AcEPT UGM
Belong to:
Uswah
1. Sebelum anda mendengarkan pernyataan dari tape recorder/suara narator, sebaiknya anda
melihat terlebih dahulu jawaban/pilihan A,B,C,D pada lembar soal.
2. Bacalah sepintas lalu (scanning) setiap kalimat pada pilihan A,B,C,D.
3. Perhatikan secara seksama, ada beberapa kata dari setiap pilihan A,B,C,D yang tulisannya
sama/diulang lebih dari satu kali.
4. Kata – kata yang diulang itu merupakan TOPIK PEMBICARAAN.
5. Arahkan/fokus pikiran anda pada topik itu.
6. Dengarkan pernyataan pada tape recorder/narator.
7. Ada kata/kelompok kata yg merupakan KATA KUNCI dari pernyataan narator.
8. Buatlah KESIMPULAN dari kata kunci itu/CARI KATA LAIN/PENRNYATAAN LAIN
yg mempunyai makna yang mirip/sama dengan kata kunci itu.
9. Kesimpulan/kata lain/pernyataan lain/sinonim dari kata kunci itu merupakan jawaban yg
benar.
1. The assignment is due the day after tomorrow. No extension will be given for this.
Dari contoh di atas, dapat kita simpulkan bahwa topik dari pernyataan narrator adalah
tentang ASSIGNMENT. Perhatikan kata assignment pada pilihan B dan C diulang dua kali.
KATA KUNCI pada pernyataan narrator adalah assignment (tugas), due (jatuh tempo) the
day after tomorrow, No extension (tdk ada perpanjangan waktu). Maka pilihan yang paling
tepat adalah (D) It’s better for you to complete the task right away.
Alasannya, kata “assignment” (tugas) pada pernyataan narrator mempunyai makna yg
sama dengan “task” (tugas) pada pilihan (D). Selain itu, kelompok kata “due the day after
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tomorrow” dan “No extension” dapat kita simpulkan dgn pernyataan lain yakni “It’s better
for you to complete the task right away” (sebaiknya dikerjakan sekarang).
Tips ini berlaku untuk Tes AcEPT Part 1 Listening Comprehension (NOMOR 1 – 10).
Mudah – mudahan tips saya ini dapat bermanfaat bagi teman – teman semua. Tips yang lain
akan saya bahas dilain kesempatan.
Section A
Directions : In this section, you will hear 10 short statements. The statements will be
spoken just once. They will not be written out for you, and you must listen carefully in order
to understand what the speaker says.
When you hear a statement, you will have a period of 15 to 20 seconds to read the four
sentences in your test book and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you
have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your
answer by drawing with a pencil a short bar across the corresponding letter in the brackets.
Sentence [B] “He used to live in Beijing” is closest in meaning to the statement “He is no
longer living in Beijing.” Therefore you should choose answer [B].
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LANGKAH – LANGKAHNYA:
Pada contoh di atas kita mendengarkan sebuah pernyataan pendek yakni “He is no longer
living in Beijing (Dia tidak lagi tinggal di Beijing). Pada pilihannya terdapat hanya satu
pernyataan yang memiliki makna yang sama dengan pernyataan pada soal yakni [B] He
used to live in Beijing (yang artinya, dulu dia tinggal di Beijing dan sekarang tidak).
Kunci untuk memilih jawaban yang tepat pada Listening bagian pertama adalah memilih
sinonim/memilih pernyataan yang memiliki makna yang sama/mirip dengan
pernyataan pada soal.
1.
2.
3.
3
[D] He is with her.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
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[D] The shoemaker wore sandals.
9.
[B] We are going to have a party when the house has been painted.
10.
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PART II
Soal AcEPT UGM Vocabulary Test
Bagian kedua tes AcEPT, yakni Vocabulary menguji pengetahuan Anda tentang
kosakata bahasa Inggris yang lazim digunakan dalam dunia akademik. Bagian tes yang diberi
label nama Vocabulary ini dibagi ke dalam dua bagian, yakni Bagian A dan Bagian B.
Bagian A menguji kemampuan Anda menggunakan kosakata dalam konteks bacaan, berupa
Cloze Test; sementara Bagian B menguji kemampuan Anda tentang pasangan kata dalam
konteks kalimat (ko-lokasi).
Pada tes bagian A Anda akan diberi paparan teks bacaan yang di dalamnya terdapat
bagian yang dihilangkan, dan tugas Anda adalah memilih opsi yang paling tepat (A, B,C, atau
D) untuk bisa mengisi bagian kosong dalam bacaan tersebut. Sementara pada bagian B Anda
akan diuji memilih kata yang secara tepat mengisi pasangan kata lainnya yang telah diberi
garis bawah.
For questions 1 – 15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each
blank space in the text.
This research aims at (1) ——- the correlation between the time spent between children and
parents and the choice of the language made by the children in their daily interaction with the
neighboring children in a multicultural community. The major source of (2) ———– is the
longitudinal report of the language use between the family in their daily interaction from
2005 – 2010. Etc
1.
