AmM.

PM0015
1. Write your ROLL NUMBER in the boxes: QUESTION PAPER 9C)0K^ET NUMBER
1
2. Write vour LC CODE in the boxes:
301099®
DURATION

3. Write the following in the Answer Sheet:

2 Hours
♦ Registration Number ♦ Paper Code
♦ QP Booklet Number ♦ Learning Centre Code INVIGILATOR'S SIGNATURE WITH NAME

4. At the end of the examination, RETURN:

♦ Answer Sheet ♦ Question Paper
5. Calculator is allowed.

PART - A (One Mark Questions)

1. There are . buttons on the far left of the fonmatting 7. Custom fields section allows you to custom
toolbar which can be used on a single task or group of fields to the task
highlighted tasks.
A) Add B) Subtract
A) Three B) Four C) Delete D) Save
C) Five D) Six
represents the start or completion of same
2. With respect to MS Project, which of the following key activity and as such it consumes no time.
is used to move to next field in Network Diagram box?
A) Program B) Calculation
A) TAB or ENTER C) Demark D) Event
B) SHIFT + TAB or ENTER
C) SHIFT + TAB or SHIFT ENTER 9. A is a specific technique in which a diagram is
D) PAGE UP or PAGE DOWN used for the purpose of assisting the project leader and
the project team in making a difficult decision.
3. To insert two or more projects at the same time, hold
down as you click each project. A) Project analysis B) Management analysis
C) Decision tree analysis D) Quantitative analysis
A) F4 B) SHIFT
C) ALT D) CTRL 10. The process of incorporating the changes and
rescheduling or re-planning the project is called
4. A
A is a task or item of yrark to be done, that
consumes time, effort, money or other resources. A) Crashing B) Updating
C) Editing 0) None of these
A) Activity
B) Connectivity 11. is based on an estimate of the costs for the
C) Arrangement detailed activities associated with each other package.
D) Derangement
A) Top-down approach .
5. Annual Time series smoothing includes B) Bottom-up approach
C) Both top-down approach and bottom-up approach
A) Moving averages D) Neither top-down approach nor bottom-up approach
B) Exponential smoothing
C) Least square trend fitting 12. Least square trend fitting includes
D) Both moving averages and exponential smoothing
A) Least trend forecasting equation
6. are the tasks which are specific and unique, with B) Quadratic trend forecasting equation
a specific derivable aimed at meeting a specific need or C) Exponential trend forecasting equation
purpose. D) All of these

A) Projects 13. In resource smoothing numbers above the arrow

B) Management indicate the
C) Quality
A) resource size B) number size
D) Quantity
C) crew size D) data size

FW13-PM0015 Page 1 of 8
14. is the square of. 25. Tasl< attributes includes

A) Standard deviation, variance A) Objectives B) Time constraints

B) Variance, standard deviation C) Milestones D) All of these
C) Expected time, variance
D) Expected time, standard deviation 26. is a core technique available to the Project
Managers for planning and controlling their projects.
15. In MS project uses an existing report to create a
new one. A) Data Flow Diagrams
'^01 OK B) Flowcharts
A) Custom B) Costs C) Network analysis
C) Data file D) Storage file D) PERT

16. In network analysis, only those networks are considered 27. is a graphical presentation of PERT to a time
in virfiich given pair of nodes is joined by branch. scale.

A) At least one B) Exactly one A) MOST B) TUST

C) At most one D) More than one C) RUST D) MUST

17. If the path is unique for each pair of nodes, the 28. is a measure of the cost efficiency with which
connected networi< is called the project is being perfonmed.

A) Walk B) Graph A) Cost variance

C) Cycle D) Tree B) CAC
C) Cost Performance Index
18. The resource graph will only show, resource at a D) CEV
time.
29. In PERT, the standard deviation is given by
A) Two B) Three
cy Five D) One A) (tp+to)/6 B) (tp"to)/6
C) (tp + to)/2 D) (tp-to)/6
19. The heart of every project management system is a
30. There are approaches towards establishing the
TBC for each wori< package.
A) Database
B) Scheduling algorithm A) Two B) Three
C) Resource base C) Four D) Six
D) Marketing rule
31. The for the entire project or each work package
20. The regression model building is used to with provides a baseline against which actual cost and wori<
monthly or quarterly data performance can be compared at any time during the
project.
A) Permute B) Mix
C) Combine D) Forecast A) TBC B) CBC
C) CAC D) CEV
21. A networic is said to be . if for each pair of node in
the network there exists at least one path joining the 32. is the spare time available when all preceding
pair. activities occur at the eariiest possible times and all
succeeding activities occur at the eariiest possible
A) Connected B) Disconnected times.
C) Oriented D) Non-oriented
A) Eariiest finish time
22. As the project progresses and when it has been B) Latest finish time
completed the process of should be used to C) Free float
leam the lessons for the next time. D) Total float

A) Temiination B) Assumption 33. can be described as the efforts to achieve

C) Evaluation D) Abstraction objective within the finite time and cost expectations.

23. Nodes that do not have any child node are tenmed as A) Project B) Model
nodes C) Trial D) Experiment

A) Toy B) Root 34. With respect to MS Projects, using which of the

C) Leaf D) Single following tool, it is possible to display project data?

24. Each activity is represented by one and only one A) Gantt Chart
B) Network Diagram Chart
A) Comma B) Semicolon C) Both Gantt Chart and Networi< Diagram Chart
C) Dash D) Arrow D) Neither Gantt Chart nor Networi< Diagram Chart

FW13-PM0015 Page 2 of 8
35. is the amount of time that an activity can be 38. means maintaining the total project duration at
delayed past its earliest start or earliest finish without the minimum level, by shifting the resources from the
delaying the project. activities having floats so that a unifomn demand on
resources is achieved.
A) Slack B) Most likely time
C) Optimistic time D) Expected time A) Resource planting
B) Resource sending
36. Linking of tasks can be achieved by making the C) Resource smoothing
appropriate entry in any of the task views or D) Resource adding
highlighting the tasks and using the link button on the
tool bar, or by using the command. 39. Which of the following cost-related measure is used to
analyze project cost perfomiance?
A) Edit, Link tasks
B) View, Link tasks A) TBC B) CBC
C) View, More view. Link C) CAC D) All of these
D) Edit, Link
40. If the two branches have a common node, then these
37. The exponential trend model with seasonal branches are said to be
components can be used for data with a
seasonal component A) Oriented
B) Non-oriented
A) Half yearly B) Quarterly C) Disconnected
C) Yearly 0) Monthly D) Connected

PART - B (Two Marks Questions)

41. State whether True (T) or False (F) 45. State whether True (T) or False (F)
i. A minimum span problem involves a set of nodes i. When viewing the network diagram, it Is also
and a set of proposed branches, a\[ of them being possible to add a new task by manipulating the
oriented chart with the mouse.
ii. Minimum span problem can be solved by tree. ii. It is not possible to enter the task names and

A) i-F, ii-F
B) i-F, ii-T A) i-F, ii-T
C) i-T. ii-T B) i-F. ii-F
D) i-T. ii-F C) i-T, ii-T
D) i-T. ii-F
42. State True (T) or False (F).
i. Interior nodes are the nodes that do not have any 46. Which of the following rules are generally taken into
child node. consideration for the construction of a network?
ii. A decision tree is an illogical diagrammatic model. i. Each activity is represented by one and only one
arrow.
A) i-T, ii-F ii. Each activity must be identified by its starting and
B) i-F, ii-F end node.
C) i-T, ii-T III. Nodes are numbered to identify an activity
D) i-F, ii-T uniquely.
IV. Between any pair, of nodes, there should be one
43. State whether True (T) or False (F) and only one activity.
i. Planning of all the activities, resources and
estimation of materials and time scales is an A) All of these
important task in the project management, B) All of these except ii
ii. As the project progresses and when it has been C) All of these except iii
completed, the process of evaluation may or may D) All of these except iv
not be used to learn the lessons for the next time.
47. In Gantt chart, the palette can be accessed from the
A) i-T, ii-F command.
B) i-F, ii-T
C) i-F, ii-F A) Format, Bar
D) i-T, ii-T B) Edit, Bar
C) Tools, Bar
44. State whether True (T) or False (F) D) View, Bar
i. Defining the project is the step 2 in the project
management. 48. One can select the Task Entry view to see the _ in
ii. You cannot combine any two single-pane view on the upper pane and the in the lower pane.
the screen to create a combination view.
A) Task form, Gantt chart
A) i-F, ii-F B) Gantt chart, PERT
B) i-T, ii-T C) Task Form, PERT
C) i-F, ii-T D) Gantt chart, Task forni
D) i-T, ii-F

FW13-PM0015 Page 3 of 8
49. State True (T) or False (F). 55. State Tme (T) or False (F).
i. The process of shortening a project is called i. Exponential smoothing is a technique that is used
crashing. to smooth a time series and thereby provide a
ii. Project crashing is usually achieved by removing clearer impression of the overall long-term
the extra resources from the activities of the movements in the data.
project. ii. Exponential smoothing cannot be used to obtain
short-term forecasts when it is questionable what
A) i-F, ii-T B) i-T, ii-F type of long-term trend effect present in a time
C) i-T. ii-T D) i-F, ii-F series.

