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ACOUSTICS…

Acoustics (C2 Past Board: excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What do you call the speed of sound in the study of acoustics?
Tempo

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In the study of acoustics, the velocity of sound is dependent to one of the following:
Properties of the medium

ECE Board Exam Apri1 2000


How much bigger in storage capacity has digital video disk (DVD) have over the conventional
compact disk (CD)?
Around 15 times

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A sound intensity that could cause painful sensation In a human ear
Threshold of pain

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the following is the hearing range of the human ear?
The range of the human hearing is from 20 Hz to 20 kHz

ECE Board Exam April 1998


An instrument for recording waveforms of audio frequency.
Phonoscope

ECE Board Exam November 1997/April 2000


Designates the sensation of low or high in the sense of the base and treble.
Pitch

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit time.
Sound intensity

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Speaker is a device that ___________
converts current variations into sound waves

ECE Board Exam March 1996


One-hundred twenty µbars of pressure variation is equal to
ECE Board Exam April 2000
The term that describes the highness or lowness of a sound in the study of acoustics is called a
Pitch

ECE Board Exam November 1999


The method of measuring absorption coefficient of sound which considers all angles of incidence
is called
reverberation chamber method

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The midrange frequency range of sound is from
256 to 2048 Hz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A large speaker having a large diameter (15 cm and above).
Woofer

ECE Board Exam April 1997


_______ is the transmission of sound from one to an adjacent room thru common walls, floors or
ceilings.
Flanking transmission

ECE Board Exam November 1996


___________ is the advantage rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a
cross sectional area of 1 sq. m. at right angle to the direction.
Sound intensity

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A method of expressing the amplitude of a complex non-periodic signals such as speech.
Volume

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1 km is 160 dB (re 10^-12). What is the
maximum sound pressure level on the ground directly below the plane assuming that the aircraft
radiates sound equally in all directions?

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The unit of pitch.
Mel

ECE Board Exam November 1997/April 1997


The tendency of the sound energy to spread.
Diffraction

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the following is considered the most commonly used measurable components of sound?
Particle displacement

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument.
Fundamental

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Sound intensity is given as
dP/dA

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Tendency of sound energy to spread
Diffraction

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The lowest frequency produced by an instrument.
Fundamental

ECE Board Exam March 1996


A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 ft away. At distance, what is
the sound power in watt?
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Labels: Acoustics and Brodcasting, Communications, Past Board

Friday, October 22, 2010


Acoustic & Broadcasting [MITRC refresher]
1. Which best describe the sound wave?
a. It may be longitudinal
b. It is always transverse
c. It is always longitudinal
d. All of the above

2. Which of the following can not travel through a vacuum?


a. Electromagnetic wave
b. Radio wave
c. Soundwave
d. Light wave

3. Through which medium does sound travel fastest?


a. Air
b. Water
c. Steel
d. Mercury

4. Speed that is faster than that of sound.


a. Ultrasonic
b. Supersonic
c. Subsonic
d. Transonic

5. What is the speed of sound in air at 20°C?


a. 1087 ft/s
b. 1100 ft/s
c. 1126 ft/s
d. 200 ft/s
6. Calculate a half wavelength sound for sound of 16000 Hz
a. 35 ft
b. 10 ft
c. 0.035 ft
d. 100 ft

7. The lowest frequency that a human ear can hear is


a. 5 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 20 Hz

8. Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz)
a. Subsonic
b. Ultrasonic
c. Transonic
d. Stereo

9. The frequency interval between two sounds whose frequency ratio is 10


a. Octave
b. Half octave
c. Third-octave
d. Decade

10. A 16 KHz sound is how many octaves higher than a 500 Hz sound
a. 2
b. 5
c. 4
d. 8

11. Sound waves composed of but one frequency is a/an


a. Infra sound
b. Pure tone
c. Structure borne
d. Residual sound

12. Sound wave has two main characteristics which are


a. Highness and loudness
b. Tone and loudness
c. Pitch and loudness
d. Rarefactions and compressions

13. When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called
a. Reflection
b. Diffraction
c. Rarefaction
d. Refraction

14. The amplitude of sound waves, the maximum displacement of each air particle, is the property
which perceive as _____ of a sound
a. Pitch
b. Intensity
c. Loudness
d. Harmonics

15. It is the weakest sound that average human hearing can detect.
a. SPL = 0 dB
b. Threshold of hearing
c. Reference pressure = 2 x 10-5N/m2
d. A, b, c

16. What is a device that is used to measure the hearing sensitivity of a person?
a. Audiometer
b. OTDR
c. SLM
d. Spectrum analyzer

17. What is the device used in measuring sound pressure levels incorporating a microphone,
amplification, filtering and a display.
a. Audiometer
b. OTDR
c. SLM
d. Spectrum analyzer

18. What weighted scale in a sound level meter gives a reading that is most closely to the
response of the human ear?
a. Weighted scale A
b. Weighted scale B
c. Weighted scale C
d. Weighted scale D

19. For aircraft noise measurements, the weighting scale that is used is _____.
a. Weighted scale A
b. Weighted scale B
c. Weighted scale C
d. Weighted scale D

20. It is the device used to calibrate an SLM?


a. Microphone
b. Pistonphone
c. Telephone
d. Filter

21. _____ is the sound power measured over the area upon which is received.
a. Sound pressure
b. Sound energy
c. Sound intensity
d. Sound pressure level

22. A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity


a. Phon
b. Decibel
c. Pascal
d. Watts

23. Calculate the sound intensity level in dB of a sound whose intensity is 0.007 W/m2.
a. 95 dB
b. 91 dB
c. 98 dB
d. 101 dB

24. What is the sound pressure level for a given sound whose RMS pressure is 200/m2?
a. 200 dB
b. 20 dB
c. 140 dB
d. 14 dB

25. What is the sound intensity for an RMS pressure of 200 Pascal?
a. 90 W/m2
b. 98 W/m2
c. 108 W/m2
d. 88 W/m2

26. The sound pressure level is increased by _____ dB if the pressure is doubled.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

27. The sound pressure level is increased by _____ dB if the intensity is doubled.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

28. If four identical sounds are added what is the increase in level in dB?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

29. The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or
ceilings.
a. Flanking transmission
b. Reflection
c. Refraction
d. Reverberation

30. _____ is the continuing presence of an audible sound after the sound source has stop.
a. Flutter echo
b. Sound concentration
c. Sound shadow
d. Reverberation

31. Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB


a. Echo time
b. Reverberation time
c. Delay time
d. Transient time

32. A room containing relatively little sound absorption


a. Dead room
b. Anechoic room
c. Live room
d. Free-field

33. A room in which the walls offer essentially 100% absorption, therefore simulating free field
conditions.
a. Dead room
b. Anechoic room
c. Live room
d. Closed room
34. Calculate the reverberation time of the room, which has a volume of 8700 ft3 and total sound
absorption 140 sabins.
a. 0.3 sec
b. 3.5 sec
c. 3 sec
d. 0.53 sec

35. It is an audio transducer that converts acoustic pressure in air into its equivalent electrical
impulses
a. Loudspeaker
b. Amplifier
c. Baffle
d. Microphone

36. _____ is a pressure type microphone with permanent coil as a transducing element.
a. Dynamic
b. Condenser
c. Magnetic
d. Carbon

37. A microphone which has an internal impedance of 25 kΩ is _____ type.


a. High impedance
b. Low impedance
c. Dynamic
d. Magnetic

38. A microphone that uses the piezoelectric effect


a. Dynamic
b. Condenser
c. Crystal
d. Carbon

39. _____ is a type of loudspeaker driver with an effective diameter of 5 inches used at midrange
audio frequency.
a. Tweeter
b. Woofer
c. Mid-range
d. A or C

40. _____ is measure of how much sound is produced from the electrical signal.
a. Sensitivity
b. Distortion
c. Efficiency
d. Frequency response

41. It describes the output of a microphone over a range of frequencies.


a. Directivity
b. Sensitivity
c. Frequency response
d. All of the above

42. A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1 mW if the electrical input is 10 W. What is its
rated efficiency?
a. -10 dB
b. -20 dB
c. -30 dB
d. -40 dB
43. An amplifier can deliver 100 W to a loudspeaker. If the rated efficiency of the loudspeaker is
-60 dB. What is the maximum intensity 300 ft from it?
a. 10 dB
b. 20 dB
c. 30 dB
d. 40 dB

44. Speaker is a device that


a. Converts sound waves into current and voltage
b. Converts current variations into sound waves
c. Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy
d. Converts electrical energy to electromagnetic energy

45. The impedance of most drivers is about _____ ohms at their resonant frequency.
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10

46. It is a transducer used to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy.


a. Microphone
b. Baffle
c. Magnetic assemble
d. Driver

47. It is an enclosure used to prevent front and back wave cancellation.


a. Loudspeaker
b. Driver
c. Baffle
d. Frame

48. A circuit that divides the frequency components into separate bands in order to have individual
feeds to the different drivers.
a. Suspension system
b. Dividing network
c. Magnet assembly
d. Panel board

49. _____ is early reflection of sound.


a. Echo
b. Pure sound
c. Reverberation
d. Intelligible sound

50. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie.


a. Dolby
b. DBx
c. dBa
d. dBk

51. Using a microphone at less than the recommended working distance will create a _____ which
greatly increases the low frequency signals.
a. Roll-off
b. Proximity effect
c. Drop out
d. None of the choices

52. What is the unit of loudness?


a. Sone
b. Phon
c. Decibel
d. Mel

53. A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level


a. Noy
b. dB
c. Sone
d. Phon

54. What is the loudness level of a 1KHz tone if its intensity is 1 x 10-5W/cm2?
a. 100 phons
b. 105 phons
c. 110 phons
d. 100 phons

55. What is the process of sending voice, speech, music or image intended for reception by the
general public?
a. Navigation
b. Telephony
c. Broadcasting
d. Mixing

56. What is the frequency tolerance for the RF carrier in the standard AM radio broadcast band?
a. Zero
b. 20 Hz
c. 10 Hz
d. 20 KHz

57. The transmitting antenna for an AM broadcast station should have a _____ polarization.
a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Circular
d. Elliptical

58. The part of a broadcast day from 6 PM to 6 AM local time


a. Daytime
b. Nighttime
c. Bed time
d. Experimental period

59. The service area where the signal is not subject to fading and co-channel interference.
a. Primary Service Area
b. Secondary Service Area
c. Intermittent Service Area
d. Quarternary Service Area

60. It is a resistive load used in place of an antenna to test a transmitter under normal loaded
condition without actually radiating the transmitter’s output signal.
a. Auxiliary Tx
b. Main Tx
c. Secondary Tx
d. Artificial Antenna

61. The operating power of the auxiliary transmitter shall not be less than _____% or never greater
than the authorized operating power of the main transmitter.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

62. What are the frequency limits of the MF BC band?


a. 300-3000 kHz
b. 3-30 MHz
c. 535-1605 kHz
d. 88-108 MHz

63. The center to center spacing between two adjacent stations in the Phil. AM BC band is ____.
a. 9 kHz
b. 200 kHz
c. 36 kHz
d. 800 kHz

64. How many AM stations can be accommodated in a 150-kHz bandwidth if the highest
modulating frequency is 10 kHz?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 7
d. 14

65. Short wave broadcasting operates in what band?


a. MF
b. HF
c. VHF
d. VLF

66. What does the acronym STL stand for?


a. Station-to-link
b. Signal-to-loss-ratio
c. Shout-to-live
d. Studio-to-transmitter-link

67. One of the main considerations in the selection of antenna site is (AM)
a. Conductivity of the soil
b. Height of the terrain
c. Elevation of the site
d. Accessibility

68. One of the broadcast transmission auxiliary services is:


a. Remote pick-up
b. STL
c. Communication, Coordination and Control
d. All of the above

69. What is the spacing between any two adjacent channels in the FM broadcast band?
a. 20 KHz
b. 36 KHz
c. 200 KHz
d. 800 KHz

70. The first channel in the FM BC band has a center frequency of


a. 88 MHz
b. 88.1 MHz
c. 88.3 MHz
d. 108 MHz
71. What is the radio transmission of two separate signals, left, and right, used to create a
multidimensional effect on the receiver?
a. SCA
b. Stereo system
c. Pilot transmission
d. Monophonic transmission

72. The carrier frequency tolerance for FM broadcasting is _____.


a. 25 kHz
b. 2 kHz
c. 20 kHz
d. 30 kHz

73. What is the modulation used by the stereophonic subcarrier?


a. FM
b. PM
c. ISB
d. DSB

74. What is the pilot signal for stereo FM?


a. 4.25 MHz
b. 10 kHz
c. 19 KHz
d. 38 KHz

75. With stereo FM transmission, does a monaural receiver produce all the sounds that a stereo
does?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a or b

76. Where is de-emphasis added in a stereo FM system?


a. Before the matrix at the TX
b. Before the matrix at the RX
c. After the matrix at the TX
d. After the matrix at the RX

77. Where is the pre-emphasis added in a stereo FM system?


a. Before the matrix at the TX
b. Before the matrix at the RX
c. After the matrix at the TX
d. After the matrix at the RX

78. The normal frequency for an SCA subcarrier is _____ KHz.


a. 67
b. 76
c. 38
d. 19

79. A monaural FM receiver receives only the _____ signal of a stereo multiplex transmission.
a. L+R
b. L–R
c. Both a & b
d. 67 KHz

80. When fed to the stereo FM modulator, in what form are the L – R signals?
a. AF
b. DSBSC
c. 19 kHz
d. 38 kHz

81. An additional channel of multiplex information that is authorized by the FCC for stereo FM radio
stations to feed services such as commercial-free programming to selected customers.
a. STL
b. EBS
c. EIA
d. SCA

82. The class of FM station, which has an authorized radiated power not exceeding 125 KW:
a. Class C
b. Class A
c. Class D
d. Class B

83. An FM broadcast station, which has an authorized transmitter power not exceeding 10 KW and
ERP not exceeding 30 KW:
a. Class D
b. Class C
c. Class A
d. Class B

84. A class of FM station which is limited in antenna height of 500 ft. above average terrain
a. Class D
b. Class C
c. Class A
d. Class B

85. What type of broadcast service might have their antennas on top of hills?
a. FM
b. AM
c. TV
d. A&C

86. How are guardbands allocated in commercial FM stations?


a. 25 kHz on either sides of the transmitting signal
b. 50 kHz on each side of the carrier
c. 75 kHz deviation
d. 15 kHz modulation

87. How many commercial FM broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a
commercial TV station?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

88. How many international commercial AM broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth
occupied by a commercial TV station?
a. 100
b. 200
c. 125
d. 600

89. What kind of modulation is used for the sound portion of a commercial broadcast TV
transmission?
a. PM
b. FM
c. C3F
d. AM

90. Estimate the bandwidth occupied by the sound portion of a TV transmission in US.
a. 25 kHz
b. 800 kHz
c. 80 kHz
d. 200 kHz

91. What is the main reason why television picture signal uses amplitude modulation, while voice is
frequency modulated?
a. Better efficiency
b. Eliminate attenuation of both video and audio
c. Maintain synchronized scanning between transmit and received video
d. To minimize interference between signals at received end

92. The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV receiver are _____ respectively.
a. 41.25 MHz, 45.75 MHz
b. 45.25 MHz, 41.75 MHz
c. 41.75 MHz, 45.25 MHz
d. 45.75 MHz, 41.25 MHz

93. What is the separation between visual and aural carrier in TV broadcasting?
a. 1.25 MHz
b. 4.5 MHz
c. 5.75 MHz
d. 0.25 MHz

94. What is the separation between the lower limit of a channel and the aural carrier?
a. 1.25 MHz
b. 4.5 MHz
c. 5.75 MHz
d. 0.25 MHz

95. What is the visual carrier for channel 12?


a. 205.25 MHz
b. 55.25 MHz
c. 65.75 MHz
d. 59.75 MHz

96. What is the aural carrier for channel 3?


a. 61.25 MHz
b. 55.25 MHz
c. 65.75 MHz
d. 59.75 MHz

97. What is color subcarrier for channel 2?


a. 68.83 MHz
b. 211.25 MHz
c. 58.83 MHz
d. 214.83 MHz

98. If the sound carrier for UHF channel 23 is 529.75 MHz, what is the frequency of the tuner’s local
oscillator, when turned to this channel?
a. 571 MHz
b. 511 MHz
c. 498 MHz
d. 500 MHz

99. What is the frequency tolerance in the color carrier of TV broadcasting?


a. 2 kHz
b. 20 Hz
c. 10 Hz
d. 1 kHz

100. What is the exact picture carrier frequency for frequency for channel 7 offset by – 10 KHz?
a 175.25 MHz
b 175.26 MHz
c 174 MHz
d 175.24 MHz

101. TV channels 7, 11 and 13 are known as _____.


a. Mid band UHF
b. Low band UHF
c. High band VHF
d. low band UHF

102. What is eliminated by using interlaced scanning?


a. Noise
b. Excessive BW
c. Frame
d. Flicker

103. What percentage of the primary colors used in color TV are needed to produce the brightest
white?
a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue
b. 33% red, 33% green, 33% blue
c. 50% red, 28% green, 22% blue
d. 58% red, 20% green, 22% blue

104. The color with the most luminance is


a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Green
d. Blue

105. Suppose the signal from a color camera has R=0.8, G=0.4 and B=0.2, where 1 represents the
maximum signal possible. Determine the value at the luminance signal
a. 0.498
b. 0.254
c. 0.1325
d. 1.4

106. In the previous problem, calculate the chrominance signal


a. 0.305
b. 0.304
c. 0.498
d. 0.022

107. The three complementary colors are:


a. White, yellow, cyan
b. Black, white, gray
c. Yellow, magenta, cyan
d. Violet, indigo, fushcia
108. When the colors Magenta and Yellow are mixed the resultant color is:
a. Red
b. White
c. Blue
d. Green

109. Which of the following consist of two of the three primary colors in television signal? a) red, b)
violet, c) yellow, and d) blue
a. A and B
b. B and C
c. C and D
d. A and D

110. The studio camera produces a luminance signal that contains information about
a. The musical content
b. The speech content
c. The brightness of the scene
d. The color content of the scene

111. Brightness variations of the picture information are in which signal?


a. I
b. Q
c. Y
d. Z

112. Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58
MHz C signal with bandwidth of 0 to 1.3 MHz?
a. I signal
b. Q signal
c. Y signal
d. X signal

113. Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58
MHz C signal in quadrature with bandwidth of 0 to 0.5 MHz?
a. I signal
b. Q signal
c. Y signal
d. Z signal

114. The _____ affects the difference between black and white on the picture tube and controls the
gain of the video amplifier
a. Brightness control
b. Volume control
c. Power control
d. Contrast control

115. Which of the following is not a requirement for a color TV signal?


a. compatibility with b lack and white receivers
b. Within 6 MHz bandwidth
c. Simulate a wide variety of colors
d. Functional with baron super antenna

116. How many electron beams actually leave the electron gun of a single-gun color CRT?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1/3
117. What is the difference between the sound carrier and color subcarrier frequencies?
a. 1.25 MHz
b. 3.58 MHz
c. 4.5 MHz
d. 0.92 MHz

118. What does aspect ratio mean?


a. Ratio of the screen width to its height
b. Ratio of the screen height to its width
c. Ratio of the screen diagonal to its width
d. Ratio of the screen diagonal to its height

119. What is the aspect ratio for HDTV system?


a. 4/3
b. 9/7
c. 19/6
d. 16/9

120. The signal that will give the exact color wavelength is _____.
a. Hue
b. Saturation
c. Carrier
d. Monochrome

121. Which of the following represents the intensity of a given color?


a. Hue
b. Saturation
c. Carrier
d. Monochrome

122. The _____ ensures that the electron beam will strike the correct phosphor dot on the TV screen.
a. Coating
b. Aperture Mask
c. Diplexer
d. Duplexer

123. In a TV receiver, what is the horizontal signal frequency?


a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15750 Hz
d. 157625 Hz

124. In a TV receiver, what is the vertical signal frequency?


a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15750 Hz
d. 157625 Hz

125. What scheme is employed to cause the electron beam in the TV receiver and the electron
beam in the studio camera to track identically?
a. Interlacing
b. NTSC
c. Interleaving
d. Transmission of sync pulses

126. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during


a. Horizontal blanking
b. Vertical blanking
c. The serrations
d. Equalizing intervals
127. What is the return of the electron beam in a CRT from right to left or from bottom to top?
a. Relay
b. Flyback
c. Utilization
d. Resolution

128. What is the North American TV standard video?


a. PAL
b. SECAM
c. NTSC
d. FCC

129. What is the maximum allowable frequency deviation in the audio section of a TV signal for
PAL/SECAM?
a. 25 kHz
b. 50 kHz
c. 75 kHz
d. 100 kHz

130. What is the frame frequency in the US TV system?


a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15750 Hz
d. 157625 Hz

131. What is the highest video frequency set by the FCC for commercial TV?
a. 4.2 MHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 6 MHz
d. 5.5 MHz

132. What determines the maximum number of vertical picture elements?


a. Number of frames per second
b. Number of lines on the screen
c. Number of pixels
d. Number of fields per second

133. How many horizontal lines are used to develop a TV raster?


a. 615
b. 525
c. 750
d. 15750

134. The channel width in the U.S. TV system is :


a. 2 MHz
b. 6 MHz
c. 7 MHz
d. 8 MHz

135. It is the popular TV camera designed with much smaller package and lower cost than its earlier
designs
a. Image orthicon
b. Iconoscope
c. Vidicon
d. Plumbicon
136. In a composite video signal, what is the relationship between the amplitude of the signal and
the intensity of the electron beam in the receiver picture tube?
a. The greater the amplitude the darker the picture
b. The lower the amplitude the darker the picture
c. The greater the amplitude the lighter the picture
d. No effect

137. If there are 625 lines per TV picture then the number of lines per field are:
a. 1250
b. 312.5
c. 625
d. 2500

138. What is the process of placing the chrominance signal in the band space between portions of
the luminance signal?
a. Interlacing
b. Fitting
c. Sneaking
d. Interleaving

139. How much time elapses between the start of one horizontal sync pulse and the next?
a. 10.2 μs
b. 63.5 μs
c. 16.67 μs
d. 100 μs

140. Which of the following frequencies is wrong?


a. 15,750 Hz for horizontal sync and scanning
b. 60 Hz for vertical sync and scanning
c. 31,500 Hz for the equalizing pulses and serrations in the vertical sync pulse
d. 31,500 Hz for the vertical scanning frequency

141. The camera tube that uses selenium, arsenic and tellurium
a. Plumbicon
b. Vidicon
c. Saticon
d. Silicon Vidicon

142. The components of composite video signal are:


a. Chroma signal
b. Blanking pulse
c. Synchronizing pulse
d. All of these

143. What is the smallest amount of information that can be displayed on a television screen?
a. Blip
b. Burst
c. Pixel
d. Bits

144. It is the quality of the TV picture after imperfections


a. Aspect ratio
b. Utilization ratio
c. A1
d. Monochrome

145. What section of a TV receiver determines the bandwidth and produces the most signal gain?
a. RF amplifier
b. Audio amplifier
c. IF amplifier
d. Tuned circuit

AMPLIFIERS…

CHAPTER 14 SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP CIRCUITS

CHAPTER 14
SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP CIRCUITS

1. Provides dc isolation between input and output


Isolation amplifier

2. Ratio of the output current to the input voltage


Transconductance

3. Transconductance is __________ of an OTA


Gain

4. A comparator with hysteresis where the input voltage is large enough to drive the device into its
saturated states
Schmitt trigger

