Dgca Module 13 Part 02-1 PDF

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Question from 301
308. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per

301. in air speed hold mode, a down
revolution is experienced on a helicopter.
displacement of the flight director pitch
The primary control method is
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command bar signifies

a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings
a) speed increase
# b) design of engine and gearbox supports
# b) speed decrease
c) inspect main rotor head and main drive
c) height decrease
shaft
302. Back beam is captured
309. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings
# a) by manually selecting the back beam from
mode
a) rad alt to barometric
b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode
b) rad alt decrease
c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode
c) approach along localiser with reference to
303. With an insulation tester runway threshold
a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air Page 35 - Mod 13

frame and short lead to item
310. on power up, the IRS obtains position
b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and
a) latitude from previous position
long lead to the item
b) longitude from previous position
# c) it does not matter which lead goes
where c) latitude and longitude from previous
position
304. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ
311. Krueger flaps make up part of the
a) higher
a) wing upper surface leading edge
b) lower
b) wing lower surface trailing edge
# c) higher or lower
# c) wing lower surface leading edge
305. Flight director incompatible modes are
312. Electronic stab trim switches are found
a) VOR and glideslope
on the
b) heading and altitude hold
# a) control column
c) VOR and altitude hold
b) flight control panel
306. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?
c) behind thrust levers
a) 110 nm
313. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is
# b) 120 nm known as
c) 130 nm a) apparent A
307. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1? b) real A
a) c/a code only c) true A
b) c/a code and P code 314. Emergency electronic equipment for

the cabin is referred to in
Page
c) P code only
a) BCARs
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Question from 301
# b) JAR OPS subpart M a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7

bits information
c) maintenance manual
b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits

315. Carbon microphones require
function
# a) DC supply
c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference
b) AC supply and carrier
c) no supply 322. The pseudo-random code used by all

civilian GPS users is
316. Microwave landing systems are
modulated with a) the y code
a) FM b) the p code
b) phase drift keying # c) the c/a code
c) Manchester code 323. The respective band widths for a radar

IF amplifier and video amplifier should be
317. A CVR is found to be unserviceable for good pulse shape are
a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR a) wide and narrow
provided they are not combined
b) narrow and wide
b) flights must not continue after four days
c) wide and wide
# c) flights must not continue after 72 hours
324. On localiser approach the radio
318. The maximum azimuth coverage by a deviation signal is lost
MLS facility is
a) the aircraft flies in a circle
a) +/- 35 degrees
# b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set
# b) +/-40 degrees heading
c) +/-60 degrees c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift
Page 36 - Mod 13 angle
319. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF 325. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires
is 060 degrees relative to aircraft heading of a) pitot only
030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates
b) static only
a) 30 degrees
# c) pitot and static
b) 90 degrees
326. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left,
c) 60 degrees the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder
320. Fibre glass parts are protected from to
lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by # a) the right
a) non conductive paint b) the left
b) conductive paint c) the left with some aileron assistance
# c) earth primary conductors 327. A yaw damper will apply rudder
321. in MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of proportional to
Page
a) amount of aircraft disturbance
Question from 301
b) attitude of aircraft # a) Hydraulic actuator
# c) rate of yaw b) Air pistons

Page 37 - Mod 13 c) Electrical motors
328. In a turn, wing spoilers may be 335. The purpose of a force trim release
deployed system in an helicopter is to permit the
a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the # a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain
ailerons desired new attitude without having to
maintain the opposing forces of the artificial
b) in unison with both the up going and
feel system forces
down going ailerons
b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a
# c) to assist the up going aileron
power change
329. Glideslope deviation signals are
c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over
# a) DC polarity sensitive powered
b) AC phase sensitive 336. A differential relay in a twin generator

system will cause
c) DC positive going only
a) only one generator can supply a bus bar
330. A triplex system loses one channel at a time
# a) pilot can continue with autoland b) one generator always comes on line
b) pilot can use auto approach before the other
c) pilot must make a full manual approach # c) the generator voltages are nearly equal
and land before they are paralleled
331. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot Page 38 - Mod 13

system has 337. Distilled or demineralised water would
a) full authority be added to an alkaline battery
b) 50% authority a) in the aircraft
# c) 10% authority b) when the battery is fully charged
332. Stall warning will be given # c) in the charging room only
# a) before stall 338. When removing the load from a

current transformer
b) after stall
# a) short the terminals
c) at stall
b) place a resistor across each terminal
333. With on-board maintenance (OBM)
systems, the purpose of central c) leave the terminals open
maintenance function (CMF) is to 339. Wing steady light must be visible
# a) log relevant maintenance data through
b) transmits to the CMC a) 70 degrees
c) provides details of defect action # b) 110 degrees

