New technologies transform vehicle design and materials

Introducti on to IELTS 7
Overview 9
Chapter 1 Effective Reading 11
HOW TO READ EFFECTIVELY 12
Chapter 2 Question Types 27
Unit 1 MATCHING HEADINGS 28

Unit2 TRUE/FALSE /NOT GIVEN 32
Unit 3 SHORT-ANSWER QYESTIONS 38
Unit4 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QYESTIONS 41
Unit 5 SENTENCE COMPLETION 47
Unit 6 DIAGRAM/FLOW-CHART/TABLE COMPLETION 51
Unit 7 SUMMARY COMPLETION 54
Unit 8 MATCHING LISTS/PARAGRAPHS 57
Chapter 3 Practice Tests 69
Test 1 70
Test 2 80
Test3 91
100 E
Test4 0
Test 5 109 -
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Test 6 119 .....
c
Test 7 131 ..c
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Test 8 141 !i
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Answer Key, 152 3:
Cambridge IELTS Intensive Training Reading 5

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Cambri dge IELTS Intensive Training Reading 11

HO W TO REA D EFFECTIVELY
Sample Passage 1
READING PASSAGE 1
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-28
which refer to the reading
passage below.
NEW-AGE TRA NSP ORT

E
Compu terised design, advan ced materials and new technologies
-
0
u are being used to produce
Q) machines of a type never seen before.
>
1 It looks as if it came straigh t from the set of Star Wars. It has four-w
heel drive and
rises above rocky surfaces. It lowers and raises its nose when
going up and down hills.
And when it comes to a river, it turns amphibious: two hydroj
ets power it along by
12 Cambr idge IELTS Intensive Training Reading

HOW TO RF \D FFFFCTIVI:l 't
blasting water under its body. There is room for two passengers and a driver, who sits
on
inside a glass bubble operating electronic, aircraft-type controls. A vehicle so daring
land and water needs windscre en wipers - but it doesn 't have any. Water molecules are
disintegr ated on the screen's surface by ultrasoni c sensors.
2 This unusual vehicle is the Racoon. It is an invention not of Hollywood but of

Renault, a rather conservative French state-ow ned car maker, better known for its fam-
ily hatchbacks. Renault built the Racoon to explore new freedom for designers and
is
engineer s created by advances in materials and manufac turing processes. Renault
thinking about startlingl y different cars; other producer s have radical new ideas for
trains, boats and aeroplan es.
3 The first of the new freedom is in design. Powerful compute r-aided design (CAD)
systems can replace with a click of a compute r mouse hours of laborious work done
be
on thousand s of drawing boards. So new products , no matter how complicated, can
developed much faster. For the first time, Boeing will not have to build a giant replica
of its new airliner, the 777, to make sure all the bits fit together. Its CAD system will
take care of that.
4 But Renault is taking CAD further. It claims the Racoon is the world's first vehicle
to be designed within the digitised world of virtual reality. Complex program mes were
used to simulate the vehicle and the terrain that it was expected to cross. This allowed
it
a team led by Patrick Le Quemen t, Renault' s industria l-design director, to 'drive'
long before a prototyp e existed.
5 Renault is not alone in thinking that virtual reality will transform automoti ve de-
sign. In Detroit, Ford is also investigating its potential . jack Telnac, the firm 's head
of design, would like designers in different parts of the world to work more closely
together, linked by compute rs. They would do more than stylish cars. Virtual reality
will allow engineer s to peer inside the working parts of a vehicle. Designers will watch
bearings move, oil flow, gears mesh and hydraulics pump. As these techniqu es catch
on, even stranger vehicles are likely to come along.
6 Transfor ming these creations from virtual reality to actual reality will also become
easier, especially with advances in materials . Firms that once bashed everythin g out
of steel now find that new alloys or composi te materials (which can be made from
or
mixtures of plastic, resin, ceramics and metals, reinforced with fibres such as glass
carbon) are changing the rules of manufacturing. At the same time, old materials keep E
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getting better, as their producer s try to secure their place in the factory of the future. ......
QJ
This competit ion is increasing the pace of developm ent of all materials. >
7 One company in this field is Scaled Composi tes. It was started in 1982 by Burt
Rutan, an aviator who has devised many unusual aircraft. His company develops and
Cambridg e IELTS Intensive Training Reading 13

tests prototyp es that have ranged from busines s aircraft to air racers. It has
also worked
on compos ite sails for the America's Cup yacht race and on General Motors'
Ultralite,
a 100-mile-per-gallon experim ental family car built from carbon fibre .
8 Again, the Racoon reflects this race between the old and the new. It uses
conven-
tional steel and what Renault describes as a new 'high-li mit elastic steel' in
its chassis.
This steel is 30% lighter than the usual kind. The Racoon also has parts
made from
composites. Renault plans to replace the petrol engine with a small gas turbine,
which
could be made from heat-res isting ceramics, and use it to run a generat or
that would
provide power for electric motors at each wheel.
9 With composites, it is possible to build many different parts into a single

compo-
nent. Fiat, Italy's biggest car maker, has worked out that it could reduce the
number of
compon ents needed in one of its car bodies from 150 to 16 by using a compos
ite shell
rather than one made of steel. Aircraft and cars may increasingly be assemb
led as if
they were plastic kits.
10 Advances in engine technology also make cars lighter. The Ultralite , which
Scaled
Compos ites helped to design for General Motors, uses a two-stro ke engine
in a 'power
pod' at the rear of the vehicle. The engine has been developed from an
East German
design and weighs 40% less than a convent ional engine but produce s as
much power.
It is expected to run cleanly enough to qualify as an ultra-lo w-emiss ion vehicle
under
California's tough new rules.
Questions 15-19
Choose the appropriate letters A-D for each question and write them in boxes
15-19 on
your answer sheet.
15. How does the Racoon cross water?

A It swims. C It uses hydrojets.
B It raises its nose. D It uses its four-wh eel drive.
16. What is Renault most famous for?
A startling ly differen t cars C advance s in design
B fami ly cars D boat and train design
F
()
..... 17. Why will Boeing not need a replica of the 777?
ClJ
> A It can use comput ers to check the design .
.....,__ B It already has enough experie nce with plans .
c.
ro
..c C It will only ne ed to upgrade the replica of the previous model.
c
:i D It can make sure all the bits fit togethe r.
:5:
:5:
14 Cambrid ge I ELTS Intensiv e Training Reading

IIOW TO RL\D EFFFCT!\'El Y
18. How did Renault test drive the Racoon?

A over rocky terrain C over French country roads
B in actual reality D in virtual reality
19. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an ingredien t of a composite?

A oil C glass
B resin D steel
Questions 20-22
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, complete the following statements. Write
your answers in boxes 20-22 on your answer sheet.
20. One future design feature of the Racoon might be a
21. In the future, cars might be put together like
22. The advantage of the Ultralite engine is that it is 40% than other car
engines.
Question s 23-28
These five companies are mentioned in the reading passage. Which company is each of the
following design features associated with? Write the letters for the appropriate company in
boxes 23-28 on your answer sheet.
23. a power pod

sc if it is Scaled Composites
24. electronic controls
R if it is Renault
25. a composite body
GM if it is General Motors
26. elastic steel
F if it is Fiat
27. aircraft prototype s
B if it is Boeing
28. ultrasonic sensors
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1 It looks as if it came straight from the set of Star
Questions 15-19:
Wars. It has four-whee l drive and rises above rocky
Multiple-choice questions
surfaces. It lowers and raises its nose when going up
and down hills. And when it comes to a river, it turns j15: Read the question: How does
the
amp h1.b.1ous: two hydroJets
· power ·1t al ong by bl astmg
· Racoon cross water?
water under its body. There is room for two passen- Identify the keywords: Racoon and cross
gers and a driver, who sits inside a glass bubble op- water.
erating electronic, aircraft-type controls. A vehicle so In the passage, the word Racoon comes in
sentence 1 of paragraph 2. The referent This
daring on land and water needs windscreen wipers .. .
refers to the noun Racoon. Also, in paragraph
1, this sentence is relevant to the keywords
2 This unusual vehicle is the Racoon. It is an in-
- - crosswater, sochoiceCis thecorrect
vention not of Hollywood but of Renault, a rather con- answer.
servative French state-owned c;r maker, l _16: Read the question: What is Renault
for its family hatchbacks. Renault built the Racoon to most famous for?
explore new freedoms for designers and engineers
Identify the keywords: Renault and famous
created by advances in materials and manufacturing for.
processes .. . In the second paragraph, you can easily find
the word Renault and then better known,
3 The first of the new freedoms is in design. Power- which is equivalent to famous for in the
ful computer-aided design [CAD) systems can replace question. Lastly, family hatchback means
family car, so choice B must be the correct
with a click of a computer mouse hours of laborious
answer.
work done on thousands of drawing boards. So new
products, no matter how complicate . : _ [17: Read the question: Why will
d, can be devel- B . d . fth ?
oewg not nee a rep11ca o e 777.
oped much faster. For the first time, Boeing will not
- - --- Identify the keywords: Boeing and 777.
have to build a giant replica of its new airliner, the 777,
to make sure all the bits fit together. Its The last two sentences in this paragraph give
you hints to choose A as the correct answer.
will take care of that.
You may mistakenly choose D as your
answer, but this actually states a purpose,
4 But Renault is taking CAD further. It cla ims the while the question asks about a cause.
Racoon is the world's first vehicle to be design;] Read the question: How did
the digitised world of virtual reality.. .. Renault test drive the Racoon?
Identify the keywords: Renault and Racoon.
6 Transforming these creations from virtual reality to
actual reality will also become easier, especially with The last sentence in this paragraph gives you
hints (It- Renault- the Raccoon, and virtual
advances in materials. Firms that once bashed every- reality) to choose D as the correct answer.
thing out of steel now find that new alloys or
. .
l_19: Read the
materia ls [which can be made from m1xtures of plast1c, question: Which of the
. . ""OTt' d
1011ow1ng 1s lY' men 1one as an
E resin, ceramics and metals, reinforced with fibres such
c ingredient of a composite?
....Q.J'-' as glass or ca rbon) are changing the rules of manu -
Identify the keywords: NOT mentioned as an
> facturi ng . At the same time, old materials keep getting
ingredient of a composite.
....c,__ better, as their producers try to secure their place in
rc When reading paragraph 6. you will find
c the factory of the future . This competition is increasing items B. C, and D are all mentioned. So, A is
c
5 the pace of development of all materials ... certainly the correct choice.
5
5
16 Cambridge IE LTS Intensive Training Reading

II• )\\ It> RI \Il I
8 Again, the Racoon reflects this race between the

Questions 20-22:
old and the new. It uses conventional steel and what
Sentence-completion questions
Renault describes as a new 'high-limi t elastic steel'
in its chassis . This steel is 30% lighter than the usuali 20: Read the question
: One future
. d Th R
k m . e acoon al so has parts ma de f rom compos- design feature of the Racoon might be
a .
ites. Renault plans to replace the petrol engine with
Identify the keywords: future design feature.
a small gas turbine, which could be made from heat-
resist in g ceramics, and use it to run a generator that You can associate the word plan in the last
sentence of this paragraph with future and
would provide power for electric motors at each wheel.
:
might be in the question. You can, therefore,
complete the sentence using the phrase
9 With composites, it is possible to build many differ- small gas turbine.
ent parts into a single component. Fiat, Italy's biggest
21 R ea d theques t wn:
. Ln th e fiut ure,
I
car maker, has worked out that it could reduce the cars might be put together like
number of components needed in one of its car bodies .
from 150 to 16 by using a composite shell rather than Identify the keywords: cars and might be put
one made of steel. Aircraft and cars may increasmgly together.
be assembled as tf they were plastic kits. The last sentence in this paragraph gives you
hints: may and assembled are respectively
10 Advances in engme technology also make cars similar to might and put togetherin the
ltghter. The Ultralite, whtch Scaled question. So, the correct answer is plastic kits.
helped
to design for General Motors, uses a two-strok e engine_ r-- 22: Read the question:
The advantage
in a 'power pod' at the rear of the vehicle . The engine of the Ultralite engine is that it is 40%
has been developed from an East German design and than other car engines.
weighs 40% less than a conventional engine but pro- Identify the keywords: advantage of the
duces as much power It is expected to run cleanly Ultralite engine, 40%, other car engines.
enough to qualify as an ultra-low -emission vehicle un- The percentage 40%can direct your eyes
to the very sentence containing this figure.
der California 's tough new rules.
The word than in the question helps you to
think of a comparative adjective. Thus, when
reading again from the beginning of the
paragraph, you can easily find out lighter as
the correct answer.
Questions 23-28: Matching questions

First, read the question in the instructions: Which company is each of th e following design
features associated with?
Then, look at all the companies in the box and the six features in the questions. Though the
features are all technical
terms, they are easily found in the passage. While reading, you will also have to pay attention
to capitalised letters
starting the names of the companies.
23: GM
Identify the keyword a power pod.
This phrase directs your attention to sentences 1-3 in paragraph 10 and you may quickly
decide on the correct
answer.
24:R
The key phrase electronic controls is fou nd in paragrap h 1 and the first two sentences of
paragraph 2 can help
you to choose the correct answer.
( Il:L I'-, !rtcnsiH "11, IIllf,).. Readmg 17

25:F
The key word composite is found in paragraph 9, so Fiat is certainly the correct answer.
26: R
as the correct
You can find the phrase elastic steel in paragraph 8, sentence 2; then you can quickly chooseR
answer.
27: sc
7 enable you to decide
The keywords .1ircraft and prototypes which occur in the first three sentences of paragraph
on the correct answer.
28: R
2 after you have
The answer is found in the last sentence of paragraph 1 and the first two sentences of paragraph
identified the key phrase ultrasonic sensors.
above, you
By applying the three steps for choosing correct answers in the During the Test section mentioned
to tips 4. 5, and 6 to
now have finished both reading the passage and answering the questions. You may now refer
check your work.
Sample Passage 2
READ ING PASSAGE 2
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Question s 1-17 w hich refer to the reading
passage below.
LIVING EXPENSES- A GUIDE FOR

OVERSEAS STUDENTS
1 In the mid-1990s, it is estimated that a student living alone requires on average
AS$12,000 in living expenses for each year of study. Of course, these costs increase with
time.
of
2 Upon arrival, students should have funds in excess of the average to cover the cost
textbooks and establish ment expenses such as rental bond payment and basic furniture
items. The amount spent on food, recreation, and entertain ment expenses will vary accord-
ing to requirem ents, budget, and location.
3 Those who are prepared to live in shared accommodation, which may not be suitable
for all, might manage on AS$10,000 per year. It is preferabl e for overseas students whose
t. English is in need of practice to take advantag e of live-in situations with native speakers
is
wheneve r possible. However, sharing with friends who are easy to communi cate with
()
u
probably more sensible at first.

d
4 The above figures do not include the cost of large non-esse ntial items such as househol
.
equipme nt or a car. Owning and maintain ing a motor vehicle is expensive in Australia
Insuranc e is compulso ry and costly, and parking both on and off campus can be a problem
18 (ambridg e IElTS Intensive Training Reading

HO\\ TO RE1\D El FH ri\ FI )
requiring additional expense. It is not advisable for a student to own a car unless it is abso-
lutely necessary. A reasonable second-hand car can cost in excess of AS$4,000.
5 Educational institutions are almost always serviced by reliable public transport. The
university and college campuses within the major cities are well served by public buses. In
addition, the larger cities have extensive train systems. For example, in Sydney, most col-
lege and university campuses are only 10 or 20 minutes from a rail station.
6 The summer vacation requires special financial planning. Expenses for this period must
be carefully estimated and added to costs for the academic year in order to give a realis-
tic total figure for the calendar year. They are not included in the estimated AS$10,000-
AS$12,000 previously quoted. University eating facilities and some university and college
housing facilities close during this time. As a general rule, internationa l students should
expect to spend at least as much on monthly living expenses during the summer as they do
during the academic year.
7 Under present immigration regulations, internationa l students are allowed to work up to

20 hours per week during term time and full-time during vacation. It is impossible for stu-
dents to expect to earn sufficient funds working part-time to pay for tuition fees and living
costs. While some students are able to supplement their funds with money from part-time
and/or vacation work, such work is not always regular even when available, and this can
contribute to anxiety and study problems. In general, it is unrealistic to start a course with
insufficient funds in the hope that 'something will turn up' . Students should be aware that
vacation work has become more difficult to find over the last few years, but those interested
can contact the Commonwea lth Employment Service or the Students' Union on campus .
Education
Stationery
5%
Entertainment
22%
Food
15% c
Clothing 0
J
20% ....ill
>
Transport ....
15%
Figure 1. Student Expenses per Annum in Percentages
Cambndgc Ifl lntcnsiH' ·1raining Readmg 19

8 Warm clothes are necessary in the southern States during winter months, as night tem-
peratures can drop to less than 10 degrees Celsius. Students should bring as much clothing
from home as possible, especially if funds are limited. Information on where to buy inex-
pensive clothes can be obtained from the Internation al Student Centre of most colleges and
universities.
9 Do not rush into buying expensive textbooks. It is advisable to wait until your first lec-
tures and tutorials, and then ask academic staff which are the essential purchases. There is
usually a second-ha nd bookshop on campus, and used texts are also advertised on faculty
notice boards.
10 The Students' Union coordinates a number of outlets on the various university cam-
puses that provide stationery items and other essential study equipment at reasonable pric-
es. Some courses require specialised equipment which can be quite costly, and it is wise to
check any additional costs involved with the course of your choice.
11 In general. those practically orientated courses tend to incur higher additional costs.
Expenses for books, stationery, and equipment vary greatly, but you should allow approxi-
mately AS$500-AS$1,000 a year.
12 Most university campuses have banks and/or credit unions. The banks issue drafts,
traveller's cheques or foreign currency notes, and accept telex or airmail transactions. In
some colleges and universities, the credit union is the institution 's own credit union. In ad-
dition to normal banking and financial services (with no transaction charges). credit unions
usually provide special services for internation al students.
13 Money may be deposited or withdrawn from branches of the credit unions and banks
during business hours from Monday to Friday (but not on public holidays) or 24 hours a day
from the many on-campus automatic teller machines. Business hours for financial institu-
tions vary, but credit unions are usually open from 9 am to 5 pm weekdays, and, generally,
banks are open from 9.30 am to 4 pm (5 pm on Fridays). Some services are available on
Saturday mornings in selected areas. While prices often compare favourably with prices
overseas, because Australia is a large and exciting country, it is very easy to overspend,
especially if on a tight budget.
Glossary
1. campus: grounds of a college or a university
2. faculty: a departmen t or staff of a college or university
3. lecture: instruction given to a class of students
4. tutorial: individual or small group instruction given by a tutor at college or university
20 C• t IE 1"1" htc nsl\ e T r. mtPg Reading

HO\\ f<l Rt \D liT!( II\II 't
Questions 1-6
1-6. Refer to the passage headed
You are advised to spend about 10 minutes on Questions
'Livin g Expenses - A Guid e for Overseas and choose the appropriate letters
The first one has been done
A-D . Write your answers in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.
for you as an example.
alia living alone in the 1990s is
Exam ple: The annua l living expen se for a stude nt in Austr
estim ated to be
A AS$10,000. (C) AS$1 Z,OOO.
B AS$8,000. D AS$20,000.
1. Shari ng accom moda tion is

alone.
A appro ximat ely AS$10,000 per year cheap er than living
B more expen sive than living alone.
C not always suitab le for stude nts.
D suitab le for most stude nts.
accou nt?
2. What costs shoul d stude nts buyin g a car take into
A the purch ase price of the car C parking costs
B insura nce costs D all of the above
3. Durin g summ er vacat ion,

A all institu tional housing facilities close down.
B additi onal living costs are involved.
C university cante ens remai n open.
D month ly living expen ses decre ase.
4. Regu lar part-t ime work is

A always available.
B not always available.
C suffic ient to pay for tuitio n fees.
D ZO hours during full-ti me vacation.
5. Cours es that are more practi cal

A can requi re specialised equipment.
B are usually cheap er.
C cost AS$500-AS$1 ,000 a year.
E
D are usually more difficult. 0
u
...,
6. Credi t union s on camp us
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A are open Z4 hours a day.

.
B provide the usual financial services offere d by banks
C deduc t fees for norma l transa ctions .
D are some times open on public holidays.
Camb ridge IELTS Intensive Training Reading 21

Questions 7-17
You are advis ed to spen d abou t 10 minu tes on Ques
tions 7-17. Refe r to the reading
passage head ed 'Livi ng Expe nses -A Guid e for Over
seas Stude nts'. Choose the most
appropriate word, phrase or figure from those given
in the box below. Write your
answers in boxes 7-17 on your answ er sheet. The first
one has been done for you as an
example. Note that you may use each word, phrase
or figure once only.
Exam ple: recom mend ed
It is recommended that stude nts have suffic

ient funds availa ble to cover both the costs of
living and study ing while in Austr alia. Acco mmod
ation comp rises appro ximat ely (7) of a
stude nt's annua l living costs . Expen ses (8)
depen ding on perso nal requi remen ts, budge t,
and locati on . Owni ng a car is not advis able nor
a (9) for stude nts, since unive rsitie s and
co lleges are (10) by public trans port. During summ er vacat ion,
intern ation al stude nts must
budg et ___lill_ , if they are not to excee d their
alloca ted yearly expen ses. Prese nt immig ration
(12) enabl e stude nts to work up to (13) per week. Altho ugh these regul ation s attrac t
stude nts to Austr alia, work is becom ing increa
singly hard to obtain . If mone y is in short suppl
y,
cloth ing shoul d be (14) from home , and warm clothi ng is neces
sary, espec ially durin g
(15) . Textb ooks can be expen sive , but can often
be bough t secon d-han d. On-ca mpus
banki ng and financ ial servic es provi de exten sive
servic es, and funds are readil y (16) from
credit union s and banks , durin g busin ess hours
, or throu gh autom atic teller mach ines. Howe ver,
care must be taken not to overs pend if the budge
t is (17)
send boug ht 15 per cent broug ht

carefully available winte r change
depar tmen t necessity 20 hours expensive
need recommended restricted too high
inexpensive 10 degrees regulations 45 per cent
vary necessary well served nearby
located part-time 20 weeks evening
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22 Camb ridge I EITS lnLcn si\c [raini ng Readi ng

!!OW TO READ EFFFCTIVPLY
Questions 1-6:
3 Those who to Live in share_cj_ acco m-
Multiple-choice questions
modation, which may not be suitable for all, migh t[_ I: c
manage on AS$1 0,000 er year. It is referabl e for You can identify the keywords sharing
overseas students whose English is J.!l need of prac- accommodation in the question and
tice to take advantag e of live-in situations with native AS$1 0, 000 in choice A to locate the relevant
speakers whenever ossible. However, sharin g with part in the passage, which is paragraph
3. You can, hence, read more carefully to
frie nds who are easy to commun icate with is probably
choose C as the correct answer.
more sensible at first.
4 The above fi gures do not inclu de the cost of large

non-essential items such as hou sehold equ ipment or a
car. Owni ng and maintain ing a motor vehicle is expe n- 1 2: D
sive in Australi a. Insu ra nce is compulsory and costly,_ j The keyword cost in the question helps
and parking both on and off campus ca n be a problem direct you to read paragraph 4, and you
additional ex ense. It is not advisable for a can see that items in A. B. and C are all
mentioned. So, the correct choice must be D.
student to own a car unless absolutely necessary.
A reasonable seco nd -han d car can cost in excess of
AS$4,000 .
J
3:B
The key phrase summer vacation in the
6 The summe r vacation requires specia_!_ financial question helps you locate paragraph 6,
Expenses for th is period must be carefully which contain relevant information. The
estimated and ad ded to costs for the academic year information in the sentence University eating
a reali stic total figure for the calendar
facilities ... close during this time reveals that
A and C are not the correct choices. spend
year. They are not included in the estimate d AS$1 0,000- as least as much ... as ... in the last sentence
AS$12,000 ...E_reviously quoted. Universi ty eating facili- of this paragraph also shows that choice D is
ties, and some university and college housin facilities , incorrect.
duri12.9._this time. As a eneral rule, internat ional

students should ex pect at least on
monthly living expe nses sum mer as they do
during..J.b.e academic year. 4:B
The keywords part-time work in the question
7 ... While some students are ab le to su lem ent and the answer in D help you to locate
their funds with money the necessary informatio n in paragraph 7.
vaca-
Reading this paragraph carefully, you can
tion work. work is not always reg ular even when E
choose B as the correct answer. 0
available , and this can co ntribute to anxiety and stu dy
problems.
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Cambrid ge IELTS Intensiv e Training Reading 23

10 The Students' Union coordinat es a number of outJ 5: A
lets on the various university campuse s that provide This is the most difficult question of all.
. . . . Candidates may mistakenly choose C as their
stationery 1tems and other essent1al study equ1pment answer. In fact, this amount of money just
at reasonab le prices. Some courses requ ire_:pecia l- refers to expenses for books. stationery and
ised equipmen t which can be quite costly, and it is wise some equipment, not the expenses for the
whole course. When previewing the question
to check any additiona l costs involved with the course and the answers in A and C, you can locate
of your choice. paragraphs 10 and 11 having the relevant
information and find out that some courses
require specialised equipment which can be
11 In general, those practically orientated courses
quite costly ... additional costs ...
tend to incur higher add itional costs . Ex penses for
6: B
books, stationer y, and equipme nt vary greatly, but
By previewing the question, you can locate
you should allow approx imately_AS$500-A S$1 ,000
the relevant information in paragraph 12 and
a year. you can decide on the correct answer in the
last sentence of this paragraph.
12 ... In addition to normal bank ing and financial ser-
vices [with no transactio n charges], credit unions usu-
ally provide special services for internatio nal students.
Questions 7-17: Summary-completion questions

7: 15 percent
for each gap.
First, you should read the gapped text quickly to identify the part of speech of the word(s) needed
a number. Then, looking at the chart, you can easily find the answer.
For gap 7. you can predict that it needs
8: vary
help you to find
When previewing this gapped sentence, you expect a verb to fill in. So, the keyword expenses can
the right word in paragraph 2.
9: necessity
in paragraph 4.
The keywords owning a car in this gapped sentence can help you locate the relevant information
adjective into
The passage has used the adjective necessal}'but the gap requires a noun. so you must change this
the noun necessity.
10: well served

easily recog-
The key phrase public transport in this gapped sentence can be found in paragraph 5 and you can
nise well served as the correct answer.
11: carefully
you can recog-
The keywords summer vacation and budget in this gapped text can direct you to paragraph 6 and
nise that an adverb is needed for this gap.
12: regulations
this gap.
The key phrase present immigration occurs in paragraph 7. So. you can rapidly find the answer for
13: 20 hours
This answer is also found in the same sentence of paragraph 7.
24 (ambridg e ll·IT<:i f'rainmgR eadmg

