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QUESTION 1.
The nine judge constitution bench has declared that ‘Right to Privacy’ is a Fundamental Right in
Constitution. According to SC, Right to Privacy is an intrinsic part of
Solution (b)
The nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court headed by Chief Justice of India JS
Khehar in a landmark unanimous decision has declared right to privacy a fundamental right
under the constitution.
The apex court ruled that right to privacy is an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal
Liberty under Article 21 and entire Part III of the Constitution.
It overruled the apex court’s earlier two judgments that right to privacy is not protected under
the Constitution.
Think
· Right to Privacy
QUESTION 2.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Pitt’s India Act of 1784?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
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2. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body
called Board of Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of double
government.
3. It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and
military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.
Thus, the act was significant for two reasons: first, the Company’s territories in India were for
the first time called the ‘British possessions in India’; and second, the British Government was
given the supreme control over Company’s affairs and its administration in India.
Note:
Think
· Board of Control
· Board of Directors
QUESTION 3.
Who of the following is known as ‘Father of Communal Electorate’?
a) Lord Chemsford
b) Lord Minto
c) Lord Dalhousie
d) Lord Curzon
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
Lord Minto introduced Morley – Minto Reforms (Indian Councils Act 1909). In this for the first
time separate electorate were introduced for Muslims, Chamber of Commerce Bombay and
madras and Zamindars.
Since it was based on communal basis (for Muslims), Minto is known as father of communal
electorate.
This Act is also known as Morley-Minto Reforms (Lord Morley was the then Secretary of State
for India and Lord Minto was the then Viceroy of India).
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1. It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial. The
number of members in the Central Legislative Council was raised from 16 to 60. The number of
members in the provincial legislative councils was not uniform.
2. It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial
legislative councils to have non-official majority.
3. It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both the levels. For
example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions, move resolutions on the
budget, and so on.
4. It provided (for the first time) for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the
Viceroy and Governors. Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s
Executive Council. He was appointed as the law member.
Think
· Communal Award
· Puna Pact
QUESTION 4.
Consider the following statements regarding Constituent Assembly of India:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 made the following three changes in the position of the
Constituent Assembly:
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1. The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it
pleased. The act empowered the Assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British
Parliament in relation to India.
2. The Assembly also became a legislative body. In other words, two separate functions were
assigned to the Assembly that is, making of a constitution for free India and enacting of
ordinary laws for the country. These two tasks were to be performed on separate days. Thus,
the Assembly became the first Parliament of free India (Dominion Legislature). Whenever the
Assembly met as the Constituent body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and when it met as
the legislative body6, it was chaired by G V Mavlankar. These two functions continued till
November 26, 1949, when the task of making the Constitution was over.
3. The Muslim League members (hailing from the areas7 included in the Pakistan) withdrew
from the Constituent Assembly for India. Consequently, the total strength of the Assembly came
down to 299 as against 389 originally fixed in 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan. The
strength of the Indian provinces (formerly British Provinces) was reduced from 296 to 229 and
those of the princely states from 93 to 70. The state-wise membership of the Assembly as on
December 31, 1947, is shown in Table 2.1 at the end of this chapter.
In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the Constituent
Assembly also performed the following functions:
5. It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950.
Think
QUESTION 5.
Which of the following Committees are NOT correctly matched with their Chairman?
Solution (c)
Major Committees
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(c) North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub-
Committee – Gopinath Bardoloi
(d) Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee – A.V.
Thakkar
QUESTION 6.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Indian judiciary?
2. Single system of courts enforces both the central laws as well as the state laws
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
The Indian Constitution establishes a judicial system that is integrated as well as independent.
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The Supreme Court stands at the top of the integrated judicial system in the country. Below it,
there are high courts at the state level. Under a high court, there is a hierarchy of subordinate
courts, that is, district courts and other lower courts. This single system of courts enforces both
the central laws as well as the state laws, unlike in USA, where the federal laws are enforced by
the federal judiciary and the state laws are enforced by the state judiciary.
The Supreme Court is a federal court, the highest court of appeal, the guarantor of the
fundamental rights of the citizens and the guardian of the Constitution. Hence, the Constitution
has made various provisions to ensure its independence—security of tenure of the judges, fixed
service conditions for the judges, all the expenses of the Supreme Court charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India, prohibition on discussion on the conduct of judges in the
legislatures, ban on practice after retirement, power to punish for its contempt vested in the
Supreme Court, separation of the judiciary from the executive, and so on.
Think
QUESTION 7.
India is a secular state. Which of the following statements regarding Indian Secularism are
correct?
2. State does not discriminate against any citizen on the grounds of religion.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
A Secular State
The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular
religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution
reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
(a) The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42 nd Consti
tutional Amendment Act of 1976.
(b) The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
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(c) The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the
laws (Article 14).
(d) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
(e) Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
(f) All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess,
practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
(g) Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its
religious affairs (Article 26).
(h) No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion
(Article 27).
(i) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the
State (Article 28).
(j) Any section of the citizens shall have the right to conserve its distinct language, script or
culture (Article 29).
(k) All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of
their choice (Article 30).
(l) The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44).
The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the religion (the
church) and the state (the politics). This negative concept of secularism is inapplicable in the
Indian situation where the society is multi religious. Hence, the Indian Constitution embodies
the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving equal respect to all religions or protecting all
religions equally.
Moreover, the Constitution has also abolished the old system of communal representation13,
that is, reservation of seats in the legislatures on the basis of religion. However, it provides for
the temporary reservation of seats for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes to ensure
adequate representation to them.
QUESTION 8.
Which of the following features of Indian Constitution have been taken from Government of
India Act 1935?
1. Federal Scheme
2. Emergency provisions
3. Judiciary
4. Office of Governor
a) 1,2 and 3
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b) 1,3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
1. Government of India Act of 1935 : Federal Scheme, Office of governor, Judiciary, Public
Service Commissions, Emergency provisions and administrative details.
8. Soviet Constitution (USSR, now Russia): Fundamental duties and the ideal of justice
(social, economic and political) in the Preamble.
9. French Constitution: Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the
Preamble.
10. South African Constitution: Procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of
members of Rajya Sabha.
QUESTION 9.
Preamble promises ‘justice’ for every citizen of India. What type of justice is promised in
Preamble?
1. Social
2. Economic
3. Political
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4. Physical
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
Justice
The term ‘justice’ in the Preamble embraces three distinct forms—social, economic and
political, secured through various provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
Social justice denotes the equal treatment of all citizens without any social distinction based
on caste, colour, race, religion, sex and so on. It means absence of privileges being extended to
any particular section of the society, and improvement in the conditions of backward classes
(SCs, STs and OBCs) and women.
Economic justice denotes the non-discrimination between people on the basis of economic
factors. It involves the elimination of glaring in-equalities in wealth, income and property. A
combination of social justice and economic justice denotes what is known as ‘distributive
justice’.
Political justice implies that all citizens should have equal political rights, equal access to all
political offices and equal voice in the government.
The ideal of justice—social, economic and political—has been taken from the Russian Revolution
(1917).
Think
QUESTION 10.
The term ‘fraternity’ in Preamble of Indian Constitution signifies which of the following:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
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c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
Fraternity
Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. The Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by
the system of single citizenship. Also, the Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be
the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood
amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional
diversities.
The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things—the dignity of the individual
and the unity and integrity of the nation.
The word ‘integrity’ has been added to the preamble by the 42 nd Constitutional Amendment
(1976).
The phrase ‘unity and integrity of the nation’ embraces both the psychological and territorial
dimensions of national integration. Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of
States’ to make it clear that the states have no right to secede from the Union, implying the
indestructible nature of the Indian Union. It aims at overcoming hindrances to national
integration like communalism, regionalism, casteism, linguism, secessionism and so on.
QUESTION 11.
Indian Constitution defines India as a ‘Union of States’. The term ‘Union of India’ includes?
1. States
2. Union Territories
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1,2 and 3
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d) 1 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
Union of India
The ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter
includes only states while the former includes not only the states but also union territories and
territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time. The states are
the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre. The
union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly administered by
the Central government.
Think
QUESTION 12.
India is described as ‘Indestructible Union of Destructible States’. Which of the following
statements supports this description?
1. The Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its will.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
(a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states
or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state,
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However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above
changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the
President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the
state legistature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
Further, the power of Parliament to form new states includes the power to form a new state or
union territory by uniting a part of any state or union territory to any other state or union
territory.
The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either
accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time. Further, it is not necessary to
make a fresh reference to the state legislature every time an amendment to the bill is moved
and accepted in Parliament. In case of a union territory, no reference need be made to the
concerned legislature to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself take any action as it
deems fit.
It is thus clear that the Constitution authorises the Parliament to form new states or alter the
areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without their consent. In other words, the
Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its will. Hence, the territorial
integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by the Constitution. Therefore,
India is rightly described as ‘an indestructible union of destructible states’. The Union
government can destroy the states whereas the state governments cannot destroy the Union. In
USA, on the other hand, the territorial integrity or continued existence of a state is guaranteed
by the Constitution. The American Federal government cannot form new states or alter the
borders of existing states without the consent of the states concerned. That is why the USA is
described as ‘an indestructible union of indestructible states.’
Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or
establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of
areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as
amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by
a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.
QUESTION 13.
Which of the following commissions accepted ‘Language’ as the basis for reorganization of
States?
a) Dhar Commission
b) JVP committee
c) Fazal Ali Commission
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
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The creation of Andhra state intensified the demand from other regions for creation of states on
linguistic basis. This forced the Government of India to appoint (in December 1953) a three-
member States Reorganisation Commission under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali to re-examine
the whole question. Its other two members were K M Panikkar and H N Kunzru. It submitted its
report in September 1955 and broadly accepted language as the basis of reorganisation of
states. But, it rejected the theory of ‘one language–one state’. Its view was that the unity of
India should be regarded as the primary consideration in any redrawing of the country’s
political units. It identified four major factors that can be taken into account in any scheme of
reorganisation of states:
(a) Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the country.
(d) Planning and promotion of the welfare of the people in each state as well as of the nation as
a whole.
The commission suggested the abolition of the four-fold classification of states under the
original Constitution and creation of 16 states and 3 centrally administered territories. The
Government of India accepted these recommendations with certain minor modifications. By the
States Reorganisation Act (1956) and the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act (1956), the
distinction between Part-A and Part-B states was done away with and Part-C states were
abolished. Some of them were merged with adjacent states and some other were designated as
union territories. As a result, 14 states and 6 union territories were created on November 1,
1956.
Think
· Reorganisation of States
QUESTION 14.
Consider the following statements regarding citizenship in India:
2. A child born in 2018 outside India will get Indian citizenship automatically by descent if both
its parents are Indians.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
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Citizenship in India
The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, viz, birth, descent,
registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory:
1. By Birth A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a
citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.
A person born in India on or after 1st July 1987 is considered as a citizen of India only if either
of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
Further, those born in India on or after 3rd December 2004 are considered citizens of India only
if both of their parents are citizens of India or one of whose parents is a citizen of India and the
other is not an illegal migrant at the time of their birth.
The children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot acquire Indian
citizenship by birth.
2. By Descent A person born outside India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 10th
December 1992 is a citizen of India by descent, if his father was a citizen of India at the time of
his birth.
A person born outside India on or after 10th December 1992 is considered as a citizen of India
if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
From 3rd December 2004 onwards, a person born outside India shall not be a citizen of India by
descent, unless his birth is registered at an Indian consulate within one year of the date of birth
or with the permission of the Central Government, after the expiry of the said period. An
application, for registration of the birth of a minor child, to an Indian consulate shall be
accompanied by an undertaking in writing from the parents of such minor child that he or she
does not hold the passport of another country.
Think
QUESTION 15.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Fundamental Rights?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
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Solution (d)
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution are characterised by the following:
1. Some of them are available only to the citizens while others are available to all persons
whether citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies.
2. They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts. Thus,
they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole,
between individual liberty and social control.
3. Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions
like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. When the
rights that are available against the State’s action only are violated by the private individuals,
there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies.
4. Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the
State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons.
5. They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when
they are violated.
6. They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can
directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal against the judgement of the
high courts.
7. They are not sacrosanct or permanent. The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by
a constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act. Moreover, this can be done without
affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
8. They can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights
guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21. Further, the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be
suspended only when emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (i.e.,
external emergency) and not on the ground of armed rebellion (i.e., internal emergency).
9. Their scope of operation is limited by Article 31A (saving of laws providing for acquisition of
estates, etc.), Article 31B (validation of certain acts and regulations included in the 9th
Schedule) and Article 31C (saving of laws giving effect to certain directive principles).
10. Their application to the members of armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces,
intelligence agencies and analogous services can be restricted or abrogated by the Parliament
(Article 33).
11. Their application can be restricted while martial law is in force in any area. Martial law
means ‘military rule’ imposed under abnormal circumstances to restore order (Article 34). It is
different from the imposition of national emergency.
12. Most of them are directly enforceable (self-executory) while a few of them can be enforced
on the basis of a law made for giving effect to them. Such a law can be made only by the
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Parliament and not by state legislatures so that uniformity throughout the country is maintained
(Article 35).
QUESTION 16.
Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available only to Indian Citizens?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
· Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article
15).
· Protection of six rights regarding freedom of : (i) speech and expression, (ii) assembly, (iii)
association, (iv) movement, (v) residence, and (vi) profession (Article 19).
QUESTION 17.
Article 17 of the Constitution abolished ‘Untouchability’. Which of the following statements
regarding article 17 is/are correct?
2. It does not include social boycott of certain individuals or their exclusion from religious
ceremonies.
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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’ and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of
any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with
law.
In 1976, the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955 has been comprehensively amended and
renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 to enlarge the scope and make penal
provisions more stringent.
The term ‘untouchability’ has not been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act. However,
the Mysore High Court held that the subject matter of Article 17 is not untouchability in its
literal or grammatical sense but the ‘practice as it had developed historically in the country’. It
refers to the social disabilities imposed on certain classes of persons by reason of their birth in
certain cases. Hence, it does not cover social boycott of a few individuals or their exclusion
from religious services, etc.
(a) Preventing any person from entering any place of public worship or from worshipping
therein;
(e) Refusing to admit persons in hospitals, educational institutions or hostels established for
public benefit;
The Supreme Court held that the right under Article 17 is available against private individuals
and it is the constitutional obligation of the State to take necessary action to ensure that this
right is not violated.
QUESTION 18.
Indian Constitution has given the citizens Right to Assembly. Which of the statements are
correct regarding that?
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2. Citizens have right to hold public meetings, demonstrations and take out processions.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
Freedom of Assembly
Every citizen has the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. It includes the right to hold
public meetings, demonstrations and take out processions. This freedom can be exercised only
on public land and the assembly must be peaceful and unarmed. This provision does not protect
violent, disorderly, riotous assemblies, or one that causes breach of public peace or one that
involves arms. This right does not include the right to strike.
The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of right of assembly on two
grounds, namely, sovereignty and integrity of India and public order including the maintenance
of traffic in the area concerned.
Think
· Jallianwala Bagh
QUESTION 19.
Consider the following statements:
1. No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
2. Prevention from retrospective penalties is there only in case of criminal offence and not in
civil cases.
3. No self incrimination extends only to criminal proceeding and not to civil proceedings.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
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Solution (d)
Article 20
Article 20 grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person,
whether citizen or foreigner or legal person like a company or a corporation. It contains three
provisions in that direction:
(a) No ex-post-facto law: No person shall be (i) convicted of any offence except for violation of
a law in force at the time of the commission of the act, nor (ii) subjected to a penalty greater
than that prescribed by the law in force at the time of the commission of the act.
(b) No double jeopardy : No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence
more than once.
against himself.
An ex-post-facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively (retroactively), that is, upon
acts already done or which increases the penalties for such acts. The enactment of such a law is
prohibited by the first provision of Article 20. However, this limitation is imposed only on
criminal laws and not on civil laws or tax laws. In other words, a civil liability or a tax can be
imposed retrospectively.
Further, this provision prohibits only conviction or sentence under an ex-post-facto criminal law
and not the trial thereof. Finally, the protection (immunity) under this provision cannot be
claimed in case of preventive detention or demanding security from a person.
The protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court of law or
a judicial tribunal. In other words, it is not available in proceedings before departmental or
administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature.
The protection against self-incrimination extends to both oral evidence and documentary
evidence.
However, it does not extend to (i) compulsory production of material objects, (ii) compulsion to
give thumb impression, specimen signature, blood specimens, and (iii) compulsory exhibition of
the body. Further, it extends only to criminal proceedings and not to civil proceedings or
proceedings which are not of criminal nature.
Think
· Preventive Detention
QUESTION 20.
Which of the following Rights have been brought under the ambit of Article 21?
1. Right to Privacy
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4. Right to information
a) 1 and 4
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
Article 21
The Supreme Court has reaffirmed its judgement in the Menaka case in the subsequent cases.
It has declared the following rights as part of Article 21:
(b) Right to decent environment including pollution free water and air and protection against
hazardous industries.
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QUESTION 21.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Preventive Detention?
1. The detention cannot exceed 3 months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause of
detention.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
The Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second
part deals with the cases of preventive detention law.