Page
334. How are spoilers normally operated? c) 180 degrees
Question from 301
340. On AC ground power the interlock 346. The instantaneous VSI is designed to
system is operated by pins
# a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising
a) a and b an accelerometer
b) c and d b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of

climb/descent
# c) e and f
c) improve the VSI output during
341. When paralleling two AC generators
acceleration greater than 1g
# a) it is important that they are in phase,
347. with a constant torque applied to a
and should be brought on in sequence ABC
gyroscope, the rate of precession will
b) it is important that they are in phase, and
a) increase with a higher rotor speed
can be brought on in either ABC or CBA
# b) decrease with a higher rotor speed
c) they do not need to be in phase
c) decrease with a lower rotor speed
342. The neutral shift sensor ensures that
348. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis
# a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved
has the roll torque motor located about the
to align with the stabiliser
gyroscope's
b) after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved
a) lateral axis
to align with the elevator
# b) longitudinal axis
c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved
to align with the elevator c) vertical axis
343. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied 349. The glideslope equipment operates in
in autopilot systems to the
a) assist the aircraft back to datum after a) HF band

disturbance in yaw
# b) UHF band
b) prevents slip and skid in yaw
c) VHF band
# c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite
350. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a
direction to the turn
flight director system would cause
344. Stand off errors on localiser approach
a) aircraft to underbank
are washed out by
b) aircraft to overbank
a) differentiating deviation signals
# c) aircraft to remain in level flight
b) integrating deviation signals
351. In a flight director system the radio
# c) integrating course error signals
signal outputs from the navigation receiver
Page 39 - Mod 13 are
345. An open circuit in the temperature bulb # a) DC

as used in the DC ratiometer would cause
b) AC
a) the pointer to read zero
c) pulsed DC
b) the pointer to read mid scale
352. Fuel quantity test set consists of
Page
# c) the pointer to read full scale

a) resistance decade
Question from 301
b) capacitance bridge 359. On aircraft an auto land during auto

flare the auto throttle will
c) inductance decade
# a) retard the throttle

353. EICAS provides the following
b) reverse thrust
a) engine parameters
c) control throttle for a IAS
# b) engine parameters and system
warnings 360. If an FM signal modulated by an audio
signal the frequency of the audio would
c) engine warnings and engine parameters
relate to the
Page 40 - Mod 13
a) amplitude
354. The stabiliser is set to high setting
b) frequency
when
# c) rate of frequency change
# a) the flaps are moving down
361. The normal axis on a helicopter is
b) the flap are moving up
# a) straight down the rotor head
c) the flap are moving up or down
b) at 90o to the C of G
355. An auto land system displays Land 2
another failure will make the system c) at 90o to the rotor head
a) operational 362. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is

used
b) passive
# a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to
# c) simplex
instability in the RX
356. DSR TK (desired track) means
b) make the audio signal clearer
# a) the bearing to capture the track
c) an Americanisum for volume
b) a great circle path on surface of earth
Page 41 - Mod 13
connecting two way points
363. A GPS aerial is polarised
c) distance left or right from desired track
a) vertically
357. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal
from b) horizontally
# a) the barometric alt capsule # c) right hand circular
b) a rad alt output 364. Mach trim threshold are set by the
c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on a) pilot

height
b) engineer using aircraft maintenance
358. In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference manual
signal is
# c) manufacture
a) FM Modulated
365. An O ring in a wave guide is used to
# b) AM Modulated
a) correct the VSWR
c) modulated with a 9960Hz
b) stop arcing between the wave guide
Page
# c) stop moisture entering the wave guide
Question from 301
366. An RMI requires the following inputs: 373. Emergency Electronic equipment is
approved by
# a) Heading and radio deviation
a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual

b) Course and radio deviation
# b) JAR (OPS) M
c) Radio deviation only
c) BCAR A4-8
367. The versine signal is used in the
374. The rotor disc is
# a) pitch channel only
# a) the distance between tip to tip
b) roll channel only
b) the rotor head hub
c) pitch and roll channel
c) the ground cushion
368. After a change in collective pitch the
Rotor rpm will rise and fall. This is called 375. A DME is in auto stand by when
# a) transient droop a) the ATC transponder is transmitting
b) static droop # b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a

second
c) under swing
c) the TCAS is transmitting
369. Loran C Uses
376. The aircraft is due north of a VOR
a) 16 KHz
station on a heading of 90o What is a RMI
b) 20 Mhz display?
# c) 100 Khz a) 90o
370. The amount of travel of a series b) 0o

actuator is
# c) 180o
# a) 50% of control movement
377. The flight director is on a localizer
b) 10% of control movement when the radio deviation signal is lost the
aircraft would
c) full control movement
a) continue on flying on the localizer
371. GPS Telemetry consists of
# b) fly parallel to the localizer
a) week number and time label
c) drift of from the localizer on the same
b) satellite position information heading
c) 8 bits of preamble and position 378. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are
information
# a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft
Page 42 - Mod 13
b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.
372. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade
the blade will be at maximum flap at c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.
# a) 90o 379. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are
b) 180o a) not less than 100 ft.
c) 0o # b) not less than 200 ft.

Page
c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.
Question from 301
380. When GA is initiated? c) select reverse thrust.
a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min 386. Roll out mode occurs
rate and wings will level

# a) after flare
b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing
b) before flare
pilot to control the throttles
c) at alert height
# c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving
correct G/A thrust 287. High and low signal to voter are
Page 43 - Mod 13 a) average
381. The controlling signal in pitch channel b) removed
in the Flare mode are
c) added
# a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.
388. Basic monitoring is function of
b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.
a) voting
c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation
# b) signal comparison
382. Rollout guidance after touch down is by
c) signal summing
a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel
steering 389. In series rudder system
b) visual indication and nosewheel steering a) the pilot cannot input to the system
c) visual indication and rudder control # b) the pilot can input to the system
283. During autoland failure of one channel c) yaw damping is only possible signal input
is detected Page 44 - Mod 13
a) all channels will disconnect in triplex 390. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim
system. indicators, it means that
# b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex a) the indicator is not serviceable
system.
b) the control system is out of trim
c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual
system. c) the system is trimmed
384. In triplex autoland system failure of 391. in parallel rudder system,

