Biology 29 Years

NEET /AIPMT
(1988 Onwards)
Aligned as per Class 11 & 12 NCERT Books

Authentic Solutions
Fully Solved
Includes 2015 Rescheduled Paper
MCQs Divided
into 38 Topics
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(ii)
Index
Topic-wise AIPMT 2014, 2015 &
NEET Ph. I/ AIPMT 2016 Solved Papers B-1-44
1. The Living World 1-8
2. Biological Classification 9-29
3. Plant Kingdom 30-40
4. Animal Kingdom 41-56
5. Morphology of Flowering Plants 57-66
6. Anatomy of Flowering Plants 67-78
7. Structural Organisation in Animals 79-88
8. Cell: The Unit of Life 89-102
9. Biomolecules 103-114
10. Cell Cycle and Cell Division 115-120
11. Transport in Plants 121-128
12. Mineral Nutrition 129-134
13. Photosynthesis 135-144
14. Respiration in Plants 145-152
15. Plant Growth and Development 153-160
16. Digestion and Absorption 161-170
17. Breathing and Exchange of Gases 171-176
(iii)
18. Body Fluids and Circulation 177-188
19. Excretory Products and their Elimination 189-196
20. Locomotion and Movement 197-202
21. Neural Control and Coordination 203-210
22. Chemical Coordination and Regulation 211-222
23. Reproduction in Organisms 223-226
24. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 227-238
25. Human Reproduction 239-250
26. Reproductive Health 251-254
27. Heredity and Variation 255-282
28. Molecular Basis of Inheritance 283-298
29. Evolution 299-316
30. Health and Disease 317-330
31. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 331-342
32. Microbes in Human Welfare 343-346
33. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 347-352
34. Biotechnology and its Applications 353-358
35. Organisms and Environment 359-368
36. Ecosystem 369-378
37. Biodiversity and its Conservation 379-386
38. Environmental Issues 387-399
(iv)
Topic-wise AIPMT 2014 - 2016 Solved Papers
Chapter 1 : The Living World 7. Viruses have: [2014]

1. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal (a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
rules. Which one of the following is contrary to (b) Prokaryotic nucleus
the rules of nomenclature? [2016] (c) Single chromosome
(a) Biological names can be written in any (d) Both DNA and RNA
language 8. The motile bacteria are able to move by: [2014]
(b) The first word in a biological name (a) Fimbriae (b) Flagella
represents the genus name, and the second (c) Cilia (d) Pili
is a specific epithet 9. Which one one of the following matches is
(c) The names are written in Latin and are correct ? [2015 RS]
italicised
(d) When written by hand, the names are to Sexual
be underlined 1. Alternaria reproduction Deuteromycetes
2. It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill absent
than for a large animal, because [2016] Reproduction
(a) it is easier to carry a small body weight. 2. Mucor by Ascomycetes
(b) smaller animals have a higher metabolic Conjugation
rate. Parasitic
(c) small animals have a lower O2 requirement. 3. Agaricus Basidiomycetes
fungus
(d) the efficiency of muscles in large animals
is less than in the small animals. Aseptate
4. Phytophthora Basidiomycetes
mycelium
Chapter 2 : Biological Classification
10. True nucleus is absent in : [2015 RS]
3. Five kingdom system of classification suggested
(a) Mucor (b) Vaucheria
by R.H. Whittaker is not based on: [2014]
(a) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus. (c) Volvox (d) Anabaena
(b) Mode of reproduction. 11. Which of the following structures is not found
(c) Mode of nutrition. in a prokaryotic cell? [2015 RS]
(d) Complexity of body organisation. (a) Ribosome (b) Mesosome
4. Which one of the following fungi contains (c) Plasma membrane (d) Nuclear envelope
hallucinogens? [2014] 12. The imperfect fungi which are decomposer of
(a) Morchella esculenta litter and help in mineral cycling belong to:
(b) Amanita muscaria [2015 RS]
(c) Neurospora sp. (a) Basidiomycetes (b) Phycomycetes
(d) Ustilago sp. (c) Ascomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes
5. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in:[2014] 13. The structures that help some bacteria to attach
(a) Cell membrane to rocks and / or host tissues are: [2015 RS]
(b) Mode of nutrition (a) Fimbriae (b) Mesosomes
(c) Cell shape
(c) Holdfast (d) Rhizoids
(d) Mode of reproduction
14. Pick up the wrong statement [2015 RS]
6. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand
and capsomeres? [2014] (a) Prostista have photosynthetic and
(a) Polio virus heterotrophic modes of nutrition
(b) Tobacco masaic virus (b) Some fungi are edible
(c) Measles virus (c) Nuclear membrane is present Monera
(d) Retrovirus (d) Cell wall is absent in Animalia
B-2 AIPMT 2014-2016 SOLVED P APER - Biology
15. Which one is wrong statement ? [2015 RS] Chapter 3 : Plant Kingdom
(a) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores 23. Which one of the following shows isogamy with
(b) Haploid endosperm is typical feature of non-flagellated gametes? [2014]
gymnosperms (a) Sargassum (b) Ectocarpus
(c) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c and (c) Ulothrix (d) Spirogyra
fucoxanthin 24. Which one of the following is wrong about
(d) Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Chara? [2014]
Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms. (a) Upper oogonium an d lower round
antheridium.
16. In which group of organisms the cell walls form
(b) Globule and nucule present on the same
two thin overlapping shells which fit together?
plant.
[2015 RS] (c) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium.
(a) Euglenoids (b) Dinoflagellates (d) Globule is male reproductive structure.
(c) Slime moulds (d) Chrysophytes 25. Which of the following is responsible for peat
17. Choose the wrong statements: [2015 RS] formation? [2014]
(a) Neurospora is used in the study of (a) Marchanita (b) Riccia
biochemical genetics (c) Funaria (d) Sphagnum
(b) Morels and tr uffles ar e poisonoues 26. An alga which can be employed as food for
mushrooms human being is: [2014]
(c) Yeast is unicellular and useful in (a) Ulothrix (b) Chlorella
fermentation (c) Spirogyra (d) Polysiphonia
(d) Penicillium is multicellular and produces 27. In which of the following gametophyte is not
antibiotics independent free living ? [2015 RS]
18. Which of the following are most suitable (a) Marchantia (b) Pteris
indicators of SO2 pollution in the environment? (c) Pinus (d) Funaria
[2015 RS] 28. Read the following five statements (A to E) and
select the option with all correct statements :
(a) Conifers (b) Algae
[2015 RS]
(c) Fungi (d) Lichens
(A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms
19. Which of the following statements is wrong for to colonise a bare rock.
viroids? [2016] (B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte
(a) They lack a protein coat (C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM
(b) They are smaller than viruses (D) Main plant body in bryophytes is
(c) They cause infections gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it
(d) Their RNA is of high molecular weight is sporophytic
20. One of the major components of cell wall of most (E) In gymnosperms, male and female
fungi is [2016] gametophytes are present within sporangia
(a) Chitin (b) Peptidoglycan located on sporophyte
(c) Cellulose (d) Hemicellulose (a) (b), (c) and (d) (b) (a), (d) and (E)
21. Which one of the following statements is wrong? (c) (b), (c) and (E) (d) (a), (c) and (d)
[2016] 29. Male gemetes are flagellated in : [2015 RS]
(a) Anabaena (b) Ectocarpus
(a) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green
(c) Spirogyra (d) Polysiphonia
algae
30. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(b) Golden algae are also called desmids
[2015 RS]
(c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria (a) Agar - agar is obtained from Gelidium and
(d) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi Gracilaria
22. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and (b) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space
Slime moulds are included in the kingdom [2016] food
(a) Monera (b) Protista (c) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
(c) Fungi (d) Animalia (d) Algin and carragen are products of algae
AIPMT 2014-2016 SOLVED P APER - Biology B-3
31. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces: 40. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are
[2015 RS] joined by : [2015 RS]
(a) Single sperm and vegetative cell (a) Muscular tissue
(b) Single sperm and two vegetative cells (b) Arthrodial membrane
(c) Three sperms (c) Cartilage
(d) Two sperms and a vegetative cell (d) Cementing glue
32. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and 41. Which of the following represents the correct
megasporogenesis : [2015 RS] combination without any exception?[2015 RS]
(a) form gametes without further divisions Characteristics Class
(b) Involve meiosis (a) Mouth ventral, gills without Chondricht
(c) occur in ovule operculum; skin with placoid hyes
(d) occur in anther scales; persistent notochord
33. Select the correct statement :- [2016] (b) Sucking and circular mouth; jaws Cyclostom
(a) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and absent, integument without scales; ata
heterosporous paired appendages
(b) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are (c ) Body covered with feathers; skin
. Aves
gymnosperms moist and glandular; fore-limbs
(c) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees form wings; lungs with air sacs
(d) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well (d) Mammary gland; hair on body; Mammalia
adapted to extremes of climate pinnae; two pairs of Limbs
34. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of 42. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water
male gametes requires [2016] and whose ammocoetes larvae after
(a) Wind (b) Insects metamorphosis return to the ocean is:[2015 RS]
(c) Birds (d) Water (a) myxine (b) Neomyxine
Chapter 4 : Animal Kingdom (c) Petromyzon (d) Eptatretus
35. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both 43. Body having meshwork of cell, internal cavities
marine and fresh water species: [2014] lined with food filtering flagellated cells and
(a) Echinoderms (b) Ctenophora indirect development are the characteristics of
phylum. [2015 RS]
(c) Cephalochordata (d) Cnidaria
(a) Porifera (b) Mollusca
36. Which one of the following living organisms
(c) Protozoa (d) Coelenterate
completely lacks a cell wall? [2014]
44. Which of the following featrues is not present
(a) Cyanobacteria
in the Phylum - Arthropoda ? [2016]
(b) Sea – fan(Gorgonia)
(a) Chitinous exoskeleton
(c) Saccharomyces
(b) Metameric segmentation
(d) Blue–green algae
(c) Parapodia
37. Planaria possesses high capacity of: [2014]
(d) Jointed appendages
(a) Metamorphosis
45. Which of the following characteristic features
(b) Regeneration
always holds true for the corresponding group
(c) Alternation of generation of animals? [2016]
(d) Bioluminescence (a) Cartilaginous Chondrichthyes
38. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce endoskeleton
electric current is: [2014] (b) Viviparous Mammalia
(a) Pristis (b) Torpedo (c) Possess a mouth Chordata
(c) Trygon (d) Scoliodon with an upper and
39. Which of the following animals is not viviparous? a lower jaw
[2015 RS] (d) 3 - chambered heart Reptilia
(a) Elephant (b) Platypus with one incompletely
(c) Whale (d) Flying fox (Bat) divided ventricle
46. Which one of the following characteristics is 57. Among china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato,
not shared by birds and mammals ? [2016] guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how many
(a) Ossified endoskeleton plants have superior ovary? [2015 RS]
(b) Breathing using lungs (a) Six (b) Three
(c) Viviparity (c) Four (d) Five
(d) Warm blooded nature 58. Coconut water from a tender coconut is
Chapter 5 : Morphology of Flowering Plants [2015 RS]
47. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions (a) Free nuclear endosperm
in: [2014] (b) Innermost layers of the seed coar
(a) Apple (b) Banana (c) Degenerated nucellus
(c) Tomato (d) Potato (d) Immature emryo
48. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap 59. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
one another without any particular direction, the matched? [2015 RS]
condition is termed as: [2014] Mode of reproduction Example
(a) Vexillary (b) Imbricate (a) Rhizome Banana
(c) Twisted (d) Valvate (b) Binary fission Sargassum
49. Which one of the following statements is (c) Conidia Penicillium
correct? [2014] (d) Offset Water hyacinth
(a) The seed in grasses is not endospermic. 60. Flowers are unisexual in: [2015 RS]
(b) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit. (a) Cucumber (b) China rose
(c) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present (c) Onion (d) Pea
in maize grain. 61. Which one of the following fruits is
(d) A sterile pistil is called a staminode. parthenocarpic? [2015 RS]
50. An example of edible underground stem is:[2014] (a) Apple (b) Jackfruit
(a) Carrot (b) Groundnut (c) Banana (d) Brinjal
(c) Sweet potato (d) Potato 62. The wheat grain has an embryo with one, large,
51. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from: shield-shaped cotyledon known as: [2015 RS]
[2014]
(a) Coleorrhiza (b) Scutellum
(a) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
(c) Coleoptile (d) Epiblast
(b) Multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium
63. Axile placentation is present in [2015 RS]
(c) Complete inflorescence
(d) Multicarpellary superior ovary (a) Lemon (b) Pea
52. Leaves become modified into spines in :- (c) Argemone (d) Dianthus
(a) Pea (b) Onion [2015 RS] 64. The coconut water from tender coconut
(c) Silk Cotton (d) Opuntia represents [2016]
(a) endocarp
53. Å O K(5) C (5) A5 G (2) is the floral formula of (b) fleshy mesocarp
+
[2015 RS] (c) free nuclear proembryo
(a) Sesbania (b) Petunia (d) free nuclear endosperm
(c) Brassica (d) Allium 65. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla
54. Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of : is also called [2016]
[2015 RS] (a) Carina (b) Pappus
(a) Indigofera (b) Aloe (c) Vexillum (d) Corona
(c) Tomato (d) Tulip 66. Tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium is found
55. Perigynous flowers are found in :- [2015 RS] in flowers of [2016]
(a) Cucumber (b) China rose (a) Liliaceae (b) Solanaceae
(c) Rose (d) Guava (c) Fabaceae (d) Poaceae
56. In ginger vegetative propagation occurs 67. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached
through: [2015 RS] to the [2016]
(a) Offsets (b) Bulbils (a) Anther (b) Connective
(c) Runners (d) Rhizome (c) Placenta (d) Thalamus or petal
68. Which of the following is not a stem 77. Read the different components from (A) to (D)
modification? [2016] in the list given below and tell the correct order
(a) Pitcher of Nepenthes of the components with reference to their
(b) Thorns of citrus arrangement from outer side to inner side in a
(c) Tendrils of cucumber woody dicot stem. [2015 RS]
(d) Flattened structures of Opuntia (A) Secondary cortex
69. Cotyledon of maize grain is called [2016] (B) Wood
(a) plumule (b) coleorhiza (C) Secondary phloem
(c) coleoptile (d) scutellum (D) Phellem
70. Stems modified into flat green organs performing The correct order is:
the functions of leaves are known as [2016] (a) (A), (B), (D), (C) (b) (D), (A), (C), (B)
(a) Cladodes (b) Phyllodes (c) (D), (C), (A), (B) (d) (C), (D), (B), (A)
(c) Phylloclades (d) Scales
Chapter 7 : Structural Organisation in Animals
Chapter 6 : Anatomy of Flowering Plants
78. Choose the correctly matched pair: [2014]
71. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and (a) Tendon–Specialized connective tissue
a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical (b) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue
structures will you use to distinguish between (c) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue
the two? [2014] (d) Cartilage–Loose connective tissue
(a) Secondary xylem 79. Choose the correctly matched pair:- [2014]
(b) Secondary phloem (a) Inner lining of salivary ducts – Ciliated
(c) Protoxylem epithelim
(d) Cortical cells (b) Moist surface of buccal cavity – Glandular
72. Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements epithelium
in: [2014] (c) Tubular parts of nephrons – Cuboidal
(a) having casparian strips epithelium
(b) being imperforate (d) Inner surface of bronchioles – Squamous
(c) lacking nucleus
epithelium
(d) being lignified
80. Which of the following characteristics is mainly
73. Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of :
responsible for diversification of insects on land?
[2015 RS]
[2015 RS]
(a) Solid style (b) Dry stigma
(a) Bilateral symmetry (b) Exoskeleton
(c) Wet stigma (d) Hollow style
(c) Eyes (d) Segmentation
74. A major characteristic of the monocot root is the
81. The guts of cow and buffalo possess:[2015 RS]
presence of : [2015 RS]
(a) Chlorella spp. (b) Methanogens
(a) Scattered vascular bundles
(b) Vasculature without cambium (c) Cyanobacteria (d) Fucus spp.
(c) Cambium sandwiched between phloem and 82. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is
xylem along the radius formed by the polymerisation of: [2015 RS]
(d) Open vascular bundles (a) D-glucosamine
75. In a ring girdled plant: [2015 RS] (b) N-acetyl glucosamine
(a) The root dies first (c) lipoglycans
(b) The shoot and root die together (d) Keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
(c) Neither root nor shoot will die 83. Metagenesis refers to: [2015 RS]
(d) The shoot dies first (a) Alteration of generation between asexual
76. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are and sexual phases of an organisms
considered closed because: [2015 RS] (b) Occurrence of a drastic change in form
(a) Cambium is absent during post-embroyonic development
(b) There are no vessels with perforations (c) Presence of a segmented body and
(c) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
(d) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle (d) Presence of different morphic forms
84. The body cells in cockroach discharge their (A) (B) (C) (D)
nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in (a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
the form of : [2015 RS] (b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(a) Potassium urate (c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(b) Urea (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c) Calcium carbonate 92. DNA is not present in : [2015 RS]
(d) Ammonia (a) Ribosomes (b) Nucleus
85. Which one of the following animals has two (c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast
separate circulatory pathways?[2015 RS] 93. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of : [2015 RS]
(a) Lizard (b) Whale (a) Membrane of Golgi complex
(c) Shark (d) Frog (b) Microtubules
86. Which of the following features is not present (c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
in Periplaneta americana ? [2016] (d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(a) Schizocoelom as body cavity 94. Which one of the following is not an inclusion
(b) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during body found in prokaryotes ? [2015 RS]
embryonic development
(a) Cyanophycean granule
(c) Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucos-
(b) Glycogen granule
amine
(c) Polysome
(d) Metamerically segmented body
(d) Phosphate granule
87. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its
location ? [2016] 95. Select the correct matching in the following pairs:
Tissue Location [2015 RS]
(a) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine (a) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids
(b) Areolar tissue Tendons (b) Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen
(c) Transitional epithelium Tip nose (c) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids
(d) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of (d) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids
stomach 96. Which of the following are not membrane-
bound? [2015 RS]
Chapter 8 : Cell: The Unit of Life (a) Ribosomes (b) Lysosomes
88. Which structures perform the function of (c) Mesosomes (d) Vacuoles
mitochondria in bacteria? [2014] 97. The function of the gap junction is to [2015 RS]
(a) Nucleoid (b) Ribosomes (a) facilitate communication between adjoining
(c) Cell wall (d) Mesosomes cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid
89. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a transfer of ions, small molecules and some
diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of large molecules.
monomer are known as: [2014] (b) separate two cells from each other.
(a) Microtubules (c) stop substance from leading across a tissue
(b) Microfilaments (d) performing cementing to keep
(c) Intermediate filaments
neighbouring cells together
(d) Lamins
98. Identify the correct order of organisation of
90. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is
genetic material from largest to smallest :
chiefly regulated by: [2014]
(a) Mitochondria (b) Vacuoles [2015 RS]
(c) Plastids (d) Ribosomes (a) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
91. Match the following and select the correct (b) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
answer: [2014] (c) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
(a) Centriole (i) Infoldings in (d) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
mitochondria 99. A protoplast is a cell : [2015 RS]
(b) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids (a) without nucleus
(c) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids (b) undergoing division
(d) Ribozymes (iv) Basal body cilia or (c) without cell wall
fiagella (d) without plasma membrane
100. Balbiani rings are sites of : [2015 RS] 106. Microtubules are the constituents of [2016]
(a) Nucleotide synthesis (a) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
(b) Polysaccharide synthesis (b) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
(c) RNA and protein synthesis (c) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin
(d) Lipid synthesis (d) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
101. Match the columns and identify the correct 107. Which one of the following cell organelles is
option. [2015 RS] enclosed by a single membrane ? [2016]
Column-I Column-II (a) Mitochondria
(a) Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in (b) Chloroplasts
Golgi apparatus (c) Lysosomes
(b) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure (d) Nuclei
of DNA Chapter 9 : Biomolecules
(c) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs
108. Select the option which is not correct with
in stroma
respect to enzyme action: [2014]
(d) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in
(a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site.
mitochondria
(b) Addition of lot of succinate does not
(a) (b) (c) (d)
reverse the inhibition of succinic
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
dehydrogenase by malonate.
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
enzyme at a site distinct from that which
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
binds the substrate.
102. Cellular organelles with membranes are : [2015 RS]
(d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of
(a) chormosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic
succinic dehydrogenase.
reticulum
109. Which one of the following is a non - reducing
(b) endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei carbohydrate? [2014]
(c) lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria (a) Maltose
(d) nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria (b) Sucrose
103. Satellite DNA is important because it : [2015 RS] (c) Lactose
(a) shows high degree of polymorphism in (d) Ribose 5 - phosphate
population and also the same degree of 110. Which one of the following statements in
polymorphism in an individual, which is incorrect? [2015 RS]
heritable from parents to children. (a) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor
(b) does not code for proteins and is same in molecule is not chemically changed by the
all members of the population enzyme.
(c) codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication (b) The competitive inhibitor does not affect
(d) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle. the rate of breakdown of the enzyme-
104. Cell wall is absent in : [2015 RS] substrate complex.
(a) Funaria (b) Mycoplasma (c) The presence of the competitive inhibitor
(c) Nostoc (d) Aspergillus decreases the Km of the enzyme for the
105. Mitochondria and chloroplast are [2016] substrate.
(a) semi-autonomous organelles (d) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly
(b) formed by division of pr e-existing with the enzyme to form an enzyme-
organelles and they contain DNA but lack inhibitor complex.
protein synthesizing machinery 111. Which of the following biomolecules does have
Which one of the following options is correct ? phosphodiester bond ? [2015 RS]
(a) Both (a) and (b) are correct (a) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
(b) (b) is true but (a) is false (b) Amino acids in a polypeptide
(c) (a) is true but (b) is false (c) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
(d) Both (a) and (b) are false (d) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
112. The enzyme that is not present in succus 120. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle: [2014]
entericus is : [2015 RS] (a) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell.
(a) nucleases (b) nucleosidase (b) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell.
(c) lipase (d) maltase (c) Chromosome number is increased.
113. The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves: (d) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each
[2015 RS] cell.
(a) Altering the pH of the soil, then heat 121. The enzyme recombinase is required at which
shocking the plants stage of meiosis: [2014]
(b) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period (a) Pachytene (b) Zygotene
(c) Allowing the plant roots to stand in water (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
(d) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium 122. Select the correct option : [2015 RS]
tumefaciens I II
114. The two polypeptides of human insulin are A Synapsis aligns (i) Anaphase-II
linked together by [2016] homologous chromosomes
(a) hydrogen bonds B Synthesis of RNA and (ii) Zygotene
(b) phosphodiester bond protein
(c) covalent bond C Action of enzyme (iii) G2-phase
(d) disulphide bridges recombinase
115. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) D Centromeres do not (iv) Anaphase-I
separate but chromatids
for the expression of Lac operon ? [2016]
move towards opposite
(a) Glucose poles
(b) Galactose
(v) Pachytene
(c) Lactose
(d) Lactose and galactose A B C D
116. The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for (a) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
the synthesis of [2016] (b) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
(a) Melatonin and Serotonin (c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(b) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine (d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(c) Estrogen and Progesterone 123. A somatic cell that has just completed the S
(d) Cortisol and Cortisone phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of
117. Which one of the following statements is wrong? the same species, has : [2015 RS]
[2016] (a) same number of chromosomes but twice
(a) Sucrose is a disaccharide. the amount of DNA
(b) Cellulose is a polysaccharide. (b) twice the number of chromosomes and four
(c) Uracil is a pyrimidine. times the amount of DNA
(d) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid. (c) four times the number of chromosomes and
118. A typical fat molecule is made up of [2016] twice the amount of DNA
(a) three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid (d) twice the number of chromosomes and
molecule twice the amount of DNA
(b) one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules 124. Choose the correct option for the following
(c) one glycerol and one fatty acid molecule events of meiosis in correct sequence:
(d) three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules (A) Crossing over [2015 RS]
(B) Synapsis
Chapter 10 : Cell Cycle and Cell Division (C) Terminalisation of chiasmata
119. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of (D) Disappearance of nucleolus
DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial (a) B ® A ® C ® D
amount is denoted as 2C? [2014] (b) A ® B ® C ® D
(a) G0 and G1 (b) G1 and S (c) A ® B ® D ® C
(c) Only G2 (d) G2 and M (d) D ® C ® B ® A
125. In human females, meiosis-II is not complete 134. Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf
until? [2015 RS] through the stomatal opening. Through the same
(a) fertilization stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into
(b) uterine implantation the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out
(c) birth the above statements using one of following
(d) puberty options [2016]
126. Spindle fibres attach on to [2016] (a) Both processes cannot h appen
(a) Telomere of the chromosome simultaneously.
(b) Kinetochore of the chromosome (b) Both processes can happen together
(c) Centromere of the chromosome because the diffusion coefficient of water
(d) Kinetosome of the chromosome and CO2 is different.
127. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at [2016] (c) The above processes happen only during
(a) Pachytene (b) Leptotene night time.
(c) Zygotene (d) Diplotene (d) One process occurs during day time, and
128. Which of the following statements is not true the other at night.
for cancer cells in relation to mutations ? [2016]
Chapter 12 : Mineral Nutrition
(a) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate
the cell cycle. 135. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium
(b) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor. are visible first in: [2014]
(c) Mutations inactive the cell control. (a) Senescent leaves (b) Young leaves
(d) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase. (c) Roots (d) Buds
129. Which of the following is not a characteristic 136. Minerals known to be required in large amounts
feature during mitosis in somatic cells ? [2016] for plant growth include : [2015 RS]
(a) Spindle fibres (a) calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper
(b) Disappearance of nucleolus (b) potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron
(c) Chromosome movement (c) magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc
(d) Synapsis (d) phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium
137. Which one gives the most valid and recent
Chapter 11 : Transport in Plants explanation for stomatal movements ? [2015 RS]
130. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to (a) Potassium influx and efflux
rise in plants by : [2015 RS] (b) Starch hydrolysis
(a) Pulling and pushing it, respectively (c) Guard cell photosynthesis
(b) Pushing it upward (d) Transpiration
(c) Pushing and pulling it, respectively 138. In which of the following, all three are
(d) Pushing it upward macronutrients? [2016]
131. A column of water within xylem vessels of tall (a) Boron, zinc, manganese
trees does not break under its weight because of: (b) Iron, copper, molybdenum
(a) Tensile strength of water [2015 RS] (c) Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
(b) Lignification of xylem vessels (d) Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus
(c) Positive root pressure
(d) Dissolved sugars in water Chapter 13 : Photosynthesis
132. Root pressure develops due to : [2015 RS] 139. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of:
(a) Low osmotic potential in soil [2014]
(b) Passive absorption (a) Rhodospirillum (b) Spirogyra
(c) Increase in transpiration (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Ulva
(d) Active absorption 140. The structures that are formed by stacking of
133. Roots play insignificant role in absorption of organized flattened membranous sacs in the
water in : [2015 RS] chloroplasts are : [2015 RS]
(a) Pistia (b) Pea (a) Grana (b) Stroma lamellae
(c) Wheat (d) Sunflower (c) Stroma (d) Cristae
141. Chromatophores take part in: [2015 RS] (c) Alcoholic fermentation
(a) Growth (b) Movement (d) Lactate fermentation
(c) Respiration (d) Photosynthesis 149. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the
142. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis guard cells are called [2016]
comes from water molecules. Which one of the (a) Complementary cells
following pairs of elements is involved in this (b) Subsidiary cells
reaction? [2015 RS] (c) Bulliform cells
(a) Manganese and Potassium (d) Lenticels
(b) Magnesium and Molybdenum Chapter 15 : Plant Growth and Development
(c) Magnesium and Chlorine
150. Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were
(d) Manganese and Chlorine
removed and placed on agar for one hour, the
143. In photosynthesis the light-independent agar would produce a bending when placed on
reactions take place at : [2015 RS] one side of freshly-cut coleoptile stumps. Of
(a) Photosystem-I what significance is this experiment? [2014]
(b) Photosystem-II (a) It made possible the isolation and exact
(c) Stromal matrix identification of auxin.
(d) Thylakoid lumen (b) It is the basis for quantitative determination
144. Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop of small amounts of growth-promoting
have been instrumental in the discovery of [2016] substances.
(a) photophosphorylation and non-cyclic (c) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin.
electron transport (d) It demonstrated polar movement of auxins.
(b) two photosystems operating 151. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a
simultaneously dark room. After a few days they were found to
(c) photophosphorylation and cyclic electron have become white-coloured like albinos. Which
transport of the following terms will you use to describe
(d) oxidative phosphorylation them? [2014]
145. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons (a) Mutated (b) Embolised
are found in [2016] (c) Etiolated (d) Defoliated
(a) stroma 152. Which one of the following growth regulators is
(b) lumen of thylakoids known as 'stress hormone'? [2014]
(c) inter membrane space (a) Abscissic acid (b) Ethylene
(d) antennae complex (c) GA3 (d) Indole acetic acid
146. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell 153. Non-albuminous seed is produced in: [2014]
vacuoles are [2016] (a) Maize (b) Castor
(a) Xanthophylls (b) Chlorophylls (c) Wheat (d) Pea
(c) Carotenoids (d) Anthocyanins 154. Typical growth curve in plants is : [2015 RS]
147. A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory (a) Linear
losses, has improved water use efficiency shows (b) Stair-steps shaped
high rates of photosynthesis at high (c) Parabolic
temperatures and has improved efficiency of (d) Sigmoid
nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following 155. What causes a green plant exposed to the light
physiological groups would you assign this on only one side, to bend toward the source of
plant? [2016] light as it grows ? [2015 RS]
(a) C3 (b) C4 (a) Green plants seek light because they are
(c) CAM (d) Nitrogen fixer phototropic
(b) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side
Chapter 14 : Respiration in Plants to grow faster
148. In which one of the following processes CO2 in (c) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side,
not released? [2014] stimulating greater cell elongation there.
(a) Aerobic respiration in plants (d) Green plants need light to perform
(b) Aerobic respiration in animals photosynthesis
156. Auxin can be bioassayed by : [2015 RS] Chapter 17 : Breathing and Exchange of Gases
(a) Hydroponics 165. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-
(b) Potometer dioxide absorbed by the blood will be
(c) Lettuce hypocotyl elongation transported to the lungs: [2014]
(d) Avena coleoptile curvature (a) as bicarbonate ions
157. The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of : (b) in the form of dissolved gas molecules
(a) ABA (b) GA3 [2016] (c) by binding to R.B.C.
(c) IAA (d) Ethylene (d) as carbamino - haemoglobin
166. Cytochromes are found in : [2015 RS]
Chapter 16 : Digestion and Absorption
(a) Outer wall of mitochondria
158. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans (b) Cristae of mitochondria
is carried out by [2014] (c) Lysosomes
(a) Lipase (b) Trypsin (d) Matrix of mitochondria
(c) Rennin (d) Pepsin 167. When you hold your breath, which of the
159. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through following gas changes in blood would first lead
mucosa cells of intestine by the process called: to the urge to breathe? [2015 RS]
(a) active transport [2014] (a) rising CO2 concentration
(b) facilitated transport (b) falling CO2 concentration
(c) simple diffusion (c) rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration
(d) co-transport mechanism (d) falling O2 concentration
160. Which of the following statements is not 168. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar
correct? [2015 RS] surface area involved in gas exchange is
(a) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar
intestine and secrete mucus walls. [2015 RS]
(b) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of (a) Emphysema (b) Pneumonia
stomach and secrete HCl. (c) Asthma (d) Pleurisy
(c) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete 169. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused
carboxypeptidase mainly by cigarette smoking [2016]
(d) Brunner's glands are present in the (a) emphysema
submucosa of stomach an d secr ete (b) asthma
pepsinogen (c) respiratory acidosis
161. Gastric juice of infants contains : [2015 RS] (d) respiratory alkalosis
(a) nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase Chapter 18 : Body Fluids and Circulation
(b) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin 170. Person with blood group AB is considered as
(c) amylase, rennin, pepsinogen universal recipient because he has: [2014]
(d) maltase, pepsinogen, rennin (a) both A and B antigens on RBC but no
162. The primary dentition in human differs from antibodies in the plasma.
permanent dentition in not having one of the (b) both A and B antibodies in the plasma.
following type of teeth : [2015 RS] (c) no antigen on RBC and no antibody in the
(a) Premolars (b) Molars plasma.
(c) Incisors (d) Canine (d) both A and B antigens in the plasma but no
163. In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the antibodies.
(a) gastrin secreting cells [2016] 171. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect
(b) parietal cells the working of the heart? [2014]
(c) peptic cells (a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output.
(d) acidic cells (b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the
164. Which of the following guards the opening of cardiac output.
hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum ? [2016] (c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase.
(a) Semilunar valve (b) Ileocaecal valve (d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output
(c) Pyloric sphincter (d) Sphincter of Oddi increases.
172. Which one of the following is correct ?[2015 RS] 180. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the
(a) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen nephron will result in: [2015 RS]
(b) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC (a) More concentrated urine
(c) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC (b) No change in quality and quantity of urine
(d) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes (c) No urine formation
173. Erythropoiesis starts in : [2015 RS] (d) More diluted urine
(a) Liver (b) Spleen 181. Human urine is usually acidic because : [2015 RS]
(c) Red bone marrow (d) Kidney (a) excreted plasma proteins are acidic
174. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is (b) potassium and sodium exchange generates
maximum during : [2015 RS] acidity
(a) Diastole of the right ventricle (c) hydrogen ions are actively secreted into
(b) Systole of the left ventricle the filtrate.
(c) Diastole of the right atrium (d) the sodium transporter exchanges one
(d) Systole of the left atrium hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in
175. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds peritubular capillaries.
produced during each cardiac cycle. The second 182. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally
sound is heard when: [2015 RS] carry largest amount of urea ? [2016]
(a) Ventricular wall vibrate due to gushing in (a) Renal Vein (b) Dorsal Aorta
of blood from atria (c) Hepatic Vein (d) Hepatic Portal Vein
(b) Semilunar valves close down after the
Chapter 20 : Locomotion and Movement
blood flows into vessels from ventricles
(c) AV node receives signal from SA node 183. Select the correct matching of the type of the
(d) AV valves open up joint with the example in human skeletal system:
176. Reduction in pH of blood will [2016] [2014]
(a) reduce the rate of heart beat. Type of joint Example
(b) reduce the blood supply to the brain. (a) Cartilaginous joint between frontal and
(c) decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with pariental
oxygen. (b) Pivot joint between third and
(d) release bicarbonate ions by the liver. fourth cervical vertebrae
177. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is [2016] (c) Hinge joint between humerus
(a) same as that in the aorta.
and pectoral girdle
(b) more than that in the carotid.
(d) Gliding joint between carpals
(c) more than that in the pulmonary vein.
184. Sliding filament theory can be best explained as:
(d) less than that in the venae cavae.
[2015 RS]
Chapter 19 : Excretory Products and (a) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and
their Elimination slide pass each other
178. Which of the following causes an increase in (b) Actin and Myosin filaments do not shorten
sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted but rather slide pass each other
tubule? [2014] (c) When myofilaments slide pass each other,
(a) Increase in aldosterone levels Myosin filaments shorten while Actin
(b) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels filaments do not shorten
(c) Decrease in aldosterone levels (d) When myofilaments slide pass each other
(d) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels Actin filaments shorten while Myosin
179. Which of the following does not favour the filament do not shorten
formation of large quantities of dilute urine? 185. Glenoid cavity articulates : [2015 RS]
(a) Caffeine [2015 RS] (a) Scapula with acromion
(b) Renin (b) Clavicle with scapula
(c) Atrial-natriuretic factor (c) Humerus with scapula
(d) Alcohol (d) Clavicle with acromion
186. Which of the following joints would allow no (b) Corpus callosum – communication between
movement? [2015 RS] the left and right cerebral cortices
(a) Cartilaginoius joint (c) Cerebrum – calculation and contemplation
(b) Synovial joint (d) Medulla oblongata – homeostatic control
(c) Ball and Socket joint 194. In mammalian eye, the 'fovea' is the center of the
(d) Fibrous joint visual field, where: [2015 RS]
187. Which of the following is not a function of the (a) the optic nerve leaves the eye
skeletal system? [2015 RS] (b) only rods are present
(a) Storage of minerals (c) more rods than cones are found
(b) Production of body heat (d) high density of cones occur, but has no rods.
(c) Locomotion 195. Destruction of the anterior horn cell of the spinal
(d) Production of erythrocytes cord would result in loss of : [2015 RS]
188. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in (a) voluntary motor impulses
sustained muscle contraction is known as [2016] (b) commissural impulses
(a) Spasm (b) Fatigue (c) integrating impulses
(c) Tetanus (d) Tonus (d) sensory impulses
196. Photosensitive compound in human eye is made
Chapter 21 : Neural Control and Coordination
up of [2016]
189. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron (a) Guanosine and Retinol
occurs at: [2014] (b) Opsin and Retinal
(a) the neuromuscular junction (c) Opsin and Retinol
(b) the transverse tubules (d) Transducin and Retinene
(c) the myofibril
(d) the sacroplasmic reticulum Chapter 22 : Chemical Coordination and
190. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most Regulation
likely disrupt: [2014] 197. Identify the hormone with its correct matching
(a) short - term memory. of source and function: [2014]
(b) co-ordination during locomotion. (a) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and
(c) executive functions, such as decision maintenance of mammary glands.
making. (b) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the
(d) regulation of body temperature. normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle.
191. Which one of the following statements is not (c) Progesterone - corpus-luteum, stimulatiuon
correct? [2014] of growth and activities of female secondary
(a) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of sex organs.
visual photo pigments. (d) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall
(b) In retina the rods have the photopigment increases the blood pressure.
rhodopsin while cones have three different 198. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of:
photopigments. [2014]
(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C. (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to
(d) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein increased metabolic rate.
present in rods only. (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of
192. A gymnast is able to balance his body upside reninangiotensin-aldosterone pathway.
down even in the total darkness because of : (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased
(a) Vestibular apparatus [2015 RS] secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrene.
(b) Tectorial membrane (d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the
(c) Organ of corti blood sugar levels.
(d) Cochlea 199. A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural
193. Which of the following regions of the brain is roles is ? [2015 RS]
incorrectly paired with its function? [2015 RS] (a) Calcitonin (b) Epinephrine
(a) Cerebellum – language comprehension (c) Cortisol (d) Melatonin
200. Which one of the following hormones is not (b) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from
involved in sugar metabolism ? [2015 RS] the same flower.
(a) Aldosterone (c) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a
(b) Insulin flower of another plant in the same
(c) Glucagon population.
(d) Cortisone (d) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a
201. Which one of the following hormones though flower of another plant belonging to a
synthesised elsewhere is stored and released distant population.
by the master gland ? [2015 RS] 207. Male gametopyte with least number of cell is
(a) Luteinizing hormone present in: [2014]
(b) Prolactin (a) Pteris (b) Funaria
(c) Melanocyte stimulating hormone (c) Lilium (d) Pinus
(d) Antidiuretic hormone 208. Function of filiform apparatus is to: [2014]
202. Which of the following pairs of hormones are (a) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to (b) Stimulate division of generative cell
each other? [2016] (c) Produce nectar
(a) Parathormone – Calcitonin (d) Guide the entry of pollen tube
(b) Insulin – Glucagon 209. Which one of the following may require
(c) Aldosterone – Atrial Natriuretic pollinators, but is genetically similar to
Factor autogamy? [2015 RS]
(d) Relaxin – Inhibin (a) Xenogamy (b) Apogamy
203. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is (c) Cleistogamy (d) Geitonogamy
controlled by circulating levels of [2016] 210. Which one of the following statements is not
(a) estrogen and progesterone true? [2015 RS]
(b) estrogen and inhibin (a) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe
(c) progesterone only allergies and bronchial afflictions in some
(d) progesterone and inhibin people
204. Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin' [2016] (b) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats
(a) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and secrete foul odour to attract them
Prolactin. (c) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen
(b) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary collected from flowers
and inhibits the secretion of FSH. (d) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they
(c) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary are used in the form of tablets and syrups
and inhibits the secretion of LH. 211. The hilum is a scar on the : [2015 RS]
(d) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and (a) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel
inhibits the secretion of LH. (b) Fruit, where style was present
(c) Seed, where micropyle was present
Chapter 23 : Reproduction in Organisms
(d) Seed, where funicle was attached
205. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering 212. Which of the following are the important floral
plants involves the process of :- [2016] rewards to the animal pollinators? [2015 RS]
(a) Sporulation (a) Nectar and pollen grains
(b) Budding (b) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
(c) Somatic hybridization (c) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates
(d) Apomixis (d) Colour and large size flower
Chapter 24 : Sexual Reproduction in 213. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of:
Flowering Plants [2015 RS]
206. Geitonogamy involves: [2014] (a) Nucellar embryo
(a) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from (b) Aleurone cell
another flower of the same plant. (c) Synergids
(d) Generative cell
214. Which one of the following statements is not (c) Release of prolactin
true? [2016] (d) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(a) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther 220. Capacitation refers to changes in the : [2015 RS]
(b) Exine of pollen grains is made up of (a) Ovum before fertilization
sporopollenin (b) Ovum after fertilization
(c) Pollen grains of many species cause (c) Sperm after fertilization
severe allergies (d) Sperm before fertilization
(d) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be 221. Which of the following cells during
used in the crop breeding programmes gametogenesis is normally dipoid? [2015 RS]
215. Which of the following statements is not (a) Spermatid
correct? [2016] (b) Spermatogonia
(a) Pollen grains of many species can (c) Secondary polar body
germinate on the stigma of a flower, but (d) Primary polar body
only one pollen tube of the same species 222. Which of the following events is not associated
grows into the style. with ovulation in human female? [2015 RS]
(b) Insects that consume pollen or nectar (a) Full development of Graffin follicle
without bringing about pollination are (b) Release of secondary oocyte
called pollen/nectar robbers. (c) LH surge
(c) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth (d) Decrease in estradiol
are regulated by chemical components of 223. A childless couple can be assisted to have a
pollen interacting with those of the pistil. child through a technique called GIFT. The full
(d) Some reptiles have also been reported as form of this technique is : [2015 RS]
pollinators in some plant species. (a) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(b) Gamete internal fertillization and transfer
Chapter 25 : Human Reproduction
(c) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
216. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and (d) Gemete inseminated fallopian transfer
urinary system in the human male is: [2014] 224. Which of the following layers in an antral follicle
(a) Urethra (b) Ureter is acelluar ? [2015 RS]
(c) Vas deferens (d) Vasa efferentia (a) Theca interna (b) Stroma
217. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum (c) Zona pellucida (d) Granulosa
is to produce: [2014] 225. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only
(a) estrogen only if [2016]
(b) progesterone (a) the sperms are transported into vagina just
(c) human chorionic gonadotropin after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
(d) relaxin only (b) the ovum and sperms are transported
218. Select the corr ect option describing simultaneously to ampullary isthmic
gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant junction of the fallopian tube
female: [2014] (c) the ovum and sperms are transported
(a) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic
thickening of endometrium. junction of the cervix
(b) High level of FSH and LH facilitate (d) the sperms are transported into cervix
implantation of the embryo. within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
(c) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis 226. Select the incorrect statement : [2016]
of estrogen and progesterone. (a) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help
(d) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening in spermiogenesis
of endometrium. (b) LH triggers ovulation in ovary
219. Which of these is not an important component (c) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the
of initiation of parturition in humans ? [2015 RS] follicular phase
(a) Synthesis of prostaglandins (d) LH triggers secretion of androgens from
(b) Release of oxytocin the Leydig cells
Chapter 26 : Reproductive Health (c) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry of
227. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which: contraceptives sperms, prevent
ovulation and
[2014]
fertilization
(a) small part of the fallopian tube is removed
(d) Vasectomy Prevents
or tied up. spermatogenesis
(b) ovaries are removed surgically.
(c) small part of vas deferens is removed or Chapter 27 : Heredity and Variation
tied up. 234. Fruit colour in squash in an example of: [2014]
(d) uterus is removed surgically. (a) Recessive epistasis
228. Which of the following is a hormone releasing (b) Dominant epistasis
Intra Uterine Device (IUD)? [2014] (c) Complementary genes
(a) Multiload 375 (b) LNG - 20 (d) Inhibitory genes
235. A man whose father was colour blind marries a
(c) Cervical cap (d) Vault
woman who had a colour blind mother and
229. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves normal father. What percentage of male children
transfer of: [2014] of this couple will be colour blind? [2014]
(a) Ovum into the fallopian tube. (a) 25% (b) 0%
(b) Zygote into the fallopian tube. (c) 50% (d) 75%
(c) Zygote into the uterus. 236. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong
(d) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining
fallopian tube. 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of
230. Hysteresctomy is surgical removal of : [2015 RS] allele A in the population is: [2014]
(a) Prostate gland (a) 0.4 (b) 0.5
(b) Vas-deference (c) 0.6 (d) 0.7
(c) Mammary glands 237. A human female with Turner’s syndrome: [2014]
(a) has 45 chromosomes with XO.
(d) Uterus
(b) has one additional X chromosome.
231. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as: [2015 RS]
(c) exhibits male characters.
(a) Implantation of embryo at site other than (d) is able to produce children with normal
uterus. husband.
(b) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus 238. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea
(c) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal plan ts were studied by Mendel in his
imbalance. experiments ? [2015 RS]
(d) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality. (a) Six (b) Eight
232. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the (c) Seven (d) Five
following statement is incorrect ? [2016] 239. Which is the most common mechanism of genetic
(a) It is usually done when a woman is variation in the population of sexually
between 14-16 weeks pregnant. reproducing organism? [2015 RS]
(b) It is used for prenatal sex determination (a) Chromosomal aberrations
(b) Genetic drift
(c) It can be used for detection of Down
(c) Recombination
syndrome
(d) Transduction
(d) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate 240. Alleles are : [2015 RS]
233. Which of the following approaches does not (a) true breeding homozygotes
give the defined action of contraceptive ? [2016] (b) different molecular forms of a gene
(a) Barrier methods prevent fertilization (c) heterozygotes
(b) Intra uterine Increase phagocytosis (d) different phenotype
devices of sperms, suppress 241. In his classic experiments on sea plants, Mendel
sperm motility and did not use [2015 RS]
fertilizing capacity of (a) Pod length (b) Seed shape
sperms (c) Flower position (d) Seed colour
242. In the following human pedigree, the filled (c) 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf
symbols represent the affected individuals. (d) 3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall
Identify the type of given pedigree. [2015 RS] 247. Match the terms in Column-I with their
description in Column-II and choose the correct
option : [2016]
Column-I Column-II
(A) Dominance (i)
Many genes govern
a single character
(B) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous
organism only one
allele expresses itself
(C) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous
(a) X- linked recessive organism both alleles
(b) Autosomal recessive express themselves
(c) X-linked dominant fully
(d) Autosomal dominant (D) Polygenic (iv) A single gene
243. A colour blind man marries a woman with normal inheritance influences many
sight who has no history of colour blindness in characters
her family.
What is the probability of their grandson being (A) (B) (C) (D)
colour blind ? [2015 RS] (a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(a) 1 (b) Nil (b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) 0.25 (d) 0.5 (c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
244. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
are : [2015 RS] 248. Pick out the correct statements : [2016]
(a) an alogous str uctur es and represent (a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
convergent evolution disease
(b) phylogenetic structures and represent (b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy
divergent evolution (c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
(c) homologous structures and represent gene disorder.
convergent evolution (d) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive
(d) homologous structures and represent gene disorder
divergent evolution (a) (a) and (d) are correct
245. Which of the following most appropriately (b) (b) and (d) are correct
describes haemophilia ? [2016] (c) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(a) Recessive gene disorder (d) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(b) X - linked recessive gene disorder 249. In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more
parental-type offspring were produced than the
(c) Chromosomal disorder
recombinant-type offspring. This indicates
(d) Dominant gene disorder
[2016]
246. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed
(a) the two genes are located on two different
with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant.
chromosomes.
When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting
(b) chromosomes failed to separate during
genotypes were in the ratio of [2016]
meiosis.
(a) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall
(c) the two genes are linked and present on
heterozygous : Dwarf
the same chromosome.
(b) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall heterozygous : Tall (d) both of the characters are controlled by
homozygous : Dwarf more than one gene.
250. A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student 256. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded,
in a plant brought from the field. He tells his 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine.
teacher that this cell is not like other cells at The percentages of the other three bases expected
telophase stage. There is no formation of cell to be present in this DNA are :- [2015 RS]
plate and thus the cell is containing more number (a) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
of chromosomes as compared to other dividing (b) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
cells. This would result in [2016] (c) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(a) Aneuploidy (d) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
(b) Polyploidy 257. The movement of a gene from one linkage group
(c) Somaclonal variation to another is called : [2015 RS]
(d) Polyteny (a) Duplication (b) Translocation
(c) Crossing over (d) Inversion
Chapter 28 : Molecular Basis of Inheritance 258. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of
251. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is :
[2014] [2015 RS]
(a) Transcription – Writing information from (a) Negative and inducible because repressor
DNA to tRNA. protein prevents transcription
(b) Translation – Using information in mRNA (b) Negative and repressible because repressor
to make protein protein prevents transcription
(c) Repressor protein – Binds to operator to (c) Feedback inhibition because excess of b-
stop enzyme synthesis. galactosidase can switch off trascription
(d) Operon – Structural genes, operator and (d) Positive and inducible because it can be
promoter. induced by lactose
252. Transformation was discovered by: [2014] 259. The chromosomes in which centromere is
(a) Meselson and Stahl situated close to one end are: [2015 RS]
(b) Hershey and Chase (a) Acrocentric (b) Telocentric
(c) Griffith (c) Sub-metacentric (d) Metacentric
(d) Watson and Crick 260. Multiple alleles are present : [2015 RS]
253. Select the correct option: [2014] (a) At different loci on the same chromosome
(b) At the same locus of the chromosome
Direction of RNA Direction of reading of
(c) On non-sister chromatids
synthesis the template DNA strand (d) On different chromosomes
(a) 5´—3´ 3´—5´ 261. An abnormal human baby with 'XXX' sex
(b) 3´—5´ 5´—3´ chromosomes was born due to : [2015 RS]
(c) 5´—3´ 5´—3´ (a) formation of abnormal ova in the mother
(d) 3´—5´ 3´—5´ (b) fusion of two ova and one sperm
254. Commonly used vectors for human genome (c) fusion of two sperms and one ovum
(d) formation of abnormal sperms in the father
sequencing are: [2014]
262. Which one of the following is not applicable to
(a) T-DNA
RNA? [2015 RS]
(b) BAC and YAC
(a) 5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends
(c) Expression Vectors
(b) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
(d) T/A Cloning Vectors
(c) Chargaff's rule
255. A man with blood group 'A' marries a woman
(d) Complementary base pairing
with blood group 'B'. What are all the possible
263. A pleiotropic gene: [2015 RS]
blood groups of their offsprings ? [2015 RS] (a) is a gene evolved during Pliocene.
(a) A,B and AB only (b) controls a trait only in combination with
(b) A,B,AB and O another gene
(c) O only (c) controls multiple traits in an individual.
(d) A and B only (d) is expressed only in primitive plants
264. A gene showing codominance has: [2015 RS] 273. Following are the two statements regarding the
(a) alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome origin of life [2016]
(b) alleles that are recessive to each other (a) The earliest organisms that appeared on
(c) both alleles independently expressed in the the earth were non-green and presumably
heterozygote anaerobes.
(d) one allele dominant on the other (b) The first autotrophic organisms were the
265. The term 'linkage' was coined by : [2015 RS] chemoautotrophs that never released
(a) T. Boveri (b) G. Mendel oxygen.
(c) W. Sutton (d) T.H. Morgan Of the above statements which one of the
266. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single following options is correct ?
strand of RNA is known as [2016] (a) (a) is correct but (b) is false.
(a) Polysome (b) Polymer (b) (b) is correct but (a) is false.
(c) Polypeptide (d) Okazaki fragment (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
267. Which of the following is not required for any of (d) Both (a) and (b) are false.
the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available 274. Analogous structures are a result of [2016]
at present ? [2016] (a) Divergent evolution
(a) Polymerase chain reaction (b) Convergent evolution
(b) Zinc finger analysis (c) Shared ancestry
(c) Restriction enzymes (d) Stabilizing selection
(d) DNA-DNA hybridization
268. Which one of the following is the starter codon? Chapter 30 : Health and Disease
(a) AUG (b) UGA [2016] 275. Which is the particular type of drug that is
(c) UAA (d) UAG obtained from the plant whose one flowering
Chapter 29 : Evolution branch is shown below? [2014]
269. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs
of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats
used in flying are an example of: [2014]
(a) Analogous organs
(b) Adaptive radiation
(c) Homologous organs
(d) Convergent evolution
270. Which one of the following are analogous (a) Hallucinogen (b) Depressant
structures? [2014] (c) Stimulant (d) Pain - killer
(a) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon. 276. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually
(b) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man. show symptoms of AIDS:- [2014]
(c) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of (a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
Cucurbita infected person.
(d) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse (b) When the infected retro virus enters host
271. Which of the following had the smallest brain cells.
capacity ? [2015 RS] (c) When HIV damages large number of helper
(a) Homo sapiens T-Lymphocytes.
(b) Homo neanderthalensis (d) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse
(c) Homo habilis transcriptase.
(d) Homo erectus 277. Which of the following is not a sexually
272. Which of the following structures is homologus transmitted disease ? [2015 RS]
to the wing of a bird ? [2016] (a) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(a) Dorsal fin of a Shark (AIDS)
(b) Wing of a Moth (b) Trichomoniasis
(c) Hind limb of Rabbit (c) Encephalitis
(d) Flipper of Whale (d) Syphilis
278. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying: 286. Select the wrong statements : [2015 RS]
(a) Leucocytes [2015 RS] (a) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could
(b) Helper T- Lymphocytes be crystallized
(c) Thrombocytes (b) The term 'contagium vivum fluidum' was
(d) B- Lymphocytes coined by M.W. Bejerinek
279. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds (c) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in
upon: [2015 RS] human being are caused by viruses
(a) mucosa and submucosa of colon only (d) The viroids were dicovered by D.J. Ivanowski
(b) food in intestine 287. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due
(c) blood only to : [2015 RS]
(d) erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon
(a) Cell-midiated immune response
280. Which of the following viruses is not transferred
(b) Passive immune response
through semen of an infected male? [2015 RS]
(c) Innate immune response
(a) Human immunodeficiency virus
(d) Humoral immune response
(b) Chikungunya virus
(c) Ebola virus 288. Asthma may be attributed to
(d) Hepatitis B virus (a) bacterial infection of the lungs.
281. Match each disease with its correct type of (b) allergic reaction of the mast cell in the lungs
vaccine: [2015 RS] (c) inflammation of the trachea
(A) tuberculosis (i) harmless virus (d) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
(B) whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin 289. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can
(C) diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this
(D) polio (iv) harmless bacteria property is lost due to genetic abnormality and
(A) (B) (C) (D) it attacks self-cells, then it leads to [2016]
(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (a) allergic response
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (b) graft rejection
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (c) auto-immune disease
(d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (d) active immunity
282. Which of the following endoparasites of humans
290. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by
does show viviparity ? [2015 RS]
Meloidogyne incognita ? [2016]
(a) Enterobius vermicularis
(a) Flower (b) Leaf
(b) Trichinella spiralis
(c) Stem (d) Root
(c) Ascaris lumbricoides
(d) Ancylostoma duodenale 291. Antivenom injection contains preformed
283. Which one of the following immunoglobulins antibodies while polio drops that are
does constitute the largest percentage in human administered into the body contain [2016]
milk? [2015 RS] (a) Activated pathogens
(a) lg M (b) lg A (b) Harvested antibodies
(c) lg G (d) lg D (c) Gamma globulin
284. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in (d) Attenuated pathogens
a person, to which of the following would you Chapter 31 : Strategies for Enhancement
look for confirmatory evidences? [2015 RS] in Food Production
(a) Serum albumins
(b) Haemocytes 292. To obtain virus - free healthy plants from a
(c) Serum globulins diseased one by tissue culture technique, which
(d) Fibrinogin in plasma part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken:
285. Which of the following diseases is caused by a (a) Apical meristem only [2014]
protozoan ? [2015 RS] (b) Palisade parenchyma
(a) Influenza (b) Babesiosis (c) Both apical and axillary meristems
(c) Blastomycosis (d) Syphilis (d) Epidermis only
293. Which of the following enhances or induces (A) (B) (C) (D)
fusion of protoplasts ? [2015 RS] (a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(a) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate (b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(b) IAA and kinetin (c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) IAA and gibberellins
299. Which of the following is wrongly matched in
(d) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride
the given table ? [2016]
294. A technique of micropropagation is : [2015 RS]
(a) Somatic embryogenesis Microbe Product Application
(b) Protoplast fusion (a) Trichoderma Cyclosporin immunosup-
(c) Embryo rescue polysporum A pressive drug
(d) Somatic hybridization (b) Monascus Statins lowering of
295. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal purpureus blood
husbandry because it : [2015 RS] cholesterol
(c) Streptococcus Streptokinase removal of
(a) is useful in producing purelines of animals.
clot from
(b) is useful in overcoming inbreeding blood vessel
depression. (d) Clostridium Lipase removal of
(c) exposes harmful recessive genes that are butylicum oil stains
eliminated by selection.
300. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the
(d) helps in accumulation of superior genes.
production of biogas from the dung of ruminant
296. A system of rotating crops with legume or grass animals, include the [2016]
pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is (a) Halophiles
called [2016] (b) Thermoacidiophiles
(a) Ley farming (c) Methanogens
(b) Contour farming (d) Eubacteria
(c) Strip farming Chapter 33 : Biotechnology: Principles and
(d) Shifting agriculture Processes
Chapter 32 : Microbes in Human Welfare 301. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the
297. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge Southern hybridization technique does not use:-
[2014]
digesters? [2014]
(a) Electrophoresis (b) Blotting
(a) Methane and CO2 only
(c) Autoradiography (d) PCR
(b) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2 302. In vitro clonal pr opagation in plants is
(c) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and O2 characterized by: [2014]
(d) Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2 (a) PCR and RAPD
298. Match the following list of microbes and their (b) Northern blotting
importance: [2015 RS] (c) Electrophoresis and HPLC
(d) Microscopy
(A ) Sacharomyces (i) Production of
303. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of
cerevisiae immunos uppres s ive
DNA? [2014]
agents
(a) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(B) M onascus (ii) Ripening of Swis s (b) Yeast artificial chromosome
Purpureus chees e (c) Plasmid
(C) Trichoderma (iii) Commercial (d) Cosmid
polysporum prodcution of 304. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became
ethanol possible with the discovery of [2015 RS]
(D) Propionibacterium (iv) Production of blood (a) Probes
sharmanii cholesterol lowering (b) Selectable markers
agents (c) Ligases
(d) Restriction enzymes
305. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest 314. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant
is integrated for cloning is called: [2015 RS] where the incorporated gene is meant for
(a) Vector (b) Template biosynthesis of : [2015 RS]
(c) Carrier (d) Transformer (a) Vitamin C (b) Omega 3
306. Which of the following is not a feature of the (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin B
plasmids? [2016] Chapter 35 : Organisms and Environment
(a) Independent replication
(b) Circular structure 315. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer
(c) Transferable is present is called: [2014]
(d) Single - stranded (a) Ionosphere
307. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from (b) Mesosphere
(a) Thermus aquaticus [2016] (c) Stratosphere
(b) Thiobacillus ferroxidans (d) Troposphere
(c) Bacillus subtilis 316. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to
(d) Pseudomonas putida escape the heat for the duration of hot summer,
308. Which of the following is a r estriction thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and
endonuclease? [2016] other extremely cold northern regions move to:
(a) Hind II (b) Protease (a) Western Ghat [2014]
(c) DNase I (d) RNase (b) Meghalaya
(c) Corbett National Park
Chapter 34 : Biotechnology and Its (d) Keoladeo National Park
Applications 317. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus
309. Pollen tablets are available in the market for: cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks
(a) In vitro fertilization [2014] (A-D). Identify the blanks:- [2014]
(b) Breeding programmes Consumers C
(c) Supplementing food
(d) Ex situ conservation
D
310. The first human hormon e produced by A
recombinant DNA technology is: [2014]
(a) Insulin (b) Estrogen Uptake
(c) Thyroxin (d) Progesterone Soil solution
Run off
311. The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/
tolerant to : [2015 RS]
B
(a) Bacteria (b) Insects
(c) Herbicides (d) Fungi A B C D
312. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue (a) Rock Detritus Litter fall Producers
as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due minerals
to: [2015 RS] (b) Litter fallProducers Rock Detritus
(a) Acidic pH of the insect gut minerals
(b) Action of gut micro-organisms
(c) Detritus Rock Producer Litter fall
(c) Presence of conversion factors in insect
gut minerals
(d) Alkaline pH of the insect gut (d) Producers Litter fall Rock Detritus
313. Which body of the Government of India regulates minerals
GM research and safety of introducing GM 318. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level,
organisms for public services ? [2015 RS] then how much energy will be available to
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research peacock as food in the following chain? [2014]
(b) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee plant ® mice ® snake ® peacock:
(c) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (a) 0.02 J (b) 0.002 J
(d) Bio-safety committee (c) 0.2 J (d) 0.0002 J
319. Most animals are tree dwellers in a: [2015 RS] (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) Thorn woodland (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) Temperate deciduous forest (b) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(c) Tropical rain forest (c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(d) Coniferous forest (d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
320. A population will not exist in Hardy - Weinberg 326. Rachel Carson's famous book "Silent Spring" is
equilibrium if : [2015 RS] related to : [2015 RS]
(a) There are no mutations (a) Noise pollution
(b) There is no migration (b) Population explosion
(c) The population is large (c) Ecosystem management
(d) Individuals mate selectively (d) Pesticide pollution
321. Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters are: 327. Vertical distribution of different species
occupying different levels in a biotic community
(a) secondary consumers [2015 RS]
is known as: [2015 RS]
(b) tertiary consumers
(a) Stratification (b) Zonation
(c) detritivores
(c) Pyramid (d) Divergence
(d) primary consumers 328. The mass of living material at a trophic level at a
322. In which of the following interactions both particular time is called : [2015 RS]
partners are adversely affected ? [2015 RS] (a) Standing state
(a) Predation (b) Net primary productivity
(b) Parasitism (c) Standing crop
(c) Mutualism (d) Gross primary productivity
(d) Competition 329. In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic
323. Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states matter during photosynthesis is termed as:
that : [2016] (a) Gross primary productivity [2015 RS]
(a) more abundant species will exclude the less (b) Secondary productivity
abundant species through competition. (c) Net productivity
(b) competition for the same resources (d) Net primary productivity
excludes species having different food 330. Secondary Succession takes place on/in : [2015 RS]
preferences. (a) Degraded forest
(c) no two species can occupy the same niche (b) Newly created pond
indefinitely for the same limiting resources. (c) Newly cooled lava
(d) larger organisms exclude smaller ones (d) Bare rock
through competition. 331. The following graph depicts changes in two
324. When does the growth rate of a population populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy
following the logistic model equal zero ? The field A possible reason for these changes is that:
[2015 RS]
logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1–N/K)
(a) when N/K is exactly one. [2016]
(b) when N nears the carrying capacity of the B
Number of
organisms
habitat.
(c) when N/K equals zero.
(d) when death rate is greater than birth rate. A
(a) Population B competed more successfully
Chapter 36 : Ecosystem
for food than population A
325. Match the following and select the correct option: (b) Population A produced more offspring than
[2014] population B
(A) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species (c) Population A consumed the members of
(B) Succession (ii) Detritivore population B
(C) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality (d) Both plant populations in this habitat
(D) Population growth (iv) Pollination decreased
332. During ecological succession: [2015 RS] 339. Which of the following would appear as the
(a) the establishment of a new biotic pioneer organisms on bare rocks? [2016]
community is very fast in its primary phase. (a) Lichens (b) Liverworts
(b) the numbers and types of animals remain (c) Mosses (d) Green algae
constant. 340. The term ecosystem was coined by
(c) the changes lead to a community that is in (a) E.P. Odum (b) A.G. Tansley
near equilbrium with the environment and (c) E.Haeckel (d) E. Warming
is called pioneer community.
(d) the gradual and predictable change in Chapter 37 : Biodiversity and its Conservation
species composition occurs in a given area. 341. An example of ex situ conservation is: [2014]
333. Increase in concentration of the toxicant at (a) National Park
successive trophic levels is known as : [2015 RS] (b) Seed Bank
(a) Biodeterioration (c) Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) Biotransformation (d) Sacred Grove
(c) Biogeochemical 342. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction
(d) Biomagnification in the immediate future is called: [2014]
334. Industrial melanism is an example of : [2015 RS]
(a) Vulnerable
(a) Natural selection
(b) Endemic
(b) Mutation
(c) Critically Endangered
(c) Neo Lamarckism
(d) Extinct
(d) Neo Darwinism
335. In which of the following both pairs have correct 343. The organization which publishes the Red List
combination ? [2015 RS] of species is: [2014]
(a) ICFRE (b) IUCN
(a) Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and sulphur
(c) UNEP (d) WWF
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Nitrogen and Phosphorus
344. Given below is the representation of the extent
(b) Gaseous nutrient cycle Nitrogen and sulphur of global diversity of invertebrates. What
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Carbon and Phosphorus groups the four portions (A-D) represent
(c) Gaseous nutrient cycle Sulphur and Phosphorus respectively? [2014]
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Carbon and Nitrogen
D
(d) Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and Nitrogen C
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Sulphur and Phosphorus B
336. During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation A
of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning is prevented
by : [2015 RS]
(a) Xanthophyll (b) Carotene A B C D
(c) Cytochrome (d) Leghemoglobin (a) In s ects Crus taceans Other animal M ollus cs
337. An association of individuals of different species grou ps
living in the same habitat and having functional (b) Crus taceans Ins ects M ollus cs Other animal
gro ups
interactions is: [2015 RS]
(c) M ollus cs Other animal Crus tacean s Ins ects
(a) Biotic community
groups
(b) Ecosystem
(d) In s ects M ollus cs Crus tacean s Oth er animal
(c) Population
gro ups
(d) Ecological niche
338. Which of the following is a characteristic feature 345. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened
of cropland ecosystem ? [2016] species in viable and fertile condition can be
(a) Absence of soil organisms referred to as:- [2015 RS]
(b) Least genetic diversity (a) Advanced exsitu conservation of
(c) Absence of weeds biodiversity
(d) Ecological succession (b) In situ conservation by sacred groves
(c) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity (b) Water is less polluted

(d) In situ conservation of biodiversity (c) Consumption of organic matter in the water
346. In which of the following both pairs have correct is higher by the microbes
combination: [2015 RS] (d) Water is pure
(a) In situ conservation : Cryopreservation 353. The UN Conference of Parties on climate change
Ex situ conservation : Wildlife Sanctuary in the year 2011 was held in : [2015 RS]
(b) In situ conservation : Seed Bank (a) South Africa (b) Peru
Ex situ conservation : National Park (c) Qatar (d) Poland
(c) In situ conservation : Tissue culture 354. Which of the following is not one of the prime
Ex situ conservation : Sacred groves health risks associated with greater UV radiation
(d) In situ conservation : National Park through the atmosphere due to depletion of
Ex situ conservation : Botanical Garden stratospheric ozone ? [2015 RS]
347. The species confined to a particular region and (a) Reduced Immune System
not found elsewhere is termed as :[2015 RS] (b) Damage to eyes
(a) Alien (b) Endemic (c) Increased liver cancer
(c) Rare (d) Keystone (d) Increased skin cancer
348. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India ? 355. The UN conference of Parties on climate change
[2016] in the year 2012 was held at: [2015 RS]
(a) Gangetic shark (b) River dolphin (a) Doha (b) Lima
(c) Blue whale (d) Sea-horse (c) Warsaw (d) Durban
349. Which of the following is the most important 356. Acid rain is caused by increase in the
cause of animals and plants being driven to atmospheric concentration of: [2015 RS]
extinction ? [2016] (a) SO3 and CO (b) CO2 and CO
(a) Over - exploitation (c) O3 and dust (d) SO2 and NO2
(b) Alien species invasion 357. Eutrophication of water bodies leading to killing
(c) Habitat loss and fragmentation of fishes is mainly due to non-availability of :
(d) Co-extinctions [2015 RS]
(a) light (b) essential minerals
Chapter 38 : Environmental Issues
(c) oxygen (d) food
350. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on 358. Joint Forest Management Concept was
the trees indicates that the: [2014] introduced in India during [2016]
(a) Trees are very healthy (a) 1960 s (b) 1970 s
(b) Trees are heavily infested (c) 1980 s (d) 1990 s
(c) Location is highly polluted 359. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can
(d) Location is not polluted lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers
351. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial (a) Nitrous oxide (b) Ozone [2016]
plant removes:- [2014] (c) Ammonia (d) Methane
(a) gases like sulphur dioxide 360. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in
(b) particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer organic waste may result in [2016]
or above (a) drying of the river very soon due to algal
(c) gases like ozone and methane bloom.
(d) particularte matter of the size 2.5 micrometer (b) increased population of aquatic food web
or less organisms.
352. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) (c) an increased production of fish due to
indicates that : [2015 RS] biodegradable nutrients.
(a) Water is highly polluted (d) death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (a) Binomial nomenclature (also called Single stranded RNA or ss RNA - Tobacco
binominal nomenclature or binary mosaic virus (TMV)
nomenclature) is a formal system of naming Virus envelope is known as capsid. The
species of living things by giving each a capsid is composed of protein subunits
name composed of two parts, both of which called capsomere.
use Latin grammatical forms, although they 8. (b) Motile bacteria have thin filamentous
can be based on words fr om other extensions from their cell wall called flagella.
languages. 9. (a) Alternaria belongs to class -
2. (b) Basal metabolic rate is inversely Deuteromycetes, showing absence of
proportional to body size. So smaller sexual reproduction. Asexual reproduction
animals have a higher metabolic rate. Hence takes place by conidia produced on
more energy production. conidiophores.
3. (a) Five kingdom system of classification was 10. (d) Anabaena is a cyanobacteria which lack a
proposed by R.H. Whittaker (1969). The true nucleus because of absence of nuclear
five kingdom classification is based on the membrane.
following criteria : 11. (d) Nuclear en velope is not found in a
· Complexity of cell structure – Prokaryotes prokaryotic cell.
or Eukaryotes 12. (d) Class- deuteromycetes contains imperfect
· Complexity of organisms body – Unicellular fungi which play role in decomposition of
or Multicellular organic wastes.
· Mode of obtaining nutrition – Autotrophs 13. (a) Fimbriae assist to some bacteria to get
or Heterotrophs attachment with rocks or host body to get
· Phylogenetic relationships establishment and nutrition.
4. (b) Several mushrooms such as Amanita 14. (c) The kingdom Monera possesses unicellular
muscaria, Psilocybe mexicana and organisms (e.g - bacteria) having no nuclear
Panaeolus spp. secrete hallucinogenic membrane.
substances like psilocybin and psilocin. 15. (a) The spores are non motile in Mucor.
These substances may destroy brain cells 16. (d) In chrysophytes, the cell walls form two thin
and perception power of human beings. overplapping shells holding together. The
5. (a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in body of Diatoms appears like soap box due
having a different cell wall structure. They to overlapping shells.
lack peptidoglyan in cell wall and possess 17. (b) Morel and truffles are used as food and they
a monolayer of branched fatty acids are members of Ascomycetes fungi.
attached to glycerol by ether bonds in their 18. (d) Lichens cannot grow in the place where
cell membranes. sulpher dioxide, pollutant is available in the
6. (b) TMV (Tobacco Mosaic Virus) is a rod- environment.
shaped virus. The rod has a core which 19. (d) Viroids, the smallest known pathogens, are
contains helically coiled single stranded naked, circular, single-stranded RNA
RNA . There is a protective covering of molecules that do not encode protein yet
protein called capsid around the infective replicate autonomously when introduced
part. Capsid consists of small subunits into host plants. Viroids only infect plants;
called capsomeres and has antigenic some cause economically important
property. diseases of crop plants, while others appear
7. (a) All viruses are nucleoprotein (Nucleic acid to be benign.
+ Protein) in the structure. The nucleic acid 20. (a) A cell wall is a rigid structural layer, which
(DNA and RNA) is genetic material. In a provides protection and structural support
particular virus either DNA or RNA is to the cells. The composition of cell walls
genetic material never both are present in a varies from species to genera. In the case
virus. of fungi, the cell wall is composed of strong
covalent linkages of chitin, glucans and 33. (c) Sequoia semepervirans is one of tallest trees.
glycoproteins. Alternatively, in case of land 34. (d) Bryophytes have neither pollen nor flowers
plants, the cell wall is composed of cellulose and rely on water to carry the male gametes
and hemicellulose and Archean cell walls (the sperm) to the female gametes (the eggs).
have peptidoglycans. The antherozoids (male gametes of
21. (c) Eubacteria are the True bacteria. pteridophytes) are armed with hair-like or
22. (b) All unicellular eukaryotic organism like whip-like cilia or flagellae and are able to
diatoms, desmids (chrysophytes), swim through water; they do not travel great
euglenoids, dinoflagellates and slime mould distances and are only released when free
are included in Protista. water is available.
23. (d) In Spirogyra, sexual reproduction occurs 35. (d) Members of Ctenophora, Cephalochordata
through conjugation. Gametes are non- and Echinodermata are exclusively marine.
flagellated morphologically similar. But 36. (b) Gorgonia ( sea-fan) is an animal. All animals
physiologically different (isogamy with lack cell wall.
physiological anisogamy). 37. (b) Planaria is a flatworm which possesses a
24. (c) Chara is a green alga found attached to high power of regeneration.
bottoms of shallow water of ponds, pools 38. (b) Torpedo is a sluggish fish. It is carnivorous.
and lakes. Male sex organ is called The prey is first killed by electric shock.
antheridium. Female sex organ is called The shock can also be harmful for human
oogonium. Oogonium is borne at the top of beings.
four celled filament. 39. (b) Platypus is oviparous (egg laying animal).
25. (d) Sphagnum, a moss, provides peat that have It belongs to class-mammalia.
long been used as fuel. It has the capacity 40. (b) Between the various sclerite, a flexible
to retain water for long periods and as such membrane exists which is known as
used to cover the plant roots during arthrodial membrane.
transportation. 41. (a) (i) Aves possess dry skin, without glands
26. (b) Chlorella and Spirullina are unicellular except oil gland near the base of tail.
algae, rich in proteins and are used as food (ii) Pinnae are not found in aquatic
supplements by space travellers. animals and egg laying mammals.
27. (c) Pinus belongs to gymnosperms in which (iii) In cyclostomes, unpaired appendages
male and female gametophytes do not have (joints) are found.
an independent free living existance. They 42. (c) Petrormyzon marinus, commonly known as
remain within the sporangia which are of sea lamprey lays eggs in fresh water and its
two types — microsporangia and larvae after metamorphosis return to the
megasporangia. ocean (saline water).
28. (b) Selaginella is a heterosporus pteridophyte 43. (a) The given characteristic features define the
containing micro & megaspores. In Cycas, phylum porifera.
corolloid root has cyanobacteria - 44. (c) All arthropods possess a stiff exoskeleton
Anabaena. (external skeleton) composed primarily of
29. (b) Male gametes are flagellated in Ectocarpus chitin. Arthropod bodies are divided into
(phaeophyceae). They possess heterokont and segments. Parapodia are paired, lateral
lateral flagella. appendages extending from the body
30. (c) Mannitol or laminarin is the stored food in segments. Arthropod appendages may be
phaeophyceae (brown algae). either biramous (branched) or uniramous
31. (d) Two sperms and a vegetative cell are produced (unbranched). They do not possess jointed
by male gametophyte in angiosperms. appendages.
32. (b) In meiosis, the number of chromosomes are 45. (a) Chondrichthyes always have cartilaginous
reduced by half producing haploid daughter endoskeleton. Most mammals are
cells. The microspore mother cell and the viviparous, giving birth to live young.
megaspore mother cell undergo meiosis to However, the five species of monotreme,
produce haploid microspore and megaspore the platypuses and the echidnas, lay eggs.
respectively. Chordates have jawless animals (Agnatha)
as well. Most reptiles have 3 chambered 56. (d) Vegetative propagation takes place through
heart. Crocodilians have 4 chambered rhizome in ginger.
hearts. Turtles have 3 chambered heart but 57. (a) Superior ovary is found in china rose,
with an incomplete wall in the single mustard brinjal, potato, onion and tulip.
ventricle, so their hearts are functionally 4 Guava and cucumber have inferior ovary.
chambered. 58. (a) Coconut water is the free nuclear endosperm
46. (c) Giving birth to living young that develop which is used by us.
within the mother's body rather than 59. (b) Binary fission usually takes place in
hatching from eggs. All mammals except the Amoeba, Paramoecium and Euglena.
monotremes are viviparous. 60. (a) The flowers of cucumber are unisexual, it
47. (c) Tomato — edible part is pericarp and placenta. means they have only male flowers or only
48. (b) If the margins of sepals or petals overlap female flowers.
one another but not in any particular 61. (c) Parthenocarpic fruits (eg - banana) are
direction as in Cassia and gulmohur, the produced without fertilization of ovule.
aestivation is called imbricate. 62. (b) Scutellum is large, shield shaped cotyledon
49. (c) Generally, monocotyledonous seeds (e.g., that helps in the absorption of nutrients from
grasses) are endospermic but some as in endosperm during germination.
orchids are non-endospermic. Mango is a 63. (a) When the placenta is axial and ovules are
drupe fruit develop from multicarpellary, attached to it in a multilocular ovary, it is
syncarpous, superior ovary having one or known as axile placentation.
many seeded. A sterile stamen is called a 64. (d) Coconut water is the clear liquid inside
staminode. In monocots, outer covering of young green coconuts (fruits of the
endosperm separates the embryo by a coconut palm). In early development, it
proteinous layer called aleurone layer. serves as a suspension for the endosperm
50. (d) Potato is an example of edible underground of the coconut during the nuclear phase of
stem. development. As growth continues, the
· It is differentiated into nodes and endosperm matures into its cellular phase
internodes. The ‘eyes’ on potato tuber and deposits into the rind of the coconut
indicate axillary buds at the nodes. meat.
· It bears scaly leaves. The leaves do not 65. (c) Papilionaceous flowers are flowers with the
store food. characteristic irregular and butterfly-like
· Axillary buds arise at the nodes. corolla. A single, large upper petal is known
· Does not bear roots. as the banner or vexillum and the name has
51. (b) Aggregate fruits (Etaerio) develop from the been derived from an ancient military
multicarpellary apocarpous ovary. They are standard.
of following types; Etaerio of follicles, 66. (a) The Liliaceae are a huge variety, comprising
etaerio of achenes, etaerio of berries, etaerio about 280 genera and 4000 species of
of drupes. perennial herbs mostly. It includes starchy
52. (d) In Opuntia, leaves become modified into rhizomes, corms or bulbs, characterized by
spines to avoid transpiration so as to save alternate leaves which are whorled. The
water for desert adaptation. The stems of flowers are often showy, mostly bisexual
this plant appear like-leaf, termed as- and actinomorphic. Also, they exhibit
phylloclades which perform the process of tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium.
photosynthesis. Example of such a class is the Erythronium
53. (b) Floral formula of Petunia (solanaceae) is montanum, the alpine fawn lily.
67. (d) The proximal end is attached to the
Å+ K (5)C (5)A 5G (2) . thalamus whereas the distal end bears
54. (a) Indigofera is a member of family fabaceae. anther.
It has keel type of floral structure in which 68. (a) Pitcher of Nepenthes or pitcher plant is
two anterior fused petals are present. modification of leaf whereas thorns in citrus
55. (c) Ovary is half superior and half inferior in tendrils of cucumber and flattened structure
perigynous flower. of Opuntia are all stem modification.
69. (d) The cotyledons are known as seed leaves, (iv) Inner surface of bronchioles – Ciliated
they are attached to the embryonic axis. epithelium.
Dicotyledons typically have two 80. (b) The exoskeleton of insects consists of
cotyledons and monocotyledons have only chitinous cuticle. It gets hardened due to
one cotyledon. The single shield-shaped deposition of calcium. It prevents
cotyledon in grains known as scutellum. dessication and gives protection.
70. (c) Phylloclade to refer a portion of a flattened 81. (b) Methanogens (microorganisms producing
leaf-like stem or branch with multiple nodes methane) are found in the guts of ruminant
and internodes, and cladode for a single animals e.g. cows and buffalloes.
internode of a phylloclade. In some plants, 82. (b) The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is
the petioles are flattened and widened, to formed by the polymerisation of N-acetyl
become phyllodes or phyllodia. glucosamine.
71. (c) Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous 83. (a) Metagenesis is defined as alternation of
root is distinguished from the generation found in phylum cnidaria (eg.
dicotyledonous stem by position of Obelia). In this phenomenon one generation
protoxylem. In dicot root the protoxylem is of an organism reproduces asexually,
located near the periphery of the vascular followed by a sexually reproducing generation.
cylinder while in dicot stem the protoxylem 84. (a) The body cells in cockroach discharge their
is located near the centre of vascular bundle nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph as a
i.e., the xylem is endarch. solution of sodium or potassium urate (a
72. (b) The walls of vessels (tracheary elements) weak alkaline fluid).
are lignified and less thicker than tracheids. 85. (b) Whale is a mammal. It has four chambered
The lumen is wider. Vessels differ from heart having two atria and two ventricles.
tracheids in being cell fusions arising Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood flow
through the dissolution of end walls. in separate circulatory pathways.
73. (a) A solid style has transmission tissue which 86. (b) Periplanata americana shows spiral and
has large intercellular spaces. It allows determinate types of cleavage during
growth of pollen tube in pistil. embryonic development which is a feature
74. (b) Monocot root shows radial and closed of Protostomes.
vascular bundle (xylem & phloem). 87. (a) Wall of intestine is made of smooth muscle.
75. (a) In a ring girdled plants roots die first due to Tendons consist of dense regular
damage of phloem causing inhibition of connective tissue fascicles encased in
translocation of food. dense irregular connective tissue sheaths.
76. (a) Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are Tip of nose consists of squamous
considered closed due to absence of epithelium. Lining of epithelium is made of
cambium. columnar epithelium.
77. (b) The correct sequence from outerside to 88. (d) In some bacteria (e.g., Bacillus subtilis) the
inner side in a woody dicot stem is as plasma membrane form certain
follows: invaginations or in foldings called
Phellem ® Secondary cortex ® mesosomes in the cytoplasm. The
Secondary phloem ® Wood , [(d) ® (a) mesosomes have various functions, viz.,
® (c) ® (b)] respiratory, secretory etc.
78. (c) Tendon is dense regular connective tissue. 89. (b) Microtubule, microfilament and
Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective intermediate filaments along with ER form
tissue located mainly beneath the cells. cytoskeleton. Microfilaments are non-
Cartilage is a type of specialised connetive living, solid and consist of actin protein.
tissue. They are 4-6 nm in diameter.
79. (c) (i) Inner lining of salivary ducts - 90. (b) The vacuole is bound by a single membrane
Compound epithelum called tonoplast. It also functions as
(ii) Moist surface of buccal cavity - semipermeable membrane. It segregates
Compound epithelium vacuolar contents from cytoplasm, allows
(iii) Tubular parts of nephorns - Cuboidal osmotic entry or exit of water, concentration
epithelium. and storage of nutrients as well as wastes.
91. (a) Centrosome is an organelle usually synthesizing machinery, thus (a) is true &
containing two cylindrical structures called (b) is false.
centrioles. The centrioles form the basal 106. (b) Microtubules are long, hollow cylinders
body of cilia or flagella. In chloroplast a made up of polymerised a- and b-tubulin
number of organised flattened membranous dimers. Microtubules are part of a structural
sacs called the thylakoids are present in network (the cytoskeleton) within the cell's
the stroma. Chlorophyll pigments are cytoplasm. Roles of the microtubule
present in the thylakoids. Each cytoskeleton include mechanical support,
mitochondrion is a double membrane organization of the cytoplasm, transport,
bound structure. The inner membrane forms motility and chromosome segregation so
a number of infoldings called the cristae they are present in cilia and flagella for
towards the matrix. The cristae increase the cellular movement, centrioles for
surface area. chromosomal movement and spindle fibres
92. (a) Ribosomes are composed of ribonucleic for structural organization as well as
acid and proteins and are not surrounded chromosomal movement during nuclear
by any membrane. These are site for protein
division.
synthesis.
107. (c) Double Membrane bound Organelles:
93. (c) In late prophase, nuclear envelope
Mitochondria, Chloroplasts, Endoplasmic
disappears and reappears in late telophase
Reticulum, Golgi Body, and Nucleus. Single
from rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
94. (c) Polysomes are found in eukaryotes and are Membrane bound Organelles: Lysosomes,
defined as a cluster of ribosomes attached Peroxisomes, and Vacuoles. Organelles
to a mRNA molecule. Polysomes are number lacking any membrane: Ribosomes,
of ribosomal complexes situated on mRNA. Centrioles, Nucleolus.
95. (a) Lipid synthesis takes place in smooth 108. (b) Inhibitions of succinic dehydrogenase by
endoplasmic reticulum. malonate is an example of competitive
96. (a) Ribosomes are not membrance-bound cell inhibition. Thus it is reversible reaction. On
organelle. increasing the substrate (succinate)
97. (a) The function of the gap junction is to concentration the effect of inhibitor is
facilitate communication between adjoining removed and Vmax remain same.
cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid 109. (b) Sucrose is classified under non reducing
transfer of ions, small molecules and some sugars because it does not have any free
large molecules. aldehyde or keto group.
98. (b) Genome > chromosomes > gene > 110. (c) Km increases but Vmax remains the same in
nucleotide. competitive inhibition. This is because, on
99. (c) Cell wall is absent in a protoplast. slightly increasing the substrate
100. (c) RNA and protein synthesis occur in Balbiani concentration, the effect of inhibitor is
rings. removed.
101. (a) (a) ® (iii), (b) ® (iv), (c) ® (i), (d) ® (ii) 111. (c) Nucleic acids have phophodiester bond in
102. (c) Lysosomes, golgi apparatus and a nucleotide.
mitochondria are the cell organelles which 112. (a) Succus entericus lacks enzyme nucleases.
have membranes. 113. (d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens introduces t-
103. (a) Satellite DNA displays high degree of DNA into the plant.
polymorphism in population and also the 114. (d) Insulin is a hormone consisting of 2
same degree of polymorphism in an polypeptide chains. Each chain is composed
individual, which is inherited from parents of a specific sequence of amino acid
to children (offsprings).
residues connected by peptide bonds. In
104. (b) Mycoplasma lacks cell wall.
humans, chain A has 21 amino acids, and
105. (c) Mitochondria & chloroplast are semi-
chain B has 30. Post tr anslational
autonomous cell organelle which are formed
modifications result in the connection of
by division of pre-existing organelle &
contain DNA but they also contain protein these two chains by disulfide bridges.
Cysteine residues on A7 and B7, as well as
A20 to B19 are covalently connected by H

O
–
disulfide bridges. H–C–O– H H – O – – chain of carbons, hydrogens
–
–
C
–
O
H H–C–O– H H – O – – chain of carbons, hydrogens
–
H Tyr C
–
Gln
Leu
15
Leu H – C– O – H H – O – O– chain of carbons, hydrogens
–
Ser Glu H C
–
A-chain Cys Asn H
ile 10 3H2O
S Tyr D
S
Ser glycerol 3 fatty acids
Thr 20 Cys Asn
Gly lle Val Glu Gln Cys Cys
S
119. (c) In M-phase both 4C and 2C of DNA are
1 5 S
S S HD D D
present in different stages.
H H
Phe Val
H
Asn Gln His Leu Cys H Cys
Gly Glu
20
Arg
Gly D 120. (a) During S or synthesis phase, replication or
1 5 Gly D
Ser D
H Val
H Leu
Phe
25 Phe D
duplication of chromosomal DNA and
B-chain 10 His H D Tyr Tyr D synthesis of histone proteins takes place.
Leu D H H Thr D
Val Glu Ala
Leu
30 Lys
Pro D During this time the amount of DNA per
Thr D cell doubles.
121. (a) The enzyme recombinase is required at
115. (c) Lac operon is an inducible operon. Lactose Pachytene stage of meiosis. It catalyzes the
is the substrate for the enzyme beta- exchange of short pieces of DNA between
galactosidase and it also regulates two long DNA strands, particularly the
switching on and off of the operon. Hence, exchange of homologous regions between
it is termed as inducer. Inducers function the paired maternal and paternal
by disabling repressors. The gene is chromosomes.
expressed because an inducer binds to the 122. (a) Pachytene - Crossing over mediated by
repressor. The binding of the inducer to recombinase enzyme.
the repressor prevents the repressor from Zygotene - Pair ing of homologous
binding to the operator. RNA polymerase chromosomes
can then begin to transcribe operon genes. G2 phase - Synthesis of RNA and protein
116. (a) Tryptophan is a precursor to neuro- Anaphase I - Contromeres do not separate
transmitters serotonin and melatonin. but chromatids move towards opposite
Thyroxine (3,5,3',5'-tetraiodothyronine) is poles.
123. (b) When s-phase completes, a somatic cell
produced by follicular cells of the thyroid
contains 2n number of chromosomes and
gland. It is produced as the precursor
4C content of DNA.
thyroglobulin. Estrogen is biosynthesized 124. (a) Synapsis ® Crossing over ®
from progesterone (arrived at in two steps Terminalisation of chiasmata ®
from cholesterol, via intermediate Disappearance of nucleolus
pregnenolone). Cortisone is one of several 125. (a) Meiosis-II does not complete untill
end-products of a pr ocess called fertilization occurs in females (in human
steroidogenesis. Cortisol is produced in being).
the adrenal cortex of kidney. 126. (b) Attachment of microtubules to
117. (d) Glycine (abbreviated as Gly or G) is the chromosomes is mediated by kinetochores,
smallest of the 20 amino acids commonly which actively monitor spindle formation
found in proteins, and indeed is the smallest and prevent premature anaphase onset
possible (having a hydrogen substituent during mitosis.
as its side-chain). The formula is 127. (a) Meiosis is a process (discovered by German
NH2CH2COOH. Its codons are GGU, GGC, biologist, Oscar Hertwig) where a single cell
GGA, GGG of the genetic code. divides twice to produce four cells
118. (b) Fat molecules are made of atoms of carbon, containing half the original amount of
hydrogen and oxygen. The hydrogen and genetic information. These cells are our sex
oxygen atoms binds to the carbon, as cells - sperm in males, eggs in females.
Crossing over is the process by which two
pictorially depicted. A typical fat molecule has
chromosomes, exchange some distal part
one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.
of their DNA. This process occurs in the
Pachytene stage of Prophase I of meiosis.
128. (d) Telomerase production is increased in and some proteins. Potassium is related
cancer. Telomerase has been examined in with protein synthesis, closing and opening
hundreds of studies as a potentially of stomata and activation of enzyme.
sensitive biomarker for screening, early Calcium regulates metaolic activities,
cancer detection, prognosis or in monitoring function of cell membrane and stabilizes the
as an indication of residual disease. structure of chromosomes. Sulphur is the
129. (d) Synapsis is the pairing of two homologous main constituent of the amino acids,
chromosomes that occurs during meiosis. cystine and methionine, coenzymes and
It allows matching-up of homologous pairs vitamins.
prior to their segregation, and possible 137. (a) The opening and closing of stomata are
chromosomal crossover between them. caused by influx and efflux of potassium
Synapsis takes place during prophase I, ions (K+). The increase of K+ results in
Zygotene of meiosis. opening of stoma and decrease of K +
130. (a) Transpiration creates pulling (Negative causes closing of stoma. The turgidity of
pressure) force. Root pressure creates guard cells induces to open the pores of
positive pressure developed in xylem. It is stomata found on the surface of leaves.
measured by manometer. 138. (*) (Bonus) Nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium,
131. (a) Due to tensile strength of water, a column calcium, sulfur and magnesium are the
of water within xylem vessels of tall trees macronutrients. In the above given options
does not break under its weight. no three element denotes macronutrients.
132. (d) Active absorption creates root pressure. In 139. (a) In Rhodospirillum, electron donor is
this process, the expenditure of energy takes organic compound during photosynthesis.
place for the movement of substances 140. (a) In chloroplast which are green coloured
against concentration gradient. plastids, thylakoids are arranged in stacks
133. (a) Pistia a hydrophyte plant where absorption like the pile of coins called grana.
of water by root is not important. 141. (d) Chromatophores play an important role in
134. (b) In actively growing plants, water is the process of photo synthesis. They contain
continuously evaporating from the surface pigments and are found in blue green algae.
of leaf cells through stomatal opening 142. (d) During photosynthesis photolysis of water
exposed to air. This is called transpiration. is induced by Mn ++ and CI– ions.
Through the same stomatal opening carbon 143. (c) Stromal matrix contains a number of
dioxide diffuses into the plant during flattened membranous sacs called thylakoid
photosynthesis. Simultaneously as both are or lamellae.
the process of simple diffusion occurs in 144. (b) Wavelengths beyond 700nm are apparently
order of diffusion pressure gradient or of insufficient energy to drive any part of
diffusion coefficient. photosynthesis. So a huge drop in
135. (a) The parts of the plants that show the efficiency has been noticed at 700nm. This
deficiency symptoms also depend on the phenomenon is called as "Red drop effect".
mobility of the element in the plant. For In other words there is a sharp decrease in
element that are actively mobilised within quantum yield at wavelengths greater than
the plants and exported to young 680nm. The number of oxygen molecules
developing tissues, the deficiency released per light quanta absorbed is called
symptoms tend to appear first in the older as quantum yield of photosynthesis. This
tissues. For example, nitrogen, potassium effect was first of all noticed by Robert
and magnesium are visible first in the Emerson. Later on Emerson and his group
senescent leaves. observed that if chlorella plants are given
136. (d) Phosphorus, potassium, sulphur and the inefficient far red light and red light of
calcium play an important role in plants shorter wavelengths in alternate fashion,
growth. These minerals are required in large the quantum yields were greater than could
amount. Phosphorus is required for all be expected from adding the rates found
phosphorylation reactions and when either color was provided alone. This
constitution of cell membrane, nucleic acids synergistic effect or enhancement is known
as EEE or "Emerson Enhancement Effect". conditions. ABA causes the stomatal

This was the first good evidence that there closure of leaves due to which the water
are two photo systems; one absorbs far loss by the plant is minimized.
red light and other red light and both of 153. (d) Exalbuminous (non-endospermic) seeds
them must operate to drive photosynthesis usually store reserve food material in
most effectively. cotyledons. In these seeds, the endosperm
145. (b) Proton concentration is higher in the lumen is used up and not present in mature seeds,
of thylakoid due to photolysis of water, H+ e.g., bean, gram and pea.
pumping and NADP reductase activity in 154. (d) Sigmoid growth curve maintains equilibrium
stroma. During the light-dependent with carrying capacity, it forms asymptote
reaction, protons are pumped across the stage in plants.
thylakoid membrane into the lumen making 155. (c) Auxin stimulates cell elongation. It
it acidic down to pH 4. accumulates on shaded side which results
146. (d) Man y leaves produce water-soluble in more elongation of cells towards shaded
vacuolar pigments, which are stored within side of the plant. This causes bending of
cell vacuoles (microscopic water sacs within the plant towards source of light.
each cell). Two major classes of leaf vacuolar 156. (d) Avena coleoptile curvature is used for the
pigments are anthocyanins and betalains. bioassay of auxin.
147. (b) C4 plants are adapted to hot and dry climate 157. (c) Auxin has been clearly demonstrated in the
and lack photorespiration due to Kranz leaf sheath or coleoptile of oat plant (Avena
anatomy and have Greater productivity of sativa). This plant coleoptile has been used
biomass. for the test of hormone Auxin (IAA)
148. (d) Lactic acid fermentation : It occurs in lactic participating in the growth of the plant.
acid bacteria (Lactobacillus) and muscles 158. (c) Rennin (also called chymosin) is an enzyme
(Human). Pyruvic acid produced in that occurs in gastric juice and is a
glycolysis is reduced by NADH2 to form constituent of rennet. It coagulates milk by
lactic acid without producing carbon converting caseinogen to casein. The initial
dioxide. step in the digestion of milk in humans is
Lactate dehydrogenase carried out by rennin.
CH3COCOOH +NADH 2 ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
®
Pyruvic acid FMN,Zn 2+ 159. (b) Facilitated transport is a form of passive
transport in which materials are moved
CH 3CHOHCOOH +NAD
Lactic acid
across the plasma membrane by a transport
protein down their concentration gradient;
149. (b) Specialized epidermal cells surrounding the
hence, it does not require energy.
guard cells are known as Subsidiary or
160. (d) Duodenum contains Brunner ’s glands
accessory cell.
which secrete mucus and digestive juices.
150. (b) Charles Darwin and his son Francis
161. (b) Gastric juice of infants contains pepsinogen,
Darwin observed that the coleoptiles of Oat
lipase and rennin. Gastric juice does not
(Avena sativa) and canary grass (Phalaris
contain amylase, maltase & nuclease.
canariensis) responded to unilateral
illumination by growing towards the light 2102
162. (a) The dental formula for milk teeth is ,
source (phototropic curvature or 2102
phototropism). After a series of so premolars are absent in the primary
experiments, it was concluded that the tip dentition.
of the coleoptile was the site of production 163. (b) The main constituent of gastric acid is
of a substance, that caused the bending of hydrochloric acid which is produced by
coleoptile. parietal cells (also called oxyntic cells) in
151. (c) Etiolation is depigmentation of leaf when the gastric glands in the stomach.
plant is placed in dark for more than 36 hrs. 164. (d) The sphincter of Oddi (or hepatopancreatic
152. (a) Abscisic Acid (ABA) is called stress sphincter) is a muscular valve that controls
hormone which works in adverse the flow of digestive juices (bile and
environmental condition when there is low pancreatic juice) through the ampulla of
water content in atmosphere or in drought Vater into the second part of the duodenum.
165. (a) CO2 from the respiratory tissues to the (i) Accelerator centre - It functions
lungs is transported by the blood in 3 ways: through sympathetic nervous system
(i) In dissolved state or as a physical (SNS) and increases heart beat by the
solution: Very small amount physically secretion of epinephrine or adrenaline.
dissolved in plasma (7% i.e. @ 0.3 ml of CO2 (ii) Depressor centre - It functions
by each 100 ml of blood). through parasympathetic nervous
(ii) Bicarbonate ions: @ 70% (i.e. @ 2.5 ml system (PSNS) by the secretion of
per 100 ml of blood) CO2 diffuses in plasma acetylcholine. It decreases heart beat,
& then into RBCs where it (in the presence speed of conduction of action
of carbonic anhydrase) combines with H2O potential and thereby the cardiac
to form carbonic acid which is almost output.
spontaneously dissociated into hydrogen 172. (c) Blood consists of plasma, RBC, WBC and
ion and bicarbonate ions. platelets.
(iii) Carbaminohaemoglobin : @ 23% 173. (c) Erythropoiesis is the process of formation
(i.e. @ 1 ml of CO2 per 100 ml of blood) of R.B.C. In the first month of pregnancy,
combines with haemoglobin forming an yolk sac is the heamopoietic tissue. After 5
unstable compound. weeks, it is followed by the liver. Red bone
166. (b) Cytochromes are fond in mitochondria. marrow from 6 months onwards becomes
These are located on the inner membrane the principal site of erythropoiesis.
of mitochondria and are related with 174. (b) The wall of left ventricle is the thickest of
phosphorylation. all the Chambers. It supplies oxygenated
167. (a) Chemoreceptors in the medulla get blood throughout the body. Aorta arises
stimulated by increase in CO2 concentration from left ventricle and the musculature is
in the blood of arteries. Decrease in O2 best developed.
concentration has no significant effect on 175. (b) The second sound heard by doctors using
chemoreceptors. stethoscope occurs when semilunar valves
close down after the blood flows into vesels
168. (a) In the disease, emphysema, alveolar surface
from ventricles.
area is reduced due to destruction of alveolar
176. (c) Reduction of pH of blood will decrease the
walls.
affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen which
169. (a) Emphysema results when the delicate
in turn causes Acidosis.
linings of the air sacs in the lungs become
177. (c) Arteries have higher blood pressure than
damaged beyond repair. Most commonly,
vein because blood is forced inside them
the toxins in cigarette smoke create the from heart and also their lumen is narrow.
damage. Emphysema is called smoker's 178. (a) Aldosterone hormone, released by the
disease. adrenal glands, helps the body regulate
170. (a) Karl Landsteiner reported first time ABO blood pressure. Aldosterone causes the
blood groups in human beings. A, B and O tubules of the kidneys to increase the
blood groups were discover ed by reabsorption of sodium and water into the
Landsteiner (1900) while AB blood group blood. This increases the volume of fluid in
was found out by de Castello and Steini the body, which also increases blood
(1902). ABO blood groups are determined pressure.
by the gene I (isoagglutinin). There are three 179. (b) The secretion of Renin is induced by
alleles. IA, IB and IO of this gene. Proteins decrease in blood pressure and blood
produced by the IA and IB alleles are called volume. It maintains the proper BP and BV.
A antigen and B antigen. Individuals with It has no role in the formation of large
AB blood group have both antigen A and quantities of urine.
antigen B on their RBCs, and no antibodies 180. (d) Gnerally all of the essential nutrients and
for either of the antigens in their plasma. 70% to 80% of electrolytes and water are
171. (a) Control of Heart Beat by Nervous System: reabsorbed by this segment. Removal of
Medulla oblongata has two regulatory proximal convolnted tubule from the
centre: nephron will result in dilution of urine.
181. (c) Urine has acidic nature because hydrogen body temperature, thirst, hunger, sleep,
ions(H+) are components of an acid which circadian rhythm, moods, sex drive, and the
are secreted into the filtrate. release of other hormones in the body. This
182. (c) Hepatic Vein, because the liver produces area of the brain controls the pituitary gland
urea and other waste materials and then it and other glands in the body.
pours it all in the right ventricle of the heart 191. (c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A. Retinal
for oxygenation. The heart distributes the is a polyene chromophore, and bound to
blood to various parts of the body from proteins called opsins, is the chemical basis
here. So the impure blood brought by the of animal vision. Bound to proteins called
Hepatic Vein and other blood vessels get type 1 rhodopsins, retinal allows certain
distributed through the aorta. This will microorganisms to convert light into
automatically imply that the Renal Artery metabolic energy.
will contain lesser impure blood than the 192. (a) Vestibular apparatus has specific receptors
Hepatic Vein. called crista and macula to maintain the
183. (d) A gliding joint is a common type of synovial balance and posture of body
joint formed between bones that meet at 193. (a) Cerebellum maintains the balance and body
flat or nearly flat articular surfaces. Gliding posture. It is not concerned with logical
joints allow the bones to glide past one part.
another in any direction along the plane of 194. (d) Fovea centralis is the most sensitive part of
the joint - up and down, left and right, and retina. It has high density of cones, but rods
diagonally. Many gliding joints are formed are not found.
in the appendicular skeleton between the 195. (a) In poliomyelitis, anterior horn cells of spinal
carpal bones of the wrist; between the cord are destructed which causes loss of
carpals and the metacarpals of the palm; motor activities of limbs.
between the tarsal bones of the ankle; and 196. (b) Retinal is also known as retinaldehyde. It
between the tarsals and the metatarsals of was originally called retinene, and renamed
the foot. afterwards it was discovered to be vitamin
184. (b) Sliding filament theory was given by A aldehyde. Retinal is one of the many
Huxley and Huxley (1954). It states that forms of vitamin A (the number of which
Actin and Myosin filaments do not become varies from species to species). Retinal is a
short but rather slide pass each other. polyene chromophore, bound to proteins
Because of sliding of actin filaments over called opsins, and is the chemical basis of
myosin the length of I-band will change.
animal vision.
185. (c) Glenoid cavity articulates humerus with
197. (b) Oxytocin, a neurohypophysial hormone, is
scapula.
produced by the hypothalamus and stored
186. (d) Fibrous joint is an attachment between
and secreted by the posterior pituitary
bones, being held together by fibrous
gland. It stimulates contractions of the
connective tissue. For example- suture
smooth muscle tissue in the wall of the
between skull bones.
187. (b) Production of body heat is caused by the uterus during childbirth. Progesterone is a
process of metabolism (respiration). female hormone produced by the ovaries
188. (c) Sustained contraction with no relaxation during release of a mature egg from an ovary
phase is called muscle tetanus. (ovulation). Progesterone helps prepare the
189. (a) The neuromuscular junction connects the lining of the uterus (endometrium) to receive
nervous system to the muscular system via the egg if it becomes fertilized by a sperm.
synapses between efferent nerve fibres and If the egg is not fertilized, progesterone
muscle fibres. levels drop and menstrual bleeding begins.
190. (d) The hypothalamus is a highly complex Atrial natriuretic factor is a hormonal
structure in the brain that regulates many substance produced by the right atrium of
important brain chemicals. The hypothalamus the heart that stimulates the excretion of
is responsible for hormone production. The sodium and water by the kidneys and helps
hormones produced by this area govern regulate blood pressure.
198. (c) Adrenal Medulla is called emergency gland (LH). These processes are controlled by
and secretes adrenaline (Epinephrine) and the size and frequency of GnRH pulses, as
nor-adrenaline (nor-epinephrine) well as by feedback from progesterone and
hormones. estrogens. Low-frequency GnRH pulses are
Adrenaline (epinephrine) is commonly required for FSH release, whereas high-
called as ‘emergency hormone’ or 3F – frequency GnRH pulses stimulate LH
hormone (For fear, fight & flight). It pulses in a one to one manner.
stimulates sweating, heart beat and 204. (b) In both females and males, inhibin inhibits
breathing rate. It causes the dilation of FSH production. In females, FSH stimulates
coronary artery (supplying blood to the the secretion of inhibin from the granulosa
heart muscles), bronchioles (for increasing cells of the ovarian follicles in the ovaries.
inspiratory volume) and pupil (for better In turn, inhibin suppresses FSH. In males,
vision). androgens stimulate inhibin production. It
199. (b) Epinephrine has two role as a hormone and is secreted from the Sertoli cells, located in
as a neurotransmitter. the seminiferous tubules inside the testes.
200. (a) Aldosterne is produced by adrenal cortex 205. (d) Apomixis (asexual seed formation) is the
and plays an important role in the regulation
result of a plant gaining the ability to bypass
of Na+ and K+ levels in body.
the most fundamental aspects of sexual
201. (d) ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) and oxytocin
are produced by hypothalamus and stored reproduction: meiosis and fertilization.
in posterior pituitary. Without the need for male fertilization, the
202. (d) Calcitonin exerts its effects by interacting resulting seed germinates a plant that
with target cells, primarily in bone and develops as a maternal clone.
kidney. The actions of PTH and calcitonin 206. (a) Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains
are antagonistic on bone resorption but in different flowers of same plant.
synergistic on decreasing the renal tubular 207. (c) Male gametophyte is highly reduced in
reabsorption of phosphorus. Insulin and angiosperm and is known as pollen grain.
glucagon work synergistically to keep It is 2 or 3-celled.
blood glucose concentrations normal. An 208. (d) Filiform apparatus helps in the entry of
elevated blood glucose concentration pollen tube into a synergid in ovule. Filiform
results in the secretion of insulin and
apparatus is in form of finger like projection
glucose is transported into body cells.
Aldosterone secretion may be inhibited by comprising a core of micro fibrils enclosed
potassium depletion, inhibitors of the renin- in a sheath. It resembles transfer cells meant
angiotensin system, dopamine and atrial for short distance movement of metabolites.
natriuretic factor. The latter appears to be It is responsible for the absorption of food
an important physiological regulator of from the nucleus.
aldosterone secretion. ANF inhibits basal, 209. (d) Geitonogamy, genetically, shows similarity
ACTH, Angiotensin II and potassium- with autogamy because the pollen grains
stimulated aldosterone production in vitro are born on the same plant.
by a direct action on the adrenal gland. 210. (c) Honey is produced by worker bees using
Inhibin is a hormone secreted by granulosa nectar (fructose) of flowering plants.
cells of the ovary which inhibit the secretion 211. (d) The hilum is a scar found on the seed coat
of FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) through which the developing seeds are
whereas relaxin produced by ovary and
attached to the fruit.
placenta at the time of childbirth to softens
the ligament in the pelvis and widens the 212. (a) Nectar and pollen grains are the usual floral
cervix. rewards which the animal pollinators get.
203. (a) At the pituitary, GnRH stimulates the 213. (c) Synergids have filiform apparatus.
synthesis and secretion of the 214. (a) Tapetum is important for the nutrition and
gonadotropins, follicle-stimulating development of pollen grains, as well as a
hormone (FSH), and luteinizing hormone source of precursors for the pollen coat.
215. (a) Pollen grains of different species are the monthly release of the viable oocyte
incompatible, so they fail to germinate. If from the ovary between the time of
the pollen-stigma interaction is compatible, menarche and menopause. During this time,
the pollen grain hydrates and germinates there is a surge in the production of LH and
shortly following landing on the stigma. FSH, termed as gonadotropins, thereby
216. (a) Urethra is a tube that connects the urinary initiating estradiol and progesterone
bladder to the genitals for the removal of secretion from the ovary. Both these
fluids from the body. The urethra travels hormones are very important for the
through the penis, and carries semen as menstrual cycle.
well as urine. 227. (a) Tubectomy also referred to as tubal
217. (a) The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine sterilization is a surgical procedure done
structure involved in ovulation and early on women as a permanent method of
pregnancy. The main secretory product of contraception. In this method fallopian
corpus luteum is progesterone, which is tubes are blocked so that the ova or eggs
required for the establishment and are prevented from travelling to the uterus
maintenance of pregnancy. from the ovary. This prevents any future
218. (c) Synthesis of estrogen and progesterone pregnancies to occur after the surgical
due to high level of hCG is a normal procedure.
gonadotropic activity in a normal pregnant Fallopian tubes
female.
219. (c) The role of prolactin is not concerned with
initiation of parturition in humans. Prolactin
is responsible for milk synthesis in
mammary glands. When the levels of
Ovary
estrogen and progesterone become low at Utarus
parturition, then anterior pituitary activates Cervix
to release prolactin.
220. (d) Capacitation and acrosomal reaction occur Vagina
before fertilization. Th e process of
capacitation happens when sperms enter
vagina. During this period, cholesterol 228. (b) An intrauterine device (IUD) is a small
vesicles are removed from the acrosome. contraceptive device, often 'T'-shaped,
221. (b) During gametogenesis, spermatogonia are often containing either copper or
diploid because of undergoing the process levonorgestrel, which is inserted into the
of meiosis. uterus. They are one form of long-acting
222. (d) In human female, during ovulation, LH surge reversible contraception which is the most
takes place due to hyper secr etion of effective types of reversible birth control.
estrogen, which induces positive feed back The LNG-20 is so-called because it releases
to anterior pituitary for secretion of LH. 20 micrograms of levonorgestrel per 24
223. (a) GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) is a hours, compared with 30 micrograms of
technique helping to have a child. levonorgestrel in some mini-Pills.
224. (c) Zona pellucida is formed as a new membrane 229. (b) IVF (In vitro Fertilization) is the process of
by secondary oocyte around itself. fertilization by manually combining an egg
225. (b) The word ampulla is derived from the Latin and sperm in a laboratory dish. The process
word 'flask'. Being the second portion of involves monitoring and stimulating a
the fallopian tube, it is the intermediate woman's ovulatory process, removing
dilated portion which immediately curves ovum or ova (egg or eggs) from the woman's
over the ovary. This is the common site of ovaries and letting sperm fertilise them in a
human fertilization as both the ovum and fluid medium in a laboratory. The fertilised
sperms are simultaneously transported here. egg (zygote) is cultured for 2-6 days in a
226. (c) Considering the female reproductive growth medium and is then transferred to
endocrinology, ovulation is the process of the mother's uterus with the intention of
establishing a successful pregnancy.
230. (d) A hysterectomy is a surgery in which 237. (a) Turner's syndrome is a chromosomal
woman’s uterus is removed. It is adopted condition that affects development in
for the treatment of uterine fibroids and females. A human female with Turner's
cancer of uterine zone. syndrome has 45 chromosomes with XO.
231. (a) In ectopic pregnancies, the implantation of The most common feature of Turner
embryo does not occur in uterus but at other syndrome is short stature, which becomes
site. evident by about age 5.
232. (d) Amniocentesis (also referred to as amniotic 238. (c) Seven pairs of contrasting characters were
fluid test or AFT) is a medical procedure selected in pea plant and studied by
used in prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal Mendel in his experiment.
abnormalities and fetal infections, and also 239. (c) The most common cause of variations is
used for sex determination in which a small recombination in the organism which are
amount of amniotic fluid, which contains reproduced by sexual way.
fetal tissues, is sampled from the amniotic 240. (b) Alleles are defined as alternative form of
sac. Cleft palate is a developmental same gene.
abnormality which can only be detected by 241. (a) Mendel did not use pod length for his
sonography. experiment.
233. (d) Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for male 242. (b) Autosomal recessive is a type of disorder
sterilization or permanent contraception. in which two copies of an abnormal gene
During the procedure, the male vas deferens must be found for the disease in the affected
are severed and then tied or sealed in a person.
manner so as to prevent sperm from 243. (c) XX × XcY
entering into the seminal stream (ejaculate) Normal women Colourblind man
and thereby prevent fertilization.
234. (b) Epistasis is the phenomenon of OO Xc Y
suppression of phenotypic expression of x XX c XY
gene by a nonallelic gene which shows its
x XX c XY
own effect. A dominant epistatic allele
suppresses the expression ofa nonallelic The daughters of this couple will have
gene whether the latter is dominant or normal eye sight and carrier if one of the
recessive. For example, fruit colour of carrier daughter marries with normal eyed man.
Summer Squash (Cucurbita pepo) is XXc × XY
governed by a gene which pruduces yellow Normal women Normal man
colour in dominant state (Y-) and green
colour in recessive state (yy). OO X Y
235. (c) Colour blindness is a X-chromosome linked
x XX XY
character.
xc XX X c Y
X+ Y × X+ Xc
Only 25% grandson will show
X +
Y X +
X c colourblindness.
244. (a) The bird's wings and insect's wings are
analogous in structure. They show
X+ Xc X+ Xc X+ Y XcY convergent evolution having similar
\ Colourblind male = 50%. adaptive functional structure developing in
236. (c) According to Hardy Weinberg principle. different species.
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1; (p + q)2 = 1 245. (b) Hemophilia A and hemophilia B are
(AA) p2 = 360 out of 1000 individual inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern.
or p2 = 36 out of 100. The genes associated with these
q2 = 160 out of 1000 or q2 = 16 out of 100 conditions are located on the X
so q = .16 = .4. As p + q = 1 chromosome, which is one of the two sex
chromosomes. In males (who have only one
so p is 0.6. X chromosome), one altered copy of the
gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the 252. (c) Frederick Griffith (in 1928), a British Medical
condition. In females (who have two X officer described the phenomenon of
chromosomes), a mutation would have to bacterial transformation. He carried out
occur in both copies of the gene to cause experiment with Streptococcus pneumoniae
the disorder. Because it is unlikely that (bacterium causing pneumonia) which is
females will have two altered copies of this used to infect mice. By using S Strain (heat
gene, it is very rare for females to have killed) and R strain (live) it was concluded
hemophilia. A characteristic of X-linked that R strain has been transformed by some
inheritance is that fathers cannot pass X- material of S strain which makes R strain
linked traits to their sons. virulent and enable to synthesize smooth
X polysachharide.
246. (a) Parents – TT tt 253. (a) Synthesis of RNA exhibits several features
(Dwarf) that are synonymous with DNA replication.
(Tall)
RNA synthesis requires accurate and
F1 generation Tt (Heterozygous Tall) efficient initiation, elongation proceeds in
the 5'->3' direction (i.e. the polymerase
moves along the template strand of DNA in
On Selfing the 3'->5' direction), and RNA synthesis
requires distinct and accurate termination.
Pollen ® T t Transcription exhibits several features that
T TT Tt are distinct from replication.
Tall Dwarf 254. (b) Human genome sequencing is a process
t Tt tt that determines the complete DNA
Tall Dwarf sequence of an organism's genome at a
Phenotypic ratio : 3: 1 (Tall :Dwarf) single time. This requires sequencing all of
Genotypic Ratio: 1:2:1 (Homozygous Tall : an organism's chromosomal DNA as well
Heterozygous Tall : Dwarf) as DNA contained in the mitochondria and,
247. (b)
for plants, in the chloroplast. Commonly
248. (d) Sickle cell disease is inherited in an
used vectors for human genome
autosomal recessive pattern.
249. (c) When two genes in a dihybrid cross are sequencing are BAC (Bacterial artificial
situated on the same chromosome, the chromosomes) and YAC (Yeast artificial
proportion of parental gene combinations chromosomes).
are much higher than the non-parental or 255. (b) Possible × Possible
recombinant type. This is also called genotype genotype
incomplete linkage. of man with blood of woman with
250. (b) This phenomenon is known as Polyploidy, group A blood group B
wherein the cells contain more than two IA IA, IA IO × IB IB, IB IO
paired (homologous) sets of chromosomes. If the genotype is
Polyploidy is often seen in the case of IA I O × IB IO
plants. The major cause of polyploidy is The possibility of resultant blood group
the non - disjunction of sister chromatids may be A, B, AB and O.
during meiotic recombination. This 256. (b) Chargaff's rule states that A = T and G º C.
condition is actually useful in development The molar amount of adenine = molar
of new crop varieties. amount of thymine. The molar amount of
251. (a) Process of copying genetic information guanine = molar amount of cytosine.
from DNA to RNA is called transcription. Hence, G is 17%, so, C = 17%
At a time only one DNA strand is being A = 33%, so, T = 33%
transcribed into RNA. The strand of DNA 257. (b) In translocation, the movement of a gene
with polarity 3' ® 5' act as template strand takes place from one linkage group to
and the DNA strand with polarity 5' ® 3' another between non-homologous
act as coding strand.
chromosomes.
258. (a) Lac operon under control of repressor 270. (b) Analogous organs are those that perform
shows a negative regulation. Operon has similar functions but have entirely different
inducible nature. embryonic origins.
259. (a) In acrocentric chromosomes, one arm is 271. (c) Brain capacity in decreasing order:-
very short but another is long. Homo sapiens (1300 - 1600 c.c)
260. (b) All alleles of a gene are situated on the same Homo neander thalensis (approx. 1400 c.c.)
loci of chromosome in organisms. Homo eractus (600 - 700 c.c.)
261. (a) A human baby having abnormality with Homo habilis (550 - 687 c.c.)
‘XXX’ sex chromosomes is born due to Thus the lowest brain capacity is of Homo
evolution of abnormal ova in mother’s habilis as shown above. Homo habilis
ovary. This is caused due to non- lived in early pleistocene period and used
disjunction of X chromosome in the mother. tools of chipped stones.
272. (d) Wings of a bird and flippers of a whale are
AXX AX modified forelimbs.
(ovum) (sperm) 273. (c) Both statements are correct because
primitive atmosphere was reducing and
chlorophyll appeared later on.
AAXXX Chemoautotrophs were the first autotrophic
262. (c) Chargaff's rule is not applicable to RNA organisms unable to perform photolysis of
263. (c) A pleiotropic gene regulates multiple traits water and never released oxygen.
(characteristics) in an individual. 274. (b) Analogous structures are those that have
264. (c) In codominance both alleles are the same function, but they are not derived
independently expressed in the heterozygote. from a common an cestor an d have
265. (d) Thomas Hunt Morgan won the Nobel Prize undergone different patterns of
(1933) in physiology or medicine for the development ie., Convergent evolution
function of chromosomes in heredity. which is natural selection that favors the
266. (a) A polysome or polyribosome is a complex same type of structure in different ancestors.
of an mRNA molecule and two or more 275. (a) The plant illustrated in diagram is Datura
ribosomes, which is formed during the which has hallucinogenic properties.
active translation process. They were Hallucinogen is a substance that produces
initially named as ergosomes in 1963. psychological effects normally associated
However, further research by Jonathan only with dreams, schizophrenia, or
Warner and Alex Rich characterized religious visions. It produces changes in
polysome. perception (ranging from distortions in what
267. (b) Zinc-finger analysis is used for protein is sensed to perceptions of objects where
analysis. The zinc finger proteins are a there are none), thought, and feeling.
super family of proteins involved in 276. (c) HIV infection does usually show symptoms
numerous activities of plant growth and of AIDS When HIV damages large number
development. of helper T-Lymphocytes (CD4 cells). AIDS
268. (a) The start codon is the first codon of a is the stage of HIV infection that occurs
messenger RNA (mRNA) tran script when one immune system is badly damaged
translated by a ribosome. The start codon and one become vulnerable to infections
always codes for methionine in eukaryotes and infection-related cancers called
and a modified Met (fMet) in prokaryotes. opportunistic infections. When the number
The most common start codon is AUG. of ones CD4 cells falls below 200 cells per
269. (c) Organs which have a common fundamental cubic millimetre of blood (200 cells/mm3),
anatomical plan and similar embryonic origin one is considered to have progressed to AIDS.
whatever varied functions they may perform 277. (c) Encephalitis is a disease of inflammation of
are regarded as homologous organs. For the brain. It is not transmitted sexually.
examples the flippers of a whale, a bats wing, Most commonly it is caused by a virus.
fore-limb of a horse, a bird's wing and 278. (b) After infection, HIV starts to destroy the T-
forelimbs of human are structurally as well cells (T-helper lymphocytes). T. cells are
as functionally different. very important for the immune system. In
the early stage of infection, the decline in
numbers of T.cells is observed. of all three poliovirus types.