A. knowing
B.comprehending
C.admitting
D. investigating
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2. A. knowledge
B. supply
C. data
D. entry
2. Almost everybody takes a very strong interest —— her method of raising her rowdy
children.
A. in
B. with
C. on
D. at
Perhatikan bahwa semua kata yang disediakan sebagai pilihan jawaban pada contoh
soal nomor 1, merupakan kata kerja berbentuk –ing. Ini berarti, dari segi gramatika, semua
pilihan ini tidak perlu dipersoalkan. Artinya, untuk mengerjakan soal jenis ini, Anda tidak
dapat menggunakan analisis gramatika sebagai strategi Anda untuk mengatasi persoalan ini.
Yang harus Anda lakukan untuk mengatasi soal-soal seperti ini adalah analisis ‘semantik’
(analisis makna) dengan membaca teks secara cepat tapi hati-hati, dan mempertimbangkan
konteks yang ada. Amat disarankan, Anda seintensif mungkin membaca artikel-artikel ilmiah
yang ditulis dalam jurnal internasional berbahasa Inggris seraya mempelajari kata-kata yang
biasa digunakan dalam penulisan tersebut. Pertimbangannya adalah karena materi tes ini amat
bernuansa akademik dan lebih banyak berkiblat ke artikel-artikel jurnal seperti itu sehingga
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peserta yang terbiasa dengan bacaan jurnal-jurnal internasional kemungkinan besar akan
terbantu dengan ‘famililiaritas’ yang bersangkutan dengan kata-kata yang lazim dipakai
dalam penulisan jurnal.
Dalam contoh latihan di atas, nuansa ilmiah tergambar dalam pilihan-pilihan kata yang
digunakan dalam teks tersebut. Perhatikan bagian berikut:
Kata-kata yang mengawali teks di atas, yakni mengarahkan pembaca pada pilihan kata-
kata tertentu lainnya yang lazim digunakan dalam laporan penelitian. Dengan melihat bagian
lanjutan dari kalimat tersebut, yakni :
seorang peserta tes akan dapat memilih kata yang secara tepat konteks mengisi
kekosongan yang ada pada bagian kalimat tersebut. Tentu, bagi yang terbiasa menulis atau
membaca laporan penelitian atau jurnal ilmiah internasional, kata-kata yang dapat masuk
dalam slot kalimat di atas sudah dapat diprediksi. Bagi peserta tes yang tidak memiliki
pengalaman sama sekali dalam hal membaca jurnal-jurnal berbahasa Inggris, disarankan
untuk mempelajari karakter penulisan jurnal ilmiah berbahasa Inggris. Ini adalah sisi positif
dari tes ini; kita dapat belajar untuk persiapan tes AcEPT sekaligus belajar mengenal atau
bahkan menulis teks-teks ilmiah berbahasa Inggris.
Untuk contoh soal nomor 1, pilihan yang secara tepat mengisi bagian kosong pada soal
nomor 1 adalah D. investigating. Alasannya pilihan kata ini secara kontekstual paling tepat
mengisi bagian yang kosong tersebut. Agar kita mampu secara tepat memilih opsi, kita harus
mengenal betul kata-kata yang lazim digunakan dalam konteks bernuansa akademik. Peserta
tes dapat pula mencermati hubungan antar kata dalam kalimat yang didalamnya terkandung
kata yang dipersoalkan, seraya memastikan maksud penulis teks tersebut.
Dari konteks yang ada, jika kita menghubungkan bagian-bagian yang bergaris bawah,
yakni source dan the longitudinal report, kita dapat meyakini bahwa kata yang tepat mengisi
bagian kosong tersebut adalah kata data. Kata-kata (pilihan) yang lain seperti (A) knowledge,
(B) supply, dan (D) entry tidak memenuhi keserasian konteks.
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CARA YANG LAZIM DIGUNAKAN UNTUK MENGERJAKAN SOAL BAGIAN B
Apabila dicermati, soal Vocabulary bagian B tampak jelas menguji kemampuan peserta
tes menghubungkan satu kata yang tersedia dalam pilihan A, B, C, atau D dengan kata yang
bergaris bawah. Inilah yang disebut COLLOCATION atau kolokasi. Kolokasi adalah
sepasang kata atau kelompok kata yang saling sesuai satu sama lain karena kecocokan kata
dengan pasangan kata tersebut. Beberapa kolokasi merupakan pasangan kata yang ‘fixed’ tak
bisa diganggu gugat; beberapa lainnya terbuka dengan pasangan lain yang jumlahnya
terbatas.
Satu-satunya kata kerja yang dapat mendampingi kata ‘photo’ adalah kata ‘take’. Kita bisa
mengatakan bahwa kata ‘photo’ berkolokasi dengan kata ‘take’. Tidak ada kata lain yang
bisa masuk mengganti sebuah kata dalam ‘hubungan intim’ kedua kata tersebut (lihat
McCharty and O’Dell, 2000).
Contoh di atas menunjukkan bahwa frasa the rule dapat berkolokasi dengan kata keep
atau stick.
