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1. Zebra bodies are seen in?

a. Anaphylactoid Purpura

b. Fabry disease

c. Lichen planus

d. Zellweger Syndrome

2. Transmigration is mediated by?

a. P Selectin

b. E selectin



3. Amorphous densities in cell injury occur due to?

a. Failure of sodium potassium pump

b. Activation of endogenous phospholipases

c. Accumulation of Sodium

d. Accumulation of calcium

4. Correct about Zenker Degeneration?

a. Occurs due to shearing stress in upper bowel

b. Occurs to hyaline degeneration of tunica media

c. Occurs in typhoid

d. Occurs due to hyaline degeneration of internal elastic lamina

5. Which of the following in an example of extracellular hyaline changes?

a. Russel Bodies

b. Mallory Hyaline bodies

c. Dutcher bodies

d. Corpora Amylacea
6. Golden yellow pigment was noticed in neurons in

post mortem brain biopsy of Alzheimer’s patient.

Which is correct about the pigment?

a. Intra-lysosomal Location

b. Intra- nuclear Location

c. Positive for Rubeanic Acid

d. Positive for Perl Stain

7. Intrinsic pathway of apoptosis activates?

a. Caspase 8

b. Caspase 9

c. Caspase 10

d. Caspase 11

8. The following lesion is an example of?

a. Dry Gangrene

b. Wet Gangrene

c. Gas Gangrene

d. All of the above

9. Monckeberg Sclerosis involves?

a. Tunica intima

b. Tunica media

c. Tunica Adventitia

d. All of the above

10. Incorrect about Dysplasia?

a. Can regress on removal of inciting agent

b. Pleomorphism

c. Loss of polarity

d. Mature cellular development

11. Master of immune system?

a. Neutrophils

b. Lymphocytes

c. Macrophage

d. Histiocyte

12. Which cells develop in red pulp of spleen?

a. T cell

b. B cell

c. NK cell

d. Plasma Cell

13. Locus for Class II MHC antigen on p arm of chromosome 6 is __________?

a. HLA- A

b. HLA- B

c. HLA- C

d. HLA- D

14. Type of amyloid deposition in cerebral amyloid angiopathy is?

a. AA


c. Aβ2

d. Aβ

15. Not a stain for amyloid protein is?

a. Thioflavin T

b. Thioflavin S

c. Methyl Violet

d. Warthin starry

16. Which of the following leads to CVC spleen and Gamma gandy body formation?

a. Transfusion Siderosis

b. Hemochromatosis

c. Right heart failure

d. Bantu’s Disease

17. MHC antigen is absent in?

a. Neutrophil

b. Epithelial cell

c. RBC

d. Thrombocyte

18. Most reactive free radical?

a. Hydrogen peroxide

b. Hydroxyl free radical

c. Peroxide free radical

d. Superoxide Anion

19. ABO blood group is an example of?

a. X linked Inheritance

b. Autosomal recessive

c. Mitochondrial Inheritance

d. Codominance

20. Oil Red O stain is used for?

a. Glutaraldehyde

b. Alcohol Fixed specimen

c. Formalin fixed Specimen

d. Frozen Section

21. Which of the following is incorrect combination with respect for immune-pathological markers?

a. Desmin-Carcinoma

b. Viamentin- Sarcoma

c. S-100 – Melanoma

d. Common leucocyte antigen: Lymphoma

22. Flow cytometry is done in?

a. Polycyathemia

b. Thrombocytosis

c. Neutrophilia

d. Lymphocytosis

23. Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait are protected from infection of?