The second part of Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a
preventive detention law. This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens and
includes the following:
(i) The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports
sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court.
(ii) The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts
considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed.
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(iii) The detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation against the
detention order.
(a) The circumstances and the classes of cases in which a person can be detained for more than
three months under a preventive detention law without obtaining the opinion of an advisory
board;
(b) The maximum period for which a person can be detained in any classes of cases under a
preventive detention law; and
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 has reduced the period of detention without obtaining the
opinion of an advisory board from three to two months. However, this provision has not yet
been brought into force, hence, the original period of three months still continues.
QUESTION 22.
In which of the following educational institutes religious instruction is completely prohibited?
a) 1 only
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
(b) Institutions administered by the State but established under any endowment or trust.
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QUESTION 23.
Which of the following statements correctly differentiates between Writ jurisdiction of Supreme
Court and High Court?
1. SC can issue writs only for enforcement of FRs while HC can issue writs for other purposes
also.
2. SC can issue writs throughout the country while HC can issue writs only in its state.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court differs from that of a high court in three respects:
1. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights whereas a
high court can issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any
other purpose. The expression ‘for any other purpose’ refers to the enforcement of an ordinary
legal right. Thus, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, in this respect, is narrower than
that of high court.
2. The Supreme Court can issue writs against a person or government throughout the territory
of India whereas a high court can issue writs against a person residing or against a government
or authority located within its territorial jurisdiction only or outside its territorial jurisdiction
only if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.15 Thus, the territorial
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of a high
court.
3. A remedy under Article 32 is in itself a Fundamental Right and hence, the Supreme Court
may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other hand, a remedy under Article 226
is discretionary and hence, a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. Article 32
does not merely confer power on the Supreme Court as Article 226 does on a high court to
issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights or other rights as part of its general
jurisdiction. The Supreme Court is thus constituted as a defender and guarantor of the
fundamental rights.
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QUESTION 24.
Which of the following DPSPs are Socialist in nature?
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
These principles reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic
socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare
state.
1. To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice—
social, economic and political—and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and
opportunities (Article 38).
2. To secure (a) the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens; (b) the equitable
distribution of material resources of the community for the common good; (c) prevention of
concentration of wealth and means of production; (d) equal pay for equal work for men and
women; (e) preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible
abuse; and (f) opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
3. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor6 (Article 39 A).
4. To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment,
old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
5. To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief (Article 42).
6. To secure a living wage7, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for
all workers (Article 43).
7. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries8 (Article
43 A).
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8. To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public
health (Article 47).
QUESTION 25.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Amendment procedure under Article
368?
1. Amendment bill can be initiated in each house of Parliament and state Legislative
Assemblies.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
Amendment Procedure
The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:
1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the
purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require
prior permission of the president.
3. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more
than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the
members of the House present and voting.
4. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses,
there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation
and passage of the bill.
5. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by
the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of
the House present and voting.
6. After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures,
where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
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7. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill
nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.2
8. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act)
and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.
QUESTION 26.
Which of the following are the features of Federal Government?
1. Dual Government
2. Written Constitution
3. Bicameral Legislature
4. Independent Judiciary
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1,2 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
· Written Constitution
· government
· Rigid Constitution
· Independent judiciary
· Bicameral legislature
QUESTION 27.
Parliament can legislate on State Subject if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution for the same.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding it?
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2. The resolution remains in force for one year and after that it has to be renewed.
3. The resolution restricts state Legislature to make laws on the same matter.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
The above scheme of distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the states is to
be maintained in normal times. But, in abnormal times, the scheme of distribution is either
modified or suspended. In other words, the Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws
on any matter enumerated in the State List under the following five extraordinary
circumstances:
If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should
make laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws
on that matter. Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and
voting. The resolution remains in force for one year; it can be renewed any number of times but
not exceeding one year at a time. The laws cease to have effect on the expiration of six months
after the resolution has ceased to be in force. This provision does not restrict the power of a
state legislature to make laws on the same matter. But, in case of inconsistency between a state
law and a parliamentary law, the latter is to prevail.
The Parliament acquires the power to legislate with respect to matters in the State List, while a
proclamation of national emergency is in operation. The laws become inoperative on the
expiration of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate. Here also, the power of a
state legislature to make laws on the same matter is not restricted. But, in case of repugnancy
between a state law and a parliamentary law, the latter is to prevail.
When the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact
laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament can make laws for regulating that
matter. A law so enacted applies only to those states which have passed the resolutions.
However, any other state may adopt it afterwards by passing a resolution to that effect in its
legislature. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by the Parliament and not by the
legislatures of the concerned states. The effect of passing a resolution under the above
provision is that the Parliament becomes entitled to legislate with respect to a matter for which
it has no power to make a law. On the other hand, the state legislature ceases to have the power
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to make a law with respect to that matter. The resolution operates as abdication or surrender of
the power of the state legislature with respect to that matter and it is placed entirely in the
hands of Parliament which alone can then legislate with respect to it.
Some examples of laws passed under the above provision are Prize Competition Act, 1955; Wild
Life (Protection) Act, 1972; Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; Urban Land
(Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976; and Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994.
The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the
international treaties, agreements or conventions. This provision enables the Central
government to fulfill its international obligations and commitments.
Some examples of laws enacted under the above provision are United Nations (Privileges and
Immunities) Act, 1947; Geneva Convention Act, 1960; Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 and legislations
relating to environment and TRIPS.
When the President’s rule is imposed in a state, the Parliament becomes empowered to make
laws with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that state. A law made so by the
Parliament continues to be operative even after the president’s rule. This means that the period
for which such a law remains in force is not co-terminus with the duration of the President’s
rule. But, such a law can be repealed or altered or re-enacted by the state legislature.
QUESTION 28.
Constitution has provided for a Finance Commission under Article 280. Which of the following
statements regarding Finance Commission are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
Finance Commission
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Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the
President every fifth year or even earlier. It is required to make recommendations to the
President on the following matters:
• The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states,
and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
• The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of
the Consolidated Fund of India).
• The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the
resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the
recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
• Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.
Till 1960, the Commission also suggested the amounts paid to the States of Assam, Bihar,
Orissa and West Bengal in lieu of assignment of any share of the net proceeds in each year of
export duty on jute and jute products.
The Constitution envisages the Finance Commission as the balancing wheel of fiscal federalism
in India. However, its role in the Centre–state fiscal relations has been undermined by the
emergence of the planning commission, a non-constitutional and non-statutory body.
QUESTION 29.
Which of the following Commissions were formed to examine the Center State Relations?
1. Dhar Commission
2. Rajamannar Commission
3. Punchi Commission
4. Sarkaria Commission
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
The issues in Centre-State relations have been under consideration since the mid 1960s. In this
direction, the following commissions have been formed:
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· Rajamannar Committee
· Sarkaria Commission
· Punchhi Commission
QUESTION 30.
Which of the following statements regarding National Emergency is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
The differences between Articles 358 and 359 can be summarized as follows:
1. Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 359
extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential
Order.
2. Article 358 automatically suspends the fundamental rights under Article 19 as soon as the
emergency is declared. On the other hand, Article 359 does not automatically suspend any
Fundamental Right. It only empowers the president to suspend the enforcement of the specified
Fundamental Rights.
3. Article 358 operates only in case of External Emergency (that is, when the emergency is
declared on the grounds of war or external aggression) and not in the case of Internal
Emergency (ie, when the Emergency is declared on the ground of armed rebellion). Article
359, on the other hand, operate in case of both External Emergency as well as Internal
Emergency.
4. Article 358 suspends Fundamental Rights under Article 19 for the entire duration of
Emergency while Article 359 suspends the enforcement of Fundamental Rights for a period
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specified by the president which may either be the entire duration of Emergency or a shorter
period.
5. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire
country or a part of it.
6. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359 does not empower the
suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21.
7. Article 358 enables the State to make any law or take any executive action inconsistent with
Fundamental Rights under Article 19 while Article 359 enables the State to make any law or
take any executive action inconsistent with those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is
suspended by the Presidential Order.
There is also a similarity between Article 358 and Article 359. Both provide immunity from
challenge to only those laws which are related with the Emergency and not other laws. Also, the
executive action taken only under such a law is protected by both.
The 44 th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359 in two ways -
· Firstly, the President cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of
fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21. In other words, the right to protection in
respect of conviction for offences (Article 20) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article
21) remain enforceable even during emergency.
· Secondly, only those laws which are related with the emergency are protected from being
challenged and not other laws and the executive action taken only under such a law, is
protected.
QUESTION 31.
Which of the following qualifications are required to contest for Presidential Elections in India?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
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A person to be eligible for election as President should fulfill the following qualifications:
4. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state government
or any local authority or any other public authority. A sitting President or Vice-President of the
Union, the Governor of any state and a minister of the Union or any state is not deemed to hold
any office of profit and hence qualified as a presidential candidate.
Further, the nomination of a candidate for election to the office of President must be subscribed
by at least 50 electors as proposers and 50 electors as seconders. Every candidate has to make
a security deposit of Rs 15,000 in the Reserve Bank of India. The security deposit is liable to be
forefeited in case the candidate fails to secure one-sixth of the votes polled.
Think
QUESTION 32.
Which of the following Veto Power is not enjoyed by the President of India?
a) Absolute Veto
b) Qualified Veto
c) Suspensive Veto
d) Pocket Veto
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
The veto power enjoyed by the executive in modern states can be classified into the following
four types:
1. Absolute veto that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature.
2. Qualified veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority.
3. Suspensive veto, which can be over ridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
4. Pocket veto that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature.
Of the above four, the President of India is vested with three—absolute veto, suspensive veto
and pocket veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President ; it is possessed
by the American President.
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QUESTION 33.
Which of the following statements correctly differentiates between the pardoning power of the
President and a Governor?
1. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the governor cannot.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
The pardoning power of the governor differs from that of the President in following two
respects:
1. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial (military courts) while the
governor cannot.
2. The President can pardon death sentence while governor cannot. Even if a state law
prescribes death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the President and not the
governor. However, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence. In other
words, both the governor and the President have concurrent power in respect of suspension,
remission and commutation of death sentence.
QUESTION 34.
Consider the following statements regarding the upper house of the Parliament:
1. The representatives of states are elected by the elected members of state legislative
assemblies.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
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Solution (a)
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which, 238 are to be the
representatives of the states and union territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated by
the president.
At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members. Of these, 229 members represent the states, 4
members represent the union territories and 12 members are nominated by the president.
The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to
the states and union territories.
1. Representation of States
The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state
legislative assemblies. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of the single transferable vote. The seats are allotted to the states in
the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the number of representatives varies from
state to state. For example, Uttar Pradesh has 31 members while Tripura has 1 member only.
However, in USA, all states are given equal representation in the Senate irrespective of their
population. USA has 50 states and the Senate has 100 members—2 from each state.
The representatives of each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by
members of an electroral college specially constituted for the purpose. This election is also held
in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single
transferable vote. Out of the seven union territories, only two (Delhi and Puducherry) have
representation in Rajya Sabha. The populations of other five union territories are too small to
have any representative in the Rajya Sabha.
3. Nominated Members
The president nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have special
knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social service. The rationale
behind this principle of nomination is to provide eminent persons a place in the Rajya Sabha
without going through the process of election. It should be noted here that the American Senate
has no nominated members.
QUESTION 35.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha can resign from his post by writing to
a) President
b) Vice President
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c) Prime Minister
d) Deputy Speaker
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
Tenure of a speaker
The Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha. However, he has to vacate his
office earlier in any of the following three cases:
3. If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Lok Sabha.
Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice. When a resolution for
the removal of the Speaker is under consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sitting
of the House, though he may be present. However, he can speak and take part in the
proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of
an equality of votes.
Think
QUESTION 36.
Center for Development of Advance Computing (C – DAC) has developed a mobile based
application ‘Darshak’. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding this
application?
2. It allows real-time museum visitors gather all details about objects or artifacts simply by
scanning a QR code placed near the object.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
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Darshak
Jatan
• The objective of the software is to make a digital imprint of all the objects preserved in
museums. It will help researchers, curators and also people interested in the field.
Think
· C – DAC
· Tourism in India
QUESTION 37.
Central Government has started a new scheme named ‘Atal Bhujal Yojana’. Which of the
following statements is/are correct regarding this scheme is/are correct?
2. Half of the cost will funded by World Bank through loan and fifty percent will be funded by
Central Government.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
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• The government plans to give 50% of the money to states, including gram panchayats, as
incentives for achieving targets in groundwater management. That’s a first-ever move to
encourage community participation and behavioural changes.
• The remaining 50% of the funds will be given to states for strengthening institutional
arrangements such as providing a strong database and scientific approach to help them
accomplish sustainable management of groundwater.
• Gram panchayats that prepare water security plans and put infrastructure to augment
water supply will get incentives. The more steps a state takes to augment supply, more
incentives it will get. The idea is to bring in a concept of self-regulation through
community participation.
Do You Know?
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/centre-pushes-rs-6000cr-plan-to-tackle-
water-depletion/articleshow/62923993.cms
QUESTION 38.
A new class of antibiotics called Malacidins has been recently discovered. Which of the
following statements is/are correct regarding this drug?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
Malacidins
• They are a distinctive class of antibiotics that are commonly encoded in soil microbiomes
but have never been reported in culture-based NP (Natural Products) discovery efforts
• They are active against multidrug-resistant pathogens, sterilise methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) skin infections in an animal wound model and did not
select for resistance (i.e., did not trigger resistance) under laboratory conditions
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Do You Know?
• Gram-negative bacteria can cause cholera, pneumonia, sexually transmitted diseases, and
plague.
• Gram negative cell walls contain a thin peptidoglycan layer (without techoic acids) that is
surrounded by a thick plasma membrane.
• Gram positive bacteria will stain purple because of their thick peptidoglycan cell wall.
Think
• Superbugs
http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/hunt-for-new-antibiotics-hits-pay-dirt-5064385/
QUESTION 39.
India’s first ever radio festival was held recently in which of the following places?
a) Hyderabad
b) Chennai
c) Bangalore
d) Delhi
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
India’s first radio festival was recently held in Delhi. The festival was organised by the
International Association of Women in Radio and Television, in collaboration with UNESCO.
Think
· Prasar Bharti
· Community Radio
QUESTION 40.
Which of the following statements correctly defines ‘Vientiane Vision’?
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Solution (a)
Vientiane Vision
QUESTION 41.
The Global Antimicrobial Resistance Surveillance System (GLASS) is a platform for global data
sharing on antimicrobial resistance worldwide. Which of the following Organisations have
launched it?
a) UNICEF
b) WHO
c) World Economic Forum
d) Red Cross Society
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
• The Global Antimicrobial Resistance Surveillance System (GLASS) is a platform for global
data sharing on antimicrobial resistance worldwide.
• It has been launched by WHO as part of the implementation of the Global Action Plan on
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR).
• The data generated will help to inform national, regional and global decision-making,
strategies and advocacy.
• The system aims to foster national AMR surveillance systems and to enable the collection,
integrated analysis and sharing of standardized and validated data on antimicrobial
resistance, captured by participating countries around the world.
• Epidemiological and microbiological information will be combined to enhance
understanding of the extent and impact of AMR on populations, to monitor trends, to
detect emerging resistance and to measure the effectiveness of interventions to control
AMR.
Benefits
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Think
QUESTION 42.
Consider the following statements regarding Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial
Telecommunications (SWIFT):
1. It is a messaging system used by banks the world over to send information and instructions
in an encrypted format through a secure channel.
2. It helps in day to day fund transfer for short term interbank loans.
3. It is headquartered in Belgium.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
• It is a messaging system used by banks the world over to send information and
instructions in an encrypted format through a secure channel.
• It is a messaging system, and does not hold money or manage accounts.
• It does not facilitate funds transfer: rather, it sends payment orders, which must be settled
by correspondent accounts that the institutions have with each other.
• It is headquartered in Belgium
• SWIFT hosts an annual conference every year, called Sibos, specifically aimed at the
financial services industry.
Working
• Suppose a customer of say, a State Bank of India branch in New Delhi wants to send
money to her friend who has an account at a Citibank branch in London.
• The person in New Delhi needs to provide the SBI branch with his friend’s account
number and Citibank’s unique SWIFT code for its London branch. SBI will send a payment
transfer SWIFT message to the Citibank branch over the secure SWIFT network.
• Once Citibank receives the SWIFT message about the incoming payment, it will clear and
credit the money to the London friend’s account.
Do You Know?
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A core banking system is a software that supports the daily transactions and accounts within a
bank internally. It lets customers perform basic transactions from any member branch office of
the bank.
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/17-months-before-pnb-scandal-rbi-had-cautioned-against-
swift-abuse-at-union-bank-just-in-time-nirav-modi-5070570/
QUESTION 43.
World Information Technology Congress (WITC) 2018 is going to be held in India. This is for the
first time India will be hosting it since its inception. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding WITC?
