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Department Of Electronics and Electrical Engineering

Question Bank-Code: EC 203 (Electronics Measurement & Instrumentations)


3rd Semester, Electronics and Communication Engg

CHAPTER 1
ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTS

Q1. What are the advantages of TVM’s over conventional meters?

Q2. Why is an electronic voltmeter more accurate than an ordinary voltmeter? Draw its
block diagram and explain its principle of operation.

Q3. Discuss in detail the principle of operation of electronic voltmeter with the help of a
circuit diagram.

Q4. Describe the construction and working of an electronic voltmeter.

Q5. Draw the block diagram of an electronic voltmeter and explain its working.

Q6. Compare the merits and demerits of TVMs over VTMs. Explain the principle of
operation of VTVM using triode.
Q7 Draw the circuit diagram of a vacuum tube voltmeter (VTVM) using differential
amplifiers in the common cathode mode and permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC)
instrument as the output meter. Show that the instrument can give a linear scale.

Q8. Explain the working of Q-meter.

Q9. Describe how power is measured at audio frequencies?

Q10. Write short notes on the following:


(i). Electronic voltmeters.
(ii). VTVM.
(iii). Q-meter.

Q11. Why are electronic instruments becoming more and more popular inspite of the fact that
these instruments are costlier in comparison to electrical instruments?

Q12. Why are TVMs preferred over VTVMs?

Q13. How do we get scale of average reading voltmeter using vacuum tube diode uniform
and independent of variations of tube plate resistance?

Q14. Why is dc amplifier associated with diode rectifier in peak reading ac voltmeters
provided with stabilizing means?

Q15. What is Q-factor of the coil and why a coil of high Q is preferred over a coil of low Q?

Q16. What is Q-meter and on what principle does it operate?

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Q17. How does the distributed capacitance affect the effective value of Q of a coil?

Q18. What is the difference between a CRT and CRO? Draw a neat block diagram of a
general purpose CRO and explain functions of each block.

Q19. Draw block diagram of a CRO and explain the function of each block.

Q20. Draw and explain the construction of CRT.

Q21. With the help of a neat sketch describe the construction and working of various parts of
a cathode ray tube.

Q22. Derive an expression for the vertical deflection on the screen of a cathode ray tube in
terms of length of plates, separation distance, accelerating voltage, deflecting voltage
and distance of screen from the origin.

Q23. Describe the functions of the essential components of a CRO with the help of block
diagram. How the sensitivity of a CR tube is rated? How would you use CRO to
measure phase difference of two sinusoidal signals?

Q24. Explain with block diagram the various parts of a CRT. What extra components are
needed to make it a CRO? Explain how would you measure frequency using a CRO.

Q25. Discuss the various applications of oscilloscope for the measurement of voltage,
current, phase angle and frequency.

Q26. Explain how the following are determined from the trace on a CRT.
(i). the rms value of a sine wave and
(ii). the phase difference between two voltages of the same frequency.

Q27. Explain how the applied voltage wave is displayed on the screen of a cathode ray tube.
Sketch the same.

Q28. What are the various applications of a cathode ray oscilloscope?

Q29. With the help of a sketch, describe the principle of operation of a cathode ray
oscilloscope. Give the applications in the field of measurements.

Q30. Write short notes on the following:


(i). Cathode ray oscilloscope.
(ii). Cathode ray tube.
(iii). Basic controls of a CRO.

31. Write short notes on the following:


(i). Measurement of phase difference and frequency of sinusoidal voltage signals with
CRO.
(ii). Measurement of voltage and current with CRO.
(iii). Measurement of dielectric loss with CRO.

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Q32. Why a CRO is considered one of the most important tools in the design and
development of modern electronic circuits?

Q33. Why a CRT is considered the heart of the oscilloscope?

Q34. For what vertical and horizontal plates are provided in a CRO?

Q35. For what a triggering circuit is provided in a CRO?

Q36. For what electron gun assembly is provided in a CRT?

Q37. Why is the grid in a CRO provided with a hole in it?

Q38. Why is the focusing system of a CRO named as an electrostatic lens?

Q39. What is meant by the deflection sensitivity of a CRO?

Q40. What is meant by the deflection factor of a CRO?

Q41. Why is the screen of a CRT coated with phosphor?

Q42. Why are the inner walls of a CRT between neck and screen coated with conducting
material?

Q43. How is phase difference between two voltages of same frequency measured with a
CRO?

Q44. How is frequency of a voltage signal measured with a CRO?

Q45. How is an ac voltage measured with CRO?

Q46. How is iron losses measured with a CRO?

Q47. Discuss the problems associated with measurement of resistance, inductance and
capacitance at high frequencies.

Q48. Describe the resonance method for measurement of inductance at high frequencies.
Discuss the assumptions made. How is the effect of additional capacitances in the
tuning capacitor taken care of?

Q49. Describe the method of measurement of capacitance at high frequencies using


resonance method.

Q50. Discuss the following two methods of measurement of effective resistance of a coil at
high frequencies
(i). Resistance variation method
(ii). Reactance variation method

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Q51. Describe the following methods of measuring effective resistance of a coil using
resonance method: -
(i). Variation of capacitance.
(ii). Variation of frequency.