50. State whether True (T) or False (F) A) i-T, ii-T

i. When a resource may not be available for all the B) i-T, ii-F
working hours in the base calendar, it can be C) i-F, ii-T
allocated to a spedal calendar, which will define D) i-F. ii-F
the specific working hours for that resource only
ii. The MS project can adjust the project to eliminate 56. State True (T) or False (F).
over allocation of a resource. i. The TBC for each wori< package will be the sum
of the costs of all the activities that make up that
A) i-F. ii-F B) i-T. ii-T work package.
C) i-F. ii-T D) i-T. ii-F ii. There are two approaches towards establishing
the TBC for each wori< package.
51. State True (T) or False (F).
i. Decision trees cannot be combined with other A) i-T. ii-T
decision techniques. B) i-F. ii-T
ii. Q-Sort method is a numeric project selection C) i-T. ii-F
method. D) i-F. ii-F

A) i-T. ii-F B) i-F, ii-T 57. State whether True (T) or False (F)
C) i-T. ii-T D) i-F, ii-F i. Before printing it is advisable to check the page
setup which is accessed from the file pull down
52. State whether True (T) or False (F) menu.
i. 'The network diagram chart displays page ii. In order to print scheduled tasks in a calendar
guidelines so that the placement of the network format, we cannot use calendar view and all tasks
diagram boxes on a page-by-page basis can be filter.
controlled.
ii. A filter is used to screen out unwanted tasks for a A) -F. ii-F
particular view to identify a particular aspect of the B) -F. ii-T
current state of the project. C) -T. ii-F
D) i-T. ii-T
A) i-F, ii-F B) i-F. ii-T
C) i-T, ii-T D) i-T, ii—F 58. State whether True (T) or False (F)
i. A resource is defined by the time variables
53. State whether True (T) or False (F) ii. Crew-size can be considered as a resource
i. It is very much essential to use some common
resources for multiple number of projects. A) i-T. ii-F
ii. When someone has several projects running B) i-F, ii-F
using a common pool of staff, it is essential that C) i-F. ii-T
the user is avrare of any conflict arising due to a D) i-T. ii-T
staff member being assigned to conflicting tasks
or unavailable due to other commitments in some 59. It is possible to change the time scale on the right side
other project. of the chart: directly by using the command.

A) i-F, ii-T A) Tool, Zoom

B) i-F, ii-F B) View, Tool
C) i-T. ii-T C) Edit, View
D) i-T, ii-F D) View. Zoom

54. State whether True (T) or False (F) 60. State whether True (T) or False (F)
i. A first order autoregressive model considers the i. An activity which started immediately after one or
effects of the relationship between the more of other activities are completed is known as
consecutive values in a series and between predecessor activity.
values that are two periods apart. ii. A successor activity is depicted by dotted line in
ii. The first order autoregressive model is similar in the diagram.
the fomi to the quadratic regression model.
A) i-T, ii-F
A) i-F. ii-F B) i-F, ii-T
B) i-T. ii-T C) i-T, ii-T
C) i-F. ii-T D) i-F, ii-F
D) i-T. ii-F

FW13-PM0015 Page 4 of 8
 PART - C (Four Marks Questions)

61. State wtiether True (T) or False (F) 66. State whether True (T) or False (F)
i. Cost estimates should be aggressive yet realistic i. A filter is selected by choosing "Project filtered for"
ii. There are one approaches towards establishing and making the appropriate selection.
the TBC for each work package. II. When all the taskis and their associated resources
III. EV is a key parameter that must be determined have been entered, it possible to view the
throughout the project calculated costs of the project and there are
several views that can be used.
A) i-F, ii-T, iii-F B) i-T, ii-F. iii-F III. MS project does not have any easy cost reducing
C) i-F, ii-F, iii-F D) i-T. ii-F. iii-T commands.

62. State whetherTrue (T)or False (F) A) i-T, ii-T, iii-T B) i-T. ii-F, iii-F
i. Tracking Gantt chart view can be used to view C) i-F. ii-F. iii-F D) i-T, ii-T. iii-F
tasks graphically while still having access to
detailed infonnation about the tasks 67. State whether True (T) or False (F)
ii. In the MS project, it is possible to combine any i. In the task entry view, it is possible to change the
two single-pane views on the screen to create a value of the % complete box in the task form part
combination view. of the screen and this is the same box that would
III. MS project defaults to a working day of 8 hours be seen in the task fomi.
with the working hours 0900 to 1300 and 1400 to ii. Re-scheduling the tasks to use the available
1800. resource capacity is known as levelling.
III. Increasing the capacity of the resource is simple
A) i-F, ii-T. iii-F 8) i-T, ii-F. iii-F to do in any view in which the available units for a
C) i-F. ii-F. iii-T D) i-T, ii-T, iii-T resource can be seen.

63. State whether True (T) or False (F) A) i-T. ii-T. iii-T B) i-T. ii-T, iii-F
i. The seasonal component depicts the up-and- C) i-T, ii-F, iii-T D) i-F, ii-T, iii-T
down swings or movements through the series.
ii. The 2"^ step in a time series analysis isto plot the 68. State True (T) or False (F).
data and observe any pattern that may occur over i. The cost slope represents the rate of increase in
time. the cost of perfonning the activity per unit
iii. If there is no obvious long-term upward or decrease in time.
downward trend, then the method of moving ii. The time-cost optimization algorithm does not
averages or the method of exponential smoothing need the calculations of the cost slope for
can be used to smooth the series and provide an different activities and ranking the activities in the
overall long-term impression. ascending order of the cost slope.
iii. The first step in the resource allocation procedure
A) i-F, ii-T. iii-F B) i-F, ii-F. iii-F is to determine the eariiest start time and the
C) i-T. ii—F, iii-F D) i-T, ii-F, iii-T latest start time for each of the activities of the
project.
Q. No. 64 - Q. No. 6S
A small project is having seven activities. The relevant A) i-T, ii-T, iii-F B) i-F, ii-F, iii-F
C) i-T, ii-F, iii-T D) i-T, ii-T, iii-T
Nomnal Crash Nomial Crash
Activity Dependence duration duration
69. State whether True (T) or False (F)
cost cost
i. Some of the projects consist of certain activities
(Days) (Days) (Rs.) (Rs.) that can begin only after certain others are
A 7
completed.
- 5 500 900
ii. Most likely time is same as the expected time
B A 4 2 400 600 iii. The optimistic time is the shortest time that an
C A
activity may require
5 5 500 500
D A 6 4 800 1000 A) i-F, ii-T, iii-T B) i-T, ii-T, iii-F
C) i-T, ii-F. iii-F D) i-T. ii-T, iii-T
E B. C 7 4 700 1000
F C, D 5 2 800 1400 70. State True (T) or False (F).
i. Task entry is the main activity in setting up a new
G E. F 6 4 800 1600 project.
ii. The tasks which have been identified at the task
64. The minimum duration is entry stage must be entered at the design stage.
III. The Resource Sheet contains an array of required
A) 17 days B) 18 days fields for entering resources.
C) 19 days 0) 20 days IV. When a resource may not be available for all the
working hours in the base calendar, it cannot be
65. The nomial duration is allocated to a special calendar, which will define
the specific working hours for that resource only.
A) 25 days B) 26 days
C) 27 days 0) 28 days A) i-T, ii-F. iii-F, iv-T B) i-T, ii-T, iii-T, iv-T
C) i-F, ii-T, iii-F, iv-F D) i-T, ii-F, iii-T. iv-T

FW13-PM0015
Page 5 of 8
71. State whether True (T) or False (F) 74. State True (T) or False (F).
I. Saaed cow method is based on senior A resource is defined by the physical variables.
managements intelligence as well as many years If the total float of a non-critical activity is more
experience than its free float, then it can be scheduled
ii. Operating or competitive necessity method anywhere between its earliest start and latest
selects any project that is necessary for continued completion times.
operation of a group or ^cility. III. MOST is a mathematical representation of PERT
iii. Scoring methods were developed to overcome to a time-scale.
some of the disadvantages of the simple financial IV. MOST technique cannot be applied in the large
profitability methods. projects.

A) i-F, ii-T, iii-T A) i-T, ii-T, iii-F. iv-F

B) i-T, ii-T, iii-F B) i-F, ii-F, iii-F, iv-T
C) i-T, ii-F, iii-T C) i-T, ii-F, iii-T. iv-T
D) i-T, ii-T, iii-T D) i-T, ii-T, iii-T, iv-T

72. State whether True (T) or False (F) 75. State whether True (T) or False (F)
i. In order to print a list showing resources use over i. Each project in the hierarchy contains links to the
time, along with the cost, the work, and the pay inserted projects below it and is connected as an
rate of each resource we have to use resource inserted project to the one above it.
usage view, summary table and the resource ii. Using the organizer, it is possible to copy tiie
filter. customized elements from the global file to
ii. In order to print a list of resources whose costs another project that is open on the computer.
are going to exceed the baseline cost we have to iii. Any change made to the toolbars in the organizer
use over budget resources report. is global.
iii. MS project is difficult to use and is not useful for
day to day project related activities. A) i-T, ii-F, iii-T
B) i-F, ii-T, iii-T
A) i-T. ii-T. iii-T C) i-T, ii-T, iii-T
B) • i-T. ii-F. iii-F D) i-T, ii-T, iii-F
C) i-F, ii-F, iii-F
D) i-T, ii-T, iii-F

73. State whether True (T) or False (F)

i. The direct costs are the expenditures which
cannot be allocated directly to the activities of the
projects.
ii. The activity cost con^sponding to the crash time
is called the crash cost which equals the minimum
direct cost required to achieve the crash
perfomriance time
iii. The process of increasing the duration of a project
for better implementation is termed as crashing

A) i-F. ii-T, iii-F B) i-F, ii-F, iii-F

C) i-T, ii-F. iii-F D) i-t, ii-T, iii-T

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

FW13-PM0015 Page 6 of 8
 PM0016
Write your ROLL NUN/ BER in the boxes: QUESTION PAPER BOOKLET NUMBER

2. Write your LC CODE in the boxes: 3016289

DURATION

3. Write the following in the Answer Sheet;

2 Hours
♦ Registration Number ♦ Paper Code
♦ QP Booklet Number ♦ Learning Centre Code INVIGILATOR'S SIGNATURE WITH NAME

4. At the end of the examination, RETURN:

♦ Answer Sheet ♦ Question Paper
5. Calculator is allowed

PART - A (One Mark Questions)

1. In the project life cyde the final phase of project is the 8. The .model is used for software development
project . processes based on the process maturity framework.

