Biology Times February 18

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Biology Times February 18

By: SHWETHA .S (Mysore)

Introduction
• Enzymes are commonly proteinaceous substances
which are capable of catalysing chemical
reactions of biological origin without themselves
undergoing any change. Therefore, they are called
biocatalysts. A cell with an average diameter of
20 pm has about 1000 chemical reactions going on
at any time. All of them require specific enzymes.
All the enzymes are not present at all the times in
the cell but they are formed as and when required
from the blue print present in DNA. Table shows
examples of some enzymes.
• The term ‘enzyme’ was coined by Kuhne (1878)
for catalytically active substances previously
called ferments. Enzymes were actually found out
by Buchner (1897) with the accidental discovery Modes of Enzyme Action:
that fermentation of sugar is not only caused Enzyme-catalysed reactions occur in at least two
by living yeast cells but also yeast extract.The steps:
extract obviously possessed biocatalysts required (i) In the first step, an enzyme molecule (E) and the
for the process. Buchner (1903) also isolated the substrate molecule or molecules (S) collide and
first enzyme. He was awarded Nobel Prize in the react to form an intermediate compound called
same year, 1903. the enzyme-substrate (E–S) complex.
(This step is reversible because the complex can
break apart into the original substrate or substrates
and the free enzyme.)

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 Biology Times February 18

(ii) In the second step, once the E–S complex forms, the enzyme is able to catalyse the formation of product
(P), which is then released from the enzyme surface.
Eg: Action of sucrase as shown in Fig.
Hydrogen bonding and other electrostatic interactions hold the enzyme and substrate together in the
complex. The structural features or functional groups on the enzyme that participate in these interactions
are located in a cleft or pocket on the enzyme surface. This pocket, where the enzyme combines with the
substrate and transforms the substrate to product is called the active site of the enzyme.
The substrate is a molecule upon which an enzyme acts.
The active site is the region of an enzyme where substrate molecules bind and undergo a chemical reaction.
The product is a molecule obtained from the conversion of substrate by enzyme action.

Eg: Action of sucrase on sucrose :

Sucrose binds to the active site on sucrase, and this puts stress on the bond between the 2 sugars that make
up sucrose. The bond breaks, releasing glucose and fructose.
There are two view points by which enzymes are supposed to bring about chemical reaction.
i. Lock and Key Hypothesis:
• It was put forward by Emil Fischer in 1894. According to this hypothesis, both enzyme and substrate
molecules have specific geometrical shapes.
• The contact is such that the substrate molecules or reactants come together causing the chemical change.
It is similar to the system or lock and key. Just as a lock can be opened by its specific key, a substrate
molecule can be acted upon by a particular enzyme. This also explains the specificity of enzyme action.
Features:
(1) Structure or conformation of the enzyme is rigid.
(2) Active site is rigid and pre-shaped template.
(a) Because the substrate and the active site of the enzyme have complementary
structures and bonding groups, they fit together as a key fits a lock.

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Biology Times February 18

(b) The catalytic reaction occurs while the two are bonded together in the enzyme-substrate complex.
ii. Induced-Fit Theory:
• It is modification of lock and key hypothesis which was proposed by Koshland in 1959. According to this
theory the active site of the enzyme contains two groups, buttressing and catalytic. The buttressing group
is meant for supporting the substrate. The catalytic group is able to weaken the bonds of reactants by
electrophilic and nucleophilic forces.
• The two groups are normally at a distance. As soon as the substrate comes in contact with the buttressing
group, the active site of the enzyme undergoes conformational changes so as to bring the catalytic group
opposite the substrate bonds to be broken.
• Catalytic group helps in bringing about chemical reaction. The substrate is converted into product. The
product is unable to hold on the buttressing site due to change in its structure and bonds. Buttressing group
reverts to its original position. The product is released.
Features:
(1) Active site is not rigid and pre-shaped.
(2) The interaction of the substrate with the enzyme induces a conformation change in enzyme.

Fig: Induced Fit Model

Unit of Enzyme: Properties of Enzyme and Factors Influencing
• The International Commission on Enzymes Enzyme Activities:
established by International Union of • The properties and characteristics of enzymes are
Biochemistry (IUB) defines, One International given in table.
Unit of enzyme as the amount of enzyme that • Enzyme reaction rates are influenced by
catalyses the formation of one micromole of several factors such as pH, temperature and the
product in one minute. In determining the One concentration of reactants.
International Unit the conditions of assay must
be specified because enzymes are very sensitive
to factors such as pH, temperature, and ionic
strength.
• Another definition for units of enzyme is the
‘katal’.

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 Biology Times February 18

Properties of Enzyme:
• Enzymes are generally globular proteins. Being proteinaceous, the enzymes are giant molecules with a
molecular weight of 6000 (bacterial ferredoxin) to 4,600,000 (pyruvate dehydrogenase complex).
Eg. Lysozyme - The primary structure of lysozyme is a single polypeptide containing 129 amino acids.
In physiological conditions, lysozyme is folded into a compact, globular structure with a long cleft in the
protein surface. This cleft is the active site involved in binding to the bacterial carbohydrate chain and
subsequently cleaving it. (Fig)
• Enzymes are Thermolabile, Colloidal in Nature, reversible and highly specific.
• Enzymes act as catalysts i.e., they do not start a chemical reaction but increase the rate of chemical
reaction.
• Efficiency: The number of substrate molecules changed per minute by a molecule or enzyme is called
turn over number (kcat). The higher the turn-over number, the more efficient an enzyme is. It depends
upon the number of active points present over an enzyme, precise collisions between reactants and the
rate of removal of end products.
• pH: Each enzyme functions at a particular pH called optimum pH e.g., pepsin (2 pH), sucrase (4.5 pH),
salivary amylase (6.8 pH), trypsin (8.5 pH). A change in pH makes the enzymes ineffective.
• Temperature: Each enzyme functions at a particular temperature called optimum temperature.
• The rate of a biochemical reaction rises with the increase in enzyme concentration up to a point called
limiting or saturation point. Beyond this, increase in enzyme concentration has little effect.
• Increasing the concentration of reactants (substrates) increases the rate of reaction by increasing the
frequency with which substrate molecules collide with enzyme molecules. If the concentration of substrates
is increased beyond a certain point, called the point of saturation, then there will not be a further increase in
enzyme activity since the enzymes would already be contacting substrates at the maximum rate possible.

Fig: Factors affecting enzyme activity

• As the temperature increases there is more movement of molecules and therefore more collisions between
enzymes and substrates – so the enzyme activity increases. However, there is a limit to which enzyme
activity can increase because at a certain temperature an enzyme will denature.
• When the pH is too acidic or too basic for an enzyme, its hydrogen bonds begin to break, causing its active
site to change its shape. An altered active site can’t bind with its substrate so enzyme activity decreases. If
the pH is too unfavourable then covalent bonds can break, causing the enzyme to denature.

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Biology Times February 18

Classification of Enzymes:
The modem system of enzyme classification was introduced by International Union of Biochemistry (IUB)
in 1961. It groups enzymes into the following six categories:
1. Oxidoreductases: They take part in oxidation and reduction reactions or transfer of electrons.
2. Transferases: They transfer a group from one molecule to another.
3. Hydrolases: They catalyse hydrolysis of bonds like ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic, С-С, С halide, P—N,
etc. which are formed by dehydration condensation. Hydrolases break up large molecules into smaller ones
with the help of hydrogen and hydroxyl groups of water molecules.
The phenomenon is called hydrolysis.
4. Lyases: The enzymes cause cleavage, removal of groups without hydrolysis, addition of groups to double
bonds or removal of a group producing double bond.
5. Isomerases: The enzymes cause rearrangement of molecular structure to effect isomeric changes.
6. Ligases (Synthesises): The enzymes catalyse bonding of two chemicals with the help of energy obtained
from ATP resulting in formation of such bonds as С-О, С-S, С-N and P-O.

Nomenclature of Enzymes:
• All enzyme names should end in suffix ‘ase’. Exceptions are some old names, e.g., ptyalin, pepsin, trypsin.
Some old names indicate the source but not the action, e.g., papain from Papaya, bromelain from Pineapple
of family Bromeliaceous. In modem system enzyme names are given after:(i) Substrate acted upon, e.g.,
sucrase (after sucrose), lipase, proteinase, nuclease, peptidases, maltase (ii) Chemical reaction, e.g.,
dehydrogenase, oxidase, carboxylase, decarboxylase, etc.
• The first Enzyme Commission(EC), in its report in 1961, devised a system for classification of enzymes
that also serves as a basis for assigning code numbers to them. These code numbers, prefixed by EC, which
are now widely in use, contain four elements separated by points, with the following meaning:

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(i) the first number shows to which of the six main divisions (classes) the enzyme belongs,
(ii) the second figure indicates the subclass,
(iii) the third figure gives the sub-subclass,
(iv) the fourth figure is the serial number of the enzyme in its sub-subclass.
Different Types of Enzymes
1. Based on their function inside or outside the
living cells.
(a) Enzymes functional outside the living cells
are called exo-enzymes,(extracellular) e.g.,
enzymes present in digestive juices, lysozyme of
tears.
(b) Enzymes functional inside living cells are known
as endo-enzymes,(intracellular) e.g., enzymes
of Krebs cycle (inside mitochondria), enzymes of
glycolysis (inside cytoplasm).
2. Based on Chemical Nature of Enzymes: All
enzymes are globular proteins with the exception
of recently discovered RNA enzymes. Some
enzymes may additionally contain a non-protein
group. Accordingly there are two types of
enzymes: simple and conjugate.
(a) Simple Enzyme: It is an enzyme which is
wholly made up of protein. Active site is formed
by specific grouping of its own amino acids.
Additional substance or group is absent, e.g.,
pepsin, trypsin, urease.
(b) Conjugate Enzyme: It is an enzyme which
is formed of two parts— a protein part called
apoenzyme (e.g., flavoprotein) and a non-protein
part named cofactor.
The complete conjugate enzyme, consisting of an
apoenzyme and a cofactor, is called holoenzyme.
Active site is formed jointly by apoenzyme
and cofactor. Cofactor is small, heat stable and
Biology Times February 18
dialysable part of conjugate enzyme. It may be
inorganic or organic in nature. Organic cofactors
are of two types, coenzymes and prosthetic
groups. Coenzymes are easily separable non-
protein organic cofactors. Most of the coenzymes
are made of water soluble vitamins, В and C, e.g.,
thiamine, riboflavin, nicotinamide, pyridoxine.
Inorganic cofactors include ions of a variety
of minerals e.g., calcium, iron, copper, zinc,
magnesium, manganese, potassium, nickel,
molybdenum, selenium, cobalt. Prosthetic
groups are non-protein organic cofactors firmly
(covalently) attached to apoenzymes, e.g., heme
(=haem), iron containing prosthetic group in
cytochromes, haemoglobin, myoglobin, catalase
and peroxidase.
3. Based on regulation:
(a)Pro-Enzyme or Zymogen: Pro-enzyme or
Zymogen is the inactive precursor of an enzyme.
Many enzymes are initially produced in the pro-
enzyme or zymogen state.They become reactive
or active enzymes only at a particular pH, in the
presence of substrate or some special treatment.
For example, pepsinogen is changed to active
enzyme pepsin in the presence of hydrochloric
acid of gastric juice. Thereafter, pepsin has
autocatalytic effect on further conversion of
pepsinogen.
(b) Allosteric Enzymes: They are enzymes which
have separate areas for different types of
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Biology Times February 18
modulators that alter the conformation of the
active site so as to make it effective or ineffective.
The areas are called allosteric sites. The
substances which cause change in allosteric sites
are known as modulators, allosteric substances or
effectors. The latter are of two types— activators
and inhibitors. Allosteric activator binds with an
allosteric site in such a way as to make active
site operational. Allosteric inhibitor, on the other
hand, brings about such a change in the active
site that it becomes unable to combine with
substrate molecules. For example, the enzyme
phosphofructokinase is activated by ADP and
inhibited by ATP.
(c) Isoenzymes (Isozymes): A substrate may
be acted upon by a number of variants of an
enzyme producing the same product.The multiple
molecular forms of an enzyme occurring in the
same organism and having a similar substrate
activity are called isoenzymes or isozymes. Over
100 enzymes are known to have isoenzymes.
Fig: Conjugate enzyme , Allosteric enzyme, and Isoenzyme
8
Eg. lactic dehydrogenase(LDH) has 5 isoenzymes
(LDH1, LDH2, LDH3, LDH4, LDH5) in man,
while alcohol dehydrogenase has 4 isozymes in
maize. Isoenzymes differ in activity optima and
inhibition. They are thus useful to organism in
adapting to varied environmental conditions.
(d) Multienzyme System: Some enzymes exist
not as individuals but as aggregates of several
enzymes and coenzymes. This they do to channel
the metabolities in a pathway efficiently. In an
aggregate, each component is arranged in a way that
the product of one enzyme becomes the substrate
for the other and so on. An example of enzyme
aggregation is that of pyruvic acid dehydrogenase
of E.coli. This complex consists of three
enzymes- pyruvate decarboxylase, dihydrolipoic
dehydrogenase and lipoylreductasetransacetylase.
The coenzyme associated with the complex are
thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) and flavin adenine
dinucleotide (FAD). A schematic diagram of
pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is given in Fig.
 Biology Times February 18

Fig: Multienzyme system

Applications of Enzymes
• Enzymes are central to every
biochemical process. Acting in
organised sequences, they catalyse the
hundreds of step-wise reactions that
degrade nutrient molecules, conserve
and transform chemical energy, and
make biological macromolecules
from simple precursors.
• The study of enzymes has immense
practical importance. In some
diseases, especially inheritable genetic
disorders, there may be a deficiency
or even a total absence of one or more
enzymes. Other disease conditions
may be caused by excessive activity
of an enzyme.
• Measurements of the activities
of enzymes in blood plasma,
erythrocytes, or tissue samples are
important in diagnosing certain
illnesses. Many drugs act through
interactions with enzymes. Enzymes
are also important practical tools
in chemical engineering, food
technology, and agriculture. Certain
enzymes are useful as therapeutic
agents, analytical reagents, in genetic
manipulations and for industrial
applications (Table)

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Biology Times February 18

8. “Lock and key theory” theory of enzyme action

was proposed by
(a) Fischer (b) Koshland
1. Enzymes are (c) Kuhne (d) Arrhenius
(a) Carbohydrates (b) RNA 9. Koshlands theory of enzyme action is known as
(c) Proteins (d) Fats (a) Reduced fit theory
2. The term Enzymes are coined by (b) Lock and key theory
(a) Pasteur (b) Buchner (c) Induced fit theory
(c) Urey Miller (d) Kuhne (d) Enzyme coenzyme theory
3. Unit of enzyme is 10. The enzymes involved in feed back inhibition are
(a) Microgram (b) Katal called
(c) Mililitres (d) Kilogram (a) Allosteric enzymes (b) Holoenzymes
4. Fat is hydrolysed by the enzyme known as (c) Apoenzymes (d) Coenzymes
(a) Tyrpsin (b) Lipase 11. Which of the following statements is not true
(c) Pepsin (d) Amylase regarding the active site of an enzyme?
5. The term ‘apoenzyme’ is applicable to (a) An active site is normally a hollow or cleft
(a) Simple enzyme on the surface of an enzyme.
(b) Protein part of conjugate enzyme (b) An active site is normally hydrophilic in
(c) Organic cofactor of conjugate enzyme nature.
(d) Inorganic cofactor of conjugate enzyme (c) Substrates fit into active sites and bind to
6. Zymogen is functional groups within the active site.
(a) Enzyme poison (d) An active site contains amino acids which
(b) Enzyme modulator are important to the binding process and the
(c) Enzyme precursor catalytic mechanism.
(d) Enzyme inhibitor 12. Which of the following statement best describes
7. Allosteric enzymes possesses an allosteric binding site?
(a) Active site and an allosteric site (a) It is a binding site containing amino acids
(b) Active site and two types of allosteric sites with aliphatic side chains.
(c) Active site and three types of allosteric sites (b) It is a binding site that can accept a wide
(d) Three types of allosteric types variety of differently shaped molecules.

