Question: 1
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose
three.)
A - loopback interface
B - SVI interface
C - routed port
D - access port
E - EtherChannel port channel
F - BVI interface
Answer: B, C, E
Question: 2
Which three characteristics apply to IS-IS but not to OSPF? (Choose three.)
Answer: A, D, E
Question: 3
Which two statements are true about IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
Answer: B, E
Question: 4
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On
the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to
ping from host to host?
A - A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping
command to be successful.
B - The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be
successful.
C - A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful.
D - The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.
Answer: D
Question: 5
What are two routing protocols defined by the OSI protocol suite at the network layer? (Choose
two.)
Answer: D
Question: 6
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
Answer: C
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Question: 7
Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping?
(Choose two.)
A - IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously
on a switch.
B - IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help
Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own.
C - IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded
only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router.
D - IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches.
E - IGMP snooping is enabled with the ip multicast-routing global configuration command.
Answer: C, D
Question: 8
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC
address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port?
Answer: B
Question: 9
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. Switch Cat2 is receiving IGMP frames only on interface FastEthernet 0/3.
Given IGMP snooping, out of which port or ports will switch Cat2 forward multicast traffic?
A - all ports
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Answer: C
Question: 10
What is the purpose of the eigrp stub configuration command?
Answer: A
Question: 11
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration and the default behavior of the routing protocols,
which network will be present in the routing table of R4?
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Answer: D
Question: 12
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. All switches are connected using FastEthernet links. Given the information in
the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A, F
Question: 13
Which command sequence is required to configure the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP)
located at IP address 10.10.10.1?
Answer: A
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Question: 14
Which Cisco IOS command assigns a Catalyst switch port to VLAN 10?
Answer: C
Question: 15
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the voice traffic coming to the switch access
port that is connected to the IP phone?
Answer: D
Question: 16
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If
the STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?
Answer: B
Question: 17
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. The command switchport mode access is issued on interface
FastEthernet0/13 on switch CAT 1. What will be the result?
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Answer: B
Question: 18
What is correct about the BGP synchronization command? (Choose two.)
Answer: B, E
Question: 19
What is the cause of jitter?
Answer: A
Question: 20
What are three reasons to control routing updates via route filtering? (Choose three).
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 21
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on
the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?
A - The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B - The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C - The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D - The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.
Answer: A
Question: 22
Exhibit:
Answer: D
Question: 23
Which statement about route filtering is true when it is used to control routing updates?
Answer: B
Question: 24
Which statement is true concerning 6to4 tunneling?
Answer: D
Question: 25
Which statement best describes autoconfiguration for lPv6?
A - A router connected to the local link sends a broadcast periodically to advertise the subnet and
the host appends its locally configured lPv4 address to create a unique lPv6 address.
B - A router connected to the local link sends its 64 bit prefix address and the host appends its
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Answer: B
Question: 26
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire
management domain?
Answer: D
Question: 27
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. HSRP has been configured and Link A is the primary route to router R4.
When Link A fails, router R2 (Link B) becomes the active router. Which router will assume the
active role when Link A becomes operational again?
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A - The primary router R1 will reassume the active role when it comes back online.
B - The standby router R2 will remain active and will forward the active role to router R1 only in
the event of its own failure.
C - The standby router R2 will remain active and will forward the active role to router R1 only in
the event of Link B failure.
D - The third member of the HSRP group, router R3, will take over the active role only in event of
router R2 failure.
Answer: A
Question: 28
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. What are two important facts in interpreting the output of the show ip pim
interface command? (Choose two.)
Answer: B, E
Question: 29
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring
that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge
devices or access circuits?
A - STP
B - IRDP
C - ICMP
D - HSRP
Answer: D
Question: 30
Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A - L1 IS
B - L1 ES
C - L2 IS
D - L2 ES
E - L1/L2 IS
Answer: A, E
Question: 31
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Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?
A - The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12
with a value of 48.
B - The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging
from 8 to 56.
C - The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and
Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D - Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are
connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E - Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F - Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.
Answer: D
Question: 32
Which three conditions can cause BGP neighbor establishment to fail? (Choose three.)
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A - There is an access list blocking all TCP traffic between the two BGP neighbors.
B - The EBGP neighbor ebgp-multihop option is set to the default value.
C - The IBGP neighbor is not directly connected.
D - BGP synchronization is enabled in a transit autonomous system with fully-meshed IBGP
neighbors.
E - The BGP update interval is different between the two BGP neighbors.
F - The BGP neighbor is referencing an incorrect autonomous system number in its neighbor
statement.
Answer: A, B, F
Question: 33
Which statement is true about IBGP routers?
Answer: D
Question: 34
Which three statements are true when configuring redistribution for OSPF? (Choose three.)
