a.

Water
Biology part-2 b. Base
c. Acids
complete Mcqs Notes d. Enzymes
Correct Ans. (d)
with answers
www.preparationforetest.weebly.com
6. The enzyme secreted by saliving glands is:
1. The medium of the food vacuole in the
unicellular animals is first: a. Sucrase
b. Cellulase
a. Basic c. Pepsin
b. Neutral d. Amylase
c. Acidic
d. None of these Correct Ans. (d)

Correct Ans. (c) 7. Which of the following does not take part
in the pushing of food from the buccal
2. Which of the following has no digestive cavity into the pharynx:
cavity?
a. Cheek muscles
a. Hydra b. Floor of buccal cavity
b. Planaria c. Nose muscles
c. Earth worm d. Tongue
d. Amoeba
Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (d)
8. Norma direction of the waves of
3. Which of the following has one way contraction of the muscle (Paristalisis) is from:
passage of the food material in the
digestive tract? a. Stomach to oesophagus
b. Intestine to stomach
a. Amoeba c. Oesophagus to pharynx
b. Hydra d. Oesophagus to stomach
c. Planaria
d. Earthworm Correct Ans. (d)

Correct Ans. (d) 9. The inner lining of the stomach consists

of:
4. The oesophagus has internal glands which
secrete: a. Salivary glands
b. Pituitary glands
a. Protolytic secrete: c. Gastric glands
b. Hydrolytic enzyme d. All of these
c. Bile
d. CaCO3 Correct Ans. (c)

Correct Ans. (d) 10. Which of the following is present in the

gastric juice:
5. The living cells of earth worm intestine
secrete: a. Lipase
b. Amylase
 c. HCI d. Peptide bondys
d. H2So4
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (c)
16. Which of the following is not part of a
villus?
a. Red blood cells
b. Blood capillaries
c. Lacteals
d. Epithelial cells
11. Which of the following is not present in Correct Ans. (a)
the pancreatic juice?
17. Villi are found on the inner surface of:
a. Amylase
b. Cellulase a. Pharynx
c. Lipase b. Stomach
d. Trypsin c. Oesophagus
d. Small intestine
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (d)
12. Which of the following acts upon
cellulose? 18. The lack of absorption of water & salt by
the large intestine result in:
a. Lipase
b. Trypsin a. Constipation
c. Pepsin b. Diarrhea
d. None of these c. Vomiting
d. Dysentery
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (b)
13. Which of the following is absorbed by the
lacteals?
19. Which of the following is the last part of
a. Fats the large intestine?
b. Glucose
c. Amino acids a. Colon
d. Water b. Caecum
c. Rectum
Correct Ans. (a) d. Ileum

14. Which of the following releases Trypsin? Correct Ans. (c)

a. Gastric glands
b. Adrenal glands
c. Enterokinase
d. Bile

Correct Ans. (c)

15. Dipeptiase acts on:

a. Disaccharide
b. ADP
c. Diglyceride
CHAPTER 2 6. The colour of blood plasma is

Choose the most appropriate answer: a. black

b. green
1. In the 1st 13 segments of earthworm, the c. red
dorsal vessel acts the function of: d. yellow

a. Collection Correct Ans. (d)

b. Distribution
c. Both a & b 7. Which of the following is absent in
d. None of these grasshopper?

Correct Ans. (b) a. Heart

b. Blood
2. From the 14th segment backward, the c. Capillaries
dorsal vessel acts as: d. Transport system

a. Collecting blood Correct Ans. (c)

b. Distributing blood
c. Both a & b 8. The blood enters the heart through the:
d. None of these
a. Aorta
Correct Ans. (a) b. Ventral vain
c. Ostia
3. The dorsal vessel in earthworm sends the d. All of these
collected blood to:
Correct Ans. (c)
a. Ventral vessel
b. Sub-neural vessel 9. Which of the following is true of man?
c. Hearts
d. None of these a. Open circulatory system
b. One circulatory fluids
Correct Ans. (c) c. Two circulatory fluids
d. Three circulatory fluids
4. Which of the following vessel runs below
the intestine in earthworm? Correct Ans. (c)

a. Dorsal vessel 10. Heart is enclosed by a tough membrane

b. Ventral vessel called:
c. Sub-neutral vessel
d. None of these a. Diaphragm
b. Pericardium
Correct Ans. (b) c. Pericardium
d. Epicardium
5. The direction of flow of blood in the sub-
neutral vessel is: Correct Ans. (b)

a. Lateral 11. Which of the following number of

b. Vertical chambers compose heart of man?
c. Forward
d. Backward a. Two
b. Four
Correct Ans. (d) c. Seven
d. Eight
 Correct Ans. (b)

12. Atria are located:

17. The tricuspid valve guarding the opening
a. Above the ventricle between the right atrium and right
b. Blow the ventricle ventricle is made up of:
c. One left of the ventricle
d. Sandwiched by the ventricle a. Three flaps
b. Two flaps
Correct Ans. (a) c. Four flaps
d. Five flaps
13. The right side of the heart contains:
Correct Ans. (a)
a. Oxygenated blood
b. Deoxygenated 18. The aerated blood returns from the lungs
c. Mixed blood by means pulmonary veins into the:
d. All of these
a. Right atrium
Correct Ans. (b) b. Right ventricle
c. Left atrium
14. Which of the following received blood d. Left ventricle
from the body?
Correct Ans. (c)
a. Ventricle
b. Atria 19. The whole heart cycle takes about:
c. Both Ventricle and atria
d. None of these a. 0.2 seconds
b. 0.4 seconds
Correct Ans. (b) c. 0.6 seconds
d. 0.8 seconds
15. From the right ventricle blood is pushed
towards the: Correct Ans. (d)

a. Aorta 20. The heart muscles take rest for about:

b. Left atrium
c. Lungs a. 0.1 -0.3 seconds
d. Left ventricie b. 0.4 -0.5 seconds
c. 0.6 -0.8 seconds
Correct Ans. (c) d. 0.8 -1.00 seconds

16. By the contraction of the left ventricle the Correct Ans. (a)
blood is pumped into the:
21. Arteries are formed of tissues arranged in:
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium a. Single layer
c. Lungs b. Two layers
d. Aorta c. Three layers
d. Four layers
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (c)

22. The thickness of blood capillaries is:

a. One cell
b. Two cells
 c. Three cells
d. Four cells
Correct Ans. (a)

23. The average diameter of a blood capillary

is about: 28. Which of the following has the lowest
blood pressure?
a. 1um
b. 3um a. Arteries
c. 5um b. Arterioles
d. 7um c. Capillaries
d. Veins
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (d)
24. Aorta arises from:
29. Blood pressure from arteries towards
a. left atrium veins:
b. left ventricle
c. right atrium a. increase
d. Right ventricle b. Decrease
c. Remains unchanged
Correct Ans. (b) d. None of these

25. Which of the following supply blood to the Correct Ans. (b)
heart itself?
30. Normal range of diastolic blood pressure
a. Pulmonary is:
b. Lliac
c. Cutaneus a. 70-85
d. Coronary b. 85-95
c. 90-100
Correct Ans. (d) d. 100-110

26. Superior vena cave carries blood to the: Correct Ans. (a)

a. Left atrium 31. Which of the following has the high rate of
b. Right ventricle blood flow?
c. Right atrium
d. Right ventricle a. Veins
b. Capillaries
Correct Ans. (b) c. Aorta
d. Arteries
27. Which of the following carry blood from
the kidneys? Correct Ans. (c)

a. Hepatic vein 32. Which of the following has the reduced

b. Hepatic portal vein rate of blood flow?
c. Renal vein
d. All of these a. Aorta
b. Arteries
Correct Ans. (c) c. Capillaries
d. Arterioles

Correct Ans. (c)

 Correct Ans. (d)

33. Which of the following brings about the

transits of nutrients hormones etc between 38. How many nucleoli are present in the red
the blood and tissues: blood cells?

a. Aorta a. One
b. Capillaries b. Two
c. Veins c. Three
d. Arteries d. None

Correct Ans. (b) Correct Ans. (d)

34. Which of the following has greater cross 39. Which of the following is the shape of
sectional area? human RBC?

a. Aorta a. Biconcave
b. Capillaries b. Biconvex
c. Veins c. Spherical
d. Arteries d. Rod-shaped

Correct Ans. (d) Correct Ans. (a)

35. Which of the following is not the 40. In embryonic stages RBC are formed in:
characteristics of the blood?
a. heart
a. Circulates in the vessels b. liver and spleen
b. Complex substance c. head
c. Composed of plasma and blood d. kidney
cells
d. Gelatinous substance Correct Ans. (b)

Correct Ans. (d) 41. RBC present in one cubic millimeter of

blood are almost:
36. The percent by volume formed by the
plasma of the blood about: a. Two million
b. Four million
a. 45 c. Five million
b. 55 d. Seven million
c. 65
d. 75 Correct Ans. (c)

Correct Ans. (b) 42. WBC present in a cubic millimeter of

blood are almost:
37. The water percentage (by wt) of the
plasma is almost: a. 20,000
b. 30,000
a. 50 c. 3,000
b. 60 d. 7,000 – 8,000
c. 80
d. 90 Correct Ans. (d)
43. Which of the following is the main
function of the WBC?
CHAPTER 3
a. helps in blood clotting
b. carry oxygen Choose the most appropriate answer
c. protection against microorganims
d. Transport iron 1. Which of the following is not present in
Hydra?
Correct Ans. (c)
a. Gaseous exchange takes place
44. Which of the following are the smallest in through the whole surface
size? b. Specialized organs for respiration
present
a. Erythrocytes c. Oxygen diffuses from the water in
b. Lymphocytes the digestive cavity
c. Neutrophills d. CO2 diffuses through the general
d. Platelets surface

Correct Ans. (d) Correct Ans. (b)