one channel will a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals
a) disconnect all channels # b) The rudder pedals move in response to
# b) disconnect the failure channel and rudder movement
continue autoland approach c) The rudder pedals are disconnected
c) disconnect the failure channel and 292. The aileron/rudder signal is
continue with a manual approach demodulated in the rudder channel
285. During the flair mode the A/T throttle amplifier. This means it is
will a) AC
# a) retard throttle to idle. b) DC
Page
b) disconnect autothrottle
Question from 301
# c) DC output whose polarity is related to 399. When will a mode C interrogation be

the phase of AC input ignored?
393. An increase in mach number will cause a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to
the P1
# a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1

downwash on the tail plane
c) If P2 is before P1
b) Cof P to move rearwards giving more
400. A helicopter autopilot uses
# a) radio altitude for height hold and
c) Cof P to move forwards giving less
barometric altitude for altitude hold
b) barometric altitude for height hold and
394. If one FMS fails in a duel system
radio altitude for altitude hold
a) system operation will not be affected
c) barometric altitude for both height and
b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank altitude hold
# c) FMS display transfers automatically 401. On an ILS approach what will cause the
from serviceable computer aircraft to fly onto the beam?
395. To carry out FMS database update on a) Height Deviation

FMS
b) Radio deviation
# a) use database loader
# c) Course deviation
b) insert new EPROM
402. What of the following modes does a
c) insert new data on CDU autopilot go through in correct sequence?
396. To know the valid database on FMS a) Flare, attitude, rollout
a) perform bite check # b) Attitude, flare, rollout
# b) call up relevant page on CDU c) Rollout, attitude, flare
c) call up relevant current status 403. When can other autopilot modes can be
select once Go-Around has been selected?
397. Magnetic heading errors will be
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
# a) positive if easterly
# b) When reached a desired altitude
b) negative if easterly
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
c) negative if northerly
404. Once the G/S has been captured what
398. What will happen with a flux valve in a
other pitch modes are available?
turn?
a) No other pitch modes are available
a) It will move once the aircraft is
established on a new heading b) Only when the aircraft is above the
glideslope beam
# b) Move as the aircraft moves
c) All are continuously available
c) Stay fixed on magnetic north
405. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating
Page 45 - Mod 13
Page
anticlockwise, view from above where

would a pitch input be fed into the disc to
Question from 301
move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees a) move the control surface on the ground
to what?
b) move the control surface only by moving
a) In front of the lateral axis the tab
# b) Right of the longitudinal axis c) not move the control surface on the
ground
c) Left of the longitudinal axis
412. The VHF aerial resistance and
406. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on
transmission line resistance is
descent are
# a) 50 ohms
# a) lift, drag thrust, weight
b) 20 ohms
b) lift, drag, thrust
c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively
c) weight, drag, lift
413. Alert Height is when
Page 46 - Mod 13
a) a decision of whether to land is made
407. What is the primary purpose of a
helicopter tail arm? # b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is
made
# a) Provide a structure for mounting the
stabiliser and anti torque rotor c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is
made
b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity
of the helicopter 414. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder
c) Provide directional control a) remains at the neutral position
408. How long is the time between the start b) controls the aircraft in trim
of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the
c) remains in the previous position
P2 pulse length?
415. for a Vertical Gyro which is moved in
# a) 21 micro seconds
pitch, which gimble would be moved to
b) 8 micro seconds correct the pitch movement?
c) 17 micro seconds a) Lateral
409. What does the Radar contour button b) Longitudinal

do?
c) Normal
# a) Alter the beam shape
Page 47 - Mod 13
b) Alter the transmitter power
416. Versine is used in which channel?
c) Alter the video amplifier
# a) Pitch
410. A radar response takes 329 micro
b) Roll
seconds. How far away is the target?
c) Yaw
a) 12 miles
417. A Master Warning is issued when
# b) 25 miles
# a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs
c) 40 miles
b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs
411. With a spring balance control system
Page
you can c) engine fire & generator trip occurs
Question from 301
418. Which is the most important part of # c) It is moved automatically in the

preventative maintenance on HIRF opposite direction as the surface
installations?
Page 48 - Mod 13
# a) Visual inspections
424. At which two points on a gas turbine
b) Insulation testing engine is EPR measured?
c) CMC fault indications # a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe
419. an RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is b) Combustion chamber and jet pipe
showing a course of 000. If the course knob
c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber
is adjusted to 010 what happens to the
pointer? 425. If a stall is approaching, what
indication does the pilot get?
a) Move left
# a) Stick Shaker
b) Move right
b) Stick Nudger
c) Moves left then hard right
c) EICAS warning
420. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030
receives an ADF signal 030 relative to the 426. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to
aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating?
a) nose up
a) 030
b) go one wing down
b) 060
c) nose down
c) 090
427. On a coupled approach what happens to
421. When does the pressure in the standard the aircraft if it looses the localiser signal?
atmosphere halve?
# a) It will fly straight down the original
a) 12,000ft course but will drift
b) 5,000ft b) It will fly in circles
# c) 18,000ft c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was
on
422. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the
left, what input would the aileron to rudder 428. If an autopilot is fed with radio
crossfeed be? deviation
# a) Left Rudder a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed
amount
b) Right Rudder
# b) it will fly in circles
c) No Rudder
c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was
423. If a control surface that is fitted with a
on
balance tab is moved, what will happen to
the tab? 429. What colour are the autoland
indication lights next to the pilots
a) It is moved manually in the opposite
instruments with excess deviation?
direction to the surface
a) Red
b) It is moved automatically in the same
direction as the surface
Page
b) Amber
Question from 301
c) White # a) Control Wheel