Answer: B, C, E
Question: 35
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. STP has been implemented in the network. Switch SW_A is the root switch
for the default VLAN. To reduce the broadcast domain, the network administrator decides to split
users on the network into VLAN 2 and VLAN 10. The administrator issues the command
spanning-tree vlan 2 root primary on switch SW_A. What will happen as a result of this change?
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A - All ports of the root switch SW_A will remain in forwarding mode throughout the
reconvergence of the spanning tree domain.
B - Switch SW_A will change its spanning tree priority to become root for VLAN 2 only.
C - Switch SW_A will remain root for the default VLAN and will become root for VLAN 2
D - No other switch in the network will be able to become root as long as switch SW_A is up and
running.
Answer: C
Question: 36
Exhibit:
Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 37
Which BGP attribute will not be advertised in routing updates to its neighboring routers?
A - weight
B - local preference
C - origin
D - AS_path
E - next hop
Answer: A
Question: 38
Drag the port slates to their correct description.
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Answer:
Question: 39
Which three are characteristics of lPv6? (Choose three.)
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 40
Which IS-IS NET represents a locally administered private address?
A - 39.0040.0010.0c99.1112.00
B - 45.0004.0000.0d35.4554.00
C - 47.0010.0000.0a11.3564.00
D - 49.0001.0000.0c12.3456.00
Answer: D
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Question: 41
Which two statements about the EIGRP DUAL process are correct? (Choose two.)
A - An EIGRP route will go active if there are no successors or feasible successors in the EIGRP
topology table.
B - An EIGRP route will go passive if there are no successors in the EIGRP topology table.
C - DUAL will trigger an EIGRP query process while placing the flapping routes in the holddown
state.
D - A feasible successor in the EIGRP topology table can become the successor only alter all the
query requests have been replied to.
E - The stuck in active state is caused when the wait for the query replies have timed out.
F - EIGRP queries are sent during the loading state in the EIGRP neighbor establishment
process.
Answer: A, E
Question: 42
Exhibit:
A network administrator is troubleshooting a redistribution of RIP routes into OSPF. Given the
exhibited configuration commands, which statement is true?
A - Redistributed routes will be tagged as external type 1 (E1) with a metric of 30.
B - Redistributed routes will be tagged as external type 2 (E2) with a metric of 20.
C - Redistributed routes will maintain their original RIP routing metric.
D - Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 and will be treated as unreachable and not
advertised.
E - Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 but will not be treated as reachable and will
be advertised.
Answer: B
Question: 43
Exhibit:
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D - The redistribute command should use an EIGRP compatible metric value such as 64 1000
100 1 1500.
Answer: B
Question: 44
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol has been configured on routers R1
and R2, and hosts A and B have been configured as shown. Which statement can be derived
from the exhibit?
Answer: F
Question: 45
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP?
(Choose two.)
A - VTP mode
B - STP root status
C - negotiation status
D - management domain
E - configuration revision number
Answer: D, E
Question: 46
Which three IPv6 notations represent the same address? (Choose three.)
A - 2031:0000:130F:0000:0000: 09C0:876A:130B
B - 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
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C - 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
D - 2031::130F:0::9C0:876A:130B
E - 2031:0:130F:0:0:09C0:876A:130B
F - 2031:0:130F:::9C0:876A:130B
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 47
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the debug ip igmp output?
(Choose two.)
Answer: C, E
Question: 48
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. The show port-security interface fa0/1 command was issued on switch SW1.
Given the output that was generated, which two security statements are true? (Choose two.)
A - Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security aging command.
B - Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security protect command.
C - Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security violation restrict
command.
D - When the number of secure IP addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut
down.
E - When the number of secure MAC addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut
down and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.
Answer: B, E
Question: 49
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude
about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
Answer: C
Question: 50
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTA and RTB are running BGP but the session is active. What
command needs to be added to establish the BGP session?
Answer: A
Question: 51
Exhibit:
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Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two
statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)
Answer: B, D
Question: 52
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a
switch?
A - client PC only
B - switch port only
C - switch port and client PC
D - switch port and local router port
Answer: C
Question: 53
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Which packet type is used to acknowledge LSPs on point-to-point links and to request missing
pieces of information in the IS-IS link-state database?
Answer: B
Question: 54
A company has a BGP network and a BGP route of 196.27.125.0/24 that should be propagated
to all of the devices. The route is not now in any of the routing tables. The administrator
determines that an access list is the cause of the problem. The administrator changes the access
list to allow this route, but the route still does not appear in any of the routing tables. What should
be done to propagate this route?
Answer: A
Question: 55
Exhibit:
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Answer: B
Question: 56
Which address type does the lPv6 address FF05:0:0:0:0:0:0:2 specify?
