Aiats Med2017 pt1 Solution

Online Test - 1 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2017
All India Aakash Test Series-2017

Online T est – 1
Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 720
TOPIC COVERED
PHYSICS
Physical World and Measurement, Kinematics-I: Frame of reference, Motion in a straight line; Position-time graph,
speed and velocity. Uniform and non-uniform motion, average speed and instantaneous velocity. Uniformly accelerated
motion, velocity-time and position-time graphs, for uniformly accelerated motion (graphical treatment). Elementary
concepts of differentiation and integration for describing motion.
CHEMISTRY
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
BIOLOGY
Diversity in Living World: What is living? ; Bio-diversity; Need for classification; Three domains of life; Taxonomy &
Systematics; Concept of species and taxonomical hierarchy; Binomial nomenclature; Tools for study of Taxonomy,
Five kingdom classification; Salient features and classification of Monera, Salient Features and classification of
animals-non chordate upto phyla level
[ PHYSICS ]
Choose the correct answer :
1. Which of the following is not conservative force?
(1) Gravitational force
(2) Electromagnetic force
(3) Strong nuclear force
(4) Both (1) & (2)
2. Four fundamental forces in nature are strong nuclear force, electromagnetic force, weak nuclear force and
gravitational force. The comparison of their strength (respectively)
(1) 1 : 10–3 : 10–8 : 10–35
(2) 1 : 10–2 : 10–13 : 10–39
(3) 1 : 102 : 1015 : 1025
(4) 1 : 10–2 : 10–14 : 10–37
3. Which of the following does not follow inverse square law?
(1) Gravitational force
(2) Weak nuclear force
(3) Electromagnetic force
(4) Both (1) & (3)
4. The India born Physicist Chandrasekhara is known for his work on
(1) Development of relativistic theory of electron
(2) Study of cosmic rays
(3) Prediction of tachyons
(4) Scattering of light
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All India Aakash Test Series-2017 Online Test - 1 (Objective)
5. Explaining diverse physical phenomena in terms of a few concepts and laws is known as
(1) Reduction
(2) Unification
(3) Law
(4) Fact
6. Which pair of physical quantity given below has not the same units and dimensions?
(1) Acceleration and gravitational field strength
(2) Pressure and modulus of elasticity
(3) Torque and angular momentum
(4) Momentum and impulse
7. The dimensional formula for Planck’s constant is
(1) [ML2T–1]
(2) [ML2T3]
(3) [ML–1T–2]
(4) [MLT–2]
8. The time period T of a small drop of liquid depends on density , radius r and surface tension S, the correct relation
is
(1) T  rS
r
(2) T 
S
S
(3) T 
r
1
⎛ r 3 ⎞ 2
(4) T  ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ S ⎠
AB
9. Acceleration of a particle depends upon t as a = A + Bt + Ct2, then the dimension of is
C
(1) M 0L2T–5
(2) M 0L3T–10
(3) MLT–2
(4) M0L1T–1
10. When a current of (2.5 ± 0.5) A flows through a wire, it develops a potential difference of (20 ± 1)V. The resistance
of wire is
(1) (8 ± 2)
(2) (8 ± 1.5)
(3) (8 ± 3)
(4) (8 ± 1.6)
11. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2 and the units of length and time are changed in kilometer and hour
respectively, the numerical value of acceleration is
(1) 360000
(2) 72000
(3) 36000
(4) 129600
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12. If 4.2 × 10–4 is added to 1.6 × 10–3 giving due regard to significant figures, then the result will be
(1) 2.02 × 10–3
(2) 2 × 10–4
(3) 2.0 × 10–3
(4) 2.0 × 10–4
13. In an experiment to measure the height of a bridge by dropping stone into water underneath, if the error in the
measurement of time is 0.2 s at the end of 4 s, then error in the estimation of height of bridge will be
(1) 3.92 m
(2) 7.84 m
(3) 1.96 m
(4) 15.68 m
14. Two resistors of resistance R1 = (3 ± 0.1) and R2 = (6 ± 0.2) are connected in parallel, then the percentage
error in the equivalent resistance is
(1) 6.67 %
(2) 3.33 %
(3) 4.92 %
(4) 7.49 %
15. In the equation y = a sin (t – kx), y and x are positions and t is time, the dimensional formula of  is
(1) [MLT]
(2) [MºLºT1]
(3) [MºLºT–1]
(4) [MºL–1T–1]
16. If units of length L, mass M and force F are chosen as fundamental units, the dimensions of time would be
(1) [M1/2L1/2F1/2]
(2) [M1/2L–1/2F1/2]
(3) [M1L–1/2F–1/2]
(4) [M1/2L1/2F–1/2]
17. When a metallic sphere is heated, the maximum percentage change is observed in
(1) Volume
(2) Radius
(3) Surface area
(4) Mass
xyz 2
18. A physical quantity Q  is determined by measuring x, y, z, k and l. The percentage error in x, y, z, k
k 3 l 1/3
and l are 2%, 3%, 2%, 1% and 6% respectively. The percentage error in the measurement of Q is
(1) 11.5 %
(2) 8.5 %
(3) 9.5 %
(4) 10%
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19. If P and Q have different dimensions, then select correct mathematical operation,
(1) P + Q
(2) P – Q
(3) P × Q
(4) All of these
20. Which of the following formula is dimensionally incorrect? (S : displacement, u and v : velocities
a : acceleration and t : time)
1 2
(1) S  ut  at
2
1 2
(2) vt  S  at
2
(3) at2 = 2vt + S
2 2 2a
(4) v  u   S2
v
21. Velocity-time graph of a moving object is shown in figure. Which of the displacement-time graph shown in figure
could represent the motion of the same body?
V
(1)
(2)
t
S
(3)
t
(4) None of these
4/29
22. The displacement of a particle undergoing rectilinear motion along the x-axis is given by
x = (t3 – 4t2 + 4t + 8)m.
Find the minimum velocity of particle.
4
(1)  m / s
3
4
(2)  m / s
3
8
(3)  m / s
5
3
(4)  m / s
4
23. A particle starts from origin whose velocity is given by v = 3t2, the position of particle after 2 s is
(1) 4 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 0
(4) 24 m
24. A body starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration, the ratio of distance covered in 2 s to the distance
covered in 2nd second is
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 4 : 5
25. A fly situated at point A, inside a hemisphere if suddenly flies with acceleration 2 m/s2 in horizontal direction, if
radius of sphere is 4 m, the time taken by the fly to touch the sphere again (neglect gravity)
4m
60º
(1) 0.5 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 1.5 s
(4) 4 s
26. The position of particle at time t is x = t.e – 4t. The instant at which magnitude of velocity is equal to magnitude
of acceleration (in seconds)
9
(1)
20
7
(2)
5
(3) 1
9
(4)
8
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27. An object start from A and travelled along the circumference reaches the point B, then move straight to C, again
travelled along circumference from C to D and finally stops. The average speed and average velocity (respectively),
if time taken for complete journey is 10 s (radius of circle is 7 m)
B
D A
C
(1) 7.2 m/s, 1.4 m/s
(2) 3.6 m/s, 1.4 m/s
(3) 1.4 m/s, Zero
(4) Zero, Zero
28. Two cars X and Y are travelling in the same direction with velocities 30 m/s and 20 m/s respectively. The driver
of car X applied brakes producing uniform retardation of 5 m/s2. The collision will takes place if distance between
the cars, when the brakes applied was
(1) 4.5 m
(2) 5.5 m
(3) 6.5 m
(4) All of these
29. A particle travelled from P to Q in a straight line with uniform acceleration. The velocity of particle at point P is
PQ
4 m/s and at point Q is 8 m/s. Find velocity at point R if PR  .
3
5
(1) m/s
3
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 4 2 m/s
(4) 5 m/s
30. A particle is moving with velocity given by
v = A sint.
2
Find its acceleration at t  .
3
(1) + A2
(2) 2A2
 A2
(3)
2
A2
(4)
2
6/29
31. A balloon is rising up with uniform velocity 20 m/s. At height 40 m from ground, it released a stone. Time taken
by the stone to reach the ground is
(1) 2 s
(2) (2  2 3) s
(3) 2 3 s
(4) (2  3) s
32. Which of the following speed-time graph is possible?
v
t
(1)
t
(2)
t
(3)
(4) All of these

