REVIEWER CWE 2 a.

Shade (color)
translucency qualities
1. This is done when obtaining the respiratory
of the ofof the oof
rate of the patient
Of the esthetic veneer would be
a. The patient is asked to exhale several
unacceptable
times
b. The ceramic veneer
b. The patient is confirmed that the
would fracture as a
respiratory rate is being measured and
result of insufficient
asked to breathe normally.
porcelain bulk
c. The patent is not informed that the
c. The ceramic veneer
respiratory rate is being measured to
would fracture as a
avoid false results.
result of the
d. The stethoscope is used to get the
insufficient support
repertory rate.
from underlying metal
2. One way to localizing an impacted 23 is to
d. Any of the above are
perform two radiographic exposures. To the
correct.
first exposure, periapical bitewing or
5. In a completed monoplane denture
panoramic techniques may be done. The
arrangement,
second exposure is an occlusal projection.
a. Maxillary anterior
What is this technique?
teeth may exhibit a
a. Tube- shift method
small degree of
b. Clark’s technique
vertical overlap in
c. Sandwich technique
relation to the
d. Right angle technique
mandibular anterior
3. A proper treatment sequence would include
teeth when an
the following to what order?
orthognathic ridge
1 – complete diagnosis and treatment plan relationship exists.
b. The degree of
2 – control of pain horizontal overlap of
3 – prophylaxis and home care instructions maxiallary posterior
teeth to mandibular
4 – temporization of deep carious lesion teeth must be small
regardless of ridge
5 – restorations placed
relationship
a. 1,2,3,4,5 c. Central fossae areas of
b. 2.4,1,3,5 maxillary molars are
c. 3,2,1,4,5 always aligned over
d. 2,3,4,1,5 the mandibular crest
4. Under- reduction of the labial/buccal wall of of the ridge line
a porcelain-fused-metal preparation would d. Inadequate buccal
result in an inferior retainer because overlap of maxillary
posterior teeth in
 relation to mandibular b. Tooth 16
posterior teeth may c. Tooth 26
result to cheek biting d. Tooth 37
6. A high survey line that allows placement of 10. In a radiograph, the alveolar bone proper is
the retentive terminus of a clasp until on represented by:
the gingival 1/3 of the abutment tooth a. Periodontal space
indicated that b. Lamina dura
a. The angle of cervical c. Lamina cribiformis
convergence is small d. Periodontal ligaments
b. The angle of cervical 11. A class 2 MO in a maxillary first molar is
convergence is small prepared for amalgam. The rubber dam is in
c. The abutment tooth place. During the preparation, a mechanical
be reconstructed exposure occurs. The best procedure is to
d. Clasp design of choice a. Cauterize the exposure
is bar clasp with silver nitrate
7. Prior to obturation, gutta percha is b. Treat the exposure
immersed in ____ for disinfection with formocresol
a. 2% sodium c. Extirpate the pulp
hypochlorite for 15 d. Place calcium
minutes hydroxide
b. 5.25% sodium 12. Tooth 1_ ready for obturation when,
hypochlorite for 30 EXCEPT
seconds a. Tooth is asymptomatic
c. 10% sodium b. Pericapical
hypochlorite for 5 radiolucency has
seconds disappeared
d. 5.25% sodium c. Absence of sinus tract
hypochlorite for 1 d. Canal is reasonably dry
minute 13. Insufficient freeway space is most likely to
8. Why advise the patient “DO NOT DISTURB cause
THE WOUND”? a. Shortening of the face
a. Might induce bleeding b. Ridge resorption
b. Might cause infection c. Elongated face
c. May stimulate d. Poor esthetic
salivation 14. The following are true regarding minor
d. May dislodge suture connector design, except,
9. If the patient has cellulitis on the upper a. Must be rigid
portion of the cheek of the right side of the b. Must engage an
face secondary to acute dentoalveolar undercut low on the
abscess which of the following teeth with tooth
extensive caries is the probable cause? c. Present minimal
a. Tooth 46 interface to the tongue
 d. Should cover the
minimum of gingival
tissue possible.