279. (d) Entamoeba histolytica is found in the 292. (c) To obtain virus - free healthy plants from a
colon. It feeds on mucosa and submucosa diseased one by tissue culture technique,
as well as phagocytose RBCs. both apical and axillary meristems of the
280. (b) The virus of chikunguniya is Arbovirus diseased plant will be taken. Plant tissue
transmitted by Aedes mosquito. In this culture is used to maintain or grow plant
disease the patient feels fever lasting 2-7 cells, tissues or organs under sterile
days. conditions on a nutrient culture medium of
281. (b) Tuberculosis vaccine (BCG) has inactivated known composition. Plant tissue culture is
bacteria. In whooping cough vaccine, there widely used to produce clones of a plant in
are killed pathogens of Bordetella pertussis a method known as micro propagation.
which cause whooping cough. In DPT 293. (a) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate play
diphtheria toxoid is present. Sabin polio an important role in the fusion of protoplasts
vaccine contains inactivated virus. from the same or different species. It is done
282. (b) Trichinella spiralis is an endoparasite for the formation of somatic hybrid cells.
found in human intestine. It is the smallest This process is adopted when normal sexual
nematode producing larvae in large number. reproduction is not possible for the
These larvae bore the intestine of human production of hybrids
being and enter the blood and lymphatic 294. (a) Development of embryo like structure from
systems. explant by the method of tissue culture, is called
283. (b) Colostrum contains high levels of lgA, somatic embryogenesis.
which gives passive immunity to foetus. 295. (b) Outbreeding is useful in the problem of
284. (c) Serum globulins test provides confirmatory inbreeding depression.
evidence measuring the deficiency of 296. (a) The growing of grass or legumes in rotation
antibodies ( g -globulin) in a person. with grain or tilled crops as a soil
conservation measure is called Ley farming.
285. (b) Babesiosis is malaria like disease caused by
297. (b) Anaerobic digestion is a series of processes
protozoon-Babesia. In this desease in which microorganisms break down
haemoglobinuric fever takes place. biodegradable material in the absence of
286. (d) T.O. Dinear (1971) discovered the viroids oxygen, used for industrial or domestic
which are smaller than viruses. purposes to manage waste and/or to release
287. (a) Cell-midiated immune response is a system energy. The process of anaerobic digestion
which is specialized for a particular person. produces a biogas, consisting of methane
288. (b) A mast cell or a mastocyte is typically a (it will burn), carbon dioxide (it does not
white blood cell. It is a special kind of burn) and traces of other contaminant gases.
granulocyte, which is a part of the immune 298. (d) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (ii)
system and laden with histamine and 299. (d) Clostridium butylicum is used for butyric
heparin. Besides these, mast cells also acid production
secrete the prostaglandin (PG) D2, and 300. (c) Methanogens are microorganisms that
leukotriene (LT) C4, which are capable of produce methane as a metabolic byproduct
inducing bronchoconstriction and mucosal in anoxic conditions. They are obligate
edema, both features of asthma. anaerobic ancient and primitive bacteria.
289. (c) An autoimmune disease is a pathological They are involved in methanogenesis.
state arising from an abnormal immune 301. (d) PCR is a technique for enzymatically
response of the body to substances and replicating DNA without using a living
tissues that are normally present in the body. organism such as E. coli or Yeast. It is
290. (d) Meloidogyne incognita is a nematode commonly used in medical and biological
(roundworm) in the family Heteroderidae. research labs for a variety of tasks like
It is commonly called the "southern root- detection of her editary diseases,
knot nematode" or the "cotton root-knot identification of genetic fingerprints etc.
nematode". 302. (a) Now a days PCR and RAPD technique are
291. (d) Oral Polio Vaccine consists of a mixture of used for the characterisation of in vitro
attenuated (weakened) poliovirus strains clonal propagation in plants.
303. (c) Plasmids are small extranuclear circular 316. (d) The Keoladeo National Park is a famous
DNAs which carry extrachromosomal genes avifauna sanctuary in India that plays host
in bacteria and some fungi. They replicate to thousands of birds especially during the
independently. The best known vectors summer season. It is formerly known as the
which are also available commerciallly are Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary in Bharatpur,
pBR322 and pUC-18. Rajasthan. October to February is the best
304. (d) Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at time, for the migratory birds are there as
specific locations. well as the residents. In August local birds
305. (a) A vector is a DNA molecule which is used start their nest building and rear their young
as a vehicle to carry the gene of interest to for the next few months. October/November
another cell. is when the migrants arrive. Most stay till
306. (d) Plasmid has an extra chromosomal, double March including the Siberian Crane.
stranded circular DNA. 317. (c) Phosphorus is an important element for
307. (a) The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained living beings. Consumers obtain
from Thermus aquaticus which lives in hot phosphorus directly or indirectly from
springs. plants. Phosphorus is also present in
308. (a) A restr iction enzyme or restriction phosphatic rocks. It is released during the
endonuclease is an enzyme that cuts DNA decomposition of plant and animal remains.
at or near specific recognition nucleotide The released phosphorus may reach the
sequences known as restriction sites. Hind deeper layers of soil and gets deposited as
II among these is a type of restriction phosphate rocks. All plants and animals
endonuclease. eventually die and in due time, their organic
309. (c) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients therefore remains or debris decay through the action
used as food supplements. Athletes and of micro-organism and the phosphates are
race horses use these as tablets to enhance released into the water for recycling.
performance. 318. (a) According to 10 percent law, during the
310. (a) Mammalian hormones were among the first transfer of energy from organic food from
products prepared in bacteria by r-DNA one trophic level to the next, only about
technology. Human insulin and human ten percent of energy from organic matter
growth hormone are earliest examples. is stored as flesh. The remaining is lost
311. (c) Today plants having the broad leaves are during transfer, broken down in respiration,
made resistant to a powerful biodegradable or lost to incomplete digestion by higher
herbicide glyphosate. It is an active trophic levels. If 20 J of energy is trapped at
ingredient of Round Up ready plant. It producer level, then 0.02 J of energy will be
disturbs the working of EPSP synthetase available to peacock as food in the given
enzyme. If it is taken up by crop plants they food chain.
will die. So, the bioengineers have 319. (c) In tropical rain forest zone, most of the
transferred gene for synthesis of EPSP animals prefer to live on trees. The reason
synthetase enzyme to crop plant. is that the floor of forest is full of humidity,
312. (d) Bt toxin are solubilised in alkaline pH of the decomposing leaves and other organic
insect gut causing death. matters and is the habitat of insects etc.
313. (b) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee 320. (d) The theory of Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium
is the body of Government of India. It states that in the absence of disturbance
regulates GM research and safety of on the level of genetic str ucture, a
introducing GM organisms for public population’s existance will not continue.
service in the country. Thus mating should be in a random way.
314. (c) Golden rice (Oryza sativa) is a genetically 321. (c) Detritivores are the organisms which feed
modified crop. It biosynthesizes b - carotene on dead plants and animal residues.
which is the precursor of vitamin-A. 322. (d) Competition occurs for light, food and space
315. (c) The ozone (O3) found in upper part of the among organisms in which all partners are
atmosphere, i.e., Stratosphere, is Good adversely affected in an ecosystom.
ozone, since, it acts as a shield for absorbing 323. (c) Gause's principle of competitive exclusion
UV-radiations from sun. can be restated to say that no two species
can occupy the same niche indefinitely productivity & luxuriance of growth. It is
when resources are limiting. Certainly expressed in the form of number or biomass
species can and do coexist while competing of organisms per unit area.
for some of the same resources. 329. (a) Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) is the rate
Nevertheless, Gause's theory predicts that of production of biomass or accumulation
when two species coexist on a long-term of energy by green plants per unit area per
basis, either resources must not be limited unit time. GPP depends on the chlorophyll
or their niches will always differ in one or content.
more features; otherwise, one species will 330 (a) Secondary succession takes place in
outcompete the other and the extinction of disturbed area having poor vegetation.
the second species will inevitably result, a 331. (a) The given graph illustrates that population
process referred to as competitive B got success in the grassy field in comparison
exclusion. to population A.
324. (a) In logistic growth model population growth 332. (d) The gradual and predictable change, in the
equation is described as composition of species takes place in a given
dN æ Nö area during ecological succession.
= rN ç 1 - ÷ 333. (d) Biomagnification means an increase in
dt è Kø
N = population density at time t; concentration of toxins through the trophic
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase; levels of a food chain.
K = carrying capacity 334. (a) Industrial melanism occured in England due
N to industrial revolution. It caused black
When N/K = 1; 1 – =0 coating of moths for the adaptation in the
K present environment.
dN
Therefore, =0 335. (d) Carbon and Nitrogen are gaseous nutrient
dt cycle. Sulphur an d phosphorus are
325. (d) Detrivores, (e.g. earthworm) break down sedimentary nutrient cycle.
detritus into smaller particles. The species 336. (d) Leghemoglobin prevents oxygen poisoning
that invade a bare area in succession is which causes inactivation of nitrogenase.
called pioneer species. The products of 337. (a) Biotic community is an association of
ecosystem processes are termed as individuals of different species living in the
ecosystem services, e.g., healthy forest same habitat and showing functional
ecosystems purify air and water, mitigate interactions.
droughts and floods etc. Natality refers to 338. (b) Cropland ecosystem is largest
number of births during a given period in anthropogenic ecosystem characterized by
the population. less diversity and high productivity.
326. (d) Rachel Carson’s book ‘Silent Spring’ 339. (a) Lichens produce small amounts of carbonic
reveals the harmful effect of DDT, a fatal acids from their "roots" and these slowly
pesticide. The writer opposed to chemical
dissolve the rock, releasing nutrients. Other
industry in U.S.A. This book influenced the
nutrients are obtained from water-borne or
national policy over pesticide use in many
air-borne particles of both organic and
countries all over the world.
inorganic materials. The body of a lichen
327. (a) Stratification is the occurrence of vertical
contains an alga; this is able to
zonation in the ecosystem & indicates the
photosynthesise sugars, some of which are
presence of favorable environmental
passed on to the fungal component of the
conditions, for e.g., trees occupy top
lichen. In return the alga gets a tiny but
vertical strata or layer of a forest, shrubs
significant amount of shelter within the
the second. Herbs & grasses occupy the
tissues of the lichen.
bottom layers. It is absent or poor where
340. (b) Sir Arthur George Tansley was an English
environmental conditions are unfavorable,
botanist and a pioneer in the science of
e.g. desert ecosystems have very few trees
ecology who coined the term ecosystem.
& shrubs.
328. (c) Standing crop is the amount of living 341. (b) In Ex-situ conservation the threatened
biomass in an ecosystem. It indicates the animals and plants are taken out of their
natural habitat and are protected in special they do not grow in pollutted areas. They
parks or areas like, Zoological parks, Wild are sensitive to sulphur dioxide pollution.
life safari parks and Botanical gardens 351. (a) Scrubbers are air pollution control devices
etc. The ex situ conservation also includes that use liquid to remove particulate matter
cryopreservation, fertilization of eggs in or gases from an industrial exhaust or flue
vitro and propagation of plants through gas stream. This atomized liquid (typically
‘Tissue culture methods’, preservation of water) entrains particles and pollutant
seeds through Seed banks. gases in order to effectively wash them out
342. (c) Critically Endangered : The taxon facing of the gas flow. It removes or scrubs SO2
very high risk of extinction in the wild can emissions from the exhaust of coal-fired
become extinct any moment in the power plants.
immediate future, e.g. Sus salvinus (Pigmy 352. (a) BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) is a
Hog), Berberis nilghiriensis. method which measures the level of water
343. (b) IUCN or WCN maintains a red data book pollution. The polluted water has bacteria
which is a catalogue of threatened plants and many other microorganisms which
and animals facing risk of extinction. The consume the dissolved oxygen of water.
IUCN red list (2004) documents the The higher the BOD, the lower would be
extinction of 784 species (including 338 the dissolved oxygen in polluted water. The
vertebrates, 359 invertebrates and 87 plants) high value of BOD indicates the highly
in the last 500 years. polluted water.
344. (d) Arthropoda is the largest phylum of 353. (a) The UN Conference of Parties on climate
Animalia which includes insects. Over two- change in 2011, was held in Durban, South
thirds of all named species on earth are Africa. It aimed at decrease of pollutant
arthropods. They have organ system level emission.
of organisation. Mollusca is the second 354. (c) Liver cancer is caused due to aflatoxin
largest animal phylum. They are terrestrial released by Aspergillus fungus and Vinyl
or aquatic (marine or fresh). chloride. UV-rays are not related with liver
345. (a) In such type of conservation, the cancer.
threatened animals and plants are taken out 355. (a) This conference occured from 20 Nov to 8
of their natural habitat and protected in December, 2012 to extend the life of the
special areas like zoological parks and wild Kyoto Protocal at Doha in Qatar.
life sanctuaries. 356. (d) 60 - 70% SO2 and 20 - 30% NO2 contribute
346. (d) In-situ (on site) conservation is within the in the acid rain.
natural habitat eg- sea, river and forest. Ex- 357. (c) Due to eutrophication water bodies lack
situ (off site) conservation is outside the oxygen causing death of aquatic life.
natural habitat e.g. zoological park. 358. (c) Joint Forest Management originated in
347. (b) Endemic species is confined to a particular West Bengal accidentally at the Arabari
area due to special type of adaptation Forest Range in West Midnapore, near
according to that region. Midnapore town in 1971. After the initial
348. (b) River Dolphin is the National Aquatic successes in West Bengal and Haryana,
Animal of India. This mammal is also said the JFM schemes received national
to represent the purity of the holy Ganga importance in the legislation of 1988.
as it can only survive in pure and fresh 359. (b) The ozone layer or ozone shield refers to a
water. Platanista gangetica has a long region of Earth's stratosphere that absorbs
pointed snout and also have visible teeth most of the Sun's ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
in both the upper and lower jaws. It contains high concentrations of ozone
349. (c) The primary cause of human-induced (O3) relative to other parts of the atmosphere.
extinction events is simply human 360. (d) Domestic sewage rich in organic waste
overpopulation of planet Earth. The most leads to increase in Biological Oxygen
important causal anthropogenic activities Demand, which leads to decrease D.O.
are habitat destruction and fragmentation. (dissolved oxygen) which leads to death of
350. (d) Lichens are very good pollution indicators, fishes.
HAPTER
C
1 The Living World
1. Static concept of species was put forward by 8. A taxon is [1990, 91, 92, 96]
[1988] (a) a group of related families
(a) de Candolle (b) Linnaeus (b) a group of related species
(c) Theophrastus (d) Darwin (c) a type of living organisms
2. The term “New Systematics” was introduced (d) a taxonomic group of any ranking
by [1988]
9. Employment of hereditary principles in the
(a) Bentham and Hooker
improvement of human race is [1990]
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Julian Huxley (a) Euthenics (b) Eugenics
(d) A.P. de Candolle (c) Euphenics (d) Ethnology
3. Classification given by Bentham and Hooker 10. An important criterion for modern day
is classification is [1991]
(a) artificial (b) natural [1988] (a) resemblances in morphology
(c) phylogenetic (d) numerical
(b) anatomical and physiological traits
4. Artificial system of classification was first
used by [1989] (c) breeding habits
(a) Linnaeus (d) presence or absence of notochord
(b) De Candolle 11. Study of fossils is [1991]
(c) Pliny the Edler (a) palaeontology
(d) Bentham and Hooker
(b) herpetology
5. System of classification used by Linnaeus
was (c) saurology
(a) natural system [1989] (d) organic evolution
(b) artificial system 12. Homeostasis is organism’s [1991]
(c) phylogenetic system (a) tendency to change with change in
(d) asexual system environment
6. Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature
(b) tendency to resist change
called [1990]
(a) mononomial (b) vernacular (c) disturbance in regulatory control
(c) binomial (d) polynomial (d) plants and animal extracts used in
7. Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ homeopathy
classification is [1990] 13. The term phylum was given by [1992]
(a) species (b) kingdom (a) Cuvier (b) Haeckel
(c) family (d) variety
(c) Theophrastus (d) Linnaeus
2 Topic-wise CBSE-PMT Solved Papers - Biology
14. Sequence of taxonomic categories is 21. “Taxonomy without phylogeny is similar to
[1992] bones without flesh” is the statement of
(a) Class – Phylum – Tribe – Order – Family (a) Oswald Tippo [1994]
– Genus – Species (b) John Hutchinson
(b) Division – Class – Family – Tribe –
(c) Takhtajan
Order – Genus – Species
(c) Division – Class – Order – Family – (d) Bentham and Hooker
Tribe – Genus – Species 22. The high boiling point of water is
(d) Phylum – Order – Class – Tribe – Family advantageous to living organisms because
– Genus – Species [1997]
15. Binomial nomenclature means [1993] (a) the environment seldom reaches the
(a) one name given by two scientists boiling point of water
(b) one scientific name consisting of a
generic and specific epithet (b) organisms can easily boil off enough
(c) two names, one latinised, other of a water to keep themselves cool
person (c) it allows organisms to spread heat evenly
(d) two names of same plant throughout their bodies
16. Linnaeus is credited with [1993] (d) organisms can absorb a great deal of
(a) binomial nomenclature heat before they reach the boiling point
(b) theory of biogenesis from organisms and population
(c) discovery of microscope
23. In the five-kingdom system of classification,
(d) discovery of blood circulation
which single kingdom out of the following
17. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by
(a) de Vries [1994] can include blue green algae, nitrogen-fixing
(b) Carlous Linnaeus bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria?
(c) Huxley [1998, 2003]
(d) John Ray (a) Fungi (b) Plantae
18. Species is [1994] (c) Protista (d) Monera
(a) unit of classification
24. Species occurring in different geographical
(b) unit in the evolutionary history of a
areas are called as [1998]
tree
(c) specific class of evolution (a) sibling (b) sympatric
(d) not related to evolution (c) allopatric (d) neopatric
19. Phylogenetic classification is based on 25. If there was no CO2 in the earth’s atmosphere
(a) utilitarian system [1994] the temperature of earth’s surface would be
(b) habits [1998]
(c) overall similarities
(a) higher than the present form
(d) common evolutionary descent
environmental issues
20. Binomial nomenclature consists of two
words (b) less than the present
(a) Genus and species [1994] (c) the same
(b) Order and family (d) dependent on the amount of oxygen
(c) Family and genus
in the atmosphere from environmental
(d) Species and variety
issues
The Living World 3
26. The practical purpose of classification of 34. In five kingdom system, the main basis of
living organisms is to [1999] classification is [2002]
(a) structure of nucleus
(a) explain the origin of living organisms
(b) mode of nutrition
(b) trace the evolution of living organisms (c) structure of cell wall
(c) name the living organisms (d) asexual reproduction
(d) facilitate identification of unknown 35. What is true for individuals of same species?
organisms (a) Live in same niche [2002]
27. A system of classification in which a large (b) Live in same habitat
(c) Interbreeding
number of traits are considered, is [1999]
(d) Live in different habitat
(a) artificial system
36. Organisms which obtain energy by the
(b) synthetic system oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds
(c) natural system are called [2002]
(d) phylogenetic system (a) photoautotrophs
28. The book Genera Plantarum was written by (b) chemoautotrophs
(a) Bessy [1999] (c) saprozoic
(b) Hutchinson (d) coproheterotrophs
(c) Engler and Prantl 37. Phenetic classification is based on [2003, 04]
(d) Bentham & Hooker (a) sexual characteristics
29. The most important feature of all living (b) the ancestral lineage of existing
systems is to [2000] organisms
(a) utilize oxygen to generate energy (c) observable characteristics of existing
(b) replicate the genetic information organisms
(c) produce gametes (d) dendograms based on DNA
(d) utilize solar energy for metabolic characteristics
38. Biosystematics aims at [2003]
activities
(a) identification and arrangement
30. Relative biological effectiveness (RBE) is
of organisms on the basis of their
usually referred to damages caused by cytological characteristics
(a) Low temperature [2000] (b) the classification of organisms based on
(b) High temperature broad morphological characters
(c) Encephalitis (c) delimiting various taxa of organisms
(d) Radiation and establishing their relationships
31. Which of the following is less general in (d) the classification of organisms based
characters as compared to genus? [2001] on their evolutionary history and
(a) Species (b) Division establishing their phylogeny on the
(c) Class (d) Family totality of various parameters from all
32. What is true for photolithotrops? [2001] fields of studies
(a) Obtain energy from radiations and 39. Species are considered as [2003]
hydrogen from organic compounds (a) real units of classification devised by
(b) Obtain energy from radiations and taxonomists
hydrogen from inorganic compounds (b) real basic units of classification
(c) Obtain energy from organic (c) the lowest units of classification
compounds (d) artificial concept of human mind which
(d) Obtain energy from inorganic
cannot be defined in absolute terms
compounds
40. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses
33. First life on earth was [2001]
and ferns are grouped under the general
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Chemoheterotrophs term [2003]
(c) Autotrophs (a) Thallophytes (b) Cryptogams
(d) Photoautotrophs (c) Bryophytes (d) Sporophytes
41. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora 47. The haemoglobin of a human foetus [2008]
primarily because of their [2004] (a) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that
(a) power of adaptability in diverse habitat of the adult
(b) property of producing large number of (b) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that
seeds of an adult
(c) nature of self pollination (c) has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
(d) domestication by man (d) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that
42. Which of the following is not true for a of an adult
species? [2005] 48. Which one of the following is considered
(a) Members of a species can interbreed. important in the development of seed habit?
(a) Heterospory [2009]
(b) Gene flow does not occur between the
(b) Haplontic life cycle
populations of a species.
(c) Free -living gametophyte
(c) Each species is reproductively isolated
(d) Dependent sporophyte
from every other species.
49. Which one of the following animals is
(d) Variations occur among members of a
correctly matched with its particular named
species. taxonomic category ? [2011]
43. ICBN stands for [2007] (a) Tiger - tigris, the species
(a) International Code of Botanical (b) Cuttle fish - mollusca, a class
Nomenclature (c) Humans - primata, the family
(b) International congress of Biological (d) Housefly - musca, an order
Names 50. Which one of the following aspects is an
(c) Indian Code of Botanical exclusive characteristic of living things ?
Nomenclature [2011M]
(d) Indian Congress of Biological Names. (a) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in
44. Biological organisation starts with [2007] vitro
(a) cellular level (b) Increase in mass from inside only
(b) organismic level (c) Perception of events happening in the
(c) atomic level environment and their memory
(d) submicroscopic molecular level (d) Increase in mass by accumulation of
45. Select the correct statement from the material both on surface as well as
following? [2007] internally.
(a) Fitness is the end result of the ability to 51. Which one of the following organisms is
adapt and gets selected by nature scientifically correctly named, correctly
(b) All mammals except whales and camels printed according to the International Rules
have seven cervical vertebrae of Nomenclature and correctly described?
[2012M]
(c) Mutations are random and directional
(a) Musca domestica - The common house
(d) Darwinian variations are small and
lizard, a reptile.
direction less.
(b) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan
46. The living organisms can be unexceptionally
pathogen causing the most serious type
distinguished from the non-living things on
of malaria.
the basis of their ability for [2007] (c) Felis tigris - The Indian tiger, well
(a) interaction with the environment and protected in Gir forests.
progressive evolution (d) E.coli - Full name Entamoeba coli,
(b) reproduction a commonly occurring bacterium in
(c) growth and movement human intestine.
(d) responsiveness to touch.
The Living World 5
52. Which one of the following is not a correct (d) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and
statement ? [NEET 2013] preserved plant specimens.
(a) Botanical gardens have collection of 53. The common characteristics between tomato
living plants for reference. and potato will be maximum at the level of
(b) A museum has collection of photographs their [NEET Kar. 2013]
of plants and animals (a) Genus (b) Family
(c) Key is taxonomic aid for identification (c) Order (d) Division
of specimens.
Solutions
1. (b) Carolus Linnaeus introduced Binomial 5. (b) Linnaeus put forward an “Artificial
System of Nomenclature in his book system” of plant classification which
Species Plantarum (1753). He said that was based on sexual characters. It is
there can be variation within species, but commonly also called as Sexual System
they do not change from one species to of plant classification.
another. 6. (c) The first scientific attempt to name the
2. (c) The term “New Systematics” was given organism was Polynomial nomenclature
by Julian Huxley (1940). Characters which consists of number of words that
of plants collected through different incorporate all its important characters.
E.g. : Caryophyllum was given name as
branches of science are considered
Caryophyllum saxatilis folis gramineus
eg. ecology, physiology, biochemistry, umbellatis corymbis, which means
cytology, genetics etc. caryophyllum growing on rocks having
3. (b) George Bentham and Joseph Dalton grass like leaves and umbellate corymb
Hooker has given Natural system arrangement of flowers. However
of classification. In this system Polynomial system of nomenclature
of classification all the important could not find favour by many scientists as
characteristic of the organisms that it is difficult to remember long descriptive
provide information regarding their names.
natural relationship are taken into To over come this problem a system was
consideration which helps in bringing developed by Carolus Linnaeus known as
out maximum number of similarities “Binomial nomenclature”. The system
in a group and comparable differences provides organisms with appropriate and
with other groups of organisms. For distinct names consisting of two words,
example Mammals are characterised by first generic name and second specific E.g.
the presence of mammary gland, hair, potato is named as Solanum tuberosum.
Vivipary, 4 chambered heart etc. Solanum represent genus and tuberosum
4. (c) During the early period of taxonomy, species. The first name or genus is always
written with capital letter and second or
only external morphology (the characters
species name with small letter, and both
observed with naked eye) was the sole are separately underlined.
criteria to classify plants and animals. 7. (a) Species is the basic unit for understanding
Theophrastus gave names and description taxonomy, that occupies a key position. It
of 480 plants in his book “Historia is defined as a dynamic genetically distinct
plantarum” , on the basis of their habit group of organisms, which resemble each
but Pliny the Edler introduced first other in all respect and freely interbreed
artificial system of classification in his among themselves to produce fertile
book Historia Naturalis. He classified offsprings.
both plants and animals. 8. (d) Taxon is a taxonomic group of any rank.
9. (b) Eugenics is the science that deals with and specific name with small letter.
factors (such as principles of genetics) Both the names are written in Italics. Or
related to improvement of human race. underlined in manuscripts.
Improvement of race is positive eugenics 16. (a) Binomial Nomenclature.
and if factors impaires, then it is negative 17. (b) Linnaeus.
eugenics. 18. (a) Species is the basic unit of classification. It
• Euthenics is the science which is defined as a group of natural populations
improves the condition of life and the whose members can interbreed among
environment of human well being .
themselves and are reproductively isolated
• Ethnology is the study of different
from other such groups. May (1964)
races of mankind, their distribution,
relationship and activities. defined species as “a group of actually or
• Euphenics is the study of body potentially interbreeding populations that
functions and treatment of heredity are reproductively isolated from other
defect through medical means i.e. such groups”.
genetic engineering. 19. (d) The first phylogenetic system of
10. (b) Modern day classification is new classification was proposed by Adolf
systematics or biosystematics which Engler and his associate Karl Prantl
includes all the characteristic of organisms in their monograph “Die Naturlichen
gathered from the study of different Pflanzen Familien”. In this system of
sections like Physiology, Ecology, classification organisms are classified on
Anatomy, Biochemistry, Cytology.
the basis of evolutionary sequence and
11. (a) Herpetology is the branch of Zoology
concerned with the study of amphibians genetic relationship among the organisms.
and reptiles. Hence, this system is highly dynamic not
Palaentalogy is the branch of zoology static. Fossil records play vital role in
concerned with the study of fossils. elucidation of evolutionary relationships.
Serology is the branch of Zoology This system has led to new systematics.
concerned with the study of Lizards. 20. (a) Binomial nomenclature consists of two
12. (b) Homoeostasis is the property of all living words – Genus and species. First word
beings in which by a self regulatory denotes Genus name and second word
mechanism of maintaining favourable denotes Species name.
internal condition for uninterrupted 21. (c) Takhtajan
chemical reactions in the living
22. (b) This is one of the reason for organisms
system despite changes in the external
environment. e.g. In winter the skin being Homeostatic (constant body
contracts to conserve body heat. temperature).
13. (a) Cuvier, father of modern Palaeontology. 23. (d) Monera is the kingdom of all prokaryotes
He introduced the term “Phylum”. and includes bacteria, blue green algae
14. (c) With the discovery of more and more (cyanobacteria) and archae-bacteria- a
organisms, sometimes, it becomes difficult group of ancient bacteria kingdom.
to adjust an organism to the traditional Protista includes slime unicellular and
categories. Therefore to make taxonomic colonial eukaryotes. The important
position of a species more precise, the members are diatoms, dinoflagellates,
various obligate categories in hierarchial euglenoids, moulds and protozoans.
classification are explained below Fungi the kingdom of multicellular
Division —→ Class —→ Order —→ or multinucleate heterophyllous and
Family —→ Genus —→ Species spore producing eukaryotic organisms
15. (b) Binomial Nomenclature means the like Rhizopus mildews, mushroom etc.
scientific name of any organism consist Kingdom plantae includes all coloured
of a generic epithet and a specific epithet. multicellular photosynthetic organisms
Generic name starts with capital letter (plants).
The Living World 7
24. (c) Two or more species which are many related genera. Division comprises
reproductively isolated from each other of several related classes.
but are morphologically quite similar 32. (b) Photolithotrophs manufacture their
are known as sibling species. Sympatric own organic nutrients from inorganic
species are developed due to reproductive raw materials (H2, O2) with the help of
isolation and occur in overlapping or radiation energy.
same area of geographical distribution. 33. (b) First living beings were formed in the
Parapatric species are developed in environment of sea having abundant
adjacent geographical areas meeting in organic molecules. They absorbed the
very narrow regions of overlap. organic materials for the sake of nutrtion
25. (b) CO2 is green house gas which traps the and hence were chemoheterotrophs.
solar radiation i.e. heats up the earth’s 34. (b) The five kingdom classification is a mode
atmosphere. of classification based on the following
26. (d) Biological classification is the scientific criteria.
arrangement of organisms in a hierarchial • Complexity of cell structure
series of groups and subgroups on the • Complexity of body structure
basis of similarities and differences • Modes of nutrition
in their traits. It helps in building • Ecological life styles
evolutionary pathways and in identifying • Phylogenetic relationship
new oganisms. 35. (c) Individuals of the same species can
27. (c) Artificial system of classification is based interbreed. No two individuals share the
on comparison of one or a few characters. same ecological niche.
A system based upon a large no. of natural 36. (b) The organisms obtaining energy by
characters or traits is natural system of chemical reactions independent of
classification, Proposed by de Jussieu. light are called chemotrophs. When
Phylogenetic system of classification the reductants obtained from the
indicates the evolutionary or phylogenetic
environment in inorganic form then
relationship of organisms.
organisms are chemoautotrophs. While
28. (d) Bentham & Hooker wrote the book
when its is organic then organisms are
Genera Plantarum. Bentham began
chemoheterotrophs.
with the Flora Hongkongensis in 1861,
Photoautotroph make their food by
which was the first comprehensive work
photosynthesis using the energy of sun.
on any part of the little-known flora of
China and Hong Kong, including Hong Saprozoic organisms obtain food from
Kong Croton. This was followed by the dead and decaying matter.
37. (c) Phenetic classification is based upon
Flora Australiensis, in seven volumes
observable characteristics of an organism.
(1863-1878), the first flora of any large
Phylogenetic system of classification is
continental area that had ever been a system indicating the evolutionary or
finished. His greatest work was the phylogenetic relationship of organisms.
Genera Plantarum, begun in 1862, and 38. (d) Biosystematics is the study of diversity of
concluded in 1883 in collaboration with organism and all their comparative and
Sir Joseph Dalton Hooker. evolutionary relationships.
29. (b) Replication of the genetic information 39. (c) Species is the lowest or basic taxonomic
causes transfer of genetic information category comprising of one or more
from one generation to the next. natural population of individuals that
30. (d) RBE (Relative Biological Effectiveness) is interbreed freely.
a comparision of the dose of the radiation 40. (b) The plants which reproduce by spores
being studied with the dose of standard and do not produce seeds are called
radiation producing the same effect. Cryptogams. The term Cryptogams
31. (a) Species is the lowest taxonomic category. is made of 2 Greek words ie. Kryptos
Class is a category made of one or more (hidden) + gamos (marriage). These
related orders possessing similar correlated include Bryophytes (mosses) and
Pteridophytes (ferns).
characters, Family is composed of one to
41. (a) Angiosperms have adapted themselves the production of spores of two different
to all kinds of habitat - terrestial, sizes and sexes by the sporophytes of land
aquatic, tropical, deciduous and alpine. plants. Heterospory was evolved from
Self pollination is seen in very few isospory independently by several plant
angiosperms.Production of large number groups in the Devonian period as part of
of seeds ensure that at least some will the process of evolution of the timing of
germinate. Not all plants have been
sex differentiation. Heterosporic plants
domesticated by man.
42. (b) Gene flow is the spread of genes through produce small spores called microspores
populations as effected by movements which either germinate to become male
of individual and their propagules, e.g. gametophytes or have reduced male
seeds spores etc. Gene flow ensures that gametophytes packaged within them, and
all populations of a given species share similarly larger spores called megaspores
a common gene pool. i.e. it reduces that germinate into female gametophytes,
difference between populations. The or which have female gametophytes
interruption of gene flow between packaged within them.
populations is a pre-requisite for the 49. (a) Tiger and tigris both are from same genus
formation of new species. with particular taxonomic category.
43. (a) ICBN (International code of Botanical
50. (c) All living things have an ability to respond
Nomenclature) - It is one of the code
of nomenclature which is independent to their environment, that is also called
of zoological and bacteriological stimulation.
nomenclature. The code applies equally 51. (c) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan
to names of taxonomic groups treated as pathogen causes the most serious type of
plants whether or not these groups were malaria that is falciparum malaria.
originally so treated. Musca domestica – House fly, an insect
44. (d) Biological organisms starts with belongs to arthropoda phylum.
submicroscopic moleculer level like Felis tigris - The Bengal tiger, well
viruses, bacteria etc. protected in Sundarbans (Tiger reserve)
These organisms are unable to be seen by E.coli - Full name Escherichia coli, a
naked eyes without the help of microscope commonly occurring bacterium in human
or even electron microscope.
intestine.
45. (a) To survive in a particular environment, 52. (b) Museum – Biological museums are
an organism need to adapt in that generally set up in educational institutes
environment. If the organism becomes such as schools and colleges. Museums
success in adapting them that organism is have collections of preserved plant and
selected by nature . animal specimens for study and reference.
46. (b) There are several factors and processes Specimens are preserved in the containers
which differentiate living beings with or jars in preservative solutions. Plant and
non-living beings like reproducction, animal specimens may also be preserved
respiration, growth, etc. But among them as dry specimens. Insects are preserved
reproduction is the only difference which in insect boxes after collections, killing
differentiate without any exception living and pinning. Larger animals like birds and
being with non-living beings. mammals are usually stuffed and preserved.
47. (d) The haemoglobin of a human foetus has a Museums often have collections of skeletons
higher affinity for oxygen than that of an of animals too.
adult. Haemoglobin is a group of globlar 53. (b) Families are characterised on the basis of
proteins occurring widely in animal as both vegetative and reproductive features
oxygen carriers in blood. of plant species. Tomato (Lycopersicon
48. (a) Heterospory is considered important in the esculentum) and potato (Solanum tuberosum)
development of seed habit. Heterospory is belong to the same family Solanaceae.
HAPTER
C
2 Biological Classification
1. The causal organism for African sleeping 8. Which one belongs to monera? [1990]
sickness is [1989] (a) Amoeba (b) Escherichia
(a) Trypanosoma cruzi (c) Gelidium (d) Spirogyra
(b) T. rhodesiense 9. The main difference in Gram (+)ve and
(c) T. tangela Gram (–)ve bacteria resides in their
(d) T. gambiense [1990, 2001]
2. The vector for sleeping sickness is [1989] (a) cell wall (b) cell membrane
(a) House fly (b) Tse-Tse fly (c) cytoplasm (d) flagella
(c) Sand fly (d) Fruit fly 10. Genetic information in Paramecium is
3. Trypanosoma belongs to class [1989] contained in [1990]
(a) micronucleus
(a) Sarcodina (b) Zooflagellata
(b) macronucleus
(c) Ciliata (d) Sporozoa
(c) both micronucleus and macronucleus
4. Malaria fever coincides with liberation of
(d) mitochondria
(a) cryptomerozoites [1989]
11. Which is true about Trypanosoma ? [1990]
(b) metacryptomerozoites
(a) Polymorphic
(c) merozoites (b) Monogenetic
(d) trophozoites (c) Facultative Parasite
5. A bite of Tse-Tse fly may pass to humans (d) Non-pathogenic
(a) Leishmania donovani [1989] 12. Amoebiasis is prevented by [1990]
(b) Trypanosoma gambiense (a) eating balanced food
(c) Entamoeba histolytica (b) eating plenty of fruits
(d) Plasmodium vivax (c) drinking boiled water
6. The infective stage of malarial parasite (d) using mosquito nets
Plasmodium that enters human body is 13. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite, belongs to
[1989] class [1990]
(a) merozoite (b) sporozoite (a) Sarcodina (b) Ciliata
(c) trophozoite (d) minuta form (c) Sporozoa (d) Dinophyceae
7. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they 14. A nonphotosynthetic aerobic nitrogen fixing
[1989] soil bacterium is [1990, 1994]
(a) show association between algae and (a) Rhizobium (b) Clostridium
fungi (c) Azotobacter (d) Klebsiella
(b) grow faster than others 15. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is
(c) are sensitive to SO2 exhibited by [1990]
(d) flourish in SO2 rich environment (a) Algae (b) Fungi
(c) Bryophytes (d) Pteridophytes
16. Who discovered Plasmodium in R.B.C of 24. Escherichia coli is used extensively in biological
human beings ? [1991] research as it is [1993]
(a) Ronald Ross (b) Mendel (a) easily cultured
(c) Laveran (d) Stephens (b) easily available
17. Malignant tertian malarial parasite is [1991] (c) easy to handle
(a) Plasmodium falciparum (d) easily multiplied in host
(b) P. vivax 25. Genophore/bacterial genome or nucleoid is
(c) P. ovale made of [1993]
(d) P. malariae (a) histones and nonhistones
18. Name the organisms which do not derive (b) RNA and histones
energy directly or indirectly from sun [1991] (c) a single double stranded DNA
(a) Chemosynthetic bacteria (d) a single stranded DNA
(b) Pathogenic bacteria 26. If all ponds and puddles are destroyed, the
(c) Symbiotic bacteria organism likely to be destroyed is [1993]
(d) Mould (a) Leishmania (b) Trypanosoma
19. African sleeping sickness is due to [1991] (c) Ascaris (d) Plasmodium
(a) Plasmodium vivax transmitted by Tse tse 27. Schizogont stage of Plasmodium occurs in
human cells [1993]
fly
(a) Erthrocytes
(b) Trypanosoma lewsii transmitted by Bed
(b) Liver cells
Bug
(c) Erythrocytes and liver cells
(c) Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by
(d) Erythrocytes, liver cells and spleen cells
Glossina palpalis
28. Reverse transcriptase is [1994]
(d) Entamoeba gingivalis spread by Housefly.
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
20. In Amoeba and Paramecium osmoregulation
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
occurs through [1991, 2002]
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(a) pseudopodia
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(b) nucleus 29. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) genes are
(c) contractile vacuole [1994]
(d) general surface (a) double stranded RNA
21. Bacteria lack alternation of generation (b) single stranded RNA
because there is [1991, 1992] (c) polyribonucleotides
(a) neither syngamy nor reduction division (d) proteinaceous
(b) distinct chromosomes are absent 30. Organelle/organoid involved in genetic
(c) no conjugation engineering is [1994]
(d) no exchange of genetic material (a) plasmid (b) mitochondrion
22. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite (c) golgi apparatus (d) lomasome
Plasmodium vivax, that is passed in female 31. The term antibiotic was first used by
Anopheles is [1992] [1994, 2003]
(a) sexual cycle (a) Flemming (b) Pasteur
(b) pre-erythrocytic schizogony (c) Waksman (d) Lister
(c) exoerythrocytic schizogony 32. Temperature tolerance of thermal blue-green
(d) post-erythrocytic schizogony algae is due to [1994]
23. Organisms which are indicator of SO2 (a) cell wall structure
pollution of air [1992] (b) cell organisation
(a) Mosses (b) Lichens (c) mitochondrial structure
(c) Mushrooms (d) Puffballs (d) homopolar bonds in their proteins
Biological Classification 11
33. Nonsymbiotic nitrogen fixers are [1994] 41. Claviceps purpurea is causal organism of
(a) Azotobacter (a) Smut of Barley [1994]
(b) Pseudomonas (b) Rust of Wheat
(c) soil fungi (c) Ergot of Rye
(d) blue-green algae (d) Powdery Mildew of Pea.
42. Decomposers are organisms that [1994]
34. Rickettsiae constitute a group under [1994]
(a) illaborate chemical substances, causing
(a) bacteria
death of tissues
(b) viruses
(b) operate in living body and simplifying
(c) independent group between bacteria organic substances of cells step by step
and viruses (c) attack and kill plants as well as animals
(d) fungi (d) operate in relay terms, simplifying step
35. Nitrogen fixer soil organisms belong to by step the organic constituents of dead
[1994] body
(a) mosses (b) bacteria 43. Mycorrhiza represents [1994, 2003]
(c) green Algae (d) soil Fungi (a) antagonism (b) endemism
36. Protistan genome has [1994] (c) symbiosis (d) parasitism
(a) membrane bound nucleoproteins 44. The plasmid [1995]
embedded in cytoplasm (a) helps in respiration
(b) genes found inside nucleus
(b) free nucleic acid aggregates
(c) is a component of cell wall of bacteria
(c) gene containing nucleoproteins
(d) is the genetic part in addition to DNA in
condensed together in loose mass
micro-organisms
(d) nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell 45. Which of the following organism possesses
substance characteristics of both a plant and an
37. Entamoeba coli causes [1994] animal?
(a) Pyrrhoea (b) Diarrhoea (a) Bacteria (b) Euglena [1995]
(c) Dysentery (d) None (c) Mycoplasma (d) Paramecium
38. Protists obtain food as [1994] 46. The function of contractile vacuole, in
(a) photosynthesisers, symbionts and protozoa, is [1995]
holotrophs (a) locomotion (b) food digestion
(b) photosynthesisers (c) osmoregulation (d) reproduction
(c) chemosynthesisers 47. Macro and micronucleus are the
characteristic feature of [1995]
(d) holotrophs
(a) Paramecium and Vorticella
39. Protista includes [1994]
(b) Opelina and Nictothisus
(a) heterotrophs (c) Hydra and Ballantidium
(b) chemoheterotrophs (d) Vorticella and Nictothirus
(c) chemoautotrophs 48. Excretion in Amoeba occurs through [1995]
(d) all the above (a) lobopodia
40. Ustilago caused plant diseases called smut (b) uroid portion
because [1994] (c) plasma membrane
(a) they parasitise cereals (d) contractile vacuole
(b) mycelium is back 49. The organism, used for alcoholic
(c) they develop sooty masses of spores fermentation, is [1995]
(d) affected parts becomes completely (a) Pseudomonas (b) Penicillium
(c) Aspergillus (d) Saccharomyces
black.
50. Which of the following is not correctly 58. Which one of the following is not true about
matched? [1995] lichens? [1996]
(a) root knot disease - Meloidogyne javanica (a) Their body is composed of both algal
and fungal cells
(b) smut of bajra - Tolysporium penicillariae
(b) Some form food for reindeers in arctic
(c) covered smut of barley - Ustilago nuda
regions
(d) late blight of potato - Phytophthora (c) Some species can be used as pollution
infestans indicators
51. The chemical compounds produced by the (d) These grow very fast at the rate of about
host plants to protect themselves against 2 cm per year
fungal infection is [1995] 59. Mycorrhiza is [1996]
(a) a symbiotic association of plant roots
(a) phytotoxin (b) pathogen
and certain fungi
(c) phytoalexins (d) hormone (b) an association of algae with fungi
52. White rust disease is caused by [1995] (c) a fungus parasitising root system of
(a) Claviceps (b) Alternaria higher plants
(c) Phytophthora (d) Albugo candida (d) an association of Rhizobium with the
53. Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the roots of lenguminous plants
examples of [1996] 60. The hereditary material present in the
bacterium Escherichia coli is [1997, 98]
(a) symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
(a) single stranded DNA
(b) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers (b) deoxyribose sugar
(c) ammonifying bacteria (c) double stranded DNA
(d) disease-causing bacteria (d) single stranded RNA
54. Sex factor in bacteria is [1996] 61. The plasmids pesent in the bacterial cells are
(a) Chromosomal replicon [1997]
(b) F-replicon (a) circular double helical DNA molecules
(b) circular double helical RNA molecules
(c) RNA
(c) linear double helical DNA molecules
(d) Sex-pilus (d) linear double helical RNA molecules.
55. Influenza virus has [1996] 62. Which one of the following statements about
(a) DNA viruses is correct? [1997]
(b) RNA (a) Viruses possess their own metabolic
(c) both DNA and RNA system
(d) only proteins and no nucleic acids. (b) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA
(c) Viruses are facultative parasites
56. In bacterial chromosomes, the nucleic acid
(d) Viruses are readily killed by antibiotics
polymers are [1996] 63. Most of the Lichens consist of [1997]
(a) linear DNA molecule (a) blue-green algae and basidomycetes
(b) circular DNA molecule (b) blue-green algae and ascomycetes
(c) of two types-DNA and RNA (c) red algae and ascomycetes
(d) linear RNA molecule (d) brown algae and phycomycetes
57. Interferons are [1996] 64. Two bacteria found to be very useful in
genetic engineering experiments are [1998]
(a) antiviral proteins
(a) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
(b) antibacterial proteins (b) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
(c) anticancer proteins (c) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
(d) complex proteins (d) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
65. The main role of bacteria in the carbon cycle 72. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in
involves [1998] [1999]
(a) photosynthesis (a) leucoplasts (b) chloroplasts
(b) chemosynthesis (c) chromoplasts (d) chromatophores
(c) digestion or breakdown of organic 73. In prokaryotes, the genetic material is [1999]
compounds (a) linear DNA with histones
(d) assimilation of nitrogenous compounds (b) circular DNA with histones
66. A few organisms are known to grow and (c) linear DNA without histones
multiply at temperatures of 100–105ºC. They (d) circular DNA without histones
belong to [1998]
74. A good green manure in rice fields is [2000]
(a) marine archaebacteria
(a) Aspergillus (b) Azolla
(b) thermophilic sulphur bacteria
(c) Salvinia (d) Mucor
(c) hot-spring blue-green algae
75. Enzymes are absent in [2000]
(cyanobacteria)
(a) Cyanobacteria (b) Viruses
(d) thermophilic, subaerial fungi
67. Transfer of genetic information from one (c) Algae (d) Fungi
bacterium to another in the transduction 76. A virus can be considered a living organism
process is through [1998] because it [2000]
(a) Conjugation (a) responds to touch stimulus
(b) Bacteriophages released from the donor (b) respires
bacterial strain (c) reproduces (inside the host)
(c) Another bacterium (d) can cause disease
(d) Physical contact between donor and 77. In fungi stored food material is [2000]
recipient strain (a) glycogen (b) starch
68. Puccinia forms [1998] (c) sucrose (d) glucose
(a) uredia and aecia on wheat leaves 78. Black rust of wheat is caused by [2000]
(b) uredia and telia on wheat leaves (a ) Puccinia (b) Mucor
(c) uredia and aecia on barberry leaves (c) Aspergillus (d) Rhizopus
(d) uredia and pycnia on barberry leaves 79. Industrial production of ethanol from starch
69. Which one of the following micro-organisms is brought about by [2000]
is used for production of citric acid in (a) Saccharomyces (b) Lactobacillus
industries?
(c) Azotobacter (d) Penicillium
(a) Penicillium citrinum [1998]
80. Interferons are synthesized in response to
(b) Aspergillus niger
(a) Mycoplasma (b) Bacteria [2001]
(c) Rhizopus nigricans
(c) Viruses (d) Fungi
(d) Lactobacillus bulgaris
81. Extra-nuclear inheritance occurs in [2001]
70. Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the
industrial production of [1998] (a) Killer strain in Paramecium
(a) citric acid (b) tetracycline (b) Colour blindness
(c) ethanol (d) butanol (c) Phenylketonuria
71. Due to which of the following organisms, (d) Tay sach disease
yield of rice has been increased ? [1999] 82. What is true for cyanobacteria? [2001]
(a) Anabaena (a) Oxygenic with nitrogenase
(b) Bacillus popilliae (b) Oxygenic without nitrogenase
(c) Sesbania (c) Non-oxygenic with nitrogen
(d) Bacillus polymexa (d) Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase
83. What is true for archaebacteria ? [2001] 91. Which statement is correct for bacterial
(a) All halophiles transduction ? [2002]
(b) All photosynthetic (a) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria
(c) All fossils to another bacteria through virus
(d) Oldest living beings (b) Transfer of genes from one bacteria to
another bacteria by conjugation
84. Cauliflower mosaic virus contains [2001]
(c) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly
(a) ss RNA (b) ds RNA
(d) Bacteria obtained DNA from other
(c) ds DNA (d) ss DNA external source
85. What is true for plasmid ? [2001] 92. Which of the following secretes toxins during
(a) Plasmids are widely used in gene storage conditions of crop plants? [2002]
transfer (a) Aspergillus (b) Penicillium
(b) These are found in virus (c) Fusarium (d) Colletotrichum
(c) Plasmid contains gene for vital 93. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and
activities flowers? [2002]
(d) These are main party of chromosome (a) Loose smut of wheat
86. Plant decomposers are [2001] (b) Corn stunt
(a) Monera and fungi (c) Covered smut of barley
(d) Soft rot of potato
(b) Fungi and plants
94. During the formation of bread it becomes
(c) Protista and animalia
porous due to release of CO2 by the action of
(d) Animalia and monera (a) Yeast (b) Bacteria [2002]
87. Adhesive pad of fungi penetrates the host (c) Virus (d) Protozoans
with the help of [2001] 95. The chief advantage of encystment to an
(a) mechanical pressure and enzymes Amoeba is [2003]
(b) hooks and suckers (a) the chance to get rid of accumulated
(c) softening by enzymes waste products
(d) only by mechanical pressure (b) the ability to survive during adverse
88. Some bacteria are able to grow in physical conditions
Streptomycin containing medium due to (c) the ability to live for sometime without
ingesting food
(a) natural selection [2002]
(d) protection from parasites and predators
(b) Induced mutation
96. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated
(c) reproductive isolation
chromosomes because [2003]
(d) genetic drift (a) both require the environment of a cell to
89. Which bacteria is utilized in gober gas replicate
plant? (b) they require both RNA and DNA
(a) Methanogens [2002] (c) they both need food molecules
(b) Nitrifying bacteria (d) they both require oxygen for respiration
(c) Ammonifying bacteria 97. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1 – 3
(d) Denitrifying bacteria in number and [2003]
90. In bacteria, plasmid is [2002] (a) can be circular as well as linear within
(a) extra – chromosomal material the same cell
(b) are always circular
(b) main DNA
(c) are always linear
(c) non-functional DNA
(d) can be either circular or linear , but never
(d) repetitive gene both with in the same cell
98. Which one of the following statements about 104. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and
viruses is correct ? [2003] cause their lysis, are called [2004]
(a) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as (a) lysozymes (b) lipolytic
capsid (c) lytic (d) lysogenic
(b) Viruses possess their own metabolic 105. Auxopores and hormocysts are formed,
system respectively, by: [2005]
(c) All viruses contain both RNA and
(a) Some diatoms and several
DNA
cyanobacteria
(d) Viruses are obligate parasites
(b) Some cyanobacteria and diatoms
99. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of
(c) Several cyanobacteria and several
size [2003]
diatoms
(a) 700 × 30 nm (b) 300 × 10 nm
(d) Several diatoms and a few
(c) 300 × 5 nm (d) 300 × 20 nm
100. Lichens are well known combination of an cyanobacteria.
alga and a fungus where fungus has [2004] 106. All of the following statements concerning
(a) a saprophytic relationship with the alga the Actinomycetes filamentous soil bacterium
(b) an epiphytic relationship with the alga Frankia are correct except that Frankia :
(c) a parasitic relationship with the alga [2005]
(d) a symbiotic relationship with the alga (a) Can induce root nodules on many plant
101. Which one of the following pairs is not species
correctly matched? [2004] (b) Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living
(a) Streptomyces - Antibiotic state.
(b) Serratia - Drug addiction (c) Forms specialized vesicles in which the
(c) Spirulina - Single cell protein nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by
(d) Rhizobium - Biofertilizer a chemical barrier involving triterpene
102. Which of the following statements is not true hopanoids
for retroviruses? [2004] (d) Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host
(a) DNA is not present at any stage in the plant through root hair deformation and
life cycle of retroviruses stimulates cell proliferation in the host’s
(b) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA- cortex
dependent DNA polymerase 107. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe
(c) The genetic material in mature used is [2005]
retroviruses is RNA (a) Methophilic bacteria
(d) Retroviruses are causative agents for
(b) Butyric acid bacteria
certain kinds of cancer in man
(c) Helicobactor pylori
103. The most thoroughly studied fact of the
(d) Streptococcus lactin
known bacteria-plant interactions is the
108. There exists a close association between the
[2004]
alga and the fungus within a lichen. The
(a) cyanobacterial symbiosis with some
fungus [2005]
aquatic ferns
(b) gall formation on certain angiosperms (a) provides protection, anchorage and
by Agrobacterium absorption for the alga
(c) nodulation of Sesbania stems by (b) provides food for the alga
nitrogen fixing bacteria (c) fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the
(d) plant growth stimulation by phosphate- alga
solubilising bacteria (d) releases oxygen for the alga
109. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between 115. Which pair of the following belongs to
RNA and mRNA during bacterial protein Basidiomycetes [2007]
synthesis? [2006] (a) puffballs and Claviceps
(b) peziza and stink borns
(a) Neomycin (b) Streptomycin
(c) Morchella and mushrooms
(c) Tetracycline (d) Erythromycin
(d) birds nest fungi and puffballs.
110. Which of the following statements regarding 116. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of [2007]
cilia is not correct ? [2006] (a) uncimula (b) ustilago
(a) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages (c) claviceps (d) phytophthora.
(b) Microtubules of cilia are composed of 117. Which one of the following is a slime
tubulin mould? [2007]
(a) Physarum (b) Thiobacillus
(c) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine
(c) Anabaena (d) Rhizopus
doublet microtubules surrounding two 118. Which one of the following is linked to the
single microtubules discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popular
(d) The organized beating of cilia is fungicide? [2008]
controlled by fluxes of Ca2+ across the (a) Bacterial leaf blight of rice
membrane (b) Downy mildew of grapes
111. The thalloid body of a slime mould (c) Loose smut of wheat
(d) Black rust of wheat
(Myxomycetes) is known as [2006]
119. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a
(a) plasmodium (b) fruiting body species of [2008]
(c) mycelium (d) protonema (a) Xanthomonas (b) Pseudomonas
112. Which of the following environmental (c) Alternaria (d) Erwinia
conditions are essential for optimum growth 120. In the light of recent classification of
of Mucor on a piece of bread ? [2006] living organisms into three domains of life
(bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one
A. Temperature of about 25°C of the following statements is true about
B. Temperature of about 5° C archaea? [2008]
C. Relative humidity of about 5% (a) Archaea resemble eukarya in all
respects
D. Relative humidity of about 95%
(b) Archaea have some novel features that
E. A shady place are absent in other prokaryotes and
F. A brightly illuminated place eukaryotes
Choose the answer from the following (c) Archaea completely differ from both
prokaryotes and eukaryotes
options :
(d) Archaea completely differ from
(a) A, D and E only (b) B, D and E only prokaryotes.
(c) B, C and F only (d) A, C and E only 121. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methan-
113. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a obacterium exemplify: [2008]
(a) Prion (b) Worm [2006] (a) Archaebacteria that contain protein
homologous to eukaryotic core histones
(c) Bacterium (d) Virus (b) Archaebacteria that lack any histones
114. Which one of the following statements about resembling those found in eukaryotes but
mycoplasma is wrong ? [2007] whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
(a) They are pleomorphic (c) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or
positively supercoiled but which have a
(b) They are sensitive to penicillin cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
(c) They cause diseases in plants (d) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and
(d) They are also called PPLO. ribosomes
122. Which one is the wrong pairing for the 133. In eubacteria, a cellular component that
disease and its causal organism? [2009] resembles eukaryotic cells is : [2011]
(a) Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis (a) plasma membrane
(b) Loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda (b) nucleus
(c) Root-knot of vegetables - Meloidogyne sp
(c) ribosomes
(d) Late blight of potato - Alternaria solani
(d) cell wall
123. Phylogenetic system of classification is based
on: [2009] 134. Compared with the gametophytes of the
(a) morphological features bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular
(b) chemical constituents plant are [2011]
(c) floral characters (a) smaller but have larger sex organs
(d) evolutionary relationships (b) larger but have smaller sex organs
124. Mannitol is the stored food in: [2009] (c) larger and have larger sex organs
(a) Porphyra (b) Fucus (d) smaller and have smaller sex organs
(c) Gracillaria (d) Chara
135. The gametophyte is not an independent, free
125. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:
living generation in : [2011]
(a) Protista (b) Fungi [2010]
(a) Polytrichum (b) Adiantum
(c) Archaea (d) Monera
126. Ringworm in humans is caused by : [2010] (c) Marchantia (d) Pinus
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi 136. Organisms called methanogens are most
(c) Nematodes (d) Viruses abundant in a : [2011]
127. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in: (a) sulphur rock (b) cattle yard
[2010] (c) polluted stream (d) hot spring
(a) Saccharomyces (b) Streptococcus 137. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) Plasmodium matched while the remaining three are
128. Virus envelope is known as: [2010] correct? [2011M]
(a) Capsid (b) Virion (a) Penicillium - Conidia
(c) Nucleoprotein (d) Core
(b) Water hyacinth - Runner
129. Which one of the following is not a
biofertilizer? [2011] (c) Bryophyllum - Leaf buds
(a) Agrobacterium (b) Rhizobium (d) Agave - Bulbils
(c) Nostoc (d) Mycorrhiza 138. Consider the following four statements
130. Ethanol is commercially produced through a whether they are correct or wrong? [2011M]
particular species of : [2011] (A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more
(a) Saccharomyces (b) Clostridium elaborate than that in mosses
(c) Trichoderma (d) Aspergillus (B) Salvinia is heterosporous
131. Which one of the following organisms is not
(C) The life cycle in all seed-bearing plants
an example of eukaryotic cells ? [2011]
is diplontic
(a) Paramecium caudatum
(b) Escherichia coli (D) In Pinus male and female cones are
(c) Euglena viridis borne on different trees
(d) Amoeba proteus (a) Statements (A) and (C)
132. Archegoniophore is present in : [2011] (b) Statements (A) and (D)
(a) Marchantia (b) Chara (c) Statements (B) and (C)
(c) Adiantum (d) Funaria (d) Statements (A) and (B)
139. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to 141. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to
represent a significant step toward evolution humans in making curd from milk and in
of seed habit because: [2011M] production of antibiotics are the ones categorised
as : [2012]
(a) female gametophyte is free and gets
(a) Cyanobacteria
dispersed like seeds
(b) Archaebacteria
(b) female gametophyte lacks archaegonia
(c) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(c) megaspores possess endosperm and
embryo surrounded by seed coat (d) Heterotrophic bacteria
(d) embryo develops in female gametophyte 142. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as
which is retained on parent sporophyte. [2012]
(a) protists (b) golden algae
140. Examine the figure given below and zvselect
(c) Slime moulds (d) blue green algae
the right option giving all the four parts (a, b,
143. Which statement is wrong for viruses [2012]
c and d) correctly identified. [2011M] (a) All are parasites
(b) All of them have helical symmetry
(c) They have ability to synthesize nucleic
acids and proteins
(d) Antibiotics have no effect on them
144. Which one single organism or the pair of
organisms is correctly assigned to its taxonomic
group [2012]
(a) Paramoecium and Plasmodium belong to
the same kingdom as that of Penicillium
(b) Lichen is a composite organism formed
from the symbiotic association of an algae

and a protozoan
(a) (A) Archegoniophore
(c) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a
(B) Female thallus fungus
(C) Gemmacup (d) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of
(D) Rhizoids protista
(b) (A) Archegoniophore 145. How many organisms in the list given below
(B) Female thallus are autotrophs?
(C) Bud Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas,
(D) Foot Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces,
(c) (A) Seta Trypanosomes, Porphyra, Wolffia [2012M]
(B) Sporophyte (a) Four (b) Five
(C) Protonema (c) Six (d) Three
(D) Rhizoids 146. In the five-kingdom classification,
(d) (A) Antheridiophore Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been
(B) Male thallus included in [2012M]
(C) Globule (a) protista (b) algae
(D) Roots (c) plantae (d) monera

147. Which one of the following sets of items in 148. Which of the following are likely to be present
the options 1 - 4 are correctly categorized in deep sea water ? [NEET 2013]
with one exception in it? [2012M] (a) Eubacteria (b) Blue-green algae
(c) Saprophytic fungi (d) Archaebacteria
Items Category Exception 149. Which one of the following is true for fungi?
[NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) UAA, UAG, Stop codons UAG
(a) They are phagotrophs
UGA (b) They lack a rigid cell wall
(b) Kangaroo, Australian Wombat (c) They are heterotrophs
Koala, marsupials (d) They lack nuclear membrane
Wombat 150. Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen
in Nostoc are [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) Plasmodium, Protozoan Cuscuta
(a) Akinetes (b) Heterocysts
Cuscuta, parasites
(c) Hormogonia (d) Nodules
Trypanosoma 151. Satellite RNAs are present in some
(d) Typhoid, Bacterial Diphtheria [NEET Kar. 2013]
Pneumonia, diseases (a) Plant viruses (b) Viroids
Diphtheria (c) Prions (d) Bacteriophages
Solutions
1. (d) African sleeping sickness disease also 3. (b) Zooflagellata of Protozoan Protista.
called trypanosomiasis common in They have flagella and heterotrophic
Africa is caused by parasite Trypanosoma (Parasitic) mode of nutrition.
gambiense. The parasite is transmitted 4. (c) Malarial parasite, (Plasmodium vivax),
by Tse-Tse fly (Glossina palpalis). Protist of class Sporozoa, digenetic
parasite causes malarial fever in human.
2. (b) Vector for sleeping sickness is Tse-
The malarial parasite was discovered
Tse fly (Glossina palpalis). The parasite by Laveran (1880). Sir Ronald Ross
Trypanosoma is transmitted through (1898) discovered that Malaria disease
the bite of this fly. Tse-tse have been is spread by mosquitoes. Its life cycle
extensively studied because they are completes in two organisms-Primary
biological vectors of the African host, female Anopheles mosquito and
trypanosomiasis, deadly disease which man (Intermediate or Secondary host).
include sleeping sickness in people and It enters into human blood-through
nagana in cattle. Tse-tse have existed in sporozoites. Malarial fever begins with
the modern morphological form for at the release of merozoites in the liver
least 34 million years since fossil tse-tse cells, from RBC of human.
5. (b) Tse-Tse fly is vector of sleeping sickness
have been recovered from the Florissant
disease and it transmits Trypanosoma
Fossil Beds in Colorado.
gambiense through its bite.
6. (b) The infective stage of Plasmodium that 11. (a) Trypanosoma is polymorphic i.e. it exists
enters human blood is sporozoite. in different forms in the successive
7. (c) Lichens typically grow in harsh stages of its life cycle. These are
environments in nature, most lichens, Leishmania, Leptomonad, Crituidial and
especially epiphytic fruticose species trypanosomal stages.
and those containing cyanobacteria, are 12. (c) Amoebiasis or amoebic dysentry is
sensitive to manufactured pollutants. caused by a parasite Entamoeba histolytica
Hence, they have been widely used as present in the upper part of large
pollution indicator organisms. intestine of human.
Lichens are symbiotic associations of It is caused due to ingesting contaminated
a fungus with a photosynthetic partner
food or water with cyst (trophozoite)
(called a photobiont or phycobiont) that
of Entamoeba. It feeds on R.B.C of
can produce food for the lichen from
sunlight. intestinal blood capillaries and damages
8. (b) Whittaker (1969) divided organisms intestinal mucosa secreting an enzyme -
into five kingdoms : Monera, Protista, histolysin.
Plantae, Fungi and Animalia. Kingdom 13. (c) Plasmodium belongs to class Sporozoa of
Monera includes all prokaryotes – protozoan profists. It is an endoparasite
Mycoplasma, bacteria, actinomycetes, lacking any locomotony structure
blue-green algae, archaebacteria, and contractile vacules. It reproduces
methanogens. Escherichia is bacteria,
through spore formation.
Amoeba, Gelidium come under Protista,
14. (c) Azotobacter is free living soil bacteria
Spirogyra is algae.
9. (a) Gram +(ve) and Gram –(ve) bacteria that are able to pick up dinitrogen
separates on the basis of their cell wall from the soil and fixes it into organic
composition. Christian Gram on the nitrogenous material like aminoacid.
basis of staining behaviour of the cell Clostridium is anaerobic free living
wall with Gram’s stain, grouped bacteria soil N2 fixing bacteria. Rhizobium is
into Gram +ve and Gram –ve type. The symbiotic N2 fixing bacteria.
bacteria which retain blue or purple
15. (b) Fungi are nutritionally saprophytes,
colour after staining are Gram +ve e.g.
which grow on dead and decaying
Bacillus subtilis and which loses blue
colour is Gram –ve e.g. matter . They secrete enzyme to the
E. coli. In Gram –ve stain is washed external medium where digestion takes
due to high lipid content in the cell wall place and digested food absorbed by the
having thick wall, Gram +ve has single body surface. They convert complex
layered cell wall organic constituents of dead body into
10. (a) Paramecium has two nuclei simple soluble forms. That is why Fungi
Micronucleus
are decomposers.
Macronucleus 16. (c) Laveran discovered Plasmodium in
R.B.C of human beings and concluded
Micronucleus
• Small having two that malaria is caused by Plasmodium
sets of Chromosomes
(diploid)
vivax. Sir Ronal Ross (1896) was the
Paramecium •Concerned with first to observe oocytes of Plamodium in
reproduction i.e. Stores
genetic information female Anopheles.
Macronucleus 17. (a) In human beings different types of
•Larger having many malaria are caused by 4 different species
sets of chromosomes
•Concerned with of Plasmodium. They are :
functioning of the cell
1. Benign Tertian Malaria – 22. (a) Plasmodium vivax completes Sexual
Plasmodium vivax. cycle or Gamogony in female Anopheles
2. Malignant (Pernicious or cerebral) mosquito. Asexual cycle is passed in
Tertian Malaria – Plasmodium man (Schizogony).
23. (b) Lichens are composite organisms
falciparum.
representing a symbiotic association
3. Quartan Malaria – Plasmodium between fungus and a algae. It can be
malariae. Crustose, Foliose and Fruticose types.
4. Mild Tertian Malaria – Plasmodium They are the pioneer organisms in a
ovale. new habitat. Lichens used as indicator
18. (a) Chemosynthetic bacteria does not of air pollution. It does grow in the
require sunlight as a source of energy environment where pollution level is
directly or indirectly. The energy for high, SO2 is strong air pollutant and
the synthesis of food is obtained by the lichens are very sensitive to SO2.
24. (a) Escherichia coli, lives as a symbiont in
oxidation of certain inorganic substances
human intestine.
present in the medium. The chemical 25. (c) The bacterial genome/nucleoid is
energy obtained from oxidation reaction made of single circular double stranded
is trapped in ATP molecules. The ATP DNA without histone protein as it is a
is used in CO2 assimilation. prokaryotic organisms. The genome
19. (c) I. African sleeping sickness disease contains some 100 chemical sites or
also called as trypansomiasis loci. Each locus contains many genes. E
common in western and central coli contains about 4000 genes.
parts of African continent. 26. (d) Plasmodium transmitted through female
Anopheles mosquito to Human and
II. The disease is caused by parasite
the most favourite dwelling place for
Trypanosoma gambiense of class Anopheles is water or moist places like
zooflagellata. ponds and puddles.
III. The parasite is transmitted (vector) 27. (c) Schizogont or Asexual stage occurs in
through bite of Tse-Tse fly (Glossina human erythrocytes and liver cells.
palpalis). 28. (d) H. Temin and D. Baltimore (1970)
IV. The disease appears when the causal discovered that tumor viruses contain
organism enters into cerebrospinal RNA as genetic material and replicate by
fluid of human. synthesizing complementary DNA. This
process is called reverse transcription
V. Trypanosoma is an obligate parasite,
and it is carried by an RNA dependent
Digenetic and Polymorphic DNA polymerase called as reverse
organism. transcriptase.
20. (c) Contractile vacuole in Amoeba and 29. (b) All viruses are nucleoprotein (Nucleic
Paramecium maintain the water acid + Protein) in the structure. The
balance of the cell. This is known as nucleic acid (DNA and RNA) is genetic
osmoregulation. material. In a particular virus either DNA
or RNA is genetic material never both are
21. (a) In bacteria asexual reproduction
present in a virus. Hence viruses are :
through binary fission is the most (i) Double stranded DNA or ds DNA
common method of multiplication. - Hepatitis B
Sexual reproduction which comprises of (ii) Single stranded DNA or ss DNA -
syngamy and meiosis is entirely absent. coliphage
Hence no gamete formation takes (iii) Double stranded RNA or ds RNA -
place. In sexually reproducing organism Reo virus, wound Tumor virus
(iv) Single stranded RNA or ss RNA -
alternation of generation occurs.
Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV)
30. (a) Besides Nuclear DNA, bacteria 36. (a) Protistans are eukaryotes and their
possesses extranuclear DNA (outside genetic material is organised in form of
the nucleoid region) called as plasmid nucleus. DNA is associated with histone
which can replicate independently. Due protein.
to this property plasmid holds great 37. (d) Pyrrhoea is caused by bacterial
importance in genetic engineering. infections along with other factor,
Plasmid can be taken out of bacteria Diarrhoea by caused by rotavirus along
and made to combine with desired DNA with many other factor. Dysentery by
segment. A plasmid carrying DNA Entamoeba histolytica.
of other organism now it is known as 38. (a) Members of kingdom Protista have
cosmid which can be introduced into diverse mode of nutrition. They are
any desired cells. This is the basis of photosynthetic, saprophytic parasitic and
genetic engineering. ingestive. They are major heterotroph.
31. (c) The term antibiotics was coined by 39. (d) Kingdom Protista includes flagellates
Waksman but the first known antibiotic, (euglenophyceae), diatoms,
penicillin was extracted from fungi dinoflagellates, slime moulds,
Penicillium notatum by A Flemming sarcodines, ciliates, sporozoans. They
1944. Antibiotics are the chemicals that are photosynthetic, chemotrophic,
are produced from the living organisms, heterotropic in mode of nutrition.
used to kill another living organisms. 40. (d) Smut disease caused by Ustilago
About 2300 antibiotics discovered so far species of basidiomycetes fungi.
e.g. Streptomycin, Tetracycline etc. It is characterised by formation of
32. (d) Some of the blue green algae can tolerate black coloured chlamydospores or
extremes of temperature due to presence teleutospores called smut spore due to
of gelatinous sheath, and compactness which the affected part becomes black.
of protein molecules in protoplasm. 41. (c) The fungus that causes the disease
33. (a) Azotobacter is nonsymbiotic, free living ‘Ergot of Rye’ is Claviceps purpurea. It
nitrogen fixing bacteria. contains many poisonous alkaloids. The
34. (c) Rickettsias are tiny obligate, intracellular hallucinogenic drug LSD is extracted
parasites found in blood sucking insects from this fungi.
like lices, mites, ticks. They were first • Rust of wheat is used by Puccinia
observed by Ricketts 1909 but it was graminis.
properly described by Rocha-lime 1916, • Powdery Mildew of Pea is caused
who named them as Rickettsia. They by Erysiphae.
have mucopeptide cell wall with DNA 42. (d) Decomposers act on dead bodies
converting complex organic constituents
as genetic material and are independent
into simple soluble form.
entity produces diseases like Q-fever,
They obtain their energy from dead
typhus etc.
organisms. Decomposers themselves
35. (b) Only some bacteria and Blue green are organisms (often fungi, earthworms,
algae (cynobacteria) has capacity to fix or bacteria) that break down organic
atmospheric nitrogen. materials to gain nutrients and energy.
• Bacteria : Azotobacter, Rhizobium, Decomposers accelerate the natural
Frankia etc. process of decomposition. They supply
• Blue green algae : Nostoc, Oscillatoria, the required nutrients for other trophic
Anabaena etc. levels.
The fungi on the tree are decomposers. 48. (d) The conractile vacuole is supposed to
When an organism dies, it leaves behind assist excertion in Amoeba, as its watery
nutrients that are locked tightly together. contents possess traces of carbon dioxide
A scavenger might eat the carcass, but its and urea. The CO2 diffuses directly
feces would still contain a considerable through plasmalemma.
amount of unused energy and nutrients. 49. (d) Fermentation refers to the breakdown
Decomposers will later induce further of organic substances, particularly
breakdown. This last step releases raw carbohydrates, under anaerobic
nutrients (such as nitrogen, phosphorus conditions. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is
and magnesium) in a form usable to used for fermenting carbohydrate. The
plants, which quickly incorporate the ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide are
chemicals into their own cells. This formed at the end of the process.
process greatly increases the nutrient-
50. (c) Covered smut of barley is caused by
load of an ecosystem, in turn allowing
Ustilago hordei, not by Ustilago nuda.
for greater biodiversity.
This disease is purely externally seed
43. (c) Mycorrhiza is symbiotic association
between fungi and roots of higher borned.
plants. Mycorrhiza form wooly covering 51. (c) Phytoalexins are non-specific antibiotic
of fungal hyphae on the surface and substances produced by plants in
remain in upper layers. It is of two types response to infection by a fungus.
Ecto and Endomycorrhiza. In some 52. (d) Albugo candida is an obligate parasite
endomycorrhiza, the fungal hyphae causing white rust on members of family
develop some organs called vesicles Cruciferae and other hosts.
within the root cortical cells, such 53. (b) Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the
mycorrhizae are called VAM (vesicular examples of non-symbiotic nitrogen-
arbuscular mycorrhizae) . It is meant for fixers.
phosphate nutrition. 54. (b) Sex-factor or F-factor in bacteria results
44. (d) The term ‘plasmid’ was introduced by in high frequency conjugation. It allows
Lederberg in 1952 for extragenomic bacteria to produce sex pilus necessary
DNA segment. It is a small circular
for conjugation.
molecule of DNA found in bacterial cell
in addition to the larger circular bacterial 55. (b) Influenza virus is a retrovirus wherein,
DNA. the genetic material comprises of RNA.
45. (b) The Euglena is an organism, which There are three genera of influenza virus,
possesses both the characteristics of identified by antigenic differences in
plants and animals, as it can move with their nucleoprotein and matrix protein:
a flagella and also contains chlorophyll. • Influenza virus A are the cause of
Its nutrition is mixotrophic. all flu pandemics and are known to
46. (c) In protozoa, the function of contractile infect humans, other mammals and
vacuole is the removal of excretory birds (see also avian influenza).
substances, carbon dioxide etc. It is very
• Influenza virus B are known to
essential to regulate water content i.e.,
infect humans and seals.
osmoregulation.
47. (a) The macronucleus lacks nuclear • Influenza virus C are known to
membrane and is formed of infect humans and pigs.
trophochromatin. It regulates the 56. (b) Bacterial chromosomes comprise of
metabolic activities of the body and it circular DNA.
is also known as trophonucleus. The 57. (a) Interferons are virus induced proteins
micronucleus has a definite nuclear produced by cells infected with viruses.
membrane and controls the reproductive They are antiviral in action.
activities of Paramecium and Vorticella.
58. (d) Lichens are composite dual organisms 65. (c) Bacteria acts as decomposers in the
formed by the association between a carbon cycle.
fungus and a photosynthetic symbiont. 66. (a) These are archaebacteria which can
The bulk of lichen body is formed of tolerate high temperature.
fungus. 67. (b) Transfer of genetic information from
59. (a) Association of algae and fungi is
one bacterium to another by physical
referred to as lichen. Symbiotic
association of Rhizobium with roots contact is called conjugation while if it
of leguminous plants is referred to as takes place by some other medium like
symbiosis. Mycorrhiza is symbiotic virus than it is called transduction.
association between fungi and roots 68. (b) Puccinia causes black rust of wheat . It
of higher plants. The fungal partner of completes its life cycle in two hosts-
mycorrhiza obtains food from roots of wheat and barberry. Two types of spores
the higher plant and in return supplies are produced on wheat - uredospores
mineral elements to it. and teleutospores.
60. (c) In any kind of Bacteria (E.coli) double 69. (b) Aspergillus niger is known as guinea pig
stranded DNA is present.
of kingdom fungi. The main source of
61. (a) Plasmids are the extrachromosomal
DNA. commercial preparation of citric acid is
62. (b) Viruses have either DNA or RNA as the the fermentation of sugar with Aspergillus
genetic material. Viruses having RNA niger.
as the genetic material are known as 70. (c) Yeast performs alcoholic fermentation
Retroviruses. because of enzyme ‘Zymase’. It is used
63. (b) The lichen fungus is typically a member in the production of ethyl alcohol or
of the Ascomycota rarely a member ethanol.
of the Basidiomycota. The algal or
cyanobacterial cells are photosynthetic,
and as in higher plants they reduce
atmospheric carbon dioxide into organic 71. (a) Azolla is a freshwater fern harbouring
carbon sugars to feed both symbionts. a bluegreen alga - Anabaena in its leaf
Both partners gain water and mineral cavities. The alga fixes atmospheric
nutrients mainly from the atmosphere
nitrogen and releases nitrogenous
through rain and dust. The fungal
partner protects the alga by retaining compounds in leaf cavities. This
water, serving as a larger capture area symbiotic system is the main source of
for mineral nutrients and, in some algal biofertilizer in rice fields. When
cases, provides minerals obtained from rice paddies are flooded in the spring,
the substratum. If a cyanobacterium is they can be inoculated with Azolla,
present, as a primary partner or another which then quickly multiplies to cover
symbiont in addition to green alga as the water, suppressing weeds. As the
in certain tripartite lichens, they can fix plants die, they contribute nitrogen to
atmospheric nitrogen, complementing the rice plants, and as the rice paddy
the activities of the green alga.
dries out, the Azolla all eventually die,
64. (a) Escherichia and Agrobacterium are both
making an exceptional green manure.
used as vectors in genetic engineering.
Nitrobactor converts nitrites to nitrates. 72. (d) Chloroplasts, chromoplasts and
Azotobacter is a free living nitrogen leucoplasts are the types of plastids
fixing bacteria. Nitrosomonas converts found in higher plants. Chloroplasts
ammonia to nitrite. Rhizobium is a contain the green pigment chlorophyll.
symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria living Chromoplasts contain coloured
in the root nodules of leguminous pigments. Leucoplasts are colourless
plants Diplococcus pneumoniae causes and store starch granules.
pneumonia.
73. (d) In prokayotes nucleoid consist of double 87. (a) The fungal hyphae secrete enzymes
stranded circular DNA without histone which convert insoluble complex food
protein. material in the substratum to the soluble
74. (b) Aspergillus is a fungus, Mucor is also a ones. The hyphae wall of intracellular
fungus. Azolla harbours blue-green algae hyphae come in contact with the host
Anabaena which fixes N2, increasing protoplasm and obtain food by direct
fertility. diffusion.
75. (b) Enzymes are absent in viruses because 88. (a) Prevention of mating between two
they are unable to transmit their nucleic
natural populations of the same or
acid from one host cell to another.
76. (c) Virus is an ultra microscopic different spaces due to presence of
nucleoprotein entity which becomes barriers to interbreeding is called
active only inside a living cell. It reproductive isolation. Genetic drift
resembles living beings due to presence is the random change in the allele
of genetic material and reproduction. number and frequency in a gene pool.
77. (a) Glycogen is a glucosan Natural selection is a type of force for
Ohomopolysaccharide which is the evolutionary processes. Here in this
major reserve food of animals, fungi and case it allows the growth of only those
some bacteria. Starch is also glucosan bacteria which have resistance towards
homopolysaccharide and is the major
streptomycin.
reserve food of plants. Sucrose is formed
of one molecule of glucose and one 89. (a) Methanobacillus (methanogen) occurs in
molecule of fructose. marshes and also in dung. It produces
78. (a) Black rust of wheat is caused by Puccinia CH4 gas under anaerobic condition and
graminis. The symptoms are seen in stem is utilized in gobar gas plant.
or leaf sheath as brownish spot. 90. (a) Plasmid is attached to mesosome in
Yeast helps in ethyl alcohol formation. bacteria.
79. (a) Lactobacillus is the milk bacteria while 91. (a) Transduction experiments were carried
Azotobacter is the free living nitrogen out by Hershey and Chase.
fixing bacteria and Penicillium is the 92. (a) Aspergillus flavus produces carcinogenic
source of Penicillin. fungus toxin (Aflatoxin) during storage
80. (c) Interferons are virus induced proteins condition of crop plant.
produced by cells infected with virus. 93. (a) Ustilago causes loose smut of wheat, as a
81. (a) Colour blindness follows sex-linked result the grain and flower get converted
inheritance. Phenylketonuria is an in into powdered mass.
born error of metabolism. 94. (a) Yeast carry out fermentation, releasing
82. (a) Cyanobacteria are oxygenic CO2 making bread soft and porous.
photoautotroph. Many members Hence Saccharomyces is referred to as
perform nitrogen fixation.
baker’s yeast.
83. (d) Archaebacteria are the most ancient and
95. (b) Encystment enables the zygote to
halogenous group of bacteria and are
survive under adverse or infavourable
called living fossils.
84. (c) Cauliflower mosaic virus contains conditions wherein it lies dormant.
double stranded DNA. 96. (a) Viruses can live only inside the host
85. (a) Plasmids are small intranuclear circular cell, using their machinery for its own
DNAs which carry extra chromosomal metabolism.
genes in bacteria. 97. (b) Prokaryotes (bacteria) have only circular
86. (a) Plant decomposers are Bacteria chromosomes.
(Kingdom Monera) and Fungi.
98. (d) Virus is a nucleoprotein entity which 107. (b) Butyric acid bacteria, Clostridium
becomes active only inside a living butylicum causes the retting of fibres.
cells utilizing the latter machinery for Retting is a stage in the manufacturing
multiplication. Capsid is the protein of vegetable fibers, especially the bast
covering around the genetic material. fibers. It is the process of submerging
99. (d) Tobacco mosaic virus is 300 nm long plant stems such as flax, jute, hemp or
and 20 nm in diameter. kenaf in water, and soaking them for
100. (d) Lichens are composite dual organisms a period of time to loosen the fibers
formed by symbiotic association between from the other components of the stem.
a fungus and alga. A saprophyte is an Retting can also be done by letting the
organism feeding on dead, decaying cut crop stand in the fields in the wet
organic matter. Epiphyte is a plant fall, called “dew retting”. Bacterial
growing over another plant. Parasites action attacks pectin and lignin, freeing
live inside their host.
the cellulose fibres. The stems are then
101. (b) Rhizobium is a symbotic nitrogen fixing
removed and washed and subject to
bacteria. Streptomyces is source for
mechanical processing to remove the
streptomycin. Spirulina is a rich source
soft tissue and then dried so that all that
of vitamin B1 and proteins.
102. (a) Retroviruses have RNA as the genetic remains are the fibres.The process is
material and hence they exhibit caused by Closteridium butylicum.
reverse transcription whereby DNA 108. (a) Lichens (coined by Theophrastus) are
is synthesized on RNA template. composite or dual organisms which
They have reverse transcriptase as the are formed by a fungus partner or
enzyme. mycobiont (mostly ascomycetes) and an
103. (b) This phenomenon has been successfully algal partner (mostly blue green algae).
used in genetic engineering to produce Fungus forms the body of lichen as well
disease resistant varieties of plants. as its attaching and absorbing structures.
104. (c) Viruses that get integrated with the Algae performs photosynthesis and
bacterial host genome are called provides food to the fungus.
lysogenic. Virus which transmit its DNA 109. (a) Neomycin is the antibiotic which inhibit
into bacterial cell and divide within the translation of bacterial cell so that it
bacterial cell causing breakdown of can not affect the host cell.
bacterial cell wall are called lytic virus. 110. (a) Eukaryotic cilia are made up of
Lysozymes are present in the lipolytic tubulin protein. Cilia have a core of 2
enzymes catalyses breakdown of fats microtubules and around there are 9
(Lipids). doublet microtubules. These are not at
105. (d) Binary fission in diatoms reduces all hair like structures.
the size of most daughters which is 111. (a) The thalloid body of slime moulds is
corrected through the development of made up of multinucleated cell which
auxospores. lacks septa in between and hence it is a
In some filamentous cyanobacterial multinucleated single celled mass called
forms unisexual reproduction occurs plasmodium.
by hormogonia (hormocysts). They are 112. (a) Mucor is a fungus and most of the fungi
identified by presence of biconcave (one
require the optimum temperature of
disk or separation disc between two
about 15-30ºC, good moisture content
adjacent cells e.g. Oscillatoria).
in atmosphere and not very dark and
106. (b) Frankia, is a nitrogen fixing mycelial
not very lightened place. So the Mucor
bacterium which is associated
symbiotically (and not free living) with requires a temperature of about 25ºC,
the root nodules of several non legume humidity about 95% and a shady place
plants. to grow fully.
113. (a) Mad cow disease is actually Bovine 118. (b) Downy mildew of grapes disesase is
Spongiform Encephalopathy or BSE. linked to the discovery of Bordeux
In this disease cattles in Britain got mixture as a popular fungicide. Bordeux
their brain become spongy & ultimately mixture was discovered by Millardet
in France in 1882. Bordeux mixture is
gradual degradation of nervous system.
prepared by dissolving 40g. of copper
It is caused by some virus like but nucleic sulphate and 40 g of calcium hydroxide
acid devoid proteinaceous particles in 5 litres of water. Bordeux mixture is
called prions (proteinaceous infectious used primarily as a fungicide, it was first
particle). used to control downy mildew disease
114. (b) While working at the Rockefeller of grape-vine caused by a fungus,
Institute, Brown reported isolation of a Plasmopara viticola. The first pesticide
PPLO from human arthritic joint tissue to be used commercially was bordeux
mixture.
in 1938. In 1949, Diennes reported to
119. (a) Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by
the 7th International Rheumatology a species of Xanthomonas. Mature rice
Congress the isolation of PPLO plant infected by these bacteria, lesion
from the genitourinary tracts of men begins as water soaked stripes on the leaf
afflicted with arthritis. In discussing the blades and eventually would increase in
significance of this observation, Brown length and width becoming yellow to
reported successful treatment of arthritic grayish-white until the entire leaf dries
patients in 1949 with a new antibiotic up.
120. (b) A domain of prokaryotic organisms
called aureomycin (Clark, 1997).
containing the archaebacteria including
115. (d) The class Basidiomycetes includes those the methanogens, which produce
members that produce their basidia and methane; the thermoacidophilic
basidiospores on or in a basidiocarp. bacteria, which live in extremely hot and
116. (c) Ergot of Rye is a plant disease that is acidic environments, & the halophilic
caused by the fungus Claviceps purpurea. bacteria, which can only function at
The so-called ergot that replaces the grain high salt concentrations are abundant in
of the rye is a dark, purplish sclerotium, the world’s oceans.
121. (a) Thermococcus, Methanococcus and
from which the sexual stage, of the life
Methano bacterium exemplify
cycle will form after over wintering. archaebacteria that contain protein
homologous to eukaryotic core
histones.
122. (d) Late blight is caused by the fungus
Phy-tophthora infestans. Late blight
appears on potato or tomato leaves as
pale green, water-soaked spots, often
beginning at leaftips or edges. The
circular or irregular leaf lesions are
117. (a) Physarum polycephalum belongs to often surrounded by a pale yellowish-
phylum Amoebozoa, infraphylum green border that merges with healthy
Mycetozoa, and class Myxogastrea. P.
tissue. Lesions enlarge rapidly and turn
polycephalum, often referred to as the
dark brown to purplish-black. During
“many-headed slime,” is a slime mold
periods of high humidity and leaf
that inhabits shady, cool, moist areas,
wetness, a cottony, white mold growth
such as decaying leaves and logs.
is usually visible on lower leaf surfaces
at the edges of lesions. In dry weather, 130. (a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commercially
infected leaf tissues quickly dry up used to produce ethanol. S. cerevisiae
and the white mold growth disappears. is a yeast which helps in alcoholic
Infected areas on stems appear brown to fermentation in which sugars such
black and entire veins may be killed in a as glucose, fructose and sucrose are
short time when moist weather persists. converted into cellular energy and
123. (d) Phylogenetic system of classification produce ethanol.
is based on evolutionary relationships. 131. (b) E. coli is a prokaryotic celled gram
This phylogenetic classification system negative bacterium.
names only clades-groups of organisms 132. (a) Archegoniophore is the female sex
that are all descended from a common
ancestor. Under a system of phylogenetic organ of bryophytes (Marchantia) and
classification, we could name any pteridophytes. Its neck region is made
clade on this tree. For example, the up of 4-6 vertical rows of cells.
Testudines, Squamata, Archosauria, 133. (a) Eubacteria are prokaryotic but
and Crocodylomorpha all form clades. eubacteria are enclosed by plasma
124. (b) Mannitol is a food stored in Fucus. membrane like eukaryotic cells.
Fucus is a genus of brown alga in the 134. (a) The gametophyte of bryophytes are
class Phaeophyceae to be found in the
smaller but have large sex organs.
intertidal zones of rocky seashores
almost everywhere in the world. Primary 135. (d) Gametophyte is not an independent free
chemical constituents of this plant living generation in Pinus.
include mucilage, algin, mannitol, beta- 136. (b) Methanogens are archaebacteria abundant
carotene, zeaxanthin, iodine, bromine, in cattle yard and paddy fields.
potassium, volatile oils, and many other 137. (b) Water hyacinth is a free floating
minerals. perennial plant, can grow to a height of
125. (a) Single celled eukaryotes are included in
3 feet.
protista. Protista includes all unicellular
and colonial eukaryotes except green 138. (b) (A) Sporophyte is more developed in
and red algae. It is also known as mosses rather than liverwort.
kingdom of unicellular eukaryotes. (B) Pinus is monoecious in which male
126. (b) Ring worm is a fungal disease caused & female cones are borne on different
by the dermatophyte fungi species of branches.
microsporum, trichophyton and epider- 139. (d)
mophyton.
140. (a)
127. (b) Membrane bound organelles are absent in
Streptococcus. Streptococcus is a bacterium 141. (d) The most abundant prokaryotes helpful
that is included under kingdom Monera. to humans in making curd from milk
Monerans are prokaryotes which and in production of antibiotics are the
lack membrane bound organelles like heterotrophic bacteria. Lactobacillis
mitochondria, E.R, Golgi etc. bacteria convert milk into curd.
Saccharomyces, Chlamydomonas and 142. (d) Cyanobacteria are also referred as blue
Plasmodium are eukaryotes that have
green algae, they perform oxygenic
membrane bound organelles.
128. (a) Virus envelope is known as capsid. The photosynthesis. They are most successful
capsid is composed of protein subunits autotrophic organisms on earth which one
called capsomere. found in all types of environment - fresh
129. (a) Agrobacterium is a soil borne pathogen water, sea water, salt marshes, moist rocks,
responsible for affecting many higher tree trunks, moist soils, hot springs, frozen
species of plant. But Rhizobium, Nostoc waters.
and Mycorrhiza are biofertilizers.
143. (b) All the viruses are obligate parasite i.e. they 147. (c) UAG is also a stop codon. Wombats
remain inert outside the host cell. They are also Australian marsupials. They
have ability to syntheize nucleic acids and are short-legged, muscular quadrupeds,
proteins by using host cellular machinery approximately 1 metre (40 in) in length
(ribosomes, tRNAs, aminoacids, energy). with a short, stubby tail. Diphtheria is
Three shapes are found in viruses helical an acute infectious disease caused by the
bacteria Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
(elongate body e.g. T.M.V) cuboidal
Cuscuta, or Dodder plant, is not a
(short broad body with rhombic rounded,
protozoan. It is a parasitic vine that wraps
polyhedral shape e.g. Poliomyelitis virus) around other plants for nourishment.
and binal (with birth cuboidal and helical 148. (d) Archaebactera live in some of the most
parts e.g. many bacteriophages like T2). harsh habitats such as extreme salty areas
Antibiotics have no effect on them, antiviral (halophiles), hot springs (thermoacidophiles)
drugs can only kill them. and marshy areas (methanogens) and in
144. (c) Saccharomyces cervisiae is a yeast used deep sea water.
in making bread (Baker’s yeast) and
149. (c) Fungi lack chlorophyll, hence, they do
commercial production of ethanol.
Paramoecium & Plasmodium are of animal not prepare their food by photosynthesis.
kingdom while pencillium is a fungi. They can grow where organic material is
Lichen is composite organism formed from available. So, they are heterotrophs that
the symbiotic association of an algae and a acquire their nutrient by absorption and
fungus. Nostoc & Anabaena are examples store in the form of glycogen.
of kingdom monera. 150. (b) Heterocysts are large sized, thick-walled
145. (c) Autotrophs are those organisms that
specialised cells which occur in terminal,
are able to make energy-containing
intercalary or lateral position in filamentous
organic molecules from inorganic raw
material by using basic sunlight. Nostoc, cyanobacteria, e.g., Nostoc. They have
Chara, Porphyra and Wolffia are enzyme nitrogenase and specialised to
photoautotrophs while Nitrosomonas perform biological nitrogen fixation.
and Nitrobacter are chemoautotrophs. 151. (a) Plant viruses often contain parasites of their
146. (b) Chlamydomonas & Chlorella have own, referred to as satellites. Satellite RNAs
been included in algae. Algae are are dependent on their associated (helper)
chlorophyllus, thalloid avascular plants virus for both replication and encapsidation.
with no cellular differentiation. Algae Example—Tobacco Necrosis Virus (TNV).
belong to thallophyta of plant kingdom.
Viroids are infectious agents smaller than
viruses. Bacteriophages are viruses that
infect the bacteria. A prion is an infectious
agent that is composed primarily of
protein.
HAPTER
C
3 Plant Kingdom
1. Sexual reproduction involving fusion of two 8. Moss peristome takes part in [1990]
cells in Chlamydomonas is [1988] (a) spore dispersal (b) photosynthesis
(a) isogamy (b) homogamy (c) protection (d) absorption
(c) somatogamy (d) hologamy 9. Protonema occurs in the life cycle of
2. Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise to fern [1990, 1993]
plant (sporophyte) without fertilization. It is (a) Riccia (b) Funaria
[1988] (c) Somatogamy (d) Spirogyra
(a) apospory (b) apogamy 10. The product of conjugation in Spirogyra or
(c) parthenocarpy (d) parthenogenesis fertilization of Chlamydomonas is [1991]
3. In gymnosperms like Pinus and Cycas, the (a) zygospore (b) zoospore
endosperm is [1988] (c) oospore (d) carpospore
(a) triploid (b) haploid 11. The common mode of sexual reproduction
(c) diploid (d) tetraploid in Chlamydomonas is [1991]
4. Evolutionary important character of (a) isogamous (b) anisogamous
Selaginella is (c) oogamous (d) hologamous
(a) heterosporous nature [1989] 12. Which one has the largest gametophyte?
(b) rhizophore [1991]
(c) strobili (a) Cycas (b) Angiosperm
(d) ligule
(c) Selaginella (d) Moss
5. Sperms of both Funaria and Pteris were
13. Bryophytes are amphibians because [1991]
released together near the archegonia of
(a) they require a layer of water for carrying
Pteris. Only its sperms enter the archegonia
out sexual reproduction
as [1989]
(b) they occur in damp places
(a) Pteris archegonia repel Funaria sperms
(b) Funaria sperms get killed by Pteris (c) they are mostly aquatic
sperms (d) all the above
(c) Funaria sperms are less mobile 14. A plant in which sporophytic generation is
(d) Pteris archegonia release chemical to represented by zygote [1992]
attract its sperms (a) Pinus (b) Selaginella
6. In Pinus/gymnosperms, the haploid structure (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Dryopteris
are [1989] 15. The plant group that produces spores and
(a) megaspore, endosperm and embryo embryo but lacks vascular tissues and seeds
(b) megaspore, pollen grain and endosperm is [1992]
(c) megaspore, integument and root (a) Pteridophyta (b) Rhodophyta
(d) pollen grain, leaf and root (c) Bryophyta (d) Phaeophyta
7. Apophysis in the capsule of Funaria is 16. Which one of the following is not common
[1990] between Funaria and Selaginella? [1992]
(a) lower part (b) upper part (a) Archegonium (b) Embryo
(c) middle part (d) fertile part (c) Flagellate sperms (d) Roots
Plant Kingdom 31
17. A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and 29. In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction
fruits belongs to [1992] occurs by [1994]
(a) Pteridophytes (b) Mosses (a) Isogamy and anisogamy
(c) Ferns (d) Gymnosperms (b) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
18. In Pinus, the pollen grain has 6 chromosomes (c) Oogamy only
then in its endosperm will have [1992] (d) Anisogamy and oogamy
(a) 12 (b) 18 30. Which of the following cannot fix nitrogen?
(c) 6 (d) 24 [1994]
19. Resin and turpentine are obtained from (a) Nostoc (b) Azotobacter
(a) Cycas (b) Pinus [1992] (c) Spirogyra (d) Anabaena
(c) Cedrus (d) Abies 31. The absence of chlorophyll, in the lowermost
20. Turpentine is obtained from [1992] cell of Ulothrix, shows [1995]
(a) Angiospermous wood (a) functional fission
(b) Pteridophytes (b) tissue formation
(c) Gymnospermous wood (c) cell characteristic
(d) Ferns (d) beginning of labour division
21. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophytes 32. Agar is commercially obtained from [1995]
in possessing [1993] (a) red algae (b) green algae
(a) independent gametophyte (c) brown algae (d) blue-green algae
(b) well developed vascular system 33. The plant body of moss (Funaria) is [1995]
(c) archegonia (a) completely sporophyte
(d) flagellate spermatozoids (b) completely gametophyte
22. In Ulothrix/Spirogyra, reduction division (c) predominantly sporophyte with
(meiosis) occurs at the time of [1993] gametophyte
(a) gamete formation (d) predominantly gametophyte with
(b) zoospore formation sporophyte
(c) zygospore germination 34. A well developed archegonium with neck
(d) vegetative reproduction consisting of 4-6 rows of neck canal cells,
23. Chloroplast of Chlamydomonas is [1993] characterises [1995]
(a) stellate (b) cup-shaped (a) Gymnosperms only
(c) collar-shaped (d) spiral (b) Bryophytes and pteridophytes
24. Pyrenoids are the centres for formation of (c) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
(a) porphyra (b) enzymes [1993] (d) Gymnosperms and flowering plants
(c) fat (d) starch 35. The ‘amphibians’ of plant kingdom are
25. Pinus differs from mango in having [1993] (a) unicellular motile algae [1996]
(a) tree habit (b) multicellular non-motile algae
(b) green leaves (c) bryophytes with simple internal
(c) ovules not enclosed in ovary organization
(d) wood (d) pteridophytes with complex internal
26. Which one is the most advanced from organization not reaching angiosperm
evolutionary point of view. [1993]
level.
(a) Selaginella (b) Funaria
36. In which one of these the elaters are present
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) Pinus
27. The ‘wing’ of Pinus seed is derived from along with mature spores in the capsule (to
(a) testa [1994] help in spore dispersal)? [1996]
(b) testa and tegmen (a) Riccia (b) Marchantia
(c) surface of ovuliferous scale (c) Funaria (d) Sphagnum
(d) all the above 37. Seed-habit first originated in [1996]
28. Unique features of Bryophytes is that they (a) certain ferns (b) certain pines
(a) produce spores [1994] (c) certain monocots (d) primitive dicots
(b) have sporophyte attached to 38. Which one of the following is a living fossil?
gametophyte [1996, 97, 2003]
(c) lack roots (a) Pinus (b) Opuntia
(d) lack vascular tissues (c) Ginkgo (d) Thuja
39. Blue-green algae belong to [1996] 49. Largest sperms in the plant world are found
(a) Eukaryotes (b) Prokaryotes in [1998]
(c) Rhodophyceae (d) Chlorophyceae (a) Pinus (b) Banyan
40. An alga very rich in protein is [1997] (c) Cycas (d) Thuja
(a) Spirogyra (b) Ulothrix 50. The antherozoids of Funaria are [1999]
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Chlorella (a) aciliated (b) flagellated
41. Multicellular branched rhizoids and leafy (c) multiciliated (d) monociliated
gametophytes are characteristic of [1997] 51. Bryophytes comprise [1999]
(a) all bryophytes (a) sporophyte of longer duration
(b) some bryophytes
(c) all pteridophytes (b) dominant phase of sporophyte which is
(d) some peteriodphytes parasitic
42. Ulothrix filaments produce [1997] (c) dominant phase of gametophyte which
(a) isogametes (b) anisogametes produces spores
(c) heterogametes (d) basidiospores (d) small sporophyte phase and generally
43. Bryophytes can be separated from algae parasitic on gametophyte.
because they [1997] 52. In which of the following would you place
(a) are thalloid forms the plants having vascular tissue lacking
(b) have no conducting tissue seeds? [1999, 2000]
(c) possess archegonia with outer layer of (a) Algae (b) Bryophytes
sterile cells (c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperms
(d) contain chloroplasts in their cells 53. Which of the following is true about
44. Brown algae is characterised by the presence bryophytes? [1999]
of [1997] (a) They possess archegonia
(a) phycocyanin (b) phycoerythrin (b) They contain chloroplast
(c) fucoxanthin (d) haematochrome (c) They are thalloid
45. Which one of the following statements about (d) All of these
Cycas is incorrect? [1998]
(a) It does not have a well-organized female 54. Columella is a specialised structure found in
flower the sporangium of [1999]
(b) It has circinate vernation (a) Ulothrix (b) Rhizopus
(c) Its xylem is mainly composed of xylem (c) Spirogyra (d) None of these
vessels 55. Dichotomous branching is found in [1999]
(d) Its roots contain some blue-green algae. (a) Fern (b) Funaria
46. Ulothrix can be described as a [1998] (c) Liverworts (d) Marchantia
(a) non-motile colonial alga lacking 56. The largest ovules, largest male and female
zoospores gametes and largest plants are found among
(b) filamentous alga lacking flagellated (a) Angiosperms [2000]
reproductive stages (b) Tree ferns and some monocots
(c) membranous alga producing zoospores (c) Gymnosperms
(d) filamentous alga with flagellated (d) Dicotyledonous plants
reproductive stages 57. In Ferns meiosis occurs when [2000]
47. Bryophytes are dependent on water because (a) spore germinates
[1998] (b) gametes are formed
(a) water is essential for fertilization for (c) spores are formed
their homosporous nature
(b) water is essential for their vegetative (d) antheridia and archegonia are formed
propagation 58. One of the most important reasons why wild
(c) the sperms can easily reach upto egg in plants should thrive is that they are good
the archegonium sources of [2000]
(d) archegonium has to remain filled with (a) highly nutritive animal feed
water for fertilization (b) unsaturated edible oils
48. The “walking” fern is so named because (c) genes for resistance to disease and pests
(a) it is dispersed through the agency of (d) very rare and highly sought after fruits
walking animals [1998] of medical importance
(b) it propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips 59. Floridean starch is found in [2000]
(c) it knows how to walk by itself (a) Chlorophyceae (b) Rhodophyceae
(d) its spores are able to walk (c) Myxophyceae (d) Cyanophyceae
Plant Kingdom 33
60. A research student collected certain alga and 69. Match items in Column I with those in
found that its cells contained both chlorophyll Column II :
a and chlorophyll b as well as phycoerythrin. Column I Column II
The alga belongs to [2000] (A) Peritrichous (J) Ginkgo
(a) Rhodophyceae flagellation
(b) Bacillariophyceae (B) Living fossil (K) Macrocystis
(c) Chlorophyceae (C) Rhizophore (L) Escherichia coli
(d) Phaeophyceae (D) Smallest (M) Selaginella
61. Cycas have two cotyledons but not included flowering plant
in angiosperms because of [2001] (E) Largest perennial (N) Wolffia
(a) Naked ovules alga
(b) Seems like monocot Select the correct answer from the following:
(c) Circinate ptyxis (a) A-L; B-J; C-M; D-N; E-K; [2005]
(d) Compound leaves (b) A-K; B-J; C-L; D-M; E-N
62. Which of the following plants produces seeds (c) A-N; B-L; C-K; D-N; E-J;
but not flowers? [2002] (d) A-J; B-K; C-N; D-L; E-K
(a) Maize (b) Mint 70. In a moss the sporophyte [2006]
(c) Peepal (d) Pinus (a) produces gametes that give rise to the
63. Which of the following is without exception gametophyte
in angiosperms? [2002] (b) arises from a spore produced from the
(a) presence of vessels gametophyte
(b) double fertilisation (c) manufactures food for itself as well as
(c) secondary growth for the gametophyte
(d) autotrophic nutrition (d) is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
64. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an 71. Peat Moss is used as a packing material for
advanced feature because it shows [2003] sending flowers and live plants to distant
(a) physiologically differentiated sex places because [2006]
organs (a) it is hygroscopic
(b) different sizes of motile sex organs (b) It reduces transpiration
(c) same size of motile sex organs (c) it serves as a disinfectant
(d) morphologically different sex organs (d) it is easily available
65. Which one of the following pairs of plants 72. Conifers differ from grasses in the [2006]
are not seed producers? [2003] (a) lack of xylem tracheids
(a) Funaria and Pinus (b) absence of pollen tubes
(b) Fern and Funaria (c) formation of endosperm before
(c) Funaria and Ficus fertilization
(d) Ficus and Chlamydomonas (d) production of seeds from ovules
66. Which one pair of examples will correctly 73. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam,
represent the grouping Spermatophyta the antherozoids and eggs mature a different
according to one of the schemes of classifying times. As a result [2007]
plants ? [2003] (a) there is high degree of sterility
(a) Ginkgo, Pisum (b) one can conclude that the plant is
(b) Acacia, Sugarcane apomictic
(c) Pinus, Cycas (c) self-fertilization is prevented
(d) Rhizopus, Triticum (d) there is no change in success rate of
67. Which of the following propagates through fertilization
leaf- tip? [2004] 74. If you are asked to classify the various algae
(a) Walking fern into distinct groups, which of the following
(b) Sproux-leaf plant characters you should choose? [2007]
(c) Marchantia (a) nature of stored food materials in the
(d) Moss cell
68. Which one of the following is a living fossil? (b) structural organization of thallus
(a) Cycas (b) Moss [2003, 04] (c) chemical composition of the cell wall
(c) Saccharomyces (d) Spirogyra (d) types of pigments present in the cell.
75. Flagellated male gametes are present in all 85. Algae have cell wall made up of: [2010]
the three of which one of the following sets? (a) cellulose, galactans and mannans
[2007] (b) hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(a) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla (c) pectins, cellulose and proteins
(b) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis (d) cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
(c) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas 86. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that
(d) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra grow in highly acidic (pH2) habitats belong
76. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber to the two groups: [2010]
represents [2007] (a) Eubacteria and archaea
(a) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen (b) Cyanobacteria and diatoms
(c) Protists and mosses
grains are stored after pollination
(d) Liverworts and yeasts
(b) an opening in the megagametophyte 87. In angiosperms, functional megaspore
through which the pollen tube develops into [2011M]
approaches the egg (a) embryo sac (b) ovule
(c) the microsporangium in which pollen (c) endosperm (d) pollen sac
grains develop 88. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in
(d) a cell in the pollen grain in which the having: [2012]
sperms are formed. (a) Seeds (b) Motile Sperms
77. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is (c) Cambium (d) Vessels
aided by [2007] 89. Which one of the following is a correct
(a) indusium (b) calyptra statement? [2012]
(c) peristome teeth (d) elaters (a) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a
78. In which one of the following, male and protonemal and leafy stage
female gametophytes do not have free living (b) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is
independent existence? [2008] free-living
(a) Pteris (b) Funaria (c) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores
(c) Polytrichum (d) Cedrus are present in pteridophytes.
79. Which one of the following is heterosporous? (d) Origin of seed habit can be traced in
(a) Dryopteris (b) Salvinia [2008] pteridophytes
(c) Adiantum (d) Equisetum 90. Which one of the following is common to
80. Select one of the following pairs of important multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and
features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas protonema of mosses [2012]
and Pinus and showing affinities with (a) Diplontic life cycle
angiosperms [2008] (b) Members of kingdom plantae
(a) absence of resin duct and leaf venation (c) Mode of Nutrition
(b) presence of vessel elements and absence (d) Multiplication by fragmentation
of archegonia 91. Read the following five statements (A - E)
(c) perianth and two integuments and answer the question. [2012M]
(d) embryo development and apical (A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte
meristem is retained on the parent sporophyte.
81. Which one of the following plants is (B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not
monoecious? [2009] independent.
(a) Pinus (b) Cycas (C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more
(c) Papaya (d) Marchantia developed than that in Polytrichum.
82. Which one of the following has haplontic (D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is
life cycle? [2009] isogamous.
(a) Polytrichum (b) Ustilago (E) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls.
(c) Wheat (d) Funaria How many of the above statements are
83. Which one of the following is a vascular correct?
cryptogam? [2009] (a) Two (b) Three
(a) Ginkgo (b) Marchantia (c) Four (d) One
92. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(c) Cedrus (d) Equisetum matched? [2012M]
84. Male and female gametophytes are (a) Ginkgo -Archegonia
independent and free -living in: [2010] (b) Salvinia - Prothallus
(a) Mustard (b) Castor (c) Viroids - RNA
(c) Pinus (d) Sphagnum (d) Mustard - Synergids
Plant Kingdom 35
93. Besides paddy fields cyanobacteria are also 96. Which of the following is not correctly matched
found inside vegetative part of : [NEET 2013] for the organism and its cell wall degrading
(a) Cycas (b) Equisetum enzyme? [NEET 2013]
(c) Psilotum (d) Pinus (a) Plant cells-Cellulase
94. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated (b) Algae-Methylase
gametes is found in : [NEET 2013] (c) Fungi-Chitinase
(a) Spirogyra (b) Volvox (d) Bacteria-Lysozyme
(c) Fucus (d) Chlamydomonas 97. The plant body is thalloid in
95. Read the following statements (A-E) and [NEET Kar. 2013]
answer the question which follows them. (a) Funaria (b) Sphagnum
[NEET 2013] (c) Salvinia (d) Marchantia
1. In liverworts, mosses and ferns 98. What is common in all the three, Funaria,
gametophytes are free-living Dryopteris and Ginkgo? [NEET Kar. 2013]
2. Gymnosperms and some ferns are (a) Independent sporophyte
heterosporous. (b) Presence of archegonia
3. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and (c) Well developed vascular tissues
Albugo is oogamous (d) Independent gametophyte
4. The sporophyte in liveworts is more 99. Which one of the following is wrongly
elaborate than that in mosses matched? [NEET Kar. 2013]
5. Both, Pinus and Marchantia are (a) Nostoc-Water blooms
dioecious (b) Spirogyra-Motile gametes
How many of the above statements are (c) Sargassum-Chlorophyll c
correct? (d) Basidiomycetes-Puffballs
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) One
Solutions
1. (a) Isogamy refers to a form of sexual Development of gametophyte directly from
reproduction involving gametes of the same sporophyte without meiosis and without
size. Since both gametes look alike, they forming spores, is Apospory.
cannot be classified as “male” or “female.” 3. (b) In Gymnosperms like Cycas/Pinus,
Instead, organisms undergoing isogamy are endosperms of female gametophyte is
said to have different mating types, most haploid and formed before fertilizaiton.
commonly noted as “+” and “–” strains. In angiosperms endosperm is triploid and
develops after fertilization.
Fertilization occurs when “+” and “–” 4. (a) Presence of two types of spores microspores
gametes fuse to form a zygote. There are and megaspores (Heterospory) is the
several types of isogamy. Both gametes evolutionary characteristic in the life cycle
may be flagellated and thus motile. This of Selaginella.
type occurs for example in algae such as 5. (d) Archegonia of a particular species
Chlamydomonas. recognises antherozoids (sperms) of the
same species through release of chemical.
In Pteris, archegonia produces malic acid
which attracts sperms of Pteris only for
fertilization.
6. (b) Pinus and in all other Gymnosperms
endosperm produced before fertilization
and is haplolid. Megaspore and pollen grain
A. Isogamy of motile cells are initial structures of female gametophyte
B. Isogamy of non-motile cells and male gametophyte respectively hence,
2. (b) When prothallus of a fern give rise to sporo- they are haploid.
phyte directly from somatic cell without 7. (a) Capsule of the Funaria differentiated into :
forming gametes it is Apogamy. Such type (1) Operculum – upper part -lid
of sporophyte is haploid in nature. (2) Theca – Middle – fertile part
(3) Apophysis – lower -photosynthetic
8. (a) Peristomes are teeth present in the capsule of 16. (d) Funaria is moss (Bryophyte) possesses
moss. These are in two rows and helps in the archegonium, embryo, flagellated sperms.
dispersal of the spores due to hygroscopic These are also present in Selaginella
nature. (Pteriodophyte) but it also has roots which
9. (b) In Funaria, the spore germinates to form are absent in Funaria.
a green multicellular structure called as 17. (d) Gymnosperms are vascular land plants
protonema which later on develops into having naked ovules i.e., ovules are not
gametophyte. Presence of protonema is enclosed in a ovary hence, flower is absent.
characteristic feature of moss. Ovules after fertilization produces naked
10. (a) In both the members of green algae, seeds. Pteridophytes (ferns) and mosses do
Spirogyra and Chlamydomonas, gametes are not produce seed.
fused to form zygote which develops into a 18. (c) Pollen grains are haploid (n). If haploid no.
thick walled resting zygospore. of chromosomes are 6 then endosperm will
Zoospore is asexual spore while Oospore is also have 6 chromosomes as it is formed
sexual spore. before fertilization and is haploid.
11. (a) In Chlamydomonas, sexual reproduction 19. (b) Pinus species → Resins and turpentine
takes place through : Cedrus → Timber for railway sleepers
(1)Isogamy : Fusion of 2 similar gametes. Abies → Paper, canada balsam.
(2)Anisogamy : Fusion between Cycas → ornamental plant
morphological similar but physiologically 20. (c) Turpentine is extracted from the wood
different gametes. (xylem) of Pinus (Gymnosperm).
(3)Oogamy : Fusion between two dissimilar Turpentine is a fluid obtained by the
gametes. complex distillation of resin obtained
(4)Hologamy : Fusion of two young cells. from trees, mainly various species of pine
Most common mode is isogamy. (Pinus). It is composed of terpenes, mainly
12. (d) As one moves from thallophyta → Bryophyta the monoterpenes alpha-pinene and beta-
→ Pteriodophyta → Gymnosperm pinene.
→ Angiosperms, there is reduction in Turpentine oil is obtained by boiling resin
the gametophyte and elaboration of at 155 degrees Celsius in large tubs. It has
sporophyte. a potent odor that is similar to that of nail
Hence, in this question moss has largest polish remover.
gametophyte 21. (b) Well developed vascular system present in
Moss → Selaginella → Cycas → Angiosperm the members of Pteridophytes but absent
→ Reduction in Gametophyte. in mosses as the plant body is sporophyte
13. (a) Bryophytes are amphibians because they which is distinguished into true root, stem
complete their vegetative phase on land but and leaves.
water is necessary for their reproductive Independent gametophyte, archegonia
phase. flagellate spermatozoids are present in moss
14. (c) The plant body of Chlamydomonas is and pteridophyte both.
gametophyte (haploid). It reproduces 22. (c) Plant body of Ulothrix and Spirogyra is
asexually by zoospore formation and sexually gametophyte (haploid), they produce
by gametes. Gametes are isogametes which zoogametes(n) which fuses to form
fuses to produce diploid zygote which is zygospore (2n) diploid, which is a resting
the only structure representing sporophytic spore. On set of favourable condition
generation. zygospore undergoes reductional division
In Pinus main plant body is sporophyte same or meiosis to produce zoospores which give
is the case with Selaginella and Dryopteris. rise to new plant.
15. (c) Bryophytes are the plants which produces 23. (b) Shape and number of chloroplast in different
spores and embryo but no vascular tissues member of algae is different
are present, although primitive type of Chlamydomonas – cup shaped, 1/cell
conducting tissues are present in the form of Zygnema – Stellate, 2/cell
hadrome and leptome. Spirogyra – Spiral, 1/ cell
• Rhodophytes & phaeophytes are algae Ulothrix – Collar shaped, 1/cell
produces spores, no embryo & vascular 24. (d) In cell biology, pyrenoids are centers of carbon
tissue dioxide fixation within the chloroplasts of
• Pteridophytes have spores, embryo and algae and hornworts. Pyrenoids are not
true vascular tissues. membrane-bound organelles, but specialized
Plant Kingdom 37
areas of the plastid that contain high levels 34. (b) Archegonia is the female sex organ of
of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/ bryophytes and pteridophytes. Its neck
oxygenase (RubisCO). RubisCO fixes region is made up of 4-6 vertical rows of
carbon dioxide by adding it to the 5-carbon cells.
sugar-phosphate, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, 35. (c) Bryophytes are terrestial plants but they
yielding two molecules of the 3-carbon require a thin film of water on the surface of
compound, 3-phosphoglycerate. In a their substratum during sexual reproduction
competing reaction, the enzyme uses oxygen hence they are called amphibians of the
to break down ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate to plant kingdom.
phosphoglycolate and 3-phosphoglycerate, 36. (b) In Marchantia capsule elaters are present
with no net fixation of carbon. which help in dispersal of spores.
25. (c) Pinus is a member of Gymnosperm in 37. (a) Seed habit originated in Cycadophiles or
which ovules are not enclosed in the ovary pteridosperms.
i.e. naked seed, whereas mango is a typical
38. (c) Ginkgophyta is an ancient group of which
angiosperm whose ovules are enclosed in
the sole living representative or living fossil
ovary i.e., Presence of fruit.
26. (d) Pinus is a conifer, a member of Gymnosperm is Ginkgo biloba or Maiden hair tree which is
has well developed conducting tissue and native of South China.
presence of seed, whereas Selaginella is a 39. (b) Blue green algae or cyanobacteria come
member of pteridophyte (Heterospory), under Prokaryotes. Prokaryotes lack a well
Funaria is a moss, Chlamydomonas is an defined nucleus surrounded by nuclear
alga. membrane. Eukaryotes have well organised
27. (c) The ovules matures into seed. Which is nucleus. Rhodophyceae & Chlorophyceae
provided with wings. The upper surface of are members of algae which come under
ovuliferous scale forms the membranous eukaryotes.
wings of the seed which helps in dispersal 40. (d) Chlorella can be grown to provide human
of the seed. The time taken from cone food rich in protein, lipid, carbohydrates,
formation to seed dispersal is about two vitamins and minerals.
years in Pinus. Chlorella has been researched as a potential
28. (b) In bryophytes the plant body is gametophyte source of food and energy, because its
and sporophyte remain attached to efficiency of photosynthesis can reach 8%,
the gametophyte and produces spores. this is comparable with other highly efficient
Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte. crops such as sugar cane. It is high in protein
29. (b) In chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction takes and other essential nutrients. When dried, it
place by all the three processes is about 45 percent protein, 20 percent fat,
1. Isogamy – Fusion of morphologically 20 percent carbohydrate, 5% fiber, and 10
and physiologically similar gametes. percent minerals and vitamins.
2. Anisogamy – Morphologically similar 41. (b) In pteridophytes, the gametophyte is
but physiologically dissimilar gametes. independently living small thalloid structure
3. Oogamy – Fusing gametes are dissimilar called prothallus. In pteridophytes the
in all respect. primary roots are replaced by adventitious
30. (c) Spirogyra is a member of green algae which
roots. Whereas in bryophytes the
cannot fix atmospheric nitrogen. Only
Nostoc and Anabaena (Blue green algae) and gametophyte is leafy.
Azotobacter (bacteria) can fix nitrogen. 42. (a) Sexual reproduction in Ulothrix is isogamous
31. (d) Lowermost cell in Ulothrix functions as type. Only similar type of gametes called
the holdfast. It is meant for attaching the isogametes are produced.
filaments to the substratum which shows 43. (c) Archegonium is the flask shaped female sex
beginning of labour division. organ in bryophytes while Algae have non-
32. (a) The Agar is obtained from several members jacketed sex organs (gametangia).
of red algae such as Gracilaria, Gelidium, 44. (c) Phycoerythrins are accessory photosynthetic
Chondrus etc. Agar gels are extensively used pigments along with phycocyanins.
for growing micro-organisms. Haematochrome is a pigment in the blood.
33. (d) The gametophtytic generation represents Brown algae is brown due to fucoxanthin.
the dominant phase in the life cycle of 45. (c) In Cycas, conducting part of xylem consists
bryophytes. The sporophyte phase is of tracheids.
dependent on the gametophyte. That is why, 46. (d) Spirogyra is a filamentous alga lacking
the plant body of Funaria is predominantly flagellated reproductive stages.
gametophyte with sporophyte.
47. (c) Bryophytes require a thin film of water on 58. (c) Wild varieties have the genes for the
the surface of their substratum during sexual resistance to disease and pests.
reproduction for the following reasons : 59. (b) Reserve food in red algae (Rhodophyceae)
(i) dehiscence of antheridia requires is Floridean starch. In green algae
absorption of water from outside (Chlorophyceae), reserve food is starch. In
(ii) dehiscence of archegonium brown algae, reserve food is laminarin and
(iii) swimming of sperms to reach the manitol. In cyanophyceae reserve food is
archegonia cyanophycean starch.
48. (b) Vegetative reproduction occurs in ferns by 60. (a) In green algae, the photosynthetic
fragmentation of rhizome and growth of pigments are chlorophyll a & b, carotenes
adventitious buds. In Adiantum caudatum and xanthophylls. In phaeophyceae,
the adventitious buds occur at the leaf tips the pigments are chlorophyll a, chlorophyll
hence it is called the walking fern because c and carotenes and xanthophylls.
of its ability to form new ferns whenever Phycoerythrin gives red colour to
Rhodophyceae.
the leaf tip happens to come in contact with
61. (a) In Cycas (gymnosperm) the seed does not
soil. occur inside a fruit but lies naked or exposed
49. (c) The sperms of Cycas are the largest on the surface of megasporophyll.
in the plant kingdom reaching a size of 300 62. (d) Maize, Mint and Peepal are flowering plants
mm . Egg of Cycas and its nucleus are also or angiosperms but Pinus is a gymnosperm
the largest in the plant kingdom. in which seeds are produced but flowers are
50. (b) Antherozoids of Funaria bear two flagella at not produced or seeds are not enclosed in
anterior end and is spirally coiled. flowers.
51. (d) In bryophytes, the dominant and 63. (b) Vesselless angiosperms are Wintera,
independent living phase of the life cycle is Trochodendron etc. Secondary growth is
gametophyte. Sporophyte is always attached absent in some angiosperms. Angiospermic
and dependent upon the gametophytic plant plants are autotrophic in nutrition. But some
body for water supply, fixation, and part or angiosperms are heterotrophic in nutrition.
whole nutrient requirement. The 4 special modes of nutrition and their
52. (c) Pteridophytes are primitive seedless examples are:
vascular plants. Bryophytes are non vascular (i) Saprophytic : e.g. Neottia, Monotropa.
embryophytes. Gymnosperms are seed (ii) Symbiotic – e.g. Mycorrhiza-between
plants in which conducting part of xylem fungus and roots of higher plants.
consist of tracheids. Algae are non-vascular (iii) Parasitic – Cuscuta.
photosynthetic aquatics forming accessory (iv) Insectivorous plant – Nepenthes.
spores for asexual reproduction. Double fertilization is characteristic of all
53. (d) Bryophytes are non vascular embryophytes angiosperms.
characterized by the presence of an 64. (a) Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra occurs
independent gametophyte and a parasitic by conjugation involving union of two
sporophyte. Plant body is either thalloid or gametes. The fusing gametes are similar but
foliose. Archegonium is the flask shaped one is more active and passes into the other
cell. This differentiation of gametes is called
female sex organ. They bear chloroplast.
physiological anisogamy.
54. (b) Ulothrix is a green alga. Spirogyra is a
65. (b) Pteridophytes (fern) and bryophytes
filamentous green alga. In Rhizopus the (Funaria) are seedless plants. Gymnosperms
columella bears the spores for asexual (pines) and angiosperms (Ficus) are seed
reproduction. bearing plants.
55. (d) In mosses branching is lateral but extra- 66. (a) Spermatophytes are the seed plants. They
axillary (Funaria). Marchantia is a dorsiventral are the plants bearing seeds containing a
dichotomously branched thalloid liverwort. dormant embryo. It includes gymnosperms
In Sphagnum branching is profuse. and angiosperms. Ginkgo belongs to group
56. (c) Egg of Cycas (Gymnosperms) and its gymnosperms and pisum belongs to group
nucleus are the largest in the plant kingdom. angiosperms.
The sperms of Cycas are also the largest in 67. (a) In mosses vegetative propagation occurs
the plant kingdom. by fragmentation. Marchantia is a liverwort
57. (c) Gametic meiosis is found in all animals. in which propagation also occurs by
In sporic meiosis the sporophyte produces fragmentation. Walking fern Adiantum
sporangia where meiosis occurs producing propagates through leaf tip.
haploid spores.
Plant Kingdom 39
68. (a) Ginkgo biloba is called the living fossil. But 77. (d) Elater is an elongated, spirally thickened,
Cycas revoluta a native of China and Japan water-attracting cell in the capsule of a
common known as “Tesso” or Sago palm” liverwort, derived from sporogenous tissue
is also called living fossil due to its primitive and assist in spore dispersal. In mosses
characters. calyptra is a structure initially present
around sporophyte then later get break.
69. (a) Peritrichous flagellation : Flagella all around
It is developed from ventral wall after
e.g. Escherichia coli. fertilization. It provides protective covering
Living fossil : Organisms which have to the developing sporogonium. Peristome
undergone very little change since they first teeth are found in capsule of moss. These are
evolved e.g. Ginkgo. present below operculum and are hygroscopic
Rhizophore : Rhizophores are present in in nature.
Selaginella which is a colourless, leafless, 78. (d) Male and female gametophytes of Cedrus do
positively geotropic, elongated structure. not have free living independent existence.
Smallest flowering plant : Wolffia. Cedrus belongs to conifer.
Largest perennial alga : Macrocystis. 79. (b) Salvinia is an aquatic fern with both annual
70. (d) In moss main plant body is gametophyte and perennial species- b is heterosporous i.e.
with two types of spores, microspores and
& sporophyte is meant for spore dispersal
megaspores.
mainly. Hence it is called that the sporophyte 80. (b) The important features distinguishing
is partially parasitic on gametophyte. Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and showing
71. (a) Peat Moss is used wherever we require to affinities with angiosperms are presence of
retain water for a long because Peat Mosses vessel elements and absence of archegonia.
are hygroscopic in nature and they absorb 81. (a) Pinus plant is monoecious i.e. both male
the moisture from the atmosphere and and female cone are present in same plant
this moisture keep the living materials and but on different branches. Pinus, with over
flowers fresh for a long time. 100 species, is the largest genus of conifers
72. (c) Conifers (Gymnosperms) differ from grasses and the most widespread genus of trees in
(angiosperms) because in gymnosperms the the Northern Hemisphere. Pinus are also
extensively planted in temperate regions
female gametophyte is actually endosperm
of the Southern Hemisphere. Pines have a
which is made before fertilization. While
relatively rich fossil record.
in grasses endosperm is a tissue formed by 82. (b) Ustilago has a haplontic life cycle. This is
the fertilization of second male gamete to a simplest and most primitive type of life
polar nuclei. Moreover in gymnosperms cycle. The other pattern of life-cycle have
the endosperm is a haploid tissue while in originated from this type. This type is found in
angiosperms it is triploid. all Chlorophyceae. In such cases the somatic
73. (c) In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogams phase (plant) is haploid (Gametophyte)
the antherozoids and eggs mature at while the diploid phase (Sporophyte) is
different times which result in failurity of represented by zygote. During germination
self-fertilization. the zygote (2n) divides meiotically producing
74. (d) It will be types of pigment present in the haploid (n) zoospores, which develop into
individual plant. Here the unicellular or
cell like Rhodophyceae shows presence filamentous gametophyte (n) alternates
of phycoerythrin, chlorophyceae shows with one-celled zygote or sporophyte (2n).
presence of phycocyanin in etc. The haploid filamentous plants are known
75. (c) The male gametes of bryophytes are as haplonts which reproduce asexually by
biflagellate, and those of pteriodophytes zoospores or aplanospores producing the
are multiflagellate, except Selaginella having individals like parents.
biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of 83. (d) Equisetum is a vascular cryptogams. Equisetum
gymnosperms are non motile except those is the only living genus in the Equisetaceae,
of Cycas having multiciliate gametes. a family of vascular plants that reproduce by
76. (c) The fertile region of microsporophyll bears spores rather than seeds. They are commonly
known as horse tails. Equisetum is a “living
a number of microsporangia or pollen
fossil,” as it is the only known genus of the
sacs arranged in sori. The pollen chamber entire class Equisetopsida.
represents microsporangium in which pollen
grains develop.
84. (d) Sphagnum is a bryophyte in which male 92. (a) Archegonia are not formed in Ginkgo.
and female gametophytes are independent 93. (a) In Cycas specialised root called coralloid roots
and free living. In pinus (a gymnosperm), are associated with N2 – fixing cyanobacteria
mustard and castor (angiosperms), the main either Nostoc or Anabaena. Coralloid roots lie
plant body is sporophytic. Gametophyte is near the soil surface. They are irregular and
highly reduced and is completely dependent often dichotomously branched. Root hair and
on sporophyte. root cap are absent in these roots.
85. (a) Algae possess a definite cell wall containing 94. (a) In Spirogyra, sexual reproduction occurs
cellulose, galactans and mannans. through conjugation. Gametes are non-
86. (a) Hyperthermophilic organism that grow in flagellated morphologically similar. But
highly acidic habitats belong to eubacteria physiologically different (isogamy with
and archae groups. physiological anisogamy). Volvox and fucus
87. (a) During megagametogenesis functional are examples of oogamous and Chlamy-
megaspore (mostly chalazal) gives rise domonas contains isogamous flagellated
to embryo sac. This is the mature female gametes .
gametophyte generation. 95. (b) In liverworts and ferns gametophytes are
88. (b) Cycas (a gymnosperm) and Adiantum known free living while in fern sporophytes are
as Maiden hair fern is a pteridophyte resemble free living. Gymnosperms and genera like
each other in having motile sperm. Seeds, Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous.
cambium are common in gymno-sperms and The sporophyte in mosses are more elaborate
absent in pteridophytes. True vessels are absent than that of liverworts, Pinus is monoecious
in both pteridophytes and gymnospems. and heterosporous. Marchantia is dioecious.
89. (d) 96. (b) Algae is a plant and so its cell wall is made up
(1) Gametophyte of bryophytes bears protonemal of cellulose. Cellulase enzyme is needed for
& leafy stage. degradation of its cell wall.
(2) In gymnosperm female gametophyte is not 97. (d) The plant body of a liverwort is haploid (n),
free living. gametophytic, small, dorsoventrally flattened,
(3) They are present in Marchantia or which is a thallose, dichotomously branched fixed by
bryophyte. unicellular and unbranched rhizoids, e.g.,
(4) Origin of seed habit started in pteridophyte Marchantia.
Selaginaella. 98. (b) The female sex organ archegonium is formed
90. (d) in bryophytes (Funaria), pteridophytes
91. (a) Statement (A) and (B) are correct (Dryopteris) and gymnosperms (Ginkgo).
Riccia is liverwort in which simplest 99. (b) Cyanobacteria, e.g., Nostoc, grow in
sporophyte consists of capsule only while such abundance as to form water blooms.
Polytrichum is moss in which sporophyte Sargassum belongs to brown algae which
consists of foot seta & capsule. Volvox possess chl a, c, carotenoids, xanthophyll and
is a fresh water green colonial alga. a characteristic brown pigment, fucoxanthin.
Reproduction is both sexual and asexual. Commonly known forms of basidiomycetes
Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Slime are mushrooms, bracket fungi or puffballs.
molds are consumer decomposer protists. In Spirogyra gametes are non-flagellated
They possess characters of plants (cellulosic (non-motile) but similar in size. They show
cell wall), animals (phagotrophic nutrition) amoeboid movements.
and fungi (spores).
HAPTER
C
4 Animal Kingdom
1. Animals/organisms floating on the surface 11. Feet of king fisher are modified for [1988]
of water are [1988] (a) wading (b) perching
(a) plankton (b) pelagic (c) running (d) catching
(c) benthos (d) neritic 12. Bird vertebrae are [1988]
2. Organ Pipe Coral is [1988] (a) acoelous (b) heterocoelous
(a) Tubipora (b) Astraea (c) amphicoelous (d) procoelous
(c) Helipora (d) Fungia 13. Hair occur in all mammals except those of
3. Silk thread is obtained from Silk Moth [1988]
during [1988] (a) Rodentia (b) Chiroptera
(a) pupal state (b) larval state (c) Primata (d) Cetacea
(c) nymph state (d) adult state 14. Lamina propria is connected with [1988]
4. A wood boring mollusc/Shipworm is [1988]
(a) acini (b) liver
(a) Chiton (b) Teredo
(c) graafian follicle (d) intestine
(c) Limax (d) Patella
15. Fish which can be used in biological control
5. Association between Sucker Fish (Remora)
of mosquitoes/Larvicidal fish is
and Shark is [1988]
[1989, 01]
(a) Commensalism (b) Symbiosis
(c) Predation (d) Parasitism (a) Eel (b) Carp
6. Which is not a true amphibian animal [1988] (c) Cat Fish (d) Gambusia
(a) Salamander (b) Toad 16. Jelly Fishes belongs to class [1989]
(c) Tortoise (d) Frog (a) Hydrozoa (b) Scyphozoa
7. Fire bellied toad is [1988] (c) Anthozoa (d) None of these
(a) Amphiuma (b) Discoglossus 17. Transfer of Taenia to secondary host occurs
(c) Necturus (d) Salamandra as [1989]
8. Necturus is [1988] (a) onchosphere (b) cysticercus
(a) Hell Bender (b) Congo Eel (c) morula (d) egg.
(c) Mud Puppy (d) Blind Worm 18. Photoreceptors of earthworm occur on
9. Typhlops is [1988] [1989]
(a) Sea Snake (b) Glass Snake (a) clitellum (b) many eyes
(c) Blind Snake (d) Grass Snake (c) dorsal surface (d) lateral sides
10. Both male and female pigeons secrete milk 19. Earthworms are [1989]
through [1988] (a) useful
(a) Salivary glands (b) harmful
(b) Modified sweat glands (c) more useful than harmful
(c) Crop (d) more harmful
(d) Gizzard
20. A chordate character is [1989] 28. In hot summer and cold winter, the number
(a) gills of malaria cases as well as Anopheles
(b) spiracles declines, Reappearance of malaria in humid
(c) postanal tail warm conditions is due to [1990]
(d) chitinous exoskeleton (a) surving malarial parasites in human
21. Flight muscles of birds are attached to carriers
[1989] (b) surviving sporozoites in surviving
(a) clavicle (b) keel of sternum mosquitoes
(c) scapula (d) coracoid (c) monkeys
22. Wish bone of birds is from [1989] (d) mosquito larvae in permanent waters
(a) pelvic girdle 29. Malpighian tubules are [1990]
(b) skull (a) excretory organs of insects
(c) hind limbs (b) excretory organs of annelids
(d) pectoral girdle/clavicles (c) respiratory organs of insects
23. Eutherians are characterised by [1989] (d) respiratory organs of annelids
(a) hairy skin 30. Kala-azar and Oriental Sore are spread by
(b) true placentation [1990]
(c) ovoviviparity (a) Housefly (b) Bed Bug
(d) glandular skin (c) Sand Fly (d) Fruit Fly
24. Onchosphere occurs in [1990] 31. Penguin occurs in [1990]
(a) Ascaris (b) Fasciola (a) Australia (b) Antarctica
(c) Taenia (d) Planaria (c) Africa (d) America
25. Taenia saginata differs from Taenia solium 32. Ecdysis is shedding of [1990]
in [1990] (a) stratum corneum
(a) absence of scolex hooks (b) epidermis
(b) absence of scolex hooks and uterine (c) dermis
branching (d) stratum Malpighi
(c) absence of scolex hooks and presence 33. Skin is a respiratory organ in [1990]
of both male and female reproductive (a) lizards
organs (b) birds
(d) presence of scolex hooks (c) primitive mammals
26. Pheretima posthuma is highly useful as (d) frog
[1990] 34. Earthworm possesses hearts [1991]
(a) their burrows make the soil loose (a) 6 pairs (b) 4 pairs
(b) they make the soil porous, leave their (c) 2 pairs (d) 1
castings and take organic debris in the 35. Bladderworm/cysticercus is the larval stage
soil of [1991]
(c) they are used as fish meal (a) Tapeworm (b) Roundworm
(d) they kill the birds due to (c) Pinworm (d) Liver Fluke
biomagnification of chlorinated 36. The excretory structures of flatworms/Taenia
hydrocarbons are [1991]
27. Blood of Pheretima is [1990] (a) flame cells (b) protonephridia
(a) blue with haemocyanin in corpuscles (c) malpighian tubules (d) green glands
(b) blue with haemocyanin in plasma 37. Classification of Porifera is based on [1991]
(c) red with haemoglobin in corpuscles (a) branching (b) spicules
(d) red with haemoglobin in plasma (c) reproduction (d) symmetry
Animal Kingdom 43
38. Ascaris lumbricoides infection occurs through 48. A. Periplaneta americana is nocturnal,
[1991] omnivorous, household pest. [1992]
(a) sole of uncovered feet R. It is because it acts as scavenger
(b) contaminated cooked measly pork (a) A is true but R is false
(c) improperly cooked measly pork (b) A is false but R is true
(d) from air through inhalation (c) Both A and R are true and R is correct
39. Male and female cockroaches can be explanation of A
distinguished externally through [1991] (d) Both A and R are true but R is not
(a) anal styles in male correct explanation of A
(b) anal cerci in female 49. Sound box of birds is called [1992]
(c) anal style and antennae in females (a) pygostyle (b) larynx
(d) both b and c (c) syrinx (d) synsacrum
40. Metamorphosis of insects is regulated 50. Adult Culex and Anopheles can be
through hormone [1991] distinguished with the help of [1992]
(a) pheromone (b) thyroxine (a) mouth parts/colour
(c) ecdysone (d) all the above (b) sitting posture
41. An insect regarded as greatest mechanical (c) antennae/wings
carrier of diseases is [1991] (d) feeding habits
(a) Pediculus (b) Cimex 51. Eye of the molluscan group that resembles
(c) Musca (d) Xenopsylla vertebrate eye is [1992]
42. Which one occurs in Echinodermata [1991] (a) bivalvia (b) gastropoda
(a) Bilateral symmetry (c) pelecypoda (d) cephalopoda
(b) Radical symmetry 52. Star fish belongs to [1992]
(c) Porous body (a) Asteriodea (b) Ophiuroidea
(d) Soft skin (c) Holothuroidea (d) Crinoidea
43. Kidney of adult rabbit is [1991] 53. Aristotle’s lantern occurs in class [1992]
(a) pronephros (b) metanephros (a) Echinoidea (b) Asteroidea
(c) mesonephros (d) opisthonephros (c) Holothuroidea (d) Ophiuroidea
44. An egg laying mammal is [1992] 54. Bull Frog of India is [1992]
(a) Kangaroo (b) Platypus (a) Rana tigrina (b) R. sylvatica
(c) Koala (d) Whale (c) R. ecutesbeiana (d) R. esculenta
45. The simplest type of canal system in Porifera 55. The cervical vertebrae in humans is [1993]
is [1992] (a) same as in whale
(a) ascon type (b) leucon type (b) more than that in rabbit
(c) sycon type (d) radial type (c) double than that of horse
46. What is correct about Taenia ? [1992] (d) less than that in giraffe
(a) Male organs occur in posterior 56. What is common in Whale, Bat and Rat ?
proglottides (a) Absence of neck [1993]
(b) Male organs occur in anterior (b) Muscular diaphragm between thorax
proglottides and abdomen
(c) Female organs occur in anterior (c) Extra-abdominal testes to avoid high
proglottides temperature of body
(d) Mature proglottides contain both male (d) Presence of external ears
and female organs 57. Gorilla, Chimpanzee, Monkeys and Humans
47. Ascaris larva is called [1992] belongs to the same [1993]
(a) cysticercus (b) rhabditiform (a) species (b) genus
(c) hexacanth (d) onchosphere (c) family (d) order
58. All vertebrates possess [1993] 67. What is common between Ostrich, Penguin
(a) renal portal system and Kiwi? [1993]
(b) dorsal hollow central nervous system (a) Running birds (b) Migratory birds
(c) four chambered ventral heart (c) Flightless birds (d) Four toed birds
(d) pharyngeal gill slits 68. Radial symmetry is often exhibited by
59. Mucus helps frog in forming [1993] animals having [1994]
(a) thick skin (b) dry skin (a) one opening of alimentary canal
(c) smooth skin (d) moist skin (b) aquatic mode of living
60. A larval stage occurs in the life history of all (c) benthos/sedentary living
members of the group [1993] (d) ciliary mode of feeding
(a) frog, lizard and cockroach 69. Coelom derived from blastocoel is known as
(b) ascaris, housefly and frog [1994]
(c) housefly, earthworm and mosquito (a) enterocoelom (b) schizocoel
(d) butterfly, frog and mosquito (c) pseudocoelom (d) haemocoelom
61. Tracheae of cockroach and mammal are 70. Special character of Coelenterates is [1994]
similar in having [1993] (a) polymorphism
(a) paried nature (b) nematocysts
(b) noncollapsible walls (c) flame cells
(c) ciliated inner lining (d) hermaphroditism
(d) origin from head 71. Point out the non-parasite [1994]
62. Give the correct matching of causative agent/ (a) Tapeworm (b) Mosquito
germ and disease [1993] (c) Leech (d) Sea anemone
(a) Anopheles – malaria 72. Which one belongs to Platyhelminthes ?
(b) Leishmania – Sleeping sickness [1994]
(c) Glossina – Kala-azar (a) Schistosoma (b) Trypanosoma
(d) Wuchereria – Filariasis (c) Plasmodium (d) Wuchereria
63. Budding is a normal mode of asexual 73. Closed circulatory system occurs in [1994]
reproduction in [1993] (a) snail (b) cockroach
(a) starfish and Hydra (c) cuttle Fish (d) all of these
(b) hydra and sponges 74. Tube feet occur in [1994]
(c) tapeworm and Hydra (a) Cockroach (b) Star Fish
(d) sponge and starfish (c) Cuttle Fish (d) Cat Fish
64. Which one of the following animals possesses 75. All chordates possess [1994]
nerve cells but no nerves [1993] (a) exoskeleton
(a) Hydra (b) Tapeworm (b) limbs
(c) Earthworm (d) Frog’s tadpole (c) skull
65. What is true about Taenia saginata ? [1993] (d) axial skeletal rod of notochord
(a) Life history has pig as intermediate 76. A common characteristic of all vertebrates is
host (a) presence of skull [1994]
(b) There are two large suckers on scolex (b) division of body into head, neck, trunk
(c) Rostellar hooks are absent and tail
(d) Rostellum has double circle of hooks (c) presence of two pairs of functional
66. Which one assists in locomotion [1993] appendages
(a) Trichocysts in Paramecium (d) body is covered with an exoskeleton
(b) Pedicellariae of Star Fish 77. Golden era/age of reptiles is [1994]
(c) Clitellum in Pheretima (a) palaeozoic (b) mesozoic
(d) Posterior sucker in Hirudinaria (c) recent (d) proterozoic
Animal Kingdom 45
78. The organisms attached to the substratum, 86. What is common among silverfish, scorpion,
generally, possess [1995] crab and honey bee? [1997]
(a) radial symmetry (a) Compound eyes (b) Poison gland
(b) one single opening of digestive canal (c) Jointed legs (d) Metamorphosis
(c) asymmetrical body 87. The long bones are hollow and connected by
(d) cilia on surface to create water current air passages these are characteristics of
79. Besides annelida and arthropoda, the (a) mammals [1998]
metamerism is exhibited by [1995] (b) reptilia
(a) cestoda (b) chordata (c) aves
(c) mollusca (d) acanthocephala (d) all land vertebrates
80. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found 88. Most appropriate term to describe the life
in [1996] cycle of Obelia is [1998]
(a) pigeon (b) house lizard (a) metagenesis
(c) frog’s tadpole (d) flying fish (b) metamorphosis
81. Radial symmetry is usually associated with (c) alternation of generations
(a) aquatic mode of life [1996] (d) neoteny
(b) lower grade of organisation 89. In desert grasslands which type of animals
(c) creeping mode of locomotion are relatively more abundant? [1998]
(d) sedentary mode of life (a) Arboreal (b) Aquatic
82. True coelom is the space lying between the (c) Fussorial (d) Diurnal
alimentary canal and body wall enclosed by 90. Cell-tissue-body organisation is characteristic
the layers of [1996] of [2000]
(a) ectoderm on both sides (a) Star fish (b) Hydra
(b) endoderm on one side and ectoderm on (c) Liver fluke (d) Sponge
the other 91. Indicate the correct statement [2000]
(c) mesoderm on one side and ectoderm on (a) Camel has biconcave red blood cells
the other (b) Bat bears feathers
(d) mesoderm on both sides (c) Rat bears cloaca
83. What is true about all sponges without (d) Platypus lays eggs
exception [1996] 92. What is common between Ascaris lumbricoides
(a) They are all marine and Anopheles stephensi? [2000]
(b) They have flagellated collar cells (a) Sexual dimorphism
(c) They have a mixed skeleton consisting (b) Hibernation
of spicules and spongin fibres (c) Anaerobic respiration
(d) They reproduce only asexually by (d) Metamerism
budding 93. In which of the following animal post anal
84. Functionwise, just as there are nephridia in tail is found? [2001]
an earthworm, so are [1996] (a) Earthworm
(a) parotid glands in toad (b) Lower invertebrate
(b) statocysts in prawn (c) Scorpion
(c) flame cells in liver fluke (d) Cobra
(d) myotomes in fish 94. In which of the following, haemocyanin
85. The flightless bird Cassowary is found in pigment is found ? [2001]
(a) Mauritius (b) Australia [1996] (a) Mollusca (b) Annelida
(c) New Zealand (d) Indonesia (c) Echinodermata (d) Lower chordata
95. Cause of mimicry is [2002] 102. One of the following is a very unique feature
(a) concealment of the mammalian body: [2004]
(b) attack (offence) (a) Homeothermy
(c) protection (defence) (b) Presence of diaphragm
(d) both (b) and (c) (c) Four chambered heart
96. In which of the following notochord is (d) Rib cage
present in embryonic stage? [2002] 103. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young
(a) All chordates (b) Some chordates stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in
(c) Vertebrates (d) Non chordates the adult stage, belong to the phylum [2004]
97. In which of the animals dimorphic nucleus is (a) Annelida (b) Mollusca
found? [2002, 05] (c) Cnidaria (d) Echinodermata
(a) Amoeba proteus
104. In Arthropoda, head and thorax are often
(b) Trypanosoma gambiense
fused to form cephalothorax, but in which
(c) Plasmodium vivax
one of the following classes, is the body
(d) Paramecium caudatum
divided into head, thorax and abdomen ?
98. Which one of the following is a matching
(a) Insecta [2004]
pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon
it exhibits ? [2003] (b) Myriapoda
(a) Taenia – Polymorphism (c) Crustacea
(b) Pheretima – Sexual dimorphism (d) Arachnida and Crustacea
(c) Musca – Complete metamorphosis 105. Which one of the following characters is not
(d) Chameleon – Mimicry typical of the class Mammalia? [2005]
99. Given below are four matchings of an animal (a) Thecodont dentition
and its kind of respiratory organ : [2003] (b) Alveolar lungs
(A) Silver fish – trachea (c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves
(B) Scorpion – book lung (d) Seven cervical vertebrae
(C) Sea squirt – pharyngeal gills 106. From the following statements select the
(D) Dolphin – skin wrong one. [2005]
The correct matchings are (a) Prawn has two pairs of antennae
(a) C and D (b) A and D (b) Nematocysts are characteristic of the
(c) A, B and C (d) B and D Pylum Cnidaria
100. During its life-cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver (c) Millepedes have two pairs of appendages
fluke) infects its intermediate host and in each segment of the body
primary host at the following larval stages (d) Animals belonging to Phylum Porifera
respectively : [2003] are exclusively marine
(a) miracidium and metacercaria 107. In contrast to Annelids the Platyhelminths
(b) redia and miracidium show: [2005]
(c) cercaria and redia
(a) Absence of body cavity
(d) metacercaria and cercaria
(b) Bilaterial symmetry
101. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which
(c) Radial symmetry
are best described as [2003]
(d) Presence of pseudocoel
(a) multicellular having tissue organization,
108. Two common characters found in centipede,
but no body cavity
(b) unicellular or acellular cockroach and crab are [2006]
(c) multicellular without any tissue (a) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
organization (b) Green gland and tracheae
(d) multicellular with a gastrovascular (c) Book lungs and antennae
system (d) Compound eyes and anal cerci
Animal Kingdom 47
109. In which one of the following sets of animals 116. Which one of the following is NOT a
do all the four give birth to young ones? characteristic of phylum Annelida? [2008]
[2006] (a) Closed circulatory system
(a) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus (b) Segmentation
(b) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi (c) Pseudocoelom
(c) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, , Loris (d) Ventral nerve cord
(d) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich 117. Which one of the following is the true
110. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts description about an animal concerned?
are the characteristics of [2006] [2008]
(a) Ctenoplana and Beroe (a) Earthworm - The alimentary canal
(b) Aurelia and Paramecium consists of a sequence of
pharynx, oesophagus,
(c) Hydra and starfish
stomach, gizzard and
(d) Starfish and sea anemone
intestine
111. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic
(b) Frog - Body divisible into
of [2006]
three regions - head,
(a) Echinodermata and Annelida neck and trunk
(b) Annelida and Arthropoda (c) Rat - Left kidney is slightly
(c) Mollusca and Chordata higher in position than
(d) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda the right one
112. Which one of the following is a matching set (d) Cockroach - 10 pairs of spiracles (2
of a phylum and its three examples ? [2006] pairs on thorax and 8
(a) Platyhelminthes - Planaria, Schistosoma, pairs on abdomen)
Enterobius 118. Which one of the following phyla is correctly
(b) Mollusca - Loligo, Teredo, Octopus matched with its two general characteristics?
(c) Porifera - Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula [2008]
(d) Cnidaria - Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia (a) Arthropoda - Body divided
113. What is common about Trypanosoma, into head, thorax
Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia ? and abdomen
(a) They have flagella [2006] and respiration by
tracheae
(b) They produce spores
(b) Chordata - Notochord at some
(c) These are all parasites
stage and separate
(d) These are all unicellular protists
anal and urinary
114. Annual migration does not occur in the case
openings to the
of [2006] outside
(a) Siberian crane (b) Salamander (c) Echinodermata - Pentamerous
(c) Arctic tern (d) Salmon radial symmetry
115. Which of the following pairs are correctly and mostly
matched ? [2007] internal
Animals - Morphological features fertilization
(i) Crocodile - 4-chambered heart (d) Mollusca - Normally
(ii) Sea urchin - Parapodia oviparous and
(iii) Obelia - Thecodont development
(iv) Lemur - Thecodont through a
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) only (i) and (iv) trochophore or
(c) only (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) veliger larva
119. Ascaris is characterized by [2008] 124. Which one of the following statements about
(a) absence of true coelom but presence of all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and
metamerism Penguin is correct? [2010]
(a) Penguin is homeothermic while the
(b) presence of neither true coelom nor
remaining three are poikilothermic
metamerism
(b) Leech is a fresh water form while all
(c) presence of true coelom but absence of others are marine
metamerism (c) Spongilla has special collared cells called
(d) presence of true coelom and metamerism choanocytes, not found in the remaining
(metamerisation) three
120. Which one of the following groups of three (d) All are bilaterally symmetrical
125. Which one of the following kinds of animals
animals each is correctly matched with their
are triploblastic? [2010]
one characteristic morphological feature?
(a) Flat worms (b) Sponges
[2008] (c) Ctenophores (d) Corals
Animals Morphological 126. Which one of the following statements about
feature certain given animals is correct? [2010]
(a) Liver fluke, Sea - Bilateral (a) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are
anemone, Sea symmetry pseudocoelomates
(b) Molluscs are acoelomates
cucumber
(c) Insects are pseudocoelomates
(b) Centipede, Prawn - Jointed appendages (d) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are
Sea urchin coelomates
(c) Scorpion, Spider, - Ventral solid central 127. What will you look for to identify the sex of
Cockroach nervous system the following? [2011]
(d) Cockroach, - Metameric (a) Female Ascaris- Sharply curved posterior
end
Locust, Taenia segmentation
(b) Male frog- A copulatory pad on the first
121. Which one of the following groups of animals digit of the hind limb
is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic? (c) Female cockroach-Anal cerci
(a) Aschelminthes (round worms) [2009] (d) Male shark-Claspers borne on pelvic
(b) Ctenophores fins
(c) Sponges 128. Which one of the following have the highest
(d) Coelenterates (Cnidarians) number of species in nature? [2011]
(a) Fungi (b) Insects
122. Which one of the following pairs of animals
(c) Birds (d) Angiosperms
comprises ‘jawless fishes’? [2009] 129. Which one of the following groups of
(a) Mackerals and Rohu animals is correctly matched with its one
(b) Lampreys and hag fishes characteristic feature without even a single
(c) Guppies and hag fishes exception ? [2011]
(d) Lampreys and eels (a) Reptilia : possess 3 - chambered heart
with one incompletely divided ventricle
123. One example of animals having a single
(b) Chordata : possess a mouth provided
opening to the outside that serves both as
with an upper and lower jaw
mouth as well as anus is: [2010] (c) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilagious
(a) Octopus (b) Asterias endoskeleton
(c) Ascidia (d) Fasciola (d) Mammalia : give birth to young one.
Animal Kingdom 49
130. In which one of the folllowing, the genus
name, its two characters and its class/phylum
(C) (D)
are correctly matched? [2011]

Genus Two characters Class/ (a) (A) and (D) respire mainly through body
name phylum wall
(a) Ascaris (i) Body segmented Anne- (b) (B) and (C) show radial symmetry
(ii) Males and fe- lida (c) (A) and (B) have cnidoblasts for self-
males distinct defense
(b) Sala- (i) A tympanum Am- (d) (C) and (D) have a true coelom
mandra represents ear phibia
134. In which one of the following the genus name,
(ii) Fertilization is its two charcters and its phylum are not correctly
external matched, whereas the remaining three are
(c) Pteropus (i) Skin possesses Mam- correct [2012]
hair malia
(ii) Oviparous
(d) Aurelia (i) Cnidoblasts Coelen-
terata
(ii) Organ level of
organization
131. Which one of the following statements

is totally wrong about the occurrence of
notochord, while the other three are correct? 135. Which one of the following pairs of animals
[2011M] are similar to each other pertaining to the
(a) It is present only in larval tail in feature stated against them? [2012M]
Ascidians (a) P t e r o p u s a n d O r n i t h o r hy n c u s -
(b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in Viviparity
adult frog (b) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three
(c) It is absent throughout life in humans chambered heart
from the very beginning (c) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric
(d) It is present throughout life in segmentation
Amphioxus (d) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded
132. Frogs differ from humans in possessing: (poikilothermal)
(a) paired cerebral hemispheres [2011M] 136. Which one of the following categories of
(b) hepatic portal system animals, is correctly described with no single
(c) nucleated red blood cells exception in it? [2012M]
(d) thyroid as well as parathyroid (a) All sponges are marine and have collared
133. The figure shows four animals (A), (B), cells.
(C) and (D). Select the correct answer with (b) All mammals are viviparous and possess
respect to a common characteristics of two diaphragm for breathing.
of these animals. [2011M] (c) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills
and an operculum on each side.
(A) (B) (d) All reptiles possess scales, have a three

chambered heart and are cold blooded
(poikilothermal).
137. Which group of animals belong to the same 141. The characteristics of class Reptilia are :
phylum? [NEET 2013] [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Earthworm , Pinworm, Tapeworm (a) Body covered with dry and cornified skin,
scales over the body are epidermal, they
(b) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta do not have external ears
(c) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish (b) Body covered with moist skin which is
(d) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito devoid of scales, the ear is represented by
138. Match the name of the animal (column I), a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary
and reproductive tracts open into a
with one characteristics (column II), and the
common cloaca
phylum/class (column III) to which it belongs (c) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton,
: air-bladder to regulate buoyancy
[NEET 2013] (d) Marine animals with cartilaginous
Column I Column II Column III endoskeleton, body covered with placoid
scales
(a) Ichthyophis terrestrial Reptilia
142. Which one of the following animals is
(b) Limulus body Pisces correctly matched with its one characteristics
covered by and the taxon? [NEET Kar. 2013]
chitinous Animal Characteristic Taxon
exoskeleton (a) Duckbilled Oviparous Mammalian
platypus
(c) Adamsia radially Porifera
(b) Millipede Ventral nerve Arachnida
symmetrical cord
(d) Petromyzon ectoparasite Cyclostomata (c) Sea Anemone Triploblastic Cnidaria
139. Which of the following are correctly (d) Silverfish Pectoral and Chordata
matched with respect to their taxonomic Pelvic fins
classification? 143. Which one of the following groups of animals
[NEET 2013] reproduces only by sexual means?
[NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion-
(a) Ctenophora (b) Cnidaria
Insecta (c) Porifera (d) Protozoa
(b) House fly, butterfly, tse tse fly, silverfish- 144. Sharks and dogfishes differ from skates and
Insecta rays by
(c) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber- [NEET Kar. 2013]
Echinodermata (a) Their pectoral fins distinctly marked off
(d) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish-Pisces from cyclindrical bodies
140. One of the representatives of phylum (b) Gill slits are ventrally placed
(c) H e a d a n d t r u n k a r e w i d e n e d
Arthropoda is :
considerably
[NEET 2013]
(d) Distinct demarcation between body and
(a) Silverfish (b) Pufferfish tail
(c) Flying fish (d) Cuttlefish
Animal Kingdom 51
Solutions
1. (a) Organisms passively floating on the surface lamina propria & inner simple columnar
of water are planktons. If floating organisms epithelium) of intestine. It is made up
are animals then it is zooplankton and if of a highly vascular connective tissue
plant – phytoplankton. containing lymphatic nodules.
2. (a) Tubipora is organ pipe coral comes under 15. (d) Gambusia
class Anthozia. 16. (b) Animals which are marine, solitary, bell or
3. (a) Caterpillar larva is a voracious eater, it umbrella shaped belong to class Scyphozoa
gets matured and by secreting silk thread i.e., Jelly fish.
changes into pupa & it encloses into silk 17. (a) The eggs of Taenia passes out through
cocoon. human faeces which is eaten by pigs, eggs
4. (b) Teredo (shipworm) is the member of class develops into onchosphere then to cyst
– Bivalvia (double shell plates). larva in the muscle of pig; The entry stage
Shipworms are not in fact worms at all, into secondary host (Pig) is onchosphere.
but rather a group of marine mollusc 18. (c) Light receptors found in diffused condition
(Eulamellibranchiata) in the family to differentiate between light and dark.
These receptors are present on the dorsal
Teredinidae. They bore into submerged
surface.
wood, and bacteria in a special organ
19. (a) Earthworms are very useful to human as
called the gland of Deshayes enable them they make the soil porous and increase its
to digest cellulose. The shipworms belong fertility through worm casting. They are
to several genera of which Teredo is the called as Nature’s ‘plough man’.
most commonly mentioned. The best 20. (c) Chordates are featured by the presence of
known species is Teredo navalis. the following characters.
5. (a) Commensalism is an association between • Notochord (cephalic or head region)
two organisms in which one is benefitted • Pharyngeal gill silts
but the other is not harmed. • Postanal tail.
6. (c) Tortoise (Testudo) is a member of order- 21. (b) In birds flight muscles or breast muscles
Chelonia, Class – Reptiles. are attached to the large sternum or
7. (b) Fire bellied toad (Bombina Orientalis) is a breast bone. The wings are powered by
member of family discoglossidae of order these flight muscles.
Anura of class Amphibia. Its belly is red 22. (d) Two clavicles fused with inter clavicle to
or orange-red. form a fork shaped bone called wish bone
8. (c) Necturus (Mud puppy) order – Urodela or furcula or bone of merry thoughts.
class – Amphibia. It is a species of 23. (b) Etherians are placental animals. The foetus
salamanders that is a part of the genus develop inside uterus of female where they
Necturus. are nourished by special structure called as
9. (c) Typhols is a non poisonous blind snake. placenta.
24. (c) Onchosphere is the larval stage in Taenia
10. (c) Crop in birds stores & softens food and in
solium.
pigeons secrete milk.
25. (b) Taenia saginata lacks rostellum and scolex
11. (a) In birds hind limbs are variously modified hooks.
for various functions like perching, 26. (b) Refer answer Q 19.
grasping etc. In the kingfisher they are 27. (d) In the blood of earthworm, haemoglobin is
modified for wading. dissolved in the plasma. RBCs are absent.
12. (b) Bird vertebrae are heterocoelous. Acoelous 28. (b)
vertebrae are found in mammals. 29. (a) Malpighian tubules are fine, unbranched,
13. (d) Members of the order Cetacea of class yellow tubules that lie more or less free in
Mammalia are aquatic animals like whales, the haemocoel. They open into alimentary
dolphins having smooth and hairless skin. canal. They absorb nitrogenous waste
14. (d) It is the middle layer of 3 layered Mucosa product, thus acts as excretory organs in
(outer muscularis mucosa, middle insects.
30. (c) Sand fly is the vector of Kala azar The Platypus (Ornithorhynchus anatinus) is a
(Leishmania donovani), causes severe liver semi-aquatic mammal endemic to eastern
infection. Australia and Tasmania. Together with the
31. (b) Penguin is a flightless bird found in colder four species of echidna, it is one of the five
region like Antarctica. species of monotremes, the only mammals
32. (a) Stratum corneum is the outermost, partially that lay eggs instead of giving birth to live
cornified layer of scale like cells. Small young. It is the sole living representative
fragments of this layer are periodically of its family (Ornithorhynchidae) and
shed off from the body known as ecdysis. genus (Ornithorhynchus), though a number
The new layer is regularly formed by of related species have been found in the
underlaying stratum germinativum. fossil record.
33. (d) Skin in fact is a secondary or accessory 45. (a) Presence of canal system - a network
respiratory organ in frog when frog of channels for water transport - is an
undergoes the hybernation or aestivation important feature in sponges. Ascon type
i.e. winter sleep or summer sleep & when of canal is simplest in Porifera which
it goes into the water for a long. brings in food, oxygen and carries away
34. (b) Earthworm has 4 pairs of heart i.e., 2 CO2 and nitrogenous waste.
pairs Lateral hearts and 2 pairs Lateral 46. (d) The body of Taenia is ribbon like and is
oesophageal hearts present in 7th and 9th divided into segments called proglottids.
and 12th and 13th segments respectively. Each proglottid has one or two sets of
35. (a) Bladderworm or cysticerus larva forms in male and female reproductive organs.
Tapeworm. 47. (b) Ascaris larva is also called rhabditiform.
36. (a) Excretory system of Taenia consists of a 48. (c) Periplaneta americana (cockroach) cannot
pair of peculiar flame cells, which absorb act as a scavanger, it does not feed upon
the waste material from the body and dead animals.
discharges it through excretory duct. 49. (c) Sound box or syrinx is present below
37. (b) The terms porifera was given by Grant, trachea which produces sound in birds.
the phylum includes animals with pores 50. (b) The body of an adult lies more or less
in their body. Its classification based on parallel to the surface in Culex where as in
skeleton or spicules. Anopheles the body lies at an angle of 45°
38. (b) Ascaris enters into the human by eating to the surface.
semi-cooked (improperly) cooked pork 51. (d) Class Cephalopoda of the phylum
contaminated with Ascaris. Mollusca has eyes well developed and
39. (a) Sexual dimorphism is found in cockroach. resemble vertebrate eyes e.g., Octopus, Sepia
A pair of anal style are present in male etc.
cockroach only. Female has broader 52. (a) Star fish belongs to the class – Asteroidea.
abdomenal segments. 53. (a) Jaw apparatus is called Aristotle’s Lantern
40. (c) Metamorphosis of insects is regulated which is present in the Class Echinoidae
through ecdysone hormone. of the Phylum Echinodermata.
41. (c) Musca is the zoological name of house fly 54. (a) Rana tigrina – Bull frog; Order - Anura
which is regarded as mechanical carrier of Amphibia.
many diseases. It is very active and keeps 55. (a) The number of cervical vertebrae are same
on visiting on dirty things and eatables as in man & whale that is 7 in number.
well. 56. (b) Diaphragm is present in mammals as a
42. (b) Larval stage of Echinoderms have bilateral muscular seperator between thorax and
symmetry and the adults have radial abdominal region.
symmetry, pentamerous i.e., body parts 57. (d) Gorilla, Chimpanzee, Monkeys and Man
arranged in five or multiples of five. belongs to same order- Primates of class
43. (b) Metanephric kidney is found differentiated mammalia.
into cortex and medulla and duct of such 58. (b) Dorsal hollow nervous system is one of
kidney is ureter. the important feature of vertebrates.
44. (b) Prototherians are egg laying mammals, 59. (d) Mucus helps frog in forming moist skin
they share characters with reptiles. as it is necessary for cutaneous respiration
e.g., - Duck bill Platypus during hibernation of frog.
Animal Kingdom 53
60. (d) A larval stage occurs in the life history of 74. (b) Tube feet is the locomotory organ that
butterfly, frog and mosquitoes. occur in star fishes.
61. (b) Tracheal tube of cockroach and human 75. (d) All chordate possess :
have non-collapsable wall. Each tracheal — Notochord at some stage of life
tube is lined with cuticle which prevents — Dorsal tubular nervous system
collapsing. — Pharyngeal gill slits at same stage of
62. (d) Wuchereria – Filariasis life cycle.
63. (b) Budding is an asexual mode of reproduction 76. (a) Vertebrates are also known as Craniata due
in Hydra & sponges. Bud is formed as to presence of skull in all its members.
an outgrowth on the body surface, then 77. (b) Jurassic period of mesozoic era is known
detached to form new animal. as the ‘Age of reptiles’.
64. (a) Nerve cells are present in the form of 78. (a) The organisms, which are attached to
network of neurons in Hydra but the brain substratum, generally, possess radial
and nerves are absent. symmetry in all vertical planes.
65. (c) Rostellum and hooks are absent in Taenia 79. (b) Metamerism is an important character
saginata. of annelida and arthropoda. The body
66. (d) Hirudinaria (leech), does not possesses is divided externally into segments
setae or parapodia for locomotion. Its called metameres. Metamerism is also
posterior sucker helps in locomotion. exhibited by chordata due to repetition
67. (c) Ostrich, Kiwi, Penguin are all flightless of a succession of homologous structures
birds. alongth anterio-posterior axis.
68. (c) In radial symmetry – body is cut 80. (a) Birds have pneumatic bones.
longitudinally through any radius into two 81. (b) refer answer 69.
equal halves. Present in sessile animals i.e. 82. (d) Coelom is a fluid filled space between
star fish that live in the sea bottom. body wall and alimentary canal which is
69. (c) Coelom or body cavity, when derived lined by parietal peritoneum (mesoderm)
from blastocoel is pseudocoelom as in on the outer side and visceral peritoneum
nematodes, rotifers. In this type of cavity, ( mesoderm) on the inner side.
mesoderm is lined by only one side i.e.,
towards the body wall. Schizocoel is ECTODERM
true coelom derived from mesodermal MESODERM
segments.
COE M
GUT
70. (b) Presence of nematocysts or stinging cells
LO
ENDODERM
are the characteristic feature of the phylum
Coelenterata. It serves the function of
offence and defence by producing toxin to

kill the prey & enemy. 83. (b) Sponges are marine with the exception of
71. (d) Sea anemone (Adamsia) is marine animal family spongilidae, the members of which
attached to the empty shell of gastropods occur in fresh water e.g. Spongilla. Their
occupied by hermit crab. They live as endoskeleton is made of either spicules or
symbionts, not as parasites. spongin fibres or both. Sponges reproduce
asexually by fragmentation or by budding
or through gemmules and reduction bodies.
Sponges also exhibit sexual reproduction.
84. (c) Toads possess a pair of large parotid