Q52. Describe the circuit and working of a Q-meter. Describe its applications.

Q53. Describe the measurement of following using a Q-meter: -


(i). Q-factor.
(ii). Inductance.
(iii). Effective resistance.
(iv). Self-capacitance.
(v). Band width.
(vi). Capacitance.

Q54. A capacitance of 250 pF produces resonance with a coil at a frequency of (2/π)×106 Hz,
while at the second harmonic of this frequency resonance is produced by a capacitance
of 50 pF. Calculate: (a) the self-capacitance, and (b) the inductance of the coil. Neglect
the effect of voltmeter capacitance and also other stray capacitances.

Q55. A coil of inductance L is tuned by a capacitance C to resonate at 1 MHz. A standard


capacitor of 230 pF is tuned to resonate with the same coil at 2 MHz. If the resonance is
indicated by a VTVM of capacitance 8 pF in parallel with the circuit, calculate the
values of L and C.

Q56. A constant rms voltage of frequency 3 MHz is applied to a coil of inductance L and
resistance R, a calibrated variable capacitor C, and a thermo junction all in series. The
uncalibrated ammeter is found to show the same scale reading I for the two values of C-
namely 37 and 45 pF, one being below and the other above the capacitance C0 needed
to produce maximum current.
The capacitor is now adjusted to a value C0, and an added series resistance of 75Ω is
found to reduce the current to previous value of I. Determine values of L and R.

Q57. Calculate the Q-factor and effective resistance of a circuit tuned to a frequency of 1.5
MHz and having an effective resistance of 150 pF. In this circuit the current falls to
70.7% of its resonant value when the frequency of an emf of constant magnitude
injected in series with the circuit deviates from the resonant frequency by 5 KHz.

Q58. The vacuum tube volt meter (VTVM) has been designed for 1.0 dc output. The input
impedance is specified as 1MΩ. Discuss how you can incorporate 10 V and 100V
multi-range facilities in the instrument.

Q59. With a suitable standard coil connected to a Q-meter resonance is obtained with a
frequency f1 with resonating capacitor set at C1; the indicated Q-factor is Q1. Unknown
impedance is connected in series with the standard coil and resonance is re-established
by re-setting the resonance capacitor at C2, the corresponding Q-factor being Q2.
Determine (i) the resistive and (ii) reactive components of the unknown impedance
when C1=208 pF Q1=80, C2= 184pF and Q2=50. The frequency is 165 kHz.

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Q60. A coil is tuned to resonance at 500 KHz with a resonating capacitance of 36 µµF. At
250 kHz the resonance is obtained with a resonating capacitance of 160 µµF. Determine
the self-capacitance and inductance of the coil.

Q61. A coil of resistance 5ΩI is connected in the circuit shown in fig.1 and resonance occurs
when oscillator frequency is500 kHz and the resonating capacitor is set at 120 pF.
Determine the percentage error introduced in the calculated value of Q if a resistance of
0.02Ω is used across the oscillatory circuit.
Q62. Tests using a Q-meter, on a radio-tuning coil to establish the self-capacitance, gave the
following results.
(i) With the radio coil connected normally resonance was obtained at 800 kHz
with the tuning capacitor of the Q-meter set at 95 pF.
(ii) With a standard inductor connected in place of radio coil, resonance was
obtained at 2.5 MHz and this condition was not changed when the radio
coil was connected in parallel with the standard inductor. Determine the
self-capacitance of the radio coil.

Q63. A circuit consisting of an unknown coil, a resistance and a variable capacitor connected
in series is tuned to resonance using a Q-meter. If th3e frequency is 450 kHz and the
resonating capacitor is set at 250pF, determine the effective inductance and resistance
of unknown coil. The Q-meter indicates 105 and the resistance is 0.75Ω.

Q64. A coil is tuned to resonance at 1 MHz with a resonating capacitance of 480pF. At 2


MHz the resonance is obtained with a resonating capacitance of 120 pF. Determine (i)
the self-capacitance of the coil (ii) true and indicated values of Q when R=10Ω for both
the measurements.

Q65. Two sets of measurements were carried out for measuring Q of a coil connected across
the test terminals of the Q- meter.
(i) F1=2Hz, C1=450pF
(ii) F2= 4Hz, C2=90 pF
Determine the distributed capacitance of the coil.

Q66. Determine the percentage error in Q- measurement introduced by 0.02Ω insertion


resistances. The resonating capacitor is 135pF and oscillator frequency at resonance is
3MHz. The resistance of the coil is 10Ω.

Q67. The following observations were made while testing a high Q-factor coil by means of a
circuit magnification meter:
(i) With the test coil connected to the inductor terminals, resonance was obtained
with the resonating capacitance of 380 pF at a frequency of 1 MHZ.
(ii) With the standard coil connected to the inductor terminals, it was found that,
at a frequency of 9.6 MHz connecting the test coil parallel with the
standard coil did not change resonance. Determine the distributed
capacitance of the coil under test.