5. The ______________ of a number is the power to which the base must be raised to get that
number.
Logarithm

6. An amplifier that produces an output that is proportional to the logarithm of the input.
Log amplifier

7. Used in applications where it is necessary to have an output current that is controlled by an input
voltage.
Voltage-to-current converter

8. The circuit used to detect the peak of the input voltage and store that peak voltage on a
capacitor.
Peak detector

9. The exponent to which the base e must be raised in order to equal a given quantity.
Natural logarithm

10. In an OTA, transconductance varies with _________.


Bias current

11. Amplifiers that are often used in HF communication systems, including fiber optics, for
processing wide dynamic range signals.
Log and antilog amplifiers

12. The key characterisctic of an instrumentation amplifier


CMRR

13. The voltage gain of instrumentation amplifier is set by a


Resistor

14. The log amplifier may use the ___________ junction of a BJT in the feedback loop
Base-emitter

15. The main purpose of an instrumentation amplifier is to amplify _____ signals that are riding on
_____ common-mode voltages.
small, large

16. The ___________ of an OTA is the input voltage times the transconductance
Output current

17. The operation of log and antilog amplifiers is based on the __________ characteristics of a pn
junction
Nonlinear
(logarithmic)

18. A log amplifier has a pn junction in the feedback loop, and an antilog amplifier has a pn
junction in __________ with the input
Series

19. In a peak detector, an op-amp is used as a __________ to charge a capacitor through a diode to
the peak value of the input voltage.
Comparator

20. A basic instrumentation amplifier is formed by three op-amps and ________ resistors,
including the gain setting resistor.
Seven (7)

21. An oscillator that can be either amplitude or pulse modulated by the signal from the input
amplifier
High-frequency oscillator
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CHAPTER 13 BASIC OP-AMP CIRCUITS


CHAPTER 13
BASIC OP-AMP CIRCUITS

1. A common interfacing process often used when a linear analog system must provide inputs to a
digital system.
A/D conversion

2. Method of A/D conversion that uses parallel comparators to compare the linear input signal with
various reference voltages developed by a voltage divider
Flash

3. Produces an output that is proportional to the rate of change of the input voltage
Differentiator

4. The difference between the UTP and the LTP


Hysteresis voltage

5. Used to generate pulse waveform from the sine wave output of the audio generator.
Voltage comparator

6. When the output is at the maximum positive voltage and the input exceeds UTP, the output
switches to the _________ negative voltage
Maximum

7. Uses a capacitor in the feedback path which is open to dc. This implies that the gain at dc is the
open-loop gain of the op-amp.
Practical integrator

8. Gives an op-amp noise immunity


Hysteresis

9. Used to detect positive and negative voltages by connecting a fixed reference voltage source to
the inverting input of a zero-level detector.
Nonzero-Level detection

10. A good example of hysteresis


Thermostat

11. A comparator with three trigger points


Schmitt Trigger

12. The output of Schmitt trigger is


Pulse waveform

13. In a comparator with output bounding, what type of diode is used in the feedback loop?
Zener
14. Necessary components for the design of a bounded comparator
Rectifier and zener diodes

15. Type of circuit that uses comparators


Nonzero-level detector

16. Variations of the basic summing amplifier


Averaging and scaling amplifier

17. Differentiation of a ramp input produces a step output with an amplitude proportional to the
_________
Slope

18. Another term for flash


Simultaneous

19. Integration of a step input produces a ramp output with the slope proportional to the
_________
Amplitude
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CHAPTER 12 THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER

CHAPTER 12
THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER

1. The measure of an amplifier’s ability to reject common-mode signals


CMRR

2. It is the typical value of input offset voltage in the ideal case.


0V

3. It is the dc current required by the inputs of the amplifier to properly operate the first stage.
Input bias current

4. It is the resistance viewed from the output terminal of the op-amp


Output impedance

5. The total resistance between the inverting and noninverting inputs


Differential input impedance

6. Differential impedance is measured by determining the change in ___________ for a given


change in differential input voltage.
Bias current

7. Common temperature coefficient for the offset current


0.5nA/°C

8. Functions of negative feedback in an op-amp


Stabilize gain and increase frequency response

9. The voltage gain of an op-amp with external feedback


Closed-loop voltage gain

10. A special case of the noninverting amplifier where all of the output voltage is fed back to the
inverting input by a straight connection
Voltage-follower configuration

11. The value of the frequency at which the gain steadily decreases to a point where it is equal to
unity
Unity-gain frequency Or unity gain bandwidth

12. It is always equal to the frequency at which the op-amp’s open- loop gain is unity or 0 dB.
Gain-bandwidth product

13. The relative angular displacement of a time-varying function relative to a reference.


Phase shift

14. The three terminals of the basic op-amp not including power and ground
Inverting input, noninverting input, and output

15. It has the highest input impedance and the lowest output impedance of the three amplifier
configurations
Voltage-follower

16. The _________ of an op-amp equals the upper critical frequency.


Bandwidth

17. Two types of op-amp input operation.


Differential mode and common-mode

18. A ____________ differentiator uses a capacitor in series with the inverting input.
Ideal
19. An ideal op-amp has ___________ value for voltage gain, bandwidth, and input impedance.
Infinite

20. What should be the output voltage of an op-amp when the differential input is zero
Zero
21. The ideal op-amp has __________ output impedance
Zero

22. The three basic op-amp configurations


Inverting, noninverting, and voltage follower

23. The closed-loop voltage gain is _________ than the open-loop voltage gain. (more or less)
Less

24. Does the gain of an op-amp decreases or increases as frequency increases above the critical
frequency
Decreases

25. Devices such as the diode and the transistor which are separate devices that are individually
packaged and interconnected in a circuit with other devices to form a complete, functional unit.
Discrete components

26. Most op-amps operate with how many dc supply voltage?


2 (positive and negative)

27. Datasheets often refer to the open-loop voltage gain as the ______________
Large-signal voltage gain
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CHAPTER 10 AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY RESPONSE

CHAPTER 10
AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY RESPONSE

1. The frequency at which the output power drops to one-half of its midrange value
Corner frequency

2. At the critical frequencies the output voltage is 70.7% of its midrange value. What is the value
of voltage gain in dB?
-3 dB

3. What is the other term for lower critical frequency?


All of the above

4. The condition where the gain is down 3 dB is logically called _________ of the amplifier
response
-3 dB point

5. The upper and lower dominant critical frequencies are sometimes called
Half-power frequencies

6. A characteristic of an amplifier in which the product of the voltage gain and the bandwidth is
always constant when the roll-off is -20 dB/ decade.
Gain-bandwidth product

7. Critical frequencies are values of frequency at which the RC circuits reduce the voltage gain to
____________ of its midrange value.
70.7%

8. An octave of frequency change is a ________ -times change


2

9. Which of the following has no effect on the low-frequency response?


Internal transistor capacitances

10. What is the gain that occurs for the range of frequencies between the lower and upper critical
frequencies?
Midrange gain
11. Which of the following is not a method in frequency response measurement?
Roll-off measurement

12. If the voltage gain is less than one, what is the value of the dB gain?
Negative

13. A plot of dB voltage gain versus frequency on semilog graph paper


Bode plot

14. The critical frequency at which the curve “breaks” into a -20dB/decade drop
Lower break frequency

15. The change in gain or phase shift over a specified range of input signal frequencies
Frequency response

16. A unit of logarithmic gain measurement and is commonly used to express amplifier response
Decibel

17. The lower and upper critical frequencies of an amplifier can be determined using the
_____________ method by applying a voltage step to the input of the amplifier and measuring the
rise and fall times of the resulting output voltage
Step-response method

18. The coupling an bypass capacitors of an amplifier affect the _________ frequency response:
high or low
Low
19. The internal transistor capacitances affect the _________ frequency response: high or low
High

20. Two frequency response measurement


Frequency/amplitude and step

21. The Miller input and output capacitances for a BJT inverting amplifier depends on
Voltage gain

22. When dB is negative, it is usually called_______


Attenuation
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Friday, September 23, 2011


CHAPTER 9 FET AMPLIFIERS AND SWITCHING CIRCUITS

CHAPTER 9
FET AMPLIFIERS AND SWITCHING CIRCUITS

1. An amplifier that primarily uses only MOSFETs.


Class D

2. A process in which an input signal is converted to a series of pulses with widths that varies
proportionally to the amplitude of the input signal.
PWM

3. It removes the modulating frequency and harmonics and passes only the original signal to the
output.
Low-Pass Filter

4. The voltage gain of a common-drain amplifier is always


Slightly less than 1

5. The load resistance connected to the drain of a common-source amplifier reduces ____________

Voltage gain

6. What is the relationship between the input resistance of a common-gate amplifier to its
transconductance?
They are inversely proportional

7. The efficiency of a class D amplifier approaches


100%
8. The input signal is applied to the gate and the output is taken from source
Common-drain

9. A nonlinear amplifier in which the transistors are operated as switches


Class D

10. A device that switches an analog signal on and off


Analog switch

11. Consists of two or more analog switches that connect sample portions of their analog input
signals to single output in a time sequence
Analog multiplexer

12. Used in low-power digital switching circuits


CMOS

13. Amplifier commonly used as frequency multiplier


Class C

14. The least efficient amplifier


Class A

15. An amplifier that is biased below cutoff


Class c

16. A class of amplifier that operates in the linear region for only a small part of the input cycle
Class C

17. In a class AB amplifier, if the VBE drops are not matched to the diode drops or if the diodes
are not in thermal equilibrium with the transistors, this can result in
Thermal runaway
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CHAPTER 7 POWER AMPLIFIERS

CHAPTER 7
POWER AMPLIFIERS

1. It is the product of Q-point current and voltage of a transistor with no signal input
Power dissipation

2. The ____________ of an amplifier is the ratio of the output signal power supplied to a load to
the total power from the dc supply.
Efficiency

3. Which amplifier operates in the linear region for 180 deg. Of the input cycle when biased in
cutoff and is in cutoff for 180 deg?
Class B

4. These amplifiers are biased to conduct for slightly more than 180 deg.
Class AB

5. An amplifier that is generally used in Radio Frequency applications


Class C

6. Implemented with a laser diode


Current mirror

7. An amplifier that is biased below cutoff and is normally operated with resonant circuit load
Class C

8. The four classes of power amplifiers are classified based on the percentage of the
____________which the amplifier operates in its ________region
Input cycle, linear

9. It is the ratio of the output power to the input power


Power gain

10. Product of the rms load current and the rms load voltage
Output power

11. A type of class B amplifier with two transistors in which one transistor conducts for one half-
cycle and the other conducts for the other half-cycle
Push-pull

12. Amplifiers that are generally used in Radio Frequency Applications.


Class C amplifiers

13. Another term for complementary Darlington


Sziklai pair

14. An advantage of push-pull class B and class AB amplifiers over class A


Efficiency

15. The Q-point is at _________ at class B operation


Cutoff

16. Operates in the linear region where the output signal is an amplified replica of the input signal
Class A
17. Amplifiers that have the objective of delivering power to a load
Power amplifers

18. When the Q-point is at the center of the ac load line, a maximum class ________ signal can be
obtained.
A

19. The maximum efficiency of capacitively coupled class A amplifier cannot be higher than
25%

20. The low efficiency of class A amplifiers limits their usefulness to small power applications that
require usually less than ________.
1W
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CHAPTER 6 BJT AMPLIFIERS

CHAPTER 6
BJT AMPLIFIERS

1. Amplifiers designed to handle small __________ signals are referred to as small-signal


amplifiers.
ac only

2. Which of the r parameters is the most important?


r’e

3. Determine the ac emitter resistance that is operating with a dc emitter current of 5mA.
5.0 Ω

4. If βac=hfe, αac=?
hfb

5. Which of the three amplifier configurations exhibit high voltage gain and high current gain?
Common-emitter

6. An amplifier configuration which has a voltage gain of approximately 1, a high input resistance
and current gain,
Common-collector

7. An amplifier configuration which provides high voltage gain with a maximum current gain of 1.
Common-base
8. Which of the amplifier configurations is the most appropriate for certain applications where
sources tend to have low-resistance outputs?
Common-base

9. In a common-emitter amplifier, any change in input signal voltage results in


Opposite change in collector signal voltage

10. The ac voltage gain is the ratio of


ac output voltage at the collector to ac input voltage at the base

11. the reduction in signal voltage as it passes through a circuit


attenuation

12. the overall voltage gain of the common-emitter amplifier is the product of the voltage gain
from base to collector and
reciprocal of the attenuation

13. Without the bypass capacitor, the CE amplifier’s emitter is no longer at ac ground. How does
this affect the amplifier?
It decreases the ac voltage gain

14. The measure of how well an amplifier maintains its design values over changes in temperature,

Stability

15. Swamping is a method used to minimize the effect of the ____________without reducing the
voltage gain to its minimum value.
ac emitter resistance

16. ___________ contains two transistors. The collectors of two transistors are connected and the
emitter of the first drives the base of the second.
Darlington pair

17. _____________ consists of two types of transistors, npn and a pnp.


Complementary Darlington

18. An amplifier configuration in which the input signal is capacitively coupled to the emitter and
the output is capacitively coupled from the collector,
Common-base

19. Which of the amplifier configurations is/are useful at high frequencies when impedance
matching is required?
Common-base

20. The power gain of a common-base amplifier is approximately equal to


Voltage gain
21. BJT amplifier that produces output that are a function of the difference between two input
voltages,
Differential amplifier

22. Ideally, a diff-amp provides a very high gain for single-ended or differential signals and
_____________ gain for common-mode signals.
0

23. Input signals are out of phase


Differential amplifier

ANTENNAS…

Antennas 2/2 (C6 Past board: Excel)

CONTINUATION............

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Which of the following is taken as the standard reference antenna for directive gain?
Isotropic

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Best description of a collinear and broadside antenna radiation pattern
Bidirectional

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Theoretical gain of a Herztian dipole
1.76 dB

ECE Board Exam March 1996 it is a measure of the microwave power radiated from an antenna as
a function of angular direction from the antenna axis
Beamwidth

ECE Board Exam November 2000


What would you employ or use to determine the performance of an aerial antenna, such as
determination of propagation strength and direction?
Radiation pattern

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Find the approximate width of a pyramidal horn antenna that will operate at 10,000 MHz intended
to have a beamwidth of 10 degrees.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the driven element of an antenna?
The element fed by the transmission line

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The reflector and director of an antenna array are considered as
Parasitic elements

ECE Board Exam March 1996


What is the gain of four identically polarized antennas stacked one above the other and fed in
phase?
6 dB over the gain of one antenna

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What do you mean by the outward flow of an energy from any source in the form of radio waves.
Radiation

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The product of the power supplied to the antenna and its gain relative to a half-wave dipole in a
given direction.
ERP

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Gain of an isotropic antenna
0 dB

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to length of 3.4 m.

ECE Board Exam November 2000


What is the term for a numerical ratio which relates the performance of one antenna to that of
another real or theoretical antenna?
Antenna gain

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following microwave antenna is normally used when obtaining an omni-directional
radiation requirement?
Bicone

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Antenna which is not properly terminated.
Resonant

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Width measured in degrees of a major lobe between ends of the lobe at which the relative power is
one half (-3dB) its value from the peak of the lobe.
Beamwidth
ECE Board Exam April 1998
At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the
remainder of the antenna?
Maximum voltage and minimum current

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna.
Low pass filter

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Radio wave concentration in the direction of the signal emitted by a directional antenna
Major lobe radiation

ECE Board Exam November 2000


What is the approximate length of a half wave dipole antenna radiating at 6450 kHz?

ECE Board Exam April 2000


How does the length of the director element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with that
of the driven element?
It is about 5% shorter

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Refers to a type of beam antenna which uses two or more straight elements arranged in line with
each other?
Yagi antenna

ECE Board Exam November 2000


One of the following can be best attained by a trap antenna in radio communication
Multi frequency band operation

BLAKE…

Fiber-Optic Systems (Blake C25)

Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems

TRUE/FALSE

1. Most new telephone trunk cables are fiber-optic.

ANS: T
2. Cable TV systems use fiber-optic cable.

ANS: T

3. Many data network cables are fiber-optic.

ANS: T

4. Fiber-optic cable is not practical for telephone trunk cables.

ANS: F

5. CATV uses analog modulation on fiber-optic cables.

ANS: T

6. Usually, splicing losses can be disregarded in loss-budget calculations.

ANS: F

7. The rise time of a transmitter limits its bandwidth.

ANS: T

8. RZ encoding allows twice as much pulse spreading as NRZ.

ANS: F

9. The product of bandwidth times distance describes dispersion in a multimode fiber-optic cable.

ANS: T

10. Regenerative repeaters for fiber-optic cables typically convert the light signal to an electrical
signal, and then back to light.

ANS: T

11. Optical amplifiers are not suitable for digital signals.

ANS: F

12. Dispersion effects accumulate when optical amplifiers are used.

ANS: T

13. Most fiber-optic systems use TDM.


ANS: T

14. Fiber-optic cables shorter than 100 km typically do not require repeaters.

ANS: T

15. SONET operates at a base speed of 25 Mbps.

ANS: F

16. SONET solves many of the timing problems in synchronizing digital signals.

ANS: T

17. SONET is typically used on LANs.

ANS: F

18. FDDI can be used on a LAN.

ANS: T

19. Soliton pulses can travel down a fiber-optic cable with no dispersion.

ANS: T

20. TDR cannot be used on fiber-optic cables.

ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. FDDI stands for:


a. Fiber Digital Data Interface c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface
b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface d. Frequency-Division Data Interface

ANS: B

2. FITL stands for:


a. Fiber In The Loop c. Frequency Input to The Loop
b. Fiber Input Timing Loss d. Fiber Input Timing Loop

ANS: A
3. FTTC stands for:
a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint
b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee
c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable
d. Fiber To The Curb

ANS: D

4. SONET stands for:


a. Simple Optical Network c. Synchronous Optical Network
b. Standard Optical Network d. none of the above

ANS: C

5. DWDM stands for:


a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation
b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation
c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation
d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing

ANS: D

6. A Soliton is a:
a. defect in the glass c. type of pulse
b. type of particle d. type of optical network

ANS: C

7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called:


a. bit stuffing c. SDH
b. bit-synch d. WDM

ANS: A

8. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called:


a. gain margin c. excess gain
b. system margin d. overdrive

ANS: B
9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to:
a. 1000 miles c. 100 km
b. 100 miles d. 10 km

ANS: C

10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for:


a. Optical Carrier level one c. Optical Channel one
b. Optical Coupler unidirectional d. Optical Cable type 1

ANS: A

11. In SONET, STS stands for:


a. Synchronous Transport Signal c. Synchronous Transmission Signal
b. Synchronous Transport System d. Synchronous Transmission System

ANS: A

12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is:


a. FDDI c. gigabit Ethernet
b. high-speed Ethernet d. all of the above

ANS: D

13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is:


a. common c. obsolete
b. experimental d. not possible

ANS: B

14. OTDR stands for:


a. Optical Time-Delay Response c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer
b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement d. Optical Time-Division Relay

ANS: C

15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is
called:
a. FDDI c. FITL
b. FTTC d. SONET

ANS: B

COMPLETION

1. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________.

ANS: Curb

2. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________.

ANS: Loop

3. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________.

ANS: Hierarchy

4. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing.

ANS: Wavelength

5. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network.

ANS: Synchronous

6. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface.

ANS: Distributed

7. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass.

ANS: erbium

8. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser.

ANS: pump

9. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable.

ANS: WDM

10. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps.

ANS: 51.84
11. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals.

ANS: stuffing

12. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame.

ANS: pointer

13. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals.

ANS: token

14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions.

ANS: opposite

15. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater.

ANS: node

16. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables.

ANS: multi

17. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps.

ANS: 100 M

18. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for
information about signal routing and setup.

ANS: overhead

19. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________.

ANS: 810

20. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________.

ANS: 774

21. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________.

ANS: 9
22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.

ANS: 4

23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.

ANS: 1

24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead.

ANS: transport

25. In SONET, SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________.

ANS: envelope

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds?

ANS:
1 MHz

2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver, and cable each
have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds.

ANS:
86.6 nanoseconds

COACHING…

Electronics Coaching notes

ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING – COACHING NOTES

• Lead acid does not depend on:


Ans: Rate of charge

ead acid consists of:


Ans: Dilute sulfuric acid, sponge lead, and lead peroxide

Conputer on a chip is called:


Ans: Transputer

ransputer consists of
Ans: 32 bits

Nibble consists of ____ bits.


Ans: 4

OP amp has a gain of approximately


Ans: 1,000,000

he voice coil has an impedance between


Ans: 4 and 100 ohms.

emiconductor have ____ bonds.


Ans: covalent

Nimak gantry robot has


Ans: good precision positioning

• Sulphation in a lead acid cell is


Ans: to incompletely charging

• Nickel cadmium can be charged or discharged because


Ans: water is neither absorbed or formed.

Daisy chaining
Ans: method used in determining interrupt priorities in a microcontroller.

• Who coined the term robot?


Ans: Karel Capek

ASER is classified as
Ans: monochromatic. Coherent and collimator.

55 timer consists of
Ans: astable, monostable and VCO

• Early effect is also called


Ans: base width modulation

• The effect produced due to flow of electrons and holes


Ans: drift current

• Process of adding impurities in the intrinsic semiconductor


Ans: Doping

• What is reduced by using bundled conduction?


Ans: Power loss due to corona.

• ________ is also called modified Maxwell Wien bridge.


Ans: Anderson bridge.

• ________ is a bridge that compares the capacitance of the capacitor.


Ans: De Soutry bridge

• It measures unkonown inductance in terms of resistance and capacitance.


Ans: Anderson bridge

• An IC consists of passive devices.


Ans: Film IC
• SI unit of luminous intesnisty
Ans: Candela

• SI unit of illuminance
Ans: Lux

• A microwave diode that has a frequency range of 10-1000 GHZ


Ans: IMPATT diode

• A microwave diode in the negative resistance region.


Ans: PIN diode

• Schmitt trigger acts like a


Ans: Latch

• Fermi level is in the


Ans: Forbidden gap

• Invalid NAND flip-flop violation


Ans: S=0 C=0

• Invalid NOR flip-flop violation


Ans: S=1 C=1

• Range of depletion width


Ans: 0.5 and 1 um

• Impedance matching
Ans: Transformer coupling and emitter follower.

• Maxwell-Wien bridge measures


Ans: Inductance

• D flip-flop consists of
Ans: JK flip-flop, RS flip-flop and inverter

• Uses binary counters


Ans: D flip-flop

• Ideal CMRR
Ans: Infinity

• SCARA uses ____ operation


Ans: Assembly

• Gold doping has an advantage of


Ans: Reduced storage time.

• It is the time for the diode to be forward biased to off time


Ans: Reverse recovery time

• The reverse current doubles in every ___ °C increase in temperature.


Ans: 6

• LASER and LED are in what spectrum?


Ans: Infrared spectrum.
• GaAs is used for
Ans: Infrared light or invisible light

• Tapped coil oscillator


Ans: Hartley

• Tickler coil oscillator


Ans: Armstrong

• Tapped capacitor oscillator


Ans: Colpitts

• The sediment that allows the bottom of the lead acid cell
Ans: Antimony Lead alloy

• Two transistors in class B is in


Ans: Push-pull

• Photodarlington consists of
Ans: Transistor and phototransistor

• Largest voltage applied without irreversible damage


Ans: PIV

• Thermal neutron is also called _____ neutron.