15. A teenager has been referred for diagnosis
of _ tooth with decay cavity lesion prior to
restoration. Results from the diagnostic test
are as follows: Thermal/EPT: Mild to
moderate transient response; degree of
awareness of slight pain subsides almost
immediately after removal of stimulus;
Percussion: negative (-); radiograph, clearly
delineated root canal; negative resorption;
intact lamina dura. What is your pulpal
diagnosis?
a. Necrotic pulp
b. Acute apical
periodontitis
c. Symptomatic
irreversible pulpitis
d. Reversible pulpitis
16. The forcep that is used to elevate or luxate
and extract a single tooth
a. Cowhorn forceps
b. Ronguer
c. Bayonet forceps
d. Elevators
17. What is the normal range for the pulse
rate?
a. 50-100 bpm
b. 60-80 bpm
c. 16-20 bpm
d. 10-20 bpm
18. Following the ADA recommendation of
labial mounting / reading techniqur, the
radiographs corresponding to the left side
of the mouth is place on this side of the
mount.
a. Left side is viewed as if
facing the patient
b. Right side and viewed
as if facing the patient
c. Left side and viewed
looking from the
lingual aspect of the
teeth
d. Right side and viewed
looking from the
lingual aspect of the
teeth
19. In a fairly large buccal cavity in a
mandibular first premolar, the axial wall
should be
a. Flat bucco-lingualy
b. Concave mesio-distally
c. Convex mesiodistally
d. Convex bucco-lingualy
20. Occlusal reduction for the buccally titled
mandibular first molar with a good contact
with opposing upper molar is about
a. 1 mm
b. 2.5mm
c. 2 mm
d. 3 mm
21. Which of the following may compromise
complete denture retention and stability?
a. Wide buccal shelf in
mandibular arch
b. Long gentle slope of
palate
c. High v shaped palatal
vault
d. Absence of well-
defined mylohyoid
ridge
22. When surveying a diagnostic cast, the
selection of a suitable antero-posterior tilt
is to
a. Indicate the greatest
available support for
the denture
b. Provide relative
parallelism among
 proximal tooth
surfaces
c. Provide suitable
reciprocation for
retentive clasp arms
d. Eliminates soft tissue
undercuts in the
retromylohyoid areas
23. A tapered and pointed instrument intended
to laterally place gutta percha for insertion
ofaccessory gutta percha cones
a. Plugger
b. Spreader
c. Peso reamer
d. Barbed broach
24. The type of suture mostly for single tooth
extraction with socket intact
a. Interrupted suture
b. Uninterrupted suture
c. Mattress suture
d. Figure of 8
25. A 15 year old patient has a class 2 lesion.
There are no missing teeth. Oral hygiene
and occlusion are good. The cavity 27. This is done to determine whetehr the
preparation can be limited to the proximal
areas if
a. Facial and lingual CSM
can be extended on
self-cleansing areas
b. Carious lesion does not
undermine the
marginal ridges
c. Caries does not
undermine the
marginal ridge
d. Lesion is incipient
where a microsurgical
procedure can be done
26. When obtaining the pulse rate using the
wrist of the patient, which of the following
is applicable?
a. Use the stethoscope,
place is over the wrist
and count for one full
minute or thirty
seconds (to be
multiplied by 2)
b. Palpate the radial
artery at the wrist
(side of the thumb)
and measure for one
full minute or thirty
seconds (multiply the
reading by 2)
c. Palpate the radial
artery at the wrist
(side of the little
finger)
d. Palpate the radial
artery at the wrist
(side of the little
finger) and measure
for 10 seconds then
multiply by 6
periapcial radiolucencies of mandibular
incisors of a middle age female patient is
due to chronic periapical inflammation or
the first stage of periapical cemental
dysplasia
a. Perform percussion
test, the teeth in
cemental dysplasia are
tender to percussion
b. Check vitality of the
teeth, the teeth in
cemental dysplasia is
vital
c. Perform trans
illumination, light may
be reflected in the
alveolar areas due to
 resorption in cemental
dysplasia
d. Aspirate the fluid in
the periapex of the
affected teeth and
perform culture test to
check for the
microorganism causing
the cemental dysplasia
28. A patient complains of sensitivity a few days
after cementation of a fixed partial denture
with polycarboxylate cement. Hat is most
likely cause?