45. Which of the following is absent in the 2. Which of the following has respiratory
lymph? surface of large area?

a. RBC a. Hydra
b. WBC b. Planaria
c. Protein c. Grasshopper
d. All of them d. Man

Correct Ans. (a) Correct Ans. (d)

46. Which of the following is the function of 3. Which of the following has a respiratory
lymph node? pigment?

a. Carrying of 02 a. Earthworm
b. Producing RBC b. Amoeba
c. Producing lymphocytes antibodies c. Planaria
d. Producing platelets d. Hydra

Correct Ans. (c) Correct Ans. (a)

4. Each nasal cavity is subdivided into air

passage ways the number of which is:

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
 Correct Ans. (a) Correct Ans. (d)
10. Which of the following acts as pumps for
moving air in and out of lungs?

a. Lungs
b. Heart
c. Kidneys
d. Chest wall and diaphragms
5. The cavity of larynx is called: Correct Ans. (d)

a. Pharynx 11. With the increase in volume of the chest

b. Trachea cavity its internal pressure:
c. Glottis
d. Nostril a. Decrease
b. Increase
Correct Ans. (c) c. Remain unchanged
d. None of these
6. Vocal cords are located in the:
Correct Ans. (a)
a. Pharynx
b. Glottis 12. Which of the following is not correct for
c. Trachea inspiration?
d. Nosal cavity
a. Elevation of chest wall
Correct Ans. (b) b. Lowering of diaphragm
c. Lowering of chest wall
7. Which of the following has no c-shaped d. Moving of air inside
cartilage ring?
Correct Ans. (c)
a. Bronchioles
b. Trachea 13. Which of the following is the maximum
c. Bronchi amount of oxygen absorbed by 100 ml of
d. None of these human blood?

Correct Ans. (a) a. 10 ml

b. 15 ml
8. Which of the following acts as functional c. 20 ml
units of lungs? d. 30 ml

a. Bronchioles Correct Ans. (c)

b. Air sac
c. Bronchus 14. Most of the CO2 is carried from the tissues
d. Tracheae as:

Correct Ans. (b) a. Co2 gas

b. Carbooric acid
9. The membrane covering the lungs is c. Carbonate ions
called: d. Bicarbonate ions

a. Diaphragm Correct Ans. (d)

b. Pericardium
c. Epicardium 15. The amount of CO2 present in 100 ml of
d. Pleura blood in arteries is about:
 a. 45 ml
b. 50 ml
c. 54 ml
d. 60 ml

Correct Ans. (b)

16. The amount of CO2 taken by 100 ml of

blood when its passes through the lungs is:
CHAPTER 4
a. 4 ml
b. 8 ml Choose the most appropriate answer:
c. 10 ml
d. 14 ml 1. Which of the following is the major and
immediate nitrogenous product of proteins
Correct Ans. (a) and amino acids?

17. The amount of Carbon dioxide given off a. Urea

by 100 ml of blood when it passes through b. Ammonia
the lungs is: c. HNO3
d. HNO2
a. 1 ml
b. 2 ml Correct Ans. (b)
c. 3 ml
d. 4 ml 2. Which of the following are the most toxic
waste substance?
Correct Ans. (d)
a. H2O
b. CO2
c. Ammonia
d. Uric acid

Correct Ans. (c)

3. Which of the following needs more water

for removal?

a. Ammonia
b. CO2
c. Uric acid
d. O2

Correct Ans. (a)

4. The chief nitrogenous waste products in

grasshopper is:

a. Ammonia
b. Nitric acid
c. Uric acid
 d. HCI 10. Which of the following converts ammonia
into urea?
Correct Ans. (c)
a. Kidney
5. Which of the following emerges from the b. Stomach
hilus in human kidney? c. Lungs
d. Liver
a. Urinary bladder
b. Ureter Correct Ans. (d)
c. Urethra
d. Nephridiopore

Correct Ans. (c)

6. Each nephron is
11. The percentage of dissolves solids in urine
a. Blind at one end is almost:
b. Blind at both ends
c. Open at both ends a. 20
d. None of these b. 10
c. 5
Correct Ans. (a) d. 2

7. A cluster of capillaries present in the Correct Ans. (c)

Bowman, capsule is called:
12. Which of the following controls the
a. Cortex reabsorption of glucose in the urinary tubule?
b. Medulla
c. Glomerulus a. Testeoron
d. Nephron b. Thyroxin
c. Insulin
Correct Ans. (c) d. Parathormone

8. How many processes are involved in the Correct Ans. (c)

functioning of kidney to form urine?
13. The insufficiency of insulin results in
a. None incomplete metabolism of:
b. One
c. Two a. Carbohydrate
d. Three b. Fats
c. Protein
Correct Ans. (d) d. All of these

9. Which of the following is the major Correct Ans. (a)

excretory nitrogenous materials in man?
14. Which of the following Disease results
a. Ammonia when carbohydrates metabolism is
b. Amino acid incomplete in the body?
c. Urea
d. CO2 a. Goiter
b. Colour blindness
Correct Ans. (c) c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Typhoid
 Correct Ans. (c)

15. Which of the following is the waste

product formed during metabolic process?

a. Sucrose
b. Heat
c. Glucose
d. Fatty acids

Correct Ans. (b)

16. Which of the following plays a part in

temperature regulation?
CHAPTER 5
a. Skin
b. Kidney Choose the most appropriate answer:
c. Lungs
d. Liver 1. Which of the following is not the character
of multicellular animals?
Correct Ans. (a)
a. Tendency towards division of
17. Which of the following phenomenon labour
occurs if the body begins to lose more heat b. Better organization
than it is generating? c. Less inter dependency of organs
d. Integration and regulation of
a. More blood supply to skin activity
b. More sweating
c. Reduction in metabolic activity Correct Ans. (c)
d. Reduction of blood supply to the
skin 2. Which of the following does not come
under the coordination in multicellular
Correct Ans. (d) animals?

a. Deregulation
b. Organization
c. Integration
d. Control

Correct Ans. (a)

3. Which of the following consists of

secretary tissues?

a. Nervous system
b. Endocrine system
c. Circulatory system
d. Excretory system

Correct Ans. (b)

4. How many steps are involved in a Correct Ans. (d)
response?
9. Which of the following carry impulses
a. None from the central nervous system?
b. One
c. Two a. Sensory neurons
d. Three b. Effectors
c. Association neurons
Correct Ans. (d) d. Motor neurons

Correct Ans. (d)

5. Which of the following are structures that 10. Which of the following lie exclusively in
respond when they are stimulated by nerve the spiral cord and brain?
impulses?
a. Sensory neurons
a. Neurons b. Motor neurons
b. Receptors c. Association neurons
c. Effectors d. All of these
d. All of these
Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (c)
11. The contact point between the axon
6. Which of the following lacks central endings of one neuron and the dendrites of
nervous system? another neuron is called:

a. Planaria a. transmitter
b. Hydra b. Acceptors
c. Man c. Synapse
d. Frog d. Impulse

Correct Ans. (b) Correct Ans. (c)

7. Each sense organ is specialized to receive 12. The chemical liberated by the axon ending
due to the arrival of an impulse are
a. Specific type of stimulus called:
b. Different types of stimuli
c. All types of stimuli a. acceptors
d. None of these b. transmitters
c. absorpters
Correct Ans. (a) d. None of these

8. Which of the following light does not Correct Ans. (b)

stimulate our eyes?
13. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. Green
b. Blue a. Now neurons are formed by the
c. Violet division of old ones
d. Ultraviolet b. Neurons lack the ability of division
 c. Neuron can regenerate axons if cell d. Hypothalamus
body is not damaged
d. None of these Correct Ans. (c)

Correct Ans. (a) 19. Which of the following is the largest part
of human brain?
14. Which of the following is the normal rate
in meter per second of an impulse? a. Midbrain
b. Hindbrain
a. 10 c. Thalamus
b. 50 d. Cerebrum
c. 100
d. 200 Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (c)

15. How many types of actions are usually

performed by human body?
20. Which of the following is the control
a. Two centre of sight and hearing?
b. Three
c. Four a. Cerebrum
d. Five b. Thalamus
c. Hypothalamus
Correct Ans. (b) d. Epithalamus

16. Which of the following conditioned Correct Ans. (a)

reflexes?
21. Which of the following is not controlled
a. Inborn by cerebrum?
b. Inherited
c. Unlearnt a. Smell
d. Acquired b. Hearing
c. Water balance
Correct Ans. (d) d. Memory

17. Which of the following is not the part of Correct Ans. (c)
brain?
22. Which of the following is not controlled
a. Lateral brain by the hypothalamus?
b. Fore brain
c. Midbrain a. Appetite
d. Hindbrain b. Sleep
c. Body temperature
Correct Ans. (a) d. Smell

18. Which of the following is not part of the Correct Ans. (d)
forebrain?
23. Which of the following receives most of
a. Cerebrum the impulses arriving from different
b. Thalamus sensory areas of the body?
c. Epithalamus
 a. Midbrain a. 25
b. Hindbrain b. 31
c. Thalamus c. 35
d. Hypothalamus d. 40

Correct Ans. (c) Correct Ans. (b)

24. Which of the following forms the second 29. Which of the following types of nerves
largest part of the brain? cerebral arise from the brain?

a. Cerebellum a. Sensory
b. Cerebrum b. Motor
c. Pone c. Mixed
d. Medulla oblongata d. All of these

Correct Ans. (a) Correct Ans. (d)

25. Which of the following controls and

coordinates the balance among organs and 30. Which of the following types of spiral
the muscles? nerves arise from the spiral cord?

a. Thalamus a. Sensory
b. Hypothalamus b. Mixed
c. Cerebellum c. Motor
d. Pons d. None of these

Correct Ans. (c) Correct Ans. (b)

26. Which of the following is controlled by 31. Which of the following is not controlled
medulla oblongata? by the nervous system?

a. Muscular activities a. Body equilibrium

b. Heart beat b. Rate of heart beat
c. Judgment c. Rate of growth
d. Smell d. Rate of breathing

