Question

In scabies, the itching is due to

Option
hypersensitivity type 1

Option
crawling of bug over the skin
Answer:
Itching is worse at night as bug crawls over the body at night. Ref: Big Robbin

Option
toxins produced by the mite

Option
tissue destruction

Option
any of the above
M

Question
In which of the following cases the H2 receptor blockers have no role

Option
uncomplicated duodenal ulcer

Option
uncomplicated peptic ulcer

Option
zollinger Ellison syndrome
Answer:
Gastrinoma of ZES activates Gq G-Proteins that have no relation with H2 receptor on parietal cells, so
continuous activation of Gq G-Proteins causes acid secretion not controled by H² blokers, Ref: 1st Aid
Step-1

Option
menderson syndrome

Option
none of the above
M

Question
The flexor muscles (proximal) are controlled by
Option
reticulospinal

Option
corticospinal

Option
vestibulospinal

Option
corticonuclear

Option
Rubrospinal
Answer:
Rubrospinal tract: It modulates muscle tone of body position & gait (proximal muscles).
A lesion of the red nucleus causes these impaired symptoms.
(Ref: Snell NeuroAnatomy
M

Question
Virulence of the staph. Aureus is determined by

Option
drug sensitivity

Option
coagulase production
Answer:
Coagulase is Protein A & virulent factor of Staph aureus. Coagulase is an enzyme that causes the plasma
to clot by activating prothrombin to form thrombin. Thrombin then catalyzes the activation of fibrinogen
to form the fibrin clot. Ref: Levison Microbiology

Option
allergic reaction

Option
Both A & B

Option
None of the above
M

Question
If the cervical sympathetic is damaged, what will happen

Option
increase in salivation
Option
increase in heart rate

Option
pupillary dilation

Option
pupillary constriction
Answer:
Sympathetic chain lesion above T1 causes constriction of pupils. (Ref: 1st Aid Step1)
The 3-neuron oculosympathetic pathway projects from the hypothalamus to the intermediolateral
column of the spinal cord, then to the superior cervical (sympathetic) ganglion, and finally to the pupil,
the smooth muscle of the eyelids, and the sweat glands of the forehead and face. Interruption of any of
these pathways results in Horner syndrome.

Option
None of the above
M

Question
The virus cause mutation by the alteration of

Option
DNA structure

Option
RNA structure

Option
protein synthesis
Answer:
Viruses cause mutation by either DNA or RNA but ultimately result in defective protein synthesis. Ref:
Levinson.

Option
nucleus damage

Option
Cytoplasmic damage
M

Question
A patient has chronic kidney Disease with urea 88 and creatinine 2.2. Which of the following drug is
contraindicated

Option
ceftriaxone
Option
ciprofloxacin

Option
Panadol

Option
omeprazole

Option
gentamycin
Answer:
All aminoglycosides are ototoxic and nephrotoxic. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are more likely to be
encountered when therapy is continued for more than 5 days, at higher doses, in the elderly, and in the
setting of renal insufficiency.
( Aminoglycosides are nephrotoxic. Ref: Katzung)
M

Question
What is the skin dermatome from the lower end of clavicle up to sternal angle

Option
c1-c2

Option
c2-c3

Option
c3-c4
Answer:
C3—high turtleneck shirt. C4—low-collar shirt.
( Ref: Netter Atlas of Anatomy)

Option
T1

Option
T2
M

Question
Water goes from plasma to the interstitial fluid by

Option
Primary active transport

Option
secondary active transport

Option
cotransport with sodium

Option
Filtration
Answer:
At the level of capillaries, due to hydrostatic pressure, the plasma is filtered into the interstitial fluid.
( Ref: BRS Physio )

Option
Any of the above
M

Question
The antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is associated with

Option
Vasculitis
Answer:
c-ANCA (PR3-ANCA) Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener) p-ANCA (MPO-ANCA) Microscopic
polyangiitis, Churg-Strauss syndrome.
( Ref: Pathoma & 1st Aid Step1)

Option
Liver disease

Option
MI

Option
Peptic ulcer

Option
Meningitis
M

Question
Polyarteritis or Vasculitis is diagnosed on Microscopy by

Option
Lymphocytic infiltrates

Option
Granulomatous changes

Option
Fibrinoid necrosis
Answer:
On microscopy Vasculitis contain small microabscesses composed of neutrophils surrounded by
granulomatous inflammation & collections of Fibrinoid necrosis.
( Ref: Pathoma & BRS Patho )

Option
Fat necrosis

Option
ANA
M

Question
In Internal Capsule, Retrolenticular transmits

Option
Temporo-pontine

Option
Temporo-pontine

Option
Optic Radiation
Answer:
Dorsal optic radiation—superior retina; takes the shortest path via internal capsule through the
Retrolenticular.
( Snell NeuroAnatomy )

Option
Optic tract

Option
All of the above
M

Question
How much air is needed for air embolism

Option
50ml

Option
100ml
Answer:
A larger volume of air, generally more than 100 cc, is necessary to produce a clinical effect in the
pulmonary circulation; unless care is taken, this volume of air can be inadvertently introduced during
obstetric or laparoscopic procedures.
( Ref: Big Robbin )

Option
150ml

Option
200ml

Option
250ml
M

Question
Absorption of HCO³ on nephron occurs in

Option
collecting ducts

Option
Ascending Loop of Henle

Option
Descending Loop of Henle

Option
PCT
Answer:
Filtered glucose, amino acids, and HCO3 have already been completely removed from the tubular fluid
by reabsorption in the early proximal tubule.
( BRS Physio)

Option
DCT
M

Question
Viruses cause cancer by altering

Option
DNA

Option
RNA

Option
Oncogene

Option
Protoncogene
Answer:
Viruses cause mutation in Tumor supressor genes & cause cancer.

Option
Protein synthesis
M

Question
A young Surgeon not allowed to operate on right Adrenal gland due to fear of damage to which
structure

Option
Kidney

Option
Aorta

Option
Spinal cord

Option
Renal artery

Option
Inferior Vena Cava
Answer:
Right Adrenal vein drains directly into IVC hence related directly to IVC.
M

Question
Perception of Disgust is received by

Option
Hypothalamus

Option
Insular cortex
Answer:
Shame, regret & disgust are perceived by the insular cortex. Insula has also been implicated in language
functions, which resonates with the possibility that higher order auditory association pathways may pass
via areas in the insula.

Option
Frontal cortex

Option
Temporal cortex
Option
Occipital cortex
M

Question
A patient is in ICU, he aspirates gastric contents, it will go to

Option
Right upper segment

Option
Right middle segment

Option
Left upper segment

Option
Left lower segment

Option
Right lower apical segment
Answer:
The right lung is the more common site for the inhaled foreign body because the right mainstem
bronchus is wider and more vertical than left one.
M

Question
A child has 1 testes in the inguinal canal, he is at risk of

Option
Malignancy
Answer:
This increased temperature has also been associated with increased risk of an increased chance of
dysplasia due to abnormal more temperature than in testes usually.

Option
Atrophy

Option
Hyperplasia

Option
Hypertrophy

Option
Torsion
M
Question
At the time of ovulation which oocyte is released

Option
primary oocyte

Option
secondary oocyte
Answer:
Among the oocytes in the current cycle, the secondary oocytes among the developing ones are released
and rest are involuted.

Option
primordial oocyte

Option
secondary oocyte

Option
Mature oocyte
M

Question
why anti –TB drugs are given together?

Option
For enhancing the potency

Option
to increase the effect

Option
to decrease the resistance
Answer:
M.Tuberculi are notorious for resistant to antibiotics that's why the combination of antibiotics is used
for longer times to beat them.

Option
combination is cheap

Option
All are true
M

Question
Which organelle is continuous with nuclear membrane?
Option
Golgi Apparatus

Option
Mitochondria

Option
Vacuoles

Option
Cell membrane

Option
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
Rough Endoplasmic reticulum is continuous from the nuclear envelope to and progresses outwards to
the cell membrane where it transports the secretory granules.
M

Question
Receptors involved in flexor withdrawal reflex?

