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APTITUDE

DIRECTIONS: (Question no. 1 & 2) The 7. 2015–2016 Irani cup cricket title was won
questions are based on the following information. by?
Out of the total 390 students studying in a A. Rest of India B. Mumbai
college of Arts and Science, boys and girls are in C. Delhi D. Karnataka
the ratio of 7:6 respectively and the number of Ans. A
students studying Arts and Science are in the DIRECTIONS: In the following question is
ratio of 3:7 respectively. The boys and girls followed by two statements I and II. Select the
studying Arts are in the ratio of 4:5 respectively. choice as follows.
1. How many boys are studying Science? A. If I alone is sufficient to answer the
A. 155 B. 156 question
C. 158 D. None of these B. If II alone is sufficient to answer the
question
Ans. C
C. If I and II are both required to answer the
2. What is the ratio between the girls studying
question
Arts and Science respectively?
D. If both I and II are insufficient to answer
A. 8:13 B. 13:23 the question and more data is required
C. 23:36 D. None of these 8. Can Mohan be considered a successful
Ans. B mountaineer:
3. “SAWEN” is a regional international I. Mohan has taken part in seven
government body: mountaineering expeditions in the last
A. In combating wildlife crime in the ten years
region II. The norm for a mountaineer to be
B. In combating regional terrorism considered successful is being a
member of expeditions 4 to 5 times in
C. For health & welfare programs
fifteen years
D. For poverty alleviation in region
A. A B. B
Ans. A C. C D. D
4. World’s first white tiger safari was recently Ans. C
opened in the state of: DIRECTIONS: The following are the statistics of
A. Gujarata some matches of a cricket team bowlers and the
B. Maharashtra wickets taken. A, B, C & D are the fast bowlers of
C. Madhya Pradesh the team.
D. Assam
Ans. C
5. India’s first indigenous rotavirus vaccine
named rotavac:
A. Is to combat infant mortality due to 9. If the inter-se wicket taking ratio between
jaundice bowler groups remains the same and the
B. Is to combat infant mortality due to run out are limited to 2 only, how many
diarrhea more wickets would spinners take, based
C. Is to combat adult Japanese on the original presumption that spinners
encephalitis took 15 wickets earlier:
D. Is inactivated polio vaccine A. 1 B. 2
Ans. B C. 3 D. 0
6. Who was recently conferred with Skoch Ans. A
Lifetime Achievement award? 10. Which actor has been selected for the
A. Sushma Swaraj prestigious 47th Dadasaheb Phalke Award
for the year 2015?
B. Suresh Manohar Parrikar
A. Dilip Kumar
C. Suresh Prabhu
B. Amitabh Bacchan
D. M. Venkaiah Naidu C. Satrughan Sinha
Ans. D D. Manoj Kumar
Ans. D