Correct Ans. (b) Correct Ans. (c)

27. How many pairs of cerebral nerves arise 32. Which of the following controlled by
from the brain? hormones?

a. 12 a. Rate of growth
b. 15 b. Rate of activity
c. 20 c. Sexual maturity
d. 31 d. All of these

Correct Ans. (a) Correct Ans. (d)

28. How many spiral nerves come out of the 33. Which of the following generally not the
spiral cord? function hormone?
 a. Initiate a process 38. Which of the following will occur as a
b. Simulate result of insufficient secretion of the
c. Inhibit thyroid gland at infancy?
d. None of these
a. Dwarf growth
Correct Ans. (a) b. Incomplete mental development
c. Retarded sexual development
34. Which of the following is true of d. All of these
hormones?
Correct Ans. (d)
a. All are proteins
b. All are inorganic compounds 39. Which of the following occurs as a result
c. All are Organics substances of myxedema in adults?
d. Transferred to the site of action by
their own ducts a. Incomplete carbohydrate
metabolism
Correct Ans. (c) b. Dwarf growth
c. Disturbance in salt metabolism
d. Thickness of skin and of hair
brittleness Correct Ans.
(d)

35. Thyroid gland lies:

a. Near liver
b. In the middle portion of neck 40. Which of the following results due to the
c. Top of kidney deficiency of iodine?
d. Below the heart
a. Exophthalmic goiter
Correct Ans. (b) b. Goiter
c. Mental lethargy
36. What would happen to the sugar d. Heart attack
metabolism in the absence of insulin in the
body? Correct Ans. (b)

a. Stops 41. What happens to the blood glucose level as

b. Not affected a result of insufficient insulin production?
c. Rate increases
d. Slows down a. Increase
b. Decrease
Correct Ans. (a) c. Remains normal
d. None of these
37. Which of the following is not regulated by
iodothyroxines? Correct Ans. (a)

a. balance of salts 42. Which of the following is secreted by

b. Maturation adrenal glands?
c. Sexual development
d. Oxygen consumption a. Cortisone
b. Adrenaline
Correct Ans. (a) c. Cortisone
d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

 Correct Ans. (b)
43. Which of the following secreted by
adrenal glands? 48. Which of the following is secreted by the
posterior pituitary lobe of pituitary gland?
a. Cortisone
b. Adrenaline a. oxytocin
c. Cortisone b. lactogenic hormone
d. All of these c. thyroid stimulating hormone
d. luteinizing hormone
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (a)
44. Which of the following functions
effectively during emotions and emergencies? 49. Which of the following is not regulated by
the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
a. Adrenaline
b. Noradrenalin a. Growth hormone
c. Cortisone b. Lactogenic hormone
d. All of these c. Antidiuretic hormone
d. Latinizing hormone
Correct Ans. (a)
Correct Ans. (c)

45. Which of the following is male sex

hormones?
50. Which of the following results due to
a. Testosterone under secretion of antiduiretic hormone?
b. Estrogen
c. Cortisone a. Diabetes mellitus
d. Glycogon b. Diabetes insipidus
c. Goiter
Correct Ans. (a) d. Dwarf growth

46. Which of the following is produced by the Correct Ans. (b)

ovaries?
51. Which of the following stimulates the
a. Iodothyorine development of egg?
b. Testosterone
c. Estrogen a. Luteinizing hormone
d. Parathormone b. Testosterone
c. Oxytocin
Correct Ans. (c) d. Lactogenic hormone

47. Which of the following is located at the Correct Ans. (a)

base of the brain?
52. Which of the following will fail to appear
a. Ovaries as result of castration?
b. Liver
c. Adrenal glands a. Development of egg
d. Pituitary gland b. Mammary gland
c. Moustache
 d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

53. By the action of glucogon, the blood

glucose level

a. decreases
b. increase
c. remains the same
d. none of these

Correct Ans. (b)

CHAPTER 6

Choose the most appropriate answer: 6. Which of the following is correct for
arthropods?
1. Which of the following is an advanced
character? a. Skeleton internal to the muscle
b. Skeleton absent
a. Asymmetrical body c. Skeleton external to the muscle
b. Bilateral symmetry d. Skeletons both internal and external
c. Radial symmetry
d. None of these Correct Ans. (c)

Correct Ans. (b) 7. The bones are held together by a tissue

called:
2. Which of the following animals inhibit
land environment? a. Tendons
b. Ligament
a. Asymmetrical c. Joints
b. Bilateral symmetry d. All of these
c. Radial symmetry
d. None of these Correct Ans. (b)

Correct Ans. (a) 8. Which of the following are voluntary

muscles?
3. How many central smaller fibrils are
present in a cilium? a. Skeletal
b. Cardiac
a. None c. Smooth
b. 2 d. All of these
c. 5
d. 10 Correct Ans. (a)

Correct Ans. (b) 9. Which of the following are involuntary

muscles?
4. Which of the following moves by means
of tube feet? a. Cardiac
b. Smooth
a. Planaria c. Skeletal
b. Starfish d. Both A & B
c. Hydra
d. Earthworm Correct Ans. (d)

Correct Ans. (b) 10. Which of the following muscles contract

relatively quickly?
5. Which of the following moves by means
of foot? a. Cardiac
b. Smooth
a. Earthworm c. Skeletal
b. Amoeba d. None of these
c. Snails
d. Paramecium Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (c)
11. Which of the following is the range of
diameter of a skeletal muscle fibre? 16. Which of the following make up thick
filament of the myofibril?
a. 10-100 um
b. 100-200 um a. actin
c. 300-400 um b. Pectin
d. 500-600 um c. Myosin
d. Lysine
Correct Ans. (a)
Correct Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following are contractile
subunits present in each muscle fibre? 17. The impulse received from the supply to
the muscle release:
a. Myofilaments
b. Myofibrils a. K++
c. Myosin b. Na+
d. Actin c. Mg+
d. Ca++
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (d)
13. The cell membrane enclosing the fibre is
called: 18. When a muscle fibre receives an impulse
from the nerve it
a. Plasmolema
b. Endolema a. Contracts
c. Sarcolemma b. Expands
d. Atolemma c. Remains unaffected
d. None of these
Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (a)
14. Myofilaments within the sarcoplasmic
envelope run: 19. The tricep brachii muscle possesses:

a. Transversally a. One head

b. Longitudinally b. Two heads
c. Obliquely c. Three heads
d. Radially d. Many heads

Correct Ans. (b) Correct Ans. (c)

15. The Myofilaments are made up of: 20. How many bones take part in the
formation of cranium in man?
a. Glycogen
b. Steroids a. 8
c. Cellulose b. 10
d. Proteins c. 15
d. 20
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (a)
21. How many bones support the fact in man?

a. 5
 b. 7
c. 9
d. 10
Correct Ans. (c)

22. Which of the following bone is not the part

of cranium in man? 27. Which of the following vertebrae are
present in the lower back?
a. occipital
b. temporal a. Atlas
c. ethmoid b. Cervical
d. vomer c. Lumber
d. Thoracic
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (c)
23. Which of the following takes part in the
formation of cranium? 28. Which of the following vertebrae are lying
in the neck region?
a. Frontal bone
b. Occipital bone a. lumber
c. Sphenoid b. cervical
d. All of these c. thoracic
d. none of these
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (b)
24. The atlas vertebrae lie in the
29. Which of the following number of
a. Back vertebrae are present in the pelvic region?
b. Thoracic region
c. Neck a. 3
d. Pelvic region b. 5
c. 7
Correct Ans. (C) d. 9

25. Which of the following number of Correct Ans. (d)

vertebrae are present in the thoracic region?
30. Which of the following number of rib pairs
a. 12 compose the chest cage?
b. 14
c. 16 a. 12
d. 18 b. 15
c. 18
Correct Ans. (a) d. 20

26. Which of the following number of Correct Ans. (a)

vertebrae are lying in the lower back region?
31. Which of the following attaches the arms
a. 3 to the trunk?
b. 5
c. 7 a. Pelvic girdle
d. 9 b. Pectoral girdle
c. Hip girdle
Correct Ans. (b) d. None of these
 Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (c)

32. Which of the following connects the

scapula to the sternum? 37. The ankle bones are called:

a. Axis a. Tarsal
b. Atlas b. Carpels
c. Coccyx c. Metacarpels
d. Clavicle d. None of these

Correct Ans. (d) Correct Ans. (a)

33. The joint formed by the humerus with the 38. The number of ankle bone is:
scapula is:
a. 2
a. Hinge joint b. 8
b. Ball and socket joint c. 16
c. Multistage joint d. 20
d. None of these
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (b)
39. Which of the following is the
34. Which of the following joint is formed by characteristic of endoskeleton?
the radius and ulna at their distal end with
the wrist bones? a. Primitive
b. Inert
a. Hinbge c. Non-living
b. Ball and socket d. None of these
c. Multistage
d. All of these Correct Ans. (d)

Correct Ans. (c) 40. Which of the following is the character of

exoskeletion?
35. With how many wrist bones ulina and
radius form a joint? a. Rigid
b. Heavy
a. 4 c. Non-living
b. 8 d. All of these
c. 10
d. 12 Correct Ans. (d)

Correct Ans. (b) 41. Which of the following is not the

characteristics of endoskeleton?
36. Which of the following from knee joint
with the femur? a. Secreted by endodermal cells
b. Poses no hindrance to the growth
a. Illium c. Present in advanced animals
b. radius and ulna d. Can grow (living)
c. Tibia and Fibula
d. All of these Correct Ans. (a)
42. The bones forming endoskeleton in
vertebrates are:

a. living
b. non-living
c. secreted by endodermal cells
d. do not grow
Correct Ans. (a)

43. Which of the following have plantigrade

locomotion? CHAPTER 7

a. Bears Choose the most appropriate answer:

b. Fishes
c. Goat 1. Which of the following is not involved in
d. Snake asexual reproduction?