Option
golgi tendon organs

Option
nociceptors
Answer:
Flexor withdrawal reflex is polysynaptic. It results in flexion on the ipsilateral side and extension on the
contralateral side. Somatosensory and pain afferent fibers elicit withdrawal of the stimulated body part
from the noxious stimulus. It is the reflex for which stimulus is touching hot object/pain & receptors are
nociceptors.

Option
ruffini's corpuscles

Option
Pacinian corpuscles

Option
Free nerve endings
M

Question
Patient has developed intention tremors, site of lesion?

Option
basal ganglia
Option
Pons

Option
Medulla oblongata

Option
Frontal lobe

Option
cerebellum
Answer:
Intentional tremors are characteristics of loss of coordination that is a function of the cerebellum.
M

Question
The pericytes are found in?

Option
Bones

Option
Heart

Option
small blood vessels
Answer:
Pericytes: these have processes with "end feet" that cover more than 95% of the basal lamina adjacent
to the capillary endothelial cells.

Option
ciliary bodies

Option
All of the above
M

Question
Lady in kitchen has cut her middle finger, the immediate effect will be?

Option
chemotaxis

Option
renin-angiotensin system activation

Option
vasovagal reflex

Option
Sweating

Option
vasoconstriction
Answer:
The fast & immediate mechanism for BP control is vasoconstriction, other mentioned are the
mechanisms that act slowly.
M

Question
A Young patient has a fever for last 4 days, he was prescribed antimalarial, but he started cola-colored
urine, jaundice, decreased hemoglobin. the diagnosis will be?

Option
sickle cell anemia

Option
hemolytic anemia

Option
G-6-PD deficiency
Answer:
Anti-malarials & sulpha drugs cause oxidative stress leading to hemolysis especially in previously G6PD
deficiency RBC. Ref: 1st Aid Step1

Option
Vasculitis

Option
Iron deficiency anemia
M

Question
A patient has microcytic hypochromic anemia, on microscopy of stools eggs of which parasite were
found?

Option
Diphylobothrium latum

Option
ascaris lumbricoides

Option
H.nana
Option
wuchria bancrofti

Option
ancylostoma dudenale
Answer:
A.Duodenale cause blood loss anemia & hence cause microcytic hypochromic anemia. Ref: Levinson
M

Question
Pre-malignant lesion of the oral cavity

Option
leukoplakia

Option
erythroplakia
Answer:
Erythroplakia (red plaque) represents vascularized leukoplakia and is highly suggestive of squamous cell
dysplasia.
(Ref. Pathoma )

Option
candidiasis

Option
oral submucous fibrosis

Option
Both A & B
M

Question
Increasing stroke volume, keeping TPR and diastolic pressure normal?

Option
increase MAP(mean arterial pressure) & decrease Pulse pressure

Option
increase MAP & increase Pulse pressure
Answer:
By Increasing stroke volume, and keeping TPR and diastolic pressure normal will result in the increased
MAP & increase Pulse pressure

Option
Decrease MAP & Decrease Pulse pressure

Option
No change in MAP & pulse rate

Option
No change in MAP & pulse pressure
M

Question
Most potent immediate effect of Renin-angiotensin system is?

Option
salt retention

Option
Thrust

Option
vasoconstriction
Answer:
Most immediate & fast acting mechanism of Angiotensin-II is vasoconstriction while the slow acting
mechanisms that contribute to arterial blood pressure control are the salt & water balance.

Option
increase aldosterone secretion

Option
Both A & C
M

Question
Drug undergoing extensive first-pass effect?

Option
streptomycin

Option
insulin

Option
Aspirin

Option
acetaminophen

Option
nitroglycerin
Answer:
Nitroglycerin is well absorbed and rapidly metabolized by the liver during the first pass, so that
bioavailability is low.(Ref. Catzung BG)
M

Question
Upper 1/3 of the esophagus is supplied by?

Option
Aorta

Option
inferior thyroid artery
Answer:
The upper third of the esophagus is supplied by the inferior thyroid artery, the middle third by branches
from the descending thoracic aorta, and the lower third by branches from the left gastric artery.

Option
intercostal artery

Option
middle thyroid artery

Option
left gastric artery
M

Question
AV node is supplied by?

Option
right coronary artery
Answer:
SA and AV nodes are usually supplied by RCA. Infarct of RCA may cause nodal dysfunction.

Option
right circumflex artery

Option
left coronary artery

Option
left anterior descending

Option
diagonal artery
M

Question
The side effect of Chlorpromazine is?
Option
hallucination

Option
Drowsiness

Option
opacity

Option
Tremors

Option
Dystonia
Answer:
Typical Antipsychotics cause extrapyramidal effects. (Ref Katzung BG)
M

Question
If Foramen ovale is damaged, which part of the face will be affected?

Option
midface

Option
forehead

Option
the left side of the face

Option
lower 1/3 of face
Answer:
Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve exits from the foramen ovale. It has both sensory and motor
fibers and supplies the teeth and gums of the mandible, the skin of the temporal region, the auricula,
the lower lip, the lower part of the face, and the muscles of mastication.

Option
butterfly area of the face
M

Question
The thyroid gland is invested by?

Option
paravertebral fascia

Option
pre-vertebral fascia

Option
pre-tracheal fascia
Answer:
It is surrounded by a sheath formed of pretracheal fascia, and this sheath attaches the gland to the
larynx and the trachea.

Option
membranous fascia

Option
Carotid fascia
M

Question
Leucocytes are classified according to?

Option
nuclear size

Option
nuclear shape

Option
Granular staining
Answer:
leucocytes are classified according to granular staining they show.

Option
staining of cells

Option
cell membrane
M

Question
Most important role in the pathogenesis of thrombosis

Option
OCPs

Option
prolonged bed rest

Option
increase platelet count
Option
hypercoagulable state

Option
endothelial injury
Answer:
Thrombogenesis. This process results from the interaction of platelets, damaged endothelial cells, and
the coagulation cascade.Other 2 are Hypercoagulable state & Turbulence.
M

Question
A Patient is alcoholic and has B/L pleural effusion with Cough, Dyspnea, CXR shows reticular nodular
infiltrate. Thoracocentesis shows 85% granulocytes, 15% lymphocytes. what other findings seen on
Histopathology?

Option
increase N/C ratio with light granules

Option
AFB staining

Option
pleo-morphism with dark staining

Option
Fibrin deposits
Answer:
It shows interstitial and intra-alveolar edema, inflammation, fibrin deposition, and diffuse alveolar
damage. The alveolar walls become lined with waxy hyaline membranes.

Option
Silver staining
M

Question
An English businessman came back from Thailand and he developed high-grade fever, chills, and rigors.
The diagnosis will be?

Option
Chagas disease

Option
UTI

Option
Pyelonephritis

Option
Malaria
Answer:
Malaria presents with abrupt onset of fever and chills, accompanied by a headache, myalgias, and
arthralgias, about 2 weeks after the mosquito bite.

Option
Typhoid fever
M

Question
Small muscle of hand got Atrophy, loss of sensation on the medial side of the hand with a reduced pulse.
What is the cause?

Option
Volkman ischemic contracture

Option
first rib

Option
median nerve injury

Option
ulnar nerve injury

Option
Cervical Rib
Answer:
It also may cause pressure on the lower trunk of the brachial plexus or the subclavian artery, leading to
symptoms and signs that are referred to as the thoracic outlet syndrome.
M

Question
A patient serology is HIV positive, how will u counsel?

Option
he is diagnosed with AIDS

Option
some other test to confirm
Answer:
He should be told about the other confirmatory test. Western blot Sample protein is separated via gel
electrophoresis and transferred to a filter. Labeled antibody is used to bind to the relevant protein.
Confirmatory test for HIV after ELIZA +ve is the Western blot.

