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ALL INDIA INTERNAL TEST SERIES

CHEMISTRY, MATHEMATICS & PHYSICS


SET – B
APT - 2 080135.2 Ai2TS-2

Time Allotted : 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 201


INSTRUCTIONS
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions

 Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
 This question paper contains Three Sections.
 Section – I is “Chemistry”, Section – II is “Mathematics” and Section – III is “Physics”.
 Each Section is further divided into two Parts: Part – A &Part – B.
 Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
 Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices,
in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


CLASS IX

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR
sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Parts.

(i) PART-A(01 – 06) contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions which have Only One Correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
PART-A (07 – 09) contains 3 Assertion-Reasoning Questions (MCQs) which have Only One Correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
PART-A (10 – 15) contains 2 Paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 Multiple Choice Questions have to
be answered. Each question has Only One Correct answer and carries +4 marks for the correct answer and
–1 mark for a wrong answer.

(ii) PART-B(01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type Questions which have statements given in 2 columns.
Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. There may be
One or More Than One Correct choices. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer however for
each correct row +2 marks will be awarded and –1 mark for each row matched incorrectly.

Name of Candidate :

Batch ID : Date of Examination : / / 2 0 1

Enrolment Number :
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SECTION-I: CHEMISTRY
PART-A : (Only One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
of which Only One Option is correct.

1. A 1000 mL sample of a ideal gas at 73C and 2 atmosphere is heated to 123C and the pressure is
reduced to 0.5 atmosphere. What will be final volume?
(A) 6000 mL (B) 1500 mL (C) 8000 mL (D) 900 mL

2. The effective ion used in clarification of water is


(A) Al3+ (B) Ca2+ (C) K+ (D) Mg+2

3. Which one of the following is correctly matched?


(A) Emulsion – Smoke (B) Gel  Butter
(C) SolWhipped cream (D) Aerosol  Hair cream

4. The Brownian movement is due to


(A) temperature fluctuations within the liquid phase
(B) attraction and repulsion between charges on colloidal particles
(C) impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on colloidal particles
(D) convection currents

5. Bleeding is stopped by the application of ferric chloride. This is because


(A) the blood starts flowing in oppostie direction
(B) the ferric chloride seal the blood vessel
(C) the blood reacts and forms a solid which seals the blood vessel
(D) the blood is coagulated and thus, the blood vessel is sealed

6. Tails of comets are visible due to


(A) Reflection (B) Tyndall effect
(C) Brownian movement (D) none of these

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Reasoning Type
This section contains 3 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

7. STATEMENT-1: The intermolecular forces and thermal energy act opposite to each other so far as
the state of matter is concerned.
STATEMENT-2: Intermolecular forces tend to bring molecules together, whereas thermal energy
tends to keep them apart.
(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.

8. STATEMENT-1: Chlorination is done in water filtration process


STATEMENT-2: Chlorine coagulates with charged clay particles
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

9. STATEMENT-1: Migration of colloidal particles under the influence of electric field is called
electrophoresis
STATEMENT-2: Colloid particles show Brownian movement
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

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Comprehension Type
This part contains 2 comprehension based question. Each group has 3 multiple choice question based
on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.
Paragraph for Questions 10 to 12
Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:
The concentration of a solution is the amount of the solute present in a given quantity of the
solution. The concentration of a solution can be expressed in a number of different ways. The most
common way of expressing the concentration of a solution is the ‘percentage method’. The
percentage of solute can be ‘by volume’ or ‘by mass.

10. It is desired to prepare 500 gm of 10% mass by mass percentage of urea in water. How much urea
(in g) should be dissolved in how much volume (in mL) of water respectively? Density of water is 1g
mL1.
(A) 50, 500 (B) 50, 450 (C) 45, 450 (D) 450, 50

11. Calculate the mass of sulphuric acid present in 100 ml of 15% by mass solution of sulphuric acid.
(Density = 1.10 gm/ ml)
(A) 11.5 (B) 13.6 (C) 14.5 (D) 16.5

12. 15 ml of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 60 ml of gasoline. Calculate the volume by volume percentage
of the solution
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 80