A) Control B) Feedback A) Capability maturity model

C) Implementation D) Closure B) Process maturity model
C) Customary Maturity model
2. Which of the following NOT responsible for failure of D) Product maturity model
change in organization.
9. Project risk is termed as that which may have
A) Making change an option ^Impact on a project.
B) Delegating to outsiders
C) Reward system Is not sufficient A) Positive B) Negative
D) Not involving those expected to execute the change C) Positive or negative D) No

3. Of the following is out of hand of auditor. But its 10. ^is the most flexible and widely used method for
extent can be assessed. detemiining the perfomiance of some task or process
that involves uncertainty.
A) Inherent risk B) Detection risk
C) Planned risk D) Control risk A) Monte Cario simulation B) Sensitivity analysis
C) PERT D) Risk scoring system
4. The critical risk factors are given by in the risk
impact or probability chart. 11. The complete budgeting and allocation, planning is
based on .
A) Low Impact, low probability
B) High impact, High probability A) Fundamental analysis B) Technical Analysis
C) High Impact, low probability C) Nature of project D) Estimates
D) Low impact, high probability
12. is the process of making the risk management
5. Contingency reserves are in temns of plan operational.

A) Time B) Money A) Risk control B) Risk audit

C) Materials D) Time and money C) Risk matrix D) Risk register

6. The types of risk analysis are, Qualitative, _and 13. .gives the regularity of the threat.
Quantitative.
A) Single loss expectancy
A) Semi quantitative B) Semi quantitative B) Annuallsed rate of occurence
C) Probabilltstic D) Detemiinistic C) Annuallzed loss expectancy
D) Annualized rate of expectancy
7. , refers to avoidance of risk in an emergency
14. At project management processes are repeated
A) Risk reduction with consistent results, in a Process maturity model.
B) Risk sharing
C) Risk retention A) Level 1 B) Level 2
D) Hazard prevention C) Level 3 D) Level 4

FW13-PM0016 Page 1 of 8
 15. To manage the challenges of creating reliable 25. The operating consistency of the process can be
processes for managing operational risks organizations measured with the help of .
need to adopt
A) Pareto chart B) Bar chart
A) Creative Culture C) Control chart D) Data chart
B) Entrepreneurial culture
C) Risk management culture 26. Programmatic risks are
D) Organization culture
A) Infrastructure risks B) Business risks
16. Which of the vides independent views on a C) Generic risks D) External risks
project? I
27. Risk monitoring is a
A) Stakeholder analysis 8) Consulting experts
C) Brainstomiing D) Research interface A) Problem solving technique
B) Proactive technique
17. A project manager must identify and handle risks by. C) On going technique
identifying all possible risks and D) Risk handling
A) Preparing a plan to tackle risks 28. Training is delayed for project staff forcing
B) Undertaking effective measures to avoid risks rearrangement of woric* is example of risk impact
C) Adopting risk aversion strategies. category namely"
D) Preparing for the worst.
A) Major B) Minor
18. An effective and disciplined planning of a project is C) Medium D) Very low
directly related to .
29. The ^technique is used to control and monitor
A) Cost B) Quality risks by identifying new risks, re-examining the present
C) CustomerSatisfaction 0) Budgeting risks and closing risks that are out of date.
19. To optimize effectiveness the of organization A) Risk audit B) Reserve analysis
must be matched to the purpose it seeks to achieve. C) Variance analysis D) Risk reassessment
A) Vision B) Goals 30. Fish bone diagram is also known as .
C) Mission D) Fomri
A) Deming diagram B) Toyota diagram
20. Schedule risks that appear in the PERIL database are C) Scatter diagram D) Ishikawa diagram
dealt with ^techniques.
31. Total change of customer perception of a brand is
A) Activity sequencing example of plan.
B) Activity scheduling
C) Activity charting A) Short-temri B) Mid-temn
D) Activity monitoring C) Long-temi D) Sales management
21. In a RBS for software development, Code and Unittest 32. Delphi technique is used for:
would correspond to .
A) Risk identification B) Risk management
A) Development environment C) Risk mitigation D) Risk documentation
B) Program constraint
C) Product engineering 33. Creating strategy is planning and not .
D) Program interfaces
A) Organizing
22. The tasks involved in constructing fishbone diagram B) Controlling
include defining the problem, identifying causes and C) Coordinating
D) Implementation

A) Brainstomiing B) Norming 34. To work effectively the risk management process

C) Controlling D) Analyzing requires commitment from and executive
management of the organization.
23. A risk indentification technique that starts with a threat
and identifies the resources that will be affected A) CEO
is, B) CFO
C) Risk management Policy
A) Risk checking B) Risk evaluation D) Managing director
C) Risk monitoring D) Risk charting
35. is a quantitative risk analysis technique to find
24. PERIL database refers to:
the risks that have high impact on the project.
A) ProjectExperience Risk Information Library A) Sensitivity analysis
B) Project Experience Risk Intimation Library B) Simulation
C) Project External Risk Information Library C) Probability analysis
D) Project Endurance Risk Information Library. D) Expected Monetory Value analysis

FW13-PM0016
Page 2 of 8
36. change replaces existing processes or 39. There are main response strategies to deal vMth
procedures of the organization with a new one. threats or negative risks.

A) Procedural B) Tactical A) Two

C) Transitional D) Routine B) Three
C) Four
37. Identify which one of the following is a tool for risk D) Five
monitoring?

A) Risk audit B) Risk archive 40. The hierarchically organized depiction of identified
C) Risk benchmark D) Risk table project risks arranged by risk category is called

38. To handle unavoidable risks, is used. A) Risk breakdown structure

B) Risk categorisation structure
A) Risk mitigation B) Risk acceptance C) Risk identification structure
C) Risk tracking D) Risk handling 0) Risk bottleneck structure

PART - B (Two Marks Questions)

41. Match the following for program constraints: 47. During project planning, team conducts the project
Set-I estimates using either or estimates.
a. Resource
b. Contract A) Functional, Operational
c. Program interfaces B) Fundamental, Technical
Set-!! C) Financial, Production
1. Restrictions D) Bottom-Up, Top-Down
2. Budget
3. subcontractors 48. State which of the following statements are True/ False;
1. Project management plan contains risk
A) a-1,b-2, c-3 B) a-1.b-3.c-2 management plan.
C) a-2, b-3. c-1 D) a-2, b-1,c-3 2. Wori< performance information provide details
required by stakeholders
42. Establishing the context for risk management process
3. Performance reports include status of
is categorized into;
deliverables.
a. Strategic
b. Organizational
A) 1-Tme, 2-True, 3-True
c. Project
B) 1-False, 2-False. 3-False
d. enviomment
C) l-Tme, 2-True, 3-False
A) a. b. c. d B) a. b, c D) 1-Tnje, 2-False, 3-False
C) a, c, d D) b. c, d
49. The risk response chosen must be considered in terms
43. Control risk refers to the risk that the client's internal of and in planning risk treatment
control and action fail to distinguish or prevent a strategies.
material from occurring.
A) Capability. Risk level
A) Policies, Statement B) Programs. Report B) Feasibility, Risk level
C) Procedure, Review D) Policies, Misstatement C) Feasibility, Cost effectiveness
D) Capability, Feasibility
44. Select the ways of managing risks;
1. By using existing assets. 50. A meeting with the stakeholders is good way to
2. By contingency planning. build the project objectives document. During this
3. By investing in new resources meeting the should ensure that everybody's
views being heard.
A) 1.2.3 B) 1.2
C) 1. 3 D) 2, 3
A) Formal. CEO
45. State if the following statements are True/ False; B) Infomrial, Chairman
1. Benchmarking identifies areas for improvement. C) Annual, Managing Director
2. Benchmarking is not part of quality management. D) Face-to-Face, Project Manager