a. Irritation from the
cement
b. …. Retainer
c. Premature occlusion
d. An open margin
29. Which of the following combinations of
artificial teeth should not be used in
complete maxillary and mandibular
dentures?
a. Anterior – plastic,
posterior – porcelain
b. Anterio – porcelain,
posterior – plastic
c. Anterior – plastic,
posterior – plastic
d. Anterior – porcelain,
posterior – porcelain
30. All of the following statements related to
RPI clasp assembly are false except
a. Proper depth of rest
seat may require and
amalagam or a direct
filling gold restoration
b. Box – like rest seat is
desirable to promote
stability of prosthesis
c. Rest may be placed on
the distal aspect of
occlusal surface
d. Contact between the
mesial connector and
adjacent tooth is
desirable
31. A false negative (-) reading of pulp to an
electric pulp tester means that the pulp is
a. Non – vital
b. Vital
c. Vital but patient is
unresponsive to
electric pulp tester
d. Non – vital but patient
is responsive to
electric pulp tester.
32. The instrument used to grasp delicate
gingival tissues to prevent from damaging
a. Mosquitic
b. Tissue forcep
c. Hemostat
d. All of the above
33. A reddish cauliflower-like growth of pulp
tissue through and around a carious
exposure which is due to chronic irritation
occurring in young pulp
a. Reversible pulpitis
b. Chronic hyperplastic
pulpitis
c. Necrotic pulp
d. Pulp polyp
34. When the images, are elongated on the first
exposure, this can be corrected on the
second exposure by
a. Increasing the vertical
angulation
b. Placing the central ray
perpendicular to the
curvature of the arch
c. Decreasing the vertical
angulation
d. B and C
35. Approximately 1 month, following the
placement of a large mesio-occluso-distal
 amalagam with deep proximal boxes, the
patient experiences definite pain in the
region of the tooth. The probable cause for
the pain is
a. Moisture
contamination of the
amalagam causing
delayed expansion
b. An undetected
exposure of pulp horn
c. An open contact due
to faulty matrix
application
d. Gingival excess
36. Aesthetics is an important consideration
when deciding betweenfixed or a
removable partial denture for which of the
following?
a. Kennedy class I
b. Kennedy class II
c. Kennedy class III
d. Kennedy class IV
37. To improve the accuracy of the rubber base
impression the following are done, except
a. Impression material is
injected into the sulcus
area
b. Area is kept free of
moisture and debris
c. Loaded tray is seated
first from posterior
and then seated
forward
d. Tray is removed slowly
after impression is
completed
38. Before relieving an area of the denture base
which appears to be related to an area of
mucosal irritation
a. Be certain that the
patient has worn the
denture because the
irritation could be due
to trauma from hard
food
b. Determine the precise
area of the base to be
relieved by using
disclosing material
c. Examine occlusion
since occlusal
discrepancies may
cause tissue irritation
d. Remove dentures and
apply topical
anesthetic ointment
39. The most acceptable method to achieve
adequate root canal debridement is to
a. Obtain clean shavings
of the canal
b. Achieve glassy smooth
walls of canal
c. Attain a clean
irrigating solutions
d. None of the above
40. Why advice the patient, “DO NOT SMOKE
FOR 12 HOURS”?
a. May cause irritation
b. Might delayed healing
c. Might cause infections
d. May induce bleeding
41. This is the formulation of a strategy to solve
the dental problems of the patient
a. Diagnosis
b. Treatment plan
c. Case analysis
d. Prognosis
42. In evaluating bone resorption, which type of
radiograph is better to use?
