Neral Pharmacology Q & A

PHARMACOLOGY 1
General Pharmacology
GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY
7. Which of the following properties of a drug will
1. The term ‘pharmacodynamics’ stands for help the maximum for its absorption
A. Action of drug on the body A. Increased lipid solubility; decreased ionization
B. Action of body on the drug of a drug
C. Both of the above B. Increased lipid solubility; increased ionization
D. None of the above of a drug
C. Decreased lipid solubility; decreased ionization
2. How many drugs are included in the “National of a drug
Essential Drugs List” (2012) D. Decreased lipid solubility; increased ionization
A. 275 of a drug
B. 348
C. 300 8. “Luminal effect” is/are
D. 250 A. Alteration of absorption of a drug by another
drug
3. Site (s) used for the “Pessaries” is/are B. Formation of insoluble complexes
A. Vagina C. Both of the above
B. Anal canal D. None of the above
C. Both of the above
D. Mouth and pharynx 9. “Gut wall effect” is an alteration of a absorption
of one drug by another drug by
4. Site (s) used for the suppositories are/is A. Altering gastric mobility
A. Vagina B. Formation of insoluble complexes
B. Anal canal C. Causing mucosal damage
C. Mouth and pharynx D. A and C
D. All of the above
10. Lidocaine binds to which plasma protein(s)
5. Most appropriate route for the administration of A. Albumin
highly irritant drugs is B. α1 acid glycoprotein
A. Intravenous route C. Both of the above
B. Intramuscular route D. None of the above
C. Subcutaneous route
D. Oral route 11. Which of the following is not a prodrug
A. Levodopa
6. While treating the poisoning of acidic drugs, the B. Digoxin
choice of urine pH is C. Enalapril
A. Alkalinization of urine D. α methyldopa
B. Acidification of urine
C. Both of the above 12. Inactive metabolites are produced in which of the
D. None of the above following reaction(s)
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PHARMACOLOGY 2
A. Conjugation reaction D. None of the above

B. Phase – II reaction
C. Both of the above 19. In competitive (equilibrium type) of inhibition
D. None of the above A. Km unchanged; Vmax decreased
B. Km increased; Vmax unchanged
13. O – dealkylation is caused under C. Km increased; Vmax increased
A. Phase I reaction D. Km increased; Vmax decreased
B. Phase II reaction
C. None of the above 20. Agonists have
D. All of the above A. Both affinity and maximal intrinsic activity
B. Affinity but no intrinsic activity
14. Metabolism by acetylation comes under C. Affinity with submaximal intrinsic activity
A. Phase I reaction D. None of the above
B. Synthetic reaction
C. Both of the above 21. Therapeutic window phenomenon is
D. None of the above A. A range, above and below of which effects are
suboptimal
15. Microsomal enzymes are located on B. A range, above and below of which effects are
A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum optimal
B. Cytoplasm C. A limit, above of which effects are optimal
C. Mitochondria D. None of the above
D. All of the above
22. To obtain a same effect 5 mg dose of a drug A and
16. ‘Glucuronide conjugation reaction’ is catalyzed by 10 mg dose of a drug B is required. It shows that
A. Microsomal enzymes A. Drug A is more potent than drug B
B. Non – microsomal enzymes B. Drug B is more potent than drug A
C. Both of the above C. Drug A is more efficacious than drug B
D. Mitochondrial enzyme D. Drug B is more efficacious than drug A
17. Exponential kinetics is 23. Drug A gives more analgesia than drug B at the
A. The rate of elimination is directly proportional dose of 10 mg that means
to drug concentration A. Drug A is more efficacious than drug B
B. Clearance (CL) remains constant B. Drug B is more efficacious than drug A
C. First order kinetics C. Drug A is more potent than drug B
D. All of the above D. Drug B is more potent than drug A
18. In zero order kinetics 24. Therapeutic index is

A. t ½ remains constant A. LD50 / ED50
B. t ½ increases with dose B. ED50 / LD50
C. t ½ decreases with dose C. Drug concentration /drug response

PHARMACOLOGY 3
D. Drug response /drug concentration A. Toxic effect of a drug in an individual at

therapeutic doses
25. Effect of hydrochlorthiazide and triamterene on B. It is the converse of tolerance
urinary K+ excretion is known as C. It indicates a low threshold of the individual to
A. Physical antagonism the action of a drug
B. Physiological antagonism D. All of the above
C. Chemical antagonism
D. All of the above 31. ‘Arthus’ type allergic reaction is
A. Type I reaction
26. Action of acetylcholine and atropine on the B. Type II reaction
muscarinic receptors is opposite to each other. C. Type III reaction
This is D. Type IV reaction
A. Competitive (equilibrium type) antagonism
B. Competitive (non – equilibrium type) 32. At what wave lengths, phototoxic reactions are
antagonism produced
C. Non – competitive antagonism A. 200 – 300 nm; UV –A/B
D. Both A and B B. 290 – 320 nm; UV – B
C. 320 - 400 nm; UV – A
27. What will be the child dose, when a adult dose is D. 400 – 450 nm; UV – B
100 mg. (age of a child is 8 yr.)
A. 40 mg 33. Physical dependence is produced by
B. 50 mg A. Amphetamines
C. 30 mg B. Cocaine
D. 35 mg C. Caffeine
D. Pethidine
28. The actions produced by which of the following
will be called as ‘Placebo effect 34. The phase I reactions of drug metabolism include
A. Distilled water injection the following EXCEPT
B. Acetyl choline A. Hydrolysis
C. Charcoal B. Reduction
D. BAL C. Oxidation
D. Conjugation
29. ‘Tachyphylaxis’ is shown by
A. Adrenaline 35. Teratogenicity results when drugs are given
B. Dopamine during
C. Cortisol A. First trimester
D. Tyramine B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester
30. Intolerance is D. Soon after birth

PHARMACOLOGY 4
36. Secretory immunoglobulin is 42. Allergic reactions depends on all EXCEPT

A. IgG A. Previous exposure to the drug
B. IgA B. Physiological role
C. IgM C. Half life enzymes drug complex
D. IgE D. Affinity
37. Therapeutic index indicates 43. Least predictable reaction to drug

A. Drug toxicity A. Toxicity
B. Drug potency B. Side effect
C. Drug safety C. Idiosyncrasy
D. Drug’s lethal effect D. Allergy
44. Therapeutic index is