Paragraph for Questions 13 to 15


Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:
The Graham’s law of diffusion states that at constant pressure and temperature, the rate of diffusion
or effusion of a gas is inversely proportion to the square root of its density
1
Rate of diffusion 
d
For two gases such as r1 and r2
r1 d2 M 2 v1  t 2
  
r2 d1 M1 v2  t1
 v 
 r  & v  n  molecular mass = 2  VD
 t 
On the merit of given information, answer the question

13. If equal moles of helium and argon are placed in a porous container and allowed to escape, which
gas will escape faster and how much faster?
(A) He and 3.16 times (B) Ar and 0.316 times
(C) Ar and 3.16 times (D) He and 0.316 times

14. The time taken for a certain volume of a gas x to diffuse through a small hole is 2 minutes. It takes
5.65 minutes for similar volume of oxygen to diffuse under the similar conditions the molecular
weight of x is:
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 32

15. A compound composed of carbon, hydrogen and chlorine diffuses through a pinhole 0.411 times as
fast as neon. Select the correct molecular formula for the compound:
(A) CHCl3 (B) CH2Cl2 (C) C2H2Cl2 (D) C2H3Cl

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PARTB: Matrix-Match Type Questions


p q r s t
This Section contains 2 Matrix Match Type Questions. Each question has
q
four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements (p, q, A p r s t

r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct B p q r s t

matching with ONE or MORE statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if C p q r s t
for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, D p q r s t
then for the particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
corresponding to q and r in the ORS.

1. Match the following columns.


Column-I Column-II
(A) Coagulation (p) Scattering of light
(B) Emulsion (q) Purification of colloidal
(C) Tyndall effect (r) Addition of electrolyte in colloidal solution may be
(D) Dialysis (s) Precipitation of colloidal solution
(t) Heterogeneous Mixture of two immiscible liquids

2. Match the following columns.


Column I Column II (Separation Technique)
(A) Components of ink (p) Separating funnel
(B) Kerosene and water (q) Chromatography
(C) Iodine and sand (r) Filtration
(D) Iron and sand (s) Sublimation
(t) Magnetic separation

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SECTION-II: MATHEMATICS
PART-A : (Only One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
of which Only One Option is correct.

1. The complement of three-fifths of a right angle is


(A) 24° (B) 54° (C) 36° (D) 72°

2. 3n2  42n1 (n is a positive integer) is always divisible by


(A) 13 (B) 17 (C) 19 (D) 23

3. G.C.D. of x4 + x2 + 1 and x3x2 + x is


(A) x2 + x + 1 (B) x3x2+1 (C) x2x+1 (D) x4+x2+1

1
4. If x  3  2 2 then the value of x  is
x
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 4 2 (D) 6 2

5. The value of log 1 3125 is


5

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

6. The number of line segments determined by 4 distinct collinear points A, B, C and D is


(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

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Reasoning Type
This section contains 3 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
7. Statement –1: If area of the triangle formed by the points A(721, 903), B(726, 910) and C(730, 913)
is the same as the area formed by the points A(0,0), B(5,7) and C(9,10).
Statement–2: The area of the triangle is constant with respect to the translation of axes.
(A) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true, Statement–2 is a correct explanation for Statement–1.
(B) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true, Statement–2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement–1.
(C) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is false.
(D) Statement – 1 is false, Statement – 2 is true

8. Statement –1:The area of triangle formed by the points A(1, 2), B(3,4) and C(5, 2) is K = 12
square units
Statement–2: The area of the triangle formed by the points P(2, 1), Q(4,1) and R(3, 2) is K/3 = 4
sq units.
(A) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true, Statement–2 is a correct explanation for Statement–1.
(B) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true, Statement–2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement–1.
(C) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is false.
(D) Statement – 1 is false, Statement – 2 is true

9. Statement –1: (119, 120, 169) is a Pythagorean Triplet


Statement–2: (595, 600, 845) is a Pythagorean Triplet
(A) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true, Statement–2 is a correct explanation for Statement–1.
(B) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true, Statement–2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement–1.
(C) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is false.
(D) Statement – 1 is false, Statement – 2 is true

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Comprehension Type
This part contains 2 comprehension based question. Each group has 3 multiple choice question based
on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 to 12


In a rhombus all sides are equal and diagonals are perpendicular bisectors of each other.