a. A radiograph with high
contrast
b. A radiograph with
increased density
 c. A radiograph with
short scale of contrast
d. A radiograph with low
contrast
43. Which of the following factors is of great
importance in selecting a restorative
material for class 5 on the facial surface of a
mandibular premolar?
a. Reaction of gingival
tissue
b. Ease of manipulation
c. Resistance to stress
d. Esthetics
44. While processing denture base, internal
porosities are likely to occur because of,
except,
a. Sudden increase in
temperature
b. Failure to put
separating medium
c. Too rapid heating
d. Lack of packing
pressure
45. As part of the preliminary oral rehabilitative
phase of removable partial denture
therapy, an isolated lower second premolar
should ideally be
a. Extracted
b. Used for support only
c. Used as preliminary
abutment
d. Splinted to a canine
with a fixed prosthesis
46. For posterior abutments with acceptable
crown to root ratios, average crown length
and normal esthetic requirements, the
retainer of choice is a:
a. All porcelain crown
b. Partial veneer crown
c. Ceramic bounded to
metal crown
d. All metal crown
47. The minimum required thickness of the
Cavit as inter- appointment temporary seal
to ensure proper seal and fracture
resistance
a. 3 mm
b. 2 mm
c. 1 mm
d. 1.5 mm
48. Suturing is ideally done by
a. Suturing the attached
to the unattached
b. Labiolingual when
working on the
mandible
c. Suturing the
unattached to the
attached
d. Suturing the thicker to
the thinner tissue
49. Which of the following the most common
error in recording blood pressure?
a. Applying the blood
pressure cuff toot
tightly
b. Applying the blood
pressure cuff too
loosely
c. Overinflating the blood
pressure cuff
d. Under-inflating the
blood pressure cuff
50. A radiograph shows the proximal areas of
the mandibular incisors are overlapping.
Clinically, there is no overlapping of the
teeth. Which of the following caused the
overlapping of the contact areas?
a. Excessive vertical
angulation
b. Inadequate vertical
angulation
c. Incorrect horizontal
angulation
 d. Incorrect positioning
of the mandibular arch
51. If following placement of a metallic
restoration, the tooth remains sensitive to
heat, cold and pressure after occlusal
adjustment, the dentist should
a. Remove the
restoration and place a
sedative temporary
restoration
b. Initiate endodontic
therapy
c. Grind the opposing 55. An electric pulp tester elicits a response at
tooth to free it from
any occlusal contact
d. Tell the patient to put
up with the discomfort
and it will eventually
go away
52. The preformed crown is reseated 56. What is the logical treatment of an infected
repeatedly to the prepared tooth during
relining
a. To prevent excessive
monomer in irritating
the gingiva
b. To prevent excessive
resin from setting into
the proximal 57. In a patient with good oral hygiene and no
undercuts
c. To avoid
contamination of the
resin to saliva
d. To prevent excessive
heat to build up that
can be detrimental to 58. Routine radiographic examination revealed
the pulp
53. Borders of major connector adjacent to
gingival crevices should be no closer than
a. 10 mm
b. 7-10 mm
c. 4-6mm
d. 2-3 mm
54. The following are used as basis when
registering centric relation except
a. Occlusion of upper and
lower occlusion rims at
correct vertical
relation
b. Position of the condyle
in the glenoid fossa
c. Location of the
articular disk
d. Condylar inclination
with the disk
higher current than normal if the tooth
being tested has
a. Acute pulpitis
b. Chronic pulpitis
c. Hyperemia
d. Pus-filled canal
tooth indicated for extraction?
a. Anti-biotic treatment
then extraction
b. Try RCT first before
extraction
c. Immediate extraction
d. Elevate then extract
periodontal involvement, how far will be
the alveolar crest from the CEJ?
a. Greater than 2.5 mm
b. 0.5 – 1. 0 mm
c. 1.0 – 1.5 mm
d. 1.5 – 2.5 mm
a radiopaque area at approximately the
bifurcation area of the tooth 37. The
radiograph processed very well and there is
no exposure error. Clinical examination
revealed no visible pathology on the tooth.