38. Hepatic first pass metabolism is important in A. LD 100 / Ed 100
A. Drugs given IM B. ED 100 / LD 100
B. Drugs taken orally C. LD 50 / ED 50
C. Drugs safety D. ED 50/ LD50
D. None of the above
45. Plasma concentration of drug at time 0 is 96g/ml. if
39. The ratio of the median lethal dose of the median t1/2 is 2 hours concentration is plasma at 10 hours
effective dose is the will be
A. Morbidity index A. 48
B. Mortality index B. 24
C. Anesthetic ratio C. 12
D. Therapeutic index D. 3
40. When allergic manifestations occur pursuant to 46. Drugs showing zero order kinetics of elimination
use of antimicrobial agents, what of the following A. Are more common than first order kinetics
is seen B. Decrease in concentration exponentially with
A. Skin eruptions time
B. Angioneurotic edema C. Have a half – life independent of dose
C. Both A and B D. Show a plot of drug concentration versus time
D. Serum imbalance that is linear
41. Km value indicates 47. A prodrug is

A. Purity of Enzyme A. The proto type member of a class of drugs
B. Physiological role B. The oldest member of a class of drugs
C. Half life enzymes drug complex C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the
D. Affinity body to an active metabolite

PHARMACOLOGY 5
D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is B. 93%

then gradually released in the direction C. 80.5%
D. 4.75%
48. Zero order kinetics is seen with
A. Phenytoin 54. Which drugs had high first pass effect
B. Phenobarbitone A. Amiodarone
C. Erythromycin B. Phenytoin
D. Digoxin C. Verapamil
D. Disopyamide
49. If patient suffered from exaggerated effect of
pharmacological effect 55. What is the advantage of sublingual route of
A. Idiosyncrasy administration of drugs
B. Toxicity A. Prevents or bypasses first pass effects
C. Side effect B. Easy to administer
D. None of the above C. Lipid soluble
D. Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity
56. Drug with extensive first pass metabolism

50. Idiosyncrasy is known as to have A. Propranolol
A. Genetic component B. Digoxin
B. Psychological component C. Quinidine
C. Physiological component D. Chlorpromazine
D. Nutritional component
57. Drug which crosses placental barrier is
51. Majority of drugs are transported across the A. Phenytoin
membrane by B. Diazepam
A. Passive diffusion C. Corticosteroids
B. Active transport D. All of the above
C. Facilitated transport
D. Filtration 58. All of the following statement regarding
bioavailability of a drug are true EXCEPT
52. Neuro adaptation to drug is same as A. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged
A. Physical dependence drug that reaches the systemic circulation
B. Psychological dependence B. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug
C. Addiction can be calculated by comparing the area under
D. Habituation cure (o-α) after oral and intravenous (IV)
administration
53. Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics C. Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily
is mean poor absorption
A. 84%

PHARMACOLOGY 6
D. Bioavailability can be determined from plasma C. Desferrixamine

concentration or urinary excretion data D. B.A.L
59. I.V anesthesia is 65. Complete drug elimination occurs after how many
A. Propofol hours, if t ½ is 4 hrs
B. Sevoflurane A. 12 hrs
C. Flumazanil B. 20 hrs
D. Naloxane C. 25 hrs
D. 30 hrs
60. Drug efficacy refers to
A. Range of disease in which the drug is beneficial 66. All of the following increases drug metabolism by
B. Maximal intensity of response that can be activating cytochrome enzyme, EXCEPT
produced by the drug A. Tetracycline
C. The therapeutic dose range of the drug B. Cimetidine
D. The therapeutic index of the drug C. Rifampicin
D. Phenobarbitone
61. Following drug which undergo most of its
metabolism presystemically 67. The part of the prescription which has direction to
A. Salbutamol the patient including dose and method of
B. Verapamil administration is
C. Propranolol A. Inscription
D. Paracetamol B. Superscription
C. Subscription
62. Intramuscular route is precluded during the D. Sigma prescription
medication of
A. Anti – hypertensive 68. Drug products have different names. Which of the
B. Anti – diabetics following is the official name of the drug and ers
C. Anticoagulants only to the drug and not a particular product
D. Anti-fibrinolytics A. Generic name
B. Trade name
63. Immune mediated qualitative drug intolerance is C. Brand name
called D. Propriety name
A. Super sensitivity
B. Idiosyncrasy 69. Grain is equal to how many milligrams
C. Hyper sensitivity A. 10 mg
D. Hyper acidity B. 30 mg
C. 65 mg
64. For Arsenic poisoning Antidote is D. 100 mg
A. Penicillamine
B. E.D.T.A

PHARMACOLOGY 7
70. Adult dose is 30 mg. child age is 3 years. What 75. What is the advantage of sublingual route of
will be his dose administration of drugs
A. 6 mg A. Prevents first pass effects
B. 10 mg B. Easy to administer
C. 15 mg C. Lipid soluble
D. 20 mg D. Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity
71. Adult dose of a normal 70 kg person is 100 mg. 76. Majority of drugs are transported across the
what will be dose in a child weighting 90 pounds membrane by
A. 30 mg A. Passive diffusion
B. 60 mg B. Active transport
C. 10 mg C. Facilitated transport
D. 100 mg D. Filtration
72. Pesseries are the dosage forms of drug at the 77. Which of the following drugs is best absorbed by
following mucosal sites a cell
A. Vagina A. Lipid soluble and unionized forms
B. Oral cavity B. Lipid soluble and ionized form
C. Bronchi C. Water soluble unionized form
D. Anal canal D. Water soluble and ionized form
73. The term bioavailability ers to the 78. A highly ionized drug
A. Amount of drug destroyed in the liver by first- A. Is excreted mainly by kidney
pass metabolism B. Can cross placental barrier
B. Distribution of drug to the body tissues over C. Is well absorbed by the intestine
time D. Accumulates in the lipids
C. Relationship between the physical and
chemical properties of the drug and its
systemic absorption 79. Which of the following explains first order
D. Measurement of the rate and amount of drug (exponential) kinetics
that reaches the systemic circulation A. Rate of elimination is directly proportional to
drug concentration or a constant fraction of
74. First pass mechanism of drugs is most significant drug present in body is eliminated in unit time
in drugs given by B. Rate of elimination remains constant
A. Oral route irrespective of drug concentration or a constant
B. Sublingually amount of drug is eliminated in unit time
C. Intramuscular route C. Both of the above
D. Intravascular route D. None of the above