Ans: Slow

• Avalanche breakdown is due to


Ans: collision

• One nibble consists of


Ans: 4 bits

• Large computer has a maximum of


Ans: 64 bits

• Card readers can read about


Ans: 10.000 cards per minute

• Advantage of ECL
Ans: Lowest propagation delay

• Schottky TTL has


Ans: Least propagation delay

• Main advantage of CMOS


Ans: Low power

• CC voltage gain
Ans: cannot be exceeded to unity.

• Largest voltage applied without irreversible damage


Ans: PIV
• Transputer operates in
Ans: parallel data

• It is an IC consist of passive and active devices


Ans: Monolithic IC

• It is an IC consist of passive devices


Ans: Film

• Discrete circuit
Ans: Digital circuit

• Linear circuit
Ans: Analog circuit

• Backhausen criterion is a condition that


Ans: stops oscillating

• Negative output swing occurs


Ans: near saturation

• Positive output swing occurs


Ans: towards cut-off

• When dry cell is charged,


Ans: It increased in volume

• Class C acts
Ans: as an RF amplifier

• Crystal uses
Ans: RF transmitter

• A class of amplifier that has 85% efficiency


Ans: Class C

• With Si, Z=14, it is


Ans: Half-filled

• Formation of Si in valence shell


Ans: 2, 8, 4

• Volatile memory is
Ans: Semiconductor ROM

• Semiconductor ROM is
Ans: Combinational Logic circuit

• EPROM erases when strikes by


Ans: Ultraviolet rays

• Bolometer acts like a


Ans: Thermistor

• Ondograph is
Ans: A waveshape of voltage and current.

• Nickel iron cell consists of


Ans: NiOH, powdered iron and its oxide and 21% of potassium.

• CE is
Ans: Phase reversal

• Photoconductive cell is also called


Ans: photoresistive cell

• The smallest of all h parameter is


Ans: hO

he formula of h11 is
Ans: V1/I1

he h parameter consists of
Ans: Construction, operating point and temperature

• Moving coil occurs in


Ans: DC

TVM internal resistance is


Ans: the highest internal resistance

measures magnetic properties of ferromagnetic


Ans: Permeameter

• Simple RL low pass measures -12 dB/octave, corresponds to ___ dB/decade


Ans: -40

Rotational joins of the robot is called _____


Ans: Revolute joints.

traight line joints movement of the robot is called


Ans: Prismatic joints

nput and output point


Ans: Handshaking

RL high pass filter has a phase difference of


Ans: 45 degrees

Who invented the microprocessor in 1969?


Ans: Ted Hoff

Who invented the 1st IC?


Ans: Jack Kilby

I/dt of an SCR is
Ans: local hot spot

• 3 ½ display maximum reading


Ans: 0999
½ 1 mV reading
Ans: 1000

• Straight line method


Ans: piecewise linear method

• Improper biasing of IC
Ans: causes distortion

• One kWh of energy is equivalent to


Ans: 860 kcal

unction breakdown occurs in


Ans: reverse bias

• Ratio of Ah and Wh is
Ans: greater than one.

• The capacity in a cell is measured in


Ans: Ah

• In the IC, the SiO2 layer is


Ans: isolation

• A V/I characteristic curve is


Ans: Boltzman diode characteristic.

• Early effect is also called


Ans: base width narrowing.

• Advantage of Swinburne’s test is


Ans: very convenient and very economical.

• An IC consists of ceramic substrate


Ans: thin film IC

• An IC consists of alumina substrate


Ans: thick film IC

• It is the development of a traverse electric field in a solid material when it carries an electric current
Ans: Hall effect

• It is used when the input signal has periodically occurring intervals in which the input waveform is quiescent
Ans: synchronized clamping

• A circuit that produces an output only when first activated by a preliminary pulse
Ans: sampling gate

• Successive trigerring signal induces a transition regardless of the state in which binary happens to be
Ans: symmetrical triggering

• Both carrier drift and carrier diffusion depend on ___


Ans: Einstein relation

• Microprogramming is
Ans: A technique to implement the control logic necessary to execute instructions within a processor.
• It is used to measure a speed by cutting off light at a regular interval
Ans: Stroboscope

• Thermal runaway is
Ans: is an electrochemical reaction that causes a battery to heat and possibly explode.

• A kind of ROM that degrades its own memory contents as the memory is read
Ans: EAROM

• An inductor operates at 400 Hz


Ans: Toroidal core

• An inductor operates at 95 MHz


Ans: Air core

• Data bus
Ans: It is data lines in a system bus.

• In converting intrinsic into N-type extrinsic semiconductor, which element cannot be used?
Ans: Indium

• Pin resistor has industrial heating in


Ans: Hairpin form

• Any solid object has ___ degrees of freedom


Ans: 6

• Flip-flop as a latch
Ans: S-C flip flop

• PIN diode
Ans: A microwave diode frequencies up to GHz range.

• Ip/Iv of a tunnel diode is used in


Ans: Computer application

• Noise figure of MMIC (Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit)


Ans: 3.5 to 6 dB

• Unique advantage feature of CMOS


Ans: Power in a nanowatt range

• Any charge in a battery when taken off the vehicle


Ans: Bench charge

• LASCR acts like a


Ans: Latch

• A word has
Ans: 16-bit length

• A double word has


Ans: 32-bit length
• A company who invented the word byte
Ans: IBM

• Degrees of freedom is the number of ______ independent movements including the end effector
Ans: independent

• An inductor operates at 400 Hz


Ans: Toroidal core

• Percentage loss of the dc wound machine


Ans: 1 %

• When dc voltage is removed, the clamper acts as a


Ans: Rectifier

• CMOS has extremely


Ans: Large packing density

• Solar cell has a principle of


Ans: Photovoltaic cell

• Sensor that detects change in resistance in extrinsic semiconductor


Ans: Spreading Resistance Sensor (SRS)

• Reduce the stray capacitance and capacitance between bridge arm by grounding
Ans: Wagner Grounding

• A meter sensitivity control in a test instrument


Ans: Linear Taper Potentiometer

• A volume control in a stereo compact disc player


Ans: Logarithmic Taper Potentiometer

• Faster in retrieval and storage compared to magnetic tape


Ans: Magnetic Disk

• It has more ripple in a bandpass and cut-off frequency


Ans: Chebyshev filter

• Darlington pair of transistors is _____ by Beta factor.


Ans: multiplied

• CCD has ___ transfer electrons


Ans: 6

• Neutral logic
Ans: Trinary logic

• Totally true, totally false


Ans: Fuzzy logic

• Which is not a factor of capacitance?


Ans: Plate thickness

• Ideal input impedance of an op-amp


Ans: Very high
• Ideal output impedance of an op-amp
Ans: Very low

• With 100 Ω to match with higher input impedance, the configuration is


Ans: Common base

• Optocoupler consists of an
Ans: LED and phototransistor

• Optoisolator consists of an
Ans: LED and phototransistor

• Positive feedback
Ans: Oscillator

• Phase locked loop


Ans: Frequency discriminator, FM detector

• Air as inductor core has


Ans: Greatest efficiency

• What increases noise immunity in op-amp?


Ans: Hysteresis

• Resisitve element
Ans: Horizontal axis

• Reactive element
Ans: Vertical axis

• Sine wave with all harmonics


Ans: Square wave

• It abruptly changes from 2 voltage leads


Ans: Square wave

• 63.2 %
Ans: One time constant

• A sine wave oscillator, sine wave circuit


Ans: Crystal

• Positive pulse on anode terminal


Ans: Turning on an SCS

• 3 phase rectifier that uses 6 rectifier element


Ans: Gratz rectifier

• What uses as marker of 100 kHz?


Ans: 2 flip-flops

• Feature of R-S to J-K flip-flop


Ans: Toggle

• LC balance bridge
Ans: Maxwell bridge
• Operator on microwave frequency
Ans: GaAs over Silicon or Germanium

• J-K flip-flop frequency


Ans: Divides the frequency by 2.

• Small capacitance formed by twisting 2 insulated wire


Ans: Gimmick Capacitor

• Modified Miller circuit


Ans: Phanastron

• Converts step to ramp circuit


Ans: Miller circuit

• Servocontrolled robots are robots within ___ mm range rather than a fraction of mm.
Ans: 2

• It is an electron tube which emits photoelectrons when the cathode is eliminated


Ans: Phototube

• It is a radiant energy absorbed by the radiant to incident energy


Ans: Absorptance

• Inventor circuit
Ans: Converts dc to ac circuit

• Laurence or Living stone


Ans: Magnetic resonator or cyclotron

• Microporgramming
Ans: Sequence of five binary codes

• 540 degrees
Ans: Phase opposition

• Power efficiency of solar cell


Ans: 5% to 15%

• Thermal detector
Ans: Bolometer

• Exact location of data


Ans: Absolute code

• Fundamental frequency in all harmonics


Ans: Sawtooth wave

• dV/dt of SCR
Ans: False trigerring

• Monolithic IC uses
Ans: Extensive large components

• MOS IC uses
Ans: MOSFET
• A diode with no depletion region
Ans: Schottky diode

• LED emits light because


Ans: Electron and holes recombine

• What is the difference on the input impedance of BJT and FET?


Ans: A FET has high input impedance while BJT has low input impedance.

• Marking of scale to accept standard


Ans: Calibration

• Zener diode is in
Ans: reverse diode

• The temperature coefficient of extrinsic semiconductor is


Ans: negative

• Voltage of selenium semiconductor


Ans: 1 V

• It is preferred to manufacture diode and temperature rating


Ans: Silicon

• Isotope …
Ans: Abundance ratio

• Electron hole pair is done by


Ans: Thermal energy

• JFET square law device is because


Ans: its characteristic curve is parabolic

• Tank circuit
Ans: Antiresonant

• Cut-in voltage or turn on voltage current


Ans: Exponentially increases

• Electron beam deflected from axial to enlarge


Ans: Deflection defocusing

• Equal ratio bridge


Ans: Heaviside Campbell bridge

• Silicon oxide (SiO2) is for


Ans: Insulation

• APD is better than PIN diode is for


Ans: Speed of operation

• Voltage for temperature stability of zener diode


Ans: 5.6 V

• 3 superconducting inductor in parallel


Ans: Persistor
• Application of semiconductor
Ans: Wafer

• LC circuit is used for


Ans: Load current

• Power factor of RC is between


Ans: 0 and 1

• Minimum Duty Cycle of Bust converter


Ans: Dmin = 1 – 2fsLc
RL

• Boost converter critical inductance


Ans: Lc = (1-D)2DRL
2fs

• Buck Boost converter critical inductance


Ans: Lc = (1-D)2RL
2fs

• Buck converter critical inductance


Ans: Lc = (1-D)RL
2fs

• Typical CMRR
Ans: 100 to 10,000

• Typical CMRR in dB
Ans: 40 to 80 dB

• Accuracy of Wien bridge


Ans: 0.5% - 1%

• Typical value of armature resistance


Ans: 0.5Ω

• The saturation voltage of an op-amp is ___ smaller than the power supply
Ans: 2 V

• Solid grounding has a voltage below


Ans: 660 V

• Resistance grounding has typical voltage between


Ans: 3.3 – 11 kV

• Percentage conductivity of pure annealed silver wire


Ans: 108.8%

• Percentage conductivity of 99.5% pure gold


Ans: 72.6%

• Percentage conductivity of 63% pure aluminum


Ans: 63%

• Corona is maximum on
Ans: transmission lines
• Transformer that operates on the frequency range of 20 kHz to 20 MHz
Ans: Carrier frequency transformer

• JFET configuration for buffer amplifier


Ans: common drain

• JFET configuration for good voltage amplification


Ans: common source

• JFET configuration for high frequency amplifier


Ans: common gate

• The dc-dc converterwith unregulated input voltage and regulated output voltage
Ans: SMPS (Single Mode Power Supply)

• Corona is due to
Ans: radio interference

• A transformer on the frequency of 15 kHz


Ans: Converter transformer

• Ingredients of wet cell


Ans: Zinc and copper

• Main ingredient of dry cell


Ans: Zinc container

• It reduces gain to a limiting level


Ans: Limiter

• First transistor
Ans: Point contact

• First fuel battery was invented by _____ in 1959.


Ans: F.T. Bacon

• Unlike buck and boost converter, the buck boost converter featured output voltage:
Ans: opposite polarity to input.

• Lattice in which the lattice points are only shown in the crystal
Ans: Bravais Lattice

• An error due to shortcoming of instruments


Ans: Systematic error

• An error that cannot be corrected


Ans: Random error

• It is a substance where the bulk is composed


Ans: Element
• Typical voltage of lead-acid
Ans: 2.1 V

• What type of cell used in the emergency system?


Ans: Silver-zinc cell
• Microcontroller consists of
Ans: Microprocessor, memory, input and output unit

• Percentage of the transistor current flows in the collector


Ans: 95%

• SMPC operates between ON state and OFF state at a frequency of


Ans: 10 kHz and 40 kHz

• A camera with imaging positron effect with multiple layer of silicon detector
Ans: Compton camera

• NMOS is _____ than PMOS


Ans: 6 times

• What is the diameter of the wafer used in manufacturing?


Ans: 3 to 8 inches

• Standard spacing for IC chip


Ans: 2 um and 3 um

• Advanced spacing for IC chip


Ans: 1 um

• BCC crystal structure


Ans: Chromium

• HPC crystal structure


Ans: Zinc

• Another name for differential amplifier


Ans: Subtractor

• A factor that determines the filter response


Ans: Damping factor

• Unity gain amplifier has ____ input impedance


Ans: Extremely high

• Megger is
Ans: used to measure high resistance

• Increasing transmitter height


Ans: Decrease capacitance and inductance remains the same.

• Undergrounding conductor is
Ans: Maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath

• A transformer that has a frequency range from 100 Hz – 150 kHz


Ans: Converter transformer

• Surge impedance of cable


Ans: 50 Ω

• Ideal input impedance of op-amp


Ans: 50 Ω
• Formula for the increase % in saturation current
Ans: 2((T2-T1)/10) X 100%

• Ideal noise factor


Ans: 0 dB

• Vacant lattice site with missing atom relocated to a interstitial space with no atom.
Ans: Frenkel effect

• FCC packing factor


Ans: 0.74

• Linear change of input


Ans: Ramp input

• Instantaneous, finite input


Ans: Step input

• Indicating device orientation of object


Ans: Selsyn

• An AC bridge that measures mutual inductance


Ans: Heaviside bridge

• One of the most important bridge in determining link capacitances


Ans: Schering bridge

• Highest dielectric strength


Ans: Glass

• High sensitivity
Ans: Permanent magnet

• A transformer in laminated core reduced


Ans: Eddy current

• An analysis used for more than one voltage source


Ans: Superposition theorem

• Maximum magnitude of the output voltage from an op-amp is called


Ans: Saturation voltage

• A graph of amplitude versus input frequency


Ans: Bode plot

• Effect of recombination on depletion region


Ans: Emission coefficient or ideality factor

• Magnetic amplifier operates at a frequency at ____ or less


Ans: 100 Hz

• Most commonly used coupling


Ans: Transformer coupling

• Typical LED voltage


Ans: 1.6 V

• Capacitance of disc ceramic capacitor


Ans: 100 pF

• A bypass capacitor at high frequency


Ans: Ceramic capacitor

• Indicating device orientation of object


Ans: Selsyn

• Odd parity checker


Ans: XOR

• Shelf life of lithium cell


Ans: 5 to 10 years

• Negative feedback
Ans: Increases bandwidth and decrease voltage gain

• Alkaline cell ingredient


Ans: Potassium hydroxide

• Advantage of NiCd over lead acid


Ans: Cell on NiCd can be replaced

• By adding parallel circuit to the inverting amplifier


Ans: Inverting summing

• Linear amplification
Ans: Level clamper

• Theory of magnetic flux in a closed system equal to zero


Ans: Gauss theorem

• Personal error
Ans: Gross error

• Advantage of magnetic disk to magnetic tape


Ans: Easier to read

• The maximum current can safely handle


Ans: Ampacity

• JFET reference voltage


Ans: Source

• Buffer amplifier gain


Ans: 1

• AWG no. 6
Ans: 0.395 Ω/1000 ft.

• AWG no. 12
Ans: 6350 cmil
• Indicating device orientation of object
Ans: Selsyn

• A mass of 1.66 x 10-27 kg.


Ans: Unified amu

• Reciprocal of Avogadro’s number


Ans: amu

• Electrostatic radius of an atom


Ans: 10-14

• Manipulator has ___ degrees of freedom


Ans: 3

• Arrange in data arrays


Ans: RAM

• OS memory
Ans: BIOS

• Voltage amplifier
Ans: Pre-amplifier

• Latest used data


Ans: Cache memory

• LIFO
Ans: Stack memory

• Minimum distance of features in a chip


Ans: Geometry

• Number of elements not found in nature but also prepared in laboratories


Ans: 105

• IC advantage
Ans: Reliability

• Minimum to maximum range


Ans: Span

• 1/5 of the Wi-Fi range


Ans: Bluetooth

• Temperature of Class B motor


Ans: 130°C

• Temperature of Class F motor


Ans: 155°C

• Pure ac voltage single frequency


Ans: Single pip

• Cannot be used as a permanent magnet


Ans: Caryon

• In double’s Kelvin bridge, 1Ω to 10 uΩ


Ans: 0.05% - 0.2%

• Wien bridge oscillator


Ans: f = 1/(2πRC)

• Most important IEEE standard interface


Ans: IEEE 488 digital interface

• Common method of coupling used in cascade amplifier stages


Ans: Transformer

• It is most obvious at higher frequencies


Ans: Corona

• Early IC packaging method used in transistors


Ans: TO (Transistor Outline)

• PLCC
Ans: Plastic Lead chip memory

• It is used in Hi-Fi audio system to split frequencies to fed tweeter and woofer
Ans: Crossover network

• Resistance offered by a PN junction in AC conditions


Ans: Dynamic resistance

• Characteristic of shared systems to avoid mixing up of print outs or programs


Ans: Spooling

• Absorption of slow moving electrons by an interleaving matter


Ans: Ramsauer effect

• If a load is removed from a long transmission line, the sending voltage end is less than receiving end
Ans: Ferranti effect

• Corona results in
Ans: Radio interference

• Ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of all metals
Ans: Weidemann Franz Law

• Color of neutral in 3-core flexible cable


Ans: Blue

• It is neglected in short transmission line analysis


Ans: Shunt admittance

• It is located near transformer


Ans: Lightning arrester

• Volume of atom ratio to cell volume


Ans: Packing factor
• RLC circuit that provides undamped oscillation
Ans: Ringing circuit

• Contact between metal and heavily doped-semiconductor


Ans: Ohmic contact

• Comparator with hysteresis


Ans: Schmitt trigger

• Negative electron
Ans: Negatron

• Input continuously increases constant output


Ans: Level Clamp

• Four arm AC bridge measures inductance by standard capacitance


Ans: Maxwell Bridge

• Shows positions of lattice points


Ans: Bravais Lattice

• Measures the diameter of an atom


Ans: Ernest Rutherford

• Ratio of the AC power supply to the plate power supply


Ans: Plate efficiency

• Electromechanical device that converts electrical to mechanical by attraction of iron plunger to the electromagnet
Ans: Solenoid

• Lithium battery
Ans: Microcomputer memory back-up

• Protection against electric shock


Ans: Earthing

• The heat generated melts the portion at the tip of the electrode and the base of the metal
Ans: Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW)

• Advantages of PCB
Ans: Eliminates bigger chassis and point to point mounting

• Energy to raise the electron to another orbit


Ans: Excitation

• It is used in high voltage and high current application for most efficient regulator
Ans: Switching regulator

• What refers to garaging the two adjustments of an Ac bridge together in such a way that changing one adjustment changes
the other in a special way, but changing the second adjustment does not change first?
Ans: Orthogonal nulling

• Not common sine wave generator


Ans: Multivibrator

• Range of degrees of freedom


Ans: Work envelope
• Physical bend, twist, and reach
Ans: Manipulator

• Poor selectivity
Ans: Wide bandwidth

• It has amplifier and feedback


Ans: Electronic amplifier

• Maintenance of oscillation
Ans: Flywheel effect

• Free electrons collidal to bound electrons causing mere current carriers


Ans: Avalanche effect

• Magnetic leakage due to 100% coupling


Ans: Electromagnetic effect

• A particle resulting to an atom of an element combined to form a compound


Ans: Molecule

• P shell number of electrons


Ans: 72

• Solid formed by covalent bonding


Ans: Crystal

• The resistance in the magnetic path to the magnetic lines of force


Ans: Reluctance

• The flux density in an iron core when the magnetic intensity is zero
Ans: Residual magnetism

• When an electron rises to the conduction band a hole is created in the valence band, this called _____
Ans: Electron hole pair

• Operating temperature of silicon.


Ans: -175 to 350°C

• Highly sensitive material


Ans: Permanent magnet

• Smallest ripple voltage


Ans: Multi-section LC filter

• Highest torque
Ans: Series motors

• Motivating input in a control system which is independent with the output


Ans: Command input

• Development process of a microcrystal molten


Ans: Crystal growth

• The voltage regulator, the component used as a comparator


Ans: Op-amp

• It is not an resistance welding


Ans: Arc welding

• Atom to atom bond on surface with oxide free surface


Ans: Pressure welding

• Elimination of stray capacitance


Ans: Shielding and grounding

• 2 identical shunt motor


Ans: Hopkinson

• In double’s Kelvin bridge, 1Ω to 10 uΩ


Ans: 0.05% - 0.2%

• AC voltage frequency converter from one form to another


Ans: Cyclo converter

• Skin effect seen at


Ans: High frequencies

• Indicates the address of next instruction


Ans: Program counter

• Drift current is directly proportional to mobility, diffusion is directly proportional to concentration of diffusion
Ans: Einstein relation

• dV/dt in SCR
Ans: False trigerring

• It divides an HF signal so that a low frequency counter would be able to display the operating frequency
Ans: Prescaler circuit

• Responds to the variation in incident photon


Ans: Quantum detector

• Draws less current from circuit under test


Ans: FETVM

• It provides very high electrical isolation between control ckt and power ckt, has high impedance between light source and
phototransistor.
Ans: Optoisolator

• It is used to measure variations by the changing metallic resistance


Ans: Bolometer

• Most common bolometric device


Ans: Thermistor

• These are mostly used in robot than AC because it can with stand large overload.
Ans: DC motor and stepper motor

• Converting sine wave to series of pulses


Ans: Timing Marker Generator
• Current regulator alone
Ans: Regulator IC alone

• What do you call a short circuit having minimum resistance?


Ans: Dead short

• What is used in measuring wires from number 0 to number 36?


Ans: AWG

• Discharge of electricity from a conductor with a high potential


Ans: Corona

• Power transformer normally operates at ____ alternating current.


Ans: 60 or 400 Hz

• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 0 to 1 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 0 to 4 mA DC?
Ans: Perception

• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 1 to 4mA, 60 Hz, AC or 4 to 15 mA DC?
Ans: Surprise

• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 4 to 21 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 15 to 80 mA DC?
Ans: Reflex action

• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 21 to 40 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 80 to 160 mA DC?
Ans: Muscular Inhibition

• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 40 to 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 160 to 300 mA DC?
Ans: Respiratory failure

• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of over 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 300 mA DC?
Ans: Fatal

• What is the effect of hydrogen surrounding the anode of a cell which increases the internal resistance of the cell?
Ans: Polarization

• What is the anode of a lead –acid cell?


