e)Severe combined immunodeficiency
27. Used to examine the morpholoy of cells
a)Full blood count
b)Nitroblue tetrazolium test
c)tests of chemotaxis
d)total haemolytic compliment
e)Blood film
28. Usually non allergic in origin
a)Rhinitis
b)Eczema
c)Chronic urticaria
d)Food hypersensitivity
e)Asthma
29. The most common type is caused by abnormalities in the Bruton tyrosine kinase gene
a)Severe combined immunodeficiency
b)Defects in leucocyte function
c)Major immunoglobulin deficiencies
d)Opsonisation defects
e)Defects of bacterial phagocytic function
30. What percentage of 10 year olds are not dry at night?
a)3%
b)6%
c)1%
d)24%
e)12%
31. Breakdown in the appreciation of reality and a lack of insight that anything is wrong
a)mania
b)oppositional defiant disorder
c)depression
d)psychosis
e)conduct disorder
32. In general, the further the pain is from the umbilicus, the more likely it is to be caused by organic
pathology
a)Able's rule
b)Apple's rule
c)Appleby's rule
d)Abelson's rule
e)Apley's rule
33. Serious antisocial behaviour that infringes on the rights of others and represents a handicap to
general functioning may suggest
a)depression
b)oppositional defiant disorder
c)psychosis
d)conduct disorder
e)mania
34. Peak age of onset of anorexia nervosa is ___ years
a)13
b)17
c)16
d)14
e)15
35. A psychotic disorder where no specific medical cause is identified and there is generally no major
disturbance of mood other than blunting or flattening of affect
a) conduct disorder
b) schizophrenia
c) bipolar affective disorder
d) oppositional defiant disorder
e) delerium
36. What percentage of 5 year olds are not dry at night?
a)36%
b)12%
c)3%
d)6%
e)24%
37. Faecal soiling is abnormal after the age of ___ years
a)5
b)3
c)7
d)4
e)6
38. Angry defiant behaviour to authority figures
a)depression
b)conduct disorder
c)oppositional defiant disorder
d)mania
e)psychosis
39. An autosomal disorder or connective tissue associated with tall stature, long thin digits,
hyperextensible joints, a high arched palate, dislocation of the lenses of the eyes and severe myopia
a)Thanatophoric dysplasia
b)Achondroplasia
c)Arthrogryposis
d)Marfan's syndrome
e)Osteogenesis imperfecta
40. Below is a list of conditions which may present with musculoskeletal clinical features. Which is the
most common (in children)?
a)septic arthritis
b)kawasaki's disease
c)osteomyelitis
d)reactive arthritis
e)juvenile idiopathic arthritis
41. The normal age range for presentation of out-toeing is
a)1-6 months
b)1-3 years
c)12-24 months
d)6-12 months
e)2-7 years
42. Most often affects adolescent females, causing pain when the patella is tightly opposed to the
femoral condyles, eg walking up stairs
a)Osteochondritis dissecans
b)Osgood-Schlatter disease
c)Subluxation and dislocation of the patella
d)Slipped upper femoral epophysis
e)Chondromalacia patellae
43. Stress fracture of the pars interarticularis of the vertebra, typically lower lumbar
a)Scoliosis
b)Scheuermann's disease
c)Torticollis
d)Vertebral osteomyelitis
e)Spondylolysis
44. A complex abnormality where the entire foot is inverted and supinated and the forefoot is
adducted. The heel is rotated inwards in plantarflexion. The affected foot is shorter and the calf muscles
thinner than normal. The posiion of the foot is fixed and can not be corrected completely.
a)Osgood-Schlatter disease
b)talipes equinovarus
c)pes cavus
e)positional talipes
f)talipes calcaneovalgus
45. When bilateral, this is due to lateral rotation of the hips and resolves spontaneously
a)genu varum
b)out-toeing
c)toe walking
d)pes planus
e)in-toeing
46. Differential diagnoses ot consider would be Hypermobility or congenital tarsal fusion
a)Flat feet (pes planus)
b)Knock knees (genu valgum)
c)In-toeing
d)Toe walking
e)Bow legs (genu varum)
47. The most common form of arthritis in childhood
a)juveline idiopathic arthritis
b)septic arthritis
c)osteomyelitis
d)psoriatic arthritis
e)reactive arthritis
48. Caused by infection of the metaphysis of long bones. Most common sites are are distal femur and
proximal tibia. Usually due to haematogenous spread of a pathogen.