PHARMACOLOGY 8
80. Drugs showing zero order kinetics of elimination 85. All of the following are true of efficacy and
are potency except
A. More common than first order kinetics A. In clinical setup, efficacy is more important
B. Decrease in concentration exponentially with than potency
time B. In the log dose response curve, the height of
C. Show a plot of drug concentration versus time the corresponds with efficacy
that is linear C. ED 50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy
D. Rate of elimination is independent of plasma D. Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological
concentration versus time that is linear effect may have different levels of efficacy
81. Zero order kinetics is seen with 86. Hepatic impairment during drug administration
A. Phenytoin may produce
B. Phenobarbitone A. Drug tolerance
C. Erythromycin B. Idiosyncracy
D. Digoxin C. Cumulation
D. Allergy
82. The half life of drug is 4 hours. 95% of the drug
will be completely eliminated from body after 87. Rapid development of tolerance due to repeated
how many half lives dose in quick succession leading to marked
A. Two half lives response in drug is called
B. Three half lives A. Anaphylaxis
C. Four half lives B. Hypersensitivity
D. Five half lives C. Tachyphylaxis
83. Which of the following are mechanism of
prolonging drug action 88. The adverse effects resulting from extension of
A. Increasing plasma protein binding the desired drug effect is called
B. Retarding rate of metabolism A. Anaphylaxis
C. By retarding renal action B. Toxicity
D. All of the above C. Tolerance
D. Idlosyncracy
84. In experiment that determines the dosage of drug
required to produce end point activity of that drug 89. Least predicate reaction to drug
demonstrates A. Toxicity
A. Graded response B. Side effect
B. Bioactivity C. Idiosyncracy
C. Antagonist activity D. Allergy
D. Quantal response
90. Allergic reactions depends on all except
A. Previous exposure to the drug

PHARMACOLOGY 9
B. Dosage of the drug received D. Tolerance

C. Pharmacological action of the drug
D. Antigen antibody reaction 96. Neuroadaptation to drug is same as
A. Physical dependence
91. Which of the following is NOT an B. Psychological dependence
important/frequent/well known manifestation of C. Addiction
an adverse drug reaction D. Habituation
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Aplastic anaemia 97. The metabolism of drug to a more potent or more
C. Haemolysis toxic form by the body is called
D. Leukaemia A. Autotoxicosis
B. Teratogenesis
92. The most serious blood dyscrasias associated with C. Mutagenesis
drug toxicity is D. Dependence
A. Haemophilia
B. Megaloblastic anaemia 98. The ratio of Lethal dose for 50% of animals
C. Aplastic anemia divided by therapeutic (effective) dose for 50% of
D. Agranulocytosis animals given is
A. Median lethal dose
93. The normal hypnotic dose of diazepam is 2 mg If B. Median effective dose
a deep sedation results in a person with 2 mg of C. Therapeutic index
drug, this response is called D. Minimal lethal dose
A. Supersensitive a Hyper reaction
B. Hyporeaction 99. Which of the following is true of therapeutic
C. Anaphylaxis index
D. Idiosyncracy A. Higher the number, safer the drug is
B. It expresses the margin of safety of drug
94. If a patient develops sedative action following C. Expresses the margin of safety of drug
narcotic analgesia, the reaction is called D. All of the above
A. Hyper – reaction
B. Hyporeaction 100. Therapeutic index indicates
C. Side effect A. Drug toxicity
D. Idiosyncracy B. Drug potency
C. Drug safety
95. When given together the ability of two drugs to D. Drug’s lethal effect
produce a response greater than either
administred individually is termed as 101. The time period between administration of drug
A. Stimulation and its pharmacological response is called
B. Synergism A. Pharmacological action
C. Antagonism B. Duration of action

PHARMACOLOGY 10
C. Biological log or latent period

D. None of the above 107. Which of the following describes physiological
and functional antagonism
102. The phase I reactions of drug metabolism include A. Action of histamine and epinerphrine on
the following except bronchial muscles
A. Hydrolysis B. Action of nitroglycerin an depinephrine on
B. Reduction blood vessels
C. Oxidation C. Action f glucagon and insulin on blood sugar
D. Conjugation levels
D. All of the above
103. Liver is the main site of metabolism of drugs. The
drugs will be changed to following form for rapid 108. The antagonism between acetylcholine and
excretion atropine can be best described as
A. Lipid soluble and unionized forms A. Physical antagonism
B. Lipid soluble and ionized form B. Competitive receptor antagonism
C. Water soluble and unionized form C. Physiological antagonism
D. Water soluble and ionized form D. Pharmacological antagonism
104. Increasing the dose of a drug by factor 10 109. Charcoal adsorbs alkaloids and prevents its
increases the response by poisoning effects. This is an example of
A. 10 A. Physical antagonism
B. 100 B. Chemical antagonism
C. 1000 C. Physiological antagonism
D. Not predictable D. Pharmacological antagonism
105. Which of the following describes the agonist 110. Which of the following are definitely teratogenic
activity of a drug for a receptor to humans
A. Agonist has both affinity and maximal A. Anti-cancer drugs and thalidomide
instrinsic activity B. Tetracyclines and corticosteroids
B. It has affinity but minimal intrinasic activity C. Barbiturates and oral anticoagulants
C. It has affinity but no intrinsic activity D. Antithyroid and anti imflammatory drugs
111. Which of the following proteins has the greatest
106. Which of the following is a chemical antagonism ability to bind drugs
A. KMNO4 oxides alkaloid and is used in gastric A. Albumin
B. Dimercaprol treatment of mercury poisoning B. Fibrinogen
lavage during poisoning C. Gamma globulin
C. Nitrites form methaheamoglobin which reach D. Beta globulin
with cyanide radical
D. All of the above 112. When a drug binds to plasma protein

PHARMACOLOGY 11
A. It becomes pharmacologically inactive A. Phase I

B. Very easily excreted B. Phase II
C. It becomes pharmacologically active C. Phase III
D. None of the above D. Phase IV
113. When a drug is displaced from protein binding 119. The drug which has an affinity for a receptor site
sites, which of the following occurs and produces the intrinsic activity of the receptor
A. Increased drug effect cell or enzyme system is known as
B. Decreased duration of action A. An agonist
C. Decreased dose required for a given action B. A non –competitive antagonist
D. All of the above C. A physilologic antagonist
114. Which of the following increases rate of drug D. A competitive antagonist
metabolism
A. Increased protein binding capacity 120. Teratogenicity is
B. Liver dysfunction A. Carcinoma forming tendency
C. Enzyme induction B. Fetal malformation
D. All of the above C. Intolerance to a drug
D. Drug dependence
115. Drug metabolism enzymes in liver are present in
A. Microsomes 121. ‘When given together’ the ability of two drugs to
B. Cell membranes produce a response greater than either
C. Nuclei administered alone is termed as
D. Ribosomes A. Cumulation
B. Induction
116. A prodrug is C. Synergism
A. The prototype member of a class of drugs D. Antagonism
B. The oldest member of a class of drugs
C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the 122. In first order kinetics rate of elimination
body to an active metabolite A. Is proportional to the drug concentration in
D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is plasma
then gradually released in the direction B. Is inversely proportional to the drug
concentration in plasma
117. Which of the least method of drug elimination C. Is an increasing fraction of the drug eliminated
A. Kidneys in unit time
B. Bile duct D. Is constant irrespective of the drug
C. Milk concentration
D. Lungs
123. Complete drug elimination occurs in
118. In which phase or clinical trials clearance is not A. 2 half lives
required B. 2 – 3 half lives