430. In what type of Doppler System do b) Control Column

altitude holes appear?
c) Rudder Pedals
# a) FM
437. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic
b) Pulse system pressure?
c) FM and Pulse # a) 3000 psi
431. What happens to the F/D command b) 1000 psi

bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn?
c) 300 psi
a) They stay in the same place as nothing is
438. If a bonding lead is found to be broken
there to null the input signal
and a spare is unavailable you must
b) They return back to neutral when the
# a) replace with a self manufactured cable
turn is complete
of the same type but larger
c) They Disappear out of view
b) defer the defect until correct spares are
432. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is available
it moving about?
c) splice the broken lead
# a) Normal
439. What is the minimum size cable, which
b) Longitudinal is not likely to carry all the current from a
primary structure?
c) Lateral
a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable
Page 49 - Mod 13
b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable
433. The neutral shift system augments
control of the c) No smaller than 18AWG
a) stabiliser 440. What is the bonding value between

secondary structure?
# b) elevator
a) 0.5
c) spoilers
# b) 1 ohm
434. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose
up command causes c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000
# a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of 441. What is the diagonal part of the landing
the stabiliser to move up gear called?
b) all the elevators on each wing to move up # a) Drag Strut
c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up b) Drag Wire
435. What are ground spoilers used for? c) Shock Absorber
# a) To dump lift Page 50 - Mod 13
b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop 442. What is the advancing blade on a
helicopter doing?
c) To slow the aircraft
# a) Increasing in lift
Page
436. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right

where does the pilot feed in this command? b) Going to the highest point
Question from 301
c) Increasing in drag # b) 42
443. In a series actuator fitted to a c) 20

helicopter how much authority does it have?
450. When using a bonding tester you
# a) 10% approximately
# a) use the 6ft lead for testing different
b) 100% points
c) 50% b) use the 60ft lead for testing different

points
444. What is the output of a localiser NAV
receiver? c) use either leads for the testing
a) Polarity sensitive AC Page 51 - Mod 13
# b) Polarity sensitive DC 451. What is the swash plate on a helicopter

used for?
c) Either
# a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades
445. What does an INS calculate on power
up? b) Control of the speed of the rotor blades
a) Last Known Longitude c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades
# b) Last Known Latitude 452. What does a piezo electric type

vibration sensor detect?
c) Last Known Longitude & Latitude
a) Disturbances
446. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic
control circuit of a helicopter what effect b) Velocity
will an autopilot input have?
# c) Pressure changes
a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to
453. with a control surface tab in the neutral
the autopilot input
position, what happens when the control
# b) The cyclic lever will not move surface is moved?
c) The flight director bars only will move a) It remains in the neutral position
447. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do b) It moves in the same direction as the
you get to the system pages? control surface
# a) Through the ground test function c) It moves in the opposite direction as the
control surface
b) Through the Existing faults function
454. What should be carried out prior to
c) Through the Present Leg faults function
working on or near control surfaces?
448. What is the purpose of the autopilot
# a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off
trim indication?
b) Pull & tag circuit breakers
# a) The voltage activity in the servo amp
c) Wear ear protection
b) Trim tab position
455. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator
c) Control surface position
has instant values of Vertical Speed by
449. What is the entry angle of an MLS
# a) blocking off static and by using an
installation +/-?
Page
accelerometer
a) 62
Question from 301
b) using a plunger to correct any lagging of a) above or below ambient atmospheric

the indicator pressure
c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using # b) absolute pressure

an accelerometer
c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure
456. What is the glide slope frequency
463. Angle of Attack is the angle between
range?
cord line and
a) 108 - 112 Mhz
# a) relative air flow
b) 108 - 112 Ghz
b) tip path plane
# c) 329 - 335 Mhz
c) horizontal axis
457. What would indicate the state of charge
464. If cyclic is moved to the right
of a lead acid battery?
a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens
a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte
on another
# b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
b) the rotor blades on the right flap down
c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage
c) the rotor blades on the left flap down
458. Upwash on a helicopter would result in
465. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429
a) increase in lift without an increase in system
power
a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz
b) decrease in lift
b) 2 - 6 GHz
c) decrease in speed
# c) 100 KHz
459. What is the aural warning of an aircraft
466. What would happen to an aircraft at
overspeed?
low speed at high angle of attack had an
a) Bell sound aileron going down?
# b) Clacking sound a) Decrease stall speed
c) Horn sound b) Increase stall speed
Page 52 - Mod 13 c) Have no effect on the stall speed
460. What is a slot used for? 467. A high lift device is used for
# a) To reinforce the boundary layer # a) take off and landing
b) Increased angle of attack during b) take off only

approach
c) landing only
c) Increase the speed of the airflow
468. What is the major vertical component
461. ADF is of an airframe that is a load bearing part of
the structure that can be used as walls or
a) Rho
partial walls?
b) Theta
a) Frame
c) Rho-Theta
b) Bulkhead
Page
462. A Boost Gauge reads