1. It aims provide single platform to IT experts, policy and decision makers and Government
officials from all over the world together to discuss various challenges and possible solutions to
them.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
• It is a biennial event and considered as the biggest event of its kind. It aims provide single
platform to IT experts, policy and decision makers and Government officials from all over
the world together to discuss various challenges and possible solutions to them
• It was first held in 1978 since then held after every two years
Where – Hyderabad
This is for first time India is hosting WITC. It will second time that the event will be taking place
in Asia after it was hosted in Kualalumpur, Malaysia
http://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/modi-to-address-world-congress-on-
information-technology-in-hyderabad-today-118021800207_1.html
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QUESTION 44.
Cabinet has recently approved the formation of Tribunal to settle Mahanadi water dispute. The
dispute is between
Solution (b)
Cabinet approved the setting up of a tribunal to settle a row between Odisha and Chhattisgarh
on sharing the waters of the river Mahanadi.
Highlights
• The tribunal is expected to determine water sharing among basin States on the basis of
the overall availability of water in the complete Mahanadi basin, the contribution of each
State, the present utilisation of water resource in each State and the potential for future
development
• As per provisions of the Inter-State River Water Disputes (ISRWD) Act, 1956, the Tribunal
shall consist of a Chairman and two other Members nominated by the Chief Justice of
India from amongst the Judges of the Supreme Court or High Court.
• As per provisions of the ISRWD Act, 1956 the Tribunal is required to submit its report and
decision within a period of 3 years which can be extended to a further period not
exceeding 2 years due to unavoidable reasons.
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http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1521034
QUESTION 45.
India has been ranked 81 st in the Global Corruption Perception Index (GCPI). Which of the
following statements regarding GCPI are correct?
2. The index uses a scale of 0 to 100, where 0 is very clean and 100 is highly corrupt.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
• India has been ranked 81st in the global corruption perception index for 2017, released by
Transparency International
• India was named among the “worst offenders” in terms of graft and press freedom in the
Asia Pacific region.
• The index uses a scale of 0 to 100, where 0 is highly corrupt and 100 is very clean. India’s
score in the latest ranking, however, remained unchanged at 40.
Think
· Transparency International
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-ranks-81st-in-global-corruption-perception-
index-5073800/
QUESTION 46.
Consider the following statements regarding Clinical Establishments (Registration and
Regulation) Act, 2010:
1. The Act requires all clinical establishments (except military) to register themselves and
provides a set of standard treatment guidelines for common diseases and conditions.
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2. It is mandatory for all states and Union territory to implement this Act.
3. The Act is applicable to all types (both therapeutic and diagnostic types) of clinical
establishments from the public and private sectors, belonging to all recognized systems of
medicine, including single doctor clinics.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
• It has been enacted by the Central Government to provide for registration and regulation
of all clinical establishments in the country with a view to prescribing the minimum
standards of facilities and services provided by them
• The Act requires all clinical establishments to register themselves and provides a set of
standard treatment guidelines for common diseases and conditions.
• The Act cannot be directly applied to all states of India. The states have the choice of
passing a resolution to adopt the bill or passing a similar bill.
• With the exception of the establishments under the military forces, all public and private
establishments, including AYUSH establishments, are required to register.
• The Act is applicable to all types (both therapeutic and diagnostic types) of clinical
establishments from the public and private sectors, belonging to all recognized systems of
medicine, including single doctor clinics.
• The Act lays down establishment for the a Council Body called The National Council for
Clinical Establishment which is responsible primarily for setting up standards for ensuring
proper healthcare by the clinical establishment and develop the minimum standards and
their periodic review.
Do You Know?
• The Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2010 has been in effect in
the four states—Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim—and all Union
Territories except Delhi since 1 March 2012.
• Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and Assam have also adopted
the Act under clause (1) of article 252 of the Constitution.
• Article 47 of the Constitution lays down a responsibility upon the State for aiming at
improvement in public health and shall consider this responsibility as among its primary
duties in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the
consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are
injurious to health.
Think
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http://www.livemint.com/Politics/jVlkSNP683orAm5qDe4POK/Complaints-over-medical-bills-
Centre-seeks-states-response.html
QUESTION 47.
Electoral Bond Scheme has been started to regulate the Political Party funding. Which of the
following statements regarding Electoral bonds are correct?
2. The Bond shall be encashed by an eligible political party only through a bank account with
the authorized bank.
3. Electoral Bond shall be valid for fifteen days from the date of issue and no payment shall be
made to any payee Political Party if the Bond is deposited after expiry of the validity period.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
Think
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QUESTION 48.
The policy of the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia implemented by its Ministry of Labour, whereby
Saudi companies and enterprises are required to fill up their workforce with Saudi nationals up
to certain levels is called
a) Nitaqat System
b) Liyaqat System
c) Himaqat System
d) Nazakat System
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
Nitaqat system
QUESTION 49.
Echidnas are robust creatures and found in various environments. Which of the following
statements are correct regarding Echidnas?
1. They usually have much lower body temperatures than other mammals
2. Their back feet points backwards which help them to dig burrows.
3. They lay eggs but keep their young ones in the mother’s pouch.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
Echidna
• Echidnas are robust and are found in wildly different environments, from the desert to the
snow, likely to having much lower body temperature than all other mammals — around
30C — which can fluctuate by up to 10C in a single day.
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• Platypus
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/whats-threatening-echidnas/
article22830002.ece
QUESTION 50.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Milan Exercise?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
Milan 2018
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• IOR-ARC
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/navy-to-host-milan-from-march-6-to-13/
article22852221.ece
QUESTION 51.
The President is not elected directly, but by members of Electoral College. The College
comprises of
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of Electoral College
consisting of:
3. The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and
Puducherry
Thus, the nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the
state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative
councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative
Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President.
Note: State legislature consists of Governor, legislative assembly and legislative council.
THINK!
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QUESTION 52.
Which of the following changes to the constitution are outside the scope of Article 368?
a) 1,3 and 4
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two
Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
Do you know?
· Unlike ordinary bill, for constitutional bill there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the
two Houses in case of deadlock.
THINK!
· Types of majority
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QUESTION 53.
As per Indian Constitution, Environment protection is a part of
1. Fundamental Rights
3. Fundamental Duties
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
According to Article 21 of the constitution, “no person shall be deprived of his life or personal
liberty except according to procedure established by law”.
As per Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India, Supreme Court has declared right to healthy
environment as a part of Article 21.
Under Directive Principles of State Policy, Article 48 -A of the constitution says, “the state shall
endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of
the country”.
Under Fundamental Duties, Article 51-A (g), says, “It shall be duty of every citizen of India to
protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to
have compassion for living creatures.”
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=105411
THINK!
QUESTION 54.
Consider the following statements with reference to Inter-State Council
1. It is a constitutional body.
2. In case of any legal controversy between the governments, the decision of council is final and
binding.
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3. Constitution allows for creation of only pan-India councils and not regional councils.
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) Only 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal or non-legal, but its function is
advisory unlike that of the court which gives a binding decision.
Four Regional Councils for Sales Tax for the Northern, Eastern, Western and Southern Zones
have already been established under this article by the President.
Do you know?
· The permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 was created on the recommendations of
Sarkaria Commission and was established in 1990.
THINK!
QUESTION 55.
The Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’ because
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
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According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation
of States’ to indicate two things:
(i) The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American
federation
Do you know?
THINK!
QUESTION 56.
As per Supreme Court, which of the following rights are part of Right to Freedom of Speech and
expression?
1. Freedom of press
3. Freedom of silence
4. Right to strike
a) 1 and 3
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 2,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 4
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
The Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech and expression includes the following:
(e) Right to telecast, that is, government has no monopoly on electronic media.
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Do you know?
· Though Indian constitution provides for a guaranteed fundamental right to form association or
Labour unions but there is no fundamental right to go on strike. In fact, it is a conditional right
covered under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947, and only available after certain pre-condition
are fulfilled.
THINK!
QUESTION 57.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Fundamental Duties in Indian
Constitution
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of erstwhile
USSR.
The Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners.
Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also nonjusticiable.
THINK!
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QUESTION 58.
Which of the following is/are the consequences of declaration of National Emergency?
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) Only 3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
During a national emergency, the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a
state on ‘any’ matter. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of
the Centre, though they are not suspended.
During a national emergency, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject
mentioned in the State List. Though the state Legislatures are not suspended, but the
Constitution becomes unitary rather than federal.
While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can issue ordinances
on the state subjects also, if the Parliament is not in session.
THINK!
QUESTION 59.
According to Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a Member of
Parliament if
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a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
Under the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a Member of
Parliament, if:
1. He holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister
or any other office exempted by Parliament).
3. He is an undischarged insolvent.
4. He is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is
under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state.
Criteria of being found guilty of election offences and for practising untouchability, are
disqualifications under the Representation of People Act (1951).
Do you know?
THINK!
QUESTION 60.
Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction in which of the following cases?
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a) Only 2
b) 2 and 3
c) Only 1
d) Only 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
The Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction on any dispute between:
(b) The Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other
Supreme Court does not have a jurisdiction on disputes arising out of pre-constitutional treaty.
Do you know?
· Inter State Water Disputes Act, 1956 has excluded Supreme Court from jurisdiction over inter-
state water disputes. However, by its own declaration, Supreme Court has given itself appellate
jurisdiction over such matters.
THINK!
· Appellate jurisdiction
QUESTION 61.
Chairman of State Public Service Commission is appointed by
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Governor
d) Cabinet Secretary
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
Governor appoints the chairman and members of the state public service commission.
However, they can be removed only by the president and not by a governor.
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THINK!
QUESTION 62.
Consider the following statements with reference to judicial review in India
1. It can be done only for legislative actions and not for executive actions.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Only 3
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
Justice Syed Shah Mohamed Quadri has classified the judicial review into the following three
categories:
2. Judicial review of legislation of the Parliament and State Legislatures and subordinate
legislations.
3. Judicial review of administrative action of the Union and State and authorities under the
state.
The phrase ‘Judicial Review’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
Article 31B saves the acts and regulations included in the Ninth Schedule from being
challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.
However, in a significant judgment delivered in I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court
ruled that the laws placed under the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to challenge
in court if they violated Fundamental Rights guaranteed under the Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21 or
the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
Do you know?
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· The Supreme Court has declared the power of judicial review as an element of the basic
structure of the Constitution. Hence, the power of judicial review cannot be curtailed or
excluded even by a constitutional amendment.
THINK!
QUESTION 63.
1. The act provides for a mandatory three-tier system of panchayati raj in every state.
3. The act provides for the reservation of one-third of the total number of seats for women.
a) 1 and 3
b) Only 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
The act provides for a three-tier system of panchayati raj in every state, that is, panchayats at
the village, intermediate, and district levels. However, a state having a population not
exceeding 20 lakh may not constitute panchayats at the intermediate level.
All the members of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected
directly by the people. Further, the chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district
levels shall be elected indirectly—by and from amongst the elected members thereof. However,
the chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the state
legislature determines.
The act provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for
women (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging the SCs and STs).
THINK!
QUESTION 64.
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1. Election Commission
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
Election Commission and the Office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India are
constitutionally established independent bodies.
Joint Public Service Commission and National Human Rights Commission are statutory bodies.
THINK!
· Constitutional bodies
QUESTION 65.
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) do not audit which of the following?
1. Local bodies
3. State governments
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) Only 4
d) 3 and 4
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
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Explanation
Solution (c)
(i) Some corporations are audited totally and directly by the CAG, for example, Damodar Valley
Corporation, Oil and Natural Gas Commission, Air India, Indian Airlines Corporation, and
others.
(ii) Some other corporations are audited by private professional auditors who are appointed by
the Central Government in consultation with the CAG. The examples are, Central Warehousing
Corporation, Industrial Finance Corporation, and others.
(iii) Some other corporations are totally subjected to private audit. In other words, their audit is
done exclusively by private professional auditors and the CAG does not come into the picture at
all. Examples of such corporations are Life Insurance Corporation of India, Reserve Bank of
India, State Bank of India, Food Corporation of India, and others.
Do you know?
· The secret service expenditure is a limitation on the auditing role of the CAG. In this regard,
the CAG cannot call for particulars of expenditure incurred by the executive agencies.
THINK!
QUESTION 66.
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 1
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
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Right to property was made a legal right under the 44 th amendment act, 1978.
THINK!
QUESTION 67.
Receipts from which of the following does not form a major source of non-tax revenue of the
Centre?
a) Banking
b) Forests
c) Railway
d) Coinage and currency
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
The receipts from the following form the major sources of non-tax revenues of the Centre:
(ii) Railways
(iii) Banking
(iv) Broadcasting
THINK!
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QUESTION 68.
Consider the following statements with reference to the speaker of Lok Sabha
2. He cannot vote in the house while a resolution for his removal is under consideration in the
house.
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
Normally, speaker does not vote in the first instance. But he can exercise a casting vote in the
case of a tie.
When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration of the House, he
cannot preside at the sitting of the House, though he may be present. However, he can speak
and take part in the proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance,
though not in the case of an equality of votes.
Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till
the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets.
THINK!
QUESTION 69.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Money bills
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
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c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills.
Every such bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister.
The Rajya Sabha has restricted powers with regard to a money bill. It cannot reject or amend a
money bill.
When a money bill is presented to the president, he may either give his assent to the bill or
withhold his assent to the bill but cannot return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses.
THINK!
QUESTION 70.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Estimates Committee
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
Estimate Committee examines the estimates included in the budget and suggest ‘economies’ in
public expenditure.
It has 30 members and all are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in
this committee.
These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members,
according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable
vote.
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It examines the budget estimates only alter they have been voted by the Parliament, and not
before that.
Do you know?
· The role of the committee is limited, neither it can question the policy laid down by the
Parliament nor its recommendations are binding on the ministries.
THINK!
QUESTION 71.
Consider the following statements with reference to High Court
1. The judges of a high court are appointed by the Governor after consultation with the chief
justice of the concerned High Court.
2. The President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending upon its
workload.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
The judges of a high court are appointed by the President after consultation with the chief
justice of the concerned high court.
The Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the discretion of
the president. Accordingly, the
President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending upon its
workload.
Do you know?
· Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own.
THINK!
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QUESTION 72.
Special provisions under Part XXI are not provided for which of the following states?
a) Nagaland
b) Goa
c) Sikkim
d) Punjab
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the constitution contain special provisions for twelve states
viz., Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Sikkim,
Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Karnataka.
Do you know?
· Originally, the constitution did not make any special provisions for these states. They have
been incorporated by the various subsequent amendments.
THINK!
QUESTION 73.
Right to vote in a presidential election is a
a) Natural right
b) Constitutional right
c) Fundamental right
d) Legal right
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
Constitutional rights are those which are explicitly mentioned in the constitution.
Article 54 mentions about the presidential elections and the members of Electoral College but
not right of vote to them. This is taken care under the Representation of the People Act. So it is
a legal right.
Also recently Maharashtra government protested about jailed legislator voting and stated it’s
not a constitutional right.
Further reading:
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http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=167193
THINK!
QUESTION 74.
Consider the following statement in reference to the making of Indian constitution
1. Indian National Congress officially demanded the constituent assembly for the first time in
1935.
2. The demand for constituent assembly was accepted in Cripps mission plan.
3. Jawaharlal Nehru was made the head of the interim government and the constituent
assembly.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
In 1934, M.N Roy first put forth the idea of constituent assembly and in 1935, the Indian
National Congress officially demanded it.
The demand was finally accepted in principle by British government in 1940 in August offer.
The members of the interim government were members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council. The
Viceroy continued to be the head of the Council. But, Jawaharlal Nehru was designated as the
Vice-President of the Council.
THINK!
QUESTION 75.
Which of the following constitutional provisions with regard to the enactment of budget is incor
rect ?
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Solution (c)
A money bill or a finance bill dealing with taxation cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha- it
must be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
THINK!
· Charged expenditure
QUESTION 76.
Consider the following statements with reference to Finance Commission
1. It is a quasi-judicial body.
3. The qualifications of the members of commission are not specified in the Constitution.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial
body. It is constituted by the president of India every fifth year or at such earlier time, as he
considers necessary.
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The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the
president. They hold office for such period as specified by the president in his order. They are
eligible for reappointment.
The Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the
commission and the manner in which they should be selected.
Do you know?
· The constitution of India envisages the Finance commission as the balancing wheel of fiscal
federalism in India.
THINK!
QUESTION 77.
Original jurisdiction of Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) does not extend to which of the
following?
a) All-India services
b) Civilian employees of defence services
c) Secretarial staff of Parliament
d) Civil posts under the Centre
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
Do you know?
· With the amendment in Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 in 2006, the members have been
given the status of judges of High Courts.
THINK!
· Tribunalization of justice
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QUESTION 78.
Consider the following statements with reference to office of Attorney General for India
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is
the highest law officer in the country.
The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified
to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office
during the pleasure of the president.
Do you know?
· The Attorney General is not a full-time counsel for the Government and is allowed private legal
practice.
THINK!
QUESTION 79.
Which of the following constitutional amendments made elementary education a fundamental
right?
a) 84 th
b) 91 st
c) 93 rd
d) 86 th
Correct Answer: D
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Solution (d)
It added Article 21A, clause (k) under Article 51A and changed the text of Article 45.
THINK!
QUESTION 80.