What do you think is this?
a. Cementicle
 b. Denticle
c. Enamel pearl
d. Pulp stone
59. When a calcium hydroxide is used in a
dentin ledge to be restored with amalgam,
a cavity varnish should be applied ____ of
calcium hydroxide
a. Prior to placement
b. Before and after 63. What is the best emergency management
placement
c. After placement
d. No reason to apply
cavity varnish
60. When recording the orientation relation,
the condyle rods of the fascie type of the
facebow are approximately: 64. Which of the following is the target when
a. Below the orbit
b. ½ inch in front of the
opening of the ear
along the Frankfort
plane
c. ½ mm in front of the
opening of the ear
along the Frankfort
plane
d. At the maxillary
occlusion rim
61. Indication excess pressure on the basal
seats by the denture base may be best
determined at the initial placement 65. What is the normal range of the pulse rate
appointment by
a. Use of PIP
b. Using indelible pencil
marks
c. Using occlusion wax 66. A patient needs periapical radiographic
d. Tissue irritation areas
62. What is the complication that may happen
if inter-abutment alignment is not
maintained?
a. May cause sensitivity
of the prepared tooth
b. Impingement of the
gingival tissue
c. Inaccuracy of the
master cast which may
necessitate redoing of
the final impression
d. May cause pain upon
function
reversible pulpitis?
a. Prescribe analgesics
b. Completely remove
pulp
c. Sedate pulp
d. Adjust occlusion
performing the Gow-Gates Technique?
a. Medial aspect of the
mandible
approximating the
lingual
b. Retromolar triangle
after palpating the soft
tissue
c. Sigmoid notch coming
from the contralateral
side
d. Lateral side of the
condylar neck
a. 50 -100 bpm
b. 60-80 bpm
c. 16- 20 bpm
d. 10-20 bpm
examination of tooth 34 where is the
placement of the film if the patient has
mandibular torus?
a. Film is placed between
the torus and the
tongue
 b. Film is placed on top of
the torus
c. Film is placed on top of
the tongue
d. Periapical exposure is
not possible, it is
better to perform
occlusal technique
67. The pulpal wall of the disto-lingual cavity
prep slopes as it terminates axially. The
main purpose of this is
a. Pulp protection
b. To make a deeper
cavity for retention
c. To make a deeper
cavity for resistance
d. Extension for
prevention
68. The ideal crown restoration for an RPD
abutment can be carved to satisfy all
requirments of support, stabilization and
retention without compromise except for
esthetics if:
a. ½ crown
b. Full cast crown
c. Porcelain veneer
d. Inlay
69. What is the usually recommended
sequence for the extractions?
a. Mandibular teeth
before maxillary teeth
and posterior before
anterior
b. Mandibular teeth
before maxillary teeth
and anterior before
posterior
c. Maxillary teeth before
mandibular teeth and
anterior before
posterior
d. Maxillary teeth before
mandibular teeth and
posterior before
anterior
70. What is likely to produce fracture in an
anterior porcelain pontic facing?
a. Great vertical overlap
of teeth
b. Detrimental chewing
habits
c. Incorrect design of
cast backing
d. Incorrect selection of
facing type
71. This test allows the clinician to determine
pulp vitality when all the diagnostic
methods failed, sensitivity or pain to this
test is an indication of pulp vitality?
a. Test cavity
b. Electric pulp test
c. Percussion test
d. Selective anesthesia
72. After doing mandibular block, patient
shows difficulty in closing the eyelid and the
side of injection. This could be probably
caused by
a. Anesthesia of the
motor branch of
mandibular nerve
b. Anesthesia of facial
nerve within parotid
gland
c. Allergic response to
anesthetic
d. Low injection site
73. A patient who is under care of a physician
for hypertension will undergo restorative
procedure on proximal caries of tooth 17.
