CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE

1. In the scheduled hearing, the judge, the PAO lawyer, the

private prosecutor and the defense counsel were all
present except the public prosecutor. Can the trial
legally proceed if there are also witnesses ready to
testify?
a. of course b. yes c. maybe d. no

2. In criminal proceedings, who is the “man of the hour” so

to speak?
a. complainant b. judge c. client d.
prosecutor

3. Can a criminal case proceeding be held even if the

accused is not arraigned?
a. yes b. sometimes c. it depends
d. no

4. If there is removal of some valuable materials inside the

fire scene or building, there is a presumption of -
a. accidental fire b. arson c. theft d.
natural fire

5. Because of the absence of the suspect due to high fever

resulting from “bird’s flu”, the arraignment proceeds in
the presence of the counsel and the wife of the suspect.
Is it legally all right?
a. it depends in the crime b. no, the
proceeding is avoidable
c. yes, because the counsel was there d. no the proceeding
is invalid
6. A court personnel who is transcribing proceedings in
court, who usually do it in short hand or stenotype
record is called
a. researcher b. recorder c. clerk
d. stenographer

7. Court practice as one of the subject in Criminology, is

designed to acquaint students as witnesses in -
a. court proceedings b. school c. law enforcement
d. society

8. During court proceedings, what questions usually makes

the witness to answer yes or no answer which is in
relation to the case during trial?
a. direct b. indirect c. leading
d. misleading

9. In the Rules of Court, Rule 110 is known as prosecution

of
a. cases b. offense c. criminal cases d.
criminal offender

10. Complaint need should be filed by the complainant in

order for the prosecutor to conduct preliminary
investigation?
 a. yes b. no c. it depends d.
sometimes
11. Can a child who is a witness carry a doll in testifying
in court?
a. it depends b. no c. yes d.
sometimes

12. Confession through the administration of “truth serum”

is not admissible evidence because it is
a. involuntary b. unacceptable c. impractical
d. impartial

13. Infanticide is the killing of a child less than -

a. 3 days old b. 5 days old c. 1 week old
d. I month old

14. In which law, the right and obligation of parents ands

child enunciated
a. RA 7610 b. family code c. youth and child
welfare code d. RPC
15. What law governs the Katarungang Pambarangay?
a. RA 1508 b. PD 1508 c. RA 7610
d. PD 9344

16. Criminal action may be delegated with the

_____________.
a. solicitor b. Public prosecutor c. private
prosecutor d. defense counsel

17. The following are mitigating circumstances:

I. the offender voluntarily surrender to the person in
authority
II. the offended party is deaf and dumb
III. the crime is committed by band
IV. the sufficient provocation of the offended party
immediately preceded the act

a. I, II, IV b. I, IV c. I, II, III, IV

d. I, III, IV
18. If the accused dies before arraignment what will happen
to the criminal action
a. terminated b. dissolved c. dismissed
d. absolved

19. When a group of male factors acted in unison in

committing a crime, what would you call it -
a. proposal b. subjective c. conspiracy d.
gang’s job

20. The following constitutes a crime of forgery except-

a. uttering statements against the government
b. forging the signature of the president
c. simulating the handwriting and signature of a person
d. b and c

21. A presumption which prove the existence and non –

existence of the fact in issue
 a. notice b. material c. relevant d.
direct

22. The following are the circumstances which consummates

the crime of arson except-
a. burning the contents of the building without burning
actually the building
b. burning a part of a building
c. charring the building
d. burning the incendiary material of the building

23. The elements of misprision of treason are the following

except-
a. There must be a war in which the Philippines is
involved
b. Offender must be a Filipino citizen
c. The offender has a knowledge of a conspiracy to
commit treason
d. None of these

24. Two ways in committing perjury are by under oath or

affirmation and making false affidavit. This is
a. wholly true b. partially true c. wholly false
d. partly false

25. A consul of Philippine Embassy whose function is the

disburse funds and misappropriated such funds he is
liable in Philippine Law. This statement is
a. wholly true b. partially true c. wholly false
d. partly false

26. If the judge finds probable cause what will he issue as

mentioned in Section 6 of Rule 112.
a. warrant of arrest b. subpoena c. habeas
Corpus d. summons

27. Mr. Hinala killed baby Marvin a three days old child,
not knowing his own son, Mr. Hinala is liable for-
a. parricide b. murder c. infanticide d.
homicide

28. Which of the following is not a crime against public

interest?
a. Forging the seal of the government of the
Philippines
b. Counterfeiting coins
c. Usurpation of authority
d. None of the above