c) Stringer
Question from 301
Page 53 - Mod 13 # a) underswing

469. What is jitter used for in a DME b) overswing

transmission?
c) a hole in one
# a) To make an installation recognise it's
476. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown
own transmission
to another airfield at the same level above
b) To make sure only strong signals are sea level then
replied to in a dense area
a) it will not need resetting and will read
c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a zero
quiet area
b) it will display the airfield height above sea
470. What is the minimum candela of an level
anti-collision beacon?
c) it will probably not need resetting and
a) 100 will read zero
b) 50 477. capacitance fuel quantity indication test

set is connected
c) 20
a) by replacing capacitance probes
471. What is the calibration law of a
Ratiometer? b) in parallel with capacitance probes
a) Material of the coil c) in series with capacitance probes
b) Material of the sensing element Page 54 - Mod 13
c) Material of the indicator needle 478. What is aileron droop?
472. after a roll to the left of a statically a) The leading edge of both ailerons
unstable helicopter, the helicopter would presented to the airflow
a) roll back to the horizontal b) One aileron lowered
b) continue to roll further c) The drop of ailerons with no hydraulics

on
c) remain at the position that it had rolled to
479. How is the output of a constant speed
473. How is a spoiler interconnected to
drive fed AC generator controlled?
other flight control systems?
a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor
a) Spoiler to aileron
b) No control as the generator is fed via a
b) Spoiler to flap
constant speed drive
c) Spoiler to elevator
c) By a swashplate
474. What is audio clipping used for in voice
480. What happens to a helicopter in
communication?
autorotative flight?
a) To enable vowels to be heard better
a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation
b) To enable consonants to be heard better
b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of
c) To enable numbers to be heard better rotation
475. The difference between transient droop c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to
Page
and static droop is the normal direction of rotation
Question from 301
481. With a helicopter with a twin blade c) is unaffected by blade position

same gimbal it is
488. TCAS II is
# a) semi rigid
a) 10 aircraft per square mile
b) rigid
b) 25 aircraft per square 5 miles
c) fully articulating
c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square
482. Earths atmosphere is
489. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved
a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen by a
b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen a) servomotor
c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen b) loop voltage
483. A thermocouple c) Chinaman
a) capacitance and inductance cannot be 490. FMC changes movement via

added
a) A/P actuator
b) cannot be shortened
b) flight control computer
c) can be shortened
c) straight to the actuator
484. How is temperature compensation
491. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors
achieved in the fluid of a compass?
a) certain parameters
a) Bellows and diaphragm
b) with a fault detector and tells master
b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effect by
warning computer
temperature
c) and compares the faults on the aircraft
c) Press relief valve
with the CMC
485. When installing an aerial ,added
492. Radio signals chance of penetration of
support is needed for the structure. This is
ionosphere
achieved by
a) increase with the frequency
a) webs
b) decrease with frequency
b) outer plate
c) is not affected by frequency
c) inner plate
493. What is lapse rate?
486. What is the difference between
transmit and receive pulse frequency? a) Pressure changes with altitude
a) 60 # b) Temperature changes with altitude
b) 63 c) Density changes with altitude
c) 1000 494. Increase in speed of spoilers is needed
when
Page 55 - Mod 13
a) the flaps are lowered
487. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade
b) at higher speeds
a) increases at the tip
Page
c) the landing gear is extended

b) increases at the root
Question from 301
495. What should be taken into account 502. Rising gust in front of the leading edge
when measuring the SG of a battery? with flaps lowered, AoA will
a) The outside temperature a) increase
b) Electrolyte temperature b) decrease
c) Charge state of the battery c) remain
Page 56 - Mod 13 503. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving

about the
496. What happens when a control stick is
pulled back and to the left? a) normal axis
a) Elevator up, left aileron down b) lateral axis
b) Elevator down, right aileron down # c) longitudinal axis
c) Elevator up, right aileron down 504. LOC signal modulation is
497. Where is the placement of a mercury a) 50 %

switch?
# b) 20 %
a) Outer gimbal
c) 10 %
b) Gyro case
Page 57 - Mod 13
c) Instrument case
505. After a roll to the left of a statically
498. DC power into the GCU comes from stable helicopter , the helicopter would
a) main battery bus a) continue to roll
b) main battery bus and ground service b) increases roll
c) ground service c) come back to level flight
499. In a boost gauge system the sensing 506. What instrument uses ram air pressure
element contains and atmospheric pressure?
a) 1 capsule a) ASI
# b) 2 capsules b) Machmeter
c) 3 capsules c) VSI
500. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab 507. If increasing altitude at constant IAS,
in the down position, the control surface TAS will
will
a) decrease
a) move up
# b) increase
b) move down
c) remain the same
c) remain at the same place
508. A Master Warning is issued when
501. Spring tabs
a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs
a) cannot be adjusted in flight
b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs
b) can be adjusted in the flight deck
Page
c) engine fire & trip occurs

c) cannot be adjusted
Question from 301
509. How does a delta wing aircraft move c) E and F

about the pitch and roll axis?
516. Which is used for compass damping

a) Elevator s fluid compensation?
# b) Elevons a) Bellows or diaphragm
c) Ailerons b) No damping due to alcohol low

temperature co-efficient
510. If a roll was commenced, what
command would the versine generator give? c) Piston and oil
# a) Up Elevator 517. The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev

W)/2 is known as
b) Left rudder
# a) Coefficient B
c) Down elevator
b) Coefficient A
511. What effect does lowering the flaps for
takeoff have? c) Coefficient C
a) Increases lift & reduces drag 518. If the torque were increased on a
vertical gyro, what would happen to the
# b) Increases lift and drag
precession?
c) Increase lift only
a) Increase
512. What effect does lowering flaps for
b) Remain unaffected
takeoff have?
c) Decrease
# a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds
519. A 'q' feel system supplies
b) Reduces takeoff speeds only
a) aerodynamic damping
c) Reduces landing speeds only
b) the pilot with ever increasing awareness
513. Which signal would be integrated to get
of speed
onto Localiser centreline?
c) control movement effort relief
a) Heading error
520. ADF operates within which
b) Course error
frequencies?
c) Radio deviation
# a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz
Page 58 - Mod 13
b) 118 MHz - 132 MHz
514. What does a vibration type sensor
c) 32 KHz - 64 KHz
measure?
521. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is
a) Maximum deflection
LOC signal used?
# b) Frequency of deflections
a) Roll out
c) Direction of flexing
# b) Flare
515. On a Ground Power unit which pins are
c) Touchdown
allocated for interlock circuit?
522. FMC mode that can be selected through
a) A and B
the CDU is
Page
b) B and C
a) DME Freq
Question from 301
b) LNAV 529. If the localiser signal is only applied to

the A/P roll channel
# c) CRZ
a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre
Page 59 - Mod 13
line
523. Mode C response is
b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line
a) 21microseconds
# c) aircraft flies in circles
b) 12 microseconds
530. Speed control on an emergency
c) 8 microseconds hydraulic driven generator is via the
524. Which would you use to test an aircraft a) IDG

transponder altitude reporting system?
b) CSD
# a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600
c) swash plate
panel
531. WX radar display the time base is
b) Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-
600 into binary # a) saw tooth wave form
c) Check the altitude code with the correct b) trapezoidal wave form
alt/code table
c) rectangular wave form
525. An uncorrected ADI is affected by
Page 60 - Mod 13
a) climb
532. Flight director on VOR, course error
b) descent wash out signal is lost, following the FD
commands. Aircraft will
c) roll
a) stay on centre of course
526. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft
requires b) stay parallel to course
a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites c) follow the course with scalloping or

bracketing
b) 2 ground stations and 4 satellites
533. Flight director on G/S capture, the
c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites
pitch integration is
527. The term `circling current' refers to
a) to increase GS signal
a) AC generators
b) to decrease GS signal
b) AC and DC Generators
c) to maintain GS signal
c) DC generators
534. A helicopter needs to re-trim
528. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central
# a) indication is shown on the API
maintenance computers and you only have
one to dispatch the aircraft. b) indication is shown on the command bars
of the EHSI
Where do you fit it?
c) indication is shown on the command bars
a) LH side
of the attitude indicator
b) RH side
535. API Trim pointers are fed by
Page
c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter)

a) a synchro
Question from 301
b) an RVDT 120 ohms. While checking with ohm meter

the reading will be
c) an LVDT
a) 80 ohms
536. VHF transmitter output impedance to
match with antenna for maximum power b) 200 ohms
transfer is
c) more than 20 mega ohms
a) 50 ohms
542. Transformer coupling between ADI and
b) 25 to 75 ohms Flight director is to protect
c) 129 ohms a) ADI
537. Transformer coupling between an ADI b) Flight director computer

and a flight director computer is
c) both of the above
a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD
543. A HUMS in a helicopter is
computer failure
a) a vibration analysis system
b) to protect the FD computer in case of an
ADI failure b) a system which monitors time period of
components in service and warns of a
c) to protect the FD computer in case of an
premature failure
HSI failure
c) a system which indicates a crack in the
538. In audio clipping
blade
a) vowels are strengthened relative to the
544. When the flaps are lowered
remaining signal
a) the lift vector moves forward
b) vowels are attenuated relative to the
remaining signal b) the lift vector moves rearward
c) there is no change in relative strength of c) there is no effect on the lift vector
vowels
545. at take off, if the flaps are lowered there
539. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted is a
signals uses
# a) large increase in lift and drag
# a) attenuation first then amplification
b) small increase in lift and drag
b) amplification first then attenuation
c) large increase in lift and small increase in
c) no attenuation but amplification drag
540. DME - how does receiver find the 546. In a large transport aircraft to check
received pulse pairs are valid? VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial
feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected
a) Decoder
a) between the transmitter and the ATU
b) Blocking oscillator
(transmitter end)
c) Integrator
b) between the aerial and ATU
Page 61 - Mod 13
c) between the transmitter and the ATU
541. Co-axial transmission line of (ATU end)
impedance 80 ohms is connected dipole of
Page
547. With power applied to the autopilot but

not engaged, the trim indicator will indicate
Question from 301
a) a standby electrical signal in the servo b) 100 nautical miles

loop
c) 104 nautical miles

b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs
554. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how
aligning
many degrees off track is the aircraft?
c) the trim system is out of datum
# a) 10
548. Control loop gain with an autopilot is
b) 5
usually
c) 2.5
a) dependent on aircraft altitude
555. What frequency range does ACARS
b) 100%
operate in?
c) chosen as a compromise
a) 2-30 MHz
549. With no.1 h.f. system transmitting the
# b) 118-136 MHz
interlock circuit
c) 4-5 GHz
a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only
556. An FM signal would have it's sideband
b) allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive
signals
# c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or
a) above the carrier signal
receive
b) below the carrier signal
Page 62 - Mod 13
# c) No sidebands present
550. MLS azimuth range is
557. on an Autoland coupled approach, a
a) +/- 30
GPWS warning
b) +/- 42
a) would initiate a Go Around
c) +/- 62
b) audio and Visual warning
551. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course
c) visual warning only
is set to 90 degrees, RMI indicates
Page 63 - Mod 13
a) 90
558. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions
# b) 180
# a) can be received and processed with a
c) 0
conventional VOR receiver
552. in an auto trim horizontal stabiliser,
b) can not be received and processed with a
'low' speed mode is when
conventional VOR receiver
# a) flaps are retracted
c) can be received but not processed with a
b) landing gear up and locked conventional VOR receiver
c) flaps extended 559. Direction of normal flight is changed by

the pilot by applying pressure
553. An aircraft receives a response from a
DME station, 1236 microseconds after a) to the control wheel
transmitting the interrogation. What is the
b) to the control column
slant range to the station?
Page
c) to the rudder pedals