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11. Union Government recently gave nod for The following table is incomplete even after the
issuance of UDAY bonds to four states of end of the tournament.
India initially. One of the states is not TEAM W D L P(Total Point)
included in this?
Ahmadabad 7
A. Uttar Pradesh B. Bihar
C. Rajasthan D. Chattishgarh Bombay 2
Ans. B Calcutta 1
12. Which more suitable for crops like cashew Delhi 10
nut? England 7
A. Red laterite soil B. Black soil
W = Number of matches won
C. Alluvial soil D. Arid soil
L = Number of matches lost
Ans. A
D = Number of matches drawn
13. Two equal glasses filled with alchohol &
P = Total Points
water in the proportion 2:1 and 3:2 are
emptied into a third glass. The proportion 16. Which team/s did Ahmadabad beat?
of alchohol and water in the third glass will A. Only Delhi and England
be? B. Only Delhi
A. 13:17 B. 19:7 C. Only Bombay and Calcutta
C. 13:11 D. 19:11 D. Only Bombay and England
Ans. D Ans. C
DIRECTIONS: Study the information given in this 17. Which team/s drew the match with
question to answer them. Bombay?
Number of the voters registered and voted from A. Only Ahmadabad
different constituency. B. Only Calcutta and Delhi
Constituency Number of voters in thousands C. Only Delhi and England
Registered Voted D. Only England
Ans. B
I 180 105
18. Which team had the highest number of
II 250 150 draw?
III 290 170 A. Bombay B. Ahmadabad
IV 320 200 C. Calcutta D. Delhi
V 200 110 Ans. B
14. Which constituency had the lowest 19. Which of the following team/s did team
percentage of polling: England beat?
A. I B. V A. Only Delhi
C. III D. IV B. Only Bombay and Calcutta
Ans. B C. Only Ahmadabad and Delhi
15. The least number of complete years, in D. Only Ahmadabad and Bombay
which a sum of money put out at 20% Ans. B
compound interest compounded annually 20. Team England drew match with?
will be more than double, is: A. Only Calcutta and Delhi
A. 3 B. 4 B. Only Ahmadabad
C. 5 D. 6 C. Only Bombay
Ans. B D. Only Bombay and Calcutta
DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 16 to 20) Answer Ans. B
the questions on the basis of information given 21. S is the mid-point of the side QR of the
below? triangle PQR and T is the mid point of QS.
A tournament is organized among five teams If O is the mid point of PT, then area of Δ
Ahmadabad, Bombay, Calcutta, Delhi and QOT is equal to:
England. This is a round robin league tournament A. 1/2 area of Δ PQR
where each team has to play every other team B. 1/4 area of Δ PQR
exactly once. For any team, three points are
C. 1/6 area of Δ PQR
awarded for a win, one point for a draw and no
point for a loss. D. 1/8 area of Δ PQR
Ans. D

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22. The positive square root of  48  45  is: 29. In a row of 16 boys, when Ashish was
shifted two places towards the left, he
became 7th from left end. What was his
   
4
3 4
3
A. 5 3 B. 5 3 earlier position from the right end of the
2 2
row?
C. 4
2
3
 5 3  D. 4
2
3
 5 3  A. 10th
C. 9th
B. 12th
D. 8th
Ans. B Ans. D
23. Which of the following was used as a 30. A metallic sphere is melted and is cast into
chemical weapon in the First World War? a solid cylinder. If the radius of the base of
A. Mustard gas the cylinder is equal to the radius of the
sphere, then the ratio of the surface area
B. Water gas of the sphere to the total surface area of
C. Hydrogen cyanide the cylinder is?
D. Carbon monoxide A. 1:1 B. 7:8
Ans. A C. 6:7 D. 7:5
24. What is the full form of the term ‘NPA’ as Ans. C
used in banking environment? 31. The total cost price of two items is Rs.
A. Not Profitable Assets 10,200/- and their selling prices are equal.
B. Net Performing Assets If one of the two items is sold at a loss of
12% and another is sold at a loss of 18%,
C. Non Performing Assets
then the cost price of the item which is sold
D. New Potential Accounts at a loss of 18% is:
Ans. C A. 5280 B. 4920
25. The expected energy of electrons at C. 5820 D. None of these
absolute zero is called: Ans. A
A. Work function 32. A petrol tank at a filling station has a
B. Potential energy capacity of 400 litres. The attendant sells
C. Emission energy 40 litres of petrol from the tank to one
D. Fermi energy customer and then replenishes it with
kerosene oil. This process is repeated with
Ans. D
six customers. What quantity of pure petrol
26. One Kilo Byte represents: will the seventh customer get when he
A. 1024 Bytes B. 1000 Bytes purchases 40 litres of petrol?
C. 100 Bytes D. 1064 Bytes A. 20.50 litres B. 20.25 litres
Ans. A C. 21.25 litres D. None of these
27. Creation of MUDRA bank was proposed in Ans. C
the recent budget proposal of the 33. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper
Government of India. MUDRA stands for: prepared by mixing metals in the ratios 5:3
A. Monetary Union Development Repay and 5:11 respectively. Equal quantities of
agency these alloys are melted to form a third
alloy C. The ratio of gold and copper in the
B. Medium Units Development &
alloy C is:
Reconstruction Agency
A. 33:25 B. 25:33
C. Micro Units Development Refinance
Agency C. 17:15 D. 15:17
D. Multipurpose Undertakings Ans. D
Development Refinance Agency 34. The formula for the number of diagonals in
1
Ans. C a polygon of n sides is d  n n  3 . If
28. The position of how many letters in the 2
word BRAKES remains unchanged when the number of diagonals in a polygon is
they are arranged in alphabetical order? twice as many as the number of sides,
what is the number of sides:
A. 1 B. 3
A. 3 B. 5
C. 2 D. None of these
C. 7 D. None of these
Ans. C
Ans. C