Option
follow the patient
Option
He has nothing

Option
Tell his family
M

Question
Maximum absorption of water occurs in

Option
Ascending loop of Henle

Option
Descending loop of Henle

Option
collecting ducts

Option
PCT
Answer:
About 70% water absorption occurs in PCT. Water is reabsorbed from the collecting ducts until the
osmolarity of tubular fluid equals that of the surrounding interstitial fluid. The osmolarity of the final
urine equals that at the end of the loop of Henle and the tip of the papilla (1200 mOsm/L). Ref.1st Aid
Step1

Option
DCT
M

Question
In Ovarian CA, which lymph nodes will be affected

Option
internal iliac

Option
deep inguinal

Option
paravertebral

Option
superficial inguinal

Option
para aortic
Answer:
Lymphatic Drainage of the Ovaries: The lymph drains into the para-aortic nodes at the level of the first
lumbar vertebra.
M

Question
What is good to differentiate the tumor cells

Option
staging

Option
staining

Option
grading

Option
cytochemistry
Answer:
Immunohistochemistry is the best modality to differentiate tumor cells from benigh and from other
tumors .

Option
Genetics
M

Question
Test which has true positive property

Option
sensitivity
Answer:
Sensitivity (truepositive rate) Proportion of all people with the disease who test positive.
True +ve detected by specificity.

Option
specificity

Option
low PPV

Option
high PPV

Option
both A & C
M
Question
Test which excludes completely non-affected

Option
sensitivity

Option
specificity
Answer:
Specificity (true negative rate)----> Proportion of all people without the disease who test negative.

Option
low PPV

Option
high PPV

Option
None of the above
M

Question
Premalignant lesion on cervical intra epithelial neoplasia shows dysphasia. It is

Option
Hyperplasia

Option
CIN

Option
CIN1
Answer:
Disordered epithelial growth; begins at the basal layer of the squamocolumnar junction (transition zone)
and extends outward from CIN-I as the dysplasia.
( 1st Aid Step1)

Option
CIN2

Option
CIN3
M

Question
Squamous cell CA of skin is most likely due to
Option
Actinic lacerations

Option
Brown disease

Option
Erythroplakia
Answer:
Erythroplakia (red plaque) represents vascularized leukoplakia and is highly suggestive of squamous cell
dysplasia.
( Pathoma & 1st Aid Step1)

Option
Leukoplakia

Option
Dysphasia
M

Question
Granulomatous necrosis is a feature of

Option
TB

Option
Sarcoidosis

Option
Crohn's disease

Option
ulcerative colitis

Option
syphilis
Answer:
Microscopically, the ulcer of chancroid contains a superficial zone of neutrophilic debris and fibrin and
an underlying zone of granulation tissue containing areas of necrosis and thrombosed vessels.While TB
with caseous granuloma.
M

Question
What is T-test?

Option
differentiate b/w 2 groups
Answer:
t-test Checks differences between means of 2 groups. Example: comparing the mean blood pressure.

Option
Gives sensitivity

Option
Gives specificity

Option
Gives PPV

Option
Gives NPV
M

Question
Hepatitis D is dormant, it is the only infection that occurs with

Option
HAV

Option
HBV
Answer:
HDV is a “defective” virus that requires HBV co-infection. Ref. 1st Aid Step-1.

Option
HCV

Option
HEV

Option
HIV
M

Question
The maximum O2 consumption in cardiac tissue occurs when

Option
Hypertrophy of cardiac muscles

Option
Dilated cardiomyopathy

Option
HOCM
Option
increase heart size
Answer:
Maximum O2 consumption in cardiac tissue occurs with increase heart rate. Exercise is its example.

Option
MI
M

Question
Less than normal V/Q ratio is present in

Option
Pulmonary embolism

Option
restrictive diseases

Option
Emphysema

Option
COPD
Answer:
V is decreased in COPD so the ratio decreases, while in case of Pulmonary Embolism the Q decreases so
the V/Q ratio increases.

Option
MI
M

Question
Nerve supply of Scalp is

Option
superficial temporal nerve

Option
Zygomaticotemporal & auriculotemporal nerves
Answer:
The innervation of the scalp can be remembered using the mnemonic, "Z-GLASS" for,
Zygomaticotemporal nerve, Greater occipital nerve, Lesser occipital nerve, Auriculotemporal nerve,
Supratrochlear nerve and Supraorbital nerve.

Option
zygomatic nerve
Option
lacrimal nerve

Option
occipital nerve
M

Question
A man has byssinosis. what is the cause

Option
grain dust

Option
asbestosis

Option
silicosis

Option
pesticide industry

Option
textile industry
Answer:
Cotton exposure causes byssinosis. (Ref. Big Robbin)
M

Question
A Patient has a severe headache and projectile vomiting and papilledema. The diagnosis is

Option
meningitis

Option
hydrocephalus
Answer:
Hydrocephalus causes ICP to increased that causes a headache, projectile vomiting as well as
papilledema- by increased pressure in meninges around the optic nerve head.

Option
SOL

Option
brain abscess

Option
Epilepsy
M

Question
The thoracic duct is blocked/ damaged by

Option
Hydropneumothorax

Option
Pneumothorax

Option
Chylothorax

Option
Pneumopericardium

Option
Chylopericardium
Answer:
In the root of the left side of the neck, the thoracic duct conveys lymph to the blood. It is blocked by the
accumulation of lymph inside the pericardium.
M

Question
Accommodation reflex involves

Option
Decrease lens curvature

Option
Ciliary muscle contraction
Answer:
When the ciliary muscle contracts, it pulls itself forward and moves the frontal region toward the axis of
the eye. This releases the tension on the lens caused by the zonular fibers (fibers that hold or flatten the
lens). This release of tension of the zonular fibers causes the lens to become more spherical, adapting to
short range focus. The combination of the three movements (accommodation i,e Increase lens power,
convergence, and miosis) is under the control of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus and is referred to as the
near triad, or accommodation reflex.

Option
Ciliary muscle relaxation

Option
The divergence of the eyes

Option
Pupillary dilation
M

Question
A female is having hypertension, micro pigmentation. What other features of Cushing disease are

Option
Increased ACTH
Answer:
A pituitary gland tumor (pituitary adenoma). A noncancerous (benign) tumor of the pituitary gland,
located at the base of the brain, secretes an excess amount of ACTH, which in turn stimulates the
adrenal glands to make more cortisol. When this form of the syndrome develops, it's called Cushing
disease.

Option
Decreased cortisol

Option
Dark complexion

Option
Psychic moans

Option
None
M

Question
The maturation of seminiferous tubules occurs by

Option
FSH

Option
androgen
Answer:
Semniferous tubules maturates in males by Androgen.

Option
LH

Option
TSH

Option
ACTH
M

Question
Following is related to the risk of bladder CA

Option
zinc

Option
nickel

Option
CCL4

Option
aryl amines
Answer:
Arylamines are found also in tobacco smoke, and different sources of evidence suggest that they can
explain the risk of bladder cancer, which has been shown clearly in smokers.Other risk factors are
Phenacetin, Aniline dyes, aryl amines, and Cyclophosphamide.

Option
Alcohol
M

Question
ECG changes in hypokalemia

Option
inc. PR interval

Option
dec. PR interval

Option
U wave
Answer:
Prominent U wave is present in-------> 1. Normally present 2. Hypokalemia 3. Bradycardia 4. Ventricular
hypertrophy5. Hypercalcemia 6.Hyperthyroidism

Option
Tall p wave

Option
Inverted T wave
M

Question
Stability of the temporomandibular joint in the articular surface is by

Option
Temporomandibular ligament
Answer:
The temporomandibular ligament is attached above to the articular tubercle at the root of the
zygomatic arch and below to the neck of the mandible. It provides the stability to TMJ.

Option
capsule

Option
sphenomandibular ligament

Option
Auriculomandibular ligament

Option
Frontomandibular ligament
M

Question
The xiphoid process is present at the level of which vertebra

Option
T4

Option
T7

Option
T9
Answer:
The xiphoid process is considered to be at the level of the 9th thoracic vertebra and the T6 dermatome.