Ans: Lead peroxide

• What is the cathode of a lead acid cell?


Ans: Sponge lead

• What is the anode of a NiCad Cell ?


Ans: Hydroxide

• What is the anode of a silver zinc cell?


Ans: Silver oxide

• What is the cathode of a silver zinc cell ?


Ans: Zinc

• What is the production of the hydrogen gas caused by a portion of the charge current breaking down the water in the
electrolyte?
Ans: Gassing
• What is the shelf life of lithium organic cell and lithium inorganic cell?
Ans: 20 years

• In what charge is the charging rate determined by the battery voltage rather than a definite current value?
Ans: Floating charge

• What charge is used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle or light duty?
Ans: Floating charge

• Floating charge is sometimes referred to as ___ and is accomplished with low current.
Ans: Trickle charge

• What is used when a battery must be recharged in the shortest possible time?
Ans: Fast charge

• Electrical safety precatutions must be observed. A fatal shock can occur from ___ ampere of current.
Ans: 0.1

• Voltages as low as ___ volts have been recorded as causing sufficient current to be fatal.
Ans: 30

• What type of extinguishers are used to extinguish electrical fires?


Ans: CO2

• Under favorable conditions, the body resistance may be as low as ___ ohms
Ans: 300

• The body resistance is possibly as low as ___ from temple to temple if the skin is broken.
Ans: 100

• In a voltage divider, bleeder current is usually determined by the ___ percent rule of thumb.
Ans: 10

• A theory of magnetism based upon the electron-spin principle.


Ans: Domain Theory.

• What action results in the increase in current that generates more heat and the cycle repeats itself until the diode draws
excessive current?
Ans: Thermal runaway

• What is the faithful reproduction of a signal in an amplifier?


Ans: Fidelity

• What dc generators are designed to act as high gain amplifier?


Ans: Amplidynes

• What is the range of the dc resistance of most motor armatures?


Ans: 0.05 to 0.5 ohms

• What is usually the lamination thickness of the armature core of a small generator?
Ans: 1/64 inches

• Mechanical rotation of frequency is measured using a device called___.


Ans: Tachometer

• The rotation of frequency of recording devices and teletypewriter motors can be measured by the use of _____.
Ans: Stroboscope.
• What is an instrument that allows you to view rotating or reciprocating objects intermittently and produces the optical effect
of a slowing down or stopping motion?
Ans: Stroboscope

• What is an electronic flash device in which the flash duration is very short, a few millionths of a second and can measure
very rapid motion?
Ans: Strobotac

• What is a combination of watch and revolution counter?


Ans: Chronometric tachometer

• What type of bolometer is characterized as an increase in resistance as the dissipated power rises?
Ans: Barreter

• What type of bolometer is characterized by decrease in resistance as the power increases?


Ans: Thermistor

• What instrument is used for measuring radio frequency (rf) power?


Ans: Thermocouple ammeter

• Which of the following robots is used for machining processes?


Ans: Cincinatti T3

• Kuka spot welding has ___ degrees of freedom.


Ans: 6

• Exx1x
Ans: All positions

• Exx2x
Ans: horizontal positions

• Magnetic audio tape


Ans: Parallel

• Magnetic video tape


Ans: Diagonal

• Thickness of magnetic audio tape


Ans: 1 mil

• A sawtooth wave has a ____ added to become trapezoidal wave.


Ans: resistor

• Absent of current welding


Ans: cool sub-interval

• 1.5 H
Ans: Air pot core

• Who coined the term robotics?


Ans: Isaac Asimov

• Oldest welding
Ans: Forge welding

• Klystron
Ans: High achievable power output

• Inert gas
Ans: MIG

• Active gas
Ans: MAG

• Antrophomorphic robot is
Ans: more maneuverable

• It is also known as metal inert gas.


Ans: Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW)

• Robot with facial expression


Ans: Kismet

• Toy dinosaur robot


Ans: Pleo

• Snap acting switch


Ans: Microswitch

• Approach in which introduce factory automation technology


Ans: Islands of automation

• Degree of automatic.
Ans: Level of automation

• Orange, blue and gray diode


Ans: IN368

• It is the welding electrode comes forward and engage the metal pressing against the surface.
Ans: squeeze interval

• It is the welding in which the welding transformer energized and the current flows and create a weld.
Ans: weld interval

• It is the weld interval that is finished


Ans: hold interval

• Welding electrode is retracted


Ans: release interval

• A time after release interval to the next start sequence.


Ans: Standby interval.

• It is a closed loop feedback control system in which one or more of the system signals represent mechanical motion.
Ans: Servomechanism.

• Exx3x
Ans: Flat

• E60xx has a tensile strength of ___


Ans: 60,000 psi
• With AC or DC similar to E6010
Ans: E6011

• Major power supply of MIG


Ans: DCRP

• Medium penetration
Ans: E6013

• Can be prevented by arc welding


Ans: Arc flow

• Faying surfaces in one spot


Ans: Resistance spot welding

• Faying surfaces
Ans: Resistance seam welding

• Resistance of the work


Ans: Resistance welding

• Mass of 60-lb IR robot


Ans: 60 kg

• Deep penetration
Ans: Submerged arc

• Deep penetration
Ans: DC reverse

• Medium penetration
Ans: DC straight

• Fast welding
Ans: Flash welding

• 10,000 to 50,000 Hz welding


Ans: High frequency welding

• Image resolution
Ans: Dot pitch

• Voltage of dry electrolytic capacitor


Ans: 500 V

• Apply electrostatic voltage in plastic


Ans: Electroactive polymer

• In electrolytic positive, ___ of the total heat.


Ans: 2/3

• Prevents corona
Ans: Braid

• 450°F below…
Ans: Soldering
• above 450°F joining of two metals
Ans: Brazing

• Metal active gas


Ans: CO2

• Multimeter on the lower center switch


Ans: Range switch

• Multimeter on the lower left switch


Ans: Function switch

• Aluminum D-ARsonval movement


Ans: Bobbin

• Positive lead
Ans: Red

• Negative lead
Ans: Black

• Angular momentum of robot


Ans: Yaw

• GaAs disadvantage
Ans: more expensive

• Disadvantage of Transformer to capacitive coupling


Ans: more expensive

• A motor or transducer that converts energy (electrical, hydraulic, or pneumatic) into power used to produce motion or
power.
Ans: actuator

• The ability of a robot to position its end effector at a programmed location in space.
Ans: accuracy

• Control signals that are processed by directly measuring quantities (voltages, resistances or rotation). This can be
hydraulic, electronic or pneumatic.
Ans: analog control

• A robot or machine that resembles a human.


Ans: android

• A robot with rotary joints that can move much like a person’s arm.
Ans: anthrophomorphic robot

• An interconnected set of links and powered joints comprising a manipulator that supports or moves a wrist, hand or end
effector.
Ans: arm

• The ability of a machine system to perceived anticipated or unanticipated new conditions, decide what actions must be
performed under the conditions and plan the actions accordingly. The main areas of applications are expert systems and
computer vision.
Ans: artificial intelligence
• Also known as assembly cell or assembly station. A concentrated group of equipment such as manipulators, vision
modules, parts presenters, and support tables that are dedicated to compute assembly operations at one physical location.
Ans: assembly

• The use of any one several techniques to determine the presence or absence of features. This technique include simple
mechanical probes and vision systems.
Ans: automated inspection

• Automatically controlled operation of an apparatus, process or system by mechanical or electronic devices that replace
human observation, effort and decision.
Ans: automation

• A traveled path in space, usually referred to as a linear direction of travel in any of three dimensions.
Ans: axis

• A robot in which motions are controlled by driving each axis or degree of freedom against a mechanical limit stop.
Ans: bang-bang robot

• A platform or structure to which a robot arm is attached; the end of a kinematic chain of arm links and joints opposite to
which grasps or processes external objects.
Ans: base

• A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more workstations or machines and the material transport mechanisms and
storage buffers that interconnect them.
Ans: cell
• A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more cells, and the material transport mechanisms and storage buffers that
interconnect them.
Ans: center

• An assembly between two closely related rigid members enabling on member to rotate in relation to the other around a
mobile axis.
Ans: complex joint

• The use of an interactive terminal workstation usually with graphics capability to automate the design of products. It
includes functions such as drafting and fit-up parts.
Ans: computer aided design (CAD)

• Working from a product design likely to exist in a CAD data base, it encompases the computer based technologies that
physically produce the product, including parts program preparation, process planning, tool design, process analysis and
parts processing by numerically controlled machines.
Ans: computer-aided manufacturing (CAM)

• A numerical control system with a dictated mini or micro computer that performs the functions of data processing and
control.
Ans: computerized numerical control (CNC)

• The unit of automatic work for a robot. Within a cycle, subelements called trajectories define lesser but integral elements.
Each trajectory is made up of points where the robot performs an operation or passes through depending upon the
programming.
Ans: cycle (program)

• The number of independent ways the end effector can move. It is defined by the number of rotational or translational axes
through which motion can be obtained.
Ans: degrees of freedom

• The joint that connects the upper arm and forearm on a robot.
Ans: elbow
• Also known as end of arm tooling or simply a hand. The subsystem that links the mechanical portion of the robot
(manipulator) to the part being handled or work on, and gives the robot the ability to pick yp and transfer parts and/or handle
a multitude of different tools to perform work on parts.
Ans: end effector

• Robots with little if any computer power. Their only intelligent functions consist of learning a sequence of manipulative
actions, choreographed by a human operator using a teach box.
Ans: first generation robot system

• Also known as nonservo robot or open robot. A robot with stoppoint control but no trajectory control.
Ans: fixed stop robot

• Multipurpose robots that are adaptable and capable of being redirected trained or used for new purposes.
Ans: flexibility operational

• An arrangement of machine tools that is capable of standing alone, interconnected by a workpiece transport system and
controlled by a central computer.
Ans: flexible manufacturing system (FMS)

• Also known as pedestal robot. A robot with its base permanently or semi-permanently attached to the floor or bench. Such
a robot is working at one location with a maximum limited work area and in many cases servicing only one machine.
Ans: floor mounted robot

• That portion of a jointed arm which is connected to the wrist and elbow
Ans: forearm.

• An overhead mounted, rectilinear robot with a minimum of three degrees of freedom and normally not exceeding six.
Ans: gantry robot.

• The grasping hand of a robot, which manipulates objects and tools to fulfill a given task.
Ans: gripper

• An approach used to introduce factory automation technology into manufacturing by selective application of automation.
Ans: islands of automation.

• The degree to which a process has been made automatic. Relevant to the level of automation are questions of automatic
failure recovery, the variety of situations that will be automatically handled, and the conditions under which manual
intervention or action by human beings is required.
Ans: level of automation

• An electrical switched positioned to be switched where a motion limit occurs, thereby deactivating the actuator that causes
the motion.
Ans: limit switch

• A mechanism usually consisting of a series of segments or links, jointed or sliding to one another, for grasping or moving
objects, usually in several degrees of freedom.
Ans: manipulator

• A method for the control of machine tool systems. A program containing all the information, in symbolic numerical form,
needed for processing a workpiece is stored on a medium such as paper or magnetic tape.
Ans: numerical control

• Developing robot programs partially or completely without requiring the use of the robot itself. The program is loaded into
the robot’s controller for subsequent automatic action of the manipulator.
Ans: off-line programming
• Software that controls the execution of computer programs, may provide scheduling, allocation, debugging data
management, and other functions.
Ans: operating systems

• Also known as positioning. The consistent movement or manipulation of an object into controlled position and altitude in
space.
Ans: orientation

• The equipment used in conjunction with the robot for a complete robotic system. This includes grippers, conveyors, parts
positioners and parts or materials feeders that are needed with the robot.
Ans: peripheral equipment

• Also known as bend. The angular rotation of a moving body about an axis that is perpendicular to its direction of motion and
in the same plane as its top side.
Ans: pitch

• Also known as photoelement or photosite. A digital picture or sensor element, picture is short for picture cell.
Ans: pixel

• The act of providing the control instructions required for a robot to perform its intended task.
Ans: programming

• The envelope of variance of the robot tool print position for repeated cycles under the same conditions. It is obtained from
the deviation between the positions and orientations reached at the end of several similar cycles. Contrast with accuracy.
Ans: repeatability

• A reprogrammable, multifunctional manipulator designed to move a material, parts, tools, or specialized devices through
variable programmed motions for the performance of a variety of tasks.
Ans: robot

• The science of designing, building and applying robots.


Ans: robotics

• Also known as twist. The rotational displacement of a joint around the principal axis of its motionj, particularly at the wrist.
Ans: roll

• A robot with a computer processes added to the robotic controller. This addition makes it possible to perform, in real time,
the calculations required to control the motions of each degree of freedom in a cooperative manner to effect smooth motions
of the end effector along predetermined paths. It also become possible to integrate simple sensors, such as force torque,
and proximity into the robot system ,providing some degree of adaptability to the robot’s environment.
Ans: second generation robot system

• A controller that operates an application though a fixed sequence of events.


Ans: sequencer

• A robot driven by servomechanisms, that is, motors or actuators whose driving signal is a function of the difference between
a commanded position and/or rate is measured actual position and/or rate.
Ans: servocontrolled robot

• An automatic control mechanism consisting of a motor or actuator driven by a signal that is a function of the difference
between a commanded position and/or rate and measured actual position and/or rate.
Ans: servomechanism

• The manipulator arm linkage joint that is attached to the base.


Ans: shoulder

• The maximum velocity at which a manipulator joint can move; a rate imposed by saturation in the servoloop controlling the
joint.
Ans: slew rate

• The use of two or more cameras to pinpoint the location of an object in a three dimensional space.
Ans: stereo imaging

• The detection by a robot though contact of touch, force, pattern slip and movement. It allows for the determination of local
shape, orientation and feedback forces of a grasped workspace.
Ans: tactile sensing

• A robot system characterized by the incorporation of multiple computer processors, each operating asynchronously to
perform specific functions. It includes a separate low level processor for each degree of freedom and a master computer
supervising and coordinating these processors, as well as providing higher-level functions.
Ans: third generation robot system

• The orientation of a view with a video camera, in elevation.


Ans: tilt

• A continuous position control response to continuously changing input requirements.


Ans: tracking

• A movement such that all axes remain parallel to what they were.
Ans: translation

• The acquisition, movement thorugh space, and release of an object by a robot.


Ans: transport

• The portion of a jointed arm that is connected to the shoulder.


Ans: upper arm

• Also known as the robot operating envelope. The set of points representing the maximum extent or reach of the robot tool
in a directions.
Ans: work envelope

• The envelope reached by the center of the interface between the wrist and the tool, using all available axis motions.
Ans: workspace

• A set of joints, usually rotational, between the arm and the hand or end effector, which allow the hand or end effector to be
oriented relative to the workpiece.
Ans: wrist

• The angular displacement of a moving joint about an axis which is perpendicular to the line of motion and the top side of the
body.
Ans: yaw

• What magnet is used in computer memory circuits?


Ans: Ring magnet

• What magnet is used in some meter circuits?


Ans: Horseshoe magnet

• “If the electrons of the atom in a material spin more in one direction than in the other, the material will become magnetized”.
This refers to what theorem?
Ans: The Domain theory of Magnetism

• What theorem assumes that all magnetic materials are made up of magnetic molecules which, if lined up in north to south
pole order, will be a magnet. If not lined up, the magnetic fields about the molecules will neutralize each other and no
magnetic effect will be noted?
Ans: Weber’s theory of magnetism
• What do you call a short circuit having minimum resistance?
Ans: Dead short

• What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is no external load?
Ans: Local action

• The amount of increase in the resistance of 1 ohm sample of the conductor per degree of temperature rise above 0°C is
called what?
Ans: Temperature coefficient of resistance

• What do you call the resistance to current leakage through the insulation?
Ans: Insulation resistance

• What is the common name for enamel insulated wire?


Ans: Magnet wire

• What term is general one and usually applies only to the larger sizes of conductors?
Ans: Cables

• The process of applying thin coat of solder to materials prior to their being soldered.
Ans: Tinning

• The addition of atmospheric oxygen to metal to form rust, or to cause a breakdown in the internal construction of the metal.
Ans: Oxidation

• What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is not external load?
Ans: Local action

• A continuous jacket of lead molded around a single conductor or multiple conductor cable.
Ans: Lead sheath

• What do you call the force exerted on an insulator by the voltage in a conductor?
Ans: Electrostatic stress

• The discharge of electricity from a conductor with a high potential.


Ans: Corona

• A material that removes oxides from surfaces to be joined by soldering or welding.


Ans: Flux

• A synthetic mixture of rosins that is flexible and used as an insulating material. Generally used as an insulator for low and
medium range voltages.
Ans: Thermoplastic

• The capacity of a soldering iron to generate and maintain a satisfactory soldering temperature while giving up heat to the
material being soldered.
Ans: Thermal inertia

• What is the working voltage of a dry electrolytic capacitor?


Ans: 500 V

• If arcing should occur between the plates of an oil filled capacitor, the oil will tend to reseal the hole caused by the arcing.
Such a capacitor is referred to as ____ capacitor.
Ans: self-healing
• The maximum voltage that can be steadily applied to the capacitor without the capacitor breaking down (shorting) is called
____ of the capacitor.
Ans: working voltage

• What is meant by “local action”?


Ans: Current flow in cell with no external load.

• The left side of the pulse


Ans: Leading edge

• The right side of the pulse


Ans: Trailing edge

• What is the process by which an atoms gain or losses electrons?


Ans: Ionization

• Any group of energy levels that results from the close proximity of atoms in a solid.
Ans: Energy bands

• How many pulsations per revolution have the output voltage of an elementary single coil dc generator?
Ans: Two

• How many commutator segments are required in a two-coil generator?


Ans: Four

• What is the distortion of the main field due to the effects of armature current?
Ans: Armature reaction

• What type of prime mover requires a specially designed high speed alternator?
Ans: Steam turbine

• What type of rotor is used in slower speed alternators?


Ans: Salient pole rotor

• What type of rotor is wound in a manner to allow high-speed use without flying apart?
Ans: Turbine driven type rotor

• What term is used to denote the difference in speed between the rotor which is always somewhat less than the speed of the
rotating field?
Ans: Slip

• What mechanical device reverses armature connections in motors and generators at the proper instant so that current
continues to flow only in one direction?
Ans: Commutator

• What motor characteristic is affected by counter emf?


Ans: Speed

• How is EPROM erased?


Ans: with a burst of ultraviolet light

• Whenever data is transferred between devices, it involves the exchange of prearranged signals. What is this process
called?
Ans: Handshaking

• What test is used to check for opens (or to see if the circuit is complete or continuous) and is accomplished with an
ohmmeter?
Ans: Continuity test

• What type of circuits are caused by some conducting part of the circuit making contact either directly or indirectly with the
metallic structure of the ship or chassis?
Ans: Ground circuits

• Shunts are usually made from what alloy?


Ans: Manganin

• What property of shunt is desired because of the heavy currents that often flow through shunts producing heat?
Ans: Zero-temperature coefficient

• In D’Arsonval meter, many turns of fine wire would be used, each turn adding more effective length to the coil. The coil is
wound on an aluminum frame called ___.
Ans: bobbin

• What is an important point to remember when you are making an accurate resistance measurement?
Ans: “Zero” the meter each time you select a new range.

• BJT better than FET


Ans: radio receiver

• Wineglass
Ans: Plasma arc welding

• … plasma
Ans: Plasma arc welding

• Slow speed
Ans: Salient pole

• High speed
Ans: Turbine driven type rotor

• Differentiation
Ans: Submerged

• Comparison solenoid
Ans: Relay fixed core

• Human arm
Ans: Serial robot

• Input display signal voltage


Ans: Vertical deflection coil

• Replacing DC motor/recently used


Ans: Piezo motor

• Rapid discharge of electrical energy


Ans: Percussion welding

• Hydrogen Electrode
Ans: E7018

• False
Ans: Air has the concentrated magnetic field
• Electron gun tube
Ans: CRT

• Electron field tube


Ans: Electron beam

• Multicavity Klystron
Ans: Variable electron speed

• Fuse
Ans: Quick break type

• Magnetic frequency increases


Ans: Power output decreases

• Cause of electrons due to the longitudinal


Ans: Magnetic field

• Along a joint
Ans: Upset welding

• Fastest memory
Ans: Flash memory

• Tungsten electrode
Ans: TIG

• Use of non-interlaced monitor


Ans: Fast graph

• CMOS disadvantage
Ans: cannot handle high power

• TTL
Ans: least susceptible to noise

• E stands for
Ans: American Wire Electrode

• Exceeding 450°F
Ans: Brazing

• Not exceeding 450°F


Ans: Soldering

• Generators used
Ans: Magnetic

• Battery used as
Ans: chemical

• Responsible of pulsating DC
Ans: Commutator

• Low voltage high power


Ans: Center tapped Full Wave

• Oldest 1940 general magnetic phenomenon


Ans: Colding or cold contact

• Joints
Ans: Direct Kinematics

• End effector
Ans: Inverse Direct Kinematics

• Nothing but to memory


Ans: Flag field

• Unwanted connection
Ans: Fault connection

• Frequency synthesizer used as


Ans: Divider

• Output amplitude
Ans: Amplitude stability

• DC motor is preferred as driver in robotics because


Ans: it can withstand large overload

• Welding is not used direct source because


Ans: it is impracticable to draw heavy currents

• Atomic hydrogen is long lived because


Ans: ac is used

• RF power amplifier
Ans: Common base

• Choke
Ans: passes dc but not RF

• Multivibrator
Ans: Common emitter or common source

• Algorithm better than ZMP


Ans: Dynamic balancing

• One feet with small


Ans: Hopping

• Automatic welding
Ans: 5 intervals

• Control grid of a tube


Ans: gate of a FET

• Impedance mismatch reactance output


Ans: Transformer
• Laminated core
Ans: reduces eddy current loss

• No load loss but not electrical loss


Ans: Windage

• Manganese Dioxide Alkaline Acid


Ans: Alkaline Cell

• Draws large amount of current


Ans: Rheostat

• Increase RL
Ans: Improved Efficiency

• Single coil
Ans: Elementary generator

• 3 classifications of robot
Ans: Anthrophomorphic, SCARA, and articulated

• Connects arm and end effectors


Ans: Wrist

• ____ for bones, ____ for muscle and ____for degrees of freedom.
Ans: links, actuator, and joints

• Early actuator
Ans: Elastic nanotube

• Changing of electric energy


Ans: Electroactive polymer

• Variable speed
Ans: DC generator

• Constant speed
Ans: AC generator

• More robot than worker


Ans: Japan

• Transient suppression prevents


Ans: diode failure

• Tunnel diode
Ans: Dr. Leo Esaki

• Zener Diode
Ans: Dr. Carl Zener

• Varactor diode uses


Ans: Frequency stability

• 2 terminal communicate
Ans: Handshaking

• Highest fidelity
Ans: Class A

• Portion
Ans: Class AB

• FET amplifier
Ans: Class AB2

• Medium penetration
Ans: E6013

• Oxy fuel arc


Ans: Oxy fuel gas welding

• Electrical requirement of arc welding


Ans: high open circuit voltage

• Horizontal oscilloscope
Ans: Time/division

• Joining of metals
Ans: Welding

• Radio using tubes


Ans: Bulk and heavy

• The purpose of I in PIN diode


Ans: minimizes junction capacitance

• 1/16 to 5/16 in in diameter


Ans: American Welding Society

• Degrees of freedom for General purpose effectors


Ans: 20

• Deep penetration welding


Ans: Submerge arc welding

• JFET except
Ans: transconductance

• Pinch off voltage


Ans: Transconductance is zero

• Formula for IC with leakage current


Ans: IC = βIB + (β+1)ICBO

• IE
Ans: IE = IC - ICBO
α
• ICQ
Ans: ICQ = βIBQ + ICEO

• IEQ
Ans: IEQ = ICQ + IBQ

• Increase temperature leakage current


Ans: ICBO = ICBO (T2-T1)/10

• Charge of a capacitor
Ans: Q = CV

• Charge
Ans: Q = Qo (1-e(-t/RC))