33. An object starts from rest, accelerates uniformly in a straight line by acceleration 4 m/s2 for 4 s, then it moves
with constant velocity for 2 s and comes to rest by retardation 8 m/s2. The total distance travelled by the object is
(1) 65 m
(2) 86 m
(3) 92 m
(4) 80 m
34. The velocity of a particle varies as v = (4x2 + 3)m/s, where x is the position of particle. Find the acceleration at
x = 1m
(1) 74 m/s2
(2) 7 m/s2
(3) 56 m/s2
(4) 54 m/s2
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35. Select the correct statement
(1) If average velocity of a particle moving in straight line is zero, then its velocity at any instant may be zero
(2) Average velocity is greater than or equal to average speed
(3) Average velocity is always equal to average speed
(4) All of these
36. A particle moving in a straight covers one-third of total distance with speed 4 m/s and rest of the distance in three
equal time intervals with speed 4 m/s, 8 m/s and 12 m/s, the average speed of particle is
(1) 7 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 12 m/s
(4) 6 m/s
37. A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (2t – 5)3/2. The velocity is proportional to
(1) (Distance)1/2
(2) (Distance)3/2
(3) (Acceleration)–1/2
1
(4)
(Acceleration)
dv
38. An object moving with a speed of 8 m/s, it comes to rest by retardation  2v 1/3 . Find the time taken by
dt
the object.
(1) 4 s
(2) 6 s
(3) 3 s
(4) 5 s
39. Two cars A and B of length 10 m and 15 m respectively are moving opposite to each other with velocities
90 km/h and 45 km/h respectively, the total time taken by the cars to completely cross each other (approximately)
(1) 1.33 s
(2) 0.33 s
(3) 0.67 s
(4) 0.52 s
40. A body is thrown vertically upwards from ground, it takes time t1 to reach maximum height and takes time t2 to
again reach the ground. Select correct option if air resistance is to be taken into account.
(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t1 < t2
(4) Both (1) & (3)
41. Water drops are falling at regular interval of 1 s from the tap situated at 80 m height from ground. The distance
of 3rd drop from tap when 5th drop is about to fall
(1) 30 m
(2) 40 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 35 m
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42. Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown. The corresponding velocity-time graph of the same body is
a
a0
o t2 t4 t
t1 t3
v
(1)
o t
t1 t2 t3 t4
v
(2)
o t
t1 t2 t3 t4
(3)
o t
t1 t2 t3 t4
(4)
o t
t1 t2 t3 t4
9/29
43. Two stones are thrown (one upward and other downward) with same velocity from certain height and they reach
the earth surface after 9 s and 4 s respectively, if stone is dropped from same height then time taken by stone
to reach the ground is
(1) 6 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 7 s
(4) 6.5 s
44. If velocity of a particle is zero at an instant, then choose the correct option?
(1) Speed must be zero
(2) Acceleration may be zero
(3) Acceleration may be non zero
(4) All of these
45. The acceleration-time graph of an object is given, if speed of the object at t = 2 s is 8 m/s then find its speed
at t = 5 s.
2
a (m/s )
0 t (s)
1 2 3 4 5 6
(1) 11 m/s
(2) 19 m/s
(3) 16 m/s
(4) 15 m/s
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. If 10 ml of water contains 20 drops. Then number of molecules in a drop of water
(1) 1.6 × 1022
(2) 2.3 × 1024
(3) 2.5 × 1024
(4) 9.2 × 1025
47. Ammonia decomposes to produce nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas. What will be the change in volume when
100 ml of NH3 is decomposed?
(1) Volume increases by 200 ml
(2) Volume increases by 100 ml
(3) Volume decreases by 50 ml
(4) Volume decreases by 100 ml
48. The percentage of sulphur in sulphur trioxide is
(1) 20%
(2) 60%
(3) 40%
(4) 80%
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49. Which has maximum number of molecules?
(1) 100 ml of 0.1 M HCl
(2) 50 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4
(3) 10 ml of 2 M HNO3
(4) 200 ml of 0.2 M HClO4
50. The chloride of a metal has the formula MCl3. The formula of metal sulphate is
(1) MSO4
(2) M2SO4
(3) M3SO4
(4) M2(SO4)3
51. 10 g of a volatile compound occupies 5.6 L at S.T.P. Molecular mass of compound is
(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40
52. 1 a.m.u. is equal to
(1) 1.00758 g
(2) 0.000549 g
(3) 1.66 × 10–24 g
(4) 6.02 × 10–23 g
53. Find the incorrect statement.
(1) Molar mass is mass of one molecule
(2) Formula mass is used for ionic compounds
(3) Fractional atomic mass is observed because elements exist in different isotopic forms
(4) Atoms of different elements combine in a fixed ratio by mass in a compound
54. An important postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is
(1) An atom consist of electron, proton and neutrons
(2) Atom cannot be created or destroyed
(3) All the atoms of an element are not identical
(4) All the elements are available in nature in the form of atoms
55. Which match is incorrect?
List-I List-II (At STP)