PHARMACOLOGY 12
C. 3 – 4 half lives C. Metabolites which are acetylated or methylated

D. 4 – 5 half lives D. A and C
124. In zero order kinetics 1 ½ 130. Microsomal enzymes located in

A. Remains constant A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. Increases with dose B. Cytoplasm
C. Decreases with dose C. Mitochondria
D. First decreases then increases D. Plasma
125. Majority of drugs are transported across the 131. Newborns are susceptible to toxicity of
membrane by Metronidazole, aspirin and other many drugs
A. Passive diffusion because
B. Active transport A. Microsomal enzymes are absent in newborns
C. Facilitated transport B. Only non – microsomal enzymes are present in
D. Filtration newborns
126. Maximum movement of drug occurs across the C. Very low dosage for newborns cannot be
membrane when it is titrated
A. Completely ionized D. None of the above
B. Partially ionized
C. Unionized 132. The duration of action of penicillin
D. In cationic form cephalosporins is
A. Longer in neonates
127. In drugs which are pH dependent if pH changes B. Shorter in neonates
by 1 the ionization C. Unaffected in neonates
A. Change to double D. These drugs should not be given to neonates
B. Change by 10 folds
C. Change by 4 folds 133. In treating toxicity of acidic drugs the urine is
D. Changes by 1% only made
A. Non ionic
128. Drugs with what maximum particle size can B. Basic
penetrate cell membrane C. Acidic
A. 80 Å D. Neutral
B. 60 Å
C. 50 Å 134. In drugs which act by (equilibrium type)
D. 40 Å competitive inhibition, if substrate concentration
is increased
129. Biotransformation of drugs by conjugation leads A. The drug can be displaced from the receptor
to B. It can’t be displaced
A. Metabolites which are mostly active C. The velocity of reaction increases
B. Metabolites which are mostly inactive D. The velocity of reaction decreases

PHARMACOLOGY 13
A. Conception
135. In non competitive inhibition, the drug reacts in B. Organogenesis
such a manner that C. Growth and development
A. They enzyme loses its catalytic property D. Considered safe
B. They enzyme retains its catalytic property
C. It blocks the catalytic site 141. Which of the following drug/s is/are known
D. None of the above tetratogenic drugs
A. Thalidomide
B. Tetracycline
136. An antagonist is a substance which C. Corticosteroids
A. Acts on the receptor and prevents the effective D. All of the above
action of receptor 142. The best way to administer drugs with long t ½ is
B. Prevents the action of the agonist A. Divide the dose in small multiple equal daily
C. Acts on receptor and brings the cellular doses
inhibition B. Initial loading dose with subsequent
D. A and C maintenance dose
C. Dose to be equated so the 4, t ½ s’ are over
137. Young’s formula of calculating dose of the drug D. None of the above
for the children
A. Age / age + 12 × adult dose 143. Idiosyncrasy is known to have
B. Age / 20 × adult dose A. Genetic component
C. Age + 12/ age × adult dose B. Psychological component
D. Age / 12 × adult dose × 20 C. Physiological component
D. Nutritional component
138. In pregnancy the drug dose should be regulated
because 144. Sublingual route of administration has the
A. Gastrointestinal motility, is reduced following advantages except
B. Plasma fluid volume is expanded A. Quick onset of action
C. There is induction of hepatic microsomal B. Avoids first pass effect
enzymes C. Can be administered even in the presence of
D. All of the above vomiting
D. Most of the drugs can be used by this method.
139. Neuroadaptation to drug is same as
A. Physical dependence 145. Which point is not correct with enteric coated
B. Psychological dependence tablets
C. Addiction A. Disintegrate in stomach
D. Habituation B. Disintegrate in intestine
C. Active drug is surrounded by a chemical
140. Drug given during 6 week IU life can result in
th barrier
interference of D. Avoids gastric irritation

PHARMACOLOGY 14
B. Intrinsic activity
146. The time to reach peak plasma concentration (T C. Affinity as well as intrinsic activity
max) for a drug depends on D. Affinity with very low intrinsic activity
A. Rate of absorption
B. Rate of drug metabolism 152. Interaction of two drugs whose pharmacological
C. Extent of protein binding actions are opposite of each other is known as
D. Rate of drug excretion A. Competitive antagonism
B. Non-competitive antagonism
147. Which one of the following is a phase II reaction C. Physiological antagonism
in hepatic drug metabolism D. Surmountable antagonism
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction 153. Which of the following is NOT a feature of
C. Conjugation tolerance to a drug
D. Hydrolysis A. Gradual decreases, taking days or weeks to
148. First pass effect for a drug is of importance in develop, in response to a drug
achieving plasma concentration only if the drug is B. Gradual decrease in response developing
being administered within few minutes
A. Orally C. Increase in dose elicits response
B. Intramuscularly D. Decreased rate to the absorption may lead to
C. Intravenously tolerance
D. Sublingually
154. Plasma half-life of a drug is indicative of
149. When rate of drug elimination is directly A. Duration of action of a drug
proportional to plasma concentration of a drug the B. Potency of action of a drug
process of elimination is known as C. Time required for achieving maximum plasma
A. First order kinetics concentration for a drug
B. Saturation kinetics D. Time required
C. Zero order kinetics
D. Rate limiting 155. Which of the following types of drugs can cross
the blood brain barrier during health without any
150. The duration of half-life (t 1/2) of a drug depends carrier mediated transport
upon the following factor except A. Water soluble
A. Rate of elimination B. Lipid soluble
B. Plasma protein binding C. Protein bound drugs
C. Rate of absorption form the site of D. Chelating drugs
administration
D. Tissue distribution of a drug 156. Toxic effect of the drug leading to abnormalities
of genetic material (genes, chromosomes) is
151. Agonists are drugs having known as
A. Affinity for the receptor A. Mutagenic effect

PHARMACOLOGY 15
B. Teratogenic effect B. Drug induced syndromes or disease simulating