IIOW TO READ EF.TCTI\'1'1 Y
14: brought
requires a
The keywords clothing and from home in this gapped sentence are found in paragraph 8 and the gap
past participle. You, hence, have to change bnngin the passage into brought.
15: winter
8.
Gap 15 needs a noun and the keywords warm clothing can also help you find the right word in paragraph
16: available
The
The words banking and financial services help you locate in the necessary information in the last paragraph.
subject funds in the gapped text gives you a hint to choose available as the correct answer.
17: restricted
the right
The keyword overspend leads you to the last sentence of the last paragraph and you can quickly find
word for the gap: tight is closest in meaning to restricted.
of the
Having analysed the two reading passages above, you may come to the conclusion that answers to most
in a test, especially multiple-cho ice questions and summary-com pletion questions usually appear in
questions
Given
the same order as that of the questions. However, this will not apply to matching questions or Yes/No/Not
anywhere in the paragraphs (see
questions. For these question types, the information may be scattered randomly
Unit 3).
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Cambridge I ELT'") lntensiye Training Reading 25

26
Unit 1 MATCHING HEADINGS
Question Types
The IELTS Reading test contains forty questions and you are given exactly one hour to
answer all the questions. Remember that in the IELTS Reading test (unlike the IELTS
Listening test), no extra time is given to transfer your answers onto your answer sheet. It is,
thus, very important that you keep an eye on the time and timely transfer your answers onto
your answer sheet as you complete each reading section.
There are various types of questions used in the Reading test. You should familiarise your-
self with these types:
1. Matching Headings 6. Table Completion

2. True/False/Not Given 7. Summary Completion
3. Short Answers 8. Matching Lists/Paragraphs
4. Multiple Choice 9. Classification
5. Sentence Completion
Matching Headings
This type of question tests your ability to identify the main idea of a paragraph. Here you
will be given a list of headings. Your job is to find the most suitable heading for each of the
paragraphs of a reading passage. There will be more headings than paragraphs, and you
should not use any heading more than once unless the instructions tell you that you can.
Below is a typical example of this task type.
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28 Cambridge IELTS Intensive Training Reading

Unit I HJ•,\Dl'\IGS
READING PASSAGE 1
There are six sections in this passage, choose the most suitable heading for each section
from the list of headings i-xii below. Write the appropriate numbers i-xii in boxes 1-5 on
your answer sheet.
NB There are more headings than sections so you will not use all of them.
List of Headings
The cost of adjudication
u Handling rights-based disputes
m Punishing acts of aggression 1. Section A
1v The role of dependence in disputes 2. Section B
v The role of arbitrators 3. Section D
V1 Methods of settling conflicting interests 4. Section E
vu Ensuring choice for consumers 5. Section F
Vlll Fulfilling employees' needs
ix The use of negotiation for different dispute types
x Advantages of negotiation over mediation
xi The role of power in settling disagreements
xu Disagreement of interests
Example Answer
Section C lX
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Cambridge I EIJ'S Intensive Traming Reading 29

Sample Passage
READING PASSAGE
Read the reading passage and select the best heading for each ofparagraphs A-1 from the
list of headings below.
Write the appropriate numbers i-ix in the boxes numbered 6-13 on the answer sheet. Use
each heading ONCE only.
List of Headings
Exact cause of heart attacks 6. Paragraph A
11 The safest day 7. Paragraph B
iii Breathless, sweaty and crushed 8. Paragraph C
1v Reducing heart attack hazard 9. Paragraph D
v High-risk Monday 10. Paragraph F
v1 Mondays: riskier than food and way of life 11. Paragraph G
VII Jobless but safer 12. Paragraph H
vm Elderly also at risk 13. Paragraph
1x Bodily adaptations
Example Answer
Paragraph E
------------ ------------ ----
WARNING: MONDAYS ARE BAD FOR ANSWERS&

YOUR HEART EXPLANATIONS
6. iii
A That 'Monday morning feeling· could be a crushing pain in
Reading paragraph A. you will
the chest which leaves you sweating and gasping for breath. Re- see these keywords in the topic
cent research from Germany and Italy shows that heart attacks sentence: crushing pain, sweating,
are more common on Monday morning and doctors blame the and gasping for breath, which are
equivalents to breathless, sweaty
stress of returning to work after the weekend break.
and crushed in the list of headings.
You can, therefore, choose your
8 The risk of having a heart attack on any given day should be
answer.
one in seven, but a six-year study coordinated by researchers at
the Free University of Berlin of more than 2,600 Germans re- 7.v
E vealed that the average person had a 20 per cent higher chance Reading paragraph B, you will find
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of having a heart attack on a Monday than on any other day. out that the risk of having a heart
attack is greater on a Monday. The
> keywords in th e last sentence of
C Working Germans are particularly vulnerable , with a 33 per
this paragraph: higher chance, hav·
ce nt higher risk at the beginning of the working week. Non-
ing a heart attack, and on a Monday
workers, by comparison, appear to be no more at risk on a can help you to choose High-risk
Monday than any other day. Monday in vas the correct answer.
30 Cambridge lELrS Intensive Training Reading

Unit 1 MATCIIING I!FADINGS
D A study of 11,000 Italians identified 8 am on a Monday morn- 8.vii

in g as the most stressful time for the heart, and both stud ies The keywords in paragraph C:
sh owed that Sunday is the least stressful day, with fewer heart working Gennans, vulnerable,
attacks in bot h count ri es. non-workers, no more at risk will
help you choose the answer.
E Th e find ings could lead to a better understand ing of what
tri ggers heart attacks, according to Dr. Stefan Willich of the Free
9.ii
University. We know a lot about long-term risk factors such as
The clause after showed: Sunday
smoking and cholesterol, but we don't know what actually triggers
... enables you to choose the
heart attacks, so we can 't make specific recommendations about answer.
how to prevent them,' he said .
F Monday mornings have a double helping of stress for the 10. ix

worki ng body as it makes a rapid trans ition from sleep to activity, The topic sentence in paragraph
and from the relaxi ng weekend to the pressures of work. When F can quickly help you to
people get up, their blood pressure and heart rate go up and identify the main idea of the
whole paragraph, which can be
there are hormonal changes in their bodies,' Willich explai ned .
summed up in the phrase Bodily
'All these things can have an adverse effect in the blood system adaptations in the heading ix.
an d increase the risk of a clot in the arteries which will cause a
heart attack.' When people return to work after a weekend off,
11. viii
th e pace of their life changes. They have a higher workload, more
The topic sentence in paragraph
stress, more anger and more physical activity,' said Willich. We
G is the second sentence. Noting
need to know how these events cause changes in the body before the clause after showed: the
we can understand if they cause heart attacks.' over·65s ... helps you to decide
on the correct choice.
G But although it is tempting to believe that returning to work
increases the risk of a heart attack, both Willich and the Ita lian
researchers admit that it is only a partial answer. Both studies 12. vi
showed that the over-65s are also vulnerable on a Monday morn- The clause after that: the
Monday ... lifestyle obviously
ing even though most no longer work. The reason for this is not
helps you choose the answer.
clear, but the Italian team at the Luigi Saddo Hospital in Milan
speculate that social interactions - the thought of fac ing another
week and all its pressures - may play a part. 13. iv
The topic sentence in paragraph
H What is clear, however, is that the Monday morning peak I guides you to choose the
seems to be consistent from northern Germany to southern Italy answer.
in spite of the differences in diet and lifestyle.
I Willich is reluctant at this stage to make specific recommenda-

E
tions, but he suggests that anyone who suffers from heart disease 0
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....,
should take it easy on Monday mornings and leave potentially <lJ
>
stressful meetings until midweek. 'People should try to create a
pleasant working envi ronment,' he added . 'Maybe this risk app lies
on ly to those who see work as a burden, and people who enjoy
th eir wo rk are not so much at risk. We need to find out more.'
Cambndgc IELTS Intensive Training Reading 31

Unit 2 TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN
READING PASSAGE 1
Read the article on International Students H ouse and look at the statements below.
In boxes 22-29 on your answer sheet, write
NB The first one has been done for you as an example.
Example Answer
The club is for overseas students only. FALSE
22. The club has long-term dormitory accommodation.

23. Membership must be renewed monthly.
24. The club provides subsidised restaurant meals .
25. The club is open to non-members on Tuesday evenings.
26. STA Travel helps finance the Students ' Advisor.
27. The services of the Students' Advisor are free to all club members .
28. You must make an appointment to see the Students' Advisor.
29. There will be a surcharge for accommodation over the Christmas period.
This task is considered to be the most difficult task in the IELTS Reading test. It requires
candidates to identify either the information (True/False/Not Given) or the writer's view-
points (Yes/ No/ Not Given) in a passage.
It is very easy to make mistakes between False/ No and Not Given because the information
in these questions is often very similar or related to details in the passage.
True/False/Not Given tasks account for two-thirds of detailed questions. So, if you know
E how to tackle them, the success is certainly in your hand.
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Unit 2 TRL E I ALSI• 't rr Cl\ I'\;
Important Notes f------------------------..
1. For TRUE/YES answers, all aspects of the questions will be proven correct from the
passage.
2. When words like both ... and, and, or also are used in the passage, whereas must or
only occurs in certain statements, then the statements must be false.
3. For answers that are FALSE/NO, you will find different words used in the passage
and the questions; for example:
Words used in the passage Words used in the questions

many/some/several all
sometimes usually/always
unlikely impossible
feel! consider prove
theory hypothesis
4. For NOT GIVEN answers, you will find that some information in the passage men-
tions subjective opinions by using words like aim, purpose, promise, swear, and
vow, whereas notional verbs indicating objective facts appear in the questions; for
example:
1) lilMfi!J.ii He vowed he would never come back.
Diii§@itil He never came back.
2) lilMfi!J.ii His aim was to bring together, once every four years, athletes from
all countries on the friendly fields of amateur sport.
E:
DJit§Mtifil Only amateur athletes are allowed to compete in the modern
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Olympics. Q)
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5. Make sure that you base on the information in the passage, not your own knowledge,
when giving your answers.
Cambridge I LlTS Intensive 1 raining Reading 33

Unit 3 SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS
Questions 5-8
Answer the following questions on the Moulex iron using NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS.
Write your answers in boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet.
5. What sort of water are you advised to use?

6. What factor makes you decide on the quantity of steam to use?
7. What should you do if your iron starts to drip water?
8. What could damage your iron if you do not clean it?
This question type is more difficult than it appears. In the instructions, you are asked to
write an answer of between one and four words. Most often, you are instructed to write each
answer in NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. This is important because if you write four
words (even if it contains the correct answer), it is marked as wrong. The spelling has to be
correct, too.
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38 Cambridge lELTS Intensive Training Reading

Unit 3 SIIORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
Sample Passage
READING PASSAGE
Answer the following questions on the Moulex iron using NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS.
5. What sort of water are you advised to use?

6. What factor makes you decide on the quantity of steam to use?
7. What should you do if your iron starts to drip water?
8. What could damage your iron if you do not clean it?
YOUR MOULEX IRON ANSWERS&

EXPLANATIONS
A Filling the reservoir
5. distilled water/
Your iron is designed to function using tap water. However, it will Last
distilled
Longer if you use distilled water.
First. you read question 5
-Always unplug the iron before filling the reservoir. and identify the keyword
- Always empty the reservoir after use. water. Then, you read
the paragraph A with the
B Temperature and steam control sub·heading "Filling the
reservoir", you will certainly
Your Moulex iron has two buttons which control the intensity of heat find out the advice in the
produced by the iron. You can, therefore, adjust the temperature of second sentence of the
t he iron and the amount of steam being given off depending upon the paragraph.
type of fabric be ing ironed.

-Turn the steam control to the desired intensity. 6. type of fabric
-Turn the thermostat control to the desired temperature. Reading the second
question, you will find out
Important: If your iron produces droplets of wate r instead of giving off
the keywords factors, decide
steam, your temperature control is set too Low. on, quantity of steam. These
keywords help you to read
C Spray button the second sentence in
paragraph B to find out the
This button activates a jet of cold water which allows you to iron out
answer.
any unintentional creases. Press the button for one second.
D Pressing button E
7. set temperature high/ 0
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This button activates a super shot of steam which momentarily gives higher +-'
(])
you an additional 40 g of steam, when needed . The keywords in question 7 >

are should ... do, iron, drip
Important: Do not use this more than five successive times. water. The phrase produces
droplets of water in the
last part of paragraph B
Cambridge lELTS Intensive Training Reading 39

E Suits, etc. enables you to find out such
It is possible to use this iron in a vertical position so that you can re- an answer. Other possible
answers are increase
move creases from clothes on coat hangers or from curtains . Turn-
the temperature/ tum up
ing the thermostat control and the steam button to maximum, hold temperature, etc.
the iron in a vertical position close to the fabric but without touch-
ing it. Hold down the pressing button for a maximum of one second. 8. any calcium deposits/
calcium deposits
The steam produced is not always visible but is still able to remove
The keyword in question 8
creases.
is clean. The sub-heading
Important: Hold the iron at a sufficient distance from silk and wool to "Auto-clean" in paragraph F
corresponds to this keyword.
avoid all risk of scorching. Do not attempt to remove creases from an
Reading on, you can find out
item of clothing that is being worn, always use a coat hanger. the answer in the last part of
this paragraph.
F Auto-clean
In order that your iron does not become furred up, Moulex have inte-
grated an auto-clean system and we advise you to use it very regu-
larly (1-2 times per month].
-Turn the steam control to the off position.

- Fill the reservoir and turn the thermostat control to maximum.
-As soon as the indicator light goes out, unplug the iron and, holding
it over the sink, turn the steam control to auto-clean . Any calcium
deposits will be washed out by the steam. Continue the procedure
until the reservoir is empty.
40 ( ambridgt IELT'-l Intensive Training Reading

Unit4 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
Multiple-Ch oice questions ask candidates to choose correct answers from a list of options
given. There are two types of Multiple-Ch oice questions.
1. Standard Multiple -Choice Questions

Standard Multiple-C hoice questions are the most typical form in the IELTS test with one
question and four possible answers. Candidates have to choose one correct answer from the
four alternatives given in the question.
Sample Passage
Now, read the passage below and answer Questions 9-14.
READIN G PASSAGE
CLASSIC TOURS - COACH BREAK INFORMATION
Luggage
We ask you to keep luggage down to one medium-sized suitcase per person, but a small hold-
all can also be taken on board the coach .
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Seat allocation .....
Q)
Requests for particular seats can be made on most coach breaks when booking, but since >
allocations are made on a "first come first served" basis, early booking is advisable. When
bookings are made with us, you will be offered the best seats that are available on the coach
at that time.

Travel documen ts
When you have paid your deposit, we will send you all the necessary documents and labels, so
that you receive them in good time before the coach break departure date. Certain documents,
for example air or boat tickets, may have to be retained and your driver or courier will then
issue them to you at the relevant point.
Special diets
If you require a special diet you must inform us at the time of booking with a copy of the diet.
This will be notified to the hotel or hotels on your coach break, but on certain coach breaks the
hotels used are tourist class and whilst offering value for money within the price range, they
may not have the full facilities to cope with special diets. Any extra costs incurred must be paid
to the hotel by yourself before departure from the hotel.
Accomm odation
Many of our coach breaks now include, within the price, accommodation with private facilities,
and this will be indicated on the coach break page. Other coach breaks have a limited number
of rooms with private facilities which, subject to availability, can be reserved and guaranteed
at the time of booking -the supplemen tary charge shown in the price panel will be added to
your account.
On any coach break there are only a limited number of single rooms. When a single room is
available it may be subject to a supplementary charge and this will be shown on the brochure
pag e.
Entertai nment
Some of our hotels arrange additional entertainm ent which could include music, dancing,
fi lm shows, etc. The nature and frequency of the entertainm ent presented is at the discre-
tion of the hotel and therefore not guaranteed and could be withdrawn if there is a lack of
demand or insufficient numbers in the hotel.
Questions 9-14
Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
t: 9. If you want to sit at the front of the coach,

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A ask when you get on the coach. C book your seat well in advance.
> B arrive early on the departure date . D avoid travelling at peak times.
9. c
Reading the question, you can identify the keyword sit, which can direct you to read the first sentence in
the para-
graph under the sub-heading "Seat allocation" and you can choose C as the correct answer.
42 Cambridge IELTS lnLcnsivc Training Reading-

l mt 4 \1L LTIPLI CIIOJO
10. Your air tickets

A will be sent to your departure point. C will be enclosed with other documents.
B must be collected before leaving. D may be held by your coach driver.
10. D
The keywords air tickets in the question help you to locate the corresponding information in the paragraph under
the sub-heading "Travel documents" and the last sentence in this paragraph shows you the answer. The modals will
and must in A. B. and C do not express the same meaning as that in the paragraph.
11. If you need a special diet, you should

A inform the hotel when you arrive. C tell the coach company.
B pay extra with the booking. D book tourist class.
11. c
The keywords special diet in the question help you to easily locate the corresponding information in the next para-
graph under the sub-heading "Special diets" and the first sentence in this paragraph quickly shows you the answer.
12. It may be necessary to pay extra for

A a bathroom. C additionalluggage.
B boat tickets . D entertainment.
12. A
This question does not clearly give you hints to any paragraph but based on your knowledge of the order of ques-
tions in the IELTS test, you will read the next paragraph under the sub-heading "Accommodation". You, then, find
out that choice A is equivalent to private facilities mentioned several times in the paragraph.
13. Entertainment is available

A at all hotels. C regularly .
B if there is demand. D for an additional cost.
13. B
The keyword entertainment in the question helps you to easily locate the corresponding information in the next
paragraph under the same sub-heading "Entertainment". Moreover, the keyword demand can also give you the
exact cue to choose B as the correct answer.
14. With every booking, Classic Tours guarantee you will be able to
A request high quality meals. C use your own personal bathroom.
B take hand luggage on the coach. D see a film if you want to.
14. B E
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Note that this question does not follow the common order of occurrence in the IELTS test. The answer to this +-'
Q)
question is found in the first paragraph. >
Cambridge llTJ'S lnLensivc ·r raining Reading 43

2. Modified Multiple-Choice Questions
This type of Multiple-Choice question asks candidates to choose more than ONE answer
out of several options given for a question; for example, Which two/three/four of the follow-
ing are not healthy?
Sample Passage
READING PASSAGE
USING YOUR TUMBLE DRIER

Controls
Timer control
To operate the drier, close the door and turn the timer control to the required time. The
timer can be set to any time up to 120 minutes, and can be reset at any time as required
to increase, or reduce the time to dry, but in doing so the timer knob must only be turned
clockwise. Turning the timer backwards will cause damage and it must therefore be turned
forwards even to reach the 'off' position. The timer is electrically driven and will therefore
only advance when there is power supplied to the drier and the drier door is closed. The time
indicated on the timer includes approximately 10 minutes of tumble drying with the heat off.
Note that the drier should never be turned off leaving the clothes in the drum without first
completing the heat-off cool-down period.
Heat control
There are two levels of heat which may be selected by setting the control to t (low) or e
(high) . Many materials may be dried using high heat, but pay particular attention to setting
the control to low heat for the materials mentioned under 'Drying times' below.
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Automatic door switch
Q)
;:: The drier will stop when the door is opened and will restart when the door is closed, allowing
c items to be added or taken from the drier without the need to reset the controls.
"'
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c
5
5
44 Cambridge I ElTS lnLensivc Training Reading

Uni' 4 .\ll'l TIPI F CHOICF Ql :'STlO\J"S
Before tumble drying

Never overspin easy-care fabrics in your automatic washing machine or spin-drier, and
always follow the washing instructions given on the Care Label attached to the garment.
Easy-care and synthetic fabrics dry quickly in a tumble drier and many of them will not need
ironing if they are dried in small loads. It is important to remove them from the tumble drier
as soon as the drier stops after the cool-down period to avoid causing unnecessary creasing.
Fabric conditioner
Conditioner added to the final rinse in your washing machine will give even more softness to
all fabrics and is invaluable for reducing the static electricity which causes fabrics, contain-
ing synthetic fibres, to cling and attract dirt.
After tumble drying

All clothes lose lint as they wear. When clothes are hung on a washing line the lint is blown
away by the wind. In a tumble drier it is collected in the lint filter.
The door incorporates a mesh lint filter which is removed by lifting out vertically.
It is essential to remove the lint from the filter every time the drier is used . Failure to do this
will result in poor drying performance and may lead to mechanical or electrical breakdown.
Maximum loads:
cottons and linens 3 kg (6.5 lb) dry weight
synthetic fabrics 1 kg (2 lb) for minimum creasing or
cotton and viscose articles 2 kg if creasing is unimportant
with special finishes
Clothes should be sorted into loads of similar fabrics before drying. Towels and other cotton
items which do not need ironing can be fully dried, and these will be ready to store or wear
as soon as they are taken from the drier. Cotton which needs ironing can be dried to a suit-
able dampness by reducing the drying times suggested by approximately one quarter.
Heavy fabrics should be dried separately from lightweight fabrics as a general rule. Very
bulky large items should not be dried in a tumble drier.
Drying times
These will depend on the size of the load, the type of fabric and the wetness of the load. It
is, therefore, not possible to give exact drying times to cover all the variables, but experience
will enable you to set the time for fully drying or damp drying as required. As an approximate
guide, the table overleaf, which is based on garments spun in an automatic washing machine, E
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may assist you. The lower figures in each group are the minimum times required for light .....
<lJ
articles, the higher figures are the times required for medium-heavy large articles. Loads >
containing large items such as sheets and tablecloths should be removed and shaken out at
least once during the drying cycle, except for reverse air models where this is unnecessary.
Cambridge !ELI'S Intensive l'raming Reading 45

Time to dry in minutes per
dry weight load of clothes
Heat 3 kg 2 kg 1.5 kg 0.75 kg
Acrylics and *Reduced

t or low - 75-90 65-75 45-55
acrylic mixtures spin
Synthetic fabrics
and fabrics *Reduced
consisting of spin
e or high - 40-65 30-50 20-35
synthetic/cotton
mixtures
Cottons and linens Normal spin e or high 65-80 45-60 35-50 20-30
*Synthetics must be given reduced spin in accordance with garment manufacturers' recommendations.
All the times shown are timer knob markings and include 10 minutes' cool-down period. If
your garments have been spun in a high speed (2,800 r. p. m.) spin-drier, the times will be
reduced slightly. If they have been spun in a low spin speed automatic washing machine
(some imported washing machine give 400-500 r. p. m. spin speed). then the times will be
increased .
38. Which THREE of the following factors are mentioned as influencing the drying time
of the tumble drier?
A the dampness of the load D the length of cool-down period
B the temperature of the room E the amount to be dried
C the kind of material
ANSWERS & EXPlANATION
38. A, C, E
Reading the question. you should be able to quickly identify the keywords drying time as they help you to locate
the information in the corresponding paragraph under the sub·heading "Drying times". The answers to this question
can easily be found in the first sentence of this paragraph.
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46 Cambridge IELrS Intensive Training Reading

Unit 5 SENTENCE COMPLETION
Sentence-Completion questions test candidates' ability to find details to complete sentences.

