JURISDICTION
In determining whether an action is one the subject matter of which is not capable of pecuniary estimation, the nature
of the principal action or remedy sought must first be ascertained.
In determining whether an action is one the subject matter of which is not capable of pecuniary estimation, the Court
has adopted the criterion of first ascertaining the nature of the principal action or remedy sought. If it is primarily for the
recovery of a sum of money, the claim is considered capable of pecuniary estimation, and whether jurisdiction is in the
municipal courts or in the RTCs would depend on the amount of the claim. But where the basic issue is something other than
the right to recover a sum of money, where the money claim is purely incidental to, or a consequence of, the principal relief
sought, the Court has considered such actions as cases where the subject of the litigation may not be estimated in terms of
Action for quieting of title is within the MTC or RTC jurisdiction depending upon its assessed value.
The original and exclusive jurisdiction over a complaint for quieting of title and reconveyance involving friar land
belongs to either the Regional Trial Court (RTC) or the Municipal Trial Court (MTC), depending upon the assessed value of the
property.
Conformably with Sec. 19, BP 129 as amended by RA 7691, because an action for reconveyance or to remove a cloud
on one’s title involves the title to, or possession of, real property, or any interest therein, exclusive original jurisdiction over
such action pertained to the RTC, unless the assessed value of the property does not exceed P20,000.00 or P50,000.00 in
which instance the MTC having territorial jurisdiction would have exclusive original jurisdiction. Determinative of which
regular court has jurisdiction would be the allegations of the complaint on the assessed value of the property and the principal
relief thereby sought. (Heirs of Generoso Sebe v. Heirs of Sevilla, G.R. No. 174497, October 2, 2009, 603 SCRA 395; Heirs of
Reterta, et al. v. Sps. Lopez, G.R. No. 159941, August 17, 2011, Bersamin, J).
Recovery of damages due to malicious prosecution; total amount of damages determines the jurisdiction of the court.
It is settled that jurisdiction is conferred by law based on the facts alleged in the complaint since the latter comprises
a concise statement of the ultimate facts constituting the plaintiff’s causes of action. If the main action is for damages, e.g.,
exemplary damages, attorney’s fees and litigation expenses, they are not merely incidental to or consequences of the main
action but constitute the primary relief prayed for in the complaint, hence, the totality rule applies.
RULE 2 - ACTIONS
It should be emphasized that the foregoing rule only applies if the court trying the case has jurisdiction over all of the
causes of action therein notwithstanding the misjoinder of the same. (Lilia Ada, et al. v. Baylon, G.R. No. 182435, August 13,
2012).
RULE 3 – Parties
Adherence to jurisdiction.
Jurisdiction once acquired is not lost upon the instance of the parties but continues until the case is terminated.
Certainly, it would be the height of injustice to allow parties that disagree with the decision of a judicial tribunal to annul the
same through the expedient of transferring their interests or rights involved in the case.
A transferee pendente lite stands in exactly the same position as its predecessor-in-interest, the original defendant,
and is bound by the proceedings had in the case before the property was transferred to it. It is a proper but not an
indispensible party as it would in any event be bound by the judgment against his predecessor. This would follow even if it is
not formally included as a defendant through an amendment of the complaint. Hence, its non-inclusion of Heritage in the
proceedings is of no moment as Rule 3 of Section 19 of the ROC specifically allows the proceedings to proceed with the
original parties while binding the transferee. (HERITAGE PARK MANAGEMENT CORPORATION(HPMC) v. CIAC and ELPIDIO
UY, et al., G.R. No. 148133, October 8, 2008, VELASCO, JR., J.)
RULE 4 – Venue
Barangay Conciliation
Effect if one of the parties in a compromise fails or refuses to comply with the terms of a compromise.
If one of the parties fails or refuses to abide by the compromise, the other party may either enforce the compromise
or regard it as rescinded and insist upon his original demand. (Art. 2041, NCC).
In exercising the second option under Art. 2041, the aggrieved party may, if he chooses, bring the suit contemplated
or involved in his original demand, as if there had never been any compromise agreement, without bringing an action for
rescission. This is because he may regard the compromise as already rescinded by the breach thereof of the other party.
(Catedrilla v. Lauron, G.R. No. 179011, April 15, 2013 citing Chavez v. CA, G.R. No. 159411, March 18, 2005).
Non-compliance with the judgment based on compromise at the barangay is deemed to be repudiation because it
denotes that the respondent did not intend to be bound by the terms thereof, thereby negating the very purpose for which it
was executed.
Party has the option to enforce or regard it as rescinded and insist on original claim. (Chavez v. CA, 493 Phil. 945
(2005); See: Arts. 2037 & 2041, NCC; Miguel v. Montanez, G.R. No. 191336, January 25, 2012).
RULE 6 - Counterclaims
Meaning of the admission of the genuineness and due execution of an actionable document.
By the admission of the genuineness and due execution of an instrument, is meant that the party whose signature it
bears admits that he signed it or that it was signed by another for him with his authority, that at the time it was signed, it was
in words and figures exactly as set out in the pleadings of the party relying upon it, that the document was delivered and that
any formal requisites required by law, such as seal, an acknowledgment, or revenue stamps which it lacks are waived. The
defense of forgery or that it was unauthorized are cut off by the admission of its genuineness and due execution. (Hibbard vs.
Ebole and Mcmillan, 32 Phil. 477; Simon vs. Canlas, G.R. No. 148273, April 19, 2006).
An action may be dismissed on the ground of prescription even if not pleaded in a motion to dismiss.
Trial courts have authority and discretion to dismiss an action on the ground of prescription when the parties’
pleadings or other facts on record show it to be indeed time-barred x x x; and it may do so on the basis of a motion to dismiss,
or an answer which sets up such ground as an affirmative defense; or even if the ground is alleged after judgment on the
merits, as in a motion for reconsideration; or even if the defense has not been asserted at all, as where no statement thereof is
found in the pleadings, or where a defendant has been declared in default. What is essential only, to repeat, is that the facts
demonstrating the lapse of the prescriptive period, be otherwise sufficiently and satisfactorily apparent on the
record; either in the averments of the plaintiffs complaint, or otherwise established by the evidence. (PNB v. Aznar, et
al., G.R. No. 171805, May 30, 2011, Leonardo-de Castro, J).
Effect if there are several defendants in an action for quieting of title some answered and others were defaulted.
Under Sec. 5(c), Rule 9 of the Rules of Court, when a pleading asserting a claim states a common cause of action
against several defending parties, some of whom answer and the others fail to do so, the court shall try the case against all
upon the answer thus filed and render judgment upon the evidence presented. In this case, considering that the plaintiffs
stated a common cause of action against the defendants, the trial court should have tried or heard the case as against all the
defendants, the defaulted defendants included. However, the trial court received evidence ex parte only against the defaulted
defendants. The partial judgment is not only violative of the rules but also a clear negation of the defaulted defendants’ limited
rights. Whatever defense and evidence the non-defaulted defendants may present which would be applicable to the situation
of the defaulted defendants should inure to the benefit of the latter.
In this case, if the title is not nullified for the answering defendants, then, it should favorably affect the defaulting
ones. For, how could the title be valid for one set of defendants and void for another set. (Pinlac, et al. vs. CA, et al., G.R. No.
91486, January 19, 2001). See: Heirs of Mangiat v. CA; Castro v. Pena).
Amended complaint.
According to Sec. 2 Rule 10 of the Rules of Court, A party may amend his pleading once as a matter of right at any
time before a responsive pleading is served. Responsive pleadings are those which seek affirmative relief and/or set up
defenses. A motion to dismiss is not a responsive pleading. The RTC did not err in admitting petitioner’s amended complaint,
Voluntary appearance.