• Dependent on gap
Ans: Charge efficiency

• NRZI means
Ans: Non-return to zero invert

• Pilot cell
Ans: identifies the condition of the battery

• More likely to occur than zener breakdown because lightl doped


Ans: Avalanche breakdown

• How wire
Ans: measure dc and ac

• Dielectric constant of mica


Ans: 6

• Buck boost lossless


Ans: D = (V2)/(V1+V2)

• Buck
Ans: D = V2/V1

• Op-amp filter
Ans: Polysterene

• TTL
Ans: open circuit high level

• I2L
Ans: bipolar saturated logic

• EAROM
Ans: Degrade data if used

• 6 rectifying elements
Ans: Gratz rectifier

• Superconductivity thin film memory consisting of a superconducting inductor


Ans: Permistor

• Register and counters are the same because


Ans: they have the same array of flip flop and gates
• High Q
Ans: High selectivity

• 2 principles of detector
Ans: Rectifier and filter

• Microprocessor
Ans: ALU and control unit

• CPU
Ans: ALU and control unit

• Simulate
Ans: Simulator
• Servocontrolled robot
Ans: Soft stop

• Nonservo robot
Ans: Hard stop

• Lowest resistivity at 293 K


Ans: Copper

• BIG elements
Ans: Trivalent

• PAA elements
Ans: Pentavalent

• Analog preferred than digital because


Ans: of measuring signal strength

• Opposing torques
Ans: Deflecting and restoring torques

• Code that…
Ans: Absolute code

• Equal ripple
Ans: Eliptic filter

• Illuminance
Ans: Lux

• Ripple sharp cutoff


Ans: Chebyshev filter

• Adds all harmonics


Ans: Sawtooth

• Odd harmonics
Ans: Square

• All even harmonics


Ans: Push pull
• The single grid of vacuum
Ans: Control grid

• In low frequency cutoff, amplitude decreases by ___ from midrange value


Ans: 3 dB

• Change in audio range


Ans: 1 dB

COMMUNICATIONS…

Fiber Optics (Chapter 11: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following refers to the relative refractive index difference of single mode fibers?
0.1 - 0.3 %

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A parameter of light beam that do not change the quality when it enters one medium from another.
Frequency

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following limits the top speed of transmitting information in fiber optic
communication?
Detector speed

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Type of multi-channel signal transmission in the optic fiber communication that uses twisted pair
coupler to transmit two signals of different wavelengths.
Frequency-division multiplexing

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Best applies to an optical fiber core.
A higher refractive index than the cladding

ECE Board Exam November 1998


How many times bigger does the bandwidth of a fiber optic multimode have over cable?
100 times bigger

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What law does a light travelling in an optical fiber follow?
Snell's

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen by human eye.
Ultraviolet
ECE Board Exam April 1997
Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single-mode fiber cable.
0.38dB

ECE Board Exam November 1996


An object father from a converging lens than its focal point always has an ________ image.
inverted

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The dielectric material of an optical fiber surrounding the core.
Cladding

ECE Board Exam April 2001


An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication is not intended to
determine one of the following:
Kind of multiplexing

--------------------- An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication-------


Refractive index
Loss per kilometer
Length of fiber

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In wire communications system using fiber optic, the packing fraction is related to one of the
following statements when referred to fiber optic bundle.
Ratio of the total cross-sectional area to the total cross-sectional area of the fiber bundle

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Why are fiber optic cables considered less expensive compared to coaxial cables in communication
system?
Use of less repeaters

ECE Board Exam November 1999


An optic fiber regenerator which is used in communication is consisting of a ________ to clean up
and amplify digital data moving in one direction and a similar system for the opposite direction.
transmitter and receiver

ECE Board Exam April 1999


How do you account the effect of light intensity on the refractive index of a fiber optic?
Increases

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the following referred to as a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer.
Pulse generator laser
ECE Board Exam April 1998
__________ generates light beam at a specific visible frequency.
Laser

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communication system.
APDs

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A non-coherent light source for optical communications system.
LED

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is
attenuation

ECE Board Exam March 1996


It is made from semiconductor material such as aluminum-gallium-arsenide or gallium-arsenide-
phosphide.
Light emitting diode

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How much bigger does the bandwidth of a single mode fiber optic have over the multimode fiber?
20 times bigger

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following refers to the bandwidth of optical fiber?
1 MHz - 500 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Refers to a characteristic of a multimode fiber optic.
Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core must
be much greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried.

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What do you call the loss in signal power as the light travels the fiber optic?
Attenuation

ECE Board Exam April 1999


One of the characteristics of a fiber optic used in order to carry light in several modes of
propagation or to become a multimode fiber.
Diameter of the core must be very muuch greater than the wavelength of the light to be
carried.

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a detector?

Photovoltaic effect

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Quantity that do not change when a beam of lifgt enters one medium to another
Frequency

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion.
Step-index multimode

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light intensity at 1.55 um.

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many
times the wavelength of the light transmitted is known as __________.
mode

ECE Board Exam March 1996


An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the siica material from which fibers are
manufactured.
Ultraviolet absorption

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following is not a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in
fiber optic communication?
vertical and horizontal plates

-------------------- major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic
communication---------------------
Laser
Beam splitter
Pulse generator

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following is a part of an optical time domain reflectometer?
Beam splitter
ECE Board Exam April 2000
This refers to a certain material which is most sensitive to light.
Photoresist

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Referred to as a light source of fiber optic which supplies level of 5
to 7 milliwats and having a narrow spectrum of emission.
Injection laser diode

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Most likely, how many times would a fiber optic break in a span of thirty years?
2 - 3 times

ECE Board Exam November 1998


An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signal from magnetic field or solar storm
flux
Immunity to noise

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following colors of light rays has the shortest wavelength?
Violet

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Fiber optic cable operates near ________ frequencies.
800 THz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and the detector rise
time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE. Board Exam November 1996


Proposed the used of a clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide
Bockham and Kao

ECE Board Exam November 2000


ln electronic communications where fiber optic material is used, a reflected
wave is a possibility. what happen to the polarization of this reflected wave
when compared to its original form?
Shifts to 180 degrees

ECE Board Exam April 2000


The effect of multimode propagation caused the rays leaving the fiber to
interfere constructively and destructively as they leave the end of the fiber
this effect is called _________.
modal delay spreading

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What is the wavelength for deep violet light?
500 nmeter

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A device in the fiber optic that is used to attenuate the reflected signal from the polished end of the
fiber which has a possibility of developing into a noise.
Isolator

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the advantages of the fiber optic which is referred to the volume of capacity of signals it
can carry
Bandwidth

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber optics communications links.
Optical repeater

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics communication systems
Optical attenuator

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Lifetime of ILDs
50.000 h

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon?
Molten

ECE Board Exam November 2000


One of the major limitations of a plastic fiberoptic used in communication
Due to its high losses

ECE Board Exam April 2000


One of following is considered the largest source of signal power loss in the
use of fiber optic as communications medium such as due to misalignment.
ConnectionECE Board Exam NOvember 1999
One of the following is related to the application of solid material as a medium where light travels.
medium where Ilght travels. apphcatlon of 5DHd mater-ja}; as 3
Fiber optics
ECE Board Exam April 1999
Which of the following is not considered as one of the causes for the loss of signal power as light
travels through a fiber optic?
Inter-modulation
----------------causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic-----------------
Scattering
Fiber bending
Absorption

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The core of the optical fiber has _______
a higher index of refraction than the cladding

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities formed
during the manufacturing process of the fiber optics.
Rayleigh scattering loss

ECE Board Exam November 1996


If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and the detector rise
time is 2 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A phenomenon which causes the speed of light rays propagation in the fiber
material changes, as it passes through different medium in the fiber
Refraction

ECE Board Exam April 2000


At what intenial does a fiber optic needs a repeater in communications
system?
30 to 300 miles

ECE Board Eanm November 1999


Referfeq to as a limit in reducing further the loss of signal passing through a
fiber optic caused by scattering.
Rayleigh effect

ECE Board Exam April 1999


These are band of light wavelengths, that are too short to be seen by the human eye.
Ultraviolet
ECE Board Exam November 1998
A quarter wavelength device made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the optic fiber
communication
Retarder

ECE Board Exam April 1999


At what power levels does fiber optic have when used in electronic communications?
Range of micro to milliwatts

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the following is among the types of fiber optics used in electronics communication.
Semi-graded multimode

ECE Board Exam November 1998


How do you reduce the loss that is produced when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber optic?
By application of antireflection coating

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What is the device use in used in fiber optic communication which consist of a receiver transmitter
use tc clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and another in opposite direction?

Optic regenerator

ECE Board Exam November 2000


An advantage of fiber optic over co-axial cable as a result of coupling signals
from one to the other due to changing magnetic field in one or both.
Crosstalk

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What is the index of refraction of a certain substance if light travels through
the substance at 100 meters at a time is to 140 meters to air'?

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Labels: Communications, Excel, Fiber Optics, Past Board

Saturday, June 16, 2012


Satellite Communications (Chapter 10: Past Board Exce)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What balance the gravitational pull of the earth to allow the satellite to stay on its orbit?
Centripetal force

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern.
Nonsynchronous satellite

ECE Board Exam April 1999


In a transoceanic satellite conversation, how much is the typical delay before a reply is heard?
600 ms

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What are the repeaters inside communications satellite known for?
Transponders

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Under a circular satellite orbiy, how high is a certain satellite located above the surface of the earth
if the total satellite height is 9869 miles?

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period if rotation of the
earth about its axis.
Geosynchronous satellite

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A radio land station in the land mobile service.
Base station

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating or recording measurement at the distance
from the measuring instrument.
Telemetry

ECE Board Exam April 1997


_______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna.
Azimuth
ECE Board Exam November 1996
How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine government from ITU?
6

ECE Board Exam MArch 1996


The point on satellite orbit, closest to the earth is
perigee

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A mobile service between base stations and land mobile stations or between land mobile stations.
Mobile service

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following refers to the basic component of a communication satellite receiver?
Transponder

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Determine from the following the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite.
Spin

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A space distance iin satellite communication from the earth, to or greater than 2,000,000
kilometers is referred to as ___________.
deep space

ECE Board Exam April 1999


How many satellites does the GPS system consist?
24 satellites

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Which point on the satellite orbit is closest to the earth?
perigee

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following is refers to the smallest beam of a satellite antenna's radiation pattern?
spot beam

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A major and basic advantage for the use of klystron.
Hiigh power

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion.
Land station
ECE Board Exam April 1997
__________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric current,
amplifies and lower its frequency.
LNB

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite.
Satellite dish

ECE Board Exam March 1996


It is a spacecraft replaced in orbit around the earth carrying onboard microwave receiving and
transmitting equipments
Communications satellite

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A what apogee in an elliptical orbit must a geosynchronous satellite be initially stationed before it
is finally fired into its final geostationary orbit?
22,300 miles

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Satellite orbit around the earth are either:
they are either circular or elliptical

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the cooperating
stations.
Satellite network

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A resultant effect in launching a satellite from the earth caused by both forward motion away from
the earth that provides inertia tending the satellite to travel in straight line upwards and the
gravitational pull towards the earth is referred to as ___________.
centripetal acceleration

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following refers to the first active satellite?
Sputnik 1

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A band where most military satellite often operate.
X

ECE Board Exam November1997


Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously.
Telstar I
ECE Board Exam April 1997
What kind of battery panels are used in some advanced satellites?
Gallium arsenide solar panels

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth's station.
Downlink

ECE Board Exam November 1999


In satellite communications where satellites revolve in an orbit that forms a plane passing through
the center of gravity of the earth, this center is called ____________
geocenter

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or terminate
functions of equivalent at a distance.
Telecommand

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate modify or terminate
functions of equipment at a distance.
Telecommand

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe.
Satellite coverage

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The first commercial satellite
Early bird

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What band does VSAT first operate?
C-band

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which part of transponder converts the received signal to another lower frequency?
Mixer

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In satellite communications, the geostationary satellites are conveniently located with respect to the
equator at __________.
0 degrees latitude

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The Ku-band in the satellite service.
14/11 GHz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia?
38

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Satellite engine uses
ion propulsion system

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How do you increase or double the channel capacity of a satellite without increasing the frequency
bandwidth?
Re-use frequency

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of earths surface.
Global beam

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Receives and collects satellite signals from a broadcast satellite.
Satellite disk

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Sound intensity level is __________
10 log I/Iref

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The first passive satellite transponder.
Moon

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The most common application of satellite
Communications

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or between mobile
stations.
Mobile service

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Referred to as function and/or a designed of a double conversion satellite transponder.
Equipped with two mixers

ECE Board Exam November 2000


How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference?
Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas

ECE Board Exam April 1998


One of the first satellite systems catering personal based communications services scheduled for
operation.
Iridium system

ECE Board Exam NOvember 1997


A radio communications service used in radio regulation between specified fixed points provided
primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and economical air transport.
Aeronautical Fixed Service

ECE Board Exam November 1999


When do you consider that there is a satellite pass, having reference from the ground?
When satellite passes at its orbit at 90 degrees from its azimuth.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion of the
earths athmospehere.
Space Station

ECE Board Exam November 1997


An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal the period of rotation of the earth about its
axis.
Geosynchronous

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Known as the satellite transmitted signal from a satellite transponder to earths station.
Down link

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A satellite receives an uplink frequency of __________ MHz from a ground station of 3700 MHz.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What do you call the signal booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver?
Low noise amplifier

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern?
Spot Beam
ECE Board Exam April 1998
Referred by a radio regulation as the station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in
motion
Land Station

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the operating earth
station.
satellite network

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Typical bandwidth of a communications satellite.
500 MHz

ECE Board Exam November 2000


An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam.
Footprint

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A twenty four (24) satellite system used in modern telecommunications to determine a location(s)
on the surface of the earth.
GPS

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which type of satellite transponder improves the S/N ratio which demodulates the up-link signal to
recover the baseband signals and use them to remodulate the downlink transmitter?
Baseband

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In shipboard satellite dish antenna system, azimuth is referred as the __________
horizontal aiming of the antenna

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile service.
Coast station

ECE Board Exam November 1998


__________ is known to be the first satellite capable of receiving and transmitting simultaneously.
Telstar I

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the frequency range of C-band?
3.4 to 6.424 GHz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


An area on the surface of the earth within the boresight of the steerable satellite beam intended to
be pointed.
Effective boresight area

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the approximate percentage of earth's coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree
elevation?
42.5 %

ECE Board Exam April 2001


One of the following devices in satellite transponder serves as output of the receive antenna.
low noise amplifier

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In a re-use frequency technique of increasing satellite channel capacity of corresponding
transponders, how do you control the antenna used to prevent interference?
High directional antenna

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Refers to a mobile earth station in the mobile-satellite service located on board ship
Ship earth station

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A technique in satellite communications which uses a highly directional spot-beam antenna to
prevent interference from frequency sharing.
Frequency re-use technique

ECE Board Exam November 2000


How do you determine the satellite location in latitude and longitude measurement?
Designate a point on earth directly below the satellite

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A point in the satellite orbit known to be the closest location to the surface of the earth.
Perigee

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which satellite transponder has the most number of mixers?
Double-conversion
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Labels: Communications, Excel, Past Board, Satellite

Monday, June 4, 2012


Microwave Communications (Chapter 9: Past Board Excel)
ECE Board Exam April 2001
Which of the following will you avoid in the construction of a microwave station?
Long horizontal runs

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Radio frequency where waveguides are not used extensively.
150 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Term used to describe a process of approaching a desired point by directing the vehicle towards
that point
Homing

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A system which does not refer to a technique in reducing the propagation errors in navigational
system such as multipath effects
Pulse transmission

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the following is a navigational equipment which utilizes a ground radar system to
determine the position of a plane during its approach?
GCA

ECE Board Exam November 1998


_____________ is referred as the difference between available power and power budget.
Power margin

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on __________.
two or more antennas operating on the same frequency

ECE Board Exam November 1996


One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM is
noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup?
312 to 552 kHz

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The k-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile calculation is
equal to __________
4/3

ECE Board Exam March 1996


LORAN is navigational system used primarily for _________
obtaining your fixed location over a large distances

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What navigational system technique uses an antenna directivity to reduce an undesired multipath
signals?
LORAN-C

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In microwave frequencies, the LOS distance is something extended through the occurrence of
____________
ducting

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following if not a part of the navigational radar?
Duplexer
------------- part of navigational radar-----------
Pulser
Display unit
Synchronizer

ECE Board Exam November 1999


How do you account the effect of selective fading on the transmitted signal in terms of its
bandwidth?
more affirmative at wider bandwidth

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Frequencies most affected by knife-edge refraction.
VHF and UHF

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Refers to an effect of selective fading.
A fading effect caused by phase difference between radio wave components of the same
transmission, as experienced at the receiving station.

ECE Board Exam November 1996


When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zones at the point of
reflection the RSL
is decreased

ECE Board Exam March 1996


LORAN is a navigation system used primary for
obtaining fixes over large distances

ECE Board Exam November 1966


When the value of k increases, the effective result is _______ of the equivalent curvatures.
flattening
ECE Board Exam March 1996
TACAN is a navigational aid providing _________
bearing and distance indication

ECE Board Exam November 1996


If Ns = 250 determine the earth radius k-factor.

ECE Board Exam March 1996


A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system is in a space diversity arrangement. Determine how
many receivers in all are used?
2

ECE Board Exam November 1996


A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is
92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log D

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses.
Log normal fading

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave
transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna.
Circulator

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different frequencies
over the same path?
Frequency

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the free space loss, in dB, between two microwave parabolic antennas 38.0 kilometer apart
operating at 7.0 GHz?

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Low-power radar uses
IMPATT

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A component of a microwave station that samples signal traveling in one direction down to the
transmission line.
Directional coupler
ECE Board Exam April 2000
A navigational error which is caused by reflection of obstruction close to the location of
navigational aid having a normal concern on directional bearing.
Site error

ECE Board Exam April 1999


An aircraft deviation measured by an ILS localizer.
Horizontal

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging?
Amplitude modulation

----------- systems used in radio detection and ranging----------


Frequency shift
Frequency modulation
Pulse radar

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A microwave system that requires the use of repeater.
Intervening system that requires the use of repeater.
Distances involved are greater

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on
two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies

ECE Board Exam April 1997


RADAR means
Radio Detection and Ranging

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which band in the radio spectrum does the radio navigational system Omega transmit?
VLF

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following is not a common microwave application?
Mobile radio

------------- common microwave application --------------


Radar
Data transmission
Space communications

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output?
Modulator

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal
Terrestrial link

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used.
Space diversity

ECE Board Exam April 2000


In radio navigation, one of the following deviations of an airplane is determined by an ILS
localizer.
Horizontal

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave.
Shorten waveguide link

ECE Board Exam April 2000


In navigational system, one of the following indication is provided by the localizer unit of the ILS.
A horizontal deviation of an airpalne from its optimum path of descent along the axis of the
runway.

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Referred to as the cycle time difference between the master and the slave signals to reach the
receiver in the operation of loran navigational equipment.
Time delay

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the HF marine antenna safety link is intended to be broken during the unusual movement
of the ship?
Weak part

ECE Board Exam April 1999


What is being measured in radar theory to complete the determination of a distance to a target or
object, after a high radio frequency signal is transmitted to a target?
Echo time off the object to the source

DATA COMM…

Digital and Data Comunications (C8 Past Board: Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Determine from the following, the term used to described the ratio of transmission rate to its
minimum bandwidth which is also used to compare the performance of one digital modulation
technique to another.
Information capacity

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A process of exchange of predetermined codes and signals to establishe a connection
Handshake

ECE Board Exam April 2000


These are rules in data communications intended for establishing data links and message
interpretation.
Protocols

ECE Board Exam November 1999


In telecommunication, what do we call the difference in the voltage levels between a driver and a
terminator?
Noise Margin

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A network interconnection facility, which is used to interconnect networks whose architecture are
entirely different, is called _________.
gateway

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Main basic components of a data communications are composed of the following:
Transmitter, channel and receiver

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A device that connects two dissimilar networks and performs the protocol conversion.
Gateway

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Operating method in which the transmission is made alternately in each direction of a
telecommunication channel.
Half-duplex operation

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously.
Duplex

ECE Board Exam November 1996


A system that performs parallel-to-serial and serial to parallel conversion of data link
DTE

ECE Board Exam March 1996


A word in telegraphy consist of __________ characters plus a word space.
7 and 1/2

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Technique used in teleprinter terminal that utilizes chemically coated paper where characters are
printed.
Electro thermal printing

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Bit rate of a telecommunications carrier T2.
6.312 Mb/s

ECE Board Exam April 2000


A process of sending data in computing technology by asking each remote computer terminal one
ata a time if such a computer terminal has data to send.
Polling

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What do you call the definite time interval it takes to a key the slave station by the master in
operating the long range navigational equipment or loran?
Time delay

ECE Board Exam April 1999


What does the elastic store referred to in the time division multiplex system used in fiber optic?
Holding memory

ECE Board Exam April 1998


_________ is more prevalent in analog signals that have sleep slopes or whose amplitudes vary
rapidly.
Slope overload

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Is the total useful information processed or communicated over a specific amount of time.
Throughput

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The series of periodically recurrent pulses is modulated in amplitued by the corresponding
instantaneous samples.
PAM

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Full duplex transmission means
Two way simultaneous transmission

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data in digital form.
Data terminal equipment (DTE)

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The number of voice band channels in a master group per CCITT standard is
300

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following topology is normally used in system network architecture topology
providing order of structure?
Bus

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following is referred to the SYN character of ASCII code?
16H

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Why is parallel transfer method in data transmission faster that serial?
Bits are transferred simultaneously

ECE Board Exam November 1999


In an open architecture concept of data communication, one of the following is not a function of a
control layer.
Integrity of data

ECE Board Exam April 1999


What is the function of the network layer in computer communications?
Congestion control

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following term best described the overload distortion?
Peak Limiting

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following refers to full duplex transmission?
Two way simultaneous transmission

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A digital carrier facility used to transmit a DS1 - formatted signal at 1.544 Mbps.
T1

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Transmission system for a multidrop network.
Polling

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data in digital form.
Data terminal Equipment

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The expander ina companding device provides _____________
less amplification for low signal levels

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How would you determine if data transmission in computers and terminals is/are done in parallel
transfer?
If group of bits move over several lines at the same time.