Who among the following takes an oath to ‘uphold the Constitution’?
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Member of Parliament
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
Chief Justice of India and Judges of Supreme Court and high courts take the oath to uphold the
Constitution.
Do you know?
· Other than these judges, CAG and Information Commissioners also take similar oath.
THINK!
· Oath of President
QUESTION 81.
Yucatan peninsula was in news for its two large networks of underwater caves. In which of the
following countries is it located?
a) New Zealand
b) Mexico
c) China
d) Argentina
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
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Solution (b)
The two giant underwater caverns under Mexico's Yucatan Peninsula make the largest known
flooded cave system on the planet (347 kilometer).
Fossils of giant sloths and an elaborate shrine of the Mayan god of commerce have been found
there.
The Yucatan peninsula is studded with monumental relics of the Maya people, whose cities
drew upon an extensive network of sinkholes linked to subterranean waters known as cenotes.
Do you know?
THINK!
· Maya civilization
QUESTION 82.
Consider the following statements
1. He wrote Majma-ul-Bahrain.
a) Shivaji
b) Dara Shikoh
c) Abul Fazal
d) Akbar
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
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Dara Shikoh commissioned the translation of all the Upanishads from Sanskrit to Persian for
Muslim scholar to learn.
He wrote the Majma-ul-Bahrain (The confluence of two seas) to elaborate upon the syncretism
between Sufism and Vedic philosophies.
THINK!
· Auragzeb’s policies
QUESTION 83.
Aeons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages denote different segments on the geological timescale.
Which global body is responsible for setting these time standards to express Earth’s history?
Solution (b)
The International Commission on Stratigraphy is the largest and oldest constituent scientific
body in the International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS).
Its primary objective is to precisely define global units (systems, series, and stages) of the
International Chronostratigraphic Chart that, in turn, are the basis for the units (periods,
epochs, and age) of the International Geologic Time Scale; thus setting global standards for the
fundamental scale for expressing the history of the Earth.
QUESTION 84.
Consider the following statements with reference to The Khadi and Village Industries
Commission (KVIC)
1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
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c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is a statutory body established by an Act of
Parliament in 1956.
· The wider objective of creating self-reliance amongst the poor and building up of a strong
rural community spirit.
KVIC is entrusted with the task of providing financial assistance to institutions and individuals
for development and operation of Khadi and village industries.
KVIC may take steps as to ensure genuineness of the products and to set standards of quality
and ensure that the products of Khadi and village industries do conform to the standards.
Do you know?
· As per KVIC Act, any industry located in a rural area which produces any goods or renders any
service with or without the use of power and in which the fixed capital investment per head of
an artisan or a worker does not exceed one lakh rupees, is a village industry.
THINK!
· Khaadi Haat
· Sweet Revolution
http://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/kvic-divisional-office-comes-up-in-hubli-91-
yr-old-khadi-centre-revived-in-mysuru-118022701086_1.html
QUESTION 85.
Recently Finance Ministry has announced an initiative called “Operation Green” which of the
below statement best describes it?
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Explanation
Solution (b)
Operation Green has been announced on the lines of Operation Flood for enhancing the
production of tomato, onion and potatoes.
THINK!
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/budget/rs-500-crore-allocated-for-operation-
green/article22619481.ece
QUESTION 86.
Consider the following statements with reference to Global Seed Vault
1. It is located in Greenland.
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
The Global Seed Vault is located deep inside a mountain on Svalbard, a remote Arctic island in a
Norwegian archipelago. It is called Svalbard Global Seed Vault (SGSV).
Norway’s government owns the vault and depositors retain ownership rights. India has sent
around 9.5 crore seeds to Svalbard.
The vault is facing threat from climate change, due to melting of permafrost.
Do you know?
· India has its own seed vault at Chang La in the Himalayas, at a height of 17,300 feet
maintained jointly by National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (which comes under the
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Indian Council of Agricultural Research) and the Defence Institute of High Altitude Research
(under Defence Research and Development Organisation).
THINK!
· Permafrost
· Cryosphere
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/whats-inside-the-svalbard-global-seed-vault/
article22858978.ece
QUESTION 87.
Recently a decision by government to bring prices of coronary stents under control has created
shock waves across medical community. Which authority has the mandate to control the prices
of such pharmaceutical products in India?
Solution (a)
THINK!
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pharma-pricing-panel-chief-shunted-out/
article22897704.ece
QUESTION 88.
A supercritical carbon dioxide Brayton cycle test loop facility, recently in news is related to
a) Clean Energy
b) Hyperloop
c) Hydrogen Bomb
d) Space Programme
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
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Solution (a)
Indian scientists have developed a super critical carbon di oxide Brayton test loop facility that
would help generate clean energy from future power plants including solar thermal.
· The new generation high efficiency power plants with closed cycle CO2 as the working fluid
have the potential to replace steam based nuclear and thermal power plants, thus reducing the
carbon foot print significantly.
· This test loop is designed to generate the necessary data for future development of scaled up
S-CO2 power plants, which would require overcoming several technological challenges –
developing critical components such as the turbine, compressor and heat exchangers that can
work at the desired pressure and temperature ranges and using materials that can withstand
these conditions.
· Today’s thermal power plants use steam to carry heat away from the source and turn a turbine
to generate power. However, it could generate more power if, instead of steam, supercritical
CO2 (SCO2) is used. The term “supercritical” describes the state of carbon dioxide above its
critical temperature of 31°C and critical pressure of 73 atmospheres making it twice as dense
as steam.
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-karnataka/supercritical-co2-brayton-cycle-
facility-opened-at-iisc/article22830320.ece
QUESTION 89.
As per a recent initiative, Viral Load testing will be used for
Solution (a)
The government on Monday launched a scheme to provide free of cost viral load testing, at
least once a year, for 1.2 million people who are living with HIV/AIDS (PLHIV) and are on
treatment.
The viral load is used to monitor the effectiveness of Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) over time. It
measures the amount of HIV genetic material (RNA) in the blood and reports how many copies
of the virus are present.
THINK!
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QUESTION 90.
SWIFT transaction was in news recently, what is the abbreviation of the same?
Solution (b)
A SWIFT transfer is a type of international money transfer sent via the SWIFT international
payment network.
The Punjab National Bank fraud where fund transfer through an inter-bank messaging system
was not reported to the core banking solution has made use of SWIFT important for
international banking.
Do you know?
· The core role of SWIFT is to provide a secure transmission channel so that Bank A knows that
its message to Bank B goes to Bank B and no one else. Bank B, in turn, knows that Bank A, and
no one other than Bank A, sent, read or altered the message en route.
THINK!
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/a-swift-autopsy-how-nirav-modi-defrauded-pnb/
article22844201.ece
QUESTION 91.
Consider the following statements with reference to Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
1. It is an intergovernmental organization.
2. Its mandate includes regulating banking, combating money laundering and terrorism
financing.
a) Only 1
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b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989.
Its mandate includes combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats
to the integrity of the international financial system.
THINK!
· FATF Grey-list
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/india-congratulates-china-on-financial-action-task-
force-post-hopes-beijing-will-be-balanced/articleshow/63066160.cms
QUESTION 92.
Which of the following countries are part of ‘QUAD’?
1. India
2. U.S.A.
3. Russia
4. Japan
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1,2 and 4
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
THINK!
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http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/cornered-by-the-quad/article22872575.ece
QUESTION 93.
In order to increase vigilance on poaching and to control wife life related crimes, wildlife fast
track courts were set up in which of the following state?
a) Delhi
b) Bihar
c) Assam
d) Maharashtra
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
For the first time in the country, 10 wildlife fast-track courts have been set up in Assam to
exclusively deal with poaching and other related crimes against wild animals.
Do you know?
· Assam has five national parks and 19 wildlife sanctuaries. Also, It is home to more than 91% of
Indian rhinos.
THINK!
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/guards-get-modern-weapons-to-fight-
poaching/article22793099.ece
QUESTION 94.
Which of the following are the objectives of GOBAR-DHAN scheme?
1. Cleanliness of villages
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
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Explanation
Solution (c)
The initiative has two objectives: To make villages clean and generate wealth and energy from
cattle and other waste.
THINK!
http://www.business-standard.com/article/opinion/govt-s-gobar-dhan-initiative-is-a-
commendable-plan-letter-to-bs-118022801336_1.html
QUESTION 95.
Consider the following statements with reference to Rustom-2
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
Rustom-2 is an Unmanned Aerial Vehicle being developed by the Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO).
The drone was developed for use by all three services of the Indian armed forces, primarily for
intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) operations.
Do you know?
THINK!
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https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/drdo-successfully-carries-out-test-flight-of-
rustom-2-drone/articleshow/63068375.cms
QUESTION 96.
Consider the following statements with respect to World Environment Day, 2018
1. India is the global host of 2018 World Environment Day which will take place on June 5, 2018
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (a)
World Environment Day [WED] was established by the UN General Assembly in 1972 on the
first day of Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment, resulting from discussions on
the integration of human interactions and the environment. Two years later, in 1974 the first
WED was held with the theme "Only One Earth".
India is the global host of 2018 World Environment Day which will take place on June 5, 2018.
With “Beat Plastic Pollution” as the theme for this year’s edition, the world is coming together
to combat single-use plastic pollution.
“Beat Plastic Pollution”, the theme for World Environment 2018, urges governments, industry,
communities, and individuals to come together and explore sustainable alternatives and
urgently reduce the production and excessive use of single-use plastic polluting our oceans,
damaging marine life and threatening human health.
Do you know?
· The theme for 2017 is 'Connecting People to Nature – in the city and on the land, from the
poles to the equator'. The host nation was Canada.
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/pollution/drive-against-plastic-pollution-
to-gain-momentum-from-india-the-global-host-of-world-environment-day-2018/
articleshow/62994154.cms
QUESTION 97.
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Recently Myanmar began construction of dam across a river close to Indian border which has
stroked fears of water scarcity in Manipur’s Chandel district. Which of the following states
doesn’t border Manipur?
a) Assam
b) Nagaland
c) Mizoram
d) Tripura
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
THINK!
QUESTION 98.
Which of the following were involved in Sambandh exercise conducted by Western Naval
command of Indian Navy?
a) ASEAN
b) Indian Ocean littoral countries
c) BIMSTEC countries
d) India-Vietnam- Malaysia-Thailand.
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
Participants were from the 10 Indian Ocean Littoral countries Maldives, Myanmar,
Indonesia, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Oman, Qatar, United Arab Emirates, Malaysia and Mauritius.
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Naval officers and cadets from smaller countries that do not have big navies were welcomed
aboard INS Vikramaditya –India’s aircraft carrier as a part of the initiative.
THINK!
http://www.livemint.com/Opinion/A2oieg9GPqS7R39VecSOOK/Building-maritime-capacity-in-
SouthEast-Asia.html
QUESTION 99.
Which of the following are the features of National Savings Certificates?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
· Scheme specially designed for Government employees, Businessmen and other salaried
classes who are Income Tax assesses.
Government is planning to merge different small savings schemes under various acts into a
single act, Government Savings Banks (GSB) Act, 1873.
THINK!
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http://www.livemint.com/Money/v7KOGkxFAFMYnuiq1RawfN/Government-proposes-
amendments-in-small-savings-schemes.html
QUESTION 100.
Consider the following statements with reference to Chit Funds:
3. A transaction, where some alone but not all, get the prize money without obligation to pay
future installments, is not a chit fund.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (b)
Chit fund business is regulated under the Central Act of Chit Funds Act, 1982 and the Rules
framed under this Act by the various State Governments for this purpose.
· Some alone, but not all, of the subscribers get the prize amount without any liability to pay
future subscriptions; or
· All the subscribers get the chit amount by turns with a liability to pay future subscriptions.
· Functionally, Chit funds are included in the definition of Non- Banking Financial Companies by
RBI under the sub-head miscellaneous non-banking company (MNBC). But RBI has not laid out
any separate regulatory framework for them.
· Now, a chit fund company needs to obtain a certificate of incorporation (CIN) from the
Registrar of Companies and then apply for registration with chit fund department of its
respective state.
Do you know?
· Amendments in Chit fund Act- Recently; Cabinet has given nod to amend Chit Funds Act,
1982. One of the amendments is the use of the words “Fraternity Fund” for chit business in the
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Act, to signify its inherent nature, and distinguish its working from ‘Prize Chits’ which are
banned under a separate legislation.
THINK!
http://www.livemint.com/Money/aasZcBKy9PcW3jK0ZOi6dN/New-rules-for-chit-funds-and-
deposit-schemes.html
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Review in Hindi
QUESTION 1.
नौ�जज��क��संवैधा�नक�पीठ�ने�घोषणा��कया�है��क� ' �नजता�का�अ�धकार�' सं�वधान�म��उ��ल�खत�एक�मूल�अ�धकार�है।�उ�चतम��यायालय�के
अनुसार� , �नजता�का�अ�धकार��न�न�ल�खत�म��से��कसका�आंत�रक�भाग�है ?
a) वाक् �एवं�अ�भ����क���वतं�ता�का�अ�धकार�
b) जीवन�तथा����गत��वतं�ता�का�अ�धकार�
c) समानता�का�अ�धकार�
d) शोषण�के ��व���अ�धकार�
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
सव��च��यायालय�का�फै सला�
�वचार�कर��
· �नजता�का�अ�धकार�
QUESTION 2.
1784 के ��पट् स�इं�डया�अ�ध�नयम�के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन -सा�कथन�सह��है� ?
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
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· इस��कार�, अ�ध�नयम�दो�कारण��के ��लए�मह�वपूण��था : पहला�, भारत�म��कं पनी�के ��े���को�पहली�बार� ' भारत�म�����टश�संप��� ' कहा
गया�; और��सरा�, ���टश�सरकार�को�कं पनी�के �मामल��और�भारत�म��उसके ��शासन�पर�सव��च��नयं�ण��दया�गया।�
�वचार�कर��
· बोड��ऑफ़�क��ोल�
· कोट� �ऑफ़�डायरे�टर�
QUESTION 3.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से��कसे� ' सां�दा�यक��नवा�चक�म�डल�का��पता� ' कहा�जाता�है� ?
a) लॉड��चे�सफोड��
b) लॉड���म�टो�
c) लॉड��डलहौज़ी�
d) लॉड��कज�न�
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
1909 के �अ�ध�नयम�क���वशेषताएं�
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�वचार�कर��
· क�युनल�अवाड��
· पुना�समझौता�
QUESTION 4.
भारत�के �सं�वधान�सभा�के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए :
1. यह�एक�स��भु��नकाय�थी।�
3. इसने�रा�मंडल�म��भारत�क��सद�यता�क��पु���क�।�
उपरो��कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
1947 के �भारतीय��वतं�ता�अ�ध�नयम�ने�सं�वधान�सभा�क����थ�त�म���न�न�ल�खत�तीन�प�रवत�न��कए :
अ�य�काय��
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�वचार�कर��
· भारतीय��वतं�ता�अ�ध�नयम� 1947
QUESTION 5.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सी�स�म�तयां�अपने�अ�य��के �साथ�सुमे�लत�नह��ह�� ?
Solution (c)
�मुख�स�म�तयां�
1. संघ�श���स�म�त� - जवाहरलाल�नेह��
2. संघीय�सं�वधान�स�म�त� - जवाहरलाल�नेह��
3. �ांतीय�सं�वधान�स�म�त� - सरदार�पटे ल�
6. इस�स�म�त�म���न�न�उप -स�म�तयां�थ� :
9. संचालन�स�म�त� - डॉ�राज����साद�
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QUESTION 6.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन -सा�कथन�भारतीय��यायपा�लका�के �बारे�म��सही�ह�� ?
नीचे�कू ट�म��से�चुनाव�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
एक�कृ त�और��वतं���यायपा�लका�
�वचार�कर��
QUESTION 7.
भारत�एक�धम��नरपे��रा�य�है , भारतीय�धम��नरपे�ता�के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा�कथन�सही�है� ?
1. भारत�रा�य�का�कोई�भी�आ�धका�रक�धम��नह��है।�
3. धम��तथा�रा�य�का�एक�सरे�से�पूण�त : अलगाव�है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
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Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
एक�धम��नरपे��रा�य�
QUESTION 8.
भारतीय�सं�वधान�म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन -कौन�सी��वशेषताएं�भारत�शासन�अ�ध�नयम� 1935 से�ली�गई�ह�� ?
1. संघीय�योजना�
2. आपातकालीन��ावधान�
3. �यायपा�लका�
4. रा�यपाल�का�पद�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए� ?
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a) 1,2 और�3
b) 1,3 और�4
c) 2,3 और�4
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
QUESTION 9.
��तावना�भारत�के �हर�नाग�रक�के ��लए�' �याय�' का�वचन�दे ता�है���तावना�म���कस�तरह�के ��याय�का�वचन��दया�गया�है� ?
1. सामा�जक�
2. आ�थ�क�
3. राजनी�तक�
4. शारी�रक�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए� ?
a) 1,2 और�3
b) 2,3 और�4
c) 1,3 और�4
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d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
�याय�
�वचार�कर��
· ��तावना�म���यु��श�द�ब�त�ही��प��होने�चा�हए।�
QUESTION 10.