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 Biology Times February 18

(c) It is a binding site which is separate from 19. An enzyme is classified as EC 2.7.1.1. The digit 2
the active site, and affects the activity of an denotes
enzyme when it is occupied by a ligand. (a) Class number
(d) It is a description of an active site which has (b) Hydroxyl group as an acceptor
undergone an induced fit. (c) Phosphate group acceptor
13. Which of the following descriptions best describes (d) Sub class
an induced fit? 20. Synthetases are enzymes used in the class
(a) The process by which an active site alters (a) Transferase (b) Lyases
shape such that it is ready to accept a substrate (c) Hydrolases (d) Ligases
(b) The process by which the substrate. 21. Dehydrogenases are the enzymes included in the
adopts the correct binding conformation class
before entering an active site. (a) Hydrolases (b) Transferases
(c) The process by which a substrate binds to (c) Oxidoreductases (d) Ligases
an active site and alters the shape of active 22. According to IUB system, Oxidoreductase has
site. been included in
(d) The process by which an active site alters (a) EC2 (b) EC3
the shape of the substrate such that it can (c) EC4 (d) EC1
adopt the necessary active conformation for 23. Horse radish peroxidase enzyme is used in the
binding. technique
14. Some enzymes require the presence of a non- (a) Western blotting (b) ELISA
protein substance if they are to catalyse a reaction. (c) Immuno diffusion (d) PCR
Which of the following terms is the best general 24. Taq DNA Polymerase enzyme is used in the
term for such a substance? technique
(a) Prosthetic group (b) Cofactor (a) Radio immune assay
(c) Co-enzyme (d) Modulator (b) Restriction digestion
15. What term is used for a non-protein organic (c) PCR
molecule that is required by some enzymes in (d) ELISA
order to catalyse a reaction on a substrate? 25. Luciferase is used to
(a) Prosthetic group (b) Cofactor (a) To detect bacterial contamination of foods
(c) Co-enzyme (d) Modulator (b) In estimation of glucose
16. Enzymes are (c) In light detection reaction
(a) Thermophile (b) Thermolabile (d) In estimation of fats
(c) Thermostable (d) Allof these
17. The coenzyme is
(a) Often a metal (b) Always a protein
(c) Often a vitamin (d) Always an inorganic
compound 1. c 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. b
18. Which of the following enzyme is not 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. a
proteinacuous in nature? 11. b 12. c 13. c 14. b 15. c
(a) Urease (b) Peptidase 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. a 20. d
(c) Ribozyme (d) Phosphatase 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. c 25. a

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Biology Times February 18

ZOOLOGY

1. Match the following columns and select the 6. True nucleus is absent in :
correct choice (a) Mucor (b) Vaucheria
Column I Column II (c) Volvox (d) Anabaena
A. Humans 1. Panthera tigris 7. Assertion : Monera includes all prokaryotes.
B. Mango 2. Homo sapiens Reason : Nuclei of monerans are not organised
C. Wheat 3. Mangifera indica with nuclear membrane, nucleoplasm and
D. Tiger 4. Triticum aestivum nucleolus
(a) A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D - 3 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(b) A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1 Reason is the correct explanation of
(c) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1 Assertion.
(d) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
2. Disadvantage of Linnaeus two kingdom but Reason is not the correct explanation of
classification is that it Assertion.
(a) Clubs together saprophytic fungi with (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
photosynthetic organisms (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(b) Distinguishes between fungi and Protista 8. Which of the following blood vessels in the
(c) Divides all organisms into plants and animals circulatory system of frog has more oxygenated
(d) Can demarcate between cryptogram blood?
3. What is a cnidom? (a) Pulmonary artery
(a) Armed thread (b) Pulmocutaneous artery
(b) Unarmed thread (c) Pulmocutaneous vein
(c) Group of nematoblasts (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Battery of nematoblasts 9. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce
4. Kiwi belongs to electric current is
(a) Odontognathae (b) Impennae (a) Pristis (b) Torpedo
(c) Paleognathae (d) Carinatae (c) Trygon (d) Scoliodon
5. Slime moulds are similar to fungi in all regards 10. Valveless single chambered heart is found in
except one (a) Catla (b) Herdmania
(a) Their swimming cells are either flagellated or (c) Scoliodon (d) Amphioxus
amoeboid 11. Which one of the following groups of structure /
(b) They store glycogen organs have similar function?
(c) Their cell wall has cellulose and chitin (a) Incisors of rat, gizzard of cockroach and
(d) They are heterotrophic tube feet of starfish

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 Biology Times February 18

(b) Nephridia in earthworm, Malpighian (c) A-Parietal bone, B-Stapes, C-Vestibule,

tubules in cockroach and urinary tubules in D-Ear drum
rat (d) A-Parietal bone, B-Malleus, C-Vestibule,
(c) Antennae of cockroach, tympanum of frog D-Eustachian tube
and clitellum of earthworm 15. Which of the following pairs of chemical
(d) Typhlosole in earthworm, intestinal villa in substances, is correctly categorised?
rat and contractile vacoule in amoeba. (a) Calcitonin - thyroid hormones
12.Which of the following labeled structure and thymosin
represents lower lip in given diagram? (b) Pepsin - two digestive enzymes
and prolactin secreted in stomach
(c) Troponin - complex muscles in
and myosin striated muscles
(d) Secretin - polypeptide hormones
and rhodopsin
16. Assertion: Somatic fusion or protoplast fusion,
in which two distinct species of plants are fused.
Reason: The source of protoplasts are leaves,
callus culture, cell suspension culture and
preconditioned plant materials
(a) A (b) B (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(c) C (d) D Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
13. Study the given table and identify how many (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
joints are correctly matched ? but Reason is not the correct explanation of
List I List II Assertion.
(A) Gliding joint Between the carpals (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(B) Cartilaginous Between the adjacent (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
joint vertebrae 17. Which one of the following options gives one
(C) Pivot joint Between atlas and axis correct example each of convergent evolution and
(D) Hinge joint Knee joint divergent evolution?
(E) Fibrous joint Between skull bones Divergent evolution Convergent Evolution
(F) Ball and Between humerus and (a) Bones of Eyes of octopus and
socket joint pectoral girdle forelimbs of mammals
(a) Two (b) Four whale and cheetah
(c) Five (d) Six (b) Wings of butterfly Brain and heart of
14. Given below is a diagrammatic view of ear. Which and Sparrow vertebrates
of the following option is correctly representing A (c) Potato and sweet Thorn of bougainvillea
to D? potato and tendrils of cucurbita
(d) Flippers of Wings of
penguins and butterfly and birds
Dolphins
18. Which one of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of
visual photo pigments.
(b) In retina the rods have the photo-pigment
(a) A-Temporal bone, B-Incus, C-Semicircular rhodopsin while cones have three different
canal, D-Pinna photo-pigments.
(b) A-Temporal bone, B-Stapes, C-Cochlea, (c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C.
D-Tympanic membrane (d) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein
present in rods only.

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Biology Times February 18

19. Which is correct to say about the hormone action 26. People living at sea level have around 5 million
in humans? RBC per cubic millimetre of their blood whereas
(a) Glucagon is secreted by the β-cells of islets those living at an altitude of 5400 metre have
of Langerhans and stimulate glycogenolysis. around 8 million. This is because at high altitude
(b) Secretion of thymosin is stimulated with (a) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence, more
aging. RBCs are needed to absorb the required
(c) In females, FSH first binds with specific amount of O2 to survive
receptors on ovarian cell membrane. (b) There is more UV radiation which enhances
(d) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and RBC production
progesterone. (c) People eat more nutritive food, therefore,
20. Match the column I and column II more RBCs are formed
Column II Column II (d) People get pollution-free air to breathe and
p) CMI i) Virus of AIDS more oxygen is available
q) PMNL ii) Mucosal Associated 27. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts
lymphoid tissue of
r) MALT iii) Cell Mediated (a) Seminiferous tubules(b) Nephron
Immunity (c) Oviduct (d) Vas deferens
s) HIV iv) Leucocytes 28. Which STD causes damage to the eyes of babies
(a) p-iii, q-iv, r-ii, s-ii (b) p-ii, q-iii, r-iv, s-i born to infected mothers?
(c) p-iii, q-ii, r-iv, s-i (d) p-ii, q-iv, r-i, s-iii (a) Gonorrhoea (b) Syphilis
21. In the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoids, the (c) AIDS (d) Hepatitis
intermediate host is 29. Hepatitis C virus
(a) Cattle (b) Snail (a) May be transmitted by blood
(c) Man (d) None of the above (b) Has one stable genotype only
22. Macromolecule chitin is (c) May cause chronic infection
(a) Sulphur containing polysaccharide (d) Both b and c
(b) Simple polysaccharide 30. In adult man, normal blood pressure is:
(c) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide (a) 80/120 mmHg (b) 100/80 mmHg
(d) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide (c) 120/80 mmHg (d) 100/120 mmHg
23. Which hormone is secreted by two layers of the 31. Match column I with column II and select the
adrenal cortex? correct options from the codes given below.
(a) Sexocorticoids (b) Glucocorticoids Column I Column II
(c) Mineralocorticoids (d) Epinephrine A. Renal portal system 1. Sponges
24. Match the following B. Open circulation 2. Birds
Column I Column II C. Water circulation 3.Kidneys
A. Zygomatic bone 1. Smallest bone of face D. Venous heart 4.Cockroach
B. Lacrimal bone 2. Floor of cranium 5. Fishes
C. Parietal Bone 3. Cheek bone of cranium (a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (b) A-2, B-1, C-5, D-3
D. Sphenoid Bone 4. Roof of cranium (c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5
(a) A- 3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (b) A- 4, B- 2, C- 1, D-3 32. Assertion : The establishment of Reproductive
(c) A- 2, B- 3, C-4, D-1 (d) A-1, B-4, C- 3, D-2 isolation is an event of biological significance
25. Consider the following four measures (A-D) that Reason: In the absence of reproductive isolation,
could be taken successfully to grow chick pea in species can merge back into single population
an area where bacterial bright disease is common (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(A) Spray with Bordeaux mixture. Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Control of the insect vector of the disease (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
pathogen. Reason is not the correct explanation of
(C) Use of only disease-free seeds. Assertion.
(D) Use of resistant varieties. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(a) A & D (b) B & C (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(c) A & B (d) C & D

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33. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present in
(a) Pre-synaptic membrane
(b) Tips of axons
(c) Post-synaptic membrane
(d) Membranes of synaptic vessels
34. Which of the following hormones are concerned
with osmoregulation?
(a) ADH and Thyroxine
(b) Aldosterone and Oxytocin
(c) Oxytocin and Glucocorticoids
(d) All cortisols
35.The sexually transmitted diseases which is
commonly transmitted by a bacterium is
(a) Kala azar (b) African sleeping sickness
(c) Syphilis (d) Trichomoniasis
36. Ornithine cycle performs
(a) ATP
(b) Urea formation in spleen
(c) Urea formation in liver
(d) Urine formation in liver
37. The figure given below shows a small part of
human lung where exchange of gas takes place.
In which of the options given below, the one part
A,B, C or D is correctly identified along with its
function.
(a) A – Alveolar cavity – main site of exchange of
respiratory gases
(b) D – Capillary wall – exchange of gases takes
place here
(c) B – Red blood cell – transport of mainly
haemoglobin
(d) C – Arterial capillary – passes oxygen to
tissues
38. Which organ helps in absorption of leftover
vitamins, water and salt ?
(a) Liver (b) Lungs
(c) large intestine (colon) (d) Skin
39. Proctodaeum in rabbit is:
(a) Embryonic intestine
(b) A part of large intestine lined by ectoderm
Biology Times February 18
(c) A part of large intestine lined by endoderm
(d) A part of large intestine lined by mesoderm
40. Identify the compound shown in figure. Name the
labels marked 1-4.
(a) ADP, 1-adenine, 2-ribose, 3-second energy
rich bond
(b) ATP, 1-guanine, 2-deoxyribose, 3-first energy
rich bond
(c) ATP, 1-adenine, 2-ribose, 3-third energy
rich bond
(d) ATP, 1-cytosine, 2-ribose, 3-first energy rich
bond
41. Hydrolysis of protein would yield:
(a) Amino acids (b) Peptide bonds
(c) Monosaccharides (d) Polysaccharides
42. Breast cancer is the example of ………….disease
(a) Deficiency (b) Hormonal
(c) Allergic (d) Malignant
43. Arbor vitae is
(a) Tree-like structure in cerebrum
(b) Tree of life in cerebellum
(c) End part of spinal cord
(d) None of the above
44. Identify the mismatched pair
(a) Making of curd from milk – Autotrophic
bacteria
(b) Production of antibiotics – Heterotrophic
bacteria
(c) Recycling of nutrients like nitrogen –
Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
(d) Atmospheric nitrogen fixation – Nostoc
45. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) The brown adipose tissue cell has a single
large droplet surrounded by a small
amount of cytoplasm whereas the white
adipose tissue cell has many small droplets
of fat suspended in a larger amount
cytoplasm.
(b) Brown fat cells contain comparatively more
mitochondria, than white fat cells.
(c) Brown fat has a larger capacity for
generating heat than white fat.
(d) Brown fat is mainly found in new born
mammals.
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Biology Times February 18

BOTANY

1. A cross that involves two different genera is (d) Usable in RNA guided gene silencing
called 6. When phloem is completely surrounded by
(a) Monohybrid cross xylem, the vascular bundle is called
(b) Intergeneric cross (a) Concentric leptocentric/amphivasal
(c) Interspecific cross (b) Concentric amphicribal
(d) None of the above (c) Conjoint collateral
2. The incorrect statement is (d) Conjoint bicollateral
(a) In Nepenthes, the lamina forms a pitcher-like 7. Study the given table A,B,C and identify the
structure. correct enzyme , its use and the organism from
(b) Utricularia leaves modify to form bladder- which it is extracted.
like structure. A B C
(c) Drosera leaves are reproductive in nature. (a) Streptokinase Removing Trichoderma
(d) Bryophyllum leaves helps in vegetative oil stain polysporum
propagation. (b) Protease Removing Trichoderma
3. What is not true for primary succession? oil stain polysporum
(a) Humus or organic matter is absent in the (c) Streptokinase Clearing Pseudomonas sps
early stages oil spills
(b) The area is barren from the beginning (d) Lactase Removing Aspergillus
(c) Reproductive structures of previous living oil stain niger
beings may be present 8. Photophosphorylation takes place during
(d) Takes more time as compared to secondary (a) Daytime
succession (b) Night time
4. Select the correct statement (c) Both during day and night
(a) Two strands are parallel and complimentary. (d) On rainy days only
(b) Two strands are anti- parallel and non- 9. The most striking difference between tropical
complimentary. rain forest and temperate forest is that
(c) Two strands are anti- parallel and (a) The tropical rain forests have preponderance
complimentary. of angiosperms while the temperate one have
(d) All the above preponderance of gymnosperms
5. Viruses, transposons and plasmids all share an (b) The trees of temperate forest are taller than
important feature i.e., all of them are those of tropical rain forests
(a) Single stranded nucleotide chains (c) Giants of temperate forests are comparatively
(b) Mobile genetic elements mesophytic
(c) Double stranded circular DNAs (d) Tropical forests are comparatively more
mesogenic

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 Biology Times February 18

10. Which of the statement regarding Genetic (b) Calyx, corolla, gynoecium and androecium
Engineering Approval Committee (GEAE) is (c) Gynoecium, androecium, corolla and calyx
correct? (d) Androecium, gynoecium, corolla and calyx
(a) Genetic modification of organisms 15. The key events shown by the telophase stage is/
can have unpredictable results when such are
organisms are introduced into the ecosystem. i. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles
Therefore, the Indian government has set up and their identity is lost as discrete elements
organisation such as GEAC. ii. Nuclear envelope assembles around the
(b) It ensures the safety of introducing GM chromosome clusters
organisms for public services. iii. Nucleolus, golgi complex and endoplasmic
(c) It makes decision regarding the validity of reticulum reforms
GM research. (a) i only (b) i & ii only
(d) All the above (c) ii & iii only (d) All of these
11. A leguminous plant consists a structure which 16. Identify the correct match between types of
contains nitrogen fixing bacteria chromosomes and their descriptions
Chromosomes Position of Centromere
A. Metacentric 1. At the tip
B. Submetacentric 2. Almost near the tip
C. Acrocentric 3. At the middle
D. Telocentric 4. Slightly away from
the middle
(a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-3, B-4 C-2, D-1
(a) Nodule (b) Outgrowth (d) A-1, B-2,C-3, D-4
(c) Tumour (d) Root curls 17.Match the following and choose the correct option
12. Match the phytohormones with its respective Column I Column II
functions A.Coleorhiza 1.Grapes
Phytohormone Functions B.Food storing tissue 2.Mango
A. Abcisic acid i. Triple response C. Parthenocarpic fruit 3.Radicle
B. Ethylene ii.Trophic response D.Single seeded fruit 4. Endosperm
C.Auxin iii.Morphogenesis from monocarpellary
D. Cytokinin iv. Abcission superior ovary
(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (a) A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2
(b) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii (b) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1
(c) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
(d) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (d) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
13. Major pigments of chlorophycean members and 18. In the given figure A, B, C, D, E, F represents
reserve food material stages of hydrosere. Identify the correct statement
(a) Chlorophyll a & c, carotenoids and regarding it.
xanthophylls / True starch and sugar
(b) Chlorophyll a & b, carotenoids and
xanthophylls/ True starch and sugar
(c) Chlorophyll c1 & c2, carotenoids and
xanthophylls/ Floridean starch and sugar
(d) Chlorophyll a & d, carotenoids and
xanthophylls/ True starch and sugar
14. In a typical complete, bisexual and hypogynous
flower the arrangement of floral whorls on the
thalamus from the outermost to the innermost is (a) Salix and Populus occur in stage E, Carex
(a) Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium and Cyprus occur in stage D.

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Biology Times February 18

(b) Hydrilla and Potamogeton occur in stage A, (a) Anaphase I of meiosis

Phragmites and Typha occur in stage C. (b) Anaphase II of meiosis II
(c) Acer and Quercus occur in stage F and (c) Anaphase of mitosis
Nymphaea and Pistia occur in stage B. (d) Telophase I of meiosis II
(d) All the above 24. In polar seas, aquatic a like b have a thick
19. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs layer of fat called c below their skin that acts as
(a) Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol d and reduces loss of body heat.
(b) On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as (a) a- fishes, b-sharks, c-clasper, d-conductor
in mitochondria (b) a-mammals, b-seals, c-blubber, d-insulator
(c) Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear (c) a-fishes, b-seals, c-blubber, d-insulator
envelope and endoplasmic reticulum (d) a- mammals, b-seals, c- blubber, d-conductor
(d) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as 25. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue
well as in cytoplasm as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due to
20. Which one of the following techniques made (a) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut
it possible to genetically engineered living (b) Action of gut micro-organisms
organisms? (c) Acidic pH of the insect gut
(a) Recombinant DNA Techniques (d) Alkaline pH of the insect gut.
(b) X-ray diffraction 26. Assertion: The leaves of cauliflower become
(c) Hybridisation flaccid and brown in molybdenum deficiency
(d) Heavier isotope labeling Reason: Cauliflower plant is affected by whiptail
21. Match the column I & II and select the correct disease in molybdenum deficiency
option (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
Column I Column II and Reason is the correct explanation for
A. Primary meristem 1. Protects the stem Assertion.
B. Lateral meristem 2. Increase in length (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
C. Cork cambium 3. Protects root cap Reason is not the correct explanation for
D. Root cap 4. Increase in girth Assertion.
(a) A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4 (b) A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4 (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(c) A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1 (d) A-2,B-4,C-1,D-3 (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
22. A water fern which is used as a green manure in 27. The following diagram represents heterophyll in
rice fields is
(a) Salvinia (b) Mucor
(c) Aspergillus (d) Azolla
23. What does the diagram represents?