(1) 10 g CaCO3 
decomposition
 0.224 L CO2
excess HCl
(2) 1.06 g Na2CO3   0.224 L CO2
excess O
(3) 2.4 g C  2
combustion
 4.48 L CO2
excess O
(4) 56 g CO  2
combustion
 2 × 22.4 L CO2
11/29
56. Nicotine has a molecular weight of 294. It contains 28% by mass of nitrogen, the approximate number of atoms
of nitrogen in one molecule of nicotine is
(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 8
57. If 50 ml of H2 and 20 ml of O2 reacts to form H2O, what is left at the end of the reaction?
(1) 10 ml of H2
(2) 20 ml of H2
(3) 5 ml of O2
(4) 15 ml of O2
58. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol tetraatomic gas is
(1) 0.4 NA atoms
(2) 4 NA atoms
(3) 0.8 NA atoms
(4) 1.2 NA atoms
5
59. In the final answer of the expression (39.3  20.2) (1.79  10 ) .
1.37
The number of significant figures is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
60. x L CO gas at STP contains 3 × 1021 molecules. The number of molecules in x L ozone at STP will be
(1) 6 × 3 × 1022
(2) 4 × 1023
(3) 3 × 1021
(4) 6 × 1021
61. Prefix giga means
(1) 10–9
(2) 109
(3) 106
(4) 10–6
62. 1 L oxygen gas at STP will weight
(1) 1.43 g
(2) 2.24 g
(3) 11.2 g
(4) 22.4 g
12/29
63. To dissolve 0.9 g metal, 100 ml of 1 N HCl is used. What is the equivalent weight of metal?
(1) 7
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 6
64. How many grams of Al are required to react with 4g of O2?
(1) 27
(2) 9
(3) 4.5
(4) 18
65. The specific heat of a metal is 0.16 cal. Its atomic weight is
(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 40
66. How many gram of CH3OH should be added to water to prepare 200 ml of 0.2 M solution?
(1) 1.28 g
(2) 2.9 g
(3) 4 g
(4) 5 g
67. In the combustion of 5.00 g of a metal, 9.44 g of metal oxide are formed. Hence equivalent mass of the metal
is
(1) 4.44 g
(2) 9.00 g
(3) 5.00 g
(4) 2.22 g
68. Equivalent mass of oxalic acid in the given reaction (Molar mass : M)
H2C2O4 + 2NaOH  Na2C2O4 + 2H2O
(1) M
M
(2)
2
M
(3)
4
M
(4)
3
69. How many electrons are present in 0.01 mol NH4+ ion?
(1) NA
(2) 0.1 NA
(3) 0.2 NA
(4) 0.4 NA
13/29
70. 20 ml of 0.1 M HCl allowed to react with 0.1 mol CaCO3, volume of gas produced
(1) 0.0224 L
(2) 2.24 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 0.0024 L
71. Which is incorrect according to Dalton’s theory?
(1) Smallest particle of any element is atom
(2) All atoms of same element are identical in all respect
(3) Atoms of different element are different in all respect
(4) Atoms of different element may combine in any ratio to form a compound
72. Formula mass of Na2CO3 is
(1) 106
(2) 53
(3) 212
(4) 110
73. Maximum number of atoms are present in
(1) 5.6 L NH3 gas at S.T.P.
(2) 1.12 L CO2 gas at S.T.P.
(3) 2.24 L PH3 gas at S.T.P.
(4) 1.20 L CO gas at S.T.P.
74. Nature of solution obtained by mixing 250 ml 0.2 M H2SO4 and 250 ml 0.1 M NaOH
(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) Neutral
(4) Amphoteric
75. 1.84 g mixture of CaCO3 and MgCO3 upon heating give a residue of 0.96 g. The percentage of CaCO3 in the
mixture will be
(1) 54.4
(2) 42.4
(3) 80.4
(4) 65.4
76. P and Q are two elements which form PQ and PQ2. If 0.25 mol each of PQ and PQ2 weighs 35 g and 45 g
respectively. Atomic mass of P and Q is
(1) P = 80, Q = 40
(2) P = 100, Q = 40
(3) P = 100, Q = 60
(4) P = 80, Q = 100
14/29
77. Which of the following quantity is temperature dependent?
(1) Molarity
(2) Molality
(3) Mole fraction
(4) All of these
78. 8 g sulphur is burnt in air to form SO2 which is oxidised and reacted with water. The solution is treated with BaCl2.
The amount of BaSO4 precipitated is
(1) 1 mol
(2) 0.5 mol
(3) 1.25 mol
(4) 0.25 mol
79. The simplest formula of compound containing 40% X (Atomic mass : 10) and 60% Y (At. mass : 15)
(1) XY
(2) XY2
(3) X2Y
(4) X2Y3
80. Which law states that “matter cannot be created or destroyed”?
(1) Law of constant proportion
(2) Law of multiple proportion
(3) Gay Lussac’s law of combining volume
(4) Law of conservation of mass
81. 232.508 correctly represented in form of scientific notation as
(1) 23.508 × 102
(2) 2.32508 × 102
(3) 232.528 × 101
(4) 232.08 × 100
82. A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass of 32. The molecular mass of metal nitrate
(1) 182
(2) 168
(3) 192
(4) 188
83. The weight of lime obtained by heating 200 kg of 95% pure limestone is
(1) 98.4 kg
(2) 106.4 kg
(3) 112.8 kg
(4) 122.6 kg
84. When 2 L of CO2 heated with graphite the volume of gases collected is 3.2 L. The volume of CO produced at
STP
(1) 2.4 L
(2) 1.2 L
(3) 4 L
(4) 3.2 L
15/29
85. Which of the formula is not correctly represented?
Weight of substance
(1) Molar mass 
Moles
given volume (STP)