A - unspecified
B - aggregable global unicast
C - link local
D - site local unicast
E - multicast
Answer: E
Question: 57
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Which statement is true about the STP Path Cost on a particular port?
Answer: A
Question: 58
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration of router R1 and router
R2?
Answer: A
Question: 59
Exhibit:
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Answer: A
Question: 60
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)
A - STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B - A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only
consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C - To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello,
forward delay, max age) must be the same.
D - If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least
be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E - On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a
lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F - The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3
configuration.
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Answer: A, B, D
Question: 61
Place the BGP attributes in the correct order used for determining a route.
Answer:
Question: 62
Which two statements concerning STP state changes are true? (Choose two.)
A - Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
B - Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to listening because it assumes itself as root.
C - Upon bootup, a port transitions from listening to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
D - If a forwarding port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
E - If a forwarding port receives an inferior BPDU, it will transition to listening.
F - If a blocked port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
Answer: B, F
Question: 63
Exhibit:
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Observe the diagram. RTC is the hub router and RTA and RTB are the spokes. There are no
virtual circuits between the spoke locations. What is needed to successfully route traffic to the
11.11.11.0/24 network from RTA?
Answer: C
Question: 64
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to traffic within VLAN 14 with a source address of
172.16.10.5?
Answer: C
Question: 65
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. If R1 is configured for 6to4 tunneling, what will the prefix of its lPv6 network
be?
A - 1723:1100:1::/48
B - FFFF:AC1F:6401::/16
C - AC1F:6401::/32
D - 2002:AC1F:6401::/48
E - 3FFE:AC1F:6401::/32
Answer: D
Question: 66
What number is a valid representation for the 200F:0000:0000:AB00:0000:000:0000:0000/56
lPv6 prefix?
A - 200F:0:0:AB/56
B - 200F:0:0:AB00::/56
C - 200F::AB00/56
D - 200F::AB/56
Answer: B
Question: 67
Exhibit:
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Which command should be added to RTB under router bgp 100 to allow only the external OSPF
routes to be redistributed to RTC?
A - redistribute ospf 1
B - redistribute ospf 1 match external 1
C - redistribute ospf 1 match external 2
D - redistribute ospf 1 match external 1 external 2
Answer: D
Question: 68
Exhibit:
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During the redistribution process configured on RTA, some of the EIGRP routes, such as
10.1.1.0/24 and 10.2.2.0/24, are not being redistributed into the OSPF routing domain. Which two
items could be a solution to this problem? (Choose two.)
Answer: C, D
Question: 69
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x-enabled client
connects to the port?
A - The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication
messages between the client and the authentication server.
B - The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to transition
to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange.
C - The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the
client to authenticate.
D - The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address.
Answer: B
Question: 70
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the distribute-list command in the R1 configuration?
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A - R1 will filter only the 172.24.1.0/24 route from the R2 RIP updates.
B - R1 will permit only the 10.0.0.0/24 route in the R2 RIP updates.
C - R1 will filter the 10.1.0.0/24 and the 172.24.1.0/24 routes from the R2 RIP updates.
D - R1 will not filter any routes because there is no exact prefix match.
Answer: C
Question: 71
Which statement is true about EBGP?
Answer: C
Question: 72
What happens when an EtherChannel interface is configured with a range of allowed VLANs that
is contrary to the range configured on the other interfaces in the EtherChannel?
A - The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are set to auto mode.
B - The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are all set to the same trunk type.
C - The ports will form an EtherChannel if the mode is set to on.
D - The ports will not form an EtherChannel.
Answer: D
Question: 73
In IS-IS routing, when would the use of Level 1 IS routing be required?
Answer: D
Question: 74
Which two provide inter-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A - L1 IS
B - L1 ES
C - L2 IS
D - L2 ES
E - L1/L2 IS
Answer: C, E
Question: 75
Exhibit:
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Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on
External_B fails?
A - standby 1 preempt
B - standby 1 track 10.10.10.1
C - standby 1 priority 130
D - standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0
Answer: A
Question: 76
Exhibit:
Observe the exhibit. If the command variance 3 were added to RTE, which path or paths would
be chosen to route traffic to network X?
A - E-B-A
B - E-B-A and E-C-A
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Answer: B
Question: 77
Drag the appropriate IS-IS routing term to its correct definition.
Answer:
Question: 78
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. By default, when RTB passes BGP advertisements from RTA about network
192.168.2.0 to RTC, what address will be listed as the next-hop address?
A - 10.1.1.1
B - 10.1.1.2
C - 192.168.1.49
D - 192.168.1.50
Answer: D
Question: 79
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: C, E
Question: 80
Exhibit:
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What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?
Answer: A
Question: 81
What is the default VTP advertisement for subset advertisements in Catalyst switches that are in
server or client mode?