ECE Board Exam November 2000


How are the variations of the transmitted photograph in terms of brightness and darkness converted
into voltage variations?
Through photodetector

ECE Board Exam April 2000


In data transmission technology signals such as voice or radio are binary transmitted over a cable
known as ____________.
baseband signal

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Mode of communication system where both sides of the system wait for their turn to transmit at a
time?
Half duplex

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Why is it that almost all switching-type integrated data communication circuit are called digital?
They process digital information

ECE Board Exam November 1998


__________ is the method encoding audio signals used in US standard 1,544 kbits/s 24 channel
PCM system.
Mu-law

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following described the very early standard that defines binary digits as space/mark
line conditions and voltage levels?
V.1

ECE Board Exam November 1997


12 voice channels are sampled at 8000 sampling rate and encoded into 8-bit PCM word. Determine
the rate of the data stream.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modem because
they have clock recovery circuits

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Codes must be
agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver.

ECE Board Exam March 1996


One character or a sequence of characters forming a part, or the whole of a message with a specific
meaning.
code

ECE Board Exam April 2001


One of the data terminal devices that was invented to replace the Morse code telegraphy
Teleprinter

ECE Board Exam November 2000


__________ is a group of bits that acts as a single unit of information such as a letter or numeral.
Byte

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Transmission of information through a communication modem is intended to transmit digital
information over which of the following types of communication medium?
Analog

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Which of the following refers to a network facility used to physically interconnect distinct
networks in computer technology?
Bridge

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Communication through the use of a modem, is transmission of _______ data information in
______ medium.
digital, analog

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Refers to an address that identifies a server on the network and a particular document on the server.
Uniform resource locator

ECE Board Exam April 1998


One of the following stands for SONET acronym in telecommunication.
Synchronous Optical Network

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The sinusoidal carrier is pulsed so that on of the binary states is represented by a carrier while the
other is represented by its absence.
ASK

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line?
2B + D

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Quantization noise is caused by
the approximation of the quantized signal

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Referred as a modem that is capable of sending and receiving fas as well as data transmission.
ARQ

ECE Board Exam November 2000


An equipment in data communication which is referred to as a source of information to be
transmitted at one end and the sink which receives the information at the other end.
DTE

ECE Board Exam April 2000


In computer communication the term RS-232C is referred to as ____________.
serial interface standard

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Kinds of information transfer in digital communication where the bits comprising one character are
sent in sequence one at a time.
Serial transmission

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Who is responsible in the correctness and accuracy of transmitted information content over a data
communication?
The transmitter and receiver

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio?
Facsimilie

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Determine the dynamic range for a 10-bit sign magnitude code.
ECE Board Exam April 1997
Modem is referred to as _________
Data Communication Equipment

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the principal difference between asynchronous and synchronous transmission?
The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission

ECE Board Exam March 1996


What is the IBM's asynchronous data link protocol designation?
83B

ECE Board Exam April 2001


The term used to receive a data file from a remote computer is called __________.
downloading

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following best described the primary source of errors in the transmission of data over
telephone networks?
Crosstalk

ECE Board Exam April 2000


An IT network which interconnects local area network over a broad graphical area.
Wide are network

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Refers to the PCM transcoder which translates voice-encoded signals between different digital
formats.
XCBR

ECE Board Exam November 1998


How do you transmit through multiplexing, a thousand of voice channel information over a single
fiber optic using one wavelength?
Time division

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Known as the data transfer scheme that used handshaking principle.
Synchronous data transfer scheme

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A coherent binary phase shift keyed BPSK transmitter operates at a bit rate of 20 Mbps with a
carrier to noise ratio C/N of 8.8 dB. Find Eb/No.
ECE Board Exam April 2001
Which of the following modulation technique render the amplitude of any of its sidebands
dependent on the modulation index?
Frequency modulated

ECE Board Exam November 2000


What do you call a system having a single communication channel that is shared by all machines
on a network?
Broadcast system

ECE Board Exam April 2000


What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup?
312 to 552 kHz

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Refers to transmission of two sets of voice signals or other information through two different
wavelengths.
Frequency division multiplex

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following is not referred to as data equipment?
Modem

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the reason why companding is employed in PCM systems?
To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion

ECE Board Exam November 1996


How would one squeeze more channels of communication into TDM frames of standard length?
Shorten the time delay for each channel

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The standard that specifies a balanced interface cable that will operate for rates up to 10 Mbps with
a span distances up to 1200 m.
RS - 422A

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Speed of data transmission is referred to baud rate which refers to changes in symbol per second as
________. frequency and phase changes.
time

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In facsimile, how are variations in picture brightness and darkness converted into voltage
variations?
with a photodetector
ECE Board Exam April 2000
Network protocol developed by US Defense Department which permits the exchange of traffic
between two stations without any prior call set-up.
Internet Protocol

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Type of transmitting two or more channels of voice signal or other information in fiber optic
communications in a selected interval of micro or milliseconds, the data or channels being received
at their own time slot.
Time-division multiplexing

ECE Board Exam November 1998


The conversion of digital into analog for purposes of training into telephone line is done through
______.
Modem

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Used for time division multiplexing
Pulse Modulation

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is framing?
Is concerned with the boundaries between characters

ECE Board Exam November 1996


When one station is degnated as master and the rest of the stations are considered slaves message
handling is __________.
Polling

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How would you differentiate timing and framing in data transmission?
Timing concerned with individuals bits while framing is to boundaries between characters.

ECE Board Exam November 2000


One of the following refers to the standard procedure for asynchronous to synchronous conversion.
V.14

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following refers to facsimile?
The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Type of transmission in which each transmission is individually synchronized, this is normally
done through the use of start and stop elements.
Asynchronous transmission
ECE Board Exam November 1998
In communications, the transmission of binary signals will require __________
more bandwidth that analog

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Detrmine from the following the basic mode of transmission system in the public data network in
which data are transferred from the source to the network and from the network to the destination
in the frame format.
Packet Mode

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The difference between the original and reconstructed signal gives rise to
quantizing noise

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The method of determining the bandwidth of any process system is _______.

Spectral Analysis

ECE Board Exam November 1996


RS-232, RS-449, RS-530, V.24, and X.21 are examples of ________.
standards for interfaces between terminals and modems

ECE Board Exam March 1996


One type of pulse communications systems uses pulse that appear as a group, and which vary in
number according to the loudness of the voice. This type of pulse modulation is called
pulse duration modulation

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What kind of recording is used in facsimile?
Electrothermal recording

ECE Board Exam November 2000


How would you isolate data communications faults in a basic error determination technique?
Carry out loop back test

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following describes its system services control point, logical units and physical units
as network addressable units in a data network?
System network architecture

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Where does harmonics in a square wave of a simple signal transmission belong?
Odd
ECE Board Exam November 1998
In telecommunications when we call data communications it means the transmission of ________
Computer data

ECE Board Exam April 1998


These are used to connect non-ISDN equipment to ISDN line.
Terminal adapters

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Modulation in which no signal is present between pulses.
Pulse modulation

ECE Board Exam April 1997


It is a protocol use to connect the other packet switching network.
X.75

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the data rate of the ISDN BAsic access B channel?
64 kbps

ECE Board Exam March 1996


According to the Nyquist theorem, the sampling rate that can be used in a PCM system is _____
the highest audio frequency.
twice

ECE Board Exam April 2001


_________ is one of the many electronic equipments referred to as a data terminal equipment.
Computer printer

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Method of a telecommunications operation where transmission can be made simultaneously in
both direction of a channel.
Duplex operation

ECE Board Exam April 2000


What refers to breaking up the data into blocks with some bounded size?
Segmentation

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A device that is used to permit an equipment with non-ISDN interface to be connected to the
digital network.
TA

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Slowest communications hardware product.
Asynchronous
ECE Board Exam November 1997
For a sample rate of 40 kHz, determine the maximum analog input frequency

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Pulse carrier at the ratio of 8000 pulse/sec is amplitude modulated by an analog signal, this type of
modulation is
PAM

ECE Board Exam March 1996


What is one principal difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission?
The clicking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission

ECE Board Exam April 2001


This a fast computing machine with large amount of secondary storage to which other computer
machine in the network have access for data storage and retrieval purposes.
Mainframe

ECE Board Exam April 2000


A connector that has the lowest loss at ultra high frequency
Type-N connector

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A data communications network desiigned to provide two-way communications between a large
variety of data communications terminal equipment within a relatively small geographic area.
Local area network

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Is individual signal for a handshake from the DCE to the DTE in response to an active condition
for the request to send a signal.
Clear to send

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Highest theoretical frequency that can be processed at a sampling rate (fs) without aliasing.
Folding frequency

ECE Board Exam November 1996


A seven-bit character can represent one of _______ possibilities.
128

ECE Board Exam March 1996


What is the number of pins in the RS-232C interface?
25

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Data is directly on transmission cable.
Baseband

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Digital transmission provides a higher level of signal quality than analog transmission because
repeaters regenerate digital pulses and remove distortion.

ECE Board Exam March 1996


What is the transmission rate of system for transmitting the output of a microcomputer to a line
printer operating at a speed of 30 lines/minute? Assume that the line printer has 8 bits of data per
character and prints out 80 characters/line.

ECE Board Exam November 1998


In what form does the information of data communications is transmitted between two points?
Binary form

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A source code whose average word length approaches the fundamental limit set by the entropy of a
discrete memoryless source.
Huffman code

ECE Board Exam November 1996


A ___________ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link layers.
Bridge

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What is the system that process both digital and analog quantities?
Hybrid system

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Communications code is __________.
agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Gateway can interconnect LANs that have _______ protocol and formats.
totally different

ECE Board Exam November 1996


An invitation from the primary to a secondary to transmit a message.
Polling

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Which of the following pulse modulation system is analog?
PWM
ECE Board Exam April 2000
In spread spectrum transmission, which type of modulation is normally often used with direct-
sequence?
PSK

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Device that comply with the ISDN network interface and be connected directly to the digital
network.
TE1

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Two or more LANs linked together over a wide geographical area.
WAN

ECE Board Exam November 1998


All bits in a character are sent and received ______ in serial port.
one at a time

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Steps to follow to produce PCM signal.
Sampling, quantizing, and coding

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The tranformer signal coding method for T1 carrier is
bipolar

ECE Board Exam March 1996


In ______ transmission, a unique SYN character is transmitted at the beginning of each message.
synchronous

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously.
Duplex

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Binary communications systems are better because
the components are simpler, less costly and more reliable

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Multiplexing scheme used by baseband transmission.
TDM

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The correctness and accuracy of the transmitted message content is
determined by the sender and receiver.

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Digital modulation technique used in modems.
PSK

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Data switching systems
improve the efficiency of data transfer

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Multiplexing in a time division multiplexer occurs based upon
the position of data within a frame

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The process of assigning PCM codes to absolute magnitudes.
Quantizing

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Ethernet is baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at
10 Mbps

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Asynchronous protocol is
character oriented

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The primary purpose of data modem is to
interface digital terminal equipment to analog communication channel

ECE Board Exam March 1996


_________ is a device in data transmission to interface a data terminal equipment to an analog
transmission line
Modem

ECE Board Exam November 1996


A quadrature signaling have ______ possible states
4

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Rules governing the transmission of digital information
line protocol

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The standard ASCII
has 132 characters including 32 control characters.

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Basic speed rate of digital system
64 kbps

DIODE…

CHAPTER 3 SPECIAL- PURPOSE DIODES

CHAPTER 3
SPECIAL- PURPOSE DIODES

1. Diodes that were designed to operate in reverse breakdown


Zener diode

2. A device that operates in reverse bias


photodiode

3. A zener diode operating in breakdown acts as a


Voltage regulator
4. A positive temperature means that the zener voltage
Increases with an increase in temperature on decreases with decrease in temperature.

5. A diode that always operates in reverse-bias and is doped to maximize the inherent capacitance
of the depletion region is
Laser

6. When the light-emitting diode (LED) is forward-biased, __________pass the pn junction and
recombine with____________ in the _________material.
Electrons, holes, p-type

7. The first visible red LEDs were produced using


GaAsp

8. The normalized output of the visible red, yellow, green and blue LED peaks at
__________________ (nm) respectively.
660,590,540, and 460

9. Organic LEDs and LEDs produce light through the process of __________ and ___________
respectively.
Electrophophorescence and electroluminescence

10. An increase in the amount of light intensity produces an increase in


Reverse current
11. A diode that can be used as a variable-resistance device controlled by light intensity.
Photodiode

12. A diode that operates only with majority carriers


Schottky diode

13. A diode that takes advantage of the variable forward resistance characteristic.
PIN diode

14. No reverse leakage current


Schottky diode

15. Diode used in VHF and fast switching applications


Step- Recovery diode

16. When a PIN diode is forward-biased, it acts like a


Current-controlled variable resistance

17. If a tunnel diode is placed in series with the tank circuit and biased at the center of the
negative-resistance portion of its characteristic curve, a _________ will result in the output.
Constant sinusoidal voltage

18. The tunnel diode is only used at


VHF

19. In a varactor diode, what happens to the capacitance if the reverse-bias voltage decreases
a. Increases

20. The varactor capacitance ratio is also known as


a. Tuning ratio
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Labels: Diode, Electronics, Notes

CHAPTER 2 DIODE APPLICATIONS

CHAPTER 2
DIODE APPLICATIONS

1. An open primary or secondary winding of a power supply transformer results in


0V

2. The output frequency of a half-wave rectifier is _________to/of the input frequency


Equal

3. What is the average value of the half-wave rectified voltage given 25 V as its peak amplitude?
7.95 V

4. The PIV rating of the bridge diodes is __________to/than that required for the center-tapped
configuration.
Less
5. Diode circuits used to clip off portions of signal voltages above or below certain levels,
Clippers

6. The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier is ________ the input frequency


Twice

7. A transformer is generally specified based on _____________rather than the turns ratio,


Secondary voltage
8. The period of a full-wave rectified voltage is ____________ that of a half-wave rectified voltage

Half

9. The indication of the effectiveness of the filter is called


Ripple factor

10. Eliminates the fluctuations in the rectified voltage and produces a relatively smooth dc voltage
Filter

11. Circuit that maintains a constant dc voltage for variations in the input line voltage or in the load

Regulator

12. A type of full-wave rectifier that uses two diodes connected to the secondary of a center-tapped
transformer
Center-tapped rectifier

13. Use clamping action to increase peak rectified voltages without the necessity of increasing the
transformer’s voltage rating
Voltage multipliers

14. Maximum voltage appearing across the diode in reverse bias


PIV

15. Caused by the charging and discharging of the filter capacitor


Ripple voltage

16. A systematic process of isolating, identifying, and correcting a fault in a circuit or system
Troubleshooting

17. Allows unidirectional current through the load during the entire 360° of the input cycle
Full-wave rectifier
18. Allows current through the load only during one-half of the cycle.
Half-wave rectifier

19. Generally used because of the surge current that initially occur s when power is first turned on
Slow-blow type fuse

20. A figure of merit used to specify the performance of a voltage regulator


regulation

EDGE…

CHEM 101 (EDGE)

Electron was discovered by


A.J.J. Thompson

The isotopes of an element differ in the number of


Neutrons

Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration


Isoelectronic

Which group in the periodic table is known as the alkali metals.


Group 1

Which group in the periodic table is known as the halogens.


Group 7

Which group in the periodic table is known as the alkaline earth metals.
Group 2

Which group in the periodic table is known as the noble gases.


Group 8

The components resulting from a reaction is called


Products

What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference
between atoms is less than 1.5
Covalent bond
Compounds which only contain carbon and hydrogen are called
Hydrocarbon

Which of the following designation means that the amount of solute is expressed in physical mass
units, i.e. grams and the amount of solution is expressed in volume units, i.e. milliliters
w/v

What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference
between atoms is greater than 2.0
Ionic bond

The isotope of hydrogen


Protium, Tritium, Deuterium

The isotope of hydrogen with only one neutron


Tritium

The atoms having different atomic number but the same mass number are called
Isobars

What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference
between atoms is less than 1.5?
Covalent bond

The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is beryllium (Be), atomic number 4. What is the
charge on the Be atom?
Neutral

The mass of an alpha particle is how many times more than that of an electron
7300

Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
Isotopes

The forces that hold atoms together are called


Chemical bond

An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called
Ion

A positive ion is called


Cation

A negative ion is called


Anion

The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called


Ionic bonding

The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called
Period

The vertical arrangement of elements of in a periodic table is called


Group

If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of gas, the pressure
Is doubled

A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called


Electron dot diagram

For which elements does the number of electrons in their outer or valence shelll correspond to their
group number
Representative or main group

What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit in a “p” orbital
5

The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called


Viscosity

The anions and cations which are unaffected by the reaction in solution are called
Spectator ions

A reaction in which heat is produced is called


Exothermic

The atoms having different mass number but the same number of neutrons are called
Isotones
Rutherford model of an atom failed to explain
The position of proton and neutrons

The concept that electrons revolve around the nucleus in specific paths called orbits or energy
levels was proposed by
Niels Bohr

The number of atoms present in 6.023 x 10^23 12 grams of carbon-12 is called


Avogadro’s constant

An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their
individual relative masses.
Mass spectrometer

These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.
Hydrates
If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:
Replacement reactions

If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of
reaction is:
Decomposition

The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is:


760 mm Hg

Any process of extracting the metal in a fused state is called


Smelting

Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?


Mass

A device used to measure density.


Hydrometer

The statement “mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction” is known as:
The law of conservation of mass

What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference
between atoms is greater than 2.0
Ionic bond

A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called


Endothermic

In redox reaction, the component supplying the electrons is called the


Reductant

In redox reaction, the component receiving the electrons is called the


Oxidant
A covalent bond formed by the combination of collinear p orbitals is also called a
Sigma bond

The central part of an atom is called


Nucleus

The mass of a proton is about how many times that of an electron


1837

The particles in the nucleus, namely the neutrons and the protons are collectively referred to as
Nucleons
The number of orbiting electron is normally _____ the number of the protons in the nucleus of an
atom
Equal

The chemical formula which shows the relative number of atoms of all the elements present in a
compound is called the
Empirical formula

The chemical formula which shows the exact number of atoms of all the elements present in a
compound is called the
Molecular formula

When an atom loses an electron it forms


Cation

When an atom gains an electron it forms


Anion
The maximum number of electrons that the first energy level can accommodate is
2

The X-rays are discovered by


W.C. Roentgen

Refers to atoms or ions, which have the same electronic configuration.


Isoelectronic

Which group of the periodic table is known as the akali metals?


Group I

Which group is known as the halogens?


Group VII

The horizontal arrangement of elements increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called:
Period

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called


Atomic number

The measure of the resistance of an object to a change in its state of motion is called
Inertia

Refers to agreement of a particular value with the true value


Precision

Refers to the degree of agreement among several measurements of the same quantity
Accuracy

A property of matter often used by chemist as an “identification number” for a substance


Density

Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called
Quarks

The principle of constant composition of compound, originally called “Proust’s Law” is now
known as
Law of definite proportion

The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the reaction. In
precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:
The law of conservation of mass

When the same elements can form two different compounds, the ratio of masses of one of the
elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the other
elements. This is known as:
The law of multiple proportion

The ratio of the density of the test liquid to the density of the reference liquid is called
Specific gravity

How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?


2
SI unit of temperature
Kelvin

The elements that a compound is composed of is present in fixed and precise proportion by mass.
This is known as
Law of constant composition

The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10 neutrons
19 amu

The net electric charge of any atom is


0

The tendency of atoms to attract electrons into their valence shells to form anions is described by
the concept of
Electron affinity

The tendency of atoms to attract electrons shared in a covalent bond is called


Electronegativity
A covalent bond between atoms of identical electronegativity is called
Nonpolar

A formula which describes only the number of each element in the molecule is called the
Molecular formula

The formula which shows how atoms are joined together is called the
Structural formula

The pairs of electrons not shared in the covalent bond are called
Nonbonded electrons or lone pair

The word atom comes from the Greek word ”atomos” meaning
Cannot be cut

Under normal state an atom is said to be


Electrically neutral

The word electron comes from the Greek word ”elektron” meaning
Amber

The word proton comes from the Greek word ”proteios” meaning
Of first importance

A solid which has no crystalline structure is called


Amorphous

A chemical substance which readily evaporates and readily diffuses at ordinary room temperature
and pressure conditions is called
Volatile

Which of the following falls under fluids


Both liquid and gas

The gases that rarely take part in a chemical reaction are called
Noble gases

Which type of ions, metals form when enter into a chemical reaction
Positive ions

The chemical name for baking soda


Sodium bicarbonate

The subatomic particle with a negative charge and mass of 9.1 x 10^ -31 kg is
Electron
The subatomic particle with a positive charge of mass 1.6 x 10 -27 kg is
Proton

Neutron was discovered by


Chadwick

ELECTRONICS COACHING…

Electronics Coaching notes

ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING – COACHING NOTES

• Lead acid does not depend on:


Ans: Rate of charge

ead acid consists of:


Ans: Dilute sulfuric acid, sponge lead, and lead peroxide

Conputer on a chip is called:


Ans: Transputer

ransputer consists of
Ans: 32 bits

Nibble consists of ____ bits.


Ans: 4

OP amp has a gain of approximately


Ans: 1,000,000

he voice coil has an impedance between


Ans: 4 and 100 ohms.

emiconductor have ____ bonds.


Ans: covalent

Nimak gantry robot has


Ans: good precision positioning

• Sulphation in a lead acid cell is


Ans: to incompletely charging

• Nickel cadmium can be charged or discharged because


Ans: water is neither absorbed or formed.

Daisy chaining
Ans: method used in determining interrupt priorities in a microcontroller.

• Who coined the term robot?


Ans: Karel Capek

ASER is classified as
Ans: monochromatic. Coherent and collimator.

55 timer consists of
Ans: astable, monostable and VCO

• Early effect is also called


Ans: base width modulation

• The effect produced due to flow of electrons and holes


Ans: drift current

• Process of adding impurities in the intrinsic semiconductor


Ans: Doping

• What is reduced by using bundled conduction?


Ans: Power loss due to corona.

• ________ is also called modified Maxwell Wien bridge.


Ans: Anderson bridge.

• ________ is a bridge that compares the capacitance of the capacitor.


Ans: De Soutry bridge

• It measures unkonown inductance in terms of resistance and capacitance.


Ans: Anderson bridge

• An IC consists of passive devices.


Ans: Film IC

• SI unit of luminous intesnisty


Ans: Candela

• SI unit of illuminance
Ans: Lux

• A microwave diode that has a frequency range of 10-1000 GHZ


Ans: IMPATT diode

• A microwave diode in the negative resistance region.


Ans: PIN diode

• Schmitt trigger acts like a


Ans: Latch

• Fermi level is in the


Ans: Forbidden gap

• Invalid NAND flip-flop violation


Ans: S=0 C=0

• Invalid NOR flip-flop violation


Ans: S=1 C=1

• Range of depletion width


Ans: 0.5 and 1 um
• Impedance matching
Ans: Transformer coupling and emitter follower.

• Maxwell-Wien bridge measures


Ans: Inductance

• D flip-flop consists of
Ans: JK flip-flop, RS flip-flop and inverter

• Uses binary counters


Ans: D flip-flop

• Ideal CMRR
Ans: Infinity

• SCARA uses ____ operation


Ans: Assembly

• Gold doping has an advantage of


Ans: Reduced storage time.

• It is the time for the diode to be forward biased to off time


Ans: Reverse recovery time

• The reverse current doubles in every ___ °C increase in temperature.


Ans: 6

• LASER and LED are in what spectrum?


Ans: Infrared spectrum.