(2) Number of moles of a gas =
22.4 L
(3) M × vol. of solution (L) = Number of moles
M
(4) N  n  factor
86. How many aluminium ions are present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide?
(1) 6.02 × 1020 ions
(2) 3 ions
(3) 6.02 × 1030 ions
(4) 9 ions
87. A compound contains 69.5% oxygen and 30.5% nitrogen and its molecular weight is 92. The formula of compound
(1) N2O
(2) NO2
(3) N2O4
(4) N2O5
88. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2. One mole of this compound has a mass of 42 g. Its molecular formula
is
(1) C3H6
(2) C3H8
(3) CH2
(4) C2H2
89. Molarity of pure water is
(1) 18 M
(2) 50 M
(3) 55.5 M
(4) 100 M
90. Number of molecules in 100 ml of 0.02 M H2SO4 is
(1) 12 × 1026
(2) 6 × 1023
(3) 1 × 1023
(4) 12 × 1020
16/29
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Growth in unicellular organisms
(1) Is mutually exclusive event
(2) Occurs by cell division and cell division also leads to reproduction simultaneously
(3) Is mutually inclusive event
(4) More than one option is correct
92. Reproduction in organism is not a defining feature as
(1) Only living being can reproduce
(2) Some of non-living also reproduce by increasing their numbers
(3) Some of the living organisms like mule, worker-bees cannot reproduce
(4) Filamentous form like algae and protonema of moss can multiply by fragmentation
93. Pick the incorrect statement/s about the taxon
(1) It represents grouping of organisms
(2) Insects and birds represent different taxa at same level
(3) Dicotyledonae and monocotyledonae are the taxa at different level
(4) Not specific & used for any category
94. Complex multicellular condition is present in
(1) Protista, plantae and fungi
(2) Protista, plantae and animalia
(3) Monera, protista and animalia
(4) Plantae, fungi and animalia
95. What criteria one has to follow for naming a plant scientifically at present?
(1) Name should not be long
(2) Name should not be difficult to pronounce
(3) Name should be latinised
96. An organism which is capable of photosynthesis without liberation of O2, is
(1) Euglena
(2) Nostoc
(3) Chlorobium
(4) Methanogens
97. Cell membrane of which form is composed of branched chain of lipids?
(1) Eubacteria
(2) Actinomycetes
(3) Archaebacteria
(4) Cyanobacteria
98. In Whittaker system of classification, Protista includes
(1) Phagotrophs, Photoautotrophs & Saprophytes
(2) Chemoautotrophs, Saprophytes, Holozoic
(3) Saprophytes & Predators only
(4) Autotrophs & Saprobes only
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99. (A) Biodiversity means different forms of life which is derived from Latin language.
(B) Currently known and described species of all organisms are between 1.7-1.8 million.
(C) Plant species are more than animal species.
(D) Insect species are maximum among animal species.
How many statements are correct for biodiversity?
(1) (A) and (D) are correct
(2) (C) and (D) are correct
(3) (B) and (D) are correct
(4) All statements are correct
100. In binomial nomenclature
(1) Name is printed in Latin to indicate their italic origin
(2) Each organism is given only one name consisting of two words in which first word represent species
(3) New names are derived either from Latin language or latinised
(4) First letter of species should be capital
101. Meaning of taxonomy is
(1) Classification of organism based on evolutionary history and it is derived from Latin language
(2) Systematic arrangement of organism based on their similarities and it is derived from Greek language
(3) Study of principles and procedures of classification and is derived from Greek language
(4) Classification of organisms only on the basis of simple morphological characters and is derived from Latin
language
102. Chlamydomonas was placed alongwith Spirogyra and Riccia in the same kingdom by
(1) E.Haeckel
(2) Carl Woese
(3) Whittaker
(4) Linnaeus
103. Panthera is a
(1) Polytypic species
(2) Monotypic species
(3) Monotypic genus
(4) Polytypic genus
104. Which of the category contributes maximum similarities?
(1) Family
(2) Class
(3) Division
(4) Order
105. Carnivora is a group of
(1) Related mammals & reptiles
(2) Related hominidae & canidae
(3) Related Felidae and Canidae
(4) Related Muscidae and Hominidae
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106. Botanical garden is an institution located in an enclosed piece of land where
(1) Both living and non-living plants are kept
(2) Only living plants are protected in controlled conditions
(3) Only non-living plants are preserved
(4) Plants are protected in their natural condition in in-situ conservation strategy
107. Taxonomical aid which gives the information of only one taxon
(1) Flora
(2) Catalogue
(3) Manual
(4) Monograph
108. Manual is a recorded description of organism in the form of book which
(1) Include the alphabetical arrangement of species of a particular geographical area
(2) Contain the information of any one taxon
(3) Include complete listing and description of the plants species growing in a geographical area
(4) Gives actual account of habitat and description of various plant species of a given area
109. Select the incorrect statement about taxonomic key
(1) It is based on similarities and dissimilarities among the organisms
(2) Generally non-analytical in nature
(3) Contrasting pair of characters is known as couplet
(4) Each statement in the key is called as lead
110. Plant specimen are preserved in
(1) Zoological parks
(2) Herbarium
(3) Museum
111. Which of the following group of organisms is included in kingdom protista according to five kingdom system?
(1) Multicellular eukaryotes like fungi and algae
(2) Prokaryotes like bacteria and blue green algae
(3) Unicellular eukaryotes like protozoans and slime moulds
(4) Unicellular eukaryotes like some of algae, fungi & bacteria
112. Which criterion was not used in two kingdom system proposed by Linnaeus?
(1) Mode of nutrition
(2) Presence or absence of cell wall
(3) Response to external stimuli
(4) Prokaryotic or eukaryotic nature of cell
113. Holozoic mode of nutrition is present in
(1) Monera and animalia
(2) Protista and plantae
(3) Fungi and plantae
(4) Protista and animalia
19/29
114. Archaebacteria separated from eubacteria on the basis of
(1) Absence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
(2) Having branched lipid in cell membrane
(3) Sequence of 16 s ribosomal RNA genes
115. Facultative aerobes are those bacteria which
(1) Respire aerobically but can switch over to anaerobic mode to get energy for their survival
(2) Normally respire anaerobically but are capable of respiring aerobically well, if oxygen is available
(3) They can survive only in aerobic condition
(4) Can respire only in anaerobic condition
116. Photosynthetic bacteria which uses organic compounds as e– and H+ donor
(1) Purple sulphur bacteria
(2) Green sulphur bacteria
(3) Purple non-sulphur bacteria
(4) Nitrifying bacteria
117. (A) Bacteria reproduce only asexually
(B) Some of the bacteria are heterotrophic but vast majority are autotrophic
(C) Most common shape of bacteria is coccus
(D) Always non-motile form of bacteria is Bacillus
How many statements are incorrect?
(1) Only (A) and (C)
(2) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B) and (D)
(4) Only (B), (C) and (D)
118. Recycling of most of the minerals is concerned with
(1) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(2) Symbiotic bacteria
(3) Saprophytic bacteria
(4) Parasitic bacteria
119. Match the following column
Column-I Column-II
a. Free living N2 fixing (i) Leptothrix
bacteria
b. Sulphur bacteria (ii) Chlorobium
c. Iron bacteria (iii) Beggiatoa
d. Green sulphur bacteria (iv) Azotobacter
Correct match is
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
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120. Specialised vegetative cell in some cyanobacteria
(1) Possess thick wall & PS I
(2) Shows one or two polar nodules & PS II
(3) Shows nitrate reductase activity
(4) Performs denitrification
121. Methanogens are
(1) Facultative anaerobes
(2) Obligate anaerobes
(3) Facultative aerobes
(4) Obligate aerobes
122. Archaebacteria which utilised light energy to carry on ATP production but cannot use this ATP in food synthesis
(1) Halococcus and Methanococcus
(2) Thermoplasma and Methanobacterium
(3) Halobacterium
(4) Thermoproteus
123. Hormogonia in cyanobacteria are
(1) Large specialised cell which perform the function of nitrogen fixation
(2) Biconcave mucilage filled dead cells
(3) Fragments of filament formed due to formation of mucilage
(4) Thick walled vegetative cells formed in unfavourable condition
124. Red sea is caused by
(1) Chlamydomonas nivalis
(2) Trichodesmium erythraeum
(3) Gonyaulax
(4) Anthoceros
125. Cyanobacteria are characterised by
(1) Anoxygenic photosynthesis
(2) Nitrogen fixation in all forms
(3) Absence of flagellum throughout life cycle
(4) Presence of sterols in cell membrane
126. When one bacterium transfer its genetic material into another bacterium through the bacteriophage then it is called
as
(1) Conjugation
(2) Transformation
(3) Transduction
(4) Metaboly
127. Nutrition which is not present in bacteria
(1) Chemosynthetic
(2) Saprobic
(3) Parasitic
(4) Holozoic
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128. Citrus canker is caused by
(1) Xanthomonas
(2) Clostridium
(3) Pseudomonas
(4) Micrococcus
129. The cyanobacteria cell contains reserve food material in the form fat droplets
(1) Cyanophyceae granules
(2) Volutin body
(3) Polyhedral body
(4) -granules
130. Pleomorphic nature of Mycoplasma is due to
(1) Absence of cell wall
(2) Ability to exist without oxygen
(3) Linear double stranded DNA
(4) Smallest cell
131. Conjugation is a method of genetic recombination in bacteria in which
(1) One bacterium transfer its genetic material to another through bacteriophage
(2) F– bacterium always becomes F+ bacterium
(3) Two bacteria always forms contact
(4) One bacterium pick the DNA from solution
132. The nitrifying bacteria that convert the ammonia to nitrite are
(1) Nitrosomonas and Nitrocystis
(2) Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus
(3) Nitrobacter and Nitrocystis
(4) Nitrobacter and Nitrococcus
133. Mycoplasma were discovered by
(1) Borrel et.al.
(2) Nowak
(3) Leeuwenhoek
(4) Nocard and Roux
134. Photosynthetic pigment which is absent in cyanobacteria is
(1) Chlorophyll a
(2) Chlorophyll b
(3) Phycocyanin
(4) Allophycocyanin
135. Respiratory enzymes associated with plasma membrane and incipient nucleus present in organisms
(1) Having loose tissue level organisation
(2) Showing haploid - diploid phases in life-cycle
(3) Having holozoic mode of nutrition
(4) Having primitive type of sexual reproduction by transfer of DNA
22/29
136. Identify the feature of Echinoderms that may not be considered a similarity with chordates.
(1) Deuterostomic condition
(2) Derivation of adult anus from embryonic blastopore
(3) Mesodermal endoskeleton
(4) Bilateral symmetry in the larva and radial symmetry in the adult
137. Differentiation between housefly and spider is not possible on the basis of
(1) Four pairs of legs and absence of antennae
(2) Division of body into head, thorax and abdominal regions
(3) Presence of chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages
(4) Presence of one pair of wings for flight and other pair for balancing
138. Excretion and gas exchange in Porifera occurs by
(1) Active transport across pinacoderm
(2) Simple diffusion across choanoderm
(3) Well defined channels called radial canals
(4) Exocytosis by pinacocytes
139. Match the following columns:
Column-I Column-II
a. Parenchymatous (i) Jelly fish, Portuguese Man of war
tissue filling space
between body wall
and viscera
b. Network of nerve cells (ii) Clamworm, Hirudinaria
acting as nervous
system
c. Multicellularity and (iii) Bilharzia, Taenia solium
cellular level of
organisation
d. Metameric (iv) Leucosolenia, Euspongia
segmentation,
nephridia for excretion
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
140. The body of this organism has a number of slender stems that are repeatedly branched in a fan like manner. It
is colonial with only polypoid individuals in colony and life cycle. The animal is
(1) Obelia
(2) Gorgonia
(3) Euplectella
(4) Physalia
141. The nutritive muscular cells in gastrodermis of Hydra
(1) Secrete digestive enzymes for extracellular digestion
(2) Perform intracellular digestion
(3) Provide musculature
(4) Both (2) & (3)
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142. A medusa does not differ from a polyp in
(1) Presence of statocysts
(2) Number of gonads
(3) Type of nervous system
(4) Shape and structure
143. Identify the correct combination of the major respiratory and excretory organs of locust
(1) Book lungs and Coxal glands
(2) Book gills and Uricose glands
(3) Tracheae and Malpighian tubules
(4) Gills and Antennary glands
144. Choose the correct option with respect to genus name, its two characteristics and phylum
Genus name Two characteristics Phylum
(1) Sycon (a) Cnidocytes present Porifera
(b) Shows direct
life cycle
(2) Pleurobrachia (a) Colloblasts present Ctenophora
(b) Exclusively marine
with calcareous
exoskeleton
(3) Astropecten (a) Water vascular Echinodermata
system present
(b) Exhibits extracellular
digestion
(4) Periplaneta (a) Dioecious Annelida
(b) Exoskeleton
absent in nymphal
stages
145. Identify the correct match w.r.t. scientific names and common names of the given animals
Scientific name Common name
(1) Pennatula – Sea fan
(2) Hormiphora – Venus girdle
(3) Physalia – Sea fur
(4) Euplectella – Venus flower basket
146. Choose the incorrect match with respect to the pairs of animals given with the features given against them .
(1) Obelia and Adamsia : Presence of gastrovascular cavity