(a) Coriander (b) Buttercup

(c) Larkspur (d) Eucalyptus
28. Which of the following is true for alternation of
generation?
(a) The sporophyte undergoes syngamy to
produce spore
(b) The gametophyte undergoes syngamy to
produce spore
(c) The sporophyte undergoes meiosis to
produce spore

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 Biology Times February 18

(d) The gametophyte undergoes meiosis to (a) Human chromosome can replicate in
produce spore bacterial cell
29. The isolation of megasporocyte from the rest of (b) Mechanism of gene regulation is identical in
the nucellar tissue begins from humans and bacteria
(a) Micropylar region (b) Chalazal region (c) Genetic code is universal
(c) Middle region (d) Anywhere (d) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing
30.Match the items in Column I ,column II and reactions
column III then choose correct order 35.Which one is a true statement regarding DNA
Column I Column II Column III polymerase used in PCR?
A.Prophase i. Arranged Amitosis (a) It serves as a selectable marker
on equatorial (b) It is isolated from a virus
plate (c) It remains active at high temperature
B.Metaphase ii.Arrangement Meiosis I (d) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in
of chromatids recipient cell
on the poles 36. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from
C.Anaphase iii. Formation Meiosis II (a) Phellogen (b) Plerome
of cytoplasmic (c) Periblem (d) Dermatogen
fibres of proteins 37. Match the items in Column I and column II
D.Telophase iv. Nuclear Mitosis Column I Column II
membrane and A. Pencillin i. Penicillium
other organelles chrysogenum
reorganize B. Chloramphenicol ii. Streptomyces
E.Cytokinesis v. Formation G0 phase of griseus
of Syncytium cell C. Tetracyclin iii.Streptomyces
cycle aureofaciens
31. According to the Punnett square shown below, D. Erythromycin iv. Streptomyces
what letters belong to the lower right side box? erythreus
(a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(d) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
38. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less
limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because
(a) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath
cells
(a) Aa (b) aa (b) RuBisCo in C4 plants has higher affinity for
(c) AA (d) a CO2
32.Which one of the following pairs is wrongly (c) Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2
matched while the remaining three are correct? fixation products
(a) Agave – Bulbils (d) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via
(b) Penicillium – Conidia PEP carboxylase
(c) Water hyacinth – Runner 39. Match Column I and Column II and select the
(d) Bryophyllum – Leaf buds correct option
33. The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles Column I Column II
by earthworm is a process called A.Camouflage 1. Dendrobates pumilio
(a) Humification (b) Fragmentation B. Batesian mimicry 2. Horse-shoe bat
(c) Mineralisation (d) Catabolism C. Warning colouration 3. Monarch butterfly
34.Production of a human protein in bacteria D. Echolocation 4. Praying mantis
by genetic engineering is possible because (a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 (b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
the (c) A-4, B-1, C- 3, D-2 (d) A- 4, B-3, C-1, D-2

19
Biology Times February 18

40. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice (a) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(a) Gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A (b) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(b) Is completely resistant to all insect pests and (c) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
diseases of paddy (d) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P.
(c) Does not require chemical fertilisers and 44. Which of the following options gives the correct
growth hormones sequence of events during mitosis?
(d) Gives high yield but has no characteristic (a) Condensation g nuclear membrane
aroma disassembly g crossing over g
41. Nitrogen-fixation in root nodules of Alnus is segregationg telophase
brought about by (b) Condensationg nuclear membrane
(a) Bradyrhizobium (b) Clostridium disassembly g arrangement at equatorg
(c) Frankia (d) Azorhizobium centromere division g segregation g
42. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly telophase
matched? (c) Condensation g crossing over g nuclear
(a) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall membrane disassembly g segregation
(b) Cytokinin – Cell division gtelophase
(c) IAA – Cell wall elongation (d) Condensation g arrangement at equator
(d) ABA – Stomatal closure gcentromere division g segregation g
43. Match the following and choose the correct telophase
combination from the options given: 45. A self fertilising trihybrid plant forms :
Column I Column II (a) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
A. Tallest tree P. Macrocytis (b) 8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes
in Gymnosperms (c) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes
B. Smallest Q. Pteridophyte (d) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
flowering plant
C. Seedless vascular R. Wolffia
cryptogram
D. Largest S. Sequoia
perennial algae

20

ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS-I
Introduction
Anatomy (Gk . ana-up, tome-cutting) is the
study of internal structure of organisms. In
plants, anatomy includes histology [Organisation
and structure of tissues].
Plants, like most animals, have organs composed
of different tissues, which in turn are composed
of different cell types. A tissue is a group of
cells, having a common-origin consisting of
one or more cell types, that together perform a
specialized function. In this chapter you will
learn about tissue, tissue system,internal structure
of dicot and monocot stem, root and leaf of
flowering plants and also the secondary growth in
them.
Dermal, Vascular and Ground tissues
Each plant organ – root, stem, or leaf – has dermal,
vascular and ground tissues. Each of these three
categories forms a tissue system, a functional unit
connecting all of the plant’s organs. Although
each system is continuous throughout the plant,
specific characteristics of the tissues and their
spatial relationships to one another vary in
different organs.
The dermal tissue system is the plant’s outer
protective covering. Like our skin, it forms the
first line of defence against physical damage and
pathogens. In non woody plants, it is usually a
single tissue called the epidermis, a layer of
tightly packed cells. In leaves and most stems,
the cuticle, a waxy coating on the epidermal
surface, helps prevent water loss. In woody
plants, protective tissues called periderm replace
the epidermis in older regions of stems and roots.
Biology Times February 18
The vascular tissue system carries out long
distance transport of materials between the root
and shoot systems. The two types of vascular
tissues are xylem and phloem. The vascular tissue
of a root or stem is collectively called the stele.
The arrangement of the stele varies, depending on
the species and organ.
Tissues that are neither dermal nor vascular are
part of the ground tissue system. Ground tissue
that is internal to the vascular tissue is known
as pith, and ground tissue that is external to the
vascular tissue is called the cortex. The ground
tissue system is just not filler. It includes various
cells specialized for functions such as storage,
photosynthesis and support.
The dermal tissue system provides a protective
cover for the entire body of a plant. The vascular
tissue system transports materials between the
root and shoot systems. The ground tissue system
is responsible for most of the plant’s metabolic
functions is located between the dermal tissue
and the vascular tissue in each organ.
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Biology Times February 18

Meristematic tissues

A major difference between plants and animals is

that plant growth is not limited to an embryonic or
juvenile period. Instead, growth occurs throughout
the plant’s life process known as indeterminate
growth. At any given time, a typical plant has
embryonic, developing, and mature organs.
Except for dormant periods, most plants grow
continuously. In contrast, most animals and some
plant organs – such as leaves, thorns, and flowers
– undergo determinate growth; that is, they stop
growing after reaching a certain size.
Plants are capable of indeterminate growth because
they have perpetually undifferentiated tissues
called meristems that divide when conditions
permit, leading to new cells that elongate.
According to their origin and development,
meristems are classified as promeristem,
primary meristem and secondary meristem.
The meristem may also be classified according
b) Sclereids:- They are highly Thickened dead
to their position in the plant body as apical,
lignified sclerenchyma cells with very narrow
intercalary and lateral.
cavities. Different type of sclerids are
Apical meristems, located at the tips of roots and
i) Brachysclereids / Stone cells:- They are short,
shoots and in axillary buds of shoots, provide
unbranched, isodiametric with branched pits.
additional cells that enable growth in length, a
eg:-girth of guava, sapota, peas etc.
process known as primary growth.

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 Biology Times February 18

ii) Macrosclereids:- Elongated & rod-like, eg:-epidermal covering of legume seeds.

iii) Osteosclerids:- Bone-like with swollen ends. eg:- sub-epidermal covering of some legume seeds
iv) Astrosclereids:- Branched like star. eg:- tea leaves, petiole of lotus.
v) Filiform sclereids:- Fibre-like eg:- olea.
vi) Trichosclereids:- elongated hair-like
Functions of Sclerenchyma:-
- Cheif mechanical tissue in mature plant organs.
- Provide rigidity to leaves.
- Provides strength to seed covering
- helps in dehiscence of seeds eg:-pods.
- Sclereids from stony endocrap of many fruits eg:- Coconut.
The apical meristem is composed of a small mass of cells which are alike and constitute the promeristem.
The cells of the promeristem differentiate into three regions, Hanstein called them histogens. Histogens
are tissue producing definte zones or regions. they are : Dermatogen, periblem and plerome, which grow
and give rise to permanent tissues. (a) Dermatogen is the single outermost layer of cells. These divide and
give rise to the skin layer (epidermis) of the stem. In roots, the cells of the dermatogens form a mass of
small tissue called calyptrogen. The calyptyogen is also meristematic and gives rise to the root cap. (b)
Periblem is located internal to the dermatogens and forms the cortex of the stem and the root. (c) Plerome
lies internal to the periblem and is the central region, where cells show a tendency to elongate. These
elongated cells form procambium that gives rise to the vascular tissues (xylem and phloem) constituting
the central cylinder or stele of the stem.

Meristem Histogen in the shoot apex (A) and root apex (B) [ longitudnal sections].
In specific areas. Depending upon thickenings it is of three types:
i) Angular Collenchyma- the thickenings are present at the angles. eg:- Stem of tagetee & Tomato.
ii) Lamellate Collenchyma- the thickenings occur at tangential walls. eg:- Stem of sunflower
iii) Lacunate Collenchyma:- The thickenings occur at the walls bordering intercellular spaces eg:-
Cucurbita stem.
Permanent Tissues
The permanent tissues comprise cells which have lost their capacity of division. The permanent tissues
may be classified into two main groups (1) simple tissues, and (2) complex tissues.
Simple tissues
These are homogeneous in nature and are composed of structurally and functionally similar cells. The
simple permanent tissues are parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma.

23
Biology Times February 18
Parenchyma: Cells are isodiametric and thin walled.
The cells may be oval, circular or polygonal with
intercellular spaces. The cell-wall is made up of
cellulose.They are living. This tissue is present in
all organs of the plant e.g., roots, stems, leaves,
flowers, fruits and seeds. The cells of parenchyma
are involved in the various physiological activities
like photosynthesis, assimilation, storage,
secretion, excretion, etc.
It is modified variously to perform special
functions.
a) Fibre-like elongated parenchyma- Prosenchyma.
It is thick walled & provide rigidity& strength.
b) Cutinised parenchymatous cells from epidermis. It
is protective layer. cuticle reduces transipiration.
c) The protective parenchyma without Cuticle in the
root forms epiblema.
d) xylem parenchyma & phloem parenchyma -
storage of food & conduction of water and in later
storage & lateral conduction of food.
e) Parenchyma cells containing chloroplast -
Chlorenchyma. forms mesophyll of leaves.
f) In aquatic plants & some land plants air filled
parenchyma- Aerenchyma - helps in buoyancy.
g) Idioblasts - There are non green large-sized
parenchyma cells which possess inclusions like
tannins, oil etc.
h) Secretory cells:- are parenchyma cells that
produce nectar, oil etc.
Collenchyma:Collenchymatous cells are longer
than parenchyma cell.. They are living. The
intercellular spaces in this tissue are absent
because in intercellular spaces at the corner of
cells thickenings of cellulose and pectin develop
due to which the cell wall become rigid and thick
prevents teasing of leaves, its cells store food.
Sometimes collenchyma develops chloroplasts.
Collenchyma is usually found as 3-4 layered
hypodermis of herbaceous dicotyledonous stem.
They are absent in monocot stems. Collenchyma
provides mechanical support to the organs and due
to its peripheral position in stems it resists bending
and pulling action of wind. When chloroplasts are
present it takes part in photosynthesis.
24
Depending upon thickenings , There are of three
types:
i) Angular Collenchyma:- The Thickenings are
present at the angles.
eg:- Stem of Tagetes & Tomato.
ii) Lamellate Collenchyma:- The thickenings
occur at tangential walls. eg:- Stem of Sunflower.
iii) Lacunate Collenchyma:- The thickenings
occur at the walls bordering inter cellular spaces
eg:- Cucurbita stem.
Sclerenchyma: This tissue differs from previous
tissues in possessing thickened secondary walls
which may or may not be lignified. They are of
various shapes and sizes when mature. They are
dead.
They are of two types :
1. Sclerenchymatous fibres
2. Sclereids
1. Sclerenchymatous fibres
Fully developed fibres are long and tapering at
the ends. In some cases the cellwall becomes so
much lignified that the lumen is greatly reduced.
Wall has small circular pits. The normal length
of fibres is 1-3 mm but in jute and Boehmeria
their length may be from 20-550 mm.The fibres
are present in hypodermis of monocot stem,in
pericycle of many dicots, in secondary wood,
in vascular bundle sheath in monocot stems and
hypodermis of many leaves. Commercial fibres
are obtained from jute, Hemp, Flax
2. Sclereids:- They are highly Thickened dead
lignified sclerenchyma cells with very narrow
cavities. Different type of sclerids are
i) Brachysclereids / Stone cells:- They are short,
unbranched, isodiametric with branched pits.
eg:-girth of guva, sapota, peas etc.
ii) Macrosclereids:- Elongated & rod-like, eg:-
epidermal covering of legume seeds.
iii) Osteosclerids:- Bone-like with swollen ends.
eg:- sub-epidermal covering of some legume
seeds
iv) Astrosclereids:- Branched like star. eg:- tea
leaves, petiole of lotus.
v) Filiform sclereids:- Fibre-like eg:- olea.
vi) Trichosclereids:- elongated hair-like
Biology Times February 18

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Biology Times February 18

Complex Tissues v) Pitted- pits -Simple pit

- Bordered pit.
They are permanent tissues which contain more
A thickening called torus present on the pit
than one type of cells. All the cells work as a unit.
membrane of some gymnosperms for protecting
The common complex permanent tissues are the
the membrane from rupturning in case of unequal
Conducting tissues. They are:
pressure on its two sides.
Water Conducting tissue - Xylem
ii) Vessel elements are generally wider, shorter,
Food Conducting tissue - phloem
thinner walled, and less tapered than the
Water conducting cells of the Xylem: (GK-xylon-
tracheids. They are aligned end to end, forming
wood, Nageli)
long micropipes known as vessels. The end
Xylem conducts water and dissolved minerals
walls of vessel elements have perforation plates
upward from roots into the shoots. Hence water
that enable water to flow freely through the
conducting cells, tracheids and vessel elements,
vessels. The lignified walls can be annular, spiral,
are tubular, elongated cells that are dead at
reticulate, scalariform & pitted.
functional maturity.Tracheids & vessels take
part in transport of sap. they are called Tracheary
elements. Tracheids are in the xylem of nearly
all vascular plants. In addition to tracheids, most
angiosperms, as well as a few gymnosperms
and pteridophytes(eg:- Selaginella), (Gentum
Gymnosperm) When the living cellular contents
of a tracheid or vessel elements disintegrate, the
cell’s thickened walls remain behind, forming
a non living conduit through which water can
flow. The secondary walls of tracheids and
vessel elements are often interrupted by pits,
thinner regions where only primary walls are
present. Water can migrate laterally between
neighbouring cells through pits.
i) Tracheids are long, thin cells with tapered ends.
Water moves from cell to cell mainly through
the pits, where it does not have to cross thick
secondary walls. Tracheids constitute 90-95% of
wood in gymnosperms, but in angiosperms only
5% of th wood. Depending upon the thickenings,
tracheids are classified as
i) Annular - rings like
ii) Spiral - spiral or helix. The secondary walls of tracheids and vessel
iii) Reticulate - network elements are hardened with lignin. This hardening
iv) Scalariform - ladder like prevents collapse under the tensions of water
transport and also provides support.