29. Which of the following is the case of falsification?

a. Believing that he bribe a public officer
b. Alteration of a public document
c. Use of false identification card
d. All of the above

30. The taking away of a woman for the purpose of

corrupting her
 a. seduction b. abduction c. consented abduction d.
forcible abduction

31. The issuance of warrant of arrest is not necessary in

the following cases except
a. If the offense is penalized by a fine

b. If a warrant of arrest has already been issued

c. If the offense carries with it the penalty of
imprisonment
d. If the person to be arrested is already detained

32. In the violation of BP 22, how many days shall the

check be presented
a. 115 b. 60 c. 30 d. 90

33. If A aided B as a public authority and he was assaulted

what crime is committed to him
a. assault b. indirect assault c. direct assault d.
external assault

34. White slavery crime except

a. acts of prostitution c. involving
business on prostitution
b. prostitution d. cockfighting

35. Which of the following is exemption circumstances:

i. Under 10 years 9ld
ii. Under 9 years old
iii. Offender is deaf and dumb
iv. The offense committed is minor
a. I, II, III, IV b. II, IV, III c. I, II, III d.
II, III
36. If two or more person come to an agreement and unified
to commit a crime, there is a presence of
a. agreement b. conspiracy c. unity d.
proposal

37. What will happen to the arraignment if a prejudicial

question exist in criminal case
a. waived b. suspend c. commenced d.
terminated

38. Which of the following pleadings are not allowed by the

accused to file after promulgation but before final
judgment
a. motion for new trial c. demurrer of
evidence
b. motion for reconsideration d. notice of
appeal

39. Violation of RA 4200 is _____ as evidence in court

a. not admissible b. admissible c. can be presented
d. all of these

40. Validity of warrant of arrest within _______ days from

its acceptance
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 30
41. If there are, more than one accused how is complaint or
information stated?
a. All the names of the accused will be included
b. Names of the principal absorbed all other accused
c. Most guilty accused will be selected
d. None of these

42. A calamity cause the evasion of prisoners, how many

hours requires for them to return after the calamity?
a. 48 b. 72 c. 72 d. 24

43. How is amendment executed after plea and during trial?

a. with leave of the court b. with approval of judge
c. without prior notice d. all of these

44. What will happen to the criminal liability of the

accused is died after arraignment or suspended trial?
a. suspended b. extinguished c. dismissed
d. terminated

45. What do you call the record in court that is written by

the stenographer
a. record b. transcript of stenographic notes
c. transcript d. all of these

46. When primary evidence cannot be obtained ______

evidence may be presented
a. documentary b. secondary
c. prima facie d. real or object

47. An extra – judicial confession made by an accused shall

not be sufficient unless it is
a. corroborated by evidence of corpus delicti
b. writing
c. voluntary given
d. presence of a counsel

48. The extra – territorial application of the RPC applies

in the following instances except
a. When crimes against National Secretary is committed
b. When an offense is committed in a Citizenship
c. When obligations of the RP be forged
d. When not being a public officer, a person committed
an offense in the performance of public solution

49. After information is filed the MTC, bail is a matter of

light and it is be post
a. after pre – investigation b. before
arraignment
c. after conviction d. after
arraignment

50. What is the significance of evidence presented before

the court?
a. relevancy b. conformity
c. reliability d. accurateness
51. A judgment which is rendered with negligence is called
a. lack of foresight b. malfeasance c. misfeasance
d. oppression

52. Which of the following is not a crime against public

interest?
a. illegal use of uniform b. perjury c. forgery
d. all of them

LAW ENFORCEMENT

53. What is the result of maintenance of patrol and other

law enforcement activities of the individual police as
well as the police department
a. out put b. productivity c. efficiency d.
effectiveness

54. The immediate commander or Director of the PNP is

directly responsible to his personnel, what doctrine is
this
a. obedience superiority b. superiority

c. command of responsibility d. chain of

command

55. A director that has a sole responsibility over his

subordinates in all their activities
a. span of control
b. chain of command
c. command responsibility
d. scalar principle

56. Under what umbrella is the prosecution

a. DILG b. DOJ c. Court d. CJS

57. The concept of adult probation law in the Philippines

is
a. decriminalization b. deinstitutionalization

c. diversion d. diversification

58. In organizing a hostage taking situation the following

are involve except
a. establishment of policy b. delegating

c. establishing relationship d. developing

structure

59. The quality and skills that the offender wants to

access in his victims or target is called
a. antagonism b. vulnerability c.
impracticability d. impartial