and blind sac body plan
(2) Euspongia and
Spongilla : Asymmetrical bodies
and cellular level of organisation
(3) Nereis and Hirudinaria : Coelom derived from
pouches of gut and
serial repetition of
body parts
(4) Octopus and Sepia : Myogenic heart and
absence of larva in life
cycle
24/29
147. Open type blood circulation is found in
(1) Leech
(2) Cockroach
(3) Pila
(4) All of these
148. Match the following animals with their respective larvae:
Column-I Column-II
a. Ophiura (i) Hexacanth
b. Unio (ii) Ephyra
c. Aurelia (iii) Pluteus
d. Taenia (iv) Glochidium
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
149. Which one of the following option is incorrect w.r.t. organism and the characteristic phenomenon exhibited by
it?
(1) Pila – Torsion, resulting into asymmetry
(2) Enterobius – Anal itching
(3) Hydra – Hermaphroditism, Polymorphism, Metagenesis
(4) Nereis – Epitoky during sexual reproduction
150. A coral island with a central shallow lake is known as
(1) Lagoon
(2) Atoll
(3) Fringing reef
(4) Coral reef
151. Mark the phylum among the nonchordates that is exclusively marine
(1) Ctenophora
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Hemichordata
(4) All of these
152. The infective stage of Taenia solium for intermediate host is
(1) Onchosphere
(2) Cysticercus
(3) Rhabditiform 2nd stage larva
(4) Microfilariae
153. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. Platyhelminthes.
(1) Flame cells help in only excretion
(2) Hooks and suckers are present in free living forms
(3) Some members like Planaria possess high regeneration capacity
(4) Fertilization is external
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154. Which of the following requires an invertebrate as an intermediate host?
(1) Dugesia and Taenia
(2) Wuchereria and Echinococcus
(3) Schistosoma and Fasciola
(4) Ancylostoma and Guinea worm
155. Mark the statement which is not associated with Aschelminthes.
(1) Complete alimentary canal with muscular pharynx
(2) Sexes are separate
(3) Sexual dimorphism present
(4) Excretory pore at the terminal end
156. The characteristic features of leeches are all except one.
(1) Coelom reduced by botryoidal tissue
(2) Subdivision of body segments, no parapodia, ectoparasites with suctorial mouth
(3) Secretion of an anticoagulant from salivary glands
(4) Body cavity containing milky white alkaline coelomic fluid
157. Advantage of bilateral symmetry is that it allowed evolution of
(1) Cephalisation
(2) Parasitism
(3) Appendages
(4) Sexual reproduction
158. Circulatory system in earthworm is
(1) Open type with haemoglobin in RBCs
(2) Closed type with haemoglobin in plasma
(3) Open type with haemoglobin in plasma
(4) Closed type with haemoglobin in RBCs
159. a. b.
c. d.
Mark the gregarious pest

(1) (b) & (c)
(2) (c) & (d)
(3) Only (a)
(4) Only (b)
26/29
160. A primitive wingless insect that does not exhibit metamorphosis is
(1) Glow worm
(2) Honey bee
(3) Silver fish
(4) Leaf insect
161. Mouth parts in honey bees are of
(1) Biting and chewing type
(2) Chewing and lapping type
(3) Piercing and sucking type
(4) Sponging type
162. The open type of blood vascular system in cockroach
(1) Makes its body oxygen independent
(2) Makes transportation of respiratory gases by blood fast and easy
(3) Makes its body tissues to come in direct contact with blood
(4) Allows body to lose excretory structures
163. Kingdom Animalia is characterised by A _ eukaryotic organisms, B and lacks C . Mark
the correct choice.
A B C
(1) Autotrophic Unicellular Cell wall
(2) Heterotrophic Multicellular Cell wall
(3) Parasitic Multicellular Cell membrane
(4) Heterotrophic Unicellular Cell mimbrane
164. Which one of the following sets of animals belong to a single taxonomic group?
(1) Echinodermata – Astropecten, Echinus,
Dentalium
(2) Arthropoda – Cancer, Musca,
Chaetopleura
(3) Mollusca – Pila, Enterobius,
Aurelia
(4) Annelida – Aphrodite, Nereis,
Pheretima
165. Arthropods are the most successful of all the known animal groups and have become largest phylum due to
(1) Ability to fly
(2) Chitinous exoskeleton covering
(3) Presence of compound eye
(4) Jointed appendages
166. Compound eyes are found in
(1) Nereis
(2) Scorpion (Palamnaeus)
(3) Crab
(4) Pila
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167. Following are economically useful insects, except
(1) Laccifer
(2) Apis
(3) Bombyx
(4) Aedes
168. Kingdom Animalia is broadly classified on the basis of following common fundamental feature except
(1) Level of organisation
(2) Body cavity/coelom
(3) Symmetry
(4) Mode of living
169. An organism possesses large eyes, a chemoreceptor to test chemical nature of water, a file like rasping organ
in mouth. Identify the animal.
(1) Asterias
(2) Cancer
(3) Pila
(4) Nereis
170. Molluscs show _________ as a characteristic feature not shown by any other invertebrate.
(1) Haemocoel
(2) Trochophore larva
(3) A skin fold mantle that secretes shell plates or shells
(4) A copper containing respiratory pigment called haemocyanin
171. A living fossil which is a connecting link between annelids and molluscs is
(1) Peripatus
(2) Limulus
(3) Neopilina
(4) Proterospongia
172. Ink glands in some squids are organs for
(1) Locomotion
(2) Offence and defence
(3) Food capture
(4) Bioluminescence
173. Octopus differs from other molluscs in
(1) Level of organisation and symmetry
(2) Myogenic heart and closed vascular system
(3) Absence of shell and polyembryony
(4) Absence of respiratory pigment and presence of chromatophores
174. Most active molluscs with foot located on head that is modified in the form of oral arms are
(1) Gastropods
(2) Bivalves
(3) Cephalopods
(4) Scaphopods
28/29
175. Choose the correct match.
(1) Unio – Destructive to wood in
sea water
(2) Pinctada – Secretion of nacre on
some external particle,
thus creates pearl
(3) Aplysia – U-shaped digestive
tract and highly coiled
shell
(4) Octopus – Exclusively marine and
herbivorous, life cycle
shows glochidium larva
176. The property of cephalopods that ensures their swift locomotion in water is
(1) Lashing movement of the cephalic arms
(2) Presence of serial suckers placed along margins of arms
(3) Expulsion of water jet through siphon
(4) Their attachment to active animals in water like fish
177. An exclusively marine animal in its adult stage secondarily acquires radial symmetry when its bilaterally
symmetrical larva undergoes metamorphosis. Identify the animal.
(1) Pila
(2) Obelia
(3) Holothuria
(4) Unio
178. Select the correct statement.
(1) All annelids have setae
(2) All molluscs have external or internal shell
(3) All echinoderms have water vascular system
(4) All arthropods have at least one pair of antenna
179. Stomochord in hemichordates is
(1) Extension of notochord in buccal cavity
(2) Evagination of roof of buccal cavity
(3) Portion of coelom in buccal cavity
(4) Rasping organ in buccal cavity
180. Excretory structure of hemichordates is
(1) Organ of Bojanus
(2) Proboscis gland
(3) Metanephridia
(4) Renette cell