72. (a) Schistosoma (Blood fluke) –
glands behind the tympana. They produce
Platyhelminthes
a milky poisonous fluid. Statocysts are
Trypanosoma – Aschelminthes
the organs of equilibrium and sensory
Wuchereria – Aschelminthes
perception located at the base of antennae.
Plasmodium – Protozoa
Flame cells in liver fluke are the excretory
73. (c) Cockroach & snail has open type of
organs.
circulatory system.
85. (b) Flightless birds are restricted to the islands
Closed type of blood circulatory system
of Australia and New Guinea.
occurs in cuttlefish.
86. (c) Silver fish (Insecta), scorpion (Arachnida); 98. (c) Obelia exhibits polymorphism. Round
crab (Crustacea) and honey bee (Insecta) worm (Ascaris) exhibits sexual dimorphism.
all belong to phylum Arthropoda which Pheretima is hermaphrodite and Chameleon
is characterized by the presence of shows camouflage.
jointed appendages. Poison gland occur 99. (c) Sea squirt is Herdmania. Dolphin is an
only in scorpion. Compound eyes and aquatic mammal and breathes through
metamorphosis are the characteristic of lungs.
insects. 100. (b) When in contact with water, the egg capsule
87. (c) Hollow bones are characteristic adaptive form non feeding larva meracidium.
features of birds. It reduces their body Miracidium enters the body of snail to
weight and is a major flight adaptation. from sporocyst . The sporocyst develops
88. (a) Metamorphosis is the gradual into redia . Redia form cercaria and come
transformation of the embryo to the out of Snail. They get encysted forming
adult through a larval and pupal stage. metacercaria.
Alternation of generation is seen in 101. (c) Sponges show cellular grade of
the plant kingdom wherein a haploid organization. They do not have tissue
gametophyte generation alternates system. Sycon is a sponge.
with diploid sporophyte generation. 102. (b) Presence of diaphragm which separates the
Phenomenon of sexual reproduction by thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity
a larva is known as neoteny e.g. Axolotl is characteristic feature of all mammals.
larva. In Obelia polyps reproduce medusaes Homeothermy is the phenomenon
asexually and medusae form the polyps whereby warm blooded animals, birds
sexually. Such alternation of asexual and and mammals can maintain a constant
sexual phases in the life cycle of Obelia is body temperature. Four chambered heart
called metagenesis. is observed in birds and mammals. Rib
89. (c) Fussorial are the animals which live cage occurs in all vertebrates.
beneath the soil (in low temperature) and 103. (d) Echinoderms show bilateral symmetry in
are found abundant in desert grasslands. their larval stage and pentamerous radial
90. (b) Sponges show cell aggregate body symmetry in the adult stage. Annelids
organization. Cell tissue organization are bilaterally symmetrical, coelenterates
appears in coelenterates. Platyhelminthes show radial symmetry. Molluscs are also
show tissue organ organizations. bilaterally symmetrical.
91. (d) Duck-billed platypus is an egg laying 104. (a) Insects show a distinct division into head,
mammal. thorax and abdomen. In crustaceans and
92. (a) Sexual dimorphism is common between myriapods head and thorax are fused. In
Ascaris lumbricoides and Anopheles stephensi. arachnids body is divided into prothorax,
Male and female round worms can be mesothorax and metathorax.
morphologically differentiated. Female 105. (c) Mammals have 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
Anopheles mosquito is sanguivorous 106. (d) Animals belonging to Phylum Porifera
whereas male Anopheles mosquito sucks are mostly marine except a few which
nectar. are found in fresh water- e.g. Spongilla,
93. (d) Post anal tail is present in chordates at Euspongia.
some stage in the life. 107. (a) Platyhelminthes includes flat warms.
94. (a) Haemocyanin is the pigment carrying O2 in There is no body cavity. The animals are
molluscs. Annelids have erythrocruosin. therefore acoelomates. Annelids also have
95. (a) Mimicry is resemblance of an organism bilateral symmetry. They are coelomate
to its natural surroundings, a non living having a perivisceral cavity divided into
object or another organism for concealing compartments.
itself from its natural predators or preys. 108. (a) Jointed legs & chitinous exoskeleton are
96. (a) Presence of notochord in any stage the common characters found in centipede,
of the life cycle is a major chordate cockroach & crab.
characteristic. 109. (c) Penguin, Kiwi & Ostrich all belong to
97. (d) Paramecium has two types of nucleus, a class Aves of chordata (i.e. birds) and
they do not give birth to their young
larger macronucleus involved with the
ones, they are oviparous while Kangaroo,
vegetative activities and a smaller involved
Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris all belong to
with reproduction.
class mammalia and are viviparous.
Animal Kingdom 55
110. (a) Aurelia, Hydra & Sea anemone have the 122. (b) Lampreys and hagfishes are unusual,
characteristic cnidoblast cells. jawless fish that comprise the order
111. (b) Metameric segmentation means body is Cyclostomata, so named because of the
divided externally as well as internally. circular shape of the mouth. The brains
This characteristic is present in annelida of lampreys and hagfishes differ a lot,
(eg. earth worm) and arthropoda (eg. but they also show a large number of
cockroach). Their body is divided similarities, as do all craniate brains.
externally and internally as well. 123. (d) Fasciola, a flatworm has a single body
112. (b) cavity to the outside that serves both as
113. (d) Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis mouth for ingestion and anus for egestion
& Giardia are unicellular protists i.e.
of undigested food. This is known as blind
unicellular eukaryotes.
sac plan.
114. (b) Salamander does not undergo any annual
migration as it occurs in Siberian crane, 124. (c) Spongilla is a fresh water sponge that belongs
Arctic tern and Salmon mainly for the to phylum porifera. It has special collared
search of food or for breeding. cells called choanocytes. Choanocytes are
115. (b) Crocodile belongs to reptilia class which not found in leech, dolphin and penguin.
has four chambered heart. Lemur teeth are 125. (a) Triploblastic condition can be seen in flat
combedded in the sockets of two which is worms. Ctenophores, sponges and corals
known as thecodont. are diploblastic.
116. (c) Characteristic of phylum-Annelida is 126. (a) Acoelomates are animals that have no
pseudocoelomate. Pseudocoelomate is body cavity or coelom. The examples
any invertebrate animal whose body
are poriferans, coelenterates, ctenophore,
cavity is a pseudocoel, a cavity between
Platyhelminthes and nemertean. pseudo-
the gut and the outer body wall derived
from a persistent blastocoel, rather than coelomates are animals that has false or
a true coelom. Pseudocoelomate animal pseudo coelom. Examples are aschelmin-
include the Rotifera and Nematoda. thes. Coelomates are animals that has
117. (d) Cockroach belongs to phylum- true coelom enclosed by mesoderm on
Arthropoda. both sides. Examples: from annelida
It has 10 pairs of Spiracles (2 pairs on to arthropoda are coelomates. Hence
thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen). roundworms are pseudocoelomates,
118. (d) Mollusca mostly oviparous and a few molluses and insects are coelomates while
viviparous. The development may be direct flatworms are acoelomates.
or indirect with trochophore, velliger and
127. (d) A male shark possesses a pair of claspers
glochidium.
which are inserted into a female shark’s
119. (b) Ascaris is a common parasite found in the
large intestine of man. It is world wide in cloaca (an opening on the underside of
distribution. The number of worms may the body) at the time of mating. Claspers
be 500 or more in a single host. Ascaris is are located on the inner edge of the pelvic
characterised by presence of neither true fins near the male’s cloaca. The function
coelom nor metamerism. of claspers is to introduce sperm into a
120. (c) Scorpion, spider and cockroach have female shark’s body for the purpose of
ventral solid central nervous system. All fertilizing her eggs. Female sharks do not
three belongs phylum-Arthopoda. have claspers.
— Spider belong to class-Archnida 128. (b) In nature insects have the highest number
— Scorpion belong to c1ass- Archnida of species (30 million). Fungi have
— Cockroach belong to class-Insecta 100,000, angiosperms have 260000 and
121. (a) Aschelminthes is bilaterally symmetrical birds have 10,000 species.
and triploblastic. These are mostly aquatic, 129. (c) Chondrichthyes are the cartilaginous fish
free living or parasitic. Their body is three with a flexible skeleton made of cartilage
layered which is ectoderm, mesoderm and rather than bone.
endoderm. 130. (c) The characteristics and phylum of Pteropus
is correct.
131. (c) Notochord is a flexible rod like structure 138. (d) Ichthyophis – Amphibian
that forms the main support of the body Limulus – Arthropoda
in the lowest chordates. It is not absent in Adamsia – Cnidaria
humans through out their life. Notochord Petramyzon – Jawless
is present in embryonic stage and get vertebrate &
changed or replaced by vertebral column ectoparasite,
in the adult. cyclostomate
132. (c) Human possesses enucleated RBC in 139. (b) House fly, butterfly, tse tse fly, silverfish all
mature state. But frog blood has both white belongs to insecta.
and red blood cells which are nucleated. 140. (a) Representive of Phylum Arthropoda is
Frog cells do not lack platelets. silverfish. Arthropoda is the largest phylum
133. (d) From annelida to chordata all are of Animalia, which covers two-thirds of all
eucoelomate. C-Mollusca (Octopus), named species.
D-Arthropoda (Scorpion) have a true 141. (a) In option (a) all the characteristics belong
coelom. to class Reptilia. In options (b), (c) and (d)
134. (a) Molluscans are soft bodied animals. Their the characteristics belong to the classes
body is unsegmented with a distinct head, Amphibia, Osteichthyes and Chondrichthyes
muscular foot and visceral hump. In Pila respectively.
the buccal cavity contains a resping organ, 142. (a) Duckbilled platypus is oviparous and
the radula with transverse rows of teeth. comes under phylum mammalia. Millipede
135. (d) Sea horse and flying fish are cold blooded belongs to the phylum arthropoda. Sea-
animals. Ornithorhyncus is oviparous. anemone is diploblastic belongs to phylum
Crocodile has four chambered heart. cnidaria. Silver-fish is an insect belongs to
Ascaris and Ancylostoma are segmented phylum arthropoda, having long antennae,
roundworms. no wings and move in a wiggling motion
136. (a) All sponges are marine and have collared that resembles the movement of a fish.
cells without any exception. Sponges are 143. (a) In Ctenophora, sexes are not separate.
animals of the phylum Porifera. They are Reproduction takes place only by sexual
multicellular organisms which have bodies means. In Cnidaria, which exist in both
full of pores and channels allowing water forms, polyps produce medusae asexually
to circulate through them, consisting of and medusae form the polyps sexually.
jelly-like mesohyl sandwiched between Porifera (sponge) reproduce asexually by
two thin layers of cells. fragmentation and sexually by formation of
137. (b) Prawn , Scorpion and Locusta belong to gametes. Protozoans come under protista
phylum Arthropoda. This is the largest which reproduce asexually and sexually by
phylum of Animalia, over two-thirds of cell fusion and zygote formation.
all named species on earth are Arthropoda. 144. (a) Sharks and dogfishes have cylindrical body
Phylum is named so due to presence of while skates and rays have flattened body
jointed appendages (arthros = jointed, poda with winglike pectoral fins which are not
= appendages) in body of members of this distinct from body.
phylum.
HAPTER
C
5 Morphology of Flowering Plants
1. Fruit of Groundnut is [1988] 8. Tegmen develops from [1990]

(a) Legume (b) Caryopsis (a) funiculus
(c) Berry (d) Nut (b) chalaza
2. Micropyle of seed is involved in the passage (c) inner integument
of [1988] (d) outer integument
9. Vivipary is characteristic of [1990]
(a) male gamete (b) pollen tube
(a) mesophytes (b) xerophytes
(c) water (d) gases
(c) hygrophytes (d) halophytes
3. Perisperm is [1988, 89] 10. A family delimited by head type of
(a) remnant of endosperm inflorescence is [1990]
(b) persistent nucellus (a) Fabaceae (b) Asteraceae
(c) peripheral part of endosperm (c) Solanaceae (d) Liliaceae
(d) disintegrated secondary nucleus 11. Velamen is found in [1991]
4. Mango juice is got from [1989, 2002, 04] (a) roots of Screwpine
(a) epicarp (b) aerial and terrestrial roots of orchids
(b) mesocarp (c) leaves of Ficus elastica
(c) endocarp (d) aerial roots of orchids
12. Vegetative reproduction of Agave occurs
(d) pericarp and thalamus
through [1991]
5. Floral formula of Tomato/Tobacco is
(a) rhizome (b) stolon
(a) + K4–5 A10G(2) [1989, 92] (c) bulbils (d) sucker
13. Syngenesious condition is found in [1991]
(b) + + K2+2 C4A2+4G1 (a) Asteraceae (b) Labiate
(c) Solanaceae (d) Fabaceae
(c) + + P2 A3G1 14. Fruit of Mangifera indica is [1991]
(a) Berry (b) Drupe
K C A G
(d) + + (5) (5) 5 (2) (c) Capsule (d) Siliqua
6. New Banana plants develop from [1990] 15. + + K5 C5A5 G(2) is floral formula of [1991]
(a) rhizome (b) sucker (a) Liliaccae (b) Solanaceae
(c) stolon (d) seed (c) Asteraceae (d) Fabaceae
7. In Groundnut the food/oil reserve is present 16. Botanical name of Cauliflower is [1991]
in [1990] (a) Brassica oleracea var. capitata
(b) Brassica campesteris
(a) epicarp (b) mesocarp
(c) Brassica oleracea var. botrytis
(c) endosperm (d) cotyledons
(d) Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera
17. Vivipary is [1992] 27. Which part of the coconut produces coir?
(a) seed germination with subterranean (a) Seed coat (b) Mesocarp [1996]
cotyledons (c) Epicarp (d) Pericarp.
(b) seed germination with epiterranean 28. Which one of the following statements is
cotyledons correct with respect to the plant species and
(c) fruit development without pollination
its use? [1997]
(d) seed germination inside the fruit while
(a) Oryza sativa – rich source of protein
attached to the plant
18. Germination of seed within fruit is [1992] (b) Manihot utilissima – root tubers eaten
(a) ovipary (b) vivipary especially in Kerala
(c) hypogeal (d) epigeal (c) Ricinus communis – important edible
19. Epipetalous stamens with free filaments and cereal
fused anthers occur in [1991, 92] (d) Hibiscus esculentus – flowers eaten
(a) Asteraceae (b) Solanaceae throughout the country.
(c) Liliaceae (d) Poaceae 29. Most plants are green in colour because
20. Pulses are obtained from [1993] [1997]
(a) Fabaceae (b) Asteraceae
(a) the atmosphere filters out all the colours
(c) Poaceae (d) Solanaceae
of the visible light spectrum except
21. A perennial plant differs from biennial in
green
[1994]
(a) having underground perennating (b) green light is the most effective
structure wavelength region of the visible
(b) having asexual reproductive structures spectrum in sunlight for photosynthesis
(c) being tree species (c) chlorophyll is least effective in absorbing
(d) not dying after seasonal production of green light
flowers (d) green light allows maximum
22. Plant having column of vascular tissues photosynthesis
bearing fruits and having a tap root system 30. Heterospory and seed habit are often
is [1994]
discussed in relation to a structure called
(a) monocot
(a) spathe (b) bract [1997]
(b) dicot
(c) gymnosperm of dicot (c) petiole (d) ligule
(d) gymnosperm or monocot 31. Which plant will lose its economic value
23. Hypanthodium is [1994] if its fruits are produced by induced
(a) thalamus (b) fruit parthenocarpy? [1997]
(c) inflorescence (d) ovary (a) brape (b) pomegranate
24. Buttress roots are found in [1995] (c) banana (d) orange
(a) sorghum (b) banyan 32. Aril represents the edible part of
(c) Terminalia (d) Pandanus [1997, 99, 2005, 06]
25. Tetradynamous stamens are found in family (a) banana (b) litchi
[1995, 01]
(c) mango (d) apple
(a) Malvaceae (b) Solanaceae
33. The embryo in sunflower has [1998]
(c) Cruciferae (d) Liliaceae
26. Which one of the following is a true fruit? (a) one cotyledon
(a) Apple (b) Pear [1996] (b) two cotyledons
(c) Cashew nut (d) Coconut (c) many cotyledons
(d) no cotyledon
Morphology of Flowering Plants 59
34. Floral features are chiefly used in 43. Which is correct pair for edible part? [2001]
Angiosperms identification because [1998] (a) Tomato - Thalamus
(a) flowers are of various colours (b) Maize - Cotyledons
(b) flowers can be safely pressed (c) Guava - mesocarp
(c) reproductive parts are more stable and (d) Data palm - Mesocarp
conservative than vegetative parts 44. Which of the following is a correct pair?
(d) flowers are nice to work with (a) Cuscuta – parasite [2002]
35. Angiosperm to which the largest flowers (b) Dischidia – insectivorous
belong is? [1999] (c) Opuntia – predator
(a) total stem parasite (d) Capsella – hydrophyte
(b) partial stem parasite 45. Juicy hair–like structures observed in the
(c) total root parasite lemon fruit develop from [2003]
(d) partial root parasite (a) mesocarp and endocarp
36. The plant, which bears clinging roots, is (b) exocarp
(a) trapa (b) orchid [1999] (c) mesocarp
(c) screw pine (d) podostemon (d) endocarp
37. The type of placentation in which ovary is 46. The aleurone layer in maize grain is specially
syncarpous, unilocular and ovules on sutures rich in [2003]
is called [1999] (a) auxins (b) proteins
(a) apical placentation (c) starch (d) lipids
(b) parietal placentation 47. An ovule which becomes curved so that the
(c) marginal placentation nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to
(d) superficial placentation the funicle is [2004]
38. Match the following and indicate which is (a) Hemitropous (b) Campylotropous
correct (c) Anatropous (d) Orthotropous
(a) Cucurbitaceae – Orange [2000] 48. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of
(b) Malvaceae – Cotton embryo is represented by [2006]
(c) Brassicaceae – Wheat (a) scutellum (b) prophyll
(d) Leguminosae – Sunflower
(c) coleoptile (d) coleorhiza
39. What is eye of potato? [2001]
49. What type of placentation is seen in sweet
(a) Axillary bud (b) Acessory bud
pea? [2006]
(c) Adventitious bud (d) Apical bud
(a) Axile (b) Free central
40. Roots of which plant contains an oxidising
(c) Marginal (d) Basal
agent? [2001]
50. Long filamentous threads protruding at the
(a) Carrot (b) Soyabean
end of the young cob of maize are [2000, 06]
(d) Mustard (d) Radish
(a) styles (b) ovaries
41. Edible part of banana is [2001]
(a) epicarp (c) hairs (d) anthers
(b) mesocarp and less developed endocarp 51. Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from
(c) endocarp and less developed mesocarp [2006]
(d) epicarp and mesocarp (a) a multipistillate syncarpous flower
42. Bicarpellary gynoecium and oblique ovary (b) a cluster of compactly borne flowers on
occures in [2001] a common axis
(a) Mustard (b) Banana (c) a multilocular monocarpellary flower
(c) Pisum (d) Brinjal (d) a unilocular polycarpellary flower
52. Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, 62. What would be the number of chromosomes
bicarpellate ovary with oblique septa and of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42
fruit a capsule of berry, are characteristic chromosomes in its root tip cells ? [2011]
features of [2006] (a) 42 (b) 63
(a) Brassicaceae (b) Solanaceae (c) 84 (d) 21
(c) Liliaceae (d) Asteraceae 63. The correct floral formula of chilli is : [2011]
53. Which of the following is a flowering
O ♂ K(5)C5A5G(2)
plant with nodules containing filamentous (a) +

nitrogen-fixing micro-organism [2007]
(a) Crotalaria juncea

♂K C AG
(b) O + (5) (5) 5 (2)
(b) Cycas revoluta

(c) Cicer arietinum
(c) O ♂ K(5)C(5)A(5)G(2)
(d) Casuarina equisetifolia +

54. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of
(a) Lemon (b) Mustard [2008] (d) O ♂ K(5)C5A(5)G(2)
+

(c) Sun flower (d) Pea 64. Flowers are zygomorphic in : [2011]
55. The floral formula [2009] (a) mustard (b) gulmohur
(c) ioruato (d) Datura
65. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of
(a) peach (b) cucumber [2011]

is that of: (c) cotton (d) guava
(a) Soyabean (b) Sunhemp 66. Which one of the following diagrams
(c) Tobacco (d) Tulip represents the placentation in Dianthus?
56. An example of axile placentation is: [2009] [2011M]
(a) Dianthus (b) Lemon
(c) Marigold (d) Argemone (a) (b)

57. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the
placentation is : [2010]
(a) Marginal (b) Basal
(c) Free Central (d) Axile
58. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of: (c) (d)

(a) Gulmohur (b) Cassia [2010]
(c) Calotropis (d) Bean
59. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of:
67. Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate
(a) guava (b) plum [2010]
venation are present in [2011M]
(c) brinjal (d) cucumber
60. The technical term used for the androecium (a) Calotropis (b) Neem
in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosa (c) China rose (d) Alstonia
sinensis) is: [2010] 68. Sweet potato is homologous to [2011M]
(a) Monadelphous (b) Diadelphous (a) Potato (b) Colocasia
(c) Polyandrous (d) Polyadelphous (c) Ginger (d) Turnip
61. Which one of the following statements is 69. Placentation in tomato and lemon is [2012]
correct ? [2011] (a) Parietal (b) Free central
(a) In tomato, fruit is a capsule
(c) Marginal (d) Axile
(b) Seeds of orchids have oil-rich
endosperm 70. Cymose inflorescence is present in : [2012]
(c) Placentation in primose is basal (a) Solanum (b) Sesbania
(d) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot (c) Trifolium (d) Brassica
71. Phyllode is present in : [2012] 78. In china rose the flowers are : [NEET 2013]
(a) Asparagus (a) Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate
(b) Euphorbia aestivation
(c) Australian Acacia (b) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate
(d) Opuntia aestivation
72. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in (c) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted
flowers of [2012] aestivation
(a) Aloe (b) Tomato (d) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted
(c) Papaver (4) Michelia
73. How many plants in the list given below aestivation
have composite fruits that develop from an 79. Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin,
inflorescence Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, china rose, lupin, cucumber, sunhemp, gram,
pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry [2012] guava, bean, chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose,
(a) Four (b) Five withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip how many
(c) Two (d) Three plants have hypogynous flower ?[NEET 2013]
74. The coconut water and the edible part of coconut (a) Ten (b) Fifteen
are equivalent to : [2012] (c) Eighteen (d) Six
(a) Endosperm (b) Endocarp 80. Among flowers of Calotropis, tulip, Sesbania,
(c) Mesocarp (d) Embryo Asparagus, Colchicine, Sweet pea, Petunia,
75. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the Indigofera, Mustard, Soyabean, Tobacco and
family [2012] groundnut how many plants have corolla with
(a) Fabaceae (b) Asteraceae valvate aestivation? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Five (b) Six
(c) Solanaceae (d) Brassicaceae
(c) Seven (d) Eight
76. Which one of the following organisms
81. How many plants among China rose, Ocimum,
i s c o r r e c t ly m a t c h e d w i t h i t s t h r e e
sunflower, mustard, Alstonia, guava, Calotropis
characteristics? [2012M]
and Nerium (Oleander) have opposite
(a) Pea: C3 pathway, Endospermic seed,
phyllotaxy? [NEET Kar. 2013]
Vexillary aestivation
(a) Two (b) Three
(b) Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile
(c) Four (d) Five
placentation, Berry
82. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis
(c) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation,
Axile placentation [NEET Kar. 2013]
(d) Maize: C3 pathway, Closed vascular (a) Terminates in a flower
bundles, Scutellum (b) Has unlimited growth
77. How many plants in the list given below have (c) Bears a solitary flower
marginal placentation? (d) Has unlimited growth but lateral branches
Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, end in flowers
Sun hemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, 83. Inflorescence is racemose in
Pea, Tobacco, Lupin [2012M] [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Four (b) Five (a) Soyabean (b) Brinjal
(c) Six (d) Three (c) Tulip (d) Aloe
Solutions
1. (a) Legume is a dehiscent dry fruit 7. (d) Groundnut is economically important
produced from a monocarpellary plant as edible oil is obtained from the
superior ovary. Caryopsis is dry and cotyledons. Peanuts are a rich source
one seeded fruit which developed from of protein (roughly 30 grams per cup
a superior monocarpellary ovary. In this after roasting) and Monounsaturated
the pericarp is closed and fused with fat. Recent research on peanuts and nuts
seed coat. It is a characteristics of family in general has found anti-oxidants and
Poaceae. other chemicals that may provide health
2. (c) Micropyle of seed performs the function benefits. Peanuts are a significant source
of absorbing water during germination. of resveratrol, a chemical studied for
3. (b) Normally endosperm formation is potential anti-aging effects.
accompanied by degeneration of 8. (c) In seeds developing from bitegmic
nucellus. Persistent nucellus is termed ovules the seed coat has two layers outer
testa and inner tegmen. Testa develops
as perisperm.
from outer integument whereas tegmen
The dust-like seeds of orchids have
develops from inner integument.
no endosperm. Orchid seedlings
9. (d) Special type of seed germination is
are mycoheterotrophic in their early
characteristic of halophytes growing in
development. In some other species, such saline conditions is vivipary. The seed
as coffee, the endosperm also does not germination occurs inside the fruit while
develop. Instead the nucellus produces a it is attached to the parent plant.
nutritive tissue termed perisperm. 10. (b) Asteraceae possesses head or capitulum
4. (b) Mesocarp is the edible part of Mangifera inflorescence which is racemose and is
indica (Mango). surrounded by an involucre of bracts.
5. (d) Tomato and Tobacco both belong to 11. (d) Aerial roots of orchids hang freely in
the family Solanaceae. Solanaceae the air and absorb moisture with the
has some identifying characteristics- help of special sponge like tissue called
bicarpellary syncarpous superior ovary, velamen.
axile plancentation, fruit is berry or 12. (c) Agave species are popular ornamental
capsule. plants. Each rosette is monocarpic
6. (b) Each pseudostem produces a single and grows slowly to flower only once.
bunch of bananas, before dying and During flowering a tall stem or “mast”
being replaced by a new pseudostem. The grows from the center of the leaf rosette
base of the plant is a rhizome (known and bears a large number of shortly
as a corm). Corms are perennial, with a tubular flowers. After development of
productive lifespan of 15 years or more . fruit the original plant dies, but suckers
Cultivated bananas are parthenocarpic, are frequently produced from the base
which makes them sterile and unable of the stem which become new plants. It
to produce viable seeds. Lacking is a common misconception that Agaves
seeds, another form of propagation is are a cactus.
required. This involves removing and 13. (a) When stamens are united by their anthers
transplanting part of the underground and filaments are free the condition is
stem (called a corm). Usually this is called syngenesious. It is found in family
Asteraceae (Compositae). The condition
done by carefully removing a sucker
is an adaptation for entomophily.
with some roots intact.
14. (b) Drupe is a fleshy one seeded, indehiscent immature but later become hardened
fruit eg. Mangifera indica. and yellowed as a layer of lignin is
15. (d) Fabaceae. deposited on their walls.
16. (c) Cauliflower has the scientific name 28. (b) Oryza sativa is rice. Ricinus communis is
Brassica oleracea belonging to the variety castor a source of castor oil that acts
botrytis. as a purgative. Manihot is the scientific
17. (d) Vivipary germination is the characteristic name for tapioca, a tuber rich in starch.
mode of seed germination in Rhizophora Hibiscus esculentus is okra (bhindi).
(Mangrove). 29. (c) The leaves appear green because of
18. (b) Vivipary the pigment chlorophyll which does
19. (a) Asteraceae possess five stamens with not absorb green light rather reflects it
free filaments but anthers united forming back.
a tube around the style (syngenesious). 30. (d) Heterospory, development of seed habit
20. (a) Pulses which are economically important and ligulate leaves are important features
belong to the family Fabaceae. of Selaginella. The reproductive structure
21. (d) Perennials survive for more than two in Selaginella is strobilus. A strobilus have
years and produce flowers and fruits many ligulate sporophylls. Two types of
during specific seasons. spores are produced in megasporophylls
and microsporophylls. Ligule is a small
22. (b) Dicots possess tap root system.
leaf like outgrowth at the base of leaf.
23. (c) Hypanthodium is a special kind of
31. (b) The development of fruit without
inflorescence where the receptacle is
fertilization is called parthenocarpy.
usually fleshy and flash-shaped. e.g.
Parthenocarpy is induced to produce
Ficus.
seedless variety of fruits. And since
24. (c) Buttress roots are asymmetrically in pomegranate seeds form edible
thickened prop roots found at the base part, it will loose its importance if
of certain trees. They render additional parthenocarpy is induced.
mechanical support to the trees. e.g. 32. (b) Aril develops from outer seed coat and
Salmalia, Terminalia etc. is the edible part of litchi.
25. (c) Tetradynamous stamens consist of An aril (or arillus) is a fleshy covering of
four long-sized stamens and two short- certain seeds formed from the funiculus
sized stamens. Such kind of stamens attachment point of the seed .The aril
are found in family Cruciferae e.g. may create a fruit-like structure called
Sarsoo. Tetradynamous condition is a false-fruit and is produced by a few
characteristic of this family. species of gymnosperms, notably the
26. (d) The fruit is a mature or ripened ovary. yews and related conifers in the families
When a fruit develops exclusively from Taxaceae and Cephalotaxaceae.
the ovary, it is said to be true fruit. 33. (b) Sunflower is a dicotyledonous plant.
When in addition to the ovary, some Hence its embryo has two cotyledons.
other floral part also participates in the Plants like maize are monocotyledonous
formation of fruits, then it is known and hence have a single cotyledon in
as false fruit. Apple, pear, cashewnut, the embryo.
mulberry etc. are all false fruits. 34. (c) Reproductive parts (floral features)
27. (b) Coir (Etymological origin: from Tamil are more stable and conservative than
and Malayalam - kayar - cord) is a coarse vegetative parts, which exhibit changes
fibre extracted from the fibrous outer due to the environmental factors quite
shell of a coconut. Coir fibres are found readily. So floral features are more
between the husk and the outer shell reliable.
of a coconut. The individual fibre cells 35. (c) Rafflessia is an Angiosperm, which
are narrow and hollow, with thick walls produces the largest flowers. It is also a
made of cellulose. They are pale when total root parasite.
36. (b) Screw pine (Pandanus) bear stilt roots. Aleurones can have two different
Trapa bears assimilatory roots. Orchid morphological features, Homogenous
bear clinging roots. and Heterogenous. The homogenous
37. (b) The arrangement of ovules inside the aleurone is consisted of similar protein
ovary of a flowering plant is called bodies (e.g. Phaseolus vulgaris) while
placentation. In marginal placentation, the heterogenous aleurone consisted
the ovule develop from a longitudinal different shape and type of proteins
suture where the margins of the ovary covered with a membrane (e.g. Ricinus
wall fused. e.g.. Pea, gram. In apical communis).
placentation a single ovule is born 47. (a) In campylotropous ovule, the body is
near the apex of the ovary. Here ovary curved but the embryo sac is straight
is unilocular (Cannabis). In superficial eg. Capsella. In Anatropous, the body
placentation the ovary is unilocular of ovule is inverted and gets fused with
simple or syncarpous e.g. Nymphaea. funiculus along its whole length on
38. (b) Malvaceae - Cotton one side (most of the angiosperms).
39. (c) Axillary bud is the bud arising in the In orthotropous condition the body of
axil of branch. Apical bud arises at the ovule lies straight and upright over the
apex. Adventitious bud arises from any funicle. e.g. Piperaceae, Polygonaceae.
location other than its usual location. 48. (a) Single cotyledon of embryo in cereal
40. (b) In the roots of soyabean plant, grain is represented by scutellum.
Leghaemoglobin, a pigment with Coleoptile represent the covering of
affinity for oxygen, is found. stem. Coleorhiza represents the covering
41. (b) Banana (Musa paradisica) is a fleshly fruit of root.
with rich sugar content. Edible part is 49. (c) In sweet pea the gynoecium is
fleshy mesocarp and rudiment endocarp, monocarpellary and bears a single
develops from trilocular, inferior ovary. placenta along the junction of two
42. (d) In mustard bicarpellary gynoecium with fused margins, this is called marginal
oblique ovary occurs. placentation.
43. (d) In guava, mesocarp and endocarp form 50. (a) Long filamentous threads of maize are
the edible part. In maize seed coat is the styles of the ovaries. In fact these are
fused with fruit wall. the longest styles in plants.
44. (a) Opuntia is a xerophyte. Cuscuta is a 51. (b) Pineapple (Ananas sativus) is a sorosis
parasite. Capsella is not hydrophyte. fruit developed from a composite
45. (d) The juicy hair – like structures in the inflorescence which is actually a cluster
lemon fruit develops from the inner side of compactly borne flowers on a
of endocarp (from the placenta). common axis.
46. (b) The aleurone layer in maize grain is 52. (b) Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers,
specially rich in proteins. bicarpillary ovary with oblique
Aleurone (from Greek aleuron, flour) septa, fruit is capsule or berry are
is a protein found in the endosperm of the characteristic features of family
many seeds. It forms the outermost layer Solanaceae.
of the seed coat in some grains. During In Brassicaceae – dimerous or
seed germination, hydrolysis in the tetramerous, actinomorphic but
seed causes the aleurone cells to break sometimes zygomorphic flower,
down into amino acids. Once triggered bicarpellary ovary with a false septum
by hormones released from the embryo (called replum), fruit is siliqua or
the aleurone synthesises enzymes silicula.
in order to break down the starchy Lilicaeae – Trimerous, actinomorphic
endosperm supplying sugars to drive flower, tricarpillary, syncarpous ovary,
the growth of roots and the acrospire. fruit is berry or capsula.
Asteraceae – Pentamerous, 60. (a) Hibiscus belongs to Malvaceae family.
actinomorphic or zygomorphic flower, It possess numerous stamens that are
bicarpillary, syncarpous, unilocular called monadelphous.
ovary, fruit is cypsella. 61. (d) Tulips are most popular and wildly
53. (d) It is also know as Australian pine, grown flowers. Tulips are bulbs,
which is a deciduous tree with a soft, possessing modified stems and leaves.
wispy, pine-like appearance that can 62. (b) Aleurone cells are the outer cell layer
grow to 100 feet or more in height. of the endosperm, usually only one cell
Also known as ironwood, beefwood. It thick in wheat and the only endosperm
bears a superficial resemblance to the tissue alive at maturity. The cell layer of
conifer genus Pinus because of its small, this layer are responsible for the de-novo
round, cone-like fruits and its branchlets synthesis of enzyme needed during
of scale-like leaves that look like pine germination. The chromosome number
needles. is 63 of a plant with 42 chromosome in
54. (b) Replum is present in the ovary of its root tip cells.
flower of mustard. A false septun 63. (b) Floral formula of chilli is
called replum develops between the two
⊕ + K(5)C(5)A5G(2)
parietal placentae in mustard and other 64. (b) When a flower can be divided into two
members of family Brassicaceae. The
similar halves only in one particular
ovary becomes bilocular.
vertical plane, it is zygomorphic, e.g.
55. (c) The given floral formula is of tobacco.
pea, gulmohar, bean, etc.
It belong to the family Solanaceae. The
65. (a) The ovary is half-inferior in flowers of
flower is actinomorphic, bisexual and
having superior ovary. Soyabean and peach.
sunhemp have monocarpellary pistil and 66. (b) Free central placentation occurs in
tulip has trimerous flower and perianth. Dianthus and Primula in which ovules
56. (b) In flowering plants, placentation occurs are borne on central axis and septa are
where the ovules are attached inside the absent.
ovary. An example of axile placentation 67. (d) Whorled phyllotaxy is a feature of
is Lemon. In this type of placentation Nerium and Alstonia. In Alstonia five
the ovary is sectioned by radial spokes leaves are present in a whorl while in
with placentas in separate locules. Nerium three leaves are present in a
57. (b) In basal type of placentation, the ovary whorl.
is unilocular with a single ovule. In this 68. (d) Sweet potato and turnip both are
the placenta is at the base of the ovary. roots and become modified for special
It is seen in Polygonum. functions, the most common being the
58. (d) Keel is the characteristic of the flowers formation of tuberous roots for food
of family papilionaceae. For example, storage.
bean, gram, pea etc. 69. (d) Parietal Ex. - Mustard
The flowers of this family have butterfly Free central Ex. - Primula & Dianthus
shaped corolla. The outermost petals
Marginal Ex. - Pea
of these flowers is the largest and is
Axile Ex. - Tomato, lemon,
called vexillum, the two largest petals
are similar and have wings and the two Chinarose
anterior petals called keel are fused 70. (a) Cymose infloresence in present in Solanum.
enclosing stamens and carpels. Cymose inflorescence is the name of
59. (b) A flower in which floral parts arise from determinate or definite inflorescence in
around the ovary is called perigynous. which the tip of the main axis terminates
In this, the ovary is half inferior and half in a flower and further growth continues
superior. It can be seen in the flowers of by one or more lateral branches which also
plum, peach etc. behave like the main axis.
71. (c) Phyllode is present in Australian Acacia. It 80. (c) Calotropis, tulip, Asparagus, colchicine,
is modification of leaf in which lamina is Petunia, mustard, tobacco having valvate
absent and petiole become flattened and aestivation while sweet pea, groundnut,
perform the function of food synthesis. soyabean, Indigofera, Sesbania having
72. (d) vexillary aestivation.
73. (d) Fig-developed by hypanthodium 81. (b) Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement
inflorescence; pineapple- developed by of leaves on the stem or branch.
spike inflorescence; Mulberry-developed
• Ocimum, Guava, Calotropis → Opposite
by catkin inflorescence.
phyllotaxy
74. (a) Liquid endosperm is edible part of
coconut. • China rose, Sunflower, mustard →
75. (a) Alternate phyllotaxy
76. (c) Onion - Bulb - Underground • Alstonia, Nerium (Oleander) → whorled
stems -Imbricate aestivation -Axile phyllotaxy
placentation - Member of Liliaceae. 82. (a) In cymose inflorescence, the growth
77. (c) Marginal placentation is a placentation of the main axis is definite because the
with ovules borne on the wall along the growing point of peduncle is used up in
ventral suture of a simple ovary. Gram, the formation of a flower. Further growth
Arhar, Sun hemp, Moong, Pea & Lupin of flowering axis is continued by one or
belongs to fabaceae family that bears more lateral branches which also end in
marginal placentation.
flower.
78. (d) In china rose (Hibiscus rose-sinensis)
83. (a) • Inflorescence in family fabaceae (e.g.,
flowers are actinomorphic , hypogynous
soyabean) is racemose.
and twisted aestivation in corolla.
79. (b) Mustard (cruciferae) , brinjal (solanaceae) • Inflorescence in family liliaceae (e.g.,
china rose (malvaceae), lupin tulip, Aloe) is solitary/cymose; often
(leguminosae), gram (leguminosae), umbellate.
bean (leguminosae), chilli, Petunia, • Inflorescence in family solanaceae (e.g.,
potato, tomato, Withania (solanaceae), brinjal) is solitary, axillary or cymose as
onion, Aloe, tulip (liliaceae) are having in Solanum.
hypogynous flower while bittergourd,
cucumber (cucurbitaceae), guava
(myrtaceae) are having epigynous flower
and rose are having perigynous flower.
HAPTER
C
6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants
1. Tunica corpus theory is connected with 8. Sieve tubes are suited for translocation of
(a) root apex [1988] food because they possess [1989]
(b) root cap (a) bordered pits
(c) shoot apex (b) no ends walls
(c) broader lumen and perforated cross
(d) secondary growth
walls
2. Which meristem helps in increasing girth? (d) no protoplasm
(a) Lateral meristem [1988] 9. Which is the correct fact about diffuse or ring
(b) Intercalary meristem porous wood? [1989]
(c) Primary meristem (a) Ring porous wood, carries more water
(d) Apical meristem for short period
3. Which one yields fibres? [1988] (b) Diffuse porous wood carries more
(a) Coconut (b) Oak water
(c) Ring porous wood carries more water
(c) Teak (d) Sisso
when need is higher
4. Cork is formed from [1988] (d) Diffuse porous wood is less specialised
(a) cork cambium (phellogen) but conducts water rapidly throughout
(b) vascular cambium 10. Cork cambium and vascular cambium
(c) phloem are [1990, 95]
(d) xylem (a) parts of secondary xylem and phloem
5. Pith and cortex do not differentiate in [ 1988] (b) parts of pericycle
(a) monocot stem (b) dicot stem (c) lateral meristems
(d) apical meristems
(c) monocot root (d) dicot root
11. Monocot leaves possess [1990]
6. Organisation of stem apex into corpus and (a) intercalary meristem
tunica is determined mainly by [1989] (b) lateral meristem
(a) planes of cell division (c) apical meristem
(b) regions of meristematic activity (d) mass meristem
(c) rate of cell growth 12. Collenchyma occurs in the stem and petioles
(d) rate of shoot tip growth of [1990]
7. Death of protoplasm is a pre-requisite for a (a) Xerophytes (b) Monocots
(c) Dicot herbs (d) Hydrophytes
vital function like [1989]
13. Collenchyma occurs in [1990]
(a) transport of sap (a) herbaceous climbers
(b) transport of food (b) woody climbers
(c) absorption of water (c) climbing stems
(d) gaseous exchange (d) water plants
14. Pericycle of roots produces [1990] 22. Commercial cork is obtained from [1991]
(a) mechanical support (a) Berberis/Barberry (b) Salix/Willow
(b) lateral roots (c) Quercus/Oak (d) Betula/Birch
(c) vascular bundles 23. A bicollateral vascular bundle is characterised
(d) adventitious buds by [1992]
15. For union between stock and scion in grafting (a) Phloem being sandwitched between
which one is the first to occur? [1990] xylem
(a) Formation of callus (b) Transverse splitting of vascular bundle
(b) Production of plasmodesmata (c) Longitudinal splitting of vascular
(c) Differentiation of new vascular tissues bundle
(d) Regeneration of cortex and epidermis (d) Xylem being sandwitched between
16. What is true about a monocot leaf [1990] phloem
(a) Reticulate venation 24. Bordered pits are found in [1993]
(b) Absence of bulliform cells from (a) Sieve cells (b) Vessel wall
epidermis (c) Companion cells (d) Sieve tube wall
(c) Mesophyll not differentiated into 25. Abnormal/anomalous secondary growth
palisade and spongy tissues occurs in [1993]
(d) Well differentiated mesophyll (a) Dracaena (b) Ginger
17. Vascular cambium produces [1990, 92] (c) Wheat (d) Sunflower
(a) primary xylem and primary phloem 26. Which exposed wood will decay faster
(b) secondary xylem and secondary (a) Sapwood [1993]
phloem (b) Softwood
(c) primary xylem and secondary phloem (c) Wood with lot of fibres
(d) secondary xylem and primary phloem (d) Heartwood
18. Where do the casparian bands occur? 27. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found
[1990, 94] between phloem/bark and wood of a dicot
(a) Epidermis (b) Endodermis is [1993]
(c) Pericycle (d) Phloem (a) Cork cambium
19. Angular collenchyma occurs in [1991] (b) Vascular cambium
(a) Cucurbita (b) Helianthus (c) Endodermis
(c) Althaea (d) Salvia (d) Pericycle
20. An organised and differentiated cellular 28. Periderm is produced by [1993]
structure having cytoplasm but no nucleus (a) Vascular cambium
is [1991] (b) Fascicular cambium
(a) Vessels (c) Phellogen
(b) Xylem parenchyma (d) Intrafascicular cambium
(c) Sieve tubes 29. Procambium forms [1994]
(d) Tracheids (a) only primary vascular bundles
21. Which is correct about transport or (b) only vascular cambium
conduction of substances? [1991] (c) only cork cambium
(a) Organic food moves up through (d) primary vascular bundles and vascular
phloem cambium
(b) Organic food moves up through 30. As the secondary growth takes place
phloem (proceeds) in a tree, thickness of [1994]
(c) Inorganic food moves upwardly and (a) heart wood increases
downwardly through xylem (b) sap-wood increases
(d) Organic food moves upwardly and (c) both increase
downwardly through phloem (d) both remain the same
31. What is not true about sclereids? [1996] 37. Loading of pholem is related to [2001]
(a) These are parenchyma cells with (a) increases of sugar in phloem
thickened lignified walls (b) elongation of phloem cell
(b) These are elongated and flexible with (c) separation of phloem parenchyma
tapered ends (d) strengthening of phloem fibre
(c) These are commonly found in the shells 38. Main function of lenticel is [2002]
of nuts and in the pulp of guava, pear, (a) transpiration (b) guttation
etc (c) gaseous exchange (d) bleeding
(d) These are also called the stone cells 39. Vessels are found in [2002]
32. At maturity which of the following is (a) all angiosperms and some
enucleate? [1997] gymnosperms
(a) Sieve cell (b) Companion cell (b) most of angiosperms and few
(c) Palisade cell (d) Cortical cell gymnosperms
33. A leaf primordium grows into the adult leaf (a) all angiosperms, all gymnosperms and
lamina by means of [1998] some pteriodophyta
(a) apical meristem (d) all pteridophyta
(b) lateral meristem 40. Four radial vascular bundles are found in
[2002]
(c) marginal meristems
(a) dicot root (b) monocot root
(d) at first by apical meristem and later
(c) dicot stem (d) monocot stem
largely by marginal meristems.
41. Axillary bud and terminal bud are derived
34. Which of the following meristems is
from the activity of [2002]
responsible for extrastelar secondary growth
(a) lateral meristem
in dicotyledonous stem? [1998]
(b) intercalary meristem
(a) Intrafascicular cambium
(c) apical meristem
(b) Interfascicular cambium
(d) parenchyma
(c) Intercalary meristem
42. Which of the following statements is true?
(d) Phellogen [2002]
35. Transition of radial vascular bundle in root (a) Vessels are multicellular with narrow
to conjoint vascular bundle in stem occurs in lumen
which zone? [1999] (b) Tracheids are multicellular with narrow
(a) Epicotyl (b) Hypocotyl lumen
(c) Meristem (d) At base of stem (c) Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen
36. What happens during vascularization in (d) Tracheids are unicellular with wide
plants? [2000] lumen
(a) Differentiation of procambium 43. The cells of the quiescent centre are
is immediately followed by the characterised by [2003]
development of secondary xylem and (a) dividing regularly to add to tunica
phloem (b) having dense cytoplasm and prominent
(b) Differentiation of procambium followed nuclei
by the development of xylem and (c) having light cytoplasm and small nuclei
phloem (d) dividing regularly to add to the corpus
(c) Differentiation of procambium , xylem 44. The apical meristem of the root is present
and phloem is simultaneous (a) in all the roots [2003]
(d) Differentiation of procambium followed (b) only in radicals
by the development of primary phloem (c) only in tap roots
and then by primary xylem (d) only in adventitious roots
45. Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the 52. Passage cells are thin walled cells found
(a) pollen tube of Pinus [2003] in [2007]
(b) cytoplasm of Chlorella (a) phloem elements that serve as entry
(c) mycelium of a green mould such as points for substance for transport ot
Aspergillus other plant parts
(d) spore capsule of a moss (b) testa of seeds to enable emergence of
46. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting growing embryonic axis during seed
from the tip upward, the four zones occur in germination
the following order: [2004] (c) central region of style through which
the pollen tube grows towards the ovary
(a) Root cap, cell division, cell enlargement,
(d) endodermis of roots facilitating rapid
cell maturation
transport of water from cortex to
(b) Root cap, cell division, cell maturation,
pericycle.
cell enlargement
53. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop
(c) Cell division, cell enlargement, cell from: [2008]
maturation, root cap (a) phellogen (b) plerome
(d) Cell division, cell maturation, cell (c) periblem (d) dermatogen
enlargement, root cap 54. The length of different internodes in a culm
47. The most abundant element present in the of sugarcane is variable because of [2008]
plants is [2004] (a) shoot apical meristem
(a) Carbon (b) Nitrogen (b) position of axillary buds
(c) Manganese (d) Iron (c) size of leaf lamina at the node below
48. Ectophloic siphonostele is found in each internode
(a) Osmunda and Equisetum (d) intercalary meristem
(b) Marsilea and Botrychium 55. Which one of the following is resistant to
(c) Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae enzyme action? [2008]
(d) Dicksonia and Maidenhair fern (a) Cork (b) Wood fibre
49. In a woody dicotyledonous tree, which of (c) Pollen exine (d) Leaf cuticle
the following parts will mainly consist of 56. Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root
primary tissues? [2005] is distinguished from the dicotyledonous
stem by [2009]
(a) All parts
(a) absence of secondary phloem
(b) Stem and root
(b) presence of cortex
(c) Flowers, fruits and leaves
(c) position of protoxylem
(d) Shoot tips and root tips
(d) absence of secondary xylem
50. A common structural feature of vessel 57. The annular and spirally thickened
elements and sieve tube elements are [2006] conducting elements generally develop in the
(a) pores on lateral walls protoxylem when the root or stem is: [2009]
(b) presence of p-protein (a) elongating (b) widening
(c) enucleate condition (c) differentiating (d) maturing
(d) thick secondary walls 58. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of:
51. For a critical study of secondary growth in (a) mustard (b) soybean [2009]
plants. Which one of the following pairs is (c) gram (d) sorghum
suitable? [2007] 59. In barley stem vascular bundles are: [2009]
(a) teak and pine (a) closed and scattered
(b) deodar and fern (b) open and in a ring
(c) wheat and maiden hair fern (c) closed and radial
(d) sugarcane and sunflower. (d) open and scattered
60. Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical 68. Function of companion cells is [2011M]
tissue and cuticle is characteristic of: [2009] (a) providing energy to sieve elements for
(a) mesophytes (b) epiphytes active transport
(c) hydrophytes (d) xerophytes (b) providing water to phloem
61. The chief water conducting elements of (c) loading of sucrose into sieve elements
xylem in gymnosperms are: [2010] by passive transport
(a) vessels (b) fibres (d) loading of sucrose into sieve elements
(c) transfusion tissue (d) tracheids 69. Some vascular bundles are described as open
62. Which one of the following is not a lateral because these [2011M]
meristem? [2010] (a) are surrounded by pericycle but not
(a) Intrafascicular cambium endodermis
(b) Interfascicular cambium (b) are capable of producing secondary
(c) Phellogen xylem and phloem
(d) Intercalary meristem
(c) possess conjunctive tissue between
63. Heartwood differs from sapwood in: [2010]
xylem and phloem
(a) presence of rays and fibres
(d) are not surrounded by pericycle
(b) absence of vessels and parenchyma
70. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells
(c) having dead and non -conducting
have [2011M]
elements
(a) thin walls, many intercellular spaces and
(d) being susceptible to pests and
no chloroplasts
pathogens
(b) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and
64. Ground tissue includes [2011]
large number of chloroplasts
(a) all tissues external to endodermis
(c) thin walls, no intercellular spaces and
(b) all tissues except epidermis and vascular
bundles several chloroplasts
(c) epidermis and cortex (d) thick walls, many intercellular spaces
(d) all tissues internal to endodermis and few chloroplasts
65. In land plants, the guard cells differ from 71. The common bottle cork is a product of :
other epidermal cells in having : [2011] [2012]
(a) cytoskeleton (a) Dermatogen (b) Phellogen
(b) mitochondria (c) Xylem (d) Vascular Cambium
(c) endoplasmic reticulum 72. Companion cells are closely associated with :
(d) chloroplasts [2012]
66. The cork cambium, cork and secondary (a) Sieve elements (b) Vessel elements
cortex are collectively called: [2011] (c) Trichomes (d) Guard cells
(a) phelloderm’ (b) phellogen 73. Closed vascular bundles lack [2012]
(c) periderm (d) phellem (a) Ground tissue (b) conjunctive tissue
67. Which one of the following is wrongly
(c) Cambium (d) Pith
matched? [2011]
74. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles
(a) Root pressure - Guttation
are found in : [2012]
(b) Puccinia - Smut
(c) Root - Exarch protoxylem (a) Sunflower (b) Maize
(d) Cassia - Imbricate aestivation (c) Cycas (d) Pinus
75. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood 78. Lenticels are involved in : [NEET 2013]
spermatophytes because they lack : [2012] (a) Gaseous exchange
(b) Food transport
(a) Cambium (c) Photosynthesis
(b) Phloem fibres (d) Transpiration
(c) Thick-walled tracheids 79. Interfascicular cambium develops from the
cells of : [NEET 2013]
(d) Xylem fibres (a) Xylem parenchyma
76. As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root (b) Endomermis
has [2012M] (c) Pericycle
(a) many xylem bundles. (d) Medullary rays
80. Which of the following statements is not true
(b) relatively thicker periderm. for stomatal apparatus? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) inconspicuous annual rings. (a) Inner walls of guard cells are thick
(d) more abundant secondary xylem. (b) Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts
77. Age of a tree can be estimated by : and mitochondria
(c) Guard cells are always surrounded by
[NEET 2013] subsidiary cells
(a) biomass (d) Stomata are involved in gaseous
(b) number of annual rings exchange
(c) diameter of its heartwood 81. Meristematic tissue responsible for increase
(d) its height and girth in girth of tree trunk is [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Intercalary meristem
(c) Lateral meristem
(d) Phellogen
Solutions
1. (c) The shoot apex or stem apical meristem 10. (c) Cork cambium and vascular cambium
has two zones, outer tunica and inner are responsible for secondary growth
corpus. This theory was given by which increases the girth of the stem.
Schmidt 1924. 11. (a) Intercalary meristems are derived from
2. (a) Lateral meristems occur on the sides of apical meristems and separated from
stem and help in increasing girth of stem the same by permanent cells. They are
and root. It divides only periclinally or responsible for localised growth.
radially and is responsible for increase 12. (c) Collenchyma provides mechanical
in girth or diameter. strength to young dicot stems, petioles
3. (a) Commercial fibres are obtained from and leaves.
Cocos nucifera (coconut) also called 13. (c) Collenchyma is abundant in climbing
surface fibres and occur on surface of stems providing mechanical strength.
seeds. 14. (b) Pericycle in roots is active in the
4. (a) Phellogen present in outer cortical formation of root branches or lateral
cells produces cork or phellem on the roots.
outer side which consists of dead and 15. (a) In grafting, union between stock and
compactly arranged rectangular cells scion produces undifferentiated mass of
that possess suberised cell walls. Which cells called callus.
causes them to become buoyant. Grafting is a method of plant propagation
Phellogen also cuts off cells on innerside widely used in horticulture, where the
called as phelloderm or secondary tissues of one plant are encouraged to
cortex. fuse with those of another. It is most
5. (a) The ground tissue in monocot stem commonly used for the propagation of
do not show distinction into cortex, trees and shrubs grown commercially.
endodermis, pericycle, pith and pith Grafting is limited to dicots and
rays. gymnosperms. Monocots lack the
6. (a) Cells of tunica divide anticlinally to form vascular cambium required.
the outer layer, cells of corpus undergo 16. (c) In monocot leaves, the mesophyll cells
division in different planes. are undifferentiated.
7. (a) Xylem performs the function of transport 17. (b) Vascular cambium produces secondary
of water or sap inside the plant and it is xylem on the inner side and secondary
a dead tissue i.e. devoid of protoplasm. phloem to the outer side.
18. (b) Endodermis or innermost layer of
8. (c) Sieve tubes are elongated tubular
cortex has casparian strips in roots. It
conducting channels of phloem. The
is called starch sheath in dicot stems. It
end walls possess many small pores and
separate cortex from stele. The cell walls
have thin cellulosic wall. The lumen is
are thickened at the corners in angular
broad in nature.
collenchyma.
9. (c) Ring porous wood is more advanced than
19. (a) With providing mechanical strength,
diffuse porous wood as it provides for
collenchyma also provides flexibility
better translocation when requirement
to the organ and allow their bending
of plant is high.
eg. : Cucurbita.
20. (c) Internally, sieve tubes possess peripheral 30. (a) Heartwood is the central wood of mature
layer of cytoplasm and are devoid of dicot stem and is the nonfunctional part
nucleus. They are living cells. Cell of secondary xylem.
walls of sieve tubes are thickened than 31. (a) Sclereids are small bundles of
surrounding parenchyma cells. sclerenchyma tissue in plants that form
21. (d) Sieve tubes are long distance channels durable layers, such as the cores of apples
for transport of organic nutrients. and the gritty texture of pears. Sclereids
The movement of the nutrients are are variable in shape. The cells can be
bidirectional. isodiametric, prosenchymatic, forked
22. (c) Quercus suber (Cork oak or Bottle cork) or fantastically branched. The cell walls
possess cork cells. Cork cells are dead, fill nearly all the cell’s volume. The shell
suberized and impervious to water of many seeds like those of nuts as well
and air, compactly arranged with no as the stones of drupes like cherries or
intercellular spaces. plums are made up from sclereid.
23. (d) Bicollateral vascular bundles have 32. (a) At maturity all physiological functions
phloem in both outer and inner side of of sieve tube takes place in companion
xylem. These type of bundles occur in cell, since the sieve tube elements lose
cucurbitaceae.
their nucleus at maturity.
24. (b) The walls of xylem vessels are lignified
33. (d) A leaf primordium grows into the
and bordered pits are common in the
adult leaf lamina by means of first by
walls.
apical meristem and later by marginal
25. (a) Abnormal secondary growth occurs
meristems.
in some arborescent monocots
34. (d) Intrafascicular cambium occurs inside
(eg. : Dracaena, Yucca)
the vascular bundles in between xylem
26. (a) Sapwood is less durable because it is
and phloem. Interfascicular cambium
susceptible to attack by pathogen and
develops in the form of strips at the level
insects. It is physiologically active
of intrafascicular cambium of vascular
and conduction of water takes place
through it. Heartwood is not attacked bundles. Intercalary meristem lie in
by pathogens and insects as it is between areas of permanent tissues.
physiologically inactive. It is filled with 35. (b) Transition of radial vascular bundle
tannins, resins and gums which are not in root to conjoint vascular bundle in
preferred by insects and pathogens. stem occurs in transition zone which is
27. (b) Vascular cambium is produced by two generally hypocotyl. Hypocotyl is the
types of meristems, fascicular and part of embryonal axis below the level
interfascicular cambium. of cotyledons.
28. (c) Secondary ground tissue or periderm is 36. (b) Vascularization of plant means the
formed from phellogen or cork cambium. development of vascular bundle in
The phellogen forms phellem on the the plant, which develops from the
outer face and phelloderm on the inner. cambium.
The three layers i.e., phellem, phellogen 37. (a) Phloem is involved in transport of
and phelloderm jointly constitute the organic food. According to mass flow
periderm. hypothesis organic substances flow in
29. (a) Procambium is the derivative of shoot solution form in sieve elements due
apical meristem and forms vascular to development of an osmotically
strand. generated pressure gradient.
38. (a) Lenticels are pores present in woody 44. (a) The apical meristem of the root is present
stem through which transpiration at all the root tips. Apical meristem is
or loss of water vapour takes place. subterminal in position of the growing
Lenticel formation begins during the root tips and responsible for terminal
development of the first periderm. In the growth of the root of plants.
stem, they usually appear below a stoma 45. (d) Chlorenchyma cells are those
or group of stomata. It should also be parenchymatous cell which contain
noted that lenticels can be present on chloroplast in them. They are capable of
fruits such as apples and pears. photosynthesis. A spore capsule of moss
39. (b) Generally gymnosperms do not have can perform photosynthesis, therefore
vessels but a few gymnosperms having chlorenchyma are present in them.
vessels are Ephedra, Smilax etc. Most of 46. (a) Root shows the following regions
angiosperms have vessels except of few Root cap or calyptra - caplike protective
e.g., Trochodendron. covering over tip of the root
40. (a) When xylem and phloem strands are Meristematic region is the subapical
present at different radii the vascular position
bundles are radial and 4 radial vascular Zone of elongation - receives news cells
bundles (tetrach condition) are present
from the growing point
in dicot root. This is called tetrach
Root hair zone - is the zone of
conditions.
differentiation
41. (c) Apical meristem is located at the apex
Zone of mature cells - having thick
of stem, root and their branches and
walled impermeable cells.
forms axillary bud & terminal bud.
47. (a) Manganese and Iron are micronutrients
Intercalary meristems take part in linear
required in trace amounts. Concentration
growth. Lateral meristem occur parallel
of nitrogen in dry matter-15000 mg./
to the circumference of the organs. They
gm. Concentration of carbon in dry
increase girth of the plant.
matter is 45,000 mg / gm.
42. (d) Vessels are elongated, multicellular water
48. (a) The central pith is surrounded by xylem,
conducting channels with wide lumen
phloem, pericycle and endodermis . The
formed by end to end fusion of a large
number of vessel elements. Tracheids phloem occurs only outside the xylem
are elongated dead cells with tapering e.g Equisetum, Osmunda.
ends having lignified walls and large
or wide lumen. Their main function is Xylem
conduction of water and minerals from pith
Phlorm
root to leaf.
43. (c) The cells of queiscent centre have lower Endoderm
concentration of DNA, RNA and
49. (d) Primary Meristems : They are those
protein as compared to other cells in
meristematic tissues which are dervied
the root apex. These cells do not divide,
directly from the meristems of the
hence cytoplasm is light and nuclei are
embryo and retain their meristematic
small in them. This concept is based
activity. They are present at root, shoot
upon quiescent centre theory proposed
tip and leaf primordia.
by Clowes (1961).
50. (c) In plant conducting tissue xylem has an of protoxylem. In dicot root the
important integral cell as xylem vessel protoxylem is located near the periphery
which is without nucleus. The phloem of the vascular cylinder while in dicot
on other hand has a row of sieve tubes stem the protoxylem is located near the
which are also without nucleus at centre of vascular bundle i.e. the xylem
maturity. is endarch.
51. (a) Teak and pine is most suitable for the 57. (d) The annular and spirally thickened
study of critical secondary growth conducting elements generally develop
because in secondary growth, secondary
in the protoxylem when the root or stem
tissues are formed from lateral meristem
is maturing.
which is well developed in these two
cases and secondary growth occurs in 58. (d) Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves
gymnosperms and dicots. of Sorghum. It is a leaf tissue composed
52. (d) The innermost leyer of the cortex is of columnar cells containing numerous
called endodermis. It comprises a single chloroplasts in which the long axis of
layer of barrel shaped cells without any each cell is perpendicular to the leaf
intercellular spaces. In roots thick walled surface. The palisade parenchyma is
endodermal cells are interrupted by usually directly beneath the epidermis
thin walled passage cells or transfusion
of the upper surface of the leaf. The
tissue.
cells of the palisade parenchyma are
53. (b) Vascular tissues in flowering plants
develop from plerome. Plerome is a cylindrical. Neighbouring cells look
central core of primary meristem which like the stakes of a palisade. Cells of
gives rise to all cells of the stele from the the palisade parenchyma contain three
pericycle inward. to five times as many chloroplasts as
54. (d) The length of different internodes in a those of the spongy parenchyma. The
culm of sugarcane is variable because chloroplasts stay usually near the cell’s
of intercalary meristem. Intercalary wall, since this adjustment guarantees
meristem is not a part of apical
optimal use of light.
meristem, occurs in the internodes of
59. (a) In barley stem vascular bundles are
grasses (sugarcane) between leaf nodes
and enables longitudinal growth of the closed and scattered. They are open
stem. only for a hours in the day time and
55. (c) Pollen exine is resistant to enzyme never open at night. e.g Cereals.
action. 60. (c) Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical
The hard outer layer called the exine tissue and cuticle is characteristic of
is made up of sporopollenin which hydrophytes.
is one of the most resistant organic 61. (d) Tracheids are chief water conducting
material known. It can withstand high
elements of xylem in gymnosperms.
temperatures and strong acids and alkali.
They are devoid of protoplasm and
No enzymes that degrades sporopollenin
hence dead. The wall constituting the
is so far known.
56. ( c) Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous tracheids is hard, thick and lignified.
root is distinguished from the These are elongated cells with tapering
dicotyledonous stem by position ends.
62. (d) Meristem is divided on the basis of 69. (b) Open means presence of cambium
position in plant bodies into apical during secondary growth. Vascular
meristem, lateral meristem and cambium divides to form secondary
intercalary meristem. Lateral meristem xylem towards inner side while
is present on the lateral sides, that is secondary phloem towards outside.
70. (b) In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells
fascicular and interfascicular cambium
have thick wall, no intracellular spaces
and cork cambium (phellogen).
and large number of chloroplasts.
63. (c) Heartwood differs from sapwood
71. (b) The common bottle cork is the product
in having dead and non-conducting
of phellogen. Phellogen produces cork or
elements. In old trees, the inner region
phellem on the outer side. It consists of
that comprises dead elements with highly dead and compactly arranged rectangular
lignified walls is called heartwood. cells that possess suberised cells walls.
Heartwood does not conduct water The cork cells contain tannins. Hence, they
but gives mechanical support to the appear brown or dark brown in colour. The
stem. On the other hand, the peripheral cork cells of some plants are filled with air
region, which is lighter in colour are e.g., Quercus suber (Cork Oak or Bottle
called sapwood. It is involved in the Cork).
conduction of water and minerals from 72. (a) Companion cells are narrow, elongated
root to leaf. and thin walled living cells. They lie on
64. (b) Ground tissue includes all tissues except the sides of the sieve tubes and are closely
associated with them through compound
epidermis and vascular bundles. The
plasmodesmata. It is supposed that the
ground tissue comprises the bulk of
nuclei of the companion cells control
the primary plant body. Parenchyma,
the activities of the sieve tube through
collenchyma and sclerenchyma cells are
plasmodesmata. Companion cells also help
common in the ground tissue. in maintaining a proper pressure gradient
65. (d) Guard cells differ from epidermal cells in the sieve tube elements.
in having chloroplast. The cell wall 73. (c) In closed vascular bundle cambium is
of guard cells are not uniform, inner absent between xylem and phloem.
walls are thicker than the outer walls, 74. (b) Stem of maize has water containing cavities
epidermal cells are uniformly thin. in vascular bundles.
66. (c) Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm are 75. (d)
collectively called periderm. 76. (a) The vascular bundles are arranged in a
67. (b) Smut is a disease of cereals, corn, grasses loose circle inside the endodermis of a
and sorghum caused by many species of monocot root. In a monocot root, more
than six vascular bundles are present. It
fungi.
shows polyarch condition.
68. (d) Function of companion cell is to
77. (b) Age of a tree can be estimated by number
load sugar and amino acids into sieve
of annual rings. Annual ring constitute
elements. These cells use transmembrane
alternate concentric rings of spring wood
proteins to take up by active transport.
and autumn wood.
78. (a) Lenticels are lens shaped openings occurs in 80. (c) Sometimes, a few epidermal cells in
stems of most of the woody trees. It permits the vicinity of the guard cells become
the exchange of gases between the outer specialised in their shape and size and are
atmosphere and the internal tissue of the known as subsidiary cells or accessory
stem. cells.
79. (d) At the time of secondary growth 81. (c) Lateral meristems are meristems which
interfascicular cambium is formed by occur parallel to the circumference of
parenchymatous medullary rays. the organs in which they develop. They
Interfascicular cambium along with undergo periclinal divisions producing
intrafascicular cambium (formed from secondary tissues on the outer and inner
cambium cells present between xylem sides and increase girth of the plant organs.
and phloem) constitute continuous Examples are vascular cambium and cork-
cambium ring. If cut off new cells in both cambium.
directions cause secondary growth in most
dicotyledonous plants.
HAPTER
C
7 Structural Organisation in
Animals
1. Lymph differs from blood in possessing 7. Afferent nerve fibre carries impulses
(a) only WBC [1989] from [1992]
(b) more RBC and WBC (a) effector to central nervous system
(b) receptor to central nervous system
(c) more RBC and few WBC
(c) central nervous system to muscles
(d) more WBC and few RBC
(d) central nervous system to receptors
2. Mineral found in red pigment of vertebrate 8. Formation of cartilage bones involves [1993]
blood is [1989] (a) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts
(a) magnesium (b) iron and resorption chondroblasts
(c) calcium (d) copper (b) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts
3. Histamine secreting cells are found in [ 1989] and resorption by chondroblasts
(c) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts
(a) connective tissues
only
(b) lungs
(d) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts
(c) muscular tissue only
(d) nervous tissue 9. Vitamin K is required for [1993]
4. Haversian canals occur in [1989] (a) formation of thromboplastin
(a) Humerus (b) Pubis (b) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
(c) Scapula (d) Clavicle (c) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
(d) synthesis of prothrombin
5. Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres are
10. The layer of actively dividing cells of skin is
[1990]
termed as [1993]
(a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated, (a) stratum compactum
uninucleate and involuntary (b) stratum corneum
(b) spindle shaped, unbranched, unstriped, (c) stratum malpighii/ stratum
multinucleate and involuntary germinativum
(c) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped, (d) stratum lucidum
11. Blood capillary consists of [1993]
multinucleate and involuntary
(a) endothelium only
(d) cylindrical, unbranched, striated,
(b) endothelium and thin coat of connective
multinucleate and voluntary tissue
6. Component of blood responsible for (c) endothelium and thin coat of muscle
producing antibodies is [1992] fibres
(a) Thrombocytes (b) Monocytes (d) endothelium and thin coat of connective
(c) Erythrocytes (d) Lymphocytes tissue plus muscle fibres
12. Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells appearing (c) continuously dividing to provide form
like packed tiles occurs on [1994] to an organ
(a) inner lining of cheek (d) loosely connected to one another to
(b) inner lining of stomach form an irregular organ
(c) inner lining of fallopian tubes 21. A piece of bone such as femur of frog if kept
(d) inner lining of ovary in dilute HCl for about a week will [2000]
13. Stratum germinativum is an example of (a) assume black colour
which kind of epithelium? [1997] (b) shrink in size
(a) Cuboidal (b) Ciliated (c) turn flexible
(c) Columnar (d) Squamous (d) crack into pieces
14. Protein present in the matrix of cartilage is 22. Which cells do not form layer and remain
known as structurally separate? [2001]
(a) chondrin (b) casein [1997] (a) Epithelial cells (b) Muscle cells
(c) cartilagin (d) ossein
(c) Nerve cells (d) Gland cells
15. Basement membrane is made up of [1997]
23. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged
(a) epidermal cells only
and for its recovery which cartilage is
(b) endodermal cells only
preferred? [2001]
(c) both epidermal and endodermal cells
(a) Hyaline cartilage (b) Elastic cartilage
(d) no cell at all, but is a product of epithelial
(c) Calcified cartilage (d) Fibrous cartilage
cells
24. Which cartilage is present at the end of long
16. The functional unit of contractile system in
bones? [2002]
striated muscle is [1998]
(a) myofibril (b) sarcomere (a) Calcified cartilage (b) Hyaline cartilage
(c) Z-band (d) cross bridges (c) Elastic cartilage (d) Fibrous cartilage
17. Which of the following is not exclusively 25. Which one of the following contains the
supplied with involuntary muscles ? [1998] largest quantity of extracellular material?
(a) Muscular coats of blood vessels (a) Myelinated nerve fibres [2003]
(b) Muscles of the ducts of glands (b) Striated muscle
(c) Muscles of iris (c) Areolar tissue
(d) Muscles of urethra (d) Stratified epithelium
18. The active molecule that helps initiate the 26. Mast cells of connective tissue contain
inflammatory response when mast cells (a) vasopressin and relaxin [2004]
degranulate is [1999] (b) heparin and histamine
(a) perforin (b) histamine (c) heparin and calcitonin
(c) heparin (d) insulin (d) serotonin and melanin
19. The polysaccharide present in the matrix of 27. ATPase enzyme needed for muscle
cartilage is known as [2000] contraction is located in [2004]
(a) cartilagin (b) ossein (a) actinin (b) troponin
(c) chondriotin (d) casein (c) myosin (d) actin
20. Simple epithelium is a tissue in which the 28. Which of the following substances, if
cells are [2000] introduced into the blood stream, would
(a) hardened and provide support to the cause coagulation of blood at the site of its
organs introduction? [2005]
(b) cemented directly to one another to (a) Prothrombin (b) Fibrinogen
form a single layer (c) Thromboplastin (d) Heparin
Structural Organisation in Animals 81
29. Areolar connective tissue joins [2006] outer surface without damaging its gut, the
(a) integument with muscles fluid that comes out is : [2009]
(b) bones with muscles (a) coelomic fluid (b) haemolymph
(c) bones with bones (c) slimy mucus (d) excretory fluid
(d) fat body with muscles 38. Which one of the following correctly
30. Mast cells secrete [2006] describes the location of some body parts in
(a) myoglobin (b) histamine the earthworm Pheretima ? [2009]
(c) hemoglobin (d) hippurin (a) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 - 7
31. Bowman’s glands are found in [2006] segments.
(a) external auditory canal (b) One pair of ovaries attached at
(b) cortical nephrons only intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th
(c) juxtamedullary nephrons segments.
(d) olfactory epithelium (c) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th
32. In which one of the following preparations segments.
are your likely to come across cell junctions
(d) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16 - 18
most frequently ? [2007]
segments.
(a) Thrombocytes
39. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive
(b) Tendon
structure in our pinna (external ears) is also
(c) Hyaline cartilage
found in: [2009]
(d) Ciliated epithelium.
(a) nails (b) ear ossicles
33. Earthworms have no skeleton but during
(c) tip of the nose (d) vertebrae
burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid
40. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner
and acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due
to [2008] walls of blood vessels is : [2010]
(a) coelomic fluid (b) blood (a) cuboidal epithelium
(c) gut peristalsis (d) setae (b) columnar epithelium
34. Which one of the following is correct pairing (c) ciliated columnar epithelium
of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue (d) squamous epithelium
that moves it ? [2009] 41. One very special feature in the earthworm
(a) Biceps of upper arm–Smooth muscle Pheretima is that [2011]
fibres (a) fertilisation for eggs occurs inside the
(b) Abdominal wall–Smooth muscle body
(c) Iris–Involuntary smooth muscle (b) the typhlosole greatly increases the
(d) Heart wall–Involuntary unstriated effective absorption area of the digested
muscle food in the intestine
35. The epithelial tissue present on the inner (c) the S- shaped setae embedded in the
surface of bronchioles and fallopian tube is: integument are the defensive weapons
(a) glandular (b) ciliated [2009] used against the enemies
(c) squamous (d) cuboidal (d) it has a long dorsal tubular heart
36. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and 42. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in
gap junctions are found in [2009] humans are known to occur in : [2011]
(a) connective tissue (b) epithelial tissue (a) eustachian tube and stomach lining
(c) neural tissue (d) muscular tissue (b) bronchioles and fallopian tubes
37. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle (c) bile duct and oesophagus
on it (d) fallopian tubes and urethra
43. Which of the following is correctly stated as it 47. Which one of the following structures in
happens in the common cockroach ? [2011] Pheretima is correctly matched with its
(a) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs function? [2011M]
projecting out from the colon (a) Clitellum - secretes cocoon
(b) Gizzard - absorbs digested food
(b) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin
(c) Setae- defence against predators
in blood
(d) Typhlosole - storage of extra nutrients
(c) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
48. The type of muscles present in our : [2011M]
(d) The food is ground by mandibles and (a) heart are involuntary and unstriated
gizzard smooth muscles
44. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to (b) intestine are striated and involuntary
the category of: [2011M] (c) thigh are striated and voluntary
(a) smooth muscle tissue (d) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres
(b) squamous epithelium fusiform in shape
(c) columnar epithelium 49. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes
(d) connective tissue in frog are [2012]
(a) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin
45. The breakdown of detritus into smaller
(b) nucleated and with haemoglobin
particles by earthworm is a process called
(c) very much smaller and fewer
[2011M]
(d) nucleated and without haemoglobin.
(a) humification (b) fragmentation 50. Select the correct statement from the ones given
(c) mineralisation (d) catabolism below with respect to Periplaneta americana.
46. Consider the following four statements (A-D) [2012]
related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and (a) Nervous system located dorsally, consists
select the correct option stating which ones of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by
are true (T) and which ones are false (F) a pair of longitudinal connectives.
Statements : [2011M] (b) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal
(A) On dry land it would die due to lack of styles.
O2 its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a (c) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules
few days present at the junctions of midgut and
(B) It has four- chambered heart hindgut.
(C) On dry land it turns uricotelic from (d) Grinding of food is carried out only by the
ureotelic mouth parts.
(d) Its life-history is carried out in pond 51. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a
certain type of connective tissue. Identify the
water
parts labeled A, B, C and D, and select the
Options :
correct answer from the given option.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
[2012M]
(a) T F F T

(b) T T F F
(c) F F T T
(d) F T T F
54. What external changes are visible after the last
Part-A Part-B Part-C Part - D moult of a cockroach nymph? [NEET 2013]
(a) Macro- Fibro- Collagen Mast cells (a) Anal cerci develop
phage blast fibres (b) Both fore wings and hind wings
(b) Mast Macro- Fibroblast Collagen
develop
cell phage fibres
(c) Labium develops
(c) Macro- Collagen Fibroblast Mast cell
phage fibres
(d) Mandibles become harder
(d) Mast Collagen Fibroblast Macrophage 55. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and
cell fibres match with its characteristcs and its location
[NEET Kar. 2013]
52. The supportive skeletal structures in the
human external ears and in the nose tip are
examples of [2012M]
(a) ligament (b) areolar tissue
(c) bone (d) cartilage
53. The four sketches (1, 2, 3 and 4) given below, (a) Skeletal muscle, shows striations and
represent four different types of animal closely attached with the bones of the
tissues. Which one of these is correctly
limbs
identified in the options given, along with its
(b) Smooth muscles, show branching, found
correct location and function? [2012M]
in the walls of the heart
(c) Cardiac muscles, unbranched muscles,
found in the walls of the heart
(1) (2)
(d) Striated muscles, tapering at both-ends,

attached with the bones of the ribs
56. Select the correct option with respect to
cockroaches [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) The fore wings are tegmina which are
(3) (4)
used in flight

(b) Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous
wastes into urea
Tissue Location Function
(c) Males bear short anal styles not present
(a) (2) Glandular Intestine Secretion in females
epithelium (d) Nervous system comprises of a dorsal
(b) (3) Collagen Cartilage Attach nerve cord and ten pairs of ganglion
fibres skeletal
muscles to
bones
(c) (4) Smooth Heart Heart
muscle contraction
tissue
(d) (1) Columnar Nephron Secretion
epithelium and
absorption
Solutions
1. (a) Lymph differs from blood in that it 8. (a) Deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts
contains less protein and no red blood and resorption chondroblasts.
cells. Lymph contains white blood cells. 9. (d) Synthesis of prothrombin which helps
2. (b) Mineral found in red pigment of in coagulation of blood. Vitamin K is
vertebrate blood is Iron. required for the synthesis of prothrombin
3. (a) In connective tissues, histamine is an and blood clotting factors I, VII, IX and
organic nitrogen compound involved in X.
local immune responses and regulating 10. (c) It is the innermost one celled thick made
physiological function in the gut and up of columnar epithelial cells. It lies
acts as a neurotransmitter. Histamine is on a basement. These cells are active &
produced by basophils and by mast cells continuously produce new cells by mitotic
found in nearby connective tissues. division that is why called germinative
4. (a) Haversian canals are a characteristic layer or stratum germinativum. The
feature of the mammalian bones present division rate of these cells in highest
in the matrix of bones. They are present during sleep or rest and lowest during
in Humerus bone. muscular activity & stress.
5. (a) Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres. 11. (a) The wall of blood vessels (arteries &
• cells range from 5 to 10 µm in veins) are made up of mainly 3 layers –
diameter and 30 to 200 µm in the outer most tunica externa has a loss
length connective tissue, collagen fibres, lymph
• spindle-shaped vessels and the middle tunica media
• single, centrally located nucleus has circular smooth muscle fibres, some
• smooth muscle tissue occurs within elastic fibres and the inner most tunica
almost every organ, forming sheets, interna is a single layered endothelium of
bundles or sheaths around other polyhedral squamous cells. If the arteries
tissues. reach organs they form arterioles which
Smooth muscle differs from both skeletal are thinner and mainly consist smooth
and cardiac muscle tissues in structure muscles and when they subdivide in the
and function. Sarcomeres or myofibrils tissues they make capillaries. The wall of
are not present - therefore not striated, ie. capillaries are very thin (usually less than
smooth. one micron) and have numerous minute
6. (d) Lymphocyte is a type of white blood cells pores and made up of only endothelium.
in the vertebrate immune system. Exchange of material takes place
Lymphocytes are responsible for making between blood and tissue fluid across
antibodies. the endothelial membrane of capillaries
7. (b) In nervous system afferent nerve fibres through active diffusion.
carry nerve impulse from receptors or 12. (a) Squamous epithelial cells have the
sense organs towards the central nervous appearance of thin, flat plates. The shape
system. of the nucleus usually corresponds to the
cell form and help to identify the type of are lined up in adjacent myofibrils and
epithelium. Squamous cells, for example, contribute to striations visible with a light
tend to have horizontal flattened, elliptical microscope.
nuclei because of the thin flattened form 17. (d) Voluntary muscles - under control of our
of the cell. They form the lining of will. Involuntary muscles - Not under
cavities such as the mouth, blood vessels, control of our will. Muscles of urethra
heart and lungs and make up the outer also remain under voluntary control after
layers of the skin. infancy.
13. (c) The simple cuboidal epithelium consists 18. (b) Mast cells contain granules of heparin
of a single layer of polygonal cells which and histamine. Heparin prevents
appear cuboidal in vertical section. blood clotting. Histamine produces
Cuboidal epithelium occurs in terminal inflammation.
respiratory bronchioles. Columnar 19. (c) The chief component of ground
epithelium is made of tall cylindrical cells substance of cartilage is chondromuco
and it occurs in the lining of stomach. protein which is formed of chondriotin
In ciliated epithelium the cells bear cilia sulphate, keratan sulphate and
on their free surface and it occurs in the hyaluronic acid.
respiratory tract. 20. (b) Simple epithelium is a tissue made of
14. (a) Chondrin is a gelatin-like substance and a single layer of compactly arranged
can be obtained by boiling cartilage in cells all of which rest over a noncellular
water. The cartilage is a connective tissue basement membrane.
that contains cells embedded in a matrix 21. (c) When a bone is kept in dilute acids
of chondrin. like HCl for a few days, the Ca salts
15. (d) Basement membrane is a delicate get dissolved leaving only the soft and
noncellular layer made of extracellular flexible organic matrix. This process is
material that lies below the epithelium in called Decalcification. If a bone is kept
contact with its basal surface. Basement in KOH it remains unaffected and only
membrane is a delicate noncellular layer the surrounding muscles and connective
made of extracellular material that lies tissues get dissolved so that the bone now
below the epithelium in contact with appears clean.
its basal surface. Besides this the basal 22. (c) Only nerve cells do not form layers.
lamina consists of mucopoly saccharides These also remain structurally separate
and very fine fibres. from each other. Nerve cells or neurons
16. (b) A skeletal muscle consists of a bundle are the cells specialized to conduct an
of long fibres running the length of the electrochemical current. Nerve tissue is
muscle. Each fibre is a single cell with made up of these cells and supporting
many nuclei. Skeletal muscle is also cells. Epithelial tissue is made of one or
called striated muscle because the regular a few layers of compactly arranged cells
arrangement of the myofilaments creates overlying a basement membrane. Glands
as repeating pattern of light and dark are epithelial cells specialized to elaborate
bands. Each repeating unit is a sarcomere, and release chemicals for use in the body.
the basic functional unit of the muscle. Muscle tissue is made of elongated and
The borders of the sarcomere the Z lines, contractile cells called myocytes.
23. (a) Hyaline cartilage is firm but slightly muscle contraction. It is also an ATPase
elastic with clear matrix. It is present in (an enzyme) which is activated by Ca2+
larynx, trachea, bronchi, nose. Elastic and Mg2+ ions. Hence, ATPase enzyme
cartilage occur in external ear. Calcified is located in myosin.
cartilage occurs in suprascapula. Fibrous 28. (c) Fibrinogen, prothrombin, throm-
boplastin are respectively clotting factors
cartilage occurs in intervertebral discs.
I, II and III.
24. (b) Hyaline cartilage is present at the end of
Thromboplastin released from injured
long articular bones. It provides a smooth platelets or injured tissue. This converts
articular surface to permit movement at prothrombin into thrombin in the
joints. Elastic cartilage is found where presence of calcium ions. The thrombin
support with flexibility is needed such as converts fibrinogen into fibrin and the
in external ears. latter froms the clot.
Fibro cartilage is a very tough substance 29. (a) Areolar connective tissue has rich supply
and is used in places of the body where of nerve fibres and blood vessels. It joins
shock absorbers are needed. skin epithelia with muscles, nerves &
blood vessels. Binding of body parts
Examples – Discs between vertebrate and
together is the main function of areolar
in the knee joints.
connective tissue.
25. (c) Areolar tissue is the least specialized 30. (b) At the site of infection, the infectious
connective tissue. It has a large amount of organism release some chemical to
ground substance (extracellular material) increase the flow of mast cells towards
and possesses rich blood and nerve the inflammation site. Mast cell
supplies. It spreads extensively throughout release histamine which increases the
the body, under the skin and epithelia, in permeability of blood vessels at the site of
between and around muscles, nerves and inflammation so that more blood supply
blood vessels and in the submucosa of takes place. The site gets warm and red
respiratory and gastrointestinal tract. due to this.
31. (d) Bowman’s glands are found in olfactory
26. (b) Mast cells are granulated wandering
epithelium which secrete mucus to keep
leucocyte cells. Their granules contain
the olfactory epithelium moist and free
histamine which is vasodilator and from germs.
heparin (anticoagulant). These take part 32. (d) It is ciliated epithelium which bears
in body defence and allergic reaction. numerous delicated hair like outgrowths
Vasopressin is released by posterior the cilia, arising from basal granules. The
lobe of pituitary. Relaxin is released cilia remains in rhythmic motion and
by placenta. Calcitonin is released by creates current to transport the materials
thyroid. Serotonin and melanin are which comes in contact with them.
released by intermediate lobe of pituitary 33. (a) Earthworms have no skeleton but during
burrowing, anterior end becomes turgid
gland.
and acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due
27. (c) ATPase enzyme is located in the myosin
to coelomic fluid. The coelom is filled
cross bridge heads. Actin forms the light or with an alkaline milky coelomic fluid.
I- Band. Actin slides over myosin during This coelomic fliud contains water, salts,
contraction. Troponin protein is involved proteins and 4 types of cells namely
in establishing connection with myosin amoebocytes, mucocytes, circular cells
cross bridges. Actin is not involved in and chloragogen cells.
34. (b) The structure of the abdominal wall 38. (c) In Pheretima two pairs of testes sacs are
is similar in principle to the thoracic situated in the 10th and 11th segments.
wall. There are three layers, an external, Each testes sac of the 10th segment
internal and innermost layer. The vessels encloses a testes and a seminal funnel.
and nerves lie between the internal and
Each testes sac of the 11th segment
innermost layers. The abdomen can be
encloses a testes, a seminal vesicle and a
divided into quadrants or nine abdominal
seminal funnel.
regions. Pain felt in these regions may
be considered to be direct or referred 39. (c) The kind of tissue that forms the
abdominal wall made up of smooth supportive structure in our pinna
muscles. (external ears) is also found in tip of the
35. (b) Ciliated epithelium has simple columnar nose. External pinna is made up of elastic
epithelial cells, but in addition, they cartilage. It is passage towards middle
posses fine hair-like outgrowths, cilia on ear.
their free surfaces. These cilia are capable 40. (d) Squamous epithelium is formed of thin
of rapid, rhythmic, wavelike beatings in
discoidal and polygonal cells that fit like
a certain direction. This movement of
tiles in a floor, so is also called pavement
the cilia in a certain direction causes the
mucus, which is secreted by the goblet epithelium. It is found in the walls of
cells, to move (flow or stream) in that blood vessels, in the alveoli of lung
direction. Ciliated epithelium is usually for exchange of gas, and in Bowman’s
found in the air passages like the nose. It capsule of nephron for ultra filtration.
is also found in the uterus and fallopian 41. (b) The intestine of an earthworm has a
tubes of females. The movement of the peculiar fold of tissue that forms a pocket
cilia propel the ovum to the uterus. in the intestine that is visible when
36. (b) The cell junctions called tight, adhering viewing a cross section. This space, which
and gap junctions are found in epithelial
runs almost the whole length of the body
tissue. Epithelial tissue covers the whole
dorsally is known as the typhlosole and it
surface of the body. It is made up of cells
closely packed and ranged in one or more serves to increase the surface area of the
layers. This tissue is specialised to form intestine for absorption.
the covering or lining of all internal and 42. (b) Ciliated epithelium is usually found in
external body surfaces. Epithelial tissue the respiratory tract, fallopian tubes.
that occurs on surfaces of the interior of 43. (d) Cockroach takes the food after grounding
the body is known as endothelium. by its mandibles and gizzard.
37. (a) If a live earthworm is pricked with 44. (b) The lining of a blood vessel is simple
a needle on its outer surface without
squamous epithelium. Inner most lining
damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out
of blood vessels is called endothelium.
is coelomic fluid because coelomic fluid
“Squamous” refers to the fact that the
lies between body wall and alimentary
canal. Earthworms are helpful to man cells are flat.
as bait for fishing and loosen the soil for 45. (b) The break down of detritus into smaller
roots to grow. A earthworm’s wastes help particles by earthworm is known as
to fertilize the soil. fragmentation.
46. (a) (A) Dry skin cause ceased cutaneous and in the nose tip.
respiration 53. (a) Glandular epithelium is invaginated
(B) Three chambered heart. epithelia into connective tissue which
(C) Frog never becomes uricotelic differentiate into secretory units.
(D) External fertilization occurs in Examples include sebaceous glands of
water the skin and glands in the intestinal lining
47. (a) Clitellum - secretes cocoon during (exocrine glands), and many endocrine
breading season of earthworm. Gizzard glands releasing hormones, such as the
-grinding of food particles. Setae help thyroid follicle.
in locomotion. Typhlosole increases the 54. (b) The development of cockroach is
absorption area in intestine. paurometabolous meaning that their
48. (c) Thigh muscles are skeletal muscles that development is through nymphal stage. The
are striated and voluntary. nymphs look very much like adults. The
49. (b) The erythrocytes or RBCs in frog are large, nymph grows by moulting about 13 times
oval and biconvex nucleated cell with to reach adult form. The last nymphal stage
respiratory red pigment haemoglobin in its has wingpads while adult cockroaches have
cytoplasm. wings.
50. (b) 55. (a) Skeletal muscle tissue is closely attached to
51. (a) Connective tissue is the most diverse of sketetal bones. In a typical muscle such as
the four tissue types with a wide variety the biceps, striated (striped) skeletal muscle
of functions. Connective tissue is made fibres are bundled together in a parallel
up of cells and fibers in a “jelly-like” fashion.
ground substance. 56. (c) In cockroaches, males bear a pair of short,
52. (d) Cartilage is a type of connective tissue thread like anal styles which are absent in
which is present in human external ears females.
HAPTER
C
8 Cell: The Unit of Life

1. According of fluid mosaic model, plasma (c) four chromatids and two centromeres
membrane is composed of [1988] (d) four chromatids and four centromeres
(a) phospholipids and oligosaccharides 8. Magnification of compound microscope is
(b) phospholipids and hemicellulose not connected with [1990]
(c) phospholipids and integral proteins (a) numerical aperture
(d) phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and (b) focal length of objective
intrinsic proteins (c) focal length of eye piece
2. Acetabularia used in Hammerling’s (d) tube length
9. The latest model for plasma membrane is
nucleocytoplasmic experiments is [1988]
(a) unicellular fungus [1990]
(b) multicellular fungus (a) lamellar model
(b) unit membrane model
(c) unicellular uninucleate green algae
(c) fluid mosaic model
(d) unicellular multinucleate green algae
(d) molecular lipid model
3. Organelles can be separated from cell
10. Hammerling’s experiments of Acetabularia
homogenate through [1989]
involved exchanging [1990]
(a) chromatography (a) cytoplasm (b) nucleus
(b) X-rays diffraction (c) rhizoid and stalk (d) gametes
(c) differential centrifugation 11. Electron microscope has a high resolution
(d) auto-radiography power. This is due to [1990, 92]
4. Plasma membrane is made of [1989] (a) electromagnetic lenses
(a) proteins and carbohydrates (b) very low wavelength of electron beam
(b) proteins and lipids (c) low wavelength of light source used
(c) proteins, lipids and carbohydrates (d) high numerical aperture of glass lenses
(d) proteins, some nucleic acid and lipids used
5. Polyribosomes are aggregates of [1989] 12. Resolution power is the ability to [1991]
(a) ribosomes and rRNA (a) distinguish two close points
(b) only rRNA (b) distinguish two close objects
(c) peroxisomes (c) distinguish amongst organelles
(d) several ribosomes held together by string (d) magnify image
of mRNA 13. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was
6. Nucleoproteins are synthesised in [1989] put forward by [1991]
(a) nucleoplasm (a) Danielli and Davson
(b) nuclear envelope (b) Singer and Nicolson
(c) nucleolus (c) Garner and Allard
(d) cytoplasm (d) Watson and Crick
7. A bivalent consists of [1989] 14. Ribosomes were discovered by [1991]
(a) two chromatids and one centromere (a) Golgi (b) Porter
(b) two chromatids and two centromeres (c) De Robertis (d) Palade
15. Cell wall shows [1991] (a) ultra centrifugation
(a) complete permeability (b) electron microscope
(b) semipermeability (c) light microscope
(c) differential permeability (d) X-ray crystallography
(d) impermeability 26. Names of Schleiden and Schwann are
16. Addition of new cell wall particles amongst associated with [1993]
the existing ones is [1991] (a) protoplasm as the physical basis of life
(a) deposition (b) apposition (b) cell theory
(c) intussusception (d) aggregation
(c) theory of cell lineage
17. Angstrom (Å) is equal to [1992]
(d) nucleus functions as control centre of
(a) 0.01 mm (b) 0.001 mm
cell
(c) 0.0001 mm (d) 0.00001 mm
27. Which is correct about cell theory in view of
18. Ribosomes are the centre for [1992]
(a) respiration (b) photosynthesis current status of our knowledge about cell
(c) protein synthesis (d) fat synthesis structure [1993]
19. Oxysomes of F0 – F1 particles occur on (a) It needs modification due to discovery of
[1992] subcellular structures like chloroplasts
(a) thylakoids and mitochondria
(b) mitochondrial surface (b) Modified cell theory means that all living
(c) inner mitochondrial membrane beings are composed of cells capable of
(d) chloroplast surface reproducing
20. All plastids have similar structure because (c) Cell theory does not hold good because
they can [1992] all living beings (e.g., viruses) do not
(a) store starch, lipids and proteins have cellular organisation
(b) get transformed from one type to (d) Cell theory means that all living objects
another consist of cells whether or not capable
(c) perform same function of reproducing
(d) be present together 28. In salivary gland chromosomes/polytene
21. An outer covering membrane is absent over
chromosomes, pairing is [1993]
[1992]
(a) absent
(a) nucleolus (b) lysosome
(b) occasional
(c) mitochondrion (d) plastid
(c) formed between nonhomologous
22. Which one is apparato reticolare? [1992]
(a) Golgi apparatus chromosomes
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) formed between homologous
(c) Microfilaments chromosomes
(d) Microtubules 29. Cell recognition and adhesion occur due to
23. Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling biochemicals of cell membranes named
proved the role of [1992] [1993]
(a) cytoplasm in controlling differentiation (a) proteins
(b) nucleus in heredity (b) lipids
(c) chromosomes in heredity (c) proteins and lipids
(d) nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio (d) glycoproteins and glycolipids
24. Glycogen is a polymer of [1992] 30. Golgi apparatus is absent in [1993]
(a) galactose (b) glucose (a) higher plants
(c) fructose (d) sucrose (b) yeast
25. Binding of specific protein on regulatory (c) bacteria and Blue-green algae
DNA sequence can be studied by means of
(d) none
[1993]
Cell:The Unit of Life 91
31. Membranous bag with hydrolytic enzymes 41. The point, at which polytene chromosomes
which is used for controlling intracellular appears to be attached together, is called
digestion of macro -molecules is [1993, 94] [1995]
(a) endoplasmic reticulum (a) centriole (b) centromere
(b) nucleosome (c) chromomere (d) chromocentre
(c) lysosome 42. The desmosomes are concerned with [1995]
(d) phagosome (a) cytolysis (b) cell division
32. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated (c) cell adherence (d) cellular excretion
with [1993] 43. Lysosomes have a high content of
(a) photorespiration (b) phototropism [1996, 2000]
(c) photoperiodism (d) photosynthesis (a) hydrolytic enzymes
33. Balbiani rings (puffs) are sites of [1993] (b) lipoproteins
(a) DNA replication (c) polyribosomes
(b) RNA and protein synthesis (d) DNA ligases
(c) synthesis of polysaccharides
44. Genes located on mitochondrial DNA
(d) synthesis of lipids
[1997]
34. Inner membrane convolutions of a mito
(a) generally show maternal inheritance
chondrion are known as [1994]
(b) are always inherited from the male
(a) lamellae (b) thylakoids
(b) grana (d) cristae parent
35. Mitochondrial cristae are sites of [1994] (c) show biparental inheritance like the
(a) breakdown of macromolecules nuclear genes
(b) protein synthesis (d) are not inherited
(c) phosphorylation of flavoproteins 45. Some of the enzymes,which are associated
(d) oxidation-reduction reactions in converting fats into carbhoydrates, are
36. Organelle having flattened membrane bound present in [1999]
cisternae and lying near the nucleus is [1994] (a) liposomes (b) golgi bodies
(a) golgi apparatus (b) mitochondrion (c) microsomes (d) glyoxysomes
(c) centriole (d) nucleolus 46. Which of the following organ has single
37. Series of reactions which can convert fatty membrane? [1999]
acids to sugars in plants but not in animals (a) Nucleus (b) Cell Wall
is [1994] (c) Mitochondria (d) Spherosomes
(a) krebs cycle (b) glyoxylate cycle 47. The proteins are synthesised at [1999]
(c) ornithine cycle (d) glycolysis (a) ribosomes (b) mitochondria
38. Auxetic growth is [1994] (c) centrosomes (d) golgi bodies
(a) increase in cell volume only 48. The cell organelle involved in glyco-sylation
(b) increase in cell number only of protein is [2000]
(c) increase in fatty tissue (a) ribosome
(d) increase in intercellular material (b) peroxisome
39. The prokaryotic flagella possess [1995] (c) endoplasmic reticulum
(a) unit membrane enclosed fibre (d) mitochondria
(b) protein membrane enclosed fibre
49. Microtubules absent in [2001]
(c) ‘9 + 2’ membrane enclosed structure
(a) mitochondria (b) centriole
(d) helically arranged protein molecule
(c) flagella (d) spindle fibres
40. The function of rough endoplasmic reticulum
50. Element necessary for middle lamella is
is [1995]
[2001]
(a) fat synthesis (b) lipid synthesis
(c) protein synthesis (d) steroid synthesis (a) Ca (b) Zn
(c) K (d) Cu
51. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane been modified in several respects. In this
[2002] regard, which of the following statements is
(a) upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic incorrect? [2005]
(b) upper layer is polar and hydrophobic (a) Proteins in cell membranes can travel
(c) phospholipids form a bimolecular layer within the lipid bilayer.
in middle part (b) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop
(d) proteins form a middle layer movements in the lipid bilayer.
52. Which of the following occurs more than (c) Proteins can remain confined within
one and less than five in a chromosome? certain domains of the membrane.
[2002] (d) Many proteins remain completely
(a) Chromatid (b) Chromosome embedded within the lipid bilayer.
(c) Centromere (d) Telomere 60. A student wishes to study the cell structure
53. Ribosomes are produced in [2002] under a light microscope having 10X eyepice
(a) nucleolus (b) cytoplasm and 45X objective. He should illuminate
(c) mitochondria (d) golgi body the object by which one of the following
54. Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of which
colours of light so as to get the best possible
protein? [2002]
resolution? [2005]
(a) Actin (b) Myosin
(a) Blue (b) Green
(c) Tubulin (d) Myoglobin
55. In which one of the following is nitrogen not (c) Yellow (d) Red
a constituent ? [2003] 61. Centromere is required for: [2005]
(a) Pepsin (a) movement of chromosomes towards
(b) Idioblast poles
(c) Bacteriochlorophyll (b) cytoplasmic cleavage
(d) Invertase (c) crossing over
56. Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells (d) transcription
differ in [2004] 62. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
(a) type of movement and placement in [2005]
cell (a) only on the ribosomes present in
(b) location in cell and mode of functioning cytosol
(c) microtubular organization and type of (b) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear
movement envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
(d) microtubular organization and function (c) on-ribosomes present in the nucleolus as
57. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the well as in cytoplasm
[2004] (d) on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as
(a) outer membrane (b) inner membrane well as in mitochondria
(c) thylakoids (d) stroma 63. Which of the following statement regarding
58. The main organelle involved in modification
mitochondrial membrane is not correct ?
and routing of newly synthesized proteins to
[2006]
their destinations is [2005]
(a) The enzymes of the electron transfer
(a) chloroplast
(b) mitochondria chain are embedded in the outer
(c) lysosome membrane
(d) endoplasmic Reticulum (b) The inner membrane is highly convoluted
59. According to widely accepted “fluid mosaic forming a series of infoldings
model” cell membranes are semi-fluid, (c) The outer membrane resembles a sieve
where lipids and integral proteins can diffuse (d) The outer membrane is permeable to all
randomly. In recent years, this model has kinds of molecules
64. A major break through in the studies of 68. Polysome is formed by
cells came with the development of electron (a) several ribosomes attached to a single
microscope. This is because [2006] mRNA
(a) the resolving power of the electron (b) many ribosomes attached to a strand of
microscope is 200 – 350 nm as compared endoplasmic reticulum
to 0.1 – 0.2 for the light microscope (c) a ribosome with several subunits
(b) electron beam can pass through thick (d) ribosomes attached to each other in a
materials, whereas light microscopy linear arrangement
requires thin sections 69. Cellulose is the major component of cell
(c) the electron microscope is more powerful walls of [2008]
than the light microscope as it uses a (a) Pythium (b) Xanthomonas
beam of electrons which has wavelength (c) Pseudomonas (d) Saccharomyces
70. The two sub-units of ribosome remain united
much longer than that of photons
a critical ion level of [2008]
(d) the resolution power of the electron
(a) copper (b) manganese
microscope in much higher than that of
(c) magnesium (d) calcium
the light microscope
71. Vacuole in a plant cell [2008]
65. Select the wrong statement from the
(a) is membrane-bound and contains
following [2007] storage proteins and lipids
(a) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria (b) is membrane-bound and contains water
have an internal compartment, the and excretory substances
thylakoid space bounded by the (c) lacks membrane and contains air
thylakoid membrane (d) lacks membrane and contains water and
(b) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria excretory substances
contain DNA 72. Plasmodesmata are: [2009]
(c) The chloroplasts are generally much (a) locomotary structures
large than mitochondria (b) membranes connecting the nucleus with
(d) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria plasmalemma
contain an inner and an outer (c) connections between adjacent cells
membrane. (d) lignified cemented layers between cells
66. Which one of the following is not a 73. Cytoskeleton is made up of: [2009]
constituent of cell membrane? [2007] (a) callose deposits
(a) glycolipids (b) proline (b) cellulosic microfibrils
(c) phospholipids (d) cholesterol. (c) proteinaceous filaments
67. Keeping in view the fluid mosaic model (d) calcium carbonate granules
for the structure of cell membrane, which 74. Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant
one of the following statements is correct contains: [2009]
(a) light-dependent reaction enzymes
with respect to the movement of lipids and
(b) ribosomes
proteins from one lipid monolayer to the
(c) chlorophyll .
other (described as flipflop movement)? (d) light– independent reaction enzymes
(a) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop 75. Middle lamella is composed mainly of:
(b) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, protein [2009]
can not (a) muramic acid
(c) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can (b) calcium pectate
not (c) phosphoglycerides
(d) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop (d) hemicellulose
76. Which one of the following structures 84. The figure below shows the structure of a
between two adjacent cells is an effective mitochondrion with its four parts labelled
transport pathway? [2010] (A), (B), (C) and (D).
(a) Plasmodesmata
(D) (B)
(b) Plastoquinones
(A) (C)
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Plasmalemma
77. Which one of the following has its own
DNA? [2010]
(a) Mitochondria (b) Dictyosome
(c) Lysosome (d) Peroxisome
78. The main arena of various types of activities

of a cell is: [2010]
(a) plasma membrane Select the part correctly matched with its
(b) mitochondrian function. [2011M]
(c) cytoplasm (a) Part (D): Outer membrane – gives rise to
(d) nucleus inner membrane by splitting
(b) Part (B): Inner membrane – forms
79. The plasma membrane consists mainly of:
infoldings called cristae
[2010]
(c) Part (C): Cristae – possess single circular
(a) phospholipids embedded in a protein DNA molecule and ribosomes
bilayer (d) Part (A): Matrix – major site for
(b) proteins embedded in a phospholipid respiratory chain enzymes
bilayer 85. In mitochondria, proteins accumulate in the
(c) proteins embedded in a polymer of [2011M]
glucose molecules (a) outer membrane
(d) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate (b) inner membrane
bilayer (c) intermembrane space
80. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA (d) matrix
strand. What is so special shown in it? 86. Which one of the following is not considered
[2011] as a part of the endomembrane system ?
5’ —— GAATTC —— 3’ [2011M]
3’ —— CTTAAG —— 5’ (a) Golgi complex (b) Peroxisome
(a) Replication completed (c) Vacuole (d) Lysosome
(b) Deletion mutation 87. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in
[2012]
(c) Start codon at the 5’ end
(a) Lysosomes (b) Nucleolus
(d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
(c) Nucleoplasm (d) Ribosomes
81. Important site for formation of glycoproteins
88. Which one of the following does not differ in
and glycolipids is [2011] E.coli and Chlamydomonas [2012]
(a) vacuole (b) golgi apparatus (a) Ribosomes
(c) plastid (d) lysosome (b) Chromosomal Organization
82. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in: (c) Cell wall
[2011] (d) Cellmembrane
(a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria 89. What is true about ribosomes [2012]
(c) chromoplast (d) ribosomes (a) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where
83. What are those structures that appear as “S” stands for sedimentation coefficient
beads - on- string in the chromosomes when (b) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and
viewed under electron microscope ? [2011] proteins
(c) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
(a) Genes (b) Nucleotides (d) These are self-splicing introns of some
(c) Nucleosomes (d) Base pairs RNAs.
90. Nuclear mebrane is absent in [2012] 95. The Golgi complex plays a major role
(a) Penicillium (b) Agaricus [NEET 2013]
(c) Volvox (d) Nostoc (a) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates
(b) as energy transferring organelles
91. Select the correct statement from the following (c) in post translational modification of
regarding cell membrane. [2012] proteins and glycosidation of lipids
(a) Na + and K + ions move across cell (d) in trapping the light and transforming it
membrane by passive transport into chemical energy
96. A major site for synthesis of lipids is :
(b) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell [NEET 2013]
membrane. (a) SER (b) Symplast
(c) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar (c) Nucleoplasm (d) RER
heads towards the inner part. 97. The term ‘glycocalyx’ is used for
[NEET Kar. 2013]
(d) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane
(a) A layer surrounding the cell wall of
was proposed by Singer and Nicolson bacteria
92. Which one of the following structures is an (b) A layer present between cell wall and
organelle within an organelle? [2012M] membrane of bacteria
(c) Cell wall of bacteria
(a) Ribosome (b) Peroxisome
(d) Bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess
(c) ER (d) Mesosome N-glycosylated proteins
93. Which one of the following cellular parts is 98. Which of the following type of plastids does
correctly described? [2012M] not contain stored food material?
[NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Centrioles - Sites for active RNA (a) Amyloplasts (b) Chromoplasts
synthesis. (c) Elaioplasts (d) Aleuroplasts
(b) Lysosomes - Optimally active at a pH of 99. Select the alternative giving correct identification
about 8.5. and function of the organelle ‘A’ in the
(c) Thylakoids - Flattened membranous diagram [NEET Kar. 2013]
sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts.
(d) Ribosomes - Those on chloroplasts are
larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm
are smaller (70s).
94. Which one of the following organelle in the
figure correctly matches with its function ?
[NEET 2013]
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum-synthesis of

lipids
(b) Mitochondria-produce cellular energy in
the form of ATP
(c) G o l g i b o d y - p r ov i d e s p a c k a g i n g
material
(a) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis (d) Lysosomes - secrete hydrolytic enzymes
(b) G o l g i a p p a r a t u s, f o r m a t i o n o f 100. Why is a capsule advantageous to a
glycolipids bacterium? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) It allows the bacterium to attach to the
(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein surface
synthesis (b) I t p r o t e c t s t h e b a c t e r i u m f r o m
(d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation desiccation
of glycoproteins (c) It provides means of locomotion
(d) It allows bacterium to “hide” from host’s
immune system
Solutions
1. (d) According to fluid mosaic model Objective lens × Ocular lens
proposed by Singer and Nicolson (1972, 40 x 10 x
74), plasma membrane is composed Magnification = 400 times.
of phospholipid bilayer and protein. Magnification is defined as the power
Protein molecules occur at places both of enlargement.
inside and outside of lipid bilayer. The Magnification =
internal proteins are called intrinsic
proteins and the external proteins are Size of the image with the instrument
called extrinsic proteins. Size of the image with the unaided eye
2. (c) Acetabularia used in Hammerling’s
nucleocytoplasmic experiments is 9. (c) Fluid mosaic model is the most recent
unicellular uninucleate marine green model of a biomembrane proposed
alga. by Singer and Nicolson (1972, 74).
3. (c) Centrifuge is an instrument used to create According to this model, the membrane
a centrifugal force. The homogenate of does not have a uniform deposition
the cell organelles is allowed to undergo of lipids which are present as highly
centrifugation by which different cell viscous fluid matrix of two layers
organelles get separated. The process is of phospholipid moles and proteins
known as differential centrifugation. arranged in a symetrical pattern.
4. (c) Plasma membrane is made up of 10. (c) J. Hammerling (1934) conducted
proteins, lipids and carbohydrates. experiments using two species of
Carbohydrates are covalently linked to green algae Acetabularia crenulata and
both lipid and protein. A. mediterranea. They differ in the
5. (d) Polyribosomes consists of 4-8 ribosomes shapes of their caps. The nucleus in
which are attached to a single strand both species is situated in rhizoid at the
of mRNA. This mechanism help in bottom of stalk. If after removing cap,
synthesis of several copies of the same stalk of one species is grafted on rhizoid
protein. of the other species, shape of the cap
6. (d) Nucleoproteins are conjugated proteins. will be determined by nucleus, not by
They are deoxyribonucleoproteins the stalk. This experiment makes clear
and ribonucleoproteins synthesised in that the characters of an individual are
cytoplasm of the cell. controlled by nucleus.
7. (c) A pair of homologus chromosomes 11. (b) The resolution is a power of a
lying together in the zygotene stage of microscope to distinguish between
Prophase I of first meiotic division is two particles that are closely situated.
called a bivalent. Electron microscope has high resolution
8. (a) Magnification is defind as the power power due to very low wavelength of
of enlargement. Magnification of electron beam.
compound microscope is the product 12. (b) The ability to distinguish two close
of magnification of objective lens and objects is called resolution power.
magnification of ocular lens. 13. (b) Fluid Mosaic Model of cell membrane
Magnification was put forward by Singer and Nicolson.
Size of the image with the instrument 14. (d) Ribosomes were discovered by
= Robinson and Brown in plant cell and
Size of the image with the unaided eye
palade in animal cell.
15. (a) Cell wall shows complete permeability 24. (b) Glycogen is an animal starch, stored
because it helps in the transport of in the liver and is polysaccharide of
substances in and out of the cell. a-Glucose. About 30,000 glucose
16. (c) Growth of cell wall occurs by two molecules joined by 1-4 a-glycosidic
methods : bonds and its branches by 1-6 glycosidic
(i) Intussusception : When the primary bonds. It gives red colour with iodine
wall is stretched, the materials of solution.
secondary wall are secreted by • Galactose is a monosaccharide
protoplam deposited within it. from milk.
(ii) Apposition : Materials of secondary
• Fructose is a monosaccharide from
wall secreted by protoplam are
fruit.
deposited in the form of thin layer
• Sucrose is a disaccharide (Glucose
one above the other.
17. (c) Angstrom Å = 0.0001 µm + Fructose)
1Å = 10–10 m = 10–8cm = 10–7 mm = 25. (d) X-ray crystallography is a technique to
10–4 mm study the binding of specific protein on
18. (c) Ribosomes are the workhouses of regulatory DNA. X-ray crystallography
protein biosynthesis, the process of or single-crystal X-ray diffraction is
translating messenger RNA (mRNA) into an analytical technique which uses
protein. The mRNA comprises a series the diffraction pattern produced by
of codons that dictate to the ribosome bombarding a single crystal with X-rays
the sequence of the amino acids needed to solve the crystal structure. The
to make the protein. Using the mRNA as diffraction pattern is recorded and then
a template, the ribosome translates each analyzed or “solved” to reveal the nature
codon of the mRNA, pairing it with the of the crystal. This technique is widely
appropriate amino acid. This is done used in chemistry and biochemistry to
using molecules of transfer RNA (tRNA) determine the structures of an immense
containing a complementary anticodon variety of molecules, including inorganic
on one end and the appropriate amino compounds, DNA, and proteins.
acid on the other.Protein synthesis
26. (b) Cell theory was proposed by Schleiden
begins at a start codon near the 5’ end
and Schwann (1839) according to which
of the mRNA.
“All living organisms are composed of
19. (c) The inner membrane of mitochondria
possess small tennis racket like particles cells.” Cell theory is also known as cell
called elementary particle, F0 – F1 principle, cell doctrine etc.
particles or oxysomes. There are 1 × 104 27. (c) The exceptions of cell theory is
– 1 × 105 oxysomes in a mitochondria. viruses which do not possess a cellular
20. (b) All plastids are similar in structure. So machinery. They consists of DNA or
they can easily get transformed from RNA core surrounded by a protein
one type to another. Depending upon sheath and lack cellular organisation.
the colours there are three types of 28. (d) In salivary gland chromosomes /
plastids- leucoplasts, chromoplasts and polytene chromosomes, somatic
chloroplasts. pairing is formed between homologous
21. (a) A covering membrane is absent around chromosomes and repeated replication
nucleolus. Calcium seems to be essential of their chromonemata.
for maintaining its configuration. 29. (d) Cell recognition and adhesion occur
22. (a) due to biochemicals of cell membranes
23. (b) Presence of hereditary information in named glycoproteins and glycolipids.
the nucleus was proved by the work These are formed due to the small
of Hammerling on single celled alga carbohydrate molecules present on
Acetabularia.
lipids and extrinsic protein.
30. (c) Golgi complex is absent in prokaryotic 38. (a) Three types of growth are present in
cell i.e (PPLO, bacteria and blue green multicellular animals :
algae). It is present in all eukaryotic (i) Auxetic growth : Increase in cell
cells except sieve tubes of plants, sperms volume only not in number.
of bryophytes and pteridophytes and (ii) Multiplication growth : Increase in
red blood corpuscles. number not in volume.
31. (c) Lysosomes are membranous bag with (iii) Accretionary growth : Growth is
hydrolytic enzymes which is used for due to mitotic division of some
controlling intracellular digestion of special type of cells occurring in
specific locations of body.
macro-molecules.
39. (d) The prokaryotic flagellum is single
32. (a) In plant peroxisomes are associated
stranded made up of several parallel
with photorespiration. Peroxisomes protein fibrils and helical in shape while
are ubiquitous organelles in eukaryotes in eukaryotes it is made up of axonema
that function to rid the cell of toxic and sheath.
substances. They have a single 40. (c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears
membrane that separates their contents ribosomes on its outer surface.
from the cytosol (the internal fluid of These ribosomes take part in protein
the cell) and that contains membrane synthesis.
proteins critical for various functions, 41. (d) Granules of condensed chromatin
such as importing proteins into the (heterochromatin), are found scattered
organelles and aiding in proliferation. in interphase nuclei. At chromocentre, the
Unlike lysosomes, which are formed polytene chromosomes appear attached.
in the secretory pathway, peroxisomes 42. (c) Desmosomes are cementing substances,
usually self-replicate by enlarging and which adhere to each other and keep
then dividing, although there is some the latter tightly packed and they
indication that new ones may be formed also prevent leakage of fluid from
directly. Peroxisomes were discovered interphase.
by the Belgian cytologist Christian de 43. (a) Lysosomes are single membrane
bound vesicular organelles rich in
Duve in 1965
acid hydrolases. They are involved in
33. (b) In the region of Balbiani ring the DNA
phagocytosis.
strands uncoil, become active and 44. (a) Genes located on the mitochondrial
produce number of copies of messenger DNA are inherited through the
RNA. cytoplasm. The zygote receives
34. (d) The inner membrane of mitochondria cytoplasm from the female gamete
is infolded to form involutions called hence it involves maternal inheritance.
cristae. They are meant for increasing 45. (d) Golgi bodies are cytoplasmic organelle
the active area of the inner membrane. which take part in elaboration and
35. (d) Mitochondrial cristae possess small secretion of complex biochemicals.
particles called elementary particles Microsomes are small single membraned
which contain ATP- ase. Therefore, they cell organelles that absorb oxygen and
are the centes of ATP synthesis during perform direct oxidation of substrates.
oxidative - phosphorylation. Glyoxisomes contain enzymes for
36. (a) Organelle having flattened membrane b-oxidation of fatty acids.
bound cisternae and lying near the 46. (d) Nucleus is enclosed by a double layered
nucleus is Golgi apparatus. envelope. Sphaerosomes are small
37. (b) Several plant structures e.g. pollen, seeds spherical single membrane bound cell
contain fats. The fats are hydrolysed organelles specialized to synthesize
and store fat. Mitochondria is also
and consumed as source of energy.
surrounded by a two layered membrane
This is accomplished through oxidative
- outer membrane and inner membrane.
degradation called glyoxylate cycle.
47. (a) Ribosomes are the sites of protein 53. (a) Golgi bodies take part in elaboration
synthesis mitochondria is the site of ATP and secretion of complex biochemicals.
synthesis . Golgi complex takes part in Mitochondria are the site of ATP
elaboration and secretion of complex synthesis. Ribosomes are produced in
biochemicalls. The distinctly staining nucleolus.
region of cytoplasm surrounding the 54. (c) Mitotic spindles are composed of
pair of centrioles together with the microtubules which are made of tubulin
centrioles is called centrosome . dimers. Actin and myosin are the
48. (c) Glycosylation is the process or result contractile proteins of muscle fibres.
of addition of saccharides to proteins
Myoglobin is oxygen carrying pigment
and lipids. The process is one of four
found in muscle.
principal co-translational and post-
translational modification steps in the 55. (b) Raphides are needle-shaped crystals of
synthesis of membrane and secreted calcium carbonate or calcium oxalate
proteins and the majority of proteins found in specialized plant cells called
synthesized in the rough ER undergo idioblasts. It is believed that the raphides
glycosylation. It is an enzyme-directed are a defense mechanism against plant
site-specific process, as opposed to the predators, as they are likely to tear the
non-enzymatic chemical reaction of soft tissues of the throat or esophagus
glycation. of a plant predator chewing on the
49. (a) Microtubules are formed of dimers of plant’s leaves. They are non-nitrogenous
tubulin. Microtubules are present in substances.
centriole, flagella, spindle fibres but not 56. (c) Prokaryotes have simple flagella without
in Mitochondria. microtubules whereas eukaryotes have
50. (a) Zinc is an activator of enzymes like complex cilia and flagella which consists
carbonic anhydrase. Copper takes part of microtubules arranged in 9+2 fashion
in electron transport as plastocyanin. (an outer ring of nine pairs surrounding
Potassium maintains membrane 1 center pair). Further in prokaryotes
permeability. the arrangement is 9+0.
51. (c) Fluid mosaic model of plasma
57. (c) The thylakoid membranes possess the
membrane proposes that plasma
chlorophylls. The outer membrane is
membrane comprises of a phospholipid
bilayer wherein icebergs of proteins permeable to a number of solutes. Inner
floating in sea of phospholipids. membrane has a number of carrier
52. (a) A chromatid is one of two identical proteins. Stroma forms the matrix
strands of DNA making up a containing the enzyme for Calvin cycle.
chromosome that are joined at their 58. (d) Endoplasmic reticulum transport
centromeres, for the process of nuclear proteins and enzymes to their
division (mitosis or meiosis). The term is destinations i.e. within the cell and
used so long as the centromeres remain outside the cell.
in contact. When they separate (during 59. (b) Flip-Flop movement is due to migration
anaphase of mitosis and anaphase 2 of of lipid molecules from one lipid
meiosis), the strands are called daughter- monolayer to other monolayer of lipid
chromosomes.The tips of the chromatid bilayer.
are called telomeres.They are there to 60. (a) Resolving power or limit of resolution
prevent the ends of the chromosome is the ability of the eye to distinguish
from attaching to other chromosomes. two close objects as separate. Its value
It has been said that after repeated cell is calculated by Abbe’s equation,
replication, the telomeres gets shorter
resulting in cell death. Thus, this mean 0.61l
that the way telomeres work could play a Lm =
NA where l is the wavelength
role in determining the lifespan of a cell.
of light.
NA or numerical apperture is multiple membrane, the movement of lipids and
of refractive index and sine of angle proteins from one lipid monolayer to the
subtended by optical axis and outer ray other, lipid can rarely flip-flop, protein
covered by objective (sina).
can not. The fluid mosaic model is the
61. (a) During anaphase APC (anaphase
promoting complex) develops. It most important and widely accepted
degenerates proteins binding the two latest model for plasma membrane was
chromatids in the region of centromere. given by Singer and Nicolson in 1972.
As a result the centromere of each According the them it is “ protein
chromosome divides. This converts iceberg in a sea of lipids”.
the two chromatids into daughter 68. (a) Polysome (Polyribosome) is a complex
chromosomes.
formed by several ribosomes attached to
62. (d) Protein synthesis in an animal cell
occurs on ribosomes present in a single mRNA molecule in the process
cytoplasm as well as in mitcohondria of translation.
because mitochondria and chloroplast 69. (a) Cellulose is a major component of cell
also have their own DNA, RNA and wall of Pythium. Pythium is a genus of
ribosome so can synthesize half of their parasitic Oomycete. Because this group
required proteins. of organisms were once classified as
63. (a) The enzymes of electron transport
fungi, they are sometimes still treated as
system are present in inner mitochondrial
membrane. such. Pythium, like others in the family
64. (d) A major break through in cell studies Pythiaceae, are usually characterized by
came with the development of EM their production of coenocytic hyphae,
having great resolution power due to hyphae without separations. Oogonia
which we can see the ultrastructures of generally contain a single Oospore.
cell organelles.
Antheridia contain an elongated and
65. (a) Both chloroplasts and mitochoridria
have an internal compartment, the club shaped antheridium.
thylakoid space bounded by double 70. (c) The two subunits of ribosome remain
membrane united at a critical ion level of
magnesium. The presence of magnesium
and its amount plays an important role
in the appearance and structure of the
ribosomes. If magnesium is absent in
medium, the large particles fall apart to
present a group of smaller particles.
71. (b) Vacuole in a plant cell is membrane

bound and contains water and excretory
substance. Vacuole is a space within
the cytoplasm of living cell that is filled
with air, water or other liquid, cell sap
or food particles. In plant cells, there is
usually one large vacuole bounded by
a single layered membrane (tonoplast

66. (b)
67. (b) Keeping in view the ‘Fluid mosaic or vacuole membrane); animal cells
model” for the structure of cell usually have several small vacuoles.
72. (c) Plasmodesmata are connections 79. (b) Plasma membrane comprises mainly
between adjacent cells. Plasmodesmata proteins embedded in a phospholipid
are narrow channels that act as bilayer. Protein molecules occur at
intercellular cytoplasmic bridges to places both inside and outer side of the
facilitate communication and transport lipid bilayer.
of materials between plant cells. 80. (d) The sample of a portion of DNA strand
Plasmodesmata are formed during cell shown in the figure is palindromic
division, when traces of the endoplasmic sequence of base pairs.
reticulum become caught in the new 81. (b) Golgi apparatus is the important site
wall that divides the parent cell. for formation of glycoprotein and
73. (c) The cytoskeleton is made up of glycolipid.
three kinds of protein filaments actin 82. (d) Peptide synthesis takes place in ribosome
filaments (also called microfilaments), inside a cell.
intermediate filaments and microtubules 83. (c) Under electron microscope the
whose major constituents are actin and nucleosomes appear as beads on string
tubulin respectively.
in chromosome, due to a short length of
74. (d) Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant
DNA wrapped around a core of histone
contains light independent reactions
enzymes. Within the stroma are stacks proteins.
of thylakoids, the sub-organelles which 84. (b) The mitochondrial inner membrane
are the site of photosynthesis. forms infoldings known as cristae,
75. (b) Middle lamella is mainly composed of which allow greater surface area for
calcium pectate. Calcium is deposited in protein such as cytochrome to function
plants cell walls during their formation properly and efficiently.
- it is required for the stability and 85. (b) The inner membrane of mitochondria
function of cell membranes and acts as contains more than 151 different
a type of ‘cementing agent’ in the cell polypeptides, and has a very high
walls in the form of calcium pectate’. protein-to- phospholipid ration.
Calcium pectate is like a glue binding 86. (b) Except peroxisome the remaining three
adjacent cells together so if inadequate and ER are the parts of endomembrane
calcium is not transported during cell system.
formation, tissues become less stable 87. (b) Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized
and prone to disintegration. in nucleolus. Nucleolus is also known as
76. (a) Plasmodesmata are the structure ribosomal factory.
between two adjacent cells that permits 88. (d) Cell membrane of E.coli, a bacteria and
the transport and communication
Chlamydomonas a unicellular green alga
between them. They are the fine
does not differ. As in both cell membrane
cytoplasmic strands that connect the
protoplasts of adjacent plant cells by is composed of lipids and proteins.
passing through the cell walls. 89. (b) Ribosomes are amembraneous (ie. without
77. (a) Mitochondria has its own DNA. It is as membrane) cell organelle composed of
structure within cytoplasm of eukaryotic rRNA and protein. These are found in
cells that carries out aerobic respiration. both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In
It is the site of Kreb’s cycle and ETS. prokaryotes, ribosomes are 70S type while
Therefore, it is also called as cell’s in eukaryotes, it is 80S type.
energy production site. 90. (d) Nostoc is prokaryote while rest are
78. (c) The main arena of various types of eukaryotes. Nuclear membrane is absent
activities of a cell is cytoplasm. It forms in prokaryotes.
the living protoplasm of a cell excluding 91. (d) Fluid mosaic membrane model was
the nucleus. It consists of proteins, fats, proposed by Singer and Nicholson
carbohydrates, nucleic acids, vitamins, in 1972. It is most accepted model of
waste metabolites and all organelles. structure of biomembrane.
92. (a) Ribosome are small naked (non of the Golgi apparatus before they are
membrane bound) particles made of released from it trans face.
r-RNA and proteins. Ribosomes are also 96. (a) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the
seen in the organelles like mitochondria major site for synthesis of lipid. In animal
and chloroplasts. They are the cell’s cells lipid like steroidal hormones are
protein factories and are found on synthesised in SER.
RER and scattered in the cytoplasm as 97. (a) Glycocalyx or mucilage is the outermost
polyribosomes. Ribosomes are the sites coating of bacterial cells/cell wall which
at which information carried in the is rich in polysaccharides. A thick and
genetic code is converted into protein tougher mucilage is called capsule which
molecules. gives gummy or sticky trait to cells. It
93. (c) Centrioles serve as basal bodies for cilia protects the cells from dessication, toxins
and flagella. They are concerned with and preventing attachment to foreign
spindle formation during cell division. invaders.
Lysosomes are membrane-bound 98. (b) Chromoplasts are non-photosynthetic
organelles containing many hydrolytic coloured plastides which synthesise
enzymes, which are optimally active and stored carotenoid pigmentes. They,
at an acid pH (near pH 5). Thylakoids therefore, appear orange red and yellow
are membrane-bound organelles found where as amyloplast (store starch),
within chloroplasts. The thylakoid aleuroplast (store proteins) and elaioplast
membrane, forms many flattened, (store oil droplets and fats) are leucoplasts,
fluid-filled tubules that enclose a single colourless plastids.
convoluted compartment. These tubules 99. (b) In fig., (A) shows the cell organelle
tend to stack on top of each other to mitochondria. The mitochondria are
forma structure called a granum. bounded by two membranes, i.e.,
94. (c) rough endoplasmic reticulum is a net- outer membrane and inner membrane.
work or reticulum of tiny tubular struc- Mitochondria are referred as “powerhouse”
tures scattered in the cytoplasm and bear of the cell as they produce 95% of ATP.
ribosomes on their outer surface. These This energy is produced during the break
are involved in protein synthesis and se- down of food molecules which involve
cretion. They are extensive and continu- glycolysis, oxidative decarboxylation and
ous with the outer membrane of the nucle- oxidative phosphorylation (krebs cycle
us. and respiratory chain).
95. (c) Golgi apparatus plays a major role in 100. (d) Capsule is a layer that lies outside the cell
post translational modification of proteins wall of bacteria. The capsule can protect
forming glycoprotein and glycosidation cells from engulfment by eukaryotic cells,
of lipid forming glycolipids. A number such as macrophages. They also exclude
of proteins and lipids synthesised on bacterial viruses and most hydrophobic
endoplasmic reticulum (rough and smooth toxic materials such as detergents.
respectively) are modified in the cisternae
HAPTER
C
9 Biomolecules
1. In double helix of DNA, the two DNA 9. DNA is composed of repeating units of
strands are [1988] (a) Ribonucleosides [1991]
(a) coiled around a common axis (b) Deoxyribonucleosides
(b) coiled around each other (c) Ribonucleotides
(c) coiled differently (d) Deoxyribonucleotides
(e) coiled over protein sheath 10. Enzymes having slightly different molecular
2. RNA does not possess [1988] structure but performing identical activity
(a) Uracil (b) Thymine are [1991]
(c) Adenine (d) Cytosine (a) Holoenzymes (b) Isoenzymes
3. Which is not consistent with double helical (c) Apoenzymes (d) Coenzymes
structure of DNA ? [1990] 11. Adenine is [1992]
(a) A = T, C = G (a) Purine (b) Pyrimidine
(b) Density of DNA decreases on heating (c) Nucleoside (d) Nucleotide
(c) A + T/C + G is not constant 12. Living cell contains 60 – 75% water. Water
(d) Both A and B
present in human body is [1992]
4. A nucleotide is formed of [1991, 05]
(a) 60 – 65% (b) 50 – 55%
(a) Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(c) 75 – 80% (d) 65 – 70%
(b) Purine, sugar and phosphate
13. Amino acids are produced from [1992]
(c) Nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
(a) Proteins (b) Fatty acids
(d) Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(c) Essential oils (d) a-keto acids
5. Mineral associated with cytochrome is
14. Which is distributed more widely in a cell ?
(a) Cu (b) Mg [1991]
(a) DNA (b) RNA [1992]
(c) Fe and Mg (d) Fe and Cu
6. In RNA, thymine is replaced by [1991, 92] (c) Chloroplasts (d) Sphaerosomes
(a) Adenine (b) Guanine 15. Which is wrong about nucleic acids ? [1993]
(c) Cytosine (d) Uracil (a) DNA is single stranded in some viruses
7. The basic unit of nucleic acid is [1991] (b) RNA is double stranded occasionally
(a) Pentose sugar (b) Nucleoid (c) Length of one helix is 45Å in B-DNA
(c) Nucleoside (d) Nucleotide (d) One turn of Z-DNA has 12 bases
8. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 16. An enzyme brings about [1993]
120 cytosine bases. The total number of (a) decrease in reaction time
nucleotides present in the segment is [1991] (b) increase in reaction time
(a) 120 (b) 240 (c) increase in activation energy
(c) 60 (d) 480 (d) reduction in activation energy
17. The four elements making 99% of living 25. Genes are packed into a bacterial chromosome
system are [1994] by [1997]
(a) CHOS (b) CHOP (a) histones (b) basic proteins
(c) CHON (d) CNOP (c) acidic proteins (d) actin
18. Which one contains four pyrimidine 26. Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes
bases ? [1994] place [1997]
(a) GATCAATGC (b) GCUAGACAA (a) only in the cytoplasm
(b) UAGCGGUAA (d) TGCCTAACG (b) in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
19. Two free ribonucleotide units are interlinked (c) in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
with [1995] (d) only on ribosomes attached to the
(a) peptide bond nuclear envelope
(b) covalent bond 27. DNA synthesis can be specifically measured
(c) hydrogen bond by estimating the incorporation of radio
(d) phosphodiester bond labelled [1997]
20. A polysaccharide, which is synthesized and (a) uracil
stored in liver cells, is [1995] (b) adenine
(a) lactose (b) galactose (c) thymidine
(c) arabinose (d) glycogen (d) deoxyribose sugar
21. The pyrenoids are made up of [1995] 28. The RNA that picks up specific amino acids
(a) proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath from the amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to
(b) core of protein surrounded by fatty ribosome during protein synthesis is called
sheath (a) mRNA (b) tRNA [1997]
(c) core of starch surrounded by sheath of (c) rRNA (d) carrier RNA
protein 29. Radioactive thymidine when added to the
(d) core of nucleic acid surrounded by medium surrounding living mammalian cells
gets incorporated into the newly synthesized
protein sheath
DNA. Which of the following types of
22. The nitrogenous organic base purine occuring
chromatin is expected to become radioactive
in RNA is [1996]
if cells are exposed to radioactive thymidine
(a) cytosine (b) thymine
as soon as they enter the S-phase ? [1998]
(c) guanine (d) uracil
(a) Heterochromatin
23. In which one of the following groups, all the
(b) Euchromatin
three are examples of polysaccharides?
(c) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin
(a) Starch, glycogen, cellulose [1996]
(d) Neither heterochromatin nor
(b) Sucrose, maltose, glucose
euchromatin but only the nucleolus
(c) glucose, fructose, lactose
30. The enormous diversity of protein molecules
(d) Galactose, starch, sucrose
is due mainly to the diversity of [1998]
24. Most diverse macromolecules, found in
(a) amino groups on the amino acids
the cell both physically and chemically
(b) R groups on the amino acids
are [1996]
(c) amino acid sequences within the protein
(a) proteins (b) carbohydrates
molecule
(c) nucleic acids (d) lipids.
(d) peptide bonds
Biomolecules 105
31. Cellulose, the most important constitutent of (c) have similar sugars
plant cell wall is made of [1998] (d) have similar pyrimidine bases
(a) unbranched chain of glucose molecules 39. Feedback inhibition of an enzymatic reaction
linked by a-1, 4 glycosidic bond is caused by [2000]
(b) branched chain of glucose molecules (a) End product
linked by b-1, 4 glycosidic bond in (b) Substrate
straight chain and a-1, 6 glycosidic bond (c) Enzyme
at the site of branching (d) Rise in temperature
(c) unbranched chain of glucose molecules 40. Enzymes enhance the rate of reaction by
linked by b-1, 4 glycosidic bond [2000]
(d) branched chain of glucose molecules (a) forming a reactant-product complex
linked by a-1, 6 glycosidic bond at the (b) changing the equilibrium point of the
site of branching. reaction
32. Lactose is composed of [1998] (c) combining with the product as soon as it
(a) Glucose + Glucose is formed
(b) Glucose + Fructose (d) lowering the activation energy of the
(c) Fructose + Galactose reaction
(d) Glucose + Galactose. 41. Which is an essential amino acid? [2000]
33. Minor changes at gene level are described as (a) Serine (b) Aspartic acid
(a) Point mutations [1997] (c) Glycine (d ) Phenylalanine
(b) Chromosomal mutations 42. Due to discovery of which of the following
(c) Reverse mutations in 1980 the evolution was termed as RNA
(d) Forward mutations world? [2001]
34. The secondary structure of that portion of (a) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA synthesise
an integral protein that is buried in the lipid proteins
bilayer of a cell membrane is [1999] (b) In some virus RNA is genetic material
(a) b-strand (b) b-bend (c) RNA have enzymatic property
(c) random coil (d) a-helix (d) RNA is not found in all cells
35. Length of one turn of the helix in a b-form 43. Most abundant organic compound on earth
DNA is approximately [2000, 06] is [2001]
(a) 3.4 nm (b) 2 nm (a) Protein (b) Cellulose
(c) 0.34 nm (d) 20 nm (c) Lipids (d) Steroids
36. Conjugated proteins containing carbohydrates 44. Types of RNA polymerase required in
as prosthetic group are known as [2000] nucleus for RNA synthesis? [2001]
(a) Chromoproteins (b) Glycoproteins (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) Lipoproteins (d) Nucleoproteins (c) 3 (d) 4
37. The transfer RNA molecule in 3D 45. Spoilage of oil can be detected by which fatty
appears [2000] acid? [2001]
(a) L-shaped (b) E-shaped (a) Oleic acid (b) Linolenic acid
(c) Y-shaped (d) S-shaped (c) Linoleic acid (d) Erucic acid
38. One of the similarities between DNA and 46. Lipids are insoluble in water because lipid
RNA is that both [2000] molecules are [2002]
(a) are polymers of nucleotides (a) hydrophilic (b) hydrophobic
(b) are capable of replicating (c) neutral (d) zwitter ions
47. Which of the following is a reducing sugar? chemicals, because all of these [2005]
(a) galactose [2002] (a) help in regulating metabolism
(b) gluconic acid (b) are exclusively synthesized in the body
(c) b -methyl galactoside of a living organism as at present
(d) sucrose (c) are conjugated proteins
48. Collagen is [2002] (d) enhance oxidative metabolism
(a) fibrous protein (b) globular protein 55. Which of the following is the simplest amino
(c) lipid (d) carbohydrate acid? [2005]
49. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by (a) Alanine (b) Asparagine
(c) Glycine (c) Tyrosine
radiation than normal cells because they are
56. Which one of the following hydrolyses
(a) starved of mutation [2004]
internal phosphodiester bonds in a
(b) undergoing rapid division
polynucleotide chain? [2005]
(c) different in structure
(a) Lipase (b) Protease
(d) non-dividing (c) Endonuclease (d) Exonuclease
50. In which one of the following enzymes, 57. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule
is copper necessarily associated as an means that
activator? [2004] (a) the phosphate groups of two DNA
(a) Carbonic anhydrase strands, at their ends. share the same
(b) Tryptophanase position
(c) Lactic dehydrogenase (b) the phosphate groups at the start of two
(d) Tyrosinase DNA strands are in opposite position
51. Which form of RNA has a structure (pole)
resembling clover leaf ? [2004] (c) one strand turns clockwise
(a) rRNA (b) hn RNA (d) one strand turns anti-clockwise
(c) m RNA (d) t RNA 58. Carbohydrates, the most abundant bio-
52. Which of the following statements regarding molecules on earth, are produced by : [2005]
enzyme inhibition is correct? [2005] (a) some bacteria, algae and green plant
(a) Competitive inhibition is seen when a cells
substrate competes with an enzyme for (b) fungi, algae and green plant cells
(c) all bacteria, fungi and algae
binding to an inhibitor protein.
(d) viruses, fungi and bacteria
(b) Competitive inhibition is seen when the
59. An organic substance bound to an enzyme
substrate and the inhibitor compete for
and essential for its activity is called [2006]
the active site on the enzyme.
(a) Holoenzyme (b) Apoenzyme
(c) Non-competitive inhibition of an (c) Isoenzyme (d) Coenzyme
enzyme can be overcome by adding 60. About 98 percent of the mass of every living
large amount of substrate. organism is composed of just six element
(d) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
to the enzyme irreversibly. and [2007]
53. The catalytic efficiency of two different (a) sulphur and magnesium
enzymes can be compared by the [2005] (b) magnesium and sodium
(a) formation of the product (c) calcium and phosphorus
(b) pH optimum value (d) phosphorus and sulphur.
(c) Km value 61. A competitive inhibitor of succinic
(d) molecular size of the enzyme dehydrogenase is [2008]
54. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be (a) Malonate (b) Oxaloacetate
classified into a single category of biological (c) m-ketoglutarate (d) Malate
Biomolecules 107
62. Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption
of substances like: [2010]
(a) amino acids and glucose
y-axis
(b) glucose and fatty acids
(c) fatty acids and glycerol
(d) fructose and some amino acids
63. Which one of the following structural x-axis
formulae of two organic compounds is
correctly identified along with its related x - axis y-axis
function ? [2011] (a) enzymatic activity pH
A O
|| (b) temperature enzyme activity
O CH2 – O – C – R
|| | (c) substrate concentration enzymatic activity
R2 – C – O – CH (d) enzymatic activity temperature
|
CH2 – O – P – O – CH2 – CH2 65. Given below is the diagrammatic representation
| |
OH
of one of the categories of small molecular
N
weight organic compounds in the living tissues.
|
CH3 | CH3
|
CH3 Identify the category shown and the one blank

B
component “X” in it. [2012]
N
N
(a) B : Adenine — a nucleotide that makes Category Component
up nucleic acids (a) Cholesterol Guanin
(b) A: Triglyceride — major source of (b) Amino acid NH2
energy (c) Nucleotide Adenine
(c) B : Uracil — a component of DNA (d) Nucleoside Uracil
(d) A: Lecithin — a component of cell 66. Which one is the most abundant protein in the
membrane animal world [2012]
64. The curve given below shows enzymatic (a) Trypsin (b) Haemoglobin
(c) Collagen (d) Insulin
activity with relation to three conditions (pH,
67. Which one out of A-D given below correctly
temperature and substrate concentration.) respresents the structural formula of the basic
What do the two axes (x and y) represent ? amino acid [2012]
[2011]
(a) C (b) D (c) A (d) B

68. Which one of the following biomolecules is 71. Transition state structure of the substrate
correctly characterized? [2012M] formed during an enzymatic reaction is :
(a) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride [NEET 2013]
found in cell membrane. (a) permanent but unstable
(b) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid (b) transient and unstable
with 18 carbon atoms. (c) permanent and stable
(c) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a (d) transient but stable
glucose phosphate molecule. 72. Macro molecule chitin is : [NEET 2013]
(d) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino (a) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide
group and an acidic group anywhere in (b) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
the molecule. (c) Simple polysaccharide
69. A phosphoglycerate is always made up of : (d) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
[NEET 2013] 73. Which of the following statements about
(a) only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to enzymes is wrong? [NEET Kar. 2013]
a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate (a) Enzymes require optimum pH and
group is also attached temperature for maximum activity
(b) E n z y m e s a r e d e n a t u r e d a t h i g h
(b) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid
temperatures
esterified to a glycerol molecule to which (c) Enzymes are mostly proteins but some
a phosphate group is also attached are lipids also
(c) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid (d) Enzymes are highly specific
esterified to a phosphate group which is 74. The figure shows a hypothetical tetrapeptide
also attached to a glycerol molecule. portion of a protein with parts labelled
(d) only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a A-D. Which one of the following option is
glycerol molecule to which a phosphate correct?
group is also attached [NEET Kar. 2013]
70. The essential chemical components of many
coenzymes are : [NEET 2013]
(a) Nucleic acids (b) Carbohydrates
(c) Vitamins (d) Proteins
(a) A is the sulphur containing amino acid -
methionine
(b) D is the acidic amino acid - glutamic
acid`
(c) C i s a n a r o m a t i c a m i n o a c i d -
tryptophan
(d) A is the C - terminal amino acid and D
is N terminal amino acid
Biomolecules 109
Solutions
1. (a) The two chains comprising the DNA are 7. (d) Nucleic acid (DNA and RNA) comprises
sprially coiled around a common axis of polynucleotides. Each nucleotide
to form a regular, right handed double consist of nitrogenous bases, pentose
helix. sugar and phosphoric acid.
2. (b) In RNA, pyrimidine thymine is replaced 8. (d) According to Chargaff ’s rule, the
by uracil. amount of adenine is always equal to
3. (c) The ratios for the (A+ G)/ (T+C) are thymine and that of guanine equal to
constant at approximately 1.0 for the cytosine. Moreover, A + G = T + C.
different organisms. Each of these 120 + 120 = 120 + 120
240 = 240
organisms contains a double stranded
So there will be 480 nucleotides in all.
genome. The percentage of Guanine
9. (d) DNA is a long, double helix
and Cytosine are almost equal to each
consisting of repeating units of
other, similarly the percentages of
deoxyribonucleotides.
Adenine and Thymine are almost equal 10. (b) There are certain enzymes which have
to each other as well. In other words, the slightly different molecular structure
percentage of purines should be equal to but have similar catalytic function such
the percentage of pyrimidines for double enzymes are known as isoenzymes.
stranded DNA. This means that Holoenzymes is the active compound
(A + G) = (C + T) formed by combination of a coenzyme
The (A+T) / (C + G) ratios are not and an apoenzyme. Apoenzyme is the
constant. The relative numbers of protein component of an enzyme, to
(A + T) base pairs and (G + C) base which the coenzyme attaches to form an
pairs are unique to each organism and active enzyme. Coenzyme are organic
can vary between the different species. non-protein molecules that bind with
4. (c) The nucleic acid (DNA and RNA) the protein molecule (apoenzyme) to
are repeating units of nucleotides form the active enzyme (holoenzyme).
i.e. polynucleotides. Each nucleotide 11. (a) The nitrogenous bases are constituents
comprises of nitrogenous heterocyclic of DNA. The nitrogenous bases may
bases viz. purines or pyrimidines, be pruines or pyrimidines. Purines are
pentose sugar and phosphoric acid. 9 membered, double winged structures
eg. adenine or guanine.
5. (d) Cytochromes are a type of
12. (d) Water is the most abundant compound
chromoproteins. Chromoproteins are
in the most majority of cells. About 65-
conjugated proteins which are composed
70% of human body is water. Major
of a protein molecule joined to non-
portion of water found in human body
protein group (Prosthetic group). occurs in the cells as intracellular water.
6. (d) RNA is a single chain of ribonucleotides. 13. (d) An amino acid molecule consists of a
Each ribonucleotide consists of central a carbon bonded to an amino
nitrogenous bases (adenine, guanine, group (–NH2), a carboxylic group
cytosine and uracil), ribose sugar and (–COOH), a hydrogen atom and a
phosphoric acid. carbon chain or ring on its sides.
14. (b) Bulk of RNA occurs in the cytoplasm 24. (a) Proteins are polymers of amino acids.
and a small amount in the nucleus in There are only 20 amino acids which
eukaryotic cells. In prokaryotic cell can be arranged in different orders in a
RNA is found in the cytoplasm. polypeptide chain to form a wide array
15. (c) Length of one helix is 34Å in B-DNA. of proteins.
16. (d) Enzymes accelerate chemical reaction 25. (b) In bacteria the chromosome or nucleoid
by lowering the activation energy. is a naked double stranded DNA. The
17. (c) Principal or major elements include bacterial DNA is folded with the help
oxygen, carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen. of RNAs forming a super coiled circular
They are so named because they alone complex. The coiling is stabilized with
constitute 99% of living system. the help of non-histonic polyamines
18. (a) The pyrimidine bases include cytosine, and a number of positively changed
ions. Eukaryotic DNA is associated
thymine and uracil.
with histone proteins that are helpful in
19. (d) In a phosphodiester bond, linkage takes
its coiling to form chromatin fibres.
place between the phosphate group of
26. (c) In the cytoplasm protein synthesis is
one nucleotide and the hydroxyl group
restricted to the ribosomes. Mitochondria
of sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) of the
being a semiautonomous organelle, has
adjacent nucleotide.
its own genetic machinery to synthesize
20. (d) Glycogen is a polysaccharide, which is
its proteins.
synthesized and stored in the liver. It is
27. (c) Thymidine is used to assess the rate of
released into the blood by breakdown of
DNA synthesis, since thymine is unique
simple glucose, and energy is released. to DNA.
21. (a) The pyrenoids are small spherical 28. (b) mRNA or messenger RNA brings
protein bodies, surrounded by starch coded information from DNA to form
deposition found singly or in numbers polypeptides. rRNA or ribosomal RNA
embedded in the chloroplast of many occurs inside ribosomes and is involved
algae and bryophytes. in protein synthesis.
22. (c) The nitrogenous bases forming the 29. (b) Heterochromatin is a specialized
nucleoside in RNA are adenine, guanine chromosome material which remains
(purines) and cytosine and uracil tightly coiled and stains darkly in
(pyrimidines). interphase. Euchromatin is that portion
23. (a) Polysaccharides are complex of the chromosome that stains with low
carbohydrates formed by polymerization intensity and uncoils during interphase.
of a large number of units called In the beginning of S-sphase, DNA
monosaccharides, starch is a glucosan replication occurs. DNA replication
polysaccharide and is the major reserve can occur in diffuse/ less tightly coiled
food of animals. Cellulose is the euchromatin.
structural polysaccharide of plant cell 30. (c) There are only 20 amino acids . These
wall. Sucrose is a disaccharide formed can be arranged in different order in
of one unit of D-glucose and one unit the polypeptide chain to form a diverse
of D-fructose. Maltose is a disaccharide array of proteins.
formed of two molecules of glucose held 31. (c) Cellulose is the structural polysaccharide
together, lactose is disaccharide formed of plant cell walls. They are long chain
through condensation of D-glucose and polymers of b-glucose units. The
D-glucose. Glucose and fructose are adjacent b-glucose units are joined by
monosaccharides. linkages.
Biomolecules 111
32. (d) Lactose is a disaccharide that consists 39. (a)
of b-D-galactose and b-D-glucose
molecules bonded through a b1-4 Glucose + ATP
glycosidic linkage. Lactose makes up Hexokinase
around 2-8% of the solids in milk. The (Enzyme)
name comes from the Latin word for Glucose – 6– Phosphate
milk, plus the -ose ending used to name (End Product)
Inhibits +
sugars.
ADP
33. (a) Gene mutation or point mutation is the
change in expression of a gene caused
40. (d) Activation energy is the energy required
by change in number sequence and
to over come energy barrier of the
types of nucleotides. A mutation from
reactants and make them reactive to start
a wild gene type to a new type is called
a chemical reaction. Enzymes lower the
forward mutation. Reversal of mutated
requirement of activation energy.
gene to wild type is reverse mutation.
41. (d) Essential amino acids are those which
Chromosomal mutations are changes in
cannot be synthesized in the body
the morphology of chromosomes.
from precursors. These amino acids
34. (d) Secondary structure is development of
must be present in our diet. They are
new stearic relationships amongst the
Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine, Lysine,
amino acids through formation of intra
Methionine, Phenylalanine, Tryptophan
and inter polypeptide hydrogen bonds.
and Threonine.
35. (a) Length of one turn of DNA helix is
42. (c) Ribozymes catalytically active RNA
34Å.
molecule discovered in 1980’s are self
1Å = 10–1 nm
splicing introns indicating their possible
34 × 1
∴ 34Å = 10−1 × 34 = = 3.4 nm role as intermediates in the evolution
10 of biological systems from abiotic
substances.
36. (b) Besides polypeptides, conjugated
43. (b) Cellulose is the most abundant
proteins posses additional groups,
organic compound, most abundant
metals or ions. Nucleoproteins are
polysaccharide and most abundant
proteins associated with nucleic acids.
bipolymer found on earth.
Lipoproteins are proteins associated
44. (c) Eukaryotes have three types of RNA
with lipids.
polymerases :
Chromoproteins are proteins associated
(i) RNA polymerase I - It is found in
with pigments. Glycoproteins are
nucleus and is responsible for
proteins having at their n- terminal and
r-RNA synthesis.
a simple or complex sugar residue.
(ii) RNA polymerase II - It is found in
37. (a) Kim et al (1973) suggested L shape
nucleoplasm and is responsible for
model of t- RNA by X-Ray diffraction
m-RNA synthesis.
while studying phenyl alanine t - RNA
(iii) RNA polymerase III-It is found in
of yeast.
nucleoplasm and is responsbile for
38. (a) DNA and RNA are both polymers of
nucleotides . DNA has deoxyribose sugar t-RNA and 5-S RNA synthesis.
while RNA has ribose sugar. DNA has 45. (d) Erucic acid is a monounsaturated
thymine while RNA has uracil in place omega-9 fatty acid, denoted 22 : 1 w-9.
of thymine. It is prevalent in rapeseed, wallflower
seed, and mustard seed, making up 40 50. (d) Tyrosinase (polyphenol oxidase,
to 50 percent of their oils. Erucic acid catecholase) is a copper-containing
is also known as cis-13-docosenoic oxidase which is widely distributed in
plants, animals and man. It oxidizes
acid and the trans isomer is known as
tyrosine to the pigment melanin in
brassidic acid. mammals and causes the cut surfaces
46. (b) Water attracting molecules are called of many fruits and vegetables darken
hydrophilic. Water repelling molecules (browning reactions).
are called hydrophobic. Amino acids 51. (d) rRNA occurs inside ribosomes. m
carry simultaneously positive and RNA brings information from DNA to
negative charges. Such substances polypeptides. hnRNA are heterogenous
are called zwitter ions. Lipids are nuclear RNA.
compounds of C, H, O but the ratio of H 52. (b) In competitive inhibition the inhibitor
and O is more than 2 : 1 that is the ratio resembles the substrate in structure and
of oxygen is lesser than carbohydrates. hence compete for the active site of the
enzyme.
Lipids are insoluble in water but soluble
53. (c) Km (Michealis Menten constant). It is
in non-polar solvents such as benzene,
defined as that substrate concentration
chloroform etc.
at which under optimum conditions the
Commonest lipid found in a cell is rate of an enzyme catalysed reaction
phospholipid. It contains a hydrophilic reaches half the maximum rate. Km
(polar) head and a hydrophobic (non- is inversely proportional to affinity of
polar tail). enzyme for its substrate.
47. (a) Reducing sugar is any sugar that has an 54. (a) Help in regulating metabolism.
aldehyde group or is capable of forming 55. (c) The general structure of an amino acid
one in solution through isomerisation. is
+
Reducing monosaccharides include NH3
glucose, fructose, glyceraldehyde and |
H − C − COO −
galactose. Many disaccharides, like |
R
lactose and maltose also have a reducing
form, as one of the two units may have where R is an alkyl or aryl group.
an open- chain form with an aldehyde In Glycine R is also a hydrogen atom.
Therefore glycine is the simplest amino
group.
acid.
However, sucrose and trehalose in which +
+
the anomeric carbons of the two units NH3 NH3
| |
are linked together, are non reducing H − C − COO −
H − C − COO − |
disaccharides since neither of the rings |
CH3
H
is capable of opening. Glycine Alanine
48. (a) Collagen is a major fibrous protein of OH
connective tissue occuring as white O NH2
fibres produced by fibroblast. C
49. (b) Malignant cancer is caused by loss of CH2 CH2
control over cell’s reproduction capacity.
C C
The cells undergo rapid division. H2N COOH H2N COOH
Therefore, they are more easily damaged H H
Tyrosine Asparagine
by radiations than normal cells.
Biomolecules 113
56. (c) Endonucleases hydrolyse internal acid and glucose through Co transport.
phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide 63. (d) Lecithin is a fat like substance called a
chain (i.e. DNA). While exonucleases phospholipid, which is a part of plasma
hydrolyse terminal phosphodiester membrane.
bonds in a polynucleotide chain (i.e.,
64. (b) In the given curve the temperature and
DNA).
enzyme activity relation is shown.
57. (a) Antiparallel strands of DNA have two
strands having phosphate groups at 65. (d) A combination of a nitrogen base with
same positions in space. a pentose sugar is known as nucleoside.
58. (a) Some bacteria (such as The nitrogen base combines with the
Rhodopseudomonas), algae and green sugar molecule at its carbon atom 1′ in a
plants cell produces carbohydrates. glycosidic bond (C – N – C) by one of its
59. (d) Coenzyme is an organic substance nitrogen atoms (usually 1 in pyrimidines
that enhances the action of an enzyme and 9 in purines). Depending upon the
by binding with the protein molecule. type of pentose sugar, nucleosides are
Holoenzyme is a biochemically active differentiated into ribonucleosides and
compound formed by the combination deoxyribonucleosides.
of an enzyme with a coenzyme. 66. (c) Collagen is the most abundant protein
Apoenzyme is the protein of an enzyme of animal world. Rubisco (ribulose
to which the coenzyme attaches to form biphosphte carboxylase - oxygenase) is
an active enzyme Isoenzyme is one of not only the most abundant protein in
the several forms of an enzyme that
plants but also the whole biosphere.
catalyse the same reaction but differ
67. (b) This is structural formula of basic amino
from each other in such properties as
acid lysine.
substrate affinity and maximum rates of
enzyme substrate reaction. 68. (a) Palmitic acid is one of the most common
60. (c) It is calcium and phosphorus. saturated fatty acids found in animals
61. (a) Malonate is a powerful inhibitor of and plants. It has 16 carbons including
cellular respiration, because it binds the carboxyl carbon. Adenylic acid is a
to the active site of the succinate nucleotide consisting of adenine, ribose
dehydrogenase in the citric acid cycle or deoxyribose, and a phosphate group.
but does not react, thereby competes It is a constituent of DNA or RNA. It is
with succinate, since it does not have the also called adenosine monophosphate.
-CH2-CH2- group as in succinate which Amino acids are organic acids (with
is required for dehydrogenation. For carboxylic group COOH) having amino
the oxidative phosphorylation reaction, group (–NH2) generally attached to
malonate is an inhibitor for complex Carbon or carbon next to carboxylic
II which again contain succinate group. The carbon also bears a
dehydrogenase. variable alkyl group (R) or hydrogen or
62. (a) Massive ions like Na+ facilitate the
hydrocarbon. In alanine is represented
absorption of substances like amino
by methyl group.
69. (b) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid 71. (b) Transition state structure formed during
esterified to a glycerol molecule to which an enzymatic reaction is transient and
a phosphate group is also attached forms unstable.
phosphoglycerides. 72. (d) Chitin or fungal cellulose that is nitrogen
Phosphoglycerides are major structural containing polysaccharide and hetero-
components of cell membranes. They polymer of NAG.
are, therefore, also called membrane 73. (c) Almost all enzymes are proteins. There
lipids. Lecithin is one example. are some nucleic acids that behave like
70. (c) The essential chemical components enzymes. There are called ribozyme (also
of many enzymes are vitamins, e.g., called RNA enzyme or catalytic RNA).
coenzyme nicotinamide adenine 74. (b) Glutamic acid and aspartic acid are acidic
dinucleotide (NAD) and NADP contain amino acids with two carboxylic groups
vitamin niacin. and one amino group.