Kata-kata yang berkolokasi tidak dapat dipaksa untuk bisa dipasangkan dengan kata-kata lain
yang tidak berkolokasi. Perhatikan bahwa kata ‘fast’ dalam frasa “fast food” tidak bisa
diganti dengan kata ‘quick’ untuk membentuk frasa “quick food”. Frasa ‘quick food’ tidak
bisa diterima dalam kontruksi frasa bahasa Inggris karena kedua kata yang membangun frasa
tersebut tidak berkolokasi. Sebaliknya, kata ‘quick’ dalam frasa ‘quick glance’ tidak bisa
diganti dengan kata ‘fast’ untuk membentuk frasa ‘fast glance’. Frasa ‘fast glance tidak dapat
diterima dalam konsttruksi frasa bahasa Inggris karena kedua kata yang membangun frasa
tersebut tidak berkolokasi.
1. Mr. Young looked at my first two printouts and ———– to the conclusion that I was
arguing for Method A. In reality though, I think Method B is better.
A. jumped
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B. ran
C. drew
D. pulled
Yang diberi garis bawah dalam kalimat soal adalah frasa to the conclusion. Kata yang
berkolokasi dengan frasa tersebut adalah (A). jumped, sehingga keduanya jika dihubungkan
akan membentuk frasa jumped to the conclusion. Kata-kata yang lain seperti (B) ran, (C)
drew, atau (D) pulled tidak ada yang berkolokasi dengan frasa to the conclusion. Kita tidak
bisa mengatakan (B) ran to the conclusion, (C) drew to the conclusion, atau pun (D) pulled
to the conclusion.
Kata yang bergaris bawah dalam kalimat tersebut adalah interest. Kata tersebut berkolokasi
dengan kata in. Jadi jawaban yang terpat untuk contoh soal nomor 2 adalah (A) in. Dalam
bahasa Indonesia orang bisa mengatakan “Saya tertarik dengan pilihannya. Sekalipun
demikian, saat kita menterjemahkan kaliamat tersebut ke dalam bahasa Inggris, kita tidak bisa
mengatakan I am interested with her choice karena kata interested tidak berkolokasi dengan
kata with. Kalimat di atas bisa kita terjemahkan menjadi I am interested in her choice.
Untuk meningkatkan kemampuan memasangkan kata dalam ‘kolokasi’ diperlukan
pengetahuan memadai tentang kata-kata yang berkolokasi. Cara yang dapat digunakan untuk
meningkatkan pengetahuan kolokasi ini adalah dengan cara (1) membaca teks berbahasa
Inggris seintensif mungkin, yakni dengan memperhatikan kata-kata yang digunakan dalam
teks bacaan; atau (2) mempelajari/menghafal kata-kata yang berkolokasi dalam buku-buku
Vocabulary yang membahas kolokasi.
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Latihan Soal AcEPT UGM (Part II. Vocabulary)
A. For questions 1 – 15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each
Text 1
The shark has senses specially (1)_____ the animal's life underwater. Smell is a shark's most
acute sense. Approximately 70 percent of the shark's brain is used for smelling functions.
Experiments have shown that sharks can detect prey (2)_____ by smell, and the hungrier the
Sharks are sensitive to light and can detect certain objects even in murky water. Some have a
mirror-like layer under the retina that reflects incoming light and increases the (3)_____ light
Sharks can also sense electric and magnetic fields. Sensory pores located on the shark's head
can detect a prey's bioelectric field (4)_____ if the prey is buried in sand. A shark can also
detect the Earth's magnetic field. Open-ocean sharks may use this information to (5)_____ and
orient themselves.
2. A. timidly C. solely
B. hardly D. disorderly
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3. A. prominence of C. odor of
B. disposal of D. amount of
4. A. even C. however
B. as D. even though
5. A.sink C. crawl
B. navigate D. thrust
Kunci Jawaban:
B. Choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D that best collocates (combines) with each of the
1. In medieval days, entire communities united to build churches that would not only glorify
A. for C. to
B. on D. in
2. Accounting information can be classified ........ two categories: financial accounting and
managerial accounting.
A. to C. by
B. into D. on
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3. Amelia Earhart was greatly interested ........ the development of commercial aviation and
A. in C. with
B. at D. about
4. Since independence, African governments have tried to diversify their exports so their
A. in C. at
B. with D. on
5. Physical anthropologists often rely ........ rigorous medical scientific methods for their
A. above C. on
B. under D. with
Kunci Jawaban:
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PART III
Soal AcEPT UGM Grammar and Structure: Cloze Test
Untuk soal nomor 16 – 25, pilihlah kata atau frasa pada pilihan A, B, C, dan D yang
secara tepat melengkapi bagian-bagian yang kosong dalam teks bacaan.
A cloze test (also cloze deletion test) is an exercise, test, or assessment consisting of a
portion of text with certain words removed (cloze text), where the participant is asked to
replace the missing words. Cloze tests require the ability to understand context and
vocabulary in order to identify the correct words or type of words that belong in the deleted
passages of a text. This exercise is commonly administered for the assessment of native and
second language learning and instruction.