60. Possession of men and women of PNP organization of

managerial capabilities and leadership power is the PNP’s
stand on
 a. PNP image b. career management

c. equality in service d. managerial leadership

management

61. The use of personal decision and choice in criminal

justice system is known as
a. authority b. power c. discretion d.
prerogative

62. The lack of ability to perform properly its duty is

called
a. incompetence b. negligence c. malfeasance d.
nonfeasance

63. A hostage taker who is a member of organized crime with

common goal and group importance is called
a. syndicate b. criminal c. organized crime
d. delinquent

64. What do we call the early release of a person from

prison and supervise by parole officer?
a. probation b. parole c. reprieve d.
pardon

65. It is defined as positive stress. This is

a. eustress b. distress c. maltress d.
mistress

66. The work of the investigating officer in recording the

name, age and other important details regarding the
accused
a. interview b. booking c. interrogation d.
investigation

67. What is the process of selecting an individual who

possesses the minimum criteria?
a. appointment b. promotion c. recruitment
d. screening

68. In the processing of information what should not be

done?
a. Recording of the information to be compared on
information on hand
b. Sharing with other intelligence agencies
c. Evaluation of the information as to its credibility
d. Comparing the information on the other information
on hand

69. Security officer A conduct an in – depth study in

company Delta to determine what are the security
measure’s are existing and what are still to be
installed. Which of the following activity he is
conducting?
a. security education b. security check
c. security survey d. security interrogation
70. The patrol officer must always conduct patrol in his
area of responsibility to deter the commission of crime.
This is the theory of
a. omnipresence
b. selective enforcement
c. preventive enforcement
d. all of the above

71. If you are convicted by the MTC, bail is a matter of

right and appeal shall commenced by notice of appeal
a. wholly true b. wholly false c. partly
true d. party false

72. What is the police function of PO 1 Leonardo Ebdane if

he gathers information?
a. intelligence b. patrol c. traffic
d. undercover

73. What is the primary purpose of police organization?

a. Law enforcement
b. preservation of peace and order
c. protection of lives and properties
d. all of the above

74. Assessing the strength and weaknesses of an

organization refers to
a. Security check
b. Security survey
c. Security audit
d. All of the above

75. B – 5 means

a. Completely reliable and confirmed by other sources

b. Usually reliable and improbable
c. Fairly reliable and possibly true
d. Unreliable and improbable

76. MOSSAD is for Israel, CIA is for -

a. USA b. RUSSIA c. Great Britain d.
China

77. The following are disadvantages of bicycle patrol

except
a. Ineffective during increment weather
b. Diminished personal contact with the public
c. Relatively high cot to operate
d. Involves more violent confrontations on the street

78. Any person, places, things or activity of clandestine

work refers to
a. subject b. drop c. safehouse
d. animate

79. What is the first step in police planning?

a. Need to know for a plan
b. Frame of reference
 c. Collecting all pertinent facts
d. Selling the plan

80. What do you call the activity of intelligence officer

when he or she go to the environment for survey?
a. environment scanning b. casing c. elicitation d.
odex

81. An information in which is completely reliable and

confirmed by other source is classified as
a. A – 1 b. B-2 c. A-2 d. C-
2

82. Which of the following penalties maybe imposed by the

PLEB in police administrative case for grave offense?
a. dismissal b. suspension for 3 mos.
c. demotion to 1 rank d. all of the above

83. Traffic operational plans include the following except

a. engineering b. education c. economy
d. records keeping

84. High risk crimes need to be saturated with intensive

patrol what type of patrol shall be employed?
a. high visibility patrol c.
preventive enforcement
b. low visibility patrol d. selective
patrol

85. Used of drugs and other criminal activities is

infiltrated in the areas of barangay A. If you were the
supervising officer what type of patrol should you apply?
a. two man mobile patrol c. one man foot
patrol
b. one man mobile patrol d. two man foot
patrol

86. When the surveillance is already made known to the

subject, this is called
a. out-out b. burn out c. drop out
d. back out

87. What type of intelligence deals with the defense of the

organization against its enemy?
a. line intelligence c. counter-
intelligence
b. strategic intelligence d. combat
intelligence

88. Decisions of dismissal by the PLEB maybe appealed to

the
a. Chief, PNP b. RAB c. NAB d.
NAPOLCOM
89. What is the process of determining the most qualified
applicant?
a. promotional b. recruitment c. appointment
d. selection
90. These plans refer to actions to be taken in a
designated location and under specific circumstances.
a. procedural plan b. tactical plan c.
operational plan d. oplan

91. Process of deciding the organizations mission,

objectives, course of action, plan and major resource
allocation are involved in -
a. operational plan b. strategic plan c. procedural
plan d. tactical plan