Q68. Calculate the maximum velocity of a beam of electrons in a CRT having a anode
voltage of 800 volt. Assume that electrons to leave the cathode with 0 velocity. Charge
of electron = 1.6×10-19 C and mass of electron=9.1×10-31 kg.

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Q69. An electrically deflected CRT has a final anode voltage of 2000V and parallel
deflecting plates 1.5 cm long and 5mm apart. If the screen is 50cm from the center of
deflecting plates, find (a) beam speed, (b) the deflection sensitivity of the tube and (c)
the deflection factor of the tube.

Q70. A CRT has an anode voltage of 2000V and parallel deflecting plates 2 cm long and
5mm apart. The screen is 30 cm from the center of the plates. Find input voltage
required to deflect the beam through 3 cm. The input voltage is applied to the deflecting
plates through amplifiers having an overall gain of 100.

Q71. Calculate the velocity of the electron beam in an oscilloscope if the voltage applied to
its vertical deflection plates is 2000V. Also calculate the cut off frequency if the
maximum transit time is ¼ of a cycle. The length of horizontal plates is 50mm.

Q72. If the vertical amplifier of an oscilloscope has a bandwidth of 15 MHZ, what is the
fastest rise time that an input may have to be displayed without distortion?

Q73. Determine the velocity of the electron beam in an oscilloscope when the voltage applied
to its accelerating anode is 2000V.

Q74. The deflection sensitivity of cathode ray tube is 0.06mm/Vand unknown voltage applied
to the deflection plates shifts the spot by 4mmtowards the left in the horizontal
direction. Determine the unknown applied voltage.

Q75. The X. deflecting plates in a cathode ray tube are 15 mm long and 6mm apart. The
center of the plates is 20 cm from the screen. The accelerating voltage is 2500 V.
Determine the deflection sensitivity and deflection factor of the cathode ray tube.

Q76. The lissajous pattern of an oscilloscope is stationary and has 5 vertical maximum values
and 4 horizontal maximum values. The frequency of the horizontal input is 1200 Hz.
Determine the frequency of vertical input.

Q77. The X. deflecting plates in a cathode ray tube are 5mm apart and 25mm long. The
center of the plates is 20 cm from the screen. The accelerating voltage is 3000V. Find
the rms value of the sinusoidal voltage applied to X. deflecting plates if the length of the
trace obtained on the screen id 10 cm. Find also the electrostatic deflection sensitivity of
the above CRT.

Q78. The deflection sensitivity of a CRT is 0.05mm/V and unknown voltage applied to the
horizontal Deflection plates shifts the spot by 5mm towards the right in the horizontal
direction. Determine the unknown applied voltage.

Q79. The X. deflecting plates in a CRT are 20mm long and 5mm apart. The center of the
plate is 0.25m from the screen. The accelerating voltage is 3000V. Determine the
deflection sensitivity and deflection factor of the CRT.
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CHAPTER 2
INSTRUMENTS FOR GENERATION AND ANALYSIS OF WAVEFORM

Q1. What are signal sources? What are the desirable characteristics of a signal? Give an
overview of different signal sources used.

Q2. Describe the following: -


(i). A Signal generator using envelope feedback for amplitude modulation.
(ii). A heterodyne oscillator.
(iii). Describe the working of sweep frequency generator. What are the sweeper errors?

Q3. Why use of regulator power supply is necessary for signal generators?

Q4. Why are buffer amplifiers used in signal generators?

Q5. Why is temperature-compensating devices used in signal generators?

Q6. With the help of block diagram explain the working of a function generator. Give its
applications.

Q7. What is meant by harmonics?

Q8. What is frequency spectrum?

Q9. Why is the signal distorted after amplification?

Q10. What is meant by harmonic distortion?

Q11. How does wave analyzer differ from a harmonic distortion analyzer?

Q12. Describe the circuits and working of wave analyzers used for audio frequency and
megahertz ranges.

Q13. Describe the engineering applications of wave analyzers.

Q14. Explain the different types of distortions caused by amplifiers.

Q15. Explain the term “total harmonic distortion”. Describe the functioning of a total
harmonic distortion meter.

Q16. Describe the basic circuit of a spectrum analyzer. Explain how the spectrum of the
following is displayed:
(i). Continuous wave signals.
(ii). Amplitude modulated signals.
(iii). Frequency modulated signals.
(iv). Pulse modulated signals.
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CHAPTER 3
INSTRUMENT TRANSFORMERS

Q1. Describe how high currents and voltages are measured with the help of instrument
transformers. Draw diagrams to illustrate your answer. Describe the advantages of
instrument transformers as regards extension of range of current and voltage on high
voltage a.c. systems.

Q2. Explain the disadvantages of shunts and amplifiers when used for extension of range.
Explain how instrument transformers are a better substitute for shunts and multipliers
especially for high range values.

Q3. Define the following terms as used for instrument transformers: -


(i). Transformation ratio.
(ii). Nominal Ratio.
(iii). Terms Ratio.
(iv) Ratio correction factor.
(v). Burden.
Use specific examples to illustrate your answer.