Site activity information. We keep {1}______ of some of the actions {2}______ take on
Facebook, such as {3}______ connections (including joining a group {4}______ adding a
friend), creating a {5}______ album, sending a gift, poking {6}______ user, indicating you
“like” a {7}______, attending an event, or connecting {8}______ an application. In some
cases {9}______ are also taking an action {10}______ you provide information or content
{11}______ us. For example, if you {12}______ a video, in addition to {13}______ the
actual content you uploaded, {14}______ might log the fact that {15}______ shared it.
{8} with
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Exercise:
The strict version of the test requires that students provide the correct term for each blank,
while a looser version has also been used that accepts “partially correct” answers, such as
those that are the correct part of speech (verb, noun, pronoun, etc.). These answers indicate
that students are learning the syntactic rules of language, but are as yet unable to translate
these into a semantic comprehension of the text.
To jump to a scene, click __on__ Henry’s shirt pocket. The note pad appears. Then, click on
the options tab. The options page appears. Then, click on the arrows on the right and left side
of the scene pictured near the bottom of the page to flip through the scenes. When you find
the scene you want, click the picture to go there.
Henry’s friend Ginger has a useful item that will help you pinpoint the number of jellybeans
in Mr. Sherman’s jar. It is called the solution tester, and Ginger will let you use it whenever
you would like. You have to find some clues to put into the solution tester before you use it.
Ginger hangs out in Henry’s tree house, where she works on her own guesses for the
Jellybean Contest. You can get to the tree house using Henry’s note pad. Go to the options
page and click on the tree house.
Bentuk soal seperti ini artinya peserta disuruh/diminta untuk melengkapi kalimat
selanjutnya yang sesuai atau cocok dengan konteks kalimat yang berada pada soal. Atau
denga kata lain, peserta diminta untuk melengkapi kalimat pada soal tes dengan pilihan kata
atau frasa (A,B,C,D) yang nyambung dengan kalimat asli pada soal. Bentuk soal seperti ini
pada umumnya sulit karena peserta harus mempunyai perbendaharaan kata/vocabulary yang
cukup banyak. Namun peserta bisa menebak kata atau frasa (yang paling relevan maknanya)
yang berada pada pilihan A, B, C, D.
Misalnya:
A person who feels persecuted in his/her home country may apply for political_________ .
A.appellation
B.appraisal
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C.asylum
D. ascendance
A. panggilan
B. penilaian
C. suaka
D. kenaikan
Jawaban yang tepat adalah “C” yakni “asylum” atau “suaka“. Kata asylum memiliki makna
yag sangat relevan dengan kalimat pada soal yaitu political asylum (suaka politik).
A. Sentence Completion
Choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the following sentences.
2. Lillian D. Wald, public health nurse and __________, was born in Cincinnati Ohio, in 1867.
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(B) social reformer
Institution.
4. __________irritating effect on humans, the use of phenol as a general antiseptic has been
largely discontinued.
(A) Its
or desirable.
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(B) a profit-making organization which
B. Cloze Test
Choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each blank space in the text.
Text 1
When he was 21 years old, Thomas Edison (1)_____ his first patent. It was for an electric vote
counter (2)_____ in the United States House of Representatives. The machine worked perfectly,
but the congressmen (3)_____ it. They did not want vote counting to be done quickly.
This experience (4)_____ the young inventor a lesson. He decided to follow a simple rule: “First, be
B. used D. to be used
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3. A. not buy C. had not buy
5. A. is wanted C. wanted
C. Error Identification
1. It is supposed [A] that early people got fire accidentally [B] from trees set ablaze by lightning or
from spouting volcanoes. Then they [C] carefully kept them [D] burning in huts or caves.
2. Too much [A] electric current may flow [B] into a circuit as a result either of a fault [C] in the
3. The Appalachian Trail, extending [A] approximately 2,020 miles [B] from Maine to Georgia, is
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the longer [C] continuous [D]marked footpath in the world.
4. In his speech, Abraham Lincoln spoke [A] about “government of the people, by the people, and
for the people.” This [B] phrases imply [C] that government was operated for the good of [D] all
citizens.
5. For years, elephants were hunted [A] for food and ivory, and as a result theirs [B] numbers [C]
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PART IV
Soal AcEPT UGM Reading Comprehension Test
Tes Reading Comprehension dalam tes AcEPT memiliki kesamaan dengan tes TOEFL
sekaligus juga perbedaan. Kesamaan kedua tes ini terletak pada tren soal dan tingkat
kesulitannya; sementara perbedaannya terletak pada orientasi bacaan. Jika teks bacaan dalam
tes TOEFL lebih menitikberatkan pada informasi yang condong ke Amerika dan Kanada,
maka AcEPT lebih bersifat global, yakni dapat berisi informasi tentang hal-hal yang
berhubungan dengan Amerika, Kanada, Inggris, Australia, Asia, ataupun Afrika.