As a general proposition, one who seeks an affirmative relief is deemed to have submitted to the jurisdiction of the
court. It is by reason of this rule that the filing of motions to admit answer, for additional time to file answer, for
reconsideration of a default judgment, and to lift order of default with motion for reconsideration, is considered voluntary
submission to the court’s jurisdiction. This, however, is tempered by the concept of conditional appearance, such that a party
who makes a special appearance to challenge, among others, the court’s jurisdiction over his person cannot be
considered to have submitted to its authority.
Prescinding from the foregoing, it is thus clear that:
(1) Special appearance operates as an exception to the general rule on voluntary appearance;
(2) Accordingly, objections to the jurisdiction of the court over the person of the defendant must be explicitly
made, i.e., set forth in an unequivocal manner; and
(3) Failure to do so constitutes voluntary submission to the jurisdiction of the court, especially in instances
where a pleading or motion seeking affirmative relief is filed and submitted to the court for resolution.”
(Philippine Commercial International Bank v. Spouses Dy, 606 Phil. 615 [2009])
Allegation of prior recourse to compromise in a complaint between immediate members of family is waivable.
The ground for motion to dismiss that the complaint must alleged a condition precedent is waived if it is not alleged.
In this case, the complaint did not allege a prior recourse to compromise.
Section 1, Rule 9 provides for only four instances when the court may motu proprio dismiss the claim, namely: (a)
lack of jurisdiction over the subject matter; (b) litis pendentia ; (c) res judicata ; and (d) prescription of action. (P.L. Uy Realty
Corporation v. ALS Management and Development Corp., G.R. No. 166462, 24 October 2012, 684 SCRA 453, 464-465).
Specifically in Gumabon v. Larin, 422 Phil. 222, 230 [2001]).
That a condition precedent for filing the claim has not been complied with, a ground for a motion to dismiss
emanating from the law that no suit between members from the same family shall prosper unless it should appear from the
Anticipatory test.
In the "anticipatory test," the bona fides or good faith of the parties is the critical element. If the first suit is filed
merely to preempt the later action or to anticipate its filing and lay the basis for its dismissal, then the first suit should
be dismissed. In Teodoro, that the first action, declaratory relief, was filed by the lessee to anticipate the filing of the second
action, unlawful detainer, considering the lessor’s letter informing the lessee that the lease contract had expired.
Effect if the plaintiff fails to prosecute the case for an unreasonable length of time.
The case can be dismissed for failure to prosecute. Under the Rules, if, for no justifiable cause, the plaintiffs fails to
appear on the date of the presentation of his evidence in chief on the complaint, or to prosecute his action for an unreasonable
length of time, or to comply with these Rules or any order of the court, the complaint may be dismissed upon motion of the
defendant or upon the court’s own motion, without prejudice to the right of the defendant to prosecute his counterclaim in the
same or in a separate action. This dismissal shall have the effect of adjudication upon the merits, unless otherwise declared by
the court. (Rule 17, Sec. 3, Rules of Court; Phil. Charter Insurance Corp. v. Explore Maritime Co., Ltd., et al., G.R. No. 175409,
September 7, 2011, Leonardo-de Castro, J).
Written interrogatories must be served upon a party so he may be called as adverse party to the witness stand.
As a rule, in civil cases, the procedure of calling the adverse party to the witness stand is not allowed, unless written
interrogatories are first served upon the latter. This is embodied in Section 6, Rule 25 of the Rules, which provides that unless
thereafter allowed by the court for good cause shown and to prevent a failure of justice, a party not served with written
interrogatories may not be compelled by the adverse party to give testimony in open court, or to give a deposition pending
appeal.
One of the purposes of the above rule is to prevent fishing expeditions and needless delays; it is there to maintain
order and facilitate the conduct of trial. It will be presumed that a party who does not serve written interrogatories on the
adverse party beforehand will most likely be unable to elicit facts useful to its case if it later opts to call the adverse party to
the witness stand as its witness. Instead, the process could be treated as a fishing expedition or an attempt at delaying the
proceedings; it produces no significant result that a prior written interrogatories might bring. (Sps. Afulugencia v. Metrobank,
et al., G.R. No. 185145, February 5, 2014).
Demurrer to evidence filed with leave of court and granted; accused has the right to present evidence.
If demurrer is granted and the accused is acquitted by the court, the accused has the right to adduce evidence on the
civil aspect of the case unless the court also declares that the act or omission from which the civil liability may arise did not
exist. (Salazar v. People, 458 Phil. 504 (2003). This is because when the accused files a demurrer to evidence, he has not yet
adduced evidence both on the criminal and civil aspects of the case. The only evidence on record is the evidence for the
prosecution. What the trial court should do is issue an order or partial judgment granting the demurrer to evidence and
acquitting the accused, and set the case for continuation of trial for the accused to adduce evidence on the civil aspect of the
case and for the private complainant to adduce evidence by way of rebuttal. Thereafter, the court shall render judgment on
the civil aspect of the case. (Salazar v. People; Dayap vs. Sendiong).
Discretionary Execution
PPAs monies, facilities and assets are government properties. PPA is a government instrumentality charged with
carrying out governmental functions through the management, supervision, control and regulation of major ports of the
country. It is an attached agency of the Department of Transportation and Communication pursuant to PD 505. Ergo, they are
exempt from execution whether by virtue of a final judgment or pending appeal. Funds of PPA partake of government funds,
and such may not be garnished absent an allocation by its Board or by statutory grant. If the PPA funds cannot be garnished
and its properties, being government properties, cannot be levied via a writ of execution pursuant to a final judgment, then the
trial court likewise cannot grant discretionary execution pending appeal, as it would run afoul of the established
jurisprudence that government properties are exempt from execution. What cannot be done directly cannot be done
indirectly. (SPOUSES CURATA v. PHILIPPINE PORTS AUTHORITY G.R. Nos. 154211-12, June 22, 2009, VELASCO, JR., J.).
Rule 39, Sec. 10 sets the procedure for execution of judgment for specific acts.
As a general rule, the writ of execution to must conform to the dispositive portion of the decision to be executed; an
execution is void if it is in excess of and beyond the original judgment or award. The settled general principle is that a writ of
execution must conform strictly to every essential particular of the judgment promulgated, and may not vary the terms of the
judgment it seeks to enforce, nor may it go beyond the terms of the judgment sought to be executed.
Nonetheless, a judgment is not confined to what appears on the face of the decision, but extends as well to those
necessarily included therein or necessary thereto. (DHL Philippines Corp. United Rank and File Asso.-Federation of Free
Workers v. Buklod ng Manggagawa DHL Philippines Corp., 478 Phil. 842, 853; Jaban v. Court of Appeals, 421 Phil. 896, 904;
370 SCRA 221, 228 (2001). Thus, in Perez v. Evite, 111 Phil. 564 (1961), where the ownership of a parcel of land was decreed
Res Judicata; Requisites; donation declared void action to quiet title will not prosper anymore.
After the final and executory judgment declaring the donation void, the donee cannot filed an action for quieting of
title against the donor, because of the principle of res judicata. Under the principle of conclusiveness of judgment, such
material fact becomes binding and conclusive on the parties. When a right or fact has been juridically tried and determined by
a court of competent jurisdiction, or when an opportunity for such trial has been given, judgment of the court as long as it
remains unreversed, should be conclusive upon the parties and those in privity with him. Thus, petitioners can no longer
question donor’s ownership over the land in the suit for quieting of title. Simply put, conclusiveness of judgment bars the
relitigation of particular facts or issues in another litigation between the same parties on a different claim or cause of action.
(Tan v. CA, 415 Phil. 675 (2001); Sps. Noceda v. Directo, G.R. No. 178495, July 26, 2010).