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35. Peeyush walked 8 km. west and turned given series and answer the question given
right and walked 3 kms. Then again he below the series.
turned right and walked 12 kms. How far is 40. 6 10 7 12 8 14
he from the starting point?
4 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
A. 5 km. B. 7 km.
What will come in place of (d)
C. 9 km. D. None of these
A. 6 B. 5
Ans. A
C. 8 D. 9
36. Which one of the following statements
correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of Ans. A
the constitution of India? 41. If 1 is coded as R, 2 as T, 3 as Z, 4 as B, 5
A. It contains the scheme of the as O, 6 as L, 7 as C, 8 as J, 9 as V, which
distribution of powers between the of the following is the coded form of
union and states 28147962?
B. It allocates seats in the council of A. TRJBCVLT B. TJRBCVLT
states C. TJRCBVLT D. None of these
C. It contains the languages listed in the Ans. B
constitution 42. Five girls are sitting on a bench to be
D. It contains the provisions regarding the photographed. Sejal is to the left of Rashmi
administration of tribal areas and to the right of Binni. Mamta is to the
Ans. B left of Rashmi. Ragini is between Rashmi
DIRECTIONS: In the following question two and Mamta. Who is sitting immediately
statements are followed by two possible right to Ragini?
inferences. Point out which of the following A. Rashmi B. Mamta
answer choice applies. Assume statements to be C. Binni D. Sejal
correct even if they very from facts. Ans. A
A. Only inference I follows
43. Amar can complete a work in 3 days,
B. Only inference II follows Bobby in 4 days and Cheenu in 5 days. If
C. Both inferences I and II follow they complete the same work together and
D. Neither inferences I nor II follow get Rs. 14,100/- as remuneration, then the
37. All fish are tortoise, no tortoise is a share of Cheenu in rupees will be:
crocodile: A. 2800 B. 3000
I. No crocodile is a fish C. 3200 D. 3600
II. No fish is a crocodile Ans. D
A. A B. B 44. The work done by a woman in 8 hours is
C. C D. D equal to the work done by a man in 6
Ans. C hours and by a boy in 12 hours. If working
6 hours per day 9 men can complete a
38. When three coins are tossed together, the
work in 6 days, then how many days can
probability that all coins have the same
12 men, 12 women and 12 boys together
face is:
finish the same work working 8 hours per
A. 1/4 B. 1/6 day?
C. 1/3 D. None of these
1 2
Ans. A A. 1 days B. 3 days
3 3
39. A man walked diagonally across a square
plot. What was the percent saved by not 1
C. 1 days D. None of these
walking along edges? 2
A. 20% B. 30% Ans. C
C. 40% D. 50% 45. Who among the following is well known as
Ans. B an exponent of flute?
DIRECTIONS: In the following question a A. Madhup Mudgal
number series is given. After the series a number B. Shafaat Ahmad
is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You
C. Ronu Mazumdar
have to complete the series starting with the
number given following the sequence of the D. Debu Choudhari
Ans. C