भारतीय�सं�वधान�के ���तावना�म���न�हत� ' बंधु�व� ' श�द�का�अथ��है :
1. भारत�के �सभी�नाग�रक��म��म�य�भाईचारे�क��भावना।�
2. यह�एक�����क��ग�रमा�का�आ�ासन�दे ता�है।�
3. यह�रा��क��एकता�और�अखंडता�का�आ�ासन�दे ता�है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
बंधु�व�
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QUESTION 11.
भारतीय�सं�वधान�भारत�को� ' रा�य��के �संघ� ' के ��प�म��प�रभा�षत�करता�है� ' भारत�का�संघ� ' श�द�म���या -�या�शा�मल�है� ?
1. रा�य�
2. संघ�शा�सत��दे श�
3. भारत�सरकार��ारा�अ�ज�त��कए�जा�सकने�वाले��े��
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) 1 और�2
c) 1,2 और�3
d) 1 और�3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
भारत�का�संघ�
�वचार�कर��
QUESTION 12.
भारत�को�' �वनाशकारी�रा�य��का�अ�वनाशी�संघ� ' कहा�जाता�है ; �न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा�कथन�इस��ववरण�का�समथ�न�करता�है� ?
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2. उनक��अपनी�सीमा�या��े��म��प�रवत�न�से�पूव��रा�य��क��सहम�त�आव�यक�है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
QUESTION 13.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से��कस�आयोग�ने�रा�य��के �पुनग�ठन�के ��लए�एक�आधार�के ��प�म�� ' भाषा�' को��वीकार��कया�?
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a) धर�आयोग�
b) जेवीपी�आयोग�
c) फजल�अली�आयोग�
d) उपरो��म��से�कोई�नह��
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
फजल�अली�आयोग�
a) दे श�क��एकता�और�सुर�ा�का�संर�ण�और�अनुर�ण।�
b) भाषाई�और�सां�कृ �तक�एक�पता�
c) �व�ीय�, आ�थ�क�और��शास�नक��वचार�
�वचार�कर��
· रा�य��के �पुनग�ठन�
QUESTION 14.
भारत�म��नाग�रकता�के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए :
उपरो��कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
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Explanation
Solution (d)
भारत�म��नाग�रकता�
ज�म�से : भारत�म�� 26 जनवरी�1950 को�या�उसके �बाद�पर�तु� 1 जुलाई� 1947 से�पूव��ज�मा�����अपने�माता -�पता�के �ज�म�क��रा�ीयता
के �बावजूद�भारत�का�नाग�रक�होगा।�
वंश�के �आधार�पर: कोई������जसका�ज�म�26 जनवरी�1950 या�उसके �बाद�पर�तु� 10 �दसंबर� 1992 के �पहले�भारत�के �बाहर��आ�हो,
वह�वंश�के �आधार�पर�भारत�का�नाग�रक�बन�सकता�है� , य�द�उनके �ज�म�के �समय�उसका��पता�भारत�का�नाग�रक�हो।�
�वचार�कर��
· नाग�रकता��ा�त�करने�के �अ�य�तरीके �
QUESTION 15.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा /से�कथन�मूल�अ�धकार��के �बारे�म��सही�ह�� ?
1. ये�च�र��म��नकारा�मक�होते�ह�� , अथा�त�ये��ा�धकारी�पर���तबंध�लगाते�ह�।�
2. य�द�इन�अ�धकार��का�उ�लंघन�होता�है�तो�पी�ड़त�सीधे�उ�चतम��यायालय�जा�सकता�ह�।�
3. मूल�अ�धकार��को�संसद��ारा�संशो�धत�नह���कया�जा�सकता�है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
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Solution (d)
मौ�लक�अ�धकार��क���वशेषताएं�
मूल�अ�धकार��को�सं�वधान�म���न�न�ल�खत��वशेषता��के �साथ�सु�न��त��कया�गया�ह� :
6. उ�ह��सव��च��यायालय��ारा�सुर�ा�और�गारंट��द��जाती�है।�इस�लए� , पी�ड़त�����सीधे�उ�चतम��यायालय�जा�सकता�ह�।यह�आव�यक
नह��है��क�के वल�उ�च��यायालय��के �फै सले�के ��खलाफ�अपील�के �ज�रए�जाया�जाये।�
QUESTION 16.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा�मूल�अ�धकार�के वल�भारतीय�नाग�रक��के ��लए�उपल�ध�ह�� ?
1. लोक��नयोजन�म��अवसर�क��समानता�
3. भाषा�और��ल�प�का�संर�ण�
4. शै��क�सं�थान��क���थापना�और��शासन�का�अ�धकार�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए� ?
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a) 1,2 और�3
b) 2,3 और�4
c) 1,3 और�4
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
· �वतं�ता�के �संबंध�म��छह�अ�धकार��का�संर�ण : ( i) वाक् �एवं�अ�भ���� , (ii) स�मेलन� , (iii) संघ� , (iv) संचरण� , (v) �नवास�, और�(
vi) �वसाय�एवं�वृ�� (अनु�छे द� 19)।�
QUESTION 17.
सं�वधान�के �अनु�छे द� 17 ने� ' अ�पृ�यता� ' का�उ�मूलन�कर��दया�है।�अनु�छे द� 17 के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है�
1. यह��प���प�से�अ�पृ�यता�को�प�रभा�षत�करता�है।�
2. इसम��कु छ����य��का�सामा�जक�ब�ह�कार�या�धा�म�क�अनु�ान��से�उनका�ब�ह�करण�शा�मल�नह��है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
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1. �कसी�भी�����को�साव�ज�नक�पूजा��थल�म���वेश�से�रोकना�या�कह��भी�पूजा�करने�से�रोकना� ;
6. ��य��या�अ��य���प�से�अ�पृ�यता�का��चार�करना� ; तथा�
7. �कसी�भी�����को�माल�बेचने�या�सेवा��को���तुत�करने�से�रोकना।�
QUESTION 18.
भारतीय�सं�वधान�ने�नाग�रक��को�संग�ठत�होने�का�अ�धकार��दया�है।�इनम��से�कौन�से��कथन�सह��ह�� ?
1. ��येक�नाग�रक�को�शां�तपूव�क�और�ह�थयार��के ��बना�संग�ठत�होने�का�अ�धकार�है।�
2. नाग�रक��को�साव�ज�नक�बैठक��म��भाग�लेने� , �दश�न�करने�और�जुलुस��नकलने�का�अ�धकार�है।�
3. इसम��हड़ताल�करने�का�अ�धकार�भी�शा�मल�है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
शां�तपूव�क�स�मलेन�क���वतं�ता�
�वचार�कर��
· ज�लयांवाला�बाग�
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QUESTION 19.
�न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए:
3. कोई��व-अ�भशंसन�नह� , के वल�आपरा�धक�काय�वाही�तक��व�तृत�है�तथा�नाग�रक�काय�वाही�तक�नह�।�
उपरो��कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
अनु�छे द� 20
�व-अ�भशंसन�के �स�ब�ध�म��मौ�खक�और�द�तावेजी�सा�य�दोन��से�संर�ण��ा�त�है।�
�वचार�कर��
· �नवारक��हरासत�
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QUESTION 20.
�न�न�ल�खत�अ�धकार��म��से��कनको�अनु�छे द� 21 के �दायरे�के �तहत�लाया�गया�है� ?
1. �नजता�का�अ�धकार�
2. मु�त��व�धक�सहायता�पाने�का�अ�धकार�
3. �वदे श�जाने�का�अ�धकार�
4. सूचना�का�अ�धकार�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए� ?
a) 1 और�4
b) 2,3 और�4
c) 1,3 और�4
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
अनु�छे द� 21
a) मानवीय���त�ा�के �साथ�जीने�का�अ�धकार�
c) आजी�वका�का�अ�धकार�
d) �नजता�का�अ�धकार�
e) आ�य�का�अ�धकार�
f) �वा��य�का�अ�धकार�
g) 14 वष��तक�क��उ��के ��लए�मु�त��श�ा�का�अ�धकार।�
h) �नशु�क�कानूनी�सहायता�का�अ�धकार�
j) �व�रत�सुनवाई�का�अ�धकार�
k) हथकड़ी�लगाने�के ��खलाफ�अ�धकार�
l) अमानवीय��वहार�के ��खलाफ�अ�धकार�
m) �वलं�बत�फांसी�के ��खलाफ�अ�धकार�
n) �वदे श�या�ा�का�अ�धकार�
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o) बंधुआ��म�के ��खलाफ�अ�धकार।�
q) आपातकालीन��च�क�सा�सहायता�का�अ�धकार�
r) सरकारी�अ�पताल�म��समय�पर�उ�चत��च�क�सा�का�अ�धकार�
s) रा�य�के �बाहर�न�जाने�का�अ�धकार�
t) �न�प��सुनवाई�का�अ�धकार�
u) कै द��के ��लए�जीवन�क��आव�यकता��का�अ�धकार�
v) म�हला��के �साथ�आदर�और�स�मानपूव�क��वहार�करने�का�अ�धकार�
w) साव�ज�नक�फांसी�के ��खलाफ�अ�धकार�
x) सुनवाई�का�अ�धकार�
y) सूचना�का�अ�धकार�
z) ��त�ा�का�अ�धकार�
QUESTION 21.
�नवारक��नरोध�के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा�कथन�सही�ह�� ?
2. नजरबंद��कये�गए�����को��गर�तारी�का�कारण�बताया�जाना�आव�यक�नह��है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
1. ����क���हरासत�तीन�महीने�से��यादा�नह��बढ़ाई�जा�सकती�है� , जब�तक��क�सलाहकार�बोड��इस�बारे�म��पया��त�कारण�नह��बताता�है।
बोड��उ�च��यायालय�के ��यायाधीश��से��मलकर�बनेगा।�
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III. जांच�म��सलाहकार�बोड���ारा�अनुसरण�क��जाने�वाली����या�
QUESTION 22.
�न�न�ल�खत�शै��णक�सं�थान��म��से��कसम��धा�म�क��श�ा�पूण�तया��न�ष��है� ?
1. सं�थान��जनका�पूरी�तरह�से�रखरखाव�रा�य�के ��ारा��कया�जाता�है�
2. सं�थान�जो�रा�य��ारा��शा�सत��क�तु���ट��ारा��था�पत�है�
3. रा�य��ारा�मा�यता��ा�त�सं�थान�
4. रा�य�से�सहायता��ा�त�सं�थान�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) 2,3 और�4
c) 1,2 और�4
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
a) ऐसे�सं�थान��जनका�पूरी�तरह�से�रखरखाव�रा�य�करता�है�
c) रा�य��ारा�मा�यता��ा�त�सं�थाएं�
d) रा�य�से�सहायता��ा�त�सं�थान�
QUESTION 23.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�कौन�से�कथन�उ�चतम��यायालय�और�उ�च��यायालय�के ��रट��े�ा�धकार�के �म�य�उ�चत��प�से�भेद�करते�है� ?
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3. उ�चतम��यायालय�अपने��रट�का�अ�धकार��े��का��योग�करने�से�इंकार�नह��कर�सकता� , जब�क�उ�च��यायालय�इनकार�कर�सकता�है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
उ�चतम��यायालय�का��रट��े�ा�धकार��न�न�ल�खत�तीन�मामल��म� , उ�च��यायालय�से��भ��है :
QUESTION 24.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन -सा/से�नी�त��नद� शक�त�व��कृ �त�म��समाजवाद��है /ह�� ?
1. �न:शु�क��व�धक�सहायता��दान�करना�
2. समान�काय��के ��लए�समान�वेतन�
3. �ाम�पंचायत�का�गठन�
4. कु ट�र�उ�ोग��को�बढ़ावा�दे ना�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 3 और�4
c) 1,2 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
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Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
डीपीएसपी�म��समाजवाद���स�ांत�
ये��स�ांत�समाजवाद�क���वचारधारा�को�दशा�ते�ह�।�वे�एक�लोकतां��क�समाजवाद��रा�य�क���परेखा�तैयार�करते�ह�� , �जसका�ल�य�सामा�जक
और�आ�थ�क��याय��दान�करना�है� , और�क�याणकारी�रा�य�क���थापना�के ��लए�माग���श�त�करना�है।�
QUESTION 25.
अनु�छे द� 368 के �अंतग�त�संशोधन����या�के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा�कथन�सही�है� ?
1. संसद�के ���येक�सदन�और�रा�य��वधानसभा�म��संशोधन��वधेयक�आर�भ��कया�जा�सकता�है।�
3. य�द�रा�यसभा�के ��ारा��वधेयक�को�पा�रत�नह���कया�जाता�है�तो�संयु��बैठक�बुलाई�जाती�है।�
उपरो��कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) के वल�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
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Solution (d)
संशोधन����या�
QUESTION 26.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा /से�संघीय�सरकार�क���वशेषताएं�ह�� ?
1. �ै ध�राजप��त�
2. �ल�खत�सं�वधान�
3. ��सदनीय��वधा�यका�
4. �वतं���यायपा�लका�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए� ?
a) 1 और�4
b) 2 और�3
c) 1,2 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
संघीय�सरकार�के �ल�ण�
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· �ल�खत�सं�वधान�
· क� ��और�रा�य�के �बीच�श��य��का��वभाजन�
· सरकार�
· सं�वधान�क��सव��चता�
· कठोर�सं�वधान�
· �वतं���यायपा�लका�
· ��सदनीय��वधानमंडल�
QUESTION 27.
य�द�रा�य�सभा�इस�संदभ��म��एक���ताव�पा�रत�करती�है�तो�संसद�रा�य�सूची�के ��वषय��पर�भी�कानून�बना�सकती�है।�इस�स�दभ��म�
�न�न�ल�खत�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सह��है� ?
1. इस���ताव�को�उप��थत�तथा�मतदान�करने�वाले�सद�य��के �दो��तहाई�से�सम�थ�त�होना�चा�हए।�
3. यह���ताव�रा�य��वधानम�डल�को�उसी�मामले�पर�कानून�बनाने�के ��लए���तबं�धत�करता�है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
रा�य��े��म��संसद�य��वधान�
जब�रा�य�सभा�एक�संक�प�पा�रत�करती�है�
य�द�रा�यसभा�यह�घोषणा�करती�है��क�रा�ीय��हत�म��यह�आव�यक�है��क�संसद�को�रा�य�सूची�के ��कसी�मामले�पर�कानून�बनाना�चा�हए� , तो
संसद�उस�मामले�पर�कानून�बनाने�के ��लए�स�म�हो�जाती�है।�इस�तरह�के ���ताव�को�उप��थत�सद�य��के �दो-�तहाई�ब�मत��ारा�सम�थ�त�होना
चा�हए।�संक�प�एक�वष��के ��लए�लागू�रहता�है� ; इसे�असं�य�बार�नवीनीकृ त��कया�जा�सकता�है� , ले�कन�एक�बार�म��एक�साल�से�अ�धक�के
�लए�नह��बढाया�जा�सकता�है।�
यह��ावधान��कसी�रा�य�वधान�मंडल�को�उसी�मामले�पर�कानून�बनाने�से���तबं�धत�नह��करता�है।�ले�कन� , एक�रा�य�कानून�और�एक�संसद�य
कानून�के �बीच�असंग�त�के �मामले�म�� , उ�रा�� ��व�था�मा�य�होगी।�
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रा�ीय�आपातकाल�के �दौरान�
जब�रा�य�एक�अनुरोध�कर��
अंतरा��ीय�समझौते�को�लागू�करने�के ��लए�
रा�प�त�शासन�के �दौरान�
QUESTION 28.
सं�वधान�म��अनु�छे द� 280 के �तहत��व��आयोग�का��व�था��कया�गया�है।��व��आयोग�के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा /से�कथन�सही
है� ?
1. रा�प�त��ारा���येक�पांच�वष��म��या�इसके �पहले�भी�इसका�गठन��कया�जाता�है।�
3. �व��आयोग�क���सफा�रश��सरकार�पर�बा�यकारी�ह�।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) 1 और�2
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b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
�व��आयोग�
QUESTION 29.
के ���रा�य�संबंध��क��परी�ण�के ��लए��न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�से�आयोग�का�गठन��कया�गया�था� ?
1. धर�आयोग�
2. राजम�ार�आयोग�
3. पूंछ��आयोग�
4. सरका�रया�आयोग�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए� ?
a) 1,2 और�3
b) 2,3 और�4
c) 1,2 और�4
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
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· �शास�नक�सुधार�आयोग�
· राजम�ार�स�म�त�
· आनंदपुर�सा�हब�संक�प�
· प��म�बंगाल��ापन�
· सरका�रया�आयोग�
· पूंछ��आयोग�
QUESTION 30.
रा�ीय�आपातकाल�के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा /से�कथन�सही�है� ?
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
6. अनु�छे द� 358, अनु�छे द� 19 को�पूरी�तरह�से��नलं�बत�कर�दे ता�है� , जब�क�अनु�छे द� 359, अनु�छे द� 20 और�21 के ��नलंबन�को�लागु
नह��करता�है।�
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QUESTION 31.