A - 5 seconds
B - 10 seconds
C - 30 seconds
D - 1 minute
E - 5 minutes
Answer: E
Question: 82
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show “not trusted”?
Answer: E
Question: 83
Exhibit:
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Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements
about the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: B, F
Question: 84
What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)?
Answer: A
Question: 85
Which two statements about multicast addressing are true? (Choose two.)
A - To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 24 bits of the IP address
into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
B - To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address
into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
C - To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address
into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 1.
D - The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved
value that indicates a multicast application.
E - The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved
value that indicates a multicast application.
F - The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that
indicates a multicast application.
Answer: B, D
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Question: 86
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. IS-IS is configured on all routers. What two NET addresses could be used to
support an IS-IS adjacency between routers R1 and R2?
A - R1 - 49.0002.1111.1111.1111.00
R2 - 49.0002.2222.2222.2222.00
B - R1 - 49.0005.1111.1111.1111.00
R2 - 49.0002.2222.2222.2222.00
C - R1 - 49.0005.1111.1111.1111.00
R2 - 47.0002.2222.2222.2222.00
D - R1 - 49.0005.1111.1111.1111.00
R2 - 47.0005.2222.2222.2222.00
Answer: B
Question: 87
Which protocol allows for the automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available
gateways as well as automatic failover between those gateways?
A - IRDP
B - HSRP
C - GLBP
D - VRRP
Answer: C
Question: 88
Which three statements are true about IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A - PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B - PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
C - PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
D - PIM sparse-dense mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
E - PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
F - PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
Answer: B, C, E
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Question: 89
When an IPv6 enabled host boots, it sends a router solicitation (RS) message. An lPv6 router
responds with a router advertisement (RA). Which two items are contained in the RA? (Choose
two.)
Answer: B, C
Question: 90
You are using multiple routing protocols in different Autonomous Systems (AS). You need to
redistribute between the systems. You are using two-way redistribution. Which action should help
you avoid routing loop issues?
Answer: D
Question: 91
The original frame is encapsulated and an additional header is added before the frame is carried
over a trunk link. At the receiving end, the header is removed and the frame is forwarded to the
assigned VLAN. This describes which technology?
A - DISL
B - DTP
C - IEEE 802.1Q
D - ISL
E - MPLS
Answer: D
Question: 92
A problem was reported that the 10.10.10.0/24 prefix was not injected into the local BGP table on
Router A. The following information is available from Router A:
configuration:
router bgp 65001
network 10.0.0.0
neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65002
no auto-summary
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Answer: B
Question: 93
Exhibit:
Answer: B
Question: 94
How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN’s?
Answer: D
Question: 95
Exhibit:
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An administrator is redistributing OSPF into RIP. RIP is routing the 128.103.36.0/24 network.
OSPF is routing the 128.103.35.32/28 network. Users in the RIP domain cannot reach devices in
the OSPF domain. Which two tasks must be done to enable RIP to advertise the routes learned
from OSPF into the RIP domain? (Choose two.)
A - Add a static route that points to the RIP domain address space with a /24 network mask and a
next hop of 128.103.36.2.
B - Add a static route that points to the OSPF domain address space with a /24 network mask
with a next hop of nuIl0.
C - Tune the OSPF default metrics to allow seamless redistribution into RIP.
D - Redistribute configured static routes into RIP.
E - Use a route map statement inserted into a distribute list to control routing updates.
Answer: B, D
Question: 96
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
Answer: B
Question: 97
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers.
However, the IP multicast table displayed in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes. What
should be done to display the new routing table information?
Answer: C
Question: 98
Exhibit:
Given the network configuration above and assuming that STP is enabled, which port will be
elected the non-designated port?
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A - Port 1/1
B - Port 1/2
C - Port 2/1
D - Port 2/2
E - Port 3/1
F - Port 3/2
Answer: B
Question: 99
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on
the configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be
managed?
A - The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the
IP phone.
B - The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the
IP phone.
C - The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port
Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D - The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the
A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E - The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the
IP phone port.
Answer: C
Question: 100
Which two types of routes will be advertised with the EIGRP configuration as shown? (Choose
two.)
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A - static
B - receive-only
C - summary
D - stub
E - connected
F - dynamic
Answer: C, E
Question: 101
Which three statements are true about EIGRP operation? (Choose three.)
A - When summarization is configured, the router will also create a route to null 0.
B - The summary route remains in the route table, even it there are no more specific routes to the
network.
C - Summarization is configured on a per-interface level.
D - The maximum metric for the specific routes is used as the metric for the summary route.
E - Automatic summarization across major network boundaries is enabled by default.
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 102
What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors’ IS-IS link-state
databases are synchronized?
Answer: A
Question: 103
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. Which interface or interfaces on switch SW_A can have the port security
feature enabled?