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TECHNICAL (APTITUDE) 51. The motion transmitted between teeth of

two spur gears is generally:
46. Match list-I with List-II and select the A. Sliding
correct answer using the codes given below B. Rolling
the list: C. Rotary
List –I D. Partly sliding and partly rolling
(Material properties) Ans. D
A. Ductility 52. The static deflection of a shaft under a
B. Toughness flywheel is 4 mm. What is the critical speed
C. Endurance limit in rad/sec if g  10 m/s2 :
D. Resistance to penetration A. 50 B. 20
List-II C. 10 D. None of these
(Test to determine properties) Ans. A
1. Impact test
53. According to Indian Standard specifications
2. Fatigue test 50H7g6 means that:
3. Tension test 1. Actual size is 50 mm
4. Hardness test 2. Tolerance grade for hole is 7
Codes: 3. Tolerance grade for shaft is 6
A. A3, B2, C1, D4 B. A4, B2, C1, D3 Which of the statements made above are
C. A3, B1, C2, D4 D. A4, B1, C2, D3 correct?
Ans. C A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3
47. Concurrent force system is the system C. 2 and 3 D. None of these
when:
Ans. C
A. Lines of action of all forces pass
54. A wooden block rests on a horizontal force
through a point
as shown in figure. The force (P) acting on
B. Lines of action of all forces are parallel it at an angle of 25° with horizontal.
to each other Assume the mass of block to be 8 Kg and
C. Lines of action of all forces lie along coefficient of friction is 0.45.
same line
D. Lines of action of all forces are not
parallel to each other
Ans. C
48. A couple is formed when:
A. Two unequal and unlike parallel force The force (P) is:
acting on a body A. 42.45 N B. 49.31 N
B. Two unequal and like parallel force C. 52.21 N D. None of these
acting on a body Ans. B
C. Two equal and unlike parallel force 55. The maximum distortion energy theory of
acting on a body failure is suitable to predict the failure of
D. Two equal and like parallel force acting which one of the following type of
on a body materials?
Ans. B A. Brittle B. Ductile
49. The total area under the stress-strain curve C. Composite D. Plastics
of a mild steel specimen tested up to
Ans. B
failure under tension is a measure of its:
56. Consider two rods A, B of the same
A. Breaking strength B. Toughness
material and subjected to equal axial load.
C. Hardness D. Stiffness The rod A is of uniform cross-section with
Ans. D diameter d, and the rod B taper uniformly
50. Which material has highest value of from diameter d at one end to diameter
poission’s ratio? d/2 at other end. The ratio of elongation of
A. Elastic Rubber B. Wood rod A to elongation of rod B will be:
C. Copper D. Steel A. 1:1 B. 1:2
Ans. A C. 1:3 D. 1:4
Ans. B