10. ABCD is a rhombus whose diagonals are 24cm and 70cm, then its area is
(A) 540cm2 (B) 640cm2 (C) 700cm2 (D) 840cm2

11. If the diagonals of rhombus are 14cm and 48cm, then the length of perpendicular drawn from the
point of intersection of its diagonals to any of its sides is
(A) 6.72cm (B) 6cm (C) 7.2cm (D) 6.8cm

12. If the diagonals of rhombus are 14cm and 48cm then the length of its side is
(A) 32cm (B) 40cm (C) 25cm (D) 16cm

Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 15


In a triangle the sum of any two sides is greater than the third side. Area of a right angled triangle is
half the product of the lengths of base and altitude.

13. Area of ABC whose sides are 17cms, 144cm and 145cm is
(A) 1360 cm2 (B) 1224cm2 (C) 1436cm2 (D) 1184cm2

14. The length of the perpendicular drawn from the opposite vertex to the hypotenuse of a right angled
triangle whose sides are 20cm, 21cm, and 29cm is
609 580 470 420
(A) cm (B) cm (C) cm (D) cm
20 21 21 29

15. Number of Pythagorean Triplets with hypotenuse 125cm is


(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

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PARTB: Matrix-Match Type Questions


p q r s t
This Section contains 2 Matrix Match Type Questions. Each question has
q
four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements (p, q, A p r s t

r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct B p q r s t

matching with ONE or MORE statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if C p q r s t
for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, D p q r s t
then for the particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
corresponding to q and r in the ORS.

1. Match the following and write the correct pairs.


Column I Column II
(A) If y=ax+3 has a solution (4, 19) then a = (p) 2

(B) The distance between (3,5) and (15,21) is (q) 4


(C) If (2k1, k) is the solution of the equation 10x9y = 12, then k = (r) 99
(D) In the equation x22y2=1 if y = 70 then x = (s) 20
(t) 3

2. Match the following and write the correct pairs.


Column I Column II
(A) The value of log 9
2 is (p) Rational
3  2 2  3 2 2

(B) 1 (q) Irrational


log3 5  . log25 27  is
2
(C) The value of 3log4 5  5log4 3 is (r) Composite
(D) The value of log 3 2
(5  2 6)  3log (2  3) is (s) Prime
7 4 3

(t) None of these

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SECTION-III: PHYSICS
PART-A : (Only One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
of which Only One Option is correct.

1. Five identical cubes each of mass m are on a straight line with two adjacent P 2P
A B C D E
faces in contact. These cubes are moving on a smooth horizontal surface as
shown in the figure. A constant force P is applied from left to right to the end
face of A; which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The acceleration of the system is 5P/m
(B) The resultant force acting on each cube is P/5
(C) The force exerted by C on D is 3P/5
(D) The acceleration of the cube D is mP/5

2. A stone is dropped from a certain height which can reach the ground in 5 sec. It is stopped after
three seconds of its fall and then again released. The total time taken by the stone to reach ground
will be:
(A) 6 s (B) 6.5 s (C) 7 s (D) 5 s

3. Three equal masses each of mass ‘m’ are placed at the three-corners of an equilateral triangle of
side ‘a’. If a fourth particle of equal mass is placed at the centre of triangle, then net force acting on
it, is equal to:
Gm2 4Gm2 3Gm2
(A) (B) (C) (D) zero
a2 3a2 a2

4. If the radius of the earth were increased by a factor of 2. By what factor would its density have to be
changed to keep g the same on the surface of the earth?
1 1 1
(A) (B) 4 (C) (D)
8 2 4

5. Velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in the figure.


Then : V A C
(A) At B acceleration is zero
(B) At B acceleration is having the same direction as velocity B
(C) At B acceleration is having a direction opposite to the velocity
(D) Acceleration is equal at A, B and C. t

6. A heavy stone is thrown from a cliff of height h with a speed v. The stone will hit the ground with
maximum speed if it is thrown:
(A) Vertically downward
(B) Vertically upward
(C) Horizontally
(D) The speed does not depend on the initial direction of motion.