A - Port 0/1
B - Ports 0/1 and 0/2
C - Ports 0/1, 0/2 and 0/3
D - Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3 and the trunk port 0/22
E - The trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports
F - Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports
Answer: C
Question: 104
BGP contains two paths to a destination. Assuming both routes were originated locally and have
an equal weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path?
A - lowest MED
B - highest local preference
C - lowest neighbor IP address
D - lowest origin code
E - shortest As-path
Answer: B
Question: 105
Exhibit:
Which three statements are true regarding the above diagram? (Choose three.)
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 106
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the output from the show standby vlan
50 command? (Choose two.)
Answer: A, B
Question: 107
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct configuration to enable router P4 to exchange RIP routing
updates with router P1 but not with router P3?
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Answer: B
Question: 108
Which three IP addresses are valid multicast addresses? (Choose three.)
A - 169.254.23.59
B - 223.254.255.254
C - 225.1.1.1
D - 227.43.34.2
E - 238.3.3.3
F - 249.1.2.3
Answer: C, D, E
Question: 109
Which two statements are true about the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)? (Choose two.)
A - Load sharing with HSRP is achieved by creating multiple subinterfaces on the HSRP routers.
B - Load sharing with HSRP is achieved by creating HSRP groups on the HSRP routers.
C - Routers configured for HSRP must belong to only one group per HSRP interface.
D - Routers configured for HSRP can belong to multiple groups and multiple VLANs.
E - All routers configured for HSRP load balancing must be configured with the same priority.
Answer: B, D
Question: 110
The 192.168.0.0 network is not being propagated throughout the network. Observe the BGP
configuration commands from the advertising router. What is the reason the 192.168.0.0 route is
not being advertised?
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Answer: A
Question: 111
The command bgp always-compare-med is added to a router configuration. What will this
command accomplish?
A - forces the router to compare metrics of routes from different autonomous systems
B - forces the router to compare the local preference of routes from different autonomous
systems
C - forces the router to compare the weight of routes from different autonomous systems
D - forces the router to compare the communities of routes from different autonomous systems
Answer: A
Question: 112
In an IS-IS environment, what happens when the designated IS router crashes?
A - The elected backup designated router takes the place of the DIS indefinitely without the
necessity of a new election.
B - The elected backup designated router takes the place of the DIS temporarily without the
necessity of a new election, until the original DIS comes back online.
C - A new election process occurs immediately, establishing a new DIS that will remain in place
indefinitely.
D - A new election process occurs immediately, establishing a new DIS until a router with a
higher priority or MAC address establishes an adjacency.
Answer: D
Question: 113
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port
before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A - STP
B - CDP
C - EAP MD5
D - TACACS+
E - EAP-over-LAN
F - protocols not filtered by an ACL
Answer: A, B, E
Question: 114
Exhibit:
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Examine the above configuration. What does the route map named test accomplish?
A - marks all prefixes advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
B - marks all prefixes received from the 10.1 .1 .1 neighbor with a MED of 200
C - marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
D - marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
E - permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor
F - permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor
Answer: C
Question: 115
The lack of which two prevents VTP information from propagating between switches? (Choose
two.)
A - VLAN 1
B - a trunk port
C - VTP priority
D - a root VTP server
Answer: A, B
Question: 116
Exhibit:
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Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)
A - Router A will assume the active state it its priority is the highest.
B - If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
C - When Ethernet 0/3 of Router A comes back up, the priority will become 105.
D - The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
E - The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.
Answer: A, C
Question: 117
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command sequence would prevent the propagation of
updates for network 192.168.236.0/24 to the Branch router?
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Answer: D
Question: 118
Which two statements are true concerning lPv6? (Choose two.)
Answer: A, D
Question: 119
Which two methods advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.)
Answer: A, D
Question: 120
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
Answer: D
Question: 121
When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?
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A - PIM sparse-dense
B - Bidir -PIM
C - PIM-RP
D - PIM-DM
E - PIM-SM
Answer: D
Question: 122
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A - HSRP
B - GLBP
C - VRRP
D - SLB
E - RPR
F - RPR+
Answer: C
Question: 123
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. What happens when the router stops receiving advertisements for the
10.1.2.0/24 network?
Answer: B
Question: 124
Which two statements are true when the extended system ID feature is enabled? (Choose two.)
A - The BID is made up of the bridge priority value(two bytes) and bridge MAC address (six
bytes).
B - The BID is made up of the bridge priority (four bits), the system ID (12 bits), and a bridge MAC
address (48 bits).
C - The BID is made up of the system ID (six bytes) and bridge priority value (two bytes).
D - The system ID value is the VLAN ID (VID).
E - The system ID value is a unique MAC address allocated from a pool of MAC addresses
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Answer: B, D
Question: 125
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and
cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command
sequence would correct the problem?