26

iii) Xylem or wood parenchyma
They are small, thin/thick walled, living
parenchymatous cells.
Function:
Stores food & sometime tannins.
- Ray parenchyma helps in lateral conduction of
water or sap.
iv) Xylem fibres
These are sclerenchyma fibres associated with
xylem.
Function: Mechanical support
Protoxylem: First formed xylem
Metaxylem: later or mature xylem
Sugar-conducting cells of the Phloem (Gk. phlois-
inner barki Nageli)
Unlike the water conducting cells of the xylem,
the sugar conducting cells of the phloem are
alive at functional maturity. In seedless vascular
plants and gymnosperms, sugars and other
organic nutrients are transported through long,
narrow cells called sieve cells. In the phloem
of angiosperms, these nutrients are transported
through sieve tubes, which consist of chains of
cells called sieve-tube elements, or sieve-tube
members.
i) sieve-tube elements, or sieve-tube members:-
Though alive, sieve-tube elements lack a nucleus,
ribosomes, a distinct vacuole, and cytoskeletal
elements. This reduction in cell contents enables
Biology Times February 18
nutrients to pass more easily through the cell. The
end walls between sieve-tube elements, called
sieve plates, have pores that facilitate the flow
of fluid from cell to cell along the sieve tube.
Alongside each sieve-tube element is a non-
conducting called a companion cell,
ii) companion cell : which is connected to the
sieve-tube element by numerous channels called
plasmodesmata. The nucleus and ribosomes of
the companion cell serve not only that cell itself
but also the adjacent sieve-tube element. In some
plants, the companion cells in leaves also help
load sugars into the sieve-tube elements, which
then transport the sugars to the other parts of the
plant. Companion cells are replaced by modified
parenchyma cells i.e albuminous cells in non-
flowering plants.
iii) Pholem parenchyma:- These are living elongated
parenchyma cells with numerous plasmodermata
associated with phloem. They store food, resins,
latex, mucilage etc
They also help in slow conduction of food,
especially to the sides.
These are absent in most of the monocots & some
dicot herbs.
iv) Phloem or Bast fibres:- Sclerenchyma fibres
found in the phloem are phloem or Bast fibres.
They are non-living so mechanical function. eg:-
Fibres of Hemp, flax & juts.
27
Biology Times February 18

ZOOLOGY

1. Wild animals kept in protected environments as (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
shown in diagram below are: Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
6. Select incorrect match w.r.t given organisms and
their features
(a) Chlorobium – Anoxygenic photosynthesis
(b) Bacillus – Rod-shaped chemoautotropic
bacteria
(c) Nitrosomonas – Chemoautrotrophic bacteria
(d) Actinomyces – obligate aerobe
7. Viruses
(a) Botanical garden (b) Museum (a) are obligate intracellular parasites
(c) Herbaria (d) Zoological park (b) divide by binary fission
2. Which of the following is commonly present in (c) have their own metabolism
Rust, Smut and Mushroom ? (d) contain enzymes for formation of 16S Rrna
(a) Spermatisation (b) Somatogamy 8. Blood of Pheretima is
(c) Ascospores (d) Basidiospores (a) blue with haemocyanin in corpuscles
3. Amphids are cuticular elevations on ventrolateral (b) blue with haemocyanin in plasma
lips of Ascaris. These are: (c) red with haemoglobin in corpuscles
(a) Olfactoreceptors (b) Tangoreceptors (d) red with haemoglobin in plasma
(c) Tactoreceptors (d) Chemoreceptors 9. In the following diagram identify the parts
4. Long hollow bones with interconnected air indicated by alphabets. Choose the correct option.
passages are characteristic of
(a) Mammals (b) Aves
(c) Reptiles (d) All the above
5. Assertion : Female bacterium develops sex pili
for conjugating with male bacterium
Reason : F-plasmids are present in female
bacterium
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

28
 Biology Times February 18

(a) A-Suctorial mouth, B-Hooks, C-Sucker, B. Lacrimal bone 2. Floor of cranium

D-Segments C. Parietal Bone 3. Cheek bone of cranium
(b) A-Sucker, B-Hooks, C-Suctorial mouth, D. Sphenoid Bone 4. Roof of cranium
D-Proglottids (a) A- 3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(c) A-Rostellum, B-Hooks, C-Sucker, (b) A- 4, B- 2, C- 1, D-3
D-Proglottids (c) A- 2, B- 3, C-4, D-1
(d) A-Rostellum, B-Hair, C-Sucker, D-Segments (d) A-1, B-4, C- 3, D-2
10. Conules occur on the surface of 14. Assertion: A correct concentration of Auxin and
(a) Leucosolenia (b) Euspongia Cytokinin is required for the development of root
(c) Spongilla (d) Schypha and shoot in a callus
11. Consider the following three statements and Reason: When ratio of kinetin to auxin is high,
select the correct option stating which one is true then only shoots develop, but when the ratio is
(T) and which one is False( F) low then only roots develop
I. Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
proposed that the first form of life could have Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
come from pre existing non-living organic (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
molecules and the formation of life was preceded Reason is not the correct explanation of
by chemical evolution. Assertion.
II. Based on observations made during a sea voyage (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
round the world, Charles Darwin concluded that (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
existing living forms share similarities to varying 15. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel is
degrees only among themselves. (a) more than that in rabbit
III. Analogous structures are a result of convergent (b) less than that in rabbit
evolution. (c) same as that of whale
(I) (II) (III) (d) more than that of horse
(a) F T T 16. The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for
(b) T F T the synthesis of
(c) T T F (a) Cortisol & Cortisone
(d) F F T (b) Thyroxide & Triiodothyroxine
12. Read the statements with regard to frog. Which of (c) Melatonin & Serotonin
the statement is/are correct and incorrect? (d) Estrogen & Progesterone
(i) Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number that arise 17. An isolated population of humans, with
from testes. approximately equal numbers of blue eyes and
(ii) The medulla oblongata passes out through brown eyes individuals, was decimated by an
foramen of Monro and continues into spinal earthquake. Only a few brown eyes people
cord. remained to form the next generation. This kind
(iii) Frogs are uricotelic. of change in the gene pool is called a
(iv) Ovaries have no functional connection with (a) Hardy –Weinberg equilibrium
kidneys. (b) Bottle neck effect
(a) Statement (i) and (iv) are correct while (c) Blocked gene flow
statement ii) and iii) are incorrect (d) Founder effect
(b) Statement ii) and iii) are correct while 18. Assertion: An eye focused for seeing distant
statement (i) and iv) are incorrect objects is said to be at rest
(c) Statement (i), (ii) and (iv ) are correct while Reason: In an eye focused at a distant object, the
statement iii) is incorrect ciliary muscles are fully relaxed
(d) Statement (i), (ii) and iii) are correct while (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
statement iv) is incorrect. Reason is the correct explanation of
13. Match the following Assertion.
Column I Column II (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
A. Zygomatic bone 1. Smallest bone of face Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.

29
Biology Times February 18

(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) A - 3, B - 5, C - 4, D - 2, E - 1

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. 23. Removal of which of the following causes an
19. Match the source gland with its respective immediate menstruation?
hormone and function and select the correct (a) Estrogen (b) FSH
option. (c) FSH - RH (d) Progesterone
Source gland Hormone Function 24. Assertion: Red muscles depend on anaerobic
(a) Anterior Oxytocin Contraction of process for energy
pituitary uterus Reason: Red muscles have few number of
muscles mitochondria in them
during (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
childbirth Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Posterior Vasopressin Stimulates (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
pituitary resorption of Reason is not the correct explanation of
water in the Assertion.
Distal tubules in (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
the nephron (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(c) Corpus Oestrogen Supports 25. Which of the following statement is not correct?
luteum pregnancy (a) Pollengrains of many species can germinate
(d) Thyroid Thyroxin Regulates blood on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen
calcium level tube of the same species grows into the style.
20. From given diagram identify virus, then give the (b) Insect that consumes pollen or nectar without
name of sugar in structure of nucleic acid? bringing about pollination is called pollen /
nectar robber.
(c) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth
are regulated by chemical components of
pollen interacting with those of the pistil.
(d) Some reptiles have been reported as pollinators
in some plant species.
26. Two friends are eating together on a dining table.
One of them suddenly starts coughing while
swallowing some food. This coughing would
have been due to improper movement of
(a) Diaphragm (b) Neck
(c) Tongue (d) Epiglottis
27. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to
filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is
(a) Ribose (b) Deoxyribose (a) 50 mm Hg (b) 75 mm Hg
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these (c) 20 mm Hg (d) 30 mm Hg
21. Ascaris lumbricoides lives in the intestine of 28. Given is a diagram of a contraceptive device.
(a) Sheep and goat (b) Monkey Identify it.
(c) Homo sapiens (d) Pig
22. Match the following
Column I Column II
A. Triglycerides 1. Galactase
B. Lactose 2. Glycerol
C. RNA 3. Palmitic acid
D. β- pleats 4. Uracil
E. Bees wax 5. Secondary structure
(a) A - 3, B - 5, C - 6, D - 2, E - 4
(b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 5, E - 3 (a) Multiload 375 (b)Contraceptive implant
(c) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 6, E - 3 (c) Copper-T (d) Vault

30
 Biology Times February 18

29. Antibodies are produced by (d) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2, E-4
(a) Histiocytes (b) Mast cells 34. Match the following.
(c) Plasma cells (d) Fibroblasts Column I Column II
30. Blood pressure is lowest in A. Tyrosine 1. Calcitonin
(a) Veins (b) Venules B. cAMP 2. Melatonin
(c) Arteries (d) Capillaries C. Ionic calcium 3. Vitamin D
31. Assertion: Persons suffering from hemophilia D. Hypocalcemia 4. Hormone action
fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII 5. Thyroxine
Reason: Prothrombin producing platelets in such (a) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-1 (b) A-1, B-3, C-5, D-2
persons are found in very low concentration (c) A-4, B-5, C-3, D-1 (d) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-2
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and 35. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra
Reason is the correct explanation of Uterine Devices (IUDs)
Assertion. (a) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but (b) Increases phagocytosis of sperms
Reason is not the correct explanation of (c) Suppress sperm motility
Assertion. (d) Prevent ovulation
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 36. Waste product of adenine and gauanine
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. metabolism is excreted as
32. Given figure depicts (a) Urea (b) Ammonia
(c) Uric acid (d) Allantoin
37. Match the items given in Column I with those in
Column II.
Column I Column II
A. Bilirubin 1. Parotid
and biliverdin
B. Hydrolysis 2. Bile
of starch
C. Digestion of fat 3. Lipases
D. Salivary gland 4. Amylases
(a) A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1
(b) A - 1, B - 3, C - 4, D - 2
(c) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2
(d) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4
(a) Evolutionary evidences from comparative 38. The non-suprative inflammation of the kidneys
anatomy and physiology due to bacterial infection is called
(b) Evolutionary evidences from cytology (a) Uraemia (b) Kidney stones
(c) Evolutionary evidences from biochemistry (c) Haematuria (d) Nephritis or Bright’s
and physiology disease
(d) Evolutionary evidences from embryology 39. Prolonged thiamine deficiency in diet leads to
33. Match the following correctly. (a) Pellagra (b) Anaemia
Column I Column II (c) Haemorrhage
A. Myopia 1. Cone cells (d) Loss to muscle tone and damage to nerves
B. Rhodopsin 2. Convex lenses , far 40. Secondary metabolite is
sightedness (a) Sugar (b) Glucose
C. Iodopsin 3. Concave lenses, near (c) Antibiotics (d) All of these
sightedness 41. Transition state structure of the substrate formed
D. Hypermetropia 4. Membranous labyrinth during an enzymatic reaction is
E. Endolymph 5. Rod cells (a) Transient and unstable
(a) A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1, E-3 (b) Permanent and stable
(b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2, E-5 (c) Transient but stable
(c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2, E-5 (d) Permanent but unstable

31
Biology Times February 18

42. At the time of birth, presence of which antibody non-myelinated nerve fibres.
indicates the infection of foetus (Intrauterine (a) A, B, C correct, D incorrect
infection) (b) C, D correct, A and B incorrect
(a) IgG (b) IgD (c) IgM (d) Ig A (c) A, B correct , C and D incorrect
43. Mark out correct and incorrect statements (d) B, C correct, A and D incorrect
(a) Synaptic cleft of neurons secrete adrenaline 44. Which of the following is a slime mould?
(b) Myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped with (a) Physarum (b) Thiobacillus
Schwann cells that secrete myelin sheath (c) Anabaena (d) Rhizopus
around axon. 45. Mammalian pinna is supported by
(c) Non-myelinated nerve fibres are enclosed (a) Hyaline cartilage
by Schwann cells that do not form (b) Calcified cartilage
myelin sheath. (c) Elastic cartilage
(d) Spinal cord and cranial nerves are made of (d) White fibrous connective tissue

32
 Biology Times February 18

BOTANY

1. If a man Rh+ marries a woman Rh, then (a) 14N and 31P (b) 14N and 14C
(a) First child will survive (c) 14C and 31P (d) 14N and 15N
(b) First child will die 6. Identify the incorrect statement
(c) No child will be born (a) Taq DNA polymerase is essential for PCR.
(d) None of these (b) Taq DNA polymerase is not thermostable.
2. Find out the correct sequence of labelling of (c) In PCR, two nucleotide primers are used.
diagram given below: (d) Taq DNA polymerase is isolated from
Thermus aquaticus.
7. Largest number of chloroplast is found in
(a) Bundles sheath cells
(b) Transfusion tissue
(c) Spongy tissue
(d) Palisade tissue
8. During cellulose fermentation by anaerobic
bacteria in rumen and reticulum, Cellulose is
mainly changed into
(a) A- spike; B- raceme; C- dichasial cyme;
(a) Ethanol (b) Butanol
D- monochasial cyme
(c) CO2 (d) Volatile fatty acid
(b) A- raceme; B-spike; C- monochasial cyme;
9. Which of the following does not occur during the
D- dichasial cyme
Calvin cycle?
(c) A- dichasial cyme; B- monochasial cyme;
(a) Carbon fixation
C- raceme; D- spike
(b) Oxidation of NADPH
(d) A- raceme; B- dichasial cyme; C- spike;
(c) Release of oxygen
D- monochasial cyme
(d) Regeneration of the CO2 acceptor
3. Which of the following are considered as
10. Aquatic ecosystem occupy how much area
Microbodies?
(a) 75% (b) 90% (c) 10% (d)30%
(a) Peroxisomes (b) Glyoxysomes
11. Plants in comparison to animals are more rapidly
(c) Melanosomes (d) All of these
manipulated by genetic engineering, which is the
4. The rate of biomass production is called
most appropriate reason for this character.
productivity. It may be primary or secondary
(a) Totipotency is shown by plant cells
productivity. Primary productivity does not
(b) Single somatic cell can regenerate whole
depend on :-
plant body.
(a) Plant species inhabitating a particular area
(c) Genetic engineering is supplemented with
(b) Predation
tissue culture technique
(c) Environmental factors
(d) All the above
(d) Photosynthetic capacity
12. Uniport, symport and antiport are the types of
5. Isotopes used for proving semi-conservative
(a) Simple diffusion (b) Facilitated diffusion
replication of DNA are
(c) Active transport (d) Osmosis
33
Biology Times February 18

13. Match the following mineral elements with their 22. Which of the following is not the feature of
deficiency symptoms and choose the correct plasmid?
option (a) Transferable (b) Circular structure
Column I Column II (c) Independent replication (d) Single strand
A. Calcium 1. Chlorotic veins 23. Vascular bundles in the stem of Cucurbita or
B. Potassium 2. Delayed germination Lagenaria are
of seeds (a) Inverted (b) Radial
C. Zinc 3. Necrosis of young (c) Collateral (d) Biocollateral
leaves 24. Cyclosporin A, an immunosuppressive agent
D. Iron 4. Scorched leafing commercially obtained from
E. Phosphorus 5. Malformed leaves (a) Trichoderma viridea
(a) A - 3, B - 1, C - 5, D - 2, E - 4 (b) Trichoderma harzianum
(b) A - 1, B - 4, C - 5, D - 3, E - 2 (c) Trichoderma polysporum
(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 5, D - 1, E - 2 (d) Trichoderma reesei
(d) A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1, E - 5 25. Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from
14. A plant growing in complete darkness shows (a) Sun (b) Infra red rays
............. (c) Organic substances (d) Inorganic chemicals
(a) Vernalisation (b) Photoperiodism 26. Match the terms in column I and column II
(c) Etiolation (d) Parthenocarpy Column I Column II
15. Gemma cups are found in A. Decline in death rate 1. Polymorphism
(a) Marchantia (b) Polytrichum B. Complete count of 2. Antindividuals in an
(c) Pteris (d) Angiopteris population area
16. Exine of pollen grain is composed C. Honeybee 3. Population explosion
(a) Lignin (b) Lignocelluloses D. Polygamous 4. Census
(c) Pectocellulose (d) Sporopollenin E. Pheromone 5. Peacock
17. Gynaecomastia is a common feature seen in 6. Population crash
(a) Down’s syndrome (b)Klinefelter’s syndrome (a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-6, E-2
(c) Turner’s syndrome (d) PKU (b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-5, E-2
18. A perennial plant differs from biennial in (c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-2
(a) Having asexual reproductive structures (d) A-6, B-3, C-1, D-5, E-2
(b) Having underground perennating structures 27. Bacteria genetically engineered to express a gene
(c) Being tree species from a plant will
(d) Not drying after seasonal production of (a) Not be able to synthesise a protein because
flowers translation is coupled with transcription and
19. Cristae are associated with which of the post transcriptional processing does not
following? occur in it.
(a) Mitochondria (b) Lysosomes (b) Not be able to synthesise a protein due to the
(c) Golgi body (d) Endoplasmic reticulum presence of exon splicing sequences in the
20. Read the statement A–D :- DNA sequence from the plant
(A) The community that is near equilibrium with (c) Synthesise a protein with the same sequence
the environment is called climax community. of amino acids as in the plant and therefore
(B) The gradual and fairly predictable change in the protein will have the same structure and
the species composition of a given area is called function as in the plant
ecological succession. (d) Synthesise a protein with essentially
(C) The species that invade a bare area is called the same sequence of amino acids as in
pioneer community. the plant with differences relating to different
(D) Hydrarch succession takes place in dry areas. codon wobble rules between prokaryotes and
How many above statements are correct ? eukaryotes.
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) One 28. Long distance transport of substance within a
21. Post transcriptional modification in Eukaryotes is plant cannot be done by diffusion alone. Diffusion
referred as is a slow process. The movement of a molecule
(a) Translation (b) Splicing across a typical plant cell is about 50 µm takes
(c) Sequencing (d) Restriction approximately

34
 Biology Times February 18

(a) 2.5 min (b) 2.5 hours 39. In which of the following phloem parenchyma
(c) 2.5 seconds (d) 5.0 min is absent
29. Which bacteria nitrite is converted into nitrate? (a) Banyan (b) Maize
(a) Nitrobacter (b) Nitrosomonas (c) Sunflower (d) Guava
(c) Agrobacterium (d) Pseudomonas 40. Match the items in Column I and column II then
30. Which one of the following acid is derivative of choose correct order.
Caratenoids? Column I Column II
(a) IAA (b) GA (c) ABA (d) NAA A. Streptomycin 1. Antibiotic
31. Which one of the following is known as Reptiles B. Spirulina 2. Single celled protein
or Pandas of plant kingdom? C. Rhizobium 3. Nitrogen fixing
(a) Cycas (b) Rhynia D. Trichoderma 4. Biocontrol
(c) Asteroxylon (d) Gnetum (a) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4
32. In the legume seed, food is stored in (b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3
(a) Endosperm (b) Cotyledon (c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
(c) Seed coats (d) Perisperm (d) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4
33. Two nonallelic genes produce the new phenotype 41. Photorespiration occurs in
when present together but fail to do so (a) C3 plants (b) All plants
independently, it is called (c) Algae only (d) C4 plants
(a) Epistasis (b) Complementary gene 42. Tropical forests occur in India
(c) Polygene (d) Noncomplementary (a) Jammu and Kashmir
gene (b) Rajasthan
34. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of (c) Kerala and Assam
(a) Peach (b) Cucumber (d) Forest do not occur in India
(c) Cotton (d) Guava 43. Endodermis is considered as a ‘biological check
post’ because
(a) it is present between stele and pericycle
(b) it is barrel-shaped and do not have
intercellular spaces
(c) it is rich in starch grains and have starch sheath
(d) it possesses ligno-suberised Casparian strip.
44. In plants capillarity is aided by the
(a) Small diameter of tracheids
35. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to (b) Large diameter of the tracheids
rocks and or host tissue are................ (c) Small diameter of the vessel elements
(a) Holdfast (b) Rhizoids (d) Both A and C
(c) Fimbriae (d) Mesosomes 45. In the given pedigree, assume that no outsider
36. Which of the following would appear as the marrying in, carry a distance. Write the genotypes
pioneer organisms on bare rocks? of C and D
(a) Mosses (b) Green algae
(c) Lichens (d) Liverworts
37. In Operon concept, regulator gene functions as
(a) Regulator (b) Inhibitor
(c) Repressor (d) All of these
38.Which one of the following palindromic base
sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the
middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
(a) 5’ - CGTTCG - 3’ 3’ - ATCGTA - 5’
(b) 5’ - GAATTC - 3’ 3’ - CTTAAG - 5’
(c) 5’ - CACGTA - 3’ 3’ - CTCAGT - 5’ (a) XCY and XCXC (b) XXC and XY
(d) 5’ - GATATG - 3’ 3’ - GTACTA - 5’ (c) XY and XCXC (d) XCXC and XCX