Terceria is the remedy if a third party’s property is levied upon to satisfy liability of another.
The remedy of a person whose property is levied upon to satisfy a money judgment against another is terceria. The
reason behind such right is that it is a basic principle of law that money judgments are enforceable only against the property
incontrovertibly belonging to the judgment debtor, and if the property belonging to any third person is mistakenly levied upon
to answer for another man’s indebtedness, such person has all the right to challenge the levy through any of the remedies
provided for under the Rules of Court. Section 16, Rule 39 specifically provides that a third person may avail himself of the
remedies of either terceria, to determine whether the sheriff has rightly or wrongly taken hold of the property not belonging to
the judgment debtor or obligor, or an independent "separate action" to vindicate his claim of ownership and/or possession
over the foreclosed property. However, the person other than the judgment debtor who claims ownership or right over levied
properties is not precluded from taking other legal remedies to prosecute his claim. (Gagoomal v. Villacorta, G.R. No. 192813,
18 January 2012, 663 SCRA 444, 454-455; Villasi v. Garcia, et al., G.R. No. 190106, January 15, 2014).
Res judicata; distinctions between bar by prior judgment from conclusiveness of judgment.
Res judicata has two concepts: (1) bar by prior judgment as enunciated in Rule 39, Section 47 (b) of the Rules of Civil
Procedure; and (2) conclusiveness of judgment in Rule 39, Section 47 (c).
There is bar by prior judgment when, as between the first case where the judgment was rendered, and the second
case that is sought to be barred, there is identity of parties, subject matter, and causes of action. Where there is identity of
parties and subject matter in the first and second cases, but no identity of causes of action, there is conclusiveness of judgment.
The first judgment is conclusive only as to those matters actually and directly controverted and determined, not as to matters
merely involved therein. (RCBC v. Royal Cargo Corp., G.R. No. 179756, October 2, 2009).
APPEAL
Well-settled is that the sheriff’s duty in the execution of a writ is purely ministerial; he is to execute the order of the court
strictly to the letter. He has no discretion whether to execute the judgment or not.
Under said Sec. 19, Rule 70, a judgment on a forcible entry and detainer action is made immediately executory to
avoid further injustice to a lawful possessor. The defendant in such a case may have such judgment stayed only by (a)
perfecting an appeal; (b) filing a supersedeas bond; and (c) making a periodic deposit of the rental or reasonable
compensation for the use and occupancy of the property during the pendency of the appeal. The failure of the defendant to
comply with any of these conditions is a ground for the outright execution of the judgment, the duty of the court in this respect
being ministerial and imperative. Hence, if the defendant-appellant has perfected the appeal but failed to file a supersedeas
bond, the immediate execution of the judgment would automatically follow. (ATTY. VIRGILIO P. ALCONERA v. ALFREDO T.
PALLANAN A.M. No. P-12-3069, January 20, 2014, Velasco, Jr., J.)
In administrative disciplinary cases, an appeal from the OMB’s decision should be taken to the CA under Rule 43, unless
the decision is not appealable owing to the penalty imposed.
The nature of the case before the Office of the Ombudsman (OMB) determines the proper remedy available to the
aggrieved party and with which court it should be filed. In administrative disciplinary cases, an appeal from the OMB’s
decision should be taken to the CA under Rule 43, unless the decision is not appealable owing to the penalty imposed.
In the case at bar, the Ombudsman, in the exercise of his administrative disciplinary jurisdiction had, after due
investigation, adjudged petitioners guilty of grave misconduct and dishonesty and meted the corresponding penalty. Recourse
to the CA via a Rule 43 petition is the proper mode of appeal. Rule 43 governs appeals to the CA from decisions or final orders
of quasi-judicial agencies. (FLOR GUPILAN-AGUILAR, et al. v. OFFICE OF THE OMBUDSMAN, et al., G.R. No. 197307, February
26, 2014, Velasco, Jr., J)
RULE 57 - ATTACHMENT
RULE 58 - INJUNCTION
The injunctive writ is conditioned on the existence of a clear and positive right of the applicant which should be
protected.
A court does not ordinarily issue injunction to prevent foreclosure of a mortgage.
The injunctive writ is conditioned on the existence of a clear and positive right of the applicant which should be
protected, the writ being the strong arm of equity, an extraordinary peremptory remedy which can be availed of only upon the
existence of well-defined circumstances.
In this case, contrary to what the RTC ruled, there was no urgent necessity to issue the writ to protect the rights and
interest of petitioners as owners. First, they could participate in the foreclosure sale and get their property back
unencumbered by the payment of the obligations that they acknowledged in the first place. Second, a foreclosure sale does not
ipso facto pass title to the winning bidder over the mortgaged property. Petitioners continue to own the mortgaged property
sold in an auction sale until the expiration of the redemption period. Third, petitioners have one year from the auction sale to
redeem the mortgaged property. The one-year redemption period is another grace period accorded petitioners to pay the
outstanding debt, which would be converted to the proceeds of the forced sale pursuant to the requisites under Sec. 6 of
Republic Act No. 3135, as amended, for the redemption of a property sold in an extrajudicial sale, also in accordance with Sec.
78 of the General Banking Act, as amended by Presidential Decree No. 1828. It is only upon the expiration of the redemption
period, without the judgment debtors having made use of their right of redemption, does ownership of the land sold become
consolidated in the purchaser or winning bidder. (ST. JAMES COLLEGE OF PARAÑAQUE, et al. v. EQUITABLE PCI BANK, G.R.
No. 179441 August 9, 2010 VELASCO, JR., J)
Petition for declaratory relief is within the RTC’s jurisdiction. SC has no jurisdiction; exception.
Well-settled is the rule that a petition for declaratory relief must be filed with the Regional Trial Court as a rule as
there are issues of facts to be resolved.
The Constitution as the subject matter; and the validity and construction of Section 8(1), Article VIII as the issue
raised, the petition should properly be considered as that which would result in the adjudication of rights sans the execution
process because the only relief to be granted is the very declaration of the rights under the document sought to be construed.
It being so, the original jurisdiction over the petition lies with the appropriate Regional Trial Court (RTC). Notwithstanding
the fact that only questions of law are raised in the petition, an action for declaratory relief is not among those within the
original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court as provided in Section 5, Article VIII of the Constitution.
At any rate, due to its serious implications, not only to government processes involved, but also to the sanctity of the
Constitution, the Court deems it more prudent to take cognizance of it. The SC could have dismissed the petition but due to the
transcendental importance of the issue involved, it took cognizance of the case as an exception. (Francisco Chaves v. Judicial &
Bar Council, et al., G.R. No. 202242, July 17, 2012).
Review of judgments and final orders or resolution of the Comelec and COA
Application of Rule 65 under Rule 64
The Court has consistently held that the phrase "decision, order, or ruling" of constitutional commissions, the
COMELEC included, that may be brought directly to the Supreme Court on certiorari is not all-encompassing, and that it only
relates to those rendered in the commissions' exercise of adjudicatory or quasi-judicial powers. In the case of the COMELEC,
this would limit the provision's coverage to the decisions, orders, or rulings issued pursuant to its authority to be the sole
judge of generally all controversies and contests relating to the elections, returns, and qualifications of elective offices.
Consequently, Rule 64, which complemented the procedural requirement under Article IX-A, Section 7, should likewise be
read in the same sense—that of excluding from its coverage decisions, rulings, and orders rendered by the COMELEC in the
exercise of its administrative functions. In such instances, a Rule 65 petition for certiorari is the proper remedy.