HAPTER
C
10 Cell Cycle and Cell

Division
1. Meiosis I is reductional division. Meiosis II (c) two in mitosis and four in meiosis
is equational division due to [1988] (d) one in mitosis and two in meiosis
(a) pairing of homologous chromosomes 6. Meiosis II performs [1993]
(b) crossing over (a) separation of sex chromosomes
(c) separation of chromatids (b) synthesis of DNA and centromere
(d) disjunction of homologous chromo (c) separation of homologous chromosomes
somes (d) separation of chromatids
2. Segregation of mendelian factor (Aa) occurs 7. Best stage to observe shape, size and number
during [1990] of chromosomes is [1994]
(a) Diplotene (a) interphase (b) metaphase
(b) Anaphase I (c) prophase (d) telophase
(c) Zygotene/Pachytene 8. Meiosis is evolutionary significant because it
(d) Anaphase II result in [1994]
3. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in (a) genetically similar daughters
possessing [1991] (b) four daughter cells
(a) same number of chromosomes and (c) eggs and sperms
same number of chromatids (d) recombinations
(b) half number of chromosomes and half 9. The exchange of genetic material between
number of chromatids chromatids of paired homologous chromo
(c) half number of chromosomes and same somes during first meiotic division is called
number of chromatids [1996]
(d) same number of chromosomes and half (a) transformation (b) chiasmata
number of chromatids (c) crossing over (d) synapsis
4. In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from 10. In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in
parent cell as well as amongst themselves due [1996, 2000]
to [1991] (a) G1 phase
(a) segregation, independent assortment (b) G2 phase
and crossing over (c) mitotic metaphase
(b) segregation and crossing over (d) S phase
(c) independent assortment and crossing 11. Lampbrush chromosomes occur during
over [1996]
(d) segregation and independent assortment (a) prophase of mitosis
5. Number of chromatids at metaphase is (b) diplotene of meiosis
[1992] (c) metaphase of meiosis
(a) two each in mitosis and meiosis (d) interphase
(b) two in mitosis and one in meiosis
12. Colchicine is employed to diploidize a (b) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
haploid cell as it [1996] (c) a short interphase is followed by a long
(a) inhibits mitosis mitotic phase
(b) inhibits formation of mitotic spindle (d) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
(c) allows replication of DNA twice in one 22. If you are provided with root-tips of onion
cell cycle in your class and are asked to count the
(d) inhibits formation of centromere chromosomes, which of the following stages
13. Which one of the following structures will can you most conveniently look into? [2004]
not be common to mitotic cells of higher (a) Metaphase (b) Telophase
plants? [1997] (c) Anaphase (d) Prophase
(a) cell plate (b) centriole 23. Which one of the following precedes re-
(c) centromere (d) spindle fibres formation of the nuclear envelope during M
14. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a phase of the cell cycle [2004]
single cell to make 128 cells? [1997] (a) Decondensation from chromosomes,
(a) 7 (b) 14 and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
(c) 28 (d) 64 (b) Transcription from chromosomes, and
15. During cell division in apical meristem the reassembly of the nuclear lamina
nuclear membrane appears in [1997] (c) Formation of the contractile ring, and
(a) metaphase (b) anaphase formation of the phragmoplast
(c) telophase (d) cytokinesis (d) Formation of the contractile ring, and
16. Microtubule is involved in the [1998] transcription from chromosomes
(a) cell division 24. At what stage of the cell cycle are histone
(b) muscle contraction proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell?
(c) membrane architecture
[2005]
(d) dNA recognition
(a) During G-2 stage of prophase
17. A bacterium divides every 35 minutes.
(b) During S-phase
If a culture containing 105 cells per ml is
(c) During entire prophase
grown for 175 minutes, what will be the cell
(d) During telophase
concentration per ml after 175 minutes?
25. Given below is a schematic break-up of the
[1998] phases / stages of cell cycle:
(a) 5 × 105cells (b) 35 × 105cells
(c) 32 × 105cells (d) 175 × 105cells A
18. During cell division, the spindle fibres attach B C
to the chromosome at a region called [2000]
(a) chromocentre (b) kinetochore
(c) centriole (d) chromomere Mitosis
19. Best material for the study of mitosis in
laboratory is [2002] Interphase
(a) anther (b) root tip
(c) leaf tip (d) ovary
D
20. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine
then it becomes [2002] Which one of the following is the correct
(a) triploid (b) tetraploid indication of the stage/phase in the cell
(c) diploid (d) monoploid cycle? [2009]
21. In the somatic cell cycle [2004] (a). C - Karyokinesis
(a) In G1 phase DNA content is double the (b) D - Synthetic phase
amount of DNA present in the original (c) A - Cytokinesis
cell (d) B - Metaphase
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 117
26. Synapsis occurs between: [2009] 32. Given below is the representation of a certain
(a) mRNA and ribosomes event at a particular stage of a type of cell
(b) spindle fibres and centromere division. Which is this stage? [2012]
(c) two homologous chromosomes
(d) a male and a female gamete
27. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to
disappear at: [2010]
(a) late prophase (b) early metaphase
(c) late metaphase (d) early prophase
28. Which stages of cell division do the following
figures A and B represent respectively? (a) Prophase I during meiosis
[2010] (b) Prophase II during meiosis
(c) Prophase of Mitosis
(d) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis
33. Identify the meiotic stage in which the
homologous chromosomes separate while
the sister chromatids remain associated at
their centromeres? [2012M]
(a) Metaphase I (b) Metaphase II
(c) Anaphase I (d) Anaphase II
Fig. A Fig. B 34. A stage in cell division is shown in the
(a) Metaphase - Telophase figure. Select the answer which gives
(b) Telophase - Metaphase correct identification of the stage with its
(c) Late Anaphase - Prophase characteristics.
(d) Prophase - Anaphase [NEET 2013]
29. Select the correct option with respect to
mitosis. [2011]
(a) Chromatids separate but remain in the
centre of the cell in anaphase.
(b) Chromatids start moving towards
opposite poles in telophase.
(c) Golgi complex and endoplasmic
reticulum are still visible at the end of
prophase.
(d) Chromosomes move to the spindle (a) Late anaphase Chromosomes
equator and get aligned along equatorial move away from
equatorial plate,
plate in metaphase Golgi complex
30. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to not present
the spindle fibres by their: [2011M] (b) Cytokinesis Cell plate formed,
(a) satellites mitochondria
distributed between
(b) secondary constrictions two daughter cells
(c) kinetochores (c) Telophase Endoplasmic
(d) centromere reticulum and
31. During gamete formation, the enzyme nucleolus not
reformed yet
recombinase participates during [2012] (d) Telophase Nuclear envelop
(a) Metaphase - I (b) Anaphase - II reforms, golgi
(c) Prophase - I (d) Prophase - II complex reforms
35. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed diagram. Which stage is it and what are its
homologous chromosomes is called characteristics?
[NEET 2013] [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Kinetochore
(b) Bivalent
(c) Axoneme
(d) Equatorial plate
36. During the metaphase stage of mitosis spindle
fibres attach to chromosomes at
[NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Centromere
(a) Late prophase – chromosomes move to
(b) Kinetochore
spindle equator
(c) Both centromere and kinetochore (b) Metaphase – spindle fibres attached
(d) Centromere, kinetochore and areas to kinetochores, centromeres split and
adjoining centromere chromatids separate
37. During meiosis I, the chromosomes start (c) Metaphase – chromosomes moved to
pairing at [NEET Kar. 2013] spindle equator chromosomes made up
(a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene of two sister chromatids
(c) Pachytene (d) Diplotene (d) Anaphase – centromeres split and
38. A stage of mitosis is shown in the chromatids separate and start moving
away
Solutions
1. (c) Meiosis II is an equational division 7. (b) During metaphase, the centomeres of
which is meant for maintaining the the chromosome lie on the equatorial
haploid number, separating the two plate according to their size and spatial
chromatids of a chromosome. arrangement. So it is the best time
2. (b) The paired homologous chromosomes to count the number and study the
separate in Anaphase I of meiosis morphology of chromosomes.
I so that each gamete receives one 8. (d) Meiosis provides a chance for new
chromosome of each homologous pair. combinations of chromosomes mainly
3. (d) In mitotic anaphase, the sister by the phenomenon of crossing over
chromatids separate from each other and random distribution of homologous
and begin to move towards the opposite chromosomes between daughter cells.
poles.
9. (c) The points of attachment between
4. (a) Due to segregation, independent
homologous chromosomes after their
assortment and crossing over at the
time of meiosis, daughter cells exhibit separation in diplotene are called
variation. chiasmata. The process of pairing of
5. (a) In both mitotic and meiotic metaphase, homologous chromosomes is called
the number of chromatids per synapsis the phenomenon by which
chromosome is two. DNA isolated from one type of cell,
6. (d) Meiosis II is homotypic division when introduced into another type, is
specially for maintanence of the haploid able to bestow some of the properties
number, separating the chromatids from of the former to the latter is known as
each other in a chromosome. transformation.
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 119
10. (d) G1 phase, also called Gap I phase is diploid cell is treated with colchicine,
characterized by increase in cell size. there is doubling of chromosomes and
In the S phase or synthetic phase DNA it becomes tetraploid,. Its an alkaloid
molecules replicate. G2 is the second obtained from Colchicum autumnale.
growth phase. Gap II where in there 21. (b) DNA replication is restricted to S- phase
is intensive formation of RNAs and of interphase. G2 phase is followed by
proteins. In the mitotic metaphase, the mitotic phase which is shorter than
the chromosomes are arranged at the the inter phase. In G2 phase DNA
equatorial plate. content is double than the amount
11. (b) Lampbrush chromosomes are highly present in the original cell.
elongated bivalent chromosomes of 22. (a) Chromosomes are most distinct in the
diplotene stage, which are held together
metaphase stage. In the telophase stage
by chiasmata and have a large number
they regain their coiled composition.
of lateral loops for rapid transcription.
In anaphase the chromatids separate
12. (b) Colchicine is a mitotic poison which
and move towards opposite poles. In
inhibits the appearance of spindle
prophase stage the chromosomes appear
fibres.
thread like and individual chromatids
13. (b) Plants cells do not have centrioles.
cannot be seen.
Cell plate appears during cytokinesis
in dividing cells. Centromere holds the 23. (b) At the beginning of M phase or
sister chromatids in a chromosome. mitotic phase the nuclear membrane
Spindle fibres appear during metaphase. and nucleolus disappear. The
14. (a) In mitosis a single cell divides to form decondensation of chromosomes
two daughter cells. occur. But when nuclear envelop restart
15. (c) Metaphase in characterized by the forming then nuclear lamina assemble
appearance of spindle fibres. Anaphase and chromosomes start condensing.
involves movement of chromatids 24. (b) Histone proteins are synthesized
towards the poles. Cytokinesis marks the during S-phase of cell cycle. S-phase or
division of the cytoplasm of the parent Synthetic phase.
cell into daughter cells. 25. (b) In schematic break-up of the phases/
16. (a) The spindle fibres involved in cell stages of cell cycle, D synthetic phase is
division is made of microtubules the correct indication of the stage/phase
17. (c) 175 in the cell cycle.
min = 5 divisions
35
26. (c) Synapsis (also called syndesis) is the
Number of cells formed pairing of two homologous chromosomes
5 5
= (2) × 10 = 32 × 10 5 that occurs during prophase I (zygotene
18. (b) Kinetochore is the proteinaceous stage) of meiosis. The two chromosome
covering of centriole, to which spindle move together and pairing of corresponding
fibers attach. points along their lengths as they lie side
19. (b) Anther cells are used to study mitosis. to side. The resulting structure is called a
20. (b) Colchicine inhibits spindle formation, bivalent.
due to which chromatids are unable to 27. (d) During mitosis, endoplasmic reticulum
separate during anaphase which results and nucleus begins to disappear at early
in doubling of chromosomes. So, if a prophase. Also, nucleus and cell become
spherical and DNA molecules condense in a mass in the two poles. Nuclear
to form shortened chromosome. envelope assemble around chromatin
28. (c) The figure represents late anaphase mass. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER
while figure B represent prophase stage reform.
of mitosis. 35. (b) During zygotene, second stage of meiosis
29. (d) In mitosis chromosomes move to the I, homologous chromosomes start pairing
equator and get aligned along equatorial together forming a complex structure
plate in metaphase. called synaptonemal complex. The
30. (c) Kinetochores are large protein complex formed by a pair of synapsed
complexes that bind the centromeres homologous chromosome is called a
of chromosomes to the microtubules of bivalent or a tetrad. Crossing over occurs
mitotic spindle fibres during metaphase
between non sister chromatids of bivalent
in the cell cycle.
in the next stage.
31. (c) Recombinase enzyme catalyzes the
36. (b) Kinetochores are small disc-shaped
exchange of short pieces of DNA between
structures at the surface of the centromeres
two long DNA strands particularly
which serve as the sites of attachment of
the exchange of homologous regions
spindle fibres to the chromosomes that
between the paired maternal and paternal
are moved into position at the centre
chromosome in prophase - I.
32. (a) Diagram represents crossing over of the cell. Hence, the metaphase is
that takes place in pachytene stage of characterised by all the chromosomes
prophase - I during meiosis. coming to lie at the equator.
33. (c) Anaphase I begins when the two 37. (b) During zygotene, a substage of Prophase
chromosomes of each bivalent (tetrad) I of meiosis I, chromosomes start pairing
separate and start moving toward together called synapsis. Such paired
opposite poles of the cell as a result of chromosomes are called as homologous
the action of the spindle. In anaphase chromosomes. A complex structure i.e.,
I the sister chromatids remain attached synaptonemal complex is formed by a pair
at their centromeres and move together of synapsed homologous chromosomes
toward the poles. called a bivalent or a tetrad.
34. (d) Telophase is the stage of reconstitution 38. (c) Metaphase chromosome is made
of nuclei. The chromosomes that have up of two sister chromatides which
reached their respective poles decondense are held together by the centromere.
and lose their individuality and collect Chromosomes are moved to spindle
equator and gets aligned along metaphase
plate through spindle fibres to both
poles.
HAPTER
C
11 Transport in Plants
1. Water potential is equal to [1988] (a) gravitational water

(a) ys + O.P. (b) ys = T.P. (b) capillary water
(c) yp + yw (d) ys + yp (c) hygroscopic water
2. Transpiration is least in [1988] (d) combined water
(a) good soil moisture 8. The most widely accepted theory for ascent
(b) high wind velocity
of sap in trees is [1991]
(c) dry environment
(a) capillarity
(d) high atmospheric humidity
(b) role of atmospheric pressure
3. Phenyl mercuric acetate (PMA) results in
[1988] (c) pulsating action of living cell
(a) reduced photosynthesis (d) transpiration pull and cohesion Theory
(b) reduced transpiration of Dixon and Jolly
(c) reduced respiration 9. Water movement between cells is due to
(d) killing of plants [1992]
4. Stomata open and close due to [1988, 2002] (a) T.P.
(a) circadian rhythm (b) W.P.
(b) genetic clock (c) D.P.D
(c) pressure of gases inside the leaves (d) Incipient plasmolysis
(d) turgor pressure of guard cells
10. Which of the following is used to determine
5. A bottle filled with previously moistened
the rate of transpiration in plants? [1992]
Mustard seeds and water was screw capped
(a) Porometer/hygrometer
tightly and kept in a corner. It blew up
suddenly after about half an hour. The (b) Potometers
phenomenon involved is [1990] (c) Auxanometer
(a) diffusion (b) imbibition (d) Tensiometer / Barometer
(c) osmosis (d) d.P.D 11. Guttation is mainly due to [1992]
6. The principal pathway of water translocation (a) root pressure (b) osmosis
in angiosperms is [1990] (c) transpiration (d) imbibition
(a) sieve cells 12. In terrestrial habitats, temperature and
(b) sieve tube elements rainfall conditions are influenced by [1992]
(c) xylem vessel system (a) water transformations
(d) xylem and phloem
(b) transpiration
7. In soil, the water available for root absorption
(c) thermoperiodism
is [1991, 99]
(d) translocation
13. Conversion of starch to organic acids is 20. The closure of lid of pitcher in a pitcher
required for [1992] plant, is due to [1995]
(a) stomatal opening (a) turgor movement
(b) stomatal closing (b) tropic movement
(c) stomatal formation (c) paratonic movement
(d) stomatal activity (d) autonomous movement
14. At constant temperature, the rate of 21. The movement of mineral ions into plant
transpiration will be higher at [1992] root cells as a result of diffusion is called
(a) Sea level (a) osmosis [1996]
(b) 1 km below sea level (b) active absorption
(c) 1 km above sea level (c) passive absorption
(d) 1.5 km above sea level (d) endocytosis
15. In guard cells when sugar is converted into 22. With increase in the turgidity of a cell
starch, the stomatal pore [1992] surrounded by water the wall pressure will
(a) closes completely [1997]
(b) opens partially (a) increase
(c) opens fully (b) decrease
(d) remains unchanged (c) fluctuate
16. Amino acids are mostly synthesised from (d) remain unchanged
[1992] 23. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes
(a) mineral salts place in [1997]
(b) fatty acids (a) xylem (b) phloem
(c) volatile acids (c) parenchyma (d) cambium
(d) a-ketoglutaric acid 24. The core metal of chlorophyll is [1997]
17. Which is produced during water stress that (a) iron (b) magnesium
brings stomatal closure [1993] (c) nickel (d) copper
(a) ethylene (b) abscisic acid 25. Plants die from prolonged water-logging
(c) ferulic acid (d) coumarin because [1997]
18. An adaptation for better gaseous exchange in (a) soil nutrients become very dilute
plant leaves is [1993] (b) root respiration stops
(a) hair on lower surface (c) cell sap in the plants becomes too dilute
(b) multiple epidermis (d) nutrients leach down due to excess
(c) waxy cuticle water
(d) stomata on lower surface away from 26. Water potential in the leaf tissue is positive
direct sun rays. (+) during [1997]
19. Active and passive transports across cell (a) excessive transpiration
membrane differ in [1993] (b) low transpiration
(a) passive transport is nonselective (c) excessive absorption
(b) passive transport is along the (d) guttation
concentration gradient while active 27. Suppose an aquatic plant is placed in a test
transport is due to metabolic energy tube containing distilled water and the tube
(c) active transport is more rapid is stoppered. The tube is left outdoors for 24
(d) passive transport is confined to anions hours and the pH value of the water is then
while active transport in confined to measured at regular intervals. Which of the
cations following is the most probable result?
[1997]
Transport in Plants 123
(a) The pH value is lowest just before 35. Dough kept overnight in warm weather
sunrise becomes soft and spongy because of [2004]
(b) The pH value is highest just before (a) absorption of carbon dioxide from
sunrise atmosphehre
(c) The pH value is lowest at noon (b) fermentation
(d) The pH value is lowest just before (c) cohesion
sunset. (d) osmosis
28. The water potential and osmotic potential of 36. The ability of the Venus fly trap to capture
pure water are [1998] insects is due to: [2005]
(a) specialised “muscle-like” cells
(a) zero and zero (b) 100 and 100
(b) chemical stimulation by the prey
(c) zero and 100 (d) 100 and zero
(c) a passive process requiring no special
29. If a cell A with DPD 4 bars is connected to
ability on the part of the plant
cell B, C, D whose OP and TP are respectively
(d) rapid turgor pressure changes
4 and 4, 10 and 5 and 7 and 3 bars, the flow
37. Potometer works on the principle of [2005]
of water will be [1998] (a) osmotic pressure
(a) A and D to B and C (b) amount of water absorbed equals the
(b) A to B,C and D amount transpired
(c) B to A, C and D (c) root pressure
(d) C to A, B and D (d) potential difference between the tip of
30. Water potential of actively absorbing cells is the tube and that of the plant
[1999] 38. Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum
(a) always + ve (b) always – ve growth and productivity in [2006]
(c) always 0 (d) always > 1 (a) cereals (b) fibre crops
31. Movement of ions or molecules in a direction (c) oilseed crops (d) pulse crops
opposite to that of prevailing electrochemical 39. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve
gradient is known as [2000] tube members is supported by [2006]
(a) diffusion (a) P-proteins
(b) active transport (b) mess flow involving a carrier and ATP
(c) pinocytosis (c) cytoplasmic streaming
(d) brownian movement (d) root pressure and transpiration pull
40. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has
32. Which of the following plant is found to have
osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7
minimum transpiration [2001]
atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell
(a) Nerium (b) Hydrilla
B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure
(c) Mango (d) Guava
3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm.
33. When water moves through a semi permeable
The result will [2007]
membrane then which of the following (a) no movement of water
pressure develops? [2001] (b) equilibrium between the two
(a) O. P. (b) S. P (c) movement of water from cell A to B.
(c) T. P. (d) W. P (d) movement of water from cell B to A.
34. Stomata of a plant open due to [2003] 41. Which one of the following statements is
(a) influx of calcium ions correct? [2007]
(b) influx of potassium ions (a) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix
(c) efflux of potassium ions atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of
(d) influx of hydrogen ions plants.
(b) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and 45. Guttation is the result of : [2011M]
Nostoc are important mobilizers of (a) diffusion (b) transpiration
phosphates and for plant nutrition in (c) osmosis (d) root pressure
soil 46. Which of the following criteria does not
(c) At present it is not possible to grow pertain to facilitated transport?
maize without chemical fertilizers [NEET 2013]
(d) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers (a) High selectivity
may lead to eutrophication of nearby (b) Transport saturation
water bodies. (c) Uphill transport
42. The rupture and fractionation do not usually (d) Requirement of special membrane
occur in the water column in vessel/tracheids proteins
during the ascent of sap because of [2008]
47. Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are
(a) lignified thick walls
shown in the diagram. Select the option
(b) cohesion and adhesion
which gives correct identification along with
(c) weak gravitational pull
its functions/characteristics : [NEET 2013]
(d) transpiration pull
43. Carbohydrates are commonly found as
starch in plant storage organs. Which of the C
following five properties of starch (a-e) make
Lens
it useful as a storage material? [2008]
B
(A) Easily translocated Iris
(B) Chemically non-reactive A
(C) Easily digested by animals
(D) Osmotically inactive D
(E) Synthesized during photosynthesis (a) B-Blind spot-has only a few rods and
The useful properties are cones
(a) (B) and (C) (b) (B) and (D) (b) C-Aqueous chamber-reflects the light
(c) (A), (C) and (E) (d) (A) and (E) which does not pass through the lens.
44. Guard cells help in: [2009] (c) D-Choroid-is anterior part forms ciliary
(a) transpiration body
(b) guttation (d) A-Retina-contains photoreceptors-rods
(c) fighting against infection and cones.
(d) protection against grazing
Solutions
1. (d) Water potential is defined as the and stomata get closed under conditions
difference between chemical potential of of decreased turgor pressure of guard
water at any point in a system and that cells. When turgid, they swell and
of pure water under standard conditions. bend outward. As a result, the stomatal
The unit of measurement of water aperture opens. When they are flaccid,
potential is pascal, Pa (1 mega pascal, the tension from the wall is released and
Mpa = 10 bars). It is represented by stomatal aperture closes.
greek letter PSi (Y). Water potential has 5. (b) Imbibition pressures developed during
two components solute potential which germination of seeds and spores are of
is always negative and pressure potential higher magnitude.
which is usually positive. Therefore 6. (c) Water movement occurs through the
water potential Yw is expressed as: trachaery elements of xylem.
Yw = Ys + Yp 7. (b) After rain a portion of water percolates
2. (d) Transpiration is a process of loss of downwardly under the influence of
water in the form of vapours from the gravity. It is not available to plants.
aerial parts of the plants. Transpiration is Hygroscopic water is also not available
inversely proportional to the atmospheric for plants because soil particles hold
humidity. The rate of transpiration water by strong attractive forces.
would be higher when humidity is low. Chemically bound water is combined
3. (b) Phenyl Mercuric Acetate (PMA) is an with chemicals. Capillary water is
antitranspirant. Antitranspirants are present in narrow spaces of soil and is
compounds applied to the leaves of held in soil by capillary forces and is
plants to reduce transpiration without absorbed by root.
affecting gaseous exchange. They are 8. (d) Transpiration pull and cohesion theory
used on Christmas trees, cut flowers, was put forward by Dixon and Jolly in
newly transplanted shrubs, and in other 1894. According to this theory water
applications to preserve and protect rises due to the transpiration pull,
plants from drying out too quickly. continuity of water column and the
They have ‘also been reportedly used to cohesive power of water molecules from
protect leaves from salt burn and fungal the lower part of the roots to the higher
diseases. peaks of the trees.
Anti Transpirants are of two types: 9. (c) Water is absorbed by a system having
1. Metabolic inhibitors higher DPD from another system with
2. Film forming antitranspirants lower DPD. The net force with which
4. (d) Turgor pressure is the pressure that water is drawn into a cell is equal to
develops in a cell due to osmotic diffusion the difference of osmotic pressure (OP)
of water inside it and is responsible and turgor pressure known as diffusion
for pushing the membrane against cell pressure deficit (DPD).
wall. Stomata open under conditions of DPD = OP – TP
increased turgor pressure of guard cell
10. (b) Potometer is an apparatus used for 19. (b) Active transport always involves the
measuring the rate of transpiration. expenditure of energy for the movements
11. (a) Loss of water from margins of leaves of substances against concentration
is called guttation. Guttation occurs gradient.
when transpiration rate is very low as 20. (c) Pitcher plant is an insectivorous plant
compared to rate of water absorption. which catches insects. The paratonic
Due to which root pressure is developed movements are induced in response to
and water is pushed out through stomata an external stimulus caused by insects
like pores called hydathodes. It occur in due to which lids close and the insects
more saturated atomosphere.
are trapped inside the pitcher.
12. (b) Transpiration is responsible for
21. (c) Osmosis is the movement of solvent
saturation of the atmosphere.
particles from a region of low solute
13. (a) Starch is converted to malic acid (organic
concentration to a region of high solute
acid) through the action of an enzyme
concentration through a selectively
phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
(PEPC) under condition of high pH permeable membrane. Active absorption
when most of the CO2 is utilized due involves use of ATP.
to high photosynthetic rate during 22. (a) Wall pressure is equal and opposite to
daytime. the turgor pressure.
14. (d) The rate of transpiration is inversely 23. (b) Minerals can move upward and
proportional to the atmospheric downward (bidirectional movement)
pressure. Increased height above the sea as well as laterally in phloem. Phloem
level lower the atmospheric pressure and plays an important role in translocation
increases the rate of evaporation. of minerals.
15. (a) When sugar is converted into starch, the 24. (b) A non ionic Mg atom is held in the
osmotic concentration of guard cells fall centre of porphyrin (of chlorophyll)
and they lose water to adjacent cells and held by N atom of pyrrole ring.
stomata closes. 25. (b) Under water logged conditions roots die
16. (d) a-ketoglutaric acid are the precursors of due to lack of air for respiration.
amino acid. 26. (d) Pure water has maximum water
17. (b) During scarcity of water in the soil, stress potential (O). Water potential in the leaf
hormone abscisic acid is produced which
tissue becomes greater than pure water
brings about stomatal closure. ABA
under conditions of excessive humidity
inhibits the uptake of K+ by the guard
when the leaves cannot lose water by
cells and promotes leakage of malic
transpiration. Hence water is lost as
acid from guard cell. This result in loss
droplets via hydathodes by the process
of water from guard cell due to its lower
osmotic potential. Guard cell become of guttation.
flaccid leading to closure of stomatal 27. (a) After sunrise, photosynthesis is carried
aperture. ABA also causes stomatal out using CO2. Hence concentration of
closure under high concentration of CO2 decreases hence increasing pH.
CO2 in the guard cells. 28. (a) Osmotic potential is the potential of a
18. (d) Stomata present on lower surface of solution to cause water movement into
plant leaves effectively exchange gases it across a semipermeable membrane.
without allowing much loss of water Water potential is the tendency of water
from the leaves. to leave a system.
29. (c) D.P.D. or suction pressure (S.P.) a region of high solute concentration
= O.P. – T. P. through a semipermeable membrane.
Hence D.P.D. for A = 4 bars, B = 0 bars, 36. (d) Bending of tentacles in Venus fly trap or
C = 5 bars, D = 4 bars Drosera after coming in contact with an
We know that direction of movement insect is thigmonastic or chemonastic
of water is from lower D.P.D. (S.P.) to movement of variation or Turgor
higher D.P.D. (S.P.). movements.
\ flow will be from B to A, C, and D. The mechanism by which the trap snaps
30. (b) Water potential is regarded as the shut involves a complex interaction
tendency of water to leave a system. between elasticity, turgor and growth. In
Pure water has the highest possible water the open, untripped state, the lobes are
potential which is zero. All solutions convex , but in the closed state, the lobes
have a water potential lower than that are concave It is the rapid flipping of
of water. this bistable state that closes the trap, but
31. (b) Movement of ions against concentration the mechanism by which this occurs is
gradient involves the expenditure of still poorly understood. When the trigger
energy. Diffusion involves the movement hairs are stimulated, an action potential
of solute particles from region of involving calcium ions is generated,
higher concentration to a region of which propagates across the lobes and
lower concentration. Pinocytosis is cell stimulates cells in the lobes and in the
drinking. Brownian movement is the midrib between them.
random to and fro movement of atoms 37. (b) Potometer : It is an apparatus for
and molecules. measuring the rate of transpiration.
32. (a) Nerium is a xerophytic plant and have 38. (d) Sulphur is an important nutrient of pulse
sunken stomata to reduce the rate crops. Pulses contain protein. Sulphur is
of transpiration, confined to lower an integral part of proteins.
epidermis. 39. (a) P-protein is the supporting factor for the
33. (a) The hydrostatic pressure developed translocation of organic solutes in sieve
inside the cell wall due to endosmosis tubes.
is called turgor pressure. Due to turgor 40. (c) Movement of water will be from low
pressure, the rigid cell wall offers DPD to high DPD i.e from A to B
resistance. This resistance which works 41. (d) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers
in a direction opposite to turgor pressure may lead to eutrophiction of nearby
is the wall pressure. water bodies.
34. (b) During day time, due to photosynthesis, 42. (b) The rupture and fractionation do not
malic acid forms which breaks to H+ usually occur in the water column in
and malate. H+ move out of guard cells vessel/ tracheids during the ascent of
and K+ enter forming potassium malate sap because of cohesion and tension.
which makes guard cells turgid and The water molecules have a great
stomata opens. mutual attraction with each other or in
35. (b) Cohesion is the force of attraction other words we can say that they have
between similar molecules. Osmosis is tremendous cohesive power which is
the movement of solvent molecules from sometimes as much as 350 atmospheres.
a region of low solute concentration to Thus, the transpiration pull develops
a negative pressure in the uppermost high pressure watery drops ooze out with
xylem cells. It is transmitted from there the assistance of special structures which
into the xylem of stems, and from there help in guttation called hydathodes.
into the xylem of stems, and from there 46. (c) Substance that have a hydrophilic
to the roots. moiety, find it difficult to pass through
43. (b) Carbohydrates are commonly found the membrane, their movement has to be
as starch in plant storage organs. It is facilitated by the membrane protein without
chemically non-reactive and osmotically expenditure of ATP energy. Facilitated
inactive polysaccharides of much greater diffusion cannot cause net transport
molecular weight. Carbohydrates of molecules from a low to a high
performs a vital role in living organisms. concentration or uphill transport.
Starch and other polysaccharides serve Transport rate reaches a maximum when
as energy storage in plants, particularly all of the protein transporters are being
in seeds, tubers, etc. which provide used (saturation). Facilitated diffusion is
a major energy source for animals, very specific.
including humans. 47. (d) Retina is the innermost layer of eyeball and
44. (a) Guard cells help in transpiration. it contains three layers of cells - ganglion
Transpiration is the evaporation of water cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptor
from the aerial parts of plants, especially cells. No photoreceptor cells are present
leaves but also stems, flowers and roots. in blind spot . The space between the
Stomatal opening allowing the diffusion cornea and the lens is called the aqueous
of carbon dioxide and oxygen during chamber and contains a thin watery fluid
photosynthesis. called aqueous humor.
45. (d) The main cause of guttation in plants is Choroid is anterior part of external sclera
root pressure. During night when root layer of eyeball while ciliary body is
pressure is high sometimes due to this anterior part of middle choroid layer.
HAPTER
C
12 Mineral Nutrition
1. Minerals absorbed by roots move to the leaf 8. Which one of the following is not an essential
through [1988] element for plants ? [1996]
(a) xylem (a) Potassium (b) Iron
(b) phloem (c) Iodine (d) Zinc
(c) sieve tubes 9. Which of the following is not caused by
(d) none of the above deficiency of mineral nutrition? [1997]
2. Phosphorous and nitrogen ions generally get (a) Necrosis
depleted in soil because they usually occur (b) Chlorosis
as [1989] (c) Etiolation
(a) neutral ions (d) Shortening of internodes
(b) negatively charged ions 10. Which of the following is a free living aerobic
(c) positively charged ions nonphotosynthetic nitrogen-fixer? [1997]
(d) both positively and negatively charged (a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter
but disproportionate mixture (c) Azospirillum (d) Nostoc
3. Which one is an essential mineral, not 11. A pair of insectivorous plants is [1999]
constituent of any enzyme but stimulates the (a) Drosera and Rafflesia
activity of many enzymes [1989] (b) Nepenthes and Bladderwort
(a) Zn (b) Mn (c) Dionaea and Viscum
(c) K (d) Mg (d) Venus fly trap and Rafflesia
4. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship 12. The plants grown in magnesium-deficient
between roots of higher plants and [1995] but urea sprayed soil would show [2000]
(a) virus (b) fungi (a) deep green foliage
(c) bacteria (d) blue green algae (b) early flowering
5. The association between blue-green algae (c) yellowing of leaves
and fungi occurs in [1995] (d) loss of pigments in petals
(a) lichens (b) symbiosis 13. Enzyme involved in nitrogen assimilation
(c) cannibism (d) mycorrhiza [2001]
6. Which of the following can fix atmospheric (a) nitrogenase (b) nitrate reductase
nitrogen ? [1995] (c) transferase (d) transaminase
(a) Albugo (b) Cystopus 14. Passive absorption of minerals depend on
(c) Saprolegnia (d) Anabaena [2001]
7. Which one of the following is a micronutrient (a) temperature
for plants? [1996] (b) temperature and metabolic inhibitor
(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium (c) metabolic inhibitor
(c) Manganese (d) Nitrogen (d) humidity
15. Which aquatic fern performs nitrogen 24. The deficiencies of micronutrients, not
fixation? [2001] only affects growth of plants but also
(a) Azolla (b) Nostoc vital functions such as photosynthetic and
(c) Salvia (d) Salvinia mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list
16. In plants inulin and raphides [2001] given below, which group of three elements
(a) reserved food material shall affect most, both photosynthetic and
(b) wastes mitochondrial electron transport: [2005]
(c) secretory material (a) Co, Ni, Mo (b) Ca, K, Na
(d) insect attracting material (c) Mn, Co, Ca (d) Cu, Mn, Fe
17. Choose the correct match [2002] 25. A plant requires magnesium for [2007]
(a) Trapa, Dionaea, Drosera (a) protein synthesis
(b) Nepenthes ,Utricularia, Vanda (b) chlorophyll synthesis
(c) Utricularia, Drosera , Dionaea (c) cell wall development
(d) holding cells together.
(d) Dionaea, Trapa, Vanda
26. Which one of the following elements is not
18. The major role of minor elements inside
an essential micronutrient for plant growth?
living organisms is to act as [2003]
[2007]
(a) binder of cell structure
(a) Zn (b) Cu
(b) co-factors of enzymes
(c) Ca (d) Mn
(c) building blocks of important amino
27. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is
acids brought about by: [2008]
(d) constituent of hormones (a) Bradyrhizobium (b) Clostridium
19. Which one of the following mineral elements (c) Frankia (d) Azorhizobium
plays an important role in biological nitrogen 28. Manganese is required in: [2009]
fixation ? [2003] (a) plant cell wall formation
(a) Molybdenum (b) Copper (b) photolysis of water during
(c) Manganese (d) Zinc photosynthesis
20. The major portion of the dry weight of plants (c) chlorophyll synthesis
comprises of [2003] (d) nucleic acid synthesis
(a) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen 29. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(b) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium matched? [2009]
(c) Calcium, magnesium and sulphur (a) Alcohol - nitrogenase
(d) Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen (b) Fruit juice - pectinase
21. Boron in green plants assists in [2003] (c) Textile - amylase
(a) sugar transport (d) Detergents - lipase
(b) activation of enzymes 30. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitroger
(c) acting as enzyme cofactor fixer? [2009]
(d) photosynthesis (a) Azotobacter (b) Frankia
22. Grey spots of oat are caused by deficiency (c) Azolla (d) Glomus
of [2003] 31. An element playing important role in nitrogen
(a) Fe (b) Cu fixation is : [2010]
(c) Zn (d) Mn (a) Molybdenum (b) Copper
23. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium (c) Manganese (d) Zinc
which can also form symbiotic association 32. Which one of the following is not a
with the water fern Azolla is [2004] micronutrient? [2010]
(a) Molybdenum (b) Magnesium
(a) Tolypothrix (b) Chlorella
(c) Zinc (d) Boron
(c) Nostoc (d) Anabaena
Mineral Nutrition 131
33. One of the free -living, anaerobic nitrogen - 42. Which one of the following is wrong statement
fixer is: [2010] (a) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing
(a) Beijernickia (b) Rhodospirillum nitrogen in free living state also. [2012]
(c) Rhizobium (d) Azotobacter
(b) Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live as
34. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing
aerobes under free-living conditions.
symboint is found in : [2011]
(a) Alnus (b) Cycas (c) Phosphorus is a constituent of cell
(c) Cicer (d) Pisum membranes, certain nucleic acids and cell
35. Which one of the following elements in proteins.
plants is not remobilised? [2011] (d) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are
(a) Phosphorus (b) Calcium chemoautotrophs.
(c) Potassium (d) Sulphur
43. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires
36. Nitrifying bacteria : [2011]
(a) oxidize ammonia to nitrates [2012M]
(b) convert free nitrogen to nitrogen (a) zinc (b) iron
compounds (c) niacin (d) copper
(c) convert proteins into ammonia 44. Read the following four statements (A-D).
(d) reduce nitrates to free nitrogen (A) Both, photophosphorylation and
37. The function of leg haemoglobin in the root
oxidative phosphorylation involve
nodules of legumes is : [2011]
uphill transport of protons across the
(a) inhibition of nitrogenase activity
(b) oxygen removal membrane.
(c) nodule differentiation (B) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates
(d) expression of nif gene from cells of pericycle at the time of
38. Which one of the following is not an secondary growth.
essential mineral element for plants while the (C) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and
remaining three are? [2011M]
Petunia are polyandrous.
(a) Iron (b) Manganese
(D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in free-
(c) Cadmium (d) Phosphorus
39. Which one of the following is essential for living state also in soil.
photolysis of water ? [2011M] How many of the above statements are
(a) Manganese (b) Zinc correct? [2012M]
(c) Copper (d) Boron (a) Two (b) Three
40. Best defined function of Manganese in green (c) Four (d) One
plants is : [2012]
45. For its action, nitrogenase requires [2012M]
(a) Photolysis of water
(a) Mn2+
(b) Calvin cycle
(c) Nitrogen fixation (b) light
(d) Water absorption (c) high input of energy
41. Which one of the following is correctly (d) super oxygen radicals
matched ? [2012] 46. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric
(a) Passive transport of nutrients - ATP nitrogen in leguminous plants is : [NEET 2013]
(b) Apoplast - Plasmodesmata (a) Ammonia (b)
(c) Potassium - Readily immobilisation

(c) Glutamate (d)
(d) Bakane of rice seedlings - F. Skoog

47. Which two distinct microbial processes are conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium
responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen compounds
as dinitrogen gas (N2) to the atmosphere? (d) Enteric fermentation in cattle, and
[NEET Kar. 2013] nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root
(a) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation, and nodules of legumes
denitrification 48. Which of the following elements is a
(b) Aerobic nitrate oxidation, and nitrite constituent of biotin? [NEET Kar. 2013]
reduction (a) Sulphur (b) Magnesium
(c) Decomposition of organic nitrogen, and (c) Calcium (d) Phosphorus
Solutions
1. (a) Along with water, minerals move 8. (c) Iodine is the only such element which
upwards through the trachaery elements is an essential mineral for animals but is
of xylem. not required by plants.
2. (d) Phosphorus and nitrogen are essential 9. (c) Etiolation is a plant response to stimuli.
elements normally required in large When plant seeds are grown in insufficient
quantities by plants. light, either in partial or complete absence
3. (c) Potassium is not a constituent of any of light, the seedlings will have long, weak
enzyme but is an activator of enzymes. stems, smaller and fewer leaves because
Potassium is an essential mineral and of longer internodes, and a pale yellow
is found in more amounts in actively colour (chlorosis). This is due to a lack
dividing cells such as of buds young of chlorophyll. The plant’s increase in
leaves, root tips, etc. It has some other height helps it to reach a possible source
roles like involved in regulating stomated of light faster.
movement and protein synthesis. 10. (b) Rhizobium is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer.
4. (b) Symbiotic relationship between roots Azospirillum is a nitrogen fixing fungus
of higher plants and fungi is called and Nostoc is anaerobic.
mycorrhiza, e.g. Pinus roots associated 11. (b) Insectivorous plants supplement the
with fungal hyphae. supply of nitrogenous food by capturing
5. (a) In lichens, the association between an and digesting insects. Pitcher plant
algae and a fungus is considered to be a (Nepenthes) and bladderwort (Utricularia)
symbiotic one. In this association, algae are both insectivorous plants.
provides food to fungi. 12. (c) Deficiency of magnesium produces
6. (d) Anabaena is a nitrogen fixing blue-green chlorosis due to breakdown of
alga composed of barrel-shaped cells chlorophyll.
held in a gelatinous matrix. So it can fix In botany, chlorosis is a condition in
atmospheric nitrogen. which plant foliage produces insufficient
7. (c) Nutrients which are required in large chlorophyll. When this happens, leaves
amounts and functioning of plant are do not have their normal green colour;
known as macronutrients eg. Ca, Mg, N. they may be pale green, yellow, or yellow-
Nutrients required in trace amounts are white. The affected plant has little or no
known as micronutrients. Manganese ability to manufacture carbohydrates and
is a micronutrient for plants essential may die unless the cause of its chlorophyll
for synthesis of chlorophyll. It is also insufficiency is treated. Specific nutrient
required for activation of enzymes of deficiencies (often aggravated by high
respiration and nitrogen metabolism. pH) produce chlorosis, which may be
corrected by supplemental feedings of
Mineral Nutrition 133
iron, magnesium or nitrogen compounds involved in N2 fixation and so is
in various combinations. Some pesticides, Tolypothrix.
particularly herbicides, may also cause 24. (d) Copper : Electron transfer
+ 2+
chlorosis, both to target weeds and ( Cu Cu )
occasionally to the crop being treated. Maintenance of carbohydrate / nitrogen
13. (a) A molecule of N2 is changed to ammonia balance, chlorophyll synthesis.
by nitrogenase. Transaminase transfers Iron : Electron transport in
amino group from one substrate to photosynthesis and respiration
2+ 3+
another. ( Fe Fe ) development of
14. (a) Roots do not spend any energy on chloroplasts, chlorophyll and other
this type of mineral absorption. So pigments, protein synthesis.
application of a metallic inhibitor will Manganese : Metabolism and photolytic
not retard the process. evolution of oxygen.
15. (a) Azolla performs nitrogen fixation through 25. (b) X —CH in Chl a 3
its colonies of Anabaena azollae, which —CHO in Chl b
have the capacity to fix atmospheric H3C I II

CH3
nitrogen. Porphyrin
N N
H– Mg –H
16. (a) Inulin and raphides crystals are ring
(Head) N N
reserve materials in plants. Inulin is a H3C III IV CH3
polysaccharide (a polymer of fructose)

and is present in Compositae. Raphides 0 0
0
are bunches of needle like crystal of Ester

0
0
linkage
calcium oxalate found in certain plant CH3
cells. H3C
CH3
CH3
17. (c) These are all insectivorous plants.
18. (b) Minor elements are those which are CH3
required by plants in very small amount. Phytol
(Tail) H3C
These elements have a significant role
H3C
in enzyme activities (zinc activates H3C
CH3
carboxylases, carbonic anhydrase and H3C
various dehydrogenases). β Carotene
19. (a) Molybdenum is a component of
nitrogenase and nitrate reductase involved A plants require magnesium for chlorophyll
during N2 fixation. Copper is essential synthesis. All four rings bind with metal
for photosynthesis and respiration. atom magnesium (Mg++ ), which remain
Zinc is involved in synthesis of auxin. present at the center of chlorophyll
Manganese is activator of enzymes
molecule.
involved in nitrogen metabolism.
20. (a) The major portion of the dry weight of 26. (c) Essential micro elements are Fe, Mn, Zn,
plants comprises of Carbon, hydrogen B, Cu, Mo and essential macronutrionts
and oxygen. are C,H, N, P, S, Ca, K, Mg.
21. (a) Manganese is an activator of enzymes. 27. (c) Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of
Copper is essential for photosynthesis.
Molybdenum is a cofactor of enzymes. Alnus is brought about by Frankia.
Boron assists in sugar transport. Frankia is a symbiotic nitrogen fixing
bacteria in root nodules of several non-
22. (d) Grey spots of oat are caused by deficiency
legune plants like Casuarina (Australian
of Manganese.
Pine), Myrica and Alnus (Alder).
23. (d) The freshwater fern Azolla harbours
28. (b) Manganese is essential for many plant
Anabaena (a blue green alga) in its leaf functions. Some of them are:
cavities. Chlorella is simply a green alga. • The assimilation of carbon dioxide in
Nostoc is a free living cyanobacteria photosynthesis.
• It is involved in the Hill Reaction where plants. Phosphorus is macronutrient and
water is split during photosynthesis. iron and manganese are micronutrients
• It aids in the synthesis of chlorophyll for plants.
and in nitrate assimilation. 39. (a) Photolysis is catalysed by the protein-
• Manganese activates fat forming bound inorganic complex containing
enzymes. manganese ions (oxygen evolving
• It functions in the formation of complex) of photosystem II.
riboflavin, ascorbic acid, and 40. (a) The best defined function of manganese is
carotene. in the splitting of water to liberate oxygen
• It functions in electron transport during photosynthesis. It is absorbed
during photosynthesis. in the form of manganous ions (Mn2+).
29. (a) Alcohol and nitrogenase pair is wrongly It activates many enzymes involved in
matched. Ethanol produces alcohol. photosynthesis, respiration and nitrogen
30. (b) Frankia is symbiotic nitrogen fixer in root metabolism.
nodules of several non-legume plants 41. (c)
like Casurina and Alnus. 42. (c) Phosphorus is a constituent of nucleic
31. (a) Molybdenum is a micronutrient that acids both DNA and RNA but absent in
plays an important role in nitrogen cell membranes and cell proteins.
fixation. It is a part of nitrate reductase 43. (a) Carboxypeptidase is an exopeptidase
enzyme that helps in nitrogen fixation. enzyme secreted by the pancreas that
32. (b) Magnesium is a macronutrient. acts only on the peptide linkage of
Micronutrients are essential elements a terminal amino acid containing a
that are required by plants in small free carboxyl group. Zinc is a cofactor
amount. They include Fe, Cu, B, Mo, for carboxypeptidase. In digestion
Mn, Cl, and Ni. Macronutrients, on the carboxypeptidase, requires zinc for its
other hand, are those essential elements protein degrading action.
that are required by plants in larger 44. (c) All the four statements are correct.
amount. The examples include C, H, O, 45. (c) Nitrogenases are enzymes used by some
organisms to fix atmospheric nitrogen
N, S, P, K, Ca and Mg.
gas. It is the only known family of
33. (b) Rhodospirillum is a free-living, anaerobic
enzymes that accomplish this process.
nitrogen fixer bacteria. It can synthesize
Nitrogenase requires high input of
its food in presence of light under
energy & anaerobic condition.
anaerobic condition.
46. (a) Ammonia is first stable compound
Beijernickia and Azotobacter are free produce in fixation of atmospheric
living aerobic nitrogen fixing bacteria. nitrogen in leguminous plant. A molecule
Rhizobium is a symbiotic nitrogen fixing of nitrogen is change into two molecules
bacteria. of ammonia. It requires 16 ATP, a
34. (b) A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen source of electron donor ferredoxin,
fixing symbiont is found in Cycas. hydrogen donor NADPH or FMNH2
35. (b) Calcium is not remobilized from the and dinitrogenase enzyme.
leaves to the fruits, like potassium, 47. (a) In the global nitrogen cycle, bacterial
phosphorus and sulphur. It occurs denitrification is recognised as important
abundantly in a non-exchangeable form process that converts fixed nitrogen to
such as anorthite (CaAl2Si2O8). atmospheric nitrogen gas, N2. in marine
36. (a) The nitrifying bacteria bring about nitrogen cycle, anaerobic oxidation
transformations of ammonia to nitrite of ammonium coupled to nitrate
and of nitrite to nitrate. reduction, contributes substantially to
37. (b) Leghaemoglobin is the haemoglobin like N2–production in marine sediments.
red pigments found in root nodules of 48. (a) Biotin, also known as vitamin H, is a
legumes and reported to function as an water-soluble B-vitamin. It is a coenzyme
oxygen-carrying pigment in symbiotic for carboxylase enzymes, involved in the
nitrogen fixation. synthesis of fatty acids, isoleucine, valine
38. (c) Cadmium is not an essential element for and in gluconeogenesis. Sulphur is a
constituent of biotin.
HAPTER
C
13 Photosynthesis
1. Carbon dioxide joins the photosynthetic 8. Kranz anatomy is typical of [1990]
pathway in [1988] (a) C4 plants (b) C3 plants
(a) PS I (b) PS II (c) C2 plants (d) CAM plants
(c) Light reaction (d) Dark reaction 9. The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4-plants
2. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH in [1988] is [1990, 92]
(a) PS I
(a) Phosphoenol-pyruvate
(b) PS II
(b) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate
(c) Calvin cycle
(d) Noncyclic photophosphorylation (c) Oxalo-acetic acid
3. The size of chlorophyll molecule is [1988] (d) Phosphoglyceric acid
(a) Head 15 × 15 Å, tail 25 Å 10. Photosynthetic pigments found in the
(b) Head 20 × 20 Å, tail 25 Å chloroplasts occur in [1991]
(c) Head 15 × 15 Å, tail 20 Å (a) thylakoid membranes
(d) Head 10 × 12 Å, tail 25 Å (b) plastoglobules
4. The substrate for photorespiration is [1989] (c) matrix
(a) Phosphoglyceric acid (d) chloroplast envelope
(b) Glycolate 11. Dark reactions of photosynthesis occur in
(c) Serine
[1991]
(d) Glycine
(a) Granal thylakoid membranes
5. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle operates in [1989]
(a) Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts (b) Stromal lamella membranes
(b) Grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts (c) Stroma outside photosynthetic lamellae
(c) Grana of mesophyll chloroplasts (d) Periplastidial space
(d) Stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts 12. Which technique has helped in investigation
6. Greatest producers of organic matter are of Calvin cycle? [1991]
[1989] (a) X-ray crystallography
(a) crop plants (b) X-ray technique
(b) forests (c) Radioactive isotope technique
(c) plants of the land area
(d) Intermittent light
(d) phytoplankton of oceans
13. During monsoon, the rice crop of eastern
7. A very efficient converter of solar energy
states of India shows lesser yield due to
with net productivity of 2-4 kg/m2 or more
is the crop of [1989] limiting factor of [1991]
(a) wheat (b) sugarcane (a) CO2 (b) light
(c) rice (d) bajra (c) temperature (d) water
14. Ferredoxin is a constituent of [1991] 23. Maximum solar energy is trapped by [1993]
(a) PS I (b) PS II (a) planting trees
(c) Hill reaction (d) P680 (b) cultivating crops
15. Formation of ATP in photosynthesis and (c) growing algae in tanks
respiration is an oxidation process which (d) growing grasses
utilises the energy from [1992] 24. A photosynthesising plant is releasing 18O
(a) Cytochromes (b) Ferredoxin more than the normal. The plant must have
(c) Electrons (d) Carbon dioxide been supplied with [1993]
16. The enzyme that catalyses carbon dioxide (a) O3
fixation in C4 plants is [1992] (b) H2O with 18O
(a) RuBP carboxylase (c) CO2 with 18O
(b) PEP carboxylase (d) C6H12O6 with 18O
(c) Carbonic anhydrase 25. C4-cycle was discovered by [1994]
(d) Carboxydismutase (a) Hatch and Slack (b) Calvin
17. Photosystem II occurs in [1992] (c) Hill (d) Arnon
(a) Stroma 26. Nine-tenth of all photosynthesis of world
(b) Cytochrome (85-90%) is carried out by [1994]
(c) Grana (a) large trees with millions of branches and
(d) Mitochondrial surface levess
18. All types of plastids possess essentially the (b) algae of the ocean
same structure because they [1992] (c) chlorophyll containing ferns of the
(a) perform the same function forest
(b) store food materials like starch, fat and (d) scientists in the laboratories
protein 27. Pigment acting as a reaction centre during
(c) occur in aerial parts photosynthesis is [1994]
(d) can transform from one form to (a) Carotene (b) Phytochrome
another (c) P700 (d) Cytochrome
19. Chlorophyll a occurs in [1992] 28. Which one occurs both during cyclic and
(a) all photosynthetic autotrophs noncyclic modes of photophosphorylation?
(b) in all higher plants [1994]
(c) all oxygen liberating autotrophs (a) Involvement of both PS I and PS II
(d) all plants except fungi (b) Formation of ATP
20. Translocation of carbohydrate nutrients (c) Release of O2
usually occurs in the form of [1992] (d) Formation of NADPH
(a) Glucose (b) Maltose 29. The specific characteristic of C4-plants is
(c) Starch (d) Sucrose [1995]
21. Which one is a C4-plant? [1993] (a) bulliform cells
(a) Papaya (b) Pea (b) isobilateral leaf
(c) Potato (d) Maize/Corn (c) kranz anatomy
22. The carbon dioxide acceptor in Calvin cycle/ (d) parallel veins configuration
C3-plants is [1993, 95, 96, 99] 30. Photorespiration is favoured by [1996]
(a) Phospho-enol pyruvate (PEP) (a) high O2 and low CO2
(b) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate (RuBP) (b) low light and high O2
(c) Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA) (c) low temperature and high O2
(d) Ribulose monophosphate (RMP) (d) low O2 and high CO2
Photosynthesis 137
31. The principle of limiting factors was proposed 39. The enzyme which fixes CO2 in C4 plants is
by [1996] [2000]
(a) Blackman (b) Hill (a) Hydrogenase
(c) Arnol (d) Liebig (b) PEP carboxylase
32. Chlorophyll ‘a’ molecule at its carbon (c) Reductase
atom 3 of the Pyrrole ring II has one of the (d) RuBP carboxylase
following [1996, 97] 40. The first step of photosynthesis is [2000]
(a) aldehyde group (b) methyl group (a) excitation of electron of chlorophyll by
(c) carboxyl group (d) magnesium. a photon of light
33. Photosynthetically active radiation is (b) formation of ATP
represented by the range of wavelength of (c) attachment of CO2 to 5 carbon sugar
[1996, 2004, 05]
(d) ionisation of water
(a) 340-450 nm (b) 400-700 nm
41. How many turns of Calvin cycle yield one
(c) 500-600 nm (d) 400-950 nm
molecule of glucose ? [1996, 2000]
34. Which one of the following is represented by
(a) Eight (b) Two
Calvin cycle? [1996]
(c) Six (d) Four
(a) Reductive carboxylation
42. Fixation of one CO2 molecule through
(b) Oxidative carboxylation
(c) Photophosphorylation Calvin cycle requires [2000]
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation. (a) 1 ATP and 2NADPH2
35. NADPH is generated through [1997] (b) 2ATP and 2NADPH2
(a) photosystem I (c) 3ATP and 2NADPH2
(b) photosystem II (d) 2ATP and 1NADPH2
(c) anerobic respiration 43. Photochemical reactions in the chloroplast
(d) glycolysis are directly involved in [2000]
36. Protochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll in (a) Formation of phosphoglyceric acid
lacking [1998] (b) Fixation of carbon dioxide
(a) 2 hydrogen atoms in one of its pyrrole (c) Synthesis of glucose and starch
rings (d) Photolysis of water and phosphorylation
(b) 2 hydrogen atoms in two of its pyrrole of ADP to ATP
rings 44. Which pair is wrong? [2001]
(c) 4 hydrogen atoms in one of its pyrrole (a) C3 – Maize
rings (b) C4 – Kranz anatomy
(d) 4 hydrogen atoms in two of its pyrrole (c) Calvin cycle – PGA
rings (d) Hatch and Slack Pathway – Oxalo acetic
37. Which one of the following statements about Acid
cytochrome P-450 is wrong? [1998] 45. Which pigment system is inactivated in red
(a) It contains iron drop? [2001]
(b) It is an enzyme involved in oxidation
(a) PS -I and PS -II (b) PS-I
reaction
(c) PS -II (d) None of these
(c) It is a coloured cell
46. Cytochrome is [2001]
(d) It has an important role in metabolism
(a) Metallo - Flavo protein
38. Which enzyme is most abudantly found on
(b) Fe-containing porphyrin pigment
earth? [1999]
(c) Glycoprotein
(a) Catalase (b) Rubisco
(c) Nitrogenase (d) Invertase (d) Lipid
47. In photosynthesis energy from light reaction (b) higher rate of CO2 fixation that the sun
to dark reaction is transferred in the form of plants
[2002] (c) more extended root system
(a) ADP (b) ATP (d) leaves modified to spines
(c) RuDP (d) Chlorophyll 56. As compared to a C3 – plant, how many
48. Which of the following absorb light energy additional molecules of ATP are needed for
for photosynthesis? [2002] net production of one molecule of hexose
(a) Chlorophyll (b) Water molecule sugar by C4 – plants: [2005]
(c) O2 (d) RuBP (a) two (b) six
49. Stomata of CAM plants [2003] (c) twelve (d) zero
(a) never open 57. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in:
(b) are always open [2005]
(c) open during the day and close at night (a) grana
(d) open during the night and close during (b) pyrenoid
the day (c) stroma
50. In sugarcane plant 14CO2 is fixed in malic (d) both grana and stroma
acid, in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is 58. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less
[2003] limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because:
(a) fructose phosphatase [2005]
(b) ribulose biphosphate carboxylase (a) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle
(c) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase
sheath cells.
(d) ribulose phosphate kinase
(b) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity
51. Which element is located at the centre of the
for CO2.
porphyrin ring in chlorophyll ? [2003]
(c) Four carbon acids are the primary initial
(a) Manganese (b) Calcium
CO2 fixation products.
(c) Magnesium (d) Potassium
(d) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated
52. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of
via PEP carboxylase.
solar radiations are primarily absorbed by
59. In photosystem-1the first electron acceptor
carotenoids of the higher plants? [2003]
(a) Violet and blue (b) Blue and green is [2006]
(c) Green and red (d) Red and violet (a) Cytochrome
53. Which one of the following is wrong in (b) Plastocyanin
relation to photorespiration ? [2003] (c) An iron-sulphur protein
(a) It is a characteristic of C3 plants (d) Ferredoxin
(b) It occurs in chloroplasts 60. During photorespiration, the oxygen
(c) It occurs in daytime only consuming reaction(s) occur in [2006]
(d) It is a characteristic of C4 plants (a) stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
54. In C3 plants, the first stable product of (b) grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
photosynthesis during the dark reaction is (c) stroma of chloroplasts
[2004] (d) stroma of chloroplasts and
(a) Malic acid mitochondria
(b) Oxaloacetic acid 61. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited
(c) 3-phosphoglyceric acid chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is
(d) Phosphoglyceraldehyde [2007]
55. Plants adapted to low light intensity have (a) iron-sulphur protein
[2004] (b) ferredoxin
(a) larger photosynthetic unit size that the (c) quinone
sun plants (d) cytochrome
Photosynthesis 139
62. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid 71. Photoperiodism was first characterised in:
formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the [2010]
cells of [2007] (a) tobacco (b) potato
(a) bundle sheath (b) phloem (c) tomato (d) cotton
(c) epidermis (d) mesophyll 72. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis
63. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form than C3 plants due to: [2010]
of phytochrome is [2007]
(a) Higher leaf area
(a) 680 nm (b) 720 nm
(b) Presence of larger number of chloroplasts
(c) 620 nm (d) 640 nm
in the leaf cells
64. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more
efficient than C3 plants because: (c) Presence of thin cuticle
(a) the CO2 compensation point is more (d) Lower rate of photorespiration
(b) CO2 generated during photorespiration 73. Of the total incident solar radiation the
is trapped and recycled through PEP proportion of PAR is : [2011]
carboxylase (a) about 70% (b) about 60%
(c) the CO2 efflux is not prevented (c) less than 50% (d) more than 80%
(d) they have more chloroplasts 74. CAM helps the plants in : [2011]
65. Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule (a) conserving water
of photosystem II are accepted first by: (b) secondary growth
[2008] (c) disease resistance
(a) Cytochrome-b (b) Cytochrome-f
(d) reproduction
(c) Quinone (d) Ferredoxin
75. A process that makes important difference
66. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis
between C3 and C4 plants is : [2012]
during CO2 fixation occurs in [2008]
(a) epidermal cells (b) mesophyll cells (a) Transpiration (b) Glycolysis
(c) bundle sheath (d) guard cells (c) Photosynthesis (d) Photorespiration
67. Importance of day length in flowering of 76. The correct sequence of cell organelles during
plants was first shown in [2008] photorespiration is : [2012]
(a) lemna (b) tobacco (a) Chloroplast-Golgibodies-mitochondria
(c) cotton (d) petunia (b) Chloroplast-Rough Endoplasmic
68. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in: [2009]
reticulum, Dictyosomes
(a) Oscillatoria (b) Rhodospirillum
(c) Chloroplast-peroxisome-mitochondria
(c) Chlorobium (d) Chromatium
(d) Chloroplast-vacuole-peroxisome
69. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the
formation of [2009] 77. Pigment-containing membranous extensions
(a) ATP and NADPH in some cyanobacteria are : [NEET 2013]
(b) ATP, NADPH and O2 (a) Basal bodies
(c) ATP (b) Pneumatophores
(d) NADPH (c) Chromatophores
70. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was (d) Heterocysts
discovered in photosynthesis of : [2010] 78. Bundle sheath cells [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Bryophyte (b) Gymnosperm (a) Are rich in RuBisCo
(c) Angiosperm (d) Alga (b) Are rich in PEP carboxylase
(c) Lack RuBisCo
(d) Lack both RuBisCo and PEP carboxylase
Solutions
1. (d) Photosynthesis is completed in two stroma of chloroplast of bundle sheath
phases-light and dark phases. In cell through C3 cycle.
dark phase (Blackman’s reaction or 6. (d) Phytoplanktons (algae) of oceans are
biosynthetic phase) carbohydrates are the highest producers of organic matter.
synthesised from carbon dioxide in 7. (b) C4 cycle occurs in C4 plants like
stroma of chloroplast using ATP and sugarcane, maize. C4 cycle provides
NADPH products of light reactions. a more efficient way of CO2 fixation
2. (d) Non cyclic photophosphorylation is not than C3 cycle and hence give more
only connected with ATP synthesis but productivity. Rest are C3 plants.
also production of NADPH. It involves 8. (a) C4 plants have a characteristic leaf
two photosystems—PSI and PSII. PSII anatomy called kranz anatomy with two
(680) receive electrons from photolysis distinct choloroplast containing cells
of water and transfer it to PSI (700) mesophyll and bundle sheath cells.
to form NADPH from NADP+. The 9. (a) The primary acceptor of CO2 in C4
hydrogen required for reduction comes plants is phosphoenol pyruvate or
from breaking of water molecules. PEP. PEP in mesophyll cells combine
3. (c) Chlorophyll has a tetrapyrrole porphyrin with CO2 and converted into 4 carbon
ring as head (15 × 15Å) and a long compound Oxaloacetic acids by PEP
hydrocarbon tail called phytol (20 Å) carboxylase. In C3 plant Ribulose 1,
tail attached to the ring structure. 5–diphosphate is primary acceptor of
4. (b) Light dependent uptake of O2 and CO2.
release of CO2 in C3 photosynthetic 10. (a) Photosynthetic pigments occur
cell is called photorespiration. Glycolate on photosynthetic thylakoids of
(Glycolic acid) is the chief metabolite of chloroplasts. A stack of thylakoids is
photorespiration and also its substrate. called granum.
Other important metabolities are the 11. (c) Dark reaction occurs in the stroma or
amino acids glycine and serine. But matrix of chloroplasts. It is independent
phosphoglyceric acid (PGA) is a lipid of light but depends on the products
and is not substrate of photorespiration. of light reaction (ATP and NADPH–
5. (a) C4 plants are specialised plants for assimilatory process).
better CO2 assimilation found in hot 12. (c) In 1954-55 Calvin traced the pathway
environment. They have a characteristic of carbon fixation by using radioactive
leaf anatomy called kranz anatomy isotope method by using 14CO2 and
showing two distinct choloroplast gave the Calvin cycle.
containing cells mesophyll and bundle 13. (b) According to law of limiting factors
sheath cells. Mesophyll cells are located given by Blackman, when a process
very near to bundle sheath cells and are depends upon a number of factors which
the site for C4 cycle i.e. CO2 is first fixed are separate, the rate of the process is
as a 4 carbon compounds oxalocetic limited by the pace of the slowest factor.
acid by the action of PEP carbooxylase. Rate of yield is dependent on light as
The second carboxylation event occur in photosynthesis is dependent on light.
Photosynthesis 141
During monsoon, the light is dim and so 26. (b) 85-90% of all photosynthesis of world is
this reduces rate of photosynthesis and carried out by phytoplanktons in ocean.
hence yield. 27. (c) P700 consists of a chl a and chl b
14. (a) In PSI, when the electron passes molecules and is named after maximum
from ferredoxin and plastoquinone, absorption by pigment or photocentre at
the electron loses sufficient energy to that wavelength.
form ATP from ADP and inorganic 28. (b) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves
phosphate. only PSI and there occurs only ATP
15. (c) Electrons provide energy for the formation.
formation of ATP in photosynthesis 29. (c) Anatomy of leaves of C4– plant is called
and respiration. kranz anatomy. In the mesophyll cells of
16. (b) In C4 plants, the primary acceptor these plants pallisade tissue is absent.
of CO2 is phosphoenol pyruvate. It 30. (a) Photorespiratory loss of CO2 occurs
combines with carbon dioxide in the when RUBISCO starts functioning as an
presence of PEP carboxylase to form oxygenase instead of carboxylase under
oxalo-acetic acid in mesophyll cells. conditions of high O2 and low CO2.
17. (c) Photosystem II is a photosynthetic It involves three organelles chloroplast,
pigment system that is located in the mitochondria and peroxisomes. Half of
appressed part of grana thylakoids. the photosynthetically fixed carbon (in
18. (d) Depending upon their colour, plastids the form of RUBP) may be lost into the
are of three main types – leucoplasts,
atmosphere through this process and no
chromoplasts and chloroplasts.
ATP formation occurs.
19. (c) Chlorophyll a is found in all
31. (a) The principle of limiting factors was
photosynthetic plants except bacteria.
formulated by Blackmann (1905). It
Hence, it is termed as universal
states that when a process is conditioned
photosynthetic pigment.
as to its rapidity by a number of separate
20. (d) Translocation of organic solutes occur
factors, the rate of process is limited by
through sieve tubes in the form of
sucrose. Transportable form of sugar is the pace of slowest factor.
sucrose. 32. (b) Chlorophyll a has a methyl group
21. (d) Maize, Sugarcane, Sorghum, Atriplex, attached to the third carbon, which
Panicum are examples of C4 plants. is replaced by an aldehyde group in
22. (b) The primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plants chlorophyll b.
is Ribulose-1, 5-diphosphate (RuBP) 33. (b) Photosynthesis takes place only in the
which forms a 3 carbon compound visible part (400 - 700 nm wavelength)
3-phosphoglyceric acid. of electromagnetic radiations.
23. (c) Algae are the most efficeint Hence this component comprises the
photosynthesizing organisms. photosynthetically active radiation.
24. (b) The phenomenon of breaking up of 34. (a) In dark phase of calvin cycle of
water into hydrogen and oxygen in photosynthesis the CO2 is reduced
the illuminated chloroplasts is called
to Glucose in stroma of chloroplast,
photolysis. Oxygen comes from
making use of the ATP & NADPH2,
photolysis of water was verified by
(available from light phase).
Ruben & Kamen (1941).
35. (a) NADPH is generated by
25. (a) C4 cycle was worked out by Hatch and
photosystem I during non-cyclic
Slack (1966). C4 cycle occured in C4
photophosphorylation.
plants.
36. (a) Protochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll 49. (d) To conserve water, the stomata of
in lacking 2 hydrogen atoms in one of its CAM plants open during night to take
pyrrole rings. up CO2 and store it in the form of Malic
37. (a) Cytochrome P-450 contains copper. acid which is utilised during the time of
38. (b) RUBISCO is the enzyme involved in photosynthesis.
Calvin cycle. Nitrogenase catalyses nitro- 50. (c) Sugarcane is a C4 plant in which CO2
genation. Invertase catalyses breaking is fixed in malic acid by the enzyme
of sucrose to glucose and fructose. phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase
39. (b) RuBP carboxylase fixes CO2 in C3 present in mesophyll cells.
plants. Hydrogenase catalyses addition 51. (c) A non ionic Mg atom is held in the
of hydrogen. centre of porphyrin (of chlorophyll)
40. (a) Light reaction is the first step of held by N atom of pyrrole ring.
photosynthesis. Attachment of CO2 to 52. (a) Carotenoids have three absorption
5 carbon sugar occurs in the next step peaks in the blue-violet range of the
dark reaction. spectrum.
41. (c) Each turn of Calvin cycle generates one In photosynthetic organisms,
carbon atom hence six turns of the cycle carotenoids play a vital role in the
is required to generate one molecule of
photosynthetic reaction centre. They
hexose sugar glucose.
either participate in the energy-
42. (c) 2 ATP are required during conversion of
transfer process, or protect the
PGA to 1, 3-diphosphoglyceric acid and 1
reaction center from auto-oxidation.
ATP during conversion of glyceraldehyde
In non-photosynthesizing organisms,
phosphate to ribulose biphosphate.
carotenoids have been linked to
2NADH2 molecules are utilised for
oxidation-preventing mechanisms.
converting 1, 3-diphosphoglyceric acid
53. (d) Tropical plants have evolved C4 cycle to
to glyceraldehyde phosphate.
overcome photorespiration.
43. (d) The photochemical phase of photo
54. (c) 3-phosphoglyceric acid, 3 carbon
synthesis involves fixing light energy
and photolysis of water producing ATP compound is the first product formed
and NADPH. in the C3 cycle. It is then converted to
44. (a) Maize is a C4 plant carrying out Hatch glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. Oxaloacetic
and Slack pathway. These plants acid, 4 carbon compound is the first
show Kranz anatomy and overcome product formed in C4 cycle. It is then
photorespiration. converted to malic acid.
45. (c) The reduction in the rate of 55. (a) They have larger photosynthetic unit size
photosynthesis in monochromatic light so that they can absorb maximum amount
of more than 680 nm is called red drop. of light of the Photosynthetically Active
46. (b) Cytochrome is Fe containing porphyrin Radiation (PAR) for photosynthesis.
pigment. These are electron transferring 56. (c) Equation for C4 pathway
proteins often regarded as enzymes. 6 PEP + 6 RuBP + 6CO2 + 30 ATP + 12
47. (b) ATP molecules produced in the light NADPH 6PEP + 6 RuBP + C6H12O6
reaction are used in the dark reaction to + 30 ADP + 30 H3PO4 + 12 NADP+
fix CO2 to form organic compound. The net reaction of C3 dark fixation is
48. (a) Each pigment has its own absorption 6RuBP + 6CO2 + 18ATP + 12 NADPH
spectrum, chlorophyll absorbs light 6 RuBP + C6H12O6 + 18 ADP + 18 P
energy in blue and red region. + 12 NADP+
Photosynthesis 143
57. (a) Internally a chloroplast contains a 62. (d) In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in
matrix or stroma which is similar to mesophyll cells and C3 - cycle occurs in
cytoplasm in its constitution. It contains a bundle sheath.
DNA, RNA, ribsomes, enzymes for CO2 63. (a) The Pr form absorbs light between 660
assimilation, proteins, starch grains and to 680 nm and absorbs at a peak of 666
fat droplets or plastoglobuli. nm. It is the form synthesized in dark-
In the matrix or stroma embedded a grown seedlings. When Pr absorbs red
number of flattened membranous sacs light, it is converted to the Pfr form.
called thylakoids or lamellae. At places 64. (c) The C4 pathway allows photosynthesis
the thylakoids are aggregated to form to occur at very low concentrations of
carbon dioxide as PEP carboxylase has
stacks called grana.
an extremely high affinity for carbon
58. (d) In C4 plants, initial fixation of carbon
dioxide. This pathway also works well
dioxide occurs in mesophyll cells. The
at high temperatures and light intensity,
primary acceptor of CO2 is phosphoenol
enabling efficient photosynthesis in
pyruvate or PEP. It combines with
tropical plants.
carbon dioxide in the presence of 65. (c) Electrons from excited chlorophyll
PEP carboxylase or Pepcase to form molecule of photosystem II are
oxaloacetate. accepted first by Quinone. Photosystem
C4 plants are more efficient in picking II is a photosynthetic pigment system
up CO2 even when it is found in low along with some electron carriers that
concentration because of the high is located in the appressed part of the
affinity of PEP case. grana thylakoids. Photosystem II has
59. (c) In photosystem I or photoact I electrons chlorophyll a, b and carotenoids. Other
released by P-700 are accepted by components of PS II are phaeophytin,
a substance of iron-sulphur-protein plastoquinone (PQ), cytochrome
complex denoted as A(FeS). A(FeS) is complex and blue coloured copper
thus reduced and it passes these high containing plastocyanin.
electrons to oxidised ferredoxin and it 66. (b) In leaves of C4 plants, malic acid
gets reduced. From reduced Fd these synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs
electrons are passed to FAD which in mesophyll cells. The mesophyll cells
now reduced to FADH2 and then perform C4 cycle and the cells of bundle
electrons and hydrogen are accepted by sheath perform C3 cycle. CO2 taken
from the atmosphere is accepted by
NADP which makes NADPH2. Here
phosphoenol pyruvic acid (PEP) present
photosystem I ends.
in the chloroplasts of mesophyll cell of
60. (a) Photorespiration is the process
these leaves, leading to the formation
which occurs in C3 plants. In this
of a 4-C compound, oxaloacetic acid
process, peroxisomes, chloroplast (OAA). This acid is converted to another
and mitochondria take part. The 4-C acid, the malic acid which enters
oxygen consuming reactions occurs in into the chloroplast of bundle sheath
peroxisomes and stroma of chloroplast cells and these undergoes oxidative
while CO2 releasing reaction occurs in decarboxylation yielding pyruvic acid
mitochondria. (3C - compound) and CO2.
61. (c) The first acceptor of electrons from an 67. (b) Photoperiodism was first studied
excited chlorophyll of PSII is quinone. by Garner and Allard (1920). They
observed that “Maryland Mammoth” photorespiration. Photorespiration is
variety of tobacco could be made to an inhibitory process that decreases the
flower in summer by reducing the light rate of photosynthesis. It is absent in C4
hours with artificial darkening. It could plants and present only in C3 plants.
be made to remain vegetative in winter 73. (c) Out of total incident solar radiation,
by providing extra light.
about 50% of it forms Photosynthetically
68. (a) Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in Active Radiation (PAR).
Oscillatoria. Oscillatoria is a genus 74. (a) CAM plants are most common in
of filamentous cyanobacteria which arid environments. Being able to keep
is named for the oscillation in its stomata closed during the hottest and
movement. driest part of the day reduces the loss
69. (c) Cyclic photophosphorylation results of water through evapotranspiration.
in the formation of ATP. This process 75. (d) Photorespiration is absent is C4 plants.
is called photophosphorylation, which Photorespiration does not produce
occurs in two different ways. Adenosine energy or reducing power. Rather, it
triphosphate (ATP) is considered by consumes energy. Further, it undoes
biologists to be the energy currency of the work of photosynthesis. There
life. It is the high-energy molecule that is 25% loss of fixed CO2. Therefore,
stores the energy we need to do just photorespiration is a highly wasteful
about everything we do. It is present in process. This happens only in case of
the cytoplasm and nucleoplasm of every C3 plants.
cell, and essentially all the physiological 76. (c)
mechanisms that require energy for 77. (c) In some photoautotrophic bacteria
operation obtain it directly from the bacteriochlorophyll and bacteriophaeophytin
stored ATP. or bacterioviridin pigments containing
70. (d) Phosphoglyceric and (PGA) is the first membraneous extensions called
stable product of photosynthesis. It was chromatophores are present. These are
first discovered by Calvin, Benson and sites of bacterial photosynthesis .
their colleagues in Chlorella, algae. 78. (a) In C4 plants, bundle sheath cells are rich
71. (a) Photoperiodism is the response to in RuBisCO, but lack PEPcase. The CO2
duration and timings of light and dark released in the bundle sheath cells enters
period. It was first characterised in the C3 or the calvin pathway, common
tobacco plant. to all plants. Thus, the basic pathway
72. (d) C4 plants are more efficient in that results in the formation of sugars,
photosynthesis than C3 plants due to the calvin pathway is common to the C3
and C4 plants.
HAPTER
C
14 Respiration in Plants
1. Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic (c) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during Krebs
acid with several intermediate steps is known cycle
as [1988] (d) All are formed inside mitochondria
(a) TCA-pathway (b) glycolysis 9. End products of aerobic respiration are
(c) HMS-pathway (d) Krebs cycle [1992]
2. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH in [1988] (a) sugar and oxygen
(a) HMP (b) Calvin Cycle (b) water and energy
(c) glycolysis (d) EMP (c) carbon dioxide, water and energy
3. R.Q. is [1988] (d) carbon dioxide and energy
(a) C/N (b) N/C 10. At a temperature above 35ºC [1992]
(c) CO2/O2 (d) O2/CO2 (a) rate of photosynthesis will decline
4. End product of glycolysis is [1990] earlier than that of respiration
(a) acetyl CoA (b) rate of respiration will decline earlier
(b) pyruvic Acid than that of photosynthesis
(c) glucose 1-phosphate (c) there is no fixed pattern
(d) fructose 1-phosphate (d) both decline simultaneously
5. R.Q. is ratio of [1990] 11. Oxidative phosphorylation is production of
(a) CO2 produced to substrate consumed (a) ATP in photosynthesis [1992]
(b) CO2 produced to O2 consumed (b) NADPH in photosynthesis
(c) oxygen consumed to water produced (c) ATP in respiration
(d) oxygen consumed to CO2 produced (d) NADH in respiration
6. EMP can produce a total of [1990] 12. When one glucose molecule is completely
(a) 6 ATP (b) 8 ATP oxidised, it changes [1992]
(c) 24 ATP (d) 38 ATP (a) 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP
7. Connecting link between glycolysis and molecules
Krebs cycle is/before entering Krebs cycle (b) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP
pyruvate is changed to [1990, 92, 97] molecules
(a) oxaloacetate (b) PEP (c) 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP
(c) pyruvate (d) acetyl CoA molecules
8. Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per (d) 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP
glucose molecule during respiration [1991] molecules
(a) 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 13. Apparatus to measure rate of respiration and
during respiratory chain R.Q. is [1992]
(b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria (a) Auxanometer (b) Potometer
and 34 inside mitochondria (c) Respirometer (d) Manometer
14. Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain (c) oxidative phosphorylation
which donates electrons to oxygen is [1992] (d) E.T.C.
(a) Cyt. b (b) Cyt. c 23. Which of the following is essential for
(c) Cyt. a1 (d) Cyt. a3 conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl Co-A?
15. End product of citric acid/Krebs cycle is [1995]
[1993] (a) LAA (b) NAD
(a) citric acid (b) lactic acid (c) TPP (d) All of these
(c) pyruvic acid (d) CO2 + H2O 24. Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) for fatty acid is
16. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per [1995]
glucose, 32 ATP molecules are formed from (a) > 1 (b) < 1
NADH/FADH2 in [1993] (c) 1 (d) 0
(a) respiratory chain 25. Oxidative phosphorylation involves
(b) Krebs cycle simultaneous oxidation and phosphorylation
(c) oxidative decarboxylation to finally form [1996]
(d) EMP (a) pyruvate (b) NADP
17. Life without air would be [1993] (c) DPN (d) ATP
(a) reductional 26. The enzymes hexokinase which catalyses
(b) free from oxidative damage glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis
(c) impossible is inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate. This is
(d) anaerobic an example of [1996]
18. Maximum amount of energy/ATP is (a) competitive inhibition
liberated on oxidation of [1994] (b) non-competitive inhibition
(a) fats (b) proteins (c) feedback allosteric inhibition
(c) starch (d) vitamins (d) positive feedback.
19. ATP is injected in cyanide poisoning because 27. Krebs cycle occurs in [1996]
it is [1994] (a) mitochondria (b) cytoplasm
(a) necessary for cellular functions (c) chloroplasts (d) ribosomes
(b) necessary for Na+ – K+ pump 28. Fermentation is anaerobic production of
(c) Na+ – K+ pump operates at the cell [1996]
membranes (a) protein and acetic acid
(d) ATP breaks down cyanide (b) alcohol, lactic acid or similar compounds
20. Fermentation products of Yeast are [1994, 97] (c) ethers and acetones
(a) H2O + CO2 (d) alcohol and lipoproteins
(b) methyl alcohol + CO2 29. The mechanism of ATP formation both in
(c) methyl alcohol + Water chloroplast and mitochondria is explained
(d) ethyl alcohol + CO2 by [1997]
21. Respiratory substrate yielding maximum (a) relay pump theory of Godlewski
number of ATP molecule is [1994] (b) Munch’s pressure/ mass flow model
(a) ketogenic amino acids (c) chemiosmotic theory of Mitchell
(b) glucose (d) Cholondy-Went’s Model
(c) amylose 30. In Krebs cycle FAD participates as electron
(d) glycogen acceptor during the conversion of [1997]
22. In animal cells, the first stage of glucose (a) succinyl CoA to Succinic acid
breakdown is [1994] (b) alfa keto glutarate to Succinyl CoA
(a) Krebs cycle (c) succinic acid to Fumaric acid
(b) glycolysis (d) fumaric acid to Malic acid
Respiration in Plants 147
31. Site of respiration in bacteria is [1997] 38. In which one of the following do the two
(a) episome (b) ribosome names refer to one and the same thing ?
(c) mesosome (d) microsome [2003]
32. Maximum usable energy per mol of glucose (a) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle
metabolised will be generated during [1999] (b) Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle
(a) aerobic respiration by germinating (c) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid
seeds cycle
(b) production of methanol by enteric (d) Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle
bacteria 39. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are
(c) fermentation into ethanol by yeast removed by [2004]
(d) glycolysis in the skeletal muscle of a (a) ATP
sprinter performing a hundred metre (b) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
dash (c) NAD+
33. Net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic (d) molecular oxygen
respiration is [1999] 40. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in
(a) 36 molecules (b) 38 molecules the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based
(c) 40 molecules (d) 48 molecules on: [2005]
34. How many ATP molecules are produced (a) membrane potential
by aerobic oxidation of one molecule of (b) accumulation of Na ions
glucose? [2002] (c) accumulation of K ions
(a) 2 (b) 4 (d) proton gradient
(c) 38 (d) 34 41. During the stage in the complete oxidation
35. In alcoholic fermentation [2003] of glucose are the greatest number of ATP
(a) oxygen is the electron acceptor molecules formed from ADP [2005]
(b) triose phosphate is the electron donor (a) glycolysis
while acetaldehyde is the electron (b) krebs cycle
acceptor (c) conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl
(c) triose phosphate is the electron donor Co-A
while pyruvic acid is the electron (d) electron transport chain
acceptor 42. How many ATP molecules could maximally
(d) there is no electron donor be generated from one molecule of glucose,
36. During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, if the complete oxidation of one mole of
such as in producing biogas, which one of glucose to CO2 and H2O yields 686 kcal and
the following is left undegraded ? [2003] the useful chemical energy available in the
(a) Cellulose (b) Lipids high energy phosphate bond of one mole of
(c) Lignin (d) Hemi-cellulose ATP is 12 kcal ? [2006]
37. Which one of the following concerns (a) Thirty (b) Fifty -seven
photophosphorylation ? [2003] (c) One (d) Two
Light energy 43. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that
(a) AMP + Inorganic PO4    → ATP
causes botulism is [2006]
(b) ADP + AMP Light

energy
→ ATP (a) an obligate anaerobe
(b) an facultative aerobe
(c) ADP + Inorganic PO4 Light

energy
→ ATP (c) an obligate aerobe
(d) ADP + Inorganic PO4 
→ ATP (d) a facultative anaerobe
44. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the (c) a proton gradient forms across the inner
mitochondrial matrix except one which is membrane
located in inner mitochondrial membranes (d) there is a change in the permeability
in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. of the inner mitochondrial membrane
This enzyme is [2007] toward adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
(a) isocitrate dehydrogenase 49. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately
(b) malate dehydrogenase termed: [2009]
(c) succinate dehydrogenase (a) parabolic (b) amphibolic
(d) lactate dehydrogenase. (c) anabolic (d) catabolic
45. The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle and 50. The energy - releasing metabolic process
the electron transport system is the formation in which substrate is oxidised without an
of [2007] external electron acceptor is called: [2010]
(a) ATP in one large oxidation reaction (a) glycolysis
(b) sugars (b) fermentation
(c) nucleic acids (c) aerobic respiration
(d) ATP in small stepwise units. (d) photorespiration
46. The energy-releasing process in which the 51. Which of the metabolites is common to
substrate is oxidised without an external respiration mediated breakdown of fats,
electron acceptor is called [2008] carbohydrates and proteins? [NEET 2013]
(a) fermentation (a) Fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate
(b) photorespiration (b) Pyruvic acid
(c) aerobic respiration (c) Acetyl CoA
(d) glycolysis (d) Glucose - 6 - phosphate
47. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded 52. The three boxes in this diagram represents the
exclusively in the [2008] three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic
(a) proplastids (b) glyoxysomes
respiration. Arrows represents net reactants or
(c) peroxisomes (d) mitochondria
products. [NEET 2013]
48. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of
1 5 9 10
oxidative phosphorylation proposes that
glucose
adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed Pathway A 2 Pathway B 6 Pathway C 11

7
because: [2008]
4 8 12
(a) high energy bonds are formed in 3
mitochondrial proteins Arrows numbered 4, 8 and 12 can all be :
(b) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into (a) ATP (b) H2O
the intermembrane space (c) FAD+ or FADH2 (d) NADH
Solutions
1. (b) Glycolysis involves the process of partial oxidation of reduced co-enzymes
oxidation of glucose or similar hexose produced in respiration.
sugar into two molecules of pyruvic acid 12. (c) Historically it was believed that 38
through a series of ten enzyme mediated ATP is produced from 38 ADP. But
reactions. It occurs in cytoplasm. the current estimate is that about 30
molecules of ATP are formed when
2. (a) Complete degradation of a molecule
glucose is completely oxidised to CO2.
of glucose produces 12 molecules of
13. (c) Respirometer is an instrument for
NADPH2 by HMP.
measuring respiratory quotient as well
3. (c) Respiratory Quotient as rate of respiration.
14. (d) Terminal cytochorome is cyt a3. cyt a3
posseses two copper centers. It helps in

transfer of electrons to oxygen.
4. (b) The end product of glycolysis is
15. (d) The two molecules of pyruvate are
pyruvic acid which is a three carbon completely degraded in Krebs cycle to
compound. form two molecules of ATP, 8 NADH2,
5. (b) Ratio of the volume of CO2 produced 2 FADH2, CO2 and water.
to the volume of O2 consumed in 16. (a) Complete degradation of a molecule of
respiration over a period of time is glucose yields 38 ATP molecules.
known as respiratory quotient. 17. (d) In Anaerobic respiration, oxygen is not
6. (b) The net gain of energy is equal to 8 ATP used in the breakdown of respiratory
in EMP pathway. substrate.
18. (a) Fats are used as respiratory substrates
7. (d) The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate.
by a number of organisms because they
It enters mitochondria and is oxidatively
contain more energy as compared to
decarboxylated to acetyl CoA before carbohydrates.
entering into Krebs cycle.
19. (a) ATP is injected in cyanide poisoning
8. (b) 2 ATP are produced during glycolysis because it is necessary for cellular
in cytoplasm. 34 ATP are produced by functions. ATP makes energy available
Krebs cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, at a spot away from the area of release
ETC. of energy so it helps in maintaining
9. (c) Aerobic respiration is an enzymatically cellular functions.
controlled release of energy in a stepwise 20. (d) End products of fermentation are ethyl
alcohol, lactic acid and CO2.
catabolic process of complete oxidation
of organic substrate into CO2 and H2O 21. (b) Firstly, amylose and glycogen are
converted to glucose. Deamination
with O2 acting as terminal oxidant.
of ketogenic amino acids occur and
10. (a) The optimum temperature of these enter respiratory catabolism as
photosynthesis is 10º–25ºC for C3 plants intermediates.
and 30º–45ºC for C4 plants. 22. (b) Glycolysis is the first step of respiration
11. (b) Oxidative phosphorylation is the which occurs without requirement of
synthesis of energy rich ATP molecules O2 and is common to both aerobic and
with the help of energy liberated during anaerobic modes of respiration.
23. (d) During aerobic oxidation of pyruvic transport performs the osmotic work
acid, first of all there is activation of accumulating H+ ions, conserving
of pyruvic acid in which NAD and energy in building a proton gradient,
coenzyme react with pyruvic acid and which is used to build ATP from ADP
oxidative decarboxylation takes place and inorganic phosphate.
leading to the formation of acetyl 30. (c) In the conversion of succinyl Co A to
Co-A. In this process, Lipoic acid amide succinic acid, energy liberated during
(LAA), thyamine pyrophosphate (TPP) hydrolysis of succinyl CoA is used in
and NAD are essential to perform this synthesis of GTP. For the conversion
reaction. of alfa-ketoglutarate to succinyl
24. (b) Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) is defined CoA, NAD+ and CoA are required.
as the ratio of the molecules of carbon Conversion of fumaric acid to malic
dioxide given out to the number of acid involves simple hydration. FAD
oxygen molecules taken in during participates in conversion of succinic
respiration. Its value for fatty acids is acid to fumaric acid.
always less than unity. 31. (c) Mesosome.
25. (d) Oxidative phosphorylation is the Mesosomes are the invaginations of the
synthesis of energy rich ATP from plasma membrane that can form into
ADP and inorganic phosphate, that vesicles. They are found to be present in
is connected to oxidation of reduced both gram-positive and gram-negative
coenzymes produced in cellular bacteria. Mesosomes may play a role in
respiration. cell wall formation during cell division
26. (c) Competitive inhibition is the reversible and/or chromosome replication and
inhibition of enzyme activity due to distribution and/or electron transfer
presence of substrate analogues. Non systems of respiration.
competitive inhibition is the reduction 32. (a) The energy yield during aerobic
of enzyme activity by a factor that respiration (36 ATP) is 18 times of that
has no real structural similarity with during anaerobic respiration ( 2 ATP).
the substrate. Allosteric inhibition is 33. (a) 38 molecules of ATP produced during
reversible noncompetitive inhibition aerobic respiration. Of these 2 ATP are
occurring in case of allosteric enzymes. used in link reaction. Hence net gain is
Herein the inhibitors are the products of 36 ATP.
or intermediates of reactions catalyzed
34. (c) 38 ATP molecules are produced by
by the enzymes. Hence it is also called
aerobic oxidation of glucose.
end product inhibition or feedback
35. (b) In alcohol fermentation triose phosphate
inhibition.
is the electron donor while acetaldehyde
27. (a) The enzyme involved in Krebs cycle are
is the electron acceptor.
localized in the mitochondrial matrix.
36. (c) Lignin is a complex polymer of
28. (b) Fermentation is referred to as the
phenylpropane units, which are cross-
decomposition of organic compounds,
linked to each other with a variety of
anaerobically by enzymes yielding
different chemical bonds.
alcohol, organic acids; gases etc.
37. (c) Photophosphorylation refers to addition
29. (c) According to the chemiosmotic theory
of phosphate in the presence of light.
the energy liberated during electron
38. (c) TCA cycle is so called because the first cycle and the membrane-bound electron-
stable product formed is a tricarboxylic transport system. The membrane
acid molecule that is citric acid. Hence extrinsic, water-soluble domain, known
the name citric acid cycle . It is also as succinate dehydrogenase (SDH),
called the Krebs cycle. contains the fumarate/succinate active
39. (c) ATP is the energy currency in all cells. site with a covalently bound FAD
Glyceraldehyde 3 - phosphate is reduced group and three iron-sulfur clusters:
during glycolysis. Molecular oxygen is [2Fe-2S]2 +/1+, [4Fe-4S]2+/1+, and
the terminal electron acceptor in ETS. [3Fe-4S]1 +/0 . The enzyme catalyzes
40. (d) The enzyme responsible for oxidative the interconversion of fumarate and
phosphorylation is ATP synthase. ATP succinate, and is closely related to
synthase is located in the F1 component fumarate reductase
of F0 – F1 or elementary particles. 45. (d) Glycolysis, Krebs cycle and electron
ATP synthase becomes active in ATP transport system, they all give ATP
formation only where there is a proton which is the main energy currency of our
gradient having higher concentration body. Glycosis takes place in cytoplasm,
of H+ or protons on the F0 side as Krebs cycle also in cytoplasm and ETS
compared to F1 side. Increased proton takes place in the mitochondria.
concentration is produced in the outer 46. (d) Glycolysis takes place in all body cells
chamber of outer surface of inner and is of two types-
mitochondrial memberane by the (a) Anaerobic glycolysis-From glycogen
pushing of protons with the help of or glucose to lactic acid in muscles.
energy liberated by passage of electrons (b) Aerobic glycolysis- From glycogen
from one carrier to another. or glucose to pyruvic acid (all cells
41. (d) ATP molecules from ADP are generated of body)
maximum in electron transport chain. 47. (b) In germinating seeds, fatty acids are
42. (b) 12 kcal of energy present in one degraded exclusively in the glyoxysomes.
molecule of ATP & on oxidation of Glyoxylate cycle occurs in tissues rich
one mole of glucose into CO2 and H2O in fats, such as those of germinating
energy released in 686 kcal. So no. of seeds; the enzymes involved in the
ATP which can store this energy would cycle, which have not been found in
be = 57.1 = 57 ATPs. mammals, are contained in organelles
43. (a) Clostridium botulinum is an obligate called glyoxysomes.
anaerobe i.e. it normally lives in 48. (c) Chemiosmotic theory postulated by the
the absence of oxygen. Facultative British biochemist Peter Mitchell (1920-
anaerobes are those who generally live 22) to explain the formation of ATP in
in oxygen but may live without oxygen the mitochondrial electron transport
in suitable medium. Obligate aerobes chain. As electrons are transferred along
can only live in the presence of oxygen the electron carrier system in the inner
while facultative aerobes generally live mitochondrial membrane, hydrogen
in oxygen but can also live without ions (protons) are actively transported
oxygen. into the space between the inner and
44. (c) Succinate:ubiquinone oxidoreductase, outer mitochondrial membranes, which
also known in mitochondria as Complex thus contains a higher concentration of
II, provides a link between the citric acid protons than the matrix. This creates
an electrochemical gradient across the an external electron acceptor is called
inner membrane, through which protons fermentation.
move back into the matrix. 51. (c) Acetyl CoA is common to respiration
49. (b) All energy-releasing pathways whether mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates
aerobic (requiring oxygen) or anaerobic and proteins. Fats are broken down to
(not requiring oxygen) begin with a fatty acid and glycerol and again fatty
pathway called glycolysis, which occurs acid degraded to acetyl co - A . Protein
in the cytoplasm (cytosol). Aerobic first degraded by proteases to indiviual
respiratory pathway is appropriately amino acids which deaminated to pyruric
termed amphibolic. Aerobic respiration acid and further decarboxylised to acetyl
is the main energy-releasing pathway
co- A.
leading to ATP formation. It occurs in
52. (a) In a given diagram of aerobic respiration
the mitochondria. Aerobic respiration
– pathway A is glycolysis, pathway B is
yields thirty-six ATP.
kreb’s cycle and pathway C is ETS , thus
50. (b) The energy releasing metabolic process 4, 8 & 12 are ATP. ATP act as energy
in which substrate is oxidised without currency. The energy trapped in form of
ATP and it broken down whenever and
wherever it needs to be utilised.
HAPTER
C
15 Plant Growth and

Development
1. Movement of leaves of Sensitive Plant, 9. Leaf fall can be prevented with the help of
Mimosa pudica are due to [1988, 99] (a) abscisic acid (b) auxins [1989]
(a) thermonasty (b) seismonasty (c) florigen (d) cytokinins
(c) hydrotropism (d) chemonasty 10. Which of the following hormones can
2. Phytochrome is involved in [1988] replace vernalisation? [1989]
(a) phototropism (b) photorespiration (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin
(c) photoperiodism (d) geotropism (c) Gibberellins (d) Ethylene
3. Gibberellins promote [1988, 97]
11. Which of the following movement is not
(a) seed germination (b) seed dormancy
related to auxin level [1990]
(c) leaf fall (d) root elongation
(a) Bending of shoot towards light
4. Cut or excised leaves remain green for long
if induced to root or dipped in [1988] (b) Movement of root towards soil
(a) gibberellins (b) cytokinins (c) Nyctinastic leaf movements
(c) auxins (d) ethylene (d) Movement of sunflower head tracking
5. Hormone primarily connected with cell the sun
division is [1988, 1991] 12. Phototropic and geotropic movements are
(a) IAA (b) NAA linked to : [1990]
(c) cytokinin/Zeatin (d) gibberellic acid (a) gibberellins (b) enzymes
6. Leaves of many grasses are capable of (c) auxin (d) cytokinins
folding and unfolding because they [1989] 13. Abscisic acid controls [1990]
(a) are very thin (a) cell division
(b) are isobilateral (b) leaf fall and dormancy
(c) have specialised bulliform cells (c) shoot elongation
(d) have parallel vascular bundles
(d) cell elongation and wall formation
7. Which one increases in the absence of light?
14. Phytohormones are : [1990]
(a) Uptake of minerals [1989]
(a) chemicals regulating flowering
(b) Uptake of water
(c) Elongation of internodes (b) chemicals regulating secondary growth
(d) Ascent of sap (c) hormones regulating growth from seed
8. Mowing grass lawn facilitates better to adulthood
maintenance because [1989] (d) regulators synthesised by plants and
(a) wounding stimulates regeneration influencing physiological processes
(b) removal of apical dominance and 15. Highest auxin concentration occurs [1990]
stimulation of intercalary meristem (a) in growing tips
(c) removal of apical dominance (b) in leaves
(d) removal of apical dominance and (c) at base of plant organs
promotion of lateral meristem (d) in xylem and phloem
16. Tendrils exhibit/twining of tendrils is due to (a) cytokinin (b) gibberellic acid
[1991] (c) auxin (d) antigibberellin
(a) thigmotropism (b) seismonasty 27. Klinostat is employed in the study of [1993]
(c) heliotropism (d) diageotropism (a) osmosis
17. A chemical believed to be involved in (b) growth movements
flowering is [1991, 95] (c) photosynthesis
(a) gibberellin (b) kinetin (d) respiration
(c) florigen (d) IBA 28. What is a stress hormone? or The hormone
18. The hormone responsible for a pical produced during adverse environmental
dominance is [1991] conditions is [1993]
(a) IAA (b) GA (a) benzyl aminopurine
(c) ABA (d) florigen (b) dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
19. Abscisic acid causes [1991] (c) ethylene
(a) stomatal closure (b) stem elongation (d) abscisic acid
(c) leaf expansion (d) root elongation 29. The regulator which retards ageing/
20. Which is employed for artificial ripening of senescence of plant parts is : [1993]
banana fruits? [1992, 2000] (a) cytokinin (b) auxin
(a) Auxin (b) Coumarin (c) gibberellin (d) abscisic acid
(c) Ethylene (d) Cytokinin 30. Removal of apical bud results in
21. Cytokinins [1992] [1993, 2000]
(a) promote abscission (a) formation of new apical bud
(b) influence water movement (b) elongation of main stem
(c) help retain chlorophyll (c) death of plant
(d) inhibit protoplasmic streaming (d) formation of lateral branching
22. In short day plants, flowering is induced by 31. Movement of auxin is [1994]
(a) centripetal (b) basipetal
(a) photoperiod less than 12 hours [1992]
(c) acropetal (d) both B and C
(b) photoperiod below a critical length and
32. The pigment, that absorbs red and far red
uninterrupted long night
light in plants, is [1995, 97, 2002]
(c) long night
(a) xanthophyll (b) cytochrome
(d) short photoperiod and interrupted long
(c) phytochrome (d) carotene
night
33. Ethylene gas is used for [1995]
23. Apical dominance is caused by [1992]
(a) growth of plants
(a) abscisic acid in lateral bud
(b) delaying fruit’s abscission
(b) cytokinin in leaf tip
(c) ripening of fruits
(c) gibberellin in lateral buds
(d) stopping the leaf abscission
(d) auxin in shoot tip
34. Thigmotropic movement is best shown by
24. Bananas can be prevented from over-ripening
(a) movement in tendril [1995]
by [1992] (b) insectivorous plants
(a) maintaining them at room temperature (c) movement in roots
(b) refrigeration (d) movement in Mimosa pudica
(c) dipping in ascorbic acid solution 35. What will be the effect on phytochrome in a
(d) storing in a freezer plant subjected to continuous red light?
25. Flowering dependent on cold treatment is [1997]
[1992] (a) Level of phytochrome decreases
(a) cryotherapy (b) cryogenics (b) Phytochrome is destroyed
(c) cryoscopy (d) vernalisation (c) Phytochrome synthesis increases
26. Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the (d) Destruction and synthesis of
plant with [1992, 2002] phytochrome remain in equilibrium.
Plant Growth and Development 155
36. If a tree, flowers thrice in a year (Oct., Jan. 46. Which of the following prevents fall of
and July) in Northern India, it is said to be fruits? [2001]
[1997] (a) GA3 (b) NAA
(a) photosensitive but thermoinsensitive (c) Ethylene (d) Zeatin
(b) thermosensitive but photoinsensitive 47. Which one is a long-day plant? [2001]
(c) photo and thermosensitive (a) Tobacco (b) Glycine max
(d) photo and thermoinsensitive (c) Mirabilis jalapa (d) Spinach
37. Which combination of gases is suitable for 48. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in
fruit ripening? [1998] [2001]
(a) 80% CO2 and 20% CH2 (a) presence of oxygen
(b) 80% CH4 and 20% CO2 (b) low CO2 conc.
(c) 80% CO2 and 20% O2 (c) high CO2 conc.
(d) 80% C2H4 and 20% CO2 (d) absence of CO2
38. A plant hormone used for inducing
49. Proteinaceous pigment which control
morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is
activities concerned with light [2001]
[1998]
(a) phytochrome (b) chlorophyll
(a) gibberellins (b) cytokinins
(c) anthocyanin (d) carotenoids
(c) ethylene (d) abscisic acid.
50. Seed dormancy is due to the [2002]
39. The response of different organisms to
(a) ethylene (b) abscisic acid
environmental rhythms of light and darkness
is called [1998] (c) IAA (d) starch
(a) phototaxis (b) photoperiodism 51. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by
(c) phototropism (d) vernalization. [2003]
40. ABA is involved in [1999] (a) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
(a) dormancy of seeds (b) high auxin : cytokinin ratio
(b) root elongation (c) high cytokinin : auxin ratio
(c) shoot elongation (d) high gibberellin : auxin ratio
(d) increased cell division 52. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its
41. The method that renders the seed coat effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth
permeable to water so that embryo expansion hormone [2003]
is not physically retarded is [2000] (a) abscisic acid (b) auxin
(a) vernalization (b) stratification (c) cytokinin (d) ethylene
(c) denudation (d) scarification 53. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to
42. What reason will you assign for coconut [2004]
milk used in tissue culture? [2000, 03] (a) reception of pollen by stigma
(a) Gibberellins (b) Cytokinins (b) formation of pollen
(c) Auxins (d) Ethylene (c) development of anther
43. Geocarpic fruits are produced by [2000, 02] (d) opening of flower bud
(a) onion (b) watermelon 54. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hours
(c) ground nut (d) carrot day and 12 hours night period cycles and it
44. What breaks bud dormancy of potato tuber? flowered while in the other set night phase
(a) Gibberellin (b) IAA [2001] was interrupted by flash of light and it did
(c) ABA (d) Zeatin not produce flower. Under which one of
45. Hormone responsible for senescence [2001] the following categories will you place this
(a) ABA (b) auxin plant? [2004]
(c) GA (d) cytokinin
(a) Long day (b) Darkness neutral
(c) Day neutral (d) Short day
55. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the 64. Which one of the following acids is a
green plants takes place due to [2004] derivative of carotenoids ? [2009]
(a) indole acetic acid (b) cytokinins (a) Indole-3 -acetic acid
(c) gibberellins (d) ethylene (b) Gibberellic acid
56. An enzyme that can stimulate germination (c) Abscisic acid
of barley seeds is [2006] (d) Indole butyric acid
(a) lipase (b) protease 65. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven
(c) invertase (d) a-amylase distribution of: [2010]
57. Treatment of seed at low temperature under (a) gibberellin (b) phytochrome
moist conditions to break its dormancy is (c) cytokinins (d) auxin
called [2006] 66. Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any
(a) vernalization (b) chelation support is an example of: [2010]
(c) stratification (d) scarification (a) thigmotaxis (b) thigmonasty
58. How does pruning help in making the hedge (c) thigmotropism (d) thermotaxis
dense? [2006] 67. Through their effect on plant growth
(a) It frees axillary buds from apical regulators, what do the temperature and light
dominance control in the plants? [2012M]
(b) The apical shoot grows faster after (a) Apical dominance
pruning (b) Flowering
(c) It releases wound hormones (c) Closure of stomata
(d) It induces the differentiation of new (d) Fruit elongation
shoots from the rootstock 68. Which one of the following generally acts as
59. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type an antagonist to gibberellins? [2012M]
of [2007] (a) Zeatin (b) Ethylene
(a) autonomic movement of variation (c) ABA (d) IAA
(b) paratonic movement of growth 69. Vernalization stimulates flowering in
(c) autonomic movement of growth [2012M]
(d) autonomic movement of locomotion. (a) zamikand (b) turmeric
60. Which one of the following pairs, is not (c) carrot (d) ginger
correctly matched? [2007] 70. Which one of the following is not used for
(a) Gibberellic acid - Leaf fall ex-situ plant conservation ? [NEET 2013]
(b) Cytokinin - Cell wall elongation (a) Seed banks
(c) IAA - Cell wall elongation (b) Shifting cultivation
(d) Abscissic acid - Stomatal closure. (c) Botanical Gardens
61. “Foolish seedling’’ disease of rice led to the (d) Field gene banks
discovery of [2007] 71. During seed germination its stored food is
(a) ABA (b) 2, 4-D mobilized [NEET 2013]
(c) IAA (d) GA (a) Cytokinin (b) ABA
62. Senescence as an active developmental (c) Gibberellin (d) Ethylene
cellular process in the growth and functioning 72. The pineapple which under natural
of a flowering plant, is indicated in [2008] conditions is difficult to blossom has been
(a) vessels and tracheid differentiation made to produce fruits throughout the year
(b) leaf abscission by application of [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) annual plants (a) IAA, IBA (b) NAA, 2, 4-D
(d) floral parts (c) Phenyl acetic acid (d) Cytokinin
63. One of the synthetic auxin is: [2009]
(a) IAA (b) GA
(c) IBA (d) NAA
Solutions
1. (b) Mimosa pudica (touch me not) leaves show lateral tips. That is why mowing grass
seismonastic movement in response to lawns facilitates better maintenance.
physical contact. The movement is due to 9. (d) It is due to Richmond-Lang effect.
turgor changes due to ejection of water Cytokinins prevent degeneration of
by cells of pulvinus (swollen leaf base) on chlorophyll, proteins and nucleic
touching it. It causes folding and drooping acids. They increase of inflow of auxin
of leaves. and amino acids. It reactivates leaf
2. (c) Borthwick & Hendricks (1952) gave the metabolism.
concept of phytochrome. Phytochrome 10. (c) Vernalization is the low temperature
is a coloured protein pigment located treatment for flowering in plants. Plants
in plasma membrane to perceive the are treated (seeds and seedlings) with very
photoperiodic stimulus in leaves. It may low temperature to promote germination.
exist in two interconvertable forms Pr A Lang & co-workers demonstrated that
and Pfr (red and far red light absorbing the application of gibberellins can replace
forms) the cold treatment or vernalization in
3. (a) Some light sensitive seeds like Lectuca many plants.
sativa (Lettuce) germinate in complete 11. (c) All except nyctinastic movement are
darkness with the help of Gibberellins related to auxin. Nyctinastic (sleeping)
which otherwise require specific light movement of leaves are due to diurnal
conditions. changes. (changes in day and night).
4. (b) Because cytokinins help cells in retaining 12. (c) Phototropic movements are the plant
chlorophyll for longer time. Cytokinin responses towards light. Generally
delay the senescence (ageing) of leaves plant shoot and flower show positive
and other organs. phototropism while geotropism is the
5. (c) The most important function of cytokinins plant response to the gravity of earth.
(zeatin is one of the cytokinins present in Generally roots are positively geotropic.
Zea mays - the corn) is the promotion of All these movements are linked to
cell division. These are now established Auxin.
as true cell division factors. 13. (b) Abscisic acid as the name suggests cause
6. (c) Monocot leaves have some specialized abscission due to which leaves fall. It also
cells in the epidermal cells of their leaves acts as a growth inhibitor & induce bud
called bulliform cells (motor cells) which dormancy in various plants.
lose or gain turgidity due to which their 14. (d) Phytohormones are plant hormones
leaves show coiling and uncoiling. which are synthesized by the plants
7. (c) In the absence of light stem become and act as regulators and influence
excessive long due to the development of physiological process like growth,
‘etiolin’ which causes ‘etiolation’. Cell of movements etc. auxins, gibberellins etc. are
internodes get enlarged. the phytohormones.
8. (b) Apical dominance is a common 15. (a) Highest concentration of auxins occurs
observation in vascular plants. If apical at the growing tips was proved by Went
meristem is intact & growing, the lateral in 1928 by his experiment on Avena
tips growth is suppressed. According to coleoptile. It was demonstrated that
Thimann & Skoog the Auxin, synthesized auxins are synthesized at the tips and
in apical meristem, in translocated then translocated downwards where they
downwards & inhibits the growth of cause growth.
16. (a) Twining of tendrils is due to thigmotropism 26. (b) One of the most important effects of
i.e. movement due to the contact with a gibberellins is the reversal of dwarfism
foreign body (touch). (even in genetically dwarf plants). Dwarf
17. (c) Chailakhyan (1936) a Russian investigator pea & dwarf corn attain almost normal
who researched on photoperiodism size when treated with gibberellins. It has
proposed the term ‘florigen’. According been proved that dwarf plants have lower
to him ‘Florigen Complex’, the true level of GA which causes the dwarfism.
flowering hormone includes two group Thus the external supply causes rapid
of substances formed in leaves (i) elongation of internodes. GA does not
Gibberellins which are necessary for the have any effect of elongation on normal
formation and growth of stem and (ii) (non dwarf or tall) plant.
Anthesins which are necessary for flower 27. (b) Klinostat = Clinostat is an apparatus
formation. Acting together they form the used to nullify the effect of geotropism.
substance named ‘florigen’. It has a clock to the main axis of which
18. (a) Apical dominance is caused by the action is attached to a rod. Top of the rod is
of auxins & IAA (Indole-3-acetic acid) is attached to a flower pot. The klinostat is
a naturally occurring auxin. kept in horizontal position and allowed
19. (a) Abscisic acid is a stress hormone. During
to rotate (to nullify the geotropism) and
desication abscisic acid is synthesized
plant growth is observed.
which reduces transpiration by closure of
28. (d) Abscisic Acid (ABA) is called stress
stomata. It conserves water.
hormone which works in adverse
20. (c) Ethylene is a plant hormone which has
environmental condition when there
the most remarkable effect of stimulation
is low water content in atmosphere or
of fruit ripening.
21. (c) Cytokinins cause delay in senescence in drought conditions. ABA causes the
(Richmond-Lang effect). Senescence is stomatal closure of leaves due to which
the phenomenon in which the mature the water loss by the plant is minimized.
leaves lose chlorophyll, turn yellow and 29. (a) Cytokinin help in retaining chlorophyll,
fall off. hence delay senescense.
22. (b) A short day plant is one that flowers on 30. (d) Apical buds inhibit lateral branching due
photoperiods shorter than the critical day to apical dominance. Removal of apical
length. It generally flowers when treated bud promotes lateral branching.
by a short day and uninterrupted long 31. (d) Auxins are synthesized at the tip of shoot
night (more than 12 hrs.) & then transported towards the base i.e.
23. (d) Apical dominance is the phenomenon basipetal. In all segments of root at all
by which presence of apical bud does temperatures, the movement of Auxin is
not allow lateral buds to grow. Apical polarised acroketalles.
dominance is due to auxin. When shoot 32. (c) The pigment phytochrome is involved in
tip is cut; then lateral buds start growing. flowering and many other light-mediated
24. (c) Ascorbic acid is an organic acid with processes. It absorbs red and far red light
antioxidant properties. Its appearance is in plants for photosynthesis.
white to light yellow crystals or powder. 33. (c) Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone
It is water soluble. The L-enantiomer which plays an important role in fruit
of ascorbic acid is commonly known ripening. In the presence of ethylene there
as Vitamin C. Ascorbic acid is easily is an increase in the rate of respiration.
oxidized and so is used as a reductant in 34. (a) The phenomenon of thigmotropism is a
photographic developer solutions and as response to contact with a solid object. It
a preservative.
is exhibited by tendrils of climbing plants
25. (d) Vernalization is the method of inducing
early flowering in plants by pretreatment that grow around a pole or the stem of
of their seeds at low temperature. another plant.
35 (a) Continuous exposure to red light causes a critical day length. e.g. Glycine max,
• Conversion of Pr to Pfr which is rapidly Tobacco.
destroyed. 48. (b) During day time, due to photosynthesis
• Inhibition of synthesis of Pr. CO2 concentration is low.
• Total amount of phytochrome decreases. 49. (a) Refer ans. 2
36. (d) In northern India, during these months 50. (b) Ethylene breaks dormancy of different
there is observed maximum variation plants. Abscisic acid induces dormancy
in light intensity and duration and
in seeds, buds and underground storage
temperature. Hence only plants that are
organs.
photo-and thermoinsensitive can flower
during these months. 51. (c) Differentiation of root is controlled by
37. (d) Ethylene acts physiologically as a high auxin concentration. While in tissue
hormone in plants. It stimulates the culture auxin concentration is made high
ripening of fruit, the opening of flowers, to promote rooting.
and the abscission (or shedding) of leaves. 52. (b) Zinc is one of the component of Auxin.
Its biosynthesis starts from methionine 53. (d) Anthesis is the period during which a
with 1-aminocyclopropane-1-carboxylic flower is fully open and functional. It may
acid (ACC) as a key intermediate. also refer to the onset of that period.
38. (b) Cytokinins are used in tissue culture to 54. (d) Short day plants require long
induce shooting of the cultural callus. uninterrupted dark period for flowering.
39. (b) Photoperiodism is the effect of duration They will not produce flower if night
of light and darkness on the growth, was interrupted by flash of light.
development and behaviour of an
55. (c) Gibberellins induces elongation of
organism.
internodes.
40. (a) Gibberellins are involved in shoot
elongation. Auxins are important in root 56. (d) a-amylase enzyme stimulates the
elongation and cell division germination of barley seed.
41. (d) Scarification is the breaking of the seed 57. (c) Treatment of seed at low temperature
coat barriers which can be done by under moist conditions to break dormancy
mechanical or chemical methods. is called stratification.
42. (b) The medium in tissue culture provides 58. (a) When an apical bud is present on a plant,
all the essential nutrients required for it suppresses the growth of axillary buds,
growth and division of callus. Coconut this is called apical dominance. When in
milk contains cytokinins which is useful pruning apical bud is cut off the axillary
in tissue culture. buds start growing & hedge become
43. (c) Geocarpic fruits are those which develop dense.
underground. Groundnut is the fruit 59. (c) Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a
which develops underground, onion and
type of autonomic movement of water
carrot also occur within the soil but onion
which is due to epinasty.
is modified stem while carrot is modified
root. 60. (a) Gibberllic acid stimulates cell growth of
44. (a) IAA promotes apical dominance. ABA leaves and stem causing their expansion,
induces dormancy in buds. elongation respectively and leaf fall is
45. (a) ABA or Abscisic acid is responsible for controlled by ABA.
leaf fall or senescence. 61. (d) The effect of gibberellins had been known
46. (b) NAA or Naphthalene Acetic Acid is in Japan since early 1800 where certain
synthetic auxin. It is used to check fruit rice plants were found to suffer from
fall specially in tomato. bakane or bakanae (foolish seedling)
47. (d) Long day plants undergo flowering after disease. Such rice plants were thin, pale
receiving light above a critical day length. green, spindle-shaped, longer by 50%
e.g. Spinach, sugarbeet. Short day plants than the healthy plants, and were sterile.
flower only when they receive light below
62. (b) Senescence as an active developmental 68. (c) Gibberellins & ABA are antagonistic
cellular process in the growth and with each other. ABA counteracts many
functioning of a flowering plant, is effects of gibberellins like induction of
indicated in lead abscission. Senescence hydrolases and alpha- amylases in barley
is the changes that occur in an organism seedlings.
between maturity and death, i.e., ageing. 69. (c) Carrot is a biennial plant which flowers
Characteristically there is a deterioration in the second season. Vernalization is
in functioning as the cells become less the subjection of seeds or seedlings to
efficient in maintaining and replacing low temperature in order to hasten plant
vital cells components. development and flowering. Vernalization
63. (d) NAA is a synthetic auxins. Some of the is commonly used for crop plants such
most widely used weed killers are as winter rye and is possible because the
synthetic auxins. Synthetic auxin analogs seeds and buds of many plants require
include 1–naphthaleneacetic acid (NAA), cold in order to break dormancy. Winter
2, 4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D) cereals are therefore sown in the autumn
and 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid for flowering the following year. However,
(2,4,5- T). if germinating seeds are artificially
64. (c) Abscisic acid (ABA), also known vernalized they can be sown in the spring
as abscisin II and dormin, is a plant for flowering the same year. Biennial
hormone. It functions in many plant plants, such as carrot (Daucus carota),
developmental processes, includsing bud will remain in their non - flowering rosette
dormancy. Abscisic acid is a derivative of form until subjected to cold treatment.
carotenoids. It was called “abscisin II” 70. (b) Shifting or Jhum cultivation contributes
originally because it was thought to play to deforestation. Ex-situ conservation is a
a major role in abscission of fruits. At biodiversity conservation method in which
about the same time another group was threatened animals and plants are taken
calling it “dormin” because they thought out of their natural habitat and placed
it had a major role in bud dormancy. The in protected and carring environment
name abscisic acid (ABA) was coined by zoological parks, botanical gardens,
a compromise between the two groups. wildlife safari parks, seed banks and gene
65. (d) Phototrophic curvature is the result banks.
of uneven distribution of auxin. The 71. (c) Gibberellins stimulate the synthesis of
experiments conducted by Charles Darwin α-amylase and proteases enzyme in
concluded that the tip of coleoptile of germinating grains of cereals. They are
canary grass contain auxin that causes the involved in the conversion of starch into
bending of the entire coleoptile towards sugar. The proteases convert an inactive
the light source. β-amylase to the active form. The active
66. (c) The coiling of garden pea tendrils β-amylase and α-amylase together digest
around any support is an example of starch to glucose which is mobilized to
thigmotropism. Thigmotropism is the meet the metabolic demands of embryo.
growth movement in response to touch. 72. (b) Plants which are difficult to flower can be
The stems and tendrils of the climbers made to do so by spraying them with 2, 4,
are positively thigmotrophic in their –D (2, 4 – dichlorophenoxy acetic
response. acid) and NAA (napthalene acetic acid)
67. (b) Flowering is induced by light and which are synthetic auxins, e.g., litchi,
temperature. pineapple.
HAPTER
C
16 Digestion and Absorption
1. Duct leading from parotid gland and opening 8. Where is protein digestion accomplished?
into vestibule is [1988] (a) Stomach (b) Ileum [1991]
(a) Haversian duct (c) Rectum (d) Duodenum
(b) Stensen’s duct 9. Pancreas produces [1991]
(c) Wolffian duct (a) three digestive enzymes and one
hormone
(d) Infra-orbital duct
(b) three types of digestive enzymes and
2. Wharton’s duct is associated with [1988] two hormones
(a) Sublingual salivary duct (c) two digestive enzymes and one
(b) Parotid salivary gland hormone
(c) Submaxillary salivary gland (d) three digestive enzymes and no
(d) Brunner’s glands hormone
3. Release of pancreatic juice is stimulated by 10. Brunner’s glands occur in [1992]
(a) submucosa of duodenum
[1989]
(b) submucosa of stomach
(a) Enterokinase (b) Cholecystokinin
(c) mucosa of oesophagus
(c) Trypsinogen (d) Secretin (d) mucosa of ileum
4. Secretin stimulates production of [1990] 11. Secretion of gastric juice is stopped by
(a) Saliva (b) Gastric juice (a) Gastrin [1993]
(c) Bile (d) Pancreatic juice (b) Pancreazymin
5. Emulsification of fat is carried out by [1990] (c) Cholecystokinin
(a) Bile pigments (b) Bile salts (d) Enterogastrone
12. Vitamin K is required for [1993]
(c) HCl (d) Pancreatic juice
(a) change of prothrombin to thrombin
6. In man the zymogen or chief cells are mainly (b) synthesis of prothrombin
found in [1990] (c) change of fibrinogen to fibrin
(a) Cardiac part of stomach (d) formation of thromboplastin
(b) Pyloric part of stomach 13. Most of the fat digestion occurs in [1993]
(c) Duodenum (a) Rectum (b) Stomach
(d) Fundic part of stomach (c) Duodenum (d) Small intestine
7. Pancreatic juice and hormones of pancreas 14. Which of the following pair is characterised
by swollen lips, thick pigmented skin of
are produced by [1990]
hands and legs and irritability? [1993]
(a) Same cells
(a) Thiamine – Beri-Beri
(b) Same cells at different times
(b) Protein – Kwashiorkor
(c) Statement is wrong (c) Nicotinamide – Pellagra
(d) Different cells (d) Iodine – Goitre
15. Kupffer’s cells occur in [1993] 24. For persons suffering from high blood
(a) spleen (b) kidney cholesterol, the physicians recommend
(c) brain (d) liver (a) pure ‘deshi ghee’ or butter [1996]
16. Renin acts on [1994] (b) vegetable oil such as groundnut oil
(a) milk changing casein into calcium (c) red meat with layers of fats
paracaseinate at 7.2 – 8.2 pH (d) vanaspati margarine
(b) proteins in stomach 25. Which one of the following is a matching
(c) fat in intestine pair of a vitamin and the deficiency disease
(d) milk changing casein into calcium related with it ? [1996]
paracaseinate at 1 – 3 pH. (a) Riboflavin — beri beri
17. Inhibition of gastric and stimulation of (b) Thiamine — xerophthalmia
gastric, pancreatic and bile secretions are (c) Niacin — pellagra
controlled by hormones 1994] (d) Calciferol — scurvy
(a) Gastrin, secretin, enterokinin and 26. Which one of the following is a matching
cholecystokinin pair of a substrate and its particular digestive
(b) Enterogastrone, gastrin, pancreozymin enzyme? [1996]
and cholecystokinin (a) Starch — maltase
(c) Gastrin, enterogastrone, cholecystokinin (b) Lactose — rennin
and pancreozymin (c) Maltose — steapsin
(d) Secretin, enterogastrone, gastrin and (d) Casein — chymotrypsin
enterokinin 27. A person had to undergo a surgery in which a
18. Prolonged deficiency of nicotinic acid major portion of his pancreas was removed.
produces [1994] Which of the following food constituents
(a) Osteomalacia (b) Xerophthalmia will he find especially difficult to digest ?
(c) Pellagra (d) Anaemia (a) Starch (b) Proteins [1997]
(c) Fats (d) Lactose sugar
19. Calcium deficiency occurs in the absence of
28. Which one of the following vitamins can be
vitamin [1994]
synthesized by bacteria inside the gut? [1997]
(a) D (b) C
(a) B1 (b) C
(c) E (d) B
(c) D (d) K
20. The enzyme enterokinase helps in the
29. The layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth
conversion of [1995]
is
(a) pepsinogen into pepsin
[1998]
(b) trypsinogen into trypsin
(a) Ameloblast (b) Osteoblast
(c) caesinogen into caesin (c) Odontoblast (d) Dentoblast
(d) proteins into polypeptides 30. One of the factors required for the maturation
21. The vitamin C or ascorbic acid prevents of erythrocytes is [1998]
(a) rickets [1995] (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B12
(b) pellagra (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
(c) scurvy 31. The hormone that stimulates the stomach to
(d) antibody synthesis secrete gastric juice is [1998]
22. The haemorrhagic disease of new born is (a) Enterogastrone (b) Enterokinase
caused due to the deficiency of [1995, 2002] (c) Renin (d) Gastrin
(a) vitamin A (b) vitamin B1 32. The contraction of gall bladder is due to
(c) vitamin B12 (d) vitamin K [1998]
23. A dental disease characterized by mottling (a) Gastrin (b) Cholecystokinin
of teeth is due to the presence of a certain (c) Secretin (d) Enterogastrone
chemical element in drinking water. Which 33. Which one of the following is a protein
of the following is that element ? [1995] deficiency disease? [1998]
(a) mercury (b) chlorine
(a) Night blindness (b) Eczema
(c) fluorine (d) boron
(c) Kwashiorkor (d) Cirrhosis
Digestion and Absorption 163
34. The daily dietary requirement of a moderately 42. Which set is correct? [2001]
active adult individual is approximately (a) Corpus callosum — Grafian follicle
[1999] (b) Sebum — Sweat
(a) 8,000 k cal (b) 4,000 k cal (c) Bundle of His — Pace maker
(c) 1,000 k cal (d) 2,500 k cal (d) Vitamin B7 — Niacin
35. Secretin and cholecystokinin are two 43. Which one is correctly matched? [2001]
hormones involved in digestion. They are (a) Vitamin E — Tocopherol
secreted by [1999] (b) Vitamin D — Riboflavin
(a) Duodenum (b) Ileum (c) Vitamin B — Calciferol
(c) Oesophagus (d) Stomach (d) Vitamin A — Thiamine
36. Which one of the following pairs is 44. Hydrolytic enzymes which act on low pH are
mismatched? [1999] called as [2002]
(a) Vitamin C - Scurvy (a) proteases (b) a-amylases
(b) Vitamin D - Rickets (c) hydrolases (d) peroxidases
(c) Vitamin K - Beri Beri 45. Stool of a person is whitish grey coloured
(d) Vitamin A - Xerophthalmia due to malfunction of which of the following
37. Nutrients absorbed by the blood capillaries organ? [2002]
of intestinal villi first go into [1999] (a) Pancreas (b) Spleen
(a) liver through hepatic portal vein (c) Kidney (d) Liver
(b) hepatic artery 46. Fluoride pollution mainly affects [2003]
(c) aorta (a) kidney (b) brain
(d) posterior vena cava (c) heart (d) teeth
38. The food having fully undergone mechanical 47. Which one of the following pairs is not
and chemical digestion inside the stomach, is correctly matched? [1994, 2003]
called [1999] (a) Vitamin B6 – Beri Beri
(a) Chyle (b) Bolus (b) Vitamin C – Scurvy
(c) Amino acid (d) Chyme (c) Vitamin B3 – Pellagra
39. An adolescent human below 17 years of age (d) Vitamin B12 – Pernicious anaemia
normally has dental formula as [1999] 48. During prolonged fasting, in what sequence
(a) (b) are the following organic compounds used
(c) (d) up by the body ? [2003]
40. A person deficient in the rhodopsin should (a) First proteins, next lipids and lastly
be advised to take more of [2000] carbohydrates
(a) Guava and ripe banana (b) First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly
(b) Apple and grapes proteins
(c) Carrot and ripe papaya (c) First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly
(d) Radish and potato proteins
41. A person is eating boiled potato, which food (d) First carbohydrates, next proteins and
component is found in it ? [2000] lastly lipids
(a) DNA which gets digested by pancreatic 49. Which one of the following pairs is not
DNAase correctly matched? [2004]
(b) Lactose which is indigestible (a) Vitamin B12 - Pernicious anaemia
(c) Starch which does not get digested (b) Vitamin B6 - Loss of appetite
(d) Cellulose which is digested by intestinal
(c) Vitamin B1 - Beri-beri
cellulose
(d) Vitamin B3 - Pellagra
50. Duodenum has characteristic Brunner’s 56. Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive
gland which secrete two hormones called hormones. They are secreted in : [2005]
(a) Kinase, estrogen [2004] (a) Pyloric stomach (b) Duodenum
(b) Secretin, cholecystokinin (c) Ileum (d) Oesophagus
(c) Prolactin, parathormone 57. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and
(d) Estradiol, progesterone secreted by [2006]
51. Which one of the following is the correct
(a) endothelial cells (lining the blood
matching of a vitamin, its nature and its
deficiency disease? [2004] vessels)
(b) liver cells
(a) Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Night (c) juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
blindness (d) macula densa cells
(b) Vitamin K – Fat-Soluble – Beri-beri 58. A person who is one along hunger strike and
(c) Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Beri-beri is surviving only on water, will have [2007]
(d) Vitamin K – Water-soluble – Pellagra (a) less amino acids in his urine
52. The richest sources of vitamin B12 are (b) more glucose in his blood
[2004] (c) less urea in his urine
(a) Goat’s liver and Spirulina (d) more sodium in his urine .
(b) Chocolate and green gram 59. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble
(c) Rice and hen’s egg
vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
(d) Carrot and chicken’s breast
53. Which group of three of the following five [2007]
statements (a-e) contain is all three correct (a) Retinol - Xerophthalmia
statements regarding beri-beri? [2005] (b) Cobalamine - Beri-beri
(a) a crippling disease prevalant among (c) Calciferol - Pellagra
the native population of sub-Saharan (d) A scorbic acid - Scurvy.
Africa; 60. What will happen if the secretion of parietal
(b) a deficiency disease caused by lack of cells of gastric glands is blocked with an
thiamine (vitamin B1) inhibitor? [2008]
(c) a nutritional disorder in infants and young (a) Gastric juice will be deficient in
children when the diet is persistently chymosin
deficient in essential protein;
(b) Gastric juice will be deficient in
(d) occurs in those countries where the
pepsinogen
staple diet is polished rice;
(e) the symptoms are pain from neuritis, (c) In the absence of HCI secretion, inactive
paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive pepsinogen is not converted into the
oedema, mental deterioration and active enzyme pepsin
finally heart failure; (d) Enterokinase will not be released from
(a) b, d and e (b) a, b and d the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen
(c) a, c and e (d) b, c and e is not converted to trypsin
54. A patient is generally advised to specially, 61. Which one of the following is the correct
consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs in matching of the site of action on the given
diet only when he suffers from [2005] substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the
(a) Scurvy (b) Kwashiorkor end product? [2008]
(c) Rickets (d) Anemia
(a) Duodenum: Triglycerides Monogly-
55. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in
food absorption have on their surface: cerides
(a) pinocytic vesicles [2005] (b) Small inestine: Starch Disaccharide
(b) microvilli (Maltose)
(c) zymogen granules (c) Small intestine: Proteins Amino acids
(d) phagocytic vesicles (d) Stomach: Fats Micelles
62. Modern detergents contain enzyme 68. Two friends are eating together on a dining
preparations of: [2008] table. One of them suddenly starts coughing
(a) Acidophiles while swallowing some food. This coughing
(b) Alkaliphiles would have been due to improper movement
(c) Thermoacidophiles of: [2011]
(d) Thermophiles (a) epiglottis (b) diaphragm
63. When breast feeding is replaced by less (c) neck (d) tongue
nutritive food low in proteins and calories; 69. Which one of the following enzymes carries
the infants below the age of one year are out the initial step in the digestion of milk in
likely to suffer from: [2009] humans? [2011]
(a) Rickets (b) Kwashiorkor (a) Pepsin (b) Rennin
(c) Pellagra (d) Marasmus (c) Lipase (d) Trypsin
64. A young infant may be feeding entirely on 70. One of the constituents of the pancreatic
mothers milk which is white in colour but juice while poured into the duodenum in
the stools which the infant passes out is quite humans, is: [2011M]
yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to ? (a) trypsinogen (b) chymotrypsin
[2009] (c) trypsin (d) enterokinase
(a) bile pigments passed through bile juice 71. Which one of the following correctly
(b) undigested milk protein casein represents the normal adult human dental
(c) pancreatic juice poured into duodenum formula ? [2011M]
(d) intestinal juice 3 1 3 1 2 1 3 3
(a) , , , (b) , , ,
65. Which one of the following statements is 3 1 2 1 2 1 2 3