A) 1-True, 2-False B) 1-True, 2-True 51. Identify the steps in the risk management planning
C) 1-False. 2-True D) 1-False, 2-False pnscess;
a. Involve
46. The educational institutions lie towards the area b. Collate
of risk tolerance spectrum whereas entrepreneurial c. Group
companies lie towards the area of risk tolerance d. Identify actions
spectrum. e. Assess
f. Assign
A) Risk Acceptance, Risk Transfer g. Create contingency plan
B) Risk Averse, Risk Seeking
C) Risk Bearing, Risk Appetite A) a. b. e. c, d, g. f ' B) a, e, b. c, d, g, f
D) Risk Appetite, Risk Mitigation C) a, b, e, c, g, f, d D) a, b, e, d, c, g, f

FW13-PM0016 Page 3 of 8
52. To survive and grow in the current business 57. Risk monitoring is the process of systematically
environment, organizations are required to be and the performance of risk-handling actions.
Many organizations learn from each others, .
A) Identifying, Tracking
A) Leaming Systems, Employees B) Analyzing, Measuring
B) Productive, Learning curves C) Tracking, Evaluating
C) Effective, Experience curves D) Measuring, Reporting
D) Effident, processes
58. During the project stage, a checklist or
53. Contingency reserve is established to deal with
are identified and resolved.
^and

A) Unknown risks, accepted known risks A) Initial, List points

B) Undisclosed risks, recorded risks B) Intermediate, Control Chart
C) Unmatched risks, mitigated risks C) Closure, List Open points
D) Quantifiable risks, delayed risks D) Final, Key points

54. State True/ False for statements relating to quantitative 59. According to Ackerman there are three types of change
risk assessment. that occur most frequently in the organizations they are
1. The past records help to gain experience and ^and transformational.
improve accuracy.
2. Financial impacts cannot be assessed. A) Financial, Technological
3. Results are in non monetary terms. B) Strategic, Routine
C) Functional, Tactical
A) 1-True, 2-True, 3-True D) Developmental, Transitional
B) 1-True, 2-False, 3-False
C) 1-False, 2-True, 3-True 60. Select which of the following statements are True/
D) 1-False, 2-False, 3-True False
1. Risk analysis helps to identify the dependency
55. Each activity in PERT/CPM network is represented by between risks.
Each activity is preceded and succeeded by an 2. Risk identification checklist helps project
event represented as . managers in future projects.
3. Risk matrix is a tool to determine the severity of
A) Rectangle, Triangle B) Square, Arrow risk.
C) Arrow, Circle D) Triangle, Circle
A) l-True, 2-True, 3-True
56. State whether the following statements are True/ False:
B) 1-True, 2-True, 3-False
1. Lognormal the values are symmetric.
C) 1-Tnje, 2-False, 3-False
2. Discrete probability of each specific value is set
D) 1-False, 2-True, 3-True
by user.
3. Normal describes unnatural processes.

A) 1-Tnje, 2-True, 3-True

B) 1-False, 2-True, 3-False
C) 1-False, 2-True, 3-True
D) 1-True, 2-False, 3-False

PART - C (Four Mari<s Questions)

61. Match the following levels of Process Maturity models: 62. Match the following threats that are identified:
Set-I Set-I
1. initial or ad hoc 1. Operational
2. Repeatable 2. Reputational
3. Defined 3. Procedural
4. Managed 4. Project
Set-ll Set-ll
a. At this stage products produced exceed the a. Due to cost over runs
expected budget b. Damage due to loss of good business partners
b. Standard processes are established c. Due to failure of internal controls
c. Risk of exceeding cost and time d. Due to disruption of distribution channels
d. Use of statistical techniques.
A) l-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
A) l-a, 2-b, 3-c,4-d B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d C) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a
C) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a D) 1-d. 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
D) l-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c

FW13-PM0016 Page 4 of 8
63. State whether the following statements are True/ False: 68. Event chain methodology is a way to model for
1. Risk that needs immediate response comes under diverse time related business and technological
risk urgency assessment. processes. It is based on existing investigation
2. Grouping of risks helps to eliminate many risks by methodologies which include ^and .
eliminating one cause.
3. Probability and impact matrix guides risk A) Uncertainties, Monte Carlo simulation, Bayesian
responses Approach
4. Possibility and impact of risk can be judged by B) Risk, Game Theory, Bayesian Approach
interviewing experienced professionals. C) Deviations, Algorithm, Zero-sum game
D) Variations, Algorithm, Factorial Theory
A) 1-True, 2-True , 3-True, 4-True
B) 1-False, 2-False, 3-False. 4-False 69. State whether the following statements regarding risk
C) 1-True, 2-True , 3-False, 4-False control are True/ False:
D) 1-False, 2-True , 3-False, 4-True 1. The project risk has to be monitored closely.
2. The risk list should be revisited
64. Match the following which reflects different categories 3. Verify if the risks are still valid
of incentives. 4. Update the risk plans
Set-I
a. Remunerative A) 1-Tnje, 2-False, 3-False, 4-True
b. Moral B) 1-Tnje, 2-True , 3-False, 4-False
c. Coercive C) 1-False, 2-False, 3-True, 4-True
Set-n D) 1-True, 2-True , 3-True, 4-True
1. Inflicting pain in punishment
2. Material reward 70. Choose the correct alternative by identifying nature of
3. Admiration from community statements given below which may be True or False.
i. Companies based in India believe that the most
A) a-3, b-1,c-2 critical risk they tece is Technology risk.
B) a-2, b-3, c-1 RBI is the ideal vehicles to enhance
C) a-3, b-2, c-1 organization's view on policy of Government.
D) a-1,b-2, c-3 Global companies which have local presence in
India tackle cormption risk by developing codes
65. Accurate provides easier usage and is the best which were developed globally and applied in
reference point to know the processes and procedures. India.
It helps to processes and facilitates reviews. It is
very useful for during their knowledge transfer. A) i-False, ii-False, iii-False
B) i-False, ii-False, iii-True
A) Documentation, Standardize, New Employees C) i-False, ii-True, iii-False
B) Planning, Standardize, Project Manager D) i-True, ii-True, iii-True
C) Documentation, Up gradation, Managers
D) Planning, Designing, Knowledge employees 71. Match the following risk management context with the
related activities:
66. Identify the right sequence which represents the Set-t
approaches to handling resistance namely Facilitation, 1. Strategic context
Manipulation and Education respectively. 2. Organisational context
i. Making them realize the need for change 3. Risk management context
ii. Controlling a person's environment such that they 4. Project context
are shaped by their sunoundings Set-<l
III. Goal congruence of employee and organizational a. Organization and environment relation
goals b. Organization structure, functions and goals
c. Activity to be examined is defined
A) iii, i, ii
d. Business needs of the proposed project
B) i, ii, iii
C) iii, ii, i
A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D) ii, i, iii
B) l-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
67. Match the following: C) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
Set-I
D) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
1. Risk acceptance
2. Risk mitigation 72. Choose the correct alternative by identifying nature of
3. Risk tracking statements given below which may be True or False.
4. Risk Transfer
i. Increasing sales revenue is example of long-temi
Set-ll
plan.
a. Issuing debt ii. Increase in profitability is example of short-tenn
plan.
b. Risk reduction
c. Risk appetite iii. New market invasion is example of short-term
plan.
d. A proactive technique

A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c,4-d A) i-False, ii-False, iii-False

B) 1-b, 2-a. 3-d, 4-c B) i-True, ii-Taie, iii-False
C) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a C) i-False, ii-True, iji-False
D) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a D) i-True, ii-True, iii-True

FW13-PM0016 Page 5 of 8
73. Match the following risk identification methods; 75. Select which of the following statements are True/
Set-I False;
1. Brainstomiing 1. PERT is activity oriented, CPM is event oriented
2. Stakeholder analysis 2. PERT is detenmlnistic. CPM is probabilistic
3. Review planning 3. PERT considers times and cost, CPM considers
4. Checklists only time.
Set-H 4. PERT/ CPM identify critical activities.
a. Helps to gain specific project knowledge
b. Helps to find any blockage in the project plan A) 1-True, 2-True , 3-False, 4-False
c. Understanding the interest of people involved in B) 1-True. 2-False, 3-False, 4-True
the project C) 1-False, 2-False, 3-False, 4-True
d. Helps to gather information from past projects. D) 1-False, 2-False. 3-True, 4-True

A) 1-a. 2-b, 3-c. 4-d B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

C) 1-d. 2-b. 3-c. 4-a D) 1-b, 2-d. 3-^. 4-c

74. Match the following which reflects different quality

control tools.
Set~l
a. Cause and Effect Diagram
b. Scatter Diagram
c. Control Chart
set-n
1. Also called as fish bone diagram
2. Enable to study correlation between variables
3. Monitoring the process according to tolerance
limit

A) a-3, b-1.c-2 B) a-2, b-1,c-3

C) . a-3, b-2, c-1 D) a-1.b-2, c-3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

FW13-PM0016 Page 6 of 8
 PM0017
1. Write vour ROLL NUMBER in the boxes: QUESTION PAPER BOOKLET NUMBER

3021156
2. Write your LC CODE in the boxes:
DURATION

3. Write the following in die Answer Sheet:

♦ Registration Number ♦ Paper Code
2 Hours
♦ QP Booklet Number ♦ Learning centre Code INVIGILATOR'S SIGNATURE WITH NAME

4. At the end of the examination, RETURN:

♦ Answer Sheet ♦ Question Pap^r
5. Calculator, Annuity Table and Statistical Tables are
NOT allowed.

PART - A (One Mark Questions)

1. The represents an organized and logical break 7. method minimizes defects and combines
down of the project into its component parts statistical process, design of experiments and FMEA.