• GaAs is used for


Ans: Infrared light or invisible light

• Tapped coil oscillator


Ans: Hartley

• Tickler coil oscillator


Ans: Armstrong

• Tapped capacitor oscillator


Ans: Colpitts

• The sediment that allows the bottom of the lead acid cell
Ans: Antimony Lead alloy

• Two transistors in class B is in


Ans: Push-pull

• Photodarlington consists of
Ans: Transistor and phototransistor

• Largest voltage applied without irreversible damage


Ans: PIV

• Thermal neutron is also called _____ neutron.


Ans: Slow

• Avalanche breakdown is due to


Ans: collision

• One nibble consists of


Ans: 4 bits

• Large computer has a maximum of


Ans: 64 bits

• Card readers can read about


Ans: 10.000 cards per minute

• Advantage of ECL
Ans: Lowest propagation delay

• Schottky TTL has


Ans: Least propagation delay

• Main advantage of CMOS


Ans: Low power

• CC voltage gain
Ans: cannot be exceeded to unity.

• Largest voltage applied without irreversible damage


Ans: PIV

• Transputer operates in
Ans: parallel data

• It is an IC consist of passive and active devices


Ans: Monolithic IC

• It is an IC consist of passive devices


Ans: Film

• Discrete circuit
Ans: Digital circuit

• Linear circuit
Ans: Analog circuit

• Backhausen criterion is a condition that


Ans: stops oscillating

• Negative output swing occurs


Ans: near saturation

• Positive output swing occurs


Ans: towards cut-off

• When dry cell is charged,


Ans: It increased in volume
• Class C acts
Ans: as an RF amplifier

• Crystal uses
Ans: RF transmitter

• A class of amplifier that has 85% efficiency


Ans: Class C

• With Si, Z=14, it is


Ans: Half-filled

• Formation of Si in valence shell


Ans: 2, 8, 4

• Volatile memory is
Ans: Semiconductor ROM

• Semiconductor ROM is
Ans: Combinational Logic circuit

• EPROM erases when strikes by


Ans: Ultraviolet rays

• Bolometer acts like a


Ans: Thermistor

• Ondograph is
Ans: A waveshape of voltage and current.

• Nickel iron cell consists of


Ans: NiOH, powdered iron and its oxide and 21% of potassium.

• CE is
Ans: Phase reversal

• Photoconductive cell is also called


Ans: photoresistive cell

• The smallest of all h parameter is


Ans: hO

he formula of h11 is
Ans: V1/I1

he h parameter consists of
Ans: Construction, operating point and temperature

• Moving coil occurs in


Ans: DC

TVM internal resistance is


Ans: the highest internal resistance

measures magnetic properties of ferromagnetic


Ans: Permeameter

• Simple RL low pass measures -12 dB/octave, corresponds to ___ dB/decade


Ans: -40

Rotational joins of the robot is called _____


Ans: Revolute joints.

traight line joints movement of the robot is called


Ans: Prismatic joints

nput and output point


Ans: Handshaking

RL high pass filter has a phase difference of


Ans: 45 degrees

Who invented the microprocessor in 1969?


Ans: Ted Hoff

Who invented the 1st IC?


Ans: Jack Kilby

I/dt of an SCR is
Ans: local hot spot

• 3 ½ display maximum reading


Ans: 0999

½ 1 mV reading
Ans: 1000

• Straight line method


Ans: piecewise linear method

• Improper biasing of IC
Ans: causes distortion

• One kWh of energy is equivalent to


Ans: 860 kcal

unction breakdown occurs in


Ans: reverse bias

• Ratio of Ah and Wh is
Ans: greater than one.

• The capacity in a cell is measured in


Ans: Ah

• In the IC, the SiO2 layer is


Ans: isolation

• A V/I characteristic curve is


Ans: Boltzman diode characteristic.
• Early effect is also called
Ans: base width narrowing.

• Advantage of Swinburne’s test is


Ans: very convenient and very economical.

• An IC consists of ceramic substrate


Ans: thin film IC

• An IC consists of alumina substrate


Ans: thick film IC

• It is the development of a traverse electric field in a solid material when it carries an electric current
Ans: Hall effect

• It is used when the input signal has periodically occurring intervals in which the input waveform is quiescent
Ans: synchronized clamping

• A circuit that produces an output only when first activated by a preliminary pulse
Ans: sampling gate

• Successive trigerring signal induces a transition regardless of the state in which binary happens to be
Ans: symmetrical triggering

• Both carrier drift and carrier diffusion depend on ___


Ans: Einstein relation

• Microprogramming is
Ans: A technique to implement the control logic necessary to execute instructions within a processor.

• It is used to measure a speed by cutting off light at a regular interval


Ans: Stroboscope

• Thermal runaway is
Ans: is an electrochemical reaction that causes a battery to heat and possibly explode.

• A kind of ROM that degrades its own memory contents as the memory is read
Ans: EAROM

• An inductor operates at 400 Hz


Ans: Toroidal core

• An inductor operates at 95 MHz


Ans: Air core

• Data bus
Ans: It is data lines in a system bus.

• In converting intrinsic into N-type extrinsic semiconductor, which element cannot be used?
Ans: Indium

• Pin resistor has industrial heating in


Ans: Hairpin form

• Any solid object has ___ degrees of freedom


Ans: 6
• Flip-flop as a latch
Ans: S-C flip flop

• PIN diode
Ans: A microwave diode frequencies up to GHz range.

• Ip/Iv of a tunnel diode is used in


Ans: Computer application

• Noise figure of MMIC (Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit)


Ans: 3.5 to 6 dB

• Unique advantage feature of CMOS


Ans: Power in a nanowatt range

• Any charge in a battery when taken off the vehicle


Ans: Bench charge

• LASCR acts like a


Ans: Latch

• A word has
Ans: 16-bit length

• A double word has


Ans: 32-bit length

• A company who invented the word byte


Ans: IBM

• Degrees of freedom is the number of ______ independent movements including the end effector
Ans: independent

• An inductor operates at 400 Hz


Ans: Toroidal core

• Percentage loss of the dc wound machine


Ans: 1 %

• When dc voltage is removed, the clamper acts as a


Ans: Rectifier

• CMOS has extremely


Ans: Large packing density

• Solar cell has a principle of


Ans: Photovoltaic cell

• Sensor that detects change in resistance in extrinsic semiconductor


Ans: Spreading Resistance Sensor (SRS)

• Reduce the stray capacitance and capacitance between bridge arm by grounding
Ans: Wagner Grounding
• A meter sensitivity control in a test instrument
Ans: Linear Taper Potentiometer

• A volume control in a stereo compact disc player


Ans: Logarithmic Taper Potentiometer

• Faster in retrieval and storage compared to magnetic tape


Ans: Magnetic Disk

• It has more ripple in a bandpass and cut-off frequency


Ans: Chebyshev filter

• Darlington pair of transistors is _____ by Beta factor.


Ans: multiplied

• CCD has ___ transfer electrons


Ans: 6

• Neutral logic
Ans: Trinary logic

• Totally true, totally false


Ans: Fuzzy logic

• Which is not a factor of capacitance?


Ans: Plate thickness

• Ideal input impedance of an op-amp


Ans: Very high

• Ideal output impedance of an op-amp


Ans: Very low

• With 100 Ω to match with higher input impedance, the configuration is


Ans: Common base

• Optocoupler consists of an
Ans: LED and phototransistor

• Optoisolator consists of an
Ans: LED and phototransistor

• Positive feedback
Ans: Oscillator

• Phase locked loop


Ans: Frequency discriminator, FM detector

• Air as inductor core has


Ans: Greatest efficiency

• What increases noise immunity in op-amp?


Ans: Hysteresis

• Resisitve element
Ans: Horizontal axis
• Reactive element
Ans: Vertical axis

• Sine wave with all harmonics


Ans: Square wave

• It abruptly changes from 2 voltage leads


Ans: Square wave

• 63.2 %
Ans: One time constant

• A sine wave oscillator, sine wave circuit


Ans: Crystal

• Positive pulse on anode terminal


Ans: Turning on an SCS

• 3 phase rectifier that uses 6 rectifier element


Ans: Gratz rectifier

• What uses as marker of 100 kHz?


Ans: 2 flip-flops

• Feature of R-S to J-K flip-flop


Ans: Toggle

• LC balance bridge
Ans: Maxwell bridge

• Operator on microwave frequency


Ans: GaAs over Silicon or Germanium

• J-K flip-flop frequency


Ans: Divides the frequency by 2.

• Small capacitance formed by twisting 2 insulated wire


Ans: Gimmick Capacitor

• Modified Miller circuit


Ans: Phanastron

• Converts step to ramp circuit


Ans: Miller circuit

• Servocontrolled robots are robots within ___ mm range rather than a fraction of mm.
Ans: 2

• It is an electron tube which emits photoelectrons when the cathode is eliminated


Ans: Phototube

• It is a radiant energy absorbed by the radiant to incident energy


Ans: Absorptance

• Inventor circuit
Ans: Converts dc to ac circuit

• Laurence or Living stone


Ans: Magnetic resonator or cyclotron

• Microporgramming
Ans: Sequence of five binary codes

• 540 degrees
Ans: Phase opposition

• Power efficiency of solar cell


Ans: 5% to 15%

• Thermal detector
Ans: Bolometer

• Exact location of data


Ans: Absolute code

• Fundamental frequency in all harmonics


Ans: Sawtooth wave

• dV/dt of SCR
Ans: False trigerring

• Monolithic IC uses
Ans: Extensive large components

• MOS IC uses
Ans: MOSFET

• A diode with no depletion region


Ans: Schottky diode

• LED emits light because


Ans: Electron and holes recombine

• What is the difference on the input impedance of BJT and FET?


Ans: A FET has high input impedance while BJT has low input impedance.

• Marking of scale to accept standard


Ans: Calibration

• Zener diode is in
Ans: reverse diode

• The temperature coefficient of extrinsic semiconductor is


Ans: negative

• Voltage of selenium semiconductor


Ans: 1 V

• It is preferred to manufacture diode and temperature rating


Ans: Silicon

• Isotope …
Ans: Abundance ratio

• Electron hole pair is done by


Ans: Thermal energy
• JFET square law device is because
Ans: its characteristic curve is parabolic

• Tank circuit
Ans: Antiresonant

• Cut-in voltage or turn on voltage current


Ans: Exponentially increases

• Electron beam deflected from axial to enlarge


Ans: Deflection defocusing

• Equal ratio bridge


Ans: Heaviside Campbell bridge

• Silicon oxide (SiO2) is for


Ans: Insulation

• APD is better than PIN diode is for


Ans: Speed of operation

• Voltage for temperature stability of zener diode


Ans: 5.6 V

• 3 superconducting inductor in parallel


Ans: Persistor

• Application of semiconductor
Ans: Wafer

• LC circuit is used for


Ans: Load current

• Power factor of RC is between


Ans: 0 and 1

• Minimum Duty Cycle of Bust converter


Ans: Dmin = 1 – 2fsLc
RL

• Boost converter critical inductance


Ans: Lc = (1-D)2DRL
2fs

• Buck Boost converter critical inductance


Ans: Lc = (1-D)2RL
2fs

• Buck converter critical inductance


Ans: Lc = (1-D)RL
2fs

• Typical CMRR
Ans: 100 to 10,000

• Typical CMRR in dB
Ans: 40 to 80 dB
• Accuracy of Wien bridge
Ans: 0.5% - 1%

• Typical value of armature resistance


Ans: 0.5Ω

• The saturation voltage of an op-amp is ___ smaller than the power supply
Ans: 2 V

• Solid grounding has a voltage below


Ans: 660 V

• Resistance grounding has typical voltage between


Ans: 3.3 – 11 kV

• Percentage conductivity of pure annealed silver wire


Ans: 108.8%

• Percentage conductivity of 99.5% pure gold


Ans: 72.6%

• Percentage conductivity of 63% pure aluminum


Ans: 63%

• Corona is maximum on
Ans: transmission lines

• Transformer that operates on the frequency range of 20 kHz to 20 MHz


Ans: Carrier frequency transformer

• JFET configuration for buffer amplifier


Ans: common drain

• JFET configuration for good voltage amplification


Ans: common source

• JFET configuration for high frequency amplifier


Ans: common gate

• The dc-dc converterwith unregulated input voltage and regulated output voltage
Ans: SMPS (Single Mode Power Supply)

• Corona is due to
Ans: radio interference

• A transformer on the frequency of 15 kHz


Ans: Converter transformer

• Ingredients of wet cell


Ans: Zinc and copper

• Main ingredient of dry cell


Ans: Zinc container

• It reduces gain to a limiting level


Ans: Limiter
• First transistor
Ans: Point contact

• First fuel battery was invented by _____ in 1959.


Ans: F.T. Bacon

• Unlike buck and boost converter, the buck boost converter featured output voltage:
Ans: opposite polarity to input.

• Lattice in which the lattice points are only shown in the crystal
Ans: Bravais Lattice

• An error due to shortcoming of instruments


Ans: Systematic error

• An error that cannot be corrected


Ans: Random error

• It is a substance where the bulk is composed


Ans: Element
• Typical voltage of lead-acid
Ans: 2.1 V

• What type of cell used in the emergency system?


Ans: Silver-zinc cell

• Microcontroller consists of
Ans: Microprocessor, memory, input and output unit

• Percentage of the transistor current flows in the collector


Ans: 95%

• SMPC operates between ON state and OFF state at a frequency of


Ans: 10 kHz and 40 kHz

• A camera with imaging positron effect with multiple layer of silicon detector
Ans: Compton camera

• NMOS is _____ than PMOS


Ans: 6 times

• What is the diameter of the wafer used in manufacturing?


Ans: 3 to 8 inches

• Standard spacing for IC chip


Ans: 2 um and 3 um

• Advanced spacing for IC chip


Ans: 1 um

• BCC crystal structure


Ans: Chromium

• HPC crystal structure


Ans: Zinc
• Another name for differential amplifier
Ans: Subtractor

• A factor that determines the filter response


Ans: Damping factor

• Unity gain amplifier has ____ input impedance


Ans: Extremely high

• Megger is
Ans: used to measure high resistance

• Increasing transmitter height


Ans: Decrease capacitance and inductance remains the same.

• Undergrounding conductor is
Ans: Maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath

• A transformer that has a frequency range from 100 Hz – 150 kHz


Ans: Converter transformer

• Surge impedance of cable


Ans: 50 Ω

• Ideal input impedance of op-amp


Ans: 50 Ω

• Formula for the increase % in saturation current


Ans: 2((T2-T1)/10) X 100%

• Ideal noise factor


Ans: 0 dB

• Vacant lattice site with missing atom relocated to a interstitial space with no atom.
Ans: Frenkel effect

• FCC packing factor


Ans: 0.74

• Linear change of input


Ans: Ramp input

• Instantaneous, finite input


Ans: Step input

• Indicating device orientation of object


Ans: Selsyn

• An AC bridge that measures mutual inductance


Ans: Heaviside bridge

• One of the most important bridge in determining link capacitances


Ans: Schering bridge

• Highest dielectric strength


Ans: Glass
• High sensitivity
Ans: Permanent magnet

• A transformer in laminated core reduced


Ans: Eddy current

• An analysis used for more than one voltage source


Ans: Superposition theorem

• Maximum magnitude of the output voltage from an op-amp is called


Ans: Saturation voltage

• A graph of amplitude versus input frequency


Ans: Bode plot

• Effect of recombination on depletion region


Ans: Emission coefficient or ideality factor

• Magnetic amplifier operates at a frequency at ____ or less


Ans: 100 Hz

• Most commonly used coupling


Ans: Transformer coupling

• Typical LED voltage


Ans: 1.6 V

• Capacitance of disc ceramic capacitor


Ans: 100 pF

• A bypass capacitor at high frequency


Ans: Ceramic capacitor

• Indicating device orientation of object


Ans: Selsyn

• Odd parity checker


Ans: XOR

• Shelf life of lithium cell


Ans: 5 to 10 years

• Negative feedback
Ans: Increases bandwidth and decrease voltage gain

• Alkaline cell ingredient


Ans: Potassium hydroxide

• Advantage of NiCd over lead acid


Ans: Cell on NiCd can be replaced

• By adding parallel circuit to the inverting amplifier


Ans: Inverting summing

• Linear amplification
Ans: Level clamper

• Theory of magnetic flux in a closed system equal to zero


Ans: Gauss theorem

• Personal error
Ans: Gross error

• Advantage of magnetic disk to magnetic tape


Ans: Easier to read

• The maximum current can safely handle


Ans: Ampacity

• JFET reference voltage


Ans: Source

• Buffer amplifier gain


Ans: 1

• AWG no. 6
Ans: 0.395 Ω/1000 ft.

• AWG no. 12
Ans: 6350 cmil

• Indicating device orientation of object


Ans: Selsyn

• A mass of 1.66 x 10-27 kg.


Ans: Unified amu

• Reciprocal of Avogadro’s number


Ans: amu

• Electrostatic radius of an atom


Ans: 10-14

• Manipulator has ___ degrees of freedom


Ans: 3

• Arrange in data arrays


Ans: RAM

• OS memory
Ans: BIOS

• Voltage amplifier
Ans: Pre-amplifier

• Latest used data


Ans: Cache memory

• LIFO
Ans: Stack memory
• Minimum distance of features in a chip
Ans: Geometry

• Number of elements not found in nature but also prepared in laboratories


Ans: 105

• IC advantage
Ans: Reliability

• Minimum to maximum range


Ans: Span

• 1/5 of the Wi-Fi range


Ans: Bluetooth

• Temperature of Class B motor


Ans: 130°C

• Temperature of Class F motor


Ans: 155°C

• Pure ac voltage single frequency


Ans: Single pip

• Cannot be used as a permanent magnet


Ans: Caryon

• In double’s Kelvin bridge, 1Ω to 10 uΩ


Ans: 0.05% - 0.2%

• Wien bridge oscillator


Ans: f = 1/(2πRC)

• Most important IEEE standard interface


Ans: IEEE 488 digital interface

• Common method of coupling used in cascade amplifier stages


Ans: Transformer

• It is most obvious at higher frequencies


Ans: Corona

• Early IC packaging method used in transistors


Ans: TO (Transistor Outline)

• PLCC
Ans: Plastic Lead chip memory

• It is used in Hi-Fi audio system to split frequencies to fed tweeter and woofer
Ans: Crossover network

• Resistance offered by a PN junction in AC conditions


Ans: Dynamic resistance

• Characteristic of shared systems to avoid mixing up of print outs or programs


Ans: Spooling

• Absorption of slow moving electrons by an interleaving matter


Ans: Ramsauer effect

• If a load is removed from a long transmission line, the sending voltage end is less than receiving end
Ans: Ferranti effect

• Corona results in
Ans: Radio interference

• Ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of all metals
Ans: Weidemann Franz Law

• Color of neutral in 3-core flexible cable


Ans: Blue

• It is neglected in short transmission line analysis


Ans: Shunt admittance

• It is located near transformer


Ans: Lightning arrester

• Volume of atom ratio to cell volume


Ans: Packing factor

• RLC circuit that provides undamped oscillation


Ans: Ringing circuit

• Contact between metal and heavily doped-semiconductor


Ans: Ohmic contact

• Comparator with hysteresis


Ans: Schmitt trigger

• Negative electron
Ans: Negatron

• Input continuously increases constant output


Ans: Level Clamp

• Four arm AC bridge measures inductance by standard capacitance


Ans: Maxwell Bridge

• Shows positions of lattice points


Ans: Bravais Lattice

• Measures the diameter of an atom


Ans: Ernest Rutherford

• Ratio of the AC power supply to the plate power supply


Ans: Plate efficiency

• Electromechanical device that converts electrical to mechanical by attraction of iron plunger to the electromagnet
Ans: Solenoid
• Lithium battery
Ans: Microcomputer memory back-up

• Protection against electric shock


Ans: Earthing

• The heat generated melts the portion at the tip of the electrode and the base of the metal
Ans: Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW)

• Advantages of PCB
Ans: Eliminates bigger chassis and point to point mounting

• Energy to raise the electron to another orbit


Ans: Excitation

• It is used in high voltage and high current application for most efficient regulator
Ans: Switching regulator

• What refers to garaging the two adjustments of an Ac bridge together in such a way that changing one adjustment changes
the other in a special way, but changing the second adjustment does not change first?
Ans: Orthogonal nulling

• Not common sine wave generator


Ans: Multivibrator

• Range of degrees of freedom


Ans: Work envelope

• Physical bend, twist, and reach


Ans: Manipulator

• Poor selectivity
Ans: Wide bandwidth

• It has amplifier and feedback


Ans: Electronic amplifier

• Maintenance of oscillation
Ans: Flywheel effect

• Free electrons collidal to bound electrons causing mere current carriers


Ans: Avalanche effect

• Magnetic leakage due to 100% coupling


Ans: Electromagnetic effect

• A particle resulting to an atom of an element combined to form a compound


Ans: Molecule

• P shell number of electrons


Ans: 72

• Solid formed by covalent bonding


Ans: Crystal

• The resistance in the magnetic path to the magnetic lines of force


Ans: Reluctance
• The flux density in an iron core when the magnetic intensity is zero
Ans: Residual magnetism

• When an electron rises to the conduction band a hole is created in the valence band, this called _____
Ans: Electron hole pair

• Operating temperature of silicon.


Ans: -175 to 350°C

• Highly sensitive material


Ans: Permanent magnet

• Smallest ripple voltage


Ans: Multi-section LC filter

• Highest torque
Ans: Series motors

• Motivating input in a control system which is independent with the output


Ans: Command input

• Development process of a microcrystal molten


Ans: Crystal growth

• The voltage regulator, the component used as a comparator


Ans: Op-amp

• It is not an resistance welding


Ans: Arc welding

• Atom to atom bond on surface with oxide free surface


Ans: Pressure welding

• Elimination of stray capacitance


Ans: Shielding and grounding

• 2 identical shunt motor


Ans: Hopkinson

• In double’s Kelvin bridge, 1Ω to 10 uΩ


Ans: 0.05% - 0.2%

• AC voltage frequency converter from one form to another


Ans: Cyclo converter

• Skin effect seen at


Ans: High frequencies

• Indicates the address of next instruction


Ans: Program counter

• Drift current is directly proportional to mobility, diffusion is directly proportional to concentration of diffusion
Ans: Einstein relation

• dV/dt in SCR
Ans: False trigerring

• It divides an HF signal so that a low frequency counter would be able to display the operating frequency
Ans: Prescaler circuit

• Responds to the variation in incident photon


Ans: Quantum detector

• Draws less current from circuit under test


Ans: FETVM

• It provides very high electrical isolation between control ckt and power ckt, has high impedance between light source and
phototransistor.
Ans: Optoisolator

• It is used to measure variations by the changing metallic resistance


Ans: Bolometer

• Most common bolometric device


Ans: Thermistor

• These are mostly used in robot than AC because it can with stand large overload.
Ans: DC motor and stepper motor

• Converting sine wave to series of pulses


Ans: Timing Marker Generator

• Current regulator alone


Ans: Regulator IC alone

• What do you call a short circuit having minimum resistance?


Ans: Dead short

• What is used in measuring wires from number 0 to number 36?


Ans: AWG

• Discharge of electricity from a conductor with a high potential


Ans: Corona

• Power transformer normally operates at ____ alternating current.