true regarding digestion and absorption of 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3
food in humans? [2009] (b) 2 , 1 , 2 , 3 (d) 3 , 1 , 3 , 3
(a) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed
72. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an
through intestinal mucosa with the help
of carrier ions like Na+. otherwise normal human, may lead to [2012]
(b) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein (a) Indigestion (b) Jaundice
particles that are transported from (c) Diarrhoea (d) Vomiting
73. Where do certain symbiotic micro-organisms
intestine into blood capillaries.
normally occur in human body? [2012M]
(c) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by
(a) Caecum
salivary amylase in our mouth (b) Oral lining and tongue surface
(d) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the (c) Vermiform appendix and rectum
proenzyme pepsinogen. (d) Duodenum
66. Which one of the following pairs of food 74. Select the correct match of the digested
components in humans reaches the stomach products in humans given in column -I with
totally undigested? [2009] their absorption site and mechanism in
(a) Starch and fat column-II
(b) Fat and cellulose [NEET 2013]
(c) Starch and cellulose Column I Column II
(d) Protein and starch (a) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine,
67. If for some reason our goblet cells are non passive
functional, this will adversely affect: [2010] absorption
(b) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum,
(a) production of somatostatin
move as
(b) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous
chylomicrons
glands (c) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine,
(c) maturation of sperms active absorption
(d) smooth movement of food down the (d) Glycine, glucose Small intestine,
intes-tine active absorption
75. A healthy person eats the following diet - 5 gm mouth and as it moves down the alimentary
raw sugar, 4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo canal? [NEET Kar. 2013]
ghee adultrated with 2 gm vegetable ghee (a) Salivary maltase → carboxypeptidase →
(hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 gm lignin. trypsinogen
How many calories he is likely to get? (b) Pancreatic amylase → salivary amylase
[NEET Kar. 2013] → lipases
(a) 144 (b) 126 (c) Disaccharidase like maltase → lipases →
(c) 164 (d) 112 nucleases
76. Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked (d) Salivary amylase → pancreatic amylase
potatoes eaten by a man, starting from the → disaccharidases
Solutions
1. (b) A pair of parotid glands (the largest
salivary glands) present in the cheeks just
5. (b) Bile salts viz sodium glycocholate &
sodium taurocholate (both are organic
under the ears open in the vestibule (a salts present in bile) reduce the surface
narrow, groove like space which separates tension of large fat globules and break
the gums from lips and cheeks) by the them to fine minute fat droplets. This
parotid ducts also known as Stensen’s process is known as emulsification of fat.
duct. 6. (d) Zymogen or chief cells are mainly found
2. (c) A pair of submaxillary glands lie at the in the fundic part of the stomach. They
angles of lower jaw open by submaxillary are the most abundant among the gastric
ducts also known as Wharton’s ducts glands & secrete proenzymes, propepsin
open under the tongue behind the lower and prorenin. (They are also present in
incisor of its sides. These glands are intestine but their main site is stomach).
present in most mammals but absent in 7. (d) Pancreas consists mainly of large lobules
Rabbit & Horses. They mostly secrete / acini / alveoli and secretes pancreatic
mucus of saliva. juice. In between the acini, here and there
3. (b) Cholecystokinin (in fact it is i.e. randomly spread endocrine cells are
cholecystokinin - pancreozymin CCK- present known as Islets of Langerhans
PZ) is a hormone which is secreted by the which consist of a, b, and F cells &
duodenal wall. It causes the release of secrete insulin, glucagon, pancreatic
bile by the contraction of the gall bladder polypeptide and somatostatin hormones.
& increases the enzyme release process 8. (b) Protein digestion starts in the stomach
of pancreatic cells. The pancreatic juice with the action of enzyme pepsin.
enterokinase is an ‘activator enzyme’ Then in the duodenum it is done by
which is present in intestinal juice (success the action of trypsin, chymotrypsin &
entericus) and converts the inactive carboxypeptidases (all from Pancreatic
proenzyme trypsinogen to active trypsin Juice). Then aminopeptidases &
enzyme. Secretin is also a hormone and
dipeptidases, enterokinase in jejunum
causes the release of sodium bicarbonate
and then it ends in the ileum.
in the pancreatic juice (it is said that
9. (b) Pancreas produces enzymes (i)
the production of pancreatic juice is
trypsinogen which is then activated by
stimulated by secretin & its release is
the enterokinase into active trypsin (ii)
stimulated by CCK-PZ)
4. (d) Pancreatic juice secretion is regulated by chymotrypsinogen which is again an
the hormone secretin, which is produced inactive proenzyme, activated by trypsin
by the walls of the duodenum upon (iii) procarboxypeptidases which are
detection of acid food, proteins, and activated into carboxypeptidases by
fats. trypsin and two hormones (a) Insulin (b)
Glucagon which control glucose level in are controlled by a hormone complex
the blood. cholecystokinin pancreozymin (CCK-
10. (a) These are the tubulo-alveolar glands PZ) secreted by the intestinal mucosa.
present in the submucosa of duodenum 18. (c) Pellagra.
only. They secrete an alkaline mucus with 19. (a) Vitamin D (Ergocalciferol or Antirachitic
very little enzymes & pour their secretion vitamin) which is commonly known
into crypts of Lieberkuhn. as ‘sunshine vitamin’ regulates the
11. (d) Enterogestrone is a hormone secreted by absorption of calcium & phosphorus
intestinal mucosa and it has an inhibitory from gastrointestinal tract and hence
effect on gastric juice from gastric glands helping in the normal growth of bones &
in stomach. teeth. Its deficiency disturbs the Calcium
12. (b) Vitamin K (Phylloquinone = & Phosphorus absorption and hence
Nepthaquinone) also known as deficiency of these minerals in the body
‘Antihaemorrhagic factor’. This vitamin is which causes soft bones which become
essential for the synthesis of prothrombin curved and fragile (osteomalacia) and
in liver cells which is essential for normal teeth decay.
blood clotting. It is also synthesized by 20. (b) The enzyme enterokinase (enterope-
the colon bacteria. ptidase) helps in the conversion of
13. (d) Although traces of fat digesting enzyme trypsinogen (inactive form of another
(gastric lipase) have been reported but enzyme) into trypsin (active form of
due to its very little concentration, it is the enzyme) for protein digestion in the
unable to start fat digestion in stomach. intestine.
Fat digestion starts in duodenum with the 21. (c) The scurvy is a disease with bleeding
help of bile salts & pancreatic juice but gums, thin bones etc. It is caused due
completes in small intestine. to the deficiency of vitamin C. It can be
14. (c) Pellagra which is characterized by skin cured by taking citrus fruits.
inflammation specially thick pigmented 22. (d) Vitamin K is also called anti-haemorrhagic
skin of hands and legs, swollen lips, factor or phylloquinone. Its deficiency
diarrhoea & nervous disorder is caused causes delayed blood clotting. Even minor
by the deficiency of vitamin B3 which is injuries in the body of those people cause
also known as Nicotinic acid or Vitamin profuse bleeding (haemorrhage).
P.P. (Pellagra preventing vitamin) 23. (c) The excess of fluorine in water causes
15. (d) Kupffer’s cells or stellate cells are active a condition called fluorosis, which is
phagocytic cells present in the liver. They identified by mottling of teeth (yellowish
engulf the warn out and dead RBCs & streaks) and abnormal bones liable to
break out haemoglobin. They are also fracture etc.
infact hepatic macrophages. 24. (b) Hypercholesterolemia or high blood
16. (d) Renin acts on milk protein casein & cholesterol arises due to excess saturated
changes it into paracasein spontaneously fat in the diet . In this condition
precipitated into insoluble calcium cholesterol deposits on the walls of
paracaseinate, forming solid curd or blood vessels causing reduction in their
coagulated milk. Renin is present in diameter. This results in rise in blood
gastric juice and hence works in highly pressure and other cardiac disorders.
acidic pH (due to HCl) in stomach (about The disease can be prevented by taking
1-3 pH) and absent in adult human unsaturated oils in the diet i.e. vegetable
being. oils such as groundnut oils. Butter, ghee,
17. (b) Inhibition of gastric juice secretion is animal fats are all rich in saturated fatty
done by a hormone (secreted by the acids.
intestinal mucosa) called enterogastrone 25. (c) Beri-beri is a deficiency disease caused
while stimulation of gastric juice secretion by the lack of vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
is done by the hormone gastrin secreted in the diet. The deficiency of riboflavin
by the pyloric stomach mucosa. On the (Vit.B2) causes ariboflavinosis. Scurvy
other hand pancreatic & bile secretions is the result of lack of vitamin C in the
diet. Deficiency of calciferol (vitamin D) Aorta arises from the left ventricle and
in the diet causes rickets in children and carries oxygenated blood to all parts of
osteomalacia in adults. the body. Posterior vena cava opens into
26. (a) Fat is mainly digested by pancreatic lipase the right atrium bringing deoxygenated
while protein is digested by enzymes blood from the lower half of the body.
in pancreatic juice, intestinal juice and 38. (d) After mastication , the food is converted
stomach. into a small ball by rolling of the tongue
27. (c) When major portion of pancreas is known as bolus. Churning movement of
removed, the enzymes that typically the stomach brings about mechanical
digest fat and meat inside the intestine breakdown of the food into finer particles,
are also removed. the pulpy mass formed in stomach called
28. (d) Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin chyme. In the intestine food is converted
produced in sufficient quantity by into a liquid emulsion due to completion
intestinal bacteria. Vitamin B1 is a of digestion of most of the nutrients.
water soluble vitamin, obtained partly The liquefied food emulsion contained in
from intestinal bacteria and partly from small intestine is called chyle.
diet. Vitamin D is a fat soluble sterol 39. (d) The permanent teeth appear completely
synthesized in the skin, Vitamin C is by the age of 12 years, except for the last
obtained specially from citrus fruits. molars, which , if present, are formed
29. (a) Osteoblast are the bone degenerating after the age of 18 years. The dental
cells. Odontoblast are the special cells formula before the wisdom teeth appear
secreting dentine. would be
30. (b) Vitamin A takes parts in synthesis of 2 1 2 2
i , c ; pm , m
retinal pigments. Vitamin C functions as 2 1 2 2
antioxidant. Vitamin D is required for the after wisdom teeth appear
absorption of calcium in the intestine. 2 1 2 3
i , c ; pm , m
31. (d) Enterogasterone reduces digestive 2 1 2 3
activity of stomach. Renin is secreted 40. (c) Vitamin A is essential for the synthesis of
by kidney and regulates blood pressure. retinal pigment, rhodopsin. Carrot and
Enterokinase activates trypsinogen to papaya are good sources of vitamin A.
trypsin. 41. (a) Boiled potato does not contain cellulose
32. (b) Secretin released by duodenum inhibits or lactose. Its starch is also digested. DNA
movements in gastric intestinal tract. is broken down into purines, pyrimidines
Enterogasterone inhibits digestive activity and sugars by pancreatic nuclease (such
of stomach. Gastrin stimulates secretion as DNAase).
of HCl. 42. (c) Vitamin B3 or Niacin is a constituent
33. (c) Nightblindness is caused by deficiency of NAD. Corpus luteum is temporary
of vitamin A. Cirrhosis is caused by endocrine tissue developing from
inflammation of liver cells. ruptured grafian follicle. Bundle of His is
34. (d) The daily dietary requirement of a a part of the conducting system of heart
moderately active adult individual is conducting cardiac impulse from atria to
approximately 2,500 k cal. ventricles. Sebum is the name given to
35. (a) Duodenum. the oil secreted by sebaceous glands in
36. (c) Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin. It is the skin.
essential for synthesis of prothrombin 43. (a) Vitamin D - Calciferol
and other clotting factors. Deficiency Vitamin B1 - Thiamine
of vitamin K increases clotting time Vitamin A - Retinol
resulting in prolonged bleeding. Vitamin B2 - Riboflavin
37. (a) Hepatic portal system brings venous 44. (c) Proteases catalyze breakdown of proteins
blood directly from digestive tract, and amylases act upon carbohydrates.
spleen pancreas and gall bladder to liver Hydrolases catalyse hydrolysis.
for extraction of nutrients and other 45. (d) Stool colour is due to the bile pigments
metabolites by the hepatic portal vein.
biliverdine and bilirubin secreted by Liver. the needs of the growing individual this
If stool colour is whitish grey that means disease develops.
secretion of biliveridin and bilirubin is All the food stuff eg. milks, lentils, meat
not proper from the liver. and eggs are rich in proteins.
46. (d) Main source of Flourine: Drinking 55. (b) Presence of microvilli on the epithelial
water, tea, sea food. Deficiency causes cells of intestine increases the surface
weak teeth and excess causes mottling of area for absorption of food.
teeth or fluorosis. 56. (b) Secretin and cholecystokinin are secreted
47. (a) Deficiency of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the duodenum.
causes beri beri. Stimulus to
48. (b) Carbohydrates are basic source of energy (i) Secretin : Acidic chyme entry into
proteins provide material for growth and duodenum
development. (ii) CCK-PZ : Presence of fat in duodenum
49. (b) Deficiency of pyridoxine (Vit B6) causes Action
dermatitis, anaemia, convulsions, nausea, (i) Secretin : Releases bicarbonates in the
vomiting and mental disorders. pancreatic juice.
50. (b) Secretin released by duodenal cells (ii) CCKPZ : contracts the gall bladder to
inhibits movement in gastrointestinal release bile. Stimulating pancreas to
tract. Cholecystokinin stimulates release secrete and release digestive enzymes in
of pancreatic enzymes. Prolactin is a the pancreatic juice.
hormone released by anterior pituitary. 57. (b) Angiotensinogen is a protein secreted by
Parathormone is released by parathyroid liver cells.
glands. Estradiol is released by ovary 58. (c) Due to a long hunger strike and survival
and progesterone is released by corpus on water, a person will have less urea in
luteum. his urine because urea comes to kidney
51. (a) Vitamins, A, D, E and K are fat soluble as a waste product from liver which is
vitamins. formed after the breakdown of protein
52. (a) Carrots are source of vitamin A. Egg is a fat, carbohydrate during hunger. It is not
good source of vitamin E. synthesised but the synthesised ones are
53. (a) Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes Beri catabolised.
Beri disease. Beri Beri disease was 59. (a) Fat soluble vitamins are - A, D, E
discovered by Eijkman in 1897. Eijkman and K and lack of vitamin A causes
observed that the disease beri beri xerophthalmia.
occuried mainly in people subsisting on 60. (c) If the secretion of parietal cells of gastric
a polished rice diet. This disease is rare glands is blocked with an inhibitor, in
in the western world because of food the absence of HCI secretion, inactive
habits and food enrichment. Beri beri pepsinogen is not converted into the
disease is characterized by loss of apetite active enzyme pepsin.
and weight and vigour, retarted growth, 61. (b) Small intestine-
degeneration of nerves, muscle atrophy, Starch disaccharide (maltose)
even paralysis, weakened heart beat and Smal1 intestine is the portion of the
failure. alimentary canal between the stomach
54. (b) A child may have a diet containing and large intestine. It is subdivided into
sufficient carbohydrates and fats but still the duodenum, jejunum and ileum.
suffers a serious form of malnutrition. It plays an essential role in the final
This form of malnutrition is known as digestion and absorption of food.
Kwashiorkar. It develops in children 62. (b) Modern detergent contain enzymes
whose diets are deficient in protein. When preparations of alkaliphiles. Alkaliphiles
the first child is weaned (accustomed to live in alkaline environments like soda
food other than its mother’s milk) after lakes, or alkaline soil. The pH level in
the second is born, its primary supply of alkaline substances is from about 9 to 11
protein (the mother’s milk) is lost. If the on the pH scale. The alkaliphiles keep an
new diet is very low in protein to meet alkaline level of about 9 pH inside the
cells, but the environment has a higher cells become non-functional, it will
level of alkalinity. Alkaliphiles can keep adversely affect the smooth movement of
the right pH level by pumping in hydrogen food down the intestine.
ions in out at the right rate. 68. (a) The coughing would have been due to
63. (d) If breast feeding is replaced by less improper movement of epiglottis.
nutritive food low in proteins and 69. (b) Rennin is an enzyme that is essential for
calories; the infants below the age of (one the protein digestion. It is active in low
year are likely to suffer from Marasmus. acid medium and inactive by normal
Marasmus is a form of malnutrition gastic juice of adult.
that occurs when there is not enough 70. (a) Because it is inactive form and we know
protein in the diet.This disease is more that all enzymes of pancreas are secreted
common in very poor countries. It often in this form. Enzyme enterokinase is
occurs during a drought or other natural secreted from the duodenal mucosa,
disaster, or during political unrest. These at the chemical stage that changes the
conditions are responsible for a lack of inactive pancreatic secretion trypsinogen
food, which leads to malnutrition. to trypsin.
64. (a) Young infant may be feeding entirely 71. (c) The adult dental formula of human is
on mother’s milk which is white in 2
colour but the stools which the infant Incisor 2 , Canine 1 , Premolar 2 ,
2 1
passes out is quite yellowish because bile 3
pigments passed through bile juice. Bile Molar .
3
pigments are any of several coloured 72. (a) Anxiety and eating spicy food together in
compounds derived from porphyrin that normal healthy man can lead to indigestion
are found in bile; principally bilirubin which is difficulty in digestion.
and biliverdin. Bile pigment is produced 73. (a) The caecum is a pouch-like portion of
regularly when old red blood cells are the large intestine which hosts some
broken down, mainly by the spleen. symbiotic micro-organism. The caecum
In some blood-disorders where the red absorbs water and salts from undigested
cells are destroyed, more bile pigment is foods before they continue on to the large
produced. intestine.
65. (a) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed 74. (d) Small intestine is major area of absorb-
through intestinal mucosa with the help tion of nutrients. Approximately 80% of
of carrier ions like Na+.Carbohydrates absorbtion take place here. Glucose, fruc-
are absorbed as monosaccharides (simple tose, fatty acids, amino acids (Glycine
sugars such as glucose, fructose, and etc.) are absorbed through mucosa into
galactose that cannot be further broken blood and lymph by active absorbtion.
down by hydrolysis) or as disaccharides
75. (a) Physiological value of carbohydrates is
carbohydrates (such as sucrose, lactose,
4.0 kcal/g, proteins 4.0 kcal/g and of fats
maltose, and dextrin that can be
is 9.0 kcal/g. Hence,
hydrolyzed to two monosaccharides).
5 g raw sugar will yield
These simpler molecules, however, must
5 × 4.0 = 20.0 kcal
be obtained by the breaking down of
4 g albumin (protein) will yield
polysaccharides, complex carbohydrates
that contain many monosaccharides. 4 × 4.0 = 16.0 kcal
Chief among these is amylase, a starch 10 + 2 g of fat will yield
that accounts for 20 percent of dietary 12 × 9.0 = 108.0 kcal
carbohydrate. Total yield = 144 kcal.
66. (b) Fat and cellulose is the pair of food 76. (d) Chemical process of digestion started in
components in human reaches the the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action
stomach totally undigested. of the carbohydrate (potato contains
67. (d) Goblet cells, found in the intestinal starch) splitting enzyme, the salivary
mucosal epithelium, secrete mucus. The amylase. carbohydrates in the chyme are
mucus lubricates the food for an easy hydrolysed by pancreatic amylase into
passage. So, if for some reason, goblet disaccharides.
HAPTER
C
17 Breathing and Exchange

of Gases
1. Skin is an accessory organ of respiration in 7. The carbon dioxide is transported via blood
(a) humans (b) frog [1990] to lungs as [1995]
(c) rabbit (d) lizard (a) dissolved in blood plasma
2. The alveolar epithelium in the lungs is[1990] (b) in the form of carbonic acid only
(a) nonciliated columnar (c) in combination with haemoglobin only
(b) nonciliated squamous (d) carbaminohaemoglobin and as carbonic
(c) ciliated columnar acid
(d) ciliated squamous 8. People living at sea level have around
5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their
3. Carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to
blood whereas those living at an altitude of
respiratory surface by only [1993]
5400 metres have around 8 million. This is
(a) plasma and erythrocytes because at high altitude [1995, 2006]
(b) plasma (a) atmospheric O2 level is less and hence
(c) erythrocytes more RBCs are needed to absorb the
(d) erythrocytes and leucocytes required amount of O2 to survive
4. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin (b) there is more UV radiation which
is [1994] enhances RBC production
(a) Sigmoid (b) Hyperbolic (c) people eat more nutritive food, therefore
(c) Linear (d) Hypobolic more RBCs are formed
5. Air is breathed through [1994] (d) people get pollution - free air to breathe
(a) Trachea — lungs — larynx — pharynx and more oxygen is available
— alveoli 9. The quantity 1500 ml in the respiratory
volumes of a normal human adult refers to
(b) Nose — larynx — pharynx — bronchus
[1996]
— alveoli — bronchioles
(a) maximum air that can be breathed in
(c) Nostrils — pharynx — larynx — trachea and breathed out
— bronchi — bronchioles — alveoli (b) residual volume
(d) Nose — mouth — lungs (c) expiratory reserve volume
6. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet (d) total lung capacity
blood does not become acidic, because 10. In alveoli of the lungs, the air at the site of
[1995] gas exchange, is separated from the blood by
(a) it is absorbed by the leucocytes (a) alveolar epithelium only [1997]
(b) blood buffers play an important role in (b) alveolar epithelium and capillary
CO2 transport. endothelium
(c) it combines with water to form which is (c) alveolar epithelium, capillary
neutralized by NaCO3 endothelium and tunica adventitia
(d) alveolar epithelium, capillary
(d) it is continuously diffused through tissues
endothelium, a thin layer of tunica
and is not allowed to accumulate media and tunica adventitia
11. The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the (d) Total lung capacity minus residual
lungs takes place by [1998] volume
(a) simple diffusion (b) osmosis 19. Listed below are four respiratory capacities
(c) active transport (d) passive transport (i–iv) and four jumbled respiratory volumes
12. The process of migration of chloride ions of a normal human adult: [2010]
from plasma to RBC and of carbonate ions
Respiratory Respiratory
from RBC to plasma is [1999]
capacities volumes
(a) chloride shift (b) ionic shift
(i) Residual volume 2500mL
(c) atomic shift (d) Na+ pump
13. Which one of the following organs in the (ii) Vital capacity 3500mL
human body is most affected due to shortage (iii) Inspiratory reserve 1200mL
of oxygen? [1999] volume
(a) intestine (b) skin (iv) Inspiratory capacity 4500mL
(c) kidney (d) brain Which one of the following is the correct
14. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, matching of two capacities and volumes?
breathing becomes [2004] (a) (ii) 2500mL, (iii) 4500mL
(a) shallower and slow (b) (iii) 1200mL, (iv) 2500mL
(b) there is no effect on breathing (c) (iv) 3500 mL, (i) 1200mL
(c) slow and deep
(d) (i) 4500 mL, (ii) 3500mL
(d) faster and deeper
20. Which two of the following changes (a–d)
15. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually
high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers
content. Which of the following conclusions when they move to high altitudes (3,500 m
is most likely to be correct? or more)? [2010]
The patient has been inhaling polluted air (i) Increase in red blood cell size
containing unusually high content of [2004] (ii) Increase in red blood cell production
(a) carbon disulphide (iii) Increased breathing rate
(b) chloroform (iv) Increase in thrombocyte count
(c) carbon dioxide Changes occurring are:
(d) carbon monoxide (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
16. Which one of the following mammalian
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
cells is not capable of metabolising glucose
21. Which one of the following is a possibility for
to carbon-dioxide aerobically? [2007]
most of us in regard to breathing, by making
(a) unstraited muscle cells
(b) liver cells a conscious effort? [2011M]
(c) red blood cells (a) One can breathe out air totally without
(d) white blood oxygen.
17. Intercostal muscles occur in [1988] (b) One can breathe out air through
(a) abdomen (b) thigh eustachian tubes by closing both the
(c) ribs (d) diaphragm nose and the mouth.
18. What is vital capacity of our lungs? (c) One can consiously breathe in and
(a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal breathe out by moving the diaphragm
volume alone, without moving the ribs at all.
(b) Total lung capacity minus expiratory
(d) The lungs can be made fully empty by
reserve volume
forcefully breathing out all air from
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus
expiratory reserve volume them
Breathing and Exchange of Gases 173
22. Which of the following are the correct 24. Figure shown schematic plan of blood
statement for respiration in human [2012] circulation in humans with labels A to D.
(a) C i g a r e t t e s m o k i n g m ay l e a d o f Identify the label and give its function’s.
inflammation of bronchi [NEET 2013]
(b) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre
in pons region of brain can increase the D
A
duration of inspiration
(c) Workers in grinding and stone - breaking
B
industries may suffer from lung fibrosis C
(d) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is
carried by haemoglobin as carbamino
haemoglobin.
23. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of (a) B-Pulmonary artery-takes blood from
human respiratory system with labels A, B, C heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg
and D. Select the option which gives correct
(b) C-Vena Cava - takes blood from body
identification and main function and/or
parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm
characteristics. [NEET 2013]
Hg
(c) D - Dorsal aorta - takes blood from Heart
A
to body Part PO2 = 95 mm Hg
Bronchus (d) A-Pulmonary vein - takes impure blood
Cut end of rib from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg
B
C 25. Which one of the following is one of the paths
followed by air/O2 during respiration in an
Lung D
adult male Periplaneta americana as it enters
(a) B-pleural membrane-surrounds ribs on the animal body? [NEET Kar. 2013]
both sides to provides cushion against (a) Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea,
rubbing. tissues
(b) C-Alveoli-thin walled vascular bag like (b) Spiracle in metathorax, trachea,
structures for exchange of gases. tracheoles, oxygen diffuses into cells
(c) D-Lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls (c) Mouth, bronchial tube, trachea, oxygen
it down during inspiration enters cells
(d) A-trachea-long tube supported by
(d) Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles,
complete car tilaginous rings for
trachea, oxygen diffuses into cells
conducting inspired air.
Solutions
1. (b) Frog has lungs as its main respiratory

organs but during hibernation & (Haldane effect : O2 displaces CO2 for Hb)
aestivation and during its habitat in
water it respires through skin. ↓ pH ↓ pH
2. (b) The very thin alveolar wall (about 0.0001 ↑ DPG ↑ DPG
↑ Temp
mm) is composed of moist, nonciliated, ↑ Temp
squamous epithelial cells. (Bohr effect:↑CO p2H, temp.)
3. (a) CO2 from the respiratory tissues to the
lungs is transported by the blood in 3
ways :
(i) In dissolved state or as a physical
solution : Very small amount physically
dissolved in plasma (7% i.e. @ 0.3 ml of
CO2 by each 100 ml of blood)
(ii) Bicarbonate ions : @ 70% (i.e. @ 2.5 ml
per 100 ml of blood) CO2 diffuses in The O2-Hb dissociation curve is a
plasma & then into RBCs where it (in sigmoidal curve that represents the
the presence of carbonic anhydrase) relationship between O2 concentration
combines with H2O to form carbonic and the percentage saturation of Hb. As
acid which is almost spontaneously
the concentration increases from about
dissociated into hydrogen ion &
bicarbonate ions. 90% there is a significant plateau in
the curve, which has several important
(iii) Carbaminohaemoglobin : @ 23% (i.e.
biological repercussions.
@ 1 ml of CO2 per 100 ml of blood)
combines with haemoglobin forming an 5. (c) The pathway of inhaled air is - Nostrils
unstable compound. - pharynx (common passage for food
4. (a) It is the relationship between the & air) - larynx (voice box) - trachea
percentage saturation of haemoglobin (the wind pipe) - bronchi (2 for each
(by volume) in the blood and the oxygen side lungs) - bronchioles (give arise to
tension (in partial tension) PO2 of the alveolar ducts) - alveoli (the exchange
blood. site for gases in the form of small sacs or
It is usually a sigmoid plot. Haemoglobin pouches).
molecules can bind up to four oxygen 6. (b) CO2 enters RBC and reacts with water
molecules in a reversible way. The shape to form carbonic acid. Carbonic acid
of the curve results from the interaction
dissociates to form bicarbonate and
of bound oxygen molecules with
hydrogen ions. Some bicarbonate ions
incoming molecules. The binding of the
first molecule is difficult. However, this are transported in erythrocytes while
facilitates the binding of the second and some diffuse into the blood plasma.
third molecules, and it is only when the Exit of bicarbonate ions change the
fourth molecule is to be bound that the ionic balance between the plasma and
difficulty increases, partly as a result of erythrocytes. To restore this balance
crowding of the haemoglobin molecule, chloride ions diffuse from plasma into
partly as a natural tendency of oxygen erythrocytes. Due to this the pH of
to dissociate. blood is maintained.
Breathing and Exchange of Gases 175
7. (d) Carbon dioxide is transported via blood to 13. (d) Brain is the most vital organ. It stops
lungs mostly as carbaminohaemoglobin functioning in the absence of O2.
and carbonic acid. It is released in lungs 14. (d) The breathing becomes faster and deeper
in exchange with oxygen. in order to oxygenate the blood at a fast
8. (a) At the altitude of 5400 meters the low rate. Shallow and slow breathing occurs
atmospheric pressure of O2 will be too during rest.
low so the solubility of oxygen in the 15. (d) Carboxyhaemoglobin is the stable
blood will be very less hence the oxygen product formed by the association of CO
carried by each RBC will be too less. But and Hb in the blood. The association of
to fulfill the oxygen requirement of the carbon dioxide and haemoglobin forms
body blood has to carry more oxygen to carbamino haemoglobin.
the body tissue and this is done by the 16. (c) Since RBCS do not have mitochondria
increased no. of RBCs. so they can respire only anaerobically.
9. (b) The total volume of air that can be 17. (c) Intercostal muscles (External intercostal
expelled from the lungs after maximum & Internal intercostal) are attached with
inspiration and then expiring to the the ribs which help in the movement of
maximum is known as the vital capacity. rib cage during breathing.
The volume of air that remains inside 18. (d) Vital capacity of lungs is largest
lungs at the end of maximum forceful possible expiration after largest possible
expiration is the residual volume. inspiration that is greatest. Volume of air
Expiratory reserve volume is the can be exchanged in single respiration
maximum extra volume of air that can or amount of air breath in and out with
be expired by forceful expiration after greatest possible efforts.
a normal tidal expiration. Total lung VC = TRV +TV + ERV
capacity is the maximum volume of air = 3000 + 500 + 1100
that can be contained in the lungs after = 4600 ml.
maximum inspiration. 19. (c) The correct matching of respiratory
10. (b) Alveoli are the site of the respiratory capacities with their respiratory volumes
exchange of gases. Oxygen from are:
the alveolar air diffuses through the
alveolar epithelium and the capillary Respiratory Capacities Respiratory
Volumes
endothelium into the capillary blood and
Residual volume 1200 mL
carbon dioxide diffuses in the opposite Vital capacity 4500 mL
direction. Inspiratory reserve volume 2500 mL
11. (a) Gaseous exchange between blood Inspiratory capacity 3500 mL

(dissolved phase) and alveolar air 20. (a) At high altitude, the body undergoes
(gaseous phase) across respiratory numerous changes in order to increase
membrane occurs by simple diffusion. oxygen delivery to cells and improve the
Obviously, it depends upon the efficiency of oxygen usage. The early
concentration gradient (=partial changes include increased breathing
pressure) of the concerned gases in rate and increased red blood cell
blood and alveolar air. production.
12. (a) During the transport of CO2 through 21. (b) Eustachian tube connect middle
the blood, bicarbonate ions diffuse ear cavity (Tympanic cavity) with
out of RBCs while chloride ions from nasopharynx, approximately it is 35
plasma enter the RBCs to maintain mm long in adults, which helps in
ionic equilibrium. This is called chloride breathing out by closing both the nose
shift. and mouth.
22. (c) (a) and (c). Neural signals from 24. (b) A is Pulmonary vein which takes pure
pneumotaxic center in pons region blood from lungs to heart. B is dorsal
of brain can limit the duration of aorta which takes pure blood from heart
inspiration. About 25% of carbodioxide to various body parts. C is Vena cava
(CO 2 ) is carried by haemoglobin as which takes impure blood from various
body pars to right auricle of heart. D is
carboxyhaemglobin.
pulmonary artery which takes impure
23. (b) Alveoli are very thin, irregular walled
blood from heart to lungs.
bag like structures for gaseous exchange.
25. (b) The number of spiracles in cockroach is
Tracheae bronchi and bronchioles are 10-pairs (2-pairs in thoracic and 8-pairs in
supported by incomplete cartilaginous abdominal region). The thoracic pairs of
rings. Double layered pleural membrane spiracles are present on pleuron between
surrounds the lungs with pleural fluid prothorax - mesothorax and metathorax.
between them. It reduces friction on the Each spiracle opens into a chamber called
lung surface. atrium. After atrium the tracheal tube
ramifies into fine branches of tracheae,
and then tracheoles.
HAPTER
C
Body Fluids and
18 Circulation
1. RBC do not occur in [1988] (a) A and B (b) A and AB
(a) frog (b) cow (c) A and O (d) A, B, AB and O
(c) camel (d) cockroach 10. Removal of calcium from freshly collected
2. Breakdown product of haemoglobin is blood would [1989]
[1988] (a) cause delayed clotting
(a) Bilirubin (b) Iron (b) prevent clotting
(c) Biliverdin (d) Calcium (c) cause immediate clotting
3. Child death may occur in the marriage (d) prevent destruction of haemoglobin
between 11. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except
(a) Rh+ man and Rh+ woman [1988] [1989]
(b) Rh+ man and Rh– woman (a) Pulmonary (b) Cardiac
(c) Rh– man and Rh– woman (c) Hepatic (d) Systemic
(d) Rh– man and Rh+ woman 12. A vein possesses a large lumen because
4. Presence of RBC in urine is [1988] [1990]
(a) Alkaptonuria (b) Ureathiasis (a) tunica media and tunica externa form a
(c) Hematuria (d) Proteinuria single coat
5. Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by [1988] (b) tunica interna and tunica media form a
(a) Leukemia single coat
(b) Polycythemia (c) tunica interna, tunica media and tunica
(c) Mental retardation externa are thin
(d) Hemolytic anaemia (d) tunica media is a thin coat
6. Haemophilia is [1989] 13. Splenic artery arises from [1990]
(a) royal disease (a) anterior mesenteric artery
(b) faulty blood clotting (b) coeliac artery
(c) both a and b (c) posterior mesenteric artery
(d) intestinal artery
(d) mosquito having haemocoel
14. Wall of blood capillary is formed of [1991]
7. Which one engulfs pathogens rapidly? [1989]
(a) haemocytes (b) parietal cells
(a) Acidophils (b) Monocytes
(c) endothelial cells (d) oxyntic cells
(c) Basophils (d) Neutrophils
15. Carbonic anhydrase occurs in [1991]
8. Tricuspid valve is found in between [1989]
(a) Lymphocytes (b) Blood plasma
(a) sinus venosus and right auricle
(c) RBC (d) Leucocytes
(b) right auricle and right ventricle
16. Blood group AB has [1991]
(c) left ventricle and left auricle
(a) no antigen
(d) ventricle and aorta
(b) no antibody
9. A person with blood group A requires blood.
(c) neither antigen nor antibody
The blood group which can be given is
(d) both antigen and antibody
[1989]
17. The genotype of B-group father of an (c) SA node→Purkinje fibre→bundle of
O-group child is [1992] His→AV node→heart muscles
(a) IOIO (b) IBIB (d) SA node→AV node→bundle of
(c) IAIB (d) IOIB His→Purkinje fibre→heart muscles
18. Cells formed in bone marrow include [1993] 28. The blood cancer is known as [1995]
(a) RBC (a) leukaemia (b) thrombosis
(b) RBC and leucocytes (c) haemolysis (d) haemophilia
(c) Leucocytes 29. Which one of the following vertebrate organs
(d) Lymphocytes receives the oxygenated blood only ? [1996]
19. A man with blood group A marries AB (a) Gill (b) Lung
blood group woman. Which type of progeny (c) Liver (d) Spleen
indicate that the man is not homozygous? 30. Which one of the following statements
(a) AB (b) B [1993] about blood constituents and transport of
(c) A (d) O respiratory gases is most accurate ? [1996]
20. Blood capillaries are made of [1993] (a) RBCs transport oxygen whereas WBCs
(a) endothelium, connective tissue and transport CO2
muscle fibres (b) RBCs transport oxygen whereas plasma
(b) endothelium and muscle fibres transports only CO2
(c) endothelium and connective tissue (c) RBCs as well as WBCs transport both
(d) endothelium only oxygen and CO2
21. ‘Dup’ sound is produced during closure of (d) RBCs as well as plasma transport both
[1994] oxygen and CO2
(a) Semilunar valves (b) Bicuspid valve 31. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
(c) Tricuspid valve (d) Both b and c [1997]
22. Closed circulatory system occurs in [1994] (a) Lymphocyte (b) Eosinophil
(a) cockroach (b) tadpole/fish (c) Basophil (d) Neutrophil
(c) mosquito (d) housefly 32. The life span of human W.B.C. is
23. Pacemaker of heart is [1994] approximately [1997]
(a) AV node (b) Bundle of His (a) less than 10 days
(c) SA node (d) Purkinje fibres (b) between 20 to 30 days
24. A child of blood group O cannot have parents (c) between 2 to 3 months
of blood groups [1994] (d) more than 4 months
(a) AB and AB/O (b) A and B 33. In mammals, histamine is secreted by [1998]
(c) B and B (d) O and O (a) histiocytes (b) lymphocytes
25. The lymph serves to [1995] (c) mast cells (d) fibroblasts
(a) transport oxygen to the brain 34. An adult human with average health has
(b) transport carbon dioxide to the lungs systolic and diastolic pressures as [1998]
(c) return the interstitial fluid to the blood (a) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
(d) return the WBCs and RBCs to the lymph (b) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
nodes (c) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
26. Antigens are present [1995] (d) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(a) inside the nucleus 35. With respect to the ABO group, there are
(b) on cell surface four major blood types because this blood
(c) inside the cytoplasm group is determined by [1998]
(d) on nuclear membrane (a) three alleles, all of which are recessive
27. The correct route through which pulse- (b) three alleles, of which, two are recessive
making impulse travels in the heart is [1995] and the third is dominant
(a) AV node→bundle of His→SA node (c) three alleles, of which two are co-
Purkinje fibres →heart muscles dominant and the third is recessive
(b) AV node→SA node→Purkinje fibres→ (d) three alleles , all of which are co-
bundle of His→heart muscles dominant
Body Fluids and Circulation 179
36. Contraction of the ventricle in the heart (c) RBCs, WBCs and plasma
begins by the command from [1999] (d) RBCs proteins and platelets
(a) Chordae tendinae 44. Systemic heart refers to [2003]
(b) S.A. node (a) the two ventricles together in humans
(c) Purkinje fibres (b) the heart that contracts under stimulation
(d) A. V. node from nervous system
37. Pulmonary artery differ from pulmonary (c) left auricle and left ventricle in higher
vein in having [2000] vertebrates
(a) no endothelium (d) entire heart in lower vertebrates
(b) valves 45. Bundle of His is a network of [2003]
(c) large lumen (a) nerve fibres found throughout the heart
(d) thick muscular walls (b) muscle fibres distributed throughout the
38. What is true about leucocytes ? [2000] heart walls
(a) Their sudden fall in number is indication
(c) muscle fibres found only in the ventricle
of blood cancer
wall
(b) These are produced in thymus
(d) nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(c) These are enucleated
46. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both
(d) These can squeeze out through the
antigens are present but no antibody, the
capillary walls
39. As the age advances, there is a gradual blood group of the individual would be
thinning of hair in human males. This is [2004]
mainly because of lowered [2000] (a) B (b) O
(a) blood supply (c) AB (d) A
(b) synthesis of proteins 47. You are required to draw blood from a patient
(c) synthesis of glycogen and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of
(d) availability of energy blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also
40. Sickle cell anaemia is induced by [2001] provided with the following four types of
(a) change of amino acid in a-chain of test tubes. Which of them will you not use
haemoglobin for the purpose? [2004]
(b) change of amino acid in b-chain of (a) Test tube containing calcium
haemoglobin bicarbonate
(c) change of amino acid in both a- and (b) Chilled test tube
b-chain of haemoglobin (c) Test tube containing heparin
(d) change of amino acid in either a- or (d) Test tube containing sodium oxalate
b-chain of haemoglobin 48. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to
41. What is correct for blood group ‘O’? [2001] function normally. The doctors find that an
(a) No antigens but both a and b antibodies artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It
are present is likely that it will be grafted at the site of
(b) A antigen and b antibody (a) Atrioventricular bundle [2004]
(c) Antigen and antibody both absent (b) Purkinje system
(d) A and B antigens and a, b antibodies (c) Sinuatrial node
42. Impulse of heart beat originates from [2002] (d) Atrioventricular node
(a) S. A. node (b) A. V. node 49. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to:
(c) Vagus nerve (d) Cardiac nerve [2005]
43. Which of the following statments is true for
(a) a reduction in haemoglobin content of
lymph? [2002]
blood
(a) WBC and serum
(b) a reduction in stem cell production
(b) all components of blood except RBCs
(c) loss of antibody mediated immunity
and some proteins
(d) loss of cell mediated immunity
50. Which one of the following statements is (a) Neutrophils (b) Basophils
incorrect ? [2006] (c) Eosinophils (d) Monocytes
(a) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, 57. The most active phagocytic white blood cells
increases the efficiency of respiration in are: [2008]
birds (a) neutrophils and eosinophils
(b) In insects, circulating body fluids serve (b) lymphocytes and macrophages
to distribute oxygen to tissues (c) eosinophils and lymphocytes
(c) The principle of countercurrent flow (d) neutrophils and monocytes
facilitates efficient respiration in gills of 58. In humans, blood passes from the post caval
fishes to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to.
(d) The residual area in lungs slightly [2008]
decreases the efficiency of respiration in (a) pushing open of the venous valves
mammals (b) suction pull
51. Which one of the following has an open (c) stimulation of the sino auricular node
circulatory system ? [2006] (d) pressure difference between the post
(a) Periplaneta (b) Hirudinaria caval and atrium
(c) Octopus (d) Pheretima 59. The most popularly known blood grouping is
52. The majority of carbon dioxide produced by
the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not
our body cells is transported to the lungs
ABC, because “O” in it refers to having:
(a) as bicarbonates [2006]
[2009]
(b) as carbonates
(a) overdominance of this type on the genes
(c) attached to hemoglobin
for A and B types
(d) dissolved in the blood
(b) one antibody only - either anti - A or
53. Examination of blood of a person
suspected of having anemia, shows large, anti- B on the RBC;
immature, nucleated erythrocytes without (c) no antigens A and B on RBCs
haemoglobin. Supple-menting his diet with (d) other antigens besides A and B on
which of the following, is likely to alleviate RBCs
his symptoms? [2006] 60. Compared to blood our lymph has: [2009]
(a) Folic acid and cobalamine (a) plasma without proteins
(b) Riboflavin (b) more WBCs and no RBCs
(c) Iron compounds (c) more RBCs and less WBCs
(d) Thiamine (d) no plasma
54. A drop of each of the following, is placed 61. There is no DNA in: [2009]
separately on four slides. Which of them will (a) mature RBCs
not coagulate? [2007] (b) a mature spermatozoan
(a) Blood serum (c) hair root
(b) Sample from the thoracic duct of (d) an enucleated ovum
lymphatic system 62. In a standard ECG which one of the following
(c) Whole blood from pulmonary vein alphabets is the correct representation of the
(d) Blood plasma. respective activity of the human heart?
55. What is true about Nereis, scorpion, (a) S - start of systole [2009]
cockroach and silver fish ? [2007] (b) T - end of diastole
(a) They all posses dorsal heart (c) P - depolarisation of the atria
(b) None of them is aquatic (d) R - repolarisation of ventricles
(c) They all belong to the same phylum 63. Globulins contained in human blood plasma
(d) They all have jointed paired are primarily involved in : [2009]
appendages (a) osmotic balance of body fluids
56. Which type of white blood cells are concerned (b) oxygen transport in the blood
with the release of histamine and the natural (c) clotting of blood
anticoagulant heparin? [2008] (d) defence mechanisms of body

64. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled (d) B : red blood cell – transport of CO2
by the gene I. It has three alleles – IA IB and mainly
i. Since there are three different alleles, six 68. ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the
different genotypes are possible. How many following organs in humans? [2011]
phenotypes can occur? [2010] (a) Brain (b) Heart
(a) Three (b) One (c) Kidney (d) Pancreas
(c) Four (d) Two 69. Which one of the following plasma proteins
65. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae is involved in the coagulation of blood ?
of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is
[2011]
partially non - functional, what will be the
(a) an albumin (b) serum amylase
immediate effect? [2010]
(a) The flow of blood into the aorta will be (c) a globulin (d) fibrinogen
slowed down 70. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which :
(b) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working [2011]
(c) The blood will tend to flow back into the (a) supply oxygenated blood to the different
left atrium organs
(d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary (b) break up into capillaries which reunite
artery will be reduced to form one visceral organ
66. What is true about RBCs in humans? [2010] (c) break up into capillaries which reunite
(a) They carry about 20–25 per cent of to form a vein
CO2 (d) carry blood from one visceral organ to
(b) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2 another visceral organ
(c) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen 71. Which one of the following statements is
only and the rest 20 per cent of it is correct regarding blood pressure ?
transported in dissolved state in blood [2011]
plasma
(a) 130/90 mmHg is considered high and
(d) They do not carry CO2 at all
requires treatment
67. The figure given below shows a small part of
(b) 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal
human lung where exchange of gases takes
blood pressure
place. In which one of the options given
below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly (c) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active
identified along with its function? [2011] (d) 90/110 mmHg may harm vital organs
like brain and kidney
72. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.
Which one of its components in human is
correctly interpreted below [2011M]
(a) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
(b) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac
contraction
(c) Peak P and Peak R together-Systolic and
diastolic blood pressures
(d) Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction
Options : only
(a) C : arterial capillary – passes oxygen to 73. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from
tissues body tissues into the blood is present as
(b) A : alveolar cavity – main site of [2011M]
exchange of (a) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
respiratory gases (b) free CO2 in blood plasma
(c) D : capillary wall – exchange of O2 (c) 70% carbaminohaemoglobin and 30%
and CO2 takes as bicarbonate
place here. (d) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
74. Which one of the following human organs is (c) B-lymphocyte Form about 20% of
often called the graveyard of RBCs? [2011M] blood cells involved
(a) Gall bladder (b) Kidney in immune response
(c) Spleen (d) Liver (d) Neutrophil Most abundant blood
75. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of cell, phagocytic
a normal person, the P-wave represents the : 77. Figure shows blood circulation in humans
[NEET 2013] with labels A to D. Select the option which
R
gives correct identification of label and
functions of the part: [NEET Kar. 2013]
P Q S T
D
(a) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
(b) Beginning of the systole RA LA
RV LV
(c) End of systole
(d) Contraction of both the atria
76. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify
it and give its characteristics.
[NEET Kar. 2013] C Body parts Lumen
A
(a) A – Artery - thick walled and blood flows

evenly
Blood Cell Characteristics (b) B – Capillary - thin without muscle layers
and wall two cell thick
(a) Monocyte Life span 3 days,
(c) C – Vein - thin walled and blood flows in
produce antibodies jerks/spurts
(b) Basophil Secrete serotonin, (d) D – Pulmonary vein - takes oxygenated
inflammatory response blood to heart PO2 = 95 mmHg
Solutions
1. (d) The blood of cockroach do not contain useless for O2 transportation and RBCs
RBCs as it is not infact the blood become sickle shaped. It is a genetic
but haemolymph which has some disease caused by the denaturation of
unpigmented free cells in plasma known haemoglobin that is why it is known as
as haemotocytes which have nothing Hemolytic anaemia.
to do with the transport of gases or 6. (c) Haemophilia is a sex linked disease
respiration. (linked with X chromosomes). In this
2. (b) In this type of question one must answer disease blood lacks the thromboplastin
reasonably as the breakdown products protein which causes blood clotting
of haemoglobin are haem i.e. Iron & during injury. In normal human blood
Globin protein which is then converted clots in 2-6 min. While in haemophilic
into yellowish substance bilirubin which human it may take 3 hr. to 24 hr. due
is extracted by the liver cells from the to which death may occur. This disease
blood & stored in the form of bile in gall was Ist discovered by Jon Catto in 1803.
bladder. The more appropriate answer The most famous family in which the
is Iron as we have to mark only one inheritance of this disease was found
option. If one had liberty to mark both was the Royal families of Britain &
the options then he/she would have Russia so it is called Royal disease.
marked both bilirubin and Iron. 7. (d) Neutrophils are a type of Leucocyte
3. (b) Rh factor was discovered by Karl (WBCs) that can take all types of
Landsteiner. A child of Rh+ man will be stain (Acid-Basic-Neutral). It is most
Rh+ whether the mother is Rh+ or Rh–. abundant (60-70% of total WBCs) and
If the mother is Rh+ then there will be most active type of WBCs i.e. they are
no problem but if mother is Rh– so when the most actively phagocytic in nature.
the blood of Rh+ child (in womb) mixes 8. (b) Tricuspid valve is present between right
with the blood of Rh– mother then some auricle and right ventricle. It has 3
antibodies in mother’s blood are formed membranous flaps to check the flow of
against Rh+ factor which coagulate the blood in reverse direction. Sinus venosus
womb blood causing death. If birth takes and right auricle is guarded by sinu-
place then there is a possibility of child atrial value. The opening of left auricle
death in early years. This in known as and left ventricle is guarded by bicuspid
erythroblastosis foetalis. In most cases valve. The opening of ventricle and
the Ist pregnancy may succeed but after aorta is guarded by semilunar valves.
that it fails. 9. (c) A has Antigen A & antibody b so it can
4. (c) Alkaptonuria (also known as blackurine have the same blood group or O has no
disease) – excretion of large amount of any antigen & antibodies a & b so it is
alkapton in urine which when comes in called universal donor.
the contact with light turn black and it 10. (b) Because the process of blood clotting
is caused by gene mutation. Hematuria starts when prothrombinase (an enzyme
– presence of blood or RBCs in urine, formed by Thromboplastin) catalyzes
proteinuria – presence of protein in the the conversion of prothrombin (an
urine. inactive protein in the blood plasma)
5. (d) In sickle cell anaemia normal into thrombin (active protein) and this
haemoglobin (HbA) gets changed in reaction takes place in the presence
denatured form of haemoglobin (HbS) of Ca2+. Now this thrombin converts
in which the haemoglobin molecule’s fibrinogen into fibrin which makes
configuration changes and it changes its fibrin threads on polymerization & with
shape in low O2 concentration & become blood corpuscles it make blood clot so
if Ca2+ are removed from blood it’ll form in the peripheral region of Red
prevent clotting. It may also be done by bone marrow in long bones.
adding some antico-agulants eg. sodium 19. b)
& potassium oxalates in blood as they Man (A) : I A Io → I A I A → A 

precipitate Ca2+ present in the blood. → I A IB → AB 
11. (a) Pulmonary artery carries the blood  all shows heterozygous
from the right ventricle of the heart to Woman (AB) : I A I B → I A Io → AB

the lungs for oxygenation so it carries → IB Io → B 
deoxygenated blood. OR
12. (d) Veins have larger lumen because their
IA IA → IA IA → A 
middle layer i.e. tunica media which is 
made up of thick network of circular → I A IB → AB 
 all shows homozygous
smooth muscles and elastic fibres in IA IB → IA IA → A 
arteries (the wall of blood vessels is 
→ I A IB → AB 
made up of tunica externa, tunica media
& tunica interna) is thin in veins. 20. (d) Endothelium.
13. (b) 21. (a) Heart produces two types of sounds.
1st sound : ‘Lubb’ produced by closure
Hepatic artery Liver
of bicuspid and tricuspid valves. 2nd
Heart Carotico systemic arch Dorsal aorta Coeliac artery sound : ‘Dup’ produced by closure of
semilunar valves present at the base of
Splenic (spleen) Lienogastric aorta to avoid back flow of blood into
the ventricle.
Gastric (stomach)
22. (b) Closed circulatory system means blood
14. (c) The walls of blood capillaries do not flows in some definite pipelines in some
possess tunica externa (connective tissue specific direction in more organized
layer containing lymph vessels), tunica manner than that of open system in
media (a thick network of smooth which blood does not flow in vessels.
muscle fibres) but only tunica interna (a 23. (c) Sino-Auricular node (S.A node) present
single layer endothelium of squamous in the walls of right auricle has a
cells). myogenic initiation of heartbeat in a
15. (c) Carbonic anhydrase is a zinc-containing regular fashion and controls the pace of
enzyme present in RBCs. In presence of heartbeat called pacemaker.
this enzyme carbon dioxide reacts with 24. (a) The inheritance of blood group is
water to form carbonic acid. determined by some allelic genes
16. (b) Blood group A – Antigen-A & Antibody which are IA, IB & Io. In one individual
‘b’ or Anti A or a, two allelic genes are present. Ia & Ib
are dominant while Io is recessive in
Blood group B – Antigen-B & antibody
heterozygous condition. So if a child
a or Anti B or b
has a blood group O he/she must have
Blood group AB – Antigen-A & B and IoIo & he/she cannot have the parents
no antibody. of blood group AB & AB/O.
Blood group O – No antigen & 25. (c) An important function of lymph is
Antibodies a & b both. to return interstitial fluid back to the
17. (d) If the child has O blood group – Io Io blood. This interstitial fluid is also
If father has B blood group – IB IB or called extracellular fluid, which is
IB Io But if father has IB IB then child formed from blood due to various
cannot have Io Io so father must have factors, i.e. hydrostatic pressure,
IB Io. osmotic gradient etc.
18. (b) In foetus liver, spleen, bone marrow, 26. (b) Antigens are foreign proteins, which
lymph nodes & thymus are the stimulate specific immune response
haemopoietic organs (blood forming). (antibody) against itself when
In adults most of the blood corpuscles introduced into the body. They are
present on the surface of cell wall.
27. (d) The pulse making impulse travels in determined by IA IA or IA Io. Blood
the heart in the order of SA node→AV group B is I I or IB Io. Blood group O
B B
node→bundle of His→Purkinje is Io Io. Blood group AB is IA IB.
fibres→heart muscles. 36. (b) SA is the site of generation of the
28. (a) The leukaemia is a type of blood cancer, rhythmic cardiac impulse. AV node
which is characterized by an uncontrolled is a compact mass of myogenic fibres
increase in the number (through mitosis) which receives impulse from SA node
of leucocytes in the blood. and transmits it to ventricles. Purkinje
29. (d) Spleen and brain are the organs which
fibres are in contact with the contractile
receive only oxygenated blood. In gills
and lungs blood picks up oxygen. muscles of the ventricular walls. Chordae
30. (d) RBCs as well as plasma both carry tendinae are the muscles which keep the
oxygen and CO2 in dissolved and AV valves in position.
chemically combined form. 37. (d) Arteries have thick wall and narrow
31. (a) White blood cells are of two types : lumen while veins have thin walls
(i) Granulocytes (with granular cytoplasm) - and large lumen. Arteries do not have
neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils.
(ii) Agranulocytes (with clear cytoplasm) - valves.
Lymphocytes and monocytes 38. (d) Leucocytes are colourless, nucleated
32. (a) Most of the WBCs have a life span amoeboid cells found in blood which are
which is even less than 1 day. devoid of haemoglobin and are capable
White blood cells or leukocytes are cells of coming out of blood capillaries
which form a component of the blood. through the process of diapedesis. Fall
They are produced in the bone marrow
at a rate of about 1000 million per day of WBC count is called leucopenia, and
and help to defend the body against occurs due to folic acid deficiency and
infectious disease and foreign materials AIDS etc.
as part of the immune system. 39. (b) Reduced protein synthesis causes
There are normally between 4×109 and thinning of hairs.
1.1×1010 white blood cells in a litre of 40. (b) Sickle cell anaemia is a hereditary
healthy adult blood. In conditions such
disorder of autosomal nature caused by
as leukemia this may rise to as many as
50,000 white blood cells in a single drop mutation of the gene controlling b-chain
of blood (only 1% of blood on average is a of haemoglobin. It involves substitution
white blood cell). As well as in the blood, of glutamine by valine.
white cells are also found in large numbers 41. (a) Blood group ‘O’ is known as the
in the lymphatic system, the spleen, and universal donor since it does not contain
in other body tissues. The white blood
antigens.
cells have a life span of 10 days.
33. (c) Histamine is a potant vasodilator 42. (a) S.A node is called the pacemaker because
formed by decarboxylation of the amino it initiates the cardiac impulse AV node
acid histidine and released by mast cells receives the impulse from the S.A node
in response to appropriate antigens. and transmits it to the ventricles
Mast cells are especially prevalent in 43. (b) Lymph is colourless vascular connective
the connective tissue of the skin and
tissue derived from tissue fluid. RBCs
respiratory tract and in surrounding
blood vessels. and platelets are absent. Only leucocytes
34. (b) An adult human with average health has and floating amoeboid lymphocytes are
systolic and diastolic pressures as 120 present.
mm Hg and 80 mm Hg respectively. 44. (c) Higher vertebrates exhibit double
35. (c) Blood group is determined by three circulation of blood namely systemic
alleles - IA, IB, and Io. Alleles IA and and pulmonary circulation. Systemic
IB are codominant. Blood group A is
circulation involves the distribution of
oxygenated blood via the aorta from 50. (b) In insects circulating body fluid called
the heart to all parts of the body, and hameolymph does not help in the
the collection of deoxygenated blood respiratory gases circulation for the
from all parts of the body through the body. It only circulates the food and
great veins into the heart. Pulmonary nutrients to the different body parts.
circulation denotes the route impure Distribution of oxygen (respiration)
blood takes from the heart to the lungs takes place through small air chambers
for purification and then back to the called spiracles.
heart, the left auricle receives oxygenated 51. (a) Periplaneta (P. americana, the Indian
Cockroach) is an insect & insects do
blood and passes it to the left ventricle.
not have closed blood circulation. Their
The left ventricle pumps the pure blood blood (called haemolymph) even does
to all parts of the body through aorta. not serve for respiration. They do not
Hence these two chambers involved in possess blood vessels in this circulatory
systemic circulation are referred to as system and hence it is an open system.
systemic heart. 52. (a) Transport of CO2 is much easier than
45. (c) The atrioventricular bundle (AV bundle), O2 because of the higher solubility of
on entering the ventricles splits into right CO2 than O2. Almost 7% of CO2 is
transported in dissolved state in plasma.
and left branches. These branches then
About 23% of the CO2 is transported
enter the heart muscles. They branch
in the form of Carbamino Compound
extensively and are called Purkinje
called carbamino haemoglobin. 70%
fibres. They conduct the cardiac impulse
of CO2 is transported in the form of
to the ventricular wall. bicarbonate ions. CO2 reacts with water
46. (c) Blood group AB is also known as the present in plasma.
universal recipient. Carbonic acid is unstable & gives H+ and
47. (a) Presence of calcium will remove heparin HCO3–. H+ bind with haemoglobin to
- blood anti-coagulant and will promote maintain the pH of blood while HCO3–
blood clotting. Sodium oxalate and remain in the blood and carries the CO2
heparin containing test tubes will not to lungs.
allow the blood to clot. 53. (a) Folic Acid (Cyanocobalamine vit. B12)
48. (c) SA node is the natural pacemaker located works in the formation and maturation
in the right atrium. SA node initiates the of RBCs. In the deficiency of this RBCs
cardiac impulse. So, artificial pacemaker formation decreases and the formed
will be grafted at the site of SA node. RBCs will not mature i.e. they will not
49. (d) The thymus is a major gland of loose the nucleus and hence remain
our immune system. The thymus is nucleated and lack haemoglobin. Such
RBCs cannot carry oxygen & person
responsible for production of T (thymus
suffers from anaemia. Supplementing
dervied) lymphocytes from immature
his diet with folic acid and cobalamine
lymphocytes, a type of white blood cells
will lead to the increased formation
responsible for cell mediated immunity. and proper maturation of enucleated
Cell mediated immunity is extremely RBCs with haemoglobin and eliminate
important for raising immune response anaemia.
against bacteria, yeast, fungi, parasites 54. (a) Blood serum is liquid minus clotting
and virus. It is also critical in protecting elements of pale yellow colour. It does
against cancer, autoimmune disorders not have fibrinogen and other clotting
like rheumatoid arthritis, allergies etc. materials. It does not take part in blood
clotting.
55. (a) Neries (belonging to class polychaeta blood plasma except that it lacks RBCs
of phylum Annelida), scorpion and and large plasma proteins.
cockroach (belonging to phylum 61. (a) Red blood cells are the most common
arthropoda) and silver fish all have type of blood cell and delivering oxygen
dorsal heart. to the body tissues via the blood.
56. (b) Basophil is a type of white blood cell There is no DNA in mature RBC. The
(leucocyte) that has a lobed nucleus reticulocyte is the immediate precursor
surrounded by granular cytoplasm. of the mature RBC and, within 24 hours
Basophils are produced continually by of release into the peripheral circulation,
stem cells in the red bone marrow & evolves into the mature RBC.
move about in an amoeboid fashion. 62. (c) In a standard ECG, the P-wave is a
Like, mast cells, they produce histamine small upward wave that indicates the
and heparin as part of the body’s defences depolarisation of the atria. This is
at the site of an infection or injury. caused by the activation of SA node.
57. (d) The most active phagocytic white blood 63. (d) Globulins contained in human blood
cells are neutrophils and monocytes. plasma are primarily involved, in
Neutrophil is a type of WBC (leucocyte) defence mechanism of body. Globulin is
that has a lobed nucleus and granular one of the two types of serum proteins,
cytoplasm. Neutrophils engulf bacteria the other being albumin. Globulins can
and release various substance such as be divided into three fractions based
lysozyme and oxidizing agents.
on their electrophoretic mobility. Most
Monocyte is the largest form of WBC
of the alpha and beta globulins are
in vertebrates. It has a kidney shaped
synthesized by the liver, whereas gamma
nucleus and is actively phagocytic,
ingesting bacteria and cells debris. globulins are produced by lymphocytes
58. (b) In human, blood passes from the post and plasma cells in lymphoid tissue.
caval to the diastolic right atrium of 64. (c) The three calle/es in ABO blood
heart due to suction pull. groups in humans can produce six
59. (c) The ABO blood group system is the different genotypes and four different
most important blood type system (or phenotypes.
blood group system) in human blood Genotypes Phenotypes
transfusion. It is named ABO and not IA IA , IA i Blood group A
ABC, because blood group O (or blood B B B
I I , I i Blood group B
group zero in some countries) individuals
do not have either A or B antigens on the IA IB Blood group AB
surface of their RBCs, but their blood i i Blood group O
serum contains IgM anti-A antibodies 65. (d) Tricuspid valve is the valve in the heart
and anti-B antibodies against the A and between the right atrium and right
B blood group antigens. Therefore, a ventricle. The valve opens to allow blood
group O individual can receive blood to flow from atrium into the ventricle.
only from a group O individual, but can Thus if tricuspid valve is partially non-
donate blood to individuals of any ABO functional, then the flow of blood into
blood group (ie A, B, O or AB). the pulmonary artery will be reduced.
60. (b) Lymph is a mobile connective tissue 66. (a) Blood transports oxygen from
comprising lymph plasma and lymph respiratory organs to the tissue cells and
corpuscles. Its composition is just like also transports carbon dioxide from the
tissue cells to the respiratory membrane. 74. (c) Spleen is an organ of the lymphatic
About 97% of oxygen is transported by system located in the left side of the
RBCs in the blood while the remaining abdominal cavity under the diaphragm,
three percent of oxygen is carried in a the muscular partition between the
dissolved state through plasma. Nearly abdomen and the chest. It is called
20-25% of carbon dioxide is transported graveyard of RBC because fragment
by RBCs whereas 70% is carried as of red blood cells, old and dead cells
bicarbonate. About 7% of CO2 is carried are constantly being removed from the
in dissolved state through plasma. blood streams by it.
67. (b) In the given figure the exchange of 75. (d) R
respiratory gases occurs in alveolar cavity.
68. (b) ‘Bundle of His’ are a typical cardiac
muscle fibres, connecting the atria with P Q S T
ventricle.
69. (d) Fibrinogen, the protein of blood The P-wave represents the electrical
plasma is converted to insoluble protein excitation (or depolarisation) of the
fibrin during the clotting process. The atria, which leads to the contraction
fibrinogen free fluid obtained after of both the atria. The QRS complex
removal of the clot, called blood serum represents the depolarisation of the
is plasma minus fibrinogen. ventricles, which initiates the ventricular
70. (b) Arteries are the vessels which break up contraction. The contraction starts
into capillaries which reunite to form shortly after Q and marks the beginning
one visceral organ. of the systole.
71. (d) 90/110 mmHg may harm vital organs 76. (b) Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin,
like brain and kidney. This is called heparin, etc., and are involved in
hypertension which can give rise to inflammatory reactions.
increased heart rate and palpitation. 77. (d) Artery is blood vessel which receives
72. (c) Peak P-causes diastolic phase in ventricle blood from heart, has elastic thick
while R-Peak causes systole in ventricle wall shows jerky movements due to
means diastolic and systolic phases pumping activity of heart. Vein is a blood
represented by P & R. vessel which carries blood towards the
73. (a) 70% to 75% CO2 is transported as heart, has wider lumen with internal
primary buffer of the blood. Bicarbonate valves where blood flows smoothly
ion (HCO3) in blood plasma. When CO2 and slowly. Blood capillary is a very
diffuses from tissues into blood then it
fine blood vessel which has a single
is acted upon by the enzyme carbonic
layered wall. Pulmonary veins are the
anhydrase.
only veins which carry oxygenated blood.
(PO2 = 95 mmHg, PCO2 = 40 mmHg)
HAPTER
C
19 Excretory Products and

Their Elimination
1. Reabsorption of useful substances from 7. Hair present in the skin are [1993]
glomerular filtrate occurs in [1989] (a) epidermal in origin and made of dead
(a) Collecting tube cells
(b) Loop of Henle (b) epidermal in origin and made of living
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule cells
(d) Distal convoluted tubule (c) dermal in origin and made of living
2. Brush border is characteristic of [1990] cells
(a) neck of nephron (d) dermal in origin and made of dead cells
(b) collecting tube 8. Part not belonging to uriniferous tubule is
(c) proximal convoluted tubule (a) Glomerulus [1994]
(d) all the above (b) Henle’s loop
3. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are (c) Distal convoluted tubule
parts of [1990] (d) Connecting tubule
(a) Seminiferous tubules 9. If kidney fail to reabsorb water, the effect on
(b) Nephron tissue would [1994]
(c) Oviduct (a) remain unaffected
(d) Vas deferens (b) shrink and shrivel
4. Under normal conditions which one is (c) absorb water from blood plasma
completely reabsorbed in the renal tubule?
(d) take more O2 from blood
[1991]
10. Uric acid is nitrogenous waste in [1994]
(a) Urea (b) Uric acid
(c) Salts (d) Glucose (a) Mammals and molluscs
5. Nitrogenous waste products are eliminated (b) Birds and lizards
mainly as [1991] (c) Frog and cartilaginous fishes
(a) urea in tadpole and ammonia in adult (d) Insects and bony fishes
frog 11. A patient suffering from cholera is given saline
(b) ammonia in tadpole and urea in adult drip because [1996, 2000]
frog (a) Cl– ions are important component of
(c) urea in both tadpole and adult frog blood plasma
(d) urea in tadpole and uric acid in adult (b) Na + ions help to retain water in the
frog body
6. Glucose is taken back from glomerular filtrate (c) Na+ ions are important in transport of
through [1993] substances across membrane
(a) Active transport (b) Passive transport
(d) Cl– ions help in the formation of HCl in
(c) Osmosis (d) Diffusion stomach for digestion
12. In Ornithine cycle, which one pair of the 20. In Hydra waste material of food digestion and
following wastes are removed from the nitrogenous waste material removed from
blood? [1996] (a) mouth and body wall [2001]
(b) mouth and tentacles
(a) CO2 and urea
(c) mouth and nematocyst
(b) CO2 and ammonia (d) body wall and tentacles
(c) Ammonia and urea 21. If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian
(d) Urea and sodium salts nephron, which of the following is to be
expected? [2003]
13. In ureotelic animals, urea is formed by the (a) The urine will be more dilute
[1997, 2000] (b) There will be no urine formation
(a) Arginine cycle (b) Cori's cycle (c) There will be hardly any change in the
quality and quantity of urine formed
(c) Ornithine cycle (d) EM pathway
(d) The urine will be more concentrated
14. The basic functional unit of the human kidney 22. When a fresh-water protozoan possessing
is [1997] a contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass
(a) nephron (b) nephridia containing marine water, the vacuole will
[2004]
(c) pyramid (d) Henle's loop
(a) increase in number
15. Solenocytes are the main excretory structures (b) disappear
in [1998] (c) increase in size
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelids (d) decrease in size
(c) Molluscs (d) Echinodermates 23. Uricotelism is found in [2004]
16. In the renal tubules the permeability of the (a) Mammals and birds
distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct (b) Fishes and fresh water protozoans
to water is controlled by [1999] (c) Birds, reptiles and insects
(a) Vasopressin (b) Aldosterone (d) Frogs and toads
(c) Growth hormone(d) Renin 24. A terrestrial animal must be able to [2004]
17. Formation of concentrated (hyperosmotic) (a) excrete large amounts of water in urine
urine in vertebrates generally depends on (b) conserve water
[2000] (c) actively pump salts out through the skin
(a) length of the proximal convoluted (d) excrete large amounts of salts in urine
tubule 25. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting.
(b) length of Henle's loop His urine will be found to contain abnormal
(c) area of Bowman's capsule epithelium quantities of: [2005]
(d) capillary network forming glomerulus (a) fats (b) amino acids
18. The enteronephric nephridia of earthworm (c) glucose (d) ketones
are concerned with [2000] 26. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid
(a) osmoregulation to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule
(b) excretion of nitrogenous wastes is: [2005]
(c) digestion (a) 50 mm Hg (b) 75 mm Hg
(d) respiration (c) 20 mm Hg (d) 30 mm Hg
19. Which one of the following is a matching 27. In Ornithine cycle, which of the following
pair? [2000] wastes are removed from the blood? [2005]
(a) Tears-excretion of salts (a) CO2 and urea
(b) Sweat-thermoregulation (b) Ammonia and urea
(c) Saliva-tasting food (c) CO2 and ammonia
(d) Sebum-sex attraction (d) Urea and urine
Excretory Products and their Elimination 191
28. Earthworms are [2006] 33. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component
(a) uricotelic when plenty of water is of the excretory products of [2009]
available (a) earthworm (b) cockroach
(b) uricotelic under conditons of water (c) frog (d) man
scarcity 34. Which one of the following statements in
regard to the excretion by the human kidneys
(c) ammonotelic when plenty of water is
is correct? [2010]
available
(a) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is
(d) ureotelic when plenty of water is
impermeable to water
available
(b) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of
29. Bowman’s glands are located in the [2007] reabsorbing HCO3
(a) anterior pituitary (c) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular
(b) f e m a l e r e p r o d u c t i ve s y s t e m o f filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal
cockroach tubules
(c) olfactory epithelium of our nose (d) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is
(d) proximal end of uriniferous tubules. impermeable to electrolytes
30. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, 35. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound
saliva and tears, destroys [2007] in humans is synthesised [2010]
(a) in kidneys but eliminated mostly through
(a) certain types of bacteria
liver
(b) all viruses (b) in kidneys as well as eliminated by
(c) most virus-infected cells kidneys
(d) certain fungi (c) in liver and also eliminated by the same
31. Consider the following four statements (a-d) through bile
about certain desert animals such as kangaroo, (d) in the liver, but eliminated mostly through
rat. [2008] kidneys
(a) They have dark colour and high rate of 36. Consider the following four statements (i-iv)
reproduction and excrete solid urine regarding kidney transplant and select the two
(b) They do not drink water, breathe at a correct ones out of these. [2010]
slow rate to conserve water and have their (i) Even if a kidney transplant is proper
body covered with thick hairs the recipient may need to take immune
(c) They feed on dry seeds and do not require suppresants for a long time
drinking water (ii) The cell mediated immune response is
(d) They excrete very concentrated urine responsible for the graft rejection
and do not use water to regulate body (iii) The B lymphocytes are responsible for
temperature rejection of the graft
Which two of the above statements for such (iv) The acceptance or rejection of a
animals are true? [2008] kidney transplant depends on specific
(a) c and d (b) b and c interferons
(c) c and a (d) a and b The two correct statements are:
32. What will happen if the stretch receptors (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
of the urinary bladder wall are totally (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
removed? [2009] 37. Which one of the following is not a part of a
(a) Micturition will continue renal pelvis? [2011]
(b) Urine will continue to collect normally (a) Peritubular capillaries
in the bladder (b) Convoluted tubules
(c) There will be no micturition (c) Collecting ducts
(d) Loops of Henle
(d) Urine will not collect in the bladder
38. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in 42. Ureters act as urogenital ducts in [2011M]
the human blood even after its uptake by the (a) human males
body tissues. This O2 [2011] (b) human females
(a) acts as a reser ve during muscular (c) frog's both males and females
exercise (d) frog's males
43. The maximum amount of electrolytes and
(b) raise the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of
water (70 - 80 percent) from the glomerular
Hg. filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the
(c) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin nephron ? [2012]
saturation at 96% (a) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(d) helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial (b) Distal convoluted tubule
tissues. (c) Proximal convoluted tubule
39. Which one of the following correctly explains (d) Descending limb of loop of Henle
the function of a specific part of a human 44. Which one of the following options gives the
nephron ? [2011] correct categorization of six animals according
(a) Podocytes : create minute spaces (slite to the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C),
pores) for the filtration of blood into the they give out? [2012M]
Bowman’s capsule
(b) Henle’s loop : most reabsorption of the A-Ammo- B-Ureotelic C-Urico-
notelic telic
major substances from the glomerular
filtrate (a) Pigeon, Aquatic Cockroach,
Humans Amphibia, Frog
(c) Distal convoluted tubule : reabsorption
Lizards
of K+ ions into the surrounding blood
(b) Frog, Lizards Aquatic Cockroach,
capillaries Amphibia, Pigeon
(d) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away Humans
from the glomerular towards renal vein. (c) Aquatic Frog, Pigeon,
40. Which one of the following statements Amphibia Humans Lizards,
is correct with respect to kidney function Cockroach
regulation ? [2011] (d) Aquatic Cockroach, Frog, Pigeon,
(a) When someone drinks lot of water,ADH Amphibia Humans Lizards
release is suppressed.
(b) Exposure to cold temperature blood flow 45. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
stimulates formation of Angiotensin II. activates [2012M]
(c) An increase in glomerular blood flow (a) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
stimulates formation of Angiotensin II. (b) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline.
(d) During summer when body loses lot of (c) juxta - glomerular cells to release renin.
water by evaporation, the release of ADH (d) posterior pituitary to release
is suppressed. vasopressin.
41. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous 46. Which one of the following characteristics is
common to both in humans and adult frogs?
wastes is found in [2011]
[2012M]
(a) Reptiles and Bird
(a) Four - chambered heart
(b) Birds and Annelids
(b) Internal fertilization
(c) Amphibians and Reptiles
(c) Nucleated RBCs
(d) Insects and Amphibians
(d) Ureotelic mode of excretion
47. Figure shown human urinary system with (b) C-Medulla-inner zone of kidney and
structures labelled A to D. Select option contains complex nephrons.
which correctly identifies them and gives their (c) D - Cortex - outer part of kidney and do
characteristics and /or functions. not contain any part of nephrons
[NEET 2013] (d) A-Adrenal gland - located at the anterior
A part of kidney. Secrete Catecholamines
which stimulate glycogen breakdown.
B 48. Select the option which shows correct matching
C Kidney of animal with excretory organs and excretory
D product [NEET Kar. 2013]
Animal Excretory Excretory
organs product
Urinary bladder
(a) Housefly Renal tubules Uric acid
(b) Labeo (Rohu) Nephridial Ammonia
(a) B-pelvis-broad funnel shaped space inner
tubes
to hilum, directly connected to loops of
(c) Salamander Kidney Urea
Henle.
(d) Peacock Kidney Urea
Solutions
1. (c) From Bowman's capsule, glomerular urination). Then the body tissues get
filtrate enters the proximal convolute dehydrated & the cell will loose water
tubule. Most of the useful substances like content & shrink.
Glucose (all), Amino Acids (all), most 10. (b) The excretion of uric acid is called
of the inorganic ions (Na+, K+, Cl– etc), uricotelism. The excretion of uric acid
most of the important buffer bicarbonates is advantageous for those animals which
are reabsorbed in Proximal Convoluted have to conserve water for their survival
Tubule. Cells are specially adaptive for like birds and lizards.
absorption having numerous microvilli 11. (b) In patients affected with cholera, a cholera
& mitochondria (to provide energy for enterotoxin is produced which results
active absorption). in increased synthesis of intracellular
2. (c) cyclic AMP, which in turn increases the
3. (b) Nephron is the excretory unit of human permeability of intestinal mucosa, leading
excretory system. Each nephron has to secretion of fluid throughout the small
a Bowman’s Capsule, a Proximal intestine. Hence the patient is given
Convoluted Tubule (PCT), Loop of saline drip whereby Na+ ions restore the
Henle (Descending & Ascending limbs) osmotic balance by retaining water in the
and Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) body.
which then enter into collecting duct. 12. (b) In ureotelic animals urea is formed from
4. (d) The cells of Proximal Convoluted Tubule ammonia by Ornithine cycle.
(PCT) reabsorb entire glucose, amino CO2 + 2NH3 → CO(NH2)2 + H2O
acids, most of the inorganic ions (Na+, ammonia Urea
K+, Cl–) much of the water as well as 13. (c) In ureotelic animals urea is formed by
some urea. Glucose is reabsorbed actively Ornithine cycle. Urea is formed in the
and most effectively. liver where two molecules of ammonia
5. (b) Ammonia molecules are small and very combine with one molecule of CO2 in
soluble in water. In ammonotelic animals presence of Ornithine, citrulline, arginine
large amount of H 2 O is required to and enzyme arginase. This is called
eliminate ammonia from the body, so it Ornithine cycle.
is found in aquatic animals like tadpole 14. (a) Nephridia are the excretory structures
of frog. When tadpole becomes a mature of annelids. Henle's loop is a part of
frog it acquires mainly ureotelism. the nephron or uriniferous tubule of the
6. (a) Active transport. vertebrate kidney.
7. (a) Each hair is present in a tubular pit called 15. (a) Solenocytes or flame cells or protonephridia
hair follicle. Living cells are only present are excretory organs in Platyhelminthes
at the base of hair known as hair papilla, (Flatworms). They excrete ammonia.
rest of the hair is dead and divisible into In Annelids excretory structure are
outer cuticle, middle cortex & inner nephridia. In Molluscs sac like kidneys are
medulla. excretory. In Echinodermata nitrogenous
8. (a) Glomerulus is a group of about 50 wastes are excreted through gills.
capillaries which have numerous pores 16. (a) Growth hormone, released by the anterior
and are separated by the lumen of lobe of pituitary brings about body growth
Bowman’s Capsule through a basement by synthesis and deposition of proteins
layer. in tissues. Renin secreted by special
9. (b) If kidneys fail to reabsorb water the urine cells in kidneys regulates blood pressure.
will be diluted causing polyuria (frequent Aldosterone reduces Na+ elimination
by helping active reabsorption from the 25. (d) Under fasting conditions and in
nephric filtrate. uncontrolled diabetes, the liver produces
17. (b) Henle’s loop is involved in osmoregulation large amount of ketone bodies like
and concentrating urine. Thus producing Acetoacetate, dihydroxy butyrate. The
a hypertonic urine. presence of excess ketone bodies in
18. (b) The nephridia are the excretory organs. blood or urine is termed ketonemic and
The nephridia in earthworm are – Septal ketonuria respectively.
nephridia, Pharyngeal nephridia and 26. (c) (i) Glomerular capillary pressure (45
Integumentary nephridia. The septal mm Hg) favours filteration.
nephridia do not discharge excretory fluid (ii) The colloidal osmotic pressure (due
to the exterior rather it pour them into to plasma proteins, particularly
the intestine. Hence these are also called albumin) acts against filteration. Its
Enteronephric nephridia. value is ~20 mmHg.
19. (b) Sweat regulates body temperature. (iii) The filterate pressure due to the
Sweating also called perspiration or glomerular filterate filled in the
sometimes transpiration is the production Bowman’s capsule also acts against
and evaporation of a fluid, consisting filteration. Its value is ~10 mmHg.
primarily of water as well as a smaller Net filteration pressure
amount of sodium chloride the main = 45 – (20 + 10) mm Hg
constituent of “table salt”, that is = 15 mm of Hg (10 – 20 mm of Hg)
excreted by the sweat glands in the skin 27. (c) Urea NH2 – CO – NH2 is formed from
of mammals. two molecules of ammonia and one
20. (a) Hydra being a coelenterate, has blind sac molecule of carbon dioxide. A molecule
body plan. It has only one mouth which of ammonia combines with carbondioxide
serves as the opening for ingestion and to form carbonyl phosphate. It reacts with
waste elimination besides diffusion across ornithine to form citrulline. Citrulline
body wall. accepts another molecule of NH4+ giving
21. (a) Henle’s loop is associated with the rise to arginine. Arginine is hydrolysed
concentration of urine and production into urea and ornithine with the help of
of hypertonic urine. enzyme arginase.
22. (d) A fresh water protozoan when placed in 28. (c) Some animals have dual behaviour of
marine water medium, faces a condition excretion eg. earthworm. It excretes
of preventing entry of salts and loss of ammonia (hence called ammonotelic)
water. Hence the contractile vacuole will when enough water is available but excretes
decrease in size. urea (ureotelic) in dry conditions.
23. (c) In uricotelic animals nitrogenous waste 29. (c) Bowman’s glands are located in the
is eliminated in the form of uric acid. olfactory epithelium of our nose.
Ammonotelism is seen in aquatic animals 30. (a) Lysozyme is an antibacterial agent which
wherein nitrogenous wastes is eliminated is secreted by the major salivary glands.
in the form of ammonia eg. Fishes, 31. (a) Characteristics of certain desert animals
tadpole. Ureotelism is observed in human such as kangaroo, rat are -
beings in which nitogenous waste is • They feed on dry seeds and do not
eliminated as urea. require drinking water.
24. (b) Terrestial animals have limited access • They excrete very concentrated urine
to water. Hence they have to secrete and do not use water to regulate body
hypertonic urine and conserve water. temperature.
Choices (c) and (d) are characteristics of 32. (c) Micturition is same as urination. Urination
marine animals who need to overcome the or micturition is the act of passing urine
problem of preventing entry of salts and which is a reflex phenomenon. As
loss of water. Choice (a) is characteristic urine accumulates in bladder the stretch
of fresh water animals. receptors are activated that pass the
stimulus to the spinal cord. In the absence the body tissues. This O2 acts as a reserve
of stretch receptors the urine would get during muscular exercise.
collected and probably overflow. 39. (a) Glome podocytes are highly specialized
33. (b) Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous cells with a complex cytoarchitecture
component of the excretory product of plays a major role in establishing the
cockroach. Animals which live in dry selective permeability of glomerular
conditions have to conserve water in their filtration barrier.
bodies. Therefore, they synthesise crystals 40. (a) When some one drinks lots of water,
of uric acid trom ammonia. Uric acid kidney release of ADH is suppressed.
crystals are non-toxic and can be retained 41. (a) An uricotelic organism produces uric acid
in the body for a considerable time. as a result of de-amination. Examples of
Uricotelic animals include most insects such organism are birds and insects.
e.g. cockroach, reptiles and birds. 42. (d) In male frogs the sperms are carried
34. (c) Urine formation involves three main through the ureters, hence in male, ureters
process called, glomerular filtration, are called urinogenital ducts.
reabsorption and secretion. A comparison 43. (c) Nearly all the essential nutrients, and
of the volume of the filtrate formed per 70-80 percent of electrolytes and H2O
day (which is 180 litres per day) with that are reabsorbed by proximal convoluted
of urine released (about 1.5 litres) suggest tubules.
that nearly 99 percent of the glomerular 44. (c) Those animals that excrete ammonia
filtrate is resorbed by the renal tubules. are called as ammonotelic, eg. aquatic
The descending limb of loop of Henle is amphibia. Those animals that excrete
permeable to water but impermeable to urea are called as ureotelic, eg. frog,
electrolytes. humans.
The ascending limb is impermeable Those animals that excrete uric acid are
to water but allows transpor t of called as uricotelic, eg. pigeon, lizards,
electrolytes. and cockroach.
Reabsorption of sodium ions and water 45. (c) The amount of the filtrate formed by the
takes place in distal convoluted tubule. kidneys per minute is called glomerular
Also, it is capable of reabsorption of filtration rate (GFR). GFR in a healthy
HCO3. individual is approximately 125 ml/
35. (d) The principal nitrogenous excretory minute, i.e., 180 litres per day. A fall in
compound in humans is urea. It is GFR can activate the JG cells to release
synthesized in the mitrochondrial matrix renin which can stimulate the glomerular
and cytosol of liver cells and eliminated blood flow and thereby the GFR back to
through kidneys. normal. Renin converts angiotensinogen
36. (d) Tissue and blood group matching are in blood to angiotensin I and further
essential before undertaking kidney angiotensin II. Angiotensin II being
transplant. Even if kidney transplant powerful vasoconstrictor increases the
is proper, the recipient may need to glomerular blood pressure and thereby
take immuno suppresant all his/her GFR
life. The ability of body to differentiate 46. (d) Adult frog and human exhibit ureotelism
self and nonself and the cell-mediated because there excretory waste product is
immune response is responsible for graft urea.
rejection. 47. (d) A – Adrenal gland – located at the anterior
37. (c) Renal pelvis is the innermost portion of part of kidney, secrete Catecholamines
kidney. So, collecting ducts are not a part which stimulate glycogen breakdown.
of renal pelvis. 48. (c) Salamander (Amphibia; Caudata) excrete
38. (a) A large portion of oxygen is left unused in urea by help of kidneys.
the human blood even after its uptake by
HAPTER
C
20 Locomotion and
Movement
1. Extremities of long bones possess cartilage 10. Which of the following is the contractile
[1989] protein of a muscle? [1998, 2006]
(a) calcified (b) fibrous (a) Myosin (b) Tropomyosin
(c) elastic (d) hyaline (c) Actin (d) Tubulin
2. A deltoid ridge occurs in [1990]
11. Tendon is made up of [1999]
(a) Radius (b) Ulna
(c) Femur (d) Humerus (a) adipose tissue
3. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel is (b) modified white fibrous tissue
[1990] (c) areolar tissue
(a) more than that of rabbit (d) yellow fibrous connective tissue
(b) less than that of rabbit 12. Ligament is a [1999]
(c) same as that of whale (a) modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue
(d) more than that of horse (b) inelastic white fibrous tissue
4. Long bones function in [1993] (c) modified white fibrous tissue
(a) support (d) none of these
(b) support, erythrocyte and leucocyte 13. The joint found between sternum and the
synthesis
ribs in humans is [2000]
(c) support and erythrocyte synthesis
(d) erythrocyte formation (a) angular joint
5. Which ion is essential for muscle (b) fibrous joint
contraction? [1994] (c) cartilaginous joint
(a) Na (b) K (d) gliding joint
(c) Ca (d) Cl 14. Which one of the following is a skull bone ?
6. Which is part of pectoral girdle? [1994] [2000]
(a) Glenoid cavity (b) Sternum (a) Atlas (b) Coracoid
(c) Ilium (d) Acetabulum (c) Arytaenoid (d) Pterygoid
7. The number of floating ribs in the human 15. What is sarcomere? [2001]
body, is [1995] (a) Part between two H-lines
(a) 6 pairs (b) 5 pairs
(b) Part between two A-lines
(c) 3 pairs (d) 2 pairs
8. Total number of bones in the hind limb of (c) Part between two I-bands
man is [1998] (d) Part between two Z-lines
(a) 14 (b) 30 16. Which statement is correct for muscle
(c) 24 (d) 21 contraction? [2001]
9. The lower jaw in mammals is made up of (a) Length of H-line decreases
[1998] (b) Length of A-band remains constant
(a) Mandible (b) Dentary (c) Length of I-band increases
(c) Maxilla (d) Angulars (d) Length of two Z-lines increase
17. What will happen if ligaments are cut or 24. Three of the following pairs of the human
broken? [2002] skeletal parts are correctly matched with
(a) Bones will move freely at joints their respective inclusive skeletal category
(b) No movement at joints and one pair is not matched. Identify the
(c) Bones will become unfix non-matching pair. [2011M]
(d) Bones will become fixed Pairs of skeletal parts Category
18. Which of the following pairs, is correctly (a) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
matched? [2005] (b) Clavicle and Glenoid Pelvic girdle
(a) Hinge joint - between vertebrae cavity
(b) Gliding joint - between zygapophyses (c) Humerus and Ulna Appendicular
of the successive skeleton
vertebrae (d) Malleus and Stapes Ear ossicles
(c) Cartilaginous - skull bones 25. Select the correct statement regarding
joint the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal
(d) Fibrous joint - between phalanges system :- [2012]
19. An acromian process is characteristically
(a) Muscular dystrophy - age related
found in the: [2005]
shortening or muscles.
(a) pelvic girdle of mammals
(b) pectoral girdle of mammals (b) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass
(c) skull of frog and higher chance of fractures with
(d) sperm of mammals advancing age.
20. In human body, which one of the following (c) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune
is anatomically correct? [2007] disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin
(a) Collar bones - 3 pairs filaments
(b) Salivary glands - 1 pairs (d) Gout - inflammation of joints due to extra
(c) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs
deposition of calcium.
(d) Floating ribs - 2 pairs
21. Which one of the following items gives its 26. Which one of the following pairs of chemical
correct total number? [2008] substances is correctly categorized? [2012M]
(a) Floating ribs in humans -4 (a) Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid
(b) Amino acids found in proteins - 16 hormones
(c) Types of diabetes -3 (b) Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive
(d) Cervical vertebrae in humans - 8 enzymes secreted in stomach
22. Which one of the following is the correct (c) Troponin and myosin - Complex
matching of three items and their grouping proteins in striated muscles
category? [2009] (d) Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide
Items Group hormones
(a) ilium, ischium, pubis - coxal bones 27. The characteristics and an example of a
of pelvic girdle synovial joint in humans is : [NEET 2013]
(b) actin, myosin, - muscle proteins Characteristics Examples
rhodopsin.
(a) Fluid filled between Skull bones
(c) cytosine, uracil, - pyrimidines
two joints, provides
thiamine
(d) malleus, incus, - ear ossicles cushion
cochlea (b) Fluid filled synovial Joint between
23. Elbow joint is an example of: [2009] cavity between two atlas and axis
(a) hinge joint bones
(b) gliding joint (c) Lymph filled between gliding joint
(c) ball and socket joint two bones, limited between
(d) pivot joint movement carpals
Locomotion and Movement 199
(d) Fluid cartilage Knee joint 30. Select the correct statement with respect to
between two bones, disorders of muscles in humans
limited movements [NEET Kar. 2013]
28. Select the correct statement with respect to (a) Rapid contractions of skeletal muscles
locomotion in humans : [NEET 2013]
causes muscle dystrophy
(a) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in
(b) Failure of neuromuscular transmission
joints causes their inflammation
in myasthenia gravis can prevent normal
(b) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic
vertebrae. swallowing
(c) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a (c) Accumulation of urea and creatine in the
fibrous joint joints cause their inflammation
(d) The decreased level of progesterone (d) An overdose of vitamin D causes
causes osteoporosis in old people osteoporosis
29. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due 31. During muscle contraction in humans the
to : [NEET 2013]
[NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) The central gap between myosin filaments
in the A-band. (a) Actin filaments shorten
(b) The central gap between actin filaments (b) Sarcomere does not shorten
extending through myosin filaments in (c) A band remain same
the A-band
(d) A, H and I bands shorten
(c) Extension of myosin filaments in the
central portion of the A-band.
(d) The absence of myofibrils in the central
portion of A-band.
Solutions
1. (d) Hyalin Cartilage forms the ‘cushions’ or tarsals in the ankle, 5 metatarsals in the
‘pads’ upon the articular surfaces at the sole and 14 phalanges in toes.
joints of long bones and called ‘articular 9. (a) Lower jaw is made of mandible.
cartilage’. Its role in adult body is to 10. (a) Actin and tropomyosin are part of thin
withstand forces of compression and filaments of skeletal muscle. Tubuline
torsion at the joints. is presents in microtubules. Myosin is
2. (d) A deltoid ridge is present along the muscle protein.
ventral side of humerus (bone of upper 11. (b) Tendons are made of inelastic white
arm - Brachium) which provides the fibrous connective tissue. A tendon
insertion to muscles. (or sinew) is a tough band of fibrous
3. (c) All mammals have 7 cervical vertebrae connective tissue that connects muscle
in their neck (it is one of the typical to bone or muscle to muscle and is
mammalian characters). Though they designed to withstand tension. Tendons
become long in camel & giraff but are similar to ligaments except that
the number is 7 only. As whale is also ligaments join one bone to another.
a mammal it also possess the same 7 Tendons and muscles work together and
cervical vertebrae. can only exert a pulling force.
4. (b) Long bones gives us support as well as 12. (a) Ligament contain both yellow elastin
their bone marrow (the peripheral part) fibres and collagen fibres. The latter
synthesizes (in adults) the blood and its are arranged in a manner to allow for
cells. stretching. Ligaments help in binding
5. (c) Movement of Ca2+ out in sarcoplasmic bone to bones.
reticulum controls the making and 13. (c) In angular joint articulating surface of
breaking of actin and myosin complex one bone is oval and convex whereas that
actomyosin due to which muscle of the other is elliptical and concave, it
contraction and relaxation takes allows movement only in two directions
place. Albert Szent Gyorgyi worked e.g. Wrist. Fibrous joints are unmovable
out biochemical events of muscle joints e.g. Sutures of skull. Cartilaginous
contraction. joints have little motility due to disc of
6. (a) Glenoid cavity is a shallow concavity fibrocartilage between the articular ends.
on the lateral side of pectoral girdle in In gliding joints articulate end of both
which the head of humerus fits making the bones are either flat or curved to
the shoulder joint. allow gliding movements. e.g. between
7. (d) In a human body, there are two pairs carpels and wrist.
of floating ribs. i.e., 11th and 12th pairs. 14. (d) Atlas is the first cervical vertebra.
These ribs are not attached to either to Coracoid is part of the pectoral girdle.
sternum or the cartilage of another rib. Pterygoid is a small bone articulated
They protect the kidneys. with palatine.
8. (b) Each hind limb contain 30 bones namely 15. (d) Darks bands on the myofibril form
1 femur in the thigh, 1 petala in the knee, A-band. Middle part of A-band contains
1 tibia and 1 fibula in the lower leg, 7 light zones-Hensen line (H-lines). Light
Locomotion and Movement 201
band on myofibril is called I-band. 21. (a) In a humans total number of ribs are
Middle part of I-band contains Z-lines. Fourteen (14). These are of three types
Sarcomere is part between two Z-lines. (1) True ribs-These are 7 in number.
16. (b) When Ca+ ions combine with troponin (2) False ribs- These are two (2) in
contraction of muscles initiates. During
number
Contraction the Z lines come closer
(3) Floating rise-These are 4 in number.
together and the sarcomere becomes
22. (a) The pelvic girdle is formed by two
shorter. The length of A band remains
constant. I bands shortens and H-band innominate bones consists of three
narrows. separate bones ilium, ischium and the
17. (c) Ligments are specialised connective pubis.
tissues which connect bones together, 23. (a) Elbow joint is an example of hinge
hence if they are cut or broken the bone joint. The elbow is a hinge joint; it can
will be come unfixed open and close like a door. Hinge joint
18. (b) Hinge joint : elbow joint, knee joint, is a form of diarthrosis (freely movable
ankle joint, inter phalangeal joint. joint) that allows angular movement in
Gliding joint : Intercarpal joint, one plane only, increasing or decreasing
intertarsal joint, sternoclavicular the angle between the bones e.g. elbow
joint and joint between pre and post
joint, knee joint etc.
zygapophysis of adjacent vertebra.
24. (b) Glenoid cavity is found in pectoral
Fibrous joint (Synarthroses) : Joints of
girdle.
cranium - bones. Joints between teeth
25. (b) Major causative factors of osteoporosis
and Jaw bones.
are imbalances of hormones like
Cartilaginous joint (Amphiarthroses):
calcitonin of thyroid, parathormone of
Joints between mammalian vertebrae
parathyroids, and sex hormones and
and two innominate bones (pubic
deficiencies of calcium and vitamin D.
symphysis).
19. (b) Each half of pectoral girdle has two 26. (c) Troponin is a protein which is found
bones i.e. clavicle and scapula. A spine on actin filament and myosin protein
like, acromian process is attached to is found in myosin filament. Both actin
scapula for articulation with clavicle and myosin are complex proteins in
bone. striated muscles.
20. (d) Floating ribs are 2- pairs (11th and 12th Thymosin is a hormone secreted by the
pair) which are not attached to sternum thymus that stimulates development of
T cells. Prolactin is a hormone released
by the pituitary gland that stimulates
breast development and milk production
in women. Rhodopsin, also known as
visual purple, is not a hormone. It is a
biological pigment in photoreceptor
cells of the retina that is responsible
for the first events in the perception of
light.
27. (b) Synovial joints are characterised by the
presence of a fluid filled synovial cavity
between the articulating surfaces of the

two bones. Such an arrangement allows breakdown of neuromuscular junction
c o n s i d e r a b l e m ove m e n t . T h e s e due to which the brain loses control over
joints help in locomotion and many muscles. The symptoms may include
other movements. Ball and socket drooping eyelids, difficulty in swallowing
joint (between humerus and pecto- muscle fatigue, difficult breathing and
ral girdle), Hinge joint (knee joint), inability to control facial expressions.
Pivot joint (between atlas and axis), 31. (c) Increase in Ca++ level into the sarcoplasm
Gliding joint (between the carpals) and leads to the binding of calcium with a
Saddle joint (between carpal and metacar- subunit of troponin on actin filaments
pal of thumb) are some examples. and there by remove the masking of
28. (a) Vertebral column has 12 thoracic active sites for myosin. Utilising the
vertebrate. The joints between adjacent energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin
vertebrae is cartilaginous joint which head now binds to the exposed active
permits limited movements. Progesterone sites on actin to form a cross bridge. This
is secreted by corpus luteum which pulls the attached actin filaments towards
supports in pregnancy in females. the centre of ‘A’ band. The ‘Z’ line
29. (b) Central part of thick filament, not attached to these actins are also pulled
overlapped by thin filaments is called the inwards thereby causing a shortening
‘H’ zone. ‘H’ zone is also called Hensen’s of the sarcomere, i.e., contraction.
Line. It is clear from the above steps, that
30. (b) M ya s t h e n i a g r av i s i s a c h r o n i c during shortening of the muscle, i.e.,
autoimmune muscular disease. It causes contraction, the ‘I’ bands get reduced,
whereas the ‘A’ bands retain the length.
HAPTER
C
21 Neural Control and

Coordination
1. Acute vision is present in [1988] 10. Retina is most sensitive at [1993]
(a) vulture (b) shark (a) optic disc (b) periphery
(c) bat (d) frog (c) macula lutea (d) fovea centralis
2. Sensitive pigmented layer of eye is [1989] 11. Light rays entering the eye is controlled by
(a) cornea (b) retina (a) pupil (b) iris [1993]
(c) sclerotic (d) iris (c) cornea (d) lens
3. Which of the following cranial nerves can 12. Ivan Pavlov performed experiments on
regulate heart beat? [1989] (a) simple reflexes [1993]
(b) conditioned reflexes
(a) X (b) IX
(c) cardiac reflexes
(c) VIII (d) VII
(d) origin of life
4. One function of parasympathetic nervous
13. CNS is mostly made of [1993]
system is [1990] (a) motor neurons and sensory neurons
(a) contraction of hair muscles (b) sensory neurons and association
(b) stimulation of sweat glands neurons
(c) acceleration of heart beat (c) association neurons
(d) constriction of pupil (d) motor neurons and association neurons
5. Third ventricle of brain is also known as 14. Respiratory centre is situated in [1994]
(a) metacoel (b) rhincoel [1990] (a) cerebellum
(c) paracoel (d) diacoel (b) medulla oblongata
6. Vagus nerve is (c) hypothalamus
(a) X (b) IX [1992] (d) cerebrum
(c) VII (d) V 15. The sympathetic nerves in mammals arise
7. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from from [1995]
(a) effector organs to CNS [1992] (a) sacral nerves
(b) receptors to CNS (b) cervical nerves
(c) CNS to receptors (c) thoraco-lumbar nerves
(d) CNS to muscles (d) 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves
8. Iris is part of [1992] 16. In humans, visceral organs are innervated
by [1996]
(a) sclerotic
(a) sympathetic nerves and are under
(b) choroid/Uvea
conscious control
(c) choroid and retina
(b) parasympathetic nerves and are under
(d) sclerotic and choroid conscious control
9. Function of iris is to [1993] (c) both sympathetic and parasympathetic
(a) move lens forward and backward nerves and are under conscious control
(b) refract light rays (d) both sympathetic and parasympathetic
(c) bring about movements of eye lids nerves but are not under conscious
(d) alter the size of pupil. control
17. Cornea transplantation is outstandingly 25. When we migrate from dark to light, we fail
successful because [1996] to see for sometime but after a time visibility
(a) cornea is easy to preserve becomes normal. It is an example of [2001]
(b) cornea is not linked up with blood (a) accommodation (b) adaptation
(c) mutation (d) photoperiodism
vascular and immune systems
26. Characteristic feature of human cornea
(c) the technique involved is very simple
[2001]
(d) cornea is easily available (a) Secreted by conjunctiva and glandular
18. The Nissl’s granules of nerve cells are made (b) It is lacrimal gland which secretes tears
up of [1997, 03] (c) Blood circulation is absent in cornea
(a) ribosomes (b) proteins (d) In old age it becomes harden and white
(c) DNA (d) mitochondria layer deposits on it which causes cataract
19. In the chemistry of vision in mammals, the 27. Which of the following statements is correct
photosensitive substance is called [1997] for ‘nodes of Ranvier’ of nerve? [2002]
(a) Neurilemma is discontinuous
(a) sclerotin (b) retinol
(b) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
(c) rhodopsin (d) melanin (c) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are
20. Anesthetics reduce pain by blocking the discontinuous
transmission of nerve impulses. The kind of (d) Covered by myelin sheath
chemicals working as anesthetics are those 28. In which animal nerve cell is present but
that block [1998] brain is absent? [2002]
(a) only the voltage-gated sodium channels (a) Sponge (b) Earthworm
in membranes (c) Cockroach (d) Hydra
29. Ommatidia serve the purpose of
(b) only the voltage-gated potassium
photoreception in [2003]
channels in membranes
(a) sunflower (b) cockroach
(c) only the neuro-transmitter receptors (c) frog (d) humans
(d) voltage-gated sodium and potassium 30. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely
channels and neuro-transmitter to affect [2004]
receptors (a) tongue movements
21. In vertebrates, simple reflex action is [1999] (b) gastrointestinal movements
(a) polysynaptic (b) bisynaptic (c) pancreatic secretion
(c) trisynaptic (d) monosynaptic (d) cardiac movements
31. In the resting state of the neural membrane,
22. Suspensory ligament is part of [1999]
diffusion due to concentration gradients, if
(a) heart (b) eye allowed, would drive [2004]
(c) tongue (d) brain (a) K+ into the cell
23. Neuroglia consist of cells found in the [1999] (b) K+ and Na+ out of the cell
(a) liver (c) Na+ into the cell
(b) kidney (d) Na+ out of the cell
(c) central nervous system and ganglia 32. Four healthy people in their twenties got
(d) testes involved in injuries resulting in damage and
24. What is intensity of sound in normal death of a few cells of the following. Which
of the cells are least likely to be replaced by
conversation? [2001]
new cells? [2005]
(a) 10—20 decibel (a) Liver cells
(b) 30—60 decibel (b) Neurons
(c) 70—90 decibel (c) Malpighian layer of the skin
(d) 120—150 decibel (d) Osteocytes
Neural Control and Coordination 205
33. In a man, abducens nerve is injured. Which 38. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section
one of the following functions will be of a single loop of human cochlea: [2008]
affected? [2005]
A B
(a) Movement of the eye ball
(b) Movement of the tongue C
(c) Swallowing A D
(d) Movement of the neck
34. One of the examples of the action of the Which one of the following options correctly
autonomous nervous system is [2005] represents the names of three different
(a) swallowing of food parts?
(b) pupillary reflex (a) B: Tectorial membrane, C: Perilymph,
(c) peristalsis of the intestine D: Secretory cells
(d) knee-jerk response (b) C: Endolymph, D: Sensory hair cells,
A: Serum
35. During the transmission of nerve impulse
(c) D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph,
through a nerve fibre, the potential on the
B: Tectorial membrane
inner side of the plasma membrane has
(d) A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane,
which type of electric change? [2007] C: Endolymph
(a) First positive, then negative and continue 39. Which one of the following is the correct
to be positive difference between Rod Cells and Cone Cells
(b) First negative, then positive and continue of our retina? [2008]
to be positive. Rod Cells Cone Cells
(c) First positive, then negative and again (a) Visual: High Low
back to positive acuity
(d) First negative, then positive and again (b) Visual : Iodopsin Rhodpsin
back to negative . pigment
36. Which of the following is an example of contained
(c) Overall : Vision in Colour
negative feedback loop in humans? [2007]
function poor light vision and
(a) Secretion of tears after falling of sand
detailed
particles into the eye. vision in
(b) Salivation of mouth at the sight of bright light
delicious food (d) Distribu- More conc- Evenly
(c) Secretion of sweat glands and tion : entrated in distributed
constriction of skin blood vessels when retina all over
it is too hot
(d) Constriction of skin blood vessels and 40. During the propagation of a nerve impulse,
contraction of skeletal muscles when it the action potential results from the
is too cold movement of : [2008]
37. Which one of the following pairs of (a) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to
intracellular fluid
structures distinguishes a nerve cell from
(b) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to
other types of cells? [2007]
extracellular fluid
(a) Vacuoles and fibres
(c) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to
(b) Flagellum and medullary sheath extracellular fluid
(c) Nucleus and mitochondria (d) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to
(d) Perikaryon and dendrites. intracellular fluid
41. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never 48. Which part of the human ear plays no role in
rejected. This is because [2008] hearing as such but is otherwise very much
(a) its cells are least penetrable by bacteria required? [2012]
(b) it has no blood supply (a) Eustachian tube
(c) it is composed of enucleated cells (b) Organ of corti
(d) it is a non-living layer
(c) Vestibular apparatus
42. Alzheimer disease in humans is associated
with the deficiency of: [2009] (d) Ear ossicles
(a) glutamic acid 49. A person entering an empty room suddenly
(b) acetylcholine finds a snake right in front on opening the
(c) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) door. Which one of the following is likely
(d) dopamine to happen in his neuro-hormonal control
43. Which part of human brain is concerned system ? [2012]
with the regulation of body temperature? (a) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
[2009] releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin
(a) Cerebellum from adrenal medulla.
(b) Cerebrum (b) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across
(c) Hypothalamus the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse.
(d) Medulla Oblongata (c) Hypothalamus activates the
44. The nerve centres which control the body parasympathetic division of brain.
temperature and the urge for eating are (d) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
contained in: [2010] releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin
(a) hypothalamus
from adrenal cortex.
(b) pons
50. The most abundant intracellular cation is :
(c) cerebellum
[NEET 2013]
(d) thalamus ++ +
(a) Ca (b) H
45. When a neuron is in resting state I not
(c) K+ (d) Na+
conducting any impulse, the axonal
51. A diagram showing axon terminal and
membrane is: [2011]
synapse is given. Identify correctly at least
(a) comparatively more permeable to Na+
two of A-D. [NEET 2013]
ions and nearly impermeable to K+
ions
(b) equally permeable to both Na+ and K+
ions
(c) impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions C
(d) comparatively more permeable to K+
ions and nearly impermeable to Na+
ions
46. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin B
contained in the rods type of photoreceptor
cells of the human eye, is a derivative of:
[2011]
D
(a) vitamin B1 (b) vitamin C A

(c) vitamin D (d) vitamin A
47. The human hind brain comprises three parts, (a) B-Synaptic connection, D-K+
one of which is : [2012] (b) A-Neurotransmitter, B-Synaptic cleft
(a) Spinal cord (b) Corpus callosum (c) C- Neurotransmitter, D-Ca++
(c) Cerebellum (d) Hypothalamus (d) A-Receptor, C-Synaptic vesicles
52. A sagittal section of human-brain is shown 53. The figure shows an axon terminal and
here. Identify at least two labels from A-D. synapse. Select the option giving correct
[NEET Kar. 2013] identifications of tables A-D
[NEET Kar. 2013]
A
A
D
B
C
D B
(a) A – Cerebral hemispheres; C
B – Cerebellum (a) A – Axon terminal; B–Serotonin complex
(b) C – Mid brain; D – Cerebellum (b) A – Action potential; C –
(c) A – Cerebrum; C – Pons Neurotransmitter
(d) B – Corpus callosum; D – Medulla (c) B – Neurotransmitter; D – Receptor capsules
Solutions
(d) C – Receptor; D – Synaptic vesicles
1. (a) Vulture, some other birds and man have midbrain). The ventral wall of diocoel
acute vision. in known as hypothalamus.
2. (b) Retina has 2 layers, an outer heavily 6. (a) Vagus nerve is 10th pair of nerves
pigmented (melanin containing) layer arising from medulla oblongata of brain.
and an inner neurosensory layer. The These are mixed nerves i.e. having both
inner layer consists of rods and cones, sensory as well as motor nerve fibres.
bipolar nerve cells and large ganglionic 7. (b) Afferent nerve fibres – sensory nerve
nerve cells. fibres which carry senses from receptors
3. (a) Xth pair of cranial nerves (vagus nerves) to brain or spinal cord (CNS).
has a motor branch called cardiac nerve Efferent nerve fibres – motor nerve
which innervate cardiac muscles. fibres carry orders or responses from
4. (d) Sympathetic system prepares the body CNS to effectors (muscles and glands).
for stress or emergency conditions while 8. (c) Iris consists of two layers, outer
parasympathetic system is associated thickened layer is continuation with
with the period of rest. So when one choroid and inner simple cuboidal
faces the stress or emergency conditions epithelium layer continued from retina.
sympathetic system enlarges the pupil 9. (d) Iris controls the size of pupil by
to allow more light in the eye while contracting or relaxing of its circular
during rest parasympathetic nervous muscles. It controls the amount of light
system constricts the pupil to its normal entering in eye.
condition. 10. (d) Fovea centralis is the most sensitive part
5. (d) It is the cavity of diancephelone which of retina (in fact most sensitive part of
is connected ahead with the lateral the eye). This is the area of most acute
ventricles or paracoel of cerebral vision. Actually it is a small depression
hemisphere by foramen of Monro present in mammals (not in frog) at
& behind with the iter (the duct of macula lutea or yellow spot.
11. (a) Pupil is the opening which controls the under various physiological conditions
amount of light entering in eye. When and in pathological conditions they may
light intensity is high, it decreases in dissolve and disappear (karyolysis).
size and when light intensity is low it 19. (c) Melanin is the pigment which gives
dilates to allow more light in the eye to colour to the skin. Retinol is the
make eye enable to see the object. other name for vitamin A. Sclerotin
12. (b) Conditioned reflexes (reflexes developed is the component of the carapace in
by training and learning) were first crustaceans.
demonstrated by Russian Scientist Ivan 20. (d) In this manner, they block transmission
Pavlov in dogs. He used to ring the of nerve impulse.
bell while giving the food to his dog, 21. (d) A reflex action is a nerve mediated
after some time when only bell is rung spontaneous, automatic and involuntary
watering of mouth started in dog i.e. response to a stimulus acting through
dog learnt a close association of food specific receptors without consulting
and bell and it gets into dog’s reflexes. the will of the animal.
13. (c) Association neurons. 22. (b) Stretching and relaxation of suspensory
14. (b) Respiratory centre is situated bilaterally ligament changes the focal length of
in medulla oblongata, while breathing lens for accommodation.
is controlled by pneumotaxic and 23. (c) Neuroglia are non-nervous cells present-
apneustic centres in pons varolii. along with and in between the neurons
Impulse for voluntary forced breathing in central nervous system, ganglia and
starts in cerebral hemisphere. retina. They have roles like myelin
15. (c) In mammals, the sympathetic nerves formation, transport of materials to
arise from thoraco-lumbar nerves neurons, maintenance of ionic balance
(autonomic nervous system). and phagocytosis.
16. (d) The activities of all visceral organs are 24. (b) The word noise is taken from the
coordinated through the regulation latin word nausea and is defined as
of their smooth muscles and glands unwanted or unpleasant sound that
by the nerve fibres of the sympathetic causes discomfort.
and parasympathetic nervous system. Source Intensity (dB)
These constitute the autonomic nervous Breathing 10
system which carry out functions that Broadcasting studio 20
are not under the control of our will. Trickling clock 30
17. (b) Cornea transplants are easy, since there Library 30 – 35
are no blood vessels involved. Normal conversetion 35 – 60
18. (a) Prominent granules (Nissl’s granules) Telephone office Noise 60 – 80
observed in the cytoplasm of the cyton Alarm clock 70 – 80
are believed to be made of ribosomes. Traffic 50 – 90
A Nissl body (or Nissl granule or tigroid Motorcycle 105
body) is a large granular body found in Jet fly over 100 – 110
nerve cells. It was named after Franz Train whistle 110
Nissl, German neurologist (1860-1919). Air craft 110 – 120
Nissl bodies can be demonstrated by 25. (b) It takes some time for rhodopsin to split
selective staining, which was developed into scotopsin and retinal (bleading)
by Nissl and the stain used was an and release of transmitter passing nerve
aniline stain to label extranuclear inpulse via bipolar and ganglion cells to
RNA granules.These granules are the optic nerves.
rough endoplasmic reticulum (with This is a case of adaptation. It differs
ribosomes) and are the site of protein from accomodations which is a reflex
synthesis.Nissl bodies show changes mechanism by which the focus of
the eye change to make the images of conduct an electrochemical current.
distant and near objects sharp on the Neuron cells do not have the capability
retina. of division.
26. (c) The outermost layer of the eye ball is 33. (a) Abducens nerve is the sixth cranial
fibrous in nature. Two-third part of nerve. It supplies the extraocular muscle
this layer is opaque and lies inside the (superior oblique) of eyeball, therefore
eyeorbit and is known as sclera.The controls movement of the eyeball.
remaining one-third of the outer layer is 34. (c) Autonomic nerveous system regulates
transparent and bulges out to form the and coordinates involuntry activities
cornea.There is no supply of blood in like heart beat, homeostasis, body
cornea. temperature, breathing, gut peristalsis
27. (b) Neurons are the chief functional units and secretion of glands. Human
of the nervous system. An ordinary intestine shows movements during food
digestion called peristalsis.
neuron has a soma or cyton and a long
35. (d) Once the events of depolarization
thread called axon which is enclosed
have occurred, a nerve impulse or
in a multilayered myelin sheath, made
spike is initiated. Action potential
by Schwann cells. The myelin sheath is another name of nerve impulse.
is interrupted at the spaces between It lasts about 1 msec (millisecond).
schwann cells to form gaps. These gaps The stimulalted, negatively charged
are called Nodes of Ranvier. point on the outside of the membrane
These nodes and the myelin sheath sends out an electrical current to the
create condition that speed up the nerve positive point (still polarized adjacent
impulses. to it). This local current causes the
28. (d) A primitive type of nervous system, adjacent inner part of the membrane
without brain is found in the form of to reverse its potential from –70 mV to
intra epidermal nerve net. However, +30 mV. The reversal repeats itself
there is no brain in Hydra to coordinate over and over until the nerve impulse
the response. is conducted through the length of the
29. (b) Cockroach has compound eye composed neuron.
of many units called ommatidia. It 36. (d) When the set point of hypothalamus
comprises a cornea lens, crystalline is disturbed by high temperature, it
cone, a graph of usually 7–8 retinal stimulates vasodilation and sweating
cells radially arranged around a central while in low temperature there is
rhabdome vasoconstriction and shivering.
30. (a) Muscles of the tongue are invested by 37. (d) The cytoplasm immediately
the 12th cranial nerve, Hypoglossal. surrounding the nucleus is loaded with
protein synthetic machinery and is
The 10th cranial nerve, vagus supplies
called perikaryon, dendrites are usually
the viscera of the thorax, abdominal
shorter, tapering and much branched
region and thus controls gastrointestinal,
processes which may be one to several.
cardiac movements and pancreatic These two are only present in nerve
secretion. cells.
31. (c) In a resting state of the neural membrane, 38. (d) The diagramnatic cross section of a
Na+ concentration is higher on the single loop of human cochlea represents
outer side and K+ concentration is the three different parts-
more within the cell. This concentration A- Perilymph
gradient is maintained by voltage gated B- Tertorial membrane
channels. Hence if diffusion is allowed C-Endolymph
Na+ would enter the cell and K+ would Cochlea arises from sacculus. It is
leave. spirally coiled duct. It is also known as
32. (b) The neurons are cells specialised to Lagena.
It is connected with sacculus by duct of small cone-shaped structure, projects
Reunies. downward, ending in the pituitary.
39. (c) Rod cells is a type of light sensitive 44. (a) Hypothalamus contains important
receptor cell present in the retinas of nerve centres that controls the body
vertebrates. Rod contains the pigment temperature, thirst, hunger and eating,
rhodopsin and are essential for vision in water balance and sexual function.
dim light. 45. (d) When a neurone is in resting state
Cone cells is a type of light sensitive i.e., not conducting any impulse, the
receptor cell, found in retinas of axonal membrane is comparatively
all diurnal vertebrates. Cones are more permeable to K+ ion and nearly
specialized to transmit information impermeable to Na+ ions.
about colour and are responsible for the 46. (a) Rhodopsin contained in the rod type of
visual acuity of the eye. They function photoreceptor cells of human eye is a
best in bright light. derivative of vitamin B1.
40. (d) Total sum of physio-electrochemical 47. (c) The human hind brain comprises
changes that takes place along the of pons, cerebellum and medulla
length of nerve fibre is known as nerve oblongata.
impulse. 48. (c) Vestibular apparatus is a part of inner
Change in potential due to stimulation ear which has no role in hearing but
of nerve fibre is called action potential. responsible for the maintenance of
During propagation of nerve impulse, balance of the body and posture.
Na+ enters inside so ( +ve) change is 49. (a) Epinephrine and norepinephrine are
formed inside the membrane. K+ ions secreted by adrenalmedulla in response
come out. to stress of any kind and during
41. (b) Cornea transplant in humans is almost emergency situations and are called
never rejected. This is because it has no emergency hormones or hormones of
blood supply. Cornea is a transparent flight, or fight.
layer of tissue, continuous with the 50. (c) The most abundant intracellular cation
sclerotic, that forms the front part of the is K+.
vertebrate eye, over the iris and lens. 51. (d) A-Receptor, C-Synaptic vesicles B is
42. (b) Alzheimer disease in humans is synaptic cleft. A synapse is formed by
associated with the deficiency of the membranes of a synaptic neuron
acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the and post synaptic neuron, which may
neurotransmitter produced by neurons or may not separated by a gap called
referred to as cholinergic neurons. synaptic cleft. It is filled by fluid called
Acetylcholine plays a role in skeletal neurotransmitter which are involved
muscle movement, as well as in the in transmission of impulse at these
regulation of smooth muscle and synapses.
cardiac muscle. Acetylcholine is 52. (c) Cerebrum is the first and most
synthesized from choline and acetyl developed part of fore brain. It makes
coenzyme-A through the action of the 2/3 part of total brain. Pons is a small
enzyme choline acetyltransferase and spherical projection, which is situated
becomes packaged into membrane- below the midbrain and upper side of
bound vesicles. the medulla oblongata. It acts as a relay
43. (c) Hypothalamus part of human brain is centre among different parts of brain.
concerned with the regulation of body B and D are thalamus and spinal cord
temperature. The hypothalamus is a respectively.
portion of the brain that contains a 53. (d) In the given figure, A, B, C and D are
number of small nuclei with a variety axon, neurotransmitters, receptors and
of functions. The hypothalamus is synaptic vesicles respectively.
HAPTER
C
22 Chemical Coordination
and Regulation
1. MSH of pars intermedia of middle pituitary 7. Gastric secretion is stopped by hormone
is responsible for [1988] [1993]
(a) darkening of skin in lower vertebrates (a) enterogastrone (b) gastrin
(b) light colouration of skin in lower (c) pancreozymin (d) cholecystokinin
vertebrates 8. Testosterone is produced by [1993]
(c) noth A and B (a) sertoli cells (b) leydig’s cells
(d) darkening of skin in human beings (c) oxyntic cells (d) pituitary gland
2. Which hormone possesses anti-insulin 9. Male hormone is produced in the testis by
effect? [1988] cells of [1993]
(a) Cortisol (b) Calcitonin (a) sertoli (b) epithelial
(c) Oxytocin (d) Aldosterone (c) spermatocytes (d) leydig
3. Addition of a trace of thyroxine or iodine in 10. Ovulation is stimulated by [1994]
water containing tadpoles will [1990] (a) LH (b) FSH
(a) keep them in larval stage (c) estrogen (d) progesterone
(b) hasten their metamorphosis
11. Function of enterogastrone is [1994]
(c) slow down their metamorphosis
(a) regulation of bile flow
(d) kill the tadpoles
(b) stimulation of pancreatic flow
4. Insulin is [1990]
(c) inhibition of gastric secretion
(a) vitamin (b) lipid
(d) stimulation of gastric secretion
(c) hormone (d) enzyme
12. Ovulation occurs under the influence of
5. Occurrence of Leydig’s cells and their
[1994]
secretion is [1991]
(a) LH (b) FSH
(a) ovary and estrogen
(b) liver and cholesterol (c) estrogen (d) progesterone
(c) pancreas and glucagon 13. The mammalian corpus luteum produces
(d) testes and testosterone [1995]
6. ADH or vasopressin is [1991] (a) estrogen
(a) enzyme that hydrolyses peptides (b) progesterone
(b) hormone secreted by pituitary that (c) luteotropic hormone
promotes reabsorption of water from (d) luteinizing hormone
glomerular filtrate 14. Nicotine acts as a stimulant, because it
(c) hormone that promotes glycogenolysis mimics the effect of [1995]
(d) energy rich compound connected with (a) thyroxine (b) acetylcholine
muscle contraction. (c) testosterone (d) dopamine
15. Which of the following endocrine gland 22. Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which
stores its secretion in the extracellular space [1998]
before discharging it into the blood? [1995] (a) lowers calcium level in blood
(a) Pancreas (b) Adrenal (b) elevates calcium level in blood
(c) Testis (d) Thyroid (c) has no effect on calcium
16. According to the accepted concept of (d) elevates potassium level in blood
hormone action, if receptor molecules are 23. The most important component of the oral
removed from target organs, then the target contraceptive pill is [1998]
organ will [1995] (a) growth hormone
(a) not respond to the hormone (b) thyroxine
(b) continue to respond to hormone without (c) luteinizing hormone
any difference (d) progesterone
(c) continue to respond to the hormone but 24. Parathormone deficiency produces muscle
in the opposite way
ramps or tetany as a result of [1999]
(d) continue to respond to the hormone but
(a) lowered blood Ca2+
will require higher concentration
(b) enhanced blood Na+
17. Which of the following radioactive isotope is
(c) enhanced blood glucose
used in the detection of thyroid cancer?
(d) enhanced blood Ca2+
[1995, 02]
25. Oxytocin helps in [1999]
(a) Iodine-131 (b) Carbon-14
(a) lactation
(c) Uranium-238 (d) Phosphorus-32
(b) child birth
18. Which one of the following hormone
stimulates the “let-down” (release) of milk (c) ovulation
from the mother’s breasts when the baby is (d) implantation of the embryo
sucking ? [1996] 26. The technique used for estimation of minute
(a) Progesterone (b) Oxytocin amounts of hormones and drugs is called
(c) Prolactin (d) Relaxin (a) electrophoresis [1999]
19. According to the “immunity theory” of (b) electroencephalogram
ageing, the process starts with the gradual (c) fractionation
atrophy and disappearance of [1996] (d) radioimmunoassay
(a) thyroid 27. A candidate vaccine for male contraception
(b) parthyroid is based on [1999]
(c) thymus (a) follicle stimulating hormone
(d) islets of Langerhans (b) progesterone
20. In human adult females oxytocin [1996] (c) testosterone
(a) is secreted by anterior pituitary (d) luteinizing hormone
(b) stimulates growth of mammary glands 28. Insulin differs from growth hormone in that
(c) stimulates pituitary to secrete it
vasopressin (a) stimulates lipoprotein lipase in vicinity
(d) causes strong uterine contractions of fat cells [1999]
during parturition (b) increases the transport of amino acids
21. Hormones, thyroxine, adrenaline and the across the cell membranes of muscles
pigment melanin are formed from [1997] (c) increases mRNA/ribosome acitivity
(a) tryptophan (b) glycine (d) stimulates hormone sensitive lipase in
(c) tyrosine (d) proline fat cells
Chemical Coordination and Regulation 213
29. The gland that regresses with age is [1999] 38. Which steroid is used for microbial trans-
(a) adrenal (b) gonad formation? [2002]
(c) thymus (d) thyroid (a) Cortisol (b) Cholesterol
30. Melatonin is produced by [2000] (c) Testosterone (d) Progesterone
(a) thymus (b) skin 39. Which one of the following pairs correctly
(c) pituitary (d) pineal gland matches a hormone with a disease resulting
31. Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) is from its deficiency ? [2003]
produced by [2000] (a) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
(a) parathyroid (b) Relaxin – Gigantism
(b) pars intermedia of pituitary
(c) Prolactin – Cretinism
(c) anterior pituitary
(d) Parathyroid hormone – Tetany
(d) posterior pituitary
40. Chemically hormones are [2004]
32. Progesterone, the component of the oral
(a) biogenic amines only
contraceptive pills, prevents pregnancy by
[2000] (b) proteins, steroids and biogenic amines
(a) preventing the cleavage of the fertilized (c) proteins only
egg (d) steroids only
(b) preventing the formation of ova 41. Which one of the following pairs correctly
(c) blocking ovulation matches a hormone with a disease resulting
(d) creating unfavourable chemical from its deficiency? [2004]
environment for the sperms to survive in (a) Luteinizing - Failure of
the female reproductive tract ovulation
33. Melanin protects us from [2002] (b) Insulin - Diabetes insipidus
(a) U. V. rays (b) visible rays (c) Thyroxine - Tetany
(c) infrared rays (d) X-rays (d) Parathyroid - Diabetes mellitus
34. Mainly which type of hormones control the 42. Which of the following hormones is not a
menstrual cycle in human beings? [2002] secretion product of human placenta ?
(a) FSH [2004]
(b) LH (a) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(c) FSH, LH, estrogen (b) Prolactin
(d) Progesteron (c) Estrogen
35. When both ovaries are removed from rat
(d) Progesterone
then which hormone is decreased in blood?
43. Which one of the following hormones is a
[2002]
modified amino acid? [2004]
(a) Oxytocin
(a) Epinephrine (b) Progesterone
(b) Prolactin
(c) Estrogen (c) Prostaglandin (d) Estrogen
(d) Gonadotropin releasing factor 44. Parkinson’s disease (characterized by tremors
36. Adrenaline directly affects on [2002] and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused
(a) S. A. node by degeneration of brain neurons that are
(b) b-cells of Langerhans involved in movement control and make use
(c) dorsal root of spinal cord of neurotransmitter [2005]
(d) epithelial cells of stomach (a) acetylcholine (b) norepinephrine
37. Acromegaly is caused by [2002] (c) dopamine (d) GABA
(a) excess of G.H. 45. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary
(b) excess of thyroxin hormone known as [2006]
(c) deficiency of thyroxin (a) GH (b) Prolactin
(d) excess of adrenalin (c) LH (d) FSH
46. A steroid hormone which regulates glucose 53. A person is having problems with calcium
metabolism is and phosphorus metabolism in his body.
(a) corticosterone Which one of following glands may not be
(b) 11- deoxycorticosterone functioning properly ? [2007]
(c) cortisone (a) Parotid (b) Pancreas
(d) cortisol (c) Thyroid (d) Parathyroid
47. Which one of the following is not a second 54. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared
messenger in hormone action ? [2006] resident of seventh floor of a multistored
(a) Calcium (b) Sodium building starts climbing down the stairs
(c) cAMP (d) cGMP rapidly. Which hormone initiated this
48. Which one of the following does not act as a action ? [2007]
neurotransmitter ? [2006] (a) adrenaline (b) glucagon
(a) Epinephrine (b) Norepinephrine (b) gastrin (d) thyroxine
(c) Cortisone (d) Acetylcholine 55. The blood calcium level is lowered by the
49. Which of the following is an accumulation deficiency of [2008]
and release centre of neurohormones ? (a) parathormone
[2006] (b) thyroxine
(a) Intermediate lobe of the pituitary (c) both calcitonin and parathormone
(b) Hypothalamus (d) calcitonin
(c) Anterior pituitary lobe 56. Which one of the following pairs of organs
(d) Posterior pituitary lobe includes only the endocrine glands? [2008]
50. Which hormone causes dilation of blood (a) Parathyroid and Adrenal
vessels, increased oxygen consumption and (b) Pancreas and Parathyroid
glucogenesis? [2006] (c) Thymus and Testes
(a) Insulin (b) Adrenaline (d) Adrenal and Ovary
(c) Glucagon (d) ACTH 57. A health disorder that results from the
51. Which one of the following statement is deficiency of thyroxine in adults and
correct? [2006] characterised by (i) a low metabolic rate, (ii)
(a) Endrocrine glands regulate neural increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to
activity, and nervous system regulates retain water in tissues is: [2009]
endocrine glands (a) simple goitre (b) myxoedema
(b) Neither hormones control neural activity (c) cretinism (d) hypothyroidism
nor the neurons control endocrine 58. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect
activity the secretion of which one of the following?
(c) Endocrine glands regulate neural [2010]
activity, but not vice versa (a) Aldosterone
(d) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but (b) Both Androstenedione and Dehydroep-
not vice versa iandrosterone
52. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an (c) Adrenaline
endocrine gland after ovulation ? [2007] (d) Cortisol
(a) Stroma 59. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause
(b) Germinal epithelium of: [2010]
(c) Vetelline membrane (a) tetany (b) anaemia
(d) Graafian follicle. (c) angina pectoris (d) gout
60. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly 61. Toxic agents present in food which interfere
matched? [2010] with thyroxine synthesis lead to the
(a) Glucagon - Beta cells (source) development of: [2010]
(b) Somatostatin - Delta cells (source) (a) toxic goitre (b) cretinism
(c) Corpus luteum - Relaxin (secretion) (c) simple goitre (d) thyrotoxicosis
(d) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus (disease)
62. Match the source gland with respective hormone as well as the function correctly. [2011]
Source gland Hormone Function
Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Contraction of uterus muscles during child
(a) birth
(b) Posterior pituitary Vasopressin Stimulates reabsorption of water in the distal
tubules in the nephron
(c) Corpus luteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy
(d) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level
63. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major
effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C.
[2011]
Source gland Hormone Function
A Oestrogen Maintenance of secondary sexual characters
Alpha cells of islets of B Raises blood sugar level

Langerhans
Anterior pituitary C Over secretion leads to gigantism
Options : (a) Insulin, glucagon