Correct Ans. (a) a. Binary fission

b. Multiple fissions
44. Which of the following have unguligrade c. Budding
type of locomotion? d. Gametes formation

a. Goat Correct Ans. (d)

b. Man
c. Rabbits 2. The gametes produced by female are
d. Bears called:

Correct Ans. (d) a. Ova

b. Sperms
45. Which of the following locomotion is c. Spores
present in horse? d. Ovaries

a. Plantigrade Correct Ans. (a)

b. Digitigrades
c. Unguligrade 3. Sperms are produced in male inside:
d. All of these
a. Ovaries
Correct Ans. (c) b. Kidney
c. Embryo
46. Which of the following have bipedal d. Testes
locomotion?
Correct Ans. (d)
a. Horse
b. Bear 4. An individual possessing both male and
c. Rodents female reproductive organs is called:
d. Man
a. imperfect
Correct Ans. (a) b. hermaphrodite
c. Unisexual
d. Neuter

Correct Ans. (b)

5. Which of the following conditions need 10. Which of the following mammals lay
huge supply of yolk to the egg? eggs?

a. viviparity a. Eutherians
b. Oviparity b. Prototherians
c. Both A & B c. Metatherians
d. None of these d. None of these Correct Ans.
Correct Ans. (b) (b)

6. Which of the following animals are

viviparous?
11. Which of the following expel imperfectly
a. Birds develop embryo out of the body?
b. Deer
c. Frog a. Prototherians
d. Snakes b. Eutherians
c. Metatherians
Correct Ans. (b) d. All of these

7. Which of the following lies to the extreme Correct Ans. (c)

outside completely covering the embryo?
12. Which of the following have developed
a. Amnion placentas for the nourishment of embryos?
b. Allantois
c. Chorion a. eutherians
d. None of these b. Prototherians
c. Metatherians
Correct Ans. (c) d. None of these

8. Which of the following acts as a reservoir Correct Ans. (a)

for undigested food and nitrogenous waste
products? 13. Which of the following are metatherians?

a. Allantoic cavity a. birds

b. Amnoitic cavity b. fishes
c. Chorion cavity c. kangaroos
d. None of these d. frogs

Correct Ans. (a) Correct Ans. (c)

9. Which of the following have no elaborate 14. Consider the following:

contact between the maternal and the
foetal tissues? Sharks
Birds
a. sharks Kangaroos
b. cats Monkeys
c. dogs Man
d. deers Cat

Correct Ans. (a) Which of the following is eutharian?

a. Man, shark, cat

 b. Cat, monkey, man 20. How many types of cells composed a
c. Cat, monkey, birds human ovary?
d. Kangaroos, cat, shark
a. 10
Correct Ans. (b) b. 7
15. The maturation of spermatozoa in man c. 4
takes place in: d. 2

a. Duct system Correct Ans. (d)

b. Seminiferous tubules
c. Vas deferens
d. Dpididymus

Correct Ans. (b)

16. The number of ova discouraged at one

time from the ovary in human is: 21. Which of the following is the function of
follicle cells?
a. none
b. one a. reproduction
c. two b. growth
d. many c. support and nutrition
d. none of these
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (c)
17. The fertilized ovum or zygote enters into:
22. Which of the following occurs if
a. Ovary fertilization fails to takes place in human
b. Kidney female?
c. Uterus
d. Oviduct a. Corpus luteum starts regenerating
b. Progesterone secretion increases
Correct Ans. (c) c. Uterus remains intact
d. Onset of menstruation
18. Which of the following is the approximate
gestation period in humans? Correct Ans. (d)

a. seven months 23. Which of the following stimulates the

b. nine months development and secretion of family in the
c. ten months mammary glands?
d. twelve months
a. Progesterone
Correct Ans. (b) b. Luteotropic hormone
c. Estrogen
19. Which of the following is involved in the d. Luteinizing hormone
control of menstrual cycle?
Correct Ans. (b)
a. Pituitary gland
b. Pancrease 24. Which of the following stimulates the
c. Thyroid gland release of the egg?
d. Placenta
a. Luteinizing hormone
Correct Ans. (a) b. Follicle stimulating hormone
c. Luteotropic hormone
 d. Progesterone

Correct Ans. (a)

25. In which of the following abortion of

embryo occurs if ovary is removed at any
stage to pregnancy?

a. Rabbits
b. Horses
c. Monkeys
d. Humans

Correct Ans. (a)

CHAPTER 8
6. The embryo at the transitory period
Choose the most appropriate answer between cleavage and Gastrulation is called:

1. In which of the following the zygote a. blastocoele

divides very rapidly to become b. blastuala
Multicellular? c. blastomere
d. blastopore
a. Gastrulation
b. Cleavage Correct Ans. (b)
c. Organogenesis
d. All of these 7. The initiation of Gastrulation is the
appearance at one side of a:
Correct Ans. (b)
a. bud
2. In which of the following the newly b. cleft
formed cells move from one place to other? c. outgrowth
d. opening
a. Cleavage
b. Organogenesis Correct Ans. (b)
c. Gastrulation
d. Growth 8. Which of the following region of ectoderm
gives rise to the neural plate?
Correct Ans. (c)
a. mid dorsal
3. Which of the following is not true of frog? b. mid ventral
c. anterior ventral
a. Lays eggs d. anterior dorsal
b. Embryo is formed outside the body
c. Eggs are laid on land Correct Ans. (a)
d. Fertilization is external
9. Which of the following is formed from the
Correct Ans. (c) somatic mesoderm lying on the two lateral
sides of the notochord?
4. Four micromeres and four macromeres are
formed in the developing zygote of frog a. vertebral column
after? b. muscles of the back
c. dermis of the skin
a. First cleavage d. all of these
b. Second cleavage
c. Third cleavage Correct Ans. (d)
d. Fourth cleavage
10. Which of the following is formed by the
Correct Ans. (c) ectoderm?

5. The two cells formed after first cleavage of a. urinary system

the zygote of frog are called: b. respiratory system
c. nervous system
a. micromeres d. vertebral column
b. macromeres
c. centromeres Correct Ans. (b)
d. blastomeres

Correct Ans. (d)

11. The process by which the tail of tadepole 16. Which of the following has a complete
is lost is called: genetic information in its nucleus for
formation of a complete individual?
a. Progressive
b. Retrogressive a. Thyroid gland
c. Organizational b. Pituitary gland
d. None of these c. Liver
d. Spleen
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (b)
12. Which of the following is organizational
change in frogs development? 17. Which of the following has a complete
genetic information in its nucleus for
a. disappearance of gills formation of a complete individual?
b. development of limbs
c. shortening of intestine a. egg
d. none of these b. sperm
c. zygote
Correct Ans. (c) d. none of these

13. Which of the following tissues are Correct Ans. (c)

regarded as organizers?
18. Muscle cells acquire special kinds of
a. notochordal proteins called:
b. somatic
c. reproductive a. Actin
d. none of these b. Insulin
c. Pectin
Correct Ans. (a) d. Lignin

14. Which of the following is a condition Correct Ans. (a)

known for small skull?
19. The nucleus of Acetabularia lies:
a. cleft plate
b. colour blindness a. at the tip
c. microcephaly b. in the stalk
d. microphylous c. in the cap
d. in the base
Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (d)
15. Which of the following is a condition
known for hare-lip? 20. Which of the following happens when the
two blastomeres of a sea urchin are
a. Microcephaly separated?
b. Cleft palate
c. Microspory a. Not develops into larva
d. None of these b. Each one develops into a larva
c. Only one develops into a larva
Correct Ans. (b) d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

CHAPTER 9

Choose the most appropriate answer: 5. Which of the following F2 talls will behave
like F1 hybrid talls?
1. In nature garden pea plant is
a. none
a. Self fertilized b. all
b. Cross fertilized c. 2/3
c. Both self and cross d. 1/3
d. None of these
Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (a)
6. The alternative form of a given gene is
2. Which of the following trait appears in the called:
F1 generation when true breeding plants
producing round seeds are crossed with a. trait
true breeding wrinkled seeds? b. phenotype
c. allele
a. All wrinkled d. recessive
b. Half round and half wrinkled
c. All round Correct Ans. (c)
d. Round and wrinkled appeared in
the ratio of 3.1 respectively 7. During gamete formation the two different
alleles of a trait
Correct Ans. (c)
a. separate
3. Which of the following trait is obtained in b. stay together
F1 generation when true breeding plants c. disappear
producing purple flowers is crossed with d. none of these
true breeding plants producing white
flowers? Correct Ans. (a)

a. All purple flowers 8. The gametes produced by a homozygous

b. All white flowers dwarf plant would of
c. Half purple and half white
d. Purple and white in the ratio of 3:1 a. one type
respectively b. two type
c. three type
Correct Ans. (a) d. four type

4. Which of the following F2 talls will behave Correct Ans. (a)

like F1 hybrid talls?
9. A child of homozygous blood group A is
a. all born of a father with homozygous blood
b. 1/3 group A. Which of the following will be
c. 2/3 the genotype of the child’s mother?
d. None
a. |A |B
Correct Ans. (b) b. |B |B
c. |B i
d. ii

Correct Ans. (a)

10. In the above cross what will be the 15. Baldness in human beings is hereditary
percentage of plants in F2 generation which is:
producing yellow round seeds?
a. Recessive in males
a. 20% b. Recessive in females
b. 36% c. dominant in males
c. 46% d. both b and c
d. 56%
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (d)
16. The inability of the body to utilize the
11. In the cross of question No. 45, what will sugars properly is due to:
be the percentage of plants in F2
generation producing yellow wrinkled a. a dominant gene
seeds? b. a recessive gene
c. two dominant genes
a. 18.75% d. multiple genes
b. 30.75%
c. 40% Correct Ans. (b)
d. 50%
17. The offspring of mating between two pure
Correct Ans. (a) stains are called:

12. How many types of gametes are possible a. hybrid

to be produced by a hybrid (heterozygous) b. mutants
pea plant producing yellow round seeds? c. the P generation
d. the F2 generation
a. 1
b. 2 Correct Ans. (a)
c. 3
d. 4 18. How many possible phenotypes are there
for the ABO blood group?
Correct Ans. (d)
a. 4
13. Which of the following possible number of b. 6
gene pairs control the skin colour in man? c. 8
d. 16
a. 2
b. 4 Correct Ans. (a)
c. 6
d. 8 19. A child with blood group genotype |A |B is
born of a woman with genotype |B |B.
Correct Ans. (d) The father of the child could not be of the
genotype.
14. Which of the following controls the colour
of eyes in human beings? a. |A |A
b. |B |B
a. brown pigment c. |B |B
b. Red pigment d. |A i
c. Blue-pigment
d. Green pigment Correct Ans. (b)

Correct Ans. (a)

20. In the above question, if the couple has
normal child, without phenylketonuria,
what is the probability this child is carrier CHAPTER 10
of the disease?
Choose the most appropriate answer:
a. 0.33
b. 0.50 1. The Mendel factors which control the
c. 0067 inheritance of characters are called:
d. 1.00
a. Chromosomes
Correct Ans. (c) b. RNA
c. Genes
21. When red-flowered snapdragons were d. Centrosomes
crossed with white-flowered plants, their
offspring have pink flowers. This type of Correct Ans. (c)
genotypic expression is called:
2. Gametes have:
a. dominant-recessive
b. co-dominance a. the same number of chromosomes
c. incomplete dominance as the body cells
d. all of these b. twice the number of chromosomes
as the body cells
Correct Ans. (c) c. half the number of chromosome, as
the body cells
22. The genotypic expression seen in a person d. one fourth the number of
of blood group AB is called: chromosomes as the body cells

a. dominant-recessive Correct Ans. (c)

b. codominance
c. incomplete dominance 3. Which of the following number of
d. corecession chromosomes are present in the somatic
cells of Drosophila?
Correct Ans. (b)
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 20

Correct Ans. (b)

4. Which of the following determines sex of

the offspring in human beings?

a. Sperm
b. Egg
c. Somatic cell
d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

5. Which of the following determines sex of 10. Gene for the trait of colour blandness in
the following in butterflies? man is located on

a. sperm a. autosomes
b. egg b. x chromosome
c. somatic cell c. y chromosome
d. all of these d. on both x and y chromosomes

Correct Ans. (b) Correct Ans. (b)

6. In which of the following, egg determines 11. A woman receives her x chromosome
sex of the offspring? from

a. Drosophila a. her mother only

b. Man b. her father only
c. Grass hopper c. both her mother and her father
d. Birds d. extra nuclear DNA in her mother’s
egg
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (c)
7. In the cross of male and female of F1
generation in Drosophila, what will be the 12. A man receives his x chromosome from
ratio of red eyed males among all the
offspring of F2 generation? a. his mother only
b. his father only
a. 25% c. part from his father and part from
b. 33% his mother
c. 50% d. either his mother or his father
d. 75%
Correct Ans. (a)
Correct Ans. (a)
13. Genes located on the same chromosome
8. Which of the following is sex-linked trait
in man? a. are assorted independently
b. obey Mendel’s law of independent
a. Eye colour assessment
b. Skin colour c. are not lined
c. Colour blindness d. are linked
d. Blood group
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (c)
14. Crossing over occurs when genetic
9. Colour blindness is a condition in which information is exchange between tow
the individuals have difficulty in
distinguishing: a. chromatids of a chromosome
b. long arms of a chromosome
a. Black from white c. chromatids of two homologous
b. White from green d. non homologues chrorhosomes?
c. Yellow from red
d. Red from green Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (d)
15. The failure of homologous chromosomes 20. Which of the following is the symptom of
to detach and segregate during meiosis is Down’s syndrome?
called:
a. physical and mental abnormality
a. crossing over b. sexual immaturity
b. no disjunction c. criminal tnndency
c. sysnapsis d. colour blindress
d. linkage
Correct Ans. (a)
Correct Ans. (b)
21. In which of the following females have 45
16. Which of the following defects is not chromosome number?
caused by non disjunction?
a. Down’s syndrome
a. Down syndrome b. Turners syndrome
b. Turner syndrome c. Klinefelter’s Syndrome
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome d. Immuno deficiency syndrome
d. Acquired immuno deficiency
syndrome Correct Ans. (b)

Correct Ans. (d)

17. Individual having Down’s syndrome,

contains chromo-some number

a. 47
b. 45
c. 46
d. 44

Correct Ans. (a)

18. Females with Turner’s syndrome have

chromosomes

a. xx
b. x
c. xxx
d. xxy

Correct Ans. (b)

19. In Klinefelters syndrome females posses

a. xx
b. xy
c. xxy
d. xxx

Correct Ans. (d)

CHAPTER 11 6. Which of the following nitrogenous bases
is absent in the nucleotides of DNA?
Choose the most appropriate answer:
a. Thymine
1. Which of the following is present in the b. Adenine
chemical composition of DNA c. Uracil
d. Cytosine
a. Sulphur
b. Phosphours Correct Ans. (c)
c. Lodine
d. Potassium 7. Which of the following different types of
nucleotides form DNA molecule?
Correct Ans. (b)
a. 2
2. Which of the following is absent in the b. 3
virus proteins? c. 4
d. 5
a. sulphur
b. phosphours Correct Ans. (c)
c. nitrogen
d. carbon 8. According to Waston and Crick model of
DNA, each molecule is made up of
Correct Ans. (b)
a. one strand
3. DNA is formed of units called: b. two strands which run parallel
c. two strands which twist around
a. nucleotides each other
b. glucose d. three stands
c. amino acids
d. fatty acids Correct Ans. (c)

Correct Ans. (a) 9. The two strands of DNA molecule are held
together by weak:
4. Which of the following is not the chemical
component of a nucleotide of DNA? a. hydrogen bonds
b. Carbon bonds
a. Deoxyribose sugar c. Lonic bonds
b. Phosphate group d. Oxygen bonds
c. Nitrogenous base
d. Amino acid Correct Ans. (a)

Correct Ans. (d) 10. Which of the following proved

conclusively that DNA is the genetic material?
5. The different types nitrogenous based
which from different nucleotides are: a. Waston and Crick
b. Griffith
a. 4 c. Hershey and Chase
b. 5 d. Laderburg and Tatum
c. 6
d. 7 Correct Ans. (b) Correct Ans. (c)
11. The 5-Carbon sugar in RNA molecule is: 16. In a double helix-model of DNA, the
distance between two base pairs is:
a. Deoxyribose
b. Ribose a. 0.034 nm
c. Glucose b. 0.34 nm
d. Fructose c. 3.4 nm
d. 34 nm
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (b)
12. In the RNA molecule nitrogenous base
Uracil is substituted for: 17. Which of the following bring a particular
amino acid to a particular specified place?
a. cytosine
b. adenine a. tRNA
c. guanine b. mRNA
d. thymine c. rRNA
d. DNA
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (a)
13. Genetic information in a DNA molecule is
coded in: 18. The code for specifying amino acid
consists of
a. sequence of nucleotides
b. base pairings a. one base
c. proportion of each base present b. two base
d. the turning pattern of the helix c. three bases
d. four bases
Correct Ans. (a)
Correct Ans. (c)
14. The two strands of double helix model of
DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds 19. Which of the following is genetic code for
between. methionine?

a. Sugar and phosphate groups a. UGG

b. Sugar and nitrogenous bases b. UCG
c. Phosphate groups and nitrogenous c. GUA
bases d. AUG
d. Nitrogenous bases
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (d)
20. Beadle and Tatum in their experiments on
15. The number of cytosine bases in a DNA genetics in 1941, used the
molecule.
a. bacteriophase
a. is equal to the number of uracil b. bacteria
bases c. Neurospora
b. is equal to the number of guanine d. Rhizopus
bases
c. is equal to the number of adenine Correct Ans. (c)
bases
d. cannot be predicted

Correct Ans. (b)

21. Which of the following is true of
Neurospora? 26. About how much of the DNA in a
eukayotic cell is expressed at any one time?
a. It is an autotroph
b. Is a parasite a. 1 percent
c. Can grow in minimal medium b. 20 percent
d. Black bread mold c. 50 percent
d. 80 percent
Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (a)
22. Which is the following is present in place
of glutamic acid in sickle cell trait? 27. The function of mRNA is to

a. bases a. provide specific binding sites for a

b. sugars series of specific tRNA molecule.
c. phosphate b. Hold a group of ribosomes together
d. groups c. Transfer the genetic code to rRNA
e. fatty acids d. Transfer the genetic code to DNA

Correct Ans. (c) Correct Ans. (a)

23. Instructions for the order of amino acids in 28. The function of tRNA is to
a polypeptide chain are coded along a
DNA strand into the sequence of: a. form a site for protein synthesis
b. transcribe the genetic code
a. bases c. transport specific amino acids to
b. sugars specific sites on the mRNA
c. phosphate groups d. synthesize amino acids
d. fatty acids
Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (a)
29. Which of the following unwound double
24. The enzyme which is used to break open helix of DNA during replication?
the plasmid ring is called:
a. DNA ligase
a. recombinant enzyme b. Primase
b. restriction enzyme c. DNA polymerase
c. reductase enzyme d. Helicase
d. carboxylase enzyme
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (b)

25. Of the 64 codons, how may code for

amino acids?

a. 20
b. 22
c. 40
d. 61

Correct Ans. (d)

CHAPTER 12
6. Elephants begin to breed at age of
Choose the most appropriate answer:
a. six months
1. Which of the following is the age of the b. six years
earth according to the scientific belief? c. thirty years
d. fifty years
a. one million years
b. 5 million years Correct Ans. (c)
c. 6 billion years
d. 15 billion years 7. Elephants are considered to one of the