A) Statistical quality assessment A) Kaizen B) Kanban

B) Work breakdown structure C) TQM D) Six Sigma
C) Organization break-Hip stnjcture
D) Building block structure 8. Which of this is not the type of histogram?

2. Under supply chain activities, the activities are A) Bell shaped

closely associated to the corporate strategy and guides B) Double peaked
supply chain policies from the design perspective. C) Plateau distribution
D) Pareto charts
A) Tactical B) Operational
0) Strategic D) Mandatory 9. Quality is defined in the user perspective by

3. Intemational Standards organization that gives A) Deming B) Juran

guidelines on process improvements has bought out C) Ishikawa D) Andy Grove
the
10. The quality is a structured tool which is usually
A) ISO 9000 series component specific and is used to check if the required
B) Kaizen steps have been perfomned.
C) BPR
D) Six Sigma A) Metrics B) Checklist
C) Sample D) Inspection
4. The Malcolm Bridge National Quality Award was
established by Congress in 11. Value Engineering is also known as

A) 1987 B) 1997 A) Value management

C) 1977 D) 2007 B) Value methodology
C) Value analysis
5. capability refers to the ability of the process to D) All of these
deliver.
12. Which of the following are quality management
A) Project B) Process strategies?
C) Defect free D) Procedural
A) TQM B) TQC
6. is the overall quality intentions and directions of C) Six Sigma D) All of these
an organization which is expressed by the top
management. 13. Quality is defined to express the organizations
attitude toward the quality and the quality practices.
A) Quality circle
B) Quality policy A) Metrics
C) Benefit analysis B) Documents
D) Quality purpose analysis C) Standards
D) Policy

FW13-PM0017 Page 1 of 8
14. provides a fresh wayof creating an atmosphere 23. New theories of quality and statistical method were
of improvements and advancement developed at Bell Laboratories by
A) Oiiganization culture B) Organization policy A) Deming B) Juran
C) Organization change D) Change management C) Ishikawa 0) Shewhart
15. is a calculation of the constancy of bias over the 24. . displays data as vertical or horizontal bars.
range of the measurement equipment
A) Flowchart
A)B) R^eia&ii^OC
Linearity
B) Line graph
C) Bar graph
0) Reprodudbility D) Pie chart
D) Measurement bias
25. The costs of activities to be designed to find out the
16. PMBoK defines as a temporary endeavor quality problems like the code inspections or types of
undertaken to createan unique produ^or service. testing is called as costs.

A) Process A) Repairing
B) Procedure B) Failure
C) Project C) Project
D) Strategy D) Appraisal
17. ^ ^are diagrammatic representation used to monitor 26. is the most familiar tool to understand
project parameters like cost variance, schedule processes.
variance etc
A) Flow chart
A) Flowchart B) Scatter diagram
B) Planning chart C) Barchart
C) Control chart D) Pie chart
D) None of these
27. are a networic of people who are engaged in the
18. , decisions are short temfi and focus on activities process of collective learning in a shared domain.
over a day-today basis.
A) Communities of practice
A) Operational B) Tactical B) Communities of learning
C) Strategic D) Vendor C) Communities of package
D) None of these
19. The sum total of prevention, appraisal, intemal feilure
and external failure costs is called as the of 28. Includes development of two methods - mari<et
quality. value added and economic value added.

A) Process cost A) Shareholders value

B) Projected cost B) Customers value
C) Total cost C) Consumer value
D) Summed cost D) Maricet value

20. IS a phase in DMAIC wherein we clearly cerebral image ofwhere the organization
recognize and communicate the problem in a clear and wants to be in the future.
measurable way.
A) Vision
A) Measure B) Analyze B) Mission
C) Define 0) Control C) Vision and Mission
0) None of these
21. is the technique, used to compare the actual or
current project processes and practices to those past 30. Under phases of value engineering process, the
projects, which are similar in nature or are set as phase analyses the design attematives, the technical
standard. processes, life cyde costs and the rationale.

A) Benchmarking A) Development B) Speculation

B) Flowcharting C) Investigation D) Evaluation
C) Benchmarking and Flow charting
D) None of these 31. The project management initiative program is a
step process.
22. can be defined as the ratio of the function to the
cost A) Four
B) Six
A) Profit C) Eight
B) Value D) Tet!
C) Efficiency
D) Effectiveness

FW13-PM0017
Page 2 of 8
32. • The is the person assigned to essentially 37. Under the acronym SIPOC used in Six Sigma process,
arrange and make the approved changes to the 'S' stands for
system.
A) Standards
A) Change market B) Change owner B) Stages
C) Change culture D) Change manager C) Secondary
0) Suppliers
33. Under phases of value engineering process, the
phase checks the background infbnnatlon, technical 38. "Noman is an island, entire of itself this was quoted by
reports, fielddata, team focus and the objectives.

A) Development A) John Dang

B) Speculation
B) John Donne
C) Investigation C) John Kotler
D) Evaluation
D) John Abraham

34. can be defined as the fonmai evaluation exercise 39. The DMAIC process was first introduced by
which studies the characteristics of the product to
ensure conformance.
A) Motorola
B.) Intel
A) Inspection B) Review C) TATA
C) Audits D) All of these D) Reliance
35. A is drawn in pyramid from where individuals 40. The authority in a project team is defined by the
positioned doser to the top the pyramid have more structure using a graphical illustration called as the
authority and responsibility than members located chart.
toward the bottom.
A) Product
A) Flowchart B) Matrix chart B) Flow
C) Organization chart D) None of these C) Organization
D) Control
36. can be used in project management to monitor
profitability and cash flows.

A) KPI B) KRA
C) KPA D) All of these

PART - B (Two Marks Questions)

41. Under tools of quality assurance, follows the 44. Which, of the following is not the baldrige criteria?
steps outlined in the process improvement plan to
identify the necessary improvement and also examines A) Leadership
problems experienced, constraints faced etc in the B) Strategic planning
operation. C) Measurement, analysis and knowledge management
D) Profit centered approach •
A) Process analysis
B) Quality audits 45. The maximum amount of the cost which can be
C) Process organization incurred on the product and with which the fimi can still
D) Procedural measurements earn the necessary profit margin from the product at a
particular selling price is called
42. Which of the following is not the step involved in project
A) A target cost B) A marginal cost
quality management?
C) A mark-up cost D) An economical cost
A) Quality Definition 46. Following are the disadvantages of
B) Quantity definition a. Communication is difficult to manage because of
C) Quality assurance dual management lines. Conflicting instructions
D) Quality improvements firom project and functional managers waste team
member's time and effort in clarifying them. Slows
43. The organization change process explained by Kurt reactions in meeting changing project
Lewin has three processes namely and requirements.
refreezing. b. Might lead to conflicts and competition between
project and functional management leading to
A) Unfineezing, deep freezing confusion and demoralization of team members.
8) Unfreezing, moving c. If quick resolution are not provided to conflicting
C) Unfreezing, heating priorities and personal staiggle, it can damage the
D) Adopting, moving project.

A) Functional organization
B) Line and staff organization
C) Projectised organization
D) Matrix Organization

FW13-PM0017 Page 3 of 8
47. is to improve the quality of the process outputs 54. According to Juran the two meanings of quality are
by recognizing and removing the causes of the defects quality means f^ure of products whldi meet
or errors and also minimizing the variability in the needs and also quality means freedom from .
manufacturing and business processes.
A) Business, inspection
A) 4 pieces B) 4 A B) Organizational, repetition
C) Six Sigma D) Seven sigma C) Customer, defidendes
D) Supplier, rewori<
48. Underroles played in change management, the
is the person assigned to essentially arrange and then 55. charts are line graphs withdata that vary around
make the approved changes to the system and he will a centerline usually the mean virfiereas charts
be consulted from scheduling, feasibility etc. are tools used to monitoring, controlling and improving
processes over time.
A) Change advisor
B) Configuration manager A) Real, virtual
C) Change owner B) Run, control
D) Change manager C) Control, run
D) Linear, exponential
49. Following are
a. Statement of work 56. State following statements are True (T)or False (F).
b. Technical requirements documented in technical 1. The criteria for performance excellence are tiie
specification foundation of the Baldrige national quality
c. Management requirements program
d. Engineering requirements 2. Process management category examines the
e. Product assurance requirements organizations key business areas performance
and improvement
A) Development approach
B) Project deliverables A) 1-T.2-F B) 1-T, 2-T
C) Project requirement documents C) 1-F, 2-F D) 1-F. 2-T
D) Availability of and need to develop newtechnologies
57. Under calculation of shareholder value the recent two
50. Which of the following are the techniques that are used metiiods added are the calculation of value
for Quality planning? added and the _ . value added.
1. Cost-benefit analysis
2. Value analysis A) Supplier, distributor
3. ABC analysis B) Internal, extemal
4. Benchmarking C) Maricet, economic
5. VED analysis D) Real, virtual

A) 1,2, 3 and 4 B) 1,2 and 4 58.