29/29
Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)] All India Aakash Test Series-2017
ONLINE TEST – 1
ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (4) 73. (1) 109. (2) 145. (4)
2. (2) 38. (3) 74. (1) 110. (4) 146. (3)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (4)
4. (4) 40. (3) 76. (2) 112. (4) 148. (4)
5. (2) 41. (4) 77. (1) 113. (4) 149. (3)
6. (3) 42. (2) 78. (4) 114. (4) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79. (1) 115. (2) 151. (4)
8. (4) 44. (4) 80. (4) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (4) 45. (2) 81. (2) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (1) 46. (1) 82. (4) 118. (1) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (4)
12. (3) 48. (3) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (4)
13. (2) 49. (4) 85. (4) 121. (2) 157. (1)
14. (2) 50. (4) 86. (1) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (3) 51. (4) 87. (3) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (4) 52. (3) 88. (1) 124. (2) 160. (3)
17. (1) 53. (1) 89. (3) 125. (3) 161. (2)
18. (3) 54. (2) 90. (4) 126. (3) 162. (3)
19. (3) 55. (1) 91. (4) 127. (4) 163. (2)
20. (4) 56. (2) 92. (3) 128. (1) 164. (4)
21. (3) 57. (1) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (2)
22. (1) 58. (1) 94. (4) 130. (1) 166. (3)
23. (2) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (2) 60. (3) 96. (3) 132. (2) 168. (4)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (4) 169. (3)
26. (1) 62. (1) 98. (1) 134. (2) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (4) 171. (3)
28. (4) 64. (3) 100. (3) 136. (4) 172. (2)
29. (3) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (2)
30. (3) 66. (1) 102. (4) 138. (2) 174. (3)
31. (2) 67. (2) 103. (4) 139. (3) 175. (2)
32. (3) 68. (2) 104. (1) 140. (2) 176. (3)
33. (4) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (3)
34. (3) 70. (1) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (3)
35. (1) 71. (4) 107. (4) 143. (3) 179. (2)
36. (4) 72. (1) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (2)
1/13
All India Aakash Test Series-2017 Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]
Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS ]
1. Answer (3)
Fact.
2. Answer (2)
Fact.
3. Answer (2)
Fact.
4. Answer (4)
He is known for his work on stability of stars and existence of a stable mass limit for white dwarfs.
5. Answer (2)
Fact.
6. Answer (3)
Unit of torque = Nm
Unit of angular momentum = kg m2/s
7. Answer (1)
E = h
[ML2T–2] = [h] [T–1]
[h] = [ML2T–1]
8. Answer (4)
T  x ry Sz
T = kx ry Sz
[M0L0T1] = [ML–3]x [L]y [M 1L0T–2]z
[M0L0T1] = [M x + z L– 3x + y T– 2z]
– 2z = 1
1
z
2
and x + z = 0
1
x  z 
2
and –3x + y = 0
3
y  3x 
2
Hence T  1/2 r 3/2S 1/2
9. Answer (4)
a = A + Bt + Ct2
[a] = [A]
[A] = [LT–2]
and [a] = [B] [T]
2/13
[B] = [LT–3]
and [a] = [C] [T2]
[C] = [LT–4]
[ A]  [B ] [LT 2 ]  [LT 3 ]

[C ] [LT 4 ]
= [M0L1T–1]
10. Answer (1)
V = IR
V 20
R   8
I 2.5
R V I
 
R V I
R 1 0.5
 
8 20 2.5
R = 2
11. Answer (4)
n1u1 = n2u2
10[L1T1–2] = n2[L2T2–2]
⎡ L ⎛ T ⎞2 ⎤
n2  10 ⎢ 1  ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎥
⎢ L2 ⎝ T2 ⎠ ⎥
⎣ ⎦
⎡ 1m ⎛ 1 s ⎞ 2 ⎤
n2  10 ⎢ 3  ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎢⎣10 m ⎝ 3600 s ⎠ ⎥⎦
n2 = 129600
12. Answer (3)
Fact.
13. Answer (2)
1 2 1
h gt   9.8  42
2 2
h 2 t

h t
2 t
h  h
t
0.4 1
= 2   9.8  42
4 2
= 7.84 m
3/13
14. Answer (2)
1 1 1
 
Req R1 R2
1 1 1
 
Req 3 6
Req = 2
Req ⎛ R R ⎞
 100  ⎜ 21  22 ⎟  Req  100
Req ⎜R R2 ⎟⎠
⎝ 1
⎛ 0.1 0.2 ⎞
 ⎜ 2  2 ⎟  2  100
⎝3 6 ⎠

15. Answer (3)
[t] = dimensionless
 [] = [M0L0T –1]
16. Answer (4)
[M0L0T1] = [M]x [L]y [F]z
= [M]x [L]y [MLT–2]z
[M0L0T1] = [Mx + z Ly + z T – 2z]
1
z
2
1
x
2
1
y
2
17. Answer (1)
4 3
V  r
3
V 3r

V r
18. Answer (3)
x1/2 y 1/2 z1
Q
k 3 l 1/3
Q ⎛ 1  x 1 y z k 1 l ⎞
 100  ⎜     1  3   ⎟  100
Q ⎝ 2 x 2 y z k 3 l ⎠
1 1 1
=  2   3  2  3  1  6
2 2 3
= 9.5%
4/13
19. Answer (3)

Fact.
20. Answer (4)
Fact.
21. Answer (3)
Fact.
22. Answer (1)
x = t3 – 4t2 + 4t + 8
dx
V   3t 2  8t  4
dt
dV
0
dt
6t – 8 = 0
4
t s
3
at t  4 s
3
4
v m/s
3
23. Answer (2)
V = 3t2
dx
 3t 2
dt
dx = 3t2dt
x = t3 = 23 = 8 m
24. Answer (2)
1
S  a  22  2a
2
a 3
S2nd  (2  2  1)  a
2 2
S 2a 4
 