भारत�म��रा�प�त�चुनाव�लड़ने�के ��लए��न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन -कौन�सी�अह�ताएं�होनी�आव�यक�है� ?
1. एक�����को�ज�म�से�भारत�का�नाग�रक�होना�चा�हए।�
2. ����ने� 35 वष��क��आयु�पूरी�कर�ली�हो।�
4. वह�लाभ�का�कोई�पद�धारण�न�करता�हो।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए� ?
a) 1,2 और�3
b) 2,3 और�4
c) 1,3 और�4
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
· वह�भारत�का�नाग�रक�हो।�
· उसने� 35 साल�क��आयु�पूरी�कर�ली�हो।�
· वह�लोकसभा�का�सद�य��नवा��चत�होने�के ��लए�अ�ह�त�है।�
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�वचार�कर��
QUESTION 32.
भारत�के �रा�प�त�के ��ारा��न�न�ल�खत�वीटो�श���म��से��कसका��योग�नह���कया�जाता�है� ?
a) �नरपे��वीटो�
b) �वशे�षत�वीटो�
c) �नलं�बत�वीटो�
d) पॉके ट�वीटो�
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
· आ�यं�तक�वीटो� , अथा�त्��वधा�यका��ारा�पा�रत��वधेयक�पर�अपनी�राय�सुर��त�रखना।�
· �नलंबनकारी�वीटो� , जो��वधा�यका��ारा�साधारण�ब�मत��ारा��नर�त��कया�जा�सकता�है।�
QUESTION 33.
रा�प�त�और�रा�यपाल�के ��मादान�क��श���के �म�य��न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा�कथन��प���प�से��भ��है� ?
2. रा�प�त�मृ�युदंड�को��मा�कर�सकते�ह� , जब�क�रा�यपाल�नह��कर�सकता�है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
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�मादान�श��य��म���भ�ता :
रा�यपाल�क���मादान�श��यां , रा�प�त�क��तुलना�म��अलग�है :
1. रा�प�त�सै�य��यायालय��ारा�द��गयी�सजा�को�माफ़�कर�सकते�ह�� , जब�क�रा�यपाल�नह�।�
QUESTION 34.
संसद�के �ऊपरी�सदन�के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए :
2. सभी�रा�य��को�रा�यसभा�म��एकसमान���त�न�ध�व��दया�गया�है।�
3. संघ�रा�य��े���को�रा�यसभा�म����त�न�ध�व�नह���दया�गया�है।�
उपरो��कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�ह�� ?
a) के वल�1
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
रा�यसभा�क��संरचना�
1. रा�य��का���त�न�ध�व�
2. संघ�रा�य��े���का���त�न�ध�व�
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3. नामां�कत�सद�य�
QUESTION 35.
लोकसभा�का�अ�य���कसे�संबो�धत�कर�अपने�पद�से�इ�तीफा�दे �सकता�ह� ?
a) रा�प�त�
b) उपरा�प�त�
c) �धानमं�ी�
d) उपा�य��
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
अ�य�(�पीकर) का�काय�काल�
· य�द�वह�लोकसभा�का�सद�य�नह��रहता�है� ;
· य�द�वह�उपा�य�(�ड�ट���पीकर) को�संबो�धत�अपने�ह�ता�र�स�हत�लेख��ारा�पद��याग�कर�� ;
�वचार�कर��
· रा�य�सभा�के �अ�य��का�हटाया�जाना�
QUESTION 36.
स�टर�फॉर�डेवेलपम�ट�ऑफ�एडवांस�क��यू�ट�ग� (सी-डेक ) ने�मोबाइल�आधा�रत�ए�लीके शन�' दश�क� ' को��वक�सत��कया�है।��न�न�ल�खत�म��से
कौन�सा�कथन�इस�ए�लीके शन�के �स�दभ��म��सही�है� ?
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
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a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
दश�क�
जतन�
�वचार�कर��
· सी-डैक�
· भारत�म��पय�टन�
QUESTION 37.
क� ��सरकार�ने� ' अटल�भूजल�योजना� ' नामक�एक�नई�योजना�क��शु�आत�क��है।�योजना�के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा /से�कथन
सही�ह�� ?
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
अटल�भूजल�योजना�
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�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
· इसके �बाद�इस�योजना�का�पुन�था�पन��कया�गया�है�और�इसका�नाम�बदलकर�अटल�भूजल�योजना�कर��दया�गया।�
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/centre-pushes-rs-6000cr-plan-to-tackle-
water-depletion/articleshow/62923993.cms
QUESTION 38.
हाल�ही�म��मेला�सडीन ( Malacidins ) के �नाम�से�एंट�बायो�टक�दवा��के �एक�नए�वग��क��खोज�क��गई�है।��न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा /से
कथन�इस�दवा�के �संबंध�म��सही�है� ?
1. इ�ह��मृदा�और�गंदगी�म��रहने�वाले�सू�मजीव��के ��ारा�उ�पा�दत��कया�जाता�है।�
2. ये�ब��दवा���तरोधी�रोगज़नक़��के ��व���स��य�ह�।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
मैला�स�डन ( Malacidins )
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· मैला�स�डन�के वल��ाम�पॉ�ज�टव�बै�ट��रया�को�ल��त�करते�ह�।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर��
· सुपरबग ( Superbugs )
http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/hunt-for-new-antibiotics-hits-pay-dirt-5064385/
QUESTION 39.
हाल�ही�म��भारत�का�सव��थम�रे�डयो�उ�सव��न�न�ल�खत��थान��म��से�कहाँ�आयो�जत��आ�था� ?
a) हैदराबाद�
b) चे�ई�
c) ब�गलोर�
d) �द�ली�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
�वचार�कर��
· �सार�भारती�
· सामुदा�यक�रे�डयो�
QUESTION 40.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा�कथन� ‘ �वएन�टआन��वजन�( Vientiane Vision)' को�सही�ढं ग�से�प�रभा�षत�करता�है� ?
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Solution (a)
QUESTION 41.
�लोबल�एंट�माइ�ो�बयल�रे�सट� स��नगरानी��णाली� (�लास) ��नया�भर�म��एंट�माइ�ो�बयल�रे�सट� स�पर�वै��क�डेटा�साझा�करने�के ��लए�एक�मंच
है।��न�न�ल�खत�संगठन��म��से��कसने�इसे�लॉ�च��कया�है� ?
a) यू�नसेफ�
b) ड��यू .एच.ओ.
c) �व��आ�थ�क�मंच�
d) रेड��ॉस�सोसाइट��
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
· जनसां��यक�य�और�सू�मजीव�व�ानी�सूचना�एक��त�क��जाएगी�ता�क�जनसं�या�पर�एएमआर�का��व�तार�एवं��भाव�को�समझने�के ��लए�,
�झान��पर�नजर�रखने�के ��लए�, उभरती���तरोध�का�पता�लगा�सके �और�एएमआर�को��नयं��त�करने�के ��लए�ह�त�ेप�क���भावशीलता�को
मापने�के ��लए�जोड़ा�जा�सके ।�
लाभ�
· रा�ीय�एएमआर��नगरानी�के ��लए��मता��नमा�ण�
· �नगरानी�सॉ�टवेयर�स�हत�एक�काया��वयन�पैके ज�
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· �नगरानी�और�मू�यांकन�के �साथ�सहायता�
· वै��क�एएमआर���थ�त�और��वृ��य��पर��नय�मत��रपोट� �
�वचार�कर��
· एएमआर�पर��लोबल�ए�शन��लान�
· एंट�माइ�ो�बयल���तरोध�पर�साम�रक�और�तकनीक��सलाहकार�समूह� (एसट�एजी)
QUESTION 42.
�लोबल�इंटरब�क�फाइन��सयल�टे लीक�यु�नके शन�( ��व�ट) के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए :
3. इसका�मु�यालय�बे��जयम�म��है�
उपरो��कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सह��है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
· यह�एक�संदेश��णाली�है� , तथा�यह�न�ही�मु�ा�धारण�करती�और�न�ही�खात��को��बं�धत�करती�है।�
· इसका�मु�यालय�बे��जयम�म��है�
काय���णाली�
· मान�ली�जए��क�एक��ाहक�कहती�है�वह��क�नई��द�ली�म���टे ट�ब�क�ऑफ�इं�डया�शाखा�से�लंदन�म���सट�ब�क�शाखा�म��अपने�दो�त�को�पैसा
भेजना�चाहती�है।�
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�या�आपको�पता�है� ?
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/17-months-before-pnb-scandal-rbi-had-cautioned-against-
swift-abuse-at-union-bank-just-in-time-nirav-modi-5070570/
QUESTION 43.
�व��सूचना��ौ�ो�गक��कां�ेस� (ड��यू .आई.ट�.सी.) 2018, भारत�म��आयो�जत�होने�जा�रहा�है।�इसक���थापना�के �बाद�यह�पहली�बार�है ,
जब�भारत�इसे�हो�ट�करेगा।��न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा /से�कथन� WITC के �स�दभ��म��सही�है� ?
2. यह�1978 से�आयो�जत�होने�वाला�एक�वा�ष�क�काय��म�है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
यह�पहली�बार�1978 म��आयो�जत��कया�गया�था�और�तब�से�हर�दो�साल�बाद�आयो�जत��कया�जाता�है।�
कहां� - हैदराबाद�
नासकॉम, ड�लूसीआईट��क��मेजबानी�कर�रहा�है।�
http://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/modi-to-address-world-congress-on-
information-technology-in-hyderabad-today-118021800207_1.html
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QUESTION 44.
महानद��जल��ववाद�को��व��थत�करने�के ��लए�मं��मंडल�ने�हाल�ही�म�����यूनल�के �गठन�को�मंजूरी�द��है।�यह��ववाद��कनके �म�य�है ?
a) म�य�दे श�और�छ�ीसगढ़�
b) छ�ीसगढ़�और�ओ�डशा�
c) ओ�डशा�और�झारखंड�
d) झारखंड�और�छ�ीसगढ़�
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
महानद��जल��ववाद��नपटाने�के ��लए����यूनल�
हाइलाइट�
�वचार�कर��
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http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1521034
QUESTION 45.
वै���क���ाचार�धारणा�सूचकांक� (जी.सी.पी.आई.) म��भारत�को� 81वां��थान��दया�गया�है।�जी .सी.पी.आई. के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से
कौन�सा�कथन�सही�ह�� ?
1. इसे�ए�ने�ट��इंटरनेशनल�के ��ारा�जारी��कया�गया�है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
वै��क���ाचार�बोध�सूचकांक�
�वचार�कर��
· �ांसपेर�सी�इंटरनेशनल�
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-ranks-81st-in-global-corruption-perception-
index-5073800/
QUESTION 46.
��ल�नकल� ��त�ान�(पंजीकरण�और��व�नयमन ) अ�ध�नयम�, 2010 के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए :
उपरो��कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सह��है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
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c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
· इस�अ�ध�नयम�को�भारत�के �सभी�रा�य��पर�सीधे�लागू�नह���कया�जा�सकता�है।�रा�य��को�एक���ताव�पा�रत�कर�इसे�अपनाने�या�इसी�तरह
का�एक��वधेयक�पा�रत�करने�का��वक�प��दया�गया�है।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
· उ�र��दे श� , उ�राखंड� , राज�थान�, �बहार�, झारखंड�और�असम�ने�सं�वधान�के �अनु�छे द� 252 के �खंड� (1) के �तहत�इस�अ�ध�नयम�को
अपनाया�है।�
�वचार�कर��
· सं�वधान�का�अनु�छे द� 252
http://www.livemint.com/Politics/jVlkSNP683orAm5qDe4POK/Complaints-over-medical-bills-
Centre-seeks-states-response.html
QUESTION 47.
राजनी�तक�पाट��के ��व�पोषण�को��व�नय�मत�करने�के ��लए�चुनावी (इले�टोरल ) बांड�योजना�शु��क��गई�है।�इले�टोरल�बांड�के �स�दभ��म���न�न
�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा�कथन�सही�ह�� ?
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नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
इले�टोरल�बॉ�ड��क�म� 2018
· �कसी�भी�यो�य�राजनी�तक�दल��ारा�उसके �खाते�म��जमा�बांड�उसी��दन�जमा��कया�जाएगा।�
�वचार�कर��
· हा�लया�चुनाव�सुधार�
QUESTION 48.
सऊद��अरब�क��यह�नी�त�उसके ��म�मं�ालय��ारा�लागू�क��गई�है� , �जसम��सऊद��कं प�नय��और�उ�म��को�अपने�कम�चा�रय��के �कु छ�भाग�के
�प�म��सउद��नाग�रक��को��नयो�जत�करना�आव�यक�है ?
a) �नताकत��णाली�
b) �लयाकत��णाली�
c) �हमाकत��णाली�
d) नज़ाकत��णाली�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
�नताकत��णाली�
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QUESTION 49.
इ�कडना�सु�ढ़�होते�ह��तथा��भ� -�भ��वातावरण�म��पाए�जाते�ह�।��न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा /से�कथन�इ�कडना�के �स�दभ��म��सही�ह�� ?
1. आम�तौर�पर�अ�य��तनपाय��क��तुलना�म��इनके �शरीर�का�तापमान�ब�त�कम�होता�ह�।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
इ�कडना�
· वे�ऑ��े �लया�और��यू��गनी�जैसे��थान��म��पाए�जाते�ह��
· इ�कडना���नया�के �सबसे�पुराने�जी�वत��तनधा�रय��म��से�एक�ह��
�वचार�कर��
· �ले�टपस�
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/whats-threatening-echidnas/
article22830002.ece
QUESTION 50.
�मलन�अ�यास�के �स�दभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा�कथन�सही�है� ?
1. यह�भारतीय�नौसेना�के ��ारा�आयो�जत�होने�वाला�समु���नौसेना�का�एक�समागम�है।�
2. यह�अंडमान�और��नकोबार���प�समूह�म��आयो�जत��कया�जा�रहा�है।�
3. यह�हर�पांच�साल��म��एक�बार�आयो�जत��कया�जाता�है।�
नीचे�कू ट�से�चयन�क��जए :
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a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) उपरो��सभी�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
�मलन�2018
· यह�अंडमान�और��नकोबार���प�समूह�म��भारतीय�नौसेना��ारा�दो�वष��म��आयो�जत�होने�वाला�समु���नौसेना�का�एक�समागम�है।�
· यह�अंडमान�और��नकोबार���प�समूह�म��आयो�जत��कया�जा�रहा�है।�
· अंडमान��नकोबार�कमान�के �त�वावधान�म��भारतीय�नौसेना��ारा�इस�काय��म�का�आयोजन��कया�जा�रहा�है।�
· सहभागी�दे श� - ऑ��े �लया� , मले�शया� , मालद�व�, मॉरीशस�, �यांमार� , �यूजील�ड� , ओमान�, �वयतनाम�, थाईल�ड� , तंजा�नया� , �ीलंका� ,
�स�गापुर� , बां�लादे श� , इंडोने�शया� , के �या�और�कं बो�डया।�
�वचार�कर��
· आई.ओ.आर.-ए.आर.सी�.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/navy-to-host-milan-from-march-6-to-13/
article22852221.ece
QUESTION 51.
रा�प�त�का���य���नवा�चन�नह��होता�ह�� , पर�तु��नवा�चक�म�डल (इले�टोरल�कॉलेज ) के �सद�य��के ��ारा��कया�जाता�है।�म�डल�म��शा�मल
होते�ह� ?
2. रा�य��वधानम�डल�के ��नवा��चत�सद�य।�
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सही�उ�र�चु�नए ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
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Solution (c)
· रा�य��वधानसभा��के ��नवा��चत�सद�य�
�वचार�कर� !
· रा�प�त�के ��नवा�चन�क��री�त�
· रा�प�त�के �पद�क��अह�ताएं�
QUESTION 52.
सं�वधान�म���कया�गया��न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा�प�रवत�न , अनु�छे द� 368 के �दायरे�से�बाहर�ह�� ?
1. नए�रा�य��का��वेश�या��थापना�
2. संसद�म��रा�य��का���त�न�ध�व�
3. संसद�के �चुनाव�म��प�रवत�न�
4. पांचव��अनुसूची�के �अंतग�त�अनुसू�चत��े���म��प�रवत�न�
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सह��उ�र�चु�नए ?
a) 1,3 और�4
b) 1,2 और�3
c) 2 और�4
d) 1,2 ,3 और�4
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
· नए�रा�य��का��वेश�या��थापना।�
· संसद�और�रा�य��वधानसभा��के �चुनाव�
· पांचव��अनुसूची -अनुसू�चत��े���और�अनुसू�चत�जनजा�तय��का��शासन�।�
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�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· ब�मत�के ��कार�
· भारतीय�सं�वधान�न�तो�कठोर�और�न�ही�लचीला�है� , ले�कन�दोन��का�संतुलन�है�
· मूल�ढांचे�का��स�ांत�
QUESTION 53.
भारतीय�सं�वधान�के �अनुसार� , पया�वरण�संर�ण�इनम��से��कसका��ह�सा�है ?