The following precautionary measures
should be observed during the treatment
except,
 a. Monitor the blood 76. Double pour technique for cast and die
pressure
b. Reduce stress and
anxiety during the
procedure
c. Avoid using retraction
cord containing
epinephrine
d. Treat the patient as a
normal patient since
he/she is under the
care of a physician 77. What pulpal or periapical diagnosis may be
74. Preformed crown used in condensing class
IV cavities is provided with a vent to
a. Provide an exit for an
excess composite
b. Having a good
proximal contour
c. Prevent cervical
overhang
d. Prevent underfeeding 78. The following are criteria pertinent to the
75. A 52 year old woman requests removal of a
painful mandibular 2nd molar. Her medical
history is unremarkable, except that she
takes 20mg prednisone daily for erythema
multiforme. How do you treat this patient?
a. Have patient
discontinue the
prednisone for 2 days
prior to the extraction
b. Give steroid
supplementation and
remove the tooth with
local anesthesia and
sedation
c. Instruct the patient to 79. Which of the following is not valid criterion
take 3g of amoxicillin
one hour prior to
extraction
d. No special treatment is
necessary prior to
extraction
fabrication
a. Provides a second cast
for checking occlusal
relationship
b. Provides a removable
die to facilitate waxing
c. Facilitates mounting
on articulator
d. Assures greater
accuracy
treated in a single visit?
a. Symptomatic
irreversible pulpitis
b. Symptomatic apical
periodontitis
c. Chronic apical
periodontitis
d. Acute apical absecess
fabrication of an acceptable temporary
record base except
a. It must be constructed
on a final cast
b. It must be constructed
on a preliminary cast
to preserve the
accuracy of the final
cast
c. Its construction must
include the entire
vestibular fold portion
of the cast
d. Either a or b
of incisal rest design?
a. The deepest portion
(mesio distally) is
toward the center of
the tooth
 b. Sharp line angles are
desirable
c. Contact area is not
involved in the
preparation
d. Small bevels are
placed labially and
lingually
80. During dental extraction, the ____ could be
placed into the maxillary sinus
a. Buccal root of 2nd
premolar
b. Palatal root of 2nd
molar
c. Palatal root of 1st
molar
d. Mesiobuccal root of 1st
molar
81. Flash removal to the finish line is required
to
a. Prevent overextended
margin that cause
tissue recession
b. Prevent premature
contacts that cause
sensitivity to the tooth
c. Prevent resin from
setting into undercuts
d. Prevent damage to the
pulp
82. When the vertical dimension of occlusion is
evaluated for the edentulous patient at the
occlusion resin stage of denture
construction, the vertical dimension of rest
a. Should be equal to the
vertical dimension of
occlusion
b. May exceed the
vertical dimension of
occlusion if aesthetics
are enhanced
c. Is of little significance
and the evaluation of
the vertical dimension
of occlusion because it
is subject to variation
d. Must always be
greater than the
vertical dimension of
occlusion
83. While taking a radiographic exposure, you
did not place the central beam on the film
in the patient’s mouth. What will show on
the resulting film?
a. Fore shortening
b. Overlapping
c. Cone cut
d. Elongation
84. The obturation technique can be used in
most clinical situations and provides for
length control during compaction. A
disadvantage is that it may not fill canal
irregularities as well as other techniques
a. Warm vertical
compaction
b. Thermoplastic
technique
c. Cold lateral
compaction
d. Single cone technique
85. A primary factor in developing the outline
form for a composite resin restoration on
the proximal surface of an anterior tooth is
the
a. Position of the contact
b. Relationship of the
adjacent tooth
c. Aesthetics required
d. Extent of caries
involvement
86. A patient presents with a periapical abscess
of maxillary 2nd molar. Despite giving PSAN
and MSAN block and palatine injection pain
 is still experienced while attempting to
extract the tooth. What is the probable
cause for the pain?