(a) A-Ovary; B-Glucagon; C-Growth (b) Thyroxin, insulin
hormone (c) Somatostain, oxytocin
(b) A-Placenta; B-Insulin; C-Vasopressin (d) Cortisol, testosterone
(c) A-Ovary; B-Insulin; C-Calcitonin 66. What is correct to say about the hormone
(d) A-Placenta; B-Glucagon; C-Calcitonin action in humans [2012]
64. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body (a) Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of
such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the islets of Langerhans and stimulates
hormone : [2011M] glycogenolysis
(a) calcitonin (b) prolactin (b) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with
(c) adrenaline (d) melatonin ageing
65. Which one of the following pairs of hormones (c) In females FSH first binds with specific
are the examples of those that can easily pass receptors on ovarian cell membrane
through the cell membrane of the target cell
(d) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen
and bind to a receptor inside it (Mostly in the
nucleus) [2012] and progesterone
67. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed Endocrine gland Hormone Function/
that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are deficiency
same as 1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of : symptom
[2012] (a) Posterior Growth oversecretion
(a) Co-dominance pituitary Hormone stimulates
(b) Dihybrid cross (GH) abnormal
(c) Monohybrid cross with complete growth
dominance (b) Thyroid Thyroxine Lack of
gland iodine in diet
(d) Monohybrid cross with incomplete
results in
dominance
goitre
68. Which of the following statements is correct
(c) Corpus Testosterone Stimulates
in relation to the endocrine system?
luteum spermato-
[NEET 2013]
genesis
(a) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal
(d) Anterior Oxytocin Stimulates
tract, heart, kidney and liver do not
pituitary uterus
produce any hormones.
(b) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by
contraction
the body in trace amount that act as
during child
intercellular messenger are known as
birth
hormones.
71. Which of the following represents the action
(c) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are
of insulin? [NEET Kar. 2013]
produced by the pituitary gland .
(a) Increases blood glucose levels by
(d) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural
hydrolysis of glycogen
regulation of the hypothalamus.
(b) Increases blood glucose levels by
69. A pregnant female deliver a baby who suffers
stimulating glucagon production
from stunted growth, mental retardation/low
(c) Decreases blood glucose levels of forming
intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This
glycogen
is the result of : [NEET 2013]
(d) Increases blood glucose level by promoting
(a) Low secretion of growth hormone
cellular uptake of glucose
(b) Cancer of the thyroid gland
72. Norepinephrine : [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) Over secretion of pars distalis
(1) Is released by sympathetic fibres
(d) Deficiency of iodine in diet
(2) Is released by parasympathetic fibres
70. Select the answer which correctly matches the
(3) Increases the heart rate
endocrine gland with the hormone it secrets
(4) Decreases blood pressure
and its function/deficiency symptom:
Which of the above said statements are
[NEET 2013]
correct?
(a) (1) and (4) (b) (1) and (3)
(c) (2) and (3) (d) (2) and (4)
Solutions
1. (a) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone and hence urine gets concentrated and
(MSH) or Melanotropin is secreted by the ECF gets diluted. Diabetes insipidus
intermediate lobe of adenohypophysis caused by the hyposecretion of ADH.
(pars intermedia) of pituitary gland in 7. (a) Enterogastrone secreted by the mucosa
mammals (other than man) so named of duodenum slows gastric contractions
‘intermedin’. In lower vertebrates, it and stops the secretion of gastric juice.
targets chromatophores & does wider 8. (b) Leydig’s cells.
distribution of the melanin grannules in 9. (d) Male hormones are secreted by the
chromatophores, so that the skin colour Interstitial or Leydig’s cells present in the
darkens. In birds & human beings and stroma of connective tissue in between
other mammals its role is uncertain but the seminiferous tubules in testis. They
in man it is probably responsible for produce androgens (mainly testosterone)
bronzing of skin, moles etc. Sertoli cells are elongated epithelial cells
2. (a) Cortisol is secreted by the middle region present inside the seminal vesicle to
of adrenal cortex. It increases the blood nourish the growing spermatozoa.
glucose level (which is anti-insulin
10. (a) Luteinizing Hormone (LH) induces
effect) by converting proteins & fats into
the Leideyg’s cells in males to produce
glucose.
testesterone and in female it causes
3. (b) In 1912, Gudernatsch discovered that
ovulation and secretion of female sex
metamorphosis in frog’s tadpole is
hormone estrogen from mature ovarian
controlled by the thyroxine hormone
follicle & progesterone by corpus
which has the iodine as the main
luteum.
constituent. If thyroxin or iodine is
11. (c) Enterogastrone is a hormone released by
added in water having tadpoles in it, then
the upper intestinal mucosa that inhibits
it increases the rate of metamorphosis
in tadpole. gastric orotility and secretion.motility
4. (c) Insulin is a hormone secreted by the and secretion.
b-cells of pancreas and it controls the 12. (a) Ovulation occurs under the influence of
sugar level in blood. luteinizing hormone-LH secreted by the
5. (d) Leydig’s cells are present in testes and anterior lobe of pituitary.
they secrete male hormone testesterone. 13. (b) Mammalian corpus luteum produces
Small groups of polygonal, large cells progesterone. It is essential for the
present in the connective tissue in continuation of pregnancy and it also
between the seminiferous tubules are stimulates acini glands.
known as Leydig’s cells are interstitial 14. (b) Nicotine and acetylcholine have the
cells. They secret male sex hormone same receptors-Nicotinic cholinergic
testosterone. receptors and hence have the same
6. (b) ADH : Antidiuretic hormone – action.
vasopressin in secreted by 15. (d) The thyroid gland stores its hormone
neurohypophysis (posterior lobe) of secretion thyroglobulin in its follicles
pituitary gland. This hormone increases called extracellular space before
the reabsorption of water from the urine discharing it into the blood.
16. (a) The hormones in blood act on specific ring in chlorophyll and haeme proteins
sites or receptors of target organ. So like haemoglobin. Tryptophan gives rise
if we remove the receptor molecule to plant hormone indole- 3 - acetic acid.
from the target organs, there will be no 22. (a) Calcitonin is a polypeptide hormone
response. which lowers calcium and phosphate
17. (a) Iodine is an element used by thyroid level of plasma by inhibiting bone
gland for the synthesis of thyroid degradation and stimulating their uptake
hormones. Thus radioactive isotope by bone parathyroid harmone elevates
Iodine -131 is used as radioactive calcium level in blood.
material for detection of thyroid cancer. 23. (d) Use of contraceptive pills is a wide spread
18. (b) Prolactin is a proteinaceous hormone form of birth control. contraceptive pills
released by anterior lobe of pituitary. contain estrogen and progesterone. The
Prolactin supplements the action of production of the pituitary hormones
gonadal hormones in stimulating the FSH & LH in the normal sexual cycle of
growth and activity of female mammary a female is shut down by these hormones.
gland during pregnancy and lactation. In the absence of FSH, the ovarian
Oxytocin released by the posterior lobe follicles do not ripe and ovulation does
of pituitary gland, is important for the not occur in the absence of LH.
mechanism of ejection of milk from 24. (a) Parathormone released by the
the mammary glands due to sucking parathyroid gland elevates the level
of breasts by infant. Progesterone, of Ca2+ in blood. The deficiency of
released by corpus luteum brings about this hormone lowers blood Ca2+. As
pregnancy changes such as uterine a result, the excitability of muscles
growth, implantation of embryo etc. and nerves increases producing tetany
Relaxin is a proteinaceous hormone -sustained contraction.
secreted by corpus luteum towards the 25. (b) Oxytocin is also called the ‘child birth
end of gestation period for loosening and hormone’. Prolactin helps in lactation.
softening of pelvic ligaments, relaxing Luteinizing hormone levels trigger
of uterus for easing parturition. ovulation.
19. (c) According to the immunity theory 26. (d) Electroencephalogram is the recording
ageing occurs due to the loss of power of electric potentials originating from
of defence against the invasion of germs different parts of the brain in the form
and pathogens. The process starts with of waves. Fractionation is the technique
the gradual atrophy and disappearance of rupturing cells and separating their
of the thymus gland during middle age. components especially cell organelles for
20. (d) Oxytocin also known as pitocin. It is an studying their chemistry and functions.
important hormone which is released in Electrophoresis is the technique of
neurohypophysis of pituitary. It stimulate separation of charged solutes on the
the contraction of smooth muscles. It basis of their differential migration in
stimulate labour pain and also increase an applied electric field.
labour pain. It is a hormone for quick 27. (c) Progesterone is a steroid hormone
birth. secreted by corpus luteum and causes
1Its more secretion results in routine temporary changes in the
parturition. endometrial lining of uterus. Follicle
21. (c) The amino acid glycine forms porphyrin stimulating hormone secreted by
anterior pituitary lobe stimulates 34. (c) Estrogens are steroid hormones secreted
spermatogenesis in testes of males. by growing ovarian follicles. During
Luteinizing hormone activates Leydig’s menstrual cycle a negative feedback
cells of testes to secrete testosterones. prevents the over secretion of estrogen.
28. (d) Insulin is released from the pancreas it FSH stimulates maturation of Graafian
helps in conversion of glucose to fatty follicles. LH stimulates ovulation and
acids. It increases fat synthesis in adipose development of corpus luteum.
tissues. 35. (c) Estrogen is released from the ovarian
29. (c) Thymus gland is present in children follicles. Oxytocin is secreted by posterior
with maximum development at puberty pituitary and prolactin is released
and thereafter it begins to shrink and by anterior pituitary. Gonadotropin
atrophies with the development of sex releasing factor is produced by
glands. hypothalamus.
30. (d) Melatonin is secreted by pineal 36. (a) Adrenaline is a neurotransmitter that
gland present between the cerebral directly acts on the S A node.
hemispheres. Melatonin concentration The hormone adrenaline (epinephrine)
in blood follows a diurnal cycle, it is secreted by adrenal medulla. This was
rises in the evening and drops at noon. first hormone to be isolated in crystalline
Melatonin lightens skin colour in form. This hormone is primarily
certain animals and regulates working responsible for the alarming reactions.
of gonads. It increases the heart rate, breathing
31. (b) Parathyroid gland secretes parathormone blood glucose level.
which regulates Ca2+ level in blood. 37. (a) Deficiency of thyroxin causes cretinism
Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes the in infants and myxoedema in adults.
following hormones growth hormone, Excess of adrenalin does not cause
ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH. Posterior any disorder. Acromegaly is caused by
pituitary secretes vasopressin and over secretion of STH or somatotrophic
oxytocin. hormone (Growth hormone).
The intermediate lobe (pars 38. (b) Microbial transformation is a biological
intermedium) of the pitutary gland process in which organic compounds
secretes MSH which causes dispersal of are modified into reversible products.
pigment granules in the pigment cells These biotransformation reactions are
which give colour to the skin catalysed by purified enzymes present in
32. (c) Contraceptive pills have estrogen and microbial cells or pure cullures of micro-
progesterone. Progesterone suppresses organisms. Cholesterol forms a major
ovulation and production of LH while component of animal cell membranes
estrogen suppresses the production of liposomes (artificially created spheres
FSH. surrounded by a phospholipid bilayer
33. (a) Melanin is secreted from the intermediate like a membrane). Cholesterol is used for
lobe of pituitary. Melanin mainly microbial transformation (transgenics).
protects the skin from harmful effects of 39. (d) Deficiency of parathyroid hormone
UV-rays. People living in tropics tend to causes tetany. The disease causes
disperse more melanin in their skin – an sustained contraction of muscles of
adaptive feature. larynx, face, hands and feet.
40. (b) Hormones are chemical messengers under the direct influence of follicle-
formed by endocrine cells. Chemically stimulating hormone (FSH) secreted by
hormones are of the following types: adenohypophyses of pituitary gland.
Amines–composed of amino group e.g., 46. (d) Cortisole is the steroid hormone secreted
Melatonin. by adrenal cortex and plays an important
Amino acids – eg. thyroxine role in carbohydrate metabolism. It
Peptides – eg. insulin retards the glucose consumption &
Steroids – eg. aldosterone hence level of glucose in blood increases
41. (a) Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates & blood pressure increases.
ovulation. Deficiency of insulin causes 47. (b) In heart cells AMP acts as secondary
diabetes mellitus. Deficiency of ADH messenger which is made in the response
or vasopressin causes diabetes insipidus. of adrenaline and it stimulates Ca2+
Deficiency of parathormone causes ions to come out from the sarcoplasmic
tetany. Deficiency of thyroxine causes reticulum of muscle fibres which causes
cretinism in infants and myxoedema in muscle contraction.
adults. cGMP (Cyclic Guanosine
42. (b) Human chorionic gonadotropin is Monophosphate) which acts as
released by Anophoblast cells of the
secondary messenger works on the
placenta. Estrogen and progesterone
action of acetylcholine, increase in flow
are also released by placental cells to
of Ca2+ into muscle fibres & hence
maintain pregnancy. Prolactin is secreted
causes muscle relaxation. There is no
from anterior lobe of pituitary. Placenta
role of sodium in hormonal action.
secretes Human Placental Lactogenic
48. (c) Epinephrine or adrenaline, norepineph-
Factor which prepare mammary glands
rine or noradrenaline and acetylchloline
to secrete milk.
are the neurotransmitters. These are
43. (a) Epinephrine is synthesized from amino
released by the nerve fibres to trans-
acid tyrosine. While estrogen and
mit the impulse to the next neurone.
progesterone are modified steroids and
prostaglandins are basically fat. Cortisone is not the neurotransmitter.
44. (c) Parkinson’s disease (Paralysis agitans) 49. (d) Neurohormones are actually secreted
(i) It develops due to deficiency of by the neurosecretory cells of the
neuro transmitter, dopamine. The hypothalamus. They are circulated to
dopamine is not produced due to the posterior part of the pituitary gland
gradual destruction of neurons in through the blood & stored there and
the substantia nigra. released when required.
(ii) It produces muscle tremors so 50. (b) Adrenaline (called Frieght-Flight-Fight
called shaking palsy. hormone) in responsible for the dilation
(iii) There is lack of control and of blood vessels, increased oxygen
coordination of movements consumption by tissues & glucogenesis
resulting in expression less face and to prepare the body for emergency
stooping posture which gradually reactions under the threatening
produces physical disability. conditions.
45. (d) During spermatogenetic developments 51. (a) Endocrine glands regulate neural
spermatids get nourished by nurse or activity as endocrine glands secrete
sertoli cells. The function of sertoli epinephrine & norepinephrine which
cells and hence the spermatogenesis is have their effects on neuron activity. On
the other hand neuron also controls the in higher vertebrates. They produce
activity of endocrine glands by secreting parathyroid hormone, which controls
neurohormones which regulate the the amount of calcium in the blood.
activity of many endocrine glands. 57. (b) Myxoedema is caused by deficiency of
52. (d) Graafian follicle – the ovarian medulla thyroid hormone or thyroxine in adults.
contains many rounded or oval bodies, It is characterised by increase in body
called ovarian, or grafian follicles, at weight, puffy appearance, low metabolic
various stages of development. Each rate, and tendency to retain water in
follicle contains a large ovum surrounded tissues.
by many layers of follicle cells. 58. (c) Adrenal gland has two parts-cortex and
53. (d) Parathyroid disorders : It causes the medulla. The medulla is stimulated by
lowering of blood calcium level. This sympathetic nervous tissue to produce
increases the excitability of nerves adrenaline and non-adrenaline while
and muscles causing cramps and the cortex is stimulated by pituitary
convulsions. hormone to release cortisol, aldosterone
54. (a) It is commonly called as ‘emergency and estrogens. Thus injury to adrenal
hormone’ or 3F – hormone (For fear, cortex is not likely to affect the secretion
fight & flight). Its secretion is regulated of adrenaline.
by SNS, and not by pituitary as in 59. (a) Tetany is caused by reduction in
case of adrenal cortex. It stimulates the calcium level due to underactive
sweating, heart beat and breathing rate. parathyroid hormone.
It causes the dilation of coronary artery 60. (a) Glucagon is secreted by a-cells of the
(supplying blood to the heart muscles), islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It
bronchioles (for increasing inspiratory increases the concentration of glucose in
volume) and pupil (for better vision). the blood by stimulating the breakdown
55. (a) A peptide hormone secreted by the of glycogen.
parathyroid gland in response to low 61. (c) Goitre is caused by deficiency of iodine
levels of calcium in the blood. It acts to in diet. Iodine is needed for the synthesis
maintain normal blood levels of calcium of thyroxine. Toxic agents present in
by increasing the number of osteoclasts, food interfere with thyroxine synthesis
which break down the bone matrix and and lead to goitre.
release calcium into the blood. It also 62. (b) Posterior pituitary releases vasopressin
increases the reabsorption of calcium which stimulates reabsorption of water
and magnesium ions in the kideny in the distal tubules in nephron.
tubules, so that their concentration is 63. (a) Anterior pituitary secrets growth
maintained in the blood. hormone. Ovary secrets oestrogen
56. (a) Parathyroid and adrenal are the hormone. Alpha cells of islets of
endocrine langerhans secrets glucagon.
glands. Adrenal glands are the pairs of 64. (d) Melatonin is a hormone that regulates
endocrine glands situated immediately the 24 hour rhythm of our body such as
above the kidneys. Hence they are also the sleep-wake cycle etc. Melatonin is
known as suprarenal glands. produced by pineal gland in the brain,
Parathyroid glands are the two pairs which is responsible for operation and
of endocrine glands -situated behind
regulation of the biological clock in
or embedded within, the thyroid gland
mammals.
65. (d) Cortisol and testosterone are steroid while juxtaglomerular cells of kidney
hormones which are lipid soluble and secretes er ythropoietin, a peptide
easily pass through the cell membrane hormone. Releasing and inhibitory
of a target cell and bind to specific hormones are produced by hypothalamus.
intracellular receptor. Neurohypophysis or posterior pituitary
66. (c) Glucagon is secreted by α cells of islets of is under direct neural regulation of the
langerhans and stimulate glycogenolysis hypothalamus.
i.e. breakdown of glycogen into glucose 69. (d) Iodine is essential for the normal rate
Thymosin hormone secreted from of hormone synthesis in the thyroid.
thymus gland stimulates the development Deficiency of iodine in our diet results in
of certain kinds of white blood cells hypothyroidism and enlargement of the
involved in producing immunity. It also thyroid gland, commonly called goitre.
hostens attainment of sexual maturity. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes
67. (d) Incomplete (partial or mosaic) dominance defective development and maturation
is the phenomenon where none of the two of the growing baby leading to stunted
contrasting alleles or factors is dominant. growth (cretinism), mental retardation,
The expression of the character in a low intelligence quotient, abnormal skin,
hybrid or F1 individual is intermediate or deaf-mutism, etc.
a fine mixture of the expression of the two 70. (b) • Growth hormone secreted by Anterior
factors (as found in homozygous state). pituitary
Incomplete or mosaic inheritance is not • Corpus leutum secreted Progester-
an example of pre-mendelian concept of one
blending inheritance because the parental • Oxytocin is secreted by Posterior
types reappear in the F2 generation. It is
pituitary
however, considered by some workers to
71. (c) Insulin is a peptide hormone, which
be an example of quantitative inheritance
plays a major role in the regulation of
where only a single gene pair is involved.
glucose homeostasis. Insulin acts mainly
F2 phenotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1, similar to
on hepatocytes and adipocytes (cells of
genotypic ratio.
adipose tissue), and enhances cellular
(i) Crl incomplete dominance is reported
glucose uptake and utilization. Insulin
in flowers of Four O’Clock or Mirabilis
also stimulates conversion of glucose
jalapa and Antirrhinum majus (Snapdragon
to glycogen (glycogenesis) in the target
or Dog flower).
cells.
68. (b) Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals
72. (b) Norepinephrine is released by sympathetic
which act as intercellular messengers and
fibres i.e, rapidly secreted in response to
are produced in trace amounts.
Gastrointestinal tracts secretes four stress of any kind and during emergency
major peptide hormones – gastrin, situations. It increases the heart beat, the
secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK) strength of heart contraction and the rate
and gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) of respiration.
HAPTER
C
23 Reproduction in
Organisms
1. Cells become variable in morphology and 7. In telolecithal egg the yolk is found [1993]
function in different regions of the embryo. (a) all over the egg (b) on one side
The process is [1989] (c) both the sides (d) centre
(a) differentiation (b) metamorphosis 8. Amount of yolk and its distribution are
(c) organisation (d) rearrangement changed in the egg. Which one is affected?
2. During cleavage, what is true about cells? [1993]
[1991] (a) Pattern of cleavage
(a) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains (b) Formation of zygote
unchanged (c) Number of blastomeres
(b) Size does not increase (d) Fertilization
(c) There is less consumption of oxygen 9. What is true about cleavage in fertilized egg
(d) The division is like meiosis of humans? [1994]
3. Meroblastic cleavage is division [1992] (a) Meroblastic
(a) horizontal (b) Starts when egg reaches uterus
(b) partial/parietal (c) Starts in fallopian tube
(c) total (d) It is identical to normal mitosis
(d) spiral 10. In an egg, the type of cleavage is determined
4. Eye lens is formed from [1992] by [1995]
(a) ectoderm (a) shape and size of the sperm
(b) mesoderm (b) size and location of the nucleus
(c) endoderm (c) amount and distribution of yolk
(d) ectoderm and mesoderm (d) number of egg membranes
5. Blastopore is [1992] 11. The correct sequence in the process of
(a) opening of neural tube development of human embryo is [1998]
(b) opening of gastrocoel (a) fer tilization—zygote—cleavage—
(c) future anterior end of embryo morula—blastula—gastrula
(d) found in blastula (b) fer tilization—cleavage—mor ula—
6. Termination of gastrulation is indicated by zygote—blastula—gastrula
(a) obliteration of blastocoel [1993] (c) fer tilization—zygote—blastula—
(b) obliteration of archenteron morula—cleavage—gastrula
(c) closure of blastopore (d) cleavage—zygote—fer tilization—
(d) closure of neural tube morula—blastula—gastrula
12. Which of the following processes is associated (a) Both are applicable to only dicot plants
with a change in the cellular DNA amount? (b) Both bypass the flowering phase
[1999] (c) Both occur round the year
(a) Spore germination (d) Both produces progeny identical to the
(b) Cytokinesis parent
(c) Fertilization 20. Which one of the following is correctly
(d) Blastulation matched [2012]
13. Exponential growth of cells is a characteristic (a) Onion - Bulb
feature of [1999] (b) Ginger - Sucker
(c) Chlamydomonas - Conidia
(a) tissue culture cells
(d) Yeast - Zoospores
(b) multicellular organisms
21. Select the wrong statement : [NEET 2013]
(c) unicellular organisms
(a) Anisogametes differ either in structure,
(d) embryo
function or behaviour.
14. Blastopore is the opening of [2000]
(b) In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller
(a) coelenteron (b) coelom
and motile, while male gamete is larger
(c) blastocoel (d) archenteron
and non-motile.
15. During regeneration, modification of an
(c) Chalmydomonas exhibits both isogamy and
organ to other organ is known as [2001]
anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy.
(a) Morphogenesis
(d) Isogametes are similar in structure,
(b) Epimorphosis
function and behaviour.
(c) Morphallaxis
22. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence
(d) Accretionary growth
of : [NEET 2013]
16. What is true for cleavage? [2002]
(a) stamen and carpel of the same plant
(a) Size of embryo increases
(b) upper antheridium and lower oogonium
(b) Size of cells decrease
on the same plant
(c) Size of cells increase
(c) upper oogonium and lower antheridium
(d) Size of embryo decreases
on the same plant
17. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by:
(d) antheridiophore and archegoniophore on
[2009]
the same plant
(a) offset (b) rhizome
23. Meiosis takes place in : [NEET 2013]
(c) sucker (d) runner (a) Conidia (b) Gemmule
18. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are [2011] (c) Megaspore (d) Meiocyte
(a) root buds (b) flower buds 24. Syngamy can occur outside the body of the
(c) shoot buds (d) axillary buds organism in [NEET Kar. 2013]
19. What is common between vegetative (a) Fungi (b) Mosses
reproduction and apomixis? [2011M] (c) Algae (d) Ferns
Reproduction in Organisms 225
Solutions
1. (a) Cells become variable in shape, size 10. (c) The amount of yolk and its distribution
& getting their specialization for the determines the type and depth of
formation of particular tissue or organ cleavage. Cleavage is effected due to
in future foetus. They place themselves yolk resulting in different types of
at some specific regions in embryo for segmentation or cleavage.
further organogeny. 11. (a) Fusion of male and female gamete
2. (b) During cleavage size of cells do not produces a zygote. Repeated division
increase (in fact the resultant blastomeres of the zygote is called cleavage forming
are smallest in size, because size of a solid morula. After further division
embryo doesn’t increase and mitosis
and rearrangement a fluid filled cavity
occurs repeatedly).
surrounded by blastomeres - blastula is
3. (b) Different types of segmentation
formed. The appearance of germ layers
or cleavages are found in animals
mark the gastrula.
depending upon the amount of yolk & its
12. (c) Cytokinesis involves division of the
distribution:
Holoblastic : Complete division. cytoplasm of the parent cell into its
Meroblastic : Division occurs only in daughter cells. Fertilization involves
cytoplasm but not in yolk. eg. fishes. the fusion of two haploid gametes.
4. (a) Ectoderm forms : Eye (conjunctiva, Blastulation refers to the process
cornea, lens, retina, iris, ciliary muscles) of cleavage in the zygote to form a
Mesoderm forms : Sclera & choroid of blastula.
eye. 13. (d) Embryo growth graph is ‘J’ shaped.
5. (b) It is the small slit like opening on the 14. (d) Coelom is a fluid filled space between
dorsal side of gastrocoel also known as body wall and alimentary canal which
dorsal lip. is lined by mesoderm on both sides.
6. (a) Gastrulation ends with the complete Coelenteron is the sac like body cavity
obliteration of blastocoel. The stage of in coelenterates. Blastocoel is the fluid
three primary germ layers starts. filled cavity of blastocyst. Archenteron
7. (b) On the basis of distribution of yolk the is the gut cavity in the gastrula enclosed
eggs are of following types : by the endoderm. The open and of it is
(i) Homolecithal : Evenly distributed called blastopore.
yolk. 15. (b) Morphallaxis is a mechanism of
(ii) Telolecithal : hMost of the yolk
regeneration involving reorganization
near the vegetal pole, cytoplasm and
of body cells. In epimorphosis new
nucleus lie near animal pole.
cells proliferate from the surface of the
(iii) Centrolecithal : Centrally placed
wound to form the missing structure. In
yolk surrounded by cytoplasm.
accretionary growth some specialized
8. (a) Pattern of cleavage.
9. (c) After ovulation egg comes in fallopian cells retain the ability to divide and
tube where it is fertilized by the sperm & produce new cells to replace the worn-
cleavage starts here only. out.
16. (b) Cleavage involves repeated cell division 19. (d) Vegetative reproduction and apomixis
without increase in size. But cell size both are asexual methods of
decrease. reproduction, which gives the progeny
17. (c) Vegetative propagation in mint occurs genetically similar to parent.
through sucker. Vegetative reproduction 20. (a) Onion - Bulb - Undeground stem , Ginger
is a type of asexual reproduction for - Rhizome, Chlamydomonas - Zoospore
plants, and is also called vegetative
Yeast - ascospores
propagation, vegetative multiplication,
21. (b) In oomycetes female gamete is large and
or vegetative cloning. It is a process by
non motile while male gamete is small &
which new plant “individuals” arise
or are obtained without production of motile.
seeds or spores. It is both natural process 22. (c) Male sex organ is called antheridium or
in many plant species globule while female sex organ is called
(as well as non-plant organisms such oogonium. They develop on the same
as bacteria and fungi) and one used or branchlet in the same plant in chara.
encouraged by horticulturists to obtain 23. (d) Meiosis takes place in meiocyte while
quantities of economically valuable Conidia and Gemmule are asexual
plants. A related technique used in structures and megaspore is haploid.
cultivation is tissue culture, which 24. (c) In most aquatic organisms, such as a
involves vegetative reproduction under majority of algae and fishes as well
sterile conditions.
as amphibians, syngamy occurs in the
18. (d) The axillary buds of the potato tuber
external medium (water), i.e., outside
are called “eyes” in common language.
the body of the organism. This type
They are found at the nodes of the stem
of gametic fusion is called external
tuber.
fertilisation.
HAPTER
C
24 Sexual Reproduction in
Flowering Plants
1. Formation of gametophyte directly from (c) Apomictic haploid
sporophyte without meiosis is [1988] (d) Apomictic diploid
(a) Apospory (b) Apogamy 8. Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a
(c) Parthenogenesis (d) Amphimixis normal pollen tube was still formed because
2. Parthenogenesis is [1988] (a) vegetative cell is not damaged [1989]
(a) development of embr yo without (b) contents of killed generative cell stimulate
fertilization pollen growth
(b) d e v e l o p m e n t o f f r u i t w i t h o u t (c) laser beam stimulates growth of pollen
fertilization tube
(c) development of fruit without hormones (d) the region of emergence of pollen tube
(d) development of embryo from egg without is not harmed
fertilization 9. Which is correct? [1989]
3. Male gametophyte of angiosperms is shed as (a) Gametes are invariably haploid
[1988] (b) Spores are invariably haploid
(a) four celled pollen grain (c) Gametes are generally haploid
(b) three celled pollen grain (d) Both spores and gametes are invariably
(c) microspore mother cell haploid
(d) anther 10. A diploid female plant and a tetraploid male
4. Total number of meiotic division required for
plant are crossed. The ploidy of endosperm
forming 100 zygotes/100 grains of wheat is
shall be [1989, 2004]
[1988]
(a) tetraploid (b) triploid
(a) 100 (b) 75
(c) diploid (d) pentaploid
(c) 125 (d) 50
11. Which ones produces androgenic haploids in
5. Double fertilization and triple fusion were
anther cultures? [1990]
discovered by [1988, 93]
(a) Anther wall
(a) Hofmeister
(b) Nawaschin and Guignard (b) Tapetal layer of anther wall
(c) Leeuwenhoek (c) Connective tissue
(d) Strasburger (d) Young pollen grains
6. Development of an organism from female 12. Male gametophyte of angiosperms/monocots
gamete/egg without involving fertilization is [1990]
is [1989] (a) Microsporangium (b) Nucellus
(a) Adventitive embryony (c) Microspore (d) Stamen
(b) Polyembryony 13. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is
(c) Parthenocarpy represented by [1990]
(d) Parthenogenesis (a) Ovule
7. Nucellar embryo is [1989] (b) Megaspore mother cell
(a) Amphimictic haploid (c) Embryo sac
(b) Amphimictic diploid (d) Nucellus
14. Sperm and egg nuclei fuse due to [1990] 23. Meiosis is best observed in dividing [1992]
(a) base pairing of their DNA and RNA (a) cells of apical meristem
(b) formation of hydrogen bonds (b) cells of lateral meristem
(c) mutual attraction (c) microspores and anther wall
(d) attraction of their protoplasts (d) microsporocytes
15. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is 24. A population of genetically identical
[1990] i n d iv i d u a l s, o b t a i n e d f r o m a s ex u a l
(a) Chalazogamy (b) Mesogamy reproduction is [1993]
(c) Porogamy (d) Pseudogamy (a) Callus (b) Clone
16. Cellular totipotency was demonstrated by
(c) Deme (d) Aggregate
[1991]
25. Which of the following plant cells will show
(a) Theodore Schwann
totipotency? [1993]
(b) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
(a) Sieve tubes (b) Xylem vessels
(c) F.C. Steward
(d) Robert Hooke (c) Meristem (d) Cork cells
17. Pollination occurs in [1991] 26. Study of formation, growth and development
(a) Bryophytes and angiosperms of new individual from an egg is [1993]
(b) Pteridophytes and angiosperms (a) Apomixis (b) Embryology
(c) Angiosperms and gymnosperms (c) Embryogeny (d) Cytology
(d) Angiosperms and fungi 27. Ovule is straight with funiculus, embryo sac,
18. Embryo sac occurs in [1991] chalaza and micropyle lying on one straight
(a) Embryo line. It is [1993]
(b) Axis part of embryo (a) Orthotropous (b) Anatropous
(c) Ovule (c) Campylotropous (d) Amphitropous
(d) Endosperm 28. Double fertilization is characteristic of
19. Which of the following pair has haploid [1993]
structures? [1991] (a) Angiosperms (b) Pteridophytes
(a) Nucellus and antipodal cells (c) Gymnosperms (d) Bryophytes
(b) Antipodal cells and egg cell 29. Number of meiotic divisions required to
(c) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother produce 200/400 seeds of Pea would be
cell
[1993]
(d) Nucellus and primar y endosperm
(a) 200/400 (b) 400/800
nucleus
(c) 300/600 (d) 250/500
20. Point out the odd one? [1991]
30. Haploid plant cultures are got from [1994]
(a) Nucellus (b) Embryo sac
(c) Micropyle (d) Pollen grain (a) leaves (b) root tip
21. Syngamy means [1991] (c) pollen grain (d) buds
(a) fusion of gametes 31. Chief pollinators of agricultural crops are
(b) fusion of cytoplasms [1994]
(c) fusion of two similar spores (a) butterflies (b) bees
(d) fusion of two dissimilar spores (c) moths (d) beetles
22. Double fertilization is fusion of [1991] 32. Transfer of pollen to the stigma of another
(a) two eggs flower of the same plant is [1994]
(b) two eggs and polar nuclei with pollen (a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy
nuclei (c) Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy
(c) one male gamete with egg and other with 33. Fertilization involving carrying of male
synergid gametes by pollen tube is [1994]
(d) one male gamete with egg and other with (a) Porogamy (b) Siphonogamy
secondary nucleus (c) Chalazogamy (d) Syngonogamy
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 229
34. One of the most resistant biological material (b) fusion of two polar nuclei and the second
is [1994] male gamete
(a) lignin (b) hemicellulose (c) fusion of four or more polar nuclei and
(c) lignocellulose (d) sporopollenin the second male gamete only
35. In an angiosperm, how many microspore (d) all the above kinds of fusion in different
mother cells are required to produce 100 angiosperms
pollen grains [1995] 44. Eight nucleate embryo sacs are [2000]
(a) always tetrasporic
(a) 25 (b) 50
(b) always monosporic
(c) 75 (d) 100
(c) always bisporic
36 The polyembryony commonly occurs in
(d) sometime monosporic, sometimes
[1995] bisporic and sometimes tetrasporic
(a) citrus (b) turmeric 45. Anemophily type of pollination is found in
(c) tomato (d) potato [2001]
37. Reproducing new plants by cells instead of (a) Salvia (b) Bottle brush
seeds is known as [1995] (c) Vallisneria (d) Coconut
(a) mutation (b) tissue culture 46. Adventive polyembryony in citrus is due to
(c) antibiotics (d) biofertilizer [2001, 05]
38. How many pollen grains will be formed after (a) nucellus (b) integuments
meiotic division in ten microspore mother (c) zygotic embryo (d) fertilised egg
cells? [1996] 47. In angiosperms pollen tubes liberate their
(a) 10 (b) 20 male gametes into the [2002]
(c) 40 (d) 80 (a) central cell (b) antipodal cell
(c) egg cell (d) synergids
39. In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for
48. What is the direction of micropyle in
the formation of [1996]
anatropous ovule ? [2002]
(a) embryo (b) endosperm
(a) upward (b) downward
(c) seed coat (d) fruit wall (c) right (d) left
40. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and 49. Which type of association is found in between
female plant tetraploid, the ploidy level of entomophilous flower and pollinating agent
endosperm will be [1997] [2002]
(a) haploid (b) triploid (a) mutualism (b) commensalism
(c) tetraploid (d) pentaploid (c) cooperation (d) co-evolution
41. The endosperm of gymnosperm is [1999] 50. In angiosperms all the four microspores of
(a) triploid (b) haploid tetrad are covered by a layer which is formed
(c) diploid (d) polyploid by [2002]
42. Flowers showing ornithophily show few (a) pectocellulose (b) callose
characteristic like [1999] (c) cellulose (d) sporopollenin
(a) blue flower with nectaries at base of 51. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise
to [2003]
corolla
(a) only tapetum and sporogenous cells
(b) red sweet scented flower with nectaries
(b) only the wall of the sporangium
(c) b r i g h t r e d f l o w e r i n t o t h i c k
(c) both wall and the sporogenous cells
inflorescence (d) wall and the tapetum
(d) white flowers with fragrance 52. An ovule which becomes curved so that the
43. Double fertilisation leading to initiation of nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to
endosperm in Angiosperms require [2000] the funicle is [2004]
(a) fusion of one polar nucleus and the (a) Hemitropous (b) Campylotropous
second male gamete only (c) Anatropous (d) Orthotropous
53. In oogamy, fertilization involves [2004] (a) 24 (b) 32
(a) a small non-motile female gamete and a (c) 8 (d) 16
large motile male gamete 61. Which one of the following is surrounded by
(b) a large non-motile female gamete and a a callose wall? [2007]
small motile male gamete (a) male gamete
(c) a large non-motile female gamete and a (b) egg
small non motile male gamete (c) pollen grain
(d) a large motile female gamete and a small (d) microspore mother cell
nonmotile male gamete 62. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by
54. Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the division of [2007]
the pollen tube enter the embryo sac? [2005] (a) generative cell
(a) Egg cell (b) vegetative cell
(b) Persistent synergid (c) microspore mother cell
(c) Degenerated synergid (d) microspore.
(d) Central cell 63. Which one of the following pairs of
55. Which one of the following represents an plant structures has haploid number of
ovule, where the embryo sac becomes horse- chromosomes? [2007]
shoe shaped and the funiculus and micropyle (a) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal
are close to each other? [2005] cells
(a) Amphitropous (b) Circinotropous (b) Egg cell and antipodal cells
(c) Atropous (d) Antropous (c) Nucelus and antipodal cells
56. Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes, and (d) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
the mature seed which bears only one embryo 64. Endosperm is consumed by developing
with two cotyledons, are characteristic embryo in the seed of [2008]
features of [2005] (a) coconut (b) castor
(a) Cycads (c) pea (d) maize
(b) Conifers 65. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed
(c) Polypetalous angiosperms from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary
(d) Gamopetalous angiosperms is [2008]
57. In which one pair both the plants can be (a) Caryopsis (b) Cypsela
vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces? (c) Berry (d) Cremocarp
(a) Agave and Kalanchoe [2005] 66. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig
(b) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe encloses a number of: [2008]
(c) Asparagns and Bryophyllum (a) Achenes (b) Samaras
(d) Chrysanthemum and Agave (c) Berries (d) Mericarps
58. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for 67. Unisexuality of flowers prevents [2008]
annual crop plants? [2005] (a) autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(a) It reduces the vigour of the plant. (b) both geitonogamy and xenogamy
(b) It adversely affects the fertility of the (c) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
plant. (d) autogamy and geitonogamy
(c) The seeds exhibit long dormancy. 68. What does the filiform apparatus do at the
(d) The seeds cannot be stored under normal entrance into ovule? [2008]
conditions for the next season. (a) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a
59. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal synergid
embryo sac in the dicot plants is [2006] (b) It prevents entry of more than one pollen
(a) 3 + 2 + 3 (b) 2 + 3 + 3 tube into the embryo sac
(c) 3 + 3 + 2 (d) 2 + 4 + 2 (c) It brings about opening of the pollen
60. What would be the number of chromosomes in tube
the cells of the aleuron layer in a plant species (d) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to
with 8 chromosomes in its synergids? [2006] egg
69. The fruit is chambered, developed from 77. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature
inferior ovary and has seeds with succulent of [2011]
testa in [2008] (a) suspensor (b) egg
(a) pomegranate (b) orange (c) synergid (d) zygote
78. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species
(c) guava (d) cucumber
of [2011]
70. A fruit developed from hypanthodium
(a) Citrus (b) Gossypium
inflorescence is called [2009] (c) Triticum (d) Brassica
(a) Sorosis (b) Syconus 79. In which one of the following pollination is
(c) Caryopsis (d) Hasperidium autogamous? [2011]
71. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible (a) Geitonogamy (b) Xenogamy
parts in [2009] (c) Chasmogamy (d) Cleistogamy
(a) walnut and tamarind 80. Wind pollination is common in [2011]
(b) french bean and coconut (a) legumes (b) lilies
(c) grasses (d) orchids
(c) cashew nut and litchi
81. A drupe develops in [2011]
(d) groundnut and pomegranate
(a) mango (b) wheat
72. An example of a seed with endosperm, (c) pea (d) tomato
perisperm, and caruncle is [2009] 82. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are
(a) coffee (b) lily prevented in - [2012]
(c) castor (d) cotton (a) Papaya (b) Cucumber
73. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from (c) Castor (d) Maize
[2010] 83. An organic substance that can withstand
(a) Synergids environmental extremes and cannot be
(b) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule degraded by any enzyme is : [2012]
(c) Antipodal cells (a) Cuticle (b) Sporopollenin
(c) Lignin (d) Cellulose
(d) Diploid egg
84. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed
74. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to
setting is assured in [2012]
the stigma of another flower of the same (a) Commellina (b) Zostera
plant is called [2010] (c) Salvia (d) Fig
(a) Xenogamy (b) Geitonogamy 85. What is the function of germ pore? [2012M]
(c) Karyogamy (d) Autogamy (a) Emergence of radicle
75. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat (b) Absorption of water for seed germination
or maize is comparable to which part of the (c) Initiation of pollen tube
seed in other monocotyledons? [2010] (d) Release of male gametes
(a) Cotyledon (b) Endosperm 86. Which one of the following statements is
wrong? [2012M]
(c) Aleurone layer (d) Plumule
(a) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage,
76. Wind pollinated flowers are [2010]
double fertilization does not take place.
(a) small, brightly coloured, producing large (b) Vegetative cell is larger than generative
number of pollen grains cell.
(b) small, producing large number of dry (c) Pollen grains in some plants remain
pollen grains viable for months.
(c) large producing abundant nectar and (d) Intine is made up of cellulose and -
pollen pectin.
(d) small, producing nectar and dry pollen
87. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few 95. Which one of the following statements is
ovules, are generally pollinated by [2012M] correct? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) bees (b) butterflies (a) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and
(c) birds (d) wind stigma of flowers of different plants
88. Perisperm differs from endosperm in; (b) Cleistogamous flowers are always
[NEET 2013] autogamous
(a) having no reserve food
(c) Xenogamy occurs only by wind
(b) being a diploid tissue
(c) its formatting by fusion of secondary pollination
nucleus with several sperms (d) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at
(d) being a haploid tissue all
89. Megasporangium is equivalent to : 96. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore
[NEET 2013] mother cells after [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Fruit (b) Nucellus (a) Meiotic division
(c) Ovule (d) Embryo sac (b) Mitotic division
90. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in : (c) Formation of a thick wall
[NEET 2013] (d) Differentiation
(a) Coconut (b) Groundnut 97. Animal vectors are required for pollination in
(c) Gram (d) Maize [NEET Kar. 2013]
91. Advantage of cleistogamy is : [NEET 2013] (a) Maize (b) Vallisneria
(a) More vigorous offspring (c) Mulberry (d) Cucumber
(b) No dependence of pollinators 98. Which of the following statements is
(c) Vivipary correct? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(d) Higher genetic variability (a) Sporopollenin can withstand high
92. Product of sexual reproduction generally temperatures but not strong acids
generates : [NEET 2013] (b) Sporopollenin can be degraded by
(a) Prologned dormancy enzymes
(b) New genetic combination leading to (c) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic
materials
variation
(d) Sporopollenin can withstand high
(c) Large biomass
temperatures as well as strong acids and
(d) Longer viability of seeds alkalis
93. Which one of the following statements is 99. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food
correct? [NEET 2013] mainly in [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Sporogenous tissue is haploid (a) Perisperm (b) Endosperm
(b) Endothecium produces the microspores (c) Cotyledons (d) Hypocotyl
(c) Tapetum nourishes the developing 100. Which of the following statements is not true
pollen about somatic embryogenesis?
(d) Hard outer layer of pollen is called [NEET Kar. 2013]
intine (a) A somatic embryo develops from a
94. The viability of seeds is tested by somatic cell
[NEET Kar. 2013] (b) The pattern of development of a somatic
(a) Safranine embryo is comparable to that of a zygotic
(b) 2, 6 dichlorophenol indophenols embryo
(c) 2, 3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride (c) Somatic embryos can develop from
(d) DMSO microspores
(d) Somatic embryo is induced usually by an
auxin such as 2, 4-D
Solutions
1. (a) A somatic cell in the nucellus directly fertilization eg. nucellus or integuments or
forms an unreduced embryo sac and the unfertilized egg. Nucellus is a diploid tissue
diploid egg parthenogenetically develops so nucellar embryo is apomictic diploid.
into embryo i.e. formation of gametophyte 8. (a) Each microspore divide by mitotic
from sporophyte without meiosis. It is division making a smaller generative cell
known as Apospory and it is a type of and a larger vegetative cell or tube cell. If
Apomixis. generative cell is damaged then the normal
2. (d) It is involved in apomixis (asexual pollen tube will be formed because pollen
reproduction). tube is formed by vegetative cell, not by
3. (b) In majority of angiosperms the pollen generative cell of microspore.
grains are shed from the anther at 9. (a) Spores are formed in lower plants by
bi-celled stage (one generative cell and one mitotic division and they may be diploid
vegetative cell) but in some angiosperms but gametes are always be made by meiosis
the generative cell divides forming 2 & they are always haploid.
sperms prior to the dehiscence of anther & 10. (a) Diploid female plant will have 2 polar
pollen grains are shed at 3 celled stage. nuclei (each haploid) with which one male
4. (c) 100 zygotes requires 100 pollen grains and gamete form tetraploid male plant (male
100 embryo sacs. 100 pollen grains are gamete of tetraploid plant will be diploid)
formed from 25 microspore mother cells fuses, making endosperm. So endosperm
while 100 embryo sacs are formed from will be tetraploid.
100 functional megaspores which in turn
are produced by 100 megaspore mother
cells since three out of four megaspores
degenerate in each case. 11. (d) Androgenic haploids are produced by
5. (b) In angiosperms one male gamete fuses with young pollen grains because rest all are the
the egg to form diploid zygote. The process diploid tissue.
is called syngamy. The other male gamete 12. (c) Microspore is haploid, uninucleate, minute
fuses with the two polar nuclei to form spore produced in large number as a result
triploid primary endosperm nucleus. The of meiosis in microspore mother cell
process is called triple fusion. These two inside the microsporangia. These are the
acts together known as double fertilization. first cell of gametophytic generation in
The process was I st demonstrated by angiosperms.
Nawaschin & Guignard in Fritillaria &
13. (c) Embryo sac is 7-celled structure. There is
Lilium.
a large central cell with two polar nuclei,
6. (d) Development of an organism from
egg apparatus with egg cell and 2 synergids
unfertilized egg is known as parthenogenesis
present at micropylar end and its chalazal
and when a fruit is developed by this
end, 3 antipodal cells are present.
technique it is called parthenocarpy.
14. (d) Sperm or male gamete fuses with egg or
7. (d) Substitution of usual sexual reproduction
female gamete because of the attraction
by a form of reproduction which does not
of their protoplast. Some chemicals are
include meiosis and syngamy is called
secreted by ovule or egg wall to attract the
apomixis. In this phenomenon embryo is
male gamete or sperm.
developed by some other tissue without
15. (c) In porogamy the tip of pollen tube enters 26. (b) Embryology is the study of an individual's
the micropyle, pushes through the nucellar life cycle after the fertilization takes place
tissue & finally pierces the egg-apparatus and till it develops into a new organism.
end of the embryo sac. If pollen tube 27. (a) It is a Polygonum type ovule in which the
enters through chalazal side it is called body of ovule is straight i.e. funiculus,
chalazogamy & if it enters laterally it is chalaza, embryo sac & micropyle lie in the
called mesogamy. same vertical axis.
16. (c) F.C. Steward & co-workers in 1964 raised 28. (a) Double fertilization in a characteristic
the entire carrot plant from carrot-root feature of angiosperms in which one male
culture. They established the cellular gamete fuses with egg (called syngamy) and
totipotency i.e. capacity of a cell to other male gamete fuses with 2 polar nuclei
develop a new plant. However the idea of (called triple fusion) to form endosperm.
totipotency was given earlier by German 29. (d) 200 seeds of pea would be produced from
botanist Gottlieb Haberlandt. He tried 200 pollen grains and 200 embryo sac.
to grow isolated leaf cell but could not 200 pollen grains will be formed by 50
succeed. microspore mother cell while 200 embryo
17. (c) Po l l e n g r a i n s a r e f o u n d o n ly i n sac will be formed by 200 megaspore
Gymnosperms and Angiosperms. mother cell (because 3 will degenerate) so
18. (c) Embryo sac is a female gametophyte which 250/500.
contains the egg apparatus. 30. (c) All other are diploid. Best method of
19. (b) (a) Nucellus - 2n, antipodal cells - n haploid plant culture is pollen grain
(b) Antipodal cells - n, egg cell - n culture.
(c) Antipodal cells - n, megaspore 31. (b) Pollination by insect is known as
mother cell - 2n Entomophily. Among insects bees are the
(d) Nucellus - 2n primary endosperm most common pollinators which pollinate
nucleus - 3n about 80% of the total insect pollinated
Antipodal and egg cell are the product of flowers.
meiotic division and rest are not. 32. (d) Autogamy = Self Pollination
20. (d) They are all found in ovule (Nucellus, Geitanogamy - (geiton = neighbour, gamos
Embryo sac & Micropyle) while pollen = marriage.)
grain is male gametophyte. i.e. when pollen grains are transferred to the
21. (a) Fusion of male gamete with the egg is stigma of other flower of the same plant
called syngamy. (i.e. neighboring flower).
22. (d) Refer ans. 5 A l l o g a my = X e n o g a my – C r o s s
23. (d) Microsporocytes or microspore mother cell pollination.
after meiosis give rise to microspore. No 33. (b) In angiosperms the male gametes are
any other cell (in given options) divide by carried by the pollen tube was discovered
meiosis. by Strasburger in 1884. The process is
24. (b) Cloning is a technique by which genetically called Siphonogamy.
same individuals can be produced without 34. (d) Each pollen has two layered wall. The outer
including any sexual reproduction eg. layer is thick, tough, cuticularised called
Dolly sheep. exine which is composed of a material
The term clone is derived from źėłķ, the called "sporopollenin". It is highly resistant
Greek word for “twig”, refering to the to biological and physical decomposition,
process, whereby a new plant can be due to which pollens are preserved for a
created from a twig. long time in fossils.
25. (c) Xylem vessels and cork cells are dead while 35. (a) Each microspore mother cells undergoes
sieve tube cells do not possess nuclei. meiosis to produce four pollen grains.
Thus, 25 microspore mother cells are megapore situated at chalazal end takes
required to produce 100 pollen grains part in the development of embryosac.
36. (a) Polyembryony refers to the formation of Bisporic type - eight nucleated Allium type.
more than one embryo within a seed of a Tetrasporic type - eight nucleated Adoxa
flowering plant. e.g. Citrus. type.
37. (b) Culture is the term generally used for 45. (d) Vallisneria exhibits hydrophily and Salvia
artificial growth. The plant tissue culture is pollinated by honey bee. In bottle brush
actually refers to the growth of plant cells, pollination is carried out by birds.
tissues and organs on artificial nutrient 46. (a) The embryos arising from the maternal
media. sporophyte tissues are called adventive
38. (c) Each microspore mother cell gives rise to embryos. In polyembryonate species the
4 microspores which develop into pollen adventive embryo arises by the proliferation
grains. of the nucellus cells.
39. (b) In angiosperms, one male gamete fuses 47. (d) Antipodal cells occur at the chalazal end of
with the egg resulting in the formation of the ovule. Synergids are the helping cells.
a diploid zygote. The other male gamete 48. (b) In orthotropous ovule micropyle is upward.
fuses with the two polar nuclei forming the This is the presentive type of ovule.
primary endosperm nucleus . Thus type of 49. (a) Commensalism is interaction between two
fertilization is called double fertilization. individuals in which one is benefitted while
40. (d) The male gamete will be haploid (n). 2 polar the other is unaffected. In mutualism both
nuclei will be diploid (2n). Endosperm individuals are beneficial for each other.
formed by fusion of male gamete with two The pollinating insect gets nectar from
polar nuclei will be pentaploid. flower and in turn helps in pollination of
flowers.

50. (d) The outermost covering of the pollen grain
41. (b) In gymnosperms the female gametophyte is made of sporopollenin.
forming archegonia provides nourishment 51. (c) In flowering plants, archesporium cells
to the developing embryo. It later gets undergo periclinal (transverse) division to
transformed into food-laden endosperm form outer primary parietal layer and inner
inside the seed. Endosperm provides sporogenous cells. Primary parietal wall
nourishment for growth of seed at the time after few more periclinal divisions form
of seed germination. Triploid endosperm anther wall and sporogenous cells give rise
occurs in angiosperms. to sporogenous tissue.
42. (a) Transfer of pollen grains by birds is known 52. (a) In campylotropous ovule, the body is
as ornithophily. They usually have bright curved but the embryosac is straight
coloured flowers, tubular or cup shaped eg. Capsella. In Anatropous, the body
and having a large quantity of nectar. of ovule is inverted and gets fused with
43. (b) The second male gamete entering the ovary funiculus along its whole length on
fuses with two haploid polar nuclei to form one side (most of the angiosperms). In
triploid primary endosperm nucleus which orthotropous condition the body of ovule
develops into endosperm. This fusion lies straight and upright over the funicle.
of two male gametes with two different e.g. Piperaceae, Polygonaceae.
structures (egg and secondary nucleus) 53. (b) In oogamy male and female gametes are
in the same female gametophyte is called morphologically as well as physiologically
double fertilization. different. Female gametes are large and
44. (b) Monosporic type - eight nucleated non-motile. Male gametes are small but
Polygonum type. In this types only one motile.
54. (c) After entering the ovule, the pollen tube 62. (a) Generative cell which is a cell of the male
is attracted towards the micropylar end of gametophyte or pollen grain in seed plants
the embryosac. The attractants are secreted that divides to give rise directly or indirectly
by synergids or help cells. The pollen tube two sperms.
pierces one of the two synergids and bursts 63. (d) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus has
open into it. The synergid is simultaneously haploid number of chromosomes. While
destroyed. all other plant structures have diploid
55. (a) Circinotropous : The funicle is large and number of chromosomes.
coiled around the ovule eg. Opuntia. 64. (c) In pea, endosperm is consumed by
Amphitropous : Both body of ovule and developing embryo in the seed. The
embryo sac are curved. The embryo endosperm is completely absorbed by
sac assumes horse-shoe shape. e.g. the growing embryo and the food reserve
Papaveraceae. gets stored in the cotyledons. Such
56. (a) Cycads is a group of gymnosperms which seeds are called non endospermic or
have top shaped multiciliated male gametes exalbuminous.
and each mature seed of these plants 65. (b) Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed
contain one embryo and two cotyledons from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary
e.g., Cycas. is cypsela. Cypsela is also called inferior, false
57. (b) Leaves of a number of plants develop or or pseudocarpic achene, the thin friut wall
posses adventitious buds for vegetative (developed from peri carp and thalamus)is
propagation e.g., Broyophyllum, Kalanchoe, attached to the seed at one point but the fruits
Adiantum caudatum. develops from an inferior, unilocular and
58. (d) Vivipary is the condition when seeds uniovuled ovary, e.g., sunflower, marigold.
germinate on the plant. It is an undesirable Some cypsela develop pappus for dispersal
character for annual crop plants because e.g. Soncus, Taraxacum.
germinated seeds can not be stored under 66. (a) The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig
normal conditions for the next season. encloses a number of Achenes. Achene
59. (a) In a dicot plant general arrangement of is the thin dry pericarp is free from seed
nuclei in the embryosac is that 3 nuclei in except at one point. The fruit develops
3 cells of egg apparatus (one egg cell & 2 from a monocarpellary pistil having
synergids) at micropylar end and 2 polar superior unilocular and ovuled ovary.
nuclei in almost middle region and 3 nuclei 67. (a) Unisexuality of flowers prevents. autogamy,
in the form of antipodals at the distal end but not geitonogamy. In self fertilisation , the
from micropyle, towards nucellus. So total male and female gametes are derived from
nuclei 3 + 2 + 3. the same individual. Among plants, self
60. (a) Aleurone layer is the layer formed by the fertilization also called autogamy is common
endospermic tissue in the members of in many cultivated species, eg., wheat and
family Graminae eg. wheat, rice, maize oats. However, self fertilization is a form of
etc. Obviously it will be a triploid tissue. inbreeding and does not allow for the mixing
So if synergids have 8 no. of chromosomes of genetic material; if it occurs over a number
which are haploid than aleurone- layer of generations it will result in offspring being
must have 24 chromosomes. less vigorous and productive than those
61. (d) MMC (megaspore mother cell) is resulting from cross fertilization.
surrounded by a callose wall, ovules 68. (a) Filiform apparatus helps in the entry of
generally differentiate single MMC in the pollen tube into a synergid in ovule.
micropylar region of MMC. It is a large Filiform apparatus is in form of finger
cell containing dense cytoplasm and a like projection comprising a core of
prominent nucleus. micro fibrils enclosed in a sheath. The
filiform apparatus resembles transfer producing large number of dry pollen
cells" meant for short distance movement grains. Pollens are small, dry and light in
of metabolites. The filiform apparatus weight. Grasses are anemophilous plants.
responsible for the absorption of food from 77. (c) A synergid cell wall forms a highly thickened
the nucleus. structure called the filiform apparatus at the
69. (a) The fruit of pomegranate is chambered, micropylar end consisting of numerous finger
developed from inferior ovary and has like projections into synergid cytoplasm.
seeds with succulent testa. The fruit These synergid cells are necessary for pollen
is Balausta. It is a special type of false tube guidance in ovule.
or pseudocarpic berry in which the 78. (a) Nucellar polyembryony is reported in a
syncarpous pistil consists of two rows of Citrus species.
fused carpels, one above the other. The 79. (d) Cleistogamy is autogamous pollination.
70. (b) The fig (Syconus) is an aggregate fruit, When pollination and fertilization occur
consisting of numerous seed-like pericarps in unopened flower bud, it is known as
inclosed within a hollow, fleshy receptacle cleistogamy. It ensures self-pollination and
where the flowers were attached. This prevents cross-pollination.
fruit developed from hypanthodium inflo 80. (c) Wind pollination is common in grasses.
rescence. Grasses produce large amount of pollen
71. (d) Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible which by the help of wind reach to
parts in groundnut and pomegranate. opposite sex for reproduction.
A cotyledon is a significant part of the 81. (a) Some fleshy fruits such as mango, plum
embryo within the seed of a plant. Upon etc. usually have a single hard stone that
germination, the cotyledon may become the encloses a seed, called drupe.
embryonic first leaves of a seedling. Testa is 82. (a) Papaya is dioecious i.e. male and female
often thick or hard outer coat of a seed. flowers occurs in separate plants so that it
72. (c) An example of a seed with endosperm, prevents both autogamy & geitonogamy
perisperm, and caruncle is castor. Castor (method of self pollination).
seed is the source of castor oil, which has 83. (b) Sporopollenin is fatty substance present in
a wide variety of uses. The seeds contain pollen wall and provides resistance against
between 40% and 60% oil that is rich in extremes conditions like high temperature,
triglycerides. acid, bases.
73. (b) Apomixis is an asexual type of reproduction 84. (a)
in which the plant embryos grow from egg 85. (c) The germ pores are apertures in the
cells without being fertilized by pollen-the exine layer of the pollen grain where the
male part of the plant. In citrus, apomictic sporopollenin is absent. The germ pore
embryos arise from maternal sporophytic helps in the formation of the germ tube or
tissue like nucellus and integuments in pollen tube and which makes its exit on
ovule. This type of embryony is called germination.
adventive embryony. 86. (a) In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen
74. (b) Geitonogamy is the process of transfer grains are shed at cell 2-celled stage. In
of pollen grains from the anther to the the remaining species the generative cell
stigma of another flower of the same plant. divides mitotically to give rise to the two
Example, maize. male gametes before pollen grains are shed
75. (a) Scutellum is the modified cotyledon (3-celled stage.)
observed in a grain of wheat or maize. It 87. (d) Wind pollinated flowers have generally
lies between embryo and the endosperm. single ovule in each ovary.
76. (b) Pollination by wind is called anemophily. 88. (b) Perisperm is remnants of nucellus which
Wind pollinated flowers are small in size, is diploid (2n) but endosperm is triploid
(3n). Perisperm occurs in the seeds of Black in respiration processes. Viable tissues
pe pper, coffee, castor, cardamum, produce a normal red-colour, weak living
Nymphaea. Endosperm is the food laden tissue produce an abnormal colour. Dead
tissue which is meant for nourishing the tissues do not stain, remaining usually
embryo in seed plants. In angiosperms white.
the endosperm is formed as a result of 95. (b) Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their
vegetative fertilization, triple fusion or reproductive parts. Anthers and stigma
fusion of a male gamete with diploid lie close to each other. Pure autogamy
secondary nucleus of the central cell. occurs since there is no chance of cross-
89. (c) Ovule is also called integumented pollination. Cleistogamy is the most
megasporangium. It develops into seed efficient floral adaptation for promoting
after fertilisation in spermatophytes. It self-pollination. E.g., Viola mirabilis and
occurs singly or in a cluster inside ovary Oxalis autosella.
with parenchymatous cushions called 96. (a) Single Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) with
placenta. dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus
90. (a) The seed coat develops from integuments gets differentiated from nucellus near
originally surrounding the ovule. It is thick the micropylar region. This Megaspore
and hard in coconut which protect the Mother Cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis
embryo from mechanical injury and from to form ‘4’ haploid cells called megaspores
drying out. and the process of formation is known as
91. (b) Cleistogamy favours no dependence on megasporogenesis.
pollinator because flowers never open. 97. (d) There are different types of vectors involved
In such flowers, the anthers and stigma in pollination.
lie close to each other. When anthers For example, maize, mulberry → pollination
dehisce in flower buds pollen grains by wind. Vallisneria → pollination through
come in contact with the stigma to effect water (hydrophily). Cucumber → Bees are
pollination. brought for the commercial plantings of
92. (b) Sexual reproduction leads to formation cucumber.
of new combination and appearance 98. (d) Pollen grains are generally spherical and
of variations. Genetic recombination, a prominent two-layered wall. The hard
interaction etc. during sexual reproduction outer layer called the exine is made up of
provides vigour and vitality to the offsprings. sporopollenin which is one of the most
They better adapt themselves to changing resistant organic material known. It can
environmental conditions and also plays withstand high temperatures and strong
an important role in evolution. acids and alkali.
93. (c) Sporogenous tissue is always diploid, 99. (b) Endosperm is the nutritive tissue which
endothecium is second layer of anther wall provides nourishment to the embryo in
and perform the function of protection and seed plant. Albuminous seeds retain a
help in dehiscence of anther to release the part of endosperm as it is not completely
pollen. Hard outer layer of pollen is called used up during embryo development (e.g.,
exine but tapetum always nourishes the wheat, maize, barley, castor, sunflower).
developing pollen. 100. (c) Somatic embryogenesis is a process where
Cells of the tapetum possess dense a plant or embryo is derived from a single
cytoplasm and generally have more than somatic cell or group of somatic cells.
one nucleus (polypoid). Somatic embryos are formed from plant
94. (c) Dehydrogenase enzymes present in living cells that are not normally involved in the
tissue reduce the tetrazolium chloride development of embryos, i.e., ordinary
to formazan, a reddish, water insoluble plant tissue. No endosperm or seed coat is
compound. This reaction occurs in or near formed around a somatic embryo.
living cells which are releasing hydrogen
HAPTER
C
25 Human Reproduction
1. Human eggs are [1989] 8. Middle piece of mammalian sper m

(a) Alecithal (b) Microlecithal possesses
(c) Mesolecithal (d) Macrolecithal (a) mitochondria and centriole [1991]
2. Egg is liberated from ovary in [1989] (b) mitochondria only
(a) secondary oocyte stage (c) centriole only
(b) primary oocyte stage (d) nucleus and mitochondria
(c) oogonial stage 9. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
nucleus occurs [1993]
(d) mature ovum stage
(a) after entry of sperm before completion
3. Gonads develop from embryonic [1990]
of fertilization
(a) ectoderm
(b) after completion of fertilization
(b) endoderm
(c) before entry of sperm
(c) mesoderm (d) without any relation of sperm entry
(d) both mesoderm and endoderm 10. Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by
4. How many sperms are formed from a (a) capacitation [1993]
secondary spermatocyte? [1990]
(b) release of lysin
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) influx of Na+
(c) 2 (d) 1 (d) release of fertilizin
5. Fertilizins are emitted by [1991, 97] 11. Extra-embr yonic membranes of the
(a) immature eggs (b) mature eggs mammalian embryo are derived from [1994]
(c) sperms (d) polar bodies (a) inner cell mass (b) trophoblast
6. Freshly released human egg has [1991] (c) formative cells (d) follicle cells
(a) one Y-chromosome 12. At the end of first meiotic division, male
(b) one X-chromosome sperm differentiates into [1994]
(c) two X-chromosomes (a) secondary spermatocyte
(d) o n e X - c h r o m o s o m e & o n e (b) primary spermatocyte
Y-chromosome (c) spermatogonium
7. Location and secretion of Leydig’s cells are (d) spermatid
(a) Liver – cholesterol [1991] 13. In 28 day human ovarian cycle, ovulation
(b) Ovary – estrogen occurs on [1994, 97]
(c) Testes – testosterone (a) Day 1 (b) Day 5
(d) Pancreas – glucagon (c) Day 14 (d) Day 28
14. The estrous cycle is a characteristic of [1995] 21. During embr yonic development, the
(a) human males only establishment of polarity along anterior/
posterior, dorsal/ventral or medial/lateral
(b) human females only
axis is called [2003]
(c) mammalian males other than primates (a) pattern formation
(d) m a m m a l i a n f e m a l e s o t h e r t h a n (b) organizer phenomena
primates (c) axis formation
15. Test tube baby is one who [1996, 2003] (d) anamorphosis
(a) is born out of artificial insemination 22. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized,
(b) has undergone development in a test which one of the following is unlikely?
tube [2005]
(c) is born out of the technique of fertilization (a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
in vitro (b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
(d) h a s b e e n d e v e l o p e d w i t h o u t (c) Estrogen secretion further decreases
fertilization (d) Primary follicle starts developing
16. Amniocentesis is a technique [1997] 23. Grey crescent is the area [2005]
(a) by which the essential amino acids in the (a) at the point of entry of sperm into
body can be estimated ovum
(b) by which any chromosomal anomalies (b) just opposite to the site of entry of sperm
in the foetus can be detected into ovum
(c) at the animal pole
(c) in which the sex of the foetus can be
reversed (d) at the vegetal pole
24. Withdrawal of which of the following
(d) that can be used for correcting genetic
hormones is the immediate cause of
disorders of the foetus
menstruation? [2006]
17. After ovulation the collapsed ovarian follicle (a) FSH (b) FSH-RH
shrinks and becomes filled with cell to form
(c) Progesterone (d) Estrogen
[1999]
25. In the human female, menstruation can be
(a) corpus luteum (b) corpus albicans deferred by the administration of [2007]
(c) corpus atresia (d) corpus adiposum (a) combination of FSH and LH
18. The growth of corpus luteum is initiated by (b) c o m b i n a t i o n o f e s t r o g e n a n d
(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin [1999] progesterone
(b) Follicle stimulating hormone (c) FSH only
(c) Luteinizing hormone (d) LH only
(d) Prolactin 26. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
19. Exponential growth of cells is a characteristic division, the male germ cells differentiate into
feature of [1999] the
(a) tissue culture cells (a) primary spermatocytes [2008]
(b) multicellular organisms (b) secondary spermatocytes
(c) unicellular organisms (c) spermatids
(d) embryo (d) spermatozonia
20. Cleavage in mammalian egg is [2000] 27. Which extra-embryonic membrane in humans
(a) superficial meroblastic prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the
(b) discoidal meroblastic uterus? [2008]
(c) unequal holoblastic (a) Chorion (b) Allantois
(d) equal holoblastic (c) Yolk sac (d) Amnion
Human Reproduction 241
28. Which one of the following statements is (b) vas deferens (A); seminal vesicle (B)
incorrect about menstruation? [2008] bulbourethral gland (C); prostate (D).
(a) During normal menstruation about (c) ureter (A); seminal vesicle (B); prostate
40 ml blood is lost (C); bulbourethral gland (D)
(b) The menstrual fluid can easily clot (d) ureter (A); prostate(B); seminal vesicle
(C); bulbourethral gland (D).
(c) At menopause in the female, there is
32. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is
especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic
hormones induced by [2009]
(a) release oxytocin from pituitary
(d) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation
(b) fully developed foetus and placenta
is called menarche
(c) differentiation of mammary glands
29. Which one of the following is the correct (d) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
matching of the events occurring during 33. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic
menstrual cycle? [2009] stages leading to the formation of sperms in
(a) Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration a mature human testes is: [2009]
of myometrium and maturation of (a) spermatogonia - spermatocyte - spermatid
Graffian follicle. -sperms
(b) Development of cor pus luteum : (b) spermatid - spermatocyte - spermatogonia
Secretory phase and increased secretion - sperms
of progesterone. (c) . spermatogonia - spermatid - spermatocyte
(c) M e n s t r u a t i o n : B r e a k d o w n o f - sperms
myometrium and ovum not fertilised. (d) spermatocyte - spermatogonia - spermatid
(d) Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak - sperms
level and sharp fall in the secretion of 34. Which one of the following is the most likely
progesterone. root cause why menstruation is not taking
30. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in [2009] place in regularly cycling human female?
[2009]
(a) fr uctose and calcium but has no
enzymes (a) maintenance of the hypertrophical
endometrial lining
(b) glucose and certain enzymes but has no
(b) maintenance of high concentration of
calcium ‘
sex hormones in the blood stream
(c) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in (c) retention of well -developed corpus
calcium luteum
(d) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes (d) fertilisation of the ovum
31. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a 35. A change in the amount of yolk and its
portion of human male reproductive system. distribution in the egg will affect [2009]
Select the correct set of the names of the parts (a) pattern of cleavage
labelled A, B, C, D. [2009] (b) number of blastomeres produced
(c) fertilization
A (d) formation of zygote
B 36. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves
transfer of which one of the following into the
C
fallopian tube? [2010]
D
(a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell
stage
(a) vas deferens (A); seminal vesicle (B) (c) Embryo of 32 cell stage
prostate (C); bulbourethral gland (D). (d) Zygote only
37. Sertoli cells are found in [2010] 44. Which one of the following statements about
(a) ovaries and secrete progesterone human sperm is correct? [2010]
(b) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline (a) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure
(c) seminiferous tubules and provide used for piercing and penetrating the egg,
nutrition to germ cells resulting in fertilisation
(d) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin (b) The sperm lysins in the acrosome
38. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from dissolve the egg envelope facilitating
(a) testicular lobules to rete testis [2010] fertilisation
(b) rete testis to vas deferens (c) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure
(c) vas deferens to epididymis
leading the sperm towards the ovum
(d) epididymis to urethra
(d) Acrosome serves no particular function
39. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in :
45. Which one of the following statements about
(a) fructose and calcium [2010]
morula in humans is correct? [2010]
(b) glucose and calcium
(c) DNA and testosterone (a) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm
(d) ribose and potassium as an uncleaved zygote but much more
40. The permissible use of the technique DNA
amniocentesis is for [2010] (b) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less
(a) detecting sex of the unborn foetus DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
(b) artificial insemination (c) It has more or less equal quantity of
(c) transfer of embryo into the uterus of the cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved
surrogate mother zygote
(d) detecting any genetic abnormality (d) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA
41. The signals for parturition originate from than an uncleaved zygote
[2010] 46. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary
(a) placenta only is [2010]
(b) placenta as well as fully developed (a) isthmus (b) infundibulum
foetus (c) cervix (d) ampulla
(c) oxytocin released from mater nal 47. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
pituitary human reproductive system gets blocked, the
(d) fully developed foetus only gametes will not be transported from [2011]
42. The first movements of the foetus and
(a) testes to epididymis
appearance of hair on its head are
(b) epididymis to vas deferens
usually observed during which month of
(c) ovary to uterus
pregnancy? [2010]
(d) vagina to uterus
(a) Fourth month (b) Fifth month
48. The testes in humans are situated outside
(c) Sixth month (d) Third month
43. The second maturation division of the the abdominal cavity insides pouch called
mammalian ovum occurs [2010] scrotum. The purpose served is for [2011]
(a) shortly after ovulation before the ovum (a) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower
makes entry into the fallopian tube than the internal body temperature
(b) until after the ovum has been penetrated (b) escaping any possible compression by the
by a sperm visceral organs
(c) until the nucleus of the sperm has fused (c) providing more space for the growth of
with that of the ovum epididymis
(d) in the graafian follicle following the first (d) providing a secondary sexual feature for
maturation division exhibiting the male sex
49. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic 53. Signals for parturition originate from :
sectional view of the female reproductive [2012]
system of humans. Which one set of (a) Both placenta as well as fully developed
three parts out of I-VI have been correctly foetus
identified ? [2011] (b) Oxytocin released from mater nal
pituitary
(c) Placenta only
(d) Fully developed foetus only
54. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of
total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The
(a) (II) Endometrium(III) Infundibulum, result expected was [2012]
(IV) Fimbriae (a) High level of circulating FSH and LH in
(b) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) the uterus to stimulate implantation of
Cervix, the embyro
(c) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI) (b) High level of circulatting HCG to
Cervix stimulate endometrial thickening
(d) (I) Perimetrium, (II)Myometrium, (Ill) (c) High level of FSH and LH in uterus to
Fallopian tube stimulate endometrical thickening
50. What happens during fertilisation in humans (d) High level of circulating HCG to
after many sperms reach close to the ovum?
stimulate estrogen and progesterone
[2011M]
synthesis
(a) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm
enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona 55. The Leydig cells found in the human body are
pellucida the secretory source of [2012]
(b) All sperms except the one nearest to the (a) Progesterone (b) intestinal mucus
ovum lose their tails (c) glucagon (d) androgens
(c) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms 56. Identify the human developmental stage
except one shown below as well as the related right
(d) Only two sperms nearest the ovum place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant
penetrate zona pellucida woman, and select the right option for the two
51. About which day in a normal human together. [2012M]
menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of
LH (Popularly called LH-surge) normally
occurs? [2011M]
(a) 14th day (b) 20th day
(c) 5th day (d) 11th day
52. Which one of the following statements is
Developmental Site of occurrence
false in respect of viability of mammalian
sperm ? [2012] stage
(a) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours. (a) Late morula Middle part of fallopian
(b) Survival of sperm depends on the pH of tube
the medium and is more active in alkaline (b) Blastula End part of fallopian
medium. tube
(c) Viability of sperm is determined by its (c) Blastocyst Uterine wall
motility. (d) 8 celled morula Starting point of
(d) Sperms must be concentrated in a thick fallopian tube
suspension.
57. The secretory phase in the human menstrual A

cycle is also called [2012M]
(a) luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
(b) follicular phase lasting for about 6 days
(c) luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
(d) follicular phase and lasts for about 13
days
58. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of :
B
[NEET 2013]
(a) FSH (b) Oxytocin (a) A – Primary oocyte – it is the prophase – I
(c) Vasopressin (d) Progesterone of the meiotic division
59. What is the correct sequence of sperm (b) B – C o r p u s l u t e u m – s e c r e t e s
formation? [NEET 2013]
progesterone
(a) S p e r m a t o g o n i a , s p e r m a t o c y t e ,
spermatozoa, spermatid (c) A – Tertiary follicle – forms Graafian
(b) S p e r m a t o g o n i a ; s p e r m a t o z o a , follicle
spermatocyte, spermatid (d) B – Corpus luteum – secretes estrogen
(c) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid,
63. Select the option which correctly matches
spermatozoa
(d) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, the endocrine gland with its hormone and its
spermatozoa function [NEET Kar. 2013]
60. Which one of the following is not the function Endocrine Hormone Function
of placenta? It : [NEET 2013] gland
(a) secretes estrogen
(a) Ovary FSH stimulates follicular
(b) facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and
waste material from embryo. development and the
(c) secretes oxytocin during parturition secretion of estrogens.
(d) facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients (b) Placenta estrogen initiates secretion of
to embyo
the milk.
61. Which of the following best illustrates
FEEDBACK in development? (c) Corpus estrogen essential for
[NEET Kar. 2013] luteum maintenance
(a) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes of endometerium
something that slows down the growth (d) Leydig androgen initiates the
of tissue (Y)
cells production of
(b) Tissue (X) secretes RNA which changes
the development of tissue (Y) sperms.
(c) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes 64. The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers
enzymes that inhibit the development of release of [NEET Kar. 2013]
tissue (Y)
(a) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
(d) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes
something that induces tissue (Y) to (b) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
develop (c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
62. The figure shows a section of human ovary. from placenta
Select the option which gives the correct (d) Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) from
identification of A and B with function/
placenta
characteristic [NEET Kar. 2013]
Solutions
1. (a) Eggs are of 4 types regarding the amount 6. (b) Human female has X X chromosomes.
of yolk present in them : When eggs formed each egg carries
(i) Alecithal Egg : Almost free of yolk 22 autosomes & one X chromosome.
eg. most mammals like man. In human male each sperm carries
22 autosomes & either X or
(ii) Microlecithal Egg : Very small amount
Y-chromosomes.
of yolk eg. Branchiostoma.
7. (c) Interstitial cells = Leydig’s cells are
(iii) Mesolecithal Egg : Moderate
present in testes and secrete male
amount of yolk eg. Frog’s egg
hormone testosterone.
(iv) Macrolecithal Egg : Large amount
8. (a) Sperm has : (i) head in which acrosome
of yolk eg. Reptiles, birds and egg-
& nucleus are present
laying mammals.
(ii) middle piece in which it contains
2. (a) Egg is liberated from the ovary (ovulation)
many mitochondria
at secondary oocyte stage when the
(iii) A long & highly motile tail.
meiosis II is arrested in secondary
oocyte. It will be induced by the sperm. (A short neck is also present between
middle piece & head which has centrioles
3. (c) Ectoderm produces – Liver, Epidermis,
and may sometimes regarded as a part
glands, hair, nervous system etc.
of middle piece)
Endoderm produces – Pancreas, lining
9. (a) The entry of sperm stimulate the
of urinary bladder etc.
secondary oocyte to resume and complete
Mesoderm produces – Dermis, most the suspended meiosis II. This produces
muscles, Kidneys, Gonads etc. a haploid mature ovum and a second
4. (c) Primary spermatocyte (46) divides polar body. The second polar body and
through meiosis to give two secondary sperm tail immediately degenerate.
spermatocytes (23). Each secondary 10. (d) Egg secretes fertilizin due to which
spermatocyte divides through mitosis acrosome of sperm secretes antifertilizin
giving rise to two spermatids (23) which and due to their reaction sperm adheres
on spermeogenesis mature as sperms. to egg. The acrosome reaction is the
5. (b) A glycoprotein fertilizin (composed of reaction which occurs in the acrosome
monosaccharides and amino acids) is of the sperm as it approaches the zona
secreted by a mature egg. Penetrating pellucida. In mammals the acrosome
sperm also has some proteinaceous reaction releases hyaluronidase and
substance on its surface called acrosin; their role in fertilization is not yet
antifertilizin. Due to the interaction clear..It also alters a patch of pre-existing
between fertilizin & antifertilizin, the sperm plasma membrane so that it can fuse
sperm adheres to the egg. with the egg plasma membrane.
11. (b) Four extra-embryonic membranes are 21. (b) An organizer is a signal aligning center
present in mammals which originally that directs the development of embryo
arise from trophoblast viz. amnion, or part of embryo, e.g. in amphibians, it
chorion, allantois and yolk sac. The is dorsal tip of blastophore.
trophoblast is the outermost layer of cells 22. (c) Since corpus luteum degenerates so
in morula. progesterone also decreases rapidly
12. (a) After first meiotic division primary (progesterone is essential for maintenance
spermatocyte (diploid) gives rise to two of pregnancy). Also estrogen continues
secondary spermatocytes (haploid). to curve growth of the endometrium
which ultimately becomes thick enough
13. (c) The 28 days human ovarian cycle is called
to break down and cause menstruation.
menstrual cycle. On 14th day a mature
Hence choice (c) is incorrect as estrogen
ovarian follicle leaves ovary & comes into
secretion does not decreases further.
the fallopian tube.
Primary follicles start developing.
14. (d) Estrous cycle is the characteristic of
23. (b) On the surface of the egg opposite to the
mammalian females other than primates.
point of sperm entry, the peripheral area
It is due to estrogen hormone. Estrous is
of the egg becomes lighter in colour and
the period during which ovulation occurs
assumes a grey appearance. This area is
and the females mate with male.
crescentric in shape and is known as the
15. (c) In test tube baby, fertilization of the sperm grey crescent.
and the ova is carried out in lab conditions 24. (c) Progesterone hormone which is secreted
(in vitro) and when the embryos have by the corpus luteum in the ovaries is
reached the 32-celled stage, it is implanted responsible to stop ovulation (during
back into the uterus of the mother. pregnancy) and fixes the foetus to the
16. (b) Amniocentesis is the most widely used uterine wall, facilitates placenta formation
method for prenatal detection of many and controls the foetus development in
genetic disorders. It is also a technique uterus. If this hormone is withdrawn
used for determining the sex of the then fixation of foetus to uterine wall will
foetus. not take place, formation of placenta will
17. (a) After ovulation ovarian follicle, undergo also not take place, ovulation starts from
several stages of degeneration the pilicular the ovaries and hence in human female
cells inlarge and fill with a yellow fluid to menstruation starts.
form corpus luteum. 25. (b) The progesterone and estradiol continue
18. (c) Luteinizing hormone causes ovulation. the hypertrophy of endo metrial lining
in the uterus and fallopian tubes and
The remaining cells of ovarian follicle
maintain it throughout pregnancy.
are stimulated by LH to develop corpus
progesterone is also necessary for the
luteum.
proper implantation of the foetus in the
19. (d) Embryo growth graph is 'J' shaped. uterine wall. It stimulates the endometrial
20. (c) Cleavage in the human zygote is glands to secrete a nutrient fluid for the
holoblastic i.e. it divides the zygote and foetus, hence the term secetory phase.
the blastomeres completely into daughter The progesterone inhibits the release of
cells. But it is unequal as the blastomeres FSH so that it may not develop additional
differ in size. follicles and eggs.
26. (b) In human, at the end of the first meiotic 31. (a) The human male reproductive system
division, the male germ cells differentrate consists of a number of sex organs that
into the secondary. are a part of the human reproductive
27. (d) Amnion is an extraembryonic membrane process. In diagram of male reproductive
in human prevents desiccation of the system of human, the point indicated
embryo inside the uterus. Amnion is a by A,B,C,D are vas deferens, seminal
membrane that encloses the embryo of vesicle, prostate and bulbourethral
reptiles, birds and mammals within the gland.
amniotic cavity. This cavity is filled with 32. (b) Foetal ejection reflex in human female
amniotic fluid, in which the embryo is is induced by fully developed foetus
protected from dessication and from and placenta. When a woman is in a
external pressure. lithotomy or semi-sitting position, the
28. (b) In human female, the periodic discharge Foetal Ejection Reflex is impaired and
of blood, mucus and cellular debris the increased pain caused by the sacrum’s
from uterine wall from non-pregnant inability to move as the baby descends
women of sexual maturity is known as can be intolerable.
menstrual cycle. Few hours before the
33. (a) The formation of sperms in mature human
start of mensuration, the spiral arterioles
testes completed in three important
constrict one by one resulting into the
phases in gametogenesis- multiplication,
blanch mucosa. The mucosa shrinks and
growth and maturation phase. During
the death of the blood deprived tissues
these phases primarily germ cells change
takes place.
into spermatogonia then spermatocyte
29. (b) The corpus luteum is essential for
during growth phase which change
establishing and maintaining pregnancy
into spermatoids and spermatids into
in females. In the ovary, the corpus luteum
sperms.
secretes estrogens and progesterone,
which are steroid hormones responsible 34. (d) Fertilization of ovum is the most likely
for the thickening of the endometrium root cause why menstruation is not
and its development and maintenance, taking place in regularly cycling human
respectively. female. In order for fertilization to occur,
30. (c) Human seminal plasma is a complex one of these sperm must attach itself to
mixture of proteins, glycoproteins, the ovum and penetrate its outer surface.
pe ptides, glycope ptides, and The fertilized ovum will then continue
prostaglandins secreted by organs of the travelling down the fallopian tube, taking
male reproductive tract. The components several days until it reaches the uterus.
of this fluid have been implicated in When it arrives, it attaches itself to the
the suppression of immune response, lining of the uterus and continues to
agonistic effects on sperm-egg binding, grow. If the ovum is not fertilized it will
and promotion of successful implantation die and the progesterone and oestrogen
of the human embryo. Seminal plasma hormone levels will drop. Without these
in humans is rich in fructose and certain hormones the prepared uterus lining
enzymes but poor in calcium. breaks up and is released through the
vagina. This is known as a ‘period’.
35. (a) A change in the amount of yolk and its They provide a medium for transport of
distribution in the egg will affect pattern sperms, nourishes and activates sperms.
of cleavage. The pattern of cleavage is 40. (d) Amniocentesis involves prenatal diagnosis
influenced by the amount of yolk in the of metabolic error and other genetic
egg. In eggs with less yolk, cleavages are abnormalities.
equal, and the resulting blastomeres are
41. (b) Parturition is the process of delivery of
of similar size. If the yolk is localized,
the foetus. The signals for parturition
such as in frog eggs, then clevages are
originate from the fully developed
unequal, the cells derived from the yolky
foetus and placenta that induce uterine
region (the vegetal pole) are larger than
contraction called foetal ejection reflex.
those derived from the region without
This triggers the release of oxytocin
yolk (the animal pole). hormone from pituitary. This in turn
36. (a) In vitro fertilization is a process where leads to expulsion of the baby out of
fertilization of egg occurs outside the uterus.
mother’s womb. This method is used 42. (b) In human beings, after one month of
as a major treatment for infertility. pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is formed.
This method involves the removal of By end of second month pregnancy,
eggs from the female ovaries. This egg the foetus develops limbs and digits. By
is then allowed to fertilize with sperm end of 12 weeks, major organ systems
in a fluid medium in a test tube. The are formed. After fifth month, the first
zygote is allowed to develop for a week. movement off foetus and appearance of
Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 hair on its head are observed. By the end
blastomeres is then transferred into the of 24 weeks, the body is covered with
fallopian tube to complete its further hairs, eye lids separate and eyelashes are
development. If the embryo is with more formed.
than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into 43. (b) In Oogenesis, the second maturation
uterus for successful pregnancy. A baby
division occurs until after the ovum has
conceived by fertilization that occurs
been penetrated by a sperm. Oogenesis
outside mother body is called test tube
involves the formation of haploid female
baby.
gametes, ova, from this diploid egg
37. (c) Sertoli cells are found in the walls of
mother cells, oogonia of ovary of female
seminiferous tubules of the testes. They
anchor and provide nutrition to the organism.
developing germ cells especially the 44. (b) Acrosome a small pointed structure at
spermatids. the tip of nucleus. It breaks down just
38. (b) Vasa efferentia are ductules leading from before fertilization, releasing hydrolytic
rete testis to vas deferens. The rete testis enzymes that assist penetration between
is an anastomosing network of tubules follicle cells that surrounds the ovum,
located in the hilum of the testicles that thus facilitating fertilization.
carries sperm from the seminiferous
45. (a) Morula is a solid ball contained within
tubules to the vasa efferentia.
the zone pellucida. It has almost equal
39. (a) Seminal plasma in human males are rich
quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved
in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.
zygote but much more DNA.
46. (b) The part of fallopian tube closest to the 56. (c) Blastocyst is a thin-walled hollow
ovary is infundibulum. Infundibulum structure in early embryonic development
possess finger-like projections called that contains a cluster of cells called the
fimbriae that help in collection of ovum inner cell mass from which the embryo
after ovulation. It leads to wider part of arises. The outer layer of cells gives rise
oviduct called ampulla. The last part to the placenta and other supporting
of oviduct is isthmus that has a narrow tissues needed for fetal development
lumen and joins the uterus. within the uterus while the inner cell
47. (a) If the vasa efferentia in the human mass cells give rise to the tissues of the
reproductive system get blocked the body. The blastocyst reaches the womb
gametes will not be transformed from (uterus) around day 5, and implants into
testes to epididymis. the uterine wall on about day 6.
48. (a) The testes are present in the scrotum which 57. (c) The menstrual cycle is the scientific term
maintains the scrotal temperature below for the physiological changes that can
2ºC of the internal body temperature. occur in fertile women for the purposes
49. (b) In the given figure of sexual reproduction and fertilization.
III - marked portion is Infundibulum The secretory phase in the human
menstrual cycle is also called luteal
IV - marked portion is Fimbriaa
phase and lasts for about 13 days. During
V - marked portion is Cervix secretory phase, the endometrium
50. (a) During fertilisation in humans, many prepares for the implantation of an
sperms reach close to the ovum. As embryo and the corpus luteum is active
sperm comes in contact with the zona and secretes progesterone hormone.
pellucida layer of the ovum it induces 58. (d)
changes in the membrane that blocks
the entry of additional sperm. The
secretions of acrosome helps one sperm
enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona
pellucida.
51. (a) At 14th day of normal human menstrual
cycle rapid secretion of LH normally
occurs.
52. (d)
53. (a) The signals for child birth (parturition)
originate from the fully matured foetus
and placenta which induce mild uterine
contractions called foetal ejection
reflex.
54. (d)
55. (d) Leydig cells found in testis is the
endocrine portion of the testis which are During menstrual or bleeding phase
present in between seminiferous tubules which comprises of 3 - 5 days out of
secretes androgens or male sex hormone 28 days menstrual cycle, the production
e.g. testosterone. of LH from the anterior lobe of the
pituitary gland is considerably reduced . 61. (d) During embryonic development, the
The withdrawal of this hormone causes primary organiser signals the development
degeneration of corpus luteum and
of another organ or tissue by secreting
therefore, progesterone production is
reduced. Production of estrogens is also chemical factors.
reduced in this phase. 62. (b) The corpus luteum is a temporary
59. (c) In testis, the immature male germ cells or endocrine structure in female mammals
spermatogonia (2n) multiply by mitotic that is involved in the production of
divide and increase in number. Some
relatively high levels of progesterone.
spermatogonia (2n) known as primary
spermatocytes divide meiotic division A marked in the figure shows primary
to form secondary spermatocytes (n). follicle, a layer of granulosa cells,
The secondary spermatocytes undergo surrounds each primary oocyte. A large
second meiotic division to produce number of these follicles degenerate
spermatid which are transformed into
during the phase from birth to puberty.
spermatozoa (sperms) by the process
called spermiogenesis. 63. (d) Leydig cells or interstitial cells, which are
60. (c) Function of placenta – The placenta present in the intertubular spaces produce
facilitate the supply of oxygen and a group of hormones called androgens
nutrients to the embryo and also removal mainly testosterone. Androgens play a
of carbon dioxide and excretory/waste major stimulatory role in the process
materials produced by the embryo. The of spermatogenesis (formation of
placenta is connected to the embryo spermatozoa).
through an umbilical cord which helps 64. (a) Parturition is induced by a complex
in the transport of substances to and neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals
from the embryo. Placenta also acts for parturition originate from the fully
as an endocrine tissue and produces developed foetus and the placenta
several hormones like human chorionic which induce mild uterine contractions
gonadotropin (hCG), human placental called foetal ejection reflex. This triggers
lactogen (hPL) , estrogens, progestogens release of oxytocin from the maternal
etc. pituitary.
HAPTER
C
26 Reproductive Health
1. Copper-T is a device that prevents [2000] Which two of the above statements are
(a) implantation of blastocyst correct?
(b) ovulation (a) ii and iii (b) iii and iv
(c) fertilization (c) i and iii (d) i and ii
(d) egg maturation 4. Cu ions released from copper - releasing Intra
2. Given below are four methods (A-D) and Uterine Devices (IUDs): [2010]
their modes of action (a-d) in achieving (a) m a k e u t e r u s u n s u i t a b l e f o r
contraception. Select their correct matching implantation
from the four options that follow: [2008] (b) increase phagocytosis of sperms
Method Mode of Action (c) suppress sperm motility
A. The pill (a) Prevents sperms (d) prevent ovulation
reaching cervix
5. Which one of the following is the most widely
B. Condom (b) Prevents implantation
accepted method of contraception in India,
C. Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation
as at present ? [2011]
D. Copper T (d) Semen contains no
(a) Cervical caps
sperms
(b) Tubectomy
Matching:
(a) A-(c), B-(a), C-(d), D-(b) (c) Diaphragms
(b) A-(d), B-(a), C-(b), D-(c) (d) IUDs. (Intra uterine devices)
(c) A-(c), B-(d), C-(a), D-(b) 6. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
is considered safe up to how many weeks of
(d) A-(b), B-(c), C-(a), D-(d)
pregnancy? [2011]
3. Consider the statements given below regarding
(a) Eight weeks (b) Twelve weeks
contraception and answer as directed
thereafter: [2008] (c) Eighteen weeks (d) Six weeks
(i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy 7. The technique called gamete intrafallopian
(MTP) during first trimester is generally transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those
safe females: [2011M]
(ii) Generally chances of conception are nil (a) who cannot produce an ovum
until mother breast-feeds the infant upto (b) who cannot retain the foetus inside
two years uterus.
(iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are (c) whose cervical canal is too narrow to
effective contraceptives allow passage for the sperms
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken (d) who cannot provide suitable environment
upto one week after coitus to prevent for fertilisation
conception
8. What is the figure given below showing in 12. Artificial insemination mean: [NEET 2013]
particular ? [2012] (a) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test
tube containing ova
(b) Artificial introduction of sperms of a
healthy donor into the vagina
(c) Introduction of sperms of a healthy
donor directly into the ovary
(d) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to
(a) Ovarian cancer (b) Uterine cancer a test tube containing ova
(c) Tubectomy (d) Vasectomy 13. One of the following is not a method of
9. The test-tube Baby Programme employs contraception – which one?
which one of the following techniques [NEET Kar. 2013]
[2012] (a) Tubectomy
(a) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (b) Condoms
(ICSI) (c) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and
vasopressin
(b) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(d) Lippes loop
(c) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIET)
14. Which one of the following statements
(d) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT) is correct regarding Sexually Transmitted
10. Which of the following cannot be detected in Diseases (STD)? [NEET Kar. 2013]
a developing foetus by amniocentesis? (a) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting
[NEET 2013] a STD are very little
(a) Sex of the foetus (b) A person may contact syphilis by sharing
(b) Down syndrome milk with one already suffering from the
(c) Jaundice disease
(d) Klinefelter syndrome (c) Haemophilia is one of the STD
11. One of the legal methods of birth control is : (d) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia
[NEET 2013] are both STD
(a) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 15. The stage transferred into the uterus after
induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory
17 of the menstrual cycle
is [NEET Kar. 2013]
(b) by having coitus at the time of day
(a) Zygote
break (b) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
(c) by a premature ejaculation during (c) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage
coitus (d) Morula
(d) abortion by taking an appropriate
medicine
Reproductive Health 253
Solutions
1. (a) Copper ‘T’ is an intrauterine device which with sperm transferred into fallopian
prevents the fertilized egg becoming tube of another woman who cannot
implanted in the wall of the womb. produce ovum, but can provide suitable
environment for fertilization. Thus in
2. (a) A. The pill — Prevents ovulation GIFT, site of fertilization is fallopian
B. Condom — Prevents sperm reaching tube, not laboratory.
cervix 8. (c) The figure shows the tubectomy. This is a
surgical method to prevent pregnancy in
C. Vasectomy — Semen contains no
women. In tubectomy small part of the
sperms
fallopian tube is removed or tied through
D. Copper-T — Prevent implantation. a small cut in the abdomen or through
vagina. It is very effective method but
3. (c) Statements i and iii are correct.
reversibility is very poor.
- Medical Termination of Pregnancy 9. (d) Test tube baby programme employs
(MTP) during first trimester is generally zygote intrafallopion transfer (ZIFT)
safe. technique. In this technique fusion of
ovum and sperm is done outside the
- Intrauterine device like copper-T are
body of woman to form zygote which is
effective contraceptives.
allowed to divide forming 8 blastomeres,
4. (c) Cu ions released by copper releasing then it is transfered the fallopion tube of
intra uterine devices suppresses sperm the woman.
motility. 10. (c) Jaundice cannot be detected in a developing
foetus by amniocentesis. It is a foetal sex
Intra-uterine devices are inserted by
determination test based on chromosomal
doctors in the uterus through vagina.
pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding
They are available as the non-medicated
the developing embryo. It is now legally
IUDs, copper releasing IUDs and
ban in India.
hormonereleasing IUDs.
11. (d) Medical termination of pregnancy
5. (d) Intra uterine device (IUD) is a method (MTP) or induced abortion become
of contraception in India. The IUD is legal in India from 1971 with some
inserted in the woman’s uterus through strict conditions to avoid its misuse.
the cervix. Such restrictions are important to
6. (b) Medical termination of pregnancy is check indiscriminate and illegal female
considered safe up to twelve weeks of foeticides which are reported to be high
pregnancy. in India. All the other options are of
natural methods of contraception.
7. (a) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
is recommended for those females 12. (b) In Artificial Insemination (AI) technique,
who cannot produce an ovum. In this the semen collected either from the
process, the eggs of the donor woman husband or a healthy donor is artificially
are removed and in a form of mixture introduced either into the vagina or
into the uterus (IUI – intrauterine warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B and
insemination) of the female. AIDS are some of the common STDs.
13. (c) Oxytocin is birth hormone and acts on Haemophilia is sex-linked recessive
the smooth muscles of our body and disease, which show its transmission
stimulates their contraction. Vasopressin from unaffected carrier female to some
acts mainly at the kidney and stimulates of male progeny. Sickle cell anaemia is
resorption of water and electrolytes and an autoimmune linked recessive trait in
reduces loss of water through urine. which both the partners are carrier for
Hence, it is also called as anti-diuretic the gene.
hormone (ADH). 15. (d) In Intra-Uterine Transfer (IUT) embryo
14. (a) STDs are more common in 15-24 with more than 8-blastomeres stage
years age group. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, (morula) is used for transfer into the
genital herpes, chlamydiasis, genital uterus.
HAPTER
C
27 Heredity and Variation

1. What contribute to the success of Mendel ? 7. Triticale has been evolved by intergeneric
(a) Qualitative analysis of data [1988] hybridization between [1989, 2001]
(b) Observation of distinct inherited traits (a) wheat and rye
(c) His knowledge of biology (b) wheat and rice
(d) Consideration of one character at one (c) rice and maize
time
(d) wheat and Aegilops
2. Haploids are able to express both recessive and
8. A normal green male maize is crossed with
dominant alleles/mutations because there
albino female. The progeny is albino because
are
(a) many alleles for each gene [1988]
(b) two alleles for each gene (a) trait for albinism is dominant [1989]
(c) only one allele for each gene in the (b) the albinos have biochemical to destroy
individual plastids derived form green male
(d) only one allele in a gene (c) plastids are inherited from female
3. A mother in a family of five daughters is parent
expecting her sixth baby. The chance of its (d) green plastids of male must have
being a son is [1988] mutated
(a) zero (b) 25% 9. tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic
(c) 50% (d) 100% of offspring ? [1990]
4. Mutations used in agriculture are commonly (a) 75% recessive (b) 50% recessive
(a) induced [1988] (c) 25% recessive (d) All dominant
(b) spontaneous
10. ABO blood group system is due to [1990]
(c) lethal
(a) multifactor inheritance
(d) recessive and lethal
5. Diploid chromosome number in humans is (b) incomplete dominance
(a) 46 (b) 44 [1989] (c) multiple allelism
(c) 48 (d) 42 (d) epistasis
6. Two linked genes a and b show 20% 11. In a genetic cross having recessive epistasis, F2
recombination. The individuals of a dihybrid phenotypic ratio would be [1990]
cross between + +/ + + × ab/ab shall show (a) 9 : 6 : 1 (b) 15 : 1
gametes [1989] (c) 9 : 3 : 4 (d) 12 : 3 : 1
(a) + + 80 : ab : 20
12. Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form
(b) + + 50 : ab : 50
[1990]
(c) + + 40 : ab 40 : + a 10 : + b : 10
(a) 1 AaBB : 1aaBB (b) All AaBB
(d) + + 30 : ab 30 : + a 20 : + b : 20
(c) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB (d) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB
13. An octamer of 4 histones complexed with 19. Red (RR) Antirrhinum is crossed with white
DNA forms [1990] (WW) one. Offspring RW are pink. This is an
(a) endosome (b) nucleosome example of [1991]
(c) mesosome (d) centromere (a) dominant -recessive
14. Both husband and wife have normal vision (b) incomplete dominance
though their fathers were colour blind. The (c) hybrid
probability of their daughter becoming colour (d) supplementary genes
blind is [1990] 20. The allele which is unable to express its effect
(a) 0% (b) 25% in the presence of another is called [1991]
(a) codominant (b) supplementary
(c) 50% (d) 75%
(c) complementary (d) recessive
15. Which one is a hereditary disease ? [1990]
21. Blue eye colour is recessive to brown eye
(a) Cataract (b) leprosy colour. A brown eyed man whose mother was
(c) Blindness (d) Phenylketonuria blue eyed marries a blue-eyed women. The
16. Haemophilia is more common in males children shall be [1991]
because it is a [1990] (a) both blue eyed and brown eyed 1:1
(b) all brown eyed
(a) Recessive character carried by
(c) all blue eyed
Y-chromosome (d) blue eyed and brown eyed 3 : 1
(b) Dominant character carried by 22. A dihybrid condition is [1991]
Y-chromosome (a) tt Rr (b) Tt rr
(c) Dominant trait carried by (c) tt rr (d) Tt Rr
X-chromosome 23. Mendel’s last law is [1991]
(a) segregation
(d) Recessive trait carried by (b) dominance
X-chromosome (c) independent assortment
17. Bateson used the terms coupling and repulsion (d) polygenic inheritance
for linkage and crossing over. Name the correct 24. First geneticist/ father of genetics was
parent of coupling type alongwith its cross [1991]
repulsion [1990] (a) de Vries (b) Mendel
(c) Darwin (d) Morgan
(a) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, 25. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian
AAbb crosses are called [1991]
(b) Coupling AAbb, aaBB; Repulsion AaBb, (a) multiple alleles (b) allelomorphs
aabb (c) alloloci (d) paramorphs
26. Multiple alleles control inheritance of
(c) Coupling aaBB, aabb; Repulsion AABB,
(a) phenylketonuria [1991]
aabb
(b) colour blindness
(d) Coupling AABB, aabb : Repulsion AAbb, (c) sickle cell anaemia
aaBB (d) blood groups
18. In Down’s syndrome of a male child, the sex 27. A man of A-blood group marries a women
complement is [1990] of AB blood group. Which type of progeny
would indicate that man is heterozygous A?
(a) XO (b) XY
(a) AB (b) A [1991]
(c) XX (d) XXY (c) O (d) B
Heredity and Variation 257
28. A colour blind girl is rare because she will be 36. Down's syndrome is due to [1992]
born only when [1991] (a) crossing over
(a) her mother and maternal grand father (b) linkage
were colour blind (c) sex-linked inheritance
(d) nondisjunction of chromosomes
(b) her father and maternal grand father were
37. A colour blind mother and normal father
colour blind
would have [1992, 94]
(c) her mother is colour blind and father has (a) colour blind sons and normal/carrier
normal vision daughters
(d) parents have normal vision but grand (b) colour blind sons and daughters
parents were colour blind. (c) all colour blind
29. An organism with two identical alleles is (d) all normal
(a) dominant (b) hybrid [1992] 38. Out of 8 ascospores formed in Neurospora the
(c) heterozygous (d) homozygous arrangement is 2a : 4a : 2a showing [1992]
30. Segregation of Mendelian factors (no linkage, (a) No crossing over
no crossing over) occurs during [1992] (b) Some meiosis
(a) anaphase I (b) anaphase II (c) Second generation division
(c) diplotene (d) metaphase I (d) First generation division
31. In a cross between AABB × aabb, the ratio of 39. When a certain character is inherited only
F2 genotypes between AABB, AaBB, Aabb through female parent, it probably represents
and aabb would be [1992] (a) multiple plastid inheritance [1992]
(a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 : 1 : 2 (b) cytoplasmic inheritance
(c) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (d) 7 : 5 : 3 : 1 (c) incomplete dominance
32. A gene pair hides the effect of another. The (d) mendelian nuclear inheritance
phenomenon is [1992, 95, 99] 40. Mendel studied inheritance of seven pairs
(a) epistasis of traits in Pea which can have 21 possible
(b) dominance combinations. If you are told that in one of
(c) mutation these combinations, independent assortment
is not observed in later studies, your reaction
(d) none of the above
will be [1993]
33. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in
[1992] (a) Independent assortment principle may be
(a) both homozygous and heterozygous wrong
states (b) Mendel might not have studied all the
(b) second generation combinations
(c) heterozygous combination (c) It is impossible
(d) homozygous combination (d) Later studies may be wrong
34. A child of O-group has B-group father. The 41. A polygenic inheritance in human beings is
genotype of father will be [1992] (a) Skin colour [1993]
O
(a) I I O B
(b) I I B (b) Phenylketonuria
(c) IA IB (d) IB IO (c) Colour blindness
35. In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/ (d) Sickle cell anaemia
XO abnormality causes [1992] 42. Nucleosome core is made of [1993]
(a) H1, H2A, H2B and H3
(a) Down's syndrome
(b) H1, H2A, H2B, H4
(b) Kinefelter's syndrome
(c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
(c) Turner's syndrome (d) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
(d) Edward's syndrome
43. Sex is determined in human beings [1993] 50. Of both normal parents, the chance of a male
(a) by ovum child becoming colour blind are [1993]
(b) at time of fertilization (a) no
(c) 40 days after fertilization (b) possible only when all the four grand
(d) seventh to eight week when genitals parents had normal vision
differentiate in foetus (c) possible only when father’s mother was
44. Which crop variety is not due to induced colour blind
mutations ? [1993] (d) possible only when mother’s father was
(a) Reimei of Rice colour blind
(b) Prabhat of Arhar 51. A women with albinic father marries an albinic
(c) Sharbati Sonora of Wheat man. The proportion of her progeny is
(d) Aruna of Castor [1994]
45. Haploids are preferred over diploids for (a) 2 normal : 1 albinic
mutation studies because in haploids [1993]
(b) all normal
(a) recessive mutations express immediately
(b) d o m i n a n t m u t a t i o n s e x p r e s s (c) all albinic
immediately (d) 1 normal : 1 albinic
(c) mutations are readily induced 52. In a dihybrid cross AABB × aabb, F2 progeny
(d) tissue culture is easy of AABB, AABb, AaBB and AaBb occurs in
46. Two dominant nonallelic genes are 50 map the ratio of [1994]
units apart. The linkage is [1993] (a) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(a) cis type (c) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (d) 1 :2 : 2 : 4
(b) trans type 53. The process of mating between closely related
(c) complete individuals is [1994]
(d) absent/ Incomplete (a) self breeding (b) inbreeding
47. Of a normal couple, half the sons are
(c) hybridisation (d) heterosis
haemophilic while half the daughters are
54. A cross between pure tall Pea plant with green
carriers. The gene is located on [1993]
pods and dwarf Pea plant with yellow pods will
(a) X-chromosome of father
produce short F2 plants out of 16 [1994]
(b) Y-chromosome of father
(a) 9 (b) 3
(c) one X-chromosome of mother
(c) 4 (d) 1
(d) both the X-chromosomes of mother
55. A child of blood group O can not have parents
48. Which of the following is suitable for
of blood groups [1994]
experiment on linkage [1993]
(a) AB and AB/O (b) A and B
(a) aaBB × aaBB (b) AABB × aabb
(c) B and B (d) O and O
(c) AaBb × AaBb (d) AAbb × AaBB
56. A fruitfly exhibiting both male and female
49. Mr. Kapoor has Bb autosomal gene pair and
traits is [1994]
d allele sex-linked. What shall be proportion
(a) heterozygous (b) gynandromorph
of Bd in sperms [1993]
(c) hemizygous (d) gynander
(a) Zero (b) 1/2
57. Genes located on Y-chromosome are [1994]
(c) 1/4 (d) 1/8
(a) mutant genes (b) sex-linked genes
(c) autosomal genes (d) holandric genes
58. When two genetic loci produce identical 65. Barr body in human female is formed by
phenotypes in cis and trans position, they are [1996]
considered to be [1995] (a) inactivation of paternal X-chromosome
(a) pseudoalleles (b) inactivation of maternal
(b) different genes X-chromosome
(c) multiple alleles (c) inactivation of both X-chromosomes
(d) parts of same gene (d) inactivation of either the paternal or
maternal X-chromosome
59. Barr body in mammals represents [1995]
66. A person with 47 chromosomes due to an
(a) all the heterochromatin in female cells
additional Y chromosome suffers from a
(b) Y-chromosomes in somatic cells of condition called [1996]
male (a) Down's syndrome
(c) all heterochromatin in male and female (b) Superfemale
cells (c) Turner's syndrome
(d) one of the two X-chromosomes in (d) Klinefelter's syndrome
somatic cells of females 67. A man with a certain disease marries a normal
woman. They have eight children (3 daughters
60. The polytene chromosomes were discovered and 5 sons). All the daughters suffer from
for the first time in [1995] their father's disease but none of the sons are
(a) Drosophila (b) Chironomus affected. Which of the following mode of
(c) Musca nebulo (d) Musca domestica inheritance do you suggest for this disease?
61. The most striking example of point mutation (a) Sex-linked recessive [1996, 2005]
(b) Sex-linked dominant
is found in a disease called [1995]
(c) Autosomal dominant
(a) thalassemia
(d) Sex-limited recessive
(b) night blindness 68. H.J.Muller was awarded Nobel Prize for his
(c) down's syndrome [1996]
(d) sickle cell anaemia (a) discovery that chemicals can induce gene
62. The change of the light-coloured variety of mutations
(b) discovery that ionizing radiations can
peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker
induce gene mutations
variety (Biston carbonaria) is due to [1995]
(c) work on gene mapping in Drosophila
(a) mutation (b) regeneration (d) efforts to prevent the use of nuclear
(c) genetic isolation (d) temporal isolation weapons.
63. Alleles that produce independent effects in 69. A fruit fly is heterozygous for sex-linked genes.
their heterozygous condition are called When mated with a normal female fruit fly,
the male-specific chromosome will enter egg
(a) codominant alleles [1996]
cells in the proportion of [1997]
(b) epistatic alleles (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) complementary alleles (c) 3 : 1 (d) 7 : 1
(d) supplementary alleles 70. After crossing between two plants, the
64. An individual exhibiting both male and female progenies are found to be male-sterile. This
sexual characteristics in the body is known phenomenon is found to be maternally
inherited and is due to some genes which are
as [1996]
present in [1997]
(a) hermaphrodite (b) intersex (a) nucleus (b) chloroplast
(c) gynandromorph (d) bisexual (c) mitochondrion (d) cytoplasm
71. Genetic identity of a human male is determined 77. Albinism is known to be due to an autosomal
by [1997] recessive mutation. The first child of a couple
(a) autosomes (b) nucleolus with normal skin pigmentation was an albino.
(c) sex chromosomes(d) cell organelles What is the probability that their second child
72. A person with the sex chromosomes XXY will also be an albino? [1998]
suffers from [1997] (a) 25% (b) 50%
(a) Down's syndrome (c) 75% (d) 100%
(b) Klinefelter's syndrome
78. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible
(c) Turner's syndrome
for [1998]
(d) Gynandromorphism
(a) segregation of alleles
73. In Down's syndrome, Karyotyping has shown
(b) dominance of genes
that the disorder is associated with trisomy of
(c) linkage between genes
chromosome number-21 usually due to
[1998] (d) recombination of linked alleles
(a) n o n - d i s j u n c t i o n d u r i n g e g g - c e l l 79. How many genome types are present in a
formation typical green plant cell? [1998]
(b) non-disjunction during sperm-cell (a) Two (b) Three
formation (c) More than five (d) More than ten
(c) non-disjunction during formation of egg- 80. If Mendel had studied the 7 traits using a
cells and sperm-cells plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, in
(d) addition of extra chromosome during what way would his interpretation have been
mitosis of the zygote different ? [1998]
74. Mental retardation in man associated with sex (a) He would have discovered blending or
chromosomal abnormality is usually due to incomplete dominance
(a) increase in X complement [1998] (b) He would not have discovered the law of
(b) moderate increase in Y complement independent assortment
(c) large increase in Y complement (c) He would have discovered sex linkage
(d) reduction in X complement (d) H e c o u l d h a v e m a p p e d t h e
75. The formation of multivalents at meiosis in a chromosome
diploid organism is due to [1998]
81. How many different types of genetically
(a) inversion
different gametes will be produced by a
(b) deletion heterozygous plant having the genotype :
(c) monosomy AABbCc? [1998]
(d) reciprocal translocation
(a) Two (b) Four
76. A woman with two genes for haemophilia and
(c) Six (d) Nine
a gene for colour blindness on one of the 'X'
chromosomes marries a normal man. How 82. Molecular weight of chromosome of yeast cell
will the progeny be [1998] is [1999]
(a) 2.56 × 10 9 (b) 40 × 10 9
(a) h a e m o p h i l i c a n d c o l o u r - b l i n d
daughters 9
(c) 0.5 × 10 (d) 1 × 109
(b) 50% haemophilic, colour-blind sons and 83. Which of the following is the main category
50% haemophilic sons of mutation? [1999]
(c) 50% haemophilic daughters and 50% (a) Genetic mutation
colour-blind daughters (b) Zygotic mutation
(d) All sons and daughters haemophilic and (c) Somatic mutation
colour-blind (d) All of these
84. In hybridisation Tt × tt gives rise to the 90. Mongoloid idiocy in humans is also known
progeny of ratio [1999] as
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 :2 (a) Tay Sachs disease [2000]
(c) 2 :1 (d) 1 : 2 : 1 (b) Klinefelter's syndrome
85. Phenomenon of ‘Industrial melanism’ (c) Down's Syndrome
demonstrates [1999]
(d) Turner's Syndrome
(a) natural selection
91. Which one pair of the following parents is
(b) induced mutation
most likely to get a child who suffer from
(c) geographical isolation
hemolytic disease of new born? [2000]
(d) reproductive islolation
(a) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive
86. One child is haemophilic (sex-linked trait),
father
while its fraternal twin brother is normal.
Which one of the following informations is (b) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative
most appropriate? [1999] father
(a) T h e m o t h e r m u s t h a v e b e e n (c) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative
heterozygous father
(b) The child is a monozygotic twin (d) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive
(c) The other child is a female and the father father
is haemophilic 92. Which character studied by Mendel in garden
(d) The haemophilic child is a male pea (Pisum sativum) was dominant [2000]
87. Red-green colour blindness in humans is (a) Wrinkled seed shape
governed by a sex-linked recessive gene. A (b) Green pod colour
normal woman whose father was colour (c) Green seed colour
blind marries a colour blind man. What (d) Terminal flower position
proportion of their daughters is expected to 93. In a certain plant, red fruit (R) is dominant
be colourblind? over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is
(a) 3/4 (b) 1/2 [1999] dominant over shortness (t) .If a plant with
(c) 1/4 (d) All RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant rrtt
88. How many base pairs are found in one genotype , what will be the percentage of tall
genome of man? [1999] plants with red fruits in the progeny ?
(a) 50% (b) 100% [2000, 04]
(a) 7 × 104 (b) 2.8 × 107 (c) 75% (d) 25%
(c) 3 × 109 (d) 4 × 109 94. Independent assortment of genes does not
take place when [2001]
89. Drosophila flies with XXY genotype are
females but in case of humans, such individuals (a) genes are located on homologous
are abnormal males (Klinefelter's syndrome). chromosomes
This indicates that [2000] (b) genes are linked and located on same
chromosomes
(a) The Y chromosome has no role in sex
(c) genes are located on nonhomologous
determination
chromosomes
(b) In Drosophila, the Y chromosome is (d) all the above
essential for sex determination 95. When dominant and recessive alleles express
(c) The Y chromosome is male determining itself together it is called [2001]
in humans (a) codominance
(d) The Y chromosome is female determining (b) dominance
(c) amphidominace
in Drosophila
(d) pseudodominance
96. Ratio of complementary genes [2001] 105. Which of the following is an example of sex
(a) 9 : 3 : 4 (b) 12 : 3 : 1 linked disease? [2002]
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4 (d) 9 : 7 (a) AIDS (b) Colour blindness
97. Forthcoming generation are less adaptive
than their parental generation due to [2001] (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea
(a) natural selection (b) mutation 106. Which of the following is an example of
(c) genetic drift (d) adaptation pleiotropic effect? [2002]
98. Extranuclear inheritance occurs in [2001, 04] (a) Haemophilia
(a) peroxisome and ribosome
(b) Thalassemia
(b) chloroplast and mitochondria
(c) mitochondria and ribosome (c) Sickle cell anaemia
(d) chloroplast and lysosome (d) Colour blindness
99. Two non-allelic genes produce new phenotype 107. A gene is said to be dominant if [2002]
when present together but fail to do so
independently are called? [2001] (a) it expresses its effect only in homozygous
(a) Epistatsis state
(b) Polygene (b) it expresses its effect only in heterozygous
(c) Non- complimentary genes condition
(d) Complimentary genes
(c) it expresses its effect both in homozygous
100. Probability of four sons to a couple is [2001]
and heterozygous condition
(a) (b) (d) it never expresses its effect in any

conditions
1 1
(c) (d) 108. A diseased man marries a normal woman.
16 32

They have three daughters and five sons. All
101. A and B genes are linked what shall be genotype the daughters were diseased and sons were
of progeny in a cross between AB/ab and normal. The gene of this disease is [2002]
ab/ab? [2001]
(a) sex-linked dominant
(a) AAbb and aabb (b) AaBb and aabb
(c) AABB and aabb (d) None of these (b) sex-linked recessive
102. In humans, male XXY and female XXXX (c) sex-linked character
occur due to [2001] (d) autosomal dominant
(a) aneuploidy 109. On selfing a plant of F1 generation with
(b) euploidy
genotype “AABbCC”,the genotypic ratio in
(c) autosomal syndrome
F2 generation will be [2002]
(d) none of these
(a) 3 : 1
103. No. of barr body present in each somatic cell
of a female is [2001] (b) 1 : 2 : 1
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(c) 3 (d) 4 (d) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
104. Which of the following is correct match? 110. There are three genes a, b, c. Percentage of
[2002] crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c
(a) Down's syndrome — 21st chromosome is 28% an a and c is 8%. What is the sequence
(b) Sickle cell anaemia — X-chromosome
of genes on chromosome? [2002]
(c) Haemophila — Y-chromosome
(d) Parkinson disease — X & Y (a) b, a, c (b) a, b, c
chromosome (c) a, c, b (d) none of these
111. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by 116. Two crosses between the same pair of
[2003] genotypes or phenotypes in which the source
of the gametes are reversed in one cross, is
(a) whether the egg is fertilized or develops
known as [2003]
parthenogenetically
(a) reverse cross (b) test cross
(b) the ratio of number of X-chromosomes
(c) reciprocal cross (d) dihybrid cross
to the sets of autosomes
117. The linkage map of X-chromosome of fruit
(c) X and Y chromosomes fly has 66 units, with yellow body gene (y) at
(d) the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to one end and bobbed hair (b) gene at the other
the pairs of autosomes end. The recombination frequency between
112. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants these two genes (y and b) should be [2003]
are generally located in [2003, 05] (a) 100% (b) 66%
(a) cytosol (c) > 50% (d) ≤ 50 %
118. Christmas disease is another name for [2003]
(b) chloroplast genome
(a) sleeping sickness
(c) mitochondrial genome
(b) haemophilia
(d) nuclear genome (c) hepatitis B
113. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long (d) Down's syndrome
days and N. tabacum flowers only during 119. Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in
short days. If raised in the laboratory under human males are examples of [2003]
different photoperiods, they can be induced (a) sex-determining traits
to flower at the same time and can be cross (b) sex linked traits
fertilized to produce self – fertile offspring. (c) sex limited traits
What is the best reason for considering (d) sex differentiating traits
N. sylvestris and N. tabacum to be separate
120. Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy
species ? [2003]
of chromosome number 21. What percentage
(a) They are morphologically distinct of offspring produced by an affected mother
(b) They cannot interbreed in nature and a normal father would be affected by this
disorder? [2003]
(c) They are reproductively distinct
(a) 25% (b) 100%
(d) They are physiologically distinct
(c) 75% (d) 50%
114. Which one of the following traits of garden
pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature ? 121. Lack of independent assortment of two genes
A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to
(a) Round seed shape [2003] [2004]
(b) Axial flower position (a) repulsion (b) recombination
(c) Green seed colour (c) linkage (d) crossing over
(d) Green pod colour 122. The recessive genes located on X-chromosome
115. The genes controlling the seven pea characters in humans are always [2004]
studied by Mendel are now known to be (a) lethal
located on how many different chromosomes ? (b) sub-lethal

(a) Four (b) Seven [2003] (c) expressed in males
(c) Six (d) Five (d) expressed in females
123. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal 128. In order to find out the different types of
genes A and B and is also hemizygous for gametes produced by a pea plant having the
hemophilic gene h. What proportion of his genotype AaBb, it should be crossed to a plant
sperms will be abh? [2004] with the genotype: [2005]
1 (a) AABB (b) AaBb
(a) (b) 32 (c) aabb (d) aaBB

129. At a particular locus, frequency of ‘A’ allele
1
(c) (d) is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be
16

124. A normal woman, whose father was colour- the frequency of heterozygotes in a random
blind is married to a normal man. The sons mating population at equilibrium? [2005]
would be [2004] (a) 0.36 (b) 0.16
(a) 75% colour-blind (c) 0.24 (d) 0.48
(b) 50% color-blind 130. The salivary gland chromosomes in the
(c) all normal dipteran larvae, are useful in gene mapping
(d) all colour-blind because: [2005]
125. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation (a) these are fused
in its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent (b) these are much longer in size
is taken as a male. During segregation of F2 (c) these are easy to stain
progenies that mutation is found in [2004] (d) They have endoreduplicated
(a) one-third of the progenies chromosomes.
(b) none of the progenies 131. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated
(c) all the progenies with haemolysis of: [2005]
(d) fifty percent of the progenies (a) leucocytes (b) lymphocytes
126. A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms (c) platelets (d) rBCs
[2004] 132. A woman with normal vision, but whose
(a) 8 different gametes and 64 different father was colour blind, marries a colour
zygotes blind man. Suppose that the fourth child of
(b) 4 different gametes and 16 different this couple was a boy. This boy [2005]
zygotes (a) may be colour blind or may be of normal
(c) 8 different gametes and 16 different vision
zygotes (b) must be colour blind
(d) 8 different gametes and 32 different
(c) must have normal colour vision
zygotes
(d) will be partially colour blind since he is
127. After a mutation at a genetic locus the
heterozygous for the colour blind mutant
character of an organism changes due to the
change in [2004] allele
(a) protein structure 133. Which of the following is not a hereditary
(b) DNA replication disease? [2005]
(c) protein synthesis pattern (a) Cystic fibrosis (b) Thalassemia
(d) RNA transcription pattern (c) Haemophilia (d) Cretinism
134. Haemophilia is more commonly seen 139. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's
in human males than in human females chorea are [2006]
because: [2005] (a) congenital disorders
(a) a greater proportion of girls die in (b) pollulant-induced disorders
infancy
(c) virus-related diseases
(b) this disease is due to a Y-linked recessive
mutation (d) bacteria - related diseases
(c) this disease is due to an X-linked recessive 140. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated
mutation from the African population because [2006]
(d) this disease is due to an X-linked (a) it is not a fatal disease
dominant mutation (b) it provides immunity against malaria
135. A women with 47 chromosomes due to three (c) it is controlled by dominant genes
copies of chromosome 21 is characterized
(d) it is controlled by recessive genes
by:
141. In Mendel’s experiment with garden pea,
(a) superfemaleness [2005]
round seed shape (RR) was dominant over
(b) triploidy
wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY)
(c) turner's syndrome
was dominant over green cotyledon (yy).
(d) down's Syndrome
What are the expected phenotypes in the F2
136. If a colour blind woman marries a normal generation of the cross RRYY × rryy? [2006]
visioned man, their sons will be [2006]
(a) only wrinkled seeds with yellow
(a) one-half colour blind and one-half cotyledons
normal
(b) only wrinkled seeds with g reen
(b) three-fourths colour blind and one-fourth cotyledons
normal
(c) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and
(c) all colour blind
wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
(d) all normal visioned (d) only round seeds with green cotyledons
137. Which one of the following is an example of 142. Test cross involves [2006]
polygenic inheritance ? [2006]
(a) crossing between two F1 hybrids
(a) Production of male honey bee
(b) crossing the F1 hybrid with a double
(b) Pod shape in garden pea recessive genotype
(c) Skin colour in humans (c) crossing between two genotypes with
(d) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa dominant trait
138. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by (d) crossing between two genotypes with
the [2006] recessive trait
(a) loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 143. Phenotype of an organism is the result of
5
(a) cytoplasmic effects and nutrition [2006]
(b) loss of half of the long arm of chromosome
(b) environmental changes and sexual
5
dimorphism
(c) trisomy of 21st chromosome
(c) genotype and environment interactions
(d) fertilization of an XX egg by a normal
Y-bearing sperm (d) mutations and linkages
144. How many different kinds of gametes will 150. A human male produces sperms with the
be produced by a plant having the genotype genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to
AABbCC ? [2006] two diallelic characters in equal proportions.
What is the corresponding genotype of this
(a) Four (b) Nine
person? [2007]
(c) Two (d) Three
(a) AaBB (b) AABb
145. A common test to find the genotype of a
(c) AABB (d) AaBb
hybrid is by [2007]
151. Which one of the following conditions
(a) crossing of one F2 progeny with female
in humans. is correctly matched with its
parent chromosomal abnormality/linkage? [2008]
(b) studying the sexual behaviour of F 1 (a) Klinefelters syndrome-44 autosomes +
progenies XXY
(c) crossing of one F1 progeny with male (b) Colour blindness - Y-linked
parent (c) Erythroblastosis foetalis - X-linked
(d) crossing of one F2 progeny with male (d) Downs syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO
152. Study the pedigree chart given below:
parent.
What does it show? [2009]
146. Two genes R and Y are located very close
on the chromosomal linkage map of maize
plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are
hybridized, the F2 segregation will show
[2007]
(a) segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
ratio
(b) segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
(c) higher number of the parental types
(d) higher number of the recombinant (a) I n h e r i t a n c e o f a c o n d i t i o n l i k e
types. phenylketonuria as an autosomal
147. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to recessive trait
green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is
(b) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not
crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio
possible
of yellow and green seeded plants would you
expect in F1 generation ? [2007] (c) Inheritance of a recessive sex - linked
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 disease like haemophilia
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 50 :50 (d) Inheritance of a sex -linked inborn error
148. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are of metabolism like phenylketonuria
[2007]] 153. The genetic defect - Adenosine deaminase
(a) discontinuous (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently
(b) antiparallel by: [2009]
(c) semi-conservative (a) administering adenosine deaminase
(d) parallel. activators.
149. Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an (b) introducing bone marrow cells producing
example of [2007] ADA into cells at early embryonic
stages.
(a) point mutation (c) enzyme replacement therapy.
(b) polygenic inheritance (d) periodic infusion of genetically engineered
(c) codominance lymphocytes having functional ADA
cDNA.
(d) chromosomal aberration.
154. Sickle cell anaemia is: [2009] 159. Select the correct statement from the ones
(a) caused by substitution of valine by given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
[2010]
glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of
(a) Tightly linked genes on the same
haemoglobin chromosome show higher
(b) caused by a change in a single base pair recombinations
of DNA (b) Genes far apart on the same chromosome
(c ) characterized by elongated sickle like show very few recombinations
(c) Genes loosely linked on the same
RBCs with a nucleus
chromosome show similar recombinations
(d) an autosomal linked dominant trait as the tightly linked ones
155. Select the incorrect statement from the (d) Tightly linked genes on the same
following: [2009] chromosome show very few
(a) Galactosemia is an inborn error of recombinations
160. Which one of the following symbols and its
metabolism
representation, used in human pedigree
(b) Small population size results in random analysis is correct? [2010]
genetic drift in a population
(c) Baldness is a sex -limited trait
(d) Linkage is an exception to the principle
of independent assortment in heredity
156. Point mutation involves: [2009]
(a) change in single base pair
(b) duplication
(c) deletion
(d) insertion 161. Infectious proteins are present in: [2010]
(a) Gemini viruses (b) Prions
157. Which one of the following cannot be
(c) Viroids (d) Satellite viruses
explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of 162. Which one of the following conditions
Dominance? [2010] correctly describes the manner of determining
(a) The discrete unit controlling a particular the sex in the given example? [2011]
character is called a factor (a) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ)
(b) Out of one pair of factors one is determine female sex in birds.
(b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine
dominant, and the other recessive
male sex in grasshopper
(c) Alleles do not show any blending and (c) XO condition in human as found in
both the characters recover as such in F2 Turner syndrome, determines female
generation. sex.
(d) Factors occur in pairs (d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX)
produce male in Drosophila.
158. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant
163. When two unrelated individuals or lines are
phenotype can be determined by : [2010]
crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often
(a) test cross superior to both parents. This phenomenon is
(b) dihybrid cross called: [2011]
(c) pedigree analysis (a) heterosis (b) transformation
(d) back cross (c) splicing (d) metamorphosis
164. Mutations can be induced with : [2011] 170. A normal- visioned man whose father was
(a) infra red radiations colour. blind, marries a woman whose father
was also colour blind. They have their first
(b) I AA child as a daughter. what are the chance that
(c) ethylene this child would be colour blind ? [2012]
(d) gamma radiations (a) 100% (b) zero percent
(c) 25% (d) 50 %
165. A person with unknown blood group under
171. Which one of the following is a wrong
ABO system, has suffered much blood loss
statement regarding mutations? [2012M]
in an accident and needs immediate blood
(a) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause
transfusion. His one friend who has a valid
frame-shift mutations.
certificate of his own blood type offers blood
(b) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal
donation without delay. What would have
aberrations.
been the type of blood group of the donor
(c) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens.
friend? [2011]
(d) Change in a single base pair of DNA does
(a) Type B (b) Type AB
not cause mutation.
(c) Type O (d) Type A
172. A test cross is carried out to [2012M]
166. Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves
(a) determine the genotype of a plant at F2.
crossing [2011M]
(b) predict whether two traits are linked.
(a) between two genotypes with recessive
trait (c) assess the number of alleles of a gene.
(b) between two F1 hybrids (d) determine whether two species or varieties
(c) the F1 hybrid with a double recessive will breed successfully.
genotype. 173. Represented below is the inheritance pattern
(d) between two genotypes with dominant of a certain type of traits in humans.
trait
167. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic
material came from the studies on a FEMALE MALE
MOTHER FATHER
[2011M]
(a) bacterium (b) fungus
Daughter Son
(c) viroid (d) bacterial virus
168. Which one of the following conditions of the
zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal
Which one of the following conditions could
human female child ? [2011M]
be an example of this pattern? [2012M]
(a) Two X chromosomes
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Only one Y chromosome
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Only one X chromosome
(c) Phenylketonuria
(d) One X and one Y chromosome
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
169. A certain road accident patient with unknown
174. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry
blood g roup needs immediate blood
and have sufficiently large number of children
transfusion. His one doctor friend at once
these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood
offers his blood.What was the blood group of
group: ‘AB’ blood group: ‘B’ blood group in
the donor? [2012]
1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein
(a) Blood group B (b) Blood group AB
electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’
(c) Blood group O (d) Blood group A
and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group 179. Genetic variation in a population arises due
individuals. This is an example of : to [NEET Kar. 2013]
[NEET 2013] (a) Mutations only
(a) incomplete dominance
(b) Recombination only
(b) Partial dominance
(c) Complete cominance (c) Mutations as well as recombination
(d) Codominance (d) Reproductive isolation and selection
175. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross 180. Which one is the incorrect statement with
in which the F1 generation resembles both the regards to the importance of pedigree
parents? [NEET 2013] analysis? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Law of dominance (a) It helps to trace the inheritance of a
(b) Inheritance of one gene specific trait
(c) Co-dominance
(b) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of
(d) Incomplete dominance
176. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, genetic information
which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what (c) It helps to understand whether the trait in
are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an question is dominant or recessive
affected child? [NEET 2013] (d) It confirms that the trait is linked to one
(a) 50% (b) 25% of the autosome
(c) 100% (d) no chance 181. In our society women are blamed for producing
177. Which of the following statements is not true
female children. Choose the correct answer for
of two genes that show 50% recombination
the sex-determination in humans
frequency? [NEET 2013]
(a) The genes are tightly linked [NEET Kar. 2013]
(b) T h e g e n e s s h o w i n d e p e n d e n t (a) Due to some defect in the women
assortment (b) Due to some defect like aspermia in
(c) If the genes are present on the same man
chromosome, they undergo more than (c) Due to the genetic make up of the
one crossovers in every meiosis particular sperm which fertilizes the egg
(d) T h e g e n e s m a y b e o n d i f f e r e n t
(d) Due to the genetic make up of the egg
chromosomes
178. The incorrect statement with regard to 182. Down’s syndrome in humans is due to
Haemophilia is : [NEET 2013] [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) It is a recessive disease (a) Two ‘Y’ chromosomes
(b) It is a dominant disease (b) Three ‘X’ chromosomes
(c) A single protein involved in the clotting (c) Three copies of chromosome 21
of blood is affected (d) Monosomy
(d) It is a sex-linked disease
Solutions
1. (d) Consideration of one character with inheritance involves the transmission
two contrasting conditions at one time of plasma gene from the maternal
contributed to Mendel's success in cytoplasm to the offspring.
proposing the laws of inheritance of 9. (b) On mating tt with Tt, 50% individual
traits. His choice of experimental plant offsprings are recessive and 50% are
as pea and use of statistical methods also heterozygous dominant.
contributed to his success. 10. (c) A gene may have more than two
2. (c) In haploid organisms ever y gene, alternative forms occupying the same
irrespective of dominant or recessive and locus on a chromosome such alleles
every mutation finds expression because are known as multiple alleles and the
there is only one allele for each gene in phenomenon is turned as multiple
the haploid individual. Recessive allele is allelism. ABO blood group has 3 alleles.
able to express as there is no alternative IO, IA or A, IB or B.
dominant allele for producing its masking 11. (c) In recessive epistasis, the recessive
alleles suppress the expression of a trait.
effect on recessive allele.
Recessive epistasis is a type of intergenic
3. (c) Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes and
interaction in which one non allelic gene
1 pair of sex chromosomes which are XX
can produce its effect independently in
in females and XY in males. So, everytime
the dominant state but second gene can
the chances of son or daughter is 50-50% produce its effect when they are present
depending upon which sex chromosome together. Here homozygous recessive
is contributed by father in sperm. allele for a gene mask the expression of
4. (a) Induced mutations are produced in dominant allele of another gene.
response to external factors of chemicals 12. (a) AaBB × aaBB on crossing gives 50%
called mutagens. In agriculture mutagens individuals having genotype AaBB and
are used to induce desired mutations in 50% individuals having genotype aaBB.
crop plants. Parent : AaBB × aaBB
5. (a) Chromosomes occur in homologous pairs.
Somatic cells have diploid number of Gametes : AB aB × aB
chromosomes. Humans have 23 pairs i.e.
46 chromosomes. 22 pairs of autosomes aB
F1 AB
and 1 pair of sex chromosomes ie. XX in
females and XY in males. AaBB aaBB
6. (c) Two linked genes a and b show 20% aB
recombination. The individuals of a
dihybrid cross between + + / + + × ab/ 13. (b) Nucleosomes are oblate spherical
ab shall show gametes + + 40 : ab40: + a structure having an octamer of four
10 : +b : 10. histone proteins (constituting 2 molecules
7. (a) Triticale is a man made cereale produced of each type).
by crossing two generate wheat (Triticum) 14. (a) The probability of the daughter becoming
colour blind arises only when the father
and rye (Secale). Hexaploid Triticale was
is also colour blind.
obtained by crossing Triticum durum and Husband – XY
Secale cereale. Wife – XXC (wife is carrier because
8. (c) Maternal inheritance or cytoplasmic her father is colour blind)
XY × C 22. (d) Dihybrid condition involves simultaneous
XX
inheritance of two pairs of mendelian
Normal Normal (Carrier)
factors or genes.
XX
C
XY
C
X Y
23. (c) According to the law of Independent
XX
Assortment, alleles of different characters
Normal Normal Normal Colour blind
daughter daughter son son located in different pairs of homologous
(Carrier) chromosomes are independent of one
So, probability of their daughter becoming another in their separation or segregation
colour blind is 0%. during gamete formation.
15. (d) Phenylketonuria is a human genetic 24. (b) Gregor Johann Mendel formulated the
disorder in which the body does not laws of heredity and is regarded as the
contain the enzyme phenylalanine father of genetics.
hydroxylase, necessary to metabolize 25. (b) Allelomorphs control different expressions
phenylalanine to tyrosine, and converts or traits of the same character.
phenylalanine instead to phenylpyruvic 26. (d) Blood groups in human are controlled by
acid. As PKU is an autosomal recessive multiple alleles.
genetic disorder each parent must have 27. (d) I A I O × I A I B gives us the following
at least one defective allele of the gene genotypes IAIA, IOIB, IAIB.
for PAH, and the child must inherit a 28. (b) The genotype of the mother was to be
defective allele from each parent. As either XC XC or XCX and that of father
such, it is possible for a parent with a XCY so that the daughter becomes colour
PKU phenotype to have a child without blind.
PKU if the other parent possesses at 29. (d) Homozygous individuals have identical
least one functional allele of the gene mendelian factors or genes for a character
for PAH. A child of two parents with (TT or tt). They are always pure for a
the PKU phenotype will always receive
particular trait (character).
two defective alleles so will always have
30. (a) At anaphase I, actual segregation occurs,
PKU. The gene for PAH is located on
but two similar alleles occur in the dyad
chromosome 12, at location 12q22-
chromosome which separate at anaphase
q24.2.
16. (d) Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive trait II.
carried by X chromosome (also known as 31. (c) Genotype is the genetic make up of an
bleeder’s disease). individual irrespective of the mendelian
17. (d) Bateson and Punnett (1906) discovered characters or genes impressing.
coupling and repulsion in sweet pea
(Lathyrus odoratus).
Parent : AABB × aabb
18. (b) Down’s syndrome is due to trisomy of Gametes : AB ab
21st chromosome and is an autosomal
abnormality. F1 : AaBb

19. (b) Incomplete dominance is the phenomenon
of none of the alleles being dominant, Selfing : AB AB
Ab aB aB ab ab
Ab
with the effect that the hybrid produced AB AABB
Gametes : AABb AaBB AaBb
by crossing two pure individuals is a AB AaBB AABB AaBB AaBB
Ab
F : AABb
2 AAbb AaBb Aabb
mixture between the parents.
AABBaB – 1 AaBBAb AABb
AaBb AAbb
aaBB AaBb
aaBbAabb
20. (d) The allele which cannot impress its
effect in the hybrid or in the presence of ab
AaBB – 2 AaBb Aabb
AaBB aaBb aabbaaBb
AaBb aaBB
aB
dominant allele is termed as recessive. It
32. Aabb – 2
(a) Epistasis is the AaBb
phenomenon
is denoted by small letter. ab Aabb of masking
aaBb aabb
21. (a) The brown eyed man will have the aabbor– 1supressing the phenotypic impression
genotype Bb and his wife bb. Hence Bb of a gene pair by a non allelic gene pair
× bb = Bb : bb. Hence ratio is 1 : 1. which impresses its own effect.
33. (a) Dominant alleles expresses itself in the cytoplasm are transmitted to offspring
homozygous as well as heterozygous hence this type of inheritance is termed
condition. It is denoted by capital letter. as cytoplasmic or maternal inheritance.
34. (d) The genotype of the child would be IºIº 40. (b) Law of independent assortment is
(recessive). Hence the genotype of the applicable to only those factors or
father can only be IBIO. genes which are located on different
chromosomes. Probably the characters
35. (c) Turner syndrome encompassess several were present on same chromosome and
chromosomal abnormalities, of which showed linkage which Mendel might not
monosomy X is the most common. It have studied.
occurs in 1 out of every 2500 female 41. (a) Polygenic inheritance show cumulative
births. Instead of the normal XX sex effect i.e. two independent dominant
chromosomes for a female, only one genes produce additive effect on an
X chromosome is present and fully individual.
functional. This is called 45,X or 45,X0, 42. (d) The four histone proteins constituting the
although other genetic variants occur. core of nucleosome are H2A, H2B, H3,
In Turner syndrome, female sexual H4.
characteristics are present but generally 43. (b) Sex of human body is determined by the
karyotype of the zygote or fertilized egg.
underdeveloped.
Sex of the baby depends upon the sperm
36. (d) Down's syndrome is due to non-disjunction which fertilizes the ovum.
of chromosomes. Non-disjunction means 44. (d) It was genetically modified to get high
absence of sepration of two homologous lipid contents.
X chromosomes during anaphase-I of 45. (a) The haploid organisms readily express the
meiosis. Both X-chromosomes go together phenotypes of the new mutations because
to same pole. Other pole will receive no there is no hindrance of dominance.
X-chromosome. 46. (d) Chromosome mapping is based on the
37. (a) When a colour blind woman marries a fact that genes are linearly arranged on the
normal man the recessive homozygous
chromosome and frequency of crossing
gene is expressed in sons whereas the
over is directly proportional to the
daughters become carriers.
c c distance between two genes. Dominant
X X × XY genes show cis arrangement. At 50 map
Colourblind Mother Normal Father
units cis is changed to trans & vice-versa
hence no fixed linkage is present.
c c
Gametes : X X × X Y 47. (c) Since half the sons are haemophilic so
the genes for haemophilia is located on
X-chromosome of mother.
c c c c H
XX XX XY XY XX × XY
Mother Father
Carrier daughter Colourblind son
H H
XX XY X X X Y
Normal Normal Carrier Haemophilic
daughter son daughter son
38. (c) In Neurospora, products of meiosis
remain linearly arranged and undergo 48. (b) Due to linkage the genes present on
one mitosis. Crossing over occurs in four
same chromosome stay together during
strand stage.
transmission. All other combinations
39. (b) Plasma genes present in the maternal
except AABB × aabb show recombination
which do not show linkage and hence not both express themselves when together in
suitable for experiments on linkage. an individual.
49. (c) Genotype of Mr. Kapoor will be Bb 56. (b) A gynandromorph is an organism
d-hence one fourth of the sperms will have that contains both male and female
Bd. characteristics. These characteristics can
be seen in butterflies, where both male
50. (d) On crossing carrier colour-blind woman and female characteristics can be seen
with a normal man, the sons become physically because of sexual dimorphism.
colour blind. This is an example of A gynandromorph can have bilateral
criss cross inheritance. The genes for symmetry, one side female and one side
colourblindness is coming from mother's male, or they can be mosaic, a case in
father. which the two sexes aren’t defined as
51. (d) The women is heterozygous as albinic clearly.
condition is recessive hence when she 57. (d) Holandric genes are present on the
marries an albinic man, the offsprings are differential region of the Y-chromosome.
50% normal and 50% albinic. The differential regions carry completely
sex linked genes and they do not undergo
52. (d) Genotype is the genetic make up of an
crossing over.
organism. The given 4 genotypes are
58. (a) The pseudoalleles are two genetic loci
present in 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 ratio.
producing identical phenotypes in cis as
53. (b) Inbreeding leads to the expression of well as trans position.
recessive characters, most of the time 59. (d) A barr body is one of the X-chromosomes
which are harmful. in somatic cells of females. If there are more
54. (c) The two factors of each trait arrange or X-chromosomes, then there will be more
assort at random and are independent of barr bodies.
each other in their distribution into the 60. (b) Polytene chromosomes are also called
gametes and in the progeny. giant chromosomes. They consist of
numerous parallel identical chromatids
Parent : TTyy × ttYY
due to repeated duplication without
Gametes : Ty tY division. They were first time observed
by Balbiani in the salivary glands of
F1 : TtYy Chironomus.
Gametes : TY Ty tY ty 61. (d) Sickle cell anaemia (in which nucleotide
triplet CTC is changed to CAC) affects
Selfing : the β-globin chain of haemoglobin. Since
TTYY TTYy TtYY TtYy
F2 : TY these changes occur at a particular locus
T T T T or point of a chromosome where specific
TTYy TTyy TtYy Ttyy gene is located, they are called as point
Ty mutation.
T T T T
62. (a) The change in the colour of peppered
TtYY TtYy ttYY ttYy moth is due to the mutation of single
tY mendelian gene for the survival in the
T T D D
smoke-laden industrial environment. It
TtYy Ttyy ttYy ttyy
ty is called Industrial melanism.
T T D D
63. (a) Epistasis is the suppression of the normal
phenotypic expression of the gene by a
Tall (T) - 12; Dwarf (D) - 4 non-allelic gene. Complimentary genes
55. (a) AB blood group possess the genotype IAIB. are two independent genes present on
The alleles IA and IB are codominant as different gene loci which assist each other
in expressing a trait . Supplementary of chromosome number 21. In Turner’s
genes are two independent genes present syndrome, the effect appears due to fusion
on different gene loci, each of which may of a gamete without sex chromosome
produce its own trait and interact when and a gamete with one X-chromosome
present together in dominant state to (44 + X). Klinefelter individuals are
produce a new trait. phenotypically males. The defect appears
64. (c) Hermaphrodite or bisexual refers to due to fusion of egg having unreduced
an organism having both male and sex complement (A + X X) with a gamete
female sex organs. Gynandromorphs are carrying Y chromosome (44 + XXY).
individuals who exhibit both male and Gynandromor phism occur among
female characteristics. Drosophila. In such individuals one half
65. (d) According to the principle of dosage of the body shows male characters and
compensation, one of the two X the other half shows female characters.
chromosomes in a female are inactivated
73. (c) Down’s syndrome caused by trisomy
at random. The inactivate X chromosome 21, arises due to an occassional non
appears as the barr body. disjunction during meiosis when a gamete
66. (d) Klinefelter's syndrome is formed by the comes to possess an extra chromosome
union of an XX egg and a normal Y (n+1). Fusion with a normal gamete
sperm or normal X egg and abnormal [n + (n+1)] produces trisomy.
XY sperm. The individual has 47 74. (a) Mental retardness is usually found
chromosomes (44 + XXY). when there are more than two X
67. (b) The daughters receive one X chromosome chromosomes. About 1% of all mentally
from the father and one X chromosome defective men have one or more extra X
chromosomes.
from the mother. Since all the daughters
suffer from their father’s disease, the X 75. (d) Inversion is a change in chromosomal
chromosome from the father must be architecture in which part of the
chromosome gets inverted in its position
carrying a dominant trait.
so that the sequence of the genes in the
68. (b) H.J. Muller - study of effect of radiation
inverted region is reversed. In deletion a
on the living organisms. He was awarded
segment of a chromosome breaks and
the nobel prize for discovering that
is lost. Monosomy is a type of deletion
ionizing radiations can induce gene
mutations. involving deficiency of one chromosome
69. (a) In sex determination, the male specific (2n - 1). In reciprocal translocation there
chromosome will have half as much is a mutual exchange of segments between
chance as the other to enter the egg cell. two non homologous chromosomes.
Hence the proportion will be 1 : 1. 76. (b) XhcXh × XY h→ haemophili
70. (d) Male sterlity occur due to cytoplasmic
Female Male C→ colour blindness
or cytoplasmic- genenic inheritance, i.e.,
hc hc
due to DNA present in mitochondrion X X X Y Xh X Xh Y
or chloroplast under the i.e. control of daughter haemophilic daughter haemophilic
extra-nuclear gene.
(carrier) Colourblind (carrier) son
71. (c) Allosomes or sex chromosomes determine
son
the sex of the individual. The rest of the
chromosomes are known as autosome. 77. (a) A child will be albino only if it is
Nucleolus is a cell organelle involved in homozygous for albinism genes (since
synthesis of ribosomes. albinism is a recessive character). As
72. (b) Down’s syndrome develops due to trisomy parents have normal skin, it means they
are hetrozygous. As a result of cross 86. (a) The mother must have been a haemophilic
between two heterozygous parents, 25% carrier (XhX). One of the twins would
of the children will be homozygous have inherited the normal X chromosome
recessive. The nature of the second and the other would have received the
child is not affected in any way by the X chromosome carrying the gene for
nature of the first child because both are haemophilia.
independent events. 87. (b) Normal woman whose father was colour
78. (d) Crossing over involves physical exchange blind would have received the X will be
of genetic material between non sister chromosome from her father − X c Y →
chromatids of homologous chromosomes, Parents : (P1) : ( ) X c X × X c Y ( )
which leads to recombination. ↓
79. (b) Three types of genome, occur in a
typical green plant cell - nuclear genome, Progeny (F1) : Xc Xc Xc X Xc Y XY
mitochondrial genome and chloroplast colour normal colour normal
genome. blind daughter blind son
80. (b) If Mendel had studied a plant with daughter son
12 chromosomes, he would have 88. (c) The number of base pairs (bp) found in
encountered linked genes, and hence he one genome of man is 3 × 109.
would not have arrived at principle of 89. (c) In human the Y chromosome bears the
independent assortment androgenic factor or the male determining
81. (b) Different types of gametes produced will factor. Whereas in Drosophila the ratio
be ABC, AbC, ABc, Abc of sex chromosomes to autosomes
82. (a) Molecular weight of chromosome of is the factor determining sex of the
yeast cell is 2.56 × 109. individual.
83. (a) Somatic mutation is the mutation 90. (c) Downs syndrome develops due to
occurring in somatic or body cells.
trisomy of the 21st chromosome. Affected
Mutations occurring in germ cells which
individual possess a characteristic
are transferable to the progeny is called
appearance. They have short stature,
germinal mutation. Mutation occuring
in genes is called genetic mutation. small round heads, broad forehead,
84. (a) open mouth and projecting lower lip
Parents : Tt × tt (Mongoloid idiocy).
91. (a) Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs
Gametes : T t × t when a Rh– mother conceives a Rh+
Progeny : T t child. Mother’s blood starts producing
antibodies against the foetal red blood
t Tt tt cells.
92. (b) Round seed shape is dominant over
Ratio = 1 : 1
wrinkled. Yellow seed colour is dominant
85. (a) During industrial revolution in England over green seed colour Axial flower
the frequency of melanic forms of species position is dominant over terminal.
of Peppered Moth (Biston betularia) 93. (a) Parent : RRTt × rrtt
increased in polluted areas. Generally
the moths are light coloured. This Gametes : RT , Rt rt
change in colour is known as "Industrial
melanism". The change was presumed Offspring : RrTt Rrtt
to be a result of natural selection since tall with tall with
the melanic moths better matched the Ratio = 1 : 1 red fruit yellow fruit
blackened tree trunks where they rest 94. (b) Independent assortment of genes takes
during day. place only when they are located on
separate non-homologus chromosomes. Euploidy is the phenomenon of having
Where two or more than two genes multiple or more than twice the number
are located on same chromosome, of genome.
independent assortment will not be 103. (a) One bar body is present in each somatic
possible.
cell of female (XX).
95. (a) According to principle of dominance, out
104. (a) Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic
of the two factors of alleles representing
different traits of a character, only one disorder caused by a defective allele
expresses itself. But when both express on chromosome 11. Hemophilia is a
themselves it is codominance. sex linked recessive disorder. Down's
96. (d) In complementary gene action, both the syndrome is caused by trisomy of the
non allelic pair independently produce 21st chromosome.
similar phenotypes and when present
105. (b) AIDS is a viral disease. Syphilis and
together produce a new phenotype. So,
gonorrhoea are both sexually transmitted
that F2 ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 would become
9 : 7. diseases. Colour blindness is a sex linked
97. (b) Natural selection operates through disease.
differential reproduction. Genetic drift106. (c)
is random change in the allele number 107. (c) A dominant gene would lead to the
and frequency in a gene pool. expression of its phenotype irrespective
98. (b) In eukaryotic cells, two cytoplasmic of the fact whether its allelic gene is
organelles, mitochondria and chloroplast
dominant or recessive.
of green plants, contain their own genetic
materials. 108. (a) Sex linked disorders follow criss-cross
99. (d) inheritance pattern that affected father
100. (c) ( ) ( ) passes it on to their daughters. The
Parents XX × XY daughters receive one of their X -
XY XX XX XY XY chromosome from their fathers.
offsprings daughters sons 109. (b)
2 1 F1 parent : AABbCC × AABbCC
probability of son =
4 2 Gametes : ABC AbC
4 ABC AABBCC AABbCC

1 1
probability of four son =−   =
2
  16
AbC AABbCC AAbbCC
101. (b) Parents : AB/ab × ab/ab
Gametes : AB ab × ab AABBCC – 1, AABbCC – 2, AAbbCC – 1

Genotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1
110. (a) a − b = 20 %, b − c = 28 %, a − c = 8%
AB ab
F1 : b 20 a c
units 8 units
ab AaBb aabb

102. (b) Aneuploidy is numerical change in the 28 units
chromosome number in the genome.
Percent crossing over between two genes Distances between genes is expressed
is proportional to the distance between as map units, where, one map unit is
them. defined as 1 per cent recombination.
111. (b) Calvin Bridges demonstrated that in 118. (b)
Drosophila, the sex is determined by ratio 119. (d) Sex linked traits are those like colour
of the number of X chromosomes to the blindness or hemophilia, which show
sets of autosomes. criss-cross pattern of inheritance of
112. (a) Male sterility in plants can be controlled certain genes together along with sex
by nuclear genes or cytoplasm or by both. determining genes, because of their
Three different mechanisms for control
presence on the sex chromosomes. Sex
of male sterility in plants are :
limited characters express their effects
(i) Genetic male sterility; (ii) Cytoplasmic
only in one sex and not the other. Sex
male sterility; (iii) Cytoplasmic genetic
influenced characters appear due to the
male sterility. In Maize the genes for
effect of particular sex hormone over
cytoplasmic control of male sterility are
different structures.
located in cytoplasm.
120. (d) 50% of ova will have (n + 1) chromosome
113. (c) Similar species show interbreeding
characters, i.e., two organisms which which would, on fertilisation, yield
breed freely in nature to produce abnormal zygotes (n + 1) + (n) = 2n + 1.
fertile offsprings belong to the same 121. (c) The lack of independent assortment
species. The two species are considered in sweet pea and Drosophila is due to
separate because they are reproductively linkage.
distinct. 122. (c) Males have only one X - chromosome.
114. (c) Yellow seed colour is dominant over Hence any gene present on the lone X -
green seed colour. chromosome expresses itself in males.
115. (a) The seven traits are now know to Females have two X- chromosomes .
be present on 4 chromosome. But The mutant allele must be present on
they do not show linkage, because of both the X-Chromosomes to express
large distances between them on the itself phenotypically. If only one copy
chromosome. of allele present, then the female only
116. (c) Dihybrid cross is made between becomes a carrier showing no external
individuals having contrasting traits in manifestation of the gene. Sublethal
order to study the inheritance of two condition can never arise in males.
pairs of alleles. Test cross is a back cross
between individual with a dominant 1
123. (a) Chance of getting a =
trait and its recessive parent to know 2
whether the individual is homozygous 1
Chance of getting b =
or heterozygous for the trait. 2
117. (b) Mapping of genes on chromosomes Chance of getting h = 1
is based on the assumption that genes 2
are arranged on the chromosome and Chance of getting sperms with
that the percentage of crossing over 1 1 1 1
abh = × × =
(recombination frequency) between two 2 2 2 8
genes is an index of their distance apart.
124. (b) Normal woman with colour blind father q2 = homozygous recessive.
would be a carrier Frequency of heterozygous individuals
Woman (XcX) × Normal man (XY) = 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48.
130. (d) Polytene chromosomes were first
Progeny XcX XX XcY XY
normal normal colour blind normal reported by EG Balbiani in 1881. They
but carrier daughter son son
daughter are quite common in salivary glands of
insects and are therefore popularly called
50% of the sons would be colour blind. salivary gland chromosomes. Polytene
125. (b) Mitochondria is an organelle present chromosomes also occur in other organs
in the cytoplasm. A zygote receives of insects antipodal cells (of embryo
its cytoplasm from the female parent sac), endosperm cells and suspensor
gamete. Hence in the given question, cell of embryo. The chromosomes can
the F 2 progenies do not receive the reach length of 200 µm and contain
mitochondrial genome from the male 1000 to 16000 times DNA as compared
parent and mutation is not passed to to the ordinary somatic chromosomes.
progenies. The giant chromosomes are formed by
126. (a) A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms somatic pairing between homologous
8 different gametes and 64 different chromosomes, and repeated replication
zygotes. The genotype of trihybrid (endomitosis) of their chromatids.
plant is AaBbCc. Number of gametes 131. (d) Glucose-6-P dehydrogenase is the first
formed = 2n = 23 = 8 Here n = no. of enzyme of glucose oxidation during
heterozygosity = 3 in present case. Pentose Phosphate Pathway. RBC
No. of zygotes formed = 82 = 64. contain haemoglobin which combines
127. (a) Change in genetic locus, changes the with oxygen to form oxyhaemoglobin
gene and in turn the amino acid it codes which gives its oxygen for oxidation of
for. This alters the nature of protein food. In haemolysis there is destruction
synthesized which produces change in of RBCs with release of haemoglobin
the organism. DNA replication is not into plasma resulting in juandice. So,
affected neither the method of protein now RBCs cannot provide oxygen
synthesis. Synthesis of RNA over DNA for oxidation of food thereby causing
template is called transcription. deficiency of G-6-P dehydrogenase.
128. (c) In order to find out the gamete or the 132. (a) Since the woman’s father was colour
genotype of an unknown individual, blind. She would be a carrier of the
Scientists perform a test cross. In test colour blindness gene. When she marries
cross the individual in question is crossed a colour blind man. Their progeny could
with the homozygous recessive parent. be
Hence the answer is aabb. Parent XcX × XcY
129. (d) The mathematical expression to Carrier Woman Colour blind Man
calculate allele frequency can be given as Progeny XcXc XcY XXc XY
p + q = 1. Where p represents the Colour Carrier
frequency of dominant allele and q blind son doughter
represents the frequency of recessive 133. (d) Cystic fibrosis : It is a common disorder
allele. The bionomial expression of Hardy of caucasian race in which thick and more
Weinberg’s law to calculate genotype salty mucus blocks the respiratory tract.
frequency is p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 The homozygous recessive condition
where p2 = homozygous dominant produces the defective protein which
2pq = heterozygous dominant regulates chloride transport channel.
Cretinism : In this disorder the physical 139. (a) Sickle cell anaemia is a biochemical
growth, mental growth and sexual disorder in which shape of RBCs become
growth in children is retarded. Such a sickle-shaped due to the defective
dwarf and sterile child is called a cretin. haemoglobin. Haemoglobin becomes
It is due to hyposecretion of thyroid useless for oxygen transport.
hormones. Huntington Chorea in a disease in which
atrophy of brain occurs resulting to
Thalassemia : Due to defective production respiratory irragulations, articulation of
of α or β chains of haemoglobin, speech and irregular limbs movements
autosomal recessive. take place. They both are genetic disease
Haemophilia : Sex linked disorder due present in any person since birth hence
to defective recessive gene. congenital diseases.
134. (c) This disease is due to an x-linked 140. (b) In sickle cell anaemia RBCs become
recessive mutation. Males suffer this sickle shaped which are not supportive
for the growth of malarial parasite
disorder since they have only one X
Plasmodium so it provides immunity
chromosome and hence express any trait against malaria disease.
on this chromosome. 141. (c)
135. (d) Down's syndrome is caused by the
P-generation – RRYY rryy
presence of an extra chromosome
number 21 and the off spring has 47 (Round seed ×
(wrinkled seed
yellow cotyledon) green cotyledon)
chromosomes.
Gametes : RY ry
136. (c) Colour blindness in a X-chromosome
linked character. So they’ll be having all F1 generation – RrYy (all heterozygous
colour blind sons and carrier daughters. round seeded and
C C yellow cotyledon)
XY X X Selfing
RY Ry rY ry
RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy
C RY Round seed Round seed Round seed Round seed
XX C yellow coty. yellow coty. yellow coty. yellow coty.
carrier C XX C
X Y RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
daughter X Y carrier colour blind Ry Round seed Round seed Round seed Round seed
F2 generation
colour blind daughter son yellow coty. green coty. yellow coty. green coty.
son
RrYY RrYy
rY Round seed Round seed
137. (c) Polygenic inheritance is the inheritance yellow coty. yellow coty.
of traits which are dependent on the ry

RrYy Rryy
Round seed Round seed
no. of genes such as the skin colour of yellow coty. green coty.
human beings. eg. AABB is black AaBB

in neither dark nor black. AaBb is again So the ratio of round seeded with
wheatish Aabb is light and aabb is white yellow cotyledons : Round seeded green
cotyledons : Wrinkled seeded yellow
colour. cotyledons : Wrinkle seeded green
138. (a) Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans caused cotyledons in 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. So in the F2
by the partial deletion of the short arm generation the round seeded character
of chromosome no. 5. In this child remains with yellow cotyledons &
wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons.
has abnormalities in his/her facial
142. (b) A cross of F1 hybrid with its recessive
expressions, mental retardation, speak homozygous parent is called the test
like and they cry like that of cat, heart cross. It is done to determine the genotype
does not work properly. of a given plant. If the given plant has
homozygous dominant traits then on Gg × gg
test cross it gives all dominant trait plants
but if it is heterozygous dominant than it
gives dominant and recessive phenotypes G
g g g
in 1 : 1 ratio.
143. (c) Phenotype is the appearance one
organism shows while genotype is
the gene complement it has from its
ancestors. These genes only show their Gg gg Gg
gg
effect in phenotype but environment
also plays an important role in this hence ( yellow ) (green) (green) (yellow)
phenotype is a result of genotype and
environmental interaction. So, the ratio will be 50 : 50
144. (c) It would make only two types of gametes, 148. (b) The two chains are antiparallel, one
these are ABC & AbC. aligned in 5’→3’ direction the other in
145. (c) crossing of one F1 progeny with male 3’ → 5’ direction.
149. (b) Inheritance of skin colour in human is
parent. e.g
controlled by three genes, A B and C
which is polygenic inheritance.
150. (d)
Aa Bb
A a B b
AB
Ab aB ab