The instant petition revolves around the issue on whether or not Smartmatic JV is eligible to participate in the
bidding process for the COMELEC's procurement of 23,000 units of optical mark readers. The case does not stem from an
election controversy involving the election, qualification, or the returns of an elective office. Hence, Rule 64 is not the proper
remedy. (LEO Y. QUERUBIN, et al. vs. COMMISSION ON ELECTIONS EN BANC, et al., G.R. No. 218787, December 08, 2015,
Velasco, J.)
Petition for mandamus may not be issued to compel the PMA to restore Cadet Cudia’s rights and entitlements as a full-
pledged graduating cadet.
Ejectment; 2 kinds.
An ejectment case can be either for forcible entry or unlawful detainer. It is a summary proceeding designed to
provide expeditious means to protect the actual possession or the right to possession of the property involved. (Barrientos v.
Rapal, G.R. No. 169594, July 20, 2011, 654 SCRA 165, 170). The sole question for resolution in the case is the physical or
material possession (possession de facto) of the property in question, and neither a claim of juridical possession (possession de
jure) nor an averment of ownership by the defendant can outrightly deprive the trial court from taking due cognizance of the
case. Hence, even if the question of ownership is raised in the pleadings, like here, the court may pass upon the issue but only
to determine the question of possession especially if the question of ownership is inseparably linked with the question of
possession. (Pengson v. Ocampo, Jr., G.R. No. 13 1968, June 29, 2001, 360 SCRA 420, 425).The adjudication of ownership in
that instance is merely provisional, and will not bar or prejudice an action between the same parties involving the title to the
property. (Fe U. Quijano v. Amante, G.R. No. 164277, October 8, 2014, Bersamin, J).
Court may issue an order enjoining the execution of the judgment considering the change in the nature of the title of the
lessor during the subsistence of the lease.
It is true that Section 21, Rule 70 of the Rules of Court provides that “the judgment of the Regional Trial Court against
the defendant shall be immediately executory, without prejudice to a further appeal that may be taken therefrom.” However,
it was ruled in Benedicto v. Court of Appeals, G.R. No. 157604, October 19, 2005, 473 SCRA 363, that on appeal the appellate
court may stay the said writ should circumstances require. x x x even if the RTC judgments in unlawful detainer cases are
immediately executory, preliminary injunction may still be granted. (Amagan v. Marayag, 383 Phil 486 [2000] and Vda. De
Legaspi v. Avendano, 169 SCRA 138 [1977]).
In City of Naga v. Asuncion, 557 SCRA 528 (2008), that when exigencies in the case warrant it, the appellate court may
stay the writ of execution issued by the RTC in an action for ejectment if there are circumstances necessitating such action. An
example of such exceptional circumstance can be seen in Laurel v. Abalos, 140 Phil 532 (1969). Therein, a defendant was
ordered by the trial court to vacate the premises of the disputed property and return possession thereof to the plaintiffs, but
while the ejectment case was on appeal, a judgment was promulgated in a separate case where the sale of the property to said
plaintiffs was declared null and void, making the plaintiffs’ right to possess the disputed property inconclusive. The Court
ruled in said case that:
Where the supervening events (occurring subsequent to the judgment) bring about a material
change in the situation of the parties which makes the execution inequitable, or where there is no
compelling urgency for the execution because it is not justified by the prevailing circumstances, the court
may stay immediate execution of the judgment. (La Campana Dev. Corp. v. Ledesma, et. al., G.R. No. 154152,
August 25, 2010, Peralta, J).
Unlawful detainer is within the MTC’s exclusive jurisdiction; boundary dispute is within the jurisdiction of the RTC.
An ejectment case within the original and exclusive jurisdiction of the MTC, decisive are the allegations of the
complaint. But if the allegations do not make out a case for unlawful detainer, but an action reinvindicatoria, the case should
be dismissed without prejudice to the filing of a non-summary action like accion reivindicatoria. A boundary dispute must be
resolved in the context of accion reivindicatoria, not an ejectment case. The boundary dispute is not about possession, but
encroachment, that is, whether the property claimed by the defendant formed part of the plaintiff’s property. A boundary
dispute cannot be settled summarily under Rule 70 of the Rules of Court, the proceedings under which are limited to unlawful
detainer and forcible entry. In unlawful detainer, the defendant unlawfully withholds the possession of the premises upon the
expiration or termination of his right to hold such possession under any contract, express or implied. The defendant’s
possession was lawful at the beginning, becoming unlawful only because of the expiration or termination of his right of
possession. In forcible entry, the possession of the defendant is illegal from the very beginning, and the issue centers on which
between the plaintiff and the defendant had the prior possession de facto. (Manalang v. Bacani, G.R. No. 156995, January 12,
2015)
Contempt
With regard to Erlinda’s authorship of the On the Edge of Heaven, she is found guilty of indirect contempt. Indirect
contempt is a deliberate act to bring the court or judge into disrepute. Her statements pose a different threat to the Courts
repute. Statements such as “Was justice sold?” and “How can the highest court of our land be a party to the break up of my
family and, disregarding the Family Code”, when taken together went beyond the permissible bounds of fair criticism. While
most of her statements were in the form of questions instead of categorical assertions, the effect is still the same: they
constitute a stinging affront to the honor and dignity of the Court and tend to undermine the confidence of the public in the
integrity of the highest tribunal of the land. Litigants, no matter how aggrieved or dissatisfied they may be of court’s decision,
do not have the unbridled freedom in expressing their frustration or grievance in any manner they want. (ERLINDA I.
BILDNER, et al. v. ERLINDA K. ILUSORIO, et al., G.R. No. 157384, June 5, 2009, VELASCO, JR., J)
SPECIAL PROCEEDINGS
Will of a foreigner executed abroad can be probated in the Phils.; no need for prior probate abroad.
Our laws do not prohibit the probate of wills executed by foreigners abroad although the same have not as yet been
probated and allowed in the countries of their execution. A foreign will can be given legal effects in our jurisdiction. Article
816 of the Civil Code states that the will of an alien who is abroad produces effect in the Philippines if made in accordance
with the formalities prescribed by the law of the place where he resides, or according to the formalities observed in his
country.
Section 1, Rule 73 of the 1997 Rules of Civil Procedure provides that if the decedent is an inhabitant of a foreign
country, the RTC of the province where he has an estate may take cognizance of the settlement of such estate. Sections 1 and
2 of Rule 76 further state that the executor, devisee, or legatee named in the will, or any other person interested in the estate,
may, at any time after the death of the testator, petition the court having jurisdiction to have the will allowed, whether the
same be in his possession or not, or is lost or destroyed. (In Re: Palaganas v. Palaganas, G.R. No. 169144, January 26, 2011).
During the pendency of an intestate proceeding, the will of the decedent was produced.
The will must be submitted to probate but the intestate proceeding shall not be dismissed. The two cases shall be
consolidated. The rule is based on the principle that the probate of a will is mandatory and that it will not pass any right until
the will shall have been admitted to probate. Furthermore, there is preference of testacy over intestacy especially so that the
will of the decedent is his voice even after his death.
As a rule, no execution shall issue in a probate proceedings; the rule is not absolute.
As a rule, the probate court does not issue a writ of execution because all claims shall be paid as ordered by the court
in the process of liquidation of the estate where the executor or administrator does in the performance of his duties. The rule
is not however absolute.
The probate court may only issue execution (a) to satisfy debts of the estate out of the contributive shares of
devisees, legatees and heirs in possession of the decedent’s assets (Sec. 6, Rule 88), (b) to enforce payment of the expenses of
partition (Sec. 3, Rule 90), and (c) to satisfy the costs when a person is cited for examination in probate proceedings (Sec. 3,
Rule 142) and (d) where the executor or administrator has possession of share to be delivered and refuses to transfer the
possession to persons entitled. (Sec. 1, Rule 90, Heirs of the Late Fran v. Salas, G.R. No. 53546, June 25, 1992, 210 SCRA 303).