1. मूल�अ�धकार�
3. मूल�कत���
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सह��उ�र�चु�नए :
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
c) 1 और�3
d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (d)
मूल�कत����के �तहत�, अनु�छे द� 51-ए(जी) म��कहा�गया�ह�� , " वन��, झील��, न�दय��और�व�य�जीव��स�हत��ाकृ �तक�पया�वरण�क��सुर�ा�और
सुधार�करना�तथा��ा�णमा��के ���त�दया�भाव�रखना, भारत�के ���येक�नाग�रक�का�यह�कत���होगा। "
अ�धक�जानकारी�के ��लए:
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=105411
�वचार�कर� !
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· मेनका�गांधी�वाद�और�संवैधा�नक��ा�या�पर�इसके ��न�हताथ��
· भारत�म��पया�वरण�संर�ण�कानून�
QUESTION 54.
अंतरा��यीय�प�रषद् इं(टर��टे ट�काउं�सल ) के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
1. यह�एक�संवैधा�नक��नकाय�है।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) के वल�1
b) 1 और�2
c) के वल�3
d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· सहकारी�संघवाद�म��अंतरा��यीय�प�रषद�क��भू�मका�
QUESTION 55.
सं�वधान�भारत�को� ' रा�य��का�संघ� ' के ��प�म��व�ण�त�करता�है��य��क�
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सही�उ�र�चु�नए ?
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
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d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
डॉ. बी. आर. अ�बेडकर�के �अनुसार� , ' रा�य��का�संघ� ' उ���को�संघीय�रा�य�के ��थान�पर�मह�व�दे ने�के �दो�कारण�है :
2. रा�य��को�संघ�से�अलग�होने�का�कोई�अ�धकार�नह��है।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· भारतीय�सं�वधान�क��एका�मक�और�संघीय��वशेषताएं�
· एस�आर�बो�माई�बनाम�यू�नयन�ऑफ�इं�डया�
QUESTION 56.
सु�ीम�कोट� �के �अनुसार� , �न�न�ल�खत�अ�धकार��म��से�कौन�से�अ�धकार , वाक् �एवं�अ�भ����क���वतं�ता�का�अ�धकार�के �भाग�है� ?
1. �ेस�क���वतं�ता�
2. सरकारी�ग�त�व�धय��के �बारे�म��जानने�का�अ�धकार�
3. शां�त�का�अ�धकार�
4. हड़ताल�का�अ�धकार�
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सही�उ�र�चु�नए ;
a) 1 और�3
b) 1,2 और�3
c) 2,3 और�4
d) 1,2 और�4
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
1. अपने�या��कसी�अ�य�के ��वचार��को��चा�रत�करने�का�अ�धकार�
2. �ेस�क���वतं�ता�
3. वा�ण��यक��व�ापन��क���वतं�ता�
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6. एक�राजनै�तक�पाट��या�संगठन��ारा�आयो�जत�बंद�के ��खलाफ�अ�धकार�
7. सरकारी�ग�त�व�धय��के �बारे�म��जानने�का�अ�धकार�
8. शां�त�का�अ�धकार�
9. अखबार�पर�पूव��स�सर�शप�लगाने�के ��खलाफ।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
· य��प�भारतीय�सं�वधान�एसो�सएशन�या���मक�संघ��के �गठन�क��गारंट��का�मूल�अ�धकार��दान�करता�है�ले�कन�हड़ताल�पर�जाने�का�कोई
मौ�लक�अ�धकार�नह��है।�वा�तव�म�� , यह�औ�ो�गक��ववाद�अ�ध�नयम�, 1947 के �तहत�एक�सशत��अ�धकार�है� , और�कु छ�पूव� -शत��पूरी�होने
के �बाद�ही�उपल�ध�होता�है।�
�वचार�कर� !
· साइबर��न�दा�बनाम�वाक् �एवं�अ�भ����क���वतं�ता�
· राज�ोह�कानून�बनाम�वाक् �एवं�अ�भ����क���वतं�ता�
QUESTION 57.
भारतीय�सं�वधान�म��मूल�कत����के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
1. यह�जापानी�सं�वधान�से��े�रत�ह�।�
2. यह�के वल�नाग�रक��पर�ही�लागू�होता�ह�।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) के वल�2
c) 2 और�3
d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
भारतीय�सं�वधान�म��मूल�कत����को�पूव��सो�वयत�संघ�के �सं�वधान�से��भा�वत�होकर��लया�गया�है।�
�वचार�कर� !
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· �वण���स�ह�स�म�त�क���सफा�रश�
· मूल�कत����क��आलोचना�
QUESTION 58.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा /से�रा�ीय�आपातकाल�क��घोषणा�का /के �प�रणाम�है� ?
2. रा�य�के ��वधान-स�ब�धी�श���को��नलं�बत�कर��दया�जाता�है।�
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सही�उ�र�चु�नए ?
a) के वल�1
b) 1 और�2
c) 2 और�3
d) के वल�3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
रा�ीय�आपातकाल�के �दौरान�संसद�को�रा�य�सूची�म��उ��ल�खत��कसी�भी��वषय�पर�कानून�बनाने�का�अ�धकार��ा�त�हो�जाता�है।�हालां�क
रा�य��वधान�मंडल��को��नलं�बत�नह���कया�जाता� , ले�कन�सं�वधान�संघा�मक�क��जगह�एका�मक�हो�जाता�है।�
�वचार�कर� !
· मूल�अ�धकार��पर�रा�ीय�आपातकाल�का��भाव�
· रा�प�त�शासन�और�रा�ीय�आपातकाल�के �म�य�अंतर�
QUESTION 59.
सं�वधान�के �अनुसार� , एक�����को�संसद�सद�य�के ��प�म���नवा��चत�होने�के ��लए�अयो�य�घो�षत��कया�जाएगा�य�द�
1. वह�लाभ�का�पद�धारण�करता�है।�
2. वह�भारत�का�नाग�रक�नह��है।�
3. वह�चुनाव�अपराध��का�दोषी�पाया�जाता�है।�
नीचे��दए�गए�कोड�का�सही�उ�र�चुन��
a) 1 और�2
b) 1 और�3
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c) 2 और�4
d) 3 और�4
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
2. वह��वकृ त�च��है�और��यायालय�ने�ऐसी�घोषणा�क��है।�
3. वह�एक�घो�षत��दवा�लया�है।�
5. य�द�वह�संसद��ारा�बनाई�गई��कसी��व�ध��ारा��नर�ह�त��कया�गया�है।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· दलबदल�के �आधार�पर��नह�रता�
· जन��त�न�ध�व�अ�ध�नयम�1951
QUESTION 60.
�न�न�ल�खत�मामल��म��से�कौन�सा /से��े��सव��च��यायालय�का /के �मूल��े�ा�धकार�नह��है� ?
1. दो�रा�य��के �म�य��ववाद�
2. पूव��संवैधा�नक�सं�ध�से�उ�प���ववाद�
3. अंतररा�यीय�जल��ववाद�
नीचे��दए�गए�कोड�का�सही�उ�र�चुन��
a) के वल�2
b) 2 और�3
c) के वल�1
d) के वल�3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
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I. क� ��व�एक�या�एक�से�अ�धक�रा�य��के �बीच�ह��
II. क� ��और�कोई�रा�य�या�रा�य��का�एक�तरफ�होना�एवं�एक�या�एक�से�अ�धक�रा�य��का��सरे�तरफ�होना�
पूव� -संवैधा�नक�सं�ध�से�उ�प��होने�वाले��ववाद��पर�उ�चतम��यायालय�का�कोई�मूल��े�ा�धकार�नह��है।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· अपीलीय��या�यक��े��
· �पेशल�लीव�पे�टशन�
QUESTION 61.
रा�य�लोक�सेवा�आयोग�के �अ�य��को��कसके ��ारा��नयु���कया�जाता�है ?
a) रा�प�त�
b) �धानमं�ी�
c) रा�यपाल�
d) कै �बनेट�स�चव�
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
�वचार�कर� !
· रा�यपाल�क��काय�कारी�श��यां�
QUESTION 62.
भारत�म���या�यक�समी�ा�के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन -सा�सही�है� ?
a) के वल�1
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b) के वल�2
c) के वल�3
d) उपरो��म��से�कोई�नह��
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
ज��टस�सैयद�शाह�मोह�मद�क़ादरी�ने��न�न�ल�खत�तीन��े�णय��म���या�यक�समी�ा�का�वग�करण��कया�है :
1. सं�वधान�संशोधन�क���या�यक�समी�ा।�
2. संसद�और�रा�य��वधान�मंडल��और�अधीन�थ��वधान��क���या�यक�समी�ा।�
3. रा�य�के �अधीन�संघ�और�रा�य�और��ा�धकरण�क���शास�नक�कार�वाई�क���या�यक�समी�ा।�
इस��कार�, �या�यक�समी�ा��वधायी�और�काय�कारी�दोन��काय��पर�लागू�होती�है।�
हालां�क� , आई.आर. कोलोहो�मामले� (2007) म��एक�मह�वपूण��फै सले�म��सु�ीम�कोट� �ने�फै सला�सुनाया��क� 24 अ�ैल� , 1973 के �बाद�नौव
अनुसूची�के �तहत�रखे�गए�कानून��को��यायालय�म��चुनौती�द��जा�सकती�ह��य�द�वे�अनु�छे द� 14 , 15 , 19 और�21 के �तहत�गारंट�कृ त
मौ�लक�अ�धकार��या�' सं�वधानके �मूल�ढांचे ’ का�उ�लंघन�करते�ह�।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· मूल�ढांचे�का��स�ांत�
QUESTION 63.
73व��सं�वधान�संशोधन�अ�ध�नयम�के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
1. यह�अ�ध�नयम���येक�रा�य�म� , अ�नवाय�����तरीय�पंचायती�राज�प��त�क���थापना�करता�है।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�3
b) के वल�3
c) 2 और�3
d) 1 , 2 और�3
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Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
�वचार�कर� !
· पंचायती�राज�सं�थान��के �मु�े�
QUESTION 64.
इनम��से�कौन -कौन�संवैधा�नक��प�से��था�पत��वतं���नकाय�ह�� ?
1. चुनाव�आयोग�
2. भारत�के ��नयं�क�और�महालेखा�परी�क�का�पद�
3. संयु��लोक�सेवा�आयोग�
4. रा�ीय�मानवा�धकार�आयोग�
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सही�उ�र�चु�नए ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 1,2 और�3
c) 3 और�4
d) 1 , 2 , 3 और�4
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
चुनाव�आयोग�और�भारत�का��नयं�क�एवं�महालेखा�परी�क�का�पद�संवैधा�नक��प�से��था�पत��वतं���नकाय�ह�।�
संयु��लोक�सेवा�आयोग�और�रा�ीय�मानवा�धकार�आयोग�वैधा�नक��नकाय�ह�।�
�वचार�कर� !
· संवैधा�नक��नकाय�
· रा�ीय�मानवा�धकार�आयोग�
QUESTION 65.
भारत�का��नयं�क�एवं�महालेखा�परी�क� (सीएजी) �न�न�ल�खत�म��से��कसका�लेखा -परी�ा�नह��करता�है� ?
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1. �थानीय��नकाय�
2. तेल�एवं��ाकृ �तक�गैस�आयोग�
3. रा�य�सरकार��
4. क� ��सरकार�के �अ�ध�नयम��ारा��था�पत�सभी�सं�थाएं�
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सही�उ�र�चु�नए ?
a) के वल�1
b) 1 और�2
c) के वल�4
d) 3 और�4
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· कै ग�क��भू�मका�क��आलोचना�
QUESTION 66.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन� 42वां�संशोधन�अ�ध�नयम�का /के ��ावधान�ह�� ?
2. कु छ��वषय��का�रा�य�सूची�से�समवत��सूची�म���थानांतरण।�
3. संप���के �अ�धकार�को��व�धक�अ�धकार�बनाना।�
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सही�उ�र�चु�नए ?
a) 1 और�2
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b) के वल�1
c) 2 और�3
d) 1 , 2 और�3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
· रा�य�सूची�से�कु छ��वषय��का�समवत��सूची�म���थानांतरण��कया�गया।�
· नए�डीपीएसपी�शा�मल��कये�गए।�
�वचार�कर� !
· 44व��संशोधन�अ�ध�नयम�के �मह�वपूण���ावधान�
QUESTION 67.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सी��ा��तयां�क� ��के �गैर -कर�राज�व�का�मु�य��ोत�नह��ह�� ?
a) ब��क�ग�
b) वन�
c) रेलवे�
d) �स�का�और�मु�ा�
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
i. डाक�और�टे ली�ाफ�
ii. रेल�
iii. ब��क�ग�
iv. �सारण�
v. �स�का�और�मु�ा�
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�वचार�कर� !
QUESTION 68.
लोकसभा�अ�य��के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) के वल�1
b) 1 और�3
c) 2 और�3
d) 1 , 2 और�3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
जब�भी�लोकसभा�भंग�हो�जाती�है� , तो�अ�य��अपना�पद�नह��छोड़ता�ह��और�नव��नवा��चत�लोकसभा�क��बैठक�तक�पद�धारण�करता�है।�
�वचार�कर� !
· �पीकर�क��श��यां�और���थ�त�
· �पीकर�क��भू�मका�पर��ववाद�
QUESTION 69.
धन��वधेयक�के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
2. रा�य�सभा, धन��वधेयक�को�अ�वीकार�या�संशो�धत�नह��कर�सकती�है।�
3. रा�प�त, �वधेयक�पर�अपनी�सहम�त�रोक�नह��सकते�ह�।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 1 और�3
c) 2 और�3
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d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
ऐसे���येक��वधेयक�को�सरकारी��वधेयक�माना�जाता�है�और�एक�मं�ी��ारा�ही�पेश��कया�जा�सकता�है।�
धन��वधेयक�के �संबंध�म��रा�य�सभा�क��श��यां���तबं�धत�कर�द��गयी�ह�।�यह�एक�धन��वधेयक�को�अ�वीकार�या�संशो�धत�नह��कर�सकता�है।�
�वचार�कर� !
· धन��वधेयक�बनाम��व���वधेयक�
QUESTION 70.
�ा�कलन�स�म�त�के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
1. इस�स�म�त�म��रा�यसभा�का�कोई���त�न�ध�व�नह��होता�है।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 1 और�3
c) 2 और�3
d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
इसम�� 30 सद�य�होते�ह��तथा�सभी�लोकसभा�से�ही�होते�ह�।�इस�स�म�त�म��रा�यसभा�का�कोई���त�न�ध�व�नह��है।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
· स�म�त�क��भू�मका�सी�मत�होती�है� , वह�न�तो�संसद��ारा��नधा��रत�नी�त�पर�सवाल�कर�सकती�है�और�न�ही�इसक���सफा�रश��मं�ालय��पर
बा�यकारी�होती�ह�।�
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�वचार�कर� !
· �थायी�स�म�तयां�और�तदथ��स�म�तयां�
QUESTION 71.
उ�च��यायालय�के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सह��है� ?
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· रा�ीय��या�यक��नयु���आयोग� (एनजेएसी )
· एक�उ�च��यायालय�के ��यायाधीश�को�हटाने�क�����या�
QUESTION 72.
भाग�XXI के �अंतग�त��वशेष��ावधान , �न�न�ल�खत�रा�य��म��से��कस�के ��लए�नह���कए�गए�ह�� ?
a) नागाल�ड�
b) गोवा�
c) �स��कम�
d) पंजाब�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
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सं�वधान�के �भाग�XXI म��अनु�छे द� 371 से� 371-जे�तक�म�� 12 रा�य��अथा�त�महारा�� , गुजरात� , नागाल�ड� , असम�, म�णपुर� , आं���दे श� ,
तेलंगाना� , �स��कम�, �मजोरम�, अ�णाचल��दे श� , गोवा�और�कना�टक�के ��लए��वशेष��ावधान�ह�।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· ज�मू�और�क�मीर�क���वशेष���थ�त�
QUESTION 73.
रा�प�त�चुनाव�म��मतदान�का�अ�धकार�है ?
a) �ाकृ �तक�अ�धकार�
b) संवैधा�नक�अ�धकार�
c) मूल�अ�धकार�
d) �व�धक�अ�धकार�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
संवैधा�नक�अ�धकार�वे�ह��जो��प���प�से�सं�वधान�म��व�ण�त�होते�ह�।�
आगे�और�अ�ययन�के ��लए:
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=167193
�वचार�कर� !
· जन���त�न�ध�व�अ�ध�नयम�
QUESTION 74.
भारतीय�सं�वधान�के ��नमा�ण�के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
2. ���स��मशन�योजना�म��सं�वधान�सभा�के �गठन�क��मांग�को��वीकार��कया�गया।�
3. जवाहरलाल�नेह��को�अंत�रम�सरकार�तथा�सं�वधान�सभा�का��मुख�बनाया�गया।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�गलत�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 2 और�3
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c) 1 और�3
d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
आ�खरकार�1940 के �अग�त���ताव�म�����टश�सरकार�ने�इस�मांग�को��वीकार�कर��लया।�
�वचार�कर� !
· सं�वधान�सभा�क��संरचना�
· सं�वधान�सभा�क���मुख�स�म�तयां�
QUESTION 75.