92. Police officer III is assigned at the records section

but has also reports to the radio dispatch section as
well as port time to the logistics section. He is
receiving orders from the three sections. What principle
is violated?
a. unity of direction b. scalar principle
c. command responsibility d. unity of command

93. If a person discard his identity and uses fictitious

name, the person is called
a. surveillant b. undercover assignment c. subject
d. principal agent

94. If PO 3 gathers intelligence report to the informant,

the best place to gather is?
a. safe house b. headquarters c. drop d.
residence of the informant

95. The person, thing, place and activity of a clandestine

operation is conducted
a. mission b. target c. subject d. casing

96. Advantage wherein planning is assigned to a team

a. more sources of information
b. there are more personnel in making an ideal
incremental plan
c. coordination with other units
d. team will know and owns the plan and everyone knows
their role or task in the implementation of the plan

97. In the planning process, knowing the internal and

external environment in dealing over the planning process
a. management assessment c. environmental
analysis
b. managerial analysis d.
environmental protection

98. Physical security is a _________ place between the

intruder and the target
a. barrier b. obstruction c. protection d.
threat

99. In perimeter barrier lighting signal and guiding system

are classified as___________
a. personnel security c. document security
b. assets protection d. physical security
100. Patrol strategy that makes use of disguise, deception
and lying other than visibility
a. decoy c. motorized
b. foot patrol d. intelligence

101. What gas is lighter than air?

a. ammonia b. hydrogen c. nitrogen
d. all of these

102. In the recruitment process who among the following is

qualified to enter the PNP
a. 21 years old b. 20 years old c. 35 years old
d. 45 years old

103. What is the law referring to the anti – graft and

corruption practices in the Philippines?
a. RA 3019 b. RA 1081 c. RA 1379
d. RA 4729

104. Is RPC punishes all crimes committed in the Philippines

territory?
a. partly true b. wholly true c. partly false
d. wholly false

105. The information is completely reliable and confirmed by

others
a. A-1 b. B-3 c. C-2
d. A-2

106. The plans that must be done in community activities

like street dancing, rallies, riots and crowd control
a. procedural b. management c. organizational
d. extra departmental plan

107. A judicial admission does not require _______

a. notice b. proof c. information d.
evidence

108. Which is not included in the complaint or information

to be sufficient
a. name of the court c. name of the
accused
b. name of the offended party d. place of the
commission of the offense

109. What should not be done to an classified document?

a. classified document should not be discussed in
telephone
b. classified document should be stored properly
c. classified document is disposed to an ordinary
waster basket
d. classified document should not be revealed to other
persons

110. Stress, burned out, fatigue are examples of

 a. situational hazard c. occupational
hazard
b. environmental hazard d. psychological hazard

111. Police inspector Pedro Alta is the chief of police of a

city or municipality. He wants to create a relationship
between the police and the community what instances he
will apply?
a. Oplan Pagbabago c. Oplan Jericho
b. COP’s on the block d. Oplan Sagip

112. In allocation pf quota of City/Municipality which of

the following must be observed, except
a. peace and order situation
b. topology of area
c. area where the commission of crime
d. place where there are frequent commission of a crime

113. The Cadetship program of the PNP, Fire and Jail

services is conducted by
a. Philippines National Police Academy c. NAPOLCOM
b. PNP training Centers d. Philippine
Military Academy

114. Who is the incumbent Chief PNP?

a. Panfilo Lacson c. Abdani Hermohenez
b. Avelino Razon Jr. d. Leonardo Mendoza

115. PO1 Sean and PO2 Juan is under the supervision and
control of SPO 4 Pedro. What is the principle being
followed in the organization?
a. command responsibility c. span of control
b. unity of command d. scalar principle

116. The following are the factors affecting the designation

of the kind of patrol to be implemented except
a. resident politician in the area c. the area where
there is high crime rate
b. the population of the area d. the topology of
the area

CRIMINALISTICS

117. Traced forgery is not considered signature. It is?

a. retouching b. drawing c. patching
d. riffining

118. In signature forgery cases, there are two (2) methods

and these are:
a. limitating b. imitation and traced
c. simulation and traced d. simple and traced
119. Corpus Delicti means
a. body of a crime b. physical evidence
c. person d. cadaver
120. This is used by photographers in order to take a stable
photograph
a. tripod b. camera stand
c. bipod d. all of the above
121. In the examination of soil, what do we in order to
avoid decomposition
a. sun dry b. air dry c. press it
d. water it
122. In DNA analysis, how many samples are required for hair
comparison
a. at least 30 b. 6 c. at least 10
d. at least 20