Q4. Draw the equivalent circuit and phasor diagram of a current transformer. Derive the
expressions for ratio and phase angle errors.

Q5. Explain the effect of secondary burden on the ratio and phase errors of a current
transformer.

Q6. Explain the effect of the following on the performance of current transformers:
(i). Change of primary winding current.
(iii). Change of secondary circuit burden and
(iii). Change of frequency.

Q7. Discuss the major sources of errors in current transformers. Describe the design and
constructional features used in current transformers to reduce the errors.

Q8. Describe the constructional details of wound and bar type current transformers for
reduction of the ratio and phase angle errors. Describe the features incorporated in the
windings to reduce the leakage reactance.

Q9. Draw the equivalent circuit and phasor diagram of a potential transformer. Derive the
expressions for its ratio and phase angle errors.

Q10. Describe the effect of the following on the characteristics of a potential transformer:
(i). Burden (VA) of secondary winding circuit.
(ii). Power factor of secondary winding circuit.
(iii). Frequency.
(iv). Supply voltage.

Q11. A current transformer has a single turn primary and a 200 turns secondary winding .The
secondary winding supplies a current of 5A to a non-inductive burden of 1Ω resistance.

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The requisite flux is set up in the core by an mmf of 80A. The frequency is 50 Hz and
net cross section of the core is 1000mm2. Calculate the ratio and phase angle of the
transformer. Also find the flux density in the core. Neglect the effects of magnetic
leakage, iron losses and I2R losses.

Q12. The exciting current of a ring core current transformer of ratio 1000/5 A when operating
at full primary current and with a secondary burden of non-inductive resistance of 1Ω is
1A at a power factor of 0.4. Calculate (i) the phase displacement between primary and
secondary winding currents; (ii) the ratio error at full load, assuming that there has
been no compensation.

Q13. A 1000/5 A, 50 Hz current transformer has a secondary burden comprising a non-


inductive impedance of 1.6Ω. The primary winding has one turn. Calculate the flux in
the core and ratio error at full load. Neglect leakage reactance and assume the iron loss
in the core to be 1.5W at full load. The magnetizing mmf is 100A.

Q14. A current transformer with a bar primary has 300 turns in its secondary winding. The
resistance and reactance of the secondary circuit are 1.5Ω and 1.0Ω respectively
including the transformer winding. With 5A flowing in the secondary winding, the
magnetizing mmf is 100A and the iron loss is 1.2W. Determine the ratio and phase
angle errors.

Q15. A current transformer has a bar r primary and 200 secondary winding turns. The
secondary winding burden is an ammeter of resistance 1.2Ω and reactance 0.5Ω, the
secondary winding has a resistance 0.2Ω and reactance 0.3Ω. The core requires the
equivalent of an mmf of 100A for magnetization and 50 A for core losses.
(i) Find the primary winding current and ratio error when the ammeter in the
secondary winding circuit indicates 5A.
(ii) How many turns could be reduced in the secondary winding in order that the ratio
error be zero for this condition.

Q16. The primary winding exciting current of a current transformer with a bar primary,
nominal ratio 100/1, operating on an external burden of 1.6Ω non-inductive, the
secondary winding resistance being 0.2Ω, is 1.9A, lagging 40.6° to the secondary
voltage reversed there being 100 secondary turns. With 1A flowing in the secondary
winding, calculate (i) the actual ratio of primary winding current to secondary winding
current, (ii) the phase angle between them in minutes.

Q17. A 100/5A, 50 Hz current transformer has a bar primary and a rated secondary burden of
12.5 VA. The secondary winding has 196 turns and a leakage inductance of 0.96mH.
With a purely resistive burden at rated full load, the magnetization mmf is 16A and the
loss excitation requires 12A. Find the ratio and phase angle error.

Q18. A current transformer of turns ratio 1:199 is rated as 1000/5A, 25VA. The core loss and
magnetizing component of the primary current are 4 and 7A under rated conditions.
Determine the phase angle and ratio error for the rated burden and rated secondary
current at 0.8pF lagging and 0.8pF leading. Neglect the resistance and leakage reactance
of secondary winding.
Q19. A current transformer having a one-turn primary is rated 500/5A, 50 Hz with an output
of 15VA. At rated load with non-inductive burden, the in phase and quadrature

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components (referred to the flux) of the exciting mmf are 8 and 10 A respectively. The
number of turns in the secondary is 98, and the resistance and leakage reactance of the
secondary winding are 0.35Ω and 0.3Ω. Calculate the current and phase angle error.

Q20. At its rated load of 25VA, a 100/5 A current transformer has an iron loss of 0.2W and a
magnetizing current of 1.5A. Calculate its ratio error and phase angle when supplying
rated output to a meter having a ratio of resistance to reactance of 5.

Q21. A potential transformer, ratio 1000/100 volts, has the following constant:
Primary resistance=94.5Ω, secondary resistance= 0.8Ω, primary reactance=66.2Ω, total
equivalent reactance=110Ω, no load current = 0.02A at 0.4 power factor.
Calculate: (i) phase angle error at no load (ii) burden in VA at unity power factor at
which the phase angle will be zero.

