AERODYNAMICS 2 EXAM #4

1) What factor must be maximized for an airplane to fly a maximum angle of climb profile?

a) Thrust required (Tr)

b) Thrust excess (Te)
c) Power excess (Pe)
d) Angle of attack (AOA)

2) Which of the following is true for a jet fling a max endurance angle of attack and maintaining a constant altitude?

a) Thrust required is a minimum

b) A headwind will increase endurance
c) CL is maximum
d) YX is maximum

3) What is the effect, if any, of an increase in cruise altitude (from sea level to 15,000 feet) on the maximum range of
an airplane?

a) Max range increases

b) Max range decrease
c) Max range will not change

4) What change in maximum fixed pitch propeller thrust available occurs with an increase in true airspeed at a
constant altitude?

a) Propeller thrust available increases due to an increase in propeller efficiency at higher velocities
b) Propeller thrust available decreases due to a decrease in propeller efficiency at higher velocities
c) Propeller thrust available will remain relatively constant

5) A propeller airplane executing a maximum glide range profile stabilizes at 95 KTAS. If the pilot decides to slow
to 90 KTAS by increasing AOA, what will be the affect on the glide path angle?

a) The glide path angle will be steeper

b) The glide path angle will be more shallow
c) The glide path angle will not be affected

6) What causes the region of reverse command?

a) Increase of parasite drag with increased velocities

b) Increase of induced drag with decreased velocities
c) Decrease of wingtip vortices with higher angle of attack
d) Increase of the lift to drag ratio with decreasing velocities

7) The AOA where the lift to drag ratio is maximum is the AOA for:

a) Max range for a prop

b) Max range for a jet
c) Max endurance for a prop
d) Max lift and minimum drag

8) The difference between turboprop thrust available and thrust required (Ta - Tr) determines thrust excess. Thrust
excess:

a) Goes to zero at the maximum level of flight

b) Is at a maximum at a velocity less than L/D max
 c) Is at a maximum at an AOA greater than L/D max
d) All of the above

9) Increasing weight in a prop driven aircraft will:

a) Result in an increase in the TAS and decrease in the angle of attack for maximum range
b) Result in a decrease of the TAS for maximum range
c) Have no effect on the TAS at which the aircraft will fly for maximum
d) Result in the aircraft flying at a greater TAS and the same AOA for maximum range

10) You are flying along at you max range airspeed in your trusty T-34c at 500 feet over the bay when suddenly the
engine stops. You should:

a) Establish a glide into the wind to increase your total time aloft
b) Glide for maximum range by maintaining your current AOA
c) Tell your instructor to jump out to reduce weight and increasing glide distance
d) Glide for maximum range by increasing your AOA

11) For an aircraft to glide at a constant angle of attack L/D max, as the aircraft is descending:

a) IAS must increase

b) TAS must increase
c) IAS must be constant
d) TAS must be constant

12) What control surface controls the pitching moment around the airplane's CG?

a) The ailerons on the trailing edge of the wing

b) The elevator on the trailing edge of the horizontal stabilizer
c) The spoilers on the upper surface of the wing
d) The rudder attached to the trailing edge of the vertical stabilizer

13) The right aileron trim tab of the T-34 is set by:

a) The pilot after takeoff

b) The manufacturer
c) Maintenance

14) The elevator trim is adjusted:

a) Down at slower speed and up at higher speed

b) Up at slower speed and down at higher speed

15) Mass balancing requires that weights be placed inside control surfaces of the T-34 in the aeras forward of the
hidgeline to locate the CG on the hindgeline.

a) True
b) False

16) A neutral trim tab is found on the T-34's:

a) Aileron
b) Rudder
c) Elevator
17) The bobweight on the T-34's elevator increases the force required to pull the stick _____ during maneuvering
flight.

a) Forward
b) Aft
c) Right
d) Left

18) The down-spring on the T-34's elevator increases the force required to pull the stick _____ at low airspeeds.

a) Forward
b) Aft
c) Right
d) Left

19) If an object does not have positive static stability, it cannot have positive dynamic stability.

a) True
b) False

20) Which of the following are positive contributors on longitudinal stability?

a) Wing sweep, horizontal stabilizer, neutral point location

b) Straight wings, wing sweep, fuselage
c) Neutral point location only

21) When an airplane yaws, its momentum keeps it moving along its original flight path for a short time. This is
called:

a) Slip angle
b) Sideslip
c) Sweep

22) There is an inverse relationship between tail size and moment arm length.

a) True
b) False

23) Directional divergence is caused by:

a) Positive directional static stability

b) Negative directional static stability
c) Neutral directional static stability

24) You are flying along and apply pressure to the rudder. You realize that your plane has begun to roll in the same
direction as it is yawing. What kind of roll are you experiencing?

a) Dutch roll
b) Proverse roll
c) Adverse yaw
d) Cinnamon roll

25) If the relative wind is below the thrust line, the down-going propeller blade on the _____ side creates more
thrust since it has a larger AOA with the relative wind. This will yaw the nose to the _____.

a) Right; right
 b) Left; left
c) Right; left
d) Left; right

26) A spin is:

a) An aggravated stall that results in autorotation

b) A roll and yaw that propagates itself
c) A rolling moment

27) The weight in the wing tanks causes a large portion of the weight of the airplane to be away from the CG. This
creates a large moment of inertia for the spin to overcome.