Quasi-contracts are included in claims that should be filed under Rule 86, Sec. 5.
A claim for necessary expenses by a possessor of a parcel of land is a kind of quasi-contract, hence, it should be filed
in the estate proceedings.
A claim for necessary expenses spent as previous possessor of the land is a kind of quasi-contract. Citing Leung Ben v.
O’Brien, it was explained that the term “implied contracts,” as used in our remedial law, originated from the common law
where obligations derived from quasi-contracts and from law are both considered as implied contracts. Thus, the term quasi-
contract is included in the concept “implied contracts” as used in the Rules of Court. Accordingly, liabilities of the deceased
arising from quasi-contracts should be filed as claims in the settlement of his estate, as provided in Section 5, Rule 86 of the
Rules of Court. (Metropolitan Bank & Trust Co. v. Absolute Management Corp., G.R. No. 170498, January 9, 2013, Brion, J).
RULE 67 – EXPROPRIATION
Correction of entries involving first names should be filed with the Local Civil Registrar.
The first name of petitioner and his mother as appearing in his birth certificate can be corrected by the city civil
registrar under R.A. No. 9048. Under Section 1 of R.A. No. 9048, clerical or typographical errors on entries in a civil register
can be corrected and changes of first name can be done by the concerned city civil registrar without need of a judicial order.
Aforesaid Section 1, as amended by R.A. No. 10172 provides that no entry in a civil register shall be changed or corrected
without a judicial order, except for clerical or typographical errors and change of first name or nickname, the day and month
in the date of birth or sex of a person where it is patently clear that there was a clerical or typographical error or mistake in
the entry, which can be corrected or changed by the concerned cityor municipal civil registrar or consul general in accordance
with the provisions of this Act and its implementing rules and regulations.
CRIMINAL PROCEDURE
JURISDICTION AND VENUE
Meaning of the phrase “in relation to their Office” involving crimes committed by public officials and employees.
It means that the offense need not be connected with official duties. It is enough that it is in relation to office. A public
official and employee commits a crime “in relation to their office” if the offense was intimately connected with the office of the
offender and perpetuated while he is in the performance of his official function. Mere allegation in the Information that the
offense was committed by the accused public officer in relation to his office is not sufficient. What is controlling is the specific
factual allegations in the information that would indicate the close intimacy between the discharge of the accused’s official
duties and the commission of the offense charged, in order to qualify the crime as having been committed in relation to public
office.
Allegation of age, relationship between the offender and the offended in rape cases.
No duplicity of information.
If an employee of a corporation received purchase price of several lots from several buyers but misappropriated the
amounts and the corporation and the buyers sue him for estafa separately there is violation of the rule against duplicity of
information.
There is no duplicity in a charge for estafa committed by the accused for misappropriation of the purchase price of
several lots owned by a corporation, which was fraudulently received by the accused from several lot buyers on the pretext
that she was authorized to do so and which she misapplied to her personal use, instead of remitting the money to the owner
corporation. The crime of estafa committed against the corporation and those committed against the lot buyers are definitely
separate felonies. They were dictated by different criminal intents, committed under different modes of commission provided
by the law on estafa, perpetrated by different acts, consummated on different occasions, and caused injury to different parties.
Prescription of offense.
The applicable law on prescription in case of BP Blg. 22 is Act No. 3326 entitled “An Act to Establish Prescription for
Violations of Special Acts and Municipal Ordinances and to Provide When Prescription Shall Begin,” as amended. Appositely,
the law reads:
SECTION 1. Violations penalized by special acts shall, unless otherwise provided in such acts,
prescribe in accordance with the following rules: (a) xxx; (b) after four years for those punished by
imprisonment for more than one month, but less than two years; (c) xxx.
SECTION 2. Prescription shall begin to run from the day of the commission of the violation of the
law, and if the same be not known at the time, from the discovery thereof and the institution of judicial
proceedings for its investigation and punishment.
The prescription shall be interrupted when proceedings are instituted against the guilty person, and
shall begin to run again if the proceedings are dismissed for reasons not constituting jeopardy.
Since BP Blg. 22 is a special law that imposes a penalty of imprisonment of not less than thirty (30) days but not more
than one year or by a fine for its violation, it therefor prescribes in four (4) years. The running of the prescriptive period,
however, should be tolled upon the institution of proceedings against the guilty person.
In the old but oft-cited case of People v. Olarte, G.R. No. L-22465, February 28, 1967, 19 SCRA 694, the Court ruled that
the filing of the complaint in the Municipal Court even if it be merely for purposes of preliminary examination or investigation,
should, and thus, interrupt the period of prescription of the criminal responsibility, even if the court where the complaint or
information is filed cannot try the case on the merits. This ruling was broadened by the Court in the case of Francisco, et.al. v.
Court of Appeals, et. al., 207 Phil. 471 (1983), when it held that the filing of the complaint with the Fiscal’s Office also suspends
the running of the prescriptive period of a criminal offense. (People v. Pangilinan, G.R. No. 152662, June 13, 2012),
Effect if accused was granted immunity from prosecution but charged in the information.
The filing of the criminal action against an accused in court does not prevent the Ombudsman from exercising the
power that the Congress has granted him. Section 17 of R.A. 6770 provides that the Ombudsman may grant immunity from
criminal prosecution to any person whose testimony or whose possession and production of documents or other evidence
may be necessary to determine the truth in any hearing, inquiry or proceeding being conducted by the Ombudsman or under
its authority, in the performance or in the furtherance of its constitutional functions and statutory objectives. The immunity
granted shall not exempt the witness from criminal prosecution for perjury or false testimony nor shall he be exempt from
demotion or removal from office.
The authority enables the Ombudsman to carry out his constitutional mandate to ensure accountability in the public
service. (Quarto v. Marcelo, G.R. No. 169042, October 5, 2011, 658 SCRA 580). It gives the Ombudsman wide latitude in using
an accused discharged from the information to increase the chances of conviction of the other accused and attain a higher
prosecutorial goal. (Mapa, Jr. v. Sandiganbayan, G.R. No. 100295, April 26, 1994, 231 SCRA 783). Immunity statutes seek to
provide a balance between the state’s interests and the individual’s right against self-incrimination. To secure his testimony
without exposing him to the risk of prosecution, the law recognizes that the witness can be given immunity from prosecution.
In such case, both interests and rights are satisfied. (People v. The Hon. SB, et al., G.R. No. 185729-32, June 26, 2013).
Validity of the creation of the Joint Panel of the COMELEC and DOJ in conducting preliminary investigation on the
electoral sabotage filed against them.
The Constitution does not vest on the COMELEC exclusive power to investigate and prosecute cases of violations of
election laws. Under the present law, the COMELEC and other prosecuting arms of the government, such as the DOJ, now
exercise concurrent jurisdiction in the investigation and prosecution of election offenses. (RA 9369, Sec. 43).
The creation of a Joint Committee is not repugnant to the concept of “concurrent jurisdiction” authorized by the
amendatory law. (Arroyo v. DOJ, et al., G.R. No. 199082, and Abalos v. De Lima, et al., G.R. No. 199085; Arroyo v. COMELEC, et
al., G.R. No. 199118, July 23, 2013, Peralta, J).
In People v. Hon. Yadao, G.R. Nos. 162144-154, November 13, 2012, 685 SCRA 264, it was said:
“Section 6, Rule 112 of the Rules of Court gives the trial court three options upon the filing of the
criminal information: (1) dismiss the case if the evidence on record clearly failed to establish probable cause;
(2) issue a warrant of arrest if it finds probable cause; and (3) order the prosecutor to present additional
evidence within five days from notice in case of doubt as to the existence of probable cause.