Q22. A potential transformer rated 6900/115 V, has 22500 turns in the primary winding and
375 turns in the secondary winding. With 6900V applied to the primary and the
secondary circuit open circuited, the primary winding current is 0.005A lagging the
voltage by 73.7°. With a particular burden connected to the secondary, the primary
winding current is 0.0125A, lagging the voltage by 53.1°.
Primary winding resistance=1200Ω, primary winding reactance=2000Ω, secondary
winding resistance=0.4Ω, secondary winding reactance=0.7Ω
(i) Find the secondary current and terminal voltage, using the applied primary voltage
Vp= 6900+j0 as reference. Find the load burden also.
(ii) Find the actual transformation ratio and also the phase angle.
(iii) If the actual ratio=the nominal ratio under above conditions, what change should
be made in the primary turns?

Q23. A ring core current transformer with a nominal ratio of 500/5 and a bar primary has a
secondary resistance of 0.5Ω and negligible secondary reactance. The resultant of
magnetizing and iron loss components of the primary current associated with a full load
secondary current of 5A in a burden of 1.0Ω(non-inductive) is 3A at a power factor of
0.4. Calculate the true ratio and the phase angle error of transformer on full load.
Calculate also the total flux in the core assuming a frequency of 50 Hz.

Q24. An 8/1 current transformer has an accurate current ratio when the secondary is short-
circuited. The inductance of secondary is 60mH and its resistance is 0.5Ω and the
frequency is 50Hz. Estimate the current ratio and phase angle error when the instrument
load resistance is 0.4Ω and inductance is 0.7mH. Assume no iron loss and magnetizing
current equal to 1% of primary current. The permeability remains constant.

Q25. A current transformer with 5 primary turns has a secondary burden consisting of a
resistance
of 0.16Ω and an inductive resistance of 0.12Ω. When the primary current 200A, the
magnetizing current is 1.5A and the iron loss current is 0.4A. Determine any
expressions used, the number of secondary turns needed to make the current ratio 100.1
and also the phase angle under these conditions.
Q26. A current transformer of nominal ratio 1000A is operating with total secondary
impedance 0.4+j0.3 Ω. At rated current the component of the primary current associated
with the core magnetizing and core loss effects are respectively 6A and 1.5A. The

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primary winding has four turns. Calculate the ratio error and phase angle at rated
primary current if the secondary winding has (a) 800 turns (b) 795 turns.

Q27. A bar type current transformer of toroidal construction requires 400a to magnetize it,
and 300 A to supply the iron loss for each volt per turn induced in the secondary
winding and rated frequency. Across the secondary terminal is connected an impedance
of 2Ω with a phase angle φ, and the resistance of secondary winding is 0.5Ω. The
nominal ratio is 1000/5A, and it is required to minimize both ratio and phase errors.
Determine the necessary value of secondary winding turns and phase angleφ.

Q28. A single-phase potential transformer has a turn’s ratio of 3810/63. The nominal
secondary voltage is 63V and the total equivalent resistance and leakage reactance
referred to the secondary side are 2Ω and 1Ω respectively. Calculate the ratio and phase
angle errors when the transformer is supplying a burden of 100+j200Ω. State the
assumptions made.

Q29. A 500/100V potential transformer has the following constants:


Primary winding resistance=47.25Ω, secondary winding resistance=0.43Ω, primary
winding reactance=33.1Ω. Secondary winding reactance is negligible; no load primary
current =0.1A at 0.6pF. Calculate (a) the no load angle between primary winding and
reversed secondary winding voltages, (b) the value of secondary winding current at
unity pF when the phase angle is zero.

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CHAPTER 4
TRANSDUCERS

Q1. Define a transducer. What is the need of a transducer?


Q2. What are the functions of the transducer?
Q3. List five physical quantities that transducer measures.
Q5. List the different types of transducers.
Q6. What is the difference between: -
(i). Active and passive transducers?
(ii). Primary and secondary transducers?
(iii). Analog and digital transducers?
(iv). Transducer and inverse transducer?
Q7. Define a strain gauge. Why strain gauges are called the piezo-resistive strain gauges?
Q8. Explain the construction wire wound strain gauges and derive the expression for the
gauge factor.
Q9. Describe the construction of foil type strain gauges and explain their advantages over
wire wound strain gauges.
Q10. Explain the construction semi conductor strain gauges and explain their advantages and
disadvantage.
Q11. Explain with diagrams, the bonded and unbonded types of strain gauges. For bonded
strain gauges, describe the materials used for base and adhesive materials and also the
materials used for leads.
Q12. Describe the construction, theory and working of thermocouples. Describe the different
types of compensations used and also the methods of measurements of their output
voltage.
Q13. Give an overview of the inductive transducers explaining their principle of operation
like variation of number of terms, geometric configuration and permeability.
Q14. Explain the construction and principle of working of a linear voltage differential
transformer (LVDT). Explain how the magnitude and direction of the displacement of
core of an LVDT detected? Why is the frequency of excitation of primary winding kept
very high as compared to the frequency of the signal being detected?
Q15. Explain the different principles of working of capacitive transducers.
Q16. Describe the properties of materials used for piezo-electric transducers. Derive
expressions for voltage and charge sensitivities.