C. Pharmacogenesis natural disease
D. Idiosyncrasy C. Drug induced disease which does not stimulate
natural disease in any way
157. Competitive antagonist is a drug which has D. Allergic response to a drug
following type of interaction with receptor
A. Affinity for receptor 163. A substance which is itself biologically inactive
B. Intrinsic activity and is converted by biotransformation into active
C. Affinity as well as intrinsic activity substance is known as
D. Affinity without intrinsic activity A. Placebo
B. Prodrug
158. Binding of drugs with plasma albumin is C. Carrier drug
A. Reversible and non-specific D. Enteric coated drug
B. Reversible and specific
C. Irreversible 164. Which factor does not alter bioavailability of a
D. Irreversible and non-specific drug
A. State of ionization of drug
B. Intramuscular route of administration
159. Which one of the following is NOT a phase II C. Intravenous route of administration
reaction for hepatic drug metabolism D. Molecular size of a drug
A. Glucuronidation 165. The term first order kinetics for drugs refers to
B. Acetylation A. Rate of absorption from GIT
C. Oxidation B. Rate of drug elimination
D. Glutathione conjugation C. Extent of protein binding of drug
D. Rate of absorption after injection
160. Intestinal first pass effect of drug means
A. Drug is eliminated fast by hepatic metabolism 166. Pharmacodynamics is
B. Drug may be degraded by intestinal enzymes A. Absorption and metabolism of drugs
C. Metabolites of the drug may be formed in liver B. Study of what the drug does to the body
D. It is same as hepatic first pass effect C. Distribution of the drug
D. Toxicity produced by the drug
161. Idiosyncracy refers to
A. Qualitatively abnormal drug response 167. which of the following is produced
B. Quantitatively abnormal drug response at A. Useful for administration of all drugs
therapeutic doses B. Rapid onset of action
C. Abnormal response at large dose C. First pass effect is avoided
D. Fatal reaction to drugs at large doses D. Used for nifedipine administration in
hypertensive emergency
162. The term latrogenic disease refers to
A. Intolerance to a drug

PHARMACOLOGY 16
168. Which of the following regarding sublingual B. Molecular size of a drug

administration is C. Particle size of the drug
A. Useful for administration of all drugs D. Intravenous route of administration.
B. Rapid onset of action
C. First pass effect is avoided 174. Which of the following drugs does not induce
D. Used for nifedipine administration in microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes
hypertensive emergency A. Phenobarbitone
B. Rifampicin
169. Which of the following statements regarding C. Phenytoin
protein binding of drugs is CORRECT D. Ketoconazole
A. It increase diffusion of drug into cell
B. Increases drug amount for renal excretion 175. Statements applicable to drug allergy is
C. All drugs bind only to albumin in plasma It is always predictable
D. Two drugs may compete for plasma protein A. it is always predictable
binding B. it is dose dependent
C. prior exposure to drug predisposes
170. Which of the following statements regarding D. reactions produced
biotransformation is INCORRECT
A. It is a process to make drugs more water 176. which of the following drugs DOES NOT produce
soluble tachyphylaxis
B. Involves changes which always make a A. ephedrine
drugless active B. methoxamine
C. Liver enzymes are involved in the metabolism C. amphetamine
D. Genetics factors affect biotransformation D. tyramine
171. Following factors affect during metabolism except
A. Animal species 177. Competitive drug antagonism
B. Liver diseases A. is always irreversible
C. Diet B. increase in agonist concentration overcomes
D. Ionsiation of the drug antagonism
C. competition is for different receptors
172. Bioavailability of a drug may be tested by all the D. has no therapeutic importance
following methods except
A. Estimating plasma level of a drug 178. Duration of action of a drug can be prolonged by
B. Estimating urinary excretion of a drug A. Increasing rate of drug absorption
C. Objective parameter of therapeutic efficacy B. Increasing drug metabolism
D. Only subjective effects produced by the drug C. Reducing protein binding
D. Slowing renal excretion
173. Which factor DOES NOT alter the bioavailability
of a drug 179. Phramacokinetics may change with advancing age
A. Ionsiation of a drug because

PHARMACOLOGY 17
A. Gastric emptying time is reduced 185. which of the following statements regarding
B. Renal function decreases sublingual route of administration is CORRECT
C. Drug metabolism rate increases A. absorption is slow
D. Plasma protein concentration is unaltered B. drug passes directly into systemic circulation
C. all drugs can be administered by this route
180. Development of tolerance due to adaptive change D. prolongs action of a drug
at cellular level is known as
A. Pharmacokinetic tolerance 186. which of the following statements is applicable to
B. Pharmacodynamic tolerance plasma protein binding of a drug
C. Tachyphylaxis A. may influence protein binding of other drugs
D. Cross tolerance B. shortens duration of action of a drug
C. binding occurs only to albumin in plasma
181. Which of the following is not a hepatic D. protein bound formation is the active
microsomal enzyme inducer component of the drug
A. Tetracycline
B. Carbamazepine 187. pharmacogenetics deals with
C. Rifampicin A. harmful effect of drug on genetic material
D. Phenobarbitone B. clinically significant hereditary variation of
drug response
182. Anatomical foetal anomalies due to action of a C. harmful effects of drugs on foetus
drug during period of organogenesis is known as D. transfer of drug across placental barrier
A. Idiosyncracy
B. Mutagenecity 188. phramacodynamics is defined as
C. Teratogenicity A. what the body does to the drug
D. Hypersensitivity B. what the drug does to the body
C. branch of pharmacology dealing with adverse
183. The term therapeutic index relates to effects of drugs
A. Dose range of a drug D. concerned with relief of symptoms
B. Toxic dose of a drug
C. Effective dose of a drug 189. which of the following statement regarding
D. Margin of safety of a drug glycosides is true
A. They are basic substances containing nitrogen
184. which of the following is not obtained from B. They are combination of sugar and organic
animal sources structure
A. insulin C. Used as flavouring agents
B. thyroid extract D. Combination of oils and resins
C. pepsin
D. hydrocortisone 190. which of the following is an inhibitor of drug
metabolism
A. cimetidine