Tes Reading Comprehension dalam AcEPT berisi 40 butir pertanyaan dengan waktu
pengerjaan 40 menit. Waktu yang terbatas ini harus digunakan untuk membaca empat buah
teks akademik dari disiplin ilmu yang berbeda-beda yang masing-masing tersusun atas 400 –
500 kata. Setiap teks bacaan diikuti oleh 10 butir pertanyaan. Gambaran ini menunjukkan
betapa perlunya seorang calon peserta tes mempersiapkan langkah-langkah taktis untuk
mengerjakan Reading Comprehension ini.
Jika Anda ingin sukses mengerjakan bagian ini maka Anda harus mengetahui ‘Rahasia’
Reading Comprehension. Pada bagian ini anda akan ditunjukkan rahasianya, yakni ‘apa yang
diujikan’ dan ‘bagaimana mempersiapkan diri menghadapi tes ini’.
Tidak banyak orang tahu bahwa tes Reading Comprehension, entah itu tes TOEFL, EPT,
ataupun AcEPT sebenarnya mengujikan hal yang tidak jauh berbeda, yakni tentang simpul-
simpul penting dalam sebuah teks bacaan. Jadi sekalipun teks bacaan yang harus Anda hadapi
tidak sesuai dengan bidang Anda, tidak ada alasan bagi Anda untuk menyerah saat
menghadapi tes ini. Yang Anda perlukan adalah mengetahui simpul-simpul bacaan.
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4 Inference Questions
5 Reference Questions
6 Paragraph Organizations Questions
7 Analogy Questions
8 Viewpoint Questions
Sebelum Anda mengikuti tes AcEPT yang sebenarnya alangkah baiknya Anda
mempersiapkan diri dengan sebaik-baiknya karena tes AcEPT ini memiliki tingkat kesulitan
tinggi. Persiapan yang terlalu singkat tidak akan membuahkan hasil optimal. Saran ini tidak
hanya berlaku untuk tes AcEPT tapi untuk semua tes bahasa Inggris yang Anda hadapi.
LATIHAN-1 READING
READING TEXT
Choose the best answer to each question based on the information which is stated or implied
in the text.
At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar
is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language’s creation, documenting its
emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to
earlier languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually
formed, the researcher needs to observe how languages are started from scratch. Amazingly,
however, this is possible.
Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time,
slaves from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer’s
rule. Since they had no opportunity to learn each other’s languages, they developed a make-
shift language called a pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the
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landowner. They have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a
listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom. [A] Speakers need
to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. [B] Interestingly, however,
all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children to be
exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. [C] Slave children did not
simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a
new, expressive language. [D] Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are
termed creoles, and they are invented by children.
Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages
are not simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found
in spoken languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The
creation of one such language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all
deaf people were isolated from each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools
for the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip reading in the classroom, in the
playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using the gestures that they used at
home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs differently, and there was no
consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school later, when this inventive sign
system was already around, developed a quite different sign language. Although it was based
on the signs of the older children, the younger children’s language was more fluid and
compact, and it utilised a large range of grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is
more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A new creole was born.
Some linguists believe that many of the world’s most established languages were creoles at
first. The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb ‘do’. ‘It
ended’mayonce have been’It end-did’. Therefore it would appear that even the most
widespread languages were partly created by children. Children appear to have innate
grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they are first trying to
make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical, complex
structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.
1 In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language?
(A) To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures.
(B) To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar.
(C) To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.
(D) To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language.
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(C) It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.
(D) It was created by the land-owners.
3 All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT:
(A) The language has been created since 1979.
(B) The language is based on speech and lip reading.
(C) The language incorporates signs which children used at home.
(D) The language was perfected by younger children.
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(C) Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that contain
a little.
(D) The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.
8 All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT:
(A) All children used the same gestures to show meaning.
(B) The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.
(C) The hand movements were smoother and smaller.
(D) New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.
10 Look at the word ‘consistent’ in paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced by which
of the following?
(A) natural
(B) predictable
(C) imaginable
(D) uniform
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Latihan Soal AcEPT UGM (Part IV. Reading Comprehension)
The planet Mars has always captured the human imagination. There is its redness. We know
now that the color comes from chemical reactions that long ago locked up Mars's oxygen in
reddish minerals on its surface, causing the "rusting" of the planet. To the ancient people, the
red color meant only one thing: blood. From the earliest times, Mars has been associated with
bloodshed. Even the astronomical symbol for Mars, a circle with an arrow pointing at 2 o'clock,
As astronomers used telescopes, Mars mythology grew. It was the Italian astronomer Giovanni
Schiaparelli who, in 1877, produced the most lasting bit of Martian folklore. He saw what he
took to be long, thin, unnaturally straight lines on the Martian surface. He called them canali, a
word that can translate into English either as "channels" or "canals." Unfortunately, the latter
translation was used, and the canals of Mars were born. Of course, if there were canals, there
had to be canal builders, so once more Mars was peopled with all manner of intelligent life
forms!