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57. A Hook’s joint is used to connect: 65. Gate is provided in moulds to:
A. Two parallel shaft A. Give passage to gases
B. Two intersecting shaft B. Compensate for shrinkage
C. Two non parallel intersecting shaft C. Feed the casting at a constant rate
D. Two non parallel non-intersecting shaft D. Avoids cavities
Ans. C
Ans. C
58. A truss is said to be perfect when it
66. The electric resistance welding operates
satisfies the following conditions:
with:
A. m  2j  3 B. m  3j  2
A. Low current and high voltage
C. m  2j  3 D. m  3j  2
B. High current and low voltage
Ans. C
C. Low current and low voltage
59. Enlarging an existing circular hole with a
D. High current and high voltage
rotating single point tool is called:
A. Boring B. Drilling Ans. B
C. Reaming D. Internal turning 67. An orthogonal cutting operation is being
carried out under the following conditions
Ans. A
Cutting speed (V)=2m/s, depth of cut=0.5
60. Plug gauge is used to measure: mm, chip thickness=0.6 mm
A. Shaft size
Then chip velocity is:
B. Hole size
A. 2 m/s B. 1.66 m/s
C. Wire thickness
C. 1 m/s D. None of these
D. Depth of threads
Ans. B
Ans. B
61. In order to have interference fit, it is 68. The rake angle of a cutting tool is 15°, the
essential that the lower limit of the shaft shear angle is 45° and the cutting velocity
should be: is 35 m/min. What is the velocity of chip
along the tool face?
A. Greater than upper limit of the hole
A. 28.5 m/s B. 27.3 m/s
B. Lesser than upper limit of the hole
C. Greater than lower limit of the hole C. 25.3 m/s D. None of these
D. Lesser than lower limit of the hole Ans. A
Ans. A 69. A 40 mm diameter rod is to be turned on a
62. A steel plate of thermal conductivity 50 lathe at a cutting speed of 30 m/min. The
W/mK and thickness 10 cm passes a heat required spindle speed should be
flux by conduction of 25 KW/m2. If the approximately:
temperature of hot surface of the plate is A. 120 rpm B. 180 rpm
100°C, then what is the temperature of C. 240 rpm D. None of these
cooler surface of the plate?
Ans. C
A. 30°C B. 40°C
70. A tank containing air is stirred by a paddle
C. 50°C D. None of these wheel. The work input to the paddle wheel
Ans. C is 9000 KJ and heat transferred to the
63. Gears are manufactured in mass surroundings from the tank is 3000 KJ. The
production by: external work done by the system is:
A. Milling B. Shaping A. Zero B. 3000 KJ
C. Hobbing D. Forming C. 6000 KJ D. None of these
Ans. C Ans. A
64. In blanking and piercing operation, 71. If the thermal efficiency of a Carnot heat
clearance between die and punch depends engine is 40%, then Co-efficient of
on: performance of a refrigerator working
A. Diameter of hole required within same temperature limits would be:
B. Thickness of sheet material A. 4.5 B. 3.5
C. Number of pieces to be made C. 1.5 D. None of these
D. Capacity and types of press
Ans. C
Ans. B

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72. A heat engine is supplied with 280 KJ/s of C. Flux is coated on the electrode
heat at a constant fixed temperature of D. No flux is used
520 K and heat rejection takes place at Ans. C
260 K temperature. If the engine is
79. The point of contraflexture in a loaded
reversible, the heat rejected would be
beam refers to the section where:
approximately equal to:
A. Bending moment is maximum
A. 85 KJ/s B. 110 KJ/s
B. Shear forceis maximum
C. 140 KJ/s D. None of these
C. Shear force is zero
Ans. C
D. Bending moment change sign
73. An engine operate between temperature
Ans. D
limits of 900 K and T2 , and an other engine
80. Which of the following fitting is a boiler
operates between T2 and 400 K. For both mounting?
engines to be equally efficient, T2 should be A. Superheater
equal to: B. Economizer
A. 600 K B. 625 K C. Feed check valve
C. 650 K D. None of these D. Blow down cock
Ans. A Ans. C
74. Two car A and B moves at 54 Km/hr in the 81. Which is not a part of patrol engine?
same direction and the car B is 300 m A. Valve mechanism
ahead of car A. If the car A is accelerated B. Fuel injector
at 6m/s2 while car B continue to move with C. Induction coil
the same velocity, calculate the time taken
D. Air filter
by car A to overtake car B:
Ans. B
A. 10 s B. 20 s
82. The moment of Inertia of an area is always
C. 15 s D. None of these
least with respect to:
Ans. A A. Vertical axis
75. Draft is provided in pattern so that: B. Radius of gyration
A. It can be easily withdrawn from mould C. Centroidal axis
cavity
D. None of these
B. Sand can be filled easily
Ans. C
C. Compression can be done effectively 83. During metal cutting operation, it was
D. Casting can be solidifying easily observed that the chip thickness is 2mm
Ans. A and the shear angle is 30°. The
76. Arc blow is: corresponding length of shear plane is:
A. A casting defect A. 1 mm B. 2 mm
B. A welding defect C. 3 mm D. 4 mm
Ans. D
C. A forging defect
84. If the principle stresses on a plane stress
D. A fitting defect
problem are S1 =100 MPa and S2 = 40
Ans. B MPa then the magnitude of shear stress
77. A simply supported beam of span l and (MPa) will be:
carrying uniform distributed load w per unit A. 60 B. 50
length, then maximum bending moment is
C. 30 D. None of these
given by:
Ans. C
A. Wl2 /2 B. Wl2 /4
85. A body moves with a speed of 10 m/s in
C. Wl2 /8 D. Wl2 /16 the curved path of 25 m radius of
curvature. If the tangential acceleration is
Ans. C 3 m/s2, then total acceleration for the body
78. In an arc welding: will be:
A. Flux is coated on the surface to be A. 3.3 m/s2 B. 4 m/s2
welded
C. 5 m/s2 D. None of these
B. Flux is poured on the surface in the
form of powder Ans. C