A number of incomplete sentences are provided and candidates must complete them with
the information from a reading passage in NO MORE than three words or fewer for each
sentence.
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Sample passage
READING PASSAGE
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, complete the following statements.
ASIA'S ENERGY TEMPTATION

Nuclear power supplies 5% of the world's energy from more than 400 plants. But with
the exception of France and Japan, the rich world has stopped ordering new reactors.
A technology that was once deemed both clean and 'too cheap to metre' has proved
to be neither. The industry's chief hope now rests on the poor world. Western firms
with reactors to sell will be relying on Asia, where electricity demand is growing at 8%
a year. New reactors are planned in Indonesia, South Korea, Pakistan and India. It is
good news for the reactors' vendors; but these countries are making a mistake.
The economic arguments for building new nuclear plants are flawed. The marginal
costs of generating electricity from nuclear energy may be tiny, but, as the technology
now stands, huge and uncertain costs are involved in building the power stations, deal-
ing with spent fuel, and decommissioning. Many Western governments which sang
nuclear's praises now admit that gas and hydropower can produce cheaper electricity.
The economics of nuclear power in the poor world could prove to be worse still. As in
the rich world, fossil fuels such as gas and coal are invariably cheaper. But most devel-
oping countries are strapped for cash and need to increase electricity supply quickly
to meet soaring demand. Nuclear plants fail on both counts: they are hugely capital-
intensive and can take as long as ten years to build.
Those still charmed by nuclear power nowadays make three new arguments in its fa-
vour: that it is a defence against climate change, against another OPEC-administered
oil shock, and against the inevitable exhaustion of fossil fuels. None bears close ex-
amination.
At present rates of demand, the world has enough oil to last for more than 40 years,
enough gas for more than 60 years and enough coal for more than 230 years. Naturally,
E. demand will increase; but so will reserves as companies explore more widely and costs
0
u fall. Since 1970, viable reserves of oil have almost doubled while those of gas have
leapt threefold. One distant day a crunch will come, but as it approaches fossil fuel
prices will rise, making alternative forms of energy, perhaps including nuclear power,
competitive. That is not a reason to spend on nuclear now.

l'r> t. Sl '\ '! .• COI\1!11 liON
An oil shock is a more worryi ng prospe ct, despite today's low

oil price and OPEC's
sits on 75% of the
presen t inabili ty to budge it upwards. Mter all, the cartel still
East can change
world's economically viable reserve s, and the politics of the Middle
g nuclea r reactor s
at a stroke. However, even if an oil shock is a real danger , buildin
ly small effect on
is not a good way to avert it. A higher oil price would have a relative
can now provide.
the supply of electric ity - the only sort of energy that nuclea r power
genera ted from oil,
Just over a tenth of the world's electric ity (and 14% of Asia's) is
and the propor tion has fallen steadil y since 1970.
oil shock. Govern-
Beside s, there are superio r, non-nu clear ways to prepar e for an
stocks. Especial-
ments could take advant age of today's low oil prices to build up their
try to restric t the
ly where conges tion and polluti on are serious problem s, they could
ments keen to re-
growth of car use, or promo te cars which guzzle less fuel. For govern
are usually cheape r
duce electric ity's remain ing depend ence on oil still further , there
alterna tives to nuclea r, such as coal or hydropower.
uncert ainties, the
Climate change is a legitim ate worry. Althou gh still riddled with
in the atmosp here
science of climate change is becom ing firmer: put too much carbon
results . But here
and you might end up cooking the earth, with possibly catastr ophic
se. Cutting the
again, switch ing immed iately to nuclea r power is not the best respon
the world's energy
hefty subsid ies that go to the world's coal produc ers would help tilt
dioxide . Developing
balanc e toward s natura l gas, which gives off much less carbon
a year, accord ing
countr ies subsid ise electric ity prices to the tune of up to $120 billion
tion, electric ity
to World Bank estima tes. If prices reflect ed the true costs of genera
deman d would fall, thus cutting greenh ouse emissions.
want to reduce
Once the tough job of cutting subsid ies is over, govern ments might
s that merit more sub-
greenh ouse gases further . Again, there are carbon-free energie
as solar and wind
sidies than nuclea r. The costs of many renewa ble technologies, such
power, have fallen dramat ically in recent decades.
means swappi ng
Moreover, suppor ting nuclea r power to ward off climate change
radiati on like the
one enviro nmenta l risk for anothe r. Voters in many countr ies fear
happen they can
plague . The risks of nuclea r accide nts may be tiny, but when they
l disadv antage s (wind
be catastr ophic. Renew ables are not withou t their enviro nmenta
cleane r than nucle-
turbine s, for example, can be unsigh tly on hilltops), but are much
h would be better
ar. The billions rich countr ies each year pump into nuclea r researc
E
spent on renewa bles instead . 0
u
.....
r indust ry still
Having been invente d, nuclea r power will not disapp ear. The nuclea
OJ
>
lives as cheapl y
has a job to do, runnin g existin g nuclea r plants to the end of their
holes. Asia should
and safely as possible. For now, the case for nuclea r power is full of
resist the tempta tion to throw its money into them.
CJ.mbridgc IEI.l'S lntemi\C.' J'raining Reading 49

5. Nucle ar power plant s requi re a great deal of

to build .
First, you have to read the gapped sentence to understand
its meaning. Then, the keywords nuclear power plants
direct your attention to the topic sentence in paragra ph 2.
Reading on, you can see that huge and uncertain in
the supporting sentence can relate to a great deal in the
question. Therefore, the correct answer must be costs.
6. Two carbo n-free forms of energ y are

and
The keywords in the question carbon-free forms of energy
can help you locate the corresponding information in
paragraph 3 from the bottom of the passage: Again, there
are carbon -free energies that merit more subsidies than
nuclear. The costs of many renewable technologies, such as solar
and wind power, have fallen dramatically in re-
cent decades. The correct answers are solar, wind power . In
fact, you may have difficulty in locating this informa-
tion as it is too far from that of the first question.
7. Mone y prese ntly used for nucle ar resea rch could be bette
r spent on
The keywords nuclear research and better spent on can
help you to locate the answer in the last sentence of
paragraph 2 from the bottom of the passage, which is renewa
bles.
8. The nucle ar indus try shoul d opera te nucle ar powe

r plants
The keywords nuclear industry and nuclear power plants
easily direct your focus on the second sentence in the last
paragraph of the passage and find out the correct answer
: cheaply and safely.
E
0
u
.....,
<lJ
>
50 Cambridge IELTS Intensive rrainin g Reading

Unit 6 DIAGRAM /FLOW -CHART /TABLE
COMPLETION
Diagrarn/Flow-Ch art!fable-Completion questions test candidates' ability to locate and

identify particular details in a reading passage. Candidates' job is to find words and/or
numbers from the reading passage to complete the diagram/flow chart/table.
Sample Passage
READING PASSAGE
WINTER SPORTS
The 17th Winter Games, held in Norway in 1994, are part of an Olympic tradition which
goes back almost 3,000 years. For more than 1,000 years, the ancient Games were held,
every four years, on hallowed ground near Mount Olympus, where the Greek gods were said
to live.
The Olympics brought together men from war-torn tribes and states in Greece and its colo-
nies. A sacred truce was declared to allow men to travel to the Games in safety. Women could
E
not take part and were forbidden , on pain of death, even to attend the Games. 0
u
.....
(!)
The ancient Olympics were abolished by the Roman Emperor Theodosius in AD 393, after >
Greece had lost its independence. But the idea never died and the Frenchman Baron Pierre
de Coubertin, an educator and scholar, founded the modern Olympics. His aim was to bring
together, once every fo ur years, athletes from all countries on the friendly fields of amateur
Cambridge lEtTS lnlensivc Training Readmg 51

sport. No account was to be taken of national rivalries, nor politics, race, religion, wealth or
social status.
The first modern Games were held in Athens in 1896, and four years later, in Paris, women
began to take part. Although the Winter Olympics did not begin until 1924, figure skating
was part of the 1908 London Summer Olympics; both skating and ice hockey were included
in the Antwerp Games in 1920. But generally winter sports were felt to be too specialised.
Only cold weather countries had much experience of activities such as skiing - a means of
transport overland across ice and snow during long winters.
The Scandinavians, for whom skiing is a part of everyday life, had objected to the idea of
Winter Games. They feared it would threaten their own Nordic Games, which had been held
every four years since 1901. But the International Olympic Committee (IOC) agreed to stage
an international Sports Week in Chamonix, France, in 1924. It was a success and the Scan-
dinavians won 28 of the 43 medals, including nine golds. They dropped their objections and
the event was retrospectively named the First Olympic Winter Games.
Apart from the Second World War period, the Winter Olympics were held every four years, a
few months before the Summer Olympics. But in 1986 the IOC changed the schedule so that
the Summer and Winter Games would be held in different years. Thus, for the only time in
history, the Lillehammer (Norway) Games took place just two years after the previous Winter
Olympics which were held in Albertville, France.
Since the Winter Games began, 55 out of 56 gold medals in the men's Nordic skiing events
have been won by competitors from Scandinavia or the former Soviet Union. For teams from
warm weather countries, cross-country skiing can pose problems. At the Calgary Games in
1988, one competitor in the 50-kilometre event was so slow that race officials feared he was
lost and sent out a search party. Roberto Alvarez of Mexico had never skied more than 20
kilometres before and finished 61 stand last - 52 minutes behind the 60th place.
Questions 28-31
Complete the table below. Write a date for each answer.
DATE EVENT
c
0 28 Ancient Olympics came to an end
L
- - - e--· - - - - - - - ----
> 29 First women's events
I Example 1901 First Nordic Games

I
30 First winter team game included in Olympics
-·
31 First Winter Olympic Games
52 Cambridge !F:Lf', !ntl'nsivc !raining Reading

llmt fi !>1M R.\ \I t 0\\ C H. \h l t\ 1 I· COM PI I 110:\
28. AD 393
First, you have to read the keywords in the question: Ancient Olympics came to an end Scanning the passage, you
can find out the similar terms in the first sentence of paragraph 3: ancient Olympics and were abolished which has
the same meaning as came to an end So. the answer is AD 393.
29. 1900
The keywords First women's events can lead you to the phrase women began to take part in the first sentence of
paragraph 4. You need to add 4 to the year 1896 to produce the correct answer: 1900.
30. 1920
The keywords First winter team game can lead you to the phrase Winter Olympics in the second sentence of para-
graph 4. Then, reading on, you can find the answer included in the sentence both ... 1920. So, 1920 is the correct
answer.
31. 1924
Again, the second sentence of paragraph 4 you have just read can help you to give the answer quickly: 1924.
f
0
u
Q}
>
Cambridge I FITS lntcnsiwTrai111ng Reading 53

Unit 7 SUMMA RY COMPLETION
Summary-com pletion questions require candidates to either find an exact word or a few
words from the reading passage or use the information in the passage to complete the sum-
mary. The instructions will tell them the word limit - usually, from one to three words.
Sample Passage
READING PASSAGE
PAPER RECYCLING
A Paper is different from other waste produce because it comes from a sustainable
resource: trees. Unlike the minerals and oil used to make plastics and metals, trees
are replaceable. Paper is also biodegradable, so it does not pose as much threat to the
environment when it is discarded. While 45 out of every 100 tonnes of wood fibre
used to make paper in Australia comes from waste paper, the rest comes directly
from virgin fibres from forests and plantations. By world standard this is a good per-
formance since the worldwide average is 33% waste paper. Governments have en-
couraged waste paper collection and sorting schemes and at the same time, the paper
industry has responded by developing new recycling technologies that have paved the
way for even greater utilisation of used fibres. As a result, industry's use of recycled
E fibres is expected to increase at twice the rate of virgin fibres over the coming years.
(.,
u
B Already, waste paper constitutes 70% of paper used for packaging, and advances
in the technology required to remove ink from the paper have allowed a higher recy-
cled content in newsprint and writing paper. To achieve the benefits of recycling, the
community must also contribute. We need to accept a change in the quality of paper
products; for example, stationery may be less white and of a rougher texture. There
54 C,tmbriclgc I FITS I ntcnSIVt' Training Reading

llnit 7 SU\lMARY COI\U I FTIOr\
collection progra mmes .

also needs to be suppo rt from the comm unity for waste paper
tors but it also needs to be
Not only do we need to make the paper available to collec
such as staple s, paper-
separa ted into differ ent types and sorted from contam inants
clips, string and other misce llaneo us items.
which can be recycl ed
C There are techni cal limita tions to the amoun t of paper
includ e paper in the
and some paper produ cts canno t be collec ted for reuse. These
and paper which is badly
form of books and perma nent records, photog raphic paper
recycling are factories and
contam inated . The four most comm on sources of paper for
ial in which goods are de-
retail stores which gather large amoun ts of packaging mater
ents and compu ter outpu t,
livered, also offices which have unwan ted business docum
discar d newsp apers and
paper conve rters and printe rs and lastly households which
the paper and may also
packaging materi al. The paper manuf acture r pays a price for
incur the collection cost.
d to recog-
D Once collected, the paper has to be sorted by hand by people traine
types of paper can only
nise various types of paper. This is necess ary becau se some
paper then has to be
be made from partic ular kinds of-rec ycled fibres. The sorted
dual fibres. This mix-
repulp ed or mixed with water and broken down into its indivi
inatin g mater ials, par-
ture is called stock and may contai n a wide variet y of contam
had little sorting. Various
ticular ly if it is made from mixed waste paper which has
After passing throug h
machi nery is used to remove other materi als from the stock.
are grey in colour becau se
the repulp ing process, the fibres from printe d waste paper
recycl ed mater ial can only
the printin g ink has soaked into the individual fibres. This
such as cardbo ard boxes,
be used in produ cts where the grey colour does not matte r,
be de-ink ed. This involves
but if the grey colour is not accep table, the fibres must
and deterg ents, water -
adding chemi cals such as causti c soda or other alkalis, soaps
and bleach ing agents. Be-
harden ing agents such as calciu m chloride, frothing agents
be refine d or treate d in
fore the recycl ed fibres can be made into paper they must
such a way that they bond togeth er.
as recycl ed fibres
E Most paper produ cts must contai n some virgin fibres as well
paper is down-cycled,
and unlike glass, paper canno t be recycl ed indefi nitely. Most
is of an inferio r qualit y to
which means that a produ ct made from recycl ed paper
saves some of the energy,
the original paper. Recycling paper is benefi cial in that it
ver, recycling requir es
labour and capita l that goes into produ cing virgin pulp. Howe
t the waste paper from
the use of fossil fuet a non-re newab le energy source, to collec E
0
And the recycling process
the comm unity and to process it to produ ce new paper.
u
......
can be dispos ed of safely. <1.1
still create s emissions which requir e treatm ent before they >
enviro nment al practi ce
Never theles s, paper recycling is an impor tant economical and
manne r for it to be useful
but one which must be carrie d out in a ration al and viable
to both indust ry and the comm unity .
Cambr idge fELTS lntcnsii'C Trainin g Reading 55

Questions 30-36
Complete the summ ary below of the first two paragraphs

of the reading passage. Choose
ONE OR TWO WOR DS from the reading passage for
each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 30-36 on your answ er sheet.
SUMMARY
From the point of view of recycling, paper has two
advantages over minerals and oil in that firstly it
comes from a resource which is __lQ _ and secondly
it is less threatening to our environment when
we throw it away because it is _ 3_1_ . Although Austra
lia's record in the reuse of waste paper is good,
it is still necessary to use a combination of recycled
fibres and _____2L to make new paper. The paper
indust ry has contributed positively and people have
also been encouraged by _____21_ to collect their
waste on a regular basis. One major difficulty is the
removal of ink from used paper but __M_ _ are
being made in this area. However, we need to learn
to accept paper which is generally of a lower ___22
than before and to sort our waste paper by removing
_____2L before discarding it for collection .
30. sustai nable

Reading the phrase before gap 30: comes from a resourc
e. you can look at the first sentenc e in paragraph A and find
out both sustainable and trees, but if trees is inserted, it
is not grammatically correct. The correct answer is, thus,
sustainable.
31. biodeg radabl e

The sentenc e before gap 31: it is ... because it is can help
you to focus on the third sentenc e in paragra ph A and fill
in the word biodegradable in this gap.
32. virgin fibres

The words before and after gap 32 lead you to focus on the
next sentenc e in paragraph A: While ... plantations and
find out the words virgin fibres to fill in the gap.
33. govern ments

The keyword before the gap encouraged can easily help
you to find out governments as the correct answer.
34. advances
This is the most difficult question in this summary. The keywor
ds before gap 34, which are removal ofink. help you
to locate the relevant information in the first sentenc e of
paragraph B: Already, waste paper .. paper. Then, finding
out the phrase remove ink. you will, therefore, select advanc
es as the correct answer.
35. quality
The keywords before gap 35- accept paper- help you to
direct your attention to sentenc e 3 of paragraph B: We ....
texture, which contains the similar phrase: accept a change in
+
.... the quality. You can, hence, come to the conclusion
that quality is the right word for this gap .
36. contam inants

The keywords sort our waste paper before gap 36 help you
to scan through the next sentenc es of paragraph B and
find out similar terms ... sorted .. such as ... in the last sentenc
e of this paragraph and find out contaminants as the
correct answer for this gap.
56 ( ,11rbridgc ILU"l lntensivL framin g Reading

Unit 8 MATCHIN G LISTS/PARAGRAPHS
Matching is the most common type of questions in the IELTS tests. Generally, this question
type is classified into the four categories below:
• Features - Features
• Contents - Paragraphs
• Writers - Viewpoints
• Causes - Effects
1. Features- Features
Candidates may, for example, be required to match different research findings to a list of re-
E
searchers, or characteristics to age groups, events to historical periods, products to inventors, 0
u
etc. Possibly, some options will not be used, and others may be used more than once. The .....
Q)
instructions will inform candidates if some of these options may be used more than once. >
This kind of question which aims at assessing the candidates' ability to scan for specific
information can be designed for any written-text types.

Sample passage
READING PASSAGE
THE COLLEGE
The college has the advantage of location in one of the most attractive cities in the country.
Within the city of Bath, it occupies modern buildings in a landscaped garden on Sion Hill,
Lansdown and an adjacent Georgian Crescent, Somerset Crescent, which includes teaching
and residential accommodation for post-graduate studies. It also occupies three houses in
Sydney Place, which are used for studio and workshop accommodation for part-time courses
in the Visual Arts and for the Foundation Course in Art and Design.
The Newton Park site is situated four miles west of Bath between the villages of Newton St.
Loe and Corston. Within the grounds are a Georgian mansion, where the college's Central
Administration is located, an Elizabethan dairy, stables and the tower of a medieval manor
house; all these older buildings have been adapted to present-day use. A new purpose-built
Home Economics block was opened in January 1985. During 1986, a new Sports Hall will
be completed, and new residential blocks are under construction to be completed and ready
for the start of the academic year in September 1986; a new Music Block will be completed
in 1987.
The Art and Design Degree Courses which are currently accommodated at Corsham, about
nine miles east of Bath, will be moved to the Sion Hill site in Bath by September 1986, thus
reinforcing faculty and course links.
The college courses are designed to take advantage of the special opportunities and
circumstances provided by its environment. Students have such available resources as the
Costume and Fashion Research Centre, the Royal Photographic Centre and the Museum of
American Domestic Life at Calverton. Concerts and recitals, including some given by staff and
students, take place throughout the year in the Assembly Rooms.
Questions 21-27
The college uses buildings in five different places. Where are the following things located?
E:
0
u
<lJ
>
58 Cambridge I ELTS Intensive Training Reading

Un it 8 I
Example Answer
A landscaped garden SH
21. Central Administration

22. Home Economics Block
23. Art and Design Foundation Course
24. Art and Design Degree Course after 1986
25. Post-graduate residences
26. Sports Hall
27. Music Block
First, you should skim through the list of features in the box and questions 21 to 27. You will see that the items in
the box all refer to proper nouns. Then you should scan the passage and pay attention to these proper nouns and
find out the answers as below:
21. NP 22.NP 23. SP 24. SH 25. sc 26.NP 27. NP
2. Contents- Paragraphs
For this task type, candidates are required to locate the lettered paragraphs or sections of a
text with specific information such as an example, a reason, a description, a comparison, a
summary, or an explanation, and then write the letters of the correct paragraphs or sections
in the boxes on their answer sheet. This type of question which evaluates the candidates'
ability to scan for specific information can be worked out for any written texts because it can
test a wide range of reading sub-skills, from locating details to recognising a summary or a
definition, etc.
Sample passage
READING PASSAGE
The passage 'The Panda's Last Chance' has six paragraphs labelled A-F.
Which paragraphs contain the following information?
Write the appropriate letters A-Fin boxes 28-30 on your answer sheet. You only need
E
ONE letter for each answer. 0
u
....
NB You may use each letter once only. Q)
>
Example Answer
Where panda habitats are located A
Cambridge I EITS lnLcnsivc rraining Reading 59

28. The separation of panda groups
29. The panda's diet
30. The measures to prevent illegal killing of pandas
THE PANDA'S LAST CHANCE
Chinese authorities have devised an ambitious plan to save the giant panda from the
ravages of deforestation. Martin Williams assesses the creature's chances of avoiding
extinction.
A The giant panda. the creature that has become a symbol of conservation. is facing ex-
tinction. The major reason is loss of habitat, which has continued despite the establishment.
since 1963, of 14 panda reserves. Deforestation. mainly carried out by farmers clearing land
to make way for fields as they move higher into the mountains, has drastically contracted the
mammal's range. The panda has disappeared from much of central and eastern China. and
is now restricted to the eastern flank of the Himalayas. Fewer than 1.400 of the animals are
believed to remain in the wild.
B Satellite imagery has shown the seriousness of the situation; almost half of the panda's
habitat has been cut or degraded since 1975. Worse, the surviving panda population has also
become fragmented; a combination of satellite imagery and ground surveys reveals panda 'is-
lands' in patches of forest separated by cleared land. The population of these islands, ranging
from fewer than ten to more than 50 pandas. has become isolated because the animals are
loath to cross open areas. Just putting a road through panda habitat may be enough to split
a population in two.
C The minuscule size of the panda populations worries conservationists. The smallest
groups have too few animals to be viable. and will inevitably die out. The larger populations
may be viable in the short term. but will be susceptible to genetic defects as a result of in-
breeding.
D In these circumstances. a more traditional threat to pandas - the cycle of flowering and
subsequent withering of the bamboo that is their staple food - can become literally species-
threatening. The flowerings prompt pandas to move from one area to another. thus prevent-
ing inbreeding in otherwise sedentary populations. In panda islands, however. bamboo flow-
ering could prove catastrophic because the pandas are unable to emigrate.
E
0
u
E The latest conservation management plan for the panda. prepared by China's Ministry of
'QJ
""" Forestry and the World Wide Fund for Nature, aims primarily to maintain panda habitats and
>
to ensure that populations are linked wherever possible. The plan will change some exist-
ing reserve boundaries. establish 14 new reserves and protect or replant corridors of forest
between panda islands. Other measures include better control of poaching. which remains
60 Cambridge lr.ITS Intensive Training Reading

Unit 8 ,\lATCHING I ISTS/PARAGRi\I'HS
degrada tion of
a problem despite strict laws, as panda skins fetch high prices; reducing the
habitats outside reserves; and reforestation.
F The plan is ambitious. Implementation will be expensive - US$12.5 million will be need-
by individuals
ed for the develop ment of the panda reserves - and will require participation
ranging from villagers to governm ent officials.

28. B
not read this paragraph but go on to
The answer in the example is shown in paragraph A. To save time, you should
28 helps you to locate the relevant information
read the remaining paragraphs. The keyword separation in question
B: Worse, the surviving ... land, so the answer to this question is
- separated - in the second sentence of paragraph
B.
29. D
You will read on and find that paragraph D contains the phrase the bamboo ...
food. Both bamboo and food relate to
the term diet in the question, soD is the answer to this question.
30.E
on and identify the similar
measures and prevent killing are the keywords in the question that enable you to read
answer to this question is E.
words - measures and poaching- in the last sentence of paragraph E. So the
3. Writ ers- Viewp oints

their speakers
For this task type, candidates are usually require d to match opinion s with
(scanning) and
or writers. This is a kind of questio n where they need to read very closely
decide what the speakers/writers mean.
Sample passage
READING PASSAGE
RIGHT- AND LEFT-HANDEDNESS IN HUMANS

a distinct left-
Why do humans , virtuall y alone among all animal species , display
the apes possess such E
or right-ha ndedne ss? Not even our closest relative s among 0
u
cent of every
decided lateral asymme try, as psychol ogists call it. Yet about 90 per .....
CIJ
nded. Profess or
human populat ion that has ever lived appears to have been right-ha >
re on left-han d-
Bryan Turner at Deakin Univers ity has studied the researc h literatu
of ten people
edness and found that handed ness goes with sidedne ss. So nine out
ive asymme -
are right-ha nded and eight are right-fo oted. He noted that this distinct
Cambridge lElTS Intensive Training Reading 61

try in the human popula tion is itself system atic. 'Human
s think in catego ries: black
and white, up and down, left and right. It 's a system of
signs that enable s us to
catego rise phenom ena that are essenti ally ambigu ous. '
Resear ch has shown that there is a genetic or inherite d elemen

t to handed ness. But while
left-ha ndedne ss tends to run in families , neither left- nor right-h
anders will automa tically
produc e offsprin g with the same handed ness; in fact about
6 per cent of childre n with
two right-h anded parents will be left-han ded. Howev er, among
two left-han ded parents ,
perhap s 40 per cent of the childre n will also be left-han ded.
With one right- and one left-
handed parent, 15 to 20 per cent of the offsprin g will be left-han
ded. Even among identi-
cal twins who have exactly the same genes, one in six pairs will
differ in their handed ness.
What then makes people left-han ded if it is not simply genetic

? Other factors must be
at work and researc hers have turned to the brain for clues.
In the 1860s, the French
surgeon and anthrop ologist , Dr. Paul Broca, made the remark
able finding that patient s
who had lost their powers of speech as a result of a stroke
(a blood clot in the brain)
had paralys is of the right half of their body. He noted that
since the left hemisp here of
the brain control s the right half of the body, and vice versa,
the brain damage must have
been in the brain's left hemisp here. Psycho logists now believe
that among right-h anded
people , probab ly 95 per cent have their languag e centre in
the left hemisp here, while 5
per cent have right-si ded languag e. Left-ha nders, howeve r,
do not show the reverse pat-
tern but instead a majorit y also have their languag e in the left
hemisp here. Some 30 per
cent have right hemisp here languag e .
Dr. Brinkm an, a brain researc her at the Austral ian Nationa l
Univers ity in Canber ra, has
sugges ted that evoluti on of speech went with right-h anded
prefere nce. Accord ing to
Brinkm an , as the brain evolved , one side became special ised
for fine control of movem ent
(necess ary for produc ing speech ) and along with this evoluti
on came right-h and prefer-
ence. Accord ing to Brinkm an, most left- hander s have left hemisp
here domina nce but also
some capacit y in the right hemisp here. She has observe d that
if a left-han ded person is
brain- damage d in the left hemisp here, the recover y of speech
is quite often better and
this is explain ed by the fact that left-ha nders have a more bilatera
l speech functio n.
In her studies of macaqu e monkey s, Brinkm an has noticed that

primate s (monke ys) seem
to learn a hand prefere nce from their mother in the first year
of life but this could be
one hand or the other. In humans , howeve r, the special isation
in functio n of the two
hemisp heres results in anatom ical differen ces: areas that are
E involve d with the produc -
0 tion of speech are usually larger on the left side than on the
u right . Since monkey s have
not acquire d the art of speech , one would not expect to see
(J
such a variatio n, but Brink-
> man claims to have discove red a trend in monkey s toward s
the asymm etry that is evi-
dent in the human brain.
62 Cambri dge I El I"S Intensiv e Trainin g Reading

Umt 8 I ISTS,PAR.AGRAPI!S
Two American researcher s, Geschwind and Galaburda , studied the brains of human em-
bryos and discovered that the left-right asymmetry exists before birth. But as the brain
develops, a number of things can affect it. Every brain is initially female in its organisa-
tion and it only becomes a male brain when the male foetus begins to secrete hormones.
Geschwind and Galaburda knew that different parts of the brain mature at different
rates ; the right hemispher e develops first , then the left. Moreover, a girl 's brain develops
somewhat faster than that of a boy. So, if something happens to the brain's developme nt
during pregnancy , it is more likely to be affected in a male and the hemispher e more
likely to be involved is the left. The brain may become less lateralised and this in turn
could result in left-hande dness and the developme nt of certain superior skills that have
their origins in the left hemispher e such as logic, rationality and abstractio n . It should
be no surprise then that among mathemat ici ans and architects, left-hande rs tend to be
more common and there are more left-hande d males than females .
The results of this research may be some consolatio n to left- handers who have for cen-
turies lived in a world designed to suit right-hand ed people. However, what is alarming ,
according to Mr. Charles Moore, a writer and journalist, is the way the word 'right ' rein-
forces its own virtue. Subliminally he says, 'Language tells people to think that anything
on the right can be trusted while anything on the left is dangerous or even sinister. '
We speak of left-hande d complimen ts and according to Moore , 'it is no coincidenc e that
left- handed children, forced to use their right hand, often develop a stammer as they
are robbed of their freedom of speech. ' However, as more research is undertake n on the
causes of left-hande dness, attitudes towards left-hande d people are gradually changing
fo r the better. Indeed when the champion tennis player Ivan Lend! was asked what the
single thing was that he would choose in order to improve his game, he said he would
like to become a left-hande r.
Questions 1-7
Use the information in the text to match the people (listed A-E) with the opinions (listed
1-7) on the next page.
Write the appropriate letters A-E in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet. Some people match
more than one opinion.
E
A Dr. Broca 0
u
.......
B Dr. Brinkman <lJ
>
C Geschwind and Galaburda
D Charles Moore
E Professor Turner