a)Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
b)Septic arthritis
c)Arthrogryposis
d)Osteomyelitis
e)Juvenile dermatomyositis
49. In this autosomal dominant disordre there is absence of part or all of the clavicles and delay in
closure of the anterior fontanelle
a)Achondroplasia
b)Arthrogryposis
c)Cleidocranial dystosis
d)Thanatophoric dysplasia
e)Osteopetrosis
50. In this rare disorder, the bones are dense but brittle. Presents with failure to thrive, recurrent
infection, hypocalcaemia and thrombocytopaenia
a)Cleidocranial dystosis
b)Osteopetrosis
c)Arthrogryposis
d)Achondroplasia
e)Thanatophoric dysplasia
51. Management is surgical, usually with pin fixation in situ. Severe cases may require subsequent
corrective realignment osteotomy
a)Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
b)Perthes disease
c)Transient synovitis
d)Slipped upper femoral epophysis
e)Septic arthritis
52. Laboratory abnormalities include HLA B27+. Localised inflammation at insertions of tendons or
ligaments into bone
a)Enthesitis related arthritis
b)Polyarthritis
c)Psoriatic arthritis
d)Oligoarthritis
e)Systemic arthritis
53. Differential diagnoses ot consider would be tibial torsion or femoral anteversion
a)Bow legs (genu varum)
b)Flat feet (pes planus)
c)Knock knees (genu valgum)
d)Toe walking
e)In-toeing
54. A heterogenous group of congenital disorders in which there is stiffness and contracture of joints.
May be an association with oligohydramnios.
a)Osteopetrosis
b)Arthrogryposis
c)Cleidocranial dystosis
d)Achondroplasia
e)Thanatophoric dysplasia
55. The foot is dorsiflexed and everted. It usually results from intrauterine moulding and self corrects.
a)talipes calcaneovalgus
b)pes cavus
c)talipes equinovarus
d)Osgood-Schlatter disease
e)positional talipes
56. Can result from Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Some will develop a prominence of the navicular boine
on the medial aspect of the foot.
a)developmental dysplasia of the hip
b)Perthes disease
c)genu valgum
d)pes planus
e)genu varum
57. Usually begins insidiously with malaise, progressive weakness and facial rash with erythema over
the bridge of the nose and malar areas and a violaceous discolouration of the eyelids
a)Henoch-Schonlein purpura
b)Systemic lupus erythematosus
c)Juvenile dermatomyositis
d)Arthrogryposis
e)Achondroplasia
58. The most common vasculitis of childhood
a)Henoch-Schonlein purpura
b)Achondroplasia
c)Arthrogryposis
d)Juvenile dermatomyositis
e)Systemic lupus erythematosus
59). An overuse syndrome commonly occuring in physically active males around puberty, resulting in a
partial avulsion fracture through the ossification centre of the tibial tuberosity
a)Subluxation and dislocation of the patella
b)Osgood-Schlatter disease
c)Slipped upper femoral epophysis
d)Osteochondritis dissecans
e)Chondromalacia patellae
60. There is a high arched foot. In older children it may be associated with Friedrich's ataxia and type I
hereditary motor sensory neuropathy.
a)pes cavus
b)positional talipes
c)talipes equinovarus
d)Osgood-Schlatter disease
e)talipes calcaneovalgus
61. Often follows or is accompanied by a viral infection. Presentation is with a sudden onset of pain in
the hip or a limp. The child is afebrile or a has a mild fever.