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Q17. Describe the different modes of operation of piezo-electric transducers. Explain the
applications of piezo-electric transducers.
Q18. Draw the equivalent circuit of piezo-electric transducers. Derive the expression for
magnitude of voltage across the load by making simplifying assumptions. Prove that for
medium and high frequencies, the magnitude of the voltage across the load is
independent of frequencies.
Q19. Derive the expressions for frequency response characteristics of piezo-electric
transducers.
Q20. Show that for a wire wound resistance strain gauge the gauge factor, Gf is given by the
expression
Gf = 1+2µ {δρ/ρρl/l }where the symbols used have their usual meanings.
Q21. Explain the term gauge factor with respect to resistance strain gauge. Obtain an
expression for the gauge factor in terms of Poisson’s ratioµ. Discuss the merits and
demerits of the various materials used for the strain gauge.
Q22. Explain the principle of working, construction details and applications of photo-diodes.
Draw the characteristics.
Q23. Explain the principle of working, construction details and applications of
phototransistors.
Q24. Explain the principle of working and constructional details of a photovoltaic cell.
Explain why it is useful for space applications.
Q25. Write short note on piezo-electric transducers.
Q26. Why is it necessary to make strain gauges of very high resistance?
Q27. What is meant by dummy strain gauge? What for it is used?
Q28. What is piezo-electric effect and why is this effect possible only in crystals having
asymmetrical charge distribution?
Q29. Why is natural quartz considered most suitable material for piezo-electric transducers?
Q30. Why piezo-electric transducers cannot be used for static displacement measurements?
Q31. A thin circular wire of soft iron has a gauge factor of 3.8. Determine the Poisson’s ratio
of the soft iron.
Q32. The wire in a strain gauge is 0.1 m long and has an initial resistance of 1.20Ω. On
application of a force, the wire length increases by 0.1mm and resistance increases by
0.21Ω. Determine the gauge factor of the device.

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Q33. A strain gauge having a resistance of 500Ω and a gauge factor 3.0 is bonded on to a
member of structure under tensile stress. Determine the percentage strain suffered by
the member if the change in the resistance of the gauge is accurately measured as 1.5Ω.
Q34. A resistance strain gauge is used to measure stress on steel. The steel is stressed to a
1400kgf/cm2. Assume Young’s modulus of steel 2.1×106kgf/cm2. Calculate the
percentage change of resistance of a strain gauge assuming gauge factor equal to 2.
Q35. A strain gauge with gauge factor of 2 is fastened to a metallic member subjected to a
stress of 1000 kg/cm2. The modulus of elasticity of the metal is 2×106 kg/cm2. Calculate
the percentage change in resistance of the strain gauge. What is the value of Poisson’s
ratio?
Q36. A strain gauge having a resistance of 200Ω and gauge factor 2.5 is connected in series
with a blast resistance of 400Ω across a 24V. Determine the change in output voltage
when a stress of 140MN/m2is applied. The modulus of elasticity is 200GN/m2.
Q37. A resistance wire strain gauge uses a soft iron wire of small diameter. The gauge factor
is +4.2. Neglect the piezoresistive effects; calculate the Poisson’s ratio.
Q38. A compressive force is applied to a structural member. The strain is 5 micro-strains.
Two separate strain gauges are attached to the structural member, one is a nickel wire
strain gauge having a gauge factor of –12.1 and the other is nichrome wire strain gauge
having a gauge factor of two. Calculate the value of the resistance of the gauges after
they are strained. The resistance of strain gauges before being strained is 120Ω.
Q39. A resistance wire strain gauge with a gauge factor of 2 is bonded to a steel structural
member subjected to a stress of 100MN/m2. The modulus of elasticity of steel is
200GN/m2. Calculate the percentage change in the value of gauge resistance due to the
applied stress.
Q40. A single strain gauge having resistance of 120Ω is mounted on a steel cantilever been at
a distance of 0.15m from the free end. An unknown Force applied at the free end
produces a deflection of 12.7mm of the free end. The change in gauge resistance is
found to be 0.152Ω. The beam is 0.25m long with a width of 20mm and a depth of
3mm. The Young’s modulus for steel is 200 GN/m2. Calculate the gauge factor.
Q41. A strain gauge is bounded to a beam 0.1m long and has a cross sectional area 4cm2.
Young’s modulus for steel is 207GN/m2. The strain gauge has an unstrained resistance
of 240Ω and a gauge factor of 2.2. When a load is applied, the resistance of gauge