PHARMACOLOGY 18
B. ethanol
C. DDT 196. Therapeutic drug monitoring is
D. Griseofulvin A. Useful for drugs with low margin of safety
B. Not useful for checking patient compliance
191. The following factors affect drug absorption when C. Necessary for all drugs
gives orally except D. The only method of measuring drug response.
A. Particle size of drug
B. Enteric coating 197. When a constant fraction of a drug present in the
C. Gastric motility body is eliminated in unit time, it is called
D. Volume of distribution of drug A. Zero order kinetics
B. First order kinectics
192. Which factors is not taken into account when the C. Linear kinetics
dose for a child is calculated from adult dose D. Saturation kinetics
A. Body weight
B. Age 198. Important for determining oral bioavailability
C. Surface area cable to first pass metabolism
D. Height of a child. A. Important for determining oral bioavailablity
B. Depends on the structure of the drug
193. Which of the following is NOT a phase I reaction C. Occurs only in liver
for drug metabolism D. Cannot be avoided by changing route of
A. Oxidation administration
B. Sulphate conjugation
C. Hydrolysis 199. Treatment of acute drug poisioning may include
D. Reduction all of the following except
A. Induction of vomiting in an unconscious
194. In competive drug antagonism patient
A. Antagonist binds with the same receptor as B. Haemodialysis
agonist C. Use of forced dieresis
B. Intensity of response does not depend on D. Administration of specific antidote
concentration of agonist and antagonist
C. Maximal response cannot be obtained by 200. Hepatitc first pass effect for orally administrated
increasing dose of agonist drugs is seen when
D. Agonist and antagonist have not structural A. Drugs can be degraded by digestive enzymes
similarity. before in reaches systemic circulation
195. Which statement is applicable to drug dependence B. Drugs can be degraded by gastric acid
A. Occurs to drugs producing euphoria C. Drugs can be degraded by very rapid
B. Abrupt withdrawal of drug produces no biotransformation in liver
untoward symptoms D. Drugs can be inactivated in bile.
C. Consists of only psychological dependence
D. Drug dependence is not produced by cocaine 201. Drugs which follow zero order kinetics show

PHARMACOLOGY 19
A. Rate of drug elimination directly proportional A. Clinically significant hereditary variation in

to plasma concentration individual to drug response
B. Rate of drug elimination remaining fixed even B. Effect of drugs on genes
if plasma concentration and clearance process C. Toxic effect of drugs on genetic component
get saturated D. More method response to certain drugs in
C. Enzymes involved in drug elimination are non certain cases.
saturable in the therapeutic dose range
D. Plasma half life is constant 207. The correct statement applicable to LD50 is
A. Dose producing maximal response
202. Partial agonists for receptors are drugs which B. It is the dose which produces mortality in 50%
A. Have affinity but low intrinsic activity of animals
B. Have only affinity C. It is the dose which produces desired effect is
C. Have only intrinsic activity 50 % of patients
D. Have low affinity but high intrinsic activity. D. It is the dose producing mortality in animals
203. Which is not true for drugs with long plasma half 208. in competitive antagonism
life (>12 hrs) A. Agonist and antagonist compete for the same
A. Are cumulative in nature receptor
B. Have low protein bound B. In presence of antagonist dose response curved
C. Are highly protein bound shifts to the left,
D. Take long time to reach steady state level C. In presence of antagonist maximum response
can not e obtained
204. Phase I reaction in hepatic drug metabolism D. Antagonist has both affinity and intrinsic
involves activity
A. Oxidation
B. Methylation 209. The correct statement applicable to
C. Acetylation biotransformation is
D. Glucuronidation A. It is process which always inactivates a drug
B. Liver is the only organ where
205. Young’s formula is used to calculate biotransformation takes place
A. The dose for a child for from adult dose C. It is the major mechanism to terminate drug
B. The dose for a patient with impaired hepatic action
action D. It makes the drug more lipid soluble.
C. The dose for a patient with impaired renal
elimination 210. Correct statement regarding blood brain barrier is
D. The dose for a geriatric patient A. Only lipid insoluble drugs gains entry into the
brain
B. Only the free form of the drug can gain access
206. Pharmacogenetic deals with to the brain

PHARMACOLOGY 20
C. All areas of the CNS have a uniform blood D. All lipid soluble drug are transported by active
brain barrier transport
D. Inflammation of meninges decreases the
passage of drugs to the brain
211. Which of the following statements is applicable to 216. Bio availability of a drug is affected by the
intravenous route of drug aministration following factors except
A. Self medication is easy A. Dissolution rate
B. Very safe even when injected at a fast rate B. Disintegration rate
C. Suspensions of drugs can be injected safely C. Particle size
D. It avoids inactivation of drug by gastric juice D. Oxidation of drug
212. Which of the following factors does not affect 217. Following are prodrugs except
drug absorption from the GIT A. Levodopa
A. Particle size B. Morphine
B. Gastric emptying time C. Enalapril
C. Presence of food in stomach D. Prednisone
D. Clearance of the drug 218. Which of the following drugs undergoes
biotransformation
213. Which of the following is NOT APPLICABLE to A. Neostigmine
adverse drug reactions B. Paracetamol
A. Occur at therapeutric closes C. Streptomycin
B. Require decrease in dose D. Decamethonium
C. Occur in toxic doses
D. May require treatment 219. Therapeutic drug monitoring is useful for
following drugs except
214. Which of the following factors is NOT useful for A. Digoxin
deciding route of administration of a drug B. Phenytoin
A. Structure of a drug C. Glibenclamide
B. First pass metabolism D. Theophylline
C. Route of excretion of a drug
D. Site of desired action 220. Drug antagonism between adrenaline and
histamine is
215. Which of the following statements regarding A. Physiological
active transport of drugs is CORRECT B. Competitive
A. It occurs in the directions of concentrations C. Physical
gradient D. Chemical
B. Needs energy
C. Always require presence of a carrier 221. An inactive drug is converted inside the body into
active drug is known as

PHARMACOLOGY 21
A. Prodrug
B. Placebo 227. Enteric coating of tablets is associated with
C. Conjugate drug A. Rapid absorption of the drug
D. Bound drug B. Slow excretion of the drug
C. Frequent administration of the drug
222. Which of the following mechanism of renal D. Prevents gastric irritation due to the drug
excretion for drugs involves a saturable active
carrier system 228. When there is gradual decrease in response to a
A. Glomerular filtration drug taking days or weeks to develop, the
B. Tubular secretion phenomenon is known as
C. Tubular reabsorption A. Desentilisation
D. Diffusion across tubular cell membrane B. Tachyphylaxis
C. Tolerance
223. Drug tolerance due to decreased availability drug D. Cross-tolerance
at receptor site due to hepatic enzyme induction is
known as 229. Bio transformation of a drug refers to
A. Pharmacodynamic tolerance A. Chemical transformation inside the body
B. Pharmacokinetic tolerance B. Binding of drugs to plasma albumin
C. Physiological tolerance C. Binding of drugs to globulin
D. Pseudo tolerance D. Passage of drugs across cell membrane
224. Drug induced disease is known as 230. Presystemic elimination of a drug is known as
A. Iatrogenic disease A. Phase I drug metabolism
B. Intolerance B. First pass effect
C. Idiosyncrasy C. Enzyme inhibition
D. Second drug effect D. Phase II drug metabolism
225. The term polyphramacy refers to 231. Which of the following is inhibitor of drug
A. Multiple drugs used or prescribed at a time metabolism
B. Fixed dose combinations A. Phenobarbitone
C. Dispensing of drug B. First pass effect
D. Pharmaceutical science C. Enzyme inhibition
D. Phase II drug metabolism
226. When rate of drug elimination is directly
proportional to plasma concentration the term 232. Which of the following statements regarding
used is drug receptor interaction is NOT CORRECT
A. Zero order kinetics A. Agonists have affinity for the receptor and
B. First order kinetics intrinsic activity
C. Saturation kinetics B. Antagonists have affinity for receptor but no
D. Rate of clearance intrinsic activity