# a) 96 nautical miles
Question from 301
560. On a modern aircraft about to stall compass serves as a standby to a remote

reading compass
a) the outboard slats extend automatically

a) only the master compass readings and
b) engine power increases automatically
adjustments carried out and remaining
c) the flaps retract automatically compasses are adjusted with master
compass
561. Wing can spoilers be used?
# b) all readings and adjustments for each
a) To assist the respective down going compass should be made simultaneously on
aileron in a turn each heading
b) As ground spoilers on landing c) all readings and adjustments for each
# c) To assist the elevators compass should be made at any one heading
only
562. When checking the altitude reporting
of the transponder 567. Compass error remaining after all the
corrections, which is used for entry on the
a) set the barometric altimeter to local deviation card should not exceed
pressure
a) 2 degrees
b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25
mb # b) 3 degrees
c) set the rad alt to 0 feet c) 5 degrees
563. Dutch Roll affects 568. Compass error remaining after all
corrections are made is called
a) pitch and roll simultaneously
a) apparent error
b) pitch and yaw simultaneously
# b) residual error
# c) yaw and roll simultaneously
c) index error
564. A radar antenna is facing left. On
ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to 569. Instruments used on an aircraft are in
simulate a right bank, the antenna some instances fitted with cover glasses
whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce
a) will move up
a) Parallax error
b) will move down
# b) Surface reflection
c) will not move
c) Static to avoid dust attraction
565. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder
cable are proportional to 570. Versine signal is governed by
a) length of the cable a) roll
b) transmitter power output # b) pitch
c) degree of mismatch between transmitter c) yaw

and antenna 571. Stick shaker activates at a speed which
Page 64 - Mod 13 is above the stalling speed by
566. When more than one D.R. compass is a) 4%

fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R. # b) 7%
Page
Question from 301
c) 10.321% 578. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a

specification indicating 2 inches dia. This is
572. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft.

the
The safe distance for electrical cables
carrying electrical current is a) opening dia. of pitot head
a) 20 inches b) internal dia of pitot head where air

stagnates
# b) 24 inches
c) external dia of pitot head
c) 28 inches
579. on a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb
573. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft.
and descent indication
The alignment of pitot head is carried out
with # a) a set screw is provided for zero
adjustment
a) an inclinometer
b) it does not have any adjustment
b) micrometer
c) a set screw is provided for climb/descent
c) spirit level
increments
Page 65 - Mod 13
580. A shunt wound generator fitted on an
574. Oscillation and hunting of flight control aircraft,a preset potentiometer is fitted
surface are prevented by
a) in series with the field winding
# a) Tachogenerator
b) in parallel with the field winding
b) Feedback from control surface
c) in series with the generator output
c) Feedback from servo motor
581. When can wing spoilers be used?
575. When an hydraulic system is un
a) To assist the respective down going
pressurized, the position of flight control
aileron in a turn
surfaces are
b) As ground spoilers on landing
a) down
c) To assist the elevators
b) neutral
582. When checking the altitude reporting
c) droop
of the transponder
576. Radar beamwidth improves
a) set the barometric altimeter to local
a) range resolution pressure
b) range accuracy b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25

mb
# c) bearing resolution
c) set the rad alt to 0 feet
577. A transformer has a power input of
115V AC. What is the output voltage? Page 66 - Mod 13
a) 115V 583. Dutch Roll affects
b) 345V a) pitch and roll simultaneously
# c) 460V b) pitch and yaw simultaneously

Page
c) yaw and roll simultaneously
Question from 301
584. A radar antenna is facing left. On 589. Instruments used on an aircraft are in
ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to some instances fitted with cover glasses
simulate a right bank, the antenna whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce
a) will move up a) parallax error.
b) will move down # b) surface reflection.
c) will not move c) static to avoid dust attraction.
585. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder 590. Versine signal is governed by

cable are proportional to
a) roll
a) length of the cable
# b) pitch
b) transmitter power output
c) yaw
c) degree of mismatch between transmitter
Page 67 - Mod 13
and antenna
591. Increasing the real load primarily
586. When more than one D.R.Compass is
fitted on an aircraft or where a) decreases frequency
a D.R.compass serves as a standby to a b) decreases output voltage
remote reading compass
# c) increases output voltage and increases
a) Only the master compass reading and frequency
adjustment carried out and remaining
compasses are adjusted with master 592. Inductive reactive load causes
compass. a) no effect on torque but produces extra
# b) All reading and adjustments fo reach heat dissipated
compass should be made simultaneously on b) increase in torque and increase in heat
each heading. dissipated
c) All reading and adjustment for each # c) increase in torque only
compass should be made at any one heading
only. 593. The power factor of an AC generator
identifies the proportion of
587. Compass error remaining after all the
corrections, which is used for entry on the a) apparent power from the generator that
deviation card should not exceed does work
a) 2 Degree b) reactive power from the generator that

does work
# b) 3 Degree
# c) real power from the generator that does
c) 5 Degree work
588. Compass error remaining after all 594. The control of hydraulically powered
corrections are made is called emergency electrical generator frequency is
a) apparent error by
# b) residual error # a) angle of swash plate
c) index error b) IDG