Example Answer
Monkeys do not show a species-specific
preference for left- or right-handedness. B
1. Human beings started to show a preferen ce for right-han dedness when they
first
develope d language.
2. Society is prejudic ed against left-hand ed people.
3. Boys are more likely to be left-hand ed.
4. After a stroke, left-hand ed people recover their speech more quickly than right-han ded
people.
5. People who suffer strokes on the left side of the brain usually lose their power of speech.
6. The two sides of the brain develop different functions before birth.
7. Asymme try is a common feature of the human body.
To answer the questions of this type, you should first scan through the passage and circle
or underline all people's
names in it. Then, you have to read the ideas before and after each particular name and compare
with each
viewpoint in the questions to answer them in tum.
l.B
The answer comes from paragraph 4 of the passage.
2. D
The answer comes from the last paragraph of the passage.
3. c
4. B
5. A
6. c
7. E
c..
0
u
64 Cambridg e IELTS Intensive Training Reading

Un·t 8 \!J\TC:Hll\C. I !STS,'PAR \CR·\l'H5
4. Causes - Effects
Candidates will be provided with two lists. In most cases, one list contains a small number
of causes and the other list contains a larger number of effects. The task is to find the effect
which arises from (matches) each cause.
This type of question tests if candidates understand the cause-effect relationship, under-
stand the gist and paraphrase, and scan for information.
You should pay attention to these common words and expressions which show causes and
effects/ problems:
Conjunctions: because, since, as, or, so
Verb phrases: result in, result from, follow from, base on
Nouns: basis, result, consequence, reason
Prepositional phrases: because of, thanks to
Adverbs: consequently, thus, therefore, so, hence
Sample passage
READING PASSAGE
ARCHITECTURE - REACHING FOR THE SKY

Architecture is the art and science of designing buildings and structures. A building reflects the
scientific and technological achievements of the age as well as the ideas and aspirations of the
designer and client. The appearance of individual buildings, however, is often controversial.
The use of an architectural style cannot be said to start or finish on a specific date. Neither is
it possible to say exactly what characterises a particular movement. But the origins of what is
now generally known as modern architecture can be traced back to the social and technological
changes of the 18th and 19th centuries.
Instead of using timber, stone and traditional building techniques, architects began to explore
ways of creating buildings by using the latest technology and materials such as steel, glass and
concrete strengthened with steel bars, known as reinforced concrete. Technological advances
also helped bring about the decline of rural industries and an increase in urban populations as
people moved to towns to work in new factories. Such rapid and uncontrolled growth helped to E
0
turn parts of cities into slums. u
....
QJ
By the 1920s, architects throughout Europe were reacting against the conditions created by indus- >
trialisation. A new style of architecture emerged to reflect more idealistic notions for the future . It
was made possible by new materials and construction techniques and was known as Modernism.
Cambridge fi:LrS fnLcnsivc Training Reading 65

By the 1930s, many buildings emerging from this movement were designed in the International
Style. This was largely characterised by the bold use of new materials and simple, geometric
forms, often with white walls supported by stilt-like pillars. These were stripped of unnecessary
decoration that would detract from their primary purpose -to be used or lived in.
Walter Gropius, Charles Jeanneret (better known as Le Corbusier] and Ludwig Mies van der Rohe
were among the most influential of the many architects who contributed to the development of
Modernism in the first half of the century. But the economic depression of the 1930s and the Sec-
ond World War (1939-1945] prevented their ideas from being widely realised until the economic
conditions improved and war-torn cities had to be rebuilt. By the 1950s, the International Style
had developed into a universal approach to building, which standardised the appearance of new
buildings in cities across the world.
Unfortunately, this Modernist interest in geometric simplicity and function became exploited for
profit. The rediscovery of quick-and-easy-to-handle reinforced concrete and an improved ability
to prefabricate building sections meant that builders could meet the budgets of commissioning
authorities and handle a renewed demand for development quickly and cheaply. But this led to
many badly designed buildings, which discredited the original aims of Modernism.
Influenced by Le Corbusier's ideas on town planning, every large British city built multi-storey
housing estates in the 1960s. Mass-produced, low-cost high-rises seemed to offer a solution to
the problem of housing a growing inner-city population . But far from meeting human needs, the
new estates often proved to be windswept deserts lacking essential social facilities and services.
Many of these buildings were poorly designed and constructed and have since been demolished.
By the 1970s, a new respect for the place of buildings within the existing townscape arose. Pre-
serving historic buildings or keeping only their facades (or fronts] grew common. Architects also
began to make more use of building styles and materials that were traditional to the area. The
architectural style usually referred to as high-tech was also emerging . It celebrated scientific and
engineering achievements by openly parading the sophisticated techniques used in construction .
Such buildings are commonly made of metal and glass; examples are Stansted Airport and the
Lloyd's building in London.
Disillusionment at the failure of many of the poor imitations of Modernist architecture led to
interest in various style and ideas from the past and present. By the 1980s, the coexistence of
different styles of architecture in the same building became known as Post-modernism . Other
architects looked back to the classical tradition . The trend in architecture now favours smaller-
scale building design that reflects a growing public awareness of environmental issues such as
energy efficiency. Like the Modernists, people today recognise that a well-designed environment
E improves the quality of life but is not necessarily achieved by adopting one well-defined style of
0
u
architecture.
QJ
>
Twentieth-century architecture will mainly be remembered for its tall buildings. They have
been made possible by the development of light steel frames and safe passenger lifts. They
originated in the US over a century ago to help meet the demand for more economical use of
land . As construction techniques improved, the skyscraper became a reality.

Unit 8 MATCHING L!STS/PAR,\GRAPHS
Questions 8-11
This reading passage describes a number of cause and effect relationships.
Match each Cause 8-11 in List A with its Effect A-H in List B.
Write your answers A-H in boxes 8-11 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more effects in List B than you will need, so you will not use all of them.
You may use any effect more than once ifyou wish.
List A CAUSES EFFECTS

8. G
You read the statement in question 8 and find out the keywords- rapid movement. technological advances.
Then, scanning through the passage, you will quickly locate these terms in the last two sentences of paragraph 3:
Technological ... slums. The words showing cause - effect relation are helped to.
9.F
Reading the statement in question 9, you. can identify the keywords buildings and simple. Then, going on to read the
passage, you can find out similar idea in the last sentence of paragraph 5: These ... in.
10. H
You read the statement in question 10 and find out the keywords- economic depression and the Second World
War. Then, scanning through the passage, you will quickly locate these terms in the second sentence of paragraph E
0
u
6: But ... rebuilt +-'
Cl.i
11. c >
Reading the statement in question 11. you can identify the keywords multi-storey housing estates. Then, going on to
read the passage, you can find out similar idea in the first sentence of paragraph 8: Influenced ... 1960. To be able to
match this cause with its proper effect. you have to read the whole paragraph.
Cambridge !EITS Intensive 'I raining Reading 67

J
68
E
0
u
......
Q)
>

Test 1
READI NG PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on R eading
Passage 1 below.
IMPLEMENTING THE CYCLE OF SUCCESS:

A CASE STUDY
Within Australia, Australian Hotels Inc (AHI) operates nine hotels and employs over
2000 permanen t full-time staff, 300 permanen t part-time employee s and 100 casual
staff. One of its latest ventures, the Sydney Airport Hotel (SAH), opened in March
1995. The hotel is the closest to Sydney Airport and is designed to provide the best
available accommod ation, food and beverages and meeting facilities in Sydney's
southern suburbs. Similar to many internatio nal hotel chains, however, AHI has ex-
perienced difficultie s in Australia in providing long-term profits for hotel owners, as a
result of the country' s high labor-cost structure. In order to develop an economically
viable hotel organization model, AHI decided to implemen t some new policies and
practices at SAH.
The first of the initiatives was an organizational structure with only three levels of
managem ent-comp ared to the traditiona l seven. Partly as a result of this change,
there are 25 per cent fewer managem ent positions, enabling a significant saving. This
change also has other implications. Communi cation, both up and down the organiza-
tion, has greatly improved. Decision- making has been forced down in many cases to
front-line employee s. As a result, guest requests are usually met without reference to
a supervisor, improving both customer and employee satisfaction.
The hotel also recognised that it would need a different approach to selecting em-
ployees who would fit in with its new policies . In its advertisem ents, the hotel stated
a preferenc e for people with some 'service ' experienc e in order to minimize tradi-
tional work practices being introduce d into the hotel. Over 7000 applicants filled in
applicatio n forms for the 120 jobs initially offered at SAH. The balance of the posi-
tions at the hotel (30 managem ent and 40 shift leader positions) was predomin antly
filled by transfers from other AHI properties .
E
0
u A series of tests and interviews were conducted with potential employees , which
eventually left 280 applicants competing for the 120 advertised positions. After the
final interview, potential recruits were divided into three categories. Category A was
for applicants exhibiting strong leadership qualities, Category C was for applicants
perceived to be followers, arid Category B was for applicants with both leader and
follower qualities. Departme nt heads and shift leaders then composed prospectiv e
70 Cambridge I U rs Intensivc Training Reading

Test 1
teams using a combination of people from all three categories. Once suitable teams
were formed, offers of employment were made to team members.
Another major initiative by SAH was to adopt a totally multi-skilled workforce.

Although there may be some limitations with highly technical jobs such as cooking or
maintenance, wherever possible, employees at SAH are able to work in a wide variety
of positions. A multi-skilled workforce provides far greater management flexibility
during peak and quiet times to transfer employees to needed positions. For example,
when office staff is away on holidays during quiet periods of the year, employees in
either food or beverage or housekeeping departments can temporarily fill in.
The most crucial way, however, of improving the labor cost structure at SAH was to
find better, more productive ways of providing customer service. SAH management
concluded this would first require a process of 'benchmarking'. The prime objective
of the benchmarking process was to compare a range of service delivery processes
across a range of criteria using teams made up of employees from different depart-
ments within the hotel which interacted with each other. This process resulted in
performance measures that greatly enhanced SAH's ability to improve productivity
and quality. .
The front office team discovered through this project that a high proportion of AHI
Club member reservations were incomplete. As a result, the service provided to
these guests was below the standard promised to them as part of their membership
agreement. Reducing the number of incomplete reservations greatly improved guest
perceptions of service.
In addition, a program modeled on an earlier project called 'Take Charge' was imple-
mented. Essentially, Take Charge provides an effective feedback loop from both cus-
tomers and employees. Customer comments, both positive and negative, are record-
ed by staff. These are collated regularly to identify opportunities for improvement.
Just as importantly, employees are requested to note down their own suggestions
for improvement. (AHI has set an expectation that employees will submit at least
three suggestions for every one they receive from a customer.) Employee feedback
is reviewed daily and suggestions are implemented within 48 hours, if possible, or a
valid reason is given for non-implementatio n. If suggestions require analysis or data
collection, the Take Charge team has 30 days in which to address the issue and come
up with recommendations.
E
0
Although quantitative evidence of AHI's initiatives at SAH is limited at present, u
.....
anecdotal evidence clearly suggests that these practices are working. Indeed AHI is Q.J
>
progressively rolling out these initiatives in other hotels in Australia, whilst numerous
overseas visitors have come to see how the program works.
Cambridge lELfS lmcnsivc Training Reading 71

Questions 1-5
1. The high costs of running AHI's hotels are related to their

A management. C staff.
B size. D policies.
2. SAH's new organizational structure requires

A 75% of the old management positions.
B 25% of the old management positions.
C 25% more management positions.
D 5% fewe r management positions.
3. The SAH's approach to organizational structure required changing practices in

A industrial relations. C hiring staff.
B firing staff. D marketing.
4. The total number of jobs advertised at SAH was

A 70. B 120. C 170. D 280.
5. Categories A, B and C were used to select

A front office staff. C department heads.
B new teams . D new managers.
Questions 6-13
Complete the following summary of the last four paragraphs of Reading Passage 1, using
ONE OR TWO words and/or numbers from the Reading Passage for each answer. Write
WHAT THEY DID AT SAH
Teams of employees were selected from d ifferent hotel departments to participate in a (6)
exercise.
The information collected was used to compare (7) processes which, in turn , led to the de-
velop ment of (8) that would be used to increase the hotel's capacity to improve ___i2L_ as
F we ll as quality .
Also , an earlier program known as (10) was introduced into SAH. In this program, (11) is
so ught from customers and staff. Wherever possible (12) suggestions are implemented with-
in 48 hours . Other suggestions are investigated for their feasibility for a period of up to (13)
72 Cambridge If:t IS lntcnsivL Reading

Test 1
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.
The discovery that language can be a barrier to commun ication is quickly made by
all who travel, study, govern or sell. Whether the activity is tourism, research , govern-
ment, policing, business , or data dissemin ation, the lack of a common language can
severely impede progress or can halt it altogether. 'Common language ' here usually
r
means a foreign language , but the same point applies in principle to any encounte
with unfamili ar dialects or styles within a single language . 'They don't talk the same
language ' has a major metapho rical meaning alongsid e its literal one.
Althoug h commun ication problem s of this kind must happen thousand s of times each
day, very few become public knowledge. Publicity comes only when a failure to com-
municate has major consequ ences, such as strikes, lost orders, legal problem s, or fa-
tal accident s - even, at times, war. One reported instance of commun ication failure
took place in 1970, when several America ns ate a species of poisonous mushroo m. No
remedy was known, and two of the people died within days. A radio report of the case
was heard by a chemist who knew of a treatmen t that had been successfully used in
1959 and publishe d in 1963. Why had the America n doctors not heard of it seven years
later? Presuma bly because the report of the treatmen t had been publishe d only in
journals written in Europea n language s other than English.
Several compara ble cases have been reported. But isolated example s do not give an
impressi on of the size of the problem - somethin g that can come only from studies
of the use or avoidance of foreign-language material s and contacts in different com-
municati ve situation s. In the English- speaking scientific world, for example, surveys
of books and documen ts consulte d in libraries and other informat ion agencies have
shown that very little foreign-language material is ever consulted. Library requests
in the field of science and technology showed that only 13 per cent were for foreign
language periodicals. Studies of the sources cited in publicati ons lead to a similar con-
clusion: the use of foreign-language sources is often found to be as low as 10 per cent.
The language barrier presents itself in stark form to firms who wish to market their
products in other countries. British industry , in particular, has in recent decades often
been criticized for its linguisti c insulari ty- for its assumpt ion that foreign buyers will
be happy to commun icate in English, and that awarene ss of other language s is not E
0
therefore a priority. In the 1960s, over two-thirds of British firms dealing with non-
English-speaking custome rs were using English for outgoing correspo ndence; many
-
u
Q)
>
had their sales literatur e only in English ; and as many as 40 per cent employe d no-one
able to commun icate in the custome rs' languages. A similar problem was identifie d in
other English- speaking countrie s, notably the USA, Australia and New Zealand. And
Cambridg e I J-J .fS I ntcnsive I rainmg Reading 73

non-En glish-sp eaking countri es were by no means exemp t- althoug h the
widespr ead
use of English as an alternat ive languag e made them less open to the charge
of insu-
larity.
The criticism and publicit y given to this problem since the 1960s seems to have
greatly
improv ed the situatio n. Industr ial training scheme s have promot ed"an increas
e in lin-
guistic and cultural awareness. Many firms now have their own translat ion
services; to
take just one exampl e in Britain, Rowntree Mackin tosh now publish their
docume nts
in six languag es (English, French, German , Dutch, Italian and Xhosa). Some
firms run
part-tim e languag e courses in the languag es of the countrie s with which they
are most
involved; some produce their own technic al glossaries, to ensure consiste
ncy when
materia l is being translat ed. It is now much more readily appreci ated that
marketi ng
efforts can be delayed , damage d, or disrupt ed by a failure to take account of
linguistic
needs of the custom er.
The changes in awaren ess have been most marked in English -speaki ng
countrie s,
where the realization has gradual ly dawned that by no means everyon e in
the world
knows English well enough to negotia te in it. This is especially a problem
when Eng-
lish is not an official languag e of public adminis tration, as in most parts
of the Far
East, Russia, Eastern Europe, the Arab world, Latin America and French-
speakin g
Africa. Even in cases where foreign custom ers can speak English quite well,
it is often
forgotten that they may not be able to underst and it to the require d level
- bear-
ing in mind the regiona l and social variatio n which permea tes speech and
which can
cause major problem s of listenin g compre hension . In securin g underst anding,
how
'we' speak to 'them' is just as importa nt, it appears , as how 'they' speak to
'us'.
Questions 14-17
Complete each of the followin g statements (Questions 14-17) with words taken
from
Readin g Passage 2. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORD S for each answer.
Write
14. Language problems may come to the attentio n of the public when they
have
, such as fatal acciden ts or social problems.
15. Evidenc e of the extent of the language barrier has been gained from
E
0
of materia ls used by scientists such as books and periodicals.
u
a:; 16. An exampl e of British linguistic insulari ty is the use of English for materia
ls such as
>
17. An exampl e of a part of the world where people may have difficulty
in negotiating
English is
74 Cunbrid gc IELTS Intensiv e Training Reading

Test:
Questions 18-20
18. According to the passage, 'They don't talk the same language' (paragraph 1) can refer
to problems in
A understand ing metaphor.
B learning foreign languages.
C understanding dialects or styles.
D dealing with technological change .
19. The case of the poisonous mushrooms (paragraph 2) suggests that American doctors
A should pay more attention to radio reports .
B only read medical articles if they are in English.
C are sometimes unwilling to try foreign treatments.
D do not always commu ni cate effectively with their patients.
20. According to the writer, the linguistic insularity of British businesses

A later spread to other countries .
B had a negative effect on the ir business.
C is not as bad now as it used to be in the past.
D made non-English-speaking compani es turn to other markets.
Questions 21-24
List the FOUR main ways in which British companies have tried to solve the problem
of the language barrier since the 1960s. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for
each answer. Write your answers in boxes 21-24 on your answer sheet.
21.
22.
23.
24.
Questions 25-26
Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 25 and 26 on your answer
sheet.
E
25. According to the writer, English-speaking people need to be aware that 0
....u
A some foreigners have never met an English-speaking person. Q)
>
B many foreigners have no desire to learn English.
C foreign language may pose a greater problem in the future.
D English-speaking foreigners may have difficulty understanding English.
Cambridge IE ITS Intensive Training Readmg 75

26. A suitable title for this passage would be
A Overcoming the Language Barrier.
B How to Survive an E nglish-speaking World.
C Global U nderstanding-the Key to Personal Progress.
D The N eed for a Common Language.
READING PASSAGE 3
Passage 3 below.
Questions 27-30
Reading Passage 3 has seven paragraphs A-G. From the list of headings below, choose
the most suitable headings for paragraphs B-E. Write the appropriate numbers (i- viii) in
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
27. Paragraph B
28. Paragraph C
29. Paragraph D
30. Paragraph E
Example Answer
Paragraph A vii
What Is a Port City?
0
E The port city provides a fascinating and rich understanding of the movement of people
u
and goods around the world. We understand a port as a center of Land-sea exchange,
OJ
> and as a major source of Livelihood and a major force for cultural mixing. But do
ports all produce a range of common urban characteristics which justify classifying
port cities together under a single generic Label? Do they have enough in common to
warrant distinguishing them from other kinds of cities?
76 (ambridge lf: LfS Intensive Training Reading

Test 1
A A port must be distinguished from a harbor. They are two very different things . Most
ports have poor harbors, and many fine harbors see few ships. Harbor is a physical con-
cept, a shelter for ships; port is an economic concept, a center of land-sea exchange
which requires good access to a hinterland even more than a sea-linked foreland . It is
landward access , which is productive of goods for export and which demands imports,
that is critical. Poor harbors can be improved with breakwaters and dredging if there is a
demand for a port. Madras and Colombo are examples of harbors expensively improved
by enlarging, dredging and building breakwaters.
8 Port cities become industrial, financial and service centers and political capitals
because of their water connections and the urban concentration which arises there and
later draws to it railways, highways and air routes . Water transport means cheap access,
the chief basis of all port cities. Many of the world's biggest cities, for example, London ,
New York , Shanghai, Istanbul, Buenos Aires , Tokyo, Jakarta, Calcutta , Philadelphia and
San Francisco began as ports - that is, with land-sea exchange as their major function -
but they have since grown disproportionately in other respects so that their port functions
are no longer dominant. They remain different kinds of places from non- port cities and
the ir port functions account for that d ifference .
C Port functions , more than anything else , make a city cosmopolitan. A port city is open
to the world. In it, races, cultures, and ideas , as well as goods from a variety of places,
jostle, mix and enrich each other and the life of the city. The smell of the sea and the
harbor , the sound of boat whistles or the moving tides are symbols of their multiple links
with a wide world, samples of which are present in microcosm within their own urban
areas .
D Sea ports have been transformed by the advent of powered vessels , whose s ize and
draught have increased . Many formerly important ports have become economically and
physically less accessible as a result. By- passed by most of their former enriching flow
of exchange, they have become cultural and economic backwaters or have acquired the
character of museums of the past. Examples of these are Charleston , Salem , Bristol,
Plymouth , Surat, Galle, Melaka, Soochow, and a long list of earlier prominent port cities
in Southeast Asia, Africa and Latin America .
E Much domestic port trade has not been recorded. Evidence we have suggests that do-
mestic trade was greater at all periods than external trade . Calcutta , for example, traded
mainly with other parts of India. Most of any city 's population is engaged in providing
E
0
goods and services for the city itself. Trade outside the city is its basic function . But each u
..-
bas ic worker requires food , housing, clothing and other such services. Estimates of the CIJ
>
ratio of basic to service workers range from 1:4 to 1:8 .
F No city can be simply a port but must be involved in a variety of other activities .
The port function of the city draws to it raw materials and distributes them in many
Cambridge IELTS lntcnsm·l raining Reading 77

other forms. Ports take advantage of the need for breaking up the bulky material
where water and land transport meet and where loading and unloading costs can
be minimized by refining raw materials or . turning them into finished goods . The
major examples here are oil refining and ore refining, which are commonly located
at ports. It is not easy to draw a line around what is and is not a port function. All
ports handle, unload, sort , alter, process, repack , and reship most of what they re-
ceive. A city may still be regarded as a port city when it becomes involved in a great
range of functions not immediately involved with ships or docks.
G Cities which began as ports retain the chief commercial and administrative center of
the city close to the waterfront . The center of New York is in lower Manhattan between
two river mouths ; the City of London is on the Thames. This proximity to water is also true
of Boston , Philadelphia, Bombay, Calcutta, Madras , Singapore, Bangkok, and Yokohama,
where the commercial, financial , and administrative centers are still grouped around their
harbors even though each city has expanded into a metropolis. Even a casual visitor can-
not mistake them as anything but port cities.
Questions 31-34
Look at the following descriptions (Questions 31-34) of some port cities mentioned in
Reading Passage 3. Match the pairs of cities (A-H) listed below, with the descriptions.
Write the appropriate letters A-H in boxes 31-34 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more pairs of port cities than descriptions, so you will not use them all.
31. required considerable harbor development
32. began as ports but other facilities later dominated
33. lost their prominence when large ships could not be accommodated
34. maintain their business centers near the port waterfront
f
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78 (_ ;1mbridge IElTS Intensive Training Reading

Test 1
Questions 35-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
35. Cities cease to be port cities when other functions dominate.

36. In the past, many cities did more trade within their own country than with overseas
ports .
37. Most people in a port city are engaged in international trade and finance .
38. Ports attract many subsidiary and independent industries.
39. Ports have to establish a common language of trade .
40. Ports often have river connections.
-
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>

Test 2
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on R eading
Passage 1 below.
ZOO CONSERVATION PROGRAMMES
One of London Zoo's recent advertisements caused me some irritation, so patently did
it distort reality. Headlined 'Without zoos you might as well tell these animals to get
stuffed', it was bordered with illustrations of several endangered species and went on
to extol the myth that without zoos like London Zoo these animals 'will almost certainly
disappear forever'. With the zoo wo r ld's rather mediocre record on conservation, one
might be forgiven for being slightly skeptical about such an advertisement.
Zoos were originally created as places of entertainment, and their suggested involve-
ment with conservation didn't seriously arise until about 30 years ago, when the Zoo-
logical Society of London held the first formal international meeting on the subject.
Eight years later, a series of world conferences took place, entitled 'The Breeding of
Endangered Species', and from this point onwards conservation became the zoo com-
munity's buzzword. This commitment has now been clearly defined in The World Zoo
Conservation Strategy (WZCS , September 1993), which - although an important and
welcome document- does seem to be based on an unrealistic optimism about the nature
of the zoo industry.
The WZCS estimates that there are about 10,000 zoos in the world, of which around
1,000 represent a core of quality collections capable of participating in coordinated con-
servation programmes. This is probably the document's first failing , as I believe that
10,000 is a serious underestimate of t he total number of places masquerading as zoologi-
cal establishments. Of course it is difficult to get accurate data but, to put the issue
into perspective; I have found that, in a year of working in Eastern Europe, I discover
fresh zoos on almost a weekly basis.
The second flaw in the reasoning of the WZCS document is the na·ive faith it places in
its 1,000 core zoos. One would assume that the caliber of these institutions would have
been carefully examined, but it appears that the criterion for inclusion on this select
0
u list might merely be that the zoo is a member of a zoo federation or association. This
might be a good starting point, working on the premise that members must meet certain
standards , but again the facts don't support the theory. The greatly respected Ameri-
can Association of Zoological Parks and Aquariums (AAZPA) has had extremely dubious
members , and in the UK the Federation of Zoological Gardens of Great Britain and Ire-
80 Cambridge IE ITS Imcnsivc Training Reading

Test 2
land has occasionally had members that have been roundly censured in the national press.
These include Robin Hill Adventure Park on the Isle of Wight, which many considered
the most notorious collection of animals in the country. This establishment, which for
years was protected by the Isle's local council (which viewed it as a tourist amenity), was
finally closed down following a damning report by a veterinary inspector appointed under
the terms of the Zoo Licensing Act 1981. As it was always a collection of dubious repute,
one is obliged to reflect upon the standards that the Zoo Federation sets when granting
membership. The situation is even worse in developing countries where little money is
available for redevelopment and it is hard to see a way of incorporating collections into
the overall scheme of the WZCS.
Even assuming that the WZCS's 1,000 core zoos are all of a high standard- complete with
scientific staff and research facilities, trained and dedicated keepers, accommodation
that permits normal or natural behavior, and a pol icy of co-operating fully with one another-
what might be the potential for conservation? Colin Tudge, author of Last Animals at the
Zoo (Oxford University Press, 1992), argues that 'if the world's zoos worked together
in co-operative breeding programmes , then even without further expansion they could
save around 2,000 species of endangered land vertebrates'. This seems an extremely
optimistic proposition from a man who must be aware of the failings and weaknesses of
the zoo industry- the man who, when a member of the council of London Zoo, had to
persuade the zoo to devote more of its activities to conservation. Moreover, where are
the facts to support such optimism?
Today approximately 16 species might be said to have been 'saved' by captive breeding
programmes, although a number of these can hardly be looked upon as resounding suc-
cesses. Beyond that, about a further 20 species are being seriously considered for zoo
conservation programmes. Given that the international conference at London Zoo was
held 30 years ago, this is pretty slow progress, and a long way off Tudge's target of
2,000.
Questions 1-7
Do the statements on the next page agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage
1? In boxes 1-7, write
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Example
London Zoo's advertisements are poorly presented. NOT GIVEN
Cambridge I ELTS Intensive Training Reading 81

1. London Zoo's advertisements are dishonest.
2. Zoos made an insignificant contribution to conservation up until 30 years ago.
3. The WZCS document is not known in Eastern Europe.
4. Zoos in the WZCS select list were carefully inspected.
5. No one knew how the animals were being treated at Robin Hill Adventure Park.
6. Colin Tudge was dissatisfied with the treatment of animals at London Zoo.
7. The number of successful zoo conservation programmes is unsatisfactory.
Questions 8-10
8. What were the objectives of the WZCS document?