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Reasoning Type
This section contains 3 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

7. STATEMENT-1: The acceleration with negative sign only represents the direction of acceleration
and it may represent retardation.
Because
STATEMENT-2: The acceleration is a vector quantity and it is called retardation only when it’s
direction is opposite to the velocity.
(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.

8. STATEMENT-1: If earth suddenly stops rotating about its axis, the acceleration due to gravity at
poles remains unchanged.
Because
STATEMENT-2: Rotation of earth is about polar axis so the centripetal acceleration of any pole is
zero.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

9. STATEMENT-1: A cloth covers a table. Some dishes are kept on it. The cloth can be pulled out
without dislodging the dishes from the table.
Because
STATEMENT-2: For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

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Comprehension Type
This part contains 2 comprehension based question. Each group has 3 multiple choice question based
on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.

Paragraph for Questions 10 to 12


Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:
The escape velocity on a planet or a satellite is the minimum velocity with which a body must be
projected from that planet so that it escapes the gravitational pull of the planet and goes into outer
space. We obtain the expression for the escape velocity by equating the work required to move the
body from the surface of the planet to infinity with the initial kinetic energy given to the body. The
2MG
escape velocity from a planet of mass M and radius R is given by v e   2gR .
R
Where g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planet and G is the gravitational
constant.

10. Choose the only incorrect statement from the following. The escape velocity from a planet.
(A) Is independent of the mass of the body which is projected
(B) Is independent of the direction in which the body is projected
(C) Depends on the mass and radius of the planet.
2MG
(D) Will be less than the value given by the expression v e  if the planet has an atmosphere.
R

11. If R is the radius of the earth and g the acceleration due to gravity on its surface, the escape velocity
of a body projected from a satellite orbiting the earth at a height h=R from the surface of the earth
will be:
(A) gR (B) 2gR (C) 3gR (D) 2 gR

12. The mass of Jupiter is about 319 times that of the earth and its radius is about 11 times that of the
earth. The ratio of the escape velocity on Jupiter to that on earth is:
1 2
(A) 29 (B) 29 (C) (D)
29 29

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Paragraph for Questions 13 and 15


Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:
A 6kg mass ‘A’ moving with a velocity of 2 m/s collides with a A B
4 kg mass ‘B’ moving with a velocity of 1.5 m/s in the opposite 6 kg 4 kg
direction in a straight line as shown in the figure. u1  2m/s u2  1.5m/s
13. If the two masses get stuck, what is the velocity of the combination?
(A) 1.8 m/s (B) 0.6 m/s (C) 0.35 m/s (D) 1.33 m/s

14. If block ‘B’ rebound with speed 1.5 m/s. what is the magnitude of change in momentum of block A:
(A) 12 kg m/s (B) 6 kg m/s (C) 18 kg m/s (D) 2 kg m/s

15. If block ‘B’ rebound with speed 1 m/s, what is the velocity of block ‘A’:
(A) 1.8 m/s (B) 0.6 m/s (C) 0.35 m/s (D) 0.33 m/s

PART-B : Matrix-Match Type Questions


p q r s t
This Section contains 2 Matrix Match Type Questions. Each question has four
statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in A p q r s t

Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE or B p q r s t

MORE statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement C p q r s t
B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for the particular question, D p q r s t
against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.

1. Match the following columns.


Column-I Column-II
(A) Gravitational force exerted by earth on a point mass (p) Universal constant
(B) Acceleration due to gravity (q) Increase with altitude
(C) Gravitational constant (G) (r) Attractive force
(D) Satellite speed (s) Independent of mass of body
(t) Decreases with altitude

2. Two similar blocks are connected by a string. Forces of 4N and FN 4N F


2kg 2kg
are applied on blocks according to diagram. T represents tension in
string and ‘a’ represents acceleration of blocks. Surface below left =0.4
block is smooth and surface below right block is rough (=0.4).
f represent friction force on right block. (Take g  10 m/s2 )
Column I Column II
(A) F=0N (p) f=4N
(B) F=4N (q) a=2 m/s2
(C) F=20N (r) T=4N
(D) F=8N (s) f=8N
(t) T=8N

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