In 1965 Mariner 4 sent back first close-up pictures of the Martian surface. Not only were there
no canals, but Mariner 4 and the spacecraft that followed revealed a planet that was a
cratered, lifeless desert. We have subsequently learned that Mars is home to Olympus Mons,
the largest volcano in the entire solar system, and to a canyon system stretching for almost
3,000 miles around the Martian equator. The atmosphere is extremely thin (equivalent to that
at 130,000 feet above Earth) and made up almost entirely of carbon dioxide. The surface is
cold, almost never getting above freezing even at the summertime equator.
Perhaps the greatest surprise were the photographs from Mariner 9 in 1971 and 1972 that
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showed channels on the surface. Now these were not Schiaparelli's canali there's, no way
these channels could be seen by even the most powerful earthbound telescope. They are
unmistakable water courses, however. There is no water in them now, but they trace out the
path of water that flowed in the past. They are like the dry river of the American West, through
which water from rain flows, but which are dry most of the time. Water once ran on the surface
of Mars.
New explorations on Mars by the spacecraft Pathfinder, due to arrive on the planet's surface in
1997, are planned to give scientists more information about possible past life on Mars. One of
Pathfinder's missions will be to lay the foundation for future efforts to find fossil remains of
living things. The landing site for the Mars Pathfinder is going to be the mouth of a flood
2. Which of the following have NOT been a source of information about Mars?
(A) Spacecraft
(B) Telescopes
(C) Conjecture
(D) Astronauts
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3. The phrase "the latter" in line 21 refers to
(A) canals
(B) canali
(C) channels
4. Where in the passage does the author give information about the topography of Mars?
(A) expensive
(B) dominant
(C) influential
(D) strong
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6. According to the passage, the redness of Mars is a result of
Kunci Jawaban
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PART V
Soal AcEPT UGM Composing Skill
Composing Skills merupakan salah satu bagian penting tes AcEPT karena kemampuan
mengerjakan bagian ini akan memberikan gambaran kepada peserta tes tentang potensi
kemampuan menulis dalam bahasa Inggris, dan secara pragmatis, kemampuan mengerjakan
bagian ini akan memberikan kontribusi signifikan dalam scoring. Agar peserta tes dapat
mengantisipasi soal Composing Skills, berikut digambarkan tentang apa yang diujikan dalam
Composing Skill dan bagaimana mempersiapkan diri menghadapi tes ini.
Composing Skills mengujikan kemampuan menyusun kalimat dalam bahasa Inggris. Yang
harus diperhatikan peserta tes dalam uji kemampuan ini adalah:
(1) bagaimana kalimat itu tersusun, dan (2) bagaimana kalimat-kalimat itu disusun menjadi
sebuah paragraf. Secara kongkrit, Composing Skills mengujikan hal-hal yang berhubungan
dengan:
[B] membetulkan atau mengedit bagian yang secara gramatik dianggap error (editing),
[C] menentukan konstruksi kalimat yang berterima (correct sentences), [D] menyusun
kalimat secara logis (logical order), dan
[E] menyusun paragraf dengan cara mengurutkan kalimat-kalimat yang disediakan secara
acak (jumbled sentences).
Agar Anda tahu apa yang harus Anda lakuka untuk soal jenis ini, pelajari instruksi soal
untuk bagian A ini sebagaimana tertulis berikut ini:
Numbers 1 – 10 contain complete and correct sentences. For each number, you are required
to choose the most appropriate paraphrased sentence closest in meaning to the original one.
Soal nomor 1 – 10 berisi kalimat yang telah lengkap dan benar. Untuk masing-masing nomor
Anda diminta memilih parafrasa kalimat A, B, C, dan D yang paling dekat artinya dengan
kalimat asal.
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Contoh soal:
1. Fredy has decided to quit her job. I have to turn in his room key.
(A) Fredy, who turned in his room key, has decided to quit his job.
(B) Fredy, whose room key I have to turn in, has decided to quit her job.
(C) Fredy, who had turned in his room key, decided to quit his job.
(D) Fredy, whose room key I have to turn it, he has decided to quit his job.
(A) The snapping turtle, is believed by many to be an aggressive animal, is actually quite
docile.
(B) The snapping turtle, which is believed by many to be an aggressive animal, which is
actually quite docile.
(C) The snapping turtle, believed by many to be an aggressive animal, is actually quite
docile.
(D) The snapping turtle, which is believed by many to be an aggressive animal, actually quite
docile.
Yang harus Anda lakukan untuk mengerjakan soal jenis ini adalah dengan mengubah
kalimat sedemikian rupa (dalam pikiran Anda) sehingga kalimat itu dapat berubah menjadi
kalimat lain yang susunan katanya berbeda tetapi memiliki makna yang sama. Itu tugas berat
yang harus dilakukan peserta tes; namun tugas berat ini telah diperingan dengan adanya
pilihan-pilihan jawaban yang sudah disediakan, sehingga Anda cukup melihat mana kalimat
yang ditawarkan dalam opsi jawaban itu yang memiliki makna sama dengan kalimat soal,
dengan struktur gramatika yang berterima dalam bahasa Inggris.
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Latihan Soal AcEPT UGM (Part V. Composing Skills)
In this section of the test, you are required to demonstrate your ability to paraphrase sentences
and to recognize language that is not appropriate for standard written English. There are five
parts to this section, with special direction for each part.