A to improve the caliber of zoos worldwide
B to identify zoos suitable for conservation practice
C to provide funds for zoos in underdeveloped countries
D to list the endangered species of the world
9. Why does the writer refer to Robin Hill Adventure Park?

A to support the Isle of Wight local council
B to criticize the 1981 Zoo Licensing Act
C to illustrate a weakness in the WZCS document
D to exemplify the standards in AAZPA zoos
10. What word best describes the writer's response to Colin Tudge's prediction on captive
breeding programmes?
A disbelieving C prejudiced
B impartial D accepting
Questions 11-13
The writer mentions a number offactors which lead him to doubt the value of the WZCS
document. Which THREE of the following factors are mentioned? Write your answers
(A -F) in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.
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>

Test 2
REA DIN G PASSAGE 2

You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 14-27
which are based on Read ing
Passage 2.
Questions 14-18
Read ing Passage 2 has FIVE parts (A-E ). Choose
the most suitable heading for each part
from the list of headings below .
NB There are more headings than parts, so you will
not use all of them.
14. Part A
15. Part B
16. Part C
17. Part D
18. PartE
Deforestation of Tropical Rainforests

Throughout the tropics, rainforests are being cut
down. By different meth ods and for
different reasons, people in tropical regions of the
world are cutting down, burning,
or otherwise damaging forests. The process in which
a forest is cut down, burne d or
damaged is called 'defo resta tion'. Global alarm had
arisen because of the destruction
of tropical rainfo rests. Not only are we losing beaut
iful areas, but the loss also strikes
deeper. Extinction of many species and changes
in our global climate are effects of
deforestation. If the world continues the curre nt rate
of deforestation, the world 's rain-
forests will be gone within 100 years - causing unkn
own effects to the global climate
and the elimination of the majority of plant and anima
l species on the planet.
Part A
Deforestation occurs in many ways. The majority of E
rainforests cut down are cleared for 0
agricultural use - grazing of cattle, planting of crops

area (typically a few acres) and burn the tree trunk
. Poor farmers chop down a small -
v
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s, a process called 'Slash and Burn'
agriculture. Intensive, or modern, agriculture occur
s on a much larger scale, sometimes
deforesting several square miles at a time. Large
cattle pastures often replace rainfor-
Camb ridge ll:LTS Intens ive !"raining Readi ng

83
g is anoth er common form
ests to grow beef for the world market. Commercial loggin
Logging can occur select ively-
of deforestation, cutting trees for sale as timbe r or pulp.
- or by clear cutting, where all
where only the economically valuable species are cut
such as bulldozers, road grad-
trees are cut. Commercial logging uses heavy machinery,
The heavy machinery is as
ers, and log skidders, to remove cut trees and build roads.
There are other ways in which
damaging to a forest as the chainsaws are to the trees.
flooding caused by construc-
deforestation happens, such as the building of towns and
n of total deforestation.
tion of dams . These repres ent only a very small fractio
Part B
ine and has been the focus of
The actual rate of deforestation is difficult to determ
ts to study the deforestation of
NASA-funded scientists for many years . NASA's projec
ry (pictures taken by satel-
tropical forests are conducted by analyzing Satellite Image
cleared. There are both patches
lites in space) to view areas of forest that have been
roads. Forest fragments are
of deforestation and a 'fishb one' of deforestation along
plants and animals are cut off
isolated forest pieces left by deforestation, where the
dary forest - is abandoned
from the larger forest areas. Regrowth - also called secon
e forest . The majority of the
farmland or timbe r cuts that are growing back to becom
rk of rivers draining it. The
picture is undis turbed or 'prim ary' forest, with a netwo
ization (FAO) estimate tropical
most recent figure s by the Food and Agriculture Organ
53,00 0 square miles per year
defore statio n (rainforests and other tropical forests) at
miles were deforested an-
during the 1980s. Of this, they estim ate that 21,000 square
. Based on these estimates,
nually in South America, most of this in the Amazon Basin
North Carolina is deforested.
each year an area of tropical forest large enough to cover
to region . Our research showed
Each year! The rate of deforestation varies from region
was around 6,200 square miles
that in the Brazilian Amazon, the rate of deforestation
per year from 1986 -1993 . By
per year from 1978 -1986 , but fell to 4,800 sq. miles
(90,000 square miles, about the
1998, 6% of the Brazilian Amazon had been cut down
fragments and the increase in
area of New England). However, due to the isolation of
(230,000 square miles, nearly
forest -clearing boundaries, a total of 16.5% of the forest
-funded scientists are currently
the size of Texas) was affected by deforestation. NASA
as well as studying how defor-
analyzing rates of deforestation for the current decade,
region of Southeast Asia (Cam-
estation changes from year to year. The much smaller
Vietnam) lost nearly as much
bodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Thailand and
4,800 square miles per year
E fore st per year from the mid-1970s to the mid-1980s, with
0
I.J converted to agriculture or cut for timber.
<IJ
>
Part e
A competitive global economy
The cause of deforestation is a very complex subject.
At the national level, the gov-
forces the need for money in poorer tropical countries.
84 Camb ridge I ElTS Intens ive Traini ng Reading

Test 2
ernments sell logging concessions to raise money for projects, to pay international
debt, or to develop industry. Brazil had an international debt of $159 billion in 1995,
on which it must make payments each year. The logging companies seek to harvest the
forest and make profit from the sales of valuable hardwoods (such as mahogany) and
pulp. Deforestation by a peasant farmer is often done to raise crops for self-subsistence,
and is driven by the basic human need for food. Most tropical countries are very poor
by U.S. standards, and farming is a basic way of life for a large part of the population.
In Brazil, for example, the average annual earnings of a single person is US $5400, com-
pared to $26,980 per person in the United States. In Bolivia, which holds part of the
Amazon rainforest, the average earnings per person is $800. Farmers of these countries
do not have the money to buy necessities and must raise crops for food and to sell.
Part D
Carbon dioxide (C0 2) is the major gas involved in the greenhouse effect, which causes
global warming. All the things that produce C02 Oike a car burning gas) and the things
that consume C0 2 Oike growing plants) are involved in the 'Global Carbon Cycle'.
Tropical forests hold an immense amount of carbon, which joins with oxygen to form
C0 2. The plants and soil of tropical forests hold 460-575 billion metric tons of car-
bon worldwide. Each acre of tropical forest stores about 180 metric tons of carbon.
Deforestation increases the amount of C0 2 and other trace gases in the atmosphere.
When a forest is cut and replaced by cropland and pastures, the carbon that was stored
in the tree trunks joins with oxygen and is released into the atmosphere as C02. The
loss of forests has a great effect on the global carbon cycle. From 1850 to 1990, de-
forestation worldwide (including in the United States) released 122 billion metric tons
of carbon into the atmosphere, with the current rate being 1.6 billion metric tons per
year. In comparison, all of the fossil fuels (coal, oil, and gas) burnt during a year release
about 6 billion metric tons per year. Releasing C0 2 into the atmosphere increases the
greenhouse effect, and may raise global temperatures. The role of fossil fuel burning in
cars and industry is well known, but tropical deforestation releases about 25% of the
amount released by fossil fuel burning. Tropical deforestation, therefore, contributes
significantly to the increasing C0 2 in the atmosphere.
PartE
Worldwide, there are 5 to 80 million species of plants and animals, which make
up the 'biodiversity' of the planet Earth. Most scientists believe the number of E
0
species to be between 10 and 30 million. Tropical rainforests - covering only 7% u
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of the total dry surface of the Earth - hold over half of all of these species. Of >
the tens of millions of species believed to be on Earth, scientists have only given
names to about 1.5 million of them. Even fewer of the species have been studied
in depth. Many of the rainforest plants and animals can only be found in small

areas, because they require a special habitat to live. This makes them very vulner-
able to deforestation. If their habitats are cut down, they may go extinct. Every
day species are disappearing from the tropical rainforests as they are cut. We do
not know the exact rate of extinction, but estimates range from one to 137 species
disappearing worldwide per day. The loss of species will have a great impact on the
planet. For humans, we are losing organisms that might help us to prevent cancer
or cure AIDS. Other organisms are losing species they depend upon, and thus face
extinction themselves.
Questions 19-23
Based on your reading of the text, complete the sentences below with words taken from the
passage. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers
in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.
19. The process in which a forest is cut down, burned or damaged is called
20. Extinction of many species and changes in our global climate are
21. The majority of rainforests cut down is cleared for
22. The has been the focus of NASA-funded scientists.
23. Releasing C0 2 into the atmosphere increases the greenhouse effect, and may rise
Questions 24-27
Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage 2? In boxes
24-27 on your answer sheet, write
24. One common form of deforestation is commercial logging.

25. The building of towns and flooding caused by construction of dams constitute a substan-
tial portion of total deforestation.
26. The governments of poorer tropical countries sell logging concessions to raise money for
E projects, to pay international debt, to develop industry, or to build up a strong defense.
0
I.J
27. Tropical deforestation releases about 25% of the amount of C0 released in the
2
atmosphere.
86 Cambridge I Intensive Training Reading

Test 2
READING PASSAGE 3
You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which refer to the reading passage
below.
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3:
3:

Questions 28-31
Answer the following questions using information from the reading passage. Select A, B,
CorD as the best answer and write your answers in boxes 28-31 on the answer sheet.
The first one is an example.
Example: Queenslan d is in
A Ecuador.
B Austria.
C Australia.
D The United States.
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Answer: C
28. The Great Barrier Reef

A has mostly been destroyed .
B could die in the next decade.
C is healthier than most other reef syst ems.
D is in good condition.

Test 2
29. Corals are scientifically valued because

A they can be made into medicine. C fish feed on them.
B they provide shelter for plants. D climatic change is recorded in them.
30. Dangers to the marine environment include

A warmer water. C new fish species .
B coral skeletons. D high rainfall levels.
31. Oil exploration

A has provided an income to the Great Barrier Reef Marine Park.
B will continue for lO years.
C although supported by the government, is not popular.
D can help scientists monitor marine life.
Questions 32-34
Choose ONE response from the List of R esponses and match it to the questions below.
Write your answers using the appropriate letters A-] in boxes 32-34 on the answer sheet.
The first one is an example. There are more responses than you need.
Example : Where do the biological wastes come from?
Answer: E
32. What causes the most devastation to the coral reefs?

33. Why are scientists still able to make discoveries in the reef system?
34. What is destroying the reefs near the mainland?
E
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Cambridge IELTS Intensive Training Readmg 89

Questions 35-37
The following sentence has three words missing. Complete the sentence by adding ONE
word from the reading passage for each space. Write your answers in boxes 35-37 on the
answer sheet.
The Great Barrier Reef, the most extensive reef system in the 35. , is important
to weather experts who, by studying the structure of 36. , can learn more about
amounts of 37. centuries ago .
Questions 38-40
Write your answers in boxes 38-40 on the answer sheet. Use a maximum of TWO words
for each answer.
38. Which marine animal is seriously threatening coral?
39. Whose job is it to protect the reef?
40. What is going to be exploited in the waters off the reef in the near future?
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Test 3
READING PASSAGE 1
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on Reading
Passage 1.
SYDNEY 2000 OLYMPICS

The cost of staging the year 2000 Olympics in Sydney is estimated to be a staggering $960
million, but the city is preparing to reap the financial benefits that ensue from holding such
an international event by emulating the commercial success of Los Angeles, the only city yet
to have made a demonstrable profit from the Games in 1984.
At precisely 4.20 am on Friday the 24th of September 1993, it was announced that Sydney had
beaten five other competing cities around the world, and Australians everywhere, not only
Sydneysiders, were justifiably proud of the result. But, if Sydney had lost the bid, would the
taxpayers of NSW and of Australia have approved of governments spending millions of dollars
in a failed and costly exercise?
There may have been some consolation in the fact that the bid came in $1 million below the
revised budget and $5 million below the original budget of $29 million formulated in mid-
1991. However, the final cost was the considerable sum of $24 million, the bulk of which
was paid for by corporate and community contributions, merchandising, licensing, and the
proceeds of lotteries, with the NSW Government, which had originally been willing to spend
up to $10 million, contributing some $2 million. The Federal Governmenfs grant of $5 million
meant, in effect, that the Sydney bid was financed by every Australian taxpayer.
Prior to the announcement of the winning city, there was considerable debate about the wis-
dom of taking financial risks of this kind at a time of economic recession. Others argued that
70 per cent of the facilities were already in place, and all were on government-owned land,
removing some potential areas of conflict which troubled previous Olympic bidders. The for-
mer NSW Premier, Mr. Nick Greiner, went on record as saying that the advantage of having
the Games ·... is not that you are going to have $7.4 billion in extra gross domestic product over
the next 14 years ... ! think the real point of the Games is the psychological change, the catalyst
of confidence ... apart from the other more obvious reasons, such as the building of sporting
facilities, tourism, and things of that nature."
E
0
However, the dubiousness of the benefits that Melbourne, an unsuccessful bidder for the 1988 ...
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Olympic Games, received at a time when the State of Victoria was still in economic turmoil >
meant many corporate bodies were unenthusiastic.
There is no doubt that Sydney"s seductive physical charms caused the world's media to com-
pare the city favourably to its rivals Berlin, Manchester, and Istanbul. Mr. Godfrey Santer,
Cambridge IELTS Intensive '[ raining Reading 91

the Australian Tourist Commission's Manager of Corporate Planning Services, stated that
soon after the bid was made, intense media focus was already having a beneficial effect on
in-bound tourism .
Developers and those responsible for community development projects eagerly pointed to the
improvements taking place to the existing infrastructure of the city, the creation of employ-
ment, and especially the building of sporting facilities, all of which meet the needs of the com-
munity and help to attract more tourists. At Homebush Bay $300 million was spent providing
the twin athletic arenas and the 'high-tech' Aquatic Centre.
However, perhaps the most impressive legacy was the new attitude shown towards both in-
dustrial relations and environmental problems. The high-profile nature of the bid, and the
perception that it must proceed smoothly created a unique attitude of cooperation between
the workforce and employers involved in the construction of the Olympic Village at Homebush
Bay. The improvements included the lack of strikes, the breaking down of demarcation barri-
ers, and the completion of projects within budget and ahead of time.
The Secretary of the NSW Labour Council, Mr. Michael Easson, was quoted as saying What
we've achieved should become the model for the rest of the building industry ... great coopera-
tion, good management, improvement in relations between employers and employees, and a
feeling of optimism ... · The lasting benefits will be first-rate sporting facilities at Homebush
Bay and an industrial relations model which should impact on the rest of the building industry.
Improved negotiations and cooperation over the bid between the Greenpeace environmental
group and the State Government also saw a new respect develop on both sides. Suddenly,
environmentalists were no longer regarded as being radically opposed to all development,
and neither was the State Government perceived as inconsiderate towards environmental
concerns .
The success of Sydney's bid laid to rest much of the opposition to the gamble. Nonetheless,
most economists agree that it would be wise when considering future risks of this kind to bear
well in mind the financial consequences of failure.'
Questions 1-8
Refer to the reading passage headed 'Sydney 2000 Olympics' and look at the statements
below. Write T if the statement is True, and F if the statement is False. Write your answers
E in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet. The first one has been done for you as an example.
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c The Sydney bid was made for the 2000 Olympic Games.
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s 1. The initial estimate of the cost of the Sydney bid was $960 million.
$
!: 2. The majority of the funding for the bid came from a Federal Government's grant.

Test 3
3. The bid for the Games was made during a period of economic growth.
4. The potential for conflict was less because the Olympic sites were on government-owned
land.
5. The former Premier of NSW claimed that the Games will bring about a feeling of
confidence.
6. The world media' s attitude was favourable to Sydney because of the city's friendliness
towards tourists.
7. There was a positive effect on tourism not long after the bid for the Games was made.
8. The State Government and environmentalist groups cooperated better with each other
over the bid.
Questions 9-14
Refer to the reading passage headed 'Sydney 2000 Olympics' and answer the following
questions. Write your answers in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet. The first one has been
done as an example.
Example: Which city profited from holding the Olympic Games in 1984?
Los Angeles
9. How many cities were competing in 1993 for the right to hold the 2000 Games?
10. What was the cost of the revised budget for the Sydney bid?
11. As a result ofthe Federal Government's $5 million grant, who also contributed towards the
bid?
12. What phrase of three words in the text describes the State of Victoria when
Melbourne bid for the Games?
13. What is the name given to the collection of buildings constructed for the 2000
Olympic Games at Homebush Bay?
E
14. How many achievements does the Secretary of the NSW Labour Council mention in 0
u
his industrial relations model? .....
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because police departm ent officials assume the public strongly demands rapid response
,
they believe that every call to the police should be met with it. Studies have shown,
however, that while the public wants quick response, more importan t is the information
given by the police to the person asking for help. If a caller is told the police will arrive
in five minutes but in fact it takes ten minutes or more, waiting the extra time can be
extremel y frustrating. But if a caller is told he or she will have to wait 10 minutes and
the police indeed arrive within that time, the caller is normally satisfied. Thus, rather
than emphasi sing rapid response, the focus of energies should be on establish ing real-
istic expectations in the caller and making every attempt to meet them.
Questions 20-21
Name the TWO LATEST technological developments that reduce police response time,
using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write the two developments
separately in boxes 20-21 on your answer sheet.
Questions 22-28
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in this reading passage? In
boxes 22-28, write
-- ; - .
if the statement l'eflects the claims q.f the writer
\
·
i.fJ the statemen t contradicts the claims of writer
about this in the passage
"'
22. Police believe there is a better chance of finding witnesses to a crime if response
is
rapid.
23. A response delay of 1-2 minutes may have substant ial influenc e on whether or not
a
suspecte d criminal is caught.
24. The public and the police generally agree on the amount of time normally taken for
a
rapid response.
25. Physical barriers are the greatest cause of delay in contacting police .
26. Rapid response is consider ed desirable in handling cases of burglary.
27. Research shows that some 75% of crimes are discovered by victims after they have been
E committ ed.
0
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s of the
> circumst ances of the crime or emergen cy.

Test :3
READIN G PASSAGE 3
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29-40 which ref er to R eading
P assage 3.
WHY SOME WOMEN CROSS

THE FINISH LINE AHEAD OF MEN?
The course is tougher but women are staying the distance, reports Andrew Crisp.
A Women who apply for jobs in middle or senior managemen t have a higher success rate
than men, according to an employment survey. But of course far fewer of them apply for
these positions. The study, by recruitment consultants NB Selection, shows that while one
in six men who appear on interview shortlists gets jobs, the figure rises to one in four for
women.
8 The study concentrated on applications for managemen t positions in the $45,000 to

$110,000 salary range and found that women are more successful than men in both the pri-
vate and public sectors. Dr. Elisabeth Marx from London-based NB Selection described the
findings as encouraging for women, in that they send a positive message to them to apply for
interesting managemen t positions. But she added, 'We should not lose sight of the fact that
significantly fewer women apply for senior positions in comparison with men.'
C Reasons for higher success rates among women are difficult to isolate. One explanation
suggested is that if a woman candidate manages to get on a shortlist, then she has probably
already proved herself to be an exceptional candidate. Dr. Marx said that when women ap-
ply for positions, they tend to be better qualified than their male counterparts but are more
selective and conservative in their job search. Women tend to research thoroughly before
applying for positions or attending interviews. Men, on the other hand, seem to rely on their
ability to sell themselves and to convince employers that any shortcomings they have will
not prevent them from doing a good job.
D Managerial and executive progress made by women is confirmed by the annual survey
of boards of directors carried out by Korn-Ferry Carre-Orban International. This year the sur-
vey shows a doubling of the number of women serving as non-executive directors compared
with the previous year. However, progress remains painfully slow and there were still only
18 posts filled by women out of a total of 354 non-executive positions surveyed. Hilary Sears,
a partner with Korn- Ferry, said, 'women have raised the level of grades we are employed in
E
but we have still not broken through barriers to the top.' 0
u
E In Europe, a recent feature of corporate life in the recession has been the de-layering
of managemen t structures. Sears said that this has halted progress for women in as much
as de-layering has taken place either where women are working or in layers they aspire to.
Sears also noted a positive trend from the recession, which has been the growing number of
women who have started up on their own.

F In business as a whole, there are a number of factors encouragin g the prospect of greater
equality in the workforce. Demographic trends suggest that the number of women going
into employment is steadily increasing. In addition, a far greater number of women are now
passing through higher education, making them better qualified to move into manageme nt
positions.
G Organisations such as the European Women's Managem ent Development Network pro-
vide a range of opportunities for women to enhance their skills and contacts. Through a
series of both pan-Europ ean and national workshops and conferences, the barriers to women
in employment are being broken down. However, Ariane Berthoin Antal, director of an in-
ternational institute, said that there is only anecdotal evidence of changes in recruitment
patterns. And she said, 'It's still so hard for women to even get on to shortlists - there are
so many hurdles and barriers.' Antal agreed that there have been some positive signs but
said 'Until there is a belief among employers, until they value the difference, nothing will
change.'
Questions 29-34
Reading Passage 3 has seven paragraphs A-G. State which paragraph discusses each of
the points below.
Example Answer
The salary range studied in the NB Selection survey B
29. The drawback s of current company restructur ing patterns

30. Associatio ns that provide support for profession al women
31. The success rate of female job applicants for managem ent positions
32. Male and female approache s to job applicatio ns
33. Reasons why more women are being employed in the business sector
34. The improvem ent in female numbers on company managem ent structures
Questions 35-38
The author makes reference to three people in the reading passage. Which of the list of
f
cl,o points on the next page do these people make? In boxes 35-38, write
....a,
> d 1
. M if the point is made by Dr. Marx

S if the point is made by Hilary Sears
• A if the point is made by Ariane Berthoin Antal
•
. .I .
98 I ELTS Intensive Training Reading

Test 3
35. Selection procedur es do not favour women.