But the option to order the prosecutor to present additional evidence is not mandatory. The court’s
first option under the above is for it to “immediately dismiss the case if the evidence on record clearly fails to
establish probable cause.” That is the situation here: the evidence on record clearly fails to establish probable
cause against the respondents.
It is also settled that “once a complaint or information is filed in court, any disposition of the case, whether as to its
dismissal or the conviction or the acquittal of the accused, rests in the sound discretion of the court.” (Leviste v. Alameda, G.R.
No. 182677, August 3, 2010, 626 SCRA 575, 598, citing Galvez v. Court of Appeals, G.R. No. 114046, October 24, 1994, 237
SCRA 685; Mendoza vs. People, et al., G.R. No. 197293, April 21, 2014, Leonen, J).
Meaning of personal knowledge of commission of crime; does not include person’s reputation or past criminal citations.
Previous criminal records of an accused are sufficient to cause his arrest within the meaning of personal knowledge of
facts and circumstances that accused committed an offense. Such concept must be strictly construed. (People v. Tudtud, 458
Phil. 752 [2003]).
A previous arrest or existing criminal record, even for the same offense, will not suffice to satisfy the exacting
requirements provided under Section 5, Rule 113 in order to justify a lawful warrantless arrest. “Personal knowledge” of the
arresting officer that a crime had in fact just been committed is required. To interpret “personal knowledge” as referring to a
person’s reputation or past criminal citations would create a dangerous precedent and unnecessarily stretch the authority
and power of police
officers to effect warrantless arrests based solely on knowledge of a person’s previous criminal infractions, rendering
nugatory the rigorous requisites laid out under Section 5.
An accused’s acts of walking along the street and holding something in his hands, even if they appeared to be
dubious, coupled with his previous criminal charge for the same offense, are not by themselves sufficient to incite suspicion of
Application for bail where the accused is charged with a crime punishableby reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment;
indispensable requirements.
Where the accused is charged with a capital offense which, under the law at the time of the application for bail is
punishable by death or reclusion perpetua, and the accused files an application for bail, give reasonable notice of the hearing to
the prosecutor or require him to submit his/her recommendation. The petition for bail must be filed before the court where
the case is pending since bail is a matter of discretion. (Borniaga v. Hon. Tamino). There must be a hearing. Evidence of guilt
must be strong. Prosecution must be given full opportunity to present evidence. The Court may not grant bail simply for the
refusal of the prosecutor to adduce evidence in opposition to the application for bail, but may ask the prosecution such
questions as would ascertain the strength of the State’s evidence or judge the adequacy of the amount of the bail.
No constructive bail.
Sec. 17, Rule 114 of the Revised Rules on Criminal Procedure allows that any person in custody who is not yet
charged in court may apply for bail with any court in the province, city or municipality where he is held. In the case at bar, The
accused did not file any application or petition for the grant of bail with the RTC. Despite the absence of any written
application, respondent judge verbally granted bail to The accused. This is a clear deviation from the procedure laid down in
Sec. 17 of Rule 114.
As regards the insistence of the Judge that such may be considered as constructive bail, there is no such species of
bail under the Rules. Despite the noblest of reasons, the Rules of Court may not be ignored at will and at random to the
prejudice of the rights of another. (GAUDENCIO B. PANTILO III v. JUDGE VICTOR A. CANOY, A.M. No. RTJ-11-2262, February 9,
2011, Velasco, Jr., J)
Effect if a case of rape, the court ordered the accused to present evidence ahead of the prosecution.
It violated the right of the accused to be presumed innocent and the right to due process. In fact, it violated the order
of presentation of evidence. The accused has the right to take the witness stand and that right carries with it the right not to
take the witness stand. (Alejandro vs. Pepito, 92 SCRA). Under the Rules of Court, however, where the accused admitted his
guilt but interposed the defense of justifying and exempting circumstances, the order of trial would be reversed. (Rule 119,
Rules of Court).
The rationale behind the rule is that the courts must proceed with more care where the possible punishment is in its
severest form, namely death (now reclusion perpetua), for the reason that the execution of such a sentence is irreversible. The
primordial purpose is to avoid improvident pleas of guilt on the part of an accused where grave crimes are involved since he
might be admitting his guilt before the court and thus forfeiting his life and liberty without having fully understood the
meaning, significance and consequence of his plea. (People v. Ernas, 455 Phil. 829 [2003]). Moreover, the requirement of
taking further evidence would aid the Court on appellate review in determining the propriety or impropriety of the plea.
(People v. Pastor, 428 Phil. 976 [2002]; People v. Gambao, et al., G.R. No. 172707, October 1, 2013).
Requirement of conduct of searching questions not satisfied if it was counsel who explained the consequences of plea.
The requirement to conduct a searching inquiry should not be deemed satisfied in cases in which it was the defense
counsel who explained the consequences of a “guilty” plea to the accused. In People v. Alborida, the Court found that there was
still an improvident plea of guilty, even if the accused had already signified in open court that his counsel had explained the
consequences of the guilty plea; that he understood the explanation of his counsel; that the accused understood that the
penalty of death would still be meted out to him; and that he had not been intimidated, bribed, or threatened. (G.R. No.
136382, June 25, 2001, 359 SCRA 495).
The conduct of a searching inquiry remains the duty of judges, as they are mandated by the rules to satisfy
themselves that the accused had not been under coercion or duress; mistaken impressions; or a misunderstanding of the
significance, effects, and consequences of their guilty plea. (People v. Dayot, 187 SCRA 637 (1990)). This requirement is
stringent and mandatory. (People v. Galvez, 378 SCRA 389 (2002); People v. Khaddafy Janjalani, et al., G.R. No. 188314,
January 10, 2011).
Remedy where accused is not brought to trial within the time limit.
If the accused is not brought to trial within the time limit required by Section 1(g), Rule 116 and Section 1, as
extended by Section 6 of this Rule, the Information may be dismissed on motion of the accused on the ground of denial of his
right to speedy trial. The accused shall have the burden of proving the motion, but the prosecution shall have the burden of
going forward with the evidence to establish the exclusion of time under Section 3 of this Rule. The dismissal shall be subject
to the rules on double jeopardy. Failure of the accused to move for dismissal prior to trial shall constitute a waiver of the right
to dismiss under this Section. (See: Perez; Nacionales; Tatad; Binay).
What are the particular overt acts which constitute the “combination”?
What are the particular overt acts which constitute the “series”?
Who committed those acts?
The SC ruled that Enrile is entitled to a bill of particulars.
Plunder is the crime committed by public officers when they amass wealth involving at least P50 million by means of
a combination or series of overt acts. Under these terms, it is not sufficient to simply allege that the amount of ill-gotten
wealth amassed amounted to at least P50 million; the manner of amassing the ill-gotten wealth – whether through a
combination or series of overts acts under Section 1(d) of R.A. No. 7080 – is an important element that must be alleged.
When the Plunder Law speaks of “combination,” it refers to at least two (2) acts falling under different categories
listed in Section 1, paragraph (d) of R.A. No. 7080 [for example, raids on the public treasury under Section 1, paragraph (d),
subparagraph (1), and fraudulent conveyance of assets belonging to the National Government under Section 1, paragraph (d),
subparagraph (3)].
On the other hand, to constitute a “series” there must be two (2) or more overt or criminal acts falling under the
same category of enumeration found in Section 1, paragraph (d) [for example, misappropriation, malversation and raids on
the public treasury, all of which fall under Section 1, paragraph (d), subparagraph (1)]. (Estrada v. Sandiganbayan, 421 Phil.
290, 351 [2001]).
The prosecution employed a generalized or shotgun approach in alleging the criminal overt acts allegedly
committed by Enrile. This approach rendered the allegations of the paragraph uncertain to the point of ambiguity for
purposes of enabling Enrile to respond and prepare for his defense.