A. Numbers 1 – 10 contain complete and correct sentences. For each number, you are required
to choose the most appropriate paraphrased sentence closest in meaning to the original one.
1. There are probably more than 10 billion trees under cultivation on the coffee plantations of the
world.
(A) More than 10 billion people cultivated coffee in plantation around the world.
(B) May be more than 10 billion trees are cultivated on the coffee plantations in the world.
(C) More than 10 billion coffee trees in the world are planted under supervision.
(D) Cultivating more than 10 billion trees on the coffee plantation is probably not an easy thing to
do.
2. Some 20 years after the end of World War I, lingering disputes erupted in an even larger and
bloodier conflict—World War II.
(A) 20 years since the end of World War I, a volcano erupted and became an even larger and
bloodier disaster like the World War II.
(B) New disputes erupted in an even larger and bloodier conflict during World War I although the
World War II also broke for 20 years.
(C) Many 20-year conflicts may cause lingering disputes that will erupt in an even larger and
bloodier war such as World War I.
(D) Around 20 years after World War I ended, the remaining conflict became an even more
massive and worse war, namely World War II.
3. Representative democracy was practiced in the countries in Europe, where the great number
of citizens made it impossible for all of them to meet in one place.
(A) Because the great number of citizens made it impossible for all of them to gather in a single
area, then Representative democracy is neither a practical nor best choice for countries in
Europe.
(B) Because the great number of citizens made it impossible for all of them to meet in one place,
Representative democracy was only suitable for the countries in Europe.
(C) Because the large number of people in the countries made it impossible for the entire of them
to gather in an area, Representative democracy was adopted in the countries in Europe.
(D) Representative democracy was practical for the European countries because the great
number of citizens made it possible for all of them to meet in one place.
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Soal-soal nomor lainnya ada disini!
B. Numbers 11 – 20 contain incorrect sentences. The incorrect part of the sentence has been
identified for you. You are required to find the correct option to replace the underlined part.
4. Warner Brothers became knows for its tightly budgeted, technically competent entertainment
films.
A. was knowing C. to knowing
B. known D. had known
6. The size of Tyrannosaurus’ forelimbs have puzzling paleontologists, who have tried to
determine their use for such a powerful animal.
A. puzzle C. has puzzled
B. had been puzzling D. puzzled
7. A. The first scientist to recognize and use the power of the lever was Archimedes.
B. The first scientist to recognized and used the power of the lever was Archimedes.
C. The first scientist recognized and used the power of the lever were Archimedes.
D. The first scientist recognizes and uses the power of the lever was Archimedes.
8. A. The most used system commonly of writing by and for blind persons is Braille called.
B. The most commonly used system of writing by and for persons blind is called Braille.
C. The most used system commonly of is writing by and for persons blind is called Braille.
D. The most commonly used system of writing by and for blind persons is called Braille.
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9. A. Although cholera is usually not life-threatening, the symptoms produces it can extremely
uncomfortable.
B. Although cholera is usually not life-threatening, the symptoms it produces can be extreme
uncomfortable.
C. Although cholera is usually not life-threatening, the symptoms it produces can be extremely
uncomfortable.
D. Although cholera is usually not life-threatening, the symptoms produces it can be extremely
uncomfortable.
10.
1. If an object held near the surface of the earth is released, it will fall and accelerate, or pick up
speed, as it descends.
2. The weight of an object is equal to the mass of the object multiplied by the acceleration due to
gravity.
3. The force of gravity on an object is also called the object's weight.
4. This acceleration is caused by gravity, the force of attraction between the object and the earth.
5. This force depends on the object's mass, or the amount of matter in the object.
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5
11.
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12.
1. Pregnancy starts when a male’s sperm fertilizes a female’s ovum, and the fertilized ovum
implants in the lining of the uterus.
2. By the 12th week of pregnancy many of these symptoms have subsided, but others appear.
3. Some women also experience cravings for unusual substances such as ice, clay, or
cornstarch; this condition, called pica, can indicate a dietary deficiency in iron or other nutrients.
4. Other symptoms include breast tenderness and swelling, fatigue, nausea or sensitivity to
smells, increased frequency of urination, mood swings, and weight gain.
5. Because pregnancy changes a woman’s normal hormone patterns, one of the first signs of
pregnancy is a missed menstrual period.
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5
E. Numbers 37 – 40 contain jumbled sentences. You are required to identify the correct order to
form a good paragraph.
13.
1. Thorough chewing cuts food into small pieces that are more easily attacked by the saliva,
which moistens the food so it can be swallowed easily.
2. Digestion begins in the mouth, where the food is cut and chopped by the teeth.
3. From the mouth the food is swallowed into the tubelike esophagus, or gullet.
4. The saliva also contains the enzyme amylase, which changes some starches into simple
sugars .
5. The tongue helps mix the food particles with a digestive juice called saliva, which is secreted
by glands in the mouth.
A. 2-3-1-4-5 C. 2-5-1-4-3
B. 2-5-4-3-1 D. 2-3-5-1-4
14. 1. As it lays the eggs, it may or may not fertilize them with sperm from its sperm sac.