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changes by 0.013Ω. Calculate the change in length of the steel beam and the amount of
force applied to the beam.
Q42. Calculate the thermo-electric sensitivity of a device using Bismuth and tellurium as the
dissimilar metals. Estimate the maximum output voltage of a 100°C temp. difference at
room temp. using one junction. The sensitivity of bismuth is –72 µV/°C and that of
tellurium is 500 µV/°C.
Q43. A thermocouple circuit uses a chromel-alumel thermocouple, which gives an emf of
33.3V when measuring a temp. of 800°C with reference temp. 0°C. The resistance of
the meter coil, Rm is 50Ω and a current of 0.1mA gives full-scale deflection. The
resistance of junctions and leads, Re is 12Ω. Calculate (a) resistance of the series
resistance if a temp.of 800°C is to give full-scale deflection. (b) The approx. error due
to rise of 1Ω in Re. (c) the approx. error due to a rise of 10°C in the copper coil of the
meter. The resistance temp. Coefficient of coil is 0.00426/°C.
Q44. The output voltage of a LVDT is 1.5V at max. displacement. At a load of 0.5MΩ, the
deviation from linearity is max. And is ±0.003V from a straight line through origin.
Find the linearity at the given load.
Q45. The output of an LVDT is connected to a 5V voltmeter through an amplifier whose
amplification factor 250. An output of 2mV appears across the terminals of LVDT
when the core moves through a distance of 0.5 mm. calculate the sensitivity of the
LVDT and that of the whole setup. The milli- voltmeter scale has 100 divisions. The
scale can be read to 1/5 of a division. Calculate the resolution of the instrument in mm.
Q46. A steel cantilever is 0.25m long, 20mm wide and 4mm thick.(a) calculate the value of
deflection at the free end for the cantilever when a force of 25N is applied at this end.
The modulus of elasticity for steel is 200 GN/m2. (b). An LVDT with a sensitivity of
0.5V/mm is used. The voltage is read on a 10V voltmeter having 100 divisions. Two-
tenths of a division can be read with certainty. (c). Calculate the min. and max. Value of
force that can be measured with this arrangement.
Q47. An LVDT has an output of 6V rms when the displacement is 0.4×10-3mm. Determine
the sensitivity of this instrument in V/mm. A 10 V voltmeter is used to read the output.
Two-tenths of a division can be estimated with ease. Determine the resolution of the
voltmeter.

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Q48. An LVDT with a secondary voltage of 5V has a range of ±25 mm. (a). Find the output
voltage when the core is –18.75 mm for the center. (b) Plot the output voltage vs core
position for a core movement going from +18.75 mm to –10 mm.
Q49. An LVDT with a secondary voltage of 5V has a range of ±25 mm. (a) Find the core
movement from center if the output voltage is –3V. (b). Plot the core positions vs output
voltages varying from +3V to –4.5V.
Q50. A quartz piezo-electric crystal having a thickness of 2mm and voltage sensitivity of
0.055 V –m/N is subjected to a pressure of 1.5 MN/m2. Calculate the voltage output. If
the permittivity of quartz is 40.6×10-12 F/m, calculate its charge sensitivity.
Q51. A piezo-electric crystal having dimensions of 5mm×5mm×1.5mm and a voltage
sensitivity of0.055V- m/N is used for force measurement. Calculate the force if the
voltage developed is 100V.
Q52. A barium titanate pick up has the dimensions of 5mm×5mm×1.25mm. The force acting
on it is 5N. The charge sensitivity of barium titanate is 150pC/N and its permittivity is
12.5×10-9 F/m. If the modulus of elasticity of barium titanate is 12×106 N/m2, calculate
the strain. Also calculate the charge and the capacitance.
Q53. In a piezo-electric transducer a flat freq. Response within 5% is required. Find the value
of min. freq. In terms of time constant for which it can be used. If the time constant of
the transducer is 1.5 ms, find the value of min. freq. Find phase shift at this freq.
Q54. A piezo-electric transducer has a capacitance of 1000pF and a charge sensitivity of
40×10-3 C/m. The connecting cable has a capacitance of 300pF while the oscilloscope
used for read out has a read out input resistance of 1MΩ with a parallel capacitance of
50pF. (a) What is the sensitivity (V/m) of the transducer alone? (b) What is the high
freq. Sensitivity (V/m) of the entire measuring system? (c) What is the lowest freq.? (d).
what is the value of an external shunt capacitance?
Q55. A piezo-electric transducer has a capacitance of 2000pF and a charge sensitivity of
100×10-12C/N. The resistance of transducer is 106MΩ and the impedance of the
measuring system consists of a capacitance of 500pF in parallel with a resistance of
1MΩ. Find the response if the applied force is: F=0.1N for 0<t<2ms, and F=0N for
2ms<t<∞. Find the value of voltage just before and just after the impulse is terminated.
Also find the voltage after 10ms of application of the pulse.
Q56. A pulse is applied to a piezo-electric transducer for a time T. Prove that in order to keep
the under shoot to a value within 5%, value of time constant should be approx. 20 T.

16
CHAPTER 5
DATA ACQUISITION SYSTEM

Q1. What is a data acquisition system?