Option
T11

Option
T12
M

Question
The clasp-knife rigidity is by virtue of

Option
Pacinian corpuscle

Option
muscle spindle
Option
Refines corpuscle

Option
Free nerve endings

Option
Golgi tendon organs
Answer:
Clasp-knife reflex, an exaggerated form of the Golgi tendon reflex, can occur with the disease of the
corticospinal tracts (hypertonicity or spasticity).
M

Question
The pain is transmitted by unmyelinated fibers

Option
Aδ fiber

Option
B-fibers

Option
C-fibers
Answer:
The C group fibers are unmyelinated and have a small diameter and low conduction velocity. They
include postganglionic fibers in the autonomic nervous system (ANS) and nerve fibers at the dorsal roots
(IV fiber). These fibers carry sensory information. Damage or injury to nerve fibers causes neuropathic
pain. The axons of the olfactory nerves are unmyelinated C fibers and are among the smallest and
slowest in the nervous system. The olfactory epithelium is also innervated by CN V (trigeminal), which
detects noxious or painful stimuli, such as ammonia.

Option
D-fibers

Option
gamma fibers
M

Question
The cauda equina

Option
anterior n posterior roots of the spinal cord from L1 – L5
Answer:
At the base of the spinal column, near the first lumbar vertebra, is a collection of nerves called the cauda
equina. They are called this because they resemble a horse's tail. Just above the cauda equina, the spinal
cord ends and it continues on as this collection of spinal nerves through the vertebral canal. Cauda
equina is formed by Anterior & posterior roots of spinal nerves bellow lumber segments. (Ref Snell
Review)

Option
anterior n posterior roots from S1-S2

Option
Anterior roots of S1-S4

Option
Posterior root of S1-S4

Option
Anterior roots of L5 & S1
M

Question
Digitalis effect on the heart and decrease the heart rate by decreasing?

Option
chronotropic effect
Answer:
By slowing down the conduction in the AV node and increasing its refractory period, digoxin can reduce
the ventricular rate. ... There is also evidence that digoxin increases vagal activity, thereby decreasing
heart rate by slowing depolarization of pacemaker cells in the AV node. This medicine is usually given to
patients with congestive heart failure or cardiomyopathy. ... For example, one kind of positive inotrope
called digoxin strengthens the force of the heartbeat by increasing the amount of calcium in the heart's
cells. (Calcium stimulates the heart to contract.)

Option
Bathmotrophic effect

Option
Bromotrophic effect

Option
ionotropic effect

Option
No effect
M

Question
The digitalis toxicity is caused by

Option
hypokalemia
Answer:
Digitalis toxicity is worsend by hypokalemia so diuretics causing hypokalemia worsen it further.

Option
hyperkalemia

Option
Hypomagnesemia

Option
Hypermagnesemia

Option
Hyponatremia
M

Question
epinephrine effect to increase heart rate by?

Option
inootropic effect

Option
Bathmotrophic effect

Option
Bromotrophic effect

Option
chronotropic effect
Answer:
The rate is increased by the positive chronotropic effect.

Option
No effect
M

Question
A lady has producing thick saliva, unusual as normal serum. which sympathetic receptor is responsible

Option
alpha 1

Option
alpha 1 & beta 1

Option
beta1 and alpha2
Option
beta 2
Answer:
stimulation of beta receptor decreases the production of serous salive thereby producing thick salive.

Option
M3
M

Question
During exercise blood flow through the exercising muscle is controlled by

Option
sympathetic

Option
local metabolites
Answer:
If metabolic activity in skeletal muscle increases as a result of strenuous exercise, the sympathetic
nervous system got activated blood flow to the muscle will increase proportionately to meet metabolic
demands.

Option
Parasympathetic

Option
Gluconeogenesis

Option
Both a & b
M

Question
Loss of parasympathetic to intestine will lead to

Option
Blocks peristalsis

Option
no effect on primary peristalsis
Answer:
As peristalsis is not controlled by parasympathetic rather by GIT's own enteric nervous system

Option
block secretions of the intestine

Option
Hypersecretion of glands
Option
None of the above
M

Question
Bleeding from peptic ulcer. which artery is involved

Option
Splenic artery

Option
right gastric

Option
pancreaticoduodenal

Option
Left marginal branches

Option
posterior gastro-duodenal
Answer:
The bleeding may be particularly severe from large, posterior duodenal ulcers which erode the
gastroduodenal artery and high, lesser curve gastric ulcers involving branches of the left gastric artery.
Edit Question
M

Question
Gastric cancer spread to which nodes

Option
Submucosal node

Option
right gastric

Option
left gastric

Option
Para-aortic

Option
celiac node
Answer:
Gastric cancers commonly metastasize to the perigastric lymph nodes, which ultimately drain into the
celiac nodes. ... Lymph node metastasis is present in 15% of patients diagnosed with early-stage gastric
cancer.
M

Question
Liver connected to the body by

Option
Arcuate Ligament

Option
Ligamentum flavum

Option
falciform ligament
Answer:
The falciform ligament is a ligament that attaches the liver to the anterior (ventral) body wall, and
separates the left lobe into lateral and medial segments.

Option
Ligamentum Teres

Option
coronary ligament
M

Question
The receptor for IgE present on

Option
basophils

Option
mast cells
Answer:
Mast cell Mediates allergic reaction in local tissues. Mast cells resemble basophils structurally and
functionally but are not the same cell type A. Can bind the Fc portion of IgE to the membrane. IgE
cross-links upon antigen binding, causing degranulation, which releases histamine, heparin, and
eosinophil chemotactic factors.

Option
eosinophils

Option
Platelets

Option
RBCs
M

Question
Bleeding time is prolonged due to

Option
Polycythemia

Option
vit.K overdose

Option
Anaphylaxis

Option
Rivaroxaban

Option
overdose of aspirin
Answer:
Asprin is anticoagulant & increases the bleeding time.
M

Question
Free radicals are destroyed by

Option
vit.K

Option
transferrin
Answer:
Transferrin Internalized by macrophages to sequester iron. Another main function is to remove the free
radicals.

Option
albumin

Option
Mast cells

Option
Interleukins
M

Question
Estrogen role
Option
Primary sexual characters

Option
the glandular proliferation of breast

Option
secondary sexual characteristics
Answer:
Roles of estrogen in female: Development of genitalia and breast, female fat distribution growth of the
follicle, endometrial proliferation, • myometrial excitability and development of secondary sexual
characters.

Option
Both A & C

Option
Hair growth
M

Question
The most potent anabolic hormone

Option
testosterone

Option
progesterone

Option
Estrogen

Option
Erythropoitin

Option
Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
Answer:
Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), also known as androstenolone, is an endogenous steroid hormone. It
is one of the most abundant circulating steroids in humans, in whom it is produced in the adrenal
glands, the gonads, and the brain, where it functions as a metabolic intermediate in the biosynthesis of
the androgen and estrogen sex steroids.
Potency: DHT > testosterone > androstenedione ( 1st Aid Step 1)
M

Question
which cells are increased in asthma?
Option
Lymphocytes

Option
basophils

Option
cytotoxic t cells

Option
Mast cells

Option
eosinophils
Answer:
Bronchial hyperresponsiveness causes reversible bronchoconstriction. Smooth muscle hypertrophy, and
eosinophilia.
M

Question
Mediators of inflammation are

Option
histamine

Option
prostaglandins
Answer:
There are many contributors to the inflammatory process, and prostaglandins are one of the more
significant ones. Prostaglandins are one of the more potent mediators that cause increased blood flow,
chemotaxis (chemical signals that summon white blood cells), and subsequent dysfunction of tissues
and organs.Prostaglandins, that are produced due to inflammation by cellular injury & released by
membrane phospholipids.

Option
Serotonin

Option
Steroids

Option
Bradykinin
M

Question
How to know that patient is on warfarin, not on heparin
Option
monitoring APTT

Option
monitoring Bleeding time

Option
Monitoring PT/INR only
Answer:
The clotting test used to measure the effect of warfarin is the prothrombin time (called pro time, or PT).
The PT is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for a clot to form. It is measured in seconds. It
is particularly sensitive to the clotting factors affected by warfarin.while APTT monitors heparin.

Option
Clotting time

Option
monitoring platelets
M

Question
Which patient having Non Caseating granuloma

Option
TB

Option
sarcoidosis
Answer:
Caseating is for TB.