The heart of the Plunder Law lies in the phrase “combination or series of overt or criminal acts.” Hence, even if the
accumulated ill-gotten wealth amounts to at least P50 million, a person cannot be prosecuted for the crime of plunder if
this resulted from a single criminal act. This interpretation of the Plunder Law is very clear from the congressional
deliberations.
Considering that without a number of overt or criminal acts, there can be no crime of plunder, the various overt acts
that constitute the “combination” and “series” the Information alleged, are material facts that should not only be alleged, but
must be stated with sufficient definiteness so that the accused would know what he is specifically charged with and why he
stands charged, so that he could properly defend himself against the charges. (Juan Ponce Enrile v. Sandiganbayan and People,
G.R. No. 213847, August 18, 2015, Bersamin, J)
Once court granted demurrer to evidence, appeal from the order would put the accused in double jeopardy.
Well-settled is the rule that if accused is acquitted on a demurrer to evidence, the State cannot appeal, otherwise the
accused would be put to double jeopardy. As a rule, once the court grants the demurrer, the grant amounts to an acquittal; any
further prosecution of the accused would violate the constitutional proscription on double jeopardy (People v. SB, G.R. No.
164185, July 23, 2008, 559 SCRA 449). Notably, the proscription against double jeopardy only envisages appeals based on
errors of judgment, but not errors of jurisdiction. Jurisprudence recognizes two grounds where double jeopardy will not
attach, these are: (i) on the ground of grave abuse of discretion amounting to lack or excess of jurisdiction (People v. SB, 491
SCRA 185 [2006]), and/or (ii) where there is a denial of a party’s due process rights (People v. Velasco, G.R. No. 127444,
September 13, 2000, 340 SCRA 207). If either or both grounds are established, the judgment of acquittal is considered void; as
a void judgment, it is legally inexistent and does not have the effect of an acquittal. Thus, the defense of double jeopardy will
not lie in such a case (People v. Hernandez, G.R. No. 154218 & 154372, August 28, 2006, 499 SCRA 688).
A review of a dismissal order of the Sandiganbayan granting an accused’s demurrer to evidence may be done via the
special civil action of certiorari under Rule 65, based on the narrow ground of grave abuse of discretion amounting to lack or
excess of jurisdiction (People v. Laguio, Jr., G.R. No. 1288587, March 16, 2007, 518 SCRA 393). Mere allegations of grave abuse
of discretion, however, are not enough to establish this ground; so also, mere abuse of discretion is not sufficient (Marcelo B.
Gananden, Oscar B. Mina, Jose M. Bautista and Ernesto H. Narcisco, Jr. v. Honorable Office of the Ombudsman and Robert K.
Humiwat, G.R. Nos. 169359-61, June 1, 2011; People v. SB, et al. (G.R. Nos. 153304-05, February 7, 2012).
Demurrer to evidence without leave of court; accused waives right to present evidence if denied; includes civil liability.
When accused filed a demurrer to evidence without leave of court, the whole case was submitted for judgment on the
basis of the evidence presented by the prosecution as the accused is deemed to have waived the right to present evidence. At
that juncture, the court is called upon to decide the case including its civil aspect. (Hun Hyung Park v. Eung Won Choi, G.R. No.
165496, February 12, 2007, 515 SCRA 502; Alferez v. People, et al., G.R. No. 182301, January 31, 2011).
If he refuses to testify or recants – he can be charged. The affidavit/admissions are admissible against him. If motion
to discharged denied – affidavit not admissible in evidence.
Effect if accused fails to appear at promulgation; warrant of arrest; mere notice of appeal is not considered as
surrender.
State cannot appeal from an order granting demurrer to evidence; double jeopardy.
The prosecution cannot appeal from a ruling granting the demurrer to evidence of the accused as it is equivalent to an
acquittal, unless the prosecution can sufficiently prove that the court’s action is attended with grave abuse of
discretion. Otherwise, the constitutional right of the accused against double jeopardy will be violated.
The rule barring an appeal from a judgment of acquittal is, however, not absolute. The following are the recognized
exceptions thereto: (i) when the prosecution is denied due process of law; (Galman v. SB, 144 SCRA 43 (1986)) and (ii) when
the trial court commits grave abuse of discretion amounting to lack or excess of jurisdiction in dismissing a criminal case by
granting the accused’ demurrer to evidence. (People v. Uy, G.R. No. 158157, September 30, 2005, 471 SCRA 668; People v. SB,
et al., G.R. No. 164577, July 5, 2010).
The essence of the crime penalized under PD 1866, as amended, is primarily the accused’s lack of license or permit to
carry or possess the firearm, as possession itself is not prohibited by law. In the instant case, the prosecution was able to
prove that petitioner had no license or permit to possess the seized contraband as shown by a certification that he had no
license.
The contents, authenticity, and import of the above certification were admitted during the hearing by petitioner,
thereby dispensing with the testimony of the issuing officer, SPO1 Regis. Under Section 4 of Rule 129 of the Revised Rules on
Evidence, "[A]n admission, verbal or written, made by a party in the course of the proceedings in the same case, does not
require proof. The admission may be contradicted only by showing that it was made through palpable mistake or that no such
admission was made." Clearly, petitioner cannot take a contrary or different position considering that he has made an express
admission of the Certification, which does not require proof and cannot be contradicted because there is no previous evidence
that the admission was made through palpable mistake. After admitting it, he cannot now assail that said certification has not
been properly identified. Besides, he has had several occasions to present proof that he was licensed to possess firearms. Yet,
even in this late stage he has not. (CAYETANO CAPANGPANGAN v. PEOPLE OF THE PHILIPPINES, G.R. No. 150251, November
23, 2007, Velasco. Jr., J)
Res gestae.
If after the rape and killing of a young girl, the accused admitted to the barangay officials and tanods that he was the
one who committed the crime such admission is admissible as an exception to the hearsay rule. Accused’s statements infront
of the barangay officials are admissible for being part of the res gestae. Under the Revised Rules on Evidence (Rule 130, Sec.
4), a declaration is deemed part of the res gestae and admissible in evidence as an exception to the hearsay rule when the
following requisites concur: (1) the principal act, the res gestae, is a startling occurrence; (2) the statements were made before
the declarant had time to contrive or devise; and (3) the statements must concern the occurrence in question and its
immediately attending circumstances. All these requisites are present in this case. He had just been through a startling and
gruesome occurrence, victim’s death. His admission was made while he was still under the influence of said startling
occurrence and before he had an opportunity to concoct or contrive a story. In addition, he was still under the influence of
alcohol at that time, having engaged in a drinking spree. His confession concerned the rape and killing of the victim. His
spontaneous statements made to private persons, not agents of the State or law enforcers, are not covered by the
constitutional safeguards on custodial investigation and, as res gestae, admissible in evidence against him. (People v. Tirso
Sace, G.R. NO. 178063, April 5, 2010).
Offer of Evidence
“When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or cannot be produced in court, the offeror, upon proof of
its execution or existence and the cause of the unavailability without bad faith on his part, may prove its contents by a copy, or
by a recital of its contents in some authentic document, or by the testimony of witnesses in the order stated.” (Dycoco v.
Grafilo, et al., G.R. No. 184843, July 30, 2010).
Doctrine of equipoise.
Where the evidence on an issue of fact is in question or there is doubt on which side the evidence weighs, the doubt
should be resolved in favor of the accused. If inculpatory facts and circumstances are capable of two or more explanations, one
consistent with the innocence of the accused and the other consistent with his guilt, then the evidence does not fulfill the test
of moral certainty and will not justify a conviction. (People v. Lagmay, 365 Phil. 606, 633 [1999]; Amanquiton v. People, G.R.