So, the corresponding genotype will be
AaBb.
To find the genotype of hybrid test cross 151. (a) Klinefelter's syndrome is a genetic
is done. disorder affecting men in which an
individual gains an extra X chromosome,
146. (c) When the linked genes are situated quite so that the usual Karyotype of XY is
close, the chances of crossing over are replaced by one of XXY. Symptoms
highly reduced. Due to this, large number of Klinefelter's syndrome named after
of parental gametes are formed and only us physician H.P. Klinefelter, include
female characteristics (such as breast
few recombinant gametes are formed.
enlargement).
This results in higher number of parental 152. (a) The chart shows the inheritance of a
types in F2 generation as compared to condition like phenylketonuria as an
recombinants. autosomal recessive trait. Parents’ needs
147. (d) Let GG ⇒ homozygous yellow seed to be heterozygous as two of their children
are known to be sufferer of the disease.
plant.
It cannot be recessive sex linked
Gg ⇒ heterozygous green inheritance because then the male parent
gg ⇒ homozygous green would also be sufferer.
According to the question : 153. (b) By introducing bone marrow cells
producing ADA into cells at early
embryonic stages, the genetic defect homozygous or heterozygous.
adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency 159. (d) Linkage is the inheritance of genes of
may be cured permanently. It is due to same chromosome together and capacity
mutation. of these genes to retain their parental
154. (b) Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a change combination in subsequent generation.
in a single base pair of DNA. Sickle-cell The strength of linkage between two
anaemia is the name of a specific form genes is inversely proportional to the
of sickle-cell disease in which there is distance between the two. This means,
homozygosity for the mutation that two linked genes show higher frequency
causes HbS. Sickle-cell disease, or sickle- of recombination if the distance between
cell anaemia (or drepanocytosis), is a them is higher and lower frequency if the
life-long blood disorder characterized by distance is smaller.
red blood cells that assume an abnormal, 160. (a) Pedig ree analysis is a record of
rigid, sickle shape. Sickling decreases the the occurrence of a trait in several
cells flexibility and results in a risk of generations of a human family. In this\
various complications. ‘
male members are shown by squares and
155. (c) Baldness is a sex influenced trait. The female by circles. Sibs are represented
dominance of alleles may differ in horizontally on a line in order of birth.
heterozygotes of the two sexes. It helps us in giving information about
156. (a) A point mutation is a simple change in genotype of an individual for trait under
one base of the gene sequence. This is investigation.
equivalent to changing one letter in a 161. (b) Infections proteins are rich in prions.
sentence, such as this example, where Prions are made of proteins without
we change the ‘e’ in cat to an ‘h’: nucleic acid. It is the causal agent of
Original: The fat cat ate the wee rat. scrapie disease of sheep.
Point Mutation: The fat hat ate the wee 162. (b) In grasshopper the males lack a Y-sex
rat. c h r o m o s o m e a n d h ave o n ly a n
157. (c) According to Mendel’s law of Dominance, X-chromosome. They produce sperm cells
out of two contrasting allelomorphic that contain either an X chromosome or
factors only one expresses itself in an no sex chromosome, which is designated
individual. The factor that expresses as O.
itself is called dominant while the other 163. (a) Heterosis or hybrid vigor occurs when two
which has not shown its effect in the unrelated individuals or lines are crossed,
heterozygous individual is termed as the performance of F1 hybrid, which is
recessive. The option (c ) in the given often superior to both is parents.
question cannot be explain-ed on the 164. (d) Mutation can be induced by gamma
basis of law of dominance. It can only be radiation.
explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law 165. (c) Type O blood group is considered
of independent assortment, according to the universal donor blood group. It
which in a dihybrid cross, the two alleles can potentially be transfused to any
of each character assort independently of patient regardless of their blood type. In
the alleles of other character and separate emergency situation, this type of blood
at the time of gamete formation. can be given to the patient.
158. (a) Test cross is the cross of an individual 166. (c) In test cross, genotype of an organism
with an individual having recessive show i ng dom i na nt phe not y pe is
phenotype. It is used to determine determined by crossing it with homozygous
the genotype of a plant showing the recessive genotype.
dominant phenotype, that means to 167. (d) Bacteriophage was used by Hershey
determine whether the individual and Chase to prove DNA as genetic
exhibiting dominating characters are matterial.
168. (a) Two X chromosomes would lead to the AA → normal child (25%)
birth of normal human female child. Aa → carriers child (50%)
169. (c) Blood group O acts as universal donor. aa → affected child (25%)
170. (b) If a normal visioned man marries a woman 177. (a) Tightly linked genes show more linkage
whose father was also colourblind. Then then crossing over.
his wife would be carried of this disease if 178. (b) Haemophilia is sex linked recessive
her mother was normal. This trait passed disease in which a simple protein that
in to children but daughters produce by is a part of protein cascade involved in
this couple are carrier not the colourblind.
clotting of blood is affected. Due to this,
50% of sons would be colourblind.
in an affected individual a simple cut will
171. (d) Change in single base pair of DNA is
result in non stop bleeding.
also a type of mutations called point
mutations. It is a type of mutation that 179. (c) Crossing over leads to recombination of
causes the replacement of a single base genetic material on the two chromosomes.
nucleotide with another nucleotide of Mutation results in alternation of DNA
the genetic material, DNA or RNA. For sequences and consequently results
example, a point mutation is the cause of in change in the genotype and the
sickle cell disease. phenotype of an organism. In addition
172. (a) A test cross, first introduced by Gregor to recombination, mutation is another
Mendel, is used to determine if an phenomenon that leads to variation in
individual exhibiting a dominant trait DNA.
is homozygous or heterozygous for 180. (b) Pedigree is a chart showing the record of
that trait. It takes place between F1 - inheritance of certain genetic traits for
Generation and recessive parent. two or more ancestral generations of an
173. (b) The inheritance pattern of a particular individual, abnormality or disease.
trait hown in the above picture results 181. (c) In case of humans, the sex determining
in haemophilia. Haemophilia is a group mechanism is xy type. Out of 23 pairs
of inherited blood disorders in which of chromosomes, 22 pairs are exactly
the blood does not clot properly. It is same in both males and females called
caused by a fault in one of the genes that autosomes. A pair of x-chromosomes
determine how the body makes blood
present in the female, whereas the
clotting factor VIII or IX. These genes
presence of an x and y chromosome are
are located on the X chromosome.
determinant of male characteristic. in case
174. (d) ABO blood group system in human beings
the ovum fertilises with a sperm carrying
is an example of codominant, dominant
recessive and multiple alletes. Blood x-chromosome the zygote develops into a
groups are controlled by the gene I female (xx) and the fertilisation of ovum
located on 9 th chromosome that with y-chromosome carrying sperm
has 3 multiple alleles, out of which results into a male offspring.
any two are found in a person. In 182. (c) Down’s syndrome is the chromosomal
codominance both gene express it self disorders due to the presence of an
completely. additional copy of the chromosome
175. (c) In Co-dominance F1 generation resemble number 21 (trisomy of 21). The affected
both the parents. Ex : Blood group individual is short statured with small
inheritance. round head, furrowed tongue and partially
176. (b) Genotype of carrier parents is – Aa open mouth and mental development is
(male parent) × Aa (female parent) retarted.
A a 
A AA Aa
a Aa *aa
HAPTER
C
28 Molecular Basis of
Inheritance
1. Genetic code consists of [1988] 7. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of
(a) cdenine and guanine (a) serine and isoleucine [1992]
(b) cytosine and uracil (b) cysteine and valine
(c) cytosine and guanine (c) tyrosine and tryptophan
(d) all the above (d) phenylalanine and methionine
2. DNA replication is [1989, 2000] 8. Experimental material in the study of DNA
(a) conservative and discontinuous replication has been [1992]
(b) s e m i c o n s e r v a t i v e a n d s e m i (a) Escherichia coli
discontinuous (b) Neurospora crassa
(c) semiconservative and discontinuous
(c) Pneumococcus
(d) conservative
(d) Drosophila melanogaster
3. In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons
9. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen
as [1990]
(a) 64 amino acids are to be coded by [1993]
(b) 64 types of tRNAs are present (a) X-ray crystallography
(c) there are 44 nonsense codons and 20 (b) electron microscope
sense codons (c) ultracentrifuge
(d) genetic code is triplet. (d) light microscope
4. A nucleotide is formed of [1991] 10. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would
(a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate most probably be [1993]
(b) purine, sugar and phosphate (a) single stranded (b) double stranded
(c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate (c) triple stranded (d) four stranded
(d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate 11. The process of translation is [1993]
5. The process of transfer of genetic information (a) ribosome synthesis
from DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from (b) protein synthesis
DNA is [1991] (c) dNA synthesis
(a) transversion (b) transcription (d) rNA synthesis
(c) translation (d) translocation 12. During DNA replication, the strands separate
6. Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15 N by [1993]
is allowed to grow in 14N medium. The
(a) DNA polymerase
two strands of DNA molecule of the first
(b) topoisomerase
generation bacteria have [1992]
(c) unwindase/Helicase
(a) different density and do not resemble
parent DNA (d) gyrase
(b) different density but resemble parent 13. Because most of the amino acids are
DNA represented by more than one codon, the
(c) same density and resemble parent DNA genetic code is [1993]
(d) same density but do not resemble parent (a) overlapping (b) wobbling
DNA (c) degenerate (d) generate
14. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic lactose as sugar. Which of the following
material? [1993] changes takes place? [1995]
(a) Griffith (a) The lac operon is repressed
(b) Watson (b) All operons are induced
(c) Boveri and Sutton (c) The lac operon is induced
(d) Hershey and Chase (d) E.coli cells stop dividing
15. The transforming principle of Pneumococus as 25. In split genes, the coding sequences are
found out by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty called
was (a) introns (b) operons [1995]
(a) mRNA (b) DNA [1993] (c) exons (d) cistrons
(c) protein (d) polysaccharide 26. An environmental agent, which triggers
16. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in transcription from an operon, is a [1995]
eucaryotes) is [1993, 94, 99, 2000] (a) regulator
(a) GUA (b) GCA (b) inducer
(c) CCA (d) AUG (c) depressor
17. Protein helping in opening of DNA double (d) controlling element
helix in form of replication fork is [1994] 27. The lac operon is an example of [1995]
(a) DNA gyrase (a) arabinose operon
(b) DNA polymerase I (b) inducible operon
(c) DNA ligase (c) repressible operon
(d) DNA topoisomerase (d) overlapping genes
18. Which is not involved in protein synthesis ? 28. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in
(a) Transcription (b) Initition [1994] an exposed position of [1995, 2000]
(c) Elongation (d) Termination (a) mRNA (b) rRNA
19. DNA template sequence of CTGATAGC is (c) tRNA (d) sRNA
transcribed over mRNA as [1994, 95, 2004] 29. Okazaki fragments are seen during [1996]
(a) GUCTUTCG (b) GACUAUCG (a) transcription (b) translation
(c) GAUTATUG (d) UACTATCU (c) replication (d) transduction
20. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by 30. The translation termination triplet is [1996]
[1994] (a) UAU (b) UAA
(a) lactose (b) promoter gene (c) UAC (d) UGC.
(c) β -galactosidase (d) I-gene 31. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is [1996]
21. Reverse transcriptase is [1994] (a) occurrence of restriction fragment length
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase polymorphism (RFLP)
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (b) p h e n o t y p i c d i f f e r e n c e s b e t we e n
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase individuals
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (c) availability of cloned DNA
22. The number of base substitution possible in (d) knowledge of human karyotype
amino acid codons is [1994] 32. Which step of translation does not consume
(a) 261 (b) 264 a high energy phosphate bond ? [1997]
(c) 535 (d) 549 (a) Translocation
23. Out of A-T, G-C pairing, bases of DNA (b) Amino acid activation
may exist in alternate valency state owing to (c) Peptidyl-transferase reaction
arrangement called [1994] (d) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to active
(a) analogue substitution ribosomal site
(b) tautomerisational mutation 33. Three codons causing chain termination are
(c) frame-shift mutation [1997]
(d) point mutation (a) TAG, TAA, TGA
24. The wild type E. coli cells are growing in (b) GAT, AAT, AGT
normal medium with glucose. They are (c) AGT, TAG, UGA
transferred to a medium containing only (d) UAG, UGA, UAA
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 285
34. A mutation at one base of the first codon, of 41. DNA elements which can switch their position
a gene, produces a non-functional protein. are called [1998]
Such a mutation is called [1997] (a) exons (b) introns
(a) nonsense mutation (c) cistrons (d) transposons
(b) missense mutation 42. Genes that are involved in turning on or off
(c) frameshift mutation the transcription of a set of structural genes
(d) reverse mutation are called [1998]
35. If a completely radioactive double stranded (a) Operator genes
DNA molecule undergoes two rounds of (b) Redundant genes
replication in a non-radioactive medium, (c) Regulator genes
what will be the radioactive status of the four (d) Polymorphic genes
resulting molecules? [1997]
43. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association
(a) Half the number contain no radioactivity
is as per which of the following pairs? [1999]
(b) All four still contain radioactivity
(a) AG-CT (b) AC-GT
(c) Three out of four contain radioactivity
(d) Radioactivity is lost from all four (c) AT-GC (d) All of these
36. Different mutations referrable to the same 44. The Pneumococcus experiment proves that
locus of a chromosome give rise to [1997] (a) DNA is the genetic material [1999]
(a) multiple alleles (b) pseudoalleles (b) Bacteria undergo binary fission
(c) polygenes (d) oncogenes (c) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually
37. During development of an organism, the (d) RNA sometime controls the production
product of one gene is required to activate of DNA and proteins
another gene. Such gene products are called 45. In operon concept , regulator gene functions
(a) transcription factors [1997] as [1999]
(b) episomes (a) repressor (b) regulator
(c) coenzymes (c) inhibitor (d) all of these
(d) catalase 46. How many base pairs (bp) are found in the
38. In eukaryotes, after transcription of mRNA, haploid genome of humans? [1999]
some of its nucleotides are removed before it (a) 2.9 × 109 (b) 4 × 108
is translated into polypeptide. The nucleotides (c) 7 × 109 (d) 3 × 109
which are removed from mRNA are called 47. Mutation generally produces [2000]
(a) exons [1997] (a) polygenes (b) dominant genes
(b) upstream sequences (c) recessive genes (d) lethal genes
(c) unusual bases 48. Protein synthesis occurs [2000]
(d) introns (a) on ribosmes present in cytosol as well as
39. What base is responsible for hot spots for
in mitochondria
spontaneous point mutations? [1998]
(b) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear
(a) Adenine
envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
(b) 5-bromouracil
(c) 5-methylcytosine (c) only on the ribosomes present in
(d) Guanine cytosol
40. The eukaryotic genome differs from the (d) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as
prokaryotic genome because [1998] well as cytoplasm
(a) genes in the former case are organized 49. One function of the telomeres in a chromosome
into operons is to [2000]
(b) the DNA is complexed with histones in (a) indentify the correct number of the
prokaryotes homologous pair of chromosomes
(c) repetitive sequences are present in (b) help two chromatids to move towards
eukaryotes poles
(d) the DNA is circular and single stranded (c) "seal" the ends of chromosomes
in prokaryotes (d) start RNA synthesis
50. In negative operon [2001] 59. In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20% then
(a) co-repressor binds with repressor what will be the percentage of guanine?
(b) co-re pressor does not bind with [2002]
repressor (a) 20% (b) 40%
(c) co-repressor binds with inducer (c) 30% (d) 60%
(d) CAMP have negative effect on lac 60. Exon part of m- RNAs have code for [2002]
operon (a) protein (b) lipid
51. Frequency of an allele in a isolated population (c) carbohydrate (d) phospholipid
may change due to [2001] 61. When a cluster of genes show linkage
(a) genetic Drift (b) gene flow behaviour they [2003]
(c) mutation (d) natural selection (a) induce cell division
52. In which direction m-RNA is synthesised on (b) do not show a chromosome map
DNA template ? [2001] (c) show recombination during meiosis
(a) (b) (d) do not show independent assortment

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Any 62. What does "lac" refer to in what we call the
53. At time of organogenesis genes regulate the lac operon? [2003]
process at different levels and at different time (a) The number 1,00,000
due to [2001] (b) Lactose
(a) promoter (b) regulator (c) Lactase
(c) intron (d) exon (d) Lac insect
54. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used 63. During transcription, the DNA site at which
synonymously because [2001] RNA polymerase binds is called [2003]
(a) one cistron contains many genes (a) enhancer (b) promoter
(b) one gene contains many cistrons (c) regulator (d) receptor
(c) one gene contains one cistron 64. During translation initiation in prokaryotes,
(d) one gene contains no cistron a GTP molecule is needed in [2003]
55. In E.coli during lactose metabolism repressor
(a) association of 50 S subunit of ribosome
binds to [2002]
with initiation complex
(a) regulator gene
(b) formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(b) operator gene
(c) binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with
(c) structural gene
mRNA
(d) promoter gene
(d) association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl-
56. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types
of amino acid. It is called [2002] met-tRNA
(a) degeneracy of genetic code 65. Which one of the following triplet codes, is
(b) overlapping of gene correctly matched with its specificity for an
(c) wobbling of codon amino acid in protein synthesis or as ‘start’
(d) universility of codons or ‘stop’codon ? [2003]
57. Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism (a) UAC – Tyrosine (b) UCG – Start
in E.coli and proposed operon concept. (c) UUU – Stop (d) UGU – Leucine
Operon concept is applicable for [2002] 66. What would happen if in a gene encoding a
(a) all prokaryotes polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon
(b) all prokaryotes and some eukaryotes (UAU) is mutated to UAA? [2003]
(c) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes (a) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be
(d) all prokaryotes and some protozoans formed
58. Transformation experiment was first (b) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be
performed on which bacteria? [2002] formed
(a) E.coli (c) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino
(b) Diplococcus pneumoniae acids will be formed
(c) Salmonella (d) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be
(d) Pasteurella pestis formed
67. In the genetic code dictionary, how many (b) cytosine rich repeats
codons are used to code for all the 20 essential (c) adenine rich repeats
amino acids ? [2003] (d) guanine rich repeats
(a) 60 (b) 20 75. During replication of a bacterial chromosome
(c) 64 (d) 61 DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin
68. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed site and [2004]
to the [2003] (a) RNA primers are involved
(a) third member of a codon (b) is facilitated by telomerase
(b) first member of a codon
(c) moves in one direction of the site
(c) second member of a codon
(d) moves in bi-directional way
(d) entire codon
69. Genetic map is one that [2003] 76. In transgenics, expression of transgene in
(a) shows the distribution of various species target tissue is determined by [2004]
in a region (a) enhancer (b) transgene
(b) establishes sites of the genes on a (c) promoter (d) reporter
chromosome 77. E.coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac
(c) establishes the various stages in gene operon cannot grow in medium containing
evolution only lactose as the source of energy
(d) show the stages during the cell division because: [2005]
70. DNA fingerprinting refers to [2004] (a) the lac operon is constitutively active in
(a) molecular analysis of profiles of DNA these cells
samples (b) they cannot synthesize functional beta-

(b) analysis of DNA samples using imprinting galactosidase
devices (c) in the presence of glucose, E.coli cells do
(c) techniques used for molecular analysis not utilize lactose
of different specimens of DNA
(d) they cannot transport lactose from the
(d) techniques us ed for identification of
medium into the cell
fingerprints of individuals
71. In a mutational event, when adenine is 78. During transcription holoenzyme RNA
replaced by guanine, it is a case of [2004] polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the
(a) frame shift mutation DNA assumes a saddle like structure at that
(b) transcription point. What is that sequence called? [2005]
(c) transition (a) AAAT box (b) TATA box
(d) transversion (c) GGTT box (d) CAAT box
72. Crossing over that results in genetic 79. Which one of the following makes use of
recombination in higher organisms occurs RNA as a template to synthesize DNA?
between [2004] (a) DNA polymerase [2005]
(a) sister chromatids of a bivalent (b) RNA polymerase

(b) non-sister chromatids of a bivalent (c) Reverse transcriptase
(c) two daughter nuclei (d) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
(d) two different bivalents 80. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a
73. The following ratio is generally constant for (a) simple protein
a given species: [2004]
(b) RNA
(c) ribonucleoprotein
(a) (b)
(d) repetitive DNA

81. One gene -one enzyme hypothesis was
(c) (d) postulated by [2006]

(a) Hershey and Chase
74. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes (b) A. Garrod
consist of short sequences of [2004] (c) Beadle and Tatum
(a) thymine rich repeats (d) R. Franklin
82. In which mode of inheritance do you (b) there are two strands which run parallel
expect more maternal influence among the in the 5′ → 3′ direction
offspring? [2006] (c) the proportion of Adenine in relation to
(a) Cytoplasmic (b) Y-linked thymine varies with the organism
(c) X-linked (d) Autosomal (d) there are two strands which run anti
83. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain parallel one in 5′ → 3′ direction and other
growth [2007] in 3′ → 5′
(a) polymerize in the 3’ - to - 5’ direction and 90. Which one of the following pairs of codons
forms replication fork is correctly matched with their function or the
(b) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA signal for the particular amino acid? [2008]
replication (a) GUU, GCU-Alanine
(c) polymerize in the 5’ - to - 3’ direction and (b) UAG, UGA-Stop
explain 3’ - to - 5’ DNA replication (c) AUG, ACG-Start/Methionine
(d) result in transcription. (d) UUA, UCA-Leucine
84. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds 91. Which one of the following pairs of
the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly
cells. How is this DNA accommodated? matched with the category mentioned against
[2007] it? [2008]
(a) super-coiling in nucleosomes (a) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines
(b) DNase digestion (b) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines
(c) through elimination of repititive DNA (c) Guanine, Adenine - Purines
(d) deletion of non-essential genes. (d) Adenine, Thymine - Purines
85. A sequential expression of a set of human 92. Haploids are more suitable for mutation
genes [2007] studies than the diploids. This is because
(a) messenger RNA (b) DNA sequence [2008]
(c) ribosome (d) transfer RNA. (a) haploids are reproductively more stable
86. During transcription, RNA polymerase than diploids
holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and (b) mutagens penetrate in haploids more
assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s effectively than diploids
DNA-binding sequence? [2007] (c) haploids are more abundant in nature
(a) AATT (b) CACC than diploids
(c) TATA (d) TTAA (d) all mutations, whether dominant or
87. One gene-one enzyme relationship was recessive are expressed in haploids
established for the first time in [2007] 93. T.O. Diener discovered a: [2009]
(a) Salmonella typhimurium (a) free infectious DNA
(b) Escherichia coli (b) infectious protein
(c) Diplocococcus pneumoniae (c) bacteriophage
(d) Neurospora crassa. (d) free infectious RNA
88. Molecular basis of organ differentiation 94. What is not true for genetic code? [2009]
depends on the modulation in transcription (a) It is nearly universal
by [2007] (b) It is degenerate
(a) ribosome (c) It is unambiguous
(b) transcription factor (d) A codon in mRNA is read in a non
(c) anticodon contiguous fashion
(d) RNA polymerase. 95. Removal of introns and joining the exons
89. In the DNA molecule [2008] in a defined order in a transcription unit is
(a) the total amount of purine nucleotides called: [2009]
and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always (a) tailing (b) transformation
equal (c) capping (d) splicing
96. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was 103. Removal of RNA polymerase III from
first demonstrated in: [2009] nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of :
(a) Escherichia coli [2012]
(b) Streptococcus pneumoniae (a) t RNA (b) hn RNA
(c) Salmonella typhimurium (c) m RNA (d) r RNA
(d) Drosophila melanogaster 104. Which one of the following is not a part of a
97. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and transcription unit in DNA ? [2012]
discovered unequivocally that a genetic code (a) The inducer
(b) A terminator
is a ‘triplet’ [2009].
(c) A promoter
(a) Hershey and Chase
(d) The structural gene
(b) Morgan and Sturtevant
105. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous
(c) Beadle and Tantum base sequence at ATCTG, what would be the
(d) Nirenberg and Mathaei complementary RNA strand sequence
98. Select the two correct statements out of the [2012]
four (a–d) given below about lac operon. (a) TTAGU (b) UAGAC
(i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the (c) AACTG (d) ATCGU
repressor and inactivate it [2010] 106. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a
(ii) In the absence of lactose the repressor defined order during transcription is called :
binds with the operator region [2012]
(iii) The z-gene codes for permease (a) Looping (b) Inducing
(iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob (c) Slicing (d) Splicing
and Jacque Monod 107. Read the following four statements (A-D).
The correct statements are: (A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) uracil.
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) (B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
99. The one aspect which is not a salient feature referred to as positive regulation.
of genetic code, is its being: [2010] (C) The human genome has approximately
(a) degenerate (b) ambiguous 50,000 genes.
(c) universal (d) specific (D) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
100. Satellite DNA is useful tool in: [2010] disease.
How many of the above statements are
(a) organ transplantation
correct? [2012M]
(b) sex determination
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) forensic science
(c) Four (d) One
(d) genetic engineering 108. Which of the following forms the basis of
101. Which one of the following does not follow DNA Finger printing? [2012M]
the central dogma of molecular biology? (a) The relative proportions of purines and
[2010] pyrimidines in DNA.
(a) Pea (b) Mucor (b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) HIV repeated short DNA segments.
102. Which one of the following also acts as a (c) The relative difference in the DNA
catalyst in a bacterial cell ? [2011] occurrence in blood, skin and saliva.
(a) 5 sr RNA (b) sn RNA (d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges
(c) hn RNA (d) 23 sr RNA and grooves of the fingerprints.
109. The diagram shows an important concept in 113. One of the most frequently used techniques
the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the in DNA fingerprinting is [NEET Kar. 2013]
blanks A to C. [NEET 2013]
A B Proposed by (a) AFLP (b) VNTR
DNA mRNA protein
C (c) SSCP (d) SCAR
(a) A-translation B - transciption C-Erwin 114. DNA C
mRNA B
protein
Proposed by
Chargaff A
(b) A-transcription B - translation C-Francis The figure gives an important concept in the
Crick genetic implication of DNA. Fill the blanks
(c) A-translation B - extension C-Rosalind A, B and C. [NEET Kar. 2013]
Franklin
(d) A-transcription B - replication C-James (a) A – Francis Crick; B – translation;
Watson C – transcription
110. Which enzymes will be produced in a cell in (b) A – Maurice Wilkins; B – transcription;
which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac C – translation
Y gene? [NEET 2013] (c) A – James Watson; B – replication;
(a) Lactose permease C – extension
(b) Transacetylase (d) A – Erwin Chargaff; B – translation;
(c) Lactose permease and transcetylase C – replication
(d) β- galactosidase 115. In an inducible operon, the genes are
111. Uridine, present only in RNA is a [NEET Kar. 2013]
[NEET Kar. 2013] (a) Always expressed
(a) Pyrimidine (b) Nucleoside
(b) Usually not expressed unless a signal
(c) Nucleotide (d) Purine
turns them “on”
112. Which of the following is not a property of
the genetic code? [NEET Kar. 2013] (c) Usually expressed unless a signal turns
(a) Universal them “off ”
(b) Non-overlapping (d) Never expressed
(c) Ambiguous
d) Degeneracy
Solutions
1. (d) Genetic code is the relationship of double helix model of DNA.
amino acid sequence in a polypeptide 10. (a) A single strand of DNA would not
chain and base sequence of mRNA. It possess complementary base pairs.
includes adenine, guanine, cytosine and Hence nitrogenous bases are unequal in
thymine. number.
2. (b) In semi conservative replication of 11. (b) Protein synthesis occurs over ribosomes
DNA in each replica one half is the old which are also referred to as protein
strand and the other half is a new strand factories.
synthesized over it. 12. (c) Unwindase or helicase takes part in
3. (d) Genetic code is triplet coding for one separation of two DNA strands. In
amino acid in a polypeptide chain. There prokaryotes, helicase or unwindase is
are four different types of nucleotides - assisted by gyrase in this function.
A,T,G, and C. Since a code is a triplet 13. (c) All amino acids are specified by more
thus 64 (4×4×4) distinct triplet of bases than one codon (except Tryptophan
determine the 20 amino acids. But out of and Methionine). Hence they are
64 only 61 code for 20 amino acids. Three degenerate.
codons that do not code for any amino 14. (d) Hershey and Chase (1952) worked on
acids are terminator non sense codons Escherichia coli and conclusively proved
(UAG, UGA and UAA). Still in 61 triplet that DNA is the genetic material.
codons there is an excess 41 codons and 15. (b) The transforming chemical discovered
therefore more than one codon codes for by Griffith in his experiments with
same amino acid. Pneumococcus, was confirmed as DNA
4. (c) Nucleotide is a unit of DNA , which by Avery, McLeod and McCarty.
is formed of nitrogenous bases (urines 16. (d) The initiation codon is the codon which
& Pyrimidines), sugar (Pentose) & initiates the protein synthesis. They are
phosphate. AUG for methionine and GUG for
5. (b) Central dogma of protein synthesis valine.
explains a unidirectional or one way 17. (a) DNA gyrase participates in the unwinding
flow of information from DNA to of DNA helix during replication.
RNA (transcription) and from RNA to 18. (d) Protein synthesis stops when a nonsense
polypeptide (translation). codon (UAA, UGA or UAG) reaches the
6. (a) After one generation in 14N medium DNA amino acyl or A site.
of bacteria settled at a level intermediate 19. (b) During transcription, from the DNA
between heavy and light bands due to template complementary mRNA is
semi conservative DNA replication. formed and thymine is replaced by
7. (b) Hargonind Khurana first deciphered the uracil.
triplet codon of cysteine and valine. 20. (a) Lac operon is an inducible operon system
8. (a) Messelson and Stahl (1958) raised which regulates genetic material. The
Escherichia coli on ammonium chloride genetic material remains switched off
having heavy isotope of nitrogen for normally but becomes operational in the
several generations to study semi- presence of inducer lactose.
conservative replication of DNA. 21. (d) The phenomenon of making DNA
9. (a) In 1953 Wilkins obtained very fine X-ray over RNA genome through enzyme
crystallographic pictures of DNA from reverse transcriptase is called reverse
which Watson and Crick developed the transcription or teminism.
22. (d) Codons are 6 in number. Each codon 30. (b) Termination codons ( triplet) are the stop
possess 3 bases, each of which can signals which when encountered cause
undergo transition and transversion. termination of polypeptide synthesis.
(1 × 32 = 549) The termination codons are UAA, UAG
23. (b) The tautomer forms of nitrogen bases and UGA.
are immuno-tautomer instead of amino 31. (a) DNA fingerprinting is a technique to
group (e.g. cytosine, adenine) or enol
identify a person on the basis of his DNA
instead of the keto group (e.g. thymine,
which is specific for every individual. This
guanine).
Tautomers are organic compounds technique for first time was developed
that are interconvertible by a chemical by Alec Jeffreys and his colleagues at
reaction called tautomerization. Leicester University in U.K. DNA of
The concept of tautomers that are an individual carries specific sequences
interconvertible by tautomerizations is of nucleotides which are repeated many
called tautomerism. Tautomerism is times throughout the length of DNA.
a special case of structural isomerism This reveals polymorphism in DNA.
and can play an important role in non- These are inherited. Each individual
canonical base pairing in DNA and inherits these repeats from his/her
especially RNA molecules. parents which are used as gentic markers
24. (c) If Escherichia coli bacteria grow in
in personal identity test.
normal glucose medium and when
32. (d) During the activation of amino acids,
transferred to a medium containing
lactose, then the lac operon is induced. in the presence of Mg2+ and ATP an
25. (c) The region of a gene, which becomes part amino acid gets attached to a specific
of m-RNA and code for different regions enzyme aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase.
of the proteins are called exons. Pyrophosphate is released which breaks
26. (b) The inducer is an environmental agent, up to release energy. During translocation,
which triggers transcription from an in the presence of the enzyme translocase
operon. The inducer or effector molecule and energy from GTP the ribosome
are small sized which can bind to a regular moves in such a way that the peptidyl
protein. bearing t-RNA of A - site comes to lie on
27. (b) The lac operon consists of a promotor
the P-site, exposing a new codon at A -
gene, an operator gene and structural
site. In the peptidyl transferase reaction
genes. There are three structural genes
designated as z, y and a, which code energy is provided by GTP.
for the enzymes β-galactosidase, lac 33. (d) Termination codons are the stop
permease and transacetylase respectively. signals which when encountered cause
It is an example of inducible operon. termination of polypeptide synthesis.
28. (c) tRNA works as an adoptor molecules They are UAA (ochre), UAG (amber)
for carrying amino acid to the mRNA and UGA (opal). Codons are determined
templated during protein synthesis. by the sequence of bases on the DNA.
It bears anticodon and recognizes the Thymine is not present on RNA.
specific codon on mRNA. 34. (b) A mutation bringing about early
29. (c) Replication of DNA is discontinuous
stoppage of polypeptide formation is
over the lagging strand over which only
called nonsense mutation. Frame shift
small stretches of DNA are built due
to opposite running of DNA template. mutation is a type of gene mutation where
The small stretches of DNA are called the reading of codons is changed due to
okazaki fragments. insertion or deletion of nucleotides.
35. (a) DNA replication is semiconservative. i.e. elements”. Discovered by Barbara
at each replication one of the parental McClintockearly in her career, the topic
strands is retained and a new daughter went on to be a Nobel winning work
in 1983. There are a variety of mobile
strand is obtained. Thus only half of the
genetic elements, and they can be
parental DNA molecule is carried to the grouped based on their mechanism of
next generation. transposition.
42. (a) Operator gene allows the functioning of
the operon.
43. (c) In DNA adenine always pairs with
thymine and guanine always pairs with

cytosine, this is called complementary
base pairing.
44. (a) Griffith’s experiment with Pneumococcus
proves that DNA is the genetic
material.
45. (a) Regulator gene produces a biochemical
for suppressing the activity of the

36. (a) Multiple alleles are multiple alternatives
or alleles of the same gene which occur in operator gene.
the population of same species . Polygene 46. (a) The number of base pairs (bp) found in
is a gene, single dominant allele of which the haploid genome of humans is 2.9 ×
express only a unit of trait . Polygenes 109.
are the genes controlling quantitative 47. (d) Polygene is a gene, single dominant
inheritances. Oncogenes are the cancer allele of which expresses only a unit of
causing genes. the trait, lethal genes on expression stop
37. (a) In eukaryotes separate protein factors producing vital products essential for
take part in recognition and initiation survival of an individual.
during transcription. They are called 48. (a) Ribosomes are the sites of protein
transcription factors. Coenzymes are synthesis. Mitochondria being a semi
non protein organic cofactors which get
autonomous organelle has its own
loosely attached to apoenzymes during
protein synthesizing machinery.
the functioning of holoenzymes.
38. (d) Eukaryote RNAs contain non coding 49. (c) Seal the ends of chromosomes. The
intervening segments called introns. The telomere is a "ribonucleoprotein
process of removal of introns through complex" composed of a protein
cutting and joining the essential coding component and an RNA primer sequence
sequences ( exons) is called splicing. which acts to protect the terminal
39. (c) The term "hot spots" was used by Benzer ends of chromosomes. This prevents
for the sites which are more mutable than chromosomal disintegration and prevents
other sites. Studies in 1978 revealed that the ends of the chromosome from being
5-methylcytosine residues occur at the processed as a double strand DNA break,
position of each hot spot. which could lead to chromosome-to-
40. (c) DNA is complexed with histones in chromosome telomere fusions.
eukaryotes. 50. (a) In negative (repressible) operon, the
41. (d) Transposons are sequences of DNA repressor co-repressor complex binds
that can move around to different with the operator. The free repressor
positions within the genome of a single
cannot bind to the operator.
cell, a process called transposition. In
51. (a) Mutations are sudden inheritable
the process, they can cause mutations
and change the amount of DNA in the variations which develop in the genetic
genome. Transposons are also called system. Natural selection operates
“jumping genes” or “mobile genetic through differential reproduction.
52. (a) The enzyme polymerase can synthesize 64. (d) For the formation of initiation complex
the bases only in 5′→3′direction. during translation of mRNA, GTP is also
53. (b) Intron are non coding intervening required. The initiator AUG codes for the
sequences on DNA but exons are the formylmethionine in prokaryotes.
coding sequences. 65. (a) AUG is initiating codon. UCG codes for
54. (c) Cistron is that segment of DNA which serine, UUU codes for phenylalan, UGU
specifies synthesis of a polypeptide. codes for cysteine.
55. (b) Regulator gene forms a biochemical
66. (b) UAA is the stop codon. Therefore at 25th
for suppressing the activity of operator
amino acid the synthesis of polypeptide
gene. Promoter gene is the gene which
stops. So, a polypeptide of 24 Amino acid
provides point of attachment to RNA
is formed.
polymerase required for transcription
of structural genes. Structural genes 67. (d) Out of a total of 64 codons, 3 codons
are genes which transcribe m RNA for do not make any sense. Hence only 61
polypeptide synthesis. codons are used in the formation of the
56. (a) Out of 64 codons, only 3 signify 20 essential amino acids (polypeptides).
stop codons. There are more than one 68. (a) According to the Wobble hypothesis,
codon for most of the amino acids, the tRNA anticodon has the ability to wobble
genetic code is non-over lapping. Three at its 5′end by pairing with even non-
successive nucleotides or bases code for complementary base of mRNA codon.
only one amino acid wobbling refers to It correspond to third base degeneracy
the third base degeneracy. of the codons.
57. (b) Gene regulation of eukaryotes is complex 69. (b) Genetic mapping help in studying the
as compared to that of prokaryotes. architecture of the chromosomes and of
58. (b) Transformation is change in genetic entire genome.
material of an organism by obtaining 70. (a) DNA fingerprinting is the technique
genes from outside. of determining nucleotide sequences
59. (c) According to Chargaff's rule, the ratio of of certain areas of DNA which are
purine bases to pyrimidine bases is equal. unique to each individual. DNA
A = T, C = G. contains noncistronic hypervariable
If T is 20% then A is 20% and C and G repeat sequences called VNTR. DNA
are 30%, 30%. fingerprinting involves the identification
60. (a) Exons are the coding part of mRNA.
of these VNTRs.
61. (d) Linkage is the staying together of genes
71. (c) In transition substitution a purine is
and their enblock inheritance from
replaced by another purine base (A
generation to generation. Linked genes
with G or vice versa). In transversion
do not show independent assortment
substitution a purine is replaced by a
since they are present on the same
chromosome. pyrimidine base or vice versa. Frameshift
62. (b) Lactose operon in E.coli is a catabolic mutation is a type of mutation where
pathway in which the structural genes the reading of codons is changed due
remain switched off unless the inducer to insertion or deletion of nucleotides.
(Lactose) is present in the medium. Transition is the formation of RNA over
63. (b) Regulator is a gene which forms a the template of DNA.
biochemical for suppressing the activity 72. (b) Crossing over occurs between non–sister
of operator gene. Promoter is the gene chromatids of two homologous chromo-
which provides the point of attachment somes. Homologous chromosomes form
to RNA polymerase required for bivalent. Crossing over occurs between
transcription of structural genes. chromosomes in a nucleus.
73. (c) According to Chargaff purines and ("three prime") end of DNA strands in
pyrimidines are in equal amounts. Purine the telomere regions, which are found
(adenine) is equimolar with pyrimidine at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.
(thymine) and purine (guanine) is The telomeres contain condensed
equimolar with pyrimidine (cytosine). DNA material, giving stability to the
Base ratio A + T is specific for chromosomes. The enzyme is a reverse
species. C+G transcriptase that carries its own RNA
74. (c) Telomeres are non sticky terminal ends of molecule, which is used as a template
the chromosomes. It has heterochromatin when it elongates telomeres, which are
and repetitive DNA. shortened after each replication cycle.
75. (d) Replication begins at the Ori - origin of Telomerase was discovered by Carol W.
replication and proceeds on both sides Greider in 1984.
from the Ori. Unidirectional replication 81. (c) Beadle & Tatum postulated the theory
is rare. RNA primers are involved in both of ‘One-gene-one-enzyme’ in which
prokaryotes and eukaryotes. they stated that in any living cell
76. (b) Transgenic organisms are genetically there are number of genes present on
modified organisms. chromosomes in a linear fashion. One
77. (b) Operons are segments of genetic material single gene controls the synthesis of one
which function as regulated unit or units particular enzyme (or protein) in the cell
that can be switched on and switched which is responsible for its phenotypic
off. An operon consists of one to several character.
structural genes. (Three in lac operon) 82. (a) The genes of cytoplasmic characters
These are genes which produce mRNAs occur outside the chromosome, in
for forming polypeptides / proteins cytoplasm, they inherit their traits like
/ enzymes. Z (produces enzyme β chromosomal genes do. In a zygote
galactosidase for splitting lactose into formation the cytoplasm comes from the
glucose and galactose). Y (produces mother’s ova and hence the cytoplasmic
enzyme galactoside permease required characters must come from maternal side
in entry of lactose) A (produces enzyme and this is the reason that cytoplasmic
thiogalactoside transacetylase). inheritance is also known as maternal
The three structural genes of the operon inheritance.
produce a single polycistronic mRNA. 83. (c) Okazaki fragments in DNA are linked up
78. (b) About 28 base pairs from transcription by the enzyme DNA ligase. Replication
start site are TATA boxes. After 40 always ocur in 5' - 3' direction. Okazaki
bases from TATA boxes appears LAAT fragments synthesized on 3' - 5' DNA
boxes. Both of these sequence serve as template, join to form lagging strand
recognition site in Eukaryotic promoters which grows in 3' - 5' direction.
(Transcription in eukaryotic genes in a 84. (a) The nucleosome model explains the
far more complicated process than in packaging of histone proteins and DNA
prokaryotes) in the chromatin material which forms
79. (c) Reverse transcriptase (RNA dependent the chromosome.
DNA polymerase) is present in some 85. (b) A sequential expression of a set of human
retroviruses eg. HIV virus. genes is the DNA sequence. Because
80. (c) Telomerase is a ribonucleoprotein which gene is the functional part of DNA
synthesize the rich strand of telomers
sequence.
in DNA. Telomerase is an enzyme that
86. (c) The DNA binding sequence for RNA
adds specific DNA sequence repeats
polymerase is called TATA box.
("TTAGGG" in all vertebrates) to the 3'
87. (d) It was given by Geneticists George W. haploids are more suitable for mutation
Beadle and E. L. Tatum which states studies than the diploids. This is because
that each gene in an organism controls all mutations, whether dominant or
the production of a specific enzyme. recessive are expressed in haploids.
It is these enzymes that catalyze the 93. (d) Theodor O. Diener discovered the Potato
reactions that lead to the phenotype of Spindle Tuber Viroid (“PSTVd”), the first
the organism. viroid ever identified, in 1971. PSTVd is
88. (d) The process of formation of protein a small, circular RNA molecule. Dr.
sequence from DNA strand is called Diener discovered that the pathogen
transcription which requires RNA
causing potato spindle tuber disease is
polymerase chain. RNA polymerase
not a virus, as previously believed, but a
chains are of 3-types in eukaryotes
(i) RNA polymerase-I much smaller, free RNA molecule.
(ii) RNA polymerase II 94. (d) The genetic code consists of 64 triplets
(iii) RNA polymerase-III of nucleotides. These triplets are called
89. (d) In the DNA molecule, there are two codons. With three exceptions, each
strands which run anti parallel one is 5' codon encodes for one of the 20 amino
- 3' direction and other in 3' -5' direction, acids used in the synthesis of proteins.
the two chains are held together by That produces some redundancy in the
hydrogen bonds between their bases. code. Most of the amino acids being
Adenine (A), a purine of one chain encoded by more than one codon. The
his exactly opposite thymine (T), a genetic code can be expressed as either
pyramidine of the other chain. Similarly, RNA codons or DNA codons.
cytosine (C), a pyrimidine lies opposite 95. (d) Splicing is the removal of introns and
guanine (G), a purine. This allows a sort joining the exons in a defined order in a
of lock & key arrangment between large
transcription unit. In molecular biology,
sized purine & small sized pyrimidine.
splicing is a modification of RNA after
It is strengthened by the appearance of
transcription, in which introns are
hydrogen bonds between the two.
removed and exons are joined.
90. (b) GCU indicates alanine but GUU
indicates valine. 96. (a) Semiconservative replication of DNA
Stop codons are UAG, UGA and UAA was first demonstrated in Escherichia
AUG is the most common start codon coli. E. coli is a common type of bacteria
which does for methionine. that can get into food, like beef and
UUA indicates leucine but UCA indicates vegetables. The strange thing about
serine. these bacteria is that they are not always
91. (d) Purine is an organic nitrogenous base harmful to you. E. coli normally lives
sparingly soluble in water, that gives inside your intestines, where it helps your
rise to a group of biologically important body breakdown and digest the food you
derivatives, notably adenine and guanine, eat.
which occur in nucleotides and nucleic 97. (d) Nirenberg and Mathaei (1961) experi
acids (DNA and RNA). men-tally proved that a single amino
92. (d) Haploids describes a nucleus cell or acid is determined by a sequence of three
organism with a single set of unpaired nitrogen bases. The sequence of three
chromosomes. The haploid number is nitrogen bases determining a single amino
designated as X. Reproductive cells, acid is called a triplet code. Nirenberg
formed as a result of meiosis are diploid. and Mathaei experiments cracked the
Fusion of two such cells restores the DNA and discovered unequivocally that
normal diploid number. Therefore, a genetic code is a triplet.
98. (c) Jacob and Monod proposed the lac oper- is referred as negative regulation. In
on of E. coli. The lac operon contains a negative regulation, a repressor molecule
promoter, an operator, and three struc- binds to the operator of an operon and
tural genes called z, y, and a, coding for terminates transcription. In positive
the enzyme, β galactosidase, permease regulation, an activator interacts with the
and transacetylase respectively. The lac RNA polymerase in the promoter region
regulator gene, designated as i gene, to initiate transcription.
codes for repressor. In the absence of Human genome contains some 20,000-
the inducer, the repressor binds to the lac 25,000 genes billion bases.
operator, preventing RNA polymerase 108. (b) DNA fingerprinting is a test to identify
from binding to the promoter and thus and evaluate the genetic information-
transcribing the structural gene. called DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)-in
99. (b) Genetic code is non ambiguous. There a person’s cells. DNA fingerprinting
is no ambiguity for a particular codon. is a form of identification based on
A particular codon will always code for sequencing specific non-coding portions
the same amino acid, where ever it is of DNA that are known to have a high
found. degree of variability from person to
person. These sections are known as
100. (c) Satellite DNA is useful in forensic sci-
Tandem repeats. The test is used to
ence. The polymorphism of minisatellite,
determine whether a family relationship
microsatellite and minivariant repeats is
exists between two people, to identify
analysed for DNA finger printing, DNA
organisms causing a disease, and to solve
profiling. It helps in the resolution of
crimes.
crimes, legal disputes etc. A B Proposed by
DNA mRNA protein
101. (d) HIV viruses does not follow central 109. (b) C

dogma. Central dogma is a one way flow In this question A is transcription, B -
of information from DNA to mRNA and translation C - Francis Crick (central
then to protein. dogma) It is unidirectional flow of
information DNA to mRNA (transcrip-
tion) and then decoding the information
present in mRNA in the formation of
102. (d) 23sr RNA acts as a catalyst in a bacterial polypeptide chain or protein (transla-
cell. tion).
103. (a) Removal of RNA polymerase III from 110. (d) A nonsense mutation is the one which
nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of stops polypeptide synthesis due to
tRNA while RNA polymerase I forms formation of a terminating or non sense
r-RNA and RNA polymerase II form
codon. e.g. ATT(UAA), ATC (UAG),
m-RNA is Eukaryotes.
ACT(UGA) . The lactose or lac operon of
104. (a) Transcription unit consists of promoter,
structural gene & terminator. Esherichia coli contains structural genes
105. (b) Sequence of DNA is ATCTG then (Z, Y, A) . If Y codes for termination
sequence of m-RNA will UAGAC. of polypeptide chain then only the
As adenine base pairs with uracil and product of ‘Z’ gence teranscribe to form
guanine with cytosine. β galactosidase.
106. (d) Remonal of introns by spliceosome 111. (b) The combination of pentose sugar
in hnRNA and joining of exons by
DNA liagse in a defined order during with nitrogenous bases (purines or
transcription is called splicing. pyrimidines) is called nucleoside.
107. (a) Statement A & D is correct Examples are adenosine, guanosine,
Regulation of lac operon by repressor cytidine, thymidine and uridine.
112. (c) Genetic code is the relationship of amino pattern of band that is unique for every
acid sequence in a polypeptide and individuals. These short nucleotide
nucleotide/base sequence in mRNA/ repeats vary in number from person to
antisense strand of DNA. person and are called variable number of
tandem repeat (VNTR). VNTR belongs
It is universal, i.e., a codon specifies the
to class of satellite DNA referred to as
same amino acid in all organisms, non-
minisatellite.
overlapping, i.e., adjacent codons are
114. (a) In this question A is franis crick, B
independent with no base being member is translation and C is transcription. It
of two codons, degeneracy, i.e., some is unidirectional flow of information
amino acids are coded by more than DNA to mRNA (transcription) and then
one codon, hence the code is degenerate, decoding the information present in
unambiguous, i.e., one codon codes for mRNA in the formation of polypeptide
only one amino acid. chain or protein (translation).
113. (b) The technique of DNA fingerprinting 115. (b) Inducible operons are usually switched
was developed by Dr. Alec Jeffrey in off. This is a type of operon which is
1984. It is a technique generally using switched on when a chemical called
repeated sequences (repetitive DNA) inducer is present. the inducer is almost
in the human genome that produces a always a substrate.
HAPTER
C
29 Evolution
1. Humming bird and Hawk illustrate [1988] 9. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the
(a) Convergent evolution time of origin of life ? [1991]
(b) Homology (a) NH3 (b) H2
(c) Adaptive radiation (c) O2 (d) CH4
(d) Parallel evolution 10. Correct order is [1991]
2. Phenomenon of organisms resembling others (a) P a l a e o z o i c → A r c h a e o z o i c →
for escaping from enemies is [1988] Coenozoic
(a) Adaptation (b) Mimicry (b) A r c h a e o z o i c → P a l a e o z o i c →
(c) Homology (d) Analogy Proterozoic
(c) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic
3. Evolution is [1989]
(d) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic →
(a) progressive development of a race
Proterozoic
(b) history and development of a race 11. The first organisms were [1992]
alongwith variations (a) Chemoautotrophs
(c) history of a race (b) Chemoheterotrophs
(d) development of a race (c) Autotrophs
4. “Continuity of germplasm” theory was given (d) Eucaryotes
by [1989] 12. Evolutionary convergence is development of
(a) de Vries (b) Weismann (a) common set of characters in group of
(c) Darwin (d) Lamarck different ancestry [1993]
5. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters (b) dissimilar characters in closely related
was given by [1989] groups
(a) Wallace (b) Lamarck (c) common set of characters in closely
(c) Darwin (d) De Vries related groups
6. ‘Origin’ of species’ was written by [1989] (d) random mating .
(a) Oparin (b) Weismann 13. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation
(c) Lamarck (d) Darwin after generation but tails neither disappeared
7. Parallelism is [1990] nor shortened showing that [1993]
(a) adaptive divergence (a) Darwin was correct
(b) Tail is an essential organ
(b) adaptive divergence of widely separated
(c) Mutation theory is wrong
species
(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance
(c) adaptive convergence of widely different of acquired characters.
species 14. Theory of Natural selection dwells on 1993]
(d) adaptive convergence of closely related (a) role of environment in evolution
groups (b) natural selection acting on favourable
8. Basic principles of embryonic development variations
were pronounced by [1990] (c) changes in gene complex resulting in
(a) Van Baer (b) Weismann heritable variations
(c) Haeckel (d) Morgan (d) none of these
15. Genetic drift is change of [1993] 24. The homologous organs are those that show
(a) gene frequency in same generation similarity in [1995]
(b) appearance of recessive genes (a) size (b) origin
(c) gene frequency from one generation to (c) function (d) appearance
next 25. The closely related morphologically similar
(d) none of the above sympatric populations, but reproductively
16. Frequency of a character increases when it is isolated, are designated as [1995]
[1994] (a) clines (b) demes
(a) recessive (b) dominant (c) clones (d) sibling species
(c) inheritable (d) adaptable 26. The kind of evolution in which two species
17. Which one does not favour Lamarckian concept of different geneology come to resemble one
of inheritance of acquired characters? [1994] another closely, is termed as [1996]
(a) Lack of pigment in cave dwellers (a) progressive evolution
(b) Absence of limbs in snakes (b) convergent evolution
(c) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds (c) parallel evolution
(d) Melanisation of Peppered Moth in (d) retrogressive evolution
industrial areas. 27. Identify the correct sequence in which the
18. Which one is irrelevant to evolution of man? following substances have appeared during the
[1994] course of evolution of life on earth [1996]
(a) Perfection of hand for tool making (a) Glucose, amino acids, nucleic acids,
(b) Change of diet from hard nuts/roots to proteins
soft food (b) Ammonia, amino acids, proteins, nucleic
(c) Increased ability to communicate or acids
develop community behaviour (c) Water, amino acids, nucleic acids,
(d) Loss of tail enzymes
19. ‘Golden Age of Dinosaurs’/ Age of reptiles (d) Amino acids, ammonia, phosphates,
was [1994] nucleic acids
(a) Mesozoic (b) Coenozoic 28. Which one of the following sets includes only
(c) Palaeozoic (d) Psychozoic the vestigial structures in man? [1996]
20. Homologous organs are [1994, 99] (a) Body hair, olecranon process, coccyx,
(a) Wings of insects and Bat patella
(b) Gills of Fish and lungs of Rabbit (b) Wisdom teeth, mammary glands, coccyx,
(c) Pectoral fins of Fish and fore limbs of patella
Horse (c) Coccyx, nictitating membrane, vermiform
(d) Wings of Grosshopper and Crow appendix, ear muscles
21. The earliest fossil form in the phylogeny of (d) Coccyx, body hair, ear ossicles, vermiform
Horse is [1994] appendix
(a) Merychippus (b) Mesohippus 29. Extremities, tail and ear are relatively
(c) Eohippus (d) Equus. shorter in animals living in cooler regions as
22. Two geographical regions separated by high compared to those inhabiting warmer zones.
mountains are [1994] This is [1996]
(a) Oriental and Australian (a) Bergman's Rule (b) Jordan's Rule
(b) Palaearctic and Oriental (c) Gloger's Rule (d) Allen's Rule
(c) Nearctic and Palaearctic 30. In the evolution of man, several changes
(d) Neotropical and Ethiopian occured in the ancestral characters. Which
23. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of one of the following changes is irrelevant in
all vertebrates, supports the theory of [1995] this context ? [1996]
(a) biogenesis (a) Loss of tail from body
(b) recapitulation (b) Increase in the ability to communicate
(c) metamorphosis with others and develop community
behaviour
(d) organic evolution
Evolution 301
(c) Change of diet from fruits, hard nuts and 37. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the
roots to softer food geological time scale is [1998]
(d) Perfection in the structure and working (a) 5 × 106 years back
of hand for tool-making (b) 25 × 106 years back
31. Which one of the following is regarded as the (c) 50 × 106 years back
direct ancestor of modern man ? [1996] (d) 75 × 106 years back
(a) Homo erectus (b) Ramapithecus 38. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials
(c) Homo habilis (d) Australopithecus at present because of [1998]
32. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is (a) a very high amount of oxygen in the
best shown by [1997] atmosphere
(a) Banding pattern in chromosomes number (b) very low atmospheric temperature
3 and 6 (c) absence of raw materials
(b) Cranial capacity (d) high degree of environmental pollution
(c) Binocular vision 39. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches
(d) Dental formula adapted to different feeding habits on the
33. Which one of the following statements about Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin,
fossil human species is correct? [1997] provides evidence for [1998]
(a) Fossils of Homo neanderthalensis have been (a) Intraspecific variations
found recently in South America (b) Intraspecific competition
(b) Neanderthal man and Cro-Magnon man (c) Interspecific competition
did exist for sometime together (d) Origin of Species by natural selection
(c) Australopithecus fossils have been found 40. Which one of the following statements is
in Australia correct? [1998]
(d) Homo erectus was preceded by Homo (a) Cro-Magnon man's fossil has been found
habilis in Ethiopia
(b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
34. Which one of the following includes all
(c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor
homologous organs ? [1997]
of Homo sapiens
(a) The wing of butterfly, wing of bird, wing
(d) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of
(patagia) of bat
modern man
(b) The fore limb of frog, wing of bird and
41. Which is not a vestigial part in humans?
fore limb of rabbit
[2000]
(c) The thoracic leg of cockroach, the hind
(a) Segmental muscles of abdomen
leg of frog and fore leg of rabbit
(b) Finger nails
(d) The wing of bird, wing of bat and wing (c) Third molar
of "flying" lizard (d) Coccyx
35. In general, in the developmental history of 42. During organ differentiation in Drosophila
a mammalian heart, it is observed that it an organ is often modified to another organ
passes through a two-chambered fish-like such as wings could be replaced by legs.
heart, three-chambered frog-like heart and Genes responsible for such metamorphosis
finally to four-chambered stage. To which are called [2000]
hypothesis can this above cited statement be (a) Homeotic genes
approximated? [1998] (b) Plastid genes
(a) Hardy-Weinberg Law (c) Double dominant genes
(b) Lamarck's Principle (d) Complimentary genes
(c) Biogenetic Law 43. Homo sapiens evolved during [2000]
(d) Mendelian Principles (a) Pleistocene (b) Oligocene
36. Genetic drift operates only in [1998, 02] (c) Pliocene (d) Miocene
(a) smaller Populations 44. Which of the following primate is the closest
(b) larger Populations relative of humans? [2000]
(c) mendelian Populations (a) Rhesus monkey (b) Orangutan
(d) island Populations (c) Gorilla (d) Gibbon
45. Which one of the following features is closely 52. Half life period of C is about [2001]
related with the evolution of humans? [2000] (a) 500 years (b) 5000 years
(a) Loss of tail (c) 50 years (d) 5 × 104 years
(b) Shortening of jaws 53. Which of the following are homologous
(c) Binocular vision organs? [2002]
(d) Flat nails (a) Wings of birds and locust
46. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence (b) Wings of birds (sparrow) and pectoral
in favour of evolution. This evidence comes fins of fish
(c) Wings of bat and butterfly
from the field of [2000]
(d) Legs of frog and cockroach
(a) Biogeography (b) Anatomy 54. There is no life on moon due to the absence
(c) Embryology (d) Palaentology of [2002]
47. Similarities in organism with different (a) O2 (b) water
genotype indicates [2001] (c) light (d) temperature
(a) Microevolution 55. Sequence of which of the followings is used
(b) Macroevolution to know the phylogeny? [2002]
(c) Convergent evolution (a) mRNA (b) rRNA
(d) Divergent evolution (c) tRNA (d) DNA
48. Which of following is closest relative of 56. In which era reptiles were dominant? [2002]
man? [2001] (a) Coenozoic era (b) Mesozoic era
(a) Chimpanzee (b) Gorilla (c) Palaeozoic era (d) Archaeozoic era
(c) Orangutan (d) Gibbon 57. Two different species can not live for long
49. Which of the following is correct order of duration in the same niche or habitat. This
evolutionary history of man? [2001] law is [2002]
(a) Allen's law
(a) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal,
(b) Gause's hypothesis
Cro-magnon (c) Dollo's rule
(b) Peking, Neanderthal, Homo sapiens, Cro- (d) Weisman's theory
magnon 58. Which of the following is most important for
(c) Pe k i n g m a n , H e i d e l b e r g m a n , speciation ? [2002]
Neanderthal, Cro-magnon (a) Seasonal isolation
(d) Peking man, Neanderthel, Homo sapiens, (b) Reproductive isolation
Heidelberg man (c) Behavioural isolation
50. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows (d) Tropical isolation
similarity with theory of inheritance of 59. According to fossils discovered up to present
acquired characters then what shall be correct time origin and evolution of man was started
according to it? [2001] from
(a) Useful organs become strong and (a) France (b) Java [2002]
developed while useless organs become (c) Africa (d) China
extinct. These organs help in struggle for 60. In which condition the gene ratio remains
constant for any species? [2002]
survival
(a) Sexual selection (b) Random mating
(b) Size of organs increase with ageing
(c) Mutation (d) Gene flow
(c) Development of organs is due to will 61. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide
power sequence) of mt-DNA and Y chromosomes
(d) There should be come physical basis of were considered for the study of human
inheritance evolution, because [2003]
51. Occurrence of endemic species in South (a) they can be studied from the samples of
America and Australia is due to [2001] fossil remains
(a) These species have been extinct from (b) they are small, and therefore, easy to
other regions study
(b) Continental separation (c) they are uniparental in origin and do not
(c) There is no terrestial route to these take part in recombination
places (d) their structure is known in greater
(d) Retrogressive evolution detail
Evolution 303
62. Which one of the following sequences was 68. Random genetic drift in a population probably
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic results from [2003]
evolution ? [2003] (a) small population size
(a) Variations, natural selection, overproduc (b) highly genetically variable individuals
tion, constancy of population size (c) interbreeding within this population
(b) Overproduction, variations, constancy (d) constant low mutation rate
of population size, natural selection 69. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog
(c) Variations, constancy of population size, indicates that [2004]
overproduction, natural selection (a) fishes were amphibious in the past
(d) Overproduction, constancy of population
(b) fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors
size, variations, natural selection (c) frogs will have gills in future
63. Industrial melanism is an example of [2003] (d) frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
(a) defensive adaptation of skin against 70. What kind of evidence suggested that man is
ultraviolet radiations more closely related with chimpanzee than
(b) drug resistance with other hominoid apes? [2004]
(c) darkening of skin due to smoke from (a) E v i d e n c e f r o m D NA f r o m s e x
industries chromosomes only
(b) Comparison of chromosomes
(d) protective resemblance with the
morphology only
surroundings
(c) Evidence from fossil remains, and the
64. In a random mating population in equilibrium,
fossil mitochondrial DNA alone
which of the following brings about a change
(d) Evidence from DNA extracted from
in gene frequency in a non-directional
sex chromosomes, autosomes and
manner? [2003]
mitochondria
(a) Migration (b) Mutations
71. Age of fossils in the past was generally
(c) Random drift (d) Selection
determined by radio-carbon method and other
65. Convergent evolution is illustrated by [2003] methods involving radioactive elements found
(a) dogfish and whale in the rocks. More precise methods, which
(b) rat and dog were used recently and led to the revision of
(c) bacterium and protozoan the evolutionary periods for different groups
(d) starfish and cuttle fish of organisms, includes [2004]
66. Which one of the following describes correctly (a) study of carbohydrates/proteins in
the homologous structures ? [2003] fossils
(a) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage (b) study of the conditions of fossilization

and disappearing later in the adult (c) electron spin resonance (ESR) and fossil
(b) Organs with anatomical similarities, but DNA
performing different functions (d) study of carbohydrates/proteins in
(c) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, rocks
but performing same function 72. According to Oparin, which one of the
(d) Organs that have no function now, but following was not present in the primitive
had an important function in ancestors atmosphere of the earth [2004]
67. Darwin in his 'Natural Selection Theory' did (a) Methane (b) Oxygen
not believe in any role of which one of the (c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour
following in organic evolution ? [2003] 73. Which of the following is the relatively most
(a) Discontinuous variations accurate method for dating of fossils? [2005]
(b) Parasites and predators as natural (a) Radio-carbon method
enemies (b) Potassium-argon method
(c) Survival of the fittest (c) Electron-spin resonance method
(d) Struggle for existence (d) Uranium-lead method
74. Animals have the innate ability to escape from 79. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic
predation. Examples for the same are given evolution while working on: [2005]
below. Select the incorrect example. [2005] (a) Pisum sativum
(a) Colour change in Chameleon (b) Drosophila melanogaster
(b) Enlargement of body size by swallowing (c) Oenothera lamarckiana
air in puffer fish (d) Althea rosea
(c) Poison fangs in snakes 80. Which one of the following amino-acid
(d) Melanism in moths was not found to be synthesized in Miller's
75. There are two opposing views about origin of experiment ? [2006]
modern man. According to one view Homo (a) Aspartic acid (b) Glutamic acid
erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern (c) Alanine (d) Glycine
man. A study of variation of DNA however
81. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was
suggested African origin of modern man.
characterised by [2006]
What kind of observation on DNA, variation
(a) Radiation of reptiles and origin of
could suggest this? [2005]
mammal-like reptiles
(a) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
(b) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia (b) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms
(c) Similar variation in Africa and Asia appeared
(d) Variation only in Asia and no variation (c) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs
in Africa appeared
76. Which one of the following experiments (d) Gymnosperms were dominant plants and
suggests that simplest living organisms could first birds appeared
not have originated spontaneously from non- 82. Evolutionary history of an organism is known
living matter? [2005] as [2006]
(a) Larvae could appear in decaying organic (a) Ancestry (b) Paleontology
matter. (c) Ontogeny (d) Phylogeny
(b) Microbes did not appear in stored meat 83. An important evidence in favour of organic
(c) Microbes appeared from unsterilized evolution is the occurrence of [2006]
organic matter (a) Analogous and vestigial organs
(d) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and (b) Homologous organs only
kept sealed in a vessel. (c) Homologous and analogous organs
77. Which one of the following phenomena (d) Homologous and vestigial organs
supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection 84. Which one of the following is not a living
in organic evolution? [2005] fossil? [2006]
(a) Development of transgenic animals (a) Sphenodon (b) Archaeopteryx
(b) Production of ‘Dolly’, the sheep by (c) Peripatus (d) King crab
cloning
85. When two species of different genealogy
(c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
come to resemble each other as a result of
(d) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’
adaptation, the phenomenon is termed
for organ transplantation
(a) microevolution [2007]
78. Using imprints from a plate with complete
medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you (b) co-evolution
can select streptomycin resistant mutants and (c) convergent evolution
prove that such mutations do not originate as (d) divergent evolution
adaptation. These imprints need to be used 86. Among the human ancestors the brain size was
[2005] more that 1000 cc in [2007]
(a) on plates with and without streptomycin (a) Homo erectus
(b) on plates with minimal medium (b) Ramapithecus
(c) only on plates with streptomycin (c) Homo habilis
(d) only on plates without streptomycin (d) Homo neanderthalensis
Evolution 305
87. Which one of the following statement is (c) melanism is a pollution-generated
correct? [2007] feature
(a) There is no evidence of the existence (d) the true black melanic forms arise by a
of gills during embr yogenesis of recurring random mutation
mammals 94. Adaptive radiation refers to [2007]
(b) All plant and animal cells are totipotent (a) evolution of different species from a
(c) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
common ancestor
(d) Stem cells are specialize cells.
88. The concept of chemical evolution is based (b) migration of members of a species to
on [2007] different geographical areas
(a) interaction of water, air and clay under (c) power of adaptation in an individual to
intense heat a variety of environments
(b) effect of solar radiation on chemicals (d) adaptations due to geog raphical
(c) possible origin of life by combination of isolation.
chemicals under suitable environmental 95. One of the important consequences of
conditions geographical isolation is [2007]
(d) crystallization of chemicals. (a) preventing speciation
89. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an (b) speciation through re productive
evidence in favour of [2007]
isolation
(a) evolution due to mutation
(c) random creation of new species
(b) retrogressive evolution
(c) biogeographical evolution (d) no change in the isolated fauna.
(d) special creation . 96. Which one of the following in birds, indicates
90. What is common between parrot, platypus their reptilian ancestry? [2008]
and kangaroo? [2007] (a) Scales on their hind limbs
(a) Toothless jaws (b) Four-chambered heart
(b) Functional post-end tail (c) Two special chambers crop and gizzard
(c) Ovoparity in their digestive tract
(d) Homeothermy (d) Eggs with a calcareous shell
91. Which one of the following is a matching pair 97. Which one of the following scientists name
of a body feature and the animal possessing is correctly matched with the theory put forth
it ? [2007]
by him? [2008]
(a) Ventral central - Leech
nervous system (a) Weismann - Theory of continuity of
(b) Pharyngeal gill slits - Chameleon Germplasm
absent in embryo (b) Pasteur - Inheritance of acquired
(c) Ventral heart - Scorpion characters
(d) Post-end tail - Octopus. (c) De Vries - Natural selection
92. What is common to whale, seal and shark? (d) Mendel - Theory of Pangenesis
[2007] 98. Darwinism finches are an excellent example
(a) Thick subcutaneous fat of [2008]
(b) Convergent evolution (a) adaptive radiation
(c) Homoiothermy (b) seasonal migration
(d) Seasonal migration.
(c) brood parasitism
93. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered
(d) connecting links
moth proves that [2007]
(a) the melanic form of the moth has no 99. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita
selective advantage over lighter form in are example of [2008]
industrial area (a) analogous organs
(b) the lighter-form moth has no selective (b) homologous organs
advantage either in polluted industrial (c) vestigial organs
area or non-polluted area (d) retrogressive evolution
100. Which one of the following pairs of items 106. Which one of the following options gives one
correctly belongs to the category of organs correct example each of convergent evolution
mentioned against it? [2008] and divergent evolution? [2012]
(a) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Convergent
Cucurbita - Analogous organs Divergent evolution
evolution
(b) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in
human eye - Vestigial organs Eyes of octopus Bones of forelimbs
(a)
(c) Nephridia of earthworm and malpighian and mammals of vertebrates
tubules of Cockroach - Excretory
organs "Thorns of
(d) Wings of honey bee and wings of crow Bougainvillia Wings of butterflies
(b)
- Homologous organs and tendrils of and birds
Cucurbita"
101. Which one of the following is incorrect about
the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates Bones of
and microspheres) as envisaged in the biogenic Wings of butterfly
(c) forelimbs of
origin of life? [2008] and birds
vertebrates
(a) They were able to reproduce
(b) They could separate combinations of "Thorns of
molecules from the surroundings Bougainvillia Eyes of Octopus and
(d)
(c) They were partially isolated from the and tendrils of mammals
surroundings Cucurbita"
(d) They could maintain an inter nal
107. What was the most significant trend in the
environment
evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens)
102. Peripatus is a connecting link between:
from his ancestors ? [2012]
[2009]
(a) Mollusca and Echinodermata (a) Shortening of jaws
(b) Annelida and Arthropoda (b) Binocular vision
(c) Coelenterata and Porifera (c) Increasing cranial capacity
(d) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes (d) Upright posture
103. Darwin’s finches are a good example of: 108. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to
[2010] 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts
(a) Industrial melanism of Africa, With short stature, heavy eyebrows,
(b) Connecting link retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy
(c) Adaptive radiation teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and
(d) Convergent evolution stooped posture was [2012]
104. What was the most significant trend in evolution (a) Homo habilis
of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his (b) Neanderthal human
ancestors ? [2011] (c) Cro-magnan humans
(a) Upright posture
(d) Ramapithecus
(b) Shortening of jaws
109. The idea of mutations was brought forth by
(c) Binocular vision
[2012M]
(d) lncreasing brain capacity
(a) Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum
105. Evolution of different species in a given area
starting from a point and spreading to other sativum.
geographical areas is known as : [2012] (b) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening
(a) Adaptive radiation primrose.
(c) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele
(b) Natural selection
frequencies in a population.
(c) Migration
(d) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide
(d) Divergent evolution variety of organisms during sea voyage.
Evolution 307
110. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show (a) Genetic drift (b) Random mating
different patterns of structure, yet they (c) Genetic load (d) Genetic flow
perform similar function. This is an example 113. According to Darwin, The organic evolution
of : [NEET 2013] is due to : [NEET 2013]
(a) Homologous organs that have evolved (a) Interspecific competition
due to divergent evolution. (b) Competition within closely related
(b) Analogous organs that have evolved due species
to convergent evolution. (c) Reduced feeding efficiency in one
(c) Analogous organs that have evolved due species
to divergent evolution. (d) Intraspecific competition
(d) Homologous organs that have evolved 114. Random unidirectional change in allele
frequencies that occurs by chance in all
due to convergent evolution.
populations and especially in small populations
111. The process by which organisms with
is known as [NEET Kar. 2013]
different evolutionary history evolve similar (a) Mutation (b) Migration
phenotypic adaptations in response to a (c) Natural selection (d) Genetic drift
common environmental challenge, is called : 115. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are
[NEET 2013] grouped according to their food sources.
(a) Convergent evolution Which of the following is not a finch food?
(b) Non-random evolution [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) Adaptive radiation (a) Seeds (b) Carrion
(d) Natural selection (c) Insects (d) Tree buds
116. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of
112. Variation in gene frequencies within
the following geological era?
populations can occur by chance rather than
[NEET Kar. 2013]
by natural section. The is referred to as : (a) Devonion (b) Coenozoic
[NEET 2013] (c) Jurassic (d) Mesozoic
Solutions
1. (c) Adaptive radiation in evolution was 3. (b) The term Evolution was given by
developed by H.F. Osborn in 1898. It is Herbert Spencer that is “Descent with
also known as “Divergent evolution”. It modifications”. Evolution helps us to
is development of different functional understand the history of life.
structures from a common ancestral Evolution is a process in which something
form. Examples as mentioned in the changes into a different and usually more
questions. Whereas development of complete or better form over time and
similar adaptive functional structures in in response to environment. This results
unrelated groups of organism is adaptive in descendents becoming different from
convergence = convergent evolution, ancestors.
e.g wings of insect, bird and bat. When 4. (b) August Weismann, tested Lamarck’s
convergent evolution is found in closely theory in 1904 by cutting off the tails of
related species, it is called “Parallel mice for 22 generations yet he failed to
get tailless mouse. On the basis of the test
Evolution”
he put forward the theory “continuity
Example : development of running habit
of germ plasm”. According to him the
in deer (2.toed) and horse (1 toed).
character influencing the germ cells
The evolutionary process in which many
(reproductive) are inherited. Change
related species evolved from a single
in somatic cells are not transmitted to
ancestors is called adaptive radiation.
the next generations. Hugo de Vries
2. (b) Adaptation is the evolutionary process in
proposed “Mutation theory”.
which population becomes better suited
5. (b) One of the first attempts to explain
to its habitat. Mimicry is an example the mechanism of evolution was made
of long term adaptation, in which there by Jean Baptiste de Lamarck. His
is a close resemblance of an organism theory was Inheritance of Acquired
to the surrounding in order to avoid Characters. The theory states that the
detection . e.g. leaf insect Phyllium. The characters acquired during life time are
term mimicry was introduced by Bates passed on to the progeny and then to
(1862). subsequent generations and new species
• Homology is phenomenon in are produced.
which origin of organs are same but 6. (d) The book “Origin of species” was written
functions are different. by Darwin.
e.g - Hand of human and fore limb 7. (d) In convergent evolution similar adaptive
of horse. functional structure develop in different
• Analogy - Origin is different but species (unrelated group of organism).
functions are same of two different When convergent evolution is found
organs. in separate but closely related species
e.g. - Wings of birds, wings of (related evolutionary lineages) it is called
insects. parallel evolution.
In parallel evolution the two species have
a relatively recent common ancestors.
Evolution 309
8. (a) Van Baer; 1828 put forward Baer’s law organisms/different species develop
which was later called as Biogenetic law common set of characters / adaptive
of Ernst Haeckel, 1866. The law states functional str uctures (analogous
that "Ontogeny repeats phylogeny". structures). They do not share common
ancestor, related to one another in only
Ontogeny is the life history of an organism
the most distant sense.
while phylogeny is the evolutionary
13. (d) Refer-4
history of the race of that organism. 14. (c) In 1859 Charles Darwin published his
9. (c) Oxygen gas was not present due to theory of natural selection in the book
reducing atmosphere , it only came ‘Origin of Species’. The theory is based
to existence after the evolution of on five important observations :
photosynthesis process. 1. All species have great reproductive
10. (c) The correct Geological time scale of potential
earth is 2. Most populations are stable in size
Precambrian → Palaeozoic → 3. Natural resources are limited
(Era/Age of early life) Age of fishes 4. Individuals of a population have
Mesozoic → Coenozoic variations.
(Age of reptiles) (Age of mammals) 5. M o s t o f t h e va r i a t i o n s a r e
dinasaurs and cycads heritable.
A geological time scale is a diagram that Species with variations selected by
details the history of Earths geology,
nature.
noting major events like the formation
15. (c) Genetic drift is also known as Sewall
of the Earth, the first life forms and mass
extinctions. The first geological time Wright effect. It refers to the random
scale was proposed in 1913 by the British changes in gene frequencies in a
geologist Arthur Holmes (1890-1965). population by chance, either due to
The history of the earth has been intensive inbreeding or death of a
subdivided into eras, eras into periods small section of population by natural
and periods into major divisions. calamity. Its effect is more marked in
11. (b) Chemoheterotrophs were first organisms. small isolated population.
They were prokaryotic like bacteria,
16. (d) Adaptable
anaerobes, as molecular oxygen was
17. (d) Melanisation of Peppered Moth in
absent. They obtained energy by
fermentation of some of the organic industrial areas.
molecules present in the broth. Thus they 18. (d) Loss of tail
absorbed organic molecules from outside 19. (a) Jurassic period of Mesozoic era is known
for body building and energy. as “Golden age of Dinosaurs.
• Chemoautotrophs - Organisms • Coenozoic era is the age of insects,
that are capable to synthesize birds and mammals.
organic molecules from inorganic • Palaeozoic era of fishes.
molecules. 20. (c) Organs that are similar in fundamental
E.g., Nitrifying bacteria, sulphur
structure but different in functions
reducing bacteria etc.
are “Homologous organs”, Richard
• Autotrophs are photosynthesizing
plants /organisms. Owen, introduced the term homologous.
12. (a) Evolutionary convergence is a type of Pectoral fins of fish and fore limbs of
evolutionary pattern in which unrelated horse similar in structure but different
in functions are homologous organs. of similar traits in related groups of
Rest of the organs compared in the organisms independently due to similar
question are analogous organs. requirement e.g. running of two toed
21. (c) Evolutionary history of horse was deer and one toed Horse. Evolution
described by O.C. Marsh, 1879. Origin of wings in insects and birds serve as
of horse took place in Eocene period and example of convergent evolution.
first fossil of horse was Eohippus found 27. (b) Elements present on the surface of the
in North America. earth as well as in the early atmosphere
Evolutionary trend of Horse : combined to produce simple and
compound molecules. Atmospheric
elements produced molecules of

Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Water, CO, CO2,
Ammonia, methane etc. UV-radiations,
cosmic rays, lightening and heat made

22. (b) Dr. P. L. Sclater, 1858 divided the world these to react amongst themselves and
into 6-regions on the basis of distribution produce organ compounds like sugars,
of birds only, later in 1876 A.R. Wallace fatty acid, glycerol and amino acids.
adopted it for all the animals. These six CH4 + NH3 + CO2 + H2O→Amino
realms (regions) support evidence of acids
organic evolution.
23. (b) In the embryos of all vertebrates, the

presence of gill slits supports the theory
28. (c) Vestigial organs are those organs which
of recapitulation (repeating the early
are non-functional in the possessor but
stages of embryogenesis in earlier
evolved animals). were functional in their ancestors and in
24. (b) Homologous organs have same basic related animals. Human beings possess
structure and origin but they differ in their many vestigial organs like nictitating
external appearance and function. membrane in the eye, vermiform
25. (d) The sibling species are those species, appendix at the end of caecum, coccyx
which are born from a similar kind of and tail muscles, non-functional muscles
parents having similar morphology. But of the pinna, wisdom teeth, segmental
they are reproductively isolated. muscle of abdomen and nipples in
26. (b) Progressive evolution is development males.
of organisms with more elaborate 29. (d) This is known as Allen's rule.
and specialized structures from those 30. (a) Change of diet from fruits, hard nuts and
having less elaborate features e.g. roots to softer food encouraged settled
amphibians from reptiles .Retrogressive human life.
or degenerative evolution is development 31. (a) Australopithecus appeared in early
of simpler forms from more complex Pleistocene. Homo habilis had a cranial
ones. Such evolution has occurred in capacity of 700–800 cc.
case of vestigial organs, parasitic forms, 32. (a) Cranial capacity shows an increase form
and in reduction of overspecialized
apes to man which indicates increase in
structures such as wings in flightless
intelligence.
birds. Parallel evolution is formation
Evolution 311
33. (c) Cro-Magnon succeeded Neanderthal. 41. (b) Human body contains about 180 vestigial
Fossils of Neanderthal man have been organs coccyx, third molars (wisdom
found from Eroupe, Asia and north teeth) and muscles of abdomen etc.
Africa. Fossils of Australopithecus have 42. (a) Homeotic genes are the group of genes
been found in Africa. involved in the embryonic development
34. (b) Homologous organs are the organs and control the pattern of body formation.
having similar structural plan and Alleination in these gene found in flies
origin but performing different functions. like Drosophila result in development of
Analogous organs perform similar legs in place of wings.
function but have different structural 43. (c) Oligocene is masked by the rise of
and developmental origin e.g. wings of monkeys and apes. Miocene is masked
birds, wings of bat and wings of insects by appearance of man like apes. Pliocene
are analogous organs. is characterized by origin of man.
35. (c) Hardy - Weinberg law is the principle 44. (c) Chimpanzees and gorillas are our closest
of genetic equilibrium according relatives among the living primates.
to which in the absence of external 45. (a) Loss of a prehensile tail is associated
environmental disturbances, a randomly with the gradual development of errect
mating population remains in genetic posture and bipedal gait.
equilibrium. Lamarck postulated the 46. (a) Biogeography is the study of geographical
theory of inheritance of acquired distribution of organisms. Paleontology is
characters. Mendelian principles the study of past life based on fossils and
explained the inheritance of genetic fossil impressions. Anatomy is the study
characters from one generation to of internal structure. Embryology is the
another. study of development of embryo from
36. (a) Genetic drift can operate only on smaller zygote till it becomes an offspring.
populations where its fluctuation can 47. (c) Microevolution is a series of changes
be observed in the proportion of allele within a species due to gene mutations
distribution in the presence of external and accumulation of variations.
disturbances. Macroevolution is evolution in which
Genetic drift is the random change in taxa higher than the level of species
allele number and frequency in a gene are formed due to morphological and
pool. cytological changes. Formation of
37. (b) Dryopithecus lived about 20-25 million different functional forms of a basically
years ago. similar structure is called divergent
38. (a) Synthesis of organic molecules from evolution.
simple molecules is no longer possible 48. (a) Chimpanzee is the closest relative of man.
because of the oxidizing atmosphere. Banding pattern of human chromosome
39. (d) Nature select those set of characters that number 3 and 6 are remarkably similar to
are best adapted to the environment. This that of chimpanzee indicating common
has resulted in the great diversity seen in origin for both.
the population of finches. 49. (c) Peking man had a cranial capacity
40. (b) Cro-Magnon fossils have been found in of about 1000cc. Heidelberg man is
Europe. Neanderthal man is a transitional regarded as ancestor of Neanderthal
stage. Australopithecus appeared in early man. Cro-Magnon is the form of modern
Pleistocene. man living in Europe.
50. (d) According to both the views, 'something' mating. Mechanical isolation refers to
is passed from parent to offspring the differences in the position, size and
which causes development of specific structure of animal genitalia which
characters. prevent reproductive contact and thus
51. (b) These areas are geographically isolated bring about isolation.
from other continents by the oceanic 59. (c) Africa is often called as the cradle of
barrier which has prevented uniform man.
distribution of fauna. 60. (b) Mutation is any random sudden heritable
52. (b) In 5000 years a given amount of change occurring in the genetic material.
radioactive carbon would decay to half Sexual selection refers to selection of a
initial concentration. mate by an organism.
53. (b) Refer 24 61. (c)
54. (b) There is no life on moon due to absence 62. (b) According to Darwinism there is
of water. There are many other reasons differential reproduction, followed by
for being no life on moon, life insufficient struggle for existence, suitable variations
oxygens, unsuitable temperature etc. are selected by nature-natural selection.
55. (b) rRNA occurs inside ribosomes and 63. (d) The replacement of grey coloured moth
involved in protein synthesis, mRNA by dark coloured melanic species due
brings coded information from DNA to to industrial smoke is called industrial
form polypeptides. tRNA takes part in melanism. Initially on the lichen covered
transferring amino acids from cellular tree trunks, the mutant moths was more
pool to episomes for polymerization to conspicuous due to its black colouration
form polypeptides. and was therefore more susceptible
Carl Woese gave the theory of life to predation by birds. The large scale
based on his discovery that the genes bur ning of coal during industrial
encoding ribosomal RNA are ancient
revolution resulted in the deposition of
and distributed over all lineages of life
sooty particulate matter on tree trunks.
with little or no gene transfer. Therefore
Hence the grey coloured moths became
rRNA are commonly used to infer
more conspicuous to predatory birds.
phylogeny.
Thus the population of black moths
56. (b)
increased considerably.
57. (b) Gause's hypothesis states that two
64. (c) Migration refers to the movement of
different competing species cannot
individuals into and out of population.
coexist together for a long in the same
Mutation refers to random and sudden
niche, one has to get eliminated by the
heritable variations or changes arising in
other competing species, if they do
the genetic constitution.
coexist, then they do so as a result of
65. (a) Independent formation of functionally
niche differentiation, i.e. differentiation
similar structures by unrelated organism
of then realized niches.
is called convergent evolution.
58. (a) Seasonal isolation refers to the differences
66. (b) Those organs which have a common origin
in season of breeding that can isolate
and are built on the same anatomical
two varieties. Behavioural or ethological
pattern, but perform different functions
isolation refers to differences in behaviour
and are modified accordingly.
like courtship rituals etc. to prevent
Evolution 313
67. (a) In any population, there is always 74. (c) Animals resist predation by cryptic
competition for space and food coloration deceptive marking, behavioural
resources. defenses and possession of mechanical or
68. (a) Genetic drifts occurs only in small chemical defenses. Examples are
isolated population. colour change in Chameleon
69. (d) Amphibians have moved onto terrestrial Enlargement of body size by swallowing
habitat but they still need to go back to air in potter fish, Melanism in moths.
water for reproduction. The presence of 75. (a) According to Neodarwinism variation is
gills in tadpole indicate that amphibians the root cause of evolution.
have evolved from fishes. Fishes are 76. (d) Spallanzani’s experiment : He boiled the
completely aquatic so the other three meat and vegetables for more than an
options are incorrect. hour to prepare broth and placed them
70. (d) DNA from sex chromosomes, autosomes in open and sealed flasks. The maggots
and mitochondria reflect the entire
of housefly developed in the open flasks
genomic limit. Chromosome morphology
but did not appear in sealed flasks. This
is only partial.
disapproved the theory of spontaneous
71. (c) ESR, Electron Spin Resonance measures
creation. (Th. of abiogenesis).
number of charges occupying deep traps
77. (c) When DDT was sprayed to kill mosquitoes,
in crystal band gap.
there were only few mosquitoes which
Electron Paramagnetic Resonance (EPR)
were already resistant to DDT, and hence
or Electron Spin Resonance (ESR) is a
survived. Most of the mosquitoes which
spectroscopic technique which detects
species that have unpaired electrons, were sensitive to DDT died.
generally meaning that the molecule Due to differential reproduction the
in question is a free radical if it is an resistant mosquitoes got more chances of
organic molecule, or that it has transition reproduction and multiplied. After few
metal ions if it is an inorganic complex. generations most of the mosquitoes were
Because most stable molecules have a resistant. The sensitive were very few.
closed-shell configuration without a This supports Darwin’s theory of natural
suitable unpaired spin, the technique is selection and survival of the fittest.
less widely used than nuclear magnetic 78. (c) Adaptation is generally due to selection
resonance (NMR). The EPR was first of pre-existing variations and not due to
discovered in Kazan State University by new mutations or variations. This tends
Soviet physicist Yevgeniy Zavoyskiy in to support Darwin’s theory of natural
1944 selection. The basis was proved by replica
72. (b) According to Oparin, the atmosphere of plating experiment of Joshua Lederberg
calmative earth was reducing because its and Esther Lederberg. A number of
atoms were most numerous and most sterile agar plates having antibiotic
reactive. Free oxygen was not present in streptomycin were prepared. Bacteria
significant amount. were inoculated on the renicilling plates
Large quantities of H2, N2, water vapour, from the master plate by sterile velvet
CO2, CH4 and NH3 were present. plate. Most bacterial colonies did not form
73. (a) Electron Spin Resonance method is replicas and inoculum died. Moreover a
the most accurate method for dating of few colonies survived showing that they
fossils. were resistant to streptomycin.
79. (c) Pisum sativum - Mendel 84. (b) Archaeopteryx is a fossile (dead) found from
Drosophila melanogaster - T. H. Morgan. the mesozoic rocks. It is a connecting link
80. (b) Glutamic Acid is one of the non-essential between reptiles and birds.
amino acids, closely related to glutamine. 85. (c) The analogous organs show convergent
The two constitute a substantial fraction evolution due to similar adaptions which
of the amino acids in many proteins do not support organic evolution.
(10–20% in many cases and up to 45% 86. (d) Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in
in some plant proteins). An important the range of 680 - 720 c.c & that of .
metabolic intermediate as well as a Homo erectus erectus 775 - 990 c.c., Homo
neurotransmitter molecule in the central erectus pekinesis 915-1200 c.c. Homo
nervous system, glutamic acid finds uses nenderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c.
in medicine and biochemical research. Its 87. (c) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny.
sodium salt is the food flavour enhancer 88. (c) The concept of chemical evolution
monosodium glutamate (MSG). is based on possible origin of life
81. (d) Jurassic period of meoszoic era was by combination of chemicals under
about 19-20 crore years ago & lasted suitable environmental conditions. The
for about 5.5-6 crore years. The climate distribution of elements in the cosmos
was hot and damp. It is called the is the result of many processes in the
age of dinosaurs. Ist primitive bird history of the Universe. It provides us
Archaeopteryx evolved from reptiles. Ist with a powerful tool to study the Big
angiosperm appeared as a dicotyledon Bang, the density of baryonic matter,
but gymnosperms were dominant. nucleosynthesis and the formation and
82. (d) Paleontology is the study of fossils. evolution of stars and galaxies.
Ontogeny is the process of development 89. (c) The finches of Galapagos islands provides
of organism in the embr yo stage an evidence in favour of biogeographical
and phylogeny is known as the history evolution
of an organism through ages during 90. (d) O n l y b i r d s a n d m a m m a l s a r e
evolution. homeothermous.
83. (d) Homologous organs represent the 91. (a) Leech has ventral central nervous system
divergent evolution. These are the organs which consists of nerve ring, and a solid,
belonging to different organisms of double, mid ventral nerve cord with
different species may be for dissimilar ganglia.
function but they all have the same 92. (b) The analogous organs show convergent
basic structure. On the other hand evolution due to similar adaptation.
vestigial organs show that how a species They do not support organic evolution.
evolved from its ancestors through the Whale, seal and shark shows convergent
ages according to the use and disuse of evolution due to similar habitats.
organs. These are the organs which were 93. (d) During the period when the number
sometime functional in humans (or may of coal-burning factories in England
be any other organisms) but during the was increasing (during the so-called
course of evolution their utility gradually Industrial Revolution) it was noticed
decline and now they are present as non- that the number of melanic individuals
functional and vestigial organs. of the species of Peppered Moth (Biston
betularia) was becoming more common.
Evolution 315
Originally rare in the population of 99. (b) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of
normally light-colored moths, the Cucurbita are example of homologous
frequency of the melanic form increased chromosomes.
in polluted areas until it was over 90%. 100. (c) Nephridia of earthworm and malphigian
This change in color has come to be tubules of cockroch belongs to excretory
known as "industrial melanism." organs. Earthworm has a well developed
94. (a) Adaptive radiation refers to evolution excretory system which is composed
of different species from a common of large number of minute, coiled and
ancestor. The mammals are adapted glandular segmentally arranged excretory
for different mode of life i.e. they show tubules called the nephridia. Malphigian
adaptive radiation. They can be aerial tubules of cockroach are extremely
(bat), aquatic (whale and dolphins), fine yellowish unbranched thread like
burrowing or fossorial (rat), cursorial structure present at the function of
( horse), scantorial (squarrel) or arboreal
midgut and hindgut.
(monkey). The adaptive radiation,
101. (b) C o a c e r va t e i s a n a g g r e g a t e o f
the term by osborn, is also known as
macromolecules such as proteins, lipids
Divergent evolution.
and membrane and contain enzymes that
95. (b) Speciation takes place via reproductive
are capable of converting such substance
isolation which is the most important
as glucose into more complex molecules,
consequence of geographical isolation.
such as starch. Coacervate droplets
96. (a & d) Scales on their hind limbs and eggs
arise spontaneously under appropriate
with calcareous shell, indicates in birds
conditions and may have been the
about their reptilian ancestry.
prebiological systems from which living
97. (a) The theory of the continuity of the
ger mplasm published by August organisms originated.
Weismann (1834-1914) in 1886. It 102. (b) Peripatus is a genus of Onychophora
proposes that the contents of the (Velvet worms). It is said to be a living
reproductive cells (sperms and ova) are fossil because it has been unchanged
passed on unchanged from one generation for approximately 570 million years.
to the next, unaffected by any changes Peripatus is a nocturnal carnivore.
undergone by the rest of the body. It Peripatus is a connecting link between
thus rules out any possibility of the Annelida and Arthropoda. It feeds by
inheritance of acquired characteristics, trapping its prey (mostly small insects)
and has become fundamental to Neo- in a white, sticky fluid it ejects from two
Darwinian theory. antennae near its head. The fluid hardens
98. (a) Darwin's Finches are an excellent example on contact with the air and then the prey
of adaptive radiation. Adaptive radiation becomes immoblized.
is the occurrence of the diversification 103. (c) Darwin finches a good example of
of a single or small groups of species adaptive radiation. Adaptive radiation is
into a large number or descendents that a process of evolution of different species
occupy various ecological niches. This in a given geographical area starting from
is an evolutionary process driven by a point and radiating to other areas of
natural selection. geography.
104. (d) The most significant trend in evolution selection, sometimes the change in allele
of modern man (Homo sapiens) from frequency is so different in the new
his ancestors is development of brain sample of population that they become
capacity. a different species. The original drifted
105. (a) Process of evolution of different species population becomes founders and the
in a given area starting from a point and effect is called founder effect.
radiating to other area of geographical 113. (d) According to Darwin the organic
areas is called adaptive radiations. evolution is due to intraspecific
Example : Darwin’s finches, competition. Individuals of same species
Australian marsupials. have variation in characteristics. Those
106. (a) characteristics which enable some to
107. (d) survive better in natural conditions
108. (b) (climate, food, physical factors etc.)
109. (b) Mutations are alterations of genetic would outbreed others that are less-
material. They occur frequently during endowed to survive under such natural
DNA duplication in cell division. conditions. There, therefore, will survive
The idea of mutations was brought more and hence are selected by nature .
forth by Hugo de Vries. The plant He called it natural selection and implied
on which de Vries had experimented it as a mechanism of evolution.
was Oenothera lamarckiana (Evening 114. (d) Genetic drift is random change in allele
primrose). The mutation observed by number and frequency in a gene pool due
de Vries in Oenothera lamarckiana was to chance (e.g., small size of population).
chromosomal number variant. It is caused by sampling error or error in
110. (b) The eye of octopus and eye of cat show gene pool sample that is to form the next
different patterns of structure, yet they generation. The sampling gene pool is
perform similar functions. This is an generally small in size. Variability is also
example of analogous organs. limited.
Analogous organs have evolved due to 115. (b) Darwin observed an amazing diversity
convergent evolution . Analogous organs of creatures on galapagos islands. He
have developed in the evolutionary realised that there were many varieties
process through adaptation of quite of finches in the same island like seed-
different organisms to similar mode of
eating, with altered beaks insectivorous
life.
and vegetarian finches. Carrion are dead
111. (a) The wings is a classic example of con-
bodies. No finches feed on carrion.
vergent evolution. Flying insects, birds
116. (d) Dinosaurs dominated the world in
and bats same all evolved the capacity
mesozoic era. In Triassic period,
of flight independently. All four serve the
giant reptiles (dinosaurs) emerged. In
same function and are similar in structure
Jurassic period, dinosaurs diversified and
but anatomically different.
abundant (golden age of dinosaurs) and
112. (a) Genetic drift is variation in gene
in cretaceous period, mass extinction of
frequencies within populations can
dinosaurs occurred.
occur by chance rather than by natural
HAPTER
C
30 Health and Disease

1. Analgesic drugs [1990] 9. Which of the following pair is not correctly
(a) form tissues (b) relieve pain matched? [1995]
(c) relieve fatigue (d) cause pain (a) Dengue fever -arbovirus
2. Cells involved in immune mechanism are (b) Plague - Yersinia pestis
[1993] (c) Syphilis - Trichuris trichiura
(a) Erythrocytes (b) Lymphocytes (d) Malaria - Plasmodium vivax
(c) Eosinophils (d) Thrombocytes 10. Which of the following diseases is due to an
3. Opiate narcotic is [1993] allergic reaction? [1995]
(a) Bhang (b) Charas (a) Goitre (b) Skin cancer
(c) Heroin (d) Nicotine (c) Hay fever (d) Enteric fever
4. A cell coded protein formed in response to
11. The alkaloid ajmalicine is obtained from
infection with most animal viruses is [1994]
[1995]
(a) Antigen (b) Antibody
(c) Interferon (d) Histone (a) Atropa (b) Papaver
5. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of (c) Curcuma (d) Sarpgandha
organs is [1994] 12. Which one of the following is an Indian
(a) insufficiency of organ donors medicinal plant ? [1996]
(b) immunological rejection of foreign
(a) Saccharum officinarum
bodies
(c) religious or ethnic considerations (b) Rauwolfia serpentina
(d) lack of effective surgical techniques (c) Oryza sativa
6. Which one of the sexually transmitted diseases (d) Solanum melongena
is correctly matched with its pathogen?
13. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is associated
[1994]
with [1996]
(a) Urethritis – Bacillus anthracis
(b) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum (a) aberrant functioning of the immune
(c) Gonorrhoea – Entamoeba histolytica mechanism
(d) Soft sore – Bacillus brevis (b) increase in ambient temperature
7. A sexually transmitted disease caused by (c) age of the individual
bacteria is [1994] (d) food habits
(a) Leprosy (b) aids 14. In which one of the following pairs of diseases
(c) Syphilis (d) Pertussis both are caused by viruses ? [1996]
8. Sarcoma is cancer of [1994] (a) Tetanus and typhoid
(a) epithelial tissue (b) Whooping cough and sleeping sickness
(b) mesodermal tissue
(c) Syphilis and AIDS
(c) blood
(d) endodermal tissues (d) Measles and rabies
15. Retroviruses are implicated as a cause for 23. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja,
cancer in humans because they [1996] charas, marijuana or hashish) causes [1997]
(a) carry gene for reverse transcriptase (a) depression of brain activity and feeling
(b) may carry cellular proto-oncogenes in of calmness
their genome (b) alters thoughts, perce ptions and
(c) may carry v-oncogenes in their genome feelings
(d) carry single stranded RNA as their (c) suppresses brain function and relieves
genetic material pain
16. Passive immunity was discovered by [1996] (d) stimulates the nervous system and
(a) Edward Jenner increases alterness and activity.
(b) Emil von Behring 24. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a
protein coat and a genetic material which is
(c) Robert Koch
[1998, 2000]
(d) Louis Pasteur
(a) single stranded DNA
17. Chemically an antibody is a [1996, 99] (b) double stranded DNA
(a) lipid (b) nucleoprotein (c) single stranded RNA
(c) protein (d) lipoprotein (d) double stranded RNA
18. Which of the following symptoms indicate 25. Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum
radiation sickness? [1997] affects the [1998]
(a) Red and ulcerated skin (a) intestine
(b) Nausea and loss of hair (b) neuromuscular junction
(c) Nausea and anaemia (c) spleen
(d) Ulcerated skin, nausea, loss of hair and (d) lymph glands
anaemia 26. Typhoid fever is caused by [1998]
19. Diptheria is caused by [1997] (a) Salmonella (b) Shigella
(a) poisons released from dead bacterial cells (c) Escherichia (d) Giardia
into the host tissue 27. Vaccines are [1999]
(b) poisons released by living bacterial cells (a) treated bacteria or viruses or one of their
proteins
into the host tissue
(b) MHC (major histocompatibility complex)
(c) excessive immune response by the host's proteins
body
(c) curative medicines
(d) poisons released by virus into the host (d) monoclonal antibodies
tissues
28. The cell in the human body invaded by the
20. Which one of the following diseases is now human immuno-deficiency virus (HIV) is
considered nearly eradicated from India ? [1999, 2006]
(a) Plague (b) Kala azar [1997] (a) T-helper cell (b) Erythrocyte
(c) Small pox (d) Poliomyelitis (c) B-cell (d) Macrophage
21. If a certain person shows production of 29. It is not possible to apply Koch's postulates to
interferons in his body, the chances are that [1999]
he has got an infection of [1997] (a) Diptheria (b) Cholera
(a) typhoid (b) measles (c) Leprosy (d) Tuberculosis
(c) malaria (d) tetanus 30. During blood typing agglutination indicates
that the [1999]
22. Which one of the following is an opiate
narcotic? [1997] (a) RBC carry certain antigens
(b) Plasma contains certain antigens
(a) Barbiturates (b) Morphine
(c) RBC carry certain antibodies
(c) Amphetamines (d) LSD (d) Plasma contains certain antibodies
Health and Disease 319
31. Hybridoma cells are [1999] 40. L. S. D. is [2001]
(a) nervous cells of frog (a) hallucinogenic (b) sedative
(b) hybrid cells resulting from myeloma (c) stimulant (d) tranquiliser
cells 41. Which statement is correct about centre of
(c) only cells having oncogenes origin of plant? [2001]
(d) product of spore formation in bacteria (a) More diversity in improved varieties
32. Correctly match sexually transmitted disease (b) Frequency of dominant gene is more
with its pathogen? [2000] (c) Climatic conditions more favourable
(a) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum (d) None of these
(b) AIDS – Bacillus anthracis 42. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by
radiations due to [2002]
(c) Urethritis – Entamoeba gingivalis
(a) rapid cell division
(d) Gonorrhoea – Leishmania donovani
(b) lack of nutrition
33. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy, a bovine
(c) fast mutation
disease is related to which human disease ?
(d) lack of oxygen
[2000]
43. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother
(a) Cerebral spondylitis to foetus across placenta or through mother's
(b) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease milk to the infant is categorised as [2003]
(c) Encephalitis (a) innate non-specific immunity
(d) Kala-azar (b) active immunity
34. Small proteins produced by vertebrate cells (c) passive immunity
in response to viral infections inhibiting viral (d) cellular immunity
multiplication are known as [2000] 44. Carcinoma refers to [2003]
(a) Lipoproteins (b) Immuglobulins (a) benign tumours of the connective
(c) Interferons (d) Antitoxins tissue
35. For which of the following disease, there is (b) malignant tumours of the connective
preventive vaccine? [2000] tissue
(a) AIDS (b) Hepatitis B (c) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous
membrane
(c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhea
(d) malignant tumours of the colon
36. Which one of the following is correct
45. What is tr ue about T-lymphocytes in
match?
mammals? [2003]
(a) Reserpine — Tranquilizer [2001]
(a) These are produced in thyroid
(b) Cocaine — Opiate narcotic
(b) There are three main types — cytotoxic
(c) Morphine — Hallucinogenic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor
(d) Bhang — Analgesic T-cells
37. Salmonella is related with [2001] (c) These originate in lymphoid tissues
(a) Typhoid (b) Polio (d) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular
(c) T.B. (d) Tetanus debris
38. Which of the following is most infectious 46. Which one of the following conditions though
disease? [2001] harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour
from a mosquito borne infectious disease ?
(a) Hepatitis - B (b) AIDS
[2003]
(c) Amoebiosis (d) Malaria
(a) Leukemia
39. Reason of lung cancer [2001] (b) Thalassemia
(a) Asbestos (b) Calcium fluoride (c) Sickle cell anaemia
(c) Cement factory (d) Bauxite mining (d) Pernicious anaemia
47. Which one of the following is not correctly 55. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed
matched [2004] into human body for sonography ? [2007]
(a) Glossina palpalis - Sleeping sickness (a) 15 - 30 MHZ (b) 1 - 15 MHZ

(b) Culex pipiens - Filariasis (b) 45 - 70 MHZ (d) 30 - 45 MHZ.
(c) Aedes aegypti - Yellow fever 56. Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons
(d) Anopheles culifacies- Leishmaniasis are related to [2007]
48. ELISA is used to detect viruses, where (a) eating fruits preserved in tin containers
[2004]
(b) inhalation of seasonal pollen
(a) DNA-probes are required
(c) low temperature
(b) Southern bloting is done
(c) Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent (d) hot and humid environment.
(d) Catalase is the key reagent 57. Match the disease in Column I with the
appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/
49. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally
treatment) in Column II. [2008]
infects: [2005]
Column I Column II
(a) all lymphocytes
(a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
(b) activator B cells (b) Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized
(c) cytotoxic T cells food and water
(d) T4 lymphocytes (c) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
50. Which one of the following depresses brain (d) Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydra-
activity and produced feelings of calmness, tion therapy
relaxation and drowsiness? [2005] (a) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(a) Morphine (b) Valium (b) a - (ii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (iii)
(c) Amphetamines (d) Hashish (c) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (iv)
51. A person showing unpredictable moods, (d) a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (iv), d - (i)
outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour 58. Which one of the following is the correct
and conflicts with other is suffering from statement regarding the particular psychotropic
[2006] drug specified? [2008]
(a) Borderline personality disorder (BPD) (a) Hashish causes after thought perceptions
(b) Mood disorders and hallucinations
(b) Opium stimulates nervous system and
(c) Addictive disorders
causes hallucinations
(d) Schizophrenia (c) Mor phine leads to delusions and
52. The 'blue baby' syndrome results from[2006] disturbed emotions
(a) methaemoglobin (d) Barbiturates cause relaxation and
(b) excess of dissolved oxygen temporary euphoria
(c) excess of TDS (total dissolved solids) 59. To which type of barriers under innate
(d) excess of chloride immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the
tears from the eyes, belong? [2008]
53. Antibodies in our body are complex [2006]
(a) Cytokine barriers
(a) steroids (b) prostaglandins
(b) Cellular barriers
(c) glycoproteins (d) lipoproteins (c) Physiological barriers
54. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies (d) Physical barriers
in a person to which of the following would 60. Consider the following statements about
you look for confirmatory evidence? [2007] biomedical technologies [2008]
(a) serum globulins (a) During open heart surgery blood is
(b) fibrinogen in the plasma circulated in the heart-lung machine
(c) haemocytes (b) Blockage in coronary arteries is removed
(d) serum albumins by angiography
(c) Computerised axial tomography (CAT) 67. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of
shows detailed internal structure as seen [2010]
in a section of body (a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia
(d) X-ray provides clear and detailed images (c) Tuberculosis (d) Typhoid
of organs like prostate glands and lungs 68. Which one of the following statements is
Which two of the above statements are correct with respect to AIDS? [2010]
correct? (a) The HIV can be transmitted through
(a) b and d (b) c and d eating food together with an infected
(c) a and c (d) a and b person
61. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised (b) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV
by administering [2009] infection
.
(a) preformed antibodies (c) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent
(b) wide spectrum antibiotics per cent with proper care and nutrition
(c) weakened germs (d) The causative HIV retrovirus enters
(d) dead germs helper T - lymphocytes thus reducing
62. The letter T in T -lymphocyte refers to their numbers
(a) Thalamus (b) Tonsil [2009] 69. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the
(c) Thymus (d) Thyroid malarial parasite? [2011]
63. Which of the following is a pair of viral (a) Saliva of infected female Anopheles
diseases? [2009] mosquito
(a) Common cold, AIDS (b) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering
(b) Dysentery, common cold from malaria
(c) Typhoid, tuberculosis (c) Spleen of infected humans
(d) Ringworm, AIDS (d) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female
64. Which one of the following statements is Anopheles mosquito
correct? [2009] 70. At which stage of HIV infection does one
(a) Benign tumours show the property of usually show symptoms of AIDS? [2011]
metastasis. (a) When the infecting retrovirus enters host
(b) Heroin accelerates body functions. cells
(c) Malignant tumours ours may exhibit (b) When viral DNA is produced by reverse
metastasis. trancriptase
(d) Patients who have undergone surgery are (c) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper
given cannabinoids to relieve pain. T-lymphocytes and damages large
65. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a number of these
quick relief from [2009] (d) Within 15 day of sexual contact with an
(a) nausea (b) cough infected person.
(c) headache (d) allergy 71. Which one of the following is categorised as
66. Select the correct statement from the ones a parasite in true sense ? [2011]
given below? [2010] (a) The female Anopheles bites and sucks
(a) Barbiturates when given to criminals blood from humans
make them tell the truth (b) Human foetus developing inside the
(b) Morphine is often given to persons who uterus draws nourishment from the
have undergone surgery as a pain killer mother
(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure (c) Head louse living on the human scalp as
and heart rate well as laying eggs on human hair
(d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery (d) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s
as it stimulates recovery nest.
72. Which one of the following acts as a 77. Select the correct statement with respect to
physiological barrier to the entry of micro- diseases and immunisation? [2011M]
organisms in human body ? [2011] (a) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes
(a) Epithelium of urogenital tract are damaged, the body will not produce
(b) Tears antibodies against a pathogen
(c) Monocytes (b) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens
(d) Skin causes passive immunity
73. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering (c) Certain protozoans have been used to
f r o m A c q u i r e d I m mu n o D e f i c i e n c y mass produce hepatitis B vaccine.
Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will (d) Injection of snake antivenom against
you recommend for its detection? [2011] snake bite is an example of active
immunisation
(a) ELISA (b) MRI
78. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in :
(c) Ultra sound (d) WIDAL (a) Gut of female Anopheles [2012]
74. The pathogen Microsporum responsible (b) Salivary glands of Anopheles
for ringworm disease in humans belongs (c) Human RBCs
to the same kingdom of organisms as that (d) Human liver
of [2011M] 79. Widal Test is carried out to test : [2012]
(a) Taenia, a tapeworm (a) Malaria (b) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Wuchereria, a filarial worm (c) HIV/AIDS (d) Typhoid fever
(c) Rhizopus, a mould 80. Common cold differs from pneumonia in,
(d) Ascaris, a round worm that : [2012]
75. Which one of the following option (a) Pneumonia is a communicable disease
gives the correct matching of a disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional
with its causative organism and mode of deficiency disease.
infection. [2011M] (b) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live
attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the
Disease Causative Mode of common cold has no effective vaccine.
Organisms Infection (c) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the
(a)Typhoid Salmonella typhii With inspired common cold is caused by the bacterium
air Haemophilus influenzae.
(b)Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet (d) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli
pneumoniae Infection whereas the common cold affects nose
(c) Elephantiasis Wuchereria infected
and respiratory passage but not the
bancrofti water and
food lungs.
(d) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male 81. Which one of the following is not a property
vivax Anopheles of cancerous cells whereas the remaining
mosquito three are ? [2012]
(a) They compete with normal cells for vital
76. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics
because it is [2011M] nutrients.
(a) caused by a virus (b) They do not remain confined in the area
(b) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium of formation.
(c) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium (c) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
(d) not an infectious disease (d) They show contact inhibition.
82. In which one of the following options the two CH3
examples are correctly matched with their N O
particular type of immunity. [2012] CH3
O
Examples Types of
immunity H
O
(a) Polymorphonuclear Cellular
leukocytes and barriers H
(a) O
monocytes
(b) Active OH
Anti-tetanus and anti-
immunity
snake bite injection
(b)
(c) Saliva in mouth and Physical O
Tear in eyes barriers H
(d) Mucus coating of Physiological

Options
epithelium lining the barriers
Molecule Source Use
urinogenital tract-and
the HCl in stomach (a) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates
coca the transport
of dopamine
83. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic
(b) (b) Heroin Cannabis "Depressant
intake of [2012] sativa and slows
down body
(a) Opium
functions"
(b) Alcohol (c) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa Produces
(c) Tobacco (Chewing) belladona hallucinations
(d) Cocaine (d) (a) Morphine Papaver Sedative and
somniferum pain killer
84. Read the following four statements (A-D).
(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new 86. Which one of the following statements is
born because it is rich in antigens. correct with respect to immunity? [2012M]
(B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram (a) Preformed antibodies need to be injected
negative bacterium. to treat the bite by a viper snake.
(b) The antibodies against small pox pathogen
(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in
are produced by T – lymphocytes.
obtaining virus-free plants.
(c) Antibodies are protein molecules, each
(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of of which has four light chains.
fermented grape juice. (d) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function
How many of the above statements are of B-lymphocytes.
wrong? [2012M] 87. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :
(a) Two (b) Three [NEET 2013]
(a) Eating imperfectly cooked pork.
(c) Four (d) One
(b) Tse-tse fly.
85. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below
(c) Mosquito bite.
and select the right option giving their source
(d) Drinking water containing eggs of
and use. [2012M] Ascaris.
88. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human (c) Blood vessels of the thigh region
body is carried out by : [NEET 2013] (d) Skin between the fingers
(a) B-lymphocytes (b) Thrombocytes 90. Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic
(c) Erythrocytes (d) T-lymphocytes drug? [NEET Kar. 2013]
89. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is (a) Opium
normally found on human body (b) Caffeine
[NEET Kar. 2013] (c) Morphine
(a) Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs (d) Lysergic acid diethylamide
(b) Muscles of the legs
Solutions
1. (b) Analgesic dr ugs relieve pain eg. most common childhood bone cancers.
Ibrufene. Soft tissue sarcomas are more common
2. (b) Lymphocytes are the part of specific in adults than in children.
defence system called immune system. In all, sarcomas constitute fewer than 1%
3. (c) H e r o i n i s a n o p i a t e n a r c o t i c of all cancers. Its treatment is made more
(opium derivative) Chemically it is difficult with the existence of more than
diacetylmorphine. 70 varieties. Gastrointestinal stromal
4. (c) A special defence system works specially tumor (GIST) is the most common
against viral infection. It has no effect form of sarcoma, with approximately
on micro-organism. Cells invaded by a 3000-3500 cases per year in the United
virus produce an antiviral protein called States.
interferon (IFN). The latter is released 9. (c) ‘Syphilis-Trichuris tichiura’ is not correctly
from the infected cell and on reaching matched, because syphilis is caused by
the nearby non-infected cells it makes Treponema pallidium bacteria.
them resistant to the virus infection. 10. (c) Hay fever is due to some fungal spores
5. (b) The major obstacle in transplantation sensitivity, which is an allergic disease
of organs is that the recipient body does with symptoms of bronchial asthma
not accept the donor’s organ. The body and skin rash and also with increase in
defence mechanism reject & treat the eosinophil (white cells) of blood.
transplanted organ as a foreign particle 11. (d) Sarpgandha botanically known as
and reacts actively. Rauwolfia serpentina belongs to family
6. (b) Syphilis – T. pallidum Apocyanceae. Its tuberous roots are used
7. (c) Syphilis – T. pallidum as medicines. Ajmalicin is isolated from
8. (b) Sarcoma is a cancer of the connective Sarpgandha.
or supportive tissue (bone, cartilage, fat, 12. (b) Rauwolfia serpentina belong to family
muscle, blood vessels) and soft tissue.The Apocynaceae, its roots yield a chemical
term comes from a Greek word meaning useful for high blood pressure.
‘fleshy growth’. Bone tumors are also 13. (a) Allergy means all kinds of untoward
called sarcomas, but are in a separate reactions manifested in the body due
category because they have different to hypersensitivity of substances called
clinical and microscopic characteristics allergens. Allergy reactions occur due to
and are treated differently. Osteogenic liberation of histamine by tissue cells.
sarcoma or osteosarcoma is one of the
14. (d) Tetanus and typhoid are caused by 22. (b) Opiate Narcotics are opium and its
bacteria. derivatives which suppress brain activity
Whooping cough is caused by bacteria. and relieve pain. Also called pain killers.
Sleeping sickness is caused by parasitic These are extracted from unripe capsules
flees. of poppy plant (Papaver somniferum). eg.
Syphilis is caused by bacteria while AIDS Morphin, Heroin.
is final stage of HIV viral disease. 23. (b) Tranquillizers bring about depression of
Measles and Rabies are caused by brain activity and feeling of calmness.
virus. Stimulants stimulate the nervous system,
15. (b) Cancer is initiated when the inactive and increase alertness and activity.
protooncogenes are activated to cellular Hallucinogens (Cannabis products) alters
oncogenes which trigger uncontrolled thoughts, perceptions and feelings.
cell multiplication. 24. (c) HIV is a spherical, enveloped virus
16. (a) Robert Koch is associated with Koch’s of about 90-120 nm diameter. Its
postulates that help in determining nucleocapsid is icosahedral and its
whether a given micro-organism is genome consists of a single-stranded
pathogenic or not. Louis pasteur RNA filament segmented into two
identical filaments and associated with
experimentally proved that all life
a "reverse transcriptase enzyme".
originated from pre-existing life. Emil
25. (b) Botulism is caused by the ingestion of
Von Behring was a German physiologist
food containing the toxin of Clostridium
who received the 1901 Nobel Prize in
botulinum. Before the introduction of a
physiology or medicine.
strict canning code, the food canning
17. (c) Antibodies are specific proteins
industry was responsible for many
synthesized by the host in response to
deaths each year from botulism (Food
an antigen. All antibody molecules are
poisoning).
immunoglobulins.
Botulism is a rare but serious paralytic
18. (d) Exposure to radiation results in the illness caused by a nerve toxin that is
following immediate effects : produced by the bacterium Clostridium
(i) Change in cell metabolism botulinum. This bacterium produces
(ii) Crystallization of haemoglobin an exotoxin which is highly toxic for
(iii) Breakdown of RBCs the synaptic ends of the nerves where
(iv) Loss of hair, nails it blocks the release of acetylcholine
(v) Impairment of vision and damage which is a chemical necessary for the
of different tissues transmission of nerve impulse across the
19. (a) Diptheria is a highly infectious disease synapses.
caused by Cornybacterium diptheriae 26. (a) Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella
which liberates soluble toxin. The toxin typhi (S. typhosa). This is fasillus type.
affects nerves and cause double vision, Bacterial genus Shigella causes shigellosis
difficulty in swallowing and paralysis of or bacillary dysentry. Escherichia coli
breathing muscles and limbs. is a facultative anaerobe found in the
20. (c) Small pox, caused by Variola virus, is intestine of human beings.
an acute highly communicable disease Giardia is a flagellate protozoan, Glamblia
which has been irradicated not only from causes giardiasis a prolonged diarroheal
India but from the whole world. disease of humans.
21. (b) Interferons are produced in response to 27. (a) Vaccine contains dead, attenuated form
viral infections. Typhoid and tetanus are or antigen of a pathogen which can be
bacterial diseases. Malaria is caused by a injected to provide immunity towards
protozoan. Measles is a viral disease. that pathogen. Monoclonal antibodies
are homogenous immunological reagents
of defined specificity, so that these can be 34. (c) Lipoproteins are conjugated proteins
utilized for diagnosis and screening with having polypeptides in association
certainty. with lipids. Immunoglobulins are the
28. (a) AIDS is characterized by reduction in constituent of antibodies. Inteferons
the number of helper T- lymphocytes (INFs) are a group of three vertebrate
because of HIV infection. It suppresses glycoproteins (i.e. a, b, g,) Out of these
human immune system due to which any three a & b are produced within virally
secondary infection may lead to death. infected cells.
T-lymphocytes are main cells of immune Interferon induces among adjacent cells,
system. as antiviral state by inducing synthesis
29. (c) Koch's postulates are not applicable to of the enzymes which inhibit the viral
the bacteria causing leprosy and syphilis. production cycle.
Mycobacterium leprae causing leprosy 35. (b) Hepatitis is a viral disease; two subgroups
produces endospores on which Koch’s
are hepatitis type A virus (HAV) and
postulates are not applicable, because
hepatitis type B virus (HBV). HBV causes
Mycobacterium leprae cannot be cultured
serum hepatitis, it is most frequently
in vitro.
transmitted by blood, products of blood
30. (a) Antibodies bind to specific antigens to
produce large insoluble complexes which or blood contaminated instruments.
render them harmless and facilitate Since only adults are susceptible to HBV,
their destruction by other cells of the but vaccines are available. While children
immune system this process is called and young adults are susceptible to HAV,
agglutination. no vaccines are acceptable.
31. (b) Myeloma is a type of cancer associated 36. (a) Morphine is an opiate narcotic, Bhang
with abnormal production of irregular is a hallucinogen, Reserpine derived
antibodies. It occurs in antibody form Rauwolfia, is used as tranquilizer,
cocaine is a stimulant.
producing cells that have lost their
37. (a) Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani.
normal control.
Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium
Hybridomas are clones of hybrid cell
tuberculosae. Polio is caused by virus.
resulting from fusion of normal antibody Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever. The
producing B-cells with myeloma cells. incubation period is about two weeks.
32. (a) AIDS is caused by HIV virus and The patient first suffers from high fever
Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria of 40°C and continual headache.
gonorrhoea. Urethritis is inflammed of 38. (a) We know that HBV causes serum
the urethra by bacteria. hepatitis. It is most frequently transmitted
33. (b) Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy by blood or by blood contaminated
(BSE) is a total brain disease known instruments.
to exist in beef and other dairy cattle 39. (a) Asbestos fibres present in atmosphere due
in U.K. It is also known as mad cow to industrial emission cause lung cancers
disease. It is caused by prions. (asbestosis).
Creutzfeldt- Jacob Disease (CJD) is a 40. (a) LSD or (Lysergic acid diethylamide) is
slow degenerative disease among human an extract of ergot of fungus Claviceps
affecting central nervous system with purpurea. It is most powerful hallucinogen
dysfunction and degeneration of the which causes horrible dreams, chronic
brain. It has been suggested that a few psychosis etc.
people in Britain might have contracted 41. (b) Green manure comprises of a quick
CJD by eating BSE- infected beef. So growing herbaceous crop. They are
both are related. mixed with the soil to enrich the soil.
Encephalitis is an acute inflammation of They supply organic matter and also
additional nitrogen.
the brain mostly due to viral infection.
42. (a) The ability of radiations to kill cells is 52. (a) Methaemoglobin is a denatured
highest in the tissue with the highest haemoglobin causes blue baby
number of dividing cells. Tumour cells syndrome.
proliferate rapidly. Hence, tumours are 53. (c) Whenver our body gets attacked by some
killed more rapidly by radiations. foreign invadors, our body’s immune
43. (c) Passive immunity. system produces some chemicals to
44. (c) Carcinomas are malignant growths of the kill or to react against the invader.
epithelial tissue that cover or line body These chemicals are actually made
organs.
up of carbohydrates & proteins i.e.
45. (c) The lymphocytes which differentiate
glycoproteins called antibody.
in the thymus are known as the T
- lymphocytes. T-lymphocytes are 54. (a) Serum globulins It makes 2 to 3% of
responsible for the cellular immune plasma proteins. The a and b - globulin
response. sent with the hormones to transport them
46. (c) A sickle cell anaemia affected person the g–globulin from antibodies.
is more resistant to mosquito born 55. (b) Ultrasound imaging has frequency range
infectious disease because the sickle - cell 1 - 15 MHz which has become part of our
shaped RBCs are hostile to the protozoa lives in the last decade. We are now all
Plasmodium. familiar with the blurry black and white
47. (d) Leishmaniasis in transmitted by sand sonograms (ultrasound pictures) that
fly Phlebotomus argentipes. Anopheles show the unborn baby inside the mother's
transmits malaria. The rest of the options uterus. Although it may take a little
are correct combinations. imagination on our part to understand
48. (c) ELISA test is a technique used to detect that a round circle is the baby's head, that
and quantitate extremely small amount does not prevent a proud mother-to-be
of a protein, antibody or antigen with from showing off her first baby picture.
the help of enzyme. The commonly used
56. (b) Pollen–grains of many species are
enzymes are peroxidase and alkaline
responsible for some of the severe
phosphatase. Southern blotting and
DNA probes are used in molecular allergies and bronchial affliction in some
analysis of DNA. Catalase is not involved people often lead to chronic respiratory
in ELISA. disorders - asthma, bronchitis.
49. (d) AIDS virus infects T4 lymphocytes (also 57. (d) Amoebiasis : Use only sterilized food
called Helper cells). Cytotoxic T cells and water
called T8 lymphocytes. Diphtheria : DPT Vaccine
50. (b) Amphetamines bring about increased Cholera : Use oral rehydration
alertness and sleeplessness. Hashish is a therapy
hallucinogen. Valium is a tranquilizer. Syphilis : Treponema pallidum
Valium depresses brain activity and
58. (a) Hashish causes after thought perceptions
produces feeling of calmness, relaxation
and hallucinations. Hashish is a
and drowsiness. Morphine is an opiate
narcotic. preparation of Cannabis composed of
51. (a) In Borderline Personality Disorder the compressed trichomes collected
(BPD) a person suffers from emotionally from the Cannabis plant. Psychoactive
unstable personality, unpredictable effects vary between types of Hashish
moods, highly reactive, anxeity and but are usually the same as those of other
irritability. While in Schizophrenia a Cannabis preparations such as marijuana.
person suffers from distorted thoughts, Hash is generally prohibited to the same
he/she shows some extreme responses, extent as all other forms of cannabis. It
sometimes auditory hallucinations. is consumed in much the same way as
Cannabis buds, used by itself in miniature are not even a single cell. It is almost like
smoking pipes, vapourized, hot knifed, they are not alive at all. They are small
or smoked in joints mixed with tobacco, strands of DNA-like cell material. A
Cannabis buds or other herbs. virus consists mostly of RNA and cannot
59. (c) The saliva in the mouth and the tears survive without host cells.
from the eyes belongs to physiological 64. (c) Malignant tumours may exhibit
barriers. metastasis. Cancer (medical term:
60. (c) A modern hospital can make use of malignant neoplasm) is a class of
variety of sophisticated instruments diseases in which a group of cells display
and equipment of accurate diagnosis uncontrolled growth (division beyond
and treatment of diseases. Three the normal limits), invasion (intrusion
main categories of instruments and on and destruction of adjacent tissues),
equipments used are diagnostic, imaging and sometimes metastasis spread to
and therapeutic. other locations in the body via lymph or
From the above given statements, blood.
statement a & c are correct. 65. (c) The use of anti-histamines and steroids
• During open heart surgery blood gives a quick relief from headache.
is circulated in the heart lung Antihistamines are drugs that block the
machine. action of histamine (a compound released
• Computerised Axial Tomography in allergic inflammatory reactions) at
(CAT) shows detailed internal the H1 receptor sites, responsible for
structure as seen in a section of immediate hypersensitivity reactions
body. such as sneezing and itching.
61. (c) Tetanus toxoid is a vaccine consisting 66. (b) Morphine is potent opioid analgesic
of growth products of Clostridium tetani that is often given to persons (who have
treated with formaldehyde serving as undergone surgery) as a pain killer. It
an active immunising agent. Hence it is is mainly used to relieve severe and
weakened germs. The first tetanus toxoid persistent pain. It is administrated by
(inactivated toxin) was produced in 1924 mouth, injection or suppositories.
and was used successfully to prevent 67. (d) Widal test is used for the diagnosis of
typhoid. It is an agglutination test for
tetanus in the armed services during
the presence of antibodies against the
World War II. In the mid-1940s, tetanus
Salmonella organisms, which cause
vaccine was combined with diphtheria typhoid fever.
toxoid and inactivated pertussis vaccine
68. (d) AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency
to make the combination DTP vaccine
Syndrome) is caused by HIV retrovirus.
for routine childhood immunization.
62. (c) The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to The vir us destroys the helper
thymus. In human anatomy, the thymus T lymphocytes thus reducing their
is an organ located in the upper anterior numbers.
portion of the chest cavity just behind the 69. (a) Sporozoites of malarial parasite are
sternum. The thymus gland is a pink-grey found in saliva of infected female
organ that lies underneath the top of the Anopheles mosquito.
breast bone. 70. (c) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper
63. (a) Common Cold, AIDS is a pair of viral T-lymphocytes and damages large
number of these cells, at this stage
diseases. Viruses are a very common
infected persons start showing symptoms
type of infectious disease. Viruses are
of AIDS.
the smallest life-form existing, since they
71. (c) Head louse is an obligate ectoparasite of 80. (d) Common cold is most infectious viral
human scalp and as well as laying egg on disease caused by Rhino viruses which
human hair. is transmitted through inhalation of
72. (d) Skin has a metabolic function to prevent droplets from infected person or through
non- resident bacteria from developing. contaminated objects. Pneumonia is a
73. (a) ELISA is an fundamental tool of clinical bacterial disease caused by Streptococcus
immunology and is used as an initial pneumoniae and Haemophillus influenzae.
screen for HIV detection. This serious disease of lungs spread by
74. (c) M i c r o s p o r u m i s a m e m b e r o f sputum of the patient.
Deuteromycetes of fungi & Rhizopus is also 81. (d) Contact inhibition is a property of
fungi and member of Zygomycetes. normal cell not of cancer cells. Due to
75. (b) Pneumonia disease is spreaded by the this property they remain in contact with
other cells inhibit their growth.
organism Streptococcus pneumoniae and
82. (a) Polymorphonuclear leukoytes named
the mode of infection is by droplet so, as they have multilobed nucleus
infection. or neutrophils and monoytes are
76. (a) Common cold is due to rhinovirus. the cellular barrier provide innate or
Recent studies found that antibiotics do nonspecific immunity. Cellular barriers
not kill this virus. are the internal defence or second live
77. (a) B and T-lymphocytes produce antibodies of defence.
against pathogen in the body, if due to 83. (b) Long term intake of alcohol causes
some reason B and T lymphocytes are damage to liver which is known as
damaged the body will not produce cirrhosis of liver with continued alcohol
intake, there is destruction of hepatocytes
antibodies against a pathogen. Each B
and fibroblasts (cell which form fibres)
cell and T cell is specific for a particular
and slimulaties of collagean protein
antigen.
formation.
78. (a) Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs
84. (a) Statement (A) and (B) are wrong.
in gut of female Anopheles. Zygote
Colostrum is the first lacteal secretion
formed in stomach of mosquito about (thin yellowish fluid) produced by the
9 to 10 days after sucking the blood of mammary gland of a mother prior to the
an infected human. Anopheles receives production of milk. It is recommended
RBCs containing different stages of for the new born because it is rich in
erthyrocytic cycle, including gametocyte. antibodies and minerals.
In its gut, all stages except the gametocytes Chikungunya fever is a viral disease
are digested. The gametocytes remain transmitted to humans by the bite of
unaffected by digestive enzymes of the infected Aedes Aegypti mosquitoes.
mosquito, hatch out from the RBCs into 85. (d) Molecule (a) represents str ucture
the lumen of mosquito’s stomach and of morphine. Morphine is the most
form sperm and ovum by gametogenesis. abundant alkaloid found in opium, the
Syngamy or fusion of male and female dried sap (latex) derived from shallowly
gamete. slicing the unripe seedpods of the
79. (d) Widal test is carried out to test typhoid opium, or common and/or edible, poppy
fever caused by Salmonella typhii bacteria. Papaver somniferum. Morphine is a
Typhoid vaccine is available. potent opiate analgesic drug that is used
to relieve severe pain.
86. (a) Preformed antibodies need to be injected 89. (a) Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W.
to treat the bite by a viper snake. It is also malayi), filarial worms causing chronic
a type of immunization which is called inflammation of the organs in which
as passive immunization.
they live for many years, usually the
Antibodies, produced by B-cells, are
typically made of basic structural units— lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs
each with two large heavy chains and two and the disease caused by them known
small light chains. B cells differentiate as elephantiasis or filariasis. The genital
into plasma cells that secrete antibodies. organs are mainly affected, resulting in
Antibodies are proteins that bind to gross deformities. The pathogens are
specific antigens and mark them for
transmitted to a healthy person through
destruction by, for example, marking
them more recognizable to phagocytic the bite by the female mosquito vectors.
cells. Rejection of a kidney graft is not a 90. (d) Hallucinogens are drugs that cause
function of B lymphocyte. illusions and delusions (hallucinations)
87. (d) Ascaris, an intestinal parasite causes and change the feelings or perception.
ascariasis. Symptoms of these disease Examples are Bhang, Charas, Hashish,
include internal bleeding, muscular
Marijuana (all cannabinoids) and LSD
pain, fever, anemia and blockage of
the intestinal passage. The eggs of (Lysergic acid diethylamide). Opium and
the parasite are excreted along with morphine are opiate narcotics (opioids)
the faeces of infected persons which having analgesic (pain relieving effect)
contaminate soil, water, plants, etc. A while caffeine is a stimulant that increase
healthy person acquires this infection the activity of nervous system, and cause
through contaminated water vegetables,
awakening.
fruits, etc.
88. (d) T – lymphocytes mediates cell mediated
immunity (CMI). It is one of the two
types of acquired immunity responsible
for graft or transplant rejection.
HAPTER
C
31 Strategies for Enhancement in