35
Biology Times February 18

ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS

Tissues : Meristematic and permanent tissues 6. Grass stem elongates by the activity
(a) Cambium (b) Intercalary meristem
1. Pro Meristems can be distinguished from primary (c) apical meristem (d) primary meristem
meristem by 7. Which new tissues of plant body originate in the
(a) Their apical position apical meristem
(b) By their power of active division (a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma
(c) The presence of large prominent nucleus (c) Sclerenchyma (d) secondary
(d) All the above 8. During the formation of leaves and elongation of
2. Meristematic cells are stem,some cells ‘left behind’ from shoot apical
(a) Thin walled, isodiametric, nucleate and less meristem constitute the
protoplasmic (a) Lateral meristem (b) vascular cambium
(b) Thin walled, isodiametric, nucleate and (c) axillary bud (d) basal meristem
densely protoplasmic 9. Primary growth of a tree occurs due to
(c) Thin walled, isodiametric, non- nucleate and (a) The activity of apical meristem
densely protoplasmic (b) The activity of vascular cambium
(d) Thick walled, isodiametric, nucleate and less (c) The activity of root cap
protoplasmic (d) Only during the first year of tree’s life
3. The root apical meristem is sub apical because it 10. Secondary meristem are set apart from primary
(a) Is covered by root hair meristems in that they
(b) Is covered by root cap (a) Are responsible for secondary growth
(c) has many corpus cells (b) Increase in the size of state
(d) Is covered by tunica cells (c) Forms the cork and secondary vascular tissue
4. Intercalary meristems are derived from (d) Always formed from the permanent tissue
(a) Permanent tissues
(b) Secondary meristem Epidermal, ground and vascular tissue
(c) Lateral meristem
(d) Apical meristem 11. Multilayered epidermis occurs in
5. Secondary meristem are derived from (a) Nerium leaf (b) maize leaves
(a) Apical meristem (c) Oat leaves (d) hydrilla leaves
(b) Intercalary meristem 12. Chlorenchyma cells are
(c) Lateral meristem (a) Chlorophyll-containing sclerenchyma cells
(d) Permanent tissues (b) Chlorophyll-containing epidermis
(c) Chlorophyll-containing parenchyma

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 Biology Times February 18

(d) Chlorophyll-containing phloem (c) Collenchyma

13. Annular or spiral thickening of lignin are present (d) Sclerenchyma
in 25. Tunica differs from corpus in
(a) metaxylem (b)metaphloem (a) Position (b) Rate of growth
(c) protoxylem (d) protophloem (c) Plane of division (d) Rate of activity
14. Angular collenchyma is present in 26. The cells of permanent tissue do not divide
(a) Althaea (b) Cucurbita because they are
(c) Lactuca (d) Salvia (a) Dead (b) Anucleate
15. A simple mechanical tissue with non lignified (c) Arrest at G1 phase (d) Arrested at prophase
walls is 27. Which of the following is not found in the leaf of
(a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma a bean plant
(c) Sclerenchyma (d) Chlorenchyma (a) Guard cells (b) Chloroplast
16. External protective tissues of plants are (c) Phloem (d) Lenticel
(a) Pericycle and cortex 28. Parenchymatous cells are found in
(b) Epidermis and cork (a) Pulp of fruits (b) Seeds
(c) Cork and pericycle (c) endocarp (d) Skin of fruits
(d) Cortex and epidermis 29. Damaged sieve tubes are sealed by the deposition
17. Angiosperms have of
(a) Tracheids only (b) Vessels absent (a) Pectin (b) Callus
(c) Vessels present (d) Sieve tubes absent (c) Suberin (d) Lignin
18. Sieve tubes are best suited for translocation 30. Secondary wall is not formed in
because they : (a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma
(a) Possess no end wall (c) Companion cells (d) All the above
(b) Are broader than longer
(c) Possess a broad lumen and perforated wall Anatomy of dicotyledonous and
end monocotyledonous plants - stem, root,
(d) Possses bordered pits leaf
19. Size of vascular bundle is dependant on
(a) Size of vein (b) Size of leaf 31. Exarch and polyarch vascular bundles occur in
(c) Size of plant (d) All of these (a) Monocot stem (b) Monocot root
20. Collenchyma differs from sclerenchyma in (c) Dicot stem (d) Dicot root
(a) Retaining protoplasm at maturity 32. A correct situation of mesophyll in an isobilateral
(b) Having thick walls grass leaf is shown by
(c) Having broad lumen (a) Palisade towards adaxial surface
(d) Being meristematic (b) Palisade towards abaxial surface
21. Epidermal outgrowths are known as (c) Undifferentiated mesophyll
(a) Trichomes (b) Stomata (d) Palisade along both the surface
(c) Prickles (d) Spines 33. Endodermis is also called
22. Which of the following is not devoid of (a) Bundle sheath (b) Starch sheath
intercellular space? (c) Mesophyll (d) Pith
(a) Apical meristem (b) Intercalary meristem 34. Largest number of chloroplast is found in
(c) Parenchyma (d) Collenchyma (a) Palisade tissue (b) Spongy tissue
23. The tip of the root apical meristem is capped by (c) Transfusion tissue (d) Bundle sheath cells
the histogen known as 35. Vascular bundles are scattered in
(a) Periblem (b) Dermatogen (a) Bryophytes (b) Dicot root
(c) Pleurome (d) Calyptrogen (c) Dicot stem (d) Monocot stem
24. Which tissue makes up the embryo of a seed 36. Palisade tissue is present in both the sides of leaf
(a) Meristematic tissue of
(b) Permanent parenchyma (a) Helianthus (b) Nerium
(c) Wheat (d) Maize

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Biology Times February 18

37. Classification of various tissues is based on (d) Maize and wheat

(a) Structure (b) Location 48. ‘Patua’ of Hibiscus sabdariffa is
(c) Type of cell (d) Both a& b (a) Secondary phloem
38. The parenchymatous cells present in between the (b) Collenchymatous hypodermis
xylem and phloem are called (c) Epidermis
(a) Cambium (b) Conjunctive tissue (d) Pericycle
(c) Pith (d) Pericycle 49. When phloem is completely surrounded by
39. Leaf primordium grows into an adult leaf lamina xylem, the vascular bundle is called
by means of (a) Concentric leptocentric/amphivasal
(a) Marginal meristem (b) Concentric amphicribal
(b) Lateral meristem (c) Conjoint collateral
(c) First apical meristem (d) Conjoint bicollateral
(d) Apical meristem 50. Centripetal xylem is present in
40. Totipotency is present in (a) Dicot root (b) Dicot stem
(a) Meristem (b) Cambium (c) Monocot stem (d) Branches of stem
(c) Phloem (d) Cork
41. Impervious nature of cork is due to deposition of Secondary growth
which chemical
(a) Lignin (b) Suberin 51. Which of the following do not have stomata
(c) Pectin (d) Hemicellulose (a) Xerophytes (b) Mesophytes
42. Special feature of dividing cells is (c) Hydrophytes (d) Submerged
(a) Large lacuna hydrophytes
(b) Thick cell walls 52. Which of the following is responsible for the
(c) Dense cytoplasm devoid of lacuna growth in circumference or girth of stem and
(d) Large intercellular space roots of plants?
43. Albuminous cells occurs in (a) Xylem (b) Phloem
(a) Xylem (b) Phloem (c) Cortex (d) Cambium
(c) Cortex (d) Conjunctive 53. Growth rings are well marked in trees growing in
parenchyma (a) Shimla (b) Bombay
44. Shifting of vascular cambium to the outside due (c) Madras (d) Calcutta
to formation of secondary xylem on inner side is 54. Trees at sea do not have annual rings because
called as (a) Soil is sandy
(a) Abscission (b) Dilation (b) There is climatic variation
(c) Deposition (d) Intussusception (c) There is no marked climatic variation
45. A leptocentric vascular bundle has (d) There is enough moisture in the atmosphere
(a) Phloem flanked by xylem on interior and 55. Which will decay faster when exposed freely?
exterior sides only (a) Softwood
(b) Xylem flanked by phloem on interior and (b) Heart wood
exterior sides only (c) Wood with lots of fibers
(c) Xylem surrounded by phloem (d) Sapwood
(d) Phloem surrounded by xylem 56. For a successful graft, the adhesion between stock
46. The only plant cell without the nucleus among the and scion is must, which one of the following is
following are: the earliest event towards a good graft?
(a) Cambium cells (b) Xylem vessel elements (a) Production of plasmodesmata in the cells at
(c) Root hairs (d) Companion cells interface of stock and scion
47. Amphivasal vascular bundles are found in (b) Coordinated differentiation of vascular
(a) Cycas and dryopteris tissue between the stock and scion
(b) Dracaena and yucca (c) Regeneration of cortex and epidermis over
(c) Helianthus and cucurbita the union of stock and scion

38
 Biology Times February 18

(d) Production of callus tissue between the cells 3. (b) Root apical meristem is sub apical due to
of stock and scion presence of root cap, where as shoot apical
57. In which one of the following there is no meristem is apical.
differentiation of bark, sapwood and heartwood?
(a) Ashoka (b) Neem
(c) Mango (d) Date Palm
58. The total time in which growth occurs is called
(a) Phase of maturation
(b) Phase of cell division
(c) Phase of elongation
(d) Grand period of growth
59. After two or three years of secondary growth, the
cortex in dicot root
(a) Remains intact
(b) Is completely sloughed away
(c) Is largely lost
(d) Is converted into cork
60. Mature wood stem has a peripheral waterproof
tissue with opening in the form of scars on its
surface, they are
(a) Epidermal tissue (b) Guard cells
(c) Lenticels (d) Stomata
61. Vascular cambium forms xylem on inner side and
phloem on outer side due to
(a) Effect of gravity
(b) Shearing force of wind
(c) Intrafascicular nature
(d) Differential action of hormone

4. (a) Intercalary meristems are derived from the

1. (d) Pro meristems are the group of cells which
represent early stages of meristematic cells
which are present in the embryonic shoots and
root apices which give rise to primary meristem.
2. (b) Meristematic cells are thin walled, nucleate
and with dense cytoplasm .
permanent tissues. They are situated at internodes
or stem regions where the leaves attach.
5. (d) Secondary meristem are derived from
the permanent tissues. Permanent tissues
differentiates into secondary meristem.
6. (b) Intercalary meristem is situated at the
internodes of stem where the leaves arise hence
they are involved in the elongation of stem in
monocots.
7. (a) Parenchyma is the simple tissue which is
present in the soft parts of the plants hence it is
present at the apices of the shoot which is soft and
tender.
8. (a)
9. (a) Primary growth is the increase in length of
shoot and root which is brought about by apical
meristem.
10. (d) Secondary meristems arise from the permanent
tissues always.

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Biology Times February 18

11. (a) 25. (c) According to tunica corpus theory, Tunica is

the outer consisting of meristems- peripheral
layers of cells, forming the outer region and
Corpus, the central undifferentiated multi-layered
mass of cell.
26. (c) Permanent tissues are stuck at G1 phase of cell
cycle which is a resting phase and cells are not
able to undergo mitotic division
27. (d)
28. (a) Parenchyma is present in the soft parts of the
plants, hence it is also present in the mesocarp
region of the fruit.
29. (b)
30. (a) Parenchyma cells are having thin walled cells
made up of cellulose.
31. (b) Protoxylem elements are facing towards
periphery and there are many patches of xylem
and phloem.

12. (c) Parenchyma cells having chlorophyll is called

as chlorenchyma which is present in the mesophyll
region of the leaves and helps in photosynthesis.
13. (a)
14. (b)
15. (b) Collenchyma is a simple permanent
mechanical tissue which has pectin deposition in
the walls.
16. (b) Epidermis and cork are the protective tissues,
epidermis is the outermost covering of the plant
parts and cork is the outer covering of the stem
often called as bark.
17. (c) Vessels are the characteristic features of dicot
plants which differentiates angiosperms from
gymnosperms.
18. (c) Sieve tubes elements have broad lumen and
sieve plate which consists of sieve pores are
situated at the ends of the tubes.
19. (a)
20. (a) Sclerenchyma cells are devoid of protoplasm
which differentiates from collenchyma
21. (a) Trichomes are hair-like outgrowth from 32. (c) Grass leaf anatomy shows uniform
the epidermis of a plant, which are typically distribution of the cells where there is
unicellular and glandular. undifferentiated mesophyll.
22. (c) Parenchyma cells are loosely arranged with 33. (b)
intercellular space present in the soft parts of the 34. (a) Palisade parenchyma has more number
plants. of chloroplast when compared to spongy
23. (d) Calyptrogen is the fourth histogen which parenchyma.
produces the root cap. 35. (d) Scattered vascular bundles is the characteristic
24. (a) feature of monocot stem.

40
 Biology Times February 18

36. b 46. (b) Vessels of xylem are devoid of nucleus.

37. (d) Tissues are classified based on the structure 47. (b) 48. (a) 49.(b)
and position/location. 50. (b)
38. (b) 39. (a) 51. (d) Submerged hydrophytes are completely
40. (b) Cambium has the ability to differentiate and present inside water hence they do not have
helps in secondary growth. stomata.
41. (b)Suberin is a waterproofing waxy substance 52. (d) Cambium-interfascicular and intrafascicular
found in higher plants. Suberin is a main cambium bring about the secondary growth
constituent of cork, and is named after the cork helpful in increasing the growth of the girth of the
oak. plant.
42. (c)Actively dividing cells are made up of dense 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (c)
protoplasm and no lacuna. 56. (d) For the successful union of the two plants
43. (b)Companion cells of gymnosperms are called in grafting is the production of secondary xylem
as albuminous cells, which is present associated and phloem for the new vascular cambium in the
with the sieve tube cell. callus bridge. Callus plays an important role in
44. (d) Intussusception is the expansion of the cell uniting stock and scion.
wall in plants as a result of the introduction of 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (c)
new molecules of cellulose and protopectin into 60. (a) 61. (d)
the already formed wall.
45. (b)

41
Biology Times February 18

ZOOLOGY

1. Match the following columns and select the (d) The S-shaped setae embedded in the
correct choice integument
Column I Column II 4. A triploblastic pseudocoelomate, bilaterally
A. Genera Plantarum 1. Aristotle symmetrical human parasite which is oviparous
B. Species Plantarum 2. Linnaeus and the transmission is by contact is
C. Historia Generalis 3. Bentham and Hooker (a) Palalo worm (b) Filarial worm
Plantarum (c) Tape worm (d) Hook worm
D. Scala Naturae 4. Pliny 5. Organisms that form red tide also show
5. John Ray (a) Reserve food as leucosin
(a) A- 4, B-2, C-5, D-3 (b) Spinning movement
(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (c) Nitrogen fixation
(c) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (d) Complementary chromatic adaptation
(d) A-3, B-2, C-5, D-1 6. Which of the following statement is incorrect
2. Identify P, Q, R and S on the basis of flagellation regarding bacterial cell wall?
and select the incorrect statement (a) It protects the bacterial cell from bursting in
hypotonic solution.
(b) The cell wall contains teichoic acids that
form receptor sites and surface antigens in
Gram positive bacteria.
(c) It is 20-80 nm thick, smooth and single
layered in Gram negative bacteria.
(d) It provides shape and structural support to
the cells.
7. Photosynthetic organisms with cellular body
(a) R is nitrifying bacteria. organisation are included in the kingdom (w.r.t
(b) P causes cholera. Whittaker system)
(c) Q is used in retting of fibres. (a) Monera and Protista
(d) S is the source of lactic acid. (b) Monera, Protista and fungi
3. One very special feature in the earthworm (c) Monera only
Pheretima is that (d) Protista only
(a) Fertilisation of egg occurs inside the body 8. Match the following
(b) It has a long dorsal tubular heart Column I Column II
(c) The typhlosole greatly increases the effective A. Number of bones 1. 16 of frog
absorption area of the digested food in the in forelimb
intestine B. Number of eggs 2.24 of cockroach
in ootheca