Option
Silicosis

Option
Asbestosis

Option
Syphilis
M

Question
Patient has pale infarct due to which type of ischemia

Option
Venous infarct

Option
hyperemia

Option
Arterial infarct
Answer:
Anemic infarcts are pale infarcts caused by arterial occlusions and are usually seen in the heart, kidney,
and spleen. These are referred to as "white" because of the lack of hemorrhaging and limited red blood
cells accumulation, (compare to Hemorrhagic infarct). The tissues most likely to be affected are solid.

Option
Thrombotic

Option
Any of the above
M

Question
A man presented with hemorrhage with a history of RTA. CBC shows

Option
normocytic normochromic anemia
Answer:
Recent/ Acute blood loss does not cause RBCs changes.

Option
normocytic hypochromic

Option
hypochromic hypocytic

Option
hypocytic normochromic

Option
Normocytic hyperchromic
M

Question
A newborn baby was cyanotic, what is cause

Option
teratology of Fallot

Option
VSD

Option
ASD
Option
transposition of great vessels
Answer:
This presents with early cyanosis Not compatible with life unless a shunt is present to allow mixing of
blood (e.g., VSD, PDA, or patent foramen ovale).

Option
pulmonary stenosis
M

Question
Pre-mature baby will develop

Option
PDA
Answer:
PDA is normal in utero and normally closes only after birth and Prematurity causes ductus arteriosis to
not close normally.

Option
ASD

Option
VSD

Option
TOF

Option
transposition of great vessels
M

Question
Benzodiazepines mechanism of action

Option
will facilitate GABA receptor
Answer:
Facilitate GABA action by increasing the frequency of Cl- channel opening.

Option
inhibit GABA receptor

Option
activate acetylcholine receptors

Option
Both A & C

Option
None of the above
M

Question
A Student in exam starts hyperventilation, tachycardia, profuse sweating. he becomes better after
breathing in a bag. If u take a sample with attack you will have

Option
Decreased PH

Option
increased PH, decreasedPCO2
Answer:
Hyperventilation causes wash out of CO² & hence increases PH.

Option
decreased PH, increasedP02

Option
Increased pCO2

Option
increased pO2
M

Question
Lateral to pituitary gland is

Option
Insula

Option
Pituitary fossa

Option
Hypothalamus

Option
Brocas area

Option
cavernous sinus
Answer:
Superiorly: The diaphragma sellae and the optic chiasma. • Inferiorly: The body of the sphenoid and the
sphenoid sinus• Laterally: The cavernous sinus and its contents (the internal carotid artery and the
abducent nerve).
M

Question
A Lady with tall height and galactorrhea. CT shows enlarged pituitary. This shows

Option
astrocytoma

Option
granuloma

Option
eosinophilic granules
Answer:
Staining is usually acidophilic (acidophilic adenoma is an older name for this tumor).

Option
Ependymoma

Option
None of the above
M

Question
Regarding epididymus all of the following is true EXCEPT:

Option
Lies in scrotum

Option
Covered partly by tunica vaginalis

Option
Can be palpated easily

Option
Supplied by the artery to vas deferens
Answer:
Epididymus is supplied by a branch of the testicular artery.

Option
Lies posterior to testes

M
Question
Which of the following is a tumor suppressor gene

Option
RAS

Option
BCL2

Option
p53
Answer:
p53, also known as TP53 or tumor protein is a gene that codes for a protein that regulates the cell cycle
and hence functions as a tumor suppression.

Option
AFP

Option
CMP
M

Question
CSF absorbed by

Option
Arachnoid vill
Answer:
The circulation of CSF is aided by the pulsations of the choroid plexus and by the motion of the cilia of
ependymal cells. CSF is absorbed across the arachnoid villi into the venous circulation and a significant
amount probably also drains into lymphatic vessels around the cranial cavity and spinal canal.

Option
Choroid plexus

Option
Ventricles

Option
Spinal arteries

Option
Ependymal cells
M

Question
Unloading of oxygen in tissues

Option
Decreases with an increase in temperature

Option
Decreases with an increase in 2,3 DPG

Option
Decreases with increased ph
Answer:
The Bohr Effect allows for enhanced unloading of oxygen in metabolically active peripheral tissues such
as exercising skeletal muscle. Increased skeletal muscle activity results in localized increases in the
partial pressure of carbon dioxide which in turn reduces the local blood pH. Hence decrease ph,
decrease affinity, increase unloading. While increased ph, increase affinity, decrease unloading.

Option
Decreases with exercise

Option
Decreases with high altitude
M

Question
A 40-year-old male is diagnosed to have Hodgkin lymphoma now presented to ER with fever, neck
stiffness. which organism is responsible for these symptoms

Option
CMV

Option
Cryptococcus neoformans
Answer:
As the patient is having Hodgkin lymphoma, he is immunodeficient and more prone to opportunistic
infection. So the cause of meningitis is Cryptococcus neoformans.

Option
HIV
Option
Candida albicans

Option
Histoplasma
M

Question
The most common infection in a person suffering from AIDS is caused by

Option
Toxoplasma gondi

Option
Pneumocystis carini
Answer:
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PJP), formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), is the
most common opportunistic infection in persons with HIV infection.

Option
Cryptococcus neoformans

Option
Candida albicans

Option
Histoplasma
M

Question
A 90-year-old lady died, her heart biopsy shows

Option
Coagulative necrosis

Option
Autophagy

Option
Increased mitochondria
Option
Lipofuscin
Answer:
Lipofuscin is the end-product of intracellular lipid peroxidation and the accumulation results from the
cellular metabolism during aging (life stage).

Option
None of the above
M

Question
Non-ciliated cells in respiratory bronchiole producing surfactant are

Option
Clara cells

Option
Pneumocytes type 1

Option
Pneumocytes type 2
Answer:
The alveoli are, in fact, lined with two types of cells termed the type 1 and type 2 pneumocytes: Type 1
pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the gas (oxygen and carbon dioxide) exchange that takes place in
the alveoli. It is a very large thin cell stretched over a very large area. Type II alveolar cells cover a small
fraction of the alveolar surface area. Their function is of major importance in the secretion of pulmonary
surfactant, which decreases the surface tension within the alveoli.

Option
Mucous cells

Option
Alveoli

Question
A person was treated for carcinoma. which mechanism of action was involved in this situation?

Option
Apoptosis
Answer:
Damage to DNA can render a cell useless, or even harmful to an organism. Apoptosis, or programmed
cell death, evolved as a rapid and irreversible process to efficiently eliminate dysfunctional cells. A
hallmark of cancer is the ability of malignant cells to evade apoptosis. The goal of cancer therapy is to
promote the death of cancer cells without causing too much damage to normal cells.

Option
Necrosis

Option
Oxidative stress

Option
Target killing

Option
All of the above

Question
The pulp of tooth got infected filled with the material now shows:

Option
Chronic inflammation

Option
Acute inflammation

Option
Pulp vessels filled with material
Answer:
When the pulp is damaged, it breaks down, and bacteria begin to multiply within the pulp chamber. The
bacteria and other dying pulp remnants can cause an infection or abscessed tooth. An abscess is a pus-
filled pocket that forms at the end of a tooth's root.

Option
Pulp nerve inflamed
Option
None of the above
M

Question
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is caused by?

Option
Hbv

Option
CMV

Option
HPV

Option
HIV
Answer:
Mention Reason Here

Option
EBV
Answer:
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) is caused by a combination of factors: viral, environmental influences,
and heredity. The viral influence is associated with infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).

Question
Blood supply of heart:

Option
Septal artery

Option
Atrial artery

Option
2 coronary arteries
Answer:
2 coronary arteries, right and left supply whole of the heart via their branches.

Option
Interventricular artery
Option
external and internal carotid artery
M
Question
what occurs at the plateau of the action potential in the heart?

Option
Na influx

Option
Calcium influx
Answer:
In phase 2, also known as the plateau phase, the efflux of K+ and the influx of Ca2+ are counterbalanced.
At the end of the plateau, sustained repolarization occurs due to K+ efflux via the delayed rectifier K+
channels exceeding Ca2+ influx; this constitutes phase 3 of the action potential.