Answer: A
Question: 126
Which command lists the system IDs of all known IS-IS routers?
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Answer: C
Question: 127
A router is configured for redistribution to advertise EIGRP routes into OSPF on a boundary
router. Given the configuration:
router ospf 1
redistribute eigrp 1 metric 25 subnets
Answer: A
Question: 128
By default, all VLANs will belong to which MST instance when using Multiple STP?
A - MST00
B - MST01
C - the last MST instance configured
D - none
Answer: A
Question: 129
Which three statements are correct about the differences in IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose three.)
A - IS-IS LSP contains TLV fields and OSPF LSU contains the LSAs.
B - New additions to the protocol are easily implemented in OSPF but not with IS-IS.
C - For greater fine tuning there are more IS-IS timers.
D - OSPF has more area types than does IS-IS.
E - IS-IS is more CPU-intensive than is OSPF.
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 130
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the partial configuration provided in the exhibit, what
additional configuration is required to allow the router to properly participate in a PIM sparse-
dense mode scenario?
A - The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in dense mode network
areas.
B - The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in sparse mode network
areas.
C - The PIM dense-mode state, refresh interval needs to be configured.
D - IGMP needs to be enabled on the router.
Answer: B
Question: 131
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address
0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A - 228.10.10.7
B - 228.10.10.8
C - 228.10.138.7
D - 229.11.10.7
E - 229.138.10.7
F - 229.138.10.8
Answer: A, E
Question: 132
Which three techniques can be used to transition from lPv4 to lPv6? (Choose three.)
A - 6to4 tunneling
B - flow label
C - dual stack
D - anycast
E - NAT
F - mobile IP
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 133
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the
TEST domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch 1 and port 2
on Switch 4 are assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch 1.
Where will the broadcast propagate?
A - Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports.
B - Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
C - Switches 1, 2, and 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
D - Only Switch 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.
Answer: C
Question: 134
Exhibit:
What are the effects of this RIP configuration on router RTA? (Choose two.)
A - no routing updates will be sent from router RTA on interface BRI0 to router RTX
B - router RTA will not advertise the 10.0.0.0 network to router RTX
C - the route to network 172.16.1.0 will not be entered into the routing table on router RTA
D - user traffic from the 172.16.1.0 network is denied by access-list 44
E - the routing table on router RTA will be updated with the route to router RTW
Answer: C, E
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Question: 135
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A - standby
B - learn
C - listen
D - speak
E - active
Answer: A, D, E
Question: 136
Which command will display EIGRP packets sent and received, as well as statistics on hello
packets, updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments?
Answer: B
Question: 137
During a redistribution of routes from OSPF into EIGRP, an administrator notices that none of the
OSPF routes are showing in EIGRP. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
Answer: A, C
Question: 138
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)?
(Choose three.)
Answer: B, C, E
Question: 139
Exhibit:
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RIP and OSPF are configured on the routers as shown in the exhibit. R2 is configured with a two-
way redistribution between RIP and OSPF domains. All routers can ping each other, but R1
cannot see any of the OSPF routes in its routing table. What could the problem be?
A - OSPF and RIP use the same major network 172.16.0.0. Therefore, the keyword subnets is
not required to redistribute protocols into OSPF.
B - The process of redistribution of RIP into OSPF does not require any metric conversion, so
there is no need to define the metric using the default-metric command during the
redistribution.
C - Because OSPF has a longer mask for the same major network than RIP and because RIP
version 1 is being used, none of the routes learned from OSPF will be advertised into RIP.
D - The metric for the OSPF routes that are redistributed into RIP is too low, a fact that prevents
OSPF routes from being advertised into RIP.
Answer: C
Question: 140
Which three interface commands will configure the switch port to support a connected Cisco
phone and to trust the CoS values received on the port if CDP discovers that a Cisco phone is
attached? (Choose three.)
Answer: B, C, E
Question: 141
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Exhibit:
Assuming that VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 traffic is enabled on the above network, what effect will the
following command have when entered on port 0/2 on Switch A
Answer: A
Question: 142
Which two statements are true about HSRP, VPRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.)
A - GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different
host IP configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B - GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the
creation of multiple standby groups.
C - GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication whereas HSRP does not.
D - Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple
available gateways.
E - HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP
does not.
Answer: A, D
Question: 143
IS-IS Level 1 routers use LSPs for which purpose?
Answer: A
Question: 144
Which BGP path attribute is Cisco proprietary?
A - weight
B - MED
C - local preference
D - origin
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E - next-hop
F - AS-path
Answer: A
Question: 145
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP
address of a router as the gateway address?
A - Proxy ARP
B - HSRP
C - IRDP
D - VRRP
E - GLBP
Answer: D
Question: 146
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same VLAN
used by the data traffic?