Q2. What are the important factors that decide the configuration and sub system of a DAS?
Q3. What are the various configurations used in the DAS?
Q4. Draw and explain the block diagram of DAS.
Q5. What is a recorder? Give the classification of recorders.
Q6. What is the necessity of recorders?
Q7. What are the recording requirements?
Q8. What is the difference between an indicator and recorder?
Q9. What is the difference between strip chart recorder and an X-Y recorder?
Q10. What are the three major systems of a strip chart recorder?
Q11. What is the purpose of the error detector in a recorder?
Q12. List the typical frequency responses of a strip chart recorder.
Q13. List the three functions that a recorder may simultaneously serve in industrial
applications.
Q14. List minimum five applications that should be considered while selecting a recording
instrument.
Q15. If the frequency of a signal to be recorded with a strip chart recorder is 15 Hz, what
chart speed must be used to record one complete cycle on 5mm of recording paper?
Q16. The chart speed of a recording instrument is 10mm/sec. If the time base of the recorded
signal is 20mm, what if the frequency of the recorded signal?
Q17. Explain the functioning of a basic type of strip chart recorder. Explain the different
types of marking mechanisms used in it.
Q18. Describe the working of a galvanometric type of strip chart recorder. What are the
different types of tracing systems used in it? Explain with the help of suitable diagrams.
Q19. Explain, with the help of diagram, the working of a null type recorder. Distinguish
between single point and multi point recorders.
Q20. What is an X-Y recorder? How do you distinguish it from a X-t or Y-t recorder?
Explain, the suitable circuit diagram, the working of an X-Y recorder. Describe its
applications.

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Q21. Describe the basic components of a magnetic tape recorder for instrumentation
applications using direct recording techniques. Describe its advantages and
disadvantages.
Q22. Describe how equalization is carried out in a magnetic tape recorder using direct
recording techniques.
Q23. Explain the F.M. method of magnetic tape recording and explain its advantages and
disadvantages.
Q24. Describe the method of pulse duration modulation (PDM) as used in magnetic tape
recorders. Explain its advantages and disadvantages.
Q25. Describe the different methods used for digital tape recording. Explain its advantages
and disadvantages.
Q26. Distinguish between RZ and NRZ techniques of digital tape recording.
Q27. Explain the randomized NRZ technique of digital tape recording.
Q28. The gap of a tape recorder is 6.25 µm. determine the speed of the tape so has to have a
satisfactory response at 50000 Hz. Assume that recorded wavelength must be greater
than 2.5 times the gap of the recorder.
Q29. A tape receives 12000 numbers per second. The tape speed is 1.5m/s. determine the
number density of the tape.
Q30. The gap of a reproducing head in a tape recorder is 6.4 µm. determine the min. speed of
the tape for satisfactory response at 50 kHz. Assume the wavelength on tape is greater
than 2.5 times the gap length.

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18
CHAPTER 6
DISPLAY DEVICES

Q1. Explain the advantages of digital indicating instruments over their analog counterparts.
Q2. Explain an overview of different digital display devices.
Q3. Explain the theory and working of an LED.
Q4. Describe the advantages of LEDs.
Q5. Explain the theory and working of LCDs. Describe the difference between light
scattering and field effect types of LCDs. Also explain the advantages of LCDs.
Q6. Draw with the help of necessary diagrams the seven-segment display.
Q7. Draw and explain LED seven segment display driver.
Q8. Draw with the help of necessary diagram the fourteen-segment display.
Q9. Describe the principle and working of Nixie tube, with the help of necessary diagrams.
Q10. Explain the functioning of a 5×7 LED matrix display.
Q11. Describe the functioning of a diode matrix for conversion of BCD system to decimal
read out.

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19
CHAPTER 7
TELEMETRY

Q1. Define the term telemetry and explain why it is necessary to use it in an instrumentation
system.
Q2. Describe the different methods of data transmission. Explain the block diagram of a
general telemetry system.
Q3. What are the different types of telemetering systems? Explain the landline telemetering
system and describe its advantages.
Q4. Explain the landline telemetering systems. Describe the torque balance telemetering
system.
Q5. Explain the landline telemetering system using a synchro transmitter-receiver pair used
in torque transmission mode.
Q6. What is current telemetering system? Describe motion and force balance, current
telemetering systems with the help of neat sketches. Give the merits and demerits of
current telemetering systems.
Q7. What is voltage-telemetering system? Explain basic voltage telemetering system used for
measurement of water level. What are the main drawbacks of such a telemetering
system?
Q8. What is position-telemetering system? Explain. Describe position telemetering bridge
type system and position telemetering using synchros with circuit diagrams. Which one
of two systems is commonly used?
Q9. Why is scope of hydraulic and pneumatic methods of data transmission limited? Explain.
Q10. Why is microwave channel most widely used?
Q11. What is difference between a.c. and d.c. Telemetering systems?
Q12. Explain why it is essential to use Radio Frequency (RF) telemetry. Describe it with
some relevant examples.
Q13. What do you understand by multiplexing?
Q14. Is modulation required in telemetry? If so, why?
Q15. Why is it necessary to protect transmission channel from sources of interferences in
voltage telemetering system?
Q16. Describe the Frequency Modulation (FM) telemetry system.
Q17. Describe in details the Pulse Amplitude Modulation system as used for telemetry.
Q18. Describe the Pulse Code Modulation telemetry system.

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Q19. Describe the comparison between FM, PAM and PCM telemetering systems.
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