Option
K influx

Option
Na outflux

Option
Calcium outflux
M

Question
Metformin is better over other antidiabetics as:

Option
Should not be given with sulphonylurea

Option
Cause body to utilize fats

Option
Do not cause hypoglycemia
Answer:
Metformin lowers the amount of sugar in your blood by helping your body respond better to its own
insulin. Metformin does not cause your body to produce more insulin. Therefore, Metformin rarely
causes hypoglycemia and it doesn't usually cause weight gain.
Option
No adverse effects in git

Option
should be given to obese
M

Question
A patient climbed a peak with a heavy bag on his shoulders.after that he developed loss of abduction of
the arm with loss of flexion at elbow and loss of extension at wrist.most likely damage occurs to?

Option
Axillary nerve

Option
Musculocutaneous nerve

Option
Radial nerve

Option
Ulnar

Option
A, b and c are correct
Answer:
This is a scenario of axillary nerve(abductors), musculocutaneous nerve (flexors) and radial nerve
(extensors) involvement.
M

Question
A farmer presented with right lower lobe mass 3.4 cm in size. The most common cause is:

Option
Hydatid cyst

Option
Histoplasmosis

Option
Tb

Option
Aspergillosis
Answer:
Aspergillosis is an infection or allergic reaction caused by the Aspergillus fungus which commonly grows
on rotting vegetation. Some people with asthma are allergic to Aspergillus and develop allergic
bronchopulmonary aspergillosis.

Option
Candida
M

Question
Antihypertensive drug that cause hypoglycemia is:

Option
Methyldopa

Option
Propanalol
Answer:
Effect of propranolol on delayed glucose recovery after insulin-induced hypoglycemia in normal and
diabetic s. ... This delay was caused by a 70% reduction in the rebound glucose output, which was
responsible for posthypoglycemic recovery.

Option
Hydralazine

Option
Thiazides

Option
Verapamil
M

Question
A patient comes to you with generalized lymphadenopathy. He is HIV positive,.on which lab will you
decide future treatment plan for him?

Option
Th 1

Option
Cd 4 count
Answer:
These are the cells that the HIV virus kills. As HIV infection progresses, the number of these cells
declines. When the CD4 count drops below 200 due to advanced HIV disease, a person is diagnosed with
AIDS. A normal range of CD4 cells is about 500-1,500.

Option
Cd 4 cd 8 ratio

Option
Cd 8

Option
Cd 19

Question
The middle ear air composition?

Option
N 90% O2 80 % CO2 21%

Option
N 79% O2 0% CO2 0%

Option
N 79% O2 21% CO2 0
Answer:
Middle ear air composition is N 79%,O2 21%,CO2 0.

Option
N 0% O2 79% CO2 21%

Option
N 79% O2 0% CO2 0%

Question
During surgery of ulcer in the second part of the duodenum, which artery will you locate?

Option
Right gastric

Option
Left gastric

Option
Short gastric

Option
Gastroduodenal
Answer:
The duodenum receives arterial blood from two different sources.Proximal to the 2nd part of the
duodenum (approximately at the major duodenal papilla – where the bile duct enters) the arterial
supply is from the gastroduodenal artery and its branch the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

Option
Splenic

Question
Right Gastric artery is a branch of:

Option
Splenic artery

Option
Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery

Option
Superior mesenteric artery

Option
Celiac artery

Option
Hepatic artery
Answer:
The right gastric artery arises above the pylorus from the proper hepatic artery or less frequently from
the common hepatic artery. the left gastric artery arises from the celiac artery and runs along the
superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach.

M
Question
Which lung lobe has 3 segments in it?

Option
Right lower

Option
Right middle

Option
Right upper
Answer:
There are 10 bronchopulmonary segments in the right lung: three in the superior lobe, two in the middle
lobe, and five in the inferior lobe. Some of the segments may fuse in the left lung to form usually 8-9
segments (4–5 in the upper lobe and 4–5 in the lower lobe).

Option
Left upper

Option
left lower

Question
An 18-year-old female presented to the gynecologist for primary amenorrhea. On ultrasound
examination, there were no ovaries and uterus.

Option
Adrenogenital syndrome

Option
Androgen insensitivity

Option
True hermaphrodite

Option
The defect of the paramesonephric duct
Answer:
Paramesonephric ducts (or Müllerian ducts) are paired ducts of the embryo that run down the lateral
sides of the urogenital ridge and terminate at the sinus tubercle in the primitive urogenital sinus. In the
female, they will develop to form the uterine tubes, uterus,cervix, and the upper one-third of the
vagina;in the male, they are lost. These ducts are made of tissue of mesodermal origin.

Option
Hormonal imbalance

Question
Man having trauma with a sharp object after few started having bulging mass in the supraclavicular
region with sneezing.the cause is:

Option
Damage to cervical ligament

Option
Damage to pleura

Option
Damage to suprapleural membrane
Answer:
Herniation of the cervical fascia may result due to the injury of suprapleural membrane.It refers to a
thickening of connective tissue that covers the apex of each human lung. It is an extension of the
endothoracic fascia that exists between the parietal pleura and the thoracic cage.

Option
Cervical pleura injury

Option
None of the above

Question
The deep tissue bleeding occurs in:

Option
Thalassemia minor

Option
Hemophilia
Answer:
Bleeding into the soft tissues is a common occurrence in the hemophilias. The clinical spectrum ranges
from subcutaneous ecchymosis to intramuscular hematomas to compartment syndromes with
subsequent neurovascular compromise. In contrast to platelet disorders in which ecchymosis occurs
spontaneously, these lesions usually follow trauma in hemophilia.

Option
Thalassemia major

Option
Vwd

Option
Purpura

Question
A young girl having a bleeding problem with her brother suffering from the same problem.lab
investigations reveal increased BT, normal PT, raised Aptt and normal platelets.which deficiency is most
likely?

Option
Vwd
Answer:
This is a scenario of von Willebrand factor deficiency in which pt remains normal but apptt and bleeding
time increases.

Option
Factor 8

Option
Hageman

Option
Factor 12

Option
Platelets

Question
Middle cerebral artery supplies:

Option
Insula over opercula

Option
Medial side of the middle lobe

Option
Orbital part of the frontal lobe

Option
Medial and inferior temporal lobe

Option
Lateral surface if temporal lobe
Answer:
The middle cerebral artery is the largest branch of the internal carotid. The artery supplies a portion of
the frontal lobe and the lateral surface of the temporal and parietal lobes, including the primary motor
and sensory areas of the face, throat, hand, and arm, and in the dominant hemisphere, the areas for
speech.

Question
Left ventricle is formed by:

Option
Bulbous cordis
Answer:
The bulbus cordis (the bulb of the heart) lies ventral to the primitive ventricle after the developing heart
assumes its S-shaped form. Together, the bulbus cordis and the primitive ventricle give rise to the
ventricles of the formed heart. The superior end of the bulbus cordis is also called the conotruncus.

Option
Pulmonary vein

Option
Right conus

Option
Left conus

Option
None of the above
M

Question
The epicardium is supplied by:

Option
Pericardiophrenic artery

Option
External Thoracic artery

Option
Arch of aorta

Option
Coronary artery
Answer:
Coronary vessels supplying arterial blood to the heart penetrate the epicardium before entering the
myocardium. This outer layer, or visceral pericardium, consists of a surface of flattened
epithelial(covering) cells resting upon connective tissue.

Option
Subclavian artery
M

Question
Blood supply of heart depends upon:

Option
Co2 levels

Option
Oxygen requirement
Answer:
Coronary blood flow is regulated almost in the exact proportion of oxygen demand for the cardiac
muscle. If the heart needs more oxygen, then coronary blood flow must be increased. If there is a
decrease in oxygen supply to the heart it is speculated that the heart causes vasodilator substances from
the muscle cells to be released so the arterioles dilate. It is thought one of these substances is
Adenosine, which is a good vasodilator.

Option
Hormones
Option
Neurotransmitters

Option
Sympathetic supply

Question
ANP causes:

Option
Decrease Aldosterone

Option
Renal vasodilation
Answer:
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a peptide hormone which reduces an expanded extracellular fluid
(ECF) volume by increasing renal sodium excretion via renal vasodilation. ANP is synthesized and
secreted by cardiac muscle cells in the walls of the atria in the heart.