Answer: D
Question: 147
In IS-IS routing, which level is used to route between different areas within the same domain?
A - Level 0
B - Level 1
C - Level 2
D - Level 3
Answer: C
Question: 148
Exhibit:
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Based on the exhibited command output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: C, E
Question: 149
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A - The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a
trunk link.
B - The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C - The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP
frames.
D - The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.
Answer: B
Question: 150
Exhibit:
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Based on the show ip bgp summary output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A, F
Question: 151
Exhibit:
Given the above partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose
two.)
Answer: C, E
Question: 152
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. The routing protocols EIGRP and OSPF have been configured as indicated
in the exhibit. Given the partial configuration of router R2, which network will be present in the
routing table of R4?
A - Network A
B - Network B
C - Network A and Network B
D - neither Network A nor Network B
Answer: B
Question: 153
What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two.)
Answer: A, B
Question: 154
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when one more user is connected to interface FastEthernet
5/1?
A - All secure addresses will age out and be removed from the secure address list. This will
cause the security violation counter to increment.
B - The first address learned on the port will be removed from the secure address list and be
replaced with the new address.
C - The interface will be placed into the error-disabled state immediately, and an SNMP trap
notification will be sent.
D - The packets with the new source addresses will be dropped until a sufficient number of
secure MAC addresses are removed from the secure address list.
Answer: C
Question: 155
Exhibit:
A network administrator is troubleshooting a redistribution of OSPF routes into EIGRP. Given the
exhibited commands, which statement is true?
Answer: E
Question: 156
Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value?
A - VTP
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B - 802.1Q
C - DTP
D - ISL
Answer: B
Question: 157
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP
negotiation frames?
A - access
B - trunk
C - no negotiate
D - dynamic desirable
E - dynamic auto
Answer: D
Question: 158
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration in the exhibit?
Answer: F
Question: 159
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on router R2. On router R4 all RIP routes are
redistributed into the OSPF domain. A second redistribution is configured on router R2 using a
route map. Based on the configuration on router R2, which EIGRP external routes will be present
in the routing table of R1?
Answer: A
Question: 160
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.)
Answer: B, C
Question: 161
Why should iBGP sessions be fully meshed within a Transit AS?
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C - Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other eBGP peers.
D - Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
E - Routes learned via eBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
Answer: D
Question: 162
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the debug output that is shown, which three statements about
HSRP are true? (Choose three.)
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 163
Exhibit:
A network administrator recently redistributed RIP routes into an OSPF domain. However, the
administrator wants to configure the network so that instead of 32 external type-5 LSAs flooding
into the OSPF network, there is only one. What must the administrator do to accomplish this?
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Answer: B
Question: 164
Exhibit:
Answer: B
Question: 165
Exhibit:
Based on the show ip route isis output on R1, which statement is true?
Answer: D
Question: 166
Which three steps are most helpful in verifying proper route redistribution? (Choose three.)
A. On the routers not performing the route redistribution, use the show ip route command to see if
the redistributed routes show up.
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B - On the ASBR router performing the route redistribution, use the show ip protocol command to
verify the redistribution configurations.
C - On the ASBR muter performing the mute redistribution, use the show ip mute command to
verify that the proper mutes from each muting protocol are there.
D - On the routers not performing the mute redistribution, use the show ip protocols command to
verify the muting information sources.
E - On the routers not performing the mute redistribution, use the debug ip muting command to
verify the muting updates from the ASBR.
Answer: A, B, C
Question: 167
Which two statements are true about external BGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
Answer: B, C
Question: 168
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
Answer: C
Question: 169
Which BGP attribute is used by BGP to prevent routing loops?
A - AS-path
B - next-hop
C - MED
D - weight
E - local preference
F - origin
Answer: A
Question: 170
Exhibit:
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Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are
true? (Choose two.)
A - This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B - The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which
the multicast packet was received.
C - Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source
directly connected to the router.
D - Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source
directly connected to the router.
E - The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0.
Answer: A, C
Question: 171
What are the basic configuration steps to enable IS-IS?
A - Configure the net system-id command under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface
with the ip router isis command.
B - Configure the network net-id command(s) under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface
with the ip router isis command.
C - Configure the network net-id command(s) and the is-type Ievel-1-2 command under router
isis.
D - Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis.
E - Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis and enable
IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
Answer: A
Question: 172
Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A - show ip bgp
B - show ip bgp paths
C - show ip bgp peers
D - show ip bgp summary
Answer: D
Question: 173
Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
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Answer: B, C, E
Question: 174
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. If the configuration shown below is added to RTA, which three route entries
will EIGRP advertise to neighboring routers?(Choose three.)
router eigrp 10
network 10.0.0.0
eigrp stub
A - 10.1.3.0/24
B - 10.1.2.0/24
C - 10.0.0.0/8
D - 10.1.1.0/24
E - 192.168.20.0/24
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 175
If there are two equal cost paths to the root switch, what is the next criterion to determine the root
port?