PHARMACOLOGY 22
C. All drugs have to combine with receptors 238. Compound which has no biological or
produce pharmacological effects pharmacological activity per se but is used for non
D. Agonists are drugs which produce specific psychological effect on a patient is known
pharmological effects as
A. Placebo
233. Following are factors which affect drug B. Prodrug
absorption when given orally except C. Me too drug
A. Particle size D. Free drug
B. Disintegration time
C. Dissolution rate
D. Volume of distribution 239. In plasma protein binding of drug the most
important plasma protein involved it
234. Which of the following drugs is NOT obtained A. Plasma albumin
from animal sources B. Plasma globulin
A. Insulin C. Albumin globulin ratio
B. Immunoglobins D. Alpha, acid glycoprotein level
C. Thyroid except
D. Pepsin 240. For which of the following drugs excretion in
saliva contributes to taste changes
235. Which of the following oils are used as counter A. Propranolol
irritants B. Metronidazole
A. Eucalyptus oil C. Salicylates
B. Turpentine oil D. Ampiciffin
C. Clove oil
D. Castor oil 241. Regarding plasma protein binding of the drug
which statement is INCORRECT
236. Therapeutic index of a drug is a measure or drug’s A. Drugs bind to specific receptors on plasma
A. Efficacy albumin
B. Potency B. Prolongs the t ½ of the drug
C. Margin of safety C. Delays the drug from reaching the site of action
D. Intrinsic activity D. Provide a reservoir (depot) for the drug
237. When magnitude of response to a drug is in 242. When an inactive chemical produces nonspecific
proportion to the concentration of the drug, the psychophysiological therapeutic effects,
dose response effect is known as A. Pro drug
A. Graded response B. Placebo
B. Quantal response C. Idiosyncratic response
C. High ceiling response D. Drug synergism
D. Flat dose response

PHARMACOLOGY 23
243. Following are the characteristic of drug allergy 248. The term pharmacodynamic tolerance is used
except when gradual decrease in responsiveness to drug
A. It is always predictable use is due to
B. Prior exposure to drug may produce A. Decreased rate of absorption
sensitization B. Increased rate of metabolism
C. It is dose independent C. Increased rate of renal clearance
D. Eosinophilia may occur D. Activation of homeostatic compensatory
mechanism
244. When agonist and antagonist have difference
cellular sites of action but opposite nature of 249. Low threshold to Pharmacological action of a drug
pharmacological action, the antagonism is known used in therapeutic doses is erred to as
as A. Intolerance
A. Competitive antagonism B. Side effect
B. Physiological antagonism C. Latrogenic disease
C. Unsurmountable antagonism D. Tachyphylaxis
D. Antagonism at enzyme level
250. Which of the following is not a dosage from for
245. Which of the following drugs is NOT a hepatic action of drug on GIT
enzyme inducer A. Enteric coated tablets
A. Phenobarbitone B. Sustained release tablets
B. Rifampicin C. Spansules
C. Erythromycin D. Sublingual tablets
D. Carbamazepine
251. Presystemic elimination or the first pass effect is
246. When rate of elimination of a drug is such that a of importance only when the drug is given by
constant proportion of drug dose (plasma route
concentration) is metabolized in unit time is A. Orally
known as B. Sublingually
A. First order kinetics C. Intravenous
B. Zero order kinetics D. Subcutaneous
C. Saturation kinetics
D. Non-exponential kinetics 252. Which one of the following is a hepatic
microsomal drug metabolizing enzyme
247. One drug may increases the rate of hepatic A. Xanthine oxidase
metabolism of other drugs due to B. Mixed function oxidase
A. Enzyme induction C. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
B. Enzyme saturation D. Alcohol dehydrogenase
C. Enzyme inhibition
D. Acting as substitute for the Enzyme. 253. Which of the following drugs is NOT metabolized
by glucuronide conjugate

PHARMACOLOGY 24
A. Diazepam Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 29

B. Morphine
Tripathi Essentials of Medical
C. Chlorampheniol 7. A
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 15
D. Isoniazid
8. C
254. Which one of the following terms refers to
minimal dose which produces maximum response Tripathi Essentials of Medical
9. D
A. ED50 Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 15
B. TD50 Tripathi Essentials of Medical

10. B
C. TD0 Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 364, 19
D. Edmax Tripathi Essentials of Medical
11. B
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 22, 23
255. Following drugs can displace bilirubin from its Tripathi Essentials of Medical
12. C
albumin binding sites and cause kernicterus Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 22
EXCEPT Tripathi Essentials of Medical
13. A
A. Vitamin K Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 22
B. Phenobarbitone Tripathi Essentials of Medical
14. B
C. Indomethacin Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 24
D. Sulphonamide Tripathi Essentials of Medical
15. A
256. In infants chloramphenicol can cause toxicity due Tripathi Essentials of Medical
16. A
to poor development of which hepatic enzymatic Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 25
process Tripathi Essentials of Medical
17. D
A. Glucuronide conjugation Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 31,32
B. Glycine conjugation Tripathi Essentials of Medical
18. B
C. Hydroxylation Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 31
D. Acetylation Tripathi Essentials of Medical
19. B
20. A
Tripathi Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 41
1. A
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 1 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
21. B
2. B
22. A
3. A Satoskar 20/e p 5 Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 54, 55
4. B Satoskar 20/e p 5 23. A
Tripathi Essentials of Medical Tripathi Essentials of Medical
5. A 24. A
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 9 Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 55, 56
6. A Tripathi Essentials of Medical 25. B Tripathi Essentials of Medical