42
 Biology Times February 18

C. Number of bones 3. 27 (c) Gliding (d) Hinge

in frogs skeleton 16. The reflex arc which is made of two neurons is
D. Number of bones 4. 153 known as
in forelimb of frog (a) polysynaptic reflex arc
(a) A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1 (b) asynaptic reflex arc
(b) A - 1, B - 3, C - 4, D - 2 (c) monosynaptic reflex arc
(c) A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2 (d) disynaptic reflex arc
(d) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2 17. Read the following four (A-D) statements :
9. Zoochlorellae or zooxanthellae of coloured Hydra (i) Natural selection is a process in which
occur in heritable variations enabling better survival are
(a) Mesoglea (b) Nutritive cells enabled to reproduce greater number of progeny.
(c) Interstitial cells (d) Epithelio-muscular (ii) When migration of a section of population to
cells another place and population occurs, gene
10. Which one is not found in testis of frog? frequencies change.
(a) Germinal cell (b) Seminiferous tubule (iii) If loss of gene migration happens multiple
(c) Sertoli cell (d) Interstitial cell times there would be a gene flow.
11. Choose the correct statement with reference to (iv) If loss of considerable gene from a small
mutation theory. population occurs by chance it is called as
I. Mutations occur from time to time in naturally genetic drift.
breeding population How many of the above statements are true?
II. Mutations are continuous and accumulate (a) Two (b) One
over generations (c) Four (d) Three
III. Mutations are full fledged and there are no 18. Parts A, B, C, and D of the human eye are shown
intermediate forms in the diagram. Select the option which gives
IV. Mutations are not subjected to natural correct identification along with its functions/
selection characteristics.
(a) II and III (b) I and III
(c) III and IV (d) I and II
12. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms
in male frogs:
(a) Testes →Vasa efferentia →Kidney → Seminal
Vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(b) Testes →Vasa efferentia →Bidder ’s canal →
Ureter → Cloaca
(c) Testes →Vasa efferentia →Kidney →Bidder’s
canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(d) Testes → Bidder’s canal → Kidney → Vasa
efferentia → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca (a) C- Aqueous chamber-Reflects the light which
13. Muscle contraction of shortest duration occurs in does not pass through the lens
(a) Eye lids (b) Heart (b) D- Choroid- its anterior part forms ciliary
(c) Intestine (d) Jaw body
14. Which of the following excretory organ is (c) A- Retina- Contains photoreceptors i.e.,
correctly matched with the organism in which it rods and cones
is found? (d) B-Blind spot- Has only a few rods and cones
(a) Flame cells – Platyhelminthes 19. Which of the following pairs of hormones are the
(b) Antennal gland or green glands – Insects examples of those that can easily pass through
(c) Nephridia – Crustaceans the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a
(d) Malpighian tubules – Annelids receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus)?
15. Joints between humerus and radio-ulna is (a) Insulin and glucagon
(a) Ball and socket (b) Pivot (b) Thyroxin and insulin

43
Biology Times February 18
(c) Somatostatin and oxytocin
(d) Cortisol and testosterone
20. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a
person, to which of the following would you look
for confirmatory evidence?
(a) Serum albumins (b) Serum globulins
(c) Fibrinogen in plasma (d) Haemocytes
21. Give the correct sequence for pre erythrocytic
cycle?
(a) Saliva - sprozoites - blood - liver -
cryoschizontcryptomerozoites
(b) Sporozoites - saliva - blood - liver -
cryptoschizontcryptomerozoites
(c) Saliva - cryptoschizont - blood - liver -
sporozoitescrytomerozoites
(d) Saliva - sporozoites - liver - blood -
cryptoschizontcrytomerozoites
22. Which of the following are not polymetric ?
(a) Proteins (b) Polysaccharides
(c) Lipids (d) Nucleic acids
23. Choose the correct combination of labelling the
hormonal control of female reproductive system.
(a) A- GnRH, B-TSH, C-LTH, D- Uterus
(b) A-GnRH, B-LH/FSH, C-Estrogen/
Progesterone, D-Uterus
(c) A-GnRH, B-ACTH, C-LH, D-Uterus
(d) A-GnRH, B-LTH, C-Estrogen, D-Uterus
24. Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only ‘Y’ pairs
are true ribs. Select the option that correctly
represents values of X and Y and provides their
explanation:
(a) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally
to vertebral column and sternum on the two
ends
(b) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached
to vertebral column but are free on ventral
side
(c) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally
44
attached to vertebral column but are free on
ventral side
(d) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally
to vertebral column and ventrally to the
sternum
25. Among the following edible fishes, which one is a
marine fish having rice source of omega-3 fatty
acids?
(a) Mystus (b) Mangpur
(c) Mackerel (d) Mrigala
26. In alveoli of lungs, the air at the site of gas
exchange, is separated from the blood by
(a) Alveolar epithelium only
(b) Alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium
(c) Alveolar epithelium, capillary endothelium
and tunica adventitia
(d) Alveolar epithelium, capillary endothelium,
a thin layer of tunica media and tunica
adventitia
27. Which blood vessel takes blood away from
kidney?
(a) Renal portal vein (b) Renal vein
(c) Afferent arteriole (d) Efferent arteriole
28. These statements are given regarding MTP.
Choose which one is the correct option.
A. Are generally advised during first trimester.
B. Are used as contraceptive method.
C. Are always surgical.
D. Require an assistance of qualified medical
personnel.
(a) A and C (b) B and C
(c) A and D (d) C and D
29. Rejection of transplanted organs is due to
(a) B-cells (b) Eosinophils
(c) T-cells (d) Neutrophils
30. Closure of which of the following makes a louder
sound of heartbeat?
(a) Semilunar valves (b) Tricuspid valve
(c) Mitral valve (d) Auriculoventricular
valve
31.Person with blood group AB is considered as
universal recipient because he has
(a) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no
antibodies in the plasma
(b) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma
(c) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the
plasma
(d) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no
antibodies
 Biology Times February 18

32.When the resident of seventh floor of a 42.Identify the figure given below.
multistoryed building feels the tremors of an
earthquake, he gets scared and starts climbing
down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated
this action?
(a) Glucagon (b) Gastrin
(c) Thyroxine (d) Adrenaline
33. Demonstration of conditioned reflex was first
made by
(a) William Harvey (b) Robert Brown
(c) Karl von Frisch (d) Petrovitch Pavlov
34. Which hormone regulates production of sperms?
(a) LH (b) LTH
(c) FSH (d) All of the given
35. One of these causes nongonococcal urethritis
(a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(b) Chlamydia trachomatis
(c) HSV-I
(d) Treponema pallidum
36. Inflammation of pelvis is called
(a) Pyelitis (b) Nephritis
(c) Glucosuria (d) Haematuria (a) Effect of smoking on lung epithelium showing
37.Which part of our body secretes the hormone cancerous cells
secretin? (b) Effect of liver disorder
(a) Ileum (b) Stomach (c) Effect of alcohol addiction
(c) Duodenum (d) Oesophagus (d) Effect of drug addiction
38. Which one of the following statements in regard 43. Passage of action of potential from one node of
to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct? Ranvier to the next is
(a) Descending limb of loop of Henle is (a) Nodal conduction (b) Saltatory conduction
impermeable to water. (c) Threshold stimulus (d) Mechanical conduction
(b) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of 44. Select the correct combination of the statements
reabsorbing HCO3. (i-iv) regarding the characteristics of certain
(c) Nearly 99% of the glomerular filtrate is organisms
reabsorbed by the renal tubule. i) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce
(d) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is methane in marshy areas.
impermeable to electrolytes. ii) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which
39. In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
(a) Gastrin secreting cells iii)Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
(b) Parietal cells synthesise cellulose from glucose.
(c) Peptic cells iv) Mycoplasma lack cell wall and can survive
(d) Acidic cells without oxygen.
40. On hydrolysis, nucleic acid produces: The correct statement are
(a) Sugar only (b) Phosphoric acid (a) ii and iii (b) i, ii and iii
(c) Nitrogen bases only(d) All of these (c) ii, iii and iv (d) i, ii and iv
41. Protein denaturation takes place by the activity 45.Read the following statements
of: I. Ground substance is hard and non-pliable.
(a) Heat (b)Water II. Rich in collagen fibres and calcium salts.
(c) Enzyme (d) Pressure III. Main tissue that provides structural frame to
the body.

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Biology Times February 18

Identify the tissue on the basis of given

characteristics and choose the correct option from (c)
the given diagrams:
(a)

(d)

(b)

46
 Biology Times February 18

BOTANY

1. The cytological event that corresponds to E. X-ray diffraction 5. (A+G) = (C+T)

Mendel’s law of independent assortment is seen (a) A - 5, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3, E - 2
in : (b) A - 5, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3, E - 4
(a) Metaphase I (b) Metaphase II (c) A - 5, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3, E - 1
(c) Anaphase I (d) Anaphase II (d) A - 5, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1, E - 3
2. Inflorescence of Cauliflower is 6. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel
(a) Corymb (b) Catkin can be visualised after staining with
(c) Umbel (d) Compound corymb (a) Acetocarmine (b) Aniline blue
3. Which of the following organelle is common (c) Ethidium bromide (d) Bromophenol blue
between plants and animals? 7. Tunica differs from corpus in
(a) Chloroplast (b) Centriole (a) Position (b) Rate of growth
(c) Mitochondria (d) Cell wall (c) Plane of division (d) Rate of activity
4. Read the given statements and select the correct 8. What would happen if oxygen availability to
options activated sludge flocs is reduced?
I. The amount of biomass or organic matter (a) It will slow down the rate of degradation of
produced per unit area over a time period in organic matter
plants during photosynthesis is called primary (b) The center of flocs will become anoxic, which
production. would cause death of bacteria and eventually
II. Sugarcane have more efficiency to trap breakage of flocs
sunlight, so they accumulate more primary (c) Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic
productivity. bacteria would grow around flocs
III. Productivity is expressed in g-2 yr-1 or (kcal (d) Protozoa would grow in large number
m-2) yr-1. 9. All types of plastids possess essentially the same
IV. Primary production is expressed in terms of structure because they
weight (g-2 ) or energy (kcal m-2). (a) Perform the same function
(a) I , II and III (b) II and IV (b) Store food materials like starch, fat and
(c) I and IV (d) I, II, III and IV protein
5. Match the following: (c) Occur in aerial parts
Column I Column II (d) Can transform from one form to another
A. Chargaff 1. Wilkins and Franklin 10. Snails and fishes undergo
B. Replicon 2. Uptake of lactose (a) Hibernation (b) Diapause
C. Permease 3. hn-RNA (c) Migration (d) Aestivation
D. Split gene 4. Length of DNA

47
Biology Times February 18

11. Match the following 20. What can be correct for following food web ?
Column I Column II
A. ELISA 1. Humulin
B. α-1-antitrypsin 2. Gene therapy
C. Retroviral vector 3. AIDS
D. Ely lily 4. Emphysema
(a) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1
(b) A - 4, B- 3, C - 1, D - 2
(c) A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2
(d) A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 4
12. The process of plasmolysis is usually
(a) Reversible (b) Irreversible
(c) Active (d) Both A and C (a) J is decomposer (b) C is herbivore
13. Choose the correct match Bladderwort, (c) I is scavenger (d) F is carnivore
Sundew,Venus Flytrap 21. Information transfer from RNA to DNA is called
(a) Nepenthes, Dionaea, Drosera (a) DNA polymerase (b) Ligase
(b) Nepenthes, Utricularia,Vanda (c) Reverse transcription (d) Endonuclease
(c) Utricularia, Drosera, Dionea 22. Given below is a sample of portion of DNA strand
(d) Dionea, Trapa,Vanda giving the base sequence on the opposite strands.
14. Phytochrome is What is so special shown in it?
(a) Flavoprotein (b) Glycoprotein 5’ - GAATTC - 3’
(c) Lipoprotein (d) Chromoprotein 3’ - CTTAAG - 5’
15. Which one of the following shows chorophyllous (a) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
thallophyte? (b) Start codon at the 5’ end
(a) Cycas (b) Pinus (c) Deletion mutation
(c) Spirogyra (d) Volvox (d) Replication completed
16. Match the columns and select the correct 23. The only plant cell without the nucleus among the
combination following are:
Column I Column II (a) Cambium cells (b) Xylem vessel
A. Ovule 1) Endosperm elements
B. Funiculus 2) Aril (c) Root hairs (d) Companion cells
C. Nucellus 3) Seed 24. Which microorganism is growing on potato
D. Polar nuclei 4) Perisperm dextrose agar containing petriplate?
(a) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4
(b) A- 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1
(c) A- 1, B- 2, C - 3, D - 4
(d) A- 2, B - 3, C - 1, D – 4
17. When one gene hides the effect of another gene,
the interaction factor is known as:
(a) duplicate factor
(b) complementary factor
(c) supplementary factor
(d) epistatic factor
18. Protective covering over radicle during seed (a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
germination is (c) Virus (d) Viriods
(a) Coleorhiza (b) Coleoptile 25. ETC of photosynthesis process is
(c) Suspensor (d) Epithelium (a) Bound to thylakoid membrane
19. Cell theory is not applicable for (b) Present in stroma
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria (c) Bound to outer chloroplast membrane
(c) Fungi (d) Algae

48
 Biology Times February 18

(d) Dispersed in cytosol 33. Haemophilia is most commonly seen in human

26. Which part of the world has high density of males than in human females because
organisms? (a) a greater proportion of girls die in infancy
(a) Deciduous forest (b) Grasslands (b) this disease is due to a Y-linked recessive
(c) Savannas (d) Tropical rain forest mutation
27. The characters of monocot stem anatomy are (c) this disease is due to a X-linked recessive
i. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis mutation
ii. a large number of scattered vascular bundles (d) this disease s due to an X-linked dominant
iii. bundle sheath is made up of parenchyma mutation
iv. a large,conspicuous parenchymatous ground 34. A perennial plant differs from biennial in
tissue (a) Having underground perennating structure
v. peripheral vascular bundles are generally larger (b) Having asexual reproductive structures
in size and central vascular bundles are smaller in (c) Being tree species
size. (d) Not dying after seasonal production of flowers
a) i, ii, iii b) ii, iii, iv 35. What does the diagram represent?
c) i, ii, iv d) i, ii, v
28. Stomatal opening is under the control of
(a) Epidermal cells
(b) Palisade cells
(c) Spongy parenchyma cells
(d) Guard cells
29. The compound which is mostly used to form
amino acid through transamination is
(a) α ketoglutaric acid (b) Glutamine
(c) Glutamic acid (d) Aspartic acid (a) Anaphase I of meiosis I
30. The discovery of gibberellins is related with one (b) Prophase II of meiosis II
of the following: (c) Prophase I of meiosis
(a) Bakane disease of oats (d) Prophase of mitosis
(b) Bakane disease of rice 36. During succession :-
(c) Bakane disease of maize (a) Species diversity and biomass increase but
(d) Bakane disease of Ragi humus decrease
31. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing (b) Species diversity and humus increase but
symbiont found biomass decrease
(a) Pisum (b) Alnus (c) Humus and biomass increase but species
(c) Cycas (d) Cicer diversity decreases
32. Match the column I and column II and select the (d) Species diversity, humus and biomass increase
correct option using the codes given below 37. Gel electrophoresis is used for
Column I Column II (a) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining
A. Pistils fused together 1. Gametogenesis with cloning vectors
B. Formation of gametes 2. Pistillate (b) Cutting of DNA into fragments
C. Hyphae of higher 3. Syncarpous (c) Separation of DNA fragments according to
ascomycetes their size
D. Unisexual 4. Dikaryotic (d) Isolation of DNA molecule
female flower 38. Which of the following key factors make the
(a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 plasmid, the vector in genetic engineering?
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (a) It is resistant to restriction enzymes
(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 (b) It is resistant to antibiotics
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (c) Its ability to carry a foreign gene
(d) Its ability to cause infection in the host

49
Biology Times February 18

39. Below diagram shows the structure of ------------- (b) Compensation point of C4 plants is higher
----- (c) It is equal
(d) None of these as it is variable
42. In which of the following habitats does the diurnal
temperature of soil surface vary most?
(a) Scrub land (b) Forest
(c) Desert (d) Grassland
43.The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked
together by
(a) Phosphodiester bond (b) Covalent bond
(c) Disulphide bridges (d) Hydrogen
bridges
44. Water channels are made up of
(a) Lenticels (b) Trichome (a) Eight similar types of aquaporins
(c) Stomata (d) Root hair (b) Six similar types of aquaporins
40. A major component of gobar gas is (c) Six different types of aquaporins
(a) Ammonia (b) Methane (d) Eight different types of aquaporins
(c) Butane (d) Ethane 45. In Mirabilis jalapa, hybrid between red and white
41. What is true about compensation point in C3 and flowered plants produces pink flowers due to:
C4 plants? (a) Linkage (b) Segregation
(a) Compensation point of C3 plants is higher (c) Incomplete (d) Heterosis
dominance

50
 Biology Times February 18

OXYGEN - HAEMOGLOBIN DISSOCIATION CURVE

By: KEZIA THEIOPHILLUS

(Green Park International School, Namakkal, Tamil Nadu)

v Hb - made up of 4 sub units

Cooperative binding:-
v Hb has a greater ability to bind O2 after a sub-unit has already bound O2
Hb is more attracted to O2 when three of the polypepetide chains are bound to O2.
v O2 - Hb curve is the relationship between percentage saturation of haemoglobin and partial pressure of
oxygen.
v The O2 - Hb dissociation curve has a sigmoid shape due to cooperative binding of O2 to the 4 sub-units of
Hb.

v A right shift indicates decreased O2 affinity of Hb. This allows more O2 to be available to the tissues.

51
Biology Times February 18

v A left shift indicates increased O2 affinity of Hb. This allows less O2 to be available to the tissues.
v CO, Fetal Hb, Mycoglobin do not unload O2 from Hb. So these cause a left shift in the curve.

Thus Bohr’s & Haldane’s effects complement each other.

v Addition of CO2 to the blood at tissue site facilitates unloading of O2 by Bohr’s effect.
v O2 unloading inturn, favours CO2 uptake by Haldane’s effect.