123. The test that determines if the blood came from human
a. benzidine test b. hematin test
c. precipitin test d. takayama test

124. What are the two kinds of impression?

a. plain and rolled b. visible & semi-
visible
c. latent and visible d. latent and sem-
visible
125. Do identical twins have the same identical DNA?
a. yes b. sometimes c. no d. it
depends
126. What do you call the ridge running parallel or nearly
to the other ridge which tends to surround the pattern
area?
a. pattern area b. type lines c. core
d. delta

127. The kind of printing which uses metal either hand or

machine
a. linograph b. offset printing c. letter press
d. engraving

128. What do you call term when a person exerts no effort in

forging a signature?
a. simulated b. traced c. patching d.
retouching

129. What type of forgery is involved if the forger does not

intend to change or alter the original document and the
questioned document
a. traced b. spurious c. simulation
d. cut and paste

130. Can fatal wounds can cause death even to famous

wrestler like Batista and undertaker?
a. it depends b. no c. yes d.
sometimes

131. In finger print classification and identification, what

is the basic to observe
a. core and delta b. ridges c. pattern d. island

132. What do you call the reaction of an individual that

causes sudden change in behavior or strong feeling due to
external factors?
a. stimulus b. ordeal c. evaluation d.
response
133. A traced forgery is not a writing but considered as
retouching or -
a. tracing b. patching c. refining
d. drawing

134. The major component of the armor piercing bullet is -

a. metal alloy b. lead and copper
c. tungsten chrome steel d. cupper fulminate

135. Is it possible to have “positive identification” when

an exit wound of a gunshot which inflicted at close range
will have PR by applying paraffin test?
a. it depends b. no c. yes d.
sometimes

136. Holographic document is written and signed by a single

person, what if a person is poor in writing and he used
computer in executing document and signed by him. What
kind of document is this?
a. holographic b. notarial c. witnessed
d. forged

137. Which of the following is not a part of hair?

a. medulla b. cortex c. inner d. cuticle

138. Autopsic photography is picture of a -

a. cadaver b. sexy dancer c. victim d.
wounds

139. What is the reason why the Questioned document examiner

must have to enlarge the subject that he is examining
a. for better comparison b. for future use
c. SOP d. it’s because he just
wanted to

140. In fingerprinting what does polydactyl means?

a. more than normal number of finger b. fingers are
longer
c. fingers are shorter d. fingers are less
than its normal

141. In fingerprint classification and investigation the

focal points or designs to look for by the examiners are
a. patterns b. ridges c. delta and core d.
type lines

142. Blood may remain fluid in the blood vessels up to

a. 4-6 hours b. 6-8 hours c. 8-10 hours
d. 2-4 hours

143. In polygraph test, the question “did you ever steal

anything” is what type of test?
a. irrelevant b. relevant test c. control test
d. I do not mind test
144. In firearm, which of the following strikes or ignites
the primer?
a. bore b. trigger ignition c. hammer d. double
action

145. Can an ultra violet decipher delete writings?

a. it depends b. no c. yes d.
sometimes

146. When the forger does not use any effort in making
fraudulent acts? This a type of forgery called
a. simple b. spurious c. carbon d.
simulation

147. Ultraviolet rays is used to photograph -

a. cleaned document b. altered writings
c. erased writings d. forged document

148. The type of firearm in which when pressure is applied

to the trigger automatically locks and released the
hammer
a. double action b. automatic c. semi-
automatic d. single action

149. In questioned document, what is the other term of a

burned document
a. charred b. poisons document c. anonymous
d. black

150. What is the physical agent which causes damage to life,

either through absorption or chemical action or any other
cause?
a. poison b. antidote c. panacea
d. mort era

151. What is the color of flame that shows presence of opium

when used in nitric acid
a. blue to green b. orange to yellow
c. purple to violate d. purple brown to green

152. In ballistics, the diameter of the shotgun barrel is

called
a. caliber b. length c. none of these d. gauge

153. In examining a question document to fully appreciate

the details in the document, you should
a. enlarge the document b. use microspore
c. photograph d. apply chemical

154. In ballistics, the term do not MAC means-

a. mutilate, alter, contaminate
b. mash, alter, control
c. mutilate, apply, control
d. move, alter, contaminate

155. What do you call the person who has a mind of 2 years
old?
 a. imbecile b. moron c. feebleminded d.
idiot

156. What are the four (4) branches of ballistics?

a. Interior, exterior, terminal and forensic
b. Intra, extra, material and forensic
c. Under, over, stable and constant
d. None of these