36. The number of female-r un businesses is increasing.
37. Male applican ts exceed female applican ts for top posts .
38. Women hold higher positions now than they used to.
Questions 39-40
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Write your
answers in boxes 39-40 on your answer sheet.
39. What change has there been in the number of women in top managem ent positions
detailed in the annual survey?
40. What aspect of company structuri ng has disadvan taged women?
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Cambridg e _l l:iTS Intensive Training Reading 99

Test 4
READING PASSAGE 1
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-12 w hich refer to R eading
Passage 1.
OF DUCKS AND DUCK EGGS
For people who like to keep poultry<*), ducks offer certain advantag es over hens. Ducks
are
immune to some common diseases found in hens and are less vulnerable to others.
Some
breeds of duck produce bigger eggs than hens. In addition, ducks lay eggs over a longer
sea-
son than do hens.
Poultry keepers with gardens have less to worry about if they keep ducks rather than
hens
because the former are less apt to dig up plants and destroy roots. While both hens
and
ducks benefit the garden by eating pests, hens are known to damage herb and grass
beds.
Ducks, on the other hand, will search for insects and snails more carefully. Only very delicate
plants are at risk from the broad, webbed feet of ducks.
Like all waterbirds, ducks need access to water, and duck keepers typically provide this
by
building a pond. Something this large is not absolutely necessary, however; ducks need
only
to be able to dip their heads in the water to keep their nostrils clean. If a pond is provided
though, it is importan t to keep ducklings away from it until they are old enough to withstand
the cool temperat ure of the water - about eight weeks.
When keeping ducks, one has to consider just how many the land will support. Generally
the
rule is 100 ducks per half hectare. If more than this proportio n is introduced, there is
a risk
of compacting the soil, which can lead to muddy conditions for long periods as the rain
is not
easily absorbed into the ground.
While ducks offer many advantag es over hens, they must be given greater quantity
of
food, especially if regular eggs are desired. An adult duck will eat between 170 to
200
grams of food a day. If the ducks have access to grass and a pond, they will be able to
find
for themselv es approxim ately 70% of their daily dietary requirem ents in warmer months
but Jess than half of those in colder times. Therefor e, it is importan t that they be
fed
enough food, such as grain, every day.
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Experienced duck keepers raise ducklings every three years or so because it is after this
riod of time that ducks' egg-laying powers begin to seriously weaken. If the aim is to
pe-
hatch
ducklings, keepers should be aware that not all ducks make good mothers, and that certain
breeds of duck appear to be worse than others. The poor mothers abandon their eggs
a few
(*) poultry: farm birds (e.g. chickens, geese, ducks)
100 (.ambridg e I El TS Intensive Training Reading

Test 4
days after laying them. A sure way of making sure the rejected eggs hatch is to place them
next to chicken eggs under a hen.
The eggs of ducks as food for humans have a mixed reputation. This is because of a number
of cases of salmonella food poisoning in Europe in the 1970s. Although it was never con-
clusively shown that duck eggs were to blame, the egg-eating public stopped buying and
many duck egg producers went bankrupt. Indeed, there is a risk of salmonella poisoning
when ducks lay their eggs in damp conditions, such as on ground that is constantly wet, but
the same can be said for the eggs of hens. And commercial duck egg production in France
and England, where the outbreaks of salmonella poisoning took place, followed the same
standards as those used in the hen egg industry, which experienced no salmonella problems.
(Storage of eggs, whether those of hens or ducks, can also be a factor in contamination. Stud-
ies have found that bacterial growth reaches potentially dangerous levels at storage tempera-
tures of SoC or greater.)
The salmonella scare was over by the early 1980s, but, at least in smaller markets like
Australia and New Zealand, few producers wished to risk investment in ducks for fear of
problems. No large-scale commercial duck egg production exists in these countries. It has
thus been left to small producers and, more commonly, home duck keepers.
Questions 1-6
Classify the characteristics listed below as belonging to
Write the appropriate letters in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.
Example Answer
more vulnerable to illness H
1. more eggs per week E

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2. lengthier laying period .....
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3. less likely to uproot plants >
4. dangerous to grass
5. eat more grain
6. better mothers
Cambridge IElTS Intensive Training Reading 101

Questions 7-10
Complete the partial summary below. Choose ONE OR TWO WORDS from the passage
for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 7-10 on your answer sheet.
To prevent their _ 7_ from getting dirty, ducks should hove access to water. This may be pro-
vided by building o pond , but ducklings under _ 8_ of age should be prevented from entering
it because of the _ 9_ of the water. If too many ducks ore kept on a plot of land , the soil may
eventually become _ 1_0_ as o result of compaction . For this reason , it is advised that one limits
the number of ducks per half hectare of land to 100.
Questions 11-12
11. Salmonella food poisoning

A resulted from consumptio n of duck eggs.
B created difficulties for the duck egg business.
C occurred all over Europe.
D was found in both duck and hen eggs.
12. Duck eggs

A have been produced in large quantities in New Zealand since the early 1980s.
B are more at risk of salmonella contaminati on than hen eggs.
C may be contaminate d when laid in wet conditions.
D shou ld be kept at 5°C to prevent contaminati on.
READIN G PASSAGE 2
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 13-27 which refer to Reading
Passage 2.
WRAP UP YOUR VISIT WITH

THE PERFECT GIFT
Section A
'It is better to give than to receive'; 'Never look a gift horse in the mouth'; 'Beware of
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u
and our lives as social creatures. They are also an important part of our business rela-
tionships.
There are occasions when giving a gift surpasses spoken communicat ion, since the
message it offers can cut through barriers of language and cultural diversity. Present
102 Ctmbridgc IF t:rS I ntcnstVL' Trainmg Reading

Test 4
a simple gift to your host in a foreign country and the chances are he or she will un-
derstand you perfectly, though you may not understand a single word of each other's
languages. It can convey a wealth of meaning about your appreciation of their hospi-
tality and the importance you place upon the relationship. Combine the act of giving
with some knowledge of and sensitivity to the culture of the recipient and you have
an invaluable chance to earn respect and lay the foundations of a durable and mutually
beneficial business relationship.
For all countries, take account of climate, especially in regard to clothing. Some gifts
can be ruined by extremely hot or humid climates, possibly causing their receiver
considerable anguish. Consider the kinds of products that are abundant in the country
concerned and try for something that is uncommon there. Think about the level of
language skills: a book with hundreds of pages of English text may be at best useless,
at worst embarrassing, to a person with limited English . Inform yourself as much as
possible about local customs, rules and etiquette, especially to do with wrapping, pre-
senting, superstitions, taboos and, importantly, customs and quarantine regulations.
The following is a brief account of the etiquette of gift-giving in some countries of Asia
and the Middle East.
Section B
Books with plenty of illustrations are most appreciated in Indonesia. Inappropriate
items: alcohol, products made from pigs, warm clothing. Ties and cufflinks are not
commonly worn .
In Iran, short-sleeved shirts and any visual representation of naked or partially dressed
people, male or female are highly inappropriate. Don't bother with ties, videos or
records. As in all Islamic countries, there is a strict taboo on any pork products.
Respecting the Arab tradition, gifts should endeavour to praise the recipient in Iraq and
should never be of an order that cannot reasonably be reciprocated.
Avoid certain colour combinations: red, white and black (colours of the Nazi flag); and
red, black, white and green (the Palestinian flag) in Israel.
Gifts are normally exchanged at the beginning of meetings with Japanese and should
be given and received with both hands. It is seen as impolite to give an unwrapped
gift. The emphasis should be on high quality, though not necessarily expensive, items.
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When in Jordan, it is preferable, but not vital, to avoid green in packaging. Do not give u
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books, videos, etc. that mention Israel. Normal Arab customs apply, so no alcohol, >
pork, women's clothing, etc. Arabs generally do not greatly appreciate handcrafts in
wood, fabric or pottery. Gifts should ideally appear valuable.
Cambridge Intensive Training Reading 103

Again, the exchange should be made with both hands in South Korea. Also, similar to
Japan, the emphasis is on presentation. Do not use red ink to write the names of the
recipients. It is worth remembering that it is customary for a gift given to a company
to be shared out around the office concerned, so items that lend themselves to this
practice - like a bottle of good whisky - are very well received.
Laos has virtually no cultural taboo items. It would be difficult to offend with virtually
any gift.
Business contacts in the People's Republic of China are keen recipients of good Scotch
whisky and American cigarettes, to the point where it is almost obligatory to take some
along when you go there. Or, if not obligatory, it certainly helps to warm relations.
In Hong Kong SAR, people greatly appreciate simple greeting cards, though obviously
they will not refuse small tokens of friendship in the form of gifts.
Do not open gifts in the presence of the giver in the Philippines. Not recommended are
items alluding to religion. Many people are Catholic and many others Moslems. This
also means literature and art with any possible suggestions of lewdness or racism are
to be strictly avoided.
For Thailand, gifts should not be wrapped or packaged in black. Modest gifts, like ties,
scarves and key rings, are much appreciated. Traditionally, sharp objects like knives or
even letter openers are not given as gifts.
There are no special gift-giving customs in Vietnam, but the Vietnamese are enthusias-
tic gift givers and like very much to receive them as well. Liquor and wine can be prob-
lematic, for reasons pertaining to Vietnamese tastes rather than morality or religion.
Questions 13-16
Statements 13-16 are based on Reading Passage 2. Complete the statements by using ONE
WORD from Reading Passage 2 for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 13-16 on
the answer sheet.
13. Differences in culture and can be overcome by gifts.
14. Overseas visitors are advised to give gifts to their
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15. should be considered when giving gifts such as thick clothing.
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16. To present gift of chocolates in a tropical country might create
104 Cambridge lELTS Intensive Training Reading

Test 4
Questions 17-22
Read each of the following statements. Write T if the statement is true, F if the statement
is false and IE if there is insufficient evidence, according to Reading Passage 2. Write
your answers in boxes 17-22 on the answer sheet.
17. An Israeli business manager would undoubt edly apprecia te the gift of a black, white,
green and red striped tie.
18. It is recomm ended to give wine to Vietnam ese.
19. An inexpens ive pigskin wallet would probably be apprecia ted in Japan, Vietnam and
Laos.
20. A silk scarf is an appropri ate gift for Jordania n host's wife.
21. Umbrell as are popular gifts in Iraq.
22. Whisky would be a welcome gift in Laos.
Questions 23-27
The paragraph below is a summary based on information in Reading Passage 2. There
are some words missing. Complete the paragraph by using ONE WORD for each space.
All the words you will need to use come from Reading Passage 2. Write your answers in
ns on animal
There are importan t details to consider when ____lL. Some cultures have prohibitio
products such as those from ___M.__. Others have political aversions to specific
____12_ because
like __1§__ covered gifts, and in
of their use on certain countries ' flags. Similarly, Thais do not
presentat ion
South Korea it is suggeste d that name tags written in red should be avoided. But
be taken in
is not only restricted to what wrapping or pen you use, in Japan care should also
selecting gifts that are of
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Cambridg e [ntcnsivc Training Reading 105

READING PASSAGE 3
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which refer to
Readin g
Passage 3.
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106 Cambrid ge fELTS I ntensivc Training Reading

Test 4
Questions 28-31
Complete the following statements with NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from
the text. Write your answers in boxes 28-31 on your answer sheet. An example has been
done for you.
Example Answer
The association responsible for the research in this passage is known as ... Europanel
The eating habits of some European nations are becoming less diverse because of two groups of
factors , namely, 28. and 29.
30. Until recently, it was wrongly believed that the one-person household consisted of a
man or woman
31. As soon as it has become successful in an established market, a large company
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Questions 32-36
Below are listed some of the lifestyle changes affecting various European nations. Match
each change with the country in which it is said to occur by writing the appropriate letters
A-Fin boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet. One has been done for you as an example.
There are more countries than you need but you may use some countries more than once.
Example Answer
eating more pizza A
32. eating more cereals

33. drinking less wine
34. using more central heating
35. drinking less tea
36. having fewer children
Questions 37-40
Are the following changes the result of smaller households according to the reading passage?
Write Y for Yes or N for No in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.
37. increased use of microwaves

38. increasing popularity of breakfast cereals
39. decrease in popularity of hot drinks
40. increased demand for convenience foods
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Test 5
READING PASSAGE 1
Passage 1.
FINDING THE LOST FREEDOM
1 The private car is assumed to have widened our horizons and increased our mobility.
When we consider our children's mobility, they can be driven to more places (and more
distant places) than they could visit without access to a motor vehicle. However; allowing
our cities to be dominated by cars has progressively eroded children's independe nt mobility.
Children have lost much of their freedom to explore their own neighbourhood or city without
adult supervision. In recent surveys, when parents in some cities were asked about their own
childhood experiences, the majority remember ed having more, or far more, opportunities for
going out on their own, compared with their own children today. They had more freedom to
explore their own environment.
2 Children's independe nt access to their local streets may be important for their own
personal, mental and psychological development. Allowing them to get to know their
own neighbourhood and community gives them a 'sense of place'. This depends on 'active
exploration', which is not provided for when children are passengers in cars. (Such children
may see more, but they learn less.) Not only is it important that children be able to get
to local play areas by themselves, but walking and cycling journeys to school and to other
destinations provide genuine play activities in themselves.
3 There are very significant time and money costs for parents associated with transporting
their children to school, sport centres and to other locations. Research in the United Kingdom
estimated that this cost, in 1990, was between 10 billion and 20 billion pounds.
4 The reduction in children's freedom may also contribute to a weakening of the sense of
local community. As fewer children and adults use the streets as pedestrians, these streets
become less sociable places. There is less opportunity for children and adults to have the
spontaneo us exchanges that help to engender a feeling of community. This in itself may
exacerbate fears associated with assault and molestation of children, because there are fewer
adults available who know their neighbours' children, and who can look out for their safety.
5 The extra traffic involved in transporting children results in increased traffic congestion, E
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pollution and accident risk As our roads become more dangerous, more parents drive their
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children to more places, thus contributing to increased levels of danger for the remaining >
pedestrians. Anyone who has experienced either the reduced volume of traffic in peak hour
during school holidays, or the traffic jams near schools at the end of a school day, will not need
convincing about these points. Thus, there are also important environmental implications of
children's loss of freedom.
Cambridge lELTS Intensive Training Reading 109

6 As individuals, parents strive to provide the best upbringing they can for their children.
However, in doing so (e.g. by driving their children to sport centres, school or recreatio
n
grounds), parents may be contributing to a more dangerous environment for children
generally. The idea that 'streets are for cars and backyards and playgrounds are for children'
is a strongly held belief, and parents have little choice as individuals but to keep their children
off the streets if they want to protect their safety.
7 In many parts of Dutch cities and some traffic-ca lmed precinct s in Germany,
residenti al streets are now places where cars must give way to pedestria ns. In these
areas, resident s are acceptin g the view that the function of streets is not solely
to
provide mobility for cars. Streets may also be for social interacti on, walking, cycling
a nd playing. One of the most importan t aspects of these Europea n cities, in terms
of
giving cities back to children, has been a range of 'traffic calming' initiative s, aimed
at reducing the volume and speed of traffic. These initiative s have had complex
interacti ve effects, leading to a sense that children have been able to 'recaptu re' their
local neighbou rhood, and more importan tly, that they have been able to do this
in
safety. Recent research has demonst rated that children in many German cities have
significa ntly higher levels to freedom to travel to places in their own neighbo urhood
or city than children in other cities in the world.
8 Modifying cities in order to enhance children's freedom will not only benefit children.
Such cities will become more environmentally sustainable, as well as more sociable and
more livable for all city residents. Perhaps it will be our concern for our children's welfare
that convinces us that we need to challenge the dominance of the car in our cities.
Questions 1-5
R ead statements 1-5 which relate to paragraphs 1, 2, and 3 of the reading passage.
Answer T if the statement is true, F if the statement is false, or NI if there is no
information given in the passage. Write your answers in the spaces numbered 1-5 on your
answer sheet. One has been done for you as an example.
Example Answer
The private car has made people more mobile T
1. The private car has helped children have more opportun ities to learn.
2. C hildren are more indepen dent today than they used to be .
3. W alking and cycling to school allows children to learn more.
4. Children usually walk or cycle to school.
5. Parents save time and money by driving children to school.
110 ( ·tmbridge II I Intensivc 'f raining Reading-

Test 5
Questions 6-9
In paragraphs 4 and 5, there are FOUR problems stated. These problems, numbered as
Questions 6-9, are listed below. Each of these problems has a cause, listed A -G. Find the
correct cause for each of the problems and write the corresponding letter A -G in the spaces
numbered 6-9 on the answer sheet. One has been done for you as an example.
NB There are more causes than problems so you will not use all of them and you may use
any cause more than once.
Problems Causes
Example Answer
low sense of community feeling F
6. streets become less sociable A few adults know local children
7. fewer chances for meeting friends B fewer people use the streets
8. fears of danger for children c increased pollution
9. higher accident risk D streets are less friendly
E less traffic in school holidays
F reduced freedom for children
G more children driven to school
Questions 10-14
Questions 10-14 are statement beginnings which represent information given in paragraphs
6, 7 and 8. In the box on the next page, there are some statement endings numbered i-x.
Choose the correct ending for each statement.
Write your answers in the spaces numbered 10-14 on your answer sheet. One has been
done for you as an example.
NB There are more statement endings than you will need.
Example Answer
By driving their children to school, parents help create ...

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11. In some German towns, pedestrians have right of way >
12. Streets should also be used for

13. Reducing the amount of traffic and the speed is
14. All people who live in the city will benefit if cities are

READING PASSAGE 2
Passage 2.
RISING SEAS
Paragraph 1 Increased temperatures
The average air temperature at the surface of the earth has risen this century, as has the
temperature of ocean surface waters. Because water expands as it heats, a warmer ocean
means higher sea levels. We cannot say definitely that the temperature rises are due to the
greenhouse effect; the heating may be part of a "natural" variability over a long time-scale that
we have not yet recognised in our short 1DO years of recording . However, assuming the build-
up of greenhouse gases is responsible, and that the warming will continue, scientists - and
in habitants of low-lying coastal areas- would like to know the extent of future sea level rises.
Paragraph 2
Calculating this is not easy. Models used for the purpose have treated the ocean as passive,
stationary and one-dimensional. Scientists have assumed that heat simply diffused into the
sea from the atmosphere. Using basic physical laws, they then predict how much a known
volume of water would expand for a given increase in temperature. But the oceans are
E not one-dimension al, and recent work by oceanographer s, using a new model which
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takes into account a number of subtle facets of the sea- including vast and complex
ocean currents - suggests that the rise in sea level may be less than some earlier
estimates had predicted .
112 Cambridge fELTS Intensive Training Reading

Test 5
Paragraph 3
An international forum on climate change produced figures for likely sea-level rises of 20 em
and 1.4 m, corresponding to atmospheric temperature increases of 1.5°C and 4.5°C respec-
tively. Some scientists estimate that the ocean warming resulting from those temperature
increases by the year 2050 would raise the sea level by between 1Ocm and 40cm. This model
only takes into account the temperature effect on the oceans; it does not consider changes
in sea level brought about by the melting of ice sheets and glaciers, and changes in ground
water storage. When we add on estimates of these, we arrive at figures for total sea-level
rises of 15 em and 70 em respectively.
Paragraph 4
lfs not easy trying to model accurately the enormous complexities of the ever-changing
oceans, with their great volume, massive currents and sensitivity to the influence of land
masses and the atmosphere. For example, consider how heat enters the ocean. Does it just
·diffuse· from the warmer air vertically into the water and heat only the surface layer of the
sea? [Warm water is less dense than cold, so it would not spread downwards.] Conventional
models of sea-level rise have consi dered that this is the only method, but measurements have
shown that the rate of heat transfer into the ocean by vertical diffusion is far lower in practice
than the figures that many modelers have adopted.
Paragraph 5
Much of the early work, for simplicity, ignored the fact that water in the oceans moves in
three dimensions. By movement, of course, scientists don 't mean waves, which are too small
individually to consider, but rather movement of vast volumes of water in huge currents . To
understand the importance of this, we now need to consider another process - advection .
Imagine smoke rising from a chi mney. On a still day it will slowly spread out in all directions
by means of diffusion. With a strong directional wind, however, it will all shift downwind . This
process is advection - the transport of properties [notably heat and salinity in the ocean] by
the movement of bodies of air or water, rather than by conduction or diffusion .
Paragraph 6
Massive ocean currents called gyres do the moving . These currents have far more capacity
to store heat than does the atmosphere. Indeed, just the to p 3 m of the ocean contains more
heat than the whole of the atmosphere. The origin of gyres lies in the fact that more heat
from the sun reaches the equator than the poles, and naturally heat tends to move from the
former to the latter. Warm air rises at the equator, and draws more air beneath it in the form
of winds [the Trade Winds'] that, together with other air movements, provide the main force E
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driving the ocean currents.
Paragraph 7
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Water itself is heated at the equator and moves poleward, twisted by the earth 's rotation and
affected by the positions of the continents. The resultant broadly circular movements between
about 10° and 40° North and South are clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and anti clock-

wise in the Southern Hemisphere. They flow towards the east at mid-latitudes in the equatorial
region. They then flow towards the poles, along the eastern sides of continents, as warm cur-
rents. When two different masses of water meet, one will move beneath the other, depending
on their relative densities in the subduction process. The densities are determined by tem-
perature and salinity. The convergence of water of different densities from the equator and the
poles deep in the oceans causes continuous subduction . This means that water moves verti-
cally as well as horizontally. Cold water from the poles travels at depth- it is denser than warm
water- until it emerges at the surface in another part of the world in the form of a cold current.
Paragraph 8 How the greenhouse effect will change ocean temperatures

Ocean currents, in three dimensions, form a giant 'conveyor belt", distributing heat from the
thin surface layer into the interior of the oceans and around the globe. Water may take dec-
ades to circulate in these 3-0 gyres in the top kilometre of the ocean, and centuries in the
deeper water. With the increased atmospheric temperatures due to the greenhouse effect,
the oceans· conveyor belt will carry more heat into the interior. This subduction moves heat
around far more effectively than simple diffusion. Because warm water expands more than
cold when it is heated, scientists had presumed that the sea level would rise unevenly around
the globe. It is now believed that these inequalities cannot persist, as winds will act to con-
tinuously spread out the water expansion. Of course, if global warming changes the strength
and distribution of the winds, then this 'evening-our process may not occur, and the sea level
co uld rise more in some areas than others.
Questions 15-20
There are eight paragraphs numbered 1-8 in Reading Passage 2. The first paragraph and
the last paragraph have been given headings. From the list below labelled A-1, choose a
suitable heading for the remaining six paragraphs.
Write your answers in the spaces numbered 15-20 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all the headings.
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Test 5
15. Paragraph 2
16. Paragraph 3
17. Paragraph 4
18. Paragraph 5
19. Paragraph 6
20. Paragraph 7
Questions 21-22
Answer Questions 21 and 22 by selecting the correct answer to complete each sentence
according to the information given in the reading passage. Write your answers A , B, C or
D in the spaces numbered 21 and 22 on your answer sheet.
21. Scientists do not know for sure why the air and surface of ocean temperatures are
rising because
A there is too much variability.
B there is not enough variability.
C they have not been recording these temperatures for enough time .
D the changes have only been noticed for 100 years .
22. New research leads scientists to believe that

A the oceans are less complex.
B the oceans are more complex.
C the oceans will rise more than expected.
D the oceans will rise less than expected .
Question 23
Look at the following list offactors A-F and select THREE factors which are mentioned
in the reading passage which may contribute to the rising ocean levels. Write the THREE
corresponding letters A-Fin (he space numbered 23 on your answer sheet.
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Cambridge JELrS Intensive Training Reading 115

Questions 24-28
Read each of the following statements 24-28. According to the information in the reading
passage, if the statement is true, write T, if it is false, write F and if there is no information
about the statement in the reading passage, write NI. Write your answers in the spaces
numbered 24-28 on your answer sheet.
24. The surface layer of the oceans is warmed by the atmosphere.
25. Advection of water changes heat and salt levels.
26. A gyre holds less heat than there is in the atmosphere.
27. The process of subduction depends on the water density.
28. The sea level is expected to rise evenly over the earth's surface.
READING PASSAGE 3
Passage 3.
NEW RULES FOR THE PAPER GAME

1 Computerised data storage and electronic mail were to have heralded the paper-
less office. But, contrary to expectations, paper consumption throughout the world
shows no sign of abating. In fact, consumption, especially of printing and writing pa-
pers, continues to increase. World demand for paper and board is now expected to
grow faster than the general economic growth in the next 15 years. Strong demand
will be underpinned by the growing industrialisation of Southeast Asia, the reemer-
gence of paper packaging, greater use of facsimile machines and photocopiers, and the
popularity of direct-mail advertising. It is possible that by 2007, world paper and board
demand will reach 455 million tonnes, compared with 241 million tonnes in 1991.
2 The pulp and paper industry has not been badly affected by the electronic tech-
nologies that promised a paperless society. But what has radically altered the indus-
try's structure is pressure from another front - a more environmental ly conscious
society driving an irreversible move towards cleaner industrial production . The en-
vironmental consequences of antiquated pulp mill practices and technologies had
marked this industry as one in need of reform. Graphic descriptions of deformed
fish and thinning populations, particularly in the Baltic Sea where old pulp mills had
E
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discharged untreated effluents for 100 years, have disturbed the international com-
..... munity .
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3 Until the 1950s, it was common for pulp mills and other industries to discharge
untreated effluent into rivers and seas . The environmental effects were at the time
either not understood, or regarded as an acceptable cost of economic prosperity in an
116 Cambridge IE ITS I ntcnsivc Training Reading

Test 5
increasingly import-oriented world economy. But greater environmental awareness

has spurred a fundamental change in attitude in the community, in government and
in industry itself.
4 Since the early 1980s, most of the world-scale pulp mills in Scandinavia and
North America have modernised their operations, outlaying substantial amounts to
improve production methods. Changes in mill design and processes have been aimed
at minimising the environmental effects of effluent discharge while at the same time
producing pulp with the whiteness and strength demanded by the international mar-
ket. The environmental impetus is taking this industry even further, with the focus
now on developing processes that may even eliminate waste-water discharges. But
the ghost of the old mills continues to haunt the industry today. In Europe, compa-
nies face a flood of environment-relate d legislation. In Germany, companies are now
being held responsible for the waste they create.
5 Pulp is the porridge-like mass of plant fibres from which paper is made . Paper
makers choose the type of plant fibre and the processing methods, depending on
what the end product will be used for: whether it is a sturdy packing box, a smooth
sheet of writing paper or a fragile In wood, which is the source of about 90%
of the world's paper production, fibres are bound together by lignin, which gives the
unbleached pulp a brown colour. The pulping stage separates the wood into fibres
so they are suitable for paper making. Pulping can be done by mechanical grinding,
or by chemical treatment in which woodchips are 'cooked' with chemicals, or by a
combination of both methods .
6 Kraft pulping is the most widely used chemical process for producing pulp with
the strength required by the high-quality paper market. It is now usually carried
out in a continuous process in a large vessel called a digester. Woodchips are fed
from a pile into the top of the digester. In the digester, the chips are cooked in a
solution called white liquor, composed of caustic soda (sodium hydroxide) and so-
dium sulphide. The chips are cooked at high temperatures of up to l70°C for up to
three hours. The pulp is then washed and separated from the spent cooking liquor
which has turned dark and is now appropriately called black liquor. An important
feature of kraft pulping is a chemical recovery system which recycles about 95% of
the cooking chemicals and produces more than enough energy to run the mill. In a
series of steps involving a furnace and tanks, some of the black liquor is transformed
into energy, while some is regenerated into the original white cooking liquor. The E
recovery system is an integral part of production in the pulp and paper industry. 0
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The pulp that comes out has little lignin left in the fibres. Bleaching removes the Q)
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last remaining lignin and brightens the pulp. Most modern mills have modified their
pulping processes to remove as much of the lignin as possible before the pulp moves
to the bleaching stage.
Cambridge I FIJ'S Intensive Training Reading 117

Questions 29-32
Below is a list of possible factors A-G, which will influence the amount of paper being
used in the future. From the list, choose FOUR factors which are mentioned in paragraph
1 of the reading passage. Write your answers in the spaces numbered 29-32 on the answer
sheet.
Questions 33-35
The following THREE statements are summaries of paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 respectively.
However, they are incomplete. Complete each of the statements using NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS from the text. Write your answers in the spaces numbered 33-35 on
your answer sheet.
33. The international community has begun to demand

34. In the past, the environmental effects of pulp mill practices were probably a price to
pay for
35. Some paper mills have recently modernised their mill design in order to decrease
Questions 36-40
Below is a list of possible steps in the kraft process of turning woodchips into paper. They
are numbered 1-8. Only FIVE of the steps listed below are mentioned in the passage. The
steps are not listed in the correct order. Decide which steps are mentioned and write them
f
in the correct order. Write the appropriate number for each step in the correct order in the
spaces numbered 36-40 on your answer sheet.
-...0
(].
> 1. the chips are cooked 5. the pulp is dried