2. The female eggs develop into fertile queens, sterile workers, or soldiers.
3. Most of the ants in a colony are workers.
4. A queen ant digs a hole where it lays its eggs and waits until the first ants emerge.
5. Fertilized eggs result in females, while unfertilized eggs produce males.
A. 4-1-5-2-3 C. 4-5-2-3-1
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B. 4-3-5-2-1 D. 4-2-1-5-3
15. 1. The exercise which involve physical effort such as walking, swimming, bicycling, and
jogging is known as active exercise.
2. It includes many physical therapy techniques.
3. Physical training of the human body to improve the way it functions is known as exercise.
4. On the other hand, the exercise which involves a machine or the action of other people is
called passive exercise.
5. The exercise can be categorized as either active or passive.
A. 3-2-1-4-5 C. 3-1-4-2-5
B. 3-5-2-4-1 D. 3-5-1-4-2
Kunci Jawaban:
1.B 9.B
2.D 10.B
3.C 11.D
4.B 12.A
5.A 13.A
6.C 14.D
7.D 15.B
8.C
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Soal ACEPT UGM Composing Skill
Jumbled Sentences
Soal nomor 37 – 40 berisi kalimat-kalimat yang tidak disusun dengan urutan yang logis.
Anda diminta untuk memilih opsi yang menujukkan urutan kalimat logis yang membentuk
paragraph.
Exercise 1
Look at the following text about growing cotton in India. The paragraphs have not been
printed in the correct order. Arrange the paragraphs in the correct order. Remember that the
topic of one paragraph should follow logically from the topic of the last paragraph and should
lead on to the topic of the next paragraph.
(A) Most of the farmers are extremely poor. Attracted by cheap loans from pesticides traders
and the prospect of a quick buck, they borrowed heavily to raise cotton on small plots of land.
(B) According to the Ministry of Agriculture, the crop losses and destruction in Andhra
Pradesh arose from the repeated application of excessive amounts of chemicals – a practice
actively encouraged by pesticides traders.
(C) The suicide of Samala Mallaiah in Nagara village grabbed media headlines. He owned
one acre of land, leased two more and grew cotton on all three. After making a loss in the
first year, he leased yet more land in an attempt to recover. Confronted with falling prices,
mounting debts and pest attacks, he committed harakiri. ‘Cotton has given us shattered
dreams,’ said one old farmer in Nagara village.
(D) As many as 60,000 small farmers in the region of Andhra Pradesh, southern India, have
taken to farming cotton instead of food crops. Some 20 of them have recently committed
suicide by eating lethal doses of pesticide.
(E) Whitefly, boll weevils and caterpillars multiplied and destroyed their crops, despite the
constant application of pesticides. The average yield of cotton fields in Andhra Pradesh fell
by more than half in just one year. Now the farmers are in no position to repay the loans or
feed their families.
(F) Nearly half the pesticides used in India go into protecting cotton, the most important
commercial crop in the country. However, pests have shown increased immunity to a range
of pesticides. Last year there were heavy crop losses due to leaf-curl, which is caused by the
dreaded whitefly. This nondescript, milky-white fly sucks sap from the cotton leaves, making
them curl and dry up. The fly struck first in Pakistan and north-western India. Then it turned
south.
A) A C F E B D B) D A E C F B C) E A C F B D D) C D A E F B E) B D A C F E
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Paragraphs – answers (berikut adalah urutan kronologis bacaan yang benar)
As many as 60,000 small farmers in the region of Andhra Pradesh, southern India, have taken
to farming cotton instead of food crops. Some 20 of them have recently committed suicide by
eating lethal doses of pesticide.
Most of the farmers are extremely poor. Attracted by cheap loans from pesticides traders and
the prospect of a quick buck, they borrowed heavily to raise cotton on small plots of land.
Whitefly, boll weevils and caterpillars multiplied and destroyed their crops, despite the
constant application of pesticides. The average yield of cotton fields in Andhra Pradesh fell
by more than half in just one year. Now the farmers are in no position to repay the loans or
feed their families.
The suicide of Samala Mallaiah in Nagara village grabbed media headlines. He owned one
acre of land, leased two more and grew cotton on all three. After making a loss in the first
year, he leased yet more land in an attempt to recover. Confronted with falling prices,
mounting debts and pest attacks, he committed harakiri. ‘Cotton has given us shattered
dreams,’ said one old farmer in Nagara village.
Nearly half the pesticides used in India go into protecting cotton, the most important
commercial crop in the country. However, pests have shown increased immunity to a range
of pesticides. Last year there were heavy crop losses due to leaf-curl, which is caused by the
dreaded whitefly. This nondescript, milky-white fly sucks sap from the cotton leaves, making
them curl and dry up. The fly struck first in Pakistan and north-western India. Then it turned
south.
According to the Ministry of Agriculture, the crop losses and destruction in Andhra Padresh
arose from the repeated application of excessive amounts of chemicals – a practice actively
encouraged by pesticides traders.
38