Correct Ans. (c) a. slowest breeders among vertebrates

b. fastest breeders among vertebrates
2. Variations in the living organisms are: c. slowest breeders among
invertebrate
a. absent d. Fastest breeders among
b. of two kinds invertebrate
c. of three kinds
d. of four kinds Correct Ans. (a)

Correct Ans. (b) 8. Organisms fully adapted to their

environment
3. Which of the following is true of a
population? a. will gradually perish
b. can not survive
a. all individuals are exactly alike c. have low survival chances
b. 50% individuals are exactly alike d. have high survival chances
c. 10% of individuals are exactly
alike Correct Ans. (d)
d. no two individuals are exactly alike
9. Organs that serve no apparent purpose are
Correct Ans. (d) called

4. Paramecium divides a. abortive

b. vestigial
a. three times a day c. reproductive
b. ten times a day d. degenerative
c. after three days
d. after ten days Correct Ans. (b)

Correct Ans. (a) 10. Which of the following is the vestigial

organ in human body?
5. During one breeding season a code fish
lays a. nose
b. radius
a. one egg c. ear muscle
b. hundred eggs d. humerus
c. thousand eggs
d. million of eggs Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (d)
11. Different sorts of remains of organisms
that live in the past era are called: 16. In heavy industrial areas the colours of
moth was changed to
a. microorganisms
b. fossils a. yellow
c. birds b. green
d. horses c. brown
d. coal black
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (d)
12. Which of the following has greatest
diversity of living things? 17. The absence of lichens from tree trunks in
an area is an indication of
a. palearctic
b. nearctic a. absence of pollution
c. Australian b. presence of pollution
d. Ethiopian c. absence of industries
d. clear and pleasant air
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (b)
13. Which of these show an unusual fauna and
flora? 18. The gradual process of change that occurs
in populations of organisms over along
a. Ethiopian period of time, leading to the formation of
b. Palearctic new species is called:
c. Neotropical
d. Nearctic a. organic evolution
b. inorganic evolution
Correct Ans. (c) c. genetic drift
d. none of these
14. In which of the following the spread of
fauna and flora has often been greatly Correct Ans. (a)
limited by the harshness of the climate?

a. Oriental
b. Nearctic
c. Ethiopian
d. Australian

Correct Ans. (b)

15. It was observed in England that before

industrial expansion the colour of the
wings and bodies of the prevalent variety
of moth was

a. light
b. red
c. green
d. dark

Correct Ans. (a)

CHAPTER 13
Choose the most appropriate answer: 5. Which of the following is recycled in a
balanced ecosystem?
1. Within a community living organisms:
a. Carbon, Nitrogen, energy
a. interact with members of their own b. Hydrogen, energy, oxygen
species c. Nitrogen, carbon, hydrogen
b. Do not interact with members of d. Energy, nitrogen, oxygen
their own species
c. Do not interact with members of Correct Ans. (c)
other species
d. All of these 6. Consider the following ecosystems:
i. pond
Correct Ans. (a) ii. lake
iii. river
2. It is a group of populations of different iv. dam
organisms living in the same area and v. aquarium
sharing the same resources:
Which of the following groups make
a. community natural ecosystem?
b. Environment
c. Biome a. I, II and IV
d. Ecosystem b. II, III and IV
c. I, III and V
Correct Ans. (a) d. I, II and III

3. It is a specific locality with particular set Correct Ans. (d)

of environment conditions where
organisms 7. It is the ultimate source of energy for all
natural ecosystem:
a. Biome
b. Habitat a. food
c. Atmosphere b. producers
d. Lithosphere c. sunlight
d. water
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (c)
4. Within the same habitat each organism has
definite functional position different from 8. Most life in the biosphere functions within
other organisms. This is called: the temperature range of:

a. Ecological Ecosystem a. 0---------- 50o C

b. Ecological pyramid b. 6---------- 50o C
c. Ecological Niche c. 10---------- 50o C
d. None of these d. 5---------- 50o C

Correct Ans. (c) Correct Ans. (a)

9. Cactus and Euphorbia have developed
thick cuticle to overcome the problem of:

a. very low temperature

b. excess of water
c. deficiency of loss of water
d. deficiency of minerals
 c. Gravity
Correct Ans. (c) d. Radiations
Correct Ans. (a)
10. Flag form or one sided trees develop
under the influence of: 15. Atmospheric pressure and temperature are
two phenomena
a. water deficiency
b. very low temperature a. both increase with increasing
c. strong winds in one direction altitude
d. intense sunlight b. both decreases with increasing
altitude
Correct Ans. (c) c. do not change with changing
altitude
11. Consider the following d. pressure increases while
temperature decreases with
I. CO2 increasing altitude
II. O2
III. H2O Correct Ans. (b)
IV. N2
16. Following are some consumers:
Which one of the following is used as raw
material by the green plants during a. Rabbits
photosynthesis? b. Dog
c. Man
a. I & II d. Insects
b. I & III
c. II & III Correct Ans. (d)
d. III & IV
17. Which of the following zones is beyond
Correct Ans. (b) the reach of light penetration?

12. It brings sudden changes in the ecosystem: a. Profundal

b. Limnetic
a. Temperature c. Littoral
b. Soil d. All of these
c. Fire
d. Topography Correct Ans. (a)

Correct Ans. (c) 18. Freshwater habitats are divided into two
categories, standing water and running
13. The top soil is generally dark brown in water, oxygen concentration
colour due to the presence of:
a. Remains the same in both of these
a. water regions
b. nitrogen b. High in standing and low in
c. phosphorus running water
d. humus c. Low in standing and high in
running water
Correct Ans. (d) d. None of these
14. Which one of the following abiotic factors
has no direct influence on the organisms? Correct Ans. (c)

a. Topography
b. Temperature
19. To overcome the problems of thinness of
atmosphere and pull of gravity, land plants 23. In Pakistan taxus baccata, and berberis
have developed: lysium are the prominent trees found in:

a. Thick corky bark in plants a. Tundra ecosystem

b. Water storage tissues b. Tropical rain forest
c. Deeply penetrated root system c. Coniferous alpine forest
d. Supporting and strengthening d. Temperate deciduous forests
tissues
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (d)
24. It is characterized by long sever winters
20. In tropical rain forests annual rain falls: and a constant cover a winter snow:

a. Exceeds 2000 mm a. Coniferous alpine forests

b. Between 1000-2000 mm b. Temperate deciduous forest
c. Below 1000 mm c. Tropical rain forest
d. Exceeds 4000 mm d. Grasslands

Correct Ans. (a) Correct Ans. (a)

21. Consider the following characters: 25. They are characterized by periodic and
often sever droughts:
I. Decomposition of litter is quick
II. Growing season shrinks to 3 to 4 a. Deserts
months b. Grasslands
III. Forest is highly stratified c. Tundra
IV. Great diversity of trees d. Coniferous forests

Which one of the following is the Correct Ans. (a)

characteristics of Tropical Rain forest?
26. Unreliable and unevenly distributed less
a. I, II & III than 250 mm annual rain fall are
b. I, III & IV characteristics of:
c. II, III & IV
d. I, II & IV a. Tropics
b. Grasslands
Correct Ans. (b) c. Deserts
d. Savana
22. Abundant evenly distributed rain fall and
moderate temperature are the Correct Ans. (c)
characteristics of:
27. Surface feeders are desert plants which:
a. Coniferous forests
b. Desert ecosystem a. grow on the surface
c. Temperate deciduous b. Spread over the surface
forests c. Have deep root system
d. Tundra ecosystem d. Have shallow root system

Correct Ans. (c) Correct Ans. (d)

28. Cacti and Euphorbias naturally occur in:
33. A population is a group of
a. Deserts
b. Grasslands a. species in a community
c. Savanna b. communities in an ecosystem
d. Temperate deciduous forests c. individuals in a species
d. individuals in family
Correct Ans. (a)
Correct Ans. (c)
29. Trees can not grow above timber line
because of: 34. An ecological community is an
assemblage of:
a. Abundant water
b. Harsh environmental conditions a. family units
c. Deficiency of organic matter b. food webs
d. Absence of sunlight c. interacting populations
d. closely related species
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (c)
30. Permafrost is characteristic of:
35. Competition for light is more intense
a. Coniferous Alpine forest among the plants of
b. Coniferous boreal forests
c. Tundra ecosystem a. tropical rain forests
d. Deserts b. temperate deciduous forests
c. coniferous alpine forests
Correct Ans. (c) d. coniferous boreal forests

31. The tundra of high altitude is called: Correct Ans. (a)

a. Arctic tundra 36. Most animals are tree dwellers in a

b. Antarctic tundra
c. Boreal Tundra a. temperate deciduous forests
d. Alpine tundra b. tropical rainforests
c. tropical deciduous forests
Correct Ans. (d) d. coniferous forest

32. Most of the plants ceases to grow at a Correct Ans. (b)

temperature below:
37. Epiphytes are most abundant in a
a. 6 oC
b. 10 oC a. tropical rain forests
c. 15 oC b. temperate deciduous forests
d. 20 oC c. thorn woodland
d. scrubland
Correct Ans. (a)
Correct Ans. (a)
 b. affects plant distribution
c. does not affect plant distribution
d. does not affect plant movements

Correct Ans. (b)

38. Nights are cool in the desert because:

43. Which of the following plays a role in
a. they dry air does not radiate much brining variation in temperature?
heat to the earths surface
b. the elevation is always high a. amount of precipitation
c. so much heat is absorbed by the b. distance from oceans
earth’s surface during the day c. presence of forests
d. the air pressure is low d. all of these

Correct Ans. (a) Correct Ans. (d)

39. Aquatic ecosystems cover approximately 44. Which of the following needs plenty of
how much of the earth’s surface? water for its elimination from the animal
body?
a. 20%
b. 40% a. uric acid
c. 75% b. ammonia
d. 90% c. carbon dioxide
d. oxygen
Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (b)
40. Which of the following is ecological zone
of shallow water is standing water 45. Which of the following is not an important
ecosystem? gas in the atmosphere?