C) 1 and 4 D) 1,2, 4 and 5

51. Following are the four quality assurance steps within

♦ho
the model.
a. Plan
b. Do
c. Check
The above is .chart
d. .Act
A) Control
A) PDCA
B) Run
B) FDA
C) Pare to
C) PDP D) Flow
D) SDPS
59. State following statementsare True (T)'or False (F).
52. Apart from shared practice, the other two fundamental
1. The EVA takes after the tax operating profit for
elements of the Communityof Practice are a domain of the organization and also compares it with the
and a community of . cost of capital.
2. If the MVAis positive, then it means that the value
A) Standards, inspectors
has been created for the investors
B) Practices, businessmen
C) Knowledge, people A) l-T, 2-F B) l-T, 2-T
D) People, knovi/ledge C) 1-F, 2-F D) 1-F, 2-T
53. Apart from quality, the measure of success is 60. Cost of quality can be divided into two categories, the
expressed as & cost of and the cost of
A) Cost, schedule
A) Control, assurance
B) Schedule, property B) Conformance, non-conformance
C) Property, patent
C) Production, mariteting
D) Procurement, cost
D) Process, projects

FW13-PM0017
Page 4 of 8
 PART - C (Four Marks Questions)
61. Match the following 66. State whether True (T)or False (F)
Set~l 1. Project managers should focus on 3 dimensions
a. White of project; quality, schedule & cost
b. Green t)elts 2. The distinct and the most crucial activity that
c. Black belts project manager is involved is planning.
SstSL 3. Successful projects employ a time tested &
I. This is the basic training that will help to proven project life cyde.
understand the concept behind six sigma 4. Deliverables of a project must advance gradually
This level of training enables group of specialized in consecutive approximations.
team members to lead projects and teams and
implement it at the project level A) 1-T. 2-T, 3-T, 4-T B) 1-T. 2-F. 3-T. 4-T
III. These six sigma trained profisssionals complete C) 1-T. 2-F. 3-T. 4-F D) 1-F. 2-T, 3-T, 4-T
an examination and are certified in their methods.
67. State whether True (T) or False (F) as in product
A) a-iii, bn, oni B) a-ii, b-iii, c-l failures:
C) a-iii, b-ii, c-i D) a-i, b-ii. c-iii 1. The cost for repair is in accordance with product
warranty obligations.
62. Typical deliverables of value management workshops 2. Intemal failures will lead to product recalls which
are:
can turn out to be expensive.
3. Cost associated with complaints handling also
A) Inception, scoping, initial design, detail design, tells under external failure costs.
implementation 4. Scrap and rework are relevant examples of
B) Inspection, scooping, initial design, detail design, external failure costs.
implementation A) 1-T, 2-T, 3-T. 4-F B) 1-T, 2-T, 3-T. 4-T
C) Inception, scoping, intemal design, external design, C) l-T, 2-F, 3-T. 4-F D) 1-F, 2-F, 3-T, 4-T
implementation
D) Inception, brainstorming, initial design, detail design, 68. The method of breaking down the linked set of value
evaluation created activities by using the basic supplier raw
material/component to the supply of the end product to
63. State whether True (T) or False (F) consumer/customers is termed as the
1. Knowledge is a critical asset that requires
strategic management. A) Supplier analysis
2. Knowledge is static and hence makes it easy to B) Supply chain firame work
decide the relevant fonri of knowledge. C) Support chain frame work
3. Information technology has led to capturing all D) Supply chain indicator
organizational knowiedge.in databases.
4. Organizations manage knowledge effectively 69. State whether TruefT) or False(F)
using communities of practice. 1. Prevention costs are related to things which a firm
does to prevent quality issues.
A) 1-T. 2-T, 3-T,4-T 2. In-process product inspection is a forni of
B) 1-T.2-F,3-T,4-T appraisal assuring planned production.
C) 1-T. 2-F,3-T,4-F 3. External teilures are errors that occur after the
D) 1-F, 2-T, 3-t.4-T product has been delivered. ,
4. Intemal failures is likely to result in liability costs
64. Main causes for human errors in inspection are; which are very expensive.

A) 1-T. 2-T, 3-T. 4-F B) 1-T, 2-T, 3-T, 4-T

A) Technique, inadvertent, conscious, communication C) 1-T, 2-F, 3-T, 4-F D) 1-F. 2-F, 3-T, 4-T
errors
B) Technique, inadvertent, conscious, consistent errors 70. Match the following relating to value engineering
C) Subconscious, inadvertent, conscious,category errors process
D) Inconsistent, inadvertent, conscious, communication SeH
enrors 1. Investigation phase 2. Speculation phase
3. Evaluation phase 4. Development phase
65. State whether True (T) or False (F)as in role of change Seldl
manager a. Brainstroming of the alternative proposals and the
1. The change manager has a limited role to play in solutions takes place
the entire change management process. b. Develops the technical and the economics
2. He approves the change owners planning & supporting the data to prove the feasibility of the
change execution plan. desirable concepts
3. He approves all completed changes in order to c. Investigates the background information, the
ensure success of the process. technical input reports, the field data, the
4. He approves change advisors determination functional analysis, the team focus and the
regarding the practicability of the plan. objectives
d. Analyses the design altematives the technical
A) l-T, 2-T. 3-T. 4-T processes, the life cycle costs, the documentation
B) 1-T, 2-F. 3-T. 4-T of logic and the rationale
C) 1-T. 2-F. 3-T, 4-F
D) 1-F. 2-T, 3-T. 4-T A) 1-d. 2-b. 3-e. 4-c B) 1-c. 2-b, 3-a. 4-d
C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a. 4-b D) l-c. 2-a, 3-d,44)

FW13-PM0017 Page 5 of 8
71. Match the following 74. Match the following
Set-I Set-I
a. Quality planning a. Checklist
b. Quality assurance b. Control charts
c. Quality control c. Pareto charts
Seldi Set-ll
i. This is the process of evaluating project i. This is a list with the previously defined options
performance on a regular basis to provide which can be used as a guide to control the risks.
confidence that the project satisfies the identified ii. This is used to present the result of the process
quality standards and monitor any type of variable.
ii. This process evaluates specific project results to iii. This a histogram.
determine if they comply with relevant quality
standards A) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
iii. This is the process of detennining quality B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
standards that are relevant to the project and C) a-iil, b-ii, c-i
identifying ways to achieve them D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
A) a-iii, b-i, c-ii B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i 75. Match the following
C) a-iii. b-ii, c-i D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii Set-I
1. ISO 9000 series
72. Match the following according Malcolm Baldrige award 2. Kaizen
Set-I fCateocriesl 3. Taguchi
a. Leadership 4. Six Sigma
b. Strategic planning Set-ll
c. Business result a. Continuous improvement
Set-ll fPointsl b. Gives guidelines on process improvements
120 c. Improves the robustness of the system through its
i. 85 statistical methods
Ii. 450 d. Minimizes defects and combines statistical
process control, design of experiments and FMEA
A) a-iii, b-i, c-ii B) a-ii, t)-iii, ch
C) a-iii. b-ii, c-i D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
B) 1-b,2-a, 3-c,4-d
73. Following are the features of C) 1-d,2-b, 3-a.4-c
a. Should have well defined objectives within an D) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
accountability framework
b. Should be approved in accordance with project
approval requirements
c. Should employ sound project management
principal
d. Should be adequately resourced by departments
e. Should have a comprehensive and coordinated
definition of the overall scope of the project
f. Should be managed in a manner sensitive to risk,
complexityand economy of resources

A) Project statement
B) Forecasting statement ,
C) Control statement
D) Policy statement

FW13-PM0017
Page 6 of 8
 PM0018
1. Write your ROLL NUMBER in the boxes; QUESTION PAPER BOOKLET NUMBER

3025038
2. Write your LC CODE in the boxes:
DURATION

3. Write the followingin the Answex Sheef

♦ Registration Number ♦ Paper Code 2 Hours
♦ QP BookletNumber ♦ Learning Centre Code INVIGIUTOR-S SIGNATURE WITH NAME

4. At the end ofthe examination, RETURN:

♦ Answer Sheet ♦ Question Paper
5. Calculator, Annuity Table and Statistical Tables are
NOT allowed.

PART ~ A (One Mark Questions)

1. . is best suited for detailed design of infi:astructure 8. involves using internet to buy goods and
services from a number of known or unknown
A) Lump sum contract suppliers.
B) Time based contract
C) Percentage contract A) e-reverse auctioning B) e-sourcing
D) Indefinite delivery contract C) e-tendering D) e-infonning
2. is a basis upon which parties may be excused 9. is an enforceable contact
form ttieir obligations to perfonn as a result of events
arising after the contract has been entered. A) Void Conti-act
B) Valid contract
A) Frustration B) • Termination C) Voidable contract
0) Breach D) Mutual agreement D) Unenforceable conb^ct
3. happens when two or more companies who are 10. conti-act requires delivery of a product or service
in direct competition and share the same productlines at a spedfied price fixed at tiie time of entering into
and markets merge. conti-act and not subject to any adjustinent
A) Horizontal merger B) Vertical merger A) Finn- fixed price
C) Conglomerate merger D) Purchase merger B) Fixed price with economic price adjustinent
C) Fixed price incentive
metiiodology separates the design and D) Fixed price incentive(Firm Target)
constiuction functions.
11. are the combination of wori<s and goods
A) D-B B) D-B-B conti^cts.
C) FIDIC D) PMBoK
A) Lump sum contracts
5. ^contains information related to planned start and B) Unit rate contracts
end date for each activityin the project C) Percentage Rate conti^cts
D) Turnkey conti^cts
A) Project cost B) Project document
C) Activity cost estimate D) Prqect Schedule. 12. is a method of procurement in which the
quotations are invited fi-om preselected contractors or
6. is an illegal conb^ct which means that the suppliers for procurement of small quantity of service or
agreement does not meet the contractual requirements. goods.
A) Void Conti-act B) Valid contract A) Direct contracting B) Shopping
C) Voidable contract D) Unenforceable contract C) Subcontracting D) Force Account
7. deals witii tiie constitutional and administrative 13. is applied when fixed price conti-act is not
powers of the State and also certain relations between possible because of uncertainties in perfomnance
the State and the individual. magnitude.