157. What is meant by oil of vitriol?

a. HCl b. H2SO4 c. HCN d. H2S
158. Why is polygraph examination not admissible as evidence
in the Court of the Philippines?
a. Because it is not standardized
b. No expert in the field
c. It cannot stand alone
d. Use only for investigation

159. Ten (10) finger print system applies to

a. suspect b. victim c. witness d.
bystanders

160. If the crime was committed inside the building the

first thing you should photograph is
a. point of prefrence b. point of entrance
c. overview of the building d. all of the above

161. Cadeveric spasm determines if the victim was moved.

a. it depends b. no c. yes d.
sometimes

162. How many legs a tripod has?

a. three b. four c. five d.
six

163. Holographic document is written and signed by one

person, if it is computerized and sign by one person is
it considered holographic document
a. it depends b. no c. yes d.
sometimes

164. The Greek word which means finger refers to

a. dactyl b. podos c. poros d. skopien

165. Corpus delicti means -

a. body of the crime b. cadaver c. physical evidence
d. suspect

166. The type of finger print that is not plain refers to

a. bifurcation b. eyelet c. accidental
d. arch

167. If there are changes of respiratory and blood pressure

in deception, there are
a. system changes b. changes of amplitude
 c. changes of rate d. changes of
systolic

168. It is used for armor piercing firearms.

a. metal alloy b. copper and zinc c. lead and
antimony d. tungsten

169. Common volatile poison are cyanide, phosphate and

a. ethanol b. alcohol c. methanol
d. ether

170. When we speak of rifling it refers to

a. lands and grooves b. caliber c. bore
d. gauge

171. Euthanasia is a willful, painless and deliberate

acceleration of the death of a
a. person b. lungs c. child d.
heart

172. In Questioned Document the examiner should look for the

inherent qualities of the writing document and the
a. color and gesture b. age and
source
c. element, qualities and characteristics d. none of
these

173. In fingerprint identification, the examiner may

produced the identity of a headless victim-
a. yes b. probably true c. no d.
probably false

174. The impact of a bullet to the target?

a. terminal ballistic b. interior ballistic c.
exterior ballistic d. forensic ballistic

175. Decomposition of dead bodies is principally influenced

by
a. oxygen b. bacteria c. soft tissue
d. water

176. In polygraph probe, the main objective of the examiner

is to establish that the subject is
a. truthfulness b. deceitful c.
believability d. coherent

177. What do you call the diameter or measurement of bore of

the shotgun?
a. guage b. land and grooves c. rifling
d.valve

178. Which of the following cases requires the application

of dactyloscopy?
a. kidnapping with ransom b. rape
c. crimes against person d. all of the above
179. The purpose of using pointed metallic instrument in
marking recovered bullets and cogent shells in the scene
is for-
a. safety purposes b. practical purpose
c. proper and permanent markings d. souvenir

180. A bullet usually used in targeting aircraft and be

burned readily is called
a. tracer bullet b. incendiary bullet
c. conflagration bullet d. exposure bullet

181. Ten fingerprint system pertains to the ten fingerprints

of
a. suspect b. victim
c. bystanders d. witnesses

182. Rifled bore firearms refers to

a. rifling b. valve c. double action d.
grooves

183. Cadaveric lividity is important because it may indicate

the cause of death and to determine if it is
a. altered b. moved c. serious d.
grave

184. The three (3) common poison are: corrosive poison,

gaseous poison and miscellaneous poison. Is it correct?
a. yes b. no c. maybe d. it depends

185. Volatile poisons are cyanide, phosphate and

a. sulfur b. alcohol c. methanol
d. ether

186. The number of signature required in document

examination is
a. 9 b. 7 c.8 d. 10

187. What type of wound does a sharp – edge instrument

produced?
a. incised wound b. punctured wound
c. abased wound d. lacerated

188. The following are parts of the human hair except

a. medulla b. cuticle c. inner d. cortex
189. The science of fingerprint is
a. dactyloscopy b. podoscopy c. poroscopy d.
photography

CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY

190. It is the situation wherein an individual reacts to a

certain emotion disturbances?
a. response b. stimulus c. reaction
d. conflict

191. A somatotype that is characterized by strong, firm body

and muscular built is
 a. ectomorph b. mesomorph c. endomorph
d. exomorph

192. The exact location of events in a hostage situation is

known as
a. outer perimeter b. inner perimeter c. scene d.
physical perimeter

193. What theory usually endowed the effect of social

interaction that affects the lifestyle of the people?
a. biological b. social c. segregation d.
environmental

194. The theory which explains that people usually

committing crime for their welfare
a. social theory b. choice c. freewill d.
hedonism