Page
c) restriction valve
Question from 301
595. Differential protection in an AC system 601. Battery trays are

protects against
a) metal for earthing purposes

a) A reverse current flowing from the
# b) metal with PVC coating and anti
battery
corrosive paint
b) short circuits
c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte
# c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
602. When installing multiple batteries on
596. When resetting the CSD on the ground, aircraft they are connected in
the engine should be
a) parallel
# a) stationary
b) series
b) rotating at idle
# c) either parallel or series and switched
c) rotating at Nsync between as an option
597. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to 603. What is the small pin on the DC ground
power connector?
# a) enable generators to be paralleled
a) Ground or earth
b) prevent engine overload
b) Positive to battery relay
c) maintain constant load on the generator
# c) Positive to external power relay
598. in a undervolt condition in an AC
generator system, the most likely 604. Maximum battery temperature on
consequence is charging before protection circuit starts is
# a) activation of the time delay circuit a) 71 degrees F
b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs # b) 144 Degrees F
c) energise the bus tie relay c) 144 Degrees C
599. If voltage and frequency of the 605. If an aircraft has no battery charger the
generator drop to zero in flight, it would be battery is charged by
an indication that the
# a) constant voltage
# a) CSD drives shaft had sheared
b) constant current
b) phase sequence detection circuit has
c) constant current until a predetermined
operated
limit when it automatically switches to
c) bus tie interlock is inoperative constant voltage
Page 68 - Mod 13 606. Battery charging procedures can be

found in ATA
600. Assuming all systems are operating
normally, as aircraft electrical load a) Chapter 24 Section 21
increases, generator output voltage will
# b) Chapter 24 Section 31
a) decrease and amperage output increases
c) Chapter 31 Section 21
b) increases and amperage output increases
607. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive
# c) remain constant and amperage output element is
Page
increases
Question from 301
a) in series with the field and changes

resistance with changing length
# b) in series with the field and changes

resistance with surface area contact
c) in parallel with the field and changes

resistance with changing length
Page 69 - Mod 13
608. The output of a carbon pile regulator

with no variation of loading is
# a) stationary
b) fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating
609. In a transistor voltage regulator the

voltage output is controlled by
a) transformers and transistors
b) diodes and transformers
# c) zeners and transistors
610. Paralleled relay for DC system is

energised and connected by
a) voltage coil
b) current coil
Page

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WWW.EASAQUESTIONPAPERS.BLOGSPOT.

COM PART -66 MODULE 13 PART 2

308. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per

command bar signifies

a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air Page 35 - Mod 13

307. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1? b) real A

a) c/a code only c) true A

b) c/a code and P code 314. Emergency electronic equipment for

# b) JAR OPS subpart M a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7

b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits

c) no supply 322. The pseudo-random code used by all

b) phase drift keying # c) the c/a code

c) Manchester code 323. The respective band widths for a radar

a) amount of aircraft disturbance

b) attitude of aircraft # a) Hydraulic actuator

# c) rate of yaw b) Air pistons

Page 37 - Mod 13 c) Electrical motors

b) AC phase sensitive 336. A differential relay in a twin generator

331. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot Page 38 - Mod 13

b) 50% authority a) in the aircraft

# c) 10% authority b) when the battery is fully charged

332. Stall warning will be given # c) in the charging room only

# a) before stall 338. When removing the load from a

b) transmits to the CMC a) 70 degrees

c) provides details of defect action # b) 110 degrees

334. How are spoilers normally operated? c) 180 degrees

b) c and d b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of

a) assist the aircraft back to datum after a) HF band

345. An open circuit in the temperature bulb # a) DC

# c) the pointer to read full scale

b) capacitance bridge 359. On aircraft an auto land during auto

# a) retard the throttle

a) operational 362. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is

# a) the barometric alt capsule # c) right hand circular

c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on a) pilot

# c) stop moisture entering the wave guide

a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual

# a) transient droop a) the ATC transponder is transmitting

b) static droop # b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a

# c) 100 Khz a) 90o

370. The amount of travel of a series b) 0o

# a) 90o 379. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are

b) 180o a) not less than 100 ft.

c) 0o # b) not less than 200 ft.

c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.

380. When GA is initiated? c) select reverse thrust.

rate and wings will level

384. In triplex autoland system failure of 391. in parallel rudder system,

# c) DC output whose polarity is related to 399. When will a mode C interrogation be

# a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1

395. To carry out FMS database update on a) Height Deviation

396. To know the valid database on FMS a) Flare, attitude, rollout

a) perform bite check # b) Attitude, flare, rollout

# b) call up relevant page on CDU c) Rollout, attitude, flare

anticlockwise, view from above where

a) In front of the lateral axis the tab

c) Provide directional control a) remains at the neutral position

c) 17 micro seconds a) Lateral

409. What does the Radar contour button b) Longitudinal

you can c) engine fire & generator trip occurs

418. Which is the most important part of # c) It is moved automatically in the

c) CMC fault indications # a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe

c) White # a) Control Wheel