a)Perthes disease
b)Septic arthritis
c)Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
d)Cerebral palsy
e)Transient synovitis
62. Usually due to flatness of the medical longitudinal arch and the presence of a fat pad
a)genu varum
b)genu valgum
c)Perthes disease
d)pes planus
e)developmental dysplasia of the hip
63. The most common cause of acute hip pain in children
a)Cerebral palsy
b)Perthes disease
c)Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
d)Septic arthritis
e)Transient synovitis
64. A benign tumor affecting adolescents, especially boys, usually involving the femur or tibia
a)Osteogenic sarcoma
b)Ewing's tumour
c)Arthrogryposis
d)Osteomyelitis
e)Osteoid osteoma
65. One cause of this is Rickets, another is Blount's disease
a)genu varum
b)pes planus
c)Perthes disease
d)genu valgum
e)developmental dysplasia of the hip
66. The most common cause in infants is a sternomastoid tumour
a)Vertebral osteomyelitis
b)Scheuermann's disease
c)Scoliosis
d)Spondylolysis
e)Torticollis
67. In this condition the feet are wide apart when standing with the knees held together
a)Perthes disease
b)genu valgum
c)developmental dysplasia of the hip
d)pes planus
e)genu varum
68. Pain is caused by separation of bone and cartilage from the medial femoral condyle following
avascular necrosis
a)Osgood-Schlatter disease
b)Subluxation and dislocation of the patella
c)Osteochondritis dissecans
d)Chondromalacia patellae
e)Slipped upper femoral epophysis
69. Associated with "W" sitting
a)Perthe's disease
b)metatarsus varus
c)persistent anteversion of the femoral neck
d)transient synovitis
e)medial tibial torsion
70. Bowing of the tibiae causing the knees to be wide apart while standing with the feet together
a)developmental dysplasia of the hip
b)pes planus
c)Perthes disease
d)genu varum
e)genu valgum
71. The true birth prevalence of DDH is about ___ per 1000 live births
a)0.1
b)3.0
c)0.5
d)1.5
e)5.5
72. Lateral curvature in the frontal plane of the spine
a)Scheuermann's disease
b)Spondylolysis
c)Scoliosis
d)Vertebral osteomyelitis
e)Torticollis
73. Seen in children between 2 and 7 years, resulting in an intermalleolar distance at the ankles of up to
5cm
a)pes planus
b)genu valgum
c)genu varum
d)developmental dysplasia of the hip
e)Perthes disease
74. Clinical features are short stature from marked shortening of the limbs, a large head, frontal
bossing and depression of the nasal bridge
a)Henoch-Schonlein purpura
b)Achondroplasia
c)Arthrogryposis
d)Juvenile dermatomyositis
e)Systemic lupus erythematosus
75. Results in stillbirth. Inheritance is sporadic. Large head, extremely short limbs and small chest.
a)Thanatophoric dysplasia
b)Cleidocranial dystosis
c)Achondroplasia
d)Osteopetrosis
e)Arthrogryposis
76. Used to treat developmental dysplasia. Holds the hip abducted, allowing the hip joint to develop
normally
a)Rosberg splint
b)Craig splint
c)Effeick's splint
d)Pavlik harness
e)Marlow harness
77. Differential diagnoses to consider would be Rickets, osteogenesis imperfecta, Blount's disease
a)Knock knees (genu valgum)
b)Bow legs (genu varum)
c)Flat feet (pes planus)
d)Out-toeing
e)In-toeing
78. May be due to mild cerebral palsy, isolated tightness of the achilles tendon, or Duchenne's
muscular dystrophy
a)in-toeing
b)genu varum
c)toe walking
d)pes planus
e)out-toeing
79. Associated with fever, pain at rest and minimal or no movement of the affected joint.
a)Septic arthritis
b)Perthes disease
c)Transient synovitis
d)Cerebral palsy
e)Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
80. Associated with a blue appearance to the sclera
a)Osteogenesis imperfecta
b)Cleidocranial dystosis
c)Achondroplasia
d)Thanatophoric dysplasia
e)Arthrogryposis
81. Due to ischaemia of the femoral epiphysis, resulting in avascular necrosis, followed by
revascularisation and reossification over 18-36 months
a)Transient synovitis
b)Perthes disease
c)Cerebral palsy
d)Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
e)Septic arthritis
82. Differential diagnoses to consider would be hypermobility, Ehlers-Danlos or Marfan's syndrome
a)In-toeing
b)Out-toeing
c)Knock knees (genu valgum)
d)Bow legs (genu varum)
e)Flat feet (pes planus)
83. Differential diagnoses to consider would be spastic diplegia or muscular dystrophy
a)Knock knees (genu valgum)
b)In-toeing
c)Bow legs (genu varum)
d)Flat feet (pes planus)
e)Toe walking
84. Checking if the hip can be dislocated posteriorly out of the acetabulum in a newborn
a)Gower's test
b)Barlow's manoeuvre
c)Collinger's test
d)Ortolani's manoeuvre
e)Enthe«Full_Name»«Full_Name»sitis
85. Presents with fever, a painful immobile limb, swelling and extreme tenderness. Blood cultures
usually positive. Parenteral antibiotics must be given immediately.
a)Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
b)Osteomyelitis
c)Juvenile dermatomyositis
d)Arthrogryposis
e)Reactive arthritis
86. Three main causes are: metatarsus varus, medial tibial torsion, persistent anteversion of the femoral
neck
a)genu varum
b)out-toeing
c)toe walking
d)pes planus
e)in-toeing
87. An osteochondritis of the thoracic vertebrae in adolescents resulting in a fixed kyphosis
a)Spondylolysis
b)Torticollis
c)Vertebral osteomyelitis
d)Scheuermann's disease
e) Scoliosis

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