बजट�के �अ�ध�नयमन�के �संबंध�म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा�संवैधा�नक��ावधान�गलत�है� ?
a) संसद , कर�म��वृ���नह��कर�सकती�है।�
b) रा�य�सभा, अनुदान�क��मांग�पर�मतदान�नह��कर�सकती�है।�
c) धन��वधेयक�के ��वपरीत�, रा�यसभा�म��कराधान�से�स�बं�धत�एक��व���वधेयक���तुत��कया�जा�सकता�है।�
d) �व�ध�के ��ा�धकार�के �अलावा�कोई�कर�नह��लगाया�जाएगा।�
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
संसद��कसी�कर�को�कम�कर�सकती�है�या�समा�त�कर�सकती�है� , ले�कन�इसे�बढ़ा�नह��सकती�है।�
रा�य�सभा�अनुदान�क��मांग�पर�मतदान�नह��कर�सकती�है।�
�वचार�कर� !
· भा�रत��य�
· क� ��सरकार�के ��व�भ���कार�क���न�धयाँ�
QUESTION 76.
�व��आयोग�के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जये�
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1. यह�एक�अध���या�यक��नकाय�है।�
2. आयोग�का�अ�य��पुन�न�यु���के ��लए�पा��नह��ह�।�
3. आयोग�के �सद�य��क��यो�यताएं�सं�वधान�म���न�द���नह��है।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 1 और�3
c) 2 और�3
d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
सं�वधान�ने�संसद�को�आयोग�के �सद�य��क��यो�यता�और�चयन��व�ध�का��नधा�रण�करने�का�अ�धकार��दया�है।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· �व��आयोग�के �काय��
· राजकोषीय�संघवाद�के ��बना�सहकारी�संघवाद�हा�सल�नह���कया�जा�सकता�है� ?
QUESTION 77.
क� ��य��शास�नक�अ�धकरण(सीएट�) के �मूल��े�ा�धकार�म���न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�शा�मल�नह��है� ?
a) अ�खल�भारतीय�सेवाएं�
b) र�ा(�डफे �स) सेवा��के �नाग�रक�कम�चारी�
c) संसद�के �स�चवालय��टाफ़�
d) क� ��के �अंतग�त��स�वल�पद�
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
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�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· �याय�का��याया�धकरण�
QUESTION 78.
भारत�के �अटॉन��जनरल�के �पद�के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
1. यह�दे श�का�सव��च��व�ध�अ�धकारी�होता�ह�।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 1 और�3
c) 2 और�3
d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
· अटॉन��जनरल�सरकार�का�पूण�का�लक�वक�ल�नह��है�और��नजी�कानूनी��ै��टस�क��अनुम�त�है।�
�वचार�कर� !
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· भारत�के �सॉ�ल�सटर�जनरल�
· रा�य�के �महा�धव�ा�
QUESTION 79.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से��कस�सं�वधान�संशोधन�के ��ारा��ाथ�मक��श�ा�को�मूल�अ�धकार�का�दजा���दया�गया� ?
a) 84 th
b) 91 st
c) 93 rd
d) 86 th
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
�वचार�कर� !
· �श�ा�का�अ�धकार�कानून�का��व�ेषण�
QUESTION 80.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन� ‘सं�वधान�को�बनाएं�रखने ’ का�शपथ�लेता�है� ?
a) अ�य��
b) �धान�मं�ी�
c) भारत�के �मु�य��यायाधीश�
d) संसद�सद�य�
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· रा�प�त�का�शपथ�
QUESTION 81.
युकाटन��ाय��प , पानी�के �नीचे�क��गुफा��के �दो�बड़े�नेटवक� �के ��लए�समाचार�म��था।�यह��न�न�ल�खत�म��से��कस�दे श�म����थत�है� ?
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a) �यूज़ील�ड�
b) मे��सको�
c) चीन�
d) अज�ट�ना�
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· माया�स�यता�
· म�य�अमे�रका�के �दे श�
QUESTION 82.
�न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए?
1. इ�ह�ने�म�म -उल-बहरीन�क��रचना�क�।�
2. इ�ह�ने�सं�कृ त�म���लखे�उप�नषद��का�फारसी�भाषा�म��अनुवाद��कया।�
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��का�सबसे�उपयु��वण�न�है� ?
a) �शवाजी�
b) दारा��शकोह�
c) अबुल�फजल�
d) अकबर�
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Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
�वचार�कर� !
· दारा��शकोह�के �बारे�म��त�य�
· औरंगजेब�क��नी�तयां�
QUESTION 83.
इयान, महाक�प( eras ), क�प( periods ) , युग ( epochs ) तथा�आयु ( ages ) भूगभ�य�काल�म�के ���व�भ��ख�ड�को��न��पत
करते�ह�।�पृ�वी�के �इ�तहास�को����करने�के ��लए�इन�समय�मानक��को��था�पत�करने�के ��लए�कौन�सी�वै��क�सं�था��ज�मेदार�है� ?
a) द�इंटरनेशनल�सोसाइट��ऑफ़�अ��कलो�ाफ��
b) इंटरनेशनल�कमीशन�ऑन���े ट��ाफ��
c) इंटरनेशनल�यू�नयन�ऑफ़�बाल�नयो�ाफ��
d) द�इंटरनेशनल�कमीशन�ऑन�अथ��एंड�साइंस�
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
QUESTION 84.
खाद��और��ामो�ोग�आयोग�(के.वी.आई.सी.) के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए।�
2. इसका�एक�उ�े �य��ामीण�युवा��को�रोजगार�उपल�ध�कराना�है।�
3. यह��ामीण�उ�ोग��को��व�ीय�सहायता��दान�करती�है।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सह��है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 1 और�3
c) 2 और�3
d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: D
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Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
· रोजगार��दान�करने�का�सामा�जक�उ�े �य�
· गरीब��को�आ�म-�नभ�र�बनाने�और�ठोस��ामीण�समुदाय�क��भावना�का��नमा�ण�करने�का��ापक�उ�े �य।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· खाद��हाट�
· �वीट�रेवोलुशन�
http://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/kvic-divisional-office-comes-up-in-hubli-91-
yr-old-khadi-centre-revived-in-mysuru-118022701086_1.html
QUESTION 85.
हाल�ही�म���व��मं�ालय�ने� "ऑपरेशन��ीन " नामक�एक�पहल�क��घोषणा�क��है� , जो�नीचे��दए�गए�कथन�का�सबसे�अ�छा�वण�न�करता�है� ?
Solution (b)
�वचार�कर� !
· कृ �ष�संकट�को�संबो�धत�करने�के ��लए��कए�गए�उपाय�
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https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/budget/rs-500-crore-allocated-for-operation-
green/article22619481.ece
QUESTION 86.
�लोबल�बीज�वॉ�ट�के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
1. यह��ीनल�ड�म��अव��थत�है।�
3. भारत�ने�भी�वॉ�ट�के ��लए�बीज�भेजे�ह�।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) के वल�3
c) 1 और�3
d) 2 और�3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (b)
यह�एक��तजोरी�है�जो�मानवता�का�परम�खा��सुर�ा�शा�मल�है।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर��
· Permafrost
· Cryosphere
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/whats-inside-the-svalbard-global-seed-vault/
article22858978.ece
QUESTION 87.
हाल�ही�म��कोरोनरी��टं ट��क��क�मत��को��नयं�ण�म��लाने�स�ब�धी�सरकार�के �एक��नण�य�ने��च�क�सा�समुदाय�म��शॉक�वेव�का��नमा�ण��कया�है।
भारत�म��ऐसे�फामा��यू�टकल�उ�पाद��क��क�मत��को��नयं��त�करने�के ��लए��कस��ा�धकारी�को�आ�ाप���दया�गया�है� ?
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a) रसायन�और�उव�रक�मं�ालय�
b) �व��मं�ालय�
c) �वा��य�और�प�रवार�क�याण�मं�ालय�
d) म�हला�एवं�बाल��वकास�मं�ालय�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
�वचार�कर�� !
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pharma-pricing-panel-chief-shunted-out/
article22897704.ece
QUESTION 88.
हाल�ही�म��समाचार�म���दखाई�दे ने�वाला�एक�सुपर���टकल�काब�न�डाइऑ�साइड��ैटन�साइ�कल�टे �ट�लूप�फै �स�लट���कससे�संबं�धत�है ?
a) �व�छ�ऊजा��
b) हाइपरलूप�
c) हाइ�ोजन�बम�
d) अंत�र��काय��म�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
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http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-karnataka/supercritical-co2-brayton-cycle-
facility-opened-at-iisc/article22830320.ece
QUESTION 89.
हाल�ही�के �एक�पहल�के �अनुसार� , वायरल�लोड�परी�ण�का�उपयोग��कसके ��लए��कया�जाएगा?
a) र��म��एचआईवी�क��मा�ा�का�पता�लगाना�
b) एच1एन1 का��व�रत�संसूचन�
c) �ां�तक�साइबर�बु�नयाद��ढांचे�क��सुर�ा�
d) रैनसमवेयर�जैसे�साइबर�अपराध��को�रोकना�
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
�वचार�कर� !
· एंट�रे�ोवायरल�थेरेपी� (एआरट�)
· एचआईवी�परी�ण�(ए�लसा�, पीसीआर)
QUESTION 90.
हाल�ही�म����व�ट( SWIFT ) �ांजे�शन�समाचार�म��था� , यह��न�न�ल�खत�म��से��कसका�सं���त��प�है� ?
a) सोसायट��फॉर�व�ड�वाइड�इंटरब�क�फाइन��सयल��ा�सफर�
b) सोसायट��फॉर�व�ड�वाइड�इंटरब�क�फाइन��सयल�टे लीक�यु�नके शन�
c) सोसायट��फॉर�व�ड�वाइड�एंड�इंटरनल�फाइन��सयल��ा�सफर�
d) सोसायट��फॉर�व�ड�वाइड�इं��ट�ूशनल�फाइन��सयल�टे लीक�यु�नके शन�
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
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�वचार�कर� !
· ब�क��के ��लए�बेसल��नयम�
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/a-swift-autopsy-how-nirav-modi-defrauded-pnb/
article22844201.ece
QUESTION 91.
�व�ीय�काय�वाही�काय�बल� (एफ.ए.ट�.एफ.) के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
1. यह�एक�अंतरसरकारी�संगठन�है।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन�म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
�वचार�कर� !
· एफएट�एफ�क���े -सूची�
· आ�थ�क�अपराध��का�सामना�करने�के ��लए�भारत�म��वैधा�नक�उपाय�
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/india-congratulates-china-on-financial-action-task-
force-post-hopes-beijing-will-be-balanced/articleshow/63066160.cms
QUESTION 92.
�न�न�ल�खत�दे श��म��से�कौन -कौन�'QUAD' का��ह�सा�ह�� ?
1. भारत�
2. संयु��रा�य�अमे�रका�
3. �स�
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4. जापान�
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सही�उ�र�चु�नए ?
a) 1 और�3
b) 2 और�4
c) 1,2 और�4
d) 1,2 , 3 और�4
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
�वचार�कर� !
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/cornered-by-the-quad/article22872575.ece
QUESTION 93.
�शकार�पर�सतक� ता�बढ़ाने�तथा�व�य�जीव��से�स�बं�धत�अपराध��को��नयं��त�करने�के ��लए�, �न�न�ल�खत�म��से��कस�रा�य�म��व�यजीव�फा�ट
�ै क�कोट� ��था�पत��कया�गया� ?
a) �द�ली�
b) �बहार�
c) असम�
d) महारा��
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
· असम�के �बायो��फयर��रज़व��और�रा�ीय�उ�ान��क��सूची�
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/guards-get-modern-weapons-to-fight-
poaching/article22793099.ece
QUESTION 94.
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1. गांव��क��सफाई�
2. कचरे�से�धन�
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सही�उ�र�चु�नए ?
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
�वचार�कर� !
· ठोस�एवं�तरल�कचरा��बंधन�
· अप�श��को�संपदा�को�समझने�म��चुनौ�तयां�
http://www.business-standard.com/article/opinion/govt-s-gobar-dhan-initiative-is-a-
commendable-plan-letter-to-bs-118022801336_1.html
QUESTION 95.
Rustom- 2 के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सह��है� ?
a) के वल�1
b) के वल�2
c) दोन��1 और�2
d) न�तो�1 और�न�ही�2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (c)
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�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
· ��तम-2, मैनुअल�और�साथ�ही��वचा�लत�मोड�पर��मशन�उड़ान�भर�सकता�है।�
�वचार�कर� !
· �वदे शी�र�ा�उ�पादन�
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/drdo-successfully-carries-out-test-flight-of-
rustom-2-drone/articleshow/63068375.cms
QUESTION 96.
�व��पया�वरण��दवस� ( WED ) 2018 के �संबंध�म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए ?
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) के वल�1
c) के वल�2
d) इनम��से�कोई�नह��
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (a)
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
· 2017 के ��लए�थीम�' कने��टं ग�पीपल�टू �नेचर - इन�द��सट��एंड�ऑन�द�ल�ड , �ॉम�पोल�टू �द�इ�वेटर ’ था; तथा�मेजबान�दे श�कनाडा�था।�
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/pollution/drive-against-plastic-pollution-
to-gain-momentum-from-india-the-global-host-of-world-environment-day-2018/
articleshow/62994154.cms
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QUESTION 97.
हाल�ही�म���यांमार�ने�भारतीय�सीमा�के �नजद�क�एक�नद��के ��कनारे�बाँध�का��नमा�ण�करना�शु��कर��दया�है� , �जससे�म�णपुर�के �च�डेल��जले�म
पानी�क��कमी�का�डर�है।��न�न�ल�खत�रा�य��म��से�कौन�म�णपुर�के �साथ�सीमा�नह��बनाता�है� ?
a) असम�
b) नगाल�ड�
c) �मजोरम�
d) ��पुरा�
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (d)
�वचार�कर� !
· म�णपुर�क���मुख�न�दय��और�झील��
QUESTION 98.
भारतीय�नौसेना�के �प��मी�नौसेना�कमान��ारा�आयो�जत�स�ब�ध�अ�यास�म����न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�शा�मल�थे� ?
a) आ�सयान�
b) �ह�द�महासागर�के �तट�य�दे श�
c) �ब�सटे क�दे श�
d) भारत-�वयतनाम-मले�शया -थाईल�ड�
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
��तभा�गय��म���ह�द�महासागर�के �10 तट�य�दे श�मालद�व� , �यांमार� , इंडोने�शया� , �ीलंका� , बां�लादे श� , ओमान�, कतर�, संयु��अरब
अमीरात�, मले�शया�और�मॉरीशस�शा�मल��ए।�
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Exam Title : Test 21-Revision: Polity & ...
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�वचार�कर� !
· भारतीय�नौसै�नक�अ�यास�
· सै�य�अ�यास�के �संचालन�का�मह�व�
http://www.livemint.com/Opinion/A2oieg9GPqS7R39VecSOOK/Building-maritime-capacity-in-
SouthEast-Asia.html
QUESTION 99.
�न�न�ल�खत�म��से�कौन�सा /से�रा�ीय�बचत��माणप��क���वशेषताएं�ह�� ?
3. ��ट, इसम���नवेश�नह��कर�सकते�ह�।�
नीचे��दए�गए�कू ट�से�सही�उ�र�चु�नए ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 1 और�3
c) 2 और�3
d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
रा�ीय�बचत��माण�प��(एनएससी), भारत�सरकार��ारा�जारी�एक��नवेश�योजना�है।�इसम���न�न�ल�खत��वशेषताएं�ह� :
· �नवेश�के ��लए�कोई�अ�धकतम�सीमा�नह��है।�
· �ोत�पर�कोई�कर�कटौती�नह��है।�
· ��ट�और�एचयूएफ��नवेश�नह��कर�सकते�ह�।�
�वचार�कर� !
· लघु�बचत�योजनाएं�
http://www.livemint.com/Money/v7KOGkxFAFMYnuiq1RawfN/Government-proposes-
amendments-in-small-savings-schemes.html
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Exam Title : Test 21-Revision: Polity & ...
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QUESTION 100.
�चट�फं ड�के �संदभ��म���न�न�ल�खत�कथन��पर��वचार�क��जए :
1. यह�भारत�म���च�लत�एक�बचत�योजना�है।�
2. यह�पूरी�तरह�से�अ�नय�मत�है।�
ऊपर��दए�गए�कथन��म��से�कौन�सा /से�सही�है� ?
a) 1 और�2
b) 1 और�3
c) 2 और�3
d) 1,2 और�3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer:
Explanation
Solution (b)
�चट�फं ड, भारत�म���च�लत�एक��कार�क��बचत�योजना�है।�
�चट�फं ड��वसाय�को�क� ��य�अ�ध�नयम, �चट�फं ड�अ�ध�नयम�, 1982 तथा�इस�अ�ध�नयम�के �तहत�इस�उ�े �य�के ��लए��व�भ��रा�य
सरकार��के ��ारा�बनाए�गए��नयम��के �अंतग�त��व�नय�मत��कया�जाता�है।�
�या�आप�जानते�है� ?
�वचार�कर� !
http://www.livemint.com/Money/aasZcBKy9PcW3jK0ZOi6dN/New-rules-for-chit-funds-and-
deposit-schemes.html
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