No. 186080, August 14, 2009).
Handwriting experts.
Handwriting experts, while useful, are not indispensable in examining or comparing handwritings or signatures.
(Section 22 of Rule 132 of the Rules of Court).
Section 50 of Rule 130 of the Rules of Court allows the reception of the opinion of a witness, like Judge Laviña, for
which proper basis is given, as evidence regarding a handwriting with which he has sufficient familiarity. (Progressive Trade
Services Ent. V. Antonio, G.R. No. 179502, September 18, 2009).
Parol evidence forbids the addition or contradiction of the terms of the instrument.
Parol evidence rule forbids any addition to or contradiction of the terms of a written instrument by testimony or
other evidence purporting to show that, “at or before” the execution of the parties’ written agreement, other or different terms
were agreed upon by the parties, varying the purport of the written contract. Notably, the claimed verbal agreement was
agreed upon not prior to but “subsequent to” the written agreement. The validity of the written agreement is not the matter
which is being put in issue here. What is questioned is the validity of the claim that a subsequent verbal agreement was agreed
upon by the parties after the execution of the written agreement which substantially modified their earlier written agreement.
(Raymundo, et al. v. Lunaria, et al., G.R. No. 171036, October 17, 2008).
Recantation of witness.
As a rule, a recantation or an affidavit of desistance is viewed with suspicion and reservation. Jurisprudence has
invariably regarded such affidavit as exceedingly unreliable, because it can easily be secured from a poor and ignorant
witness, usually through intimidation or for monetary consideration. Moreover, there is always the probability that it would
later on be repudiated, and criminal prosecution would thus be interminable. An affidavit of desistance or pardon is not a
ground for the dismissal of an action, once it has been instituted in court. In the present case, private complainant lost the
right or absolute privilege to decide whether the rape charge should proceed, because the case had already reached and must
therefore continue to be heard by the court a quo. (People of the Philippines v. Demetrio Salazar, G.R. No. 181900, October 20,
2010, Velasco, JR, J)
Nature of an interview of the accused with the media about the commission of a crime and the guidelines on its
admission in evidence
Interview by media men does not form part of custodial investigation, however, because of the inherent danger in the
use of television as a medium for admitting one’s guilt, and the recurrence of this phenomenon in several cases, it is prudent
that trial courts are reminded that extreme caution must be taken in further admitting similar confessions. For in all
probability, the police with the connivance of unscrupulous media practitioners, may attempt to legitimize coerced
extrajudicial confessions and place them beyond the exclusionary rule by having an accused admit an offense on television.
Nature of the Vallejo standards in assessing the probative value of DNA evidence.
The Vallejo standard refers to jurisprudential norms considered by the court in assessing the probative value of DNA
evidence.
In People v. Vallejo, G.R. No. 144656, May 9, 2002, 382 SCRA 192, it was held that in assessing the probative value of
DNA evidence, courts should consider, among other things, the following data: how the samples were collected, how they
were handled, the possibility of contamination of the samples, the procedure followed in analyzing the samples, whether the
proper standards and procedures were followed in conducting the tests, and the qualification of the analyst who conducted
the tests.
CHAIN OF CUSTODY
Circumstantial evidence.
For circumstantial evidence to be sufficient to support a conviction, all the circumstances must be consistent with
each other, consistent with the hypothesis that accused is guilty and at the same time inconsistent with the hypothesis that he
is innocent, and with every other rational hypothesis except that of guilt. If the prosecution adduced the requisite
circumstantial evidence to prove the guilt of accused beyond reasonable doubt, the burden of evidence shifts to the accused to
controvert the evidence of the prosecution. (PEOPLE OF THE PHILIPPINES vs. CARLITO PABOL, G.R. No. 187084 October 12,
2009 J. Velasco)
In this case, the prosecution has successfully established the following circumstances and facts that, when taken
together, very well constitute evidence of guilt beyond reasonable doubt, to wit: (1) appellant having met AAA on the latter’s
way to school and hitting her on the face; (2) the positive identification of appellant as the person she met while she was on
her way to school; (3) appellant then hugging AAA from behind, sitting her on his lap and striking her breast with a piece of
stone; (4) AAA shouting for help and appellant covering her mouth; (5) appellant hitting AAA until she lost consciousness and
then dragging her body to the side of the road; (6) AAA waking up two hours later to discover that her ears had been sliced,
her blouse opened, and her underwear stained with her own blood; (7) AAA feeling pain in her private part after the incident;
and (8) AAA sustaining hymenal laceration. Given the foregoing circumstances, there is no other conclusion that we can make
with moral certainty other than that appellant raped the victim.
Chain of custody, in relation to Section 21 of the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
The failure of the prosecution to show that the police officers conducted the required physical inventory and
photograph of the evidence confiscated pursuant to said guidelines, is not fatal and does not automatically render accused-
appellant’s arrest illegal or the items seized/confiscated from him inadmissible. Indeed, the implementing rules offer some
flexibility when a proviso added that “non-compliance with these requirements under justifiable grounds, as long as the
integrity and the evidentiary value of the seized items are properly preserved by the apprehending officer/team, shall not
render void and invalid such seizures of and custody over said items.” The same provision clearly states as well, that it must
still be shown that there exists justifiable grounds and proof that the integrity and evidentiary value of the evidence have been
preserved.
Here, accused-appellant does not question the unbroken chain of evidence. His only contention is that the buy-bust
team did not inventory and photograph the specimen on site and in the presence of accused-appellant or his counsel, a
representative from the media and the Department of Justice, and any elected public official. However, as ruled by the Court in
Rosialda, as long as the chain of custody remains unbroken, even though the procedural requirements provided for in Sec. 21
WRIT OF AMPARO
The writ of habeas data is not only confined to cases of extralegal killings and enforced disappearances
Writ of Habeas Data was not enacted solely for the purpose of complementing the Writ of Amparo in cases of
extralegal killings and enforced disappearances.
Habeas data, to stress, was designed “to safeguard individual freedom from abuse in the information age.”As such, it
is erroneous to limit its applicability to extralegal killings and enforced disappearances only.
The writ of habeas data, however, can be availed of as an independent remedy to enforce one’s right to
privacy, more specifically the right to informational privacy. The remedies against the
violation of such right can include the updating, rectification, suppression or destruction of the database or information or
files in possession or in control of respondents.
Clearly then, the privilege of the Writ of Habeas Data may also be availed of in cases outside of extralegal killings and
enforced disappearances. (Rhonda Ave S. Vivares, etal. V. St. Theresa’s Colleges, et al., G.R. No. 202666, September 29, 2014,
Velasco, J).
A party filing a petition for a writ of kalikasan need not be a person directly affected by the environmental disaster.
The condominium corporation is the management body of West Tower and deals with everything that may affect
some or all of the condominium unit owners or users. As to the residents of Barangay Bangkal, they are similarly situated with
the unit owners and residents of West Tower and are real parties-in-interest to the instant case. The other organizations in
the case at bar are also considered real parties-in-interest. This is so considering that the filing of a petition for the issuance of
a writ of kalikasan under Sec. 1, Rule 7 of the Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases does not require that a petitioner be
directly affected by an environmental disaster. The rule clearly allows juridical persons to file the petition on behalf of persons
whose constitutional right to a balanced and healthful ecology is violated, or threatened with violation. (WEST TOWER
CONDOMINIUM CORPORATION, ET. AL. V. FIRST PHILIPPINE INDUSTRIAL CORPORATION, G.R. No. 194239, June 16, 2015,
VELASCO, JR., J)
CHILD AS WITNESS
ELECTRONIC EVIDENCE
DNA
BILL OF PARTICULARS
God Bless