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86. A Kaplan turbine is suitable for: B. To prevent the belt joint from
A. Low head and low discharge damaging the belt surface
B. Low head and high discharge C. To prevent the belt from running off
the pulley
C. High head and low discharge
D. In case of cross belt drive only
D. High head and high discharge
Ans. C
Ans. B
93. The thickness of a gear tooth is measured:
87. Cavitation in centrifugal pumps can be
reduced by: A. Along the pitch circle
A. Reducing the discharge B. Along the root circle
B. Reducing the suction head C. Along the outer circle
C. Throttling the discharge D. Average of the profile
D. Increasing the flow velocity Ans. A
Ans. B 94. The cycle generally used for petrol engine
is:
88. Polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft
having D and d as outer and inner A. Otto cycle B. Dual cycle
diameters, is given by: C. Carnot cycle D. Brayton cycle
  Ans. A
A.
8
D
4
 d4  B.
32
D 4
 d4  95. The power transmitted by a circular shaft
rotating at N rpm under action of torque T
 
C.
64
D 4
 d4  D.
12
D4
 d4  is:
2 NT 2 NT
Ans. B A. B.
75 4500
89. Two block of weight 50 N and 30 N
respectively are connected by a light string 2 NT
C. D. None of these
passing over a smooth frictionless pulley. 650
The acceleration with which the weights Ans. B
move:
96. A belt pulley of 200 mm diameter such that
A. 2.25 m/s2 B. 2.45 m/s2 the ratio of tension in tight side and slack
side is 1.2. The maximum tension in the
C. 3.05 m/s2 D. None of these
belt not to exceed 240 kN. Speed of the
Ans. B pulley is 60 rpm. Find the safe power that
90. Two shafts whose axes are not in the same can be transmitted by the pulley:
straight line and are not parallel but A. 25.13 W B. 26.41 W
intersect each other. Which of the following C. 24.2 W D. None of these
couplings can be used for this type of
Ans. A
shafts?
97. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on
A. Flexible coupling
a floating body is equal to the weight of the
B. Universal coupling fluid displaced by the body. This is known
C. Oldham’s coupling as:
D. Rigid coupling A. Pascal law
Ans. B B. Buoyancy force
91. A bench vice is provided with which type of C. Specific gravity of liquid
threads: D. Viscosity of liquid
A. V–Threads Ans. B
B. BSW Threads 98. A point 20mm below HP and 30mm behind
C. Buttress Threads VP, It top view will be:
D. Acme Threads A. 20mm below XY
Ans. D B. 30mm below XY
92. The ‘Crowning’ of the flat pulley is C. 20mm above XY
generally done: D. 30mm above XY
A. To reduce the belt friction

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Ans. D 107. In centre less grinding, work piece is