a. Limnetic a. Nitrogen
b. Profundal b. Carbon dioxide
c. Pool c. Oxygen
d. Littoral d. Sulphur dioxide

Correct Ans. (d) Correct Ans. (d)

41. Which of the following is not recycled in 46. Under the influence of strong winds at
an ecosystem? high mountain, plants may develop

a. Nitrogen a. Flag form

b. Carbon b. Flowers
c. Energy c. Food storing organs
d. Hydrogen d. Flattened leaves
Correct Ans. (a)
Correct Ans. (c)
47. Which of the following is not true of the
42. The amount of sunlight top soil?

a. does not affect plant growth

 a. inhibited by plant roots and other 52. Which of the following is not true of
living organisms Limnetic zone?
b. containing no chemical substances
and is less fertile a. open water body
c. approximately 10-20 cm in b. presence of phytoplankton
thickness c. lighted zone
d. is generally dark brown in colour d. presence of rooted plants
because of humus
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (b)

48. Which of the following is the most

constant abiotic factor of the environment? 53. As compared to standing water, oxygen
concentration in moving water is:
a. water
b. gravity a. the same
c. temperature b. low
d. soil c. high
d. none of these
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (c)
49. Which of the following are the principal
primary consumers in an aquatic 54. Which of the following is the
ecosystem? characteristic of running water?

a. small crustaceans a. uneven distribution of oxygen

b. insects b. animal are not sensitive to organic
c. rodents pollution
d. ruminants c. animals show narrow range of
tolerance
Correct Ans. (a) d. low supply of oxygen

50. In which of the following life is most Correct Ans. (c)

conspicuous?
55. Running water habitat in streams is also
a. Limnetic zone called:
b. Littoral zone
c. Profundal zone a. lentic water
d. All of these b. benthic
c. lotic water
Correct Ans. (b) d. none of these

51. Which of the following would be the case Correct Ans. (c)
in the absence of decomposers in an
ecosystem? 56. In contrast to aquatic habitat, land habitat
for the organisms to inhabit is:
a. nutrients would be recycled
b. new life would be produced as a a. tough and harsh
usual b. easy
c. nutrients would remain tied up in c. more favourable
the dead bodies d. not difficult
d. ecosystem would run normally
Correct Ans. (c) Correct Ans. (a)
57. The thick corky bark in plants act as a/an 62. Which of the following is not the character
of desert animals?
a. storage tissue
b. insulting layer a. presence of sweat gland
c. meristematic tissue b. presence of salt secreting glands
d. water conducting tissue c. excretion of nitrogenous wastes in
the form concentrated urine
Correct Ans. (b) d. large ears

Correct Ans. (a)

58. In which of the following, decomposition

of litter occurs quickly?
63. The tundra of high altitude is called:
a. Coniferous alpine forest
b. temperate deciduous forest a. temperate tundra
c. alpine tundra b. arctic tundra
d. tropical rain forest c. tropical tundra
d. alpine tundra
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (d)
59. There is distinct stratification of vegetation
and four layers in the forests are 64. Arrange the following in descending order
recognized in: with regard to the annual amount of
rainfall, starting with the first that receive
a. arctic tundra maximum amount of rainfall and the last
b. deserts with minimum amount.
c. savanna
d. temperate deciduous forests a. temperate deciduous forest
b. deserts
Correct Ans. (d) c. grasslands
d. tropical rain forests
60. In which of the following decomposition
of litter is slow and growing season Correct Ans. (d-a-c-b)
shrinks to 3 or 4 months?
65. Arrange the following ecosystem in
a. tropical rain forests descending order in respect of the rate of
b. deserts decomposition of organic matter (litter) on
c. coniferous alpine forest the forest floor, starting from the one with
d. temperate deciduous forests high rate of decomposition.
Correct Ans. (c)
a. coniferous alpine forest
61. Humidity is always low in b. temperate deciduous forests
c. tropical rain forests
a. alpine tundra d. alpine tundra
b. deserts Correct Ans. (c-b-a-d)
c. tropical rain forests
d. temperate deciduous forests 66. Epiphytes are more abundant in a:

Correct Ans. (b) a. temperate deciduous forests

b. deserts
c. tropical rain forest
 d. grasslands

Correct Ans. (c)

67. All are abiotic factors except

a. animals
b. sunlight
c. air
d. soil

Correct Ans. (a)

CHAPTER 14 6. The final result of overgrazing is:
Choose the most appropriate answer:
a. Green fields
1. The killing of prey in large number in an b. More food
area: c. Barren fields
d. Pleasant weather
a. increases predator population
b. balances the ecosystem Correct Ans. (c)
c. reduces the predator population
d. does not affect the predator 7. The back of forth movements of chemical
population elements between organisms and
environment is called:
Correct Ans. (c)
a. Biological cycle
2. A species in an area with out its natural b. Biochemical cycle
predator leads to: c. Biogeochemical cycle
d. Biodiversity
a. Useful results
b. Disastrous results Correct Ans. (c)
c. Balances ecosystem
d. None of these 8. Consider the following:

Correct Ans. (b) I. CO2

II. Carbohydrates
3. Roundworm and Plasmodium are example III. Lipids
of: IV. Proteins

a. Symbionts Which one of the following groups is used

b. Endoparasites by the animals as source of Carbon.
c. Ectoparasites
d. Predators a. I, II & IV
b. I, III & IV
Correct Ans. (b) c. II, III & IV
d. I, II & III
4. An interaction between two organisms in
which neither can survive without the Correct Ans. (c)
other is:
9. Nitrogen is vital to plants and animals for
a. Predation the synthesis of:
b. Parasitism
c. Commensalisms a. Sucrose
d. Mutualism b. Proteins
c. Fructose
Correct Ans. (d) d. Waxes

5. Mycorrhizae and lichens are examples of: Correct Ans. (b)

10. Which of the following is the source of
a. Mutualism soil nitrates?
b. Commensalism
c. Grazing a. Decomposition of cellulose
d. Predation b. Decomposition of Lipids
c. Decomposition of Proteins
Correct Ans. (a) d. Decomposition of Glycogen and
starches
 Correct Ans. (c)

11. Nitrification is the conversion of:

16. Which of the following concerned with
a. Nitrates into ammonia denitrificaiton?
b. Ammonia into nitrates
c. Nitrates into free nitrogen a. Pseudomonas
d. Amino acids into ammonia a. Nitrosomonas
b. Nitrobacter
Correct Ans. (b) c. Nostoc

12. Nitrosomonas converts: Correct Ans. (a)

a. Ammonia to nitrites 17. Consider the following:

b. Ammonia to nitrates
c. Amino acids to ammonia I. Nitrification
d. Ammonia to amino acids II. Nitrogen fixation
III. Denitrification
Correct Ans. (a) IV. Thunderstorm

13. Nitrification takes place in: Which one of the following groups
increase soil fertility?
a. Anaerobic condition
b. Aerobic Condition a. I, III & IV
c. Not affected by any of the above b. I, II & IV
conditions c. II, III & IV
d. All of these d. I, II & III

Correct Ans. (b) Correct Ans. (b)

14. Which one of the following is concerned 18. Energy flow in the ecosystem is:
with non-symbiotic nitrogen fixation?
a. Cyclic
a. Nitrobacter b. Two directional
b. Rhizobium c. One directional
c. Closteridium d. Not needed
d. Nitrosomonas
Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (c)
19. From the top carnivores energy is:
15. Denitrifying bacteria converts:
a. Passed to the herbivores
a. Nitrites into nitrates b. Recycled and passed on to the
b. Ammonia into nitrates producers
c. Free nitrogen into nitrates c. Passed to the consumers
d. Nitrates into free nitrogen d. Lost to the space in the form of
heat
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (d)
20. Of the total sunlight that strikes the green
plants, the amount absorbed by the 25. Energy and nutrients enter a community
chlorophyll is about by way of the

a. one half a. producers

b. one third b. consumers
c. two third c. scavengers
d. one fourth d. decomposers

Correct Ans. (a) Correct Ans. (a)

21. The amount of absorbed energy that is 26. A group of interconnected food chains is
used in photosynthesis and stored as called a
chemical energy of food is almost:
a. pyramid of energy
a. 20% b. complex food chain
b. 25% c. food web
c. 35% d. food cycle
d. 50%
Correct Ans. (c)
Correct Ans. (b)
27. The rate of which light energy is converted
22. At each step in the transfer of energy from to the chemical energy of organic
one organism to another, a large part of the molecules is the ecosystem’s
energy is:
a. net primary productivity
a. Fixed b. gross primary productivity
b. Utilized c. net secondary productivity
c. Stored d. gross secondary productivity
d. Lost Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (b)
23. Net primary productivity is determined by
the relative rates of: 28. About how much of the chemical energy
within producer tissues becomes chemical
a. photosynthesis energy within herbivore tissues?
b. respiration
c. both a & b a. 1%
d. none of these b. 10%
c. 60%
Correct Ans. (c) d. 90%

24. Primary productivity is the production of Correct Ans. (b)

new organic matter at the
29. About how much of the absorbed light
a. Consumers level energy by the green plants becomes
b. Producers level chemical energy within the producers
c. Decomposers level tissues?
d. Herbivores level
a. 1%
Correct Ans. (b) b. 10%
c. 50%
 d. 75% Correct Ans. (a-2; b-3; c-4; d-1)

Correct Ans. (b)