PHARMACOLOGY 25

45. D
26. A Tripathi Essentials of Medical
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 59 46. C
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 67 48. A
29. D Tripathi Essentials of Medical
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 70 49. B
30. D 50. A Satoskar 20/e p 39
31. C 51. A
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 86 Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 11
32. B 52. A
33. D 53. B
34. D 54. C
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 23, 24 Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 27
35. A 55. A
36. B Satoskar 20/e p 42 Tripathi Essentials of Medical

56. A
37. C Tripathi Essentials of Medical
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 55 57. D
38. B Tripathi Essentials of Medical
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 55,56 59. A
42. B Satoskar 20/e 40, 41, 42 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
62. C
43. C Satoskar 20/e p 39
63. C Satoskar 20/e p 39
44. C
64. D

PHARMACOLOGY 26

65. B 86. C
66. B 87. C

88. B
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 82,85
90. B
Tripathi Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 85,86
70. A
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 63 91. D Satoskar 20/e p 45
72. A Satoskar 20/e p 5
93. A
73. D Satoskar 20/e p 11 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
94. C
Tripathi Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 84, 472
74. A
Pharmacology, 7/E, p.27 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
95. B
75. A
96. A
76. A
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 14, 15 98. C
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 15,29 99. D
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 30, 31 100. C
80. D 101. C
81. A 102. D
82. C 103. D
Tripathi Essentials of Medical 104. D Satoskar 20/e p 34, 35
83. D
84. D Satoskar 20/e pp. 34, 35 105. A
85. C Satoskar 20/e pp. 31, 32, 36 106. D Tripathi Essentials of Medical

PHARMACOLOGY 27

126. C
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp.12, 13
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 58, 59 128. D
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 57,58 129. B
Pharmacology, 7/E, p.22
110. A Satoskar 20/e p 1097 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
130. A
Tripathi Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7/E, p.25
111. A
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp.19, 20 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
131. A
112. A
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 20, 21 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
132. A
113. D
133. B
114. C
134. A
115. A
135. A
116. C
136. B
117. C
137. A
118. D
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 80,81 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
138. D
Tripathi Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7/E, pp.64, 65
119. A
139. A
120. B
140. B
121. C
141. D
122. A
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp.30,31 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
142. B
123. D
Pharmacology, 7/E, p.32 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
143. A
124. B
Pharmacology, 7/E, p.32 144. D Satoskar, 20/E, p. 9
125. A 145. A Satoskar, 20/E, p. 6

PHARMACOLOGY 28

166. B
147. C 167. A
Tripathi Essentials of Medical 168. A Satoskar, 20/E, p. 429
148. A
Tripathi Essentials of Medical 169. D
149. A Pharmacology, 7/E, pp.19, 20
Tripathi Essentials of Medical 170. B
150. C Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 22, 25
Tripathi Essentials of Medical 171. D Satoskar, 20/E, p. 18
151. C
172. D Satoskar, 20/E, p. 13
153. B Satoskar, 20/E, p.58, 59
174. D
154. A
175. C Satoskar, 20/E, p. 40
155. B
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 19 176. B Satoskar, 20/E, p. 59
156. A 177. B
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 19, 20 179. B
159. C 180. B Satoskar, 20/E, p. 58, 59
160. B 181. A
161. A 182. C
162. B
163. B
185. B Satoskar, 20/E, p. 9
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 16, 17 186. A
165. B
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 31 187. B Tripathi Essentials of Medical

PHARMACOLOGY 29

207. B
189. B Satoskar, 20/E, p. 4 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
209. C
190. A
210. B
191. D
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp.14,15, 16 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
211. D
192. D
212. D
193. B
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 22, 23, 24 Tripathi Essentials of Medical
213. C
Tripathi Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 82, 83, 84, 85
194. A
214. C
195. A
215. B
196. A
216. D
197. B
217. B
198. A
218. B
199. A Satoskar, 20/E, p. 47 Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 22
200. C 219. C
201. B 220. A
202. A 221. A
203. B 222. B
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp.21, 22 Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 29
204. A 223. B
205. A 224. A
206. A 225. A

PHARMACOLOGY 30

226. B 247. A
227. D Satoskar, 20/E, p. 6 Tripathi Essentials of Medical

248. D
229. A 250. D Satoskar, 20/E, p. 6
230. B 251. A
Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 27 Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 27
231. C 252. B Satoskar, 20/E, p. 17,18

232. C 253. C
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp. 41, 42 Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 24
Tripathi Essentials of Medical 254. D
233. D
234. B Satoskar, 20/E, p. 569 255. B
Pharmacology, 7/E, pp.20, 21
235. B 256. A
236. C
237. A Satoskar, 20/E, p. 34, 35

238. A
239. A
240. B
241. A
242. B
243. A Satoskar, 20/E, p. 40
244. B Satoskar, 20/E, p. 38

245. C
246. A


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PHARMACOLOGY 1

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A. Conjugation reaction D. None of the above

18. In zero order kinetics 24. Therapeutic index is

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D. Drug response /drug concentration A. Toxic effect of a drug in an individual at

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36. Secretory immunoglobulin is 42. Allergic reactions depends on all EXCEPT

37. Therapeutic index indicates 43. Least predictable reaction to drug

44. Therapeutic index is

41. Km value indicates 47. A prodrug is

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D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is B. 93%

56. Drug with extensive first pass metabolism

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D. Bioavailability can be determined from plasma C. Desferrixamine

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B. Dosage of the drug received D. Tolerance

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C. Biological log or latent period

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A. It becomes pharmacologically inactive A. Phase I

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C. 3 – 4 half lives C. Metabolites which are acetylated or methylated

124. In zero order kinetics 1 ½ 130. Microsomal enzymes located in

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B. Teratogenic effect B. Drug induced syndromes or disease simulating

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168. Which of the following regarding sublingual B. Molecular size of a drug

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A. Rate of drug elimination directly proportional A. Clinically significant hereditary variation in

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A. Diazepam Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 29

B. TD50 Tripathi Essentials of Medical

6. A Tripathi Essentials of Medical 25. B Tripathi Essentials of Medical

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Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 58 Tripathi Essentials of Medical

36. B Satoskar 20/e p 42 Tripathi Essentials of Medical

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Tripathi Essentials of Medical Tripathi Essentials of Medical

67. C Tripathi Essentials of Medical

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Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 58 Tripathi Essentials of Medical

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146. A Tripathi Essentials of Medical

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Pharmacology, 7/E, p. 65 Tripathi Essentials of Medical

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Tripathi Essentials of Medical Tripathi Essentials of Medical

227. D Satoskar, 20/E, p. 6 Tripathi Essentials of Medical

231. C 252. B Satoskar, 20/E, p. 17,18

Tripathi Essentials of Medical Tripathi Essentials of Medical

237. A Satoskar, 20/E, p. 34, 35