2. the fibres are bound by lignin 6. the pulp is removed from the black liquor
3. the pulp is bleached 7. the chips are put into the white liquor
4. woodchips are put into a pile 8. the pulp is washed

Test 6
READING PASSAGE 1
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-15 which are based on
Reading Passage 1.
Questions 1-5
Reading Passage 1 has six sections. Choose the most suitable heading for each section
from the list of headings i-xii below.
Write the appropriate numbers i-xii in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more headings than sections so you will not use all of them.
1. Section A
2. Section B
Example Answer
Section C lX
E
3. Section D 0
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4. Section E OJ
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5. Section F
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Cambridge fELTS Intensive Training Reading 119

THE NATURE OF DISPUTES
To resolve o dispute means to turn opposing positions into o single outcome. The two par-
ties may choose to focus their attention on one or more of three basic factors. They may
seek to (1) reconcile their interests, (2) determine who is right , and/ or (3) determine who
is more powerful.
Section A
Interests ore needs , desires, concerns , fears - the things one cores about or wonts. They
provide the foundation for o person 's or on organisation's position in o dispute. In o dis-
pute, not only do the interests of one party not coincide with those of the other party,
but they ore in conflict. For example, the director of soles for on electronics company gets
into o dispute with the director of manufacturing over the number of TV models to pro-
duce . The director of soles wonts to produce more models because her interest is in sell-
ing TV sets; more mode ls mean more choices for consumers and hence increased sales .
The director of manufacturing, however, wants to produce fewer models. His interest is
in decreasing manufacturing costs and more models mean higher costs.
Section B
Reconciling such interests is not easy. It invo lves probing for deeply rooted concerns,
devising creative solutions, and making tradeoffs and compromises where interests ore
opposed. The most common procedure for doing this is negotiation, the act of commu-
nication intended to reach agreement. Another interest-based procedure is mediation,
in which a third party assists the disputants, the two sides in the d ispute, in reaching
agreement.
Section C
By no means do all negotiations (or mediations) focus on reconciling interests . Some
negotiations focus on determining who is right, such · as when two lawyers argue about
whose case has the greater merit. Other negotiations focus on determining who is more
powerful, such as when quarrelling neighbours or nations exchange threats and counter-
threats. Often negotiations involve a mix of all three- some attempts to satisfy interests,
some discussion of rights, and some references to re lative power.
Section 0
E It is often complicated to attempt to determine who is right in a dispute. Although it is
0
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usually straightforward where rights are formalised in law, other rights take the form of
unwritten but socially accepted standards of behaviour, such as reciprocity, precedent,
equality, and seniority.
120 Cunbridgc I ElTS Training Reading

Test 6
There are often different- and sometimes contradictory - standards that apply to
rights. Reaching agreement on rights, where the outcome will determine who gets
what, can often be so difficult that the parties frequently turn to a third party to
determine who is right. The most typical rights procedure is adjudication, in which
disputants present evidence and arguments to a neutral third party who has the
power to make a decision that must be followed by both disputants. (In mediation,
by contrast, the third party does not have the power to decide the dispute.) Public
adjudication is provided by courts and administrative agencies . Private adjudica-
tion is provided by arbitrators.
Section E
A third way to resolve a dispute is on the basis of power. We define power, somewhat
narrowly, as the ability to pressure someone to do something he would not otherwise do.
Exercising power typically means imposing costs on the other side or threatening to do
so. The exercise of power takes two common forms: acts of aggression, such as physical
attack , and withholding the benefits that derive from a relationship , as when employees
stop working in a strike.
Section F
In relationships of mutual dependence , such as between labour and management or with-
in an organisation or a family , the question of who is more powerful turns to who is less
dependent on the other. If a company needs the employees' work more than employees
need the company 's pay, the company is more dependent and hence less powerful. How
dependent one is turns on how satisfactory the alternatives are for satisfying one 's inter-
ests. The better the alternative , the less dependent one is. If it is easier for the company
to replace striking employees than it is for striking employees to find new jobs, the com-
pany is less dependent and thereby more powerful. Determining who is the more powerful
party without a decisive and potentially destructive power contest is difficult because
power is ultimately a matter of perceptions.
Glossary
disputant: one of the parties in a dispute
Questions 6-11
On the next page are summaries of specific disputes. Classify their resolutions as based on E
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, ' '
Cambridge IELTS lntcnsivc'IrainingReading 121

Write the appropriate letters A, B orCin boxes 6-11 on your answer sheet.
Example Answer
A group of employees threaten to go on strike unless
their manager gives them a pay rise. The manager c
eventually agrees on the rise.
6. A mother disapproves of her son's fiancee and threatens to disown her son if he marries
her. The marriage goes ahead, but after some years the mother accepts it because she
wants to re-establish a good relationship with her son.
7. A large company decides to buy a new computer system. The accounting department
wants System X. The marketing department insists on System Y. A settlement is
reached after a series of meetings between the disputants.
8. Island C is claimed by both Country A and Country B. The decision to determine whose
land it is is given to the United Nations, which concludes that Country A may have
Island C because of stronger social and historical ties.
9. A married couple can afford only one car. The wife wants a simple transport vehicle.
The husband wants a sports car to impress his friends. A mutual friend helps them
reach agreement.
10. A divorcing couple disagreeing about who will get custody of their children go to a court
of law. The court determines the mother should have custody.
11. An employer refuses to pay an employee because of poor job performance . The employee
promises to improve his work.
Questions 12-15
Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading Passage 1. Use NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS/or each answer. Write your answers in boxes 12-15 on your
answer sheet.
12. Two common procedures used in the resolution of interest-based disputes are
and
13. When rights are , coming to a resolution is a relatively simple process .
14. Determining who is right becomes more complicated when behavioural issues such as
and must be taken into consideration.
E 15. Arbitrators and adjudicators must receive and from the
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disputing parties before they can help resolve the dispute.
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Test 6
READING PASSAGE 2
Reading Passage 2.
AUTOMOBILES VS. PUBLIC TRANSPORT
Public transport plays a central role in any efficient urban transport system. In devel-
oping countries, where at least 16 cities are expected to have more than 12 million
people each by the end of this decade, failing to give priority to public transport would
be disastrous.
The term 'public transport' covers many different types of vehicles, but most commonly
refers to buses and trains. Rail services fall into four major categories: rapid rail (also
called the underground, tube, metro, or subway), which operates on exclusive rights-
of-way in tunnels or on elevated tracks; trams, which move with other traffic on regular
streets; light rail, which is a quieter, more modern version of trams that can run either
on exclusive rights-of-way or with other traffic; and suburban or regional trains, which
connect a city with surrounding areas.
The recent trend in many cities is toward light rail over 'heavy' rapid-rail systems.
metros require exclusive rights-of-way, which often means building costly el-
evated or underground lines and stations, light rail can be built on regular city streets.
The concept of public transport also includes organised car pools, in which several
people share the cost of riding together in the same private automobile. For US com-
muters in areas with inadequate bus and train services, this is the only 'public' trans-
port option. But even where other systems are comprehensive, there is vast potential
for car pooling; recent research shows that in cities the world over, private cars during
commuting hours on average carry just 1.2-1.3 persons per vehicle.
Public transport modes vary in fuel use and emissions and in the space they require,
but if carrying reasonable numbers of passengers, they all perform better than single-
occupant private cars on each of these counts.
Although energy requirements vary according to the size and design of the vehicle and
how many people are on board, buses and trains require far less fuel per passenger for
each kilometre of travel. In the United States, for example, a light-rail vehicle needs E
0
an estimated 640 BTUs<*) of energy per passenger per kilometre; a city bus would use u
......
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some 690 BTUs per passenger-kilometre; and a car pool with four occupants, 1,140 >
BTUs. A single-occupant automobile, by contrast, burns nearly 4,580 BTUs per passen-
ger-kilometre.
(*) BTUs: British thermal units (a measure of energy consumed)
Camhridge IELTS Intensive Training Reading 123

The pollution savings from public transport are even more dramatic. Since both rapid
rail and light rail have electric engines, pollution is measured not from the motor ex-
haust, but from the power plant generating electricity, which is usually located outside
the city, where air quality problems are less serious. For typical US commuter routes,
rapid rail emits 30 grams of nitrogen oxides for every 100 kilometres each rail pas-
senger travels, compared with 43 grams for light rail, 95 grams for transit buses, and
128 grams for single-occupant automobiles. Public transport's potential for reducing
hydrocarbon and carbon monoxide emissions is even greater.
Although diesel buses - especially in developing countries - can be heavy polluters,

existing technologies, such as filters , can control their exhaust. Buses can also run on
less polluting fuels such as propane (used in parts of Europe) and natural gas (used in
Brazil). Test buses in the Netherlands that run on natural gas are estimated to emit 90
per cent less nitrogen oxide and 25 per cent less carbon monoxide than diesel engines
do.
In addition to reducing fuel consumption and pollution, public transport saves valuable
city space. Buses and trains carry more people in each vehicle and, if they operate on
their own rights-of-way, can safely run at much higher speeds. In other words, they
not only take up less space but also occupy it for a shorter time. Thus, comparing ideal
conditions for each mode in one lane of traffic, an underground metro can carry 70,000
passengers past a certain point in one hour, light rail can carry up to 35,000 people,
and a bus, just over 30,000. By contrast, a lane of private cars with four occupants each
can move only about 8,000 people an hour, and without such car-pooling, the figure
is, of course, far lower.
The availability and use of public transport vary widely in cities around the globe. Since
variations in distances and city densities affect the total kilometres of travel, the annual
number of trips each person takes by public transport provides a better standard for
comparing its importance in various cities. The range of frequency of public transport
use is shown in Table 1.
Urban public transport has long been a government priority in Western Europe. All
major cities there have high car ownership, but well-developed bus and rail systems
are available, and overall public transport typically accounts for between 20 and 30 per
cent of passenger-kilometres. In recent years, several large cities have stepped up their
commitment to public transport, combining further investments with complementary
E
0 policies to restrict auto use.
u
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> Public transport also plays an important role in urban areas of the Third World. In
many cities in Asia, Latin America, and Africa, buses make 50-80 per cent of all mo-
torised trips. Buses are sometimes hopelessly overcrowded; it is not uncommon to see
several riders clinging to the outside. Yet most Third World cities have lower public
124 Cambridge IE ITS I ntcnsive Training Reading

Test 6
transport use per person than those in Western Europe, reflecting the inability of small
bus fleets to keep up with population growth.
Among the world's major cities, those in Australia and the United States make the
least use of alternatives to the private car. Indeed, less than 5 per cent of US trips are
by public transport, but in some cities such as New York City and Chicago, where ser-
vice is provided extensively, it is used heavily. Indeed, nearly one quarter of the entire
country's public transport trips are in New York City.
Table 1. Dependence on public transport in selected cities
Buenos Aires 9.0 m bus, metro 248

Seoul 8.7m bus, metro 457
Moscow 8.0m bus, tram, metro 713
Chicago 6.8 m bus, metro, rail 101

I
Berlin 3.1 m bus, tram, metro, rail 356
Toronto 2.8 m bus, tram, metro 200
Melbourne 2.7 m bus, tram, rail 95

Abidjan 1.8 m bus, boat 132
Dallas 1.4 m bus 22
* trips per person per year
Questions 16-20
On the next page is a summary of some of the main points of vs. Public
Transport'. Read the summary and select a word or phrase from the box below to fill each
gap according to the information in the reading passage.
Write the corresponding letters A-N in boxes 16-20 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more words and phrases than you will need to fill the gaps. You may use a E
0
word or phrase more than once ifyou wish. u
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Cambridge fElTS Inlensivc Training Reading 125

KEY POINTS: AUTOMOBILES VS. PUBLIC TRANSPORT
The obvious advantages of public transport include lowering _ 1_6_ and reducing exhaust emis-
sions. Another important benefit is the amount of space that is taken up. This is measured by de-
termining the number of _ 1_7_ that pass a particular point under ideal conditions. As would be
expected, public transport vehicles perform very well under these criteria. However, the
success of public transport depends more importantly on its _ 1_8_ . A survey revealed
that _ 1_9_ was the city in which the greatest number of trips per person were made on an an-
nual basis. Interestingly , there is no clear correlation between acceptance of public transport
and the degree of ___1Q_ of a country or city.
Questions 21-25
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and according
to the information in R eading Passage 2. Write your answers in boxes 21-25 on your
answer sheet.
21. What is one factor that makes light rail preferable to rapid rail?
22. What is one way in which rapid rail outperforms light rail?
23. Where is pollution from rail transport measured?
24. What is the average number of people you would expect to find in automobiles during
commuting hours?
25. What proportion of passenger-k ilometres is undertaken by private automobile in
Western Europe?
Questions 26-27
E
c The table on the next page ranks different forms of transport according to their fuel
-
....
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>
efficiency and the amount of pollution they produce. One ranking has been given in each
case. Complete the sequence of numbers (1, 2, 3, 4) for each column and write the two
sequences of numbers (from top to bottom) in boxes 26 and 27 on your answer sheet.
126 I El fS Intensive Training Reading

Test 6
Fuel Nitrogen
Transport type efficiency oxides
ranking 1 emissions 2
26 27
city buses
light rail
single-occupant cars 4
rapid rail n/a 1
car pooling n/a
1 Ranked from 1 (=highest fuel efficiency) down to 4

2 Ranked from 1 (=lowest nitrogen oxides) down to 4
n/a Information not available from the passage
READING PASSAGE 3
Reading Passage 3.
PUPIL SIZ£ AND COMMUNICATION
It has already been well established that changes in pupil size are clearly associated with
changes in attitude. In a typical example, when viewing photographs of food, hungry
subjects experience a much greater increase in pupil diameter than do sated subjects
(see Figure 1). However it now appears that enlarged or constricted pupils can also af-
fect the response of the person who observed them.
Studies of the pupil as an indicator of attitude point to the possibility that one person
uses another person's pupil size as a source of information about that person's feel-
ings or attitudes. In one experiment, two photographs of an attractive young woman
were shown to a group of men. The photographs were identical except that in one the
woman's pupils had been retouched to make them larger and in the other they had
been retouched to make them smaller. None of the men reported noticing the differ-
ence in pupil size, but when they were asked to describe the woman, they said that
the woman in the picture with the large pupils was 'soft', 'more feminine' or 'pretty'.
The same woman in the picture with the small pupils was described as being 'hard', E
0
'selfish' or 'cold'. There could be little doubt that the large pupils made the woman ....u<lJ
more attractive to the men. >
It seems that what is appealing about large pupils in a woman is that they are an indica-
tor of interest, which can be interpreted as sexual interest. However, when men view

a picture of a woman with large pupils, own pupils dilate. In other words, seeing
large pupils gives rise to larger pupils . Interestingly, men and women showed almost
no increase in pupil size when viewing photographs of members of the same sex with
dilated pupils.
That the dilation response is in fact learned rather than innate is supported by
experiments with children . In one experiment, subjects aged 6 to 22 were shown
drawings of female faces that had different-sized pupils, and asked to choose the
one which was 'happier'. The results showed that, up to the age of 14, a person
does not necessarily perceive larger pupils as being happier than smaller pupils
(see Figure 2).
Of particular interest was another finding by McLean: blue-eyed subjects were

more likely to judge large pupils as being happy than brown-eyed subjects. This
finding was confirmed when another group of subjects were asked to fill in the
pupils on drawings of happy faces and angry ones: the blue-eyed subjects drew
larger 'happy' pupils and smaller 'angry' pupils than the brown-eyed subjects
(see Figure 3) .
Blue-eyed people have also been found to have a stronger pupil response than brown-
eyed people when they view a picture that causes pupil dilation or constriction. To be
more precise, with respect to the total range of response from the smallest pupil size to
the largest, the range is greater for blue-eyed people than it is for brown-eyed people.
MILLIMETRES
FIGURE I
DIFFERENCES IN PUPIL RESPONSE of
hungry subjects and of sated subjects to colour fil
slides of foods are shown. The subjects first !-
viewed a control slide, then a slide of a food +.3 1--- - - - - -- - - - -
and the change in pupil size was measured. :J
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6
+.2 f -- ------1
KEY
- Hungry subjects 0
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§ +. 1 f----
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Sated subjects
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COLD SPAGHETTI ROAST ROAST STEAK &
CUTS BEEF TURKEY POTATOES
128 Cambridge I ELTS lntcnsiYc Training Reading

Test G
100
FIGURE 2
Age differences in perceiving a face with large 90 f-
pupils as being happier than a face with small
pupils 80
70 1-
60
KEY
Large pupils perceived
f-
'happier' :1.
-
Small pupils perceived
f- -
'sadder'
30 1-
t%
20 f-
10 f-
0
% t%
6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22
AGE
FIGURE 3
BLUE-EYED SUBJECTS drew larger pupils
on a sketch of a happy face and smaller pupils
on a scowling face than brown-eyed subjects. ,....
In addition, when viewing a picture that 0 0
normally causes dilation or constriction, blue-

eyed people show a greater change in pupil -----
size.
KEY
- Brown-eyed subjects
BLUE- BROWN- BLUE- BROWN-

EYED EYED EYED EYED
Blue-eyed subjects
SUBJECTS SUBJECTS SUBJECTS SUBJECTS
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Cambridge I ELTS lntcnstvc Training Reading 129

Questions 28-34
Based on the information in Reading Passage 3, indicate the relationship between each of
the two measures listed below in terms of
MEASURE 1 MEASURE2
Example Changes in pupil size Changes in attitude
Answer PC
MEASURE 1 MEASURE2
28. Images of food Pupil dilation in hungry subjects
29. Pupil dilation in picture of woman Pupil dilation in male subject
30. Pupil dilation in picture of woman Pupil dilation in female subject
31. Small pupil size in picture of woman Negative response in male subject
32. Small pupil size in picture of woman Negative response in female subject
33. Subjects under 14 years of age Positive response to large pupils
34. Darkness of eye colour in photograp h Subject's estimate of 'happiness '
Questions 35-40
Write a word or short phrase of NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to answer each of
the following questions according to the information in Reading Passage 3. Write your
answers in boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet.
Example Answer
What can changes in pupil size indicate? Changes in attitude
35. According to the data, what kinds of food do hungry people respond to most readily?
36. According to the data, what kinds of food do people who are not hungry find
0 particular ly unattracti ve?
u
QJ 37. What interpreta tion is given for men ' s attraction to women with large pupils?
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38. What reason is suggested for children under 14 not reacting to pupil size in other people?
39. How did blue-eyed subjects compare with brown-ey ed subjects in terms of range of
response?
40. What are shown to hungry subjects and sated subjects to measure their pupil sizes?

Test 7
READING PASSAGE 1
Reading P assage 1.
FANWALL NOISE BARRIER
Noise generated by traffic on art erial roads and freeways is an increasing problem in
Austral ia and there is growing concern among highways authorities in Australia about
the limitations of some types of noise barriers which have been installed in this country.
The Roads and Traffic Authorit y (RTA) in Sydney faced a problem when it decided to
proceed with the link between Concord Road at Rhodes and the F4 Freeway at Home-
bush (Country Road 5030) as the new arterial would deliver heavy traffic right past the
backyards of suburban homes. This was because t he RTA had purchased and removed a
number of houses to allow the new corridor to be built , exposing to rood traffic noises
houses which were once located in a quiet backstreet.
Initially, the RTA had proposed to erect a new timber fence , replacing the existing
suburban fences , to act as a noise barrier. Timber noise barriers were used quit e ex-
tens ively on the recently constructed F3 Freeway link from Pearce's Corner to Berowro.
However , RT A engineers have become more acutely aware of noise and the problems
whi ch arise if ineffective noise barriers ore installed. They also appreciate the benefits
of early consultations with the affected residents and local councils.
Res idents of the area were fully briefed on the appearances , the performance and the
benefits of various types of noise barriers. The majority opted for the Fanwall bar rier ,
which also provides security advantages to the householders.
The Fanwall barrier to be installed at Rhodes is the first to be erected in Australia.

Fanwall barriers have been used in the United States and have been very effective
at noise attenuation with up to 10 dBA reduction in noise level reached at L. A. Inter-
national Airport. Similar success has been achieved in various highway projects r ight
across the US A.
In the USA , concrete has proved to be the most popular material for constructing noise e=
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barrier walls. As is happening in Australia, early barrier designs opted for low timber +-'
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barriers selected largely on the basis of cost. However , low barriers ore not effective >
and high timber barriers have become much more expensive. Adding to th is is the poor
durability of timber fences , and the combination of initial capital cost , maintenance cost
and r eplacement cost quickly makes timber barriers very expensive.
CambridgL IELTS Intensive Training Reading 131

The advantages of concrete include low capital cost and durability. Furthermore, con-
crete barriers can be engineered for a variety of site condition, and architectural fin-
ishes can be applied to enhance aesthetics. Careful landscaping provides the final touch.
Fanwall is a two-component, modular, free-standing pre-cast concrete noise barrier

which can be cheaply and quickly erected on a variety of foundation conditions. The wall
is engineered to be stable under design wind load conditions while maintaining relatively
low-bearing pressures on the foundat ion soils. Therefore, like the timber barriers, the
Fanwall barrier can be built without expensive concrete footings or piles, speeding the
construction time up and reducing costs. Furthermore, Fanwall is maintenance-free and
it is not susceptible to damage by fire and vandalism.
Because the Fanwall barriers are engineered into a modular form, construction is easily
staged. At Rhodes , the Fanwall noise barrier will be built in three stages commencing
in mid-August. Staging will enable further consultation with local residents and allow
access to be maintained across the site via local roads. However, most importantly, the
greater proportion of the barrier will be in place prior to the road corridor being
constructed, reducing the effect of construction noise.
Figure 1 How Noise Barriers Work
No Barrier In the Middle

(A) (B)
1@1
Close to Receiver Close to Source
(C) (D)
(A) There is a direct line of sight between the noise source and the receiver. What can be
seen can be heard.
E (B) Line of sight has been broken, creating an insertion loss of noise energy.
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132 Cambridge I ELTS fmcnsive Training Reading

Test 7
Questions 1-5
In paragraphs 2 to 4 of Reading Passage 1, the writer describes a planning process,
problems and issues which arise, and the steps taken to deal with them. From the list of
situations and possible actions below (A-I), select the steps taken to deal with the problems
and issues as outlined in the reading passage.
Write the appropriate letters A-I in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more situations and possible actions than questions. You may use a situation
or possible action more than once ifyou wish.
Example Answer
Problem 1 c
1. Cause of problem 1 4. Procedure
2. Proposed solution to problem 1 5. Solution to problem 1
3. Objection-pote ntial problem 2
Questions 6-11
The author mentions a number of features of noise barriers. Some are listed on the next
page. Identify them by writing
A if the feature applies to low timber barriers E

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C ifit applies to concrete barriers >
NB For some questions you will need to write more than one letter. Write your answers in
Cambridge IELTS I ntcnsivc Training Reading 133

Example Answer
They need to be replaced regularly. A,B
6. They are more popular in the USA.

7. They are susceptible to damage by fire and vandalism.
8. They are not always effective noise barriers.
9. They are much more expensive to build.
10. They do not require expensive foundations.
11. They are more expensive to maintain .
Question 12
Choose from the four options below the best description for Figure 1 in the reading
passage. Write the appropriate letter A, B, C, or Din box 12 on your answer sheet.
A Selection of barrier location C Barrier specifications

B Noise-path principles D Attenuation of traffic noise
READIN G PASSAGE 2
Reading Passage 2.
Questions 13-17
Reading Passage 2 has six sections. Choose the most suitable heading for each section from
the list of headings i-xi below. Write the appropriate numbers i-xi in boxes 13-17 on your
answer sheet. NB There are more headings than sections so you will not use all of them.
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134 Cambridge JEt J'S lntcnsin: fraining Reading

Test 7
Example Answer
Section A ii
13. Section B
14. Section C
15. Section D
16. Section E
17. Section F
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Questions 18-26
On the next page is a list of research findings mentioned in Reading Passage 2. Indicate
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136 Cambridge Intensive Training Reading

Test 7
Write the appropriate letters DA, EG, R, VH, or Win boxes 18-26 on your answer sheet.
Research Findings
Example Answer
Fathers spend more time than mothers on personal leisure activities. DA
18. The number of hours a father spends doing childcare is not the best indicator of how
well the family is adjusted.
19. The vast majority of fathers do not take part to any great extent in family work.
20. Women do the majority of housework whether they are married or not.
21. With regard to the issue of equal responsibility for childcare, there is a discrepancy
between the wishes and the claims of parent couples.
22. Both mothers and fathers are happier when the father assumes some responsibility for
issues relating to the behaviour of the children.
23. Researchers now link family problems to fathers' lack of involvement in rearing children.
24. In terms of dealing with family issues, employed fathers make fewer sacrifices in their
jobs than do working women.
25. Anxiety results from the mother being the primary caregiver.
26. There has been little recent change in the housework and childcare roles of mothers
and fathers.
Question 27
Write the appropriate letter A, B, C, or D in box 27 on your answer sheet.
27. In Reading Passage 2, the writer's main aim is to

A argue that a division of labour in parenting is equitable.
B argue for increased participation in parenting by working men and women.
C discuss the differences in the contributions of men and women to the job of parenting.
D describe th e composition of modern families.
READING PASSAGE 3
Reading Passage 3.
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FERMENTED FOODS FOR BABIES Q)
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Malnutrition during weaning age- when breast milk is being replaced by semi-solid foods- is
highly prevalent in children of poor households in many developing countries. While the etiol-
ogy is complex and multifactorial, the immediate causes are recognised as feeding at less

than adequate levels for child growth and development, and recurrent infections, including
diarrhoea, resulting mainly from ingestion of contaminated foods. As a result, many young
children, particularly between six months to two years of age, experience weight loss and im-
paired growth and development.
Studies by investigators in various countries have concentrated on traditional food preparation

methods and have resulted in offering cheap and practical answers to these problems based
on familiar, indigenous and culturally acceptable home processing practices.
Two such answers have arisen. Firstly, cereal fermentation is used for reducing the risk of
contamination under the existing inappropriate conditions for food preparation and sto rage in
many households. Secondly, a tiny amount of sprouted grains flour is used in preparation of
weaning foods as a magic way to lessen the viscosity without decreasing energy density.
A method to eliminate pathogenic bacteria and inhibit their growth during storage of weaning
preparations can benefit nutrition and health in young children considerably. Use of fermented
foods for feeding children of weaning age appears to be an effective solution . Fermented foods
have lower levels of diarrhoeal germ contamination, they are suitable for child feeding, and
can be safely stored for much longer periods of time than fresh foods. The practice has been
a traditional way of food preservation in many parts of the world . The anti-microbial properties
of fermented foods and their relative higher safety- documented since the early 1900s- have
been indicated in a number of studies.
In Ghana, it is common to ferment maize dough before cooking it as porridge. In Kenya, cereal-
based porridge and milk are traditionally fermented . Preserving milk in the form of yoghurt
has been known to many households living in hot climates.
What are the underlying mechanisms by which fermentation processes help to prevent or
reduce contamination? A possible answer suggests that during the fermentation process,
foods become more acid. This explains why diarrhoea-causing bacteria are not able to grow
in fermented foods as rapidly as in unfermented ones. It is also hypothesized that some of the
germs present in the foods are killed or inhibited from growing through the action of anti-
microbial substances produced during fermentation [Dialogue on Diarrhoea, 1990]. The fer-
mented foods can, therefore, be kept for a longer time compared to fresh ones. It has been
shown that while contamination levels in cooked unfermented foods increase with storage
time, fermented foods remain less contaminated.
Whatever the underlying mechanisms, the fact is that the exercise reduces contamination
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Test 7
Although beneficial, unfortunately the practice is going out of fashion, partly because of cur-
rent emphasis on the use of fresh foods, particularly for children. For example, a study on
the use of fermented foods for young children in Kenya (Dialogue on Diarrhoea, 1990] dem-
onstrated that while foods are still frequently fermented at home for child feeding, their use
is becoming less popular, particularly in urban areas where commercial products are more
ava ila ble. Clearly they now need to be promoted .
Questions 28-34
Below is a summary of some of the main points of Reading Passage 3. Read the summary
and then select the best word or phrase from the box below to fill each gap according to the
information in Reading Passage 3.
Write the corresponding letters A-N in boxes 28-34 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more words and phrases than you will need to fill the gaps. You may use a
word or phrase more than once ifyou wish.
Example Answer
During , many infants in developing M

countries may obtain inadequate nutrition.
Malnutrition and the resulting impaired growth and development in children of weaning age in
developing countries result not only from __l!L_ but also from infections caused by ___12.__.
Studies have addressed the problem of inadequate intake by using sprouted grains in food prep-
aration. Contamination has been tackled Both of these methods are, or were, used
tradit ionally and are practical and inexpensive.
Fermented foods have higher _ 3_1_ , and also have anti-microbial qualities. This means that
contaminatio n is decreased and that their ____2L is increased . Fermentatio n occurs when
___l1_ is left to stand, occasionally with simple additives. There is, however, a trend away from
this _lL to commercial products.
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Cambridge lELJS Intensive Training Reading 139

Question 35
Choose from the four options below the best answer to the following question. Write the
appropriate letter A, B, C, or D in box 35 on your answer sheet.
35. Why is the fermentat ion of foods being investigat ed?