Option
Renal vasoconstriction

Option
Peripheral vasodilatation

Option
Peripheral vasoconstriction

Question
Extensive first-pass effect

Option
Nitroglycerin
Answer:
Nitroglycerin is very liposoluble and is readily transported through membranes. Therefore, nitroglycerin
is totally absorbed by the intestinal mucosa but undergoes a massive hepatic first-pass effect, rendering
its oral bioavailability negligible.
Option
Paracetamol

Option
Ibuprofen

Option
None of these
M

Question
A hypnotic agent that act on melatonin receptor and causes sleep is:

Option
Ramelteon
Answer:
Ramelteon is the first of a novel class of therapeutics, the melatonin agonists, to be approved for the
treatment of insomnia. Unlike other sedative-hypnotics, which act on the benzodiazepine receptors,
ramelteon acts on melatonin receptors MT1 and MT2, promoting sleep and affecting circadian
mechanisms.

Option
lorazepam

Option
Phenobarbital

Option
Midazolam

Option
Diazepam
M

Question
About ADH true is:

Option
Acts on nucleolus

Option
Acts on nucleus

Option
Acts on membrane receptors
Answer:
ADH acts on receptors in the basolateral membrane of cells in the cortical and medullary collecting
tubules and not on the apical (or luminal) membrane.

Option
Causes diuresis

Option
Released from anterior pituitary
M

Question
About pneumotaxic centre true is:

Option
Causes expiration

Option
Maintains inspiratory rhythm
Answer:
A neural center in the upper part of the pons that provides inhibitory impulses on inspiration and
thereby prevents overdistension of the lungs and helps to maintain alternately recurrent inspiration and
expiration.

Option
Causes cessation of respiration

Option
Causes apnea

Option
Maintains expiration
M

Question
Decrease oxygen tension in blood is due to:

Option
CO poisoning

Option
Hypoventilation
Answer:
Decrease oxygen entry leads to decreased pO2.

Option
Anemia

Option
Polycythemia

Option
None of the above
M

Question
Regarding defecation reflex:

Option
Parasympathetic reflex

Option
Anorectal reflex

Option
Myenteric reflex

Option
Rectoanal reflex
Answer:
The inhibition of internal anal sphincter tone by rectal distension is called the rectoanal inhibitory reflex.
It is mediated by intrinsic neural pathways in the wall of the rectum and anus, mediated by VIP and NO.
Distension of the rectum provides the initial sensory stimulation for defecation.

Option
Mass reflex
M

Question
Arterial thrombi are most likely due to:
Option
Left ventricle mural thrombi

Option
Right atrial mural thrombi

Option
Systemic venous thrombi

Option
Portal venous thrombi

Option
Left atrium mural thrombi
Answer:
Arterial occlusion occurs as a consequence of embolism of blood clots originating from the heart
("cardiogenic" emboli). The most common cause is atrial fibrillation, which causes a blood stasis within
the atria with easy thrombus formation.
M

Question
Pericytes surround:

Option
Capillaries/ small vessels
Answer:
Pericytes are contractile cells that wrap around the endothelial cells that line the capillaries and venules
throughout the body.

Option
Large arteries

Option
Large veins

Option
Venules

Option
Arterioles
M
Question
Middle thyroid vein drains into:

Option
External jugular vein

Option
Internal jugular
Answer:
The superior and middle thyroid veins serve as direct tributaries to the internal jugular vein, the inferior
thyroid veins drain directly to the brachiocephalic veins.

Option
Inferior thyroid vein

Option
Superior thyroid vein

Option
Subclavian vein
Programs
M

Question
A patient with lung carcinoma is having a dilute plasma, the cause most probably is:

Option
Acth

Option
Liver mets

Option
Aldosterone

Option
Addison's

Option
SIADH
Answer:
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is often associated with cancer. Approximately
67% ofSIADH cases are reported to be caused by cancer, the majority of which (70%) are linked to small
cell carcinoma of the lung.
M

Question
Colon cancer marker is:

Option
AFP

Option
CEA
Answer:
Markers found in the blood: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level is the tumor marker most often used
in colorectal cancer. CA 19-9 is a blood marker that may be elevated in colorectal cancer.

Option
BRCA

Option
ACH

Option
CALCITONIN
M

Question
pericarditis due to scurvy is:

Option
Fibrinoid

Option
Serous

Option
Mixed

Option
Chylopericardium

Option
Hemopericardium
Answer:
Heart complications include cardiac enlargement, electrocardiographic (ECG) changes (reversible ST-
segment and T-wave changes), hemopericardium, and sudden death. Bleeding into the myocardium and
pericardial space has been reported. High-output heart failure due to anemia can be observed.
M

Question
Role of hippocampus is:

Option
Recent memory

Option
Long-term memory
Answer:
The hippocampus is associated mainly with memory, in particular, long-term memory. The organ also
plays an important role in spatial navigation.145. poor recall.

Option
Hunger

Option
Satiety

Option
Dreams
M

Question
Internal carotid artery in relation to external carotid artery at its origin from common carotid artery lies:

Option
Anterolateral

Option
Medial

Option
Anteromedial

Option
Posterolateral
Answer:
The internal carotid artery (ICA) usually lies posterolaterally to the external carotid artery(ECA) beyond
the carotid bifurcation.

Option
Posterior
M

Question
Pressure and vibration is sensed by:

Option
Ruffini

Option
Merkels

Option
Free nerve endings

Option
Paccinian
Answer:
Lamellar corpuscles, or Pacinian corpuscles, are one of the four major types of mechanoreceptor cell in
the glabrous mammalian skin. They are nerve endings in the skin responsible for sensitivity to vibration
and pressure.

Option
C fibers
M

Question
Conversion of osteocytes to chondrocytes is done by:

Option
Cortisol

Option
Somatotrophs
Answer:
Growth hormone or somatotropins cause increased deposition of proteins by chondrocytes and
osteoblasts, increased reproduction of chondrocytes and osteoblasts and conversion of chondrocytes
into osteocytes.
Option
Epinephrine

Option
Prolactin

Option
Thyroxine
M

Question
Root value of thoracic splanchnic nerve in renal and suprarenal plexus?

Option
T5 – L1
Answer:
Root value of thoracic splanchnic nerves in renal and suprarenal plexus comprise of T5 to L1.

Option
T5- t9

Option
T1- t2

Option
T1 – t3

Option
T3 and t4
M

Question
No p wave on ECG, rhythm originate from:

Option
SA node

Option
Av node

Option
Purkinje fibers

Option
Atrium

Option
Ventricles
Answer:
If the ventricular escape rhythm is the result of sinus node failure, no P wave of atrial contraction is
seen. As beats originate from ventricles and p wave indicate atrial contraction.
M

Question
Wide QRS complex is caused by:

Option
Mi

Option
Angina

Option
Wolf Parkinson White syndrome
Answer:
Although the ECG morphology varies widely, the classic ECG features in wolf Parkinson white syndrome
are as follows. A shortened PR interval, a slurring and the slow rise of the initial upstroke of the QRS
complex (delta wave) and a widened QRS complex.

Option
Hypokalemia

Option
Stemi
M

Question
PR interval in ECG corresponds to jugular pulse as:

Option
a_c interval
Answer:
PR interval can be estimated- the interval between a wave & carotid pulse(C). Increased a-C, indicates
prolonged PR.

Option
X decent

Option
Y descent

Option
Av interval

Option
Z descent
M

Question
Uterus becomes more sensitive to one of the following hormones during late pregnancy:

Option
Progesterone

Option
Oxytocin
Answer:
Oxytocin is present throughout pregnancy, but the uterus becomes more sensitive to it as you get
further along. Once the cervix is ripe and your baby's close to making a debut, oxytocin starts up uterine
contractions.

Option
Thyroxine

Option
Growth hormone

Option
Somatomedins
M

Question
If arterial pCO2 is increased what will occur?
Option
Increase HCO3- secretion
Answer:
increase in pCO2 will cause respiratory acidosis to compensate it there will be increase in HCO3.