52

EVA AITS (NEET [ZOOLOGY] -8)
1. (b)
2. (a) Linnaeus classified organisms into 2 groups :
plants and animals.
3. (c) In Hydra, some invaginations are present in the
epithelia-muscular cells of tentacles.
Nematoblasts are found in groups in these
invaginations. These groups are called as battery
or cnidom. 10 – 12 nematoblasts are present in one
battery.
4. (c) Palaeognathae comprises a number of well-
known flightless birds: the Ostrich, Rhea, Emu,
Cassowaries, Kiwis and Tinamous.
5. (a) Slime moulds aggregate into plasmodium in
favourable condition but in unfavourable condition,
plasmodium get differentiated into fruiting bodies
which bears spores.
6. (d) Anabaena is a prokaryotic organism. It is also
called as Blue-green algae or Cyanobacteria which
are included in the Kingdom Monera. As they are
prokaryotic they lack true nucleus.
7. (a) Prokaryotic cell lacks a true nucleus and
membrane bound organelles, there is an
undifferentiated, unorganised fibrillar nucleus
without any nuclear membrane in a prokaryotic
cell. The genetic material of prokaryotic cell is
dispersed in cytoplasm and is known as nucleoid.
8. (c)
9. (b) Torpedo is a marine fish having cartilaginous
body and they can produce electric currents when
threatened by an enemy.
10. (b) Herdmania has myogenic valveless heart. It
has a double circulation. The blood of Herdmania
is green due to the presence of vanadium in blood.
11. (b) Nephridia in earthworm, Malpighian tubule in
cockroach and urinary tubules in rat have similar
functions. They are homologous organs, they have
similar function (excretion of nitrogenous wastes).
But differ in their origin.
12. (d)
13. (d) All the six matches properly.
14. (b)
15. (c)
Biology Times February 18
16. (c) Somatic hybridisation in higher plant is a
valuable tool for conventional plant breeding to
improve cultivated crops. It is fusion between
somatic protoplasts under invitro conditions and
subsequent development of their product to a
hybrid plant is known as somatic hybridisation. The
sources of Protoplasts are Leaves, Cell suspension
culture, Callus culture and pre- conditioned plant
materials.
17. (a) In Convergent evolution, structures are not
similar but perform similar functions resulting in
analogous organs. In divergent evolution, origin
of structures is same but it performs different
functions which results in homologous organs.
18. (c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A which is an
aldehyde, whereas, ascorbic acid is Vitamin C.
19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (d)
22. (c) Chitin is a polysaccharide that has nitrogen and
is a derivative of glucose.
23. (a) Gonadocorticoids or sexocorticoids are the
hormones secreted by both zona reticularis and
zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex.
24. (a)
25. (d) Bordeaux mixture is used to control fungal
diseases and no vector is reported for bacterial
blight disease, the use of disease-free seeds and
disease resistant varieties can control disease.
26. (a) At high altitude, the atmospheric O2 level is
less and hence, more RBCs are needed to absorb
the required amount of O2 to survive. That is why,
the people living at sea level have around 5 million
RBC/mm3 of their blood whereas, those living at
an altitude of 5400 meter have around 8 million
RBC/mm3 of their blood.
27. (b) A nephron is a long tubule differentiated into
four regions having different anatomical features
and physiological role: Bowman’s capsule,
proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), loop of Henle,
and distal convoluted tubule (DCT). The latter
opens into one of the collecting ducts.
28. (a) Gonorrhea infected mothers may transmit the
infection to their new born babies which may harm
their eyes.
29. (a) Hepatitis C virus may respond to interferon
therapy.
53
Biology Times February 18
30. (c) Healthy blood pressure in adults is a reading
below 120 systolic or 80 diastolic. Blood pressure
between 120/80 to 140/90 is normal.
31. (d) 32. (a)
33. (c) In post-synaptic cells, neurotransmitter
receptors receive signals that trigger an electrical
signal, by regulating the activity of ion channels.
34. (a)Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called
vasopressin helps the body to conserve water
when body fluid volume (like blood) is low. Even
hormones like Thyroxine has been implicated in
the process of osmoregulation.
35. (c) Syphilis is a STD transmitted by a bacterium.
36. (c) Ornithine cycle: cyclic enzymatic process
consisting of consecutive transformations of the
amino acid ornithine and leading to the synthesis
of urea. The ornithine cycle is the most important
means of assimilation of ammonia (and thus for
its neutralisation) in many species of animals, as
well as in plants and microorganisms.
The reactions of the ornithine cycle have been most
thoroughly studied in mammals (H. Krebs and K.
Henseleit 1932), in which the reactions take place
primarily in the liver.
37. (a)
38. (c) Food particles are absorbed into the blood
stream via the small intestine. The undigested
substances are transferred to the large intestine
EVA AITS (NEET [ZOOLOGY] -9)
1. (d) Zoological park is also called an animal park
or menagerie, is a facility in which animals are
confined within enclosures, displayed to the
public, and in which they may also breed.
2. (d) Rust is caused by Puccinia, Smut is caused by
Ustilago. Puccinia, Smut and Mushrooms belong
to class Basidiomycetes. Hence all of them bears
basidiospores.
3. (d) The amphids (Chemoreceptors) are cuticular
elevations on the ventero-lateral lips of Ascaris.
4. (b) The aves have pneumatic bones which is an
adaptation towards aerial mode of life.
54
which essentially serves as a storage organ for the
excretory products. The descending, ascending and
transverse colons also facilitate the absorption of
left over vitamins, water and salt.
39. (b) Proctadeum is a part of large intestine lined by
ectoderm in rabbits.
40. (b)
41. (a) Amino acids are the end product on complete
hydrolysis of proteins and peptides.
42. (d) Malignant tumours : cancerous cells from such
tumour are carried by blood and lymph to other
parts of the body, where they form secondary
malignant growths. The spread of cancer cells to
distant parts is called metastasis.
43. (b)Arbor vitae is a tree-like appearance in a vertical
section of the cerebellum, due to the arrangement
of the white and grey nerve tissues.
44. (a)Heterotrophic bacteria derive their energy from
another organisms by feeding.
These heterotrophic bacterias have an important
influence on human affairs. They are useful in
making curd from milk, production of antibiotics,
fixing nitrogen in legume roots etc.
45. (a) Adipocytes of brown adipose tissue consists
larger quantity of mitochondria and oxygen
for more energy production. It also consists
multiple lipid globules. Yellow adipose tissue has
adipocytes with single large lipid globule.
5. (d) Conjugation is a type of sexual reproduction in
bacteria. During Conjugation two bacterial cells
of different strains, one acting as male (donor
cell) another as female (recipient cell) come.
6. (d) Actinomyces are facultative anaerobe.
7. (a)Obligate intracellular parasites are the parasites
that can reproduce only when within a living cell,
although it may survive outside cells.
8. (d) Earthworm consists of closed circulatory
system with capillaries, blood vessels and heart.
Blood is composed of fluid plasma and colourless
corpuscles. Red pigment, haemoglobin is
dissolved in plasma. It gives red colour to the
blood and helps in transportation of oxygen for
respiration.

9. (c)
10. (b) Irregular bumps or conules are found in
demospongiae like Euspongia.
11. (b) Depending upon the observations Darwin
made during his voyage, he came to a conclusion
that the existing living organisms share
similarities not only with the other organisms
but also with the other organisms which existed
millions of years ago.
12. (a) Frogs are Ureotelic, spinal cord passes through
foramen of munro.
13. (a)
14. (b) Kinetin is a type of cytokinin, a class of plant
hormone that promotes cell division. Kinetin was
originally isolated by Miller and Skoog et al. It
has ability to induce cell division, provided auxin
was present in the medium and often used in plant
tissue culture for inducing formation of callus
in conjunction with auxin and regenerate shoot
tissues from callus in lower concentration of
auxin, higher concentration of auxin regenerates
roots.
15. (c) Majority of mammals have seven cervical
vertebrae including camels,whale and humans.
16. (c) Tryptophan is a precursor to neurotransmitters
Serotonin and Melatonin.
17. (b) There will be great reduction in the size
of a population because of a natural calamity,
this will greatly reduce genetic variability of
that population. In the remaining population
some genes are over presented, some are under
represented and some are eliminated.
18. (a) When a person views a far-away object, the
ciliary muscle relaxes and the lens flattens. This
helps in relieving eye strain by gazing into the
distance. Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
19. (b)Posterior pituitary secretes vasopressin which
stimulates resorption of water in the distal tubules
in the nephron.
20. (a) 21. (c)
22. (c)
23. (d) Discontinuing the progesterone will cause the
period to start. Progesterone plays a crucial role in
reproduction. First, it prepares the uterus for the
implantation of a fertilised egg. Without adequate
progesterone in the uterine wall, the egg cannot
attach itself and is expelled.
24. (d) Red muscle fibres are dark red in colour due
to presence of Myoglobin a red haemoprotein.
Biology Times February 18
Myoglobin binds and stores oxygen as
oxyhaemoglobin. Oxyhaemoglobin will release
oxygen for utilisation during muscle contraction.
Red muscle fibre is rich in mitochondria and it
carries out aerobic oxidation. Red muscle fibre
carries out sustained work at slow rate for a long
time.
25. (d) Pollen grains of many species can germinate
can not germinate on the stigma of a flower, but
only one pollen tube of the same species grows
into the style.
26. (d)The epiglottis is a flap that is made of elastic
cartilage tissue covered with a mucous membrane
attached to the entrance of the larnynx. It prevents
the entry of food into the larnyx and directs it to
the Oesophagus. Due to the improper movement
of epiglottis, one may suddenly start coughing
while swallowing some food.
27. (c) Walls of glomerular capillaries and Bowman’s
capsule are very thin and are semi-permeable due
to the presence of pores in the former and slit-
pores in the latter. They allow water and small
molecules in the blood to pass through them.
Fluid containing these materials is forced out
of the glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s
capsule by the high pressure of the blood in the
glomerular capillaries.
This pressure is about 70 mm Hg in man. The
fluid tends to move in the reverse direction due
to (i) the osmotic pressure of plasma proteins
in the glomerular capillaries and (ii) hydrostatic
pressure of the fluid in the urinary tubule. These
pressures in man are about 30 mm. Hg. and 20
mm. Hg. respectively. The net force moving the
fluid from the glomerular capillaries, called the
filtration pressure, is 70 – (30 + 20) or 20 mm. Hg.
28. (b)
29. (c) Plasma cells, also called plasma B cells,
plasmocytes, plasmacytes, or effector B
cells, are white blood cells that secrete large
volumes of antibodies. They are transported
by the blood plasma and the lymphatic system.
30. (a) Blood pressure gradually decreases from
the aorta to the large arteries, to arterioles, to
capillaries, then finally is the lowest in the veins.
31. (c) Haemophilia is an inherited genetic disorder
that impairs the body’s ability to make blood clots,
a process needed to stop bleeding. Hemophilia A
is the most common type of hemophilia, and it’s
caused by a deficiency in factor VIII. Thus, the
above Assertion is true but Reason is false.
55
Biology Times February 18

32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (a)
35. (c) Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra
Uterine Devices (IUDs) suppress sperm motility.
36. (c) A few animals excrete nitrogen that comes
from the metabolism of purines (e.g., adenine and
guanine). Purines can be broken down to ammonia
only if the animal has the specific enzymes. Most
animals excrete purine nitrogen as uric acid or as
one or more intermediate products.
37. (a)
38.(d) Bright’s disease is a historical classification of
kidney diseases that would be described in modern
medicine as acute or chronicnephritis. It was
characterised by edema, the presence of albumin
in the urine and was frequently accompanied by
high blood pressure (hypertension) and evidence
of heart disease.
39. (d) Prolonged thiamine deficiency in diet leads to
loss to muscle tone and damage to nerves.
40. (c) Secondary metabolites are typically organic
compounds produced through the modification
of primary metabolite synthases. Examples
of secondary metabolites with importance in
industrial microbiology include atropine and
antibiotics.
41. (a) The transition state is the transitory of
molecular structure in which the molecule is no
longer a substrate but not yet a product.
The substrate binds to the enzyme at its active
site forming an enzyme-substrate complex. This
complex formation is a transient and unstable
process and soon the product is formed at the
active site.
42. (c) About 7% of human sera in IgM. It is
the largest antibody with a molecular weight
9,00,000 daltons. It is the principal antibody of
primary antibody response. When B-lymphocytes
are stimulated, this antibody appear first.
43. (d)
44. (a) Order Physarales include Physarum species.
The fruiting bodies are characterised by the
presence of abundant amount of calcium salt.
Physarum polycephalum is the best known
organism.
45. (c) An elastic cartilage has matrix which is rich
in elastic fibres or yellow fibres. It provides
elasticity to the part in which it is present.

EVA AITS (NEET [ZOOLOGY] -10)

1. (d)
2. (d)
3. (c) The typhlosole is found in the intestine of
earthworms. It increases the absorptive surface of
the digestive tract.
4. (d) Hookworm is a triploblastic pseudocoelomate,
bilaterally symmetrical human parasite which is
oviparous.
5.(b)Dinoflagellates have 2 flagellas, one from
longitudinal direction and another from transverse
direction which provides it forward motion and
6. (c)
spin to the dinoflagellates.
7. (a) Members of Monera and Protista consists
of organisms which are photosynthetic (Even

56

heterotrophs also present). They have cellular body
organisation.
8. (c)
9. (b) Zoochlorellae often colour their hosts
green (e.g., green hydra and green Paramecium
bursaria).
10.(d) The testis of frog does not have interstitial cells.
11. (b)
12. (c) The correct route for passage of sperm in male
frog is from testes to Vasa- efferentia to kidney,
to Bidder’s canal, Urinogenital duct and later to
cloaca.
13. (a)
14. (a)
15. (d)Joints between humerus and radio-ulna is called
hinge joint. It is a type of synovial joint which
allows movement in one plane only.
16. (c)
17. (c)
18. (c)A= Retina –it contains the photoreceptors i.e.,
rods and cones.
19. (d) Hormones like cortisol, testosterone, estradiol,
progesterone are all steroid hormones which take
part in regulationof gene expression. Hence, they
can easily pass through the cell membrane of the
target cell and bind to a receptor inside the nucleus.
20. (b) Antibodies also called immunoglobulins
constitute the gamma globulin which are the part
of blood proteins. These are secreted by activated
B-cells or plasma cells.
21. (a)
22. (c) Lipid is formed when glycerol molecule
combines with fatty acid. Lipid is not a polymer
because it contains any one molecule. Proteins are
formed of units called amino acids. Polysaccharides
contains units of monosaccharides. Nucleic acids
is formed of nucleotides.
23. (b)
24. (d) X= 12 (ribs in human)
Y=7 ( true ribs)
There are 12 ribs in humans, among which first 7
are true ribs, which is attached to vertebral column
dorsally and ventrally to sternum.
25. (c) Mackerel is a marine fish rich in omega-3-fatty
acids.
26.(b) The wall of the capillaries consists of only
tunica internae which is made up of simple
squamous endothelium. The wall of alveoli is also
very thin consisting of squamous epithlium.
Biology Times February 18
27. (b) Blood comes to the kidneys from the abdominal
aorta and inferior vena cava, the large arteries
and veins that are part of the ascending aorta.
Oxygenated blood is brought to the kidneys from
a small branch called the renal artery.
The renal veins carry blood away from the kidneys.
28. (c) MTP or medically terminated pregnancy is done
in the first trimester and requires assistance of a
medical personnel.
29. (c) Transplantation technique is increasingly in use
today. Due to advances made in the field of surgery,
transplant of kidney and heart have become a
reality. But transplanted tissue or organ when its
immune action is triggered. To prevent rejection
of transplants immunosupressants are used.
30. (d) AV valve
31. (a) Blood Group ‘AB’ contains RBCs that have
both antigens ‘A’ and ‘B’ and thus it does not have
reactive antibodies in its plasma to these antigens.
32. (d)
33. (d) Petrovitch Pavlov in 1901 first demonstrated
the famous conditioned reflex”.
34. (c) Follicle stimulating hormone or FSH regulates
the production of sperms.
35. (b) Chlamydiasis is caused by Chlamydia
trachomatis of DEFGHIJK serotypes. Chlamydia
is an obligate intracellular pathogen. It causes
urethritis, epididymitis, mucopurulent, cervictis,
inflammation of fallopian tubes, proctitis (rectal
pain with mucus and occasional bleeding) etc. It
spreads by sexual contact with infected mating
partner.
36. (a) Pyelonephritis is an inflammation of the kidney
tissue, calyces and renal pelvis. It is commonly
caused by bacterial infection that has spread up the
urinary tract or travelled through the bloodstream to
the kidneys. In other words, pyelitis together with
nephritis is collectively known as pyelonephritis.
37. (c) Duodenum secretes hormone secretin.
38. (c) The plasma fluid that filters out from glomerular
capillaries into Bowman’s capsule of nephron is
called glomerular filtrate. A comparison of the
volume of the filtrate formed per day (180 L/day)
with that of the urine released (1.5L), suggests that
nearly 99% of the filtrate has to reabsorbed by the
renal tubules. This process is called reabsorption.
39. (b) The best-known component of gastric juice
is hydrochloric acid, the secretory product of the
parietal, or oxyntic cell.
57
Biology Times February 18

40. (d) The hydrolysis of Nucleic acid produces Phosphate group, pentose sugar (deoxy ribose or ribose) and
heterocyclic amines.
41. (a) Heat can be used to disrupt hydrogen bonds and non-polar hydrophobic interactions. The proteins in
eggs denature and coagulate during cooking.
42.(a)
43.(b) In saltatory conduction, the action potential essentially ‘jumps’ from one node to another as it travels
down the axon, whereas in fully non-myelinated axons, it travels smoothly from start to finish all the way
down the axon.
44. (d) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise various inorganic substances such as nitrates, nitrites and
ammonia and use the released energy for their ATP production.
45. (b) All the statements are regarding the bone tissue.