A It not only improves the nutritiona l value of food, but also is a process which is cheap
and easy.
B It is a traditiona l method of food preparatio n which is becoming less popular.
C It both inhibits food contamina tion and enhances storability .
D It is done using maize flour which is used everywhe re as food for infants between 6
months and 2 years of age .
Questions 36-40
The statements below are related to Reading Passage 3. Identify them by marking
. . I .
·,r if the statement riflects the i1iformation in the text
". x ' if the statement contradicts tbe information
. ? if there is no ilifonnation about the statement in the text
' " t '
Example Answer
Anti-microbial substances in fermented
foods cause acidity. ?
36. Fermente d foods are free of contamina tion.

37. It can be beneficial to ferment breast milk before feeding to young children.
38. Cooked foods can be stored longer than fresh foods .
39. Cereals can be fermented by adding water and letting the dough stand .
40. Traditiona l fermented foods are being replaced by commerci al products in some
locations.
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140 Cambridge IFLTS Intensive Training Reading

Test 8
READING PASSAGE 1
Passage 1.
The Spectacular Eruption of Mount St. Helens

A The eruption in May 1980 of Mount St. Helens, Washington State, astounded
the world with its violence. A gigantic explosion tore much of the volcano's summit
to fragments; the energy released was equal to that of 500 of the nuclear bombs that
destroyed Hiroshima in 1945.
B The event occurred along the boundary of two of the moving plates that make up
the earth's crust. They meet at the junction of the North American continent and the
Pacific Ocean. One edge of the continental North American plate over-rides the oce-
anic Juan de Fuca micro-plate, producing the volcanic Cascade range that includes
Mounts Baker, Rainier and Hood, and Lassen Peak as well as Mount St. Helens.
C Until Mount St. Helens began to stir, only Mount Baker and Lassen Peak had
shown signs of life during the 20th century. According to geological evidence found
by the United States Geological Survey, there had been two major eruptions of
Mount St. Helens in the recent (geologically speaking) past: around 1900 B.C., and
about A.D. 1500. Since the arrival of Europeans in the region, it had experienced a
single period of spasmodic activity, between 1831 and 1857. Then, for more than a
century, Mount St . Helens lay dormant.
D By 1979, the Geological Survey alerted by signs of renewed activity had been
monitoring the volcano for 18 months. It warned the local population against being
deceived by the mountain's outward calm, and forecast that an eruption would take
place before the end of the century. The inhabitants of the area did not have to wait
that long. On March 27, 1980, a few clouds of smoke formed above the summit, and
slight tremors were felt. On the 28th, larger and darker clouds, consisting of gas and
ashes, emerged and climbed as high as 20,000 feet. In April, a slight lull ensued, but
the volcanologists remained pessimistic. Then, in early May, the northern flank of the
mountain bulged, and the summit rose by 500 feet .
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E Steps were taken to evacuate the population. Most campers, hikers, timber-cut- ( IJ
ters left the slopes of the mountain. Eighty-four-year-old Harry Truman, a holiday >
lodge owner who had lived there for more than 50 years, refused to be evacuated, in
spite of official and private urging. Many members of the public, including an entire
class of schoolchildren, wrote to him, begging him to leave . He never did.
Cambridge I ELTS Intcnsive Training Reading 141

F On May 18, at 8:32 in the morning, Mount St. Helens blew its top, literally.
Suddenly, it was 1,300 feet shorter than it had been before its growth had begun.
Over half a cubic mile of rock had disintegrated. At the same moment, an earthquake
with an intensity of 5 on the Richter scale was recorded. It triggered an avalanche of
snow and ice, mixed with hot rock-the entire north face of the mountain had fallen
away. A wave of scorching volcanic gas and rock fragments shot horizontally from
the volcano's riven flank, at an inescapable 200 miles per hour. As the sliding ice and
snow melted, it touched off devastating torrents of mud and debris, which destroyed
all life in their path. Pulverised rock climbed as a dust cloud into the atmosphere.
Finally, viscous lava, accompanied by burning clouds of ash and gas, welled out of the
volcano's new crater, and from lesser vents and cracks in its flanks.
G Afterwards, scientists were able to analyse the sequence of events . First, mag-
ma- molten rock-at temperatures above 2000°C, had surged into the volcano from
the earth's mantle . The build-up was accompanied by an accumulation of gas, which
increased as the mass of magma grew. It was the pressure inside the mountain that
made it swell. Next, the rise in gas pressure caused a violent decompression, which
ejected the shattered summit like a cork from a shaken soda bottle. With the summit
gone, the molten rock within was released in a jet of gas and fragmented magma, and
lava welled from the crater.
H The effects of the Mount St. Helens eruption were catastrophic. Almost all the
trees of the surrounding forest, mainly Douglas firs, were flattened, and their branch-
es and bark ripped off by the shock wave of the explosion. Ash and mud spread over
nearly 200 square miles of country. All the towns and settlements in the area were
smothered in an even coating of ash. Volcanic ash silted up the Columbia River 35
miles away, reducing the depth of its navigable channel from 40 feet to 14 feet
and trapping sea-going ships. The debris that accumulated at the foot of the volcano
reached a depth, in places, of 200 feet.
I The eruption of Mount St. Helens was one of the most closely observed and ana-
lysed in history. Because geologists had been expecting the event, they were able
to amass vast amounts of technical data when it happened. Study of atmospheric
particles formed as a result of the explosion showed that droplets of sulphuric acid,
acting as a screen between the sun and the earth's surface, caused a distinct drop
in temperature. There is no doubt that the activity of Mount St. Helens and other
volcanoes since 1980 has influenced our climate. Even so, it has been calculated that
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0 the quantity of dust ejected by Mount St. Helens-a quarter of a cubic mile-was
+
a, negligible in comparison with that thrown out by earlier eruptions, such as that of
>
Mount Katmai in Alaska in 1912 (three cubic miles). The volcano is still active. Lava
domes have formed inside the new crater, and have periodically burst. The threat of
Mount St. Helens lives on.
142 (ambridge ILl TS Intensive Training Reading

Test 8
Questions 1-2
Reading Passage 1 has nine paragraphs labelled A-I. Answer questions 1 and 2 by
writing the appropriate letters A-I in boxes 1 and 2 on your answer sheet.
Example Answer
Which paragraph compares the eruption to the energy

A
released by nuclear bombs?
1. Which paragraph describes the evacuation of the mountain?

2. Which paragraph describes the moment of the explosion of Mount St. Helens?
Questions 3-4
3. What are the dates of the TWO major eruptions of Mount St. Helens before 1980?
Write TWO dates in box 3 on your answer sheet.
4. How do scientists know that the volcano exploded around the two dates above?
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, write your answer in box 4 on your
answer sheet.
Questions 5-8
Complete the summary of events below leading up to the eruption of Mount St. Helens.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage
In 1979 the Geological Survey warned _ 5_ to expect a violent eruption before the end of the
century. The forecast was soon proved accurate. At the end of March, there were tremors and
clouds formed above the mountain. This was followed by a lull, but in early May the mountain
rose by _ 6_. People were _ 7_ from around the mountain . Finally, on May 18th at _ 8_ am ,
Mount St. Helens exploded.
Questions 9-10
Complete the table below giving evidence for the power of the Mount St. Helens eruption.
Write your answers in boxes 9 and 10 on your answer sheet.
E
Item Equivalent to
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The energy released by the explosion of Mount St. Helens 500 nuclear bombs
The area of land covered in mud or ash _ 9_
The quantity of dust ejected 10

Question 11
Choose the appropriate letter A-D and write it in box 11 on your answer sheet.
11. According to the text, the eruption of Mount St. Helens and other volcanoes has
influenced our climate by
A increasing the amount of rainfall.
B heating the atmosphere.
C cooling the air temperature.
D causing atmospheric storms.
READING PASSAGE 2
Passage 2.
Questions 12-16
R eading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs A-G. Choose the most suitable headings for
paragraphs B-E and G from the list of headings below.
Write the appropriate numbers i-x in boxes 12-16 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. You may
use any of the headings more than once.
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Example Answer
Paragraph A X
12. Paragraph B
13. Paragraph C
144 Cambridge IELT"::lntensivc Training Reading

Test 8
14. Paragraph D
15. Paragraph E
Example Answer
Paragraph F ix
16. Paragraph G
PEOPLE AND ORGANISATIONS:

THE SELECTION ISSUE
A In 1991, according to the Department ofTrade and Industry, a record 48,000 Brit-
ish companies went out of business. When businesses fail, the post-mortem analysis is
traditionally undertaken by accountants and market strategists. Unarguably organisa-
tions do fail because of undercapitalisation, poor financial management, adverse mar-
ket conditions, etc. Yet, conversely, organisations with sound financial backing, good
product ideas and market acumen often underperform and fail to meet shareholders'
expectations. The complexity, degree and sustainment of organisational performance
requires an explanation which goes beyond the balance sheet and the 'paper conver-
sion' of financial inputs into profit-making outputs. A more complete explanation of
'what went wrong' must necessarily consider the essence of what an organisation ac-
tually is and that one of the financial inputs, the most important and often the most
expensive, is people.
B An organisation is only as good as the people it employs. Selecting the right per-
son for the job involves more than identifying the essential or desirable range of skills,
educational and professional qualifications necessary to perform the job and then re-
cruiting the candidate who is most likely to possess these skills or at least is perceived
to have the ability and predisposition to acquire them. This is a purely person-skills
match approach to selection.
C Work invariably takes place in the presence and/or under the direction of oth-
ers, in a particular organisational setting. The individual has to 'fit' in with the work
environment, with other employees, with the organisational climate, style of work,
organisation and culture of the organisation. Different organisations have different cul-
E
tures (Cartwright & Cooper, 1991; 1992). Working as an engineer at British Aerospace 0
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D Poor selection decisions are expensive. For example, the costs of training a police-
man are about £20,000. The ·costs of employing an unsuitable technician on an oil rig

or in a nuclear plant could, in an emergency, result in millions of pounds of damage or
loss of life. The disharmony of a poor person-environment fit (PE-fit) is likely to result
in low job satisfaction, lack of organisational commitment and employee stress, which
affect organisational outcomes i.e. productivity, high labour turnover and absenteeism,
and individual outcomes i.e. physical, psychological and mental well-being.
E However, despite the importance of the recruitment decision and the range of
sophisticated and more objective selection techniques available, including the use of
psychometric tests, assessment centres, etc., many organisations are still prepared to
make this decision on the basis of a single 30- to 45-minute unstructured interview.
Indeed, research has demonstrated that a selection decision is often made within the
first four minutes of the interview. In the remaining time, the interviewer then at-
tends exclusively to information that reinforces the initial 'accept' or 'reject' decision.
Research into the validity of selection methods has consistently demonstrated that the
unstructured interview, where the interviewer asks any questions he or she likes, is a
poor predictor of future job performance and fares little better than more controversial
methods like graphology and astrology. In times of high unemployment, recruitment
becomes a 'buyer's market' and this was the case in Britain during the 1980s.
F The future, we are told, is likely to be different. Detailed surveys of social and
economic trends in the European Community show that Europe's population is falling
and getting older. The birth rate in the Community is now only three-quarters of the
level needed to ensure replacement of the existing population. By the year 2020, it is
predicted that more than one in four Europeans will be aged 60 or more and barely one
in five will be under 20. In a five-year period between 1983 and 1988, the Community's
female workforce grew by almost six million. As a result, 51% of all women aged 14
to 64 are now economically active in the labour market compared with 78% of men.
G The changing demographics will not only affect selection ratios. They will also
make it increasingly important for organisations wishing to maintain their competi-
tive edge to be more responsive and accommodating to the changing needs of their
workforce if they are to retain and develop their human resources. More flexible work-
ing hours, the opportunity to work from home or job share, the provision of childcare
facilities, etc., will play a major role in attracting and retaining staff in the future.
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146 Cambridge !ELTS Intensive Training Reading

Test 8
Questions 17-22
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2? In
boxes 17-22 on your answer sheet, write
1 .. *t'= • •" '" 'V '<-5;.10
views of the writer

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:if the ;tatement does
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with the views of the writer .
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17. Organisations should recognise that their employees are a significant part of their
financial assets.
18. Open-structured 45-minute interviews are the best method to identify suitable
employees.
19. The rise in the female workforce in the European Community is a positive trend.
20. Graphology is a good predictor of future job performance .
21. In the future, the number of people in employable age groups will decline.
22. In 2020, the percentage of the population under 20 will be smaller than now.
Questions 23-25
Complete the notes below with words taken from Reading Passage 2. Use NO MORE
THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 23-25 on your
answer sheet.
I Poor person-environment fit I

I Low job satisfaction
II Lack of organisational commitment
III Employee stress
/
I ___1L I I - 24
-- I
a low production rates a poor health

b high rates of staff change b poor psychological health
c 25 c poor mental health
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Cambridge lELTS lntensive Training Reading 147

READING PASSAGE 3
Passage 3.
The Rollfilm Revolution

The introduction of the dry plate process brought with it many advantages. Not only
was it much more convenient, so that the photographer no longer needed to prepare his
material in advance , but its much greater sensitivity made possible a new generation of
cameras. Instantaneous exposures had been possible before, but only with some diffi-
culty and with special equipment and conditions. Now, exposures short enough to permit
the camera to be held in the hand were easily achieved. As well as fitting shutters
and viewfinders to their conventional stand cameras, manufacturers began to construct
smaller cameras intended specifically for hand use.
One of the first designs to be published was Thomas Bolas's 'Detective' camera of 1881.
Externally a plain box , quite unlike the folding bellows camera typical of the period , it
could be used unobtrusively. The name caught on, and for the next decade or so almost
all hand cameras were called 'Detectives'. Many of the new designs in the 1880s were for
magazine cameras, in which a number of dry plates could be pre-loaded and changed one
after another following exposure. Although much more convenient than stand cameras ,
still used by most serious workers, magazine plate cameras were heavy, and required
access to a darkroom for loading and processing the plates. This was all changed by a
young American bank clerk turned photographic manufacturer, George Eastman , from
Rochester , New York.
Eastman had begun to manufacture gelatine dry plates in 1880, being one of the first
to do so in America. He soon looked for ways of simplifying photography, believing that
many people were put off by the complication and messiness. His first step was to de-
velop, with the camera manufacturer William H. Walker, a holder for a long roll of paper
negative 'film'. This could be fitted to a standard plate camera and up to forty-eight
exposures made before reloading. The combined weight of the paper roll and the holder
was far less than the same number of glass plates in their light-tight wooden holders.
A Ithough roll-holders had been made as early as the 1850s, none had been very success-
ful because of the limitations of the photographic materials then available. Eastman's
rollable paper film was sensitive and gave negatives of good quality; the Eastman-Walker
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The next step was ·to combine the roll-holder with a small hand camera; Eastman's first
design was patented with an employee, F. M. Cossitt, in 1886. It was not a success. Only
fifty Eastman detective cameras were made, and they were sold as a lot to a dealer in
1887; the cost was too high and the design too complicated. Eastman set about develop-
148 Cambridge fELTS Intcnsivc Training Reading

Test 8
ing a new model, which was launched in June 1888. It was a small box, containing a roll
of paper-based stripping film sufficient for 100 circular exposures 6 em in diameter. Its
operation was simple: set the shutter by pulling a wire string; aim the camera using the
V line impression in the camera top; press the release button to activate the exposure;
and turn a special key to wind on the film. A hundred exposures had to be made, so it
was important to record each picture in the memorandum book provided, since there was
no exposure counter. Eastman gave his camera the invented name 'Kodak' - which was
easily pronounceable in most languages and had two K's which Eastman felt was a firm,
uncompromising kind of letter.
The importance of Eastman's new rollfilm camera was not that it was the first. There
had been several earlier cameras, notably the Stirn 'America', first demonstrated in the
spring of 1887 and on sale from early 1888. Th is also used a roll of negative paper, and
had such refinements as a reflecting viewfinder and an ingenious exposure marker. The
real significance of the first Kodak camera was that it was backed up by a developing
and printing service. Hitherto, virtually all photographers developed and printed their
own pictures. This required the facilities of a darkroom and the time and inclination to
handle the necessary chemicals, the prints and so on. Eastman recognised that
not everyone had the resources or the desire to do this. When a customer had made a
hundred exposures in the Kodak camera, he sent it to Eastman's factory in Rochester
(or later in Harrow in England) where the film was unloaded, processed and printed , the
camera reloaded and returned to the owner. 'You Press the Button, We Do the Rest' ran
Eastman's classic marketing slogan; photography had been brought to everyone. Every-
one, that is, who could afford $25 or f ive guineas for the camera and $10 or two guineas
for the developing and printing. A guinea ($5) was a week's wages for many at the time,
so this simple camera cost the equivalent of hundreds of dollars today.
In 1889, an improved model with a new shutter design was introduced , and it was called
the No. 2 Kodak camera. The paper-based stripping film was complicated to manipulate,
since the processed negative image had to be stripped from the paper base for printing.
At the end of 1889, Eastman launched a new rollfilm on a celluloid base. Clear, tough ,
transparent and flexible, the new film not only made the rollfilm camera fully practical ,
but provided the raw material for the introduction of cinematography a few years later.
Other, larger models were introduced, including several folding versions , one of which
took pictures 21.6 em x 16.5 em in size. Other manufacturers in America and Europe in-
troduced cameras to take the Kodak rollfilms , and other firms began to offer developing
and printing services for the benefit of the new breed of photographers. E
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company was daily printing 6,000-7,000 negatives. Hol idays and special events created ......
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enormous surges in demand for processing: 900 Kodak users returned their cameras for ..c
c
processing and reloading in the week after the New York centennial celebration. :i
$
$

Questions 26-29
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
26. Before the dry plate process, short exposures could only be achieved with cameras held
in the hand.
27. Stirn' s 'America' camera lacked Kodak' s developing service.
28. The first Kodak film cost the equivalent of a week' s wages to develop .
29. Some of Eastman' s 1891 range of cameras could be loaded in daylight .
Questions 30-34
Complete the diagram below. Choose NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS from the passage
V Line Impression Special Key

Purpose: to aim the camera Purpose: to ____lQ_
31
Purpose: to _Ji_
Purpose: to 32
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Test 8
Questions 35-40
Complete the table below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER/rom the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 35-40 on your
answer sheet.
Developments Name of person/people

1880 Manufacture of gelatine dry plates 35
1881 Release of 'Detective' camera Thomas Bolas
The roll-holder combined with
36 Eastman and F. M. Cossitt
37
38 Use of negative paper
Introduction of model with
1889 40
39
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Cambridge lELTS [ntcnsivc Training Reading 151

Answer Key
[Test 1[
READING PASSAGE 1
READING PASSAGE 3
READING PASSAGE 2
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0
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Answer Key
I Test 21
READING PASSAGE 1 READING PASSAGE 3
READING PASSAGE 2
E
0
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>
Cambridge IEl.:rS Intensive 1 raining Reading 153

\Test 31
READING PASSAGE 2
F
0
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>

Answer Key
I Test 41
READING PASSAGE 2
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0
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s
Cambridge !ELI'S Intensive Training Reading 155

[Test 5[
'.
READING PASSAGE 2
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>
156 Cambridge I EITS Intensive Training Reading

Answer Key
!Test 61
READI NG PASSAGE 1 READI NG PASSAGE 3
READI NG PASSAGE 2
E
0
u
.....
(])
>
Cambridg e lELfS Intensive Training Reading 157

I Test 71
READI NG PASSAGE 1 READING PASSAGE 3
READI NG PASSAGE 2
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158 Cambridg e ll:.LrS I ntcnsivc Training Reading

Answer Key
I Test 81
RE AD ING PASSAGE 1
RE AD ING PASSAGE 3
Questions 35-40
RE AD ING PASSAGE 2
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>
Cam brid ge IELTS lnLcnsivc Trai ning

Rea ding 159
---------------- ---------------------------------------------------
.
--
• ----------------
name in CAPITAL letters on the line
below:
- Please write your full
-- Please write your Candidate numbe

r on the line below:
--- Please write your three digit langua

in the boxes and shade the numbers
ge code
in the
--
grid on the right.
Are you: Female? = Male? =

Reading Reading Reading
Reading Reading Reading
Academic = General Training =

• Module taken (shade one box):
Marker use only
-•-
Marker use only
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21
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22
•- 2
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Marker 21
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Total
Initials , Initials •
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Rea ding
160 Cambridgt: IELTS lntm sive Trai ning

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Introducti on to IELTS 7

Chapter 1 Effective Reading 11

HOW TO READ EFFECTIVELY 12

Chapter 2 Question Types 27

Unit 1 MATCHING HEADINGS 28

Chapter 3 Practice Tests 69

Cambridge IELTS Intensive Training Reading 5

Cambri dge IELTS Intensive Training Reading 11

NEW-AGE TRA NSP ORT

12 Cambr idge IELTS Intensive Training Reading

2 This unusual vehicle is the Racoon. It is an invention not of Hollywood but of

Cambridg e IELTS Intensive Training Reading 13

9 With composites, it is possible to build many different parts into a single

15. How does the Racoon cross water?

14 Cambrid ge I ELTS Intensiv e Training Reading

18. How did Renault test drive the Racoon?

19. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an ingredien t of a composite?

23. a power pod

Cambridge IELTS Intensive Training Reading 15

16 Cambridge IE LTS Intensive Training Reading

8 Again, the Racoon reflects this race between the

Questions 23-28: Matching questions

( Il:L I'-, !rtcnsiH "11, IIllf,).. Readmg 17

LIVING EXPENSES- A GUIDE FOR

probably more sensible at first.

18 (ambridg e IElTS Intensive Training Reading

7 Under present immigration regulations, internationa l students are allowed to work up to

Figure 1. Student Expenses per Annum in Percentages

Cambndgc Ifl lntcnsiH' ·1raining Readmg 19

20 C• t IE 1"1" htc nsl\ e T r. mtPg Reading

1. Shari ng accom moda tion is

3. Durin g summ er vacat ion,

4. Regu lar part-t ime work is

5. Cours es that are more practi cal

A are open Z4 hours a day.

Camb ridge IELTS Intensive Training Reading 21

It is recommended that stude nts have suffic

send boug ht 15 per cent broug ht

22 Camb ridge I EITS lnLcn si\c [raini ng Readi ng

4 The above fi gures do not inclu de the cost of large

duri12.9._this time. As a eneral rule, internat ional

Cambrid ge IELTS Intensiv e Training Reading 23

Questions 7-17: Summary-completion questions

10: well served

24 (ambridg e ll·IT<:i f'rainmgR eadmg

Cambridge I ELT'") lntensiye Training Reading 25

1. Matching Headings 6. Table Completion

Below is a typical example of this task type.

28 Cambridge IELTS Intensive Training Reading

Cambridge I EIJ'S Intensive Traming Reading 29

WARNING: MONDAYS ARE BAD FOR ANSWERS&

30 Cambridge lELrS Intensive Training Reading

D A study of 11,000 Italians identified 8 am on a Monday morn- 8.vii

F Monday mornings have a double helping of stress for the 10. ix

I Willich is reluctant at this stage to make specific recommenda-

Cambndgc IELTS Intensive Training Reading 31

Below is a typical example of this task type.

NB The first one has been done for you as an example.

22. The club has long-term dormitory accommodation.

32 Cambridge IELTS Intensive Training Reading

Important Notes f------------------------..

Words used in the passage Words used in the questions

Cambridge I LlTS Intensive 1 raining Reading 33