Food Production
1. In crop improvement programme, haploids 7. The silkworm silk is the product of [1995]
are important because they (a) cuticle of the larva
[1989] (b) cuticle of the adult
(a) require one half of nutrients (c) salivary gland of the larva
(b) are helpful in study of meiosis (d) salivary gland of the adult
(c) grow better under adverse conditions 8. The long-term prospects for a truly human
(d) form perfect homozygous
civilization depend in a large measure on
2. Haploid plants are preferred over diploids for
[1996]
mutation study because in haploids [1993]
(a) r e c e s s i v e m u t a t i o n e x p r e s s e s (a) the ability of humanity to moderate its
immediately fecundity
(b) induction of mutations is easier (b) increasing the food production
(c) culturing is easier (c) colonization of underpopulated areas
(d) d o m i n a n t m u t a t i o n e x p r e s s e s (d) control of human diseases
immediately 9. Pasteurization of milk involve heating for
3. Most of our crop plants are [1994] [1996]
(a) autopolyploid in origin (a) 60 minutes at about 90ºC
(b) allopolyploid in origin (b) 30 minutes at about 50ºC
(c) mixed genotypic in origin (c) 30 minutes at about 65ºC
(d) heterozygous in origin (d) 60 minutes at 100ºC
4. Haploid plant cultures are obtained from
10. The earliest animal to have been domesticated
[1994]
by man was most likely the [1996]
(a) leaves (b) root tip
(c) pollen grains (d) buds (a) horse (b) cow
5. The rotenone is [1995] (c) dog (d) pig
(a) an insect hormone 11. Which one of the following is an exotic Indian
(b) a bioherbicide fish ? [1996]
(c) a natural herbicide (a) Catla catla
(d) a natural insecticide (b) Heteropneustes fossilis
6. One of the major difficulties in the biological (c) Cyprinus carpio
control of insect pests is the [1995] (d) Lebeo rohita
(a) practical difficulty of introducing the 12. Suppression of reproduction of one type of
predator to specific areas organism by utilizing some features of its
(b) method is less effective as compared with biology or physiology to destroy it or by use
the use of insecticides
of another organism is known as [1996]
(c) predator does not always survive when
(a) competition
transferred to a new environment
(d) the predator develops a preference to (b) predation
other diets and may itself become a (c) biological control
pest. (d) physiological control
13. Of the world’s top five crops in terms of (b) retardation of body growth, precocious
annual production [1997] puberty and renal dysfunction
(a) all five belong to the family Poaceae (c) mental retardation, delay in the
(Gramineae) onset of puberty and cardiovascular
(b) four belong to Poaceae (Graminaeae) and abnormalities
one to Leguminosae (d) gross skeletal deformation and thinning
(c) four belong to Poaceae (Gramineae) and of collagen fibres and fibrils
one to Solanaceae
19. Biological control component is central to
(d) three belong to Poaceae (Gramineae),
advanced agricultural production. Which of
one to Leguminosae and one to
the following is used as a third generation
Solanaceae.
pesticide? [1998]
14. Which of the following has been recently
used for increasing productivity of super milk (a) Insect repellants
cows? [1997] (b) Pheromones
(a) Artificial insemination by a pedigreed (c) Pathogens
bull only (d) Insect hormone analogues
(b) Superovulation of a high production cow 20. Which of the following pesticides is an acetyl-
only cholinesterase inhibitor? [1998]
(c) Embryo transplantation only (a) Y-BHC (b) Endosulfan
(d) A combination of superovulation, (c) Malathion (d) Aldrin
artificial insemination and embryo 21. Which one among the following chemicals is
transplantation into a 'carrier cow' used for causing defoliation of forest trees?
(surrogate mother) [1998]
15. In the silk worm, if no juvenile hormone (JH) (a) Phosphon-D
is present when it moults, it will [1997] (b) Malic hydrazide
(a) die (c) 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
(b) moult into another larval stage (d) Amo-1618
(c) moult into pupa 22. What is Agent Orange? [1998]
(d) moult into an adult
(a) Colour used in fluorescent lamps
16. Honey is [1997]
(b) A weedicide containing dioxin
(a) acidic
(b) alkaline (c) A biodegradable insecticide
(c) neutral (d) A hazardous chemical used in luminous
(d) acidic when fresh and alkaline when paints
old 23. Which one of the following insecticides is
17. The reason why vegetatively reproducing crop more stable in the environment?
plants are best suited for maintaining hybrid [1999]
vigour is that [1998] (a) DDT (b) Diazinon
(a) once a desired hybrid has been produced (c) Camphechlor (d) Malathion
there are few chances of losing it 24. The first transgenic crop was [1999]
(b) they have a longer life span (a) pea (b) flax
(c) they are more resistant to diseases
(c) tobacco (d) cotton
(d) they can be easily propagated
25. The new varieties of plants are produced by
18. Lathyrism which is caused by consumption
of Khesari dal is a disease characterised by [1999]
[1998] (a) selection and hybridization
(a) reproductive failure, susceptibility (b) mutation and selection
to diabetes mellitus and skeletal (c) introduction and mutation
abnormalities (d) selection and intro
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 333
26. The worker honey bee normally lives for 34. Which endangered animal is the source of
about [1999] world's finest, lightest, warmest and most
(a) 15 days (b) 30 days expensive wool the shahtoosh ? [2003]
(c) 90 days (d) 10 days (a) Chiru (b) Nilgai
27. Which one of the following statement is (c) Cheetal (d) Kashmiri goat
correct in relation to honey bees? [2000] 35. Which of the following plants are used
(a) Apis indica is the largest wild honey bee as green manure in crop fields and in sandy
in India soils ? [2003]
(b) Honey is predominantly sucrose and (a) Dichanthium annulatum and Azolla
arabinose nilotica
(c) Beewax is a waste product of honey (b) Crotalaria juncea and Alhagi camelorum
bees
(c) Calotropis procera and Phyllanthus
(d) Communication in honey bees was
niruri
discovered by Karl Von Frisch
(d) Saccharum munja and Lantana camara
28. What is the best pH of soil for cultivation of
36. Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by
plants? [2001]
(a) 3.4 – 5.4 (b) 6.5 – 7.5 [2003]
(c) 4.5 – 8.5 (d) 5.6 – 6.5 (a) only bacterial cells
29. Before European invader which vegetable was (b) only gymnosperm cells
absent in India? [2001] (c) all plant cells
(a) Potato and Tomato (d) all eukaryotic cells
(b) Simla mirch and Brinjal 37. India’s wheat yield revolution in the 1960s
(c) Maize and Chichinda was possible primarily due to [2004]
(d) Brinjal and Lady's finger (a) hybrid seeds
30. In Lederberg's replica experiment what shall (b) increased chlorophyll content
be used to obtain streptomycin-resistant (c) mutations resulting in plant height
strain? [2001] reduction
(a) minimal medium and streptomycin (d) quantitative trait mutations
(b) complete medium and streptomycin 38. The most likely reason for the development
(c) only minimal medium of resistance against pesticides in insects
(d) only complete medium damaging a crop is [2004]
31. Which of the following crops have been (a) random mutations
brought to India from New world? [2002] (b) genetic recombination
(a) Cashewnut, potato, rubber (c) directed mutations
(b) Mango, tea (d) acquired heritable chages
(c) Tea, rubber, mango 39. The technique of obtaining large number of
(d) Coffee
plantlets by tissue culture method is called
32. Reason of fast speciation in present day
[2004]
crop plants is [2002]
(a) Plantlet culture
(a) mutation
(b) Organ culture
(b) isolation
(c) polyploidy (c) Micropropagation
(d) sexual reproduction (d) Macropropagation
33. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids 40. Three crops that contribute maximum to
formed from pollen grains is due to [2002] global food grain production are [2005]
(a) cellular totipotency (a) Wheat, rice and maize
(b) organogenesis (b) Wheat, rice and barley
(c) double fertilization (c) Wheat, maize and sorghum
(d) test – tube culture (d) Rice, maize and sorghum
41. The world’s highly prized wool yielding (a) Agar agar (b) Ripe banana
'Pashmina' breed is [2005] (c) Cow dung (d) Moist bread
(a) goat 48. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited
(b) sheep by [2006]
(c) goat-sheep cross (a) crossing of two inbred parental lines
(d) Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross (b) harvesting seeds from the most productive
42. In order to obtain virus-free plants through plants
tissue culture the best method is [2006] (c) inducing mutations
(a) Embryo rescue (d) bombarding the protoplast with DNA
(b) Anther culture 49. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced
(c) Meristem culture by [2006]
(d) Protoplast culture (a) treating the plants with low concentrations
43. Crop plants grown in monoculture are of gibberellic acid and auxins
[2006] (b) raising the plants from vernalized seeds
(a) free from intraspecific competition (c) treating the plants with phenylmercuric
(b) characterised by poor root system acetate
(c) highly prone to pests (d) removing androecium of flowers before
(d) low in yield pollen grains are released
44. Farmers in a particular region were concerned 50. Which one of the following is being utilized
that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse as a source of biodiesel in the Indian
crop might cause decrease in the yield. Which countryside? [2007]
treatment could be most beneficial to obtain (a) Betroot (b) Sugarcane
maximum seed yield ? [2006] (c) Pongamia (d) Euphorbia
(a) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins 51. Which one of the following pairs of organisms
along with a small dose of nitrogenous are exotic species introduced in India ?
fertilizer [2007]
(b) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying (a) Lantana camara, water hyacinth
the remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5- (b) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria
trichlorophenoxy acetic acid (c) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
(c) Application of iron and magnesium to (d) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
promote synthesis of chlorophyll 52. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited
(d) Frequent irrigation of the crop by [2007]
45. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has (a) crossing of two inbred parental lines
been obtained by crossing wheat with [2006] (b) harvesting seeds from the most productive
(a) pearl millet (b) sugarcane plants
(c) barley (d) rye (c) inducing mutations
46. Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the (d) bombarding the seeds with DNA.
activity of [2006] 53. Which one of the following pairs is
(a) mycorrhiza (b) viruses mismatched? [2007]
(c) fungi (d) bacteria (a) Apis indica - honey
47. Which one of the following is the most (b) Kenia lacca - lac
suitable medium for culture of Drosophila (c) Bombyx mori - silk
melanogaster? [2006] (d) Pila globosa - pearl
54. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because 59. Which of the following is not used as a
of [2007] biopesticide ? [2009]
(a) higher levels of cortisone (a) Trichoderma harzianum
(b) lower levels of blood testosterone (b) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)
(c) Xanthomonas campestris
(c) lower levels of adrenaline/ noradrenaline
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis
in its blood
60. Somaclones are obtained by [2009]
(d) higher levels of thyroxine.
(a) plant breeding
55. Which one of the following is a viral disease (b) irradiation
of poultry ? [2007] (c) genetic engineering
(a) Coryza (d) tissue culture
(b) New castle disease 61. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals,
(c) Pasteurellosis vitamins and proteins is called [2010]
(d) Salmonellosis. (a) Somatic hybridisation
56. Consider the following four measures (a-d) (b) Biofortification
(c) Biomagnification
that could be taken to successfully grow
(d) Micropropagation
chickpea in an area where bacteri blight
62. An improved variety of transgenic basmati
disease is common [2008] rice [2010]
(a) Spray with Bordeaux mixture (a) does not require chemical fertilizers and
(b) Control of the insect vector of the disease growth hormones
pathogen (b) g ive s h i g h y i e l d a n d i s r i c h i n
(c) Use of only disease-free seeds vitamin A
(d) Use of varieties resistant to the disease (c) is completely resistant to all insect pests
Which two of the above measures can control and diseases of paddy
the disease? (d) gives high yield but has no characteristic
aroma
(a) b and c (b) a and b
63. Jaya and Ratna developed for green revolution
(c) c and d (d) a and d
in India are the varieties of [2011]
57. Which one of the following proved effective (a) maize (b) rice
for biological control of nematodal disease in (c) wheat (d) bajra
plants? [2008] 64. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and
(a) Pisolithus tinctorius selection for disease resistance against rust
(b) Pseudomonas cepacia pathogens is a variety of [2011]
(c) Gliocladium virens (a) chilli (b) maize
(d) Paecilomyces lilacinus (c) sugarcane (d) wheat
58. What is antisense technology? [2008] 65. The process of RNA interference has been
used in the development of plants resistant
(a) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used
to [2011]
for synthesis of antigens
(a) nematodes (b) fungi
(b) Production of somaclonal variants in (c) viruses (d) insects
tissue cultures 66. Which part would be most suitable for raising
(e) W h e n a p i e c e o f R NA t h a t i s virus-free plants for micropropagation ?
complementary in sequence is used to [2012]
stop expression of a specific gene (a) Bark (b) Vascular tissue
(d) RNA polymerase producing DNA (c) Meristem (d) Node
67. Which one of the following is a case of wrong Options :
matching [2012] (a) Statements (3), (4)
(a) Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two (b) Statements (1), (3) and (4)
diverse cells (c) Statements (2), (3) and (4)
(b) Vector DNA -Site for t-RNA synthesis. (d) Statements (1), (2)
(c) Micropropagation - in vitro production 70. In plant breeding programmes, the entire
of plants in large numbers.
collection (of plants/seeds) having all the
(d) Callus - Unorganised mass of cell
produced in tissue culture diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is
called : [NEET 2013]
68. Green revolution in India occurred during
(a) cross-hybridisation among the selected
[2012M] parents.
(a) 1960.s (b) 1970.s (b) evaluation and selection of parents.
(c) 1980.s (d) 1950.s (c) germplasm collection
69. Consider the following four statements (A-D) (d) selection of superior recombinants.
and select the option which includes all the 71. Which of the following has maximum genetic
correct ones only. [2012M] diversity in India? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(1) Single cell Spirulina can produce large (a) Rice (b) Mango
quantities of food rich in protein, (c) Wheat (d) Groundnut
minerals, vitamins etc. 72. Tissue culture technique can produce infinite
(2) Body weight-wise the micro-organism number of new plants from a small parental
Methylophilus methylotrophus may tissue. The economic importance of the
be able to produce several times more technique is in raising [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Variants through picking up somaclonal
proteins than the cows per day.
variations
(3) Common button mushrooms are a very
(b) Genetically uniform population identical
rich source of vitamin C. to the original parent
(4) A rice variety has been developed which (c) Homozygous diploid plants
is very rich in calcium. (d) Development of new species
Solutions
1. (d) In crop improvement programme, pupa is killed with hot air or steam to
haploids are very important because preserve the thread intact.
they form perfect homozygous which
8. (d) The long-term prospects for a truly
are helpful to get a pure line.
human civilization depend in a large
2. (a) Mutations are generally recessive so they measure on control of human diseases.
are not expressed in their heterozygous
9. (c) Pasteurization of milk is a method of
condition. If plant is haploid then
partial sterilization by heating milk at
mutation can express themselves.
60 – 70°C for 30 min.
3. (a) The polyploidy which occurs within a
10. (c) Dog was the first animal to be
species & results due to multiplication
domesticated by man.
of the same set of chromosomes is called
autopolyploidy. 11. (c) Catla catla and Labeo rohita are the
two Indian major carps whereas
4. (c) All others are diploid but pollen grain is
Heteropneustes is a catfish. Cyprinus is
haploid.
the exotic breed.
5. (d) The rotenone is a natural insecticide with
12. (c) Suppression of reproduction of one type
minimal or almost no side affects. It is
of organism by utilizing some features of
an isoflavonoid extracted from the root
its biology or physiology to destroy it or
of Derris.
by use of another organism is known as
6. (d) Biological control refers the use of biological control.
living organisms like natural predators
13. (c) The top five crops are : Potato (which
and parasites to reduce pest population
belongs to the family Solanaceae) and
and control diseases. However they
Wheat, Rice, Corn, Barley (which
may become pest as they can develop a
belongs to the family Poaceae).
preference to other diets.
14. (d) In superovulation, a high milk yielding
7. (c) The saliva from the salivary gland of
cow is induced to shed 4–6 eggs (instead
silkworm is the component of silk and
of one) every 6–8 weeks (instead of
is produced by the larva of the silkworm
20–21 days). The superovulated donor is
(cocoon). The Chinese silkworm (B.
artificially inseminated with semen from
mori) has been used in commercial silk
a quality bull. The embryos developing
production for centuries. The adult,
from the eggs so fertilised are flushed
which has a wingspan of about 2 in.
out. These good quality embryos are
(50 mm) and a thick, hairy body, lives
now transfered to surrogate mother for
only two or three days. The female lays
delivery.
300–500 eggs. The pale, naked larvae
are fed mulberry leaves until pupation 15. (b) The presence of juvenile hormone is
begins, when they are about 3 in. (75 necessary for metamorphosis to adult.
mm) long. They spin a cocoon of one 16. (a) The pH of honey ranges from 3.4 to 6.1,
continuous white or yellow silken thread, average being 3.9.
about 1,000 yards (900 m) long. The
17. (a) In vegetative reproduction the same 2, 4-D or 2, 4 Dichlorophenoxy acetic
genotype can be propagated from one acid is an auxin hormone. It stimulates
generation to the next. the growth activities of the cells of the
root due to which roots get destroyed and
18. (d) Lathyrism which is caused by consumption
thus plants finally destroys. 2, 4-D is used
of Khesari dal is a disease characterised
as a defoliant for broad leaved dicots.
by gross skeletal deformation and
thinning of collagen fibres and fibrils. 22. (b) Agent orange has equal parts of 2, 4-D
and 2, 4, 5-T and is found to contain
19. (b) Inorganic substances, oils, plant extracts
highly poisonous chemical dioxin as
used as insecticides are called first
impurities.
generation pesticides.
23. (a) DDT cannot be further metabolized into
Synthetic organic compounds are any stable by product.
known as second generation pesticides.
Insect hormones are third generation 24. (c) The first transgenic crop was tobacco
pesticides. developed in USA in 1986, it was
herbicide resistant.
Pheromones are the chemical substances
25. (a) Selection is picking up only those plants
which when released into an animal's
for reproduction which have desired
surroundings, influence the behaviour
qualities. Hybridization is crossing of
or development of other individuals of
two or more types of plants for bringing
the same species.
their traits together in the progeny.
Insect hormone analogues help in Introduction is taking a plant or a new
trapping the insects by confusing them as variety from an area where it grows
they mimic the odour of pheromones. naturally to a region where it does not
20. (c) Malathion is an organophosphate occur before.
parasympathomimetic which binds 26. (c) The worker honey bee normally lives for
irreversibly to cholinesterase. Malathion about 90 days.
is an insecticide of relatively low human 27. (d) Karl Von Frisch, carried out many
toxicity.However, malathion breaks down experiments and determined that when
into malaoxon, which is 60 times more a foraging bee returns to the hive, it
toxic than malathion. For this reason, if performs a waggle dance. Honey is
malathion is used or somehow enters an predominantly glucose and fructose.
indoor environment, as it breaks down Dorsata is a biger bee than Apis indica
into malaoxon, it can seriously and (a medium sized bee). Bees wax is
chronically poison the occupants living secreted by special wax glands to make
or working in this environmnent. compartments.
Malathion present in untreated water 28. (b) The best pH of soil for cultivation of
is converted to malaoxon during the plants is 6.5 – 7.5.
chlorination phase of water treatment, so
29. (a) Potato and tomato originated in the new
malathion should not be used in waters
world.
that may be used as a source for drinking
water, or any upstream waters. 30. (b) This combination allows to select only
streptomycin resistant strains and non
21. (c) 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid is used
resistant strains would die on medium
for causing defoliation of forest trees.
containing antibiotic streptomycin.
31. (a) Cashewnut, potato, rubber crops have 40. (a) Three crops that contribute maximum to
been brought to India from New global food grain production are Wheat,
world. rice and maize, which belong to the
family Poaceae (Graminae).
32. (c) The phenomenon of having one or more
genomes in addition to the normal for the 41. (a) The world’s highly prized wool yielding
species is called polyploidy. Pashmina breed is the under fur of
Kashmiri and Tibetan goats.
33. (a) Cellular totipotency is the ability, shown
by many living cells to form all types Pashmina is an almost generic name for
of tissue that constitute the mature accessories made from a type of mohair
organism. that is obtained from a special breed of
goat indigenous to high altitudes of the
34. (d) Himalayan Range Belt of Asia.
35. (b) Crotolaria juncea and Alhagi camelorum are The name comes from Pashmineh, made
among the plants which are used as green from Persian pashm (= “wool”). The
manures in India. These green manures special goat’s fleece has been used for
help the soil through increasement of thousands of years to make high-quality
area and water holding capacities and shawls that also bear the same name.
fertility. Correct Answer is C.
42. (c) Meristem culture is done for the
36. (c) Cellular totipotency is exhibited only by development of vir us free plants.
plant cells wherein the plant cells retain Meristematic tissue cell can be taken
the ability to deactivate and form the new either from shoot or root tip.
dividing cells.
43. (c) Crop plants grown in monoculture are
37. (c) Green revolution was possible due to highly prone to pests.
hybridization. Increased chlorophyll 44. (c) Because iron promotes the formation
extent has no effect on yield of crops. of chlorophyll and magnesium is an
Hybrid plants were dwarf because of integral part of chlorophyll molecule so
selection. Quantitative trait mutations in the absence of these nutrients plants
are not involved in hybridization. show chlorosis & leaves get yellowing.
In 1963, ICAR introduced many Application of iron and magnesium to
selections from CIMMYT include those promote the synthesis of chlorophyll can
developed by Norman Borlaugh using cure the disease.
Norin-10 as the source of dwarfing 45. (d) Triticale is the Ist man made cereal which
genes (CIMMYT-Centro International is made by the crossing of wheat (Triticum
de Mejoramiento de Maiz Y Trigo). aestivum) and Rye (Secale cereale).
38. (a) According to Darwin resistance to 46. (d) For curing of tea a bacteria Mycococcus
pesticides has a genetic basis due to candisans is used.
presence of certain alleles. In the presence
Curing of tea leaves is brought about by
of pesticides, the insects devoid of the
the activity of bacteria. It is essentially
allele for resistance die while the ones
an oxidation. dry fermentation process,
having them survive. They are selected
during which water is driven off the green
by nature.
colour is lost and the leaves assume a
39. (a) Plantlet culture. tougher texture and undergo chemical
changes.
Mycorrhiza is mutually beneficial 50. (c) Pongamia pinnata is one of the few
association between fungi and the roots nitrogen fixing trees (NFTS) to produce
of higher plants. Virus and fungi are seeds containing 30-40% oil. It is often
not involved in the curing process of tea planted as an ornamental and shade
leaves. tree but now-a-days it is considered as
alternative source for Bio- Diesel. This
47. (b) The most suitable culture medium for
species is commonly called pongam,
Drosophila melanogastor is ripe banana.
karanja, or a derivation of these
Drosophila Melanogaster is commonly names. Pongami, jatropa, Euphorbia
called as fruitfly and is often used in are petrocrops. However, in the Indian
genetic and developmental biology countryside, pongamia(kanjar) is being
researches. Moist bread is a culture utilized as a source of biodiesel.
medium for the fungus Rhizopus while
51. (a) Exotic Species - a species that has been
Agar-agar is used as a tissue culture
introduced from another geographic
medium.
region to an area outside its natural
48. (a) In maize (or in other plants) hybrid range. Examples are water hyacinth,
vigour in exploited by the crossing of Lantana camara.
two inbred (very closely related) plants
52. (a) Hybrid vigour is also called Helorosis
because crossing of inbred varieties
which is measured in terms of size
causes homozygosity and due to which
growth rate / field and number of other
hybrid vigour will be diminished because
characters. Hybridisation increases
in homozygosity so many recessive
vigour and fertility. It is exploited by
traits start showing their phenotypic
crosing of two in bred parental lines.
expression.
It is best maintained in vegetatively
49. (a) Parthenocarpy is the development of reproducing crops because of genetic
fruits without prior fertilization which recombinations.
results in the formation of seedless fruits.
53. (d) From Pinetada vulgaris, pearl is
In some plant species, parthenocarpic
obtained.
fruits are produced naturally or they
may be induced by treatment of the 54. (b) The bullock is castrated and therefore
unpollinated flowers with auxin. secretion of testosterone is not
adequate.
Removal of androecium before pollen
release is called emasculation which 55. (b) Newcastle disease (ND) is a highly
is helpful in preventing unwanted contagious, generalised viral disease
pollination. Ver nalized seeds are of domestic poultry and wild birds
the child treated seeds for breaking characterised by gastro-intestinal,
dormancy. Phenyl Mercuric Acetate is respiratory and nervous signs.
an antitranspirant.
56. (c) Use of only disease free seeds and use
Gibberellins and Auxins are known of disease resistant varieties are the most
to induce parthenocarpy in plants. If important control measures that could
a tomato plant is treated with a low be taken to successfully grow chickpea
concentration of auxin and gibberellic in an area where bacterial blight disease
acid it’ll produce fr uits without is common.
fertilization i.e. parthenocarpic fruits.
57. (c) Paecilomyces is a cosmopolitan filamentous 63. (b) Jaya and Ratna are two rice varieties
fungus which inhabits the soil, decaying developed for green revolution in India.
plants, and food products. Some species
• The scientific name of Jaya is IET-723.
of Paecilomyces are isolated from insect.
This paddy variety takes about 130 days
The telomorphs of Paecilomyces are
to grow and the grain is long, bold and
classified in the genera Cilromocleista,
white. Its yield is 50-60 quintals per
Talaromyces. Paecilomyeces is usually
considered as a contaminant but may hectare.
also cause infections in humans and • The scientific name of ‘Ratna’ is IET-
animals. 1411. It takes about 130-135 days to grow.
58. (c) An RNA molecule whose base sequence The grain is long, slender and white. Its
is complementary to that of the RNA yield is 45-50 quintal/hectare.
transcript of a gene, ie. the sense RNA,
64. (d) ‘Himgiri’ developed by hybridisation and
such as a messenger RNA (m RNA).
selection for disease resistance against
Hence, an antisense RNA can undergo
rust pathogens is a variety of wheat. It
base pairing with its complementary
is resistant to leaf/stripe rust and hill
mRNA sequence. This blocks gene
bunt.
expression, either by preventing access
for ribosome to translate the mRNA or 65. (a) RNA interference has been used to
by triggering degradation of the double develop plants resistant to nematodes.
stranded RNA by ribonuclease enzymes. RNA interference is a double stranded
Antisense RNA and DNA both have RNA (dsRNA) induced for gene silencing
therapeutic potential for modifying the phenomenon.
activity of disease causing genes.
66. (c) Meristem is most suitable for raising virus
59. (c) Xanthomonas campestris is not used as a
free plants for micropropagation.
biopesticide. Xanthomonas campestris is
a plant pathogen that causes black rot in 67. (b) Vector DNA are the DNA molecules
that can carry a foreign DNA segment
cotton plants.
and replicate inside the host cells. Vector
60. (d) Genetic variation present among DNA may be plasmids, a bacteriophage,
plant cells during tissue culture is cosmids, yeast artificial chromosomes.
called somaclonal variation. The term
68. (a) Green revolution is the introduction
somaclonal variation is also used for
of high-yielding varieties of seeds and
the genetic variation present in plants
the increased use of fertilizers and
regenerated from a single culture. This
irrigation, which provided the increase
variation has been used to develop
in production needed to make India self-
several useful varieties against resistance
to diseases and pests, better yield, better sufficient in food grains, thus improving
quality etc. agriculture in India. Green revolution in
India occurred in 1960.s
61. (b) Breeding of crops with high levels of
minerals, vitamin and minerals is called 69. (d) Spirulina is SCP rich in protein, vitamins
biofortification. This is most practical & minerals. 250 gram biomass of
aspect to improve the health of people. Methylophilus methylotrophus produces
62. (b) An improved variety of transgenic 25tonn protein/day while cow of 250 Kg.
basmati rice gives high yield and is rich produces only 200 gm. protein/day.
in vitamin A.
Common button mushrooms are a very 71. (a) During the period 1960 to 2000 rice
rich source of vitamin D. A rice variety production went up from 35 million
has been developed which is very rich in tonnes to 89.5 million tonnes. This was
iron content. due to the development of semi-dwarf
varieties of rice. there are 2,00,000
70. (c) Germplasm collection is the first step of
varieties of rice in India.
plant breeding programmes. As genetic
variability is the root of any breeding 72. (b) The method of producing thousands of
programme. In many crops pre-existing plants through tissue culture is called
genetic variability is available from wild micro-propagation. Each of these plants
relatives of the crop. Collection and will be genetically identical to the original
preservation of all the different wild plant from which they were grown, i.e.,
varieties, species and relatives of the they are somaclones. Many important
cultivated species (followed by their food plants like tomato, banana, apple
characteristics) is a pre requisite for have been produed on commercial scale
effective exploitation of natural genes using this method.
available in the population.
HAPTER
C
32 Microbes in Human
Welfare
1. Which one thing is not true about 7. Which of the following is pair of bio-
antibiotics? [1996] fertilizers? [2001]
(a) The term “antibiotic” was coined by (a) Azolla and BGA
Selman Waksman in 1942 (b) Nostoc and legumes
(b) First antibiotic was discovered by (c) Rhizobium and grasses
Alexander Flemming (d) Salmonella and E. coli
(c) Each antibiotic is effective only against 8. Two microbes found to be very useful in
one particular kind of germ genetic engineering are [2006]
(d) Some persons can be allergic to a (a) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed
bacteriophage
particular antibiotic
(b) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
2. Which of the following is likely to be
(c) Crown gall bacterium and
achieved in the coming two decades? [1997]
Caenorhabditis elegans
(a) A complete understanding of the brain-
(d) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium
mind interaction tumefaciens
(b) Control of cancer 9. Probiotics are [2007]
(c) Correction of genetic basis of diabetes (a) cancer inducing microbes
mellitus (b) new kind of food allergens
(d) Production of biodegradable plastic (c) live microbial food supplement
rather than cellulose by higher plants (d) safe antibiotics
3. Gobar gas contains mainly [1997] 10. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(a) CH4 + CO2 (b) CH4 + O2 matched ? [2007]
(c) CO2 + H2 (d) CO2 + SO2 (a) Yeast - ethanol
4. Which one of the following is non-symbiotic (b) Streptomycetes - antibiotic
biofertilizer? [1998] (c) Coliforms - vinegar
(a) Azotobacter (b) Anabaena (d) Methanogens - gobar gas.
(c) Rhizobium (d) VAM. 11. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful
5. Farmers have reported over 50% higher microorganism for [2008]
yields of rice by using the biofertilizer (a) bioremediation of contaminated soils
(a) Azolla pinnata [1998] (b) reclamation of wastelands
(c) gene transfer in higher plants
(b) Cyanobacteria
(d) biological control of soil-borne plant
(c) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
pathogens
(d) Mycorrhiza
12. Human insulin is being commercially
6. The aquatic fern, which is an excellent
produced from a transgenic species of
biofertiliser is [1999] [2008]
(a) Azolla (b) Salvinia (a) Escherichia (b) Mycobacterium
(c) Marsilia (d) Pteridium (c) Rhizobium (d) Saccharomyces
13. Cryl endotoxins obtained from Bacillus (b) streptokinase for removing clots from
thuringiensis are effective against [2008] the blood vessels.
(a) mosquitoes (b) flies (c) Citric acid
(c) nematodes (d) boll worms (d) blood cholesterol lowering statins
14. A common biocontrol agent for the control 22. A patient brought to a hospital with
of plant diseases is [2010] myocardial infarction is normally
(a) Baculovirus immediately given : [2012]
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis (a) Penicillin (b) Streptokinase
(c) Glomus (c) Cyclosporin-A (d) Statins
(d) Trichoderma 23. Which one of the following microbes forms
15. The common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields symbiotic association with plants and helps
is [2010] them in their nutrition [2012]
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azospirillum (a) Azotobacter (b) Aspergillus
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Frankia (c) Glomus (d) Trichoderma
16. Which one of the following is not used in 24. Yeast is used in the production of [2012]
organic farming? [2010] (a) Citric acid and lactic acid
(a) Glomus (b) Earthworm (b) Lipase and pectinase
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Snail (c) Bread and beer
17. An organism used as a biofertilizer for (d) Cheese and butter
raising soyabean crops is [2011] 25. A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with
(a) Azotobacter (b) Azospirillum Azolla in rice fields is : [2012]
(c) Rhizobium (d) Nostoc (a) Spirulina (b) Anabaena
18. Which one of the following help in (c) Frankia (d) Tolypothrix
absorption of phosphorus from soil by 26. Which one of the following is an example
plants? [2011] of carrying out biological control of pests/
(a) Glomus (b) Rhizobium diseases using microbes ? [2012]
(c) Frankia (d) Anabaena (a) Trichoderma sp. against certain plant
19. Read the following statement having two pathogens
blanks (A and B): (b) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white
“A drug used for -------- (A) -------- patients rust in Brassica
is obtained from a species of the organism (c) Bt - cotton to increase cotton yield
-------- (B) --------.” (d) Lady bird beetle against aphids in
The one correct option for the two blanks is mustard
[2011M] 27. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in
Blank - A Blank - B the group. [2012]
(a) Heart Penicillium (a) Fungi (b) Animalia
(b) Organ-transplant Trichoderma (c) Monera (d) Plantae
(c) Swine flu Monascus 28. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that
(d) AIDS Pseudomonas of [2012M]
20. Which one of the following is a wrong (a) butane (b) methane
matching of a microbe and its industrial (c) propane (d) carbon dioxide
product, while the remaining three are 29. The domestic sewage in large cities
correct ? [2011M] [2012M]
(a) Yeast - statins (a) has a high BOD as it contains both
(b) Acetobacter aceti - acid aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.
(c) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid (b) is processed by aerobic and then
(d) Aspergillus niger - citric acid anaerobic bacteria in the secondary
21. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used treatment in Sewage Treatment Plants
commercially in the production of : [2012] (STPs).
(a) ethanol
Microbes in Human Welfare 345
(c) when treated in STPs does not really 31. A good producer of citric acid is :
require the aeration step as the sewage [NEET 2013]
contains adequate oxygen. (a) Pseudomonas (b) Clostridium
(d) has very high amounts of suspended (c) Saccharomyces (d) Aspergillus
solids and dissolved salts. 32. Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly
30. During sewage treatment, biogases are caterpillars is [NEET Kar. 2013]
produced which include : [NEET 2013] (a) Trichoderma sp.
(a) methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(b) hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur (c) Bacillus thuringiensis
dioxide
(d) Streptococcus sp.
(c) hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane
(d) methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon
Solutions
dioxide
1. (c) 'Each antibiotic is effective only against yeasts, that may beneficially affect the
one particular kind of germ' is not host upon ingestion by improving the
correct. balance of the intestinal microflora. The
2. (b) Control of cancer is likely to be achieved dietary use of live microorganisms has a
in the coming two decades. long history.
3. (a) Gobar gas contains mainly CH4 + CO2. 10. (c) Coliforms are a broad class of bacteria
4. (a) Azotobacter is a free living nitrogen fixing found in our environment, including the
bacterium, Rhizobium is symbiotic and feces of man and other warm-blooded
found in the root nodules of leguminous animals. The presence of coliform
plants, Anabaena occurs in assoction bacteria in drinking water may indicate
with Azolla. VAM is vesicular arbuscular a possible presence of harmful, disease-
mycorrhiza. causing organisms.
5. (a) Farmers have reported over 50% higher 11. (d) Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful
yields of rice by using the biofertilizer microorganism for biological control of
Azolla pinnata. soil borne plant pathogens. Trichoderma
6. (a) Azolla is a freshwater fern harbouring harzianum is a fungus that is also used as a
a bluegreen alga - Anabaena in its leaf fungicide. It is used for foliar application,
cavities. The alga fixes atmospheric seed treatment and soil treatment
nitrogen and releases nitrogenous for suppression of various disease
compounds in leaf cavities. This causing fungal pathogens. Commercial
symbiotic system is the main source of biotechnological products such as 3 Tac
algal biofertilizer in rice fields. have been useful for treatment of Botrytis,
7. (a) Azolla and blue green algae- Anabaena Fusarium, Penicillium sp. It is also used for
form biofertilizer in rice fields. manufacturing enzymes.
8. (d) Escherichia coli is a bacterium found in 12. (a) Human insulin is being commercially
human colon. On this bacterium scientists produced from a transgenic species of
have made extensive genetic experiments Escherichia coli. E. coli is a bacterium
to make some vital chemicals like insulin. that is commonly found in the lower
Another bacterium is Agrobacterium intestine of warm blooded animals. The
tumefaciens which causes crown gall in bacteria can also be grown easily and
plants is extensively used for genetic its genetics are comparatively simple
experiments. and easily manipulated, making it one
9. (c) Probiotics are defined as live of the best studied prokaryotic model
microorganisms, including Lactobacillus organisms, and an important species in
species, Bifidobacterium species and biotechnology.
13. (d) Cry I endotoxine obtained from Bacillus is excreted in the cavities and becomes
thuringiensis are effective against available to the fern. The decaying fern
bollworms. A bollworm is a common plants release the same for utilization of
term for any larva of a moth that attacks the rice plants.
the fruiting bodies of certain crops, 26. (a) 27. (c)
especially cotton. 28. (b) In gobar gas the maximum amount
14. (d) A common biocontrol agent for control of of methane which is produced by
plant diseases is Trichoderma. Trichoderma methanogenic bacteria. Gobar gas is a
is a tree living fungus that exert biocontrol gas mixture which is generated when
over several plant pathogens for the organic compounds are fermented in the
control of plant diseases. It is the natural absence of air (anaerobic fermentation).
method of pest and pathogen control. Biogas contains 50 – 70% methane,
15. (b) The common nitrogen fixer in paddy field 30 – 40% carbon dioxide, and traces
is Azospirillum. It is an anaerobic bacteria of hydrogen, hydrogen sulphide and
that forms loose association with roots nitrogen. Methane is a combustible gas,
of paddy crops. which means it can be burned. It can be
16. (d) Organic farming involves use of organic used as a fuel for cooking and lighting.
29. (b) Sewage treatment is the process of
wastes and other biological material
removing contaminants from wastewater
along with beneficial microbes to release
and household sewage, both runoff
nutrients to crop to increase the soil
(effluents) and domestic. It includes
fertility in an ecofriendly, and pollution physical, chemical, and biological
tree environment. Glomus, earthworm processes to remove physical, chemical
and Oscillatoria can be used in organic and biological contaminants. Sewage
farming while snail cannot. treatment generally involves three stages,
17. (c) Rhizobium is a nitrogen fixing bacteria, called primary, secondary and tertiary
which acts as a biofertilizer in soil to treatment. It is processed by aerobic and
produce soyabean crops. then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary
18. (a) Glomus aggregatum is a mycorrhizal treatment in Sewage Treatment Plants
fungus used as a soil inoculant in (STPs).
agriculture and horticulture. Its purpose 30. (d) The major component of biogas
is to increase the surface area of roots for is methane (about 50-68%) which
nutrient absorption like phosphorus. is highly inflammable . The other
19. (b) Trichoderma is a species of gases are carbon dioxide (25 -
filamentous fungi. Cyclosporin A is 35%), hydrogen (1 - 5%) , nitrogen
immunosuppressive drug obtained (2 - 7%), Oxygen (0 - 0.1%) and rarely
from Trichoderma and used in organ hydrogen sulfide. Biogas is a “mixture
transplantation. of gases” produced from degradable
20. (c) Clostridium butylicum industrially organic matter by the activity of various
produces butyric acid. anaerobic bacteria that offers a low cost
21. (d) Monascus purpureus is a yeast used in the alternative for energy requirements.
production of statins which are used in 31. (d) A good source of citric acid is Aspergillus
lowering blood cholestrol. niger (a fungus). Apart from citric acid,
22. (b) Streptokinase is immediately given to oxalic acid, gallic acid, gluconic acid are
dissolve the thrombus carring myocardial extracted from fungus.
infarction 32. (c) Microbial biocontrol agent that can be
23. (c) Glomus is endomycorrhiza that helps introduced in order to control butterfly
in absorption of nutrition specially caterpillars is the bacteria Bacillus
phosphorus from soil. thuringiensis (Bt). They sprayed onto
24. (c) Saccharomyces cervisiae is a yeast used vulnerable plants, where they eaten by
in making bread (Baker’s yeast) and the insect larvae. In the gut of the larvae,
commercial production of ethanol. the toxin is released and the larvae get
25. (b) Anabaena azollae resides in the leaf killed. The bacterial disease will kill
cavities of the fern Anabaena. It fixes the caterpillars, but leave other insects
unharmed.
nitrogen. A part of the fixed nitrogen
HAPTER
C
33 Biotechnology:
Principles and Processes
1. Introduction of food plants developed by 5. Select the correct statement from the
genetic engineering is not desirable because following? [2010]
[2002] (a) Biogas is produced by the activity of
(a) economy of developing countries may aerobic bacteria on animal waste
suffer (b) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium
(b) these products are less tasty as compared found in rumen of cattle
to the already existing products (c) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is
(c) this method is costly pure methane
(d) there is danger of entry of viruses and (d) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement
toxins with introduced crop tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich
2. Gel electrophoresis is used for source of aerobic bacteria
(a) cutting of DNA into fragments 6. Which one of the following is used as vector
for cloning genes into higher organisms?
(b) separation of DNA fragments according
to their size [2010]
(c) construction of recombinant DNA by (a) Baculovirus
joining with cloning vectors (b) Salmonella typhimurium
(d) isolation of DNA molecule (c) Rhizopus nigricans
3. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with (d) Retrovirus
the plasmid vector became possible with 7. Which one of the following palindromic base
[2008] sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about
(a) DNA ligase the middle by some particular restriction
enzyme? [2010]
(b) Endonucleases
(a) 5'.............CGTTCG.............3'
(c) DNA polymerase
3'.............ATGGTA.............5'
(d) Exonucleases
(b) 5'.............GATATG.............3'
4. Polyethylene glycol method is used for
3'.............CTACTA.............5'
[2009]
(c) 5'.............GAATTC.............3'
(a) biodiesel production
3'.............CTTAAG.............5'
(b) seedless fruit production
(d) 5'.............CACGTA.............3'
(c) energy production from sewage
3'.............CTCAGT.............5'
(d) gene transfer without a vector
8. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a Which one of the given options correctly
radioactive molecule is called [2010] identifies its certain component (s) ? [2012]
(a) Vector (b) Probe
(c) Clone (d) Plasmid
9. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes
which [2010]
(a) make cuts at specific positions within the
DNA molecule
(b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence (a) ori - original restriction enzyme
for binding of DNA ligase (b) rop-reduced osmotic pressure
(c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA (c) Hind III, EcoRI - selectable markers
polymerase (d) ampR, tetR - antibiotic resistance genes
(d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the 14. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length
DNA molecule Polymorphism are the methods for : [2012]
10. There is a restriction endonuclease called (a) Study of enzymes
EcoRI. What does .co. part in it stand for ? (b) Genetic transformation
(a) colon (b) coelom [2011] (c) DNA sequencing
(c) coenzyme (d) coli (d) Genetic Fingerprinting
11. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use 15. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a
in : [2011] radioactive molecule is called : [2012]
(a) Spectrophotometry (a) Vector (b) Selectablemarker
(b) Tissue culture (c) Plasmid (d) Probe
(c) PCR 16. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA
(d) Gel electrophoresis polymerase used in PCR [2012]
12. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals (a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in
which contain insecticidal protein. [2011M] recipient cell
(b) It serves as a selectable marker
(a) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of
the insect pest ultimately killing it (c) It is isolated from a virus
(b) is coded by several genes including the (d) It remains active at high temperature
gene cry 17. For transformation, micro-particles coated
with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun
(c) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of
are made up of : [2012]
the insect pest.
(a) Silver or Platinum
(d) does not kill the carrier bacterium which
is itself resistant to this toxin (b) Platinum or Zinc
(c) Silicon or Platinum
13. The figure below is the diagrammatic
representation of the E.Coli vector pBR 322. (d) Gold or Tungsten
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 349
18. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for [2012M] 21. Which one of the following represents a
(a) DNA finger printing. palindromic sequence in DNA? [2012M]
(b) Disarming pathogen vectors. (a) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
(c) Transformation of plant cells. 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
(d) Constructing recombinant DNA by (b) 5' - CCAATG - 3'
joining with vectors. 3' - GAATCC - 5'
19. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are (c) 5' - CATTAG - 3'
used [2012M] 3' - GATAAC - 5'
(a) as selectable markers. (d) 5' - GATACC - 3'
(b) to select healthy vectors. 3' - CCTAAG - 5'
(c) to keep the cultures free of infection. 22. DNA fragments generated by the restriction
(d) as sequences from where replication endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be
starts. separated by : [NEET 2013]
20. The figure below shows three ste ps (a) Polymerase chain reaction
(A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). (b) Electrophoresis
Select the option giving correct identification
(c) Restriction mapping
together with what it represents? [2012M]
(d) Centrifugation
23. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear
white in contrast to blue colonies of non-
recombinant bateria because of :
[NEET 2013]
(a) Insertional inactivate of alphaga-
lactosidase in non-recombinant
bacteria
(b) Insertional inactivation of alpha-
galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
(c) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in
(a) B - Denaturation at a temperature of recombinant bacteria
about 98°C separating the two DNA (d) Non-recombinant bacteria containing
strands. beta-galactosidase
(b) A - Denaturation at a temperature of 24. Genes of interest can be selected from a
about 50°C. genomic library by using [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) C - Extension in the presence of heat (a) Restriction enzymes
stable DNA polymerase. (b) Cloning vectors
(d) A - Annealing with two sets of primers. (c) DNA probes
(d) Gene targets
Solutions
1. (d) Plants developed by genetic engineering 5. (d) Activated sludge is a process for treating
are called transgenic plants or genetically sewage and industrial wastewaters using
modified crops from which genetically air and a biological floc composed of
modified food is produced. For their bacteria and protozoans. During the
production micro-organisms (bacteria, process, the primary effluent is taken to
virus) are used. So, by consuming them aeration tank that contain large number
there is a danger of entry of viruses and of aerobic heterotrophic microbes. They
toxins causing differ types of allergies form flocs that digest a lot of organic
and other health hazards to human matter. As the biological oxygen demand
beings. of waste water is reduced, it is passed into
settling tank to undergo sedimentation.
2. (b) Gel electrophoresis is a technique to
The sediment of the settling tank is called
separation of DNA fragments according
activated sludge that is a rich source of
to their size. DNA is negatively charged
aerobic bacteria. Hence, the statement
so in gel tank when electric passed, DNA
(d) is correct.
move towards positive electrode. Biogas is produced by anaerobic
3. (a) The linking of antibiotic resistance gene breakdown of biomass with the help of
with the plasmid vector became possible methanogenic bacteria. It is made up
with DNA ligase. DNA ligase is an of methane, carbon dioxide with traces
enzyme that is able to join together two of nitrogen, hydrogen sulphide and
portions of DNA and therefore plays hydrogen.
an important role in DNA repair. DNA Methanobacterium is an anaerobic
ligase is also used in recombinant DNA bacterium that is found in rumen of
technology as it ensures that the foreign cattle and is helpful in the breakdown of
DNA is bound to the plasmid into which cellulose.
it is incorporated. 6. (d) Retrovirus as has the ability to transform
4. (d) Direct gene transfer is the transfer of normal cells into cancerous cells. Hence,
naked. DNA into plant cells but the it can used as a vector for cloning
presence of rigid plant cell wall acts as a desirable genes into animal cells.
barrier to uptake. Therefore protoplasts 7. (c) Palindromic sequences in DNA molecule
are the favoured target for direct gene are group of bases that forms the same
transfer. Polyethylene glycol mediated sequence when read in both forward
and backward direction. In the given
DNA uptake is a direct gene transfer
question, only option (c) represent a
method that utilizes the interaction
palindromic sequence.
between polyethylene glycol, naked
DNA, salts and the protoplast membrane 8. (b) DNA or RNA segment tagged with a
to effect transport of the DNA into the radioactive molecule is called Probe.
They are used to detect the presence of
cytoplasm.
complementary sequences in nucleic acid
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 351
samples. Probes are used for identification 16. (d) The name of this DNA polymerase
and isolation of DNA and RNA. is Taq polymerase extracted from a
9. (a) Restriction endonucleases are enzymes thermophilic bacterial.
that makes cuts at specific positions 17. (d) For gene transfer into the host cell
within the DNA molecule. They acts without using vector microparticles made
as molecular scissors. They recognise of tungsten and Gold coated with foregin
specific base sequence at palindrome sites DNA are bombarded into target cells at
in DNA duplex and cut its strands. a very high velocity.
10. (d) EcoRI is an endonuclease enzyme 18. (d) Biolistic it is direct gene transferred
isolated from strains of E.coli and a part method for constructing recombinant
of restriction modified system. So co part DNA. The gene gun was invented by
stands for coli. John C. Sanford with Edward Wolf. A
11. (d) In gel electrophoresis agarose extracted gene gun can be used to genetically infect
from sea weed used as gel garose, made cells or whole organisms with foreign
of 0.7% gel show good resolution of DNA by aiming the barrel of the gun
large DNA and 2% gel will show good and firing. The microshot projectiles
resolution of small fragments. in the biolistic gene gun are made of
12. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis produces a large microscopic (or nano) sized gold or
amount of crystalline protein during platinum powders. These expensive
sporulation. In the cell toxins are formed powders are soaked in DNA or RNA (in
along with the spore and are referred to as raw or plasmid form) that are engineered
parasporal body. The bacteria are capable for insertion into the genome of the cells
of entering the insect’s blood and using or organisms under the gun.
the host insect to reproduce. The proteins 19. (a) Antibiotics are powerful medicines that
from ingested spores are activated by fight bacterial infections. They either kill
gut, high pH and the polypeptide toxins bacteria or keep them from reproducing.
destroy gut epithelial cells and kill the In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are
pest. used as selectable markers.
13. (d) In pBR 322 20. (c) PCR is a technique for enzymatically
ori-represents site of origin or replicating DNA without using a living
replication organism such as E. coli or yeast. It
rop-represents those proteins that take is commonly used in medical and
part in replication of plasmid. biological research labs for a variety of
Hind III, EcoRI- Recoginition sites of tasks like detection of hereditary diseases,
Restriction endonucleases identification of genetic fingerprints
amp R and tet R - They are antibiotic etc.
resistant gene part The correct steps shown in the above
figure are:
14. (d)
A – Denaturation at a temperature
15. (d) A single strand Dna or rna tagged
of about 94° to 98°C. During the
with radioactive molecule that is used
denaturation, the double strand melts
in of hybridization of DNA or RNA is
open to single stranded DNA, and all
called probe.
enzymatic reactions stop.
B – Annealing (binding of DNA primer 23. (d) Alternative selectable markers have
to the separated strands. Occurs at been developed which differentiate
50° to 65°Celsius, which is lower than recombinant from non-recombinants
the optimal temperature of the DNA on the basis of their ability to produce
polymerases) colour in the presence of chromogenic
C – Extension or elongation of the strands substrate. In this , a recombinant DNA
using the DNA primer with heat-stable is inserted within the coding sequence of
DNA polymerases, most frequently Taq an enzyme β-galactosidase. This results
(Thermus aquaticus) at 72ºC. into inactivation of the enzyme, which
21. (a) A palindromic sequence is a nucleic acid is referred to as insertional inactivation.
sequence (DNA or RNA) that is the same The presence of chromogenic substrate
whether read 5' (five-prime) to 3' (three give blue coloured colonies of the plasmid
prime) on one strand or 5' to 3' on the in the bacteria does not have an insert.
complementary strand with which it Presence of insert results into insertional
forms a double helix. inactivation of the galactosidase and the
5. - GAATTC - 3. colonies do not produce any colour, these
3. - CTTAAG - 5. are identified as recombinant colonies.
It is a palindromic sequence of DNA cut 24. (c) A hybridization probe is a fragment of
by restriction enzyme ECORI. DNA of variable length which is used
22. (b) DNA fragments generated by restriction in DNA samples to detect the presence
endonucleases in a chemical reaction of nucleotide sequence (the DNA target)
can be separated by gel electrophoresis. that are complementary to the sequence
Since DNA fragments are negatively in the probe. The probe hybridize
charged molecules they can be separated to single–stranded DNA whose base
by forcing them to move towards the sequence allow probe target base-pairing
anode under an electric field through a due to complementary between the probe
medium/matrix. The DNA fragments and target.
separate according to their size through
sieving effect provided by matrix.
HAPTER
C
34 Biotechnology and Its

Applications
1. Genetically engineered bacteria have been 7. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been
successfully used in the commercial production used for designing novel : [2005]
of [1996] (a) Biofertilizers
(a) human insulin (b) testosterone (b) Bio-metallurgical techniques
(c) thyroxine (d) melatonin (c) Bio-mineralization processes
2. What is true for monoclonal antibodies? (d) Bioinsecticidal plants
[2001] 8. A trangenic food crop’which may help in
(a) These antibodies obtained from one solving the problem of night blindness in
parent and for one antigen developing countries is [2008]
(b) These antibodies obtained from parent (a) Flavr Savr tomatoes
and for two antigen (b) Starlink maize
(c) These antibodies obtained from one (c) Bt Soybean
parent and for many antigen (d) Golden rice
(d) These antibodies obtained from many 9. Main objective of production/use of herbicide
parents and for many antigens resistant GM crops is to [2008]
3. Maximum application of animal cell culture (a) eliminate weeds from the field without
technology today is in the production of the use of manual labour
[2003] (b) eliminate weeds from the field without
(a) edible proteins (b) insulin the use of herbicides
(c) interferons (d) vaccines (c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides
4. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key (d) reduce herbicide accumulation in food
reagent is [2003] articles for health safety
(a) RNase 10. Which one of the following is commonly used
(b) alkaline phosphatase
in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?
(c) catalase
(d) DNA probe [2009]
5. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future (a) Meloidogyne incognita
with the following improved trait:[2005, 06] (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(a) insect resistance (c) Penicillium expansum
(b) high lysine (essential amino acid) (d) Trichoderma harzianum
content 11. What is true about Bt toxin? [2009]
(c) high protein content (a) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the
(d) high vitamin-A content Bacillus
6. The name of Norman Borlaug is associated (b) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of
with : [2005] the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its
(a) white revolution multiplication.
(b) green revolution (c) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
(c) yellow revolution (d) The inactive protoxin gets converted into
(d) blue revolution active form in the insect gut.
12. Transgenic plants are the ones: [2009] 19. Silencing of mRNA has been used in
(a) generated by introducing foreign DNA producing transgenic plants resistant to:
into a cell and regenerating a plant from [2011M]
that cell. (a) bollworms (b) nematodes
(b) produced after protoplast fusion in (c) white rusts (d) bacterial blights
artificial medium. 20. Consider the following statements (A-D)
(c) grown in ar tificial medium after about organic farming: [2011M]
hybridization in the field. (A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like
(d) produced by a somatic embryo in Bt cotton
artificial medium. (B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like
13. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in compost
India has been developed for: [2010] (C) Does not use pesticides and urea
(a) insect-resistance (D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and
(b) enhancing shelf life minerals
(c) enhancing mineral content Which of the above statements are correct?
(d) drought-resistance (a) (B), (C) and (D)
14. Genetic engineering has been successfully (b) (C) and (D) only
used for producing: [2010] (c) (B) and (C) only
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio (d) (A) and (B) only
vaccine before use in humans 21. In history of biology, human genome project
(b) transgenic models for studying new led to the development of : [2011M]
treatments for certain cardiac diseases (a) biotechnology (b) biomonitoring
(c) transgenic cow – rosie which produces (c) bioinformatics (d) biosystematics
high fat milk for making ghee 22. Which one of the following techniques made
(d) animals like bulls for farm work as they it possible to genetically engineer living
have super power organism ? [2011M]
15. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are: (a) Recombinant DNA techniques
[2010] (b) X-ray diffraction
(a) long fibre and resistance to aphids (c) Heavier isotope labelling
(b) medium yield, long fibre and resistance (d) Hybridization
to beetle pests 23. Read the following four statements (A-D)
(c) high yield and production of toxic protein about certain mistakes in two of them
crystals which kill dipteran pests [2011M]
(d) high yield and resistance to bollworms (A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie
16. The most common substrate used in distilleries produced milk which was human alpha-
for the production of ethanol is [2011] lactal albumin enriched.
(a) corn meal (b) soya meal (B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation
(c) ground gram (d) molasses of DNA from other macro-molecules.
17. Maximum number of existing transgenic (C) Downstream processing is one of the
animals is of : [2011] steps of R-DNA technology.
(a) fish (b) mice (D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used
(c) cow (d) pig in transfer of R-DNA into the host.
18. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’ Which are the two statements having
fermentation is done to: [2011] mistakes?
(a) produce methane (a) Statement (B) and (C)
(b) obtain antibiotics (b) Statement (C) and (D)
(c) purify enzymes (c) Statement (A) and (C)
(d) degrade sewage (d) Statement (A) and (B)
Biotechnology and Its Applications 355
24. Consumption of which one of the following 27. Which of the following Bt crops is being
foods can prevent the kind of blindness grown in India by the farmers? [NEET 2013]
associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency? (a) Cotton (b) Brinjal
[2012] (c) Soyabean (d) Maize
(a) ‘Flaver Savr’ tomato 28. Which one of the following vectors is used to
(b) Canolla replace the defective gene in gene therapy?
(c) Golden rice [NEET Kar. 2013]
(d) Bt-Brinjal (a) Ti plasmid (b) Adenovirus
25. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have (c) Cosmid (d) Ri plasmid
been developed by the introduction of DNA 29. During the process of isolation of DNA,
that produced (in the host cells) [2012M] chilled ethanol is added to [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) both sense and anti-sense RNA (a) Remove proteins such as histones
(b) a particular hormone (b) Precipitate DNA
(c) an antifeedant (c) Break open the cell to release DNA
(d) a toxic protein (d) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
26. The first clinical gene therapy was given for 30. RNA interference involves[NEET Kar. 2013]
treating [2012M] (a) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA
(a) chicken pox (b) Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using
(b) diabetes mellitus reverse transcriptase
(c) rheumatoid arthritis (c) Silencing of specific mRNA due to
(d) adenosine deaminase deficiency complementary RNA
(d) Interference of RNA in synthesis of
DNA
Solutions
1. (a) Human insulin has 53 amino acids in 7. (d) Bt cotton, a transgenic crop variety has
two polypeptides (A and B) connected by been introduced in India. The Bt cotton
two S -S (disulphide) linkages. In 1983, variety contains a foreign gene obtained
American company Eli Lilly prepared from Bacillus thuringiensis. This bacterial
two DNA sequences corresponding to A gene protects cotton from the ball worm,
and B insulin chains. When introduced a major pest of cotton.
in plamids of E.coli, insulin chains were 8. (d) Golden rice is a transgenic food crop which
formed. They were extracted and fused may help in solving the problem of night
to produce humulin (human insulin). blindness in developing countries. Golden
2. (a) Monoclonal antibodies are identical rice or miracle rice is rich in vitamin A or
molecules specific for one type of antigen. β-carotene and iron and decaffeinated
These are obtained by injecting the target coffee are also valuable achievements of
antigen into a rat or mouse. Sometimes gene transfer technology.
later, the spleen cells producing antibodies 9. (d) Main objective of production/use of
are isolated and fused with myeloma cells herbicide resistant GM crops is to reduce
to produce monoclonal antibodies. herbicide accumulation in food articles for
3. (d) health safety. GM plants has been useful
4. (b) ELISA test is a technique which can in many ways. Genetic modifications
detect any amount of an antibody or has made crops more tolerant to abiotic
antigen with the help of an enzyme. The stresses, reduced reliance on chemical
commonly used enzymes are alkaline pesticides, enhanced nutritional value of
phosphatase and peroxidase. food.
5. (d) Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the 10. (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is the causal
future with high Vit. A content. Millions agent of crown gall disease (the formation
of people suffer from Vit. A deficiency of tumours) in over 140 species of dicot.
which leads to vision impairment. This disease caused by a DNA plasmid
(Ti plasmid) carried by bacterium and
Transgenic rice has been developed
transferred to the plant cells. Ti plasmid
which is capable of synthesizing beta
has widely used in plant engineering as
carotene, the precursor of Vitamin A.
a vector in order to inject gene in host
The rice variety is now being crossed plant to form transgenic plant.
into adapted varieties with field tests 11. (d) About Bt toxin, it is true, that the
possible in an year or two. inactive protoxin gets converted into
6. (b) The term Green revolution refers to active form in the insect gut. There
the very substantial increase in yield are several advantages in expressing
obtained by breeding high yielding Bt toxins in transgenic Bt crops. The
varieties of crops, under intensive level of toxin expression can be very
application of fertilizers, irrigation and high, thus delivering sufficient dosage to
pesticides. The world wide increase, in the pest.
productivity has come to be known as The toxin expression is contained within
the ‘Green Revolution’ for which Dr. the plant system and hence only those
Borlaug won the Noble Peace Prize in insects that feed on the crop perish.
1970. The toxin expression can be modulated
Biotechnology and Its Applications 357
by using tissue-specific promoters and RNA’s being complementary to each
replaces the use of synthetic pesticides other from a double stranded RNA
in the environment. (dsRNA) which is also called interfering
12. (a) Transgenic plants are the ones generated RNA responsible for initiating RNA
by introducing foreign DNA into a cell interference (RNA i). This (dsRNA) bind
and regenerating a plant from that cell. to and prevent translation of specific
13. (a) The genetically modified brinjal in India mRNA of nematode (gene silencing).
has been developed for insect resistance. Thus transgenic plants based on RNAi
Bt brinjal is a transgenic brinjal that is technology are resistant to nematode.
developed by inserting a crystal gene 20. (c) Organic farming is the form of agriculture
from the Bacillus thuringiensis into that relies on the techniques like crop
the brinjal’s genome. This process rotation, green manure, compost and
of insertion is accomplished using biological pest control.
Agrobacterium m ediated recombination. 21. (c) Common activities in bioinformatics
14. (a) Genetic engineering has been successfully include mapping and analysing DNA
used for producing transgenic mice. and protein sequences, aligning different
Many transgenic mice are designed to DNA etc are the part of human genome
increase our understanding of how genes project.
contribute to development of diseases. 22. (a) Recombinant DNA technology is the
Transgenic mice are being developed process joining together two DNA
for use in testing the safety of vaccine molecules from two different species
that are inserted into a host organism to
before they are used in human beings.
produce new genetic combination.
For example transgenic mice are being
23. (d) Transgenic Rosie is actually cow.
used to test the safety of polio vaccine.
Restriction enzymes cut the DNA at
15. (d) Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus specific sites.
thuringiensis and incorporated into cotton 24. (c) Golden rice is vitamin A rich variety
plant to form a genetically modified crop developed by rDNA technology and
used in the treatment of vitamin A
called Bt cotton. Bt cotton has high yield deficiency.
and resistance to bollworms. 25. (a) RNA interference technique, sense &
16. (d) Molasses are commonly used in antisense RNA fused to form dsRNA
distillaries for the production of ethanol. that silent the expression of m- RNA of
The molasses is diluted to a mash nematode. RNA interference is a novel
containing 10-20 wt % of sugar. By the strategy adopted to prevent infestation
fermentation system of molasses ethanol of nematode Meloidegyne incognitia in
can be produced. roots of tobacco plants.
17. (b) In the world maximum number of 26. (d) Gene therapy is an experimental
existing transgenic animals is mice. technique that uses genes to treat or
18. (c) A fed batch is a biotechnological batch prevent disease. The first clinical gene
process which is based on feeding of therapy was given for treating adenosine
a growth limiting nutrient substrate deaminase deficiency. A four-year old girl
to culture. It is done for purifying became the first gene therapy patient on
enzymes. September 14, 1990 at the NIH Clinical
19. (b) In this technique nematode specific Center. Adenosine deaminase deficiency,
genes are introduced in the host plant also called ADA deficiency or ADA-
in such a way that it produces both SCID is an autosomal recessive metabolic
sense and antisense RNA. The two disorder that causes immunodeficiency.
ADA deficiency is due to a lack of the hepatotoxicity and prevent multiple
enzyme adenosine deaminase. organ failure.
27. (a) Bt cotton is being grown in India by the 29. (b) Ethanol is non-polar molecule while
farmers. Bt cotton is pest resistant plant DNA is a polar molecule, it has a net
which could decreased the pesticides negative charge due to the phosphate
used. Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium
groups attached to it. When DNA is
Bacillus thusringiensis (Bt for short). Bt
toxin gene has been cloned from the placed into a solution of 100% ethanol,
bacteria and been expressed in plants to it becomes insoluble and precipitates out
provide resistance to insects without the of solution.
need for insecticides. 30. (c) RNAi is a method of cellular defense
28. (b) Adenovirus is non-enveloped dsDNA in all eukaryotes. It is a system within
virus which cause respiratory diseases. living cells that helps to control the
Adenovirus is used as a vehicle to activity of specific genes. This method
administer targeted therapy in the involves silencing of mRNA due to
form of recombinant DNA or protein. complementary double stranded RNA
Specific modifications on fibre proteins that prevents translation of target gene
are used to target adenovirus to certain or mRNA [silencing]. Source of ds RNA
cell types, a major effort is made to limit is retrovirus (having RNA genome) or
transposons (mobile genetic material).
HAPTER
C
Organisms and
35 Environment
1. Competition for light, nutrients and space is (c) Symbiosis when neither populations
most severe between [1988] affects each other
(a) closely related organism growing in (d) Commensalism when the interaction is
different niches useful to both the populations
(b) closely related organisms growing in the 6. A fertile agricultural soil appears deep
same area/niche coloured at the surface as compared to soil
(c) distantly related organisms growing in one metre down. The reason for colour of top
the same habitat soil is [1992]
(d) distantly related organisms growing in (a) more moisture
different niches (b) rich in organic matter
2. A mutually beneficial association necessary (c) rich in iron, calcium and magnesium
for survival of both partners is [1988] (d) recent formation
(a) mutualism/symbiosis 7. Soil particles determine its [1992]
(b) commensalism
(a) texture
(c) amensalism
(b) field capacity
(d) both A and B
(c) water holding capacity
3. Homeostasis is [1991]
(d) soil flora
(a) tendency of biological systems to change
8. The sum total of the populations of the same
with change in environment
kind of organisms constitute [1993]
(b) tendency of biological systems to resist
change (a) colony (b) genus
(c) disturbance of self regulatory system and (c) community (d) species
natural controls 9. Soil best suited for plant growth is [1993]
(d) biotic materials used in homeopathic (a) clay
medicines. (b) loam
4. Deep black soil is productive due to high (c) sandy
proportion of [1991] (d) gravel
(a) sand and zinc 10. Association of animals when both partners
(b) gravel and calcium are benefitted [1993]
(c) clay and humus (a) colony (b) mutualism
(d) silt and earthworm (c) commensalism (d) amensalism
5. Which one is true? [1991] 11. Xeric environment is characterised by
(a) Commensalism when none of the [1994]
interacting populations affect each (a) precipitation
other (b) low atmospheric humidity
(b) Symbiosis when the interaction is useful (c) extremes of temperature
to both the populations (d) high rate of vapourisation
12. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of (c) can be reduced by permitting natural
salinity are [1994] calamities and enforcing birth control
(a) stenohaline (b) euryhaline measures
(c) anadromous (d) catadromous (d) can be regulated by following the national
13. In a food chain, the largest population is that programme of family planning
of [1994] 20. The nature of climax community ultimately
(a) producers depends on [1996]
(b) decomposers (a) climate
(c) secondary consumers (b) bed rock
(d) primary consumers (c) soil organisms
14. Tropical forests occur in India [1994] (d) pool of available nutrients.
(a) Jammu and Kashmir 21. In increasing order of organizational
(b) Rajasthan complexity, which one of the following is
(c) Kerala and Assam the correct sequence? [1997]
(d) The forests do not occur in India (a) Population, species, community,
15. Sunken stomata is the characteristic feature ecosystem
of [1995] (b) Population, variety, species, ecosystem
(a) hydrophyte (b) mesophyte (c) Po p u l a t i o n , e c o s y s t e m , s p e c i e s,
(c) xerophyte (d) halophyte community
16. Which of the following pairs is correctly (d) Species, variety, ecosystem, community
matched? [1995] 22. Keystone species in an ecosystem are those
(a) uricotelism - aquatic habitat [1997]
(b) parasitism - intra-specific relationship (a) present in maximum number
(c) excessive perspiration - xeric adaptation (b) that are most frequent
(d) stream lined body - aquatic adaptation (c) attaining a large biomass
17. The concept that population tends to increase
(d) contributing to ecosystem properties
geometrically while food supply increases
23. What is the most important factor for the
arithmetically was put forward by [1995]
success of animal population? [1997]
(a) Stuart Mill
(a) Natality
(b) Adam Smith
(b) Unlimited food
(c) Charles Darwin
(c) Adaptability
(d) Thomas Malthus
(d) Inter-species activity
18. In India, human population is heavily weighed
24. The present population of the world is about
towards the younger age groups as a result
[1997]
of [1995]
(a) 500 million (b) 100 billion
(a) short life span of many individuals and
(c) 6 billion (d) 15 billion
low birth rate
25. Plants such as Prosopis, Acacia and Capparis
(b) long life span of many individuals and
represent examples of tropical [1998]
low birth rate
(c) short life span of many individuals and (a) thorn forests (b) deciduous forests
high birth rate (c) evergreen forests (d) grasslands
(d) long life span of many individuals and 26. An interesting modification of flower shape
high birth rate for insect pollination occurs in some orchids
19. Human population growth in India [1996] in which a male insect mistakes the pattern
(a) tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in case on the orchid flower for the female of his
of many other animal species species and tries to copulate with it, thereby
(b) tends to reach a zero population growth pollinating the flower. This phenomenon is
as in case of some animal species called [1998]
Organisms and Environment 361
(a) mimicry (a) environmental resistance
(b) pseudopollination (b) morbidity
(c) pseudocopulation (c) fecundity
(d) pseudoparthenocarpy (d) biotic potential
27. Two opposite forces operate in the growth 34. Diffuse porous woods are characteristic of
and development of every population. One plants growing in [2003]
of them relates to the ability to reproduce at a (a) tropics
given rate. The force opposing to it is called
(b) alpine region
[1998]
(c) cold winter regions
(a) mortality
(b) fecundity (d) temperate climate
(c) biotic control 35. What is a keystone species ? [2004]
(d) environmental resistance. (a) A species which makes up only a small
28. Which of the following communities is more proportion of the total biomass of a
vulnerable to invasion by outside animals and community, yet has a huge impact on the
plants ? [1998] community’s organization and survival
(a) Tropical evergreen forests
(b) A common species that has plenty of
(b) Oceanic island communities biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on
(c) Mangroves the community’s organization
(d) Temperate forests. (c) A rare species that has minimal impact

29. Which part of the world has a high density on the biomass and on other species in
of organisms? [1999] the community
(a) Grasslands (d) A dominant species that constitutes a
(b) Savannahs
large proportion of the biomass and
(c) Deciduous forests
which affects many other species.
(d) Tropical rain forests
30. In a population unrestricted reproductive 36. In which one of the following habitats does
capacity is called as [2002] the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary
(a) biotic potential most?
(b) fertility [2004]
(c) carrying capacity (a) Shrub land (b) Forest
(d) birth rate (c) Desert (d) Grassland
31. Choose the correct sequence of stages of 37. The maximum growth rate occurs in [2004]
growth curve for bacteria [2002] (a) stationary phase (b) senescent phase
(a) Lag, log, stationary, decline phase (c) lag phase (d) exponential phase
(b) Lag, log, stationary phase 38. Certain characteristic demographic features
(c) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase of developing countries are [2004]
(d) Decline, lag, log phase (a) high fertility, low or rapidly falling
32. The semilog of per minute growing bacteria
mortality rate, rapid population growth
is plotted against time. What will be the shape
and a very young age distribution
of graph? [2002]
(b) high fertility, high density, rapidly rising
(a) Sigmoid
(b) Hyperbolic mortality rate and a very young age

(c) Ascending straight line distribution
(d) Descending straight line (c) high infant mortality, low fertility, uneven
33. Two opposite forces operate in the growth population growth and a very young age
and development of every population. One distribution
of them relates to the ability to reproduce at (d) high mortality, high density, uneven
a given rate. The force opposing it is called population growth and a very old age
[2003] distribution
39. Which one of the following pairs is secondary metabolites
mismatched? [2005] (c) have same number of chromosomes
(a) Tundra - permafrost
(d) can reproduce freely with each other and
(b) Savanna - acacia trees
form seeds.
(c) Prairie - epiphytes
(d) Coniferous forest - evergreen trees 46. A high density of elephant population in an
40. Niche overlap indicates [2006] area can result in [2007]
(a) two different parasites on the same host (a) intra specific competition
(b) sharing of one or more resources between (b) inter specific competition
the two species (c) predation on one another
(c) mutualism between two species
(d) mutualism.
(d) active cooperation between two species
41. The formula for exponential population 47. What is true about the isolated small tribal
growth is [2006] populations? [2008]
(a) dN/rN = dt (a) There is a decline in population as boys
(b) rN / dN = dt marry girls only from their own tribe
(c) dN / dt = rN (b) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness
(d) dt / dN = rN do not spread in the isolated population
42. Praying mantis is a good example of [2006]
(c) Wrestlers who develop strong body
(a) warning colouration
muscles in their life time pass this
(b) social insects
character on to their progeny
(c) camouflage
(d) mullerian mimicry (d) There is no change in population size as
43. Geometric representation of age structure is they have a large gene pool
a characteristic of [2007] 48. A country with a high rate of population
(a) population growth took measures to reduce it. The .
(b) landscape [2009]
(c) ecosystem
(d) biotic community.
44. The population of an insect species shows an
explosive increase in numbers during rainy
season followed by its disappearance at the
end of the season. What does this show?
[2007]
(a) The food plants mature and die at the
end of the rainy season
(b) Its population growth curve is of J-type
(c) The population of its predators increases
enormously
(d) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this
insect.
45. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong
to the same species if they [2007]
(a) have more than 90 per cent similar
genes
(b) look similar and possess identical
51. Which one of the following is one of the

characteristics of a biological community?
[2010]
(a) Stratification (b) Natality
(c) Mortality (d) Sex ratio
52. What type of human population is represented
by the following age pyramid? [2011]
Figure below shows age-sex pyramids of

populations A and B twenty years apart.
Select the correct interpretation about them:
Interpretations:
(a) “B” is earlier pyramid anfshows
stabilised growth rate. .
(b) “B” is more recent showing that
population is very young
(c) “A” is the earlier pyramid and no change

has occurred in the growth rate. (a) Vanishing population
(d) “A” is more recent and shows slight (b) Stable population
reduction in the growth rate. (c) Declining population
49. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) (d) Expanding population
the black - coloured form became dominant 53. Large woody vines are more commonly found
over the light- coloured form in England in : [2011]
during industrial revolution. [2009] (a) temperate forest
This is an example of: (b) mangroves
(a) appearance of the darker coloured (c) tropical rainforests
individuals due to very poor sunlight (d) alpine forests
(b) protective mimicry 54. Consider the following four conditions (i)
(c) inheritance of darker colour character - (iv) and select the correct pair of them as
acquired due to the darker environment adaptation to environment in desert lizards.
(d) natural selection whereby the darker [2011]
forms were selected The conditions :
50. The figure given below is a diagrammatic (i) Burrowing in soil to escape high
representation of response of organisms to temperature
abiotic factors. What do a, b and c represent (ii) Losing heat rapidly from the body during
respectively? [2010] high temperature
(iii) Bask in sun when temperature is low 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and
(iv) Insulating body due to thick fatty emigration 30. The net increase in population
dermis is : [NEET 2013]
Options : (a) 15 (b) 05
(a) (iii), (iv) (b) (i) (c) zero (d) 10
(c) (iii), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii) 59. Benthic organisms are affected most by
55. Which one of the following statements is [NEET Kar. 2013]
correct for secondary succession ? [2011] (a) Water-holding capacity of soil
(a) It begins on a bare rock (b) Light reaching the forest floor
(b) It occurs on a deforested site (c) Surface turbulence of water
(c) It follows primary succession (d) Sediment characteristics of aquatic
(d) It is similar to primary succession except ecosystems
that it has a relatively fast pace 60. The age pyramid with broad base indicates
56. Cuscuta is an example of [2012M] [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) ectoparasitism (b) brood parasitism (a) High percentage of young individuals
(c) predation (d) endoparasitism (b) High percentage of old individuals
57. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to (c) Low percentage of young individuals
the shell lining of hermit crab. The association (d) A stable population
is : [NEET 2013] 61. Which one of the following is not a parasitic
adaptation? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Symbiosis (b) Commensalism
(a) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
(c) Amensalism (d) Ectoparasitism (b) Development of adhesive organs
58. A biologist studied the population of rats in (c) Loss of digestive organs
a barn. He found that the average natality was (d) Loss of reproductive capacity
Solutions
1. (b) Competition is most severe between the because it possesses good aeration,
members of a population belonging to nutritive salts and good water retaining
same niches. capacity.
2. (a) Symbiosis or mutualism is a mutually 10. (b) Mutualism type of interactions are shown
beneficial association necessary for the in plant roots in mycorrhizal region.
survival of both the partners.
11. (b) Xeric environment is found in deserts
3. (b) Homeostasis is the property of an open where temperature remains high in the
system, especially living organisms,
day and low during the night and air
to regulate its internal environment to
humidity is very low.
maintain a stable, constant condition, by
means of multiple dynamic equilibrium 12. (a) Stenohaline : Steno meaning narrow
adjustments, controlled by interrelated and haline meaning salt. A fish cannot
regulation mechanisms. handle a wide fluctuation in salt content
4. (c) Deep black soil has high content of clay in water. Many fresh water fish tend to
and humus, which makes it more fertile be stenohaline and die in environments
and so productive. Humus is amorphous of high salinity such as the ocean. Fish
and colloidal mixture of complex organic living in coastal estuaries and tide pools
substances. It provides fertility to the are often euryhaline (tolerant to changes
soil. in salinity) as are many species which
5. (b) When the interaction is useful for both have life cycle requiring tolerance to both
the populations. fresh water and sea water environments
6. (b) High organic matter darkens the colour such as Salmon.
of soil. This is soil. 13. (a) Producers. Number of individuals
7. (a) Soil particles size defines its texture. The decreases at successive trophic levels.
mineral particles present in soil, vary
14. (c) Kerala & Assam. Tropical forests-are
enosmously in size the fire fiagments.
highly productive terrestrial ecosystem.
(consisting of sand, silt and clay particles)
Their environment conditions are not
and coarse fiagments (gravel, copples and
climate and wel moisture which causes
stones). The relative proportion's of sand,
for their higher productivity.
silt and clay in a soil is referred as soil
15. (c) Sunken stomata is the characteristic
texture. Fine textured soil have more of
feature of xerophytes which help in
clay particles.
reducing loss of water from leaf surface.
Water holding capacity-Larger soil
These type of stomata are found in
particles like sand, gravel have large
oleander or pine.
pores. This have high less holding
16. (d) The correctly matched pair is streamlined
capacity and higher percolotion rate field
body for aquatic adaptation.
capacity is the of soil moisture or water
Parasitism-inter specific relationship in
content held in soil after excess water has
which one species (parasite) benefits
drained away.
for growth and reproduction and ollic
8. (d) A species is a group of individuals of species (host) harmed. Parasite live on
same kind of phenotypic characters and or inside the body of host.
can interbreed easily. 17. (d) Thomas R. Malthus put forward a theory
9. (b) Loam soil is best suited for plant growth of human population growth in 1778. He
told that population grows in geometrical contain broad leaved, hardwood
progression, whereas the means which deciduous trees – oak, maple, chestnut
support it, grow only in arithmetical etc. evergreen forests occur in equatorial
progression. and subequatorial regions important
18. (c) In India, there is short life span of plants are- Rosewood Ebony, Mahogany,
individuals and high birth rate as fig, etc. Grass lands are large plains
covered by grasses. Prosopis, Acacia and
compared to other countries. That is why,
Capparis are non succulent, thorny hot
the human population is heavily weighed
desert plants.
towards the younger age groups.
26. (a) Mimicry is resemblance of an organism
19. (d) Human population growth in India can to its natural surrounding, a non-living
be regulated by following the national object or another organism for concealing
programme of family planning. itself from its enemies. Flowers of
20. (a) In ecological succession, climax Ophrys muscifera resemble the female
community is a stable, self perpetuating wasps of Colpa aurea so that the male
biotic community developing towards the wasp tries to copulate with the flowers
end of biotic succession in an area and and pollinate them.
is in harmony with the climate of the 27. (d) Mortality is the average number of natural
region. deaths per unit population per unit time.
21. (a) Population is an aggregation or grouping Fecundity refers to the biotic potential of
of individuals of the same species at the the organism. Environmental resistance
same time in a particular area. Species is the sum total of all limiting factors that
is a grouping of individuals of one or prevents a population to realize its full
more populations resembling each other potential.
in important morphological, anatomical 28. (b) This is so because oceanic islands are
and biochemical characters and can normally cut off from other habitats.
potentially interbreed. Biotic community 29. (d) Tropical rain forests occur in equatorial
is an assemblage of interdependent, and and subequatorial regions. The forests
ecosystem is a self sufficient and self receive all the external inputs for optimum
regulating segment of nature comprising plant growth. Due to abundant plant
of a biotic community and its physical growth, a large number of animals live
environment, both interacting and
in tropical rain forests. In grasslands fire
exchanging materials. The basic level of
occur periodically which prevent tree
ecological organisation starts with the
growth. In savannahs periods of drought
individual, the next more complex levels
are common. In deciduous forests are
are populations, species, community and
found predominantly broad leaved hard
then ecosystem.
wood deciduous trees.
22. (d) The keystone species in an ecosystem are
30. (a) Carrying capacity refers to the maximum
those who are the main contributors to the
number of individuals that can be
ecosystem.
sustained by the environment. Birth
23. (c) Natality refers to the rate at which new
rate refers to number of births per unit
individuals are born. Adaptability refers
population.
to the capacity of the organisms to adapt
themselves to their environment. 31. (a) The growth curve for bacteria is sigmoid.
First phase is the phase of slow growth-
24. (c) Human population in world is estimated
Lag phase. Second phase is the period
to have crossed 6 billion in the year
of accelerated growth - Log phase.
1999. Third phase is the phase when growth
25. (a) Deciduous forests are present in both rate becomes stable - Stationary phase.
northern and southern hemisphere Finally growth rate declines.
32. (c) Semilog of per minute growing bacterium species and the interaction of that species
when plotted against time, would yield with the resources present in the habitat.
ascending straight line. Niche overlap means that two or more
33. (a) Biotic potential is the inherent ability of species sharing the resources present in a
an organism to reproduce. Resistance particular niche.
refers to the sum total of all the limiting
41. (c) The formula of exponential growth is
factors that inhibit further growth of
population. dN dN
= rN where is the rate of change
34. (a) Diffused porous wood have vessels dt dt
irregularly arranged within the wood. in population size, r is the biotic potential
In tropics, there is no sharp distinction and N is the population size.
between the seasons; hence, there is 42. (c) Praying mantis is a good example of
not much difference in the activity of camouflage. Camouflage is the natural
cambium. colouring of an animal which enables it
35. (a) A keystone species is the one which to blend in with its surroundings.
makes up only a small proportion of A praying mantis, or praying mantid, is
the total biomass of a community, yet the common name for an insect of the
has a huge impact on the community’s order Mantodea. Often mistakenly spelled
organization and survival. preying mantis (a tempting mistake, as
36. (c) Desert show maximum difference they are notoriously predatory) they are
between day and night temperature. in fact named for the typical “prayer-like”
stance. The word mantis derives from the
37. (d) In the sigmoid growth curve growth
Greek word mantis for prophet or fortune
is slow in the lag phase. Growth rate
teller.
remains stable during the stationary
phase and it declines during the senescent
phase. Growth increases logarithmically
during the exponential phase.
38. (a) Demography is the study of population in
all aspects. Fertility refers to the number A praying mantis from India
of children per couple. Mortality rate is 43. (a) Geometric representation of age structure
the average number of natural deaths a characteristic of population.
per unit population per unit time. Age 44. (b) If a population (e.g reindeer population)
distribution refers to the proportionate is allowed to grow in a predator free
occurrence of individuals of the three environment, the population grows
age groups. Developing countries usually beyond carrying capacity and there occurs
have high rate of population growth, population crash due to sudden shortage
because of increasing fertility and of food. Such growth curves also occur
declining mortality. in insect populations during rainy season,
39. (c) Prairies is a grass land and epiphytes and in algal blooms.
and ephemerals are found in desert. 45. (d) When the members of a species are inter
In Tundra much of the ground stays - fertile and produce fertile offsprings.
frozen round the year, this condition 46. (a) It is competition between individuals
is called permafrost. The Acacia trees of same species. The intraspecific
are common in African savannas. In competition may be very severe because
coniferous forest all plants do not shed all the members of a species have similar
their leaves at the same time hence forest requirements of food, habitat mate, etc
remain ever green. and they also have similar adaptations to
40. (b) Niche indicate the habitat of a particular get their needs.
47. (a) There is a decline in population as boys 54. (b) Some species make permanent burrows
marry girls only from their own tribe in deep into the soil to escape high
the isolated small tribal populations. temperature or sunlight and some cold
48. (d) ‘A’ is more recent and shows slight blooded animals often like to bask in the
reduction in growth rate. sun to warm up their body.
49. (d) In the case of peppered moth (Biston 55. (b) Secondary succession refers to the
betularia) the black coloured form became regrowth of a habitat in the area where
dominant over the light coloured form disruptive event has occurred and
in England during industrial revolution. eliminated the existing, above ground
This is an example of natural selection. plant life of the natural habitat. So, it
occurs on a deforested site.
This group is about species that gain
56. (a) Cuscuta, or Dodder plant, is a parasitic
protection from predators due to selection
plant that wraps around other plants for
caused by nature.
nourishment. Cuscuta is found on outer
50. (d) In the graph, the line a represents side of the host and is total stem parasite.
regulator, line b represents conformer Cuscuta a parasite of Acacia.
and line c represents partial regulator. 57. (b) Commensalism is a interaction where one
Organism that are able to maintain species is benefitted and other is neither
homeostasis by physiological means benefitted nor harmed.
that ensures constant body temperature 58. (c) Net increase in population : (Natality
are called regulators. Organism that are + Immigration) – (Mortality +
not able to maintain a constant internal Emigration)
(250 + 20) – (240 + 30) = 270 – 270 = 0
temperature are called conformers.
59. (d) The sediment characteristics often
Partial regulators are organisms that
determine the type of benthic animals
have the ability to regulate, but only
that can thrive there.
over a limited range of environmental
60. (a) Age pyramid is a graphic representation
conditions, beyond which they simply
of different age groups of population
conform.
with pre-reproductive groups at the base,
51. (a) Stratification is one of the characteristics
reproductive ones in the middle and
of biological community. Natality,
post-reproductive groups at the top. In
mortality, age, structure and sex ratio are
Triangular age pyramid, the number of
basic characteristics of a population.
pre-reproduction individual is very large
52. (c) This age pyramid represents the declining
population of any organism. Population while reproductive are moderate and post-
decline is the reduction over time in reproductive are fewer.
region’s census. It can be caused for 61. (d) In parasitism, one species (parasite) is
several reasons that includes heavy benefitted and the other (host) is harmed.
immigration disease, famine or sub- Parasites have very high reproduction
replacement fertility. capacity. The life cycles of parasites are
53. (c) Large woody vines are more commonly often complex, involving one or two
found in tropical rain forests. This is a intermediate hosts or vectors to facilitate
common concern in the high humidity parasitisation of its primary host.
climatic condition.
HAPTER
C
36 Ecosystem
1. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland/true 8. Pyramid of numbers in a pond ecosystem is
ecosystem is [1990, 91] [1993]
(a) always inverted (b) always upright (a) irregular (b) inverted
(c) both A and B (d) spindle-shaped (c) upright (d) spindle shaped
2. Food chain in which micro-organisms 9. The pyramid which cannot be inverted in a
breakdown the food formed by primary stable ecosystem is that of [1994]
producers is [1991] (a) Biomass (b) Number
(a) parasitic food chain (c) Energy (d) All the above
(b) detritus food chain 10. In grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass biomass
(c) consumer food chain is one tonne. The tiger biomass shall be
[1994]
(d) predator food chain
(a) 100 kg (b) 10 kg
3. Pick up the correct food chain [1991]
(c) 200 kg (d) 1 kg
(a) Grass Chamelion Insect
11. In a biotic community, the most important
Bird
factor for survival of an animal is [1994]
(b) Grass Fox Rabbit Bird (a) day length (b) soil moisture
(c) Phytoplankton Zooplankton (c) green food (d) predators
Fish
12. Second most important trophic level in a lake
(d) Fallen leaves Bacteria Insect is [1994]
larvae (a) Zooplankton (b) Phytoplankton
4. Pedology is science of [1991] (c) Benthos (d) Neuston
(a) earth (b) soil 13. Bulk CO2 fixation occurs in [1994]
(c) diseases (d) pollution (a) Crop plants
5. River water deposits [1992] (b) Oceans
(a) loamy soil (b) alluvial soil (c) Tropical rain forests
(c) laterite soil (d) sandy soil (d) Temperature forests
6. Study of inter-relationships between organisms 14. Desert plants are generally [1995]
and their environment is [1993] (a) viviparous (b) succulent
(a) ecology (b) ecosystem (c) herbaceous (d) heterophyllus
(c) phytogeography (d) ethology 15. Which of the following does not have
7. Pyramid of numbers deals with number of stomata? [1995]
[1993] (a) hydrophytes
(a) species in an area (b) mesophytes
(b) individuals in a community (c) xerophytes
(c) individuals in a tropic-level (d) submerged hydrophytes
(d) subspecies in a community
16. If we completely remove the decomposers 24. Niche of a species in an ecosystem refers to
from an ecosystem, its functioning will be its [1996]
adversely affected, because [1995] (a) function at its place of occurrence
(a) energy flow will be blocked (b) place of its occurrence
(b) herbivores will not receive solar energy (c) competitive ability
(c) mineral movement will be blocked
(d) centre of origin
(d) rate of decomposition will be very high
17. The primar y succession refers to the 25. Which of the following ecosystems has
development of communities on a [1995] highest rate of gross primary production?
(a) fleshly cleared crop field [1997]
(b) forest clearing after devastating fire (a) Grasslands
(c) pond, freshly filled with water after a dry (b) Mangroves
phase (c) Coral reefs
(d) newly-exposed habitat with no record of
(d) Equatorial rain forest
earlier vegetation
18. Which of the following is the most stable 26. During adverse season, therophytes survive
by [1997]
ecosystem? [1995]
(a) Forest (b) Desert (a) bulbs (b) corms
(c) Mountain (d) Ocean (c) rhizomes (d) seeds
19. In a biotic community, the primary consumers 27. The rate at which light energy is converted to
are [1995] the chemical energy of organic molecules is
(a) carnivores (b) omnivores the ecosystem’s [1998]
(c) detritivores (d) herbivores (a) net primary productivity
20. Which of the following pairs is a sedimentary (b) gross primary productivity
type of biogeochemical cycle? [1995] (c) net secondary productivity
(a) oxygen and nitrogen (d) gross secondary productivity
(b) phosphorus and sulphur 28. Warm ocean surge of the Peru Current
(c) phosphorus and nitrogen reoccurring every 5-8 years or so in the East
(d) phosphorus and carbon dioxide Pacific of South America is widely known as
21. Flamingoes breed in [1996] [1998]
(a) rann of Kutch (a) Gulf Stream (b) El Nino
(b) chilka lake (c) Aye Aye (d) Magnox
(c) sambhar lake 29. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem
(d) mansarover Lake contains [1988]
22. In a food chain, the largest population is that (a) plankton
of [1996] (b) nekton
(a) decomposers (c) plankton and nekton
(b) producers (d) benthos
(c) primary consumers 30. What is true of ecosystem? [1988]
(d) tertiary consumers (a) Primary consumers are least dependent
23. The transfer of energy from one trophic upon producers
level to another is governed by the 2nd law of (b) P r i m a r y c o n s u m e r s o u t - nu m b e r
thermodynamics. The average efficiency of producers
energy transfer from herbivores to carnivores (c) Producers are more than primary
is [1996, 99] consumers
(a) 5% (b) 10% (d) Secondary consumers are the largest and
(c) 25% (d) 50% most powerful
Ecosystem 371
31. In an ecosystem, which one shows one-way 38. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged
passage [1988] but can recover after some time if damaging
(a) free energy (b) carbon effect stops will be having [2004]
(c) nitrogen (d) potassium (a) low stability and high resilience
32. Sudden mass killing of fishes is likely in
(b) high stability and low resilience
[1999] (c) low stability and low resilience
(a) mesotrophic lake (d) high stability and high resilience
(b) oligotrophic lake 39. Barophilic prokaryotes: [2005]
(c) salt lake (a) grow and multiply in very deep marine
sediments
(d) eutrophic lake
(b) o c c u r i n wa t e r c o n t a i n i n g h i g h
33. Pneumatophores are characteristic of plants
concentrations of barium hydroxide
growing in [2000]
(c) readily grow and divide in sea water
(a) saline soils enriched in any soluble salt of barium
(b) sandy soils (d) grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen
(c) marshy places and salt lakes lakes at high altitudes
(d) dryland regions 40. More than 70% of world’s freshwater is
34. The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the contained in: [2005]
oceans is that of [2000] (a) polar ice
(a) sea grasses and slime moulds (b) glaciers and mountains
(b) free floating microalgae, cyanobacteria (c) antarctica
and nanoplankton (d) greenland
(c) benthic brown algae,coastal red algae and 41. Which one of the following is not used for
daphnids construction of ecological pyramids? [2006]
(d) benthic diatoms and marine viruses (a) Number of individuals
35. Bamboo plant is growing in a fir forest then (b) Rate of energy flow
what will be the trophic level of it? [2002] (c) Fresh weight
(a) First trophic level (T1) (d) Dry weight
(b) Second trophic level (T2) 42. Which one of the following ecosystem
(c) Third trophic level (T3) types has the highest annual net primary
(d) Fourth trophic level (T4) productivity? [2007]
36. Which of the following is expected to have (a) tropical deciduous forest
the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland (b) temperate evergreen forest
ecosystem? [2004] (c) temperate deciduous forest
(a) Secondary Production
(d) tropical rain forest.
(b) Tertiary Production
43. A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality
(c) Gross Production (GP) of fishes within a few days. Consider the
(d) Net Production (NP) following reasons for this? [2008]
37. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are (a) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer
inactivated, then there will be no [2004] were used in the crops in the vicinity
(a) fixation of nitrogen in legumes (b) The area was sprayed with DDT by an

(b) fixation of atmospheric nitrogen aircraft
(c) conversion from nitrate to nitrite in (c) The lake water turned green and stinky
legumes (d) Phytoplankton populations in the lake
(d) conversion from ammonium to nitrate in declined initially thereby greatly reducing
soil photosynthesis.
Which two of the above were the main (i) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow
causes of fish mortality in the lake? feeding on grain are ecologically similar
(a) b and c (b) c and d in being consumers
(c) a and c (d) a and b (ii) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in
44. About 70% of total global carbon is found in maintaining species diversity of some
[2008]
invertebrates
(a) grasslands (b) agroecosystems
(iii) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction
(c) oceans (d) forests
45. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs of prey species
in nature is due to their [2008] (iv) Production of chemicals such as nicotine,
(a) low moisture content strychnine by the plants are metabolic
(b) poor nitrogen content disorders
(c) anaerobic environment around them The two correct statements are:
(d) low cellulose content (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
46. Consider the following statements concerning (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
food chains [2008] 50. The biomass available for consumption by the
(a) removal of 80% tigers from an area
herbivores and the decomposers is called:
resulted in greatly increased growth of
[2010]
vegetation
(b) removal of most of the carnivores (a) net primary productivity
resulted in an increased population of (b) secondary productivity
deers (c) standing crop
(c) the length of food chains is generally (d) gross primary productivity
limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy 51. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an
loss area at any time is called [2011]
(d) the length of food chains may vary from (a) standing crop (b) deteritus
2 to 8 trophic levels
(c) humus (d) standing state
Which two of the above statements are
correct? 52. Which one of the following statements for
(a) b and c (b) c andd pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the
(c) a and d (d) a and b remaining three are correct ? [2011]
47. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere (a) Its base is broad
is: [2009] (b) It shows energy content of different
(a) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia →Scirpus trophic level organisms
Lantana → Oak (c) It is inverted in shape
(b) Pistia →Volvox →Scirpus →Hydrilla → (d) It is upright in shape
Oak →Lantana
53. Which one of the following animals may
(c) Oak→Lantana →Volvox →Hydrilla →
occupy more than one trophic levels in the
Pistia →Scirpus
(d) Oak →Lantana →Scirpus →Pistia → same ecosystem at the same time? [2011M]
Hydrilla →Volvox (a) Sparrow (b) Lion
48. Which one of the following types of organisms (c) Goat (d) Frog
occupy more than one trophic level in a pond 54. Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead
ecosystem? [2009] to: [2011M]
(a) Fish (b) Zooplankton (a) medium water conditions
(c) Frog (d) Phytoplankton (b) xeric conditions
49. Study the four statements (a–d) given below (c) highly dry conditions
and select the two correct ones out of them:
(d) excessive wet conditions
[2010]
Ecosystem 373
55. Pheretima and its close relatives derive 61. The rate of formation of new organic matter
nourishment from : [2012] by rabbit in a grassland, is called [2012M]
(a) sugarcane roots (a) net productivity
(b) decaying fallen leaves and soil organic (b) secondary productivity
matter. (c) net primary productivity
(c) soil insects (d) gross primary productivity
(d) small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of
62. The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by
maize, etc.
plants like [2012M]
56. Which one of the following is not a gaseous
(a) Azolla (b) Typha
biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem ? [2012]
(a) Sulphur cycle (b) Phosphorus cycle (c) Salix (d) Vallisneria
(c) Nitrogen cycle (d) Carbon cycle 63. Identify the likely organisms (1), (2), (3) and
57. Identify the possible link “A” in the following (4) in the food web shown below. [2012M]
food chain : [2012] lion
Plant insect - frog “A” Eagle hawks
owls foxes snakes
(a) Rabbit (b) WoIf
(c) Cobra (d) Parrot garden
(3)
58. Given below is an imaginary pyramid lizard
(1)
of numbers. What could be one of the (4)
(2) grass sparrow
possibilities about certain organisms at some mice
hopper
of the different levels ? [2012]
Vegetation/seeds
Options
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(a) Deer Rabbit Frog Rat

(a) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is (b) Dog Squirrel Bat Deer
“small insectivorous birds”. (c) Rat Dog Tortoise Crow
(b) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and (d) Squirrel Cat Rat Pigeon
“Whale” on top level TC
(c) Level one PP is “pipal trees” and the level 64. Natural reservoir of phosphorus is :
SC is “sheep”. [NEET 2013]
(a) Animal bones (b) Rock
(d) Level PC is “rats” and level SC is
(c) Fossils (d) Sea water
“cats”.
65. Which one of the following processes during
59. Which one of the following is not a function
decomposition is correctly described?
of an ecosystem [2012]
[NEET 2013]
(a) Energy flow (b) Decomposition
(a) Humification-Leads to the accumulation
(c) Productivity (d) Stratification
of a dark coloured substance humus
60. The upright pyramid of number is absent in which undergoes microbial action at
[2012] every fast rate
(a) Pond (b) Forest (b) Catabolism-Last step decomposition
(c) Lake (d) Grassland under fully anaerobic condition
(c) Leaching-Water soluble inorganic (a) Lion (b) Grasshopper
nutrients rise to the top layers of soil (c) Wolf (d) Phytoplankton
(d) Fragmentation-Carried out by organisms 68. When man eats fish which feeds on
such as earthworm zooplankton which have eaten small plants,
66. Secondary productivity is rate of formation the producer in the chain is
of new organic matter by [NEET 2013] [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Parasite (b) Consumer (a) Zooplankton (b) Small plants
(c) Decomposer (d) Producer (c) Fish (d) Man
67. Which one of the following is a primary
consumer in maize field ecosystem?
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Ecosystem 375
Solutions
1. (b) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland their environment. Ecosystem, consist
ecosystem is always upright. For most of different communities of organism
ecosystem, like grass and ecosystem. and the physical environment with
Pyramids of numbers are upright because which they interact. Phytogeography is
numbering of organisms decrease at the study of geographic distribution of
successively higher trophic levels. Trophic plants species on earth.
level refers to the organisms, position in 7. (c) Pyramid of number represents the
the food chain. number of individuals on each tropic
2. (b) Detritus food chain being with dead level.
organic matter with dead plant parts, 8. (c) Pyramid of numbers of pond ecosystem
animals and their excretory product which is upright.
is being acted upon by decomposers such 9. (c) Energy pyramid can not be inverted
as saprophytes to obtain energy needed because energy always flows in one
direction only. According to 10% law
for their survival.
of energy transfer given by Lindemann
3. (c) Phytoplankton → zooplankton → Fish.
(1972), during transfer of energy from
This is a type of food chain in aquatic
one trophic level to other there is always
ecosystem.
loss in respiration and other activities
4. (b) Soil is the uppermost weathered layer or
only 10% of energy is transfered to neat
earth's crust and is composed of minerals
trophic level. So the amount of energy
and partly decomposed organic matter. flow decreases with successive trophic
Pedologist is a scientist who studies levels.
origin, composition and distribution of 10. (b) Only 10% of the mass is flown from one
soil and the materials from which the soil tropic level to another in the form of
is made. energy.
5. (b) River water deposits alluvial soil. Alluvial 11. (c) Food is necessary for life.
soil- formed by the alluvium deposition 12. (a) First tropic level in a lake is phytoplankton,
by the rivers when they slowly lose second is zooplankton.
their carrying capacity due to decrease 13. (b) Due to majority of phytoplanktons.
in velocity. These consist of diverse 14. (b) Succulent plants are fleshy xerophytes,
ratio of sand, silt and clay. These the which can grow in low water level area
most widespread soil in India the entire (desert). That is why, they are called as
northern plains as loamy soil. It contains desert plants.
roughly equal amount of sand silt and 15. (d) In submerged hydrophytes whole
clay. It is more fertile than sandy soil. plant body remains under water. e.g.
Laterite soil-formed and hot wet tropical Ceratophyllum and Utricularia. In these
areas are formed by intensive and long plants, stomata is absent and gaseous
lasting weathering of underlying rocks exchange takes place through general
and are rich in iron and aluminium. body surface.
6. (a) German biologist Ernst Haeckel coined 16. (c) The decomposers act on the dead organic
the term 'ecology', the study of inter- matter and break them down into simpler
relationship between organisms and compounds and minerals.
17. (d) The primary succession means the 29. (a) Plankton → Organisms passively floating
development of communities only on a in upper water.
newly exposed habitat with no record of Nekton → Actively swimming
Benthos → Lead sedentary life upon the
earlier vegetation. sea bottom
18. (d) The oceans cover about 2/3 of the whole 30. (c) In an ecosystem producers (green
surface of our earth. Thus it is the most
stable ecosystem, because of buffering plants) are always more than consumers
action by water. (herbivores, carnivores etc.)
19. (d) In a biotic community the herbivores (goat, 31. (a) Energy flow takes place only in one
deer) are those animals, which consume direction i.e., producers → herbivores →
the primary producers (green plants). carnivores whereas, nutrients use carbon,
Hence they are primary consumers.
20. (b) Biogeochemical cycles : Two types : nitrogen and potassium shows cyclic
(a) Gaseous : Biogenetic materials flow.
involved in circulation are gases eg. N2, 32. (d) Organic pollutants provide nutrients for
O2, CO2 etc. stimulating growth of algae and other
(b) Sedimentary : Biogenetic materials
plants. Algal bloom reduces availability of
involved in circulation are non-gaseous
eg. P2, Ca, S etc. forms rocks. light to submerged plants which get killed.
21. (b) Flamingoes breed in chilka lake. The dead submerged plants consume
22. (b) Producers are the direct and indirect more oxygen in decomposition. This
source of food for all the trophic levels. reduces availability of oxygen to other
They are always more in number.
23. (b) According to the 10% law, at each trophic life forms leading to death of organisms.
level, only 10% of the energy received is This is known as eutrophication.
transfered to the next trophic level. 33. (c) Some plants growing in salty marshes
24. (a) Niche is a specific part of the habitat develop special roots for respiration,
that is determined by the functioning of called pneumatophores. They are (–)
the population like shelter, type of food,
season etc. vely geotropic.
25. (d) Coral reefs are often called "rainforest 34. (b) The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the
of the sea". It forms some of the most oceans is that of free floating microalgae,
diverse ecosystem on earth. Coral reef cyanobacteria and nanoplankton.
ecosystem have the highest grass primary
35. (a) First trophic level is occupied by
productivity in the sea.
26. (d) Therophytes are those plants which producers. Second trophic level is
survive the adverse season like winter occupied by primary consumers. Third
as a seed and complete their life cycle trophic level is occupied by the secondary
between spring and autumn. consumers.
27. (b) The rate at which organic molecules are
formed in a green plant is called gross 36. (c) Grasslands will have highest value of
productivity. gross production. Net production is
28. (b) El. Nino flows to the north from Antarctica obtained after subtracting the respiratory
along the west coast of South America utilization from gross production.
to S. Ecuador, the west. It reoccurs Secondary and tertiary production is
after every 5 to 8 yrs. El Nino and La
Nina are officially defined as sustained related with secondary and tertiary
sea surface temperature anomalies of consumers respectively.
magnitude greater than 0.5°C across the 37. (a) Nitrogenase is an enzyme involved in
central tropical Pacific Ocean. When the biological nitrogen fixation. Enzyme
condition is met for a period of less than
nitrate reductase is involved in conversion
five months, it is classified as El Nino or La
Nina conditions; if the anomaly persists of nitrate to nitrite. Conversion of
for five months or longer, it is classified as ammonia to nitrate is carried out by
an El Nino or La Nina episode. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.
Ecosystem 377
38. (a) An ecosystem having low stability can 45. (d) The slow rate of decomposition of fallen
be easily damaged. An ecosystem having logs in nature is due to their low cellulose
high resilience will take less time to content. It plays an essential part in
recover. abscission in plants, while microbial
39. (a) Barophiles are bacteria which live in cellulases enable the digestion of plant
high pressure environments. They are material by herbivores.
generally found on ocean floors, where 46. (a) Food chain is the transfer of energy
pressure generally exceeds 380 atm (38 from green plants (Primary producers),
MPa). Some have been found at the through a sequence of organisms
bottom of the Pacific Ocean where occupies in a food chain is known as its
the maximum pressure is roughly 117 trophic level. Therefore, statements b and
MPa. c are correct.
40. (a) Three fourth surface of earth is covered 47. (a) The correct sequence of plants in a
by oceans which contain 97.5% of total hydrosere is Volvox, Hydrilla, Pistia,
water. It is marine water with about Scirpus, Lanatana and Oak. A hydrosere
3.5% salt content only 2.5% is fresh is a plant succession which occurs in a
water which occurs on land. Most of this fresh water lake. In time, an area of open
water (1.97%) occurs as frozen ice caps fresh water such as a lake will naturally
and glaciers, 0.5% fresh water occurs as dry out, ultimately becoming woodland.
ground water. Rivers and lakes contain During this change, a range of different
0.02%, soil 0.01% while atmosphere landtypes such as swamp and marsh will
possesses 0.001% of water as vapours. succeed each other. The succession from
41. (c) Fresh weight is not used for the open water to climax woodland is likely
construction of ecological pyramids to take at least two hundred years.
because the total fresh weight does not 48. (a) A pond ecosystem is a delicate balance
change into energy. Hence we can say of fish, plants and other animals. Fish
that fresh weight is not continuous in the occupy more than one tropic level in
tropic levels. pond ecosystem. Small fishes act as
42. (d) They are found in the equatorial regions secondary consumer. They feed on
primary consumer. Large fishes act as
rainfall exceeds 140 cm. The warm
tertiary consumer. They feed on smaller
humid climate supports broad leaved
fish.
evergreen plants. Productivity is very 49. (d) The statement (i) and (ii) are correct.
high ( 12000 k. cal/m 2/ year). The The statement (iii) is incorrect because
vegetation show stratification into two predators cannot lead to the extinction
or more well defined layers. of prey species. Predator and prey evolve
43. (c) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were together. The statement (iv) is incorrect
used in the crops in the vicinity and the because chemical such as nicotine and
lake water turned green and stinky. Due strychnine produced by the plants are
to this, lake near a village suffered heavy not metabolic disorders but are metabolic
mortality of fishes within a few days. wastes.
44. (c) About 70% oftotal global carbon is 50. (a) The biomass available for consumption
by the herbivores and the decomposers
found in oceans. This oceanic reservoir
is called net primary productivity. It
regulates the amount of carbon dioxide
is equal to the rate of organic matter
in the atmosphere. Atmosphere contains created by photosynthesis minus the rate
only about one percent of total global of respiration and other losses.
carbon.
51. (a) A standing crop is the quantity or 64. (b) The natural reservoir of phosphate is
total weight or energy content of the rock which contains phosphorus in the
organism, which are in a particular form of phosphates when rocks are
location at a particular time. weathered, minute amounts of these
52. (c) An energy pyramid is the graphical
phosphate dissolve in soil solution and
representation of the tropic level
(nutritionals) by which the incoming are absorbed by the roots of the plants .
solar energy is transferred into an Herbivores and other animals obtain this
ecosystem. It can never be inverted in element from plants.
shape. 65. (d) Humification, catabolism, leaching
53. (a) It feeds upon grains hence called primary and fragmentation are the steps of
consumer and can also feed on insects decomposition which operate
hence called secondary consumer at the simultaneously on the detritus.
same time in the same ecosystem.
Fragmentation is breaking down detritus
54. (a) Hydrarch succession takes place in wetter
into smaller particles by detritivores like
areas and xerarch succession respectively,
which takes place in dry areas. So, both earthworm. By the process of leaching,
hydrarch and xerarch successions leads water soluble inorganic nutrients go down
to medium water conditions. into soil horizon and get precipitated as
55. (b) Earthworm derives its nutrition from unavailable salts. Humification occurs at
decaying fallen leaves and soil organic a very slow rate.
matter. Thus the type of feeding in 66. (b) The rate of resynthesis of organic matter
earthworm is detritus. by the consumers is known as secondary
56. (b) Phosphorus is mostly used as phosphate. productivity . It depends upon the loss
Its reservoir pool is phosphate rocks while transferring energy containing
while cycling pool is soil for terrestrial organic matter from the previous trophic
ecosystems and water for aquatic level plus the consumption due to
ecosystems. respiration and predation. Respiration
57. (c) loss is about 20% for autotrophs, 30%
58. (a) for herbivores and upto 60% in case of
59. (d) Four important functional aspects of the carnivores. Therefore net productivity
ecocystem are decreases with each trophic level.
(i) Productivity (ii) Decomposition, 67. (b) In an ecosystem, producers (e.g., plants/
(iii) Energy flow and phytoplankton) belong to first trophic
(iv) Nutrient cycling.
level, herbivores or primary consumer
60. (b)
(e.g., grasshopper) to the second and
61. (b) At the trophic level of consumers the
rate at which food energy is assimilated carnivores or secondary consumer (e.g.,
is called secondary productivity. Rabbit lion, wolf) to the third trophic level.
is a consumer. 68. (b) Plants are producers which can
62. (d) A hydrosere is a plant succession which prepare their food by the process of
occurs in a freshwater lake. Second stage photosynthesis. Zooplanktons, fish and
of hydrosere is submerged stage that man are primary, secondary and tertiary
is represented by Vallisneria, Hydrilla, carnivores respectively.
Elodea, Utricularia etc.
63. (a) Food web is a network of food chains or
feeding relationships by which energy
and nutrients are passed on from one
species of living organisms to another.
HAPTER
C
37 Biodiversity and its

Conservation
1. Soil conservation is [1989] 9. Water is a resource [1992]
(a) conversion of sterile soil into fertile one (a) nondegradable nonmaintainable
(b) aeration of soil (b) degradable maintainable
(c) erosion of soil (c) renewable
(d) protection against loss
(d) non-renewable
2. Deforestation will decrease [1990]
10. American water plant that has become a
(a) soil erosion (b) land slides
(c) soil fertility (d) rainfall troublesome water weed in India is [1993]
3. A non-renewable resource is [1991, 92, 93] (a) Cyperus rotundus
(a) non-renewable non-conventional energy (b) Eichhornia crassipes
source (c) Trapa latifolia
(b) non-renewable conventional energy (d) Trapa bispinosa
source 11. Wildlife is destroyed most when
(c) renewable non-conventional energy [1994, 98, 2002]
source
(a) there is lack of proper care
(d) renewable conventional energy source
4. Renewable source of energy is [1991] (b) mass scale hunting for foreign trade
(a) Biomass (b) Coal (c) its natural habitat is destroyed
(c) Petroleum (d) Kerosene (d) natural calamity
5. Fertility of soil is measured by its ability to 12. Deforestation does not lead to [1994]
(a) retain nutrients [1992] (a) quick nutrient cycling
(b) hold organic materials (b) soil erosion
(c) hold water (c) alteration of local weather conditions
(d) support life
(d) destruction of natural habitat of wild
6. Petroleum is a [1992]
animals
(a) synthetic product
(b) renewable resource 13. Largest amount of fresh water is found in
(c) non-renewable resource [1994]
(d) inconvenient resource (a) lakes and streams
7. Minerals and metals are [1992] (b) underground
(a) biodegradable resources (c) polar ice and glaciers
(b) renewable (d) rivers
(c) non-renewable 14. Bulk fixation of carbon through photosynthesis
(d) renewable and non-renewable resources
takes place in [1994]
8. Soil fertility is reduced by [1992]
(a) crop rotation (a) tropical rain forests
(b) nitrogen fixing bacteria (b) tropical rain forest and crop plants
(c) decaying organic matter (c) crop plants
(d) intensive agriculture (d) oceans
15. Which animal has become extinct from (b) Cattle in these and adjoining areas will
India? [1994] die due to lack of fodder
(a) Snow Leopard (b) Hippopotamus (c) Large areas will become deserts
(c) Wolf (d) Cheetah (d) Crop breeding programmes will suffer
16. Ranthambore National Park is situated in due to a reduced availability of variety
(a) Maharashtra (b) Rajasthan of germplasm
(c) Gujarat (d) U.P. [1994] 23. MAB stands for [1997]
17. National Park associated with Rhinoceros is (a) Man and Biology Programme
[1994] (b) Man and Biosphere Programme
(a) Kaziranga (c) Mammals and Biosphere Programme
(b) Ranthambore (d) Mammals and Biology Programme
(c) Corbett 24. At present, the most significant cause of
(d) Valley of Flowers dwindling biodiversity is probably [1999]
18. Species diversity increases as one proceeds (a) the deterioration of ozone layer
from [1994] (b) the destruction of habitat
(a) high altitude to low altitude and high (c) niological magnification of DDT
latitude to low latitude (d) global warming
(b) low altitude to high altitude and high 25. Which animal has gone extinct in recent times
latitude to low latitude in India? [1999]
(c) low altitude to high altitude and low (a) Panthera leo
latitude to high latitude (b) Acinonyx jubatus
(d) high altitude to low altitude and low (c) Antilope cervicapra
latitude to high latitude. (d) Rhinoceros unicornis
19. Which of the following is the main factor of 26. A high density of a protected animal in a
desertification? [1995] National Park can result into [1999]
(a) mutualism
(a) Tourism
(b) intraspecific competition
(b) Irrigated agriculture
(c) emigration
(c) Over- grazing
(d) predation
(d) All of these
27. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri
20. Which of the following is the correct matching
is found in [2000]
pair of a sanctuary and its main protected wild
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Madagascar
animal? [1995]
(c) Mauritius (d) India
(a) Gir-Lion
28. An institution where valuable plant material
(b) Sariska-Tiger
likely to become irretrievably lost in the
(c) Sunderban- Rhino
wild or in cultivation is preserved in a viable
(d) Kaziranga-Musk deer condition is known as [2000]
21. A number of natural reserves have been (a) Genome (b) Herbarium
created to conserve specific wild life species. (c) Gene library (d) Gene bank
Identify the correct combination from the 29. Reason of diversity in living beings is due to
following [1996] [2001]
(a) Gir forest - Tiger (a) mutation
(b) Kaziranga - Elephants (b) long term evolutionary change
(c) Rann of Kutch - Wild Ass (c) gradual change
(d) Manas wild life Sanctuary - Musk deer (d) short term evolutionary change
22. If the forest cover is reduced to half, what is 30. Which group of vertebrates comprises
most likely to happen on a long term basis ? t h e h i g h e s t nu m b e r o f e n d a n ge r e d
[1996] species ? [2003]
(a) Tribals living in these areas will starve to (a) Birds (b) Mammals
death (c) Fishes (d) Reptiles
Biodiversity and its Conservation 381
31. In your opinion, which is the most effective 38. Which one of the following is the correct
way to conserve the plant diversity of an matched pair of an endangered animal and
area? [2004] National Park ? [2006]
(a) By tissue culture method (a) Rhinoceros - Kaziranga National Park

(b) By creating biosphere reserve (b) Wild ass - Dudhwa National Park
(c) By creating botanical garden (c) Great Indian - Keoladeo National Park
(d) By developing seed bank bustard
32. In which one of the following pairs is the (d) Lion - Corbett National Park
specific characteristic of a soil not correctly 39. Which one of the following is not included
matched? [2004] under in-situ conservation ? [2006]
(a) L a t e r i t e - C o n t a i n s a l u m i n i u m (a) Botanical garden (b) Biosphere reserve
compound (c) National park (d) Sanctuary

(b) Terra rossa - Most suitable for roses 40. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot
(c) Chernozems - Richest soil in the world of biodiversity in India ? [2006[
(d) Black soil - Rich in calcium carbonate (a) Indo-Gangetic Plain
33. Diversification in plant life appeared [2004] (b) Eastern Ghats
(a) due to long periods of evolutionary (c) Aravalli Hills
changes (d) Western Ghats

(b) due to abrupt mutations 41. Which of the following pairs of an animal
(c) suddenly on earth and a plant represents endangered organisms
(d) by seed dispersal in India? [2006]
34. According to IUCN Red List, what is the (a) Tamarind and Rhesus monkey
status of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens)?[2005] (b) Cinchona and leopard
(a) Critically endangered species (c) Banyan and black buck
(b) Vulnerable species (d) Bentinckia nicobarica and Red Panda
(c) Extinct species 42. One of endangered species of Indian
(d) Endangered species
medicinal plants is that of [2007]
35. At which latitude, heat gain through insolation
(a) Ocimum (b) Garlic
approximately equals heat loss through
(c) Nepenthes (d) Podophyllum
terrestrial radiation? [2005]
43. Identify the odd combination of the habitat
1 and the particular animal concerned.
(a) 22 ° North and South
2 [2007]
(b) 40° North and South (a) Sunderbans - Bengal Tiger
1
(c) 42 º North and South (b) Periyar - Elephant
2 (c) Rann of kutch - Wild Ass
(d) 66° North and South
(d) Dachigam - Snow
36. One of the most important functions of
National park Leopard.
botanical gardens is that [2005]
44. The table below gives the population (in
(a) they provide a beautiful area for
thousands) of ten species (A-J in four areas
recreation
(a-d) consisting of the number of habitats
(b) one can observe tropical plants there
given within brackets against each. Study
(c) they allow ex-situ conservation of germ
plasm the table and answer the question which
(d) they provide the natural habitat for follows: [2008]
wildlife
37. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the
parliament in the year [2005]
(a) 1992 (b) 1996
(c) 2000 (d) 2002
Which area out of a to d shows maximum (C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an
species diversity? example of __(4)___
(a) b (b) c (D) An area with high levels of species
(c) d (d) a richness is known as __(5)___
45. Which one of the following is not observed Which one of the following options give
in biodiversity hotspots? [2008] the correct fill ups for the respective blank
(a) Endemism numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements
(b) Accelerated species loss (a) (2) - stable (4) commensalism, (5)
(c) Lesser inter-specific competition marsh
(d) Species richness (b) (1) - aestivation, (5) - escape, (3) - stable,
46. Quercus species are the dominant component (4) - mutualism
in [2008] (c) (3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism,
(a) Temperate deciduous forests (5) biodiversity park
(b) Alpine forests (d) (1)- hibernation, (2) - escape, (3) -
(c) Scrub forests expanding, (5) hot spot
(d) Tropical rain forests 54. Biodiversity of a geographical region
47. Which one of the following has maximum represents [2011M]
genetic diversity in India? [2009] (a) endangered species found in the region.
(a) Mango (b) Wheat (b) the diversity in the organisms living in
(c) Tea (d) Teak the region.
48. Tiger is not a resident in which one of the (c) genetic diversity present in the dominant
following national park? [2009] species of the region.
(a) Sunderbans (b) Gir (d) species endemic to the region.
(c) Jim Corbett (d) Ranthambhor 55. Which one of the following areas in India, is
49. Which one of the following is an example of a hotspot of biodiversity [2012]
Exsitu conservation? [2010] (a) Eastern Ghats (b) Gangetic Plain
(a) Wildlife sanctuary (c) Sunderbans (d)Western Ghats
(b) Seed bank 56. The highest number of species in the world is
(c) Sacred groves represented by [2012]
(d) National park (a) Fungi (b) Mosses
50. Eutrophication is often seen in [2011] (c) Algae (d) Lichens
(a) deserts
57. Sacred groves are specially useful in
(b) fresh water lakes
[2012M]
(c) ocean
(a) preventing soil erosion.
(d) mountains
(b) year-round flow of water in rivers.
51. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse
(c) generating environmental awareness.
alleles of all the genes of a crop is called
(d) conserving rare and threatened species.
[2011]
58. Select the correct statement about bio-
(a) herbarium (b) germplasm
diversity. [2012M]
(c) gene library (d) genome
(a) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no
52. Which one of the following shows maximum
adverse effect on biodiversity.
genetic diversity in India ? [2011]
(b) Western Ghats have a very high degree
(a) Groundnut (b) Rice
of species richness and endemism.
(c) Maize (d) Mango
(c) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad
53. Consider the following statements (A)-(D)
pursued by the developed countries.
each with one or two blanks. [2011M]
(d) The desert areas of Rajasthan and
(A) Bears go into __(1)__ during winter to
Gujarat have a very high level of desert
__(2)__ cold weather
animal species as well as numerous rare
(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base
animals.
represents __(3)__ human population
59. W h i c h o f t h e f o l l ow i n g r e p r e s e n t (a) GEF (b) IUCN
maximum number of species among global (c) UNEP (d) WWF
biodiversity? [NEET 2013] 61. The largest tiger reserve in India is
(a) Lichens (b) Fungi [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) Mosses and Ferns (d) Algae (a) Nagarhole
60. Which organization publishes the Red Data (b) Valmiki
Book? [NEET Kar. 2013] (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(d) Periyar
Solutions
1. (d) Soil conservation is to conserve fertile in case of metals and same minerals they
soil from the losses like, heavy rainfall, are non-renewable.
drainage, high wind, flood, draught etc. 8. (d) During intensive agriculture most of the
2. (d) Transpiration will be decreased, air nutrients and minerals are exhausted
temperature will increase and water from the soil so fertility decreases.
content will decrease hence rainfall 9. (c) Water is a renewable resource but can
decreases. become non renewable if they are not
3. (b) Non-renewable sources of energy are used properly.
generally conventional (traditional) 10. (b) Eichhornia crassipes is an American
sources. origin plant and now water weed in
4. (a) Coal, kerosene and petroleum are non- India.
renewable while biomass is renewable 11. (c) If natural habitat is destroyed, wild life
source of energy. is affected worstly.
The term “biomass” is especially useful 12. (a) Deforestation causes the depletion of
for plants, where some internal structures wood and nutrients from an ecosystem
may not always be considered living tissue, and hence nutrient cycling gets slowed
such as the wood (secondary xylem) down.
of a tree.Biofuels include bioethanol,
13. (c) Polar ice & glaciers have the largest
biobutanol, biodiesel & biogas.
amount of pure and fresh water without
Biomass is grown from several plants, any dissolved salt or impurity.
including switchgrass, hemp, corn,
14. (d) Bulk fixation of carbon through
poplar, willow and sugarcane. The
photosynthesis takes place in oceans,
particular plant used is usually not very
due to presence of majority of
important to the end products, but it does
phytoplanktons.
affect the processing of the raw material.
Production of biomass is a growing 15. (d) The ‘Cheetah’ has become extinct
industry as interest in sustainable fuel from India. The endangered subspecies
sources is growing. Acinonyx jubatus venaticus lives in Asia
(Iran). In 1990, there were reports in the
5. (d) How much ability to support life in soil
Times of India of a cheetah sighting in
is called its fertility.
eastern India. There is a chance some
6. (c) Petroleum is a non-renewable resource. cheetahs remain in India, though it is
7. (d) Due to shorter recycling in case of doubtful. There have also been reports
biogenetic nutrients (minerals) they are of Asiatic cheetahs in the Balochistan
renewable and due to very long recycling Province of Pakistan, though these
continue to be unverified. The cheetah mutually beneficial relationship occurring
prefers to live in an open biotope, such between two interacting organisms.
as semi-desert, prairie, and thick brush. Predation is the act of capturing, killing
16. (b) Rajasthan and eating. It is a negative interaction
between two organisms. Migration is
17. (a) Kaziranga National Park in Assam is
a permanent outward movement of
associated with rhinoceros.
individuals from a population for settling
18. (a) At low altitude and latitude more habitat into a new area.
is found and environment conditions are
also more suitable i.e. more species and 27. (b) The Lemurs are the inhabitants of
individuals occur at lower latitude and Madagascar and the Comoro Islands.
altitude places. 28. (d) An institution where valuable plant
material likely to become irretrievably
19. (c) Desertification is the process leading to
lost in the wild or in cultivation is
the formation of desert. The main factor
preserved in a viable condition is known
of desertification of land is over-grazing
as Gene Bank.
by herbivorous animals.
29. (b) Diversity is due to the long term
20. (a) Gir forest is important for protecting lion.
evolutionary changes. Adaptability to
The ecosystem of Gir, with its diverse
continuous changes in environmental
flora and fauna, is a result of the efforts
conditions is important for natural
of the Government, forest department,
selection of variants and variations
wildlife activists and NGOs. The forest
generation after generation leading to
area of Gir and its lions were declared
emergence of diverse descendants.
as “protected” in the early 1900’s by
30. (b) Mammals
the then Nawab of the princely state
of Junagadh. This initiative assisted 31. (d) Tissue culture method is used to
in the conservation of the lions whose propagate plant. Creating biosphere
population had plummeted to only 15 reserve conserves both flora and fauna.
through slaughter for trophy hunting. Botanical gardens can conserve only a
few specific varieties of plants.
21. (c) Gir forest – Lion
32. (d) Option (d) is not the correct match as
Kaziranga – Rhinoceros black soil is rich in alluvial and not in
Manas – Elephant, Rhinoceros calcium carbonate.
Manali – Musk deer 33. (a) According to Darwin gradual
22. (c) If the forest cover is reduced to half, large accumulation of small variations gives
areas will become deserts. rise to new species. Abrupt mutations
23. (b) MAB, Man and Biosphere Programme, do not give rise to new species . Plants
was launched by UNESCO in 1971. There arose by gradual adaptation to diverse
are 14 projects under this programme, habitats and not suddenly on earth.
which focus on Research and Training Seeded plants are just one group in the
with emphasis on ecological approach plant kingdom.
to the study of inter-relationship between 34. (d) IUCN is Inter national Union of
man and the environment. Conservation of Nature and Natural
24. (b) Habitat destruction affects the survival of resources which is now called world
populations and reduces biodiversity. conservation union (WCU). It maintains
a red databook or red list which is
25. (a) Panthera leo has gone extinct in recent a catalogue of taxa facing risk of
times in India. extinction.
26. (b) Competition between organisms of Endangered Species are those facing
the same species is called intraspecific a high risk of extinction in the wild in
competition. Mutualism is obligatory and
the near future due to decrease in its humans. Western Ghats in India are under
habitat, excessive predation or poaching. threat due to continuous developmental
The percentage number of endangered activities and Doon valley is under threat
species in the list of threatened ones is due to continuous mining activities.
19% mammals, 17% birds, 21% reptiles,
41. (d) Endangered plant is Bentinckia nicobarica
22% amphibians and 19% angiosperms.
& endangered animal is Red Panda
In India their no. is 54 animals and
(Ailurus fulgens).
113 plants e.g Red Panda, Bentinckia
nicobarica. 42. (d) Podophyllum is one of the endangered
Critically Endangered : The taxon is species of Indian medicinal plants. It
facing very high risk of extinction in the is used to remove benign (not cancer)
wild and can become extinct any moment growths, such as certain kinds of warts.
in the immediate future, e.g. Sus salvinus It works by destroying the tissue of the
(Pigmy Hog), Berberis nilghiriensis. growth.
Vulnerable : Presently the population is 43. (d) Dachigam national park is for conservation
sufficient but is undergoing depletion due of Hangul which is one of India's most
to some factors so that it is facing risk of scenically beautiful wildlife reserves. It is
extinction in medium term future e.g. located only 22 kilometers from Srinagar,
Antelope cervi carpa. the capital city of the northern state of
Jammu and Kashmir. It covers an area
Extinct : The taxon has been completely
of 141 square kilometers.
eliminated or died out from earth e.g.
Dodo. 44. (c) Area(d) and numbr of habitats (12) shows
the maximum species diversity.
35. (b) At 40º North and South.
45. (b) Lesser inter-specific competition is not
36. (c) Ex-situ conservation means off site
observe in biodiversity hotspots, levels
conservation. It is the process of
of species richness and high degree
protecting an endangered species of
of endemism. Initially 25 biodiversity
plant or animal by removing it from an
hotspots were identified but subsequently
unsafe or threatened habitat and placing
nine more have of biodiversity hotspots
it or part of it under the care of man.
in the world to 34. These hotspots are
Botanical garden is one of the method
also regions of accelerated habitat loss.
of exsitu conservation.
37. (d) Biodiversity Act of India was passed by 46. (a) Quercus species is a dominant component
the parliament in the year 2002. in temperate deciduous forests. The
common name of Quercus is cork oak
38. (a) Kaziranga National Park in Assam is belongs to family Fabaceae. Cork used
famous as a protection environmental park as a bottle stoppers, soles for shoes,
for rhinoceros. insulating material and for manufacture
39. (a) In situ means keeping endangered of linoleum.
species of animals or plants into natural 47. (b) Wheat genetics is more complicated
environment and not in the environment than that of most other domesticated
that looks like natural but man made, like species. Some wheat species are diploid,
zoological & botanical gardens. In situ with two sets of chromosomes, but
includes, national parks, sanctuaries and many are stable polyploids, with four
biosphere reserve. sets of chromosomes (tetraploid) or six
40. (d) Hot spot are those areas which were rich (hexaploid).
in biodiversity but now under threat due 48. (b) Tiger is not resident in Gir national park.
to direct or indirect interference of human Gir has a large population of marsh
activites. These regions are on the edge to crocodile or mugger, which is among
get some of their species extinct due to the 40 species of reptiles and amphibians
recorded in the sanctuary. According to 55. (d) Hots are the geographical area where
official census figures, Gir has about 300 biodiversity is maximum. Two hotspots
lions and 300 leopards, making it one of in India are Western Ghats and North
the major big-cat concentrations in India. eastern himlayan region.
Sambar and spotted deer (chital), blue 56. (a)
bull (nilgai), chousingha (the world’s 57. (d) An area with particular types of trees
only four-horned antelope), chinkara dedicated to local deities or ancestral
(Indian gazelle) and wild boar thrive in spirits that are protected by local
Gir. Jackal, striped hyena, jungle cat, communities through social traditions
rusty-spotted cat, langur, porcupine, and taboos incorporating spiritual and
black-naped Indian hare are among the ecological values are called as sacred
other mammals of Gir. groves.
49. (b) Ex-situ conservation is the conservation Sacred groves act as an ideal centre for
of selected organism in places outside biodiversity conservation. Several plants
their natural homes. They include off and animals that are threatened in the
site collection and gene banks. forest are still well conserved in some of
the sacred groves. It has been observed
In situ conservation, on the other hand, is
that several medicinal plants that are not
the conservation of endangered species in
to be found in the forest are abundant
their natural habitat. Biosphere reserves,
in the sacred groves. Further, rare,
National parks, wildlife sanctuaries and
endangered, threatened and endemic
sacred groves all are examples of In situ
species are often concentrated in sacred
conservation.
groves.
50. (b) Eutrophication is often seen in fresh water 58. (b) Western ghat is biodiversity rich zone
lakes. The main causes of eutrophication along with endemism. The forests of
in these water systems are sediments and the Western Ghats are some of the best
thermal stratification, with agricultural representatives of non-equatorial tropical
run-off from fertilizers and manure, evergreen forests in the world. The
containing nitrates and phosphates and Western Ghats have evolved into one of
discharge of partially treated or untreated the richest centers of endemism owing to
sewages or phosphate containing their isolation from other moist areas.
detergents. 59. (b) The no. of species of fungi is 72000 that
51. (c) Gene library contains DNA fragments is maximum in respect to other options.
representing the entire genome of an The number of fungus species in the
organism. So collection of alleles of the world is more than the combined total
genes of a crop is called gene library. of species of fishes, amphibians, reptiles
52. (b) In India maximum genetic diversity and mammals.
is seen in rice. Total of 23 variety of 60. (b) IUCN or WCN maintains a red data book
irrigated ecology and 8 varieties of which is a catalogue of threatened plants
rainfed ecology has been invented in and animals facing risk of extinction.
India. The IUCN red list (2004) documents
53. (d) the extinction of 784 species (including
54. (b) Biodiversity is the number of variety 338 vertebrates, 359 invertebrates and 87
of organism found within a specified plants) in the last 500 years.
geographic region. 61. (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve is
the largest Tiger reserve in India and the
only Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh
state.
HAPTER
C
38 Environmental Issues
1. Acid rains are produced by [1988, 89, 91] (c) Effluents
(a) excess emissions of NO2 and SO2 from (d) Air pollution
burning fossil fuels 7. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile
(b) excess production of NH3 by industry exhausts is [1992]
and coal gas (a) Mercury (b) Cadmium
(c) excess release of carbon monoxide by (c) Lead (d) Copper
incomplete combustion 8. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes a
(d) excess formation of CO2 by combustion reaction that produces [1993]
and animal respiration (a) Fluorides
2. Which one is not a pollutant normally? (b) Carbon monoxide
[1988, 92] (c) Sulphur dioxide
(a) Hydrocarbons (d) Ozone
(b) Carbon dioxide 9. Atmosphere of big/metropolitan cities is
(c) Carbon monoxide polluted most by [1994]
(d) Sulphur dioxide (a) automobile exhausts
3. Green house effect is warming due to (b) pesticide residue
[1989, 91] (c) household waste
(d) radio-active fall-out
(a) Infra-red rays reaching earth
10. Highest DDT deposition shall occur in
(b) Moisture layer in atmosphere
[1994]
(c) Increase in temperature due to increase
(a) Phytoplankton (b) Sea Gull/Birds
in carbon dioxide concentration of
(c) Crab (d) Eel
atmosphere
11. Which gas contributes most to green house
(d) Ozone layer of atmosphere
effect? [1994]
4. Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission (a) CFC (b) Freon
is [1990] (c) CO2 (d) CH4
(a) Sulphur dioxide 12. Disease caused by eating fish found in water
(b) Carbon monoxide contaminated with industrial waste having
(c) Methane mercury is [1994]
(d) Fluorocarbon (a) Minamata disease
5. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was (b) Bright's disease
[1990, 99] (c) Hashimoto's disease
(a) Methyl isocyanate (d) Osteosclerosis
(b) Potassium isothiocyanate 13. Drawback of DDT as pesticide is [1994]
(c) Sodium isothiocyanate (a) It becomes ineffective after sometime
(d) Ethyl isothiocyanate (b) It is less effective than others
6. Domestic waste constitutes [1991] (c) It is not easily/rapidly degraded in
(a) Nonbiodegradable pollution nature
(b) Biodegradable pollution (d) Its high cost
14. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at 23. The CO2 content in the atmospheric air is
level [1994] about [1997]
(a) Above 30 dB (b) Above 80 dB (a) 0.034% (b) 0.34%
(c) Above 100 dB (d) Above 120 dB (c) 3.34% (d) 6.5%
15. Fish die in water bodies polluted by sewage 24. In coming years, skin related disorders will be
due to [1994] more common due to [1997]
(a) pathogens (a) pollutants in air
(b) clogging of gills by silt (b) use of detergents
(c) reduction in oxygen (c) water pollution
(d) foul smell (d) depletion of ozone layer
16. The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect 25. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over
of [1995] [1997]
(a) oxygen (b) hydrogen (a) India (b) Europe
(c) chlorine (d) sulphur dioxide (c) Antarctica (d) Africa
17. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into 26. The most common indicator organism that
a river, its B.O.D, will [1995] represents polluted water is [1997, 2004]
(a) increase (a) E. coli (b) P. typhi
(b) decrease
(c) C. vibrio (d) Entamoeba
(c) sharply decrease
27. How does carbon monoxide, a poisonous gas
(d) remain unchanged
emitted by automobiles, prevent transport of
18. In Minamata Bay Japan, the animals which
oxygen into the body tissues? [1998]
remained free from Minamata disease, are
(a) By destroying the haemoglobin
[1995]
(b) By forming a stable compound with
(a) pigs (b) rabbits
haemoglobin
(c) dogs (d) cats
19. Sewage drained into water bodies kill fishes (c) By obstructing the reaction of oxygen
because [1996] with haemoglobin
(a) excessive carbon dioxide is added to (d) By changing oxygen into carbon
water dioxide.
(b) it gives off a bad smell 28. Which one of the following organisms is used
(c) it removes the food eaten by fish as indicator of water quality? [1998]
(d) it increases competition with fishes for (a) Chlorella (b) Azospirillum
dissolved oxygen (c) Escherichia (d) Biggiatoa
20. The worst environmental hazards were 29. Which important green house gas other
created by accidents in nuclear power plant than methane is being produced from the
and MIC gas tragedy respectively in agricultural fields? [1998]
[1996] (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Ammonia
(a) Russia in 1990 & Bhopal in 1986 (c) Nitrous oxide (d) Arsine
(b) Ukraine in 1988 & USA in 1984 30. DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds
(c) Bhopal in 1984 & Russia in 1990 because it inhibits [1999]
(d) Ukraine in 1986 and Bhopal in 1984 (a) Calmodulin
21. The major contributor of Green House gases (b) Calcium ATPase
to the atmosphere is [1996, 2002] (c) Magnesium ATPase
(a) Russia (b) U.S.A. (d) Carbonic anhydrase
(c) Germany (d) Brazil. 31. Which of these is a pollution related to
22. Phosphate pollution is caused by [1997] occupational health hazard ? [1999]
(a) phosphate rocks only (a) Pneumoconiosis
(b) agricultural fertilizers only (b) Asthma
(c) sewage and phosphate rocks (c) Flurosis
(d) sewage and agricultural fertilizers (d) Silicosis
Environmental Issues 389
32. Maximum bioconcentration of pesticide 41. In 1984, Bhopal gas tragedy took place
residues is usually found in birds that because methyl isocyanate [2004]
exclusively feed on [1999] (a) reacted with DDT
(a) fish (b) seeds
(b) reacted with ammonia
(c) worms (d) meat (c) reacted with CO2
33. Which of the following is the use of lichens (d) reacted with water
in case of pollution? [1999] 42. Lead concentration in blood is considered
(a) They treat the polluted water alarming if it is [2004]
(b) They act as bioindicators of pollution (a) 20 mg/100 ml (b) 30 mg/100 ml
(c) They promote pollution (c) 4–6 mg/100 ml (d) 10 mg/100 ml
(d) Lichens are not related with pollution 43. Recently Govt. of India has allowed mixing
34. Green house effect refers to [1999] of alcohol in petrol. What is the amount of
(a) cooling of earth alcohol permitted for mixing in petrol?
[2004]
(b) trapping of UV rays
(a) 2.5% (b) 10 – 15%
(c) production of cereals
(c) 10% (d) 5%
(d) warming of earth
44. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural
35. Which of the following organism is likely
fields is likely to create the problem of
to have more concentration of D.D.T. in its
[2005]
body? [1999] (a) Acidity (b) Aridity
(a) Herbivores (c) Salinity (d) Metal toxicity
(b) Carnivores 45. Which of the following is not used for
(c) Top carnivores disinfection of drinking water? [2005]
(d) Primary producers (a) Chlorine (b) Ozone
36. Which of the following is a secondary (c) Chloramine (d) Phenyl
pollutant? [1999] 46. Identify the correctly matched pair. [2005]
(a) CO (b) CO2 (a) Basal Convention - Biodiversity
(c) PAN (d) Aerosol Conservation
37. D.D.T. is [1999] (b) Kyoto Protocol - Climatic change
(a) a non –degradable pollutant (c) Montreal Protocol - Global warming
(b) A bio-degradable pollutant (d) Ramsar - Ground water
(c) not a pollutant Convention pollution
(d) an antibiotic 47. Which one of the following pairs is
38. Which of the following is absent in polluted mismatched? [2005]
water? [2002] (a) Fossil fuel burning - release of CO2
(a) Hydrilla (b) Nuclear power - radioactive wastes
(b) Water hyacinth (c) Solar energy - green house effect
(c) Larva of stone fly (d) Biomass burning - release of CO2
(d) Blue green algae 48. Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution
39. Escherichia coli is used as an indicator Control Board for the discharge of industrial
organism to determine pollution of water and municipal waste waters into natural
with [2003] surface waters, is [2006]
(a) pollen of aquatic plants (a) < 10 ppm (b) < 100 ppm
(b) heavy metals (c) < 30 ppm (d) < 3.0 ppm
49. Photochemical smog pollution does not
(c) faecal matter
contain [2006]
(d) industrial effluents
(a) Nitrogen dioxide
40. A major component of gobar gas is [2004]
(b) Carbon dioxide
(a) Ammonia (b) Methane
(c) PAN (peroxy acyl nitrate)
(c) Ethane (d) Butane
(d) Ozone
50. Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate 58. Global agreement in specific control strategies
action to protect the ozone layer from human to reduce the release of ozone depleting
activities was passed in the year [2006] substances, was adopted by [2009]
(a) 1987 (b) 1988 (a) The Montreal Protocol
(c) 1985 (d) 1986 (b) The Koyoto Protocol
51. In which one of the following the BOD (c) The Vienna Convention
(Biochemical Oxygen Demand ) of sewage (d) Rio de Janeiro Conference
59. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOP) in a river
(s), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent
water [2009]
(PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been
(a) has no relationship with concentration
arranged in ascending order ? [2007] of oxygen in the water.
(a) SE < PE < S < DE (b) gives a measure of Salmonella in the
(b) PE < S < SE < DE water.
(c) S < DE < PE < SE (c) increases when sewage gets mixed with
(d) SE < S < PE < DE. river water.
52. In a coal fired power plant electrostatic (d) remains unchanged when algal bloom
precipitators are installed to control emission occurs.
of [2007] 60. Which of the following plant species you
(a) NO× (b) SPM would select for the production of bioethanol ?
(c) CO (d) SO2 [2009]
53. Which one of the following is not a (a) Zea mays (b) Pongamia
bioindicator of water pollution? [2007] (c) Jatropha (d) Brassica
(a) Blood-worms (b) Stone flies 61. Steps taken by the Government of India to
control air pollution include [2009]
(c) Sewage fungus (d) Sludge-worms.
(a) compulsory PUC (Pollution Under
54. According to Central Pollution Control
Control) certification of petrol driven
Board (CPCB), which particulate size in vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide
diameter (in micrometers) of the air pollutants and hydrocarbons.
is responsible for greatest harm to human (b) permission to use only pure diesel with
health? [2008] a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel
(a) 2.5 or less (b) 1.5 or less for vehicles.
(c) 1.0 or less (d) 5.2-2.5 (c) use of non-polluting Compressed Natural
55. Which one of the following is being tried in Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and
India as a biofuel substitute for fossil fuels? trucks.
[2008] (d) compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol
(a) Jatropha (b) Azadirachta with petrol and 20% biodiesel with
(c) Musa (d) Aegilops diesel.
56. Which one of the following is the correct 62. Montreal protocol aims at [2009]
(a) Biodiversity conservation
percentag of the two (out of the total of 4)
(b) Control of water pollution
green house gases that contribute to the total
(c) Control of CO2 emission
global warming? [2008]
(d) Re d u c t i o n o f o z o n e d e p l e t i n g
(a) CFCs 14%, Methane 20% substances
(b) CO2, 40%, CFCs 30% 63. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food
(c) N2O 6%, CO2 86% chain causing biomagnification because DDT
(d) Methane 20%, N2O 18% is [2009]
57. World Summit on Sustainable Development (a) moderately toxic
(2002) was held in [2008] (b) non-toxic to aquatic animals
(a) Brazil (b) Sweden (c) water soluble
(c) Argentina (d) South Africa (d) lipo soluble
64. Chipko movement was launched for the 72. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
protection of [2009] [2011]
(a) forests (b) livestock (a) physical process
(c) wet lands (d) grasslands (b) mechanical process
(c) chemical process
65. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely
(d) biological process
used in contemporary biology as [2009] 73. Which of the following is mainly produced
(a) insecticide by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on
(b) agent for production of dairy products sewage? [2011]
(c) source of industrial enzyme (a) Laughing gas (b) Propane
(d) indicator of water pollution (c) Mustard gas (d) Marsh gas
66. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is: 74. Which one of the following statements is
[2010] wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy ? [2011]
(a) Methyl lsocyanate gas leakage took
(a) coal (b) petroleum
place
(c) minerals (d) forest (b) Thousands of human beings died
67. dB is a standard abbreviation used for the (c) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
quantitative expression of [2010] (d) It took place in the night of December
(a) the density of bacteria in a medium 2/3 1984.
(b) a particular pollutant 75. "Good ozone " is found in the [2011M]
(c) the dominant Bacillus in a culture (a) mesosphere (b) troposphere
(d) a certain pesticide (c) stratosphere (d) ionosphere
76. The logistic population growth is expressed
68. The two gases making highest relative by the equation : [2011M]
contribution to the greenhouse gases are
[2010]
(a) CO2 and CH4 (b) CH4 and N2O (a) dt/dN = Nr
(c) CFC5 and N2O (d) CO2 and N2O
69. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed
(b) dN/dt = rN
for [2010]
(a) addition of preservatives to the product (c) dN/dt = rN
(b) purification of the product
(c) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the (d) dN/dt = rN
culture vessel
(d) availability of oxygen throughout the 77. In an area where DDT had been used
process extensively, the population of birds declined
70. Which one of the following expanded forms significantly because: [2012]
of the following acronyms is correct? [2011] (a) birds stopped laying eggs
(a) IPCC = International Panel for Climate (b) earthworms in the area got eradicated
(c) cobras were feeding exclusively on
Change
birds
(b) UNEP = United Nations Environmental (d) many of the birds laid, did not hatch
Policy 78. Which one of the following is a wrong
(c) EPA = Environmental Pollution statement? [2012]
Agency (a) Most of the forests have been lost in
(d) IUCN = International Union for tropical areas.
Conservation of Nature and (b) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is
Natural Resources harmful to animals.
71. Which one of following pairs of gases are the (c) G r e e n h o u s e e f f e c t i s a n a t u r a l
major cause of “Greenhouse effect”? [2011] phenomenon.
(a) CO2 and O3 (b) CO2 and CO (d) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon
(c) CFCs and SO2 (d) CO2 and N2O in freshwater bodies.
79. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (d) Reducing deforestation, cutting down use
(BOD) is a method used for : [2012] of fossil fuel.
(a) estimating the amount of organic matter 83. The second commitment period for Kyoto
in sewage water. Protocol was decided at [NEET Kar. 2013]
(b) working out the efficiency of oil driven (a) Cancun (b) Durban
automobile engines. (c) Bali (d) Doha
(c) measuring the activity of Saccharomyces 84. Climate of the world is threatened by
cerevisae in producing curd on a [NEET Kar. 2013]
commercial scale. (a) Increasing concentration of atmospheric
(d) working out the efficiency of RBCs about oxygen
their capacity to carry oxygen. (b) Decreasing amount of atmospheric
80. The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution oxygen
Act came into force in : [NEET 2013] (c) Increasing amount of atmospheric
(a) 1981 (b) 1985 carbondioxide
(c) 1990 (d) 1975 (d) Decreasing amount of atmospheric
carbondioxide
81. Kyoto Protocol was endorsed at :
85. Which one of the following is not correct
[NEET 2013]
as regards the harmful effects of particulate
(a) CoP - 5 (b) CoP - 6 matter of the size 2.5 micro meters or less?
(c) CoP - 4 (d) CoP - 3 [NEET Kar. 2013]
82. Global warming can be controlled by : (a) It can be inhaled into the lungs
[NEET 2013] (b) It can cause respiratory problems
(a) Reducing reforestation, increasing the (c) It can directly enter into our circulatory
use of fossil fuel. system
(b) Increasing deforestation, slowing down (d) It can cause inflammation and damage
the growth of human population.
to the lungs
(c) Increasing deforestation, reducing
efficiency of energy usage.
Solutions
1. (a) NO2 and SO2 after reacting with water on fishes contain these compounds in
in atmosphere produce HNO3 & H2SO4 more concentration. This increase in
which fall down as acid rain. accumulation of toxic substances in
2. (b) CO2 in its normal fraction in air (about the food pyramids is called "Biological
0.03%) is actually not a pollutant but magnification."
above this it is considered as a pollutant. 11. (c) CO2 is the major green house gas causing
At the elevated level it becomes a cause green house effect which is released
for global waring. in the atmosphere by burning fossil
3. (c) Increase in the concentration of CO2 do (combustion) or by activities like animal
not allow the earth's radiations to go out respiration. Deforestation adds to the
of earth’s atmosphere and contributes in increase in CO2 in atmosphere because
increasing temperature of earth. trees are cut down which are the big
absorber of CO2.
4. (d) Fluorides of carbon is the major pollutant
from jet plane emission. 12. (a) Minamata disease.
5. (a) MIC → (Methyl Isocyanate) was the 13. (c) In 1962, American biologist Rachel
deadly gas leaked from the fertilizer plant Carson published the book Silent Spring,
of Union Carbide company in Bhopal. which alleged that DDT caused cancer
and harmed bird reproduction by thinning
6. (b) Domestic waste includes peels of fruits,
egg shells. This followed the principles of
vegetables and food parts which comes
biological magnification, killing higher
under biodegradable pollution.
level organisms like the birds.
7. (c) Lead (Pb) is the most hazardous
DDT is a persistent organic pollutant
metal pollutant present in automobile
with a reported half life of between 2-15
exhaust.
years, and is immobile in most soils.
8. (d) U l t r a v i o l e t r a d i a t i o n s c a u s e
14. (b) A b o v e 8 0 d B s o u n d b e c o m e s
photochemical splitting of oxygen
hazardous.
molecules in the stratosphere. The
nascent oxygen combines with molecular 15. (c) Sewage kills plant life and also use oxygen
oxygen to form ozone. In troposphere for degradation, so oxygen content of
nascent oxygen comes from nitrogen water is lowered and hence animal life
dioxide. in water body start decreasing.
9. (a) Automobile exhaust is the main cause of 16. (d) The Taj Mahal is threatened by
air pollution in metro cities. environmental pollution, especially by
acid rain due to sulphur dioxide emitted
10. (b) DDT is not soluble in water but soluble
from Mathura refinery.
in fats. Aquatic micro-organisms absorb
them in fats where they accumulate to 17. (a) By dumping of huge amount of sewage,
form concentration many times greater the oxygen levels are depleted, which
than in water. Zooplankton accumulate are reflected in terms of BOD values
more concentrations, fishes feeding on of water. The number of microbes also
zooplanktons also accumulate more increases tremendously and these also
concentration and finally birds feeding consume most of the oxygen. Thus BOD
of the river water will increase.
18. (b) Release of mercury in water causes Antarctica by Farman et. al (1985),
pollution. Mercury enters the food chain members of British Antarctic Survey
killing fishes. Human beings feeding on Team.
such fishes will suffer from minamata Image of the largest Antarctic ozone hole
disease. Similarly all carnivores feeding ever recorded in September 2006.
on fishes will develop this disease except 26. (a) E. coli lives in the human intestine. If they
rabbit because it is herbivore. are present in water it indicates that the
19. (d) Organic pollutants brought in by the water is polluted. E.coli coliform count
sewage drained into water bodies provides test is done.
nutrients for stimulating growth of algae. 27. (b) Carbon monoxide, when inhaled,
Algal bloom reduces availability of light combines with blood haemoglobin to
to the submerged plants which get killed. form carboxy-haemoglobin at a rate
Dead algae and dead submerged plants 210 times faster than the rate at which
consume oxygen during decomposition, oxygen forms oxyhaemoglobin. Thus,
causing oxygen depletion and increases respiration is impaired.
competition for oxygen. 28. (c) Refer 26.
20. (d) The MIC gas tragedy occurred in 29. (c) Some of the important green house
Bhopal in 1984 and the Chernobyl gases are CO2, CFCs, Nitrous oxide,
tragedy (nuclear power plant) occurred Ozone, Methane etc. Nitrous oxide is
in Ukraine in 1986. produced by denitrifying bacteria acting
21. (b) The major contributor of Green House on artificial fertilisers applied to poorly
gases to the atmosphere is U.S.A., aerated soil.
which itself releases around 37% of the 30. (b) DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). because it inhibits Calcium ATPase.
22. (d) Part of fertilizers containing phosphates 31. (d) Silicosis is caused by exposure to dust
are passed down into water bodies as containing silica.
surface run off. Sewage contamination 32. (a) Biological magnification is the increase
also results in algal bloom (eutrophication) in concentration of persistent pollutant
due to increased availability of nitrate per unit weight of the organism with the
and phosphate. rise in trophic level.
23. (a) The content of CO2 in atmospheric air is 33. (b) Lichens are sensitive to sulphur
0.034%. The main contributors to air are dioxide pollution, hence they serve as
N2 and O2. bioindicators of pollution.
24. (d) Increase in air pollution has resulted in 34. (d) Green house effect is the rise in
gradual depletion of the ozone layer. atmospheric temperature due to increase
This has exposed the earth's surface to in concentration of green house gases.
the harmful ultraviolet radiations of the The greenhouse effect, discovered
sun. Exposure to UV rays increases the by Joseph Fourier in 1824 and first
risk of skin cancer and other skin related investigated quantitatively by Svante
disorders. Arrhenius in 1896, is the process in which
the emission of infrared radiation by an
25. (c) Ozone hole is an area with extreme
atmosphere warms a planet’s surface.
reduction in the ozone concentration.
It was discovered over Halley Bay in In the case of the Earth, without these
greenhouse gases its surface would be up 44. (c) Since all surface and ground water
to 30°C cooler. The name comes from an contains salts to varying degrees.
incorrect analogy with the way in which Therefore excessive irrigation followed
greenhouses are heated by the sun in order by evaporation of the unabsorbed water
to facilitate plant growth. In addition to leads to salinity. This also leads to
the Earth, Mars and especially Venus have waterlogging.
greenhouse effects. The maximum green 45. (d) Chlorine, ozone, chloramine are used for
house gases are emitted by USA. disinfection of drinking water.
35. (c) Organisms found in the higher trophic 46. (b) Kyoto Protocol (1997) : International
level show greater accumulation of conference held in Kyoto, Japan obtained
pesticides due to the phenomenon of
commitments from different countries
biomagnification - which is defined as
for reducing overall greenhouse gas
the gradual increase in concentration of
emissions at a level 9% below 1990 level
harmful pesticides in the food chain, with
by 2008-2012.
increase in trophic level.
Montreal Protocol (1987) : Industrialized
36. (c) Primary pollutant is that which persists
countries agreed to limit production of
in the form in which it is released in
chloroflourocarbons to half the level of
the environment eg. CO. A secondary
1986.
pollutant is one which is formed
from another pollutant due to change 47. (c) Solar energy coming to the earth is not
or reaction eg. PAN (Peroxy acytyl responsible for green house effect. It
nitrate). is the increase in green house gases in
37. (a) DDT cannot be broken down or converted atmosphere like CO2 which is released
to harmless state by natural processes of by complete combustion of fossil fuels
oxidation or biological decomposition. or biomass in industries or transportation
Hence it is non biodegradable. vehicles that prevent the reradiation of
38. (a) Hydrilla is a fresh water plant. infrared radiation from the earth and
39. (c) E. coli grows in water polluted by sewage result in increase in temperature of the
and domestic waste. earth.
40. (b) Methane forms a major part of gobar-gas. 48. (a) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is
Ammonia is toxic. Ethane and butane are the amount of oxygen required to destroy
not major components of gobar gas. the organic waste by the bacteria. The
41. (d) In Bhopal gas tragedy methyl isocyanate more oxygen required for bacteria that
(MIC) reacted with water to produce means there is more organic waste. For
a large amount of heat, as it was an pure drinking water it is decided less than
exothermic reaction. Due to this increase 1 ppm and for industrial & municipal
in pressure the safety valve of the tank waste it is less than 10 ppm. In Yamuna
bursted and the gas came out. water in Delhi it is about 1000 ppm.
42. (b) The concentration level of lead in blood is 49. (b) Photochemical smog is made by the
about 25 µg/100 ml. So any value above deposition of dust & carbon particles on
this is considered alarming. the pollutant gases and water vapours.
43. (d) Alcohol to the tune of 5% is allowed to The gases found in photochemical smog
be mix in petrol as per the Govt. of India are NO2, PAN, O3 etc.
decision.
50. (a) Montreal protocol which calls for Pollution) Act 1974. Further, CPCB was
appropriate action (like less production entrusted with the powers and functions
of ozone depleting substances called under Air (prevention and control of
ODS such as CFCs) to protect the pollution) Act, 1981. It serves as a field
ozone layer was passed by a forum of 27 formation and also provides technical
industralized countries on 16 September services to the Ministry of Environment
1987. Till now 175 countries have joined and Forest, of the provisions of the
this. Environments (protection) Act, 1986.
51. (b) More value of BOD means the water Principal functions of the CPCB, as
sample is polluted by organic matter. spelt out in the water (prevention and
BOD of distillary effluent is 40000 control of pollution) act, 1974, and the
mg/L and that of paper mill effluent Air (prevention and control of pollution)
and sewage is 190 mg/L and 30 mg/L Act, 1981.
respectively. (i) to promote cleanliness of streams
52. (b) In recent years, the increases in toxic and wells in different areas of the states
substances of NOx and/or SPM by prevention, control and abatement
(Suspended Particulate Matter) from of water pollution. (ii) to improve the
vehicles come to be serious problem. quality of air and to prevent, control or
About the correlation between the abate air pollution in the country.
traffic volume in our model and the real According to CPCB, 2.5 or less particulate
volume, we obtained the correlation size in diameter (in micrometers) of the
coefficient of 0.74. Simultaneously, we air pollutants is responsible for greatest
got the result that the concentration of harm to human health.
NOx was approximately 70 to 230 ppm. 55. (a) Azadirachta is being tried in India as a
That of SPM was approximately 40 to biofuel substitute for fossil fuels. Biofuels
100 µg/m3. are the fuels of biological origin. They
53. (b) Stone flies are not bio indicators. constitute renewable form of energy.
Bioindicators provide a range of Energy problems can be solved upto a
techniques to assess the impcts of great extent by efficient and proper used
air pollution from reactive nitrogen of these biofuels.
(N) compounds on statutory nature 56. (a) CFC 14%, Methane 20% is the correct
conservation sites. They complement percentage of the two (out of the total
physical monitoring of atmospheric of 4) green house gases that contribute
concentrations and deposition and to the total global warming. A regular
risk assessment based on the critical assessment of abundance of green
loads approach by providing site- house gases and their impact on global
based information on atmospheric N environment is being made by IPCC
concentrations, N deposition and/or (Inter-Governmental Panel on Climate
ecological impacts. Change). The various green house gases
54. (a) The central pollution control board are CO2 ( warming effect 60%), CH4
(CPCB), statutory organisation, was (effect 20%), chlorofluorocarbons or
constituted in September, 1974 under CFCS (14%) and nitrous oxide (N2O),
the water (Prevention and Control of 6%). Others of minor significance are
water vapours and ozone .
57. (d) World Summit on sustainable development the southeast, and the north/northeast
(2002) was held in Johannesburg, South Brazil. Likewise, Jatropha oil is being
Africa, 190 countries pledged their promoted as an easily grown biofuel crop
commitment to achieve by 2010, a in hundreds of projects throughout India
significant in reduction the current rate and other developing countries.
of biodiversity loss at global, regional 61. (a) The step taken by Government of
and local levels. India to control air pollution include
58. (a) Global agreement in specific control compulsory PUC (pollution under
strategies to reduce the release of ozone control) certification of petrol driven
depleting substances was adopted by vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide
the Montreal protocol. The treaty and hydrocarbons.
was originally signed in 1987 and 62. (d) The aim of Montreal protocol was to
substantially amended in 1990 and protect the ozone layer in the stratosphere
1992. The Montreal protocol stipulates by decreasing and eventually eliminating
that the production and consumption the use of of ozone depleting substances
of compounds that deplete ozone in like CFCS.
the stratosphere-chlorofluoro-carbons 63. (d) DDT residues are rapidly passed through
(CFCs), halogens, carbon tetrachloride, food chain causing biomagnification
and methyl chloroform– are to be because DDT is lipo soluble. Biomagni-
phased out by 2000 (2005 for methyl fication, also known as bioamplification
chloroform). or biological magnifica-tion, is the
59. (c) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) increase in concentration of a substance,
in a river water increases when sewage such as the pesticide DDT, that occurs in
gets mixed with river water. Biochemical a food chain as a consequence of:
oxygen demand or biological oxygen . Persistence (slow to be broken down by
demand (BOD) is a chemical procedure environmental processes)
for determining how fast biological . Food chain energetics
organisms use up oxygen in a body . Low (or non-existent) rate of internal
of water. It is used in water quality degradation/excretion of the substance
management and assessment, ecology (often due to water-insolubility)
and environmental science. BOD 64. (a) Chipko movement was launched for
considered as an indication of the quality the protection of forests. The Chipko
of a water source. movement refers to the unique form
60. (c) Jatropha is useful for production of protest adopted by the rural people
of bioethanol. Jatropha is a genus of in the himalayan region of India in the
approximately 175 succulent plants, 1970s and 80s, against the indiscriminate
shrubs and trees (some are deciduous, logging and felling of trees that spelt
like Jatropha curcas L.), from the family the destruction of their environment.
Euphorbiaceae.The hardy Jatropha The first Chipko action occurred in
is resistant to drought and pests, and April 1973. Over the next five years, the
produces seeds containing 27-40% oil. movement spread to several hill districts
Currently the oil from Jatropha curcas in Uttar Pradesh. In 1980, Chipko
seeds is used for making biodiesel fuel activists won a fifteen-year ban on green
in Philippines and in Brazil, where it felling in the himalayan forests.
grows naturally and in plantations in
65. (a) The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is 74. (c) The Bhopal gas tragedy was occured on
widely used in contemporary biology the night of December 2-3 , 1984 at the
as insecticide. Bacillus thuringiensis Union carbide India Limited pesticide
(also known as Bt) is a Gram-positive, plant in Bhopal, M.P. A leak of methyl
soil dwelling bacterium of the genus isocyanate gas and other chemicals from
Bacillus. Bacillus thuringiensis produces a the plant resulted in the exposure of
parasporal insecticidal crystal protein.
hundreds of thousands of people.
66. (d) Exhaustible resources are those natural
75. (c) Good ozone occurs naturally in the
resources that are likely to be exhausted
due to their continuous use. Forest earth’s upper atmosphere 10 to 30 miles
is a renewable exhaustible resource above earth’s surface (stratosphere) where
that can be again and again produced. it forms a protective layer that shield us
Coal, petroleum and minerals are non- from the sun’s harmful ultraviolet rays.
renewable exhaustible natural resources 76. (b) The logistic population growth is expressed
that cannot be again produced. by the equation
67. (b) dB is a standard abbreviation for
the quantitative expression of noise. where N is population density at time
Unwanted sound is called noise. t, r is the Malthusian parameter (rate
Generally sound above 80 dB is noise. of maximum population growth) and
K is the so called carrying capacity (i.e.
68. (a) The gases that makes highest relative
maximum sustainable population). It
contribution to the green house gases
is a type of population growth when
are carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane
resources are limiting.
(CH4).
77. (d) High concentration of DDT disturbs
69. (d) A stirred-tank bioreactor is a cylindrical
calcium metabolism in birds which
or curved base to facilitate the mixing of
caused thinning of eggshell and their
the reaction content. It has been designed
premature breaking.
for availability of oxygen throughout the
process. 78. (b) Ozone present in upper part of the
atmosphere ie. stratosphere is benefical
70. (d) T h e c o r r e c t a c r o n y m i s I U C N,
International Union for Conservation for living beings. As it functions as a
of Nature and Natural resources. shield against harmful UV-radiation.
71. (d) CO2 and N2O are major green house 79. (a) BOD is a measure of organic matter
gases. present in water. It refers to amount of O2
72. (d) In secondary treatment mainly settled consumed by microbes to decompose all
sewage flows to an aerobic biological the organic matter in 1 L of water at 20°C
treatment stage where it comes into for 5 days. The greater the BOD of waste
contact with micro-organisms which water, more is its polluting potential.
remove and oxidise most of the remaining 80. (a) In India, the Air (Prevention and control
organic pollutants.
of pollution) Act came into force in 1981
73. (d) Marsh gas is another term for methane,
but was amended in 1987 to include noise
produced by plants decomposing under
as an air pollutant.
water.
81. (d) In year 1997, at the conference of parties change which commits its parties by
III (COP - 3) , Kyoto, Japan the Kyoto setting internationally binding emissions
conference on climate change took place. reduction targets. In Doha, Qatar on 8
In that conference developed countries December 2012, the “Doha Amendment
agreed to specific targets for cutting to the kyoto protocol” was adopted. The
their emissions of green house gases. A second commitment period was from 1st
general framework has defined for this Jan. 2013 to 31st Dec. 2020.
with specifics to be detailed in next few 84. (c) The increase in the level of green house
years. This become known as the kyoto gases (e.g., CO2, CH4, CFC, N2O etc.) has
protocol. led to the considerable heating of earth
82. (d) In first three options CO2 concentration surface leading to global warming. The
increases but it is decreases in option (d). relative contributions of various green
Global warming is increase of earth’s house gases to global warming is
average temperature. Global warming CO2 (60%) > CH4 (20%) > CFC (14%) >
is due to green house effect which is N2O (6%)
naturally occurring phenomenon that is 85. (c) According to Centrol Pollution Control
responsible for heating of Earth’s surface Board (CPCB) particulate size 2.5
and atmosphere. The main green house micrometers or less in diameter are
gas is carbon-di-acid (contribute 60%). responsible for causing various breathing
83. (d) The kyoto Protocol is an international and respiratory problems. They can also
agreement linked to the united nations cause irritation, inflammations, damage
Framework Convention on climate to the lungs and premature deaths.

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 Aligned as per Class 11 & 12 NCERT Books

Typeset by Disha DTP Team

For further information about the books from DISHA,

1. The Living World 1-8

2. Biological Classification 9-29

3. Plant Kingdom 30-40

4. Animal Kingdom 41-56

5. Morphology of Flowering Plants 57-66

6. Anatomy of Flowering Plants 67-78

7. Structural Organisation in Animals 79-88

8. Cell: The Unit of Life 89-102

10. Cell Cycle and Cell Division 115-120

11. Transport in Plants 121-128

12. Mineral Nutrition 129-134

13. Photosynthesis 135-144

14. Respiration in Plants 145-152

15. Plant Growth and Development 153-160

16. Digestion and Absorption 161-170

17. Breathing and Exchange of Gases 171-176

19. Excretory Products and their Elimination 189-196

20. Locomotion and Movement 197-202

21. Neural Control and Coordination 203-210

22. Chemical Coordination and Regulation 211-222

23. Reproduction in Organisms 223-226

24. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 227-238

25. Human Reproduction 239-250

26. Reproductive Health 251-254

27. Heredity and Variation 255-282

28. Molecular Basis of Inheritance 283-298

29. Evolution 299-316

30. Health and Disease 317-330

31. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 331-342

32. Microbes in Human Welfare 343-346

33. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 347-352

34. Biotechnology and its Applications 353-358

35. Organisms and Environment 359-368

36. Ecosystem 369-378

37. Biodiversity and its Conservation 379-386

38. Environmental Issues 387-399

Chapter 1 : The Living World 7. Viruses have: [2014]

(c) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity (b) Water is less polluted

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

A20 to B19 are covalently connected by H

as EEE or "Emerson Enhancement Effect". conditions. ABA causes the stomatal

numbers of T.cells is observed. of all three poliovirus types.

1 The Living World

(C) Globule (a) protista (b) algae

(D) Roots (c) plantae (d) monera

131. Which one of the following statements

5 Morphology of Flowering Plants

1. Fruit of Groundnut is [1988] 8. Tegmen develops from [1990]

6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

8 Cell: The Unit of Life

(a) Endoplasmic reticulum-synthesis of

CH3 Identify the category shown and the one blank

(a) C (b) D (c) A (d) B

10 Cell Cycle and Cell

1. Water potential is equal to [1988] (a) gravitational water

its colonies of Anabaena azollae, which —CHO in Chl b

have the capacity to fix atmospheric H3C I II

polysaccharide (a polymer of fructose)

are bunches of needle like crystal of Ester

adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed Pathway A 2 Pathway B 6 Pathway C 11

Aligned as per Class 11 & 12 NCERT Books