a. Pneumococcus

b. P. Falciparum

c. P. Vivax

d. Salmonella

24. CD95 is a marker for?

a. Intrinsic pathway of apoptosis

b. Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis

c. Necrosis of cell

d. Monocytes

25. Hyper-acute rejection is due to?

a. Preformed antibodies

b. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes medicated injury

c. Circulating macrophage mediated injury

d. Endothelitis caused by donor antibodies

26. Patients with thalassemia are predisposed to infection with?

a. Pneumococcus

b. E. Coli

c. Meningococcus

d. Listeria monocytogenes

27. Normal tissue present at different anatomical site is called as?

a. Choristoma

b. Hamartoma

c. Desmoplasia

d. Chloroma

28. All cancers can metastasize except?

a. Melanoma

b. APUD-oma

c. Chromaffin-oma

d. Glioma

29. The change in bronchi is cigarettes smoker is?

a. Squamous to ciliated columnar

b. Ciliated Columnar to squamous

c. Ciliated Pseudostratified columnar to squamous

d. Ciliated Pseudostratified squamous to columnar

30. Most common site for lymphoma in AIDS patients is?

a. CNS

b. Spleen

c. Thymus

d. Abdomen

31. CD99 is a marker for?

a. Mesothelioma

b. Kaposi sarcoma

c. Hodgkin disease

d. Ewing Sarcoma

32. Which of the following tissue is least susceptible to ischemia?

a. Cardiac tissue

b. Neuronal tissue

c. GI mucosa

d. Fibroblast

33. L- myc leads to?

a. Burkitt lymphoma

b. Neuroblastoma

c. Oat cell cancer


34. Crumpled tissue paper appearance of cytoplasm is seen in cases of?

a. Gaucher disease

b. Von gierke disease

c. Metachromatic leukodystrophy

d. Adrenoleukodystrophy

35. Which of the following is correct about amyloidosis?

a. Congo red stain: apple green on light microscopy

b. Thio-flavin T stain: Apple green under polarised microscope

c. X ray crystallography: Cross Beta pleated sheet

d. Electron microscopy: Amorphous eosinophilic extracellular material

36. Which is correct about alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

a. Centri-acinar emphysema

b. Diastase resistant PAS positive inclusions in hepatocytes

c. Defective DNA repair

d. Excess of IgE

37. Nests of zellballen are seen in?

a. Acoustic neuroma

b. Pheochromocytoma

c. Paraganglioma

d. Carcinoid Tumour

38. Synaptophysin is an immune-histochemical marker for?

a. Melanoma

b. Neuroendocrine tumour


d. Mesenchymal tumour

39. Most common hypercoagulable state is?

a. Von Wilebrand Disease

b. Lupus anticoagulant

c. Protein C deficiency

d. Factor V leiden mutation

40. Pan leucocyte marker is?

a. CD45

b. CD10

c. CD19

d. CD 3

41. EBV receptor is?

a. CD 15

b. CD 21

c. CD 30

d. CD 45

42. CD61 is a marker for?

a. RBC

b. T cell

c. Thrombocyte

d. Plasma cell

43. pNET in histopathology exhibits?

a. Flexner WintersteinerRossette

b. Homer Wright Rossette

c. True Ependymal Rossette

d. Perivascular Pseudorossette

44. Type of collagen seen in vitreous chamber is?

a. Type 4

b. Type 5

c. Type 7

d. Type 9

45. Osteogenesis imperfecta is disease of which collagen?

a. Type 1

b. Type 2

c. Type 3

d. Type 4

46. Good pasture syndrome is defect in which collagen?

a. Type 1

b. Type 2

c. Type 3

d. Type 4

47. Chromosome 1 is?

a. Metacentric

b. Submetacentric

c. Acrocentric

d. Telocentric

48. Aschoff giant cells are derived from?

a. T cells

b. B cells

c. Histiocytes

d. PMN cells

49. Littoral cells are found in?

a. Liver

b. Spleen

c. Lung

d. Placenta

50. Foam cell Granulomas are seen in?

a. Tuberculoid leprosy

b. Borderline tuberculoid

c. Lepromatous leprosy

d. Neuritic leprosy

51. Gumma shows?

a. Coagulative necrosis

b. Liquefactive necrosis

c. Caseating granuloma

d. Non caseating granuloma

52. WT 1 gene is located at?

a. 13q

b. 17p

c. 11p

d. 3p

53. CD95 receptors are depleted in?

a. RCC

b. HCC

c. BCC

d. SCC

54. Ames test is done for?

a. Immunogenicity

b. Teratogenicity

c. Mutagenicity

d. All of the above

55. Skin warts are seen due to?

a. HPV 1

b. HPV 6

c. HPV 11

d. HPV 18

56. Correct about HPV?

a. Integrates into host RNA and leads to overexpression of viral proteins E6, E7

b. Integrates into host DNA and leads to over-expression of viral proteins E6, E7

c. Integrates into host RNA and leads to under-expression of viral proteins E6, E7

d. Integrates into host m-DNA and leads to over-expression of viral proteins E6, E7

57. Cytochemical stain for basement membrane?

a. Alcian Blue

b. Periodic acid Schiff

c. Myeloperoxidase

d. Colloidal Silver stain

58. Immuno-stain for neural tumours?

a. NSE

b. HMB-45

c. Epithelial membrane antigen (EMA)


59. Sideroblastic anaemia is treated with?

a. Biotin

b. Ascorbic acid

c. Pyridoxine

d. Riboflavin

60. Loss of foot processes and electron dense deposits in regions of sclerosis and hyalinosis is seen in?

a. IgA Nephropathy

b. Minimal change disease

c. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

d. Dense deposit Disease

61. Armani Ebstein lesions are seen in?

a. Diabetes Nephropathy

b. Renal cell cancer

c. Renal angiomyolipomas

d. Immunotactoid nephropathy

62. Most common cause of sporadic breast cancer?

a. BRCA1

b. BRCA2

c. P53

d. CHEK2

63. Li-Fraumeni syndrome involves which of the following?

a. BCL-2

b. P53

c. BRCA1

d. CHEK2

64. Most common thyroid cancer is due to?

a. RAS mutation

b. P53 loss

c. Beta Catenin loss

d. RET gene overexpression

65. Thyroid cancer with amyloid stroma and stains positive with congo red is?

a. Papillary cancer

b. Follicular cancer

c. Medullary cancer thyroid

d. Anaplastic cancer

66. Most common type of Rhabdomyosarcoma?

a. Embryonal

b. Botyroid

c. Pleomorphic

d. Alveolar

67. Major function of oligodendrocytes?

a. Neuronophagia

b. Formation and mantainence of myelin

c. Forms fibrillary network

d. Counterpart of monocyte-macrophage system

68. Mucicarmine stain is used for staining?

a. TB

b. Cryptococcus

c. Aspergillus

d. BK virus

69. Fenton reaction produces?

a. Hydroxyl radical

b. H202


d. MPO

70. Cytokine involved in fever?

a. IL-6

b. IL-8

c. IL-1

d. IFN-ϒ

71. 1-Pro-apoptotic gene and anti-apoptotic gene belong to which gene family?

a. p53

b. Bcl


d. Rb

72. Colliquative necrosis is seen in?

a. Arthus phenomenon

b. Malignant hypertension

c. Tuberculoma

d. Lung abscess

73. Which of the following is an Opsonin?

a. C3a

b. C3b

c. C5a

d. C5b

74. Councilman bodies are formed due to process of……?

a. Necrosis

b. Cirrhosis

c. Apoptosis

d. Necroptosis

75. Stellate shaped granuloma is seen in?

a. Sarcoidosis

b. Cat Scratch disease

c. Crohn’s disease

d. Tuberculosis