Answer: C
Question: 176
Drag the port states to their correct description.
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Answer:
Question: 177
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing
Protocol (GLBP)?
Answer: A
Question: 178
Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to join a multicast group?
Answer: B
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Question: 179
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on router R2. On router R4, all RIP routes are
redistributed into the OSPF domain. A second redistribution is configured on router R2 using a
route map. Based on the configuration on R2, which EIGRP external routes will be present in the
routing table of R1?
Answer: A
Question: 180
Exhibit:
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Answer: C
Question: 181
Which three are benefits of IS-IS over OSPF? (Choose three.)
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 182
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A - VTP password
B - VTP domain name
C - VTP revision number
D - VTP mode
E - VTP pruning
Answer: B
Question: 183
What are three key concepts that apply when configuring the EIGRP stub routing feature in a hub
and spoke network? (Choose three.)
A - A hub router prevents routes from being advertised to the remote router.
B - Only remote routers are configured as stubs.
C - Stub routers are not queried for routes.
D - Spoke routers connected to hub routers answer the route queries for the stub router.
E - A stub router should have only EIGRP hub routers as neighbors.
F - EIGRP stub routing should be used on hub routers only.
Answer: B, C, E
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Question: 184
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. All switches must be part of a common MST region. On the basis of the
information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true?
Answer: C
Question: 185
What is the main purpose of Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)?
A - to provide protection for STP when a link is unidirectional and BPDUs are being sent but not
received
B - to provide faster convergence when topology changes occur in a switched network
C - to reduce the total number of spanning tree instances necessary for a particular topology
D - to enhance Spanning Tree troubleshooting on multilayer switches
Answer: C
Question: 186
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information provided in the exhibit, which two sets of
procedures are best practices for Layer 2 and 3 failover alignment? (Choose two.)
A - Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs.
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Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
B - Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs.
Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
C - Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and
110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12
and 120.
D - Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs
12 and 120. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP
root for VLANs 11 and 110.
E - Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and
110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12
and 120.
F - Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs
11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root
for VLANs 12 and 120.
Answer: C, D
Question: 187
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1.
VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No
traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates
all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST 1
was added to the network. What three configuration issues on TEST 1 could be causing the
network outage? (Choose three.)
Answer: C, E, F
Question: 188
Which two statements are EIGRP characteristics? (Choose two.)
Answer: A, C
Question: 189
An administrator has decided to configure Integrated IS-IS on the network. What must the
administrator do to enable the interfaces to distribute IP information using IS-IS?
A - The networks configured on each interface must be associated to the IS-IS routing protocol
using the network router configuration command.
B - Each interface must be enabled to support IS-IS with the ip router isis interface configuration
command.
C - All configured IP networks will automatically be enabled when IS-IS is configured with the
router isis global configuration command.
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D - Each network must be identified with the net interface configuration command.
Answer: B
Question: 190
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not
want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A - PIM-DM
B - PIM-SM
C - PIM-RP
D - CGMP
E - IGMP snooping
Answer: B
Question: 191
Which two statements are true about best practices in VLAN design? (Choose two.)
A - Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing
should occur at the distribution layer.
B - Routing should always be performed at the distribution layer.
C - Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D - VLANs should be localized to a switch.
E - VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
Answer: B, D
Question: 192
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. Which two problems are the most likely cause of the exhibited output?
(Choose two.)
Answer: B, D
Question: 193
In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a what does 07.ac represent?
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A - vendor code
B - HSRP group number
C - HSRP router number
D - HSRP well-known physical MAC address
E - HSRP well-known virtual MAC address
Answer: E
Question: 194
Exhibit:
Refer to the topology diagram. R3 is redistributing the EIGRP routes into OSPF. What will the
EIGRP routes appear as in the routing table of R1?
A-O
B - O IA
C - O E2
D-D
E - D EX
Answer: C
Question: 195
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 belong to the RIP routing domain that includes the networks
10.20.0.0/16 and 10.21.0.0/16. R3 and R4 are performing two-way route redistribution between
OSPF and RIP. A network administrator has discovered that R2 is receiving OSPF routes for the
networks 10.20.0.0/16 and 10.21.0.0/16 and a routing loop has occurred. Which action will
correct this problem?
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Answer: C
Question: 196
What does IS-IS use to establish and maintain neighbor relationships between IS’s?
A - IIH
B - LSP
C - CLNS
D - CLNP
E - ISH
Answer: A
Question: 197
Which set of statements about Spanning Tree Protocol default timers is true?
Answer: B
End of Document
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