195. In human behavior, those events that takes place inside

the body refers to
a. neurogical b. cognitive c. empirical
d. behavioral

196. It is the action of the offended party that initiates

the confrontation that cause his injury or death is
called
a. confrontation b. victimization c. enunciation
d. criminalization
197. The classical school of criminology stresses on
a. hedonism b. freewill
c. utilitarianism d. all of the above

198. Placing offender behind bar during prime crime should

lessen their lifestyle opportunity to commit crime. This
is known as the theory of
a. incarceration b. cognitive c. social d.
incapacitation

199. In which law, the right and obligation of parents ands

child enunciated
a. RA 7610 b. family code
c. youth and child welfare code d. RPC
200. If an individual rejects the goal but accepted the
means, the form of behavior will be deviant and
a. ritualistic b. innovative c. rebelling
d. retreatist

201. The total process of maintenance of order protection of

life and properties and all other activities of law
enforcement and all other police officers and condemnably
of the whole department is the police
a. outcome b. outpost c. efficiency
d. productivity

202. The psychic of the mind that contains instinct wishes

and desires that direct the individuals
a. conscious b. preconscious c. unconscious
d. fore conscious
203. Reasons of joining gangs except
a. status b. family harmony c. prestige d.
power

204. The brains process the information and determine as

well as interpret it, what do you call this?
a. cognitive b. holistic c. behavioral
d. neurological

205. What is classical theory?

a. Maintains that children and lunatics cannot
calculate pain and pleasure therefore they must be
exempted from criminal liability.
b. Men are rational being who possess the freewill to
choose between right from wrong
c. Criminals are like sick people who requires
rehabilitation than the imposition of punishment
d. Men are possessed by either good or evil spirit

206. What is not a purpose of crisis management?

a. Contain and terminate
b. Resolve without further incident
c. Insure safety
d. Apprehension of perpetrators

207. A type of body physique which is more pone to commit

crime
a. mesomorph b. endomorph c. ectomorph
d. inferior

208. It maintains the doctrine of psychological hedonism or

free will
a. classical school b. neo-classical c. positivist
d. diabological

209. The following are social bonds except

a. involvement b. patronage c. commitment
d. attachment

210. What is the kind of hostage taker that is considered as

the most dangerous
a. terrorist b. syndicate c. person in crisis
d. psychotic

211. The specific location where hostage taking took place

is called
a. inner perimeter b. outer perimeter c. location
d. specific objectives

212. The physician who studied the insecurity links with

criminality is
a. Sheldon b. Lombroso c. Mausley d.
Durkheim
213. Person who are authorized to prosecute the anti-graft
and corruption cases
a. state prosecutor b. ombudsman

c. assistant prosecutor d. congressman

214. The science or study that deals with human behavior

a. psychiatric b. psychology c. human
science d. psychiatry

215. What is the effect of solving of a crime which affect

other crimes
a. domino effect b. deterrence c. psychological d.
physiological

216. What crime is exploring a place which lead to the

killing of many person
a. mass murder b. multiple homicide c. murder d.
homicide

CRIME DETECTION & INVESTIGATION

217. In traffic accident investigation, what should the

police investigator do except from sketching?
a. photographing b. sketching
c. laboratory analysis d. alcohol testing

218. If after the fire incident then container of gasoline

is found, what evidence is present?
a. prima facie b. corpus delicti
c. aggravating d. physical

219. In police Report writing, the basic and informal

reports should include the following items: heading, the
date, the officer/person to whom it is addressed and the
a. recommendation b. purpose
c. name of the writer d. topic

220. When the road is slippery in traffic accident, can a

speed limit be considered as evidence in diligence?
a. yes b. no c. sometimes d. of
course

221. Which among the following constitute the prima facie

evidence of arson?
a. The fire started simultaneously in more than one part
of the building
b. gasoline is found in the premises of the building
c. a demand for money was made before the board
d. All of the above

222. The internship program was extended for you to earn a

Bachelor degree. What is the better word to be used
rather than “to earn”
a. to gather b. to have c. to obtain d. to
get
223. The use of word/s with one or two meanings must be
avoided in order not to have a wrong -
a. perception b. usage c. comprehension d.
none of these

224. In court testimony, the best way to counter the rapid

fires question of the defense, for you to commit mistakes
is -
a. hesitate before answering b. study the
question
c. just keep silent d. defend your stand at
all cost

225. What is the color of the flame caused by flammable

substance like plastics and petroleum?
a. black and deep red flame b. bluish
c. reddish d. gray