30. Arrange the following types of ecosystems

in terms of their net primary productivity 34. From the top carnivores energy is:
in descending order, starting with the one
being the most productive and last the least a. transferred to the producers
productive? b. transferred to the herbivores
c. available to the ecosystem and is
a. Temperate deciduous forests recycled
b. Deserts d. not available to the ecosystem
c. Grasslands again but is lost to the space
d. Tropical rain forests
Correct Ans. (d)
Correct Ans. (d-a-c-b)
35. The nodule in a plant root, where nitrogen-
31. Which of the following kingdoms contains fixing bacteria live, forms from cells of the
species that can fix nitrogen?
a. epidermis
a. Fungi b. cortex
b. Protista c. endodermis
c. Plantae d. vascular cambium
d. Monera
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (d)
36. Bacteria that live in the nodules of pea and
32. Mutualism is an interaction between two beans belong to which of the following
species in which genera?

a. both are harmed a. Rhizobium

b. both benefit b. Closteridium
c. one benefits and the other is neither c. Pseudomonas
helped nor harmed d. Nitrobacter
d. one benefits and the other is
harmed Correct Ans. (a)

Correct Ans. (b) 37. Which of the following plants will enrich
the soil with nitrogen?
33. Match the following terms with their
definitions a. Corn
b. Wheat
a. ammonification 1. conversion of c. Rice
atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into d. Bean
nitrates
b. denitrificaiton 2. conversion of Correct Ans. (d)
organic nitrogen (in amino acids)
into ammonia 38. The carbon and hydrogen present in the
c. nitrification 3. conversion of nitrite bodies of animals in the forms of various
or nitrates into atmospheric compounds are released to the
nitrogen environment during the processes of
d. nitrogen fixation 4. conversion of
ammonium into nitrites and nitrate. a. photosynthesis
b. transpiration
c. respiration and decomposition
d. denitrificaiton

Correct Ans. (c)

CHAPTER 15 a. Bacteria
b. Virus
c. Acid Rain
Choose the most appropriate answer: d. Grazing
1. The concentration of CO2 in atmosphere Correct Ans. (c)
is:
7. Repeated crop production result in:
a. 0.3%
b. 0.03% a. Increase in soil fertility
c. 3.0% b. Decrease in soil fertility
d. 30.0% c. Accumulation of more organic
matter
Correct Ans. (b) d. Increase in soil nutrients
2. It is a poisonous gas and 1% of it in air can Correct Ans. (b)
kill a person in 5 minutes:
8. Which of the following groups of crops
a. N2 grown continuously is not suitable?
b. CO2
c. CO a. Wheat, Pea and Corn
d. NO2 b. Corn, Pea and Rice
c. Wheat, Rice and Corn
Correct Ans. (c) d. Rice, Pea and Wheat
3. CO is produced when fossil fuels are burnt Correct Ans. (c)
in air in the presence of limited supply of:
9. The removal of surface soil by the action
a. H2 of water or wind is called:
b. CO2
c. N2 a. Soil depletion
d. O2 b. Sod Bound
c. Pollution
Correct Ans. (d) d. Soil erosion
4. Green house effect is the result of: Correct Ans. (d)
a. Air pollution 10. Man cut down forests and has:
b. Forestation
c. Ultra violet radiations a. Disturbed native plants and native
d. Water pollution animals
b. Contributed to the cleanliness of air
Correct Ans. (a) c. Produced good effects on natural
environment
5. Acid rains in the result of: d. Encouraged native plants and
animals
a. Clear air
b. Burning of fossil fuels Correct Ans. (a)
c. Forestation 11. Fossil fuels are:
d. None of these
a. Geothermal, Biomass and natural
Correct Ans. (b) gas
6. Stone cancer is caused by:
 b. Ocean-thermal gradient, waves, oil
and tides Correct Ans. (c)
c. Coal, oil and natural gas
d. Coal, geothermal and oil
Correct Ans. (c)

12. Splitting of the nucleus of radioactive

atom releases: 17. The recommended diet per day for an
average young man should contain:
a. Energy
b. Electricity a. 2400 calories
c. Water b. 1400 calories
d. Air c. 24000 calories
d. 3400 calories
Correct Ans. (a)
13. The real problem and difficulties of Correct Ans. (a)
depending upon nuclear energy is that:
18. Minimum protein requirement for an
a. it is extremely expensive average adult is between:
b. it is exhaustible
c. it has environmental hazards a. 75 – 100 grams
d. None of these b. 50 – 75 grams
c. 37 – 62 grams
Correct Ans. (c) d. 20 – 30 grams

14. An accident in a nuclear reactor at Correct Ans. (c)

Chernoble Nuclear Power Plant occurred
during 1986 in: 19. Protein deficiency in early childhood
mainly affects:
a. USA
b. USSR a. Bone formation
c. China b. Learning capacity
d. Korea c. Digestive system
d. Circulatory system
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (b)
15. The average flow of solar energy per
square kilometer on earth’s surface is: 20. Calcium deficient diet in early childhood
causes bones deformation which may lead
a. 80,000 Kilowatts to disease called:
b. 180,000 kilowatts
c. 200,000 kilowatts a. Leprosy
d. 280,000 kilowatts b. Tuberculosis
c. Rickets
Correct Ans. (b) d. Small Pox

16. The digestion of organic wastes by Correct Ans. (c)

bacteria for the generation of energy is
termed: 21. Which of the following groups is
infectious diseases?
a. Hydrogenation
b. Pyrolysis a. Goiter, Small Pox and Tetanus
c. Biodegradation b. Tetanus, Measles and Diphtheria
d. Bioconversion c. Anemia, Small Pox and Pneumonia
 d. Measles, Tuberculosis and Goiter the verge of extinction. Therefore these
organisms are known to be the:
Correct Ans. (b) a. endangered species
b. cultivated species
c. hybrid species
d. expanding species

22. Stresses and anxiety of fast life may Correct Ans. (a)
contribute to the development of:
27. Which of the following is advantage of the
a. Tuberculosis hydro electric power as compared to other
b. Small pox sources of energy?
c. Pneumonia
d. Heart disease and blood pressure a. more expensive
b. hazardous
Correct Ans. (d) c. clean and pollution free
d. none of these
23. The first insecticide used on a large scale
was Correct Ans. (c)

a. 2, 4-D 28. The energy produced due to natural

b. DDT radioactive decay in the earth’s core is called:
c. Methane
d. Mercury a. Ocean thermal gradient
b. Geothermal
Correct Ans. (b) c. Tidal power
d. Hydroelectric power
24. The accumulation of carbon dioxide on
global scale tends to warm the air in the Correct Ans. (b)
lower level of the atmosphere. Which of
the following factor does not contribute to 29. Which of the following is the option
this phenomenon? (possibility) before the biologists to be
used as human food in future?
a. heavy industrialization
b. urbanization a. farm industry’
c. burning of fossil fuel b. seaweeds (kelps)
d. forestation c. cigarettes industries
Correct Ans. (d) d. computer

25. Due to the repeated crop production in the Correct Ans. (b)
same soil, some nutrients are not returned
to the soil and as a result soil fertility is 30. Which of the following is approximate rate
reduced. This is called: of child mortality in Pakistan due to
malnutrition ?
a. soil erosion
b. soil depletion a. 10%
c. sod bound b. 20%
d. none of these c. 30%
d. 40%
Correct Ans. (b)
Correct Ans. (a)
26. As a result of destruction of natural habitat
of the living organisms by the activity of 31. The deficiency of which of these causes
man, these organisms, either die out or on anemia in man?
 a. Ca
b. Iron
c. Na
d. Iodine

Correct Ans. (b)

32. The deficiency of iodine in the diet causes

malfunctioning of
CHAPTER 16
a. salivary glands Choose the most appropriate answer:
b. liver
c. thyroid gland 1. Responses built in nervous system as part
d. pancreas of animal’s inherited structure are termed:

Correct Ans. (c) a. Learning

b. Creative
33. Which of the following was totally c. Formative
eradicated from the world by the year 1980? d. Instinctive

a. tuberculosis Correct Ans. (d)

b. small pox
c. pneumonia 2. The tendency of young birds to fly in
d. influenza flocks with integrated movement is termed:
Correct Ans.
(b) a. Allelomimetic behaviour
b. Eliminative behaviour
34. Which of the following is an infectious c. Investigative behaviour
disease? d. Agonistic behaviour

a. tuberculosis Correct Ans. (a)

b. blood pressure
c. goiter 3. Agonistic behaviour is the:
d. heart disease
a. tendency to seek out optimum
Correct Ans. (a) environmental conditions
b. Fighting with the intruders
35. According to health reports, a smoker runs c. Making noises and holding their
a risk of reducing his/her life expectancy heads up
for every cigarette he/she smokes by about d. The lifting out of the faces and
urine out of the nest by the parent
a. zero minutes birds
b. one minute
c. five minutes Correct Ans. (b)
d. 12 minutes
4. The modification of behaviour by previous
Correct Ans. (D) experience is called:

a. Ingestive behaviour
b. Learning behaviour
c. Digestive behaviour
d. Perceptive behaviour
 Correct Ans. (b) 10. Which of the following is true of the
howling monkeys?
5. The response of animals to stimuli which a. males carry the young ones from
are rewarded is called: pace to place
a. Latent learning b. the old males are very careful of
b. Insight learning the young ones
c. Conditioned reflex type 1 c. the females carry the young ones
d. Conditioned reflex type II from place to place
d. the adult females fight with each
Correct Ans. (d) other
Correct Ans. (c)
6. Which of the following are organized into
a “peck order” or dominance hierarchy?

a. monkeys
b. hens
c. black birds
d. cats

Correct Ans. (b)

7. In which of the following there is a

tendency for the males to lead the flock?

a. sheep
b. monkeys
c. cats
d. none of these

Correct Ans. (b)

8. In which of the following there is a

tendency for the females to lead the flock?

a. sheep
b. howling monkeys
c. cats
d. none of these

Correct Ans. (a)

9. The young ones of precocial birds

a. can walk at hatching and do not

stay in the nest
b. needs sometime rest time at
hatching and cannot walk
c. can not walk without their real
mother
d. can not attaché themselves to any
other moving object

Correct Ans. (a)