a) True
b) False

28) In a stall, the greater lift on the up-going wing results in:

a) A continued rolling motion of the airplane

b) A continued yawing motion of the airplane
c) Discontinued rolling motion of the airplane
d) Discontinued yawing motion of the airplane

29) The turn needle is the only reliable indicator of spin direction.

a) True
b) False

30) During spin recovery, a pilot should apply:

a) Full rudder in the same direction as the spin

b) Full rudder in the opposite direction of the spin
c) No rudder because it has no effect on stopping the spin

31) In a spin, if you apply opposite rudder but hold full back stick, you will:

a) Enter a progressive spin

b) Enter a flat spin
c) Enter an inverted spin
d) Buy the farm

32) Where is the maneuvering point depicted on the Vn diagram?

a) The point where the load factor scale and the velocity scale intersect
b) The point where the redline and the ultimate load factor intersect
c) The point where the accelerated stall line and the ultimate load factor intersect
d) The point where the accelerated stall line and the limit load factor line intersect

33) What precaution should be taken to ensure that the aircraft limit load will not be exceeded by turbulent air
during flight?

a) Operate the aircraft at redline airspeed

b) Operate the aircraft at maneuver airspeed
c) Operate the aircraft significantly below maneuver airspeed
d) Operate the aircraft at the minimum TAS required to maintain equilibrium level flight (Vmin)
34) Maximum allowable negative G's for the T-34c is:

a) -2.3
b) -2.7
c) -3.2

35) How, if at all, will the redline airspeed of a subsonic aircraft change?

a) It will decrease if the aircraft's gross weight increases

b) It decreases in the landing configuration
c) It increases as altitude increases
d) It never changes

36) At the t-34's maneuvering speed:

a) It is possible to pull twice the G limit before structural damage occurs

b) Turn radius is at its maximum
c) Structural damage would occur before a stall
d) None of the above

37) What is load factor?

a) Weight the wing must support for flight

b) Number of G's divided by the weight
c) Weight plus vertical load
d) Lift / weight

38) If you exceed the operating limits of your aircraft in flight, you should always:

a) Visually inspect the aircraft prior to landing

b) Inspect the aircraft for major damages upon landing
c) Report overstress and any resultant damage on the aircraft discrepancy report
d) All of the above

39) What parts of the Vg/Vn diagram will be affected by an increase in weight?

a) Accelerated stall lines, limit load and redline airspeed

b) Accelerated stall lines, IAS and redline airspeed
c) Accelerated stall lines, limit load and ultimate load
d) Wing changes have no affect on the Vg/Vn diagram

40) How much greater than the limit load factor is the ultimate load factor?

a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 2.0
d) 2.5

41) What is the relationship between structural strength and weight in aircraft design?

a) Additional weight requires additional aircraft structural strength

b) Additional weight does not require additional aircraft structural strength
c) Additional weight requires additional aircraft structural stress
d) Aircraft weight and structural strength are not related

42) What occurs in flight at G's above the lines of maximum lift capability?
 a) Overstress
b) Structural damage
c) Structural failure
d) Stall

43) What are the boundaries of the safe flight envelope?

a) Limit airspeed, limit load factor, maximum lift capability

b) Limit airspeed, ultimate load factor, maximum lift capability
c) Maneuver airspeed, limit load factor, maximum lift capability
d) Maneuver airspeed, ultimate load factor, maximum lift capability

44) Aerodynamic braking is the most _____ form of braking.

a) Effective
b) Fun
c) Efficient
d) Useless

45) What are the worst conditions for takeoff?

a) High, hot, light, humid

b) High, hot, heavy, dry
c) High, hot, heavy, humid
d) High, hot, light, dry

46) On landing, when an aircraft is within one wingspan of the ground, total lift is increased, thus causing the
aircraft to float down the runway.

a) True
b) False

47) What is the effect of an increase in weight on takeoff speed and why?

a) Takeoff speed decreases because a lower dynamic pressure is necessary to produce the lift needed to get
the airplane airborne
b) Takeoff speed decreases because a higher dynamic pressure is necessary to produce the lift needed to get
the airplane airborne
c) Takeoff speed increases because a higher dynamic pressure is necessary to produce the lift needed to get
the airplane airborne
d) Takeoff speed increases because a lower dynamic pressure is necessary to produce the lift needed to get
the airplane airborne

48) What factors determine the minimum landing distance for an aircraft with uniform deceleration?

a) Weight, velocity, thrust, drag, rolling friction

b) Weight, velocity, thrust, drag, pressure
c) Weight, velocity, thrust, acceleration

49) What change in the aircraft vertical lift force occurs in ground effect?

a) Effective lift increases

b) Vertical lift decreases
c) Vertical lift remains constant
50) What change in the aircraft total lift force occurs in ground effect?

a) Total lift increases

b) Total lift decreases
c) Total lift remains constant

KEY

1) b
2) a
3) a
4) b
5) a
6) b
7) a
8) d
9) d
10) b
11) d
12) b
13) c
14) b
15) a
16) c
17) b
18) b
19) a
20) a
21) b
22) a
23) b
24) b
25) c
26) a
27) a
28) a
29) b
30) a
31) d
32) b
33) a
34) a
35) b
36) d
37) d
38) d
39) c
40) b
41) a
42) d
43) a
44) c
45) c
46) a
47) c
48) a
49) a
50) c