226. It is device used by the arsonist before the start of

the fire?
a. plant b. clock c. trailer d. none of the
above

227. The following are elements of arson except

a. burning of the property of another

b. burning one’s own property

c. both a and b
d. none of the above

228. Which among the following is a function of DDB and PDEA

a. Take charge and custody of all dangerous drugs
seized
b. Conduct eradication program
c. Gather information on all information pertaining to
activities involving dangerous drugs
d. All of the above

229. In criminal interrogation police to suspect, man to man

the best process to handle in order to get the confidence
of the subject
a. trust b. information c. communications
d. clarification

230. If you were the prober, the accidental burning of a car

due to a faulty wiring is extremely rare.
a. yes b. no c. sometimes d. it
depends

231. Who enforces all the laws regarding the provisions of

the R.A. 9165
a. PDEA b. PNP c. NBI d. CIDG
232. After photographing the crime scene, what is the best
step to indicate its location?
a. sketching b. measuring c. scaling
d. plotting

233. Other than lighters, which of the following usually

used as igniters?
a. gasoline b. candles c. match d.
kerosene

234. What is the past participle of arise?

a. arose b. arised c. arises d. arisen

235. Student permit is valid for

a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 1 month
d. 2 months

236. What is the fine of the public officer who does not
appear in a proceedings involving the case of dangerous
drug acts
a. Php 10,000 b. Php 5,000 c. Php 6,000
d. Php 8,000

237. PO 2 Dela Cruz sense that the operation of the Anti –

drug Organization is “negative” put shabu on the pants of
the suspect. What will be the penalty of PO 2 Dela Cruz
if found guilty planting of evidence?
a. life imprisonment b. 20 years c. death
penalty d. distiero

238. In writing a report, word or group of words with

different meaning should not be used to avoid
a. usage b. perception c. alteration
d. confusion

239. In criminal investigation, doctrine of fruit of

poisonous tree is used. When we say fruit, this refers to
what?
a. evidence b. kind of fruit c. apple
d. information

240. What do you call the person who enjoys watching flame
or fire?
a. criminal b. pyromaniac c. arsonist
d. trailer
241. Under the new Drug Law, what government agency is
authorized to implement its provisions?
a. PDEA b. MMDA c. NBI d. PCCL

242. What is the next procedure after the written

examination when securing a driver’s license?
a. interview b. screening test
c. eye and ears examination d. interrogation

243. The reason why you should not allow the suspect to wash
his hand or allow to use the toilet is to avoid
a. loss of evidence b. contamination of
evidence
 c. leakage d. deterioration of
evidence

244. Mr. Note a public official usually park his Volvo car
in public areas which he always remove its plate number
on rear and front side. Is Note liable for violation of
traffic rules and regulations?
a. yes b. no c. it depends d.
maybe

245. A police report must be brief but

a. concise b. smart c. complete d.
detailed

246. If yellow light is caution, what is red light?

a. stop b. go c. slow down d.
listen

247. What is meant by DNA?

a. Deoxyribonucleic acid b. deoxyribonucleic
asset
c. Diethylamine nucleic acid d. Deoxylamine
nutrients acid

248. In informal report writing, it must contain the

following items: date, person or office to which it is
addressed in
a. topic b. purpose c. addressee
d. title

249. It is the process of the application of scientific

analysis in criminal investigation and detection
a. criminalistics b. forensic expertise c.
instrumentation d. all of these

250. To avoid confusion later on and maintain chain of

custody, all boxes with glass fragments should be
individually
a. considered b. analyze c. mark
d. examine

251. In collecting pieces of evidence in the crimes scene,

the proper tagging and marking of evidence is necessary
and shall be brought to crime lab for examination and
shall be turn over to the -
a. evidence custodian b. chief of clerk

c. laboratory technician d. director

252. In Pasig City, a person died because he was side swept

by a motor vehicle. Where will you file the complaint?
a. Pasig City b. at the place
where the vehicle was registered
c. at the place where the person resided d. in Manila

253. The following are purpose of criminal investigation

except -
 a. locate b. know the whereabouts c. apprehend d.
none of the above

254. In crime detection, interrogation can be used to a

witness
a. it depends b. no c. yes d.
sometimes

255. Under the Dangerous Drug Act of 2002, a drug dependent

can be rehabilitated in a particular place. Which is the
proper place for the drug dependent?
a. centers b. hospitals c. house d.
prison

256. Can all registered physician or Board passers (PRC)

legally perform Autopsy without under going special
training?
a. possible b. no c. yes d. not
possible

257. In a criminal investigation, a firearm was found at the

crime scene. The firearm was placed in a container and
brought to the crime laboratory
a. to observe proper marking b. to avoid
contamination
c. to prevent change of evidence d. to preserve it