a. Injections should have
been supplemented
with infraorbital block
b. The pH of the abscess
prevented adequate
anesthesia
c. Higher concentration 90. Undercuts in cavity preparation are created
of vasoconstrictor
should have been used
d. Injections should have
been supplemented
with sedation
87. The first radiographic evidence of apical
pathology following acute pulpitis is
a. Rarefaction of alveolar 91. Which of the following maxillary partial
bone
b. Inflammation of
periodontal tissues
c. Condensation of
alveolar bone
d. Thickening of
periodontal space
88. A mesio-occlusal rest is provided on a
terminal abutment of a distal extension
base rpd as part of direct retainer for the
following reason/s
a. Easier to prepare 92. A patient presents with localized, fluctuant
b. Aesthetically more
acceptable
c. More of the residual
ridge is utilized for
support
d. All of the above
89. Master cone is
a. The gutta percha size
equal to or larger than
the IAF 93. The diagnostic procedure is performed to
b. Size of gutta percha
which has resistance
to removal or tug back
c. Size of gutta percha
which reaches the
working length and has
tug back
d. Always the same size
as IAF
in
a. Dentin only
b. Enamel only
c. Both enamel and
dentin
d. Enamel, dentin and
cementum
edentulous arches does not generally
require record bases and occlusion reams
(or framework) for an accurate face bow
record
a. Kennedy class I
modification 1
b. Kennedy class II
c. Kennedy class III
modification 1
d. Kennedy class II
modification 2
swelling associated with tooth 28. Patient
complains of extreme pain on biting. You
open the tooth and establish good
drainage. You should also consider
a. Prescribing saline rinse
b. Relieving occlusion
c. Incising and draining
soft tissue
d. All of the above
facilitate the examination of tooth’s
proximal surfaces.
94. When recording the orientation relation,
the condyle rods of the fascia type of face
bow are approximately
a. Below the orbit
b. ½ inch in fornt of the
opening of the ear
along the Frankfort
plane
c. ½ mm in front of the
opening of the ear
along the Frankfort
plane
d. At the maxillary
occlusion rim
95. A patient with serious infection of dental
origin has eyelid and periorbital ___, ptosis
and paresis of the 3rd, 4th and 5th cranial
nerves. A differential diagnosis must include
a. Superior temporal
space infection
b. Ludwig’s infection
c. Cavernous sinus
thrombosis
d. Maxillary sinusitis
96. You have completed all the biomechanical
preparation of the root canal of 11. The
patient returns in 24 hours with severe pain
to biting on 11. You open the tooth and
upon taking radiograph, you find that your
final file size (#55) is right at the
radiographic apex. What should you do?
a. Enlarge the canal 1 or
2 sizes, irrigate and
close tooth
b. Enlarge canal 2 or 3
sizes to remove any
pulpal remnants
c. Decrease working
length , open irrigate
and close the tooth,
reduce the occlusion
and prescribe
analgesics
d. Open tooth for
drainage and leave
open
97. A 50 year old man has a maxillary 2nd molar
as the only remaining posterior tooth on
that side and has served as an abutment.
Extracting this tooth requires caution to
prevent
a. The patient’s
swallowing the tooth
b. Removing the floor of
the maxillary sinus
with the tooth
c. Pushing palatal root
into the nasal cavity
d. Post-operative ostelitis
98. The tentative midline on the maxillary
occasion rim can be determined by
a. Referring to the
midline of the nose
b. Extending a vertical
line from the lingual
frenum to the
occlusion rim
c. Projecting a line from
the midline of the
uvula through the
middle of the anterior
nasal spine onto
maxillary occlusion rim
d. Bisecting the face with
an imaginary line and
projecting it onto
maxillary occlusion
rim.
99. The instrument used to remove bone or to
reshape bone if needed after extraction?
a. Bone file
b. bone ronguers
c. forceps
 d. all of the above

100. These are the vital signs that should be

observed and recorded during thorough
examination

a. pulse rate, temperature, BP and bleeding time

b. pulse rate, BP, height and weight

c. pulse rate, temperature, BP and respiratory rate

d. pulse rate, BP, respiration and bleeding time