99. Which of the following welding method clamped in:
uses a pool of molten metal? A. Bed B. Vice
A. Carbon arc welding C. Chuck D. Collet
B. Submerged arc welding Ans. D
C. TIG arc welding 108. Which of the following measuring device is
D. MIG arc welding used for measuring the rate of flow of a
fluid flowing through a pipe:
Ans. B
A. Venturi meter B. Orifice meter
100. A hacksaw blade cuts on the:
C. Pitot tube D. All of these
A. Forward stroke
Ans. D
B. Return stroke
109. In a refrigeration cycle the heat is
C. Both forward and return stroke
absorbed by refrigerant at:
D. None of these
A. Evaporator
Ans. A
B. Condenser
101. Sand acquires a predetermined shape
C. Expansion valve
under pressure and retains the same when
pressure is removed. This is due to the D. Compressor
property of sand known as: Ans. A
A. Plasticity B. Cohesiveness 110. Effort required at the circumference of the
C. Refractoriness D. Adhesiveness screw jack to lift the load (W) is given by:
Ans. A A. W tan (α – ϕ) B. W tan (ϕ – α)
102. The size of the lathe is expressed as: C. W tan (α + ϕ) D. None of these
A. Gross weight of the lathe Ans. C
B. Diameter of the chuck 111. On a ladder resting on a smooth ground
and leaning against vertical wall, the force
C. Maximum speed of the chuck
of friction will be:
D. Swing of the lathe
A. Away from the wall at its upper end
Ans. D
B. Towards the wall at its upper end
103. The resistance per unit area, offered by a
C. Upwards at its upper end
body against deformation is known as:
D. Downwards at its upper end
A. Load B. Pressure
Ans. C
C. Stress D. Strain
112. For a given steam temperature of 850°C
Ans. C
and vacuum of 0.1 kg/cm2 absolute, the
104. The heat engine that operates the most Rankine cycle efficiency will be maximum
efficiently between a high-temperature when steam pressure is:
reservoir and a lowtemperature reservoir is
the: A. 100 kg/cm2
A. Carnot Engine B. 200 kg/cm2
B. C.I. Engine
C. S.I. Engine

C. Critical pressure 225.4 kg/cm2 
D. Gas Turbine Engine D. 350 kg/cm2
Ans. A Ans. D
105. The cycle generally used for gas turbines 113. In a two-fluid heat exchanger, the inlet and
is: outlet temperature of the hot fluid are
A. Otto cycle B. Brayton cycle 65°C and 40°C respectively. For the cold
C. Carnot cycle D. Dual cycle fluid, these are 15°C and 42°C. The heat
Ans. B exchanger is a:
106. Relation between number of links (I) and A. Parallel flow heat exchanger
number of pairs (P) is: B. Counter flow heat exchanger
A. I  2P  2 B. I  2P  3 C. Heat exchange device where both
parallel flow and counter flow
C. I  2P  4 D. None of these
operations are possible
Ans. C
D. None of the above

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Ans. B The thickness of a shell to withstand a

114. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of pressure of 25 kg/cm2 should be:
a floating body are: A. 5 cm B. 10 cm
A. The meta-centre should lie above the C. 2.5 cm D. 1.25 cm
centre of gravity Ans. C
B. The centre of buoyancy and the centre 118. Choose the correct statement:
of gravity must lie on the same vertical A. An adiabatic process is always
line reversible
C. A righting couple should be formed B. An isentropic process is never
D. All the above are correct reversible
Ans. D C. An adiabatic process is always
115. Generally least count of the commonly isentropic
used vernier is: D. A frictionless adiabatic process is
A. 0.1 mm B. 0.01 mm always isentropic
C. 0.02 mm D. 0.2 mm Ans. D
Ans. C 119. A pump delivers water at a rate of 0.025
116. If a ball which is dropped from a height of m3/s against a head of 30 m. If the overall
2.25 m on a smooth floor attains the efficiency of the pump is 75%, the power
height of bounce equal to 1.00 m, the required by the pump is:
coefficient of the restitution between the A. 1 kW B. 4.9 kW
ball and the floor is equal to: C. 7.8 kW D. 9.8 kW
A. 0.25 B. 0.50 Ans. D
C. 0.67 D. 0.33 120. Morse test is carried out to determine .....
Ans. C of an engine:
117. A spherical vessel with an inside diameter A. I.H.P. B. F.H.P.
of 2 m is made of material having an C. B.H.P. D. Efficiency
allowable stress in tension of 500 kg/cm2. Ans. A

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