EVA AITS (NEET [BOTANY] -8)

and it reduces stem elongation, increased stem

1. (b) When two or more autonomous genes are
present on same or different chromosomes, they
combine to form a new expression and they are
called intergeneric cross.
2. (c) Drosera leaves are not reproductive in nature
but some species of Drosera can be propagated
by leaf cuttings.
3. (c) Reproductive structures of previous living
beings are not present in a primary succession
since primary succession occurs in an area where
no life existed previously.
4. (c) Two strands of DNA are anti-parallel each
other. Both the strands run parallel but in opposite
directions. One chain has polarity 5’g3’ whereas
other has 3’g5’. Both strands are complimentary
to each other, it means that both strands have
complimentary base pairs.
5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (a) A-Streptokinase, B-Removing oil stains and
C-Trichoderma polysporum.
8. (a) Photophosphorylation takes place during
daytime as the word ‘photo’ refers to light.
9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (a)
12. (b) Abcisic acid promotes abscission of leaves,
fruits and fruits, it induces abscission layer in
the petiole and pedicle results in abscission.
Ethylene is associated with triple response
thickening and horizontal growth habit. Auxin
induces differential growth in plant organs under
the influence of stimuli termed tropic response.
Cytokinine induces morphogenesis.
13. (b) Cyanophycean members contain Chlorophyll
a & b, carotenoids and xanthophylls as major
pigment and contains True starch and sugar as
reserve food material.
14. (a) The position of the gynoecium with respect
to the petals, sepals, and stamens on the floral
axis also characterises the flower. In hypogynous
flowers, the perianth and stamens are attached to
the receptacle below the gynoecium; the ovary is
superior to these organs, and the remaining floral
organs arise from below the point of origin of the
carpel.
15. (d) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle
poles and their identity is lost as discrete
elements, nuclear envelope assembles around
the chromosome clusters and nucleolus, golgi
complex and endoplasmic reticulum reforms in
the telophase stage.
16. (c) 17. (d)
18. (d)
19. (b) Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
in cytoplasm where most chemical reactions
takes place in a cell membrane that controls the
portion of substances inside and out of the cell, in
mitochondria - where greater energy is liberated
during respiration membrane.

58

20. (a) 21. (d)
22. Azolla-Anabaena association is of great
importance to agriculture. Anabaena azollae
resides in the leaf cavities of the fern Azolla
where it fixes nitrogen and increases the yield of
plants by 15-35% in rice fields.
23. (a) Anaphase I of meiosis: The homologous
chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids
remain associated at their centromeres.
24. (b)
25. (d) Bt toxin are solubilised in alkaline pH of the
insect gut causing death.
26. (a) Cauliflower plant commonly show whiptail
disease and the leaves finally become flaccid and
brown.
27. (b) The diagram is identified as heterophyll in
Buttercup.
28. (b) In alternation of generation, the gametophyte
undergoes syngamy to produce spore.
29. (b)
30. (d) Prophase – formation of cytoplasmic fibres
and proteins, Metaphase – arranged on equatorial
plane, Anaphase – arrangement of chromatids
on the poles, Telophase – nuclear membrane
and other organelles reorganise, Cytokinesis –
formation of syncytium. All of these events occur
in mitosis.
31. (a) The two empty boxes on the left would be
Aa and the other two on the right would be
aa. In simple words, 50% of the offsprings
are homozygous recessive (aa) and 50% are
heterozygous (Aa).
32. (c) In runner stem grows and spread on the
surface of soil. Roots are developed at lower
side and leaves from upper side from node. But
water hyacinth is a floating aquatic plant which
propagates by fleshy bulbs.
33. (b) The breakdown of detritus into smaller
particles by the earthworm is a process called
fragmentation. Others are performed by
heterotrophic microbes
34. (c) As the genetic code is universal it is possible
to produce human protein in bacteria by genetic
engineering. Due to the universality trait of
genetic code- a codon codes for the same amino
acid in all the organisms.
35. (c) DNA Polymerase has thermostable property.
Hence they are active at high temperature.
36. (b) Histogen theory for shoot apical meristem has
been proposed by Hanstein(1870). It advocates
that there are three distinct meristematic zones
Biology Times February 18
(layers) called dermatogen, periblem and
plerome. The dermatogen, periblem and plerome.
The dermatogen is the outermost histogen giving
rise to epidermis, periblem is the middle one
producing the cortex and plerome is the innermost
resulting in central cylinder. (i.e., vascular tissue).
Cork cambium (phellogen) is the secondary
lateral meristem found in outer cortical region. Its
cells divide periclinally cutting off cells towards
the outside (forming cork or phellem) and inside
(forming secondary cortex or phelloderm).
37. (b) Pencillin, Chloramphenicol, Tetracyclin
and Erythromycin is produced by Penicillium
chrysogenum, Streptomyces griseus,
Streptomyces aureofaciens and Streptomyces
erythreus respectively.
38.(d) The fixation of CO2 in C4 plants takes place
in two places and by two different organic
compounds, PEP is found in mesophyll cells
which primarily fixes atmospheric CO2 into
Oxaloacetic acid.
39. (d)
40. (a) Transgenic basmati rice contains β-carotene.
It is precursor of Vitamin A and also gives high
yield.
41. (c) Some of the non-leguminous plants also fix
nitrogen, Eg: Alnus plant to which Frankia is
involved in formation of nodule.
42. (a) Gibberellic acid is a simple weak acidic plant
growth hormone which promotes cell elongation
of leaves and stem and generally it is growth
promoter not inhibitor. It does not involve in
abscission.
43. (b) The tallest tree in gymnosperms is Sequoia
whereas in angiosperms it is Eucalyptus, wolffia
is the smallest flowering plant, a hydrophyte,
pteridophytes are seedless vascular cryptograms
and Macrocystis is the largest perennial algae.
44. (b) Condensation of DNA so that chromosomes
become visible and occurs during mid-prophase.
Nuclear membrane disassembly begins at late
prophase or transition to metaphase.
Arrangement of chromosomes at the equator
occurs during metaphase, called congression.
Centromere division or spiltting occurs during
anaphase forming daughter chromosomes.
45. (c) The genotype of self-fertilizing trihybrid
would be AaBbCc. It implies that eight different
types of gametes ABC, ABc, AbC, Abc, aBC,
aBc, abC, abc are formed. Therefore, the number
of zygotes would be 82 = 64.
59
Biology Times February 18
EVA AITS (NEET [BOTANY] -9)
1. (a) If a Rhwoman is married with a Rh+ man , she
becomes sterilised easily by carrying a Rh+ child
within her body.Though during development,
some cells from the embryo might get mixed
into her blood stream. Therefore, the first child
of the parents with such genetic history is almost
normal always and will survive.
2. (b)
3. (d) Microbodies are single membrane covered
small cell organelles which take part in oxidation
reactions other than those of respiration. They
are of different kinds that include Peroxisomes,
Glyoxysomes and Melanosomes.
4. (b) Predation is not a factor in which productivity
of an ecosystem depends. Predation is an
interaction where one animal which acts as a
predator will kill and consume another animal.
(prey)
5. (d) Meselson and Stahl in 1958 supported the
hypothesis that DNA replication was semi-
conservative. They proved this by using cultured
in E.coli in a cultural medium containing 15N
isotopes of heavy nitrogen. After the DNA
replication of E.coli for some generations in 15N
medium, it was found that both strands of DNA
had 15N as constituent of purines and pyrimidines.
Therefore, such DNA formed was found to be
hybrid as one strand which was made up of 15N
(old) and the other was made up of 14N (new).
6. (b) Taq Polymerase has thermostable property
as the bacteria from which it is extracted also
contains such property.
7. (d) Palisade tissue are elongated columnar cells
without intercellular spaces. These cells have
large number of chloroplasts. They take part in
photosynthesis.
8. (d) During cellulose fermentation by anaerobic
bacteria in rumen and reticulum, Cellulose is
mainly changed into Volatile fatty acid.
9. (c) Since Calvin cycle is a dark reaction and
oxygen is released during the light reaction.
60
10. (a) As the Earth is covered by 75% water hence
aquatic ecosystem is found to occur in the largest
surface area.
11. (d) 12. (b)
13. (b) Necrosis is the death of cells and tissues that
causes brown spots.
14. (c) Complete darkness shows etiolation.
15. (a) Gemma cups are found in Marchantia, a
bryophyte, it is cup-shaped structure specially
meant for vegetative propogation.
16. (d) Exine is made up of sporopollenin which is
derived from carotenoids.
17. (b) In Klienefelter’s syndrome (or 47, XXY),
there are some special symptoms which include
weaker muscles, greater height, poor coordination,
less body hair, smaller genitals, breast growth,
and less interest in sex. Such symptoms are
noticed only at puberty. The special feature of
this condition is the increase in size of male breast
tissue (like female breast development) and this is
termed as Gynecomastia which is a common
endocrine system disorder.
18. (d) Perennials survive for more than two years
and produce flowers and fruits during specific
seasons.
19. (a) Cristae are folded structures of the inner
membrane of mitochondria that create more space
to allow for a faster energy production.
20. (b) Statement D is wrong, Hydrosere is a biotic
succession that occurs in an aquatic habitat.
21. (b) A synthesised RNA transcript undergoes many
levels of processing called post transcriptional
modification in Eukaryotes. Taking an example
of mRNA, modification is important to convert
pre-mRNA into a mature mRNA which is ready
for protein translation. Splicing is one such
modification.

22. (d) Plasmids are extra chromosomal, self
replicating usually circular, double stranded
DNA molecules that serve as vectors which carry
foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the
host cell.
23. (d) In biocollateral vascular bundle, phloem is
found on both the sides of xylem.
24. (c) Cyclosporin A, an immunosuppressive agent
commercially obtained from Trichoderma
polysporum.
25. (d) Chemosynthetic bacteria are organisms that
use inorganic molecules as a source of energy and
convert them into organic substances.
26. (c)
27. (a) When a prokaryote (Bacteria ) is engineered to
express a gene from a plant (Eukaryote), a slightly
different approach is used. Eukaryotes genes
have exons and introns which are transcribed into
primary transcript. It is processed into splicing,
tailing, capping to produce functional mRNA’s.
This functional mRNA is then expressed into
proteins. Prokaryotes lack such machinery
and hence expression of eukaryotic DNA in
prokaryotic cells becomes difficult.
28. (c) Plant is taller and diffusion is a slow process
that cannot make the movement of molecules
from root to all parts of the plant.
29. (a) Ammonia is first oxidised to nitrite with the
help of the bacteria Nitrosomonas (Nitrococcus).
In the next step nitrite is oxidised to nitrate by the
influence of nitrobacter.
30. (c) Abciscic acid is present in chloroplasts and
takes part in degradation of carotenoids.
31. (a) Cycas and its relatives are endangered plants,
they are called as reptiles or pandas of plant
kingdom.
32. (b) In the legume seed, food is stored in
cotyledons. Legume vegetables have large,
relatively fragile seed. Food reserves are stored
in the pair of cotyledons, sometimes called as the
seed leaves.
33. (b) Some characteristic features are developed by
the interaction between two or more genes holding
different distinct locus received from different
parents. Such kind of genes are complementary
to each other, means if it is present alone they
remain unexpressed, but is expressible when they
are brought together with the help of relevant
Biology Times February 18
crossing. These genes are called complementary
genes. For example in Lathyrus odorantus
(sweet pea), both the genes C and P are needed
to incorporate anthocyanin pigment causing a
purple colour. But if any one gene is absent then
anthocyanin will not be produced causing white
flower production.
34. (a) Cucumber - Inferior ovary Cotton - Superior
ovary
Guava - Inferior ovary Peach - Half inferior ovary
35. (c) Fimbriae are known to help attach the bacteria
to rocks in streams and also to the host tissues.
36. (c) Lichens appear as the pioneer organisms on
a bare rock as they can tolerate desiccation and
extreme heating during summers and cooling
during winters. They can also erode the rock and
extract mineral nutrients and survive in extreme
conditions.
37. (c) Regulator genes, in Operon concept, are the
genes involved in controlling the expression of
one or more genes. Generally, regulator genes
code for repressor proteins, in prokaryotes.
38. (b) 39. (b)
40. (a) Streptomycin is an antibiotic used to treat
a number of bacterial infections. Spirulina
represents a biomass of cyanobacteria that can
be consumed as by humans and other animals as
single celled protein,
Rhizobium is symbiotic biofertilizer, Trichoderma
is plant biocontrol agent.
41. (a)
42. (c) Tropical forest occurs in Assam,Western ghats
and Western himalayas. Major vegetation made
of sal(Shorea robusta), shrubs, grasslands and
desert communities in the region of decreasing
rainfall.
43. (d) Barrel shaped endodermal cell have casperian
strip which contain deposition of suberin and
small amount of lignin which makes it water
impermeable.
44. (d) Capillarity force is mainly due to the small
diameter of the vessels and tracheids.
45. (b) Trait is X-linked recessive, female can be
carrier but male cannot. In the above illustration
‘C’ is a normal unaffected male with XY and ‘D’ is
a female carrier with one affected X chromosome
with genotype XXc.
61
Biology Times February 18

EVA AITS (NEET [BOTANY] -10)

14. (d) Phytochrome is a soluble chromoprotein with

molecular mass 250 kDa. Plant grows towards
sunlight because the red light from sun converts
the chromoprotein into the active form (Pfr),
1. (c) Anaphase I is the cytological event which
which triggers plant growth; plants in shade
corresponds to Mendel’s law of independent
show slow growth because the inactive form
assortment.
(Pr) is produced. If seeds sense light using the
2. (d) Compound corymb is also known as corymb.
phytochrome system they will germinate.
Here the main axis (peduncle) branches in a
15. (c) Spirogyra is an example for chorophyllous
corymbose manner and each branch bears flowers
thallophyte.
arranged in corymbs.
16. (b)
3. (c) Mitochondria is the common feature between
17. (d) When a gene masks the expression of another
plant and animals.
non-allelic gene, this effective gene is called
4. (d) 5. (c)
epistatic gene. And the interaction factor is known
6. (c) On Agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA
as epistatic factor
fragments can be separated and later can be
18. (a) A sheath-like structure found in a plant seed
visualised after staining with a compound known
that connects the coleoptile to the primary root
Ethidium bromide.
and acts as a protective covering enclosing the
7. (c) According to tunica corpus theory, Tunica
plumule and radicle.
is the outer consisting of meristems- peripheral
19. (a) Cell theory is not applicable for viruses. It
layers of cells, forming the outer region and
requires living host for its survival.
Corpus, the central undifferentiated multilayered
20. (c)
mass of cell.
21. (c) The transfer of information from RNA to DNA
8. (b) The center of flocs will become anoxic, which
or the reverse of normal transcription is known
would cause death of bacteria and eventually
as Reverse transcription. It occurs in retroviruses
breakage of flocs.
(HIV), eukaryotes etc.
9. (d) Depending upon their colour, plastids are
22. (a) Palindromic sequence are sequence of base
of three main types-leucoplasts, chromoplasts
pairs that reads same on the two strands when
and chloroplasts. All plastids are derived
orientation of reading is kept the same.
initially from small, undifferentiated plastids
23. (b) Vessels of xylem are devoid of nucleus.
termed proplastids, which are found in dividing
24. (b) Fungi is growing on potato dextrose agar
cells in meristems. During cell differentiation,
containing petriplate.
proplastids differentiate into particular plastid
25. (a) Electron transport chains are used for
types according to the type of cell in which they
extracting energy via redox reactions from
reside.
sunlight in photosynthesis or, such as in the case
10. (d) Aestivation is called as summer sleep, where
of the oxidation of sugars, cellular respiration.
the organisms undergo physiologically dormant
In eukaryotes, an important electron transport
state during summer.
chain is found in the inner mitochondrial
11. (a)
membrane where it serves as the site of oxidative
12. (a) Plasmolysis is the shrinkage of protoplasm
phosphorylation through the use of ATP synthase.
when a cell is kept in hypertonic solution. It
It is also found in the thylakoid membrane of
can be reversed by placing the cell in hypotonic
the chloroplast in photosynthetic eukaryotes. In
solution.
bacteria, the electron transport chain is located in
13. (c) Utricularia, Drosera and Dionea are also
their cell membrane.
known as bladderwort, sundew and venus flytrap
26.(d) The tropical rain forest are more diverse
respectively.
and highly densed with maximum productivity
(approximately 12000kcal/m2/yr).

62

27. (d)
28. (d) Stomatal opening is under the control of
turgor pressure of the guard cells. Turgor pressure
is controlled by the movement of minerals and
sugar molecules in the guard cells.
29. (c)
30. (b) Kurasawa was investigating the mechanism
by which the fungal pathogen Gibberela fujikorai
led the foolish seedling disease in rice plants
infected with this pathogen.
31. (c) Cycas show symbiotic association of nitrogen
fixing cyanobacteria in coralloid roots.
32. (d)
33. (c) Haemophilia is more commonly seen in
human females as this disease is caused because
of X-linked recessive mutation.
34. (d)
• A biennial is a plant that grows for two years
before setting its seed and then dying. In the first
year the plant grows a healthy root system, leaves
and a short stem before becoming dormant over
the winter months.
• In the second year the plant grows quickly before
flowering, setting seed and then dying.
• Some of the more common bienniels are
Foxgloves, Evening Primroses etc.
• A perennial is a plant that lives for more than two
years. The plant dies back each winter; however
the root system survives the winter months so
that the plant can regrow the following year.
Some more common plants in this group are
Lupins etc.
35. (c) Prophase I of meiosis. This is the complex and
longest phase. It is divided into five substages.
36. (d)
Biology Times February 18
37. (c) Gel electrophoresis is a technique generally
used in laboratories to separate charged molecules
such as DNA, RNA, and proteins according to
their size.
38. (c) Vector is a DNA molecule used as a vehicle to
artificially carry foreign genetic material into
another cell where it can be replicated or
expressed. Plasmid have that property and hence
it’s a vector.
39. (c) Stomata is an opening present in epidermal
region of leaf used for gas exchange.
40. (a) Methane is a major component of gobar gas.
41. (a) Plants capable of C4 photosynthesis carry on a
more efficient form of photosynthesis. For C4 type
plants, 1) the light saturation point is higher and
2) the light compensation point is lower than for
C3 plants.
42. (c) Deserts have very hot days and very cold
nights. Due to the bare plant cover, the soil of
desert is much more exposed to these fluctuations
as compared to that of other areas. During day
time the soil becomes hot and in night it frequently
becomes cool.
43. (c) Human insulin consists of two short
polypeptides chains linked together by disulphide
bridges.
44. (d) Water channel consists of eight different types
of aquaporins.
45. (c) In Mirabilis jalapa, hybrid between red and
white flowered plants produces pink flowers in
the F1 generation which is a fusion of red and
white condition. This result shows that both red
and white flowered condition is not dominant.
Therefore, it is due to incomplete dominance.
63
Biology Times February 18

64
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