Option
Increased red cell mass

Option
Decreased chloride movement in RBC

Option
Decreased red cell size

Option
No change
M

Question
Change in cell shape , architecture and polarity is known as:

Option
Metaplasia

Option
Dysplasia
Answer:
Change in cell shape, architecture and polarity are known as dysplasia. Dysplasia is a pathological term
used to refer to an irregularity that hinders cell maturation within a particular tissue whereas Metaplasia
is the process of the reversible substitution of a distinct kind of cell with another mature cell of the
similar distinct kind.

Option
Atrophy

Option
Hypertrophy

Option
Apoptosis
M
Question
What is true regarding malignant tumor?

Option
Mitotic figures

Option
Increase N C ratio

Option
Pleomorphism
Answer:
Pleomorphism is a term used in histology and cytopathology to describe variability in the size, shape,
and staining of cells and/or their nuclei. It is a feature characteristic of malignant neoplasms, and
dysplasia.

Option
Decrease N C ratio

Option
Myelin bodies
M

Question
Thirst is stimulated in hypothalamus by:

Option
Aldosterone

Option
Angiotensin 1

Option
Angiotensin 2
Answer:
Angiotensin (ANG) II is a powerful and stimulus to thirst and sodium appetite. When it is injected directly
into sensitive areas of the brain, it causes an immediate increase in water intake followed by a slower
increase in NaCl intake. Drinking is vigorous, highly motivated, and rapidly completed.

Option
ADH

Option
ANP
M
Question
During an emergency, surgery measures should be taken to prevent thyroid storm associated
tachycardia. which drug should be given?

Option
Labetolol

Option
Propanalol

Option
Verapamil

Option
I/v esmolol
Answer:
Esmolol is an intravenous, short-acting, titratable, cardioselective beta blocker with a very rapid onset
and offset of action that’s why used in acute situations.

Option
Ace inhibitors
M

Question
Sympathetic cholinergic supply causes?

Option
Decrease cardiac contractility

Option
The decrease in pupil size

Option
Vasodilation in skeletal muscles
Answer:
Sympathetic cholinergic causes release of acetylcholine which causes vasodilation in skeletal muscles.

Option
Decrease heart rate

Option
Peripheral vasoconstriction
M

Question
Anesthesia is given with halothane, now patient temperature increases to 105, the cause is:

Option
IL1 increased

Option
Increased temp threshold in the hypothalamus

Option
Increased heat production by skeletal muscles
Answer:
The halothane-induced the release of stored calcium ions within the muscle cells.The resulting increase
in calcium concentrations within the cells causes the muscle fibers to contract. This generates excessive
heat and results in metabolic acidosis. Malignant Hyperthermia.

Option
Increased activity of the heart

Option
The increase of room temperature
M

Question
A person was injured in RTA, presented to you in ER with bleeding from the site of injury. His bp was
low. When he stands up from supine position heart rate is increased. This increase is due to:

Option
Decrease venous return
Answer:
After standing from a supine position, heart rate is increased due to decreased venous return which is
due to venous pulling to maintain blood pressure.

Option
Increased venous return

Option
Increased EDV
Option
Increased cardiac output

Option
Increased Diastole
M

Question
The most probable Sign of water intoxication?

Option
Slow pulse
Answer:
Signs of water intoxication includes slow pulse,drowsiness,blurring of vision ,termors etc

Option
Frequent urination

Option
Pulmonary edema

Option
Coma

Option
Death
M

Question
Complement activation system is done by?

Option
Exotoxins

Option
Chemotoxins

Option
Radiotoxins

Option
Endotoxin
Answer:
Endotoxins are lipopolysacchrides containing O antigen. Lipopolysaccharides induce a strong response
from the normal human immune system, which activates the complement system.

Option
Mast cells
M

Question
The following is true regarding intestinal peristalsis?

Option
Is activated by cck

Option
Controlled by intrinsic innervation
Answer:
both B and C options are correct with B as the preferred option.

Option
Involves contraction of smooth muscles, arranged in two layers, circular and longitudinal

Option
Require an intact messieners c nerve plexus

Option
Is under voluntary control
M

Question
Condition-related to lymphatics?

Option
Angiosarcoma

Option
Rhabdomyosarcoma

Option
Cystic hygroma
Answer:
Cystic hygroma is a congenital tumor, related to lymphatic. Macrocystis lymphatics malformation.
Option
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Option
laryngeal carcinoma
M

Question
A chronic smoker and psychiatric patient is having treatment presented with pain abdomen and visible
peristalsis and audible sounds on examination?

Option
Psychogenic

Option
Stomach CA

Option
Pyloric stenosis
Answer:
Smoking is the risk factor for pyloric stenosis. Pyloric stenosis causes visible peristalsis.

Option
Intestinal obstruction

Option
Acute Appendicitis
M

Question
Incisura in cardiac cycle is due to:

Option
Aortic valve closure
Answer:
Valve closure is associated with a small backflow of blood into the ventricles and a characteristic notch
which is called incisura. Due to aortic valve closure.

Option
Pulmonary valve closure
Option
Aortic valve opening

Option
Pulmonary valve opening

Option
Mitral stenosis
M

Question
A smoker with FEV1/FVC <70 having sign and symptoms of emphysema:

Option
Chronic bronchitis

Option
COPD
Answer:
COPD diagnostic criteria,Stage 1... FEV1/FVC<70.

Option
Pulmonary edema

Option
Pleural effusion

Option
Fibrosis
M

Question
CSF enters in subarachnoid space through cisterna magendie, that is present in:

Option
Lateral part of the 4th ventricle

Option
The medial part of the 4th ventricle
Answer:
There are two parts of the 4th ventricle. Csf enters in subarachnoid space through cisterna magendie
which is the medial part of the 4th ventricle.
Option
3rd ventricle

Option
Lateral ventricle

Option
Anterior part of the 4th ventricle
M

Question
Variance is related to:

Option
Variability

Option
Square of standard deviation
Answer:
Square of standard deviation is called variance.

Option
Range

Option
Median

Option
None of these
M

Question
Regarding general visceral afferants true is:

Option
(b) From CNS to viscera

Option
From tongue to tractus solitarus

Option
From skeletal muscles to CNS

Option
From extraocular muscles to CNS

Option
From viscera to CNS
Answer:
General visceral afferent fibers conduct sensory impulses from the internal organ, glands, and blood
vessels to the central nervous system.
Programs
M

Question
Cytokeratin is made of?

Option
Glycoproteins

Option
Intermediate filaments
Answer:
Cytokeratins are keratin proteins found in the intracytoplasmic cytoskeleton of epithelial tissue. They
are an important component of intermediate filaments.

Option
Microtubules

Option
Microfilaments

Option
Myosin
Edit Question
M

Question
Ganglion present at the level of c-7:

Option
Pterygopalatine
Option
Submandibular

Option
Vertebral

Option
Cervicothoracic
Answer:
Crvicothoracic ganglion is also called stellate ganglion. Located at the level of c7 and to the transverse
process of c7 and the neck of the first rib.

Option
Thoracic
M

Question
Most characteristic finding in TB is:

Option
Non-caseating granuloma

Option
Increased macrophages

Option
Chancre

Option
Caseating granuloma
Answer:
Caseating granuloma is found in TB, Leprosy, histoplasmosis, sarcoidosis and rheumatic fever.

Option
Menegitis
M

Question
Final common motor pathway:

Option
Corticospinal tract
Option
Alpha motor neurons
Answer:
Alpha motor neurons are also called lower motor neurons which are large, multipolar neurons of the
brain and spinal cord. Which initiates the skeletal muscle contraction.

Option
Alpha motor neurons

Option
Beta motor neurons

Option
Gamma motor neurons
M

Question
After ovulation what happens to follicle?

Option
Corpus luteum
Answer:
After ovulation, the follicular walls and theca folliculi collapse and become folded and under LH
influence develop into the corpus luteum.

Option
Hemorrhagic

Option
Corpus Albicans

Option
Corpus collosum

Option
Theca externa
M

Question
A patient with ATT having visual problems. The causative drug is:
Option
Isoniazid

Option
ethambutol
Answer:
Side effects of ethambutol: Optic neuritis, pruritis, rash, vomiting.

Option
Pyrazinamide

Option
Streptomycin

Option
Rifampicin