S2nd 3 3
a
2
25. Answer (2)
60º
60º 60º
x x
x
 cos 60º
R
1
x  R cos 60º  4   2m
2
5/13
1 2
S at
2
1 2
2x  at
2
1
4  2 t2
2
t = 2 s.
26. Answer (1)
dx
V   e 4t  4te 4t
dt
dv
a
dt
a = – 4e – 4t – 4(e – 4t – 4te – 4t)
a = (– 4 – 4 + 16t)e – 4t
|V| = |a|
e– 4t (1 – 4t) = e– 4t(– 8 + 16t)
1 – 4t = – 8 + 16t
20t = 9
9
t
20
27. Answer (2)
Distance
Average speed =
Time
r  2r
=
t
⎛ 22 ⎞ 1
= ⎜  7  7  2⎟ 
⎝ 7 ⎠ 10
= 3.6 m/s
Displacement
Average velocity =
Time
= 14  1.4 m/s
10
28. Answer (4)
VAB = VA – VB
VAB = 30 – 20 = 10 m/s
aAB = – 5 m/s2
V2 – U2 = 2aS
0 – 102 = 2(– 5) × S
100
S  10m
10
Collision will take place if d < 10 m
6/13
29. Answer (3)
x/3 2x/3
P R Q
x
From P to R
V2 – u2 = 2aS
x
V 2  42  2a   (i)
3
From R to Q
2x
82  V 2  2a   (ii)
3
Divide Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii)
V 2  42 1

82  V 2 2
V 2  16 1
2

64  V 2
2V2 – 32 = 64 – V2
3V2 = 96
V2 = 32
V  32  4 2 m/s
30. Answer (3)

V = A sin t
dV
a  A2 cos t
dt
2 2
= A cos  
2
 A2
=
2
31. Answer (2)
1 2
Use S  ut  at
2
32. Answer (3)
Speed cannot be negative.
33. Answer (4)
7/13
16 m/s
t
O 4s 6s 8s
Acceleration:
v = u + at
v = 4 × 4 = 16 m/s
Retardation
O = 16 – 8 × t2
t2 = 2 s.
Distance = [Area under v – t graph]
1
(2  8)  16
=
2
= 80 m
34. Answer (3)
dv dx
a 
dt dx
dv
a V
dx
a = (4x2 + 3) (8x)
= (4 × 12 + 3) (8 × 1)
=7×8
= 56 m/s2
35. Answer (1)
Particle thrown vertically up.
36. Answer (4)
V1 = 4 m/s
4  8  12
V2 
3
= 24  8 m/s
3
x1  x2
Vavg 
t1  t2
x1  x2
=
x1 x2

v1 v 2
x
=
x 2x

34 38
Vavg = 6 m/s
8/13
37. Answer (4)

x = (2t – 5)3/2
dx 3
V    2(2t  5)1/2
dt 2
V  (2t – 5)1/2
dV
a  3  2(2t  5)1/2
dt
a = [(2t – 5)1/2]–1
1
a
V
Or
1
V
a
38. Answer (3)
dV
 2V 1/3
dt
V–1/3 dV = –2dt
Integrate both the sides
0 t
1/3
∫V dV  ∫ 2dt
8 0
3 ⎡ 2/3 ⎤ 0
 V ⎦  2t
2⎣ 8
3
 (0  4)  2t
2
3
  4  2t
2
t=3s
39. Answer (3)
VAB = VA + VB
5
VA  90   25 m/s
18
VB = 12.5 m/s
VAB = 37.5 m/s
Total distance, x = 10 + 15 = 25 m
x
Time, t 
VAB
25
=  0.67 s
37.5
9/13
40. Answer (3)

Air resistance, f  V
In upward motion velocity decreases and
In downward motion velocity increases.
Hence t1 < t2
41. Answer (4)
3rd ball falls from 2 s
1
H g  2  20 m
2
42. Answer (2)
When a = constant, v  t
When a  t, v  t2
43. Answer (1)
t  t 1t 2
t  9  4  36
t=6s
44. Answer (4)
45. Answer (2)
V = area under a – t graph
1
V  u  4  2  (4  2)  1
2
V–8=8+3
V = 19 m/s
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Answer (1)

20 drops  10 ml
10
1 drop  ml
20
18 ml H2O  NA molecules
1 NA 1
 ml H2O   molecule
2 18 2
6  1023 1
  1023
18  2 6
= 0.166 × 1023
10/13
47. Answer (2)
2NH3  N2  3H2
2V 4V
∵ 2V  4V
4
∵ 100 ml   100  200 ml
2
V = 200 – 100 = 100 ml
48. Answer (3)
32  1 100
%S  40
80
49. Answer (4)
No. of moles HCl = 0.1 × 0.1 = 0.01
No. of moles of H2SO4 = 0.5 × 0.05 = 0.025
No of moles of NHO3 = 2 × 0.01 = 0.02
No of moles of HClO4 = 0.2 × 0.2 = 0.04
50. Answer (4)
Fact.
51. Answer (4)
Fact.
52. Answer (3)
Fact.
53. Answer (1)
Fact.
54. Answer (2)
Fact.
55. Answer (1)

CaCO3   CaO  CO2
100 g  22.4 L
22.4
 10 g   10  2.24 L
100
56. Answer (2)
14  n  100
Molar mass = %N
294  28
n  5.88  6
14  100
11/13
57. Answer (1)
2H2 + O2  2H2O
2V 1V.
Given 50 ml 20 ml
 O2 is L.R. and H2 is excess reagent.
20 ml O2 combines with 40 ml H2 and 10 ml H2 left unreacted.
58. Answer (1)
1 mole tetraatomic gas  4 × NA atoms
 0.1 mol tetraatomic gas  0.4NA atoms
59. Answer (3)
Fact.
60. Answer (3)
Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure equal vol. of gases contains equal number of molecules.
61. Answer (2)
Fact.
62. Answer (1)
22.4 L O2  32 g
32
 1L  g = 1.428 g
22.4
63. Answer (2)
Number of gram eq. HCl = 0.1 × 1 = 0.1
 Number of gram equivalents metal = 0.1
0.1 gram equivalent of metal has mass 0.9 g
 1 gram equivalent of metal has mass = 9 g
64. Answer (3)
Al + O2  Al2O3. Apply law of chemical equivalence
x 4
∵  ⇒ x  4.5 g
9 8
65. Answer (4)
6.4
At. weight. =  40
0.16
66. Answer (1)
w CH3OH 1000
0.2  
32 200
w CH3OH  1.28
67. Answer (2)

5
EMetal   8  9.09 g
4.44
12/13
68. Answer (2)
Fact.
69. Answer (2)
1 mol NH4+ = 10 × NA e–
 0.01 mol = 0.1 NA electrons
70. Answer (1)
CaCO3 + 2HCl  CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
Given: 0.1 0.002
So, HCl is L.R.
2 mol HCl  22.4 L CO2 produced
22.4
 0.002 mol HCl   0.002
2
= 0.0224 L
71. Answer (4)
Fact.
72. Answer (1)
Fact.
73. Answer (1)
Maximum moles are present in 5.6 NH3 gas.
74. Answer (1)
NAVA = 0.2  2  250  0.1