A) Private Law A) Cost reimbursable conti-act

B) Public Law B) Fixed price with economic price acQustinent
C) Law of Contract C) Fixed price incentive
D) Arijib^ation and conciliation Act D) None of these

FW13-PM0018 Page 1 of 8
14. In a contract compensation is based on a fixed 23. is a legal agreement between two parties.
sum independent of the final project cost
A) Conti^ct B) Offer
A) Cost plus fixed fee C) Acceptance D) Consideration
B) Cost plus fixed percentage
C) Cost plus fixed fee with guaranteed maximum price 24. refers to inviting tenders fi-om only a limited
contract numbers of bidders.
D) Cost plus fixfsd^ contract
A) Advertised tender enquiry
15. Section of the Arbitration Act details the fomn and B) Limited tender enquiry
content of arbitral award. C) Single tender enquiry
D) Double tender enquiry
A) 32 B) 31
C) 42 D) 41 25. is best suited for environmental studies

16. Which of the following is a request for the price quote A) Lump sum conti^ct
per item? B) Time based contract
C) Percentage contract
A) Request for proposal D) Indefinite delivery conti^act
B) Invitation for bid
C) Request for quotation 26. refers to a situation where bids are invited from
D) Agreement the general public on an unlimited basis.

17. is a valid conbract which cannot be enforced A) Open tender

because of a subsequent change in the law. B) Umited tender enquiry
C) Single tender enquiry
A) Void Contract B) Valid contract D) Double tender enquiry
C) Voidable conti^ct D) Unenforceable contact
27. is a legal, preliminary, conti^act that authorizes
18. suggest that risk should be transferred to the conb^ctor to start woric pending negotiation of a
party which is most capable to absori^ it definitised conti-act

A) Principle of control A) Letter conti'act

B) Principle of capability B) Performance based conti^ct
C) Principle of risk C) Cost contiract
D) Principle of contract D) Cost plus award fee contract

19. method of selection of consultants is appropriate 28. is a common fomn of conti-act for execution of
where the scope of tiie woric is defined with precision small/large value infrastiucture wori<s for public sector
and the Tenns of Reference are dear and well across the worid.
spedfied.
A) Lump sum contiacts
A) Quality and cost based selection(QCBS) B) Un'rtrate conti-acts
B) Quality based selection(QBS) C) Percentage Rate contracts
C) Selection under a fixed budget D) Cost plus fee conti-acts
D) Least cost selection
29. FIDIC was founded in
20. _ can be utilized where wori<s cannot be carried
out without dismpting tfie progress of on-going A) 1924 B) 1967
operations. C) 1956 D) 1913

A) Direct contracting B) Shopping 30. INCO ternis are developed by:

C) Suticontracting D) Force Account
A) Intemational Chamber of Commerce, France
21. is a valid conb^ct unless one of the parties B) FICCI
dedares the agreement as invalid due to legal reasons. C) ASSOCHAM
D) Bureau of Indian Standards
A) Void Conti-act
B) Valid conti^ct 31. . are generally used for wori(s contracts.
C) Voidable conti-act
D) Unenforceable contract A) Lump sum contiacts
B) Unit rate contracts
22. method of selection of consultants is appropriate C) Percentage Rate conti^cts
for small assignments of a standard or routine nature D) Cost plus fee conti^cts
wherein the intellectual component is minor.
32. Sales tax in India is replaced by_ in majority of the
A) Quality and cost based selection(QCBS) states.
B) Quality based selection(QBS)
C) Selection under a fixed budget A) WCT B) VAT
D) Least cost selection C) Exdse duty D) MAT

FW13-PM0018 Page 2 of 8
33. 'Terms of reference should generally include, 37. .specifies the components required for a project
A) Project and assignment background infomnation A) Bill of Lading
B) Precise statement of the objectives B) Bill of Materials
C) Schedule for the completion C) Master production schedule
D) All of these D) Bin card
34. is the reference of a dispute to a neutral (third) 38. The conti-acts that establish a joint venture offering
person chosen by the parties to the contract business advantages for two or more parties are
termed as;
A) Arbitration B) Tribunal
C) Adjudication D) Resolution
A) Teaming agreements
35. stage gives a broad outiine of project, its B) Fixed price contacts
objectives and budget estimates for the same. C) Letter contiracts
D) Performance based conti^cts.
A) Project definition
B) Conceptualisation 39. RFQ stands for,
C) Planning
D) Preliminary studies A) Request for Quantity B) Request for Quote
C) Request for Quality D) Register for Quantity
36. suggests tiiat the party which has the better
abilityto control a risk should be given tiie risk. 40. . is a request to for tiie total price to do the worit.

A) Principle of control A) Request for proposal

B) Principle of capability B) Invitation for bid
C) Prindpleofrisk C) Request for quotation
D) Principle of conti^ct D) Agreement

PART - B (Two Mari<s Questions)

41. PMBoK stands for 45. Establishing specific objectives need to be categorized
as and
A) Prqect Management Bank of Knowledge
B) Project Management Book of Knowledge A) Temporary, Short temi plan
C) Project Measurement Book of Knowledge B) Must have, would like to have
D) Project Maintenance Book of Knowledge C) Who should, why should one have
D) Detailed text, need to build relationship
42. helps in sending requests for information and
prices to suppliers and receiving the responses
46. can be utilized where items of work that cannot
of .
be measured such as dressing of roads, watering of
plants and so on.
A) e-reverse auctioning, receiver
B) e- sourdng, suppliers
C) e- tendering, suppliers A) Direct contracting
D) Noneoftiiese B) Shopping
C) Subcontracting
43. Which of tiie following statements are true? D) Force Account
1. Requirement of International Competitive Bidding
includes publishing invitation for pre-qualification 47. Identify advantages of Percentage Rate Conti^cts
of wori(s/invitation for Bids (Worics) fi-om tiie following:
2. Pre-qualification documents period do not depend 1. Difficult to comprehend for the contractor and
on size and complexity of tiie contiract submit his bid
3. Bidding period (for works) of minimum six months 2. Simple to comprehend for the confa-actor and
or even more in case of large and complex submit his bid
conti-acts is considered reasonable 3. Dedsion on lowest bid can be taken immediately
4. A period between 45 to 60 days is considered as as no detailed procedures are involved
a reasonable bidding period forwori<s 4. Possibility of balanced bid submission is
eliminated as the percentage of amount obtained
A) 1 &4 above or below tiie estimate is applicable to all
B) 1 &2 the item of wori<s
C) 2&3
D) 2 &4 A) 2&3
B) 1 &2
44. E)q}and QBS C) 3&4
D) 1 &4
A) Quantity Based Selection
B) Quality Based Selection
C) Quality Brand Selection
D) None of these

FW13-PM0018 Page 3 of 8
48. Which of the following is not part of Conditions for 54. are appropriate for open ended emergency
adopting International Competitive Bidding? situations such as structural collapse.
1. The value of the package of works and goods are
high or the works/goods are complex in nature A) Lump sum contacts
2. Always local bidder is available to fulfill the B) Unit rate conti^cts
requirements C) Percentage Rate conti^cts
3. High degree of mechanization is involved for D) Cost plus fee contacts
execution of the prqect work
4. In-espective of value, supplies need to be 55. type of contracts are typically used for small
exported and entail payment In foreign cun-ency projects that can be executed in a duration.