1000
250
NBVB = 0.1 1  0.025
1000
 Solution will be acidic
75. Answer (1)
76. Answer (2)
0.25 mol PQ  35 g
 1 mol PQ  35 × 4 g = 140 g (i)
0.25 mol PQ2  45 g
 1 mol PQ2  45 × 4 g = 180 g  (ii)
P + Q = 140
P + 2Q = 180
– – –
Q = 40
Using eq. (i) and eq. (ii) we are getting
Q = 40, P = 100
77. Answer (1)
Fact.
78. Answer (4)
S  SO2  SO3  H2SO4  BaSO4

1 mol 1 mol 1 mol 1 mol 1 mol
8 g S = 0.25 mol will produce 0.25 mol BaSO4
13/13
79. Answer (1)
% Atomic mass n simple ratio

X 40 10 10  4 1
40
Y 60 15 60
15 4 1
 Formula is XY.
80. Answer (4)
Fact.
81. Answer (2)
Fact.
82. Answer (4)
Atomic mass of metal = 32 × 2
= 64.
Molar mass of metal nitrate = M(NO3)2
= 64 + 28 + 48 + 48 = 188
83. Answer (2)
95
Pure limestone : 200   190 kg
100

CaCO3   CaO  CO2
100 kg  56 kg CaO
56
 190 kg  190 kg
100
= 106.4 kg
84. Answer (1)

CO2 + C(s)  2CO
Let vol. of CO2 reacted = x L
vol. of 2CO produced = 2xL
and vol. of CO2 remained unreacted = 2 – x L
Total volume of gases = 2 – x + 2x
= 2 + xL
and 2 + x = 3.2 L
x = 3.2 – 2
= 1.2 L
and volume of CO produced = 2 × 1.2 L
= 2.4 L
85. Answer (4)
Fact.
14/13
86. Answer (1)
Al2O3 = 102 g
102 g Al2O3  2 × 6 × 1023 Al3+ ions
2  6  1023  0.051 Al3 

 0.051 g Al2O3 
102
= 0.001 × 6 × 1023
= 6 × 1020 ions
87. Answer (3)
No. of moles
N 30.5 14 2.17 1 Empirical
O 69.5 16 4.34 2 formula NO2
Molecular formula = N2O4

88. Answer (1)
Fact
89. Answer (3)
1000 g
M=
18 g
90. Answer (4)

Number of moles = 0.02 × 0.1 = 0.002
 Number of molecules = 2 × 6 × 1020
[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (4)
92. Answer (3)
93. Answer (3)
Docotyledonae and monocotyledonae are taxons at same rank.
94. Answer (4)
95. Answer (4)
96. Answer (3)
97. Answer (3)
Cell membrane of arechaebacteria is differed because it is monolipid layer.
98. Answer (1)
99. Answer (3)
100. Answer (3)
Name is printed in Latin which indicate their Latin origin.
101. Answer (3)
102. Answer (4)
103. Answer (4)
Polytypic genus having more than one species.
15/13
104. Answer (1)

Family is lower than others in given options in taxonomic hierarchy.
105. Answer (3)
106. Answer (2)
Botanical gardens are ex-situ strategy for protection of plants.
107. Answer (4)
108. Answer (3)
109. Answer (2)
Taxonomic key is a set of alternate characters on which is analytical in nature.
110. Answer (4)
111. Answer (3)
112. Answer (4)
Prokaryotic organism were classified alongwith eukaryotic organism like bacteria in plantae.
113. Answer (4)
114. Answer (4)
115. Answer (2)
116. Answer (3)
117. Answer (4)
Vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophic.
118. Answer (1)
119. Answer (2)
120. Answer (3)
121. Answer (2)
122. Answer (3)
Halobacterium belongs to halophiles.
123. Answer (3)
124. Answer (2)
Trichodesmium erythraeum is a cyanobacteria which shows Gaidukov’s phenomena i.e. complementary chromatic
adaptation.
125. Answer (3)
Flagellum is not present in any stage.
126. Answer (3)
127. Answer (4)
128. Answer (1)
129. Answer (4)
130. Answer (1)
131. Answer (3)
132. Answer (2)
133. Answer (4)
Mycoplasma were discoverd by Nocard and Roux from the pleural fluid of Bovine cattles.
134. Answer (2)
135. Answer (4)
16/13
136. Answer (4)
Appearance of bilateral symmetry in larval life in echinoderms is their resemblance with chordates, but conversion
to radial symmetry is not seen in chordates.
137. Answer (3)
Chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages are present in both of them as they are arthropods.
138. Answer (2)
Materials move through choanoderm from higher concentration to lower concentration.
139. Answer (3)
140. Answer (2)
Gorgonia is sea fan.
141. Answer (4)
Digestive enzymes for extracellular digestion are secreted by gland cells.
142. Answer (3)
Non-polar nervous system in the form of nerve nets is seen both in polyp and in medusa.
143. Answer (3)
Fact
144. Answer (3)
Sycon – Poriferan, cnidoblasts absent.
Pleurobranchia – Exoskeleton absent
Periplaneta – Exoskeleton present in nymphal stages, arthropod.
145. Answer (4)
Pennatula – Sea pen
Hormiphora – Sea walnut
Physalia – Portugese man of war
146. Answer (3)
In Nereis and Leech coelom is schizocoelic derived from splitting of mesoderm.
147. Answer (4)
148. Answer (4)
149. Answer (3)
Hydra does not show polymorphism and metamorphosis.
150. Answer (2)
Fact.
151. Answer (4)
152. Answer (1)
Infective stage to primary host-cysticercus.
153. Answer (3)
154. Answer (3)
Both of them require snail as intermediate host.
155. Answer (4)
156. Answer (4)
Body cavity of leeches is Haemocoel.
157. Answer (1)
158. Answer (2)
Fact.
17/13
159. Answer (3)

Gregarious pest – Locust
160. Answer (3)
Fact
161. Answer (2)
Fact
162. Answer (3)
As blood fills body cavity.
163. Answer (2)
164. Answer (4)
Fact
165. Answer (2)
166. Answer (3)
Fact
167. Answer (4)
Aedes – vector
168. Answer (4)
169. Answer (3)
Chemoreceptor is osphradium
Rasping organ is Radula.
170. Answer (3)
Fact
171. Answer (3)
Fact
172. Answer (2)
Ink glands release a chemical that is an eye irritant that helps cephelopods to escape.
173. Answer (2)
Cephalopods are advanced molluscs.
174. Answer (3)
Fact
175. Answer (2)
Destructive for wood Teredo.
Aplysia – shell highly reduced or absent.
Octopus – direct life cycle
176. Answer (3)
Fact.
177. Answer (3)
The given feature is shown by echinoderms.
178. Answer (3)
Fact
179. Answer (2)
Stomochord was mistaken earlier as Notochord.
180. Answer (2)
Fact

18/13

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Online Test - 1 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2017

All India Aakash Test Series-2017

(4) All of these

given volume (STP)

(3) M × vol. of solution (L) = Number of moles

(1) Obelia and Adamsia : Presence of gastrovascular cavity

Mark the gregarious pest

Hints to Selected Questions

Hence T  1/2 r 3/2S 1/2

14. Answer (2)

19. Answer (3)

29. Answer (3)

Divide Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii)

30. Answer (3)

31. Answer (2)

37. Answer (4)

40. Answer (3)

46. Answer (1)

100 g  22.4 L

67. Answer (2)

NAVA = 0.2  2  250  0.1

S  SO2  SO3  H2SO4  BaSO4

8 g S = 0.25 mol will produce 0.25 mol BaSO4

% Atomic mass n simple ratio

100 kg  56 kg CaO

84. Answer (1)

2  6  1023  0.051 Al3 

Molecular formula = N2O4

90. Answer (4)

104. Answer (1)

159. Answer (3)

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