A) 3&4 B) 1 &2 A) Lump sum contracts. Small

C) 2&4 D) 1 &3 B) Unit rate contracts, Lengtiiy
C) Percentage Rate contiracts, Lengthy
49. The presence of a competitive market Is a requirement D) None of these
for
a. Direct contracting 56. Management contracts are a combination for
b. Shopping ^and
c. Subcontracting
d. Force Account A) Supply of goods, Test contaBcts
B) Demand of goods, works contiracts
A) a. b, c C) Supply of goods, works contiracts.
B) b only D) None of these
C) a.b
D) a, b, c, d 57. Identify which of the following are not considered
minimum qualification for goods bid document
50. and activity controls the implementation 1. The bidder should be a manufacturer, who must
phase of a production system have manufectured, tested and supplied the
equipment up to spedfied percentage (usually not
A) Human resources, social 1^ than 80%) of the quantity.
B) Sales, raw materials 2. The equipment offered for supply need not be of
C) Lead t'mes, planning recent series models
D) Purchase, Production 3. Bidders who are authorized representative or
agent of manufacturer should submit bid even if
51. Is proposal by one party to another manifesting tiiey do not meet tiie above stipulated criteria
the intention to enter into a contract on certain tenns. requirements
4. The bidders selected as autiiorized agents must
A) Contract have supplied, installed commissioned the
B) Offer equipments or requirements
C) Acceptance
0) Consideration A) 1 &4 B) 263
C) 1 &3 D) 264
52. Which of the following statements are tme?
1. Identification of parts is an important requirement 58. The planning horizon for material requirement plan is
in preparation of BOM generally firom to ^months
2. Each part that goes into a product is identified by
unique part number, which is assigned to any A) 3,18 B) 4, 20
other part C) 2,4 D) 2,6
3. Bill of Materials (BOM) is further exploded to
arrive at the total qualitative requirement of 59. Identify disadvantages of Cost plus Fee Contacts fi'om
part/component of batch quality the following:
4. BOM can be described as a summarized parts list 1. Wori<s are awarded on sole source basis \A^h
for making one set of complete assembly negotiations and hence there is no competition
2. Quality of wori< may be affected as bidder will
A) 2 &4
have less incentive to produce quality wort< or
B) 1 &2
timely completion
C) 3&1
3. Bidder who gets the contaractmay use lower value
D) 1&4
material to increase his incentives and not make it
cost effective
53. Which of the following statements are true?
4. Additional supervisory staff is not required to
1. While conducting negotiations, know your
monitor and verify.tiie actijal costs
authority and that of your counterpart
2. Commit yourself first as a negotiator
A) 1&2 B) 3&4
3. Prepare a memorandum of what happened after
C) 2&3 D) 1&4
eadi negotiation
4. Use team of experts from outside
60. is a metiiod where conti-act for wori<s or supply
A) 2&4 is made with a pre-identified contractor or supplier.
B) 1 &4
C) 1 &3 A) Direct contiracting B) Shopping
D) 3&4 C) Subconti^cting D) Force Account

FW13-PM0018 Page 4 of 8
 PART - C (Four Marks Questions)

61. Match the following: 65. Note and an-ange up to 6 stages essentials of the
Set-I tendering documents to ensure flawless and smooth
1. Sustainability documentation process:
2. Journals 1. Required form of tender
3. Ennbassies 2. Schedule of tender documents
4. Exigency 3. Last date for submission of tenders
Set-ll 4. Detailed drawings and spedfications of the project
a. A body of persons entrusted with a mission to a 5. General conditions of tender
sovereign or government, especially an 6. Statutory guidelines to be followed
ambassador and his or her staff
b. A term used to describe the capacity to endure A) 5. 3. 6.1. 4. 2 B) 2,5,6,1.4.3
without giving way or yielding C) 4,3,1.6,2,5 D) 3. 2. 6. 1. 4. 5
c. A temri used to describe the condition of urgency
d. Periodical presenting articles on a particular 66. Match the following:
subject Set-I
1. Topography
A) 1-c, 2-a. 3-d. 4-b B) 1-a. 2-b. 3-d. 4-c 2. Cartography
C) 1-d. 2-a. 3-b. 4-c D) 1—b. 2—d, 3-a, 4—c 3. Downstream
4. Ambiguity
62. Match the following; Set-ll
Set-I a. A condition where infomiation can be interpreted
1. Collaboration in more tiian one way
2. Comply b. A temn referring to tiie completion point
3. Customer c. Is tiie study of earth's surface
4. Supplier d. A study and practice of making maps
Set-il
a. To act in accordance with anottier's command, A) 1-c. 2-d. 3-b. 4-a B) 1-d, 2-a. 3-c, 4-b
request, rule or wish C) 1-b. 2-c. 3-d. 4-a D) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
b. An organisation that provides a product to another
organisation 67. Match tiie followng:
c. A company working together on a prqect Set-I
d. An organisation or individual tiiat receives a 1. Force Majeure
product or service from the company 2. Standpoint
3. Escalations
A) 1-b. 2-c. 3-a. 4-d B) 1-a. 2-d, 3-b, 4-c 4. Enumerate
C) 1-d. 2-a. 3-c, 4-b D) 1-c, 2-a. 3-d. 4-b Set-ll
a. To ascertain the numbers
63. Match the following: b. A common dause in contracts tiiat frees both
Set-I parties from liability or obligation when an
1. Preeminent extraordinary event or drcumstances beyond the
2. Deliverable control of the parties occur
3. Pertinent c. A position from which things are considered or
4. Outsourcing judged
Set-ll d. The phenomenon of something getting more
a. it is the process of contracting a third party intense step by step
b. It refers to the greatest of importance or
achievement A) 1-b. 2-c. 3-d, 4-a
c. A report or document which fonns the building B) 1-d. 2-a. 3-b. 4-c
block of the project C) 1-c. 2-b. 3-d. 4-a
d. Having precise and logical relevance to the matter D) 1-a. 2-d. 3-c. 4-b
in hand
68. Match the following:
A) 1-d, 2-a. 3-b, 4-c B) 1-a, 2-c. 3-d, 4-t) Set-I
C) l-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a D) l-c, 2-d. 3-a. 4-b 1. Adjudicator
2. Arbiti^tion
64. Match the following: 3. Adduce
Set-I 4. Inequitable
1. Lacuna 2. Milestone Set-ll
3. Protocol 4. Quasi-judidal a. is altemative dispute resolution. It is legal
Set-ll technique for the resolution of disputes outside
a. An important event the courts
b. Lack of law or legal source addressing a situation b. A person who studies and settles conflicts and
c. An individual or orgnisation which has powers disputes
resembling those of a court of law or judge c. A tenn used for not equal or unjust or unfair
d. A set of guidelines or rules d. Means of proof in an argument

A) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b B) l-b, 2-c, 3-d. 4-a A) 1—c. 2—d. 3—a. 4—b B) 1-b. 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
C) 1-a. 2-d, 3-b. 4-c D) l-b, 2-a, 3-d. 4-c C) 1-d. 2-c. 3-a. 4-b D) 1-a. 2-c. 3-b. 4-d

FW13-PM0018 Page 5 of 8
69. Match the following: 72. Note and anrange Contract Management Process Cyde
Set-I in a phased manner
1. e-tendering 1. Perfomnance
2. e-reverse auctioning 2. Planning
3. e-informing 3. Conceptualization
4. e-market sites 4. Post completion
Set-ll 5. Project definition
a. Helps in gathering and distributing purchasing 6. Preliminary studies
infomiation
b. This is an expansion of Enterprise Resource A) 6,2.6.1.4.3 B) 3,5.2.6.1.4
Planning C) 5,3.6.4.1.2 D) 3.4.6.2,5,1
c. Helps in sending requests for infomiation and
prices to suppliers and receiving the responses of 73. Match the following:
suppliers Set-I
d. This involves using Intemet to buy goods and 1. Bidding
services fi-om a number of known and unknown 2. Incentive
suppliers 3. Procurement
4. Reimbursement
A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d. 4-c Set-ll
B) 1-b. 2-d, 3-a. 4-c a. Expenses given back for ti^e money spent for any
C) 1-d, 2-a. 3-c, 4-b official wori<
D) 1-c. 2-d. 3-a. 4-b b. To offer a particular amount of money for
something which is for sale
70. Match tiie following: c. Sometiiing which encourages a person to do
Set-I something
1. Aestiieti'cs d. List of obtaining the supplies
2. Viability
3. Inflexible A) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b. 4-c B) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a. 4-b
4. Turnkey C) 1-a, 2-d. 3-c, 4-b D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d. 4-a
Set-H
a. Incapable of being changed or unalterable 74. There are no formulae tiiat can automatically choose a
b. An artistically beautiful or pleasing contract type to suit the interest of tiie project Assume
c. A prqect or service which can be implemented or you are familiar witii tiie influendng factor for a prqecL
utilized with no additional work required by the As a Contracting Personnel, which among the following
buyer options do you think suit your need?
d. Capability of any work being done in a practical 1. Competitive Tendering
2. Cost reimbursable contracts
and useful way
3. Partially defined contacts
A) 1-b, 2-d. S-a. 4-c 4. Fixed Price Conti^cts
B) 1-a, 2-c. 3-b. 4-d
A) 1,2&3 B) 1.3&4
C) 1-c. 2-a, 3-d. 4-b
C) 2, 3 & 4 D) 2.1&4
D) l-d. 2-a. 3-b. 4-c
75. Match tiie following:
71. Match the following: Set-I
Set-I 1. Benchmari<s
1. Public Law 2. Due diligence
2. Book-keeping 3. Monopolies
3. Tender 4. Oligopoly
4. Convict Set-ll
Set-ll a. A mari<et dominated by a small number of
a. To dedde offidally in a court of law that someone partidpants who have control over supply and
is guilty of a crime mari<etprices
b. A written or formal offer to supply goods or do a b. It is a market in which there are many buyers but
job for an agreed price only one seller
c. The job of keeping the exact record of money that c. A standard by which something can be measured
has been spent or received by a business or otiier or judged
organisation d. The process of investigation, performed by
d. Lawgovemed by a government body investors, into the details of potential invesbnent
A) 1-c, 2-d. 3-a. 4-b B) 1-a, 2-c. 3-d, 4-b A) 1-c. 2-d. 3-b, 4-a B) 1-b. 2-c, 3-a. 4-d
C) l-d, 2-c. 3-b. 4-a D) 1-b, 2-d. 3-a, 4-c C) 1-a, 2-b. 3-d, 4-c D) 1-d. 2-a. 3-c, 4-b

FW13-PM0018 Page 6 of 8