Ans: 60 or 400 Hz

• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 0 to 1 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 0 to 4 mA DC?
Ans: Perception

• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 1 to 4mA, 60 Hz, AC or 4 to 15 mA DC?
Ans: Surprise

• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 4 to 21 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 15 to 80 mA DC?
Ans: Reflex action

• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 21 to 40 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 80 to 160 mA DC?
Ans: Muscular Inhibition

• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 40 to 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 160 to 300 mA DC?
Ans: Respiratory failure
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of over 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 300 mA DC?
Ans: Fatal

• What is the effect of hydrogen surrounding the anode of a cell which increases the internal resistance of the cell?
Ans: Polarization

• What is the anode of a lead –acid cell?


Ans: Lead peroxide

• What is the cathode of a lead acid cell?


Ans: Sponge lead

• What is the anode of a NiCad Cell ?


Ans: Hydroxide

• What is the anode of a silver zinc cell?


Ans: Silver oxide

• What is the cathode of a silver zinc cell ?


Ans: Zinc

• What is the production of the hydrogen gas caused by a portion of the charge current breaking down the water in the
electrolyte?
Ans: Gassing

• What is the shelf life of lithium organic cell and lithium inorganic cell?
Ans: 20 years

• In what charge is the charging rate determined by the battery voltage rather than a definite current value?
Ans: Floating charge

• What charge is used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle or light duty?
Ans: Floating charge

• Floating charge is sometimes referred to as ___ and is accomplished with low current.
Ans: Trickle charge

• What is used when a battery must be recharged in the shortest possible time?
Ans: Fast charge

• Electrical safety precatutions must be observed. A fatal shock can occur from ___ ampere of current.
Ans: 0.1

• Voltages as low as ___ volts have been recorded as causing sufficient current to be fatal.
Ans: 30

• What type of extinguishers are used to extinguish electrical fires?


Ans: CO2

• Under favorable conditions, the body resistance may be as low as ___ ohms
Ans: 300

• The body resistance is possibly as low as ___ from temple to temple if the skin is broken.
Ans: 100
• In a voltage divider, bleeder current is usually determined by the ___ percent rule of thumb.
Ans: 10

• A theory of magnetism based upon the electron-spin principle.


Ans: Domain Theory.

• What action results in the increase in current that generates more heat and the cycle repeats itself until the diode draws
excessive current?
Ans: Thermal runaway

• What is the faithful reproduction of a signal in an amplifier?


Ans: Fidelity

• What dc generators are designed to act as high gain amplifier?


Ans: Amplidynes

• What is the range of the dc resistance of most motor armatures?


Ans: 0.05 to 0.5 ohms

• What is usually the lamination thickness of the armature core of a small generator?
Ans: 1/64 inches

• Mechanical rotation of frequency is measured using a device called___.


Ans: Tachometer

• The rotation of frequency of recording devices and teletypewriter motors can be measured by the use of _____.
Ans: Stroboscope.
• What is an instrument that allows you to view rotating or reciprocating objects intermittently and produces the optical effect
of a slowing down or stopping motion?
Ans: Stroboscope

• What is an electronic flash device in which the flash duration is very short, a few millionths of a second and can measure
very rapid motion?
Ans: Strobotac

• What is a combination of watch and revolution counter?


Ans: Chronometric tachometer

• What type of bolometer is characterized as an increase in resistance as the dissipated power rises?
Ans: Barreter

• What type of bolometer is characterized by decrease in resistance as the power increases?


Ans: Thermistor

• What instrument is used for measuring radio frequency (rf) power?


Ans: Thermocouple ammeter

• Which of the following robots is used for machining processes?


Ans: Cincinatti T3

• Kuka spot welding has ___ degrees of freedom.


Ans: 6

• Exx1x
Ans: All positions

• Exx2x
Ans: horizontal positions

• Magnetic audio tape


Ans: Parallel

• Magnetic video tape


Ans: Diagonal

• Thickness of magnetic audio tape


Ans: 1 mil

• A sawtooth wave has a ____ added to become trapezoidal wave.


Ans: resistor

• Absent of current welding


Ans: cool sub-interval

• 1.5 H
Ans: Air pot core

• Who coined the term robotics?


Ans: Isaac Asimov

• Oldest welding
Ans: Forge welding

• Klystron
Ans: High achievable power output

• Inert gas
Ans: MIG

• Active gas
Ans: MAG

• Antrophomorphic robot is
Ans: more maneuverable

• It is also known as metal inert gas.


Ans: Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW)

• Robot with facial expression


Ans: Kismet

• Toy dinosaur robot


Ans: Pleo

• Snap acting switch


Ans: Microswitch

• Approach in which introduce factory automation technology


Ans: Islands of automation

• Degree of automatic.
Ans: Level of automation
• Orange, blue and gray diode
Ans: IN368

• It is the welding electrode comes forward and engage the metal pressing against the surface.
Ans: squeeze interval

• It is the welding in which the welding transformer energized and the current flows and create a weld.
Ans: weld interval

• It is the weld interval that is finished


Ans: hold interval

• Welding electrode is retracted


Ans: release interval

• A time after release interval to the next start sequence.


Ans: Standby interval.

• It is a closed loop feedback control system in which one or more of the system signals represent mechanical motion.
Ans: Servomechanism.

• Exx3x
Ans: Flat

• E60xx has a tensile strength of ___


Ans: 60,000 psi

• With AC or DC similar to E6010


Ans: E6011

• Major power supply of MIG


Ans: DCRP

• Medium penetration
Ans: E6013

• Can be prevented by arc welding


Ans: Arc flow

• Faying surfaces in one spot


Ans: Resistance spot welding

• Faying surfaces
Ans: Resistance seam welding

• Resistance of the work


Ans: Resistance welding

• Mass of 60-lb IR robot


Ans: 60 kg

• Deep penetration
Ans: Submerged arc

• Deep penetration
Ans: DC reverse
• Medium penetration
Ans: DC straight

• Fast welding
Ans: Flash welding

• 10,000 to 50,000 Hz welding


Ans: High frequency welding

• Image resolution
Ans: Dot pitch

• Voltage of dry electrolytic capacitor


Ans: 500 V

• Apply electrostatic voltage in plastic


Ans: Electroactive polymer

• In electrolytic positive, ___ of the total heat.


Ans: 2/3

• Prevents corona
Ans: Braid

• 450°F below…
Ans: Soldering

• above 450°F joining of two metals


Ans: Brazing

• Metal active gas


Ans: CO2

• Multimeter on the lower center switch


Ans: Range switch

• Multimeter on the lower left switch


Ans: Function switch

• Aluminum D-ARsonval movement


Ans: Bobbin

• Positive lead
Ans: Red

• Negative lead
Ans: Black

• Angular momentum of robot


Ans: Yaw

• GaAs disadvantage
Ans: more expensive
• Disadvantage of Transformer to capacitive coupling
Ans: more expensive

• A motor or transducer that converts energy (electrical, hydraulic, or pneumatic) into power used to produce motion or
power.
Ans: actuator

• The ability of a robot to position its end effector at a programmed location in space.
Ans: accuracy

• Control signals that are processed by directly measuring quantities (voltages, resistances or rotation). This can be
hydraulic, electronic or pneumatic.
Ans: analog control

• A robot or machine that resembles a human.


Ans: android

• A robot with rotary joints that can move much like a person’s arm.
Ans: anthrophomorphic robot

• An interconnected set of links and powered joints comprising a manipulator that supports or moves a wrist, hand or end
effector.
Ans: arm

• The ability of a machine system to perceived anticipated or unanticipated new conditions, decide what actions must be
performed under the conditions and plan the actions accordingly. The main areas of applications are expert systems and
computer vision.
Ans: artificial intelligence

• Also known as assembly cell or assembly station. A concentrated group of equipment such as manipulators, vision
modules, parts presenters, and support tables that are dedicated to compute assembly operations at one physical location.
Ans: assembly

• The use of any one several techniques to determine the presence or absence of features. This technique include simple
mechanical probes and vision systems.
Ans: automated inspection

• Automatically controlled operation of an apparatus, process or system by mechanical or electronic devices that replace
human observation, effort and decision.
Ans: automation

• A traveled path in space, usually referred to as a linear direction of travel in any of three dimensions.
Ans: axis

• A robot in which motions are controlled by driving each axis or degree of freedom against a mechanical limit stop.
Ans: bang-bang robot

• A platform or structure to which a robot arm is attached; the end of a kinematic chain of arm links and joints opposite to
which grasps or processes external objects.
Ans: base

• A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more workstations or machines and the material transport mechanisms and
storage buffers that interconnect them.
Ans: cell
• A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more cells, and the material transport mechanisms and storage buffers that
interconnect them.
Ans: center
• An assembly between two closely related rigid members enabling on member to rotate in relation to the other around a
mobile axis.
Ans: complex joint

• The use of an interactive terminal workstation usually with graphics capability to automate the design of products. It
includes functions such as drafting and fit-up parts.
Ans: computer aided design (CAD)

• Working from a product design likely to exist in a CAD data base, it encompases the computer based technologies that
physically produce the product, including parts program preparation, process planning, tool design, process analysis and
parts processing by numerically controlled machines.
Ans: computer-aided manufacturing (CAM)

• A numerical control system with a dictated mini or micro computer that performs the functions of data processing and
control.
Ans: computerized numerical control (CNC)

• The unit of automatic work for a robot. Within a cycle, subelements called trajectories define lesser but integral elements.
Each trajectory is made up of points where the robot performs an operation or passes through depending upon the
programming.
Ans: cycle (program)

• The number of independent ways the end effector can move. It is defined by the number of rotational or translational axes
through which motion can be obtained.
Ans: degrees of freedom

• The joint that connects the upper arm and forearm on a robot.
Ans: elbow

• Also known as end of arm tooling or simply a hand. The subsystem that links the mechanical portion of the robot
(manipulator) to the part being handled or work on, and gives the robot the ability to pick yp and transfer parts and/or handle
a multitude of different tools to perform work on parts.
Ans: end effector

• Robots with little if any computer power. Their only intelligent functions consist of learning a sequence of manipulative
actions, choreographed by a human operator using a teach box.
Ans: first generation robot system

• Also known as nonservo robot or open robot. A robot with stoppoint control but no trajectory control.
Ans: fixed stop robot

• Multipurpose robots that are adaptable and capable of being redirected trained or used for new purposes.
Ans: flexibility operational

• An arrangement of machine tools that is capable of standing alone, interconnected by a workpiece transport system and
controlled by a central computer.
Ans: flexible manufacturing system (FMS)

• Also known as pedestal robot. A robot with its base permanently or semi-permanently attached to the floor or bench. Such
a robot is working at one location with a maximum limited work area and in many cases servicing only one machine.
Ans: floor mounted robot

• That portion of a jointed arm which is connected to the wrist and elbow
Ans: forearm.

• An overhead mounted, rectilinear robot with a minimum of three degrees of freedom and normally not exceeding six.
Ans: gantry robot.
• The grasping hand of a robot, which manipulates objects and tools to fulfill a given task.
Ans: gripper

• An approach used to introduce factory automation technology into manufacturing by selective application of automation.
Ans: islands of automation.

• The degree to which a process has been made automatic. Relevant to the level of automation are questions of automatic
failure recovery, the variety of situations that will be automatically handled, and the conditions under which manual
intervention or action by human beings is required.
Ans: level of automation

• An electrical switched positioned to be switched where a motion limit occurs, thereby deactivating the actuator that causes
the motion.
Ans: limit switch

• A mechanism usually consisting of a series of segments or links, jointed or sliding to one another, for grasping or moving
objects, usually in several degrees of freedom.
Ans: manipulator

• A method for the control of machine tool systems. A program containing all the information, in symbolic numerical form,
needed for processing a workpiece is stored on a medium such as paper or magnetic tape.
Ans: numerical control

• Developing robot programs partially or completely without requiring the use of the robot itself. The program is loaded into
the robot’s controller for subsequent automatic action of the manipulator.
Ans: off-line programming

• Software that controls the execution of computer programs, may provide scheduling, allocation, debugging data
management, and other functions.
Ans: operating systems

• Also known as positioning. The consistent movement or manipulation of an object into controlled position and altitude in
space.
Ans: orientation

• The equipment used in conjunction with the robot for a complete robotic system. This includes grippers, conveyors, parts
positioners and parts or materials feeders that are needed with the robot.
Ans: peripheral equipment

• Also known as bend. The angular rotation of a moving body about an axis that is perpendicular to its direction of motion and
in the same plane as its top side.
Ans: pitch

• Also known as photoelement or photosite. A digital picture or sensor element, picture is short for picture cell.
Ans: pixel

• The act of providing the control instructions required for a robot to perform its intended task.
Ans: programming

• The envelope of variance of the robot tool print position for repeated cycles under the same conditions. It is obtained from
the deviation between the positions and orientations reached at the end of several similar cycles. Contrast with accuracy.
Ans: repeatability

• A reprogrammable, multifunctional manipulator designed to move a material, parts, tools, or specialized devices through
variable programmed motions for the performance of a variety of tasks.
Ans: robot

• The science of designing, building and applying robots.


Ans: robotics

• Also known as twist. The rotational displacement of a joint around the principal axis of its motionj, particularly at the wrist.
Ans: roll

• A robot with a computer processes added to the robotic controller. This addition makes it possible to perform, in real time,
the calculations required to control the motions of each degree of freedom in a cooperative manner to effect smooth motions
of the end effector along predetermined paths. It also become possible to integrate simple sensors, such as force torque,
and proximity into the robot system ,providing some degree of adaptability to the robot’s environment.
Ans: second generation robot system

• A controller that operates an application though a fixed sequence of events.


Ans: sequencer

• A robot driven by servomechanisms, that is, motors or actuators whose driving signal is a function of the difference between
a commanded position and/or rate is measured actual position and/or rate.
Ans: servocontrolled robot

• An automatic control mechanism consisting of a motor or actuator driven by a signal that is a function of the difference
between a commanded position and/or rate and measured actual position and/or rate.
Ans: servomechanism

• The manipulator arm linkage joint that is attached to the base.


Ans: shoulder

• The maximum velocity at which a manipulator joint can move; a rate imposed by saturation in the servoloop controlling the
joint.
Ans: slew rate

• The use of two or more cameras to pinpoint the location of an object in a three dimensional space.
Ans: stereo imaging

• The detection by a robot though contact of touch, force, pattern slip and movement. It allows for the determination of local
shape, orientation and feedback forces of a grasped workspace.
Ans: tactile sensing

• A robot system characterized by the incorporation of multiple computer processors, each operating asynchronously to
perform specific functions. It includes a separate low level processor for each degree of freedom and a master computer
supervising and coordinating these processors, as well as providing higher-level functions.
Ans: third generation robot system

• The orientation of a view with a video camera, in elevation.


Ans: tilt

• A continuous position control response to continuously changing input requirements.


Ans: tracking

• A movement such that all axes remain parallel to what they were.
Ans: translation

• The acquisition, movement thorugh space, and release of an object by a robot.


Ans: transport

• The portion of a jointed arm that is connected to the shoulder.


Ans: upper arm

• Also known as the robot operating envelope. The set of points representing the maximum extent or reach of the robot tool
in a directions.
Ans: work envelope

• The envelope reached by the center of the interface between the wrist and the tool, using all available axis motions.
Ans: workspace

• A set of joints, usually rotational, between the arm and the hand or end effector, which allow the hand or end effector to be
oriented relative to the workpiece.
Ans: wrist

• The angular displacement of a moving joint about an axis which is perpendicular to the line of motion and the top side of the
body.
Ans: yaw

• What magnet is used in computer memory circuits?


Ans: Ring magnet

• What magnet is used in some meter circuits?


Ans: Horseshoe magnet

• “If the electrons of the atom in a material spin more in one direction than in the other, the material will become magnetized”.
This refers to what theorem?
Ans: The Domain theory of Magnetism

• What theorem assumes that all magnetic materials are made up of magnetic molecules which, if lined up in north to south
pole order, will be a magnet. If not lined up, the magnetic fields about the molecules will neutralize each other and no
magnetic effect will be noted?
Ans: Weber’s theory of magnetism

• What do you call a short circuit having minimum resistance?


Ans: Dead short

• What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is no external load?
Ans: Local action

• The amount of increase in the resistance of 1 ohm sample of the conductor per degree of temperature rise above 0°C is
called what?
Ans: Temperature coefficient of resistance

• What do you call the resistance to current leakage through the insulation?
Ans: Insulation resistance

• What is the common name for enamel insulated wire?


Ans: Magnet wire

• What term is general one and usually applies only to the larger sizes of conductors?
Ans: Cables

• The process of applying thin coat of solder to materials prior to their being soldered.
Ans: Tinning

• The addition of atmospheric oxygen to metal to form rust, or to cause a breakdown in the internal construction of the metal.
Ans: Oxidation

• What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is not external load?
Ans: Local action

• A continuous jacket of lead molded around a single conductor or multiple conductor cable.
Ans: Lead sheath

• What do you call the force exerted on an insulator by the voltage in a conductor?
Ans: Electrostatic stress

• The discharge of electricity from a conductor with a high potential.


Ans: Corona

• A material that removes oxides from surfaces to be joined by soldering or welding.


Ans: Flux

• A synthetic mixture of rosins that is flexible and used as an insulating material. Generally used as an insulator for low and
medium range voltages.
Ans: Thermoplastic

• The capacity of a soldering iron to generate and maintain a satisfactory soldering temperature while giving up heat to the
material being soldered.
Ans: Thermal inertia

• What is the working voltage of a dry electrolytic capacitor?


Ans: 500 V

• If arcing should occur between the plates of an oil filled capacitor, the oil will tend to reseal the hole caused by the arcing.
Such a capacitor is referred to as ____ capacitor.
Ans: self-healing

• The maximum voltage that can be steadily applied to the capacitor without the capacitor breaking down (shorting) is called
____ of the capacitor.
Ans: working voltage

• What is meant by “local action”?


Ans: Current flow in cell with no external load.

• The left side of the pulse


Ans: Leading edge

• The right side of the pulse


Ans: Trailing edge

• What is the process by which an atoms gain or losses electrons?


Ans: Ionization

• Any group of energy levels that results from the close proximity of atoms in a solid.
Ans: Energy bands

• How many pulsations per revolution have the output voltage of an elementary single coil dc generator?
Ans: Two

• How many commutator segments are required in a two-coil generator?


Ans: Four

• What is the distortion of the main field due to the effects of armature current?
Ans: Armature reaction

• What type of prime mover requires a specially designed high speed alternator?
Ans: Steam turbine
• What type of rotor is used in slower speed alternators?
Ans: Salient pole rotor

• What type of rotor is wound in a manner to allow high-speed use without flying apart?
Ans: Turbine driven type rotor

• What term is used to denote the difference in speed between the rotor which is always somewhat less than the speed of the
rotating field?
Ans: Slip

• What mechanical device reverses armature connections in motors and generators at the proper instant so that current
continues to flow only in one direction?
Ans: Commutator

• What motor characteristic is affected by counter emf?


Ans: Speed

• How is EPROM erased?


Ans: with a burst of ultraviolet light

• Whenever data is transferred between devices, it involves the exchange of prearranged signals. What is this process
called?
Ans: Handshaking

• What test is used to check for opens (or to see if the circuit is complete or continuous) and is accomplished with an
ohmmeter?
Ans: Continuity test

• What type of circuits are caused by some conducting part of the circuit making contact either directly or indirectly with the
metallic structure of the ship or chassis?
Ans: Ground circuits

• Shunts are usually made from what alloy?


Ans: Manganin

• What property of shunt is desired because of the heavy currents that often flow through shunts producing heat?
Ans: Zero-temperature coefficient

• In D’Arsonval meter, many turns of fine wire would be used, each turn adding more effective length to the coil. The coil is
wound on an aluminum frame called ___.
Ans: bobbin

• What is an important point to remember when you are making an accurate resistance measurement?
Ans: “Zero” the meter each time you select a new range.

• BJT better than FET


Ans: radio receiver

• Wineglass
Ans: Plasma arc welding

• … plasma
Ans: Plasma arc welding

• Slow speed
Ans: Salient pole
• High speed
Ans: Turbine driven type rotor

• Differentiation
Ans: Submerged

• Comparison solenoid
Ans: Relay fixed core

• Human arm
Ans: Serial robot

• Input display signal voltage


Ans: Vertical deflection coil

• Replacing DC motor/recently used


Ans: Piezo motor

• Rapid discharge of electrical energy


Ans: Percussion welding

• Hydrogen Electrode
Ans: E7018

• False
Ans: Air has the concentrated magnetic field

• Electron gun tube


Ans: CRT

• Electron field tube


Ans: Electron beam

• Multicavity Klystron
Ans: Variable electron speed

• Fuse
Ans: Quick break type

• Magnetic frequency increases


Ans: Power output decreases

• Cause of electrons due to the longitudinal


Ans: Magnetic field

• Along a joint
Ans: Upset welding

• Fastest memory
Ans: Flash memory

• Tungsten electrode
Ans: TIG

• Use of non-interlaced monitor


Ans: Fast graph
• CMOS disadvantage
Ans: cannot handle high power

• TTL
Ans: least susceptible to noise

• E stands for
Ans: American Wire Electrode

• Exceeding 450°F
Ans: Brazing

• Not exceeding 450°F


Ans: Soldering

• Generators used
Ans: Magnetic

• Battery used as
Ans: chemical

• Responsible of pulsating DC
Ans: Commutator

• Low voltage high power


Ans: Center tapped Full Wave

• Oldest 1940 general magnetic phenomenon


Ans: Colding or cold contact

• Joints
Ans: Direct Kinematics

• End effector
Ans: Inverse Direct Kinematics

• Nothing but to memory


Ans: Flag field

• Unwanted connection
Ans: Fault connection

• Frequency synthesizer used as


Ans: Divider

• Output amplitude
Ans: Amplitude stability

• DC motor is preferred as driver in robotics because


Ans: it can withstand large overload

• Welding is not used direct source because


Ans: it is impracticable to draw heavy currents

• Atomic hydrogen is long lived because


Ans: ac is used

• RF power amplifier
Ans: Common base

• Choke
Ans: passes dc but not RF

• Multivibrator
Ans: Common emitter or common source

• Algorithm better than ZMP


Ans: Dynamic balancing

• One feet with small


Ans: Hopping

• Automatic welding
Ans: 5 intervals

• Control grid of a tube


Ans: gate of a FET

• Impedance mismatch reactance output


Ans: Transformer

• Laminated core
Ans: reduces eddy current loss

• No load loss but not electrical loss


Ans: Windage

• Manganese Dioxide Alkaline Acid


Ans: Alkaline Cell

• Draws large amount of current


Ans: Rheostat

• Increase RL
Ans: Improved Efficiency

• Single coil
Ans: Elementary generator

• 3 classifications of robot
Ans: Anthrophomorphic, SCARA, and articulated

• Connects arm and end effectors


Ans: Wrist

• ____ for bones, ____ for muscle and ____for degrees of freedom.
Ans: links, actuator, and joints

• Early actuator
Ans: Elastic nanotube
• Changing of electric energy
Ans: Electroactive polymer

• Variable speed
Ans: DC generator

• Constant speed
Ans: AC generator

• More robot than worker


Ans: Japan

• Transient suppression prevents


Ans: diode failure

• Tunnel diode
Ans: Dr. Leo Esaki

• Zener Diode
Ans: Dr. Carl Zener

• Varactor diode uses


Ans: Frequency stability

• 2 terminal communicate
Ans: Handshaking

• Highest fidelity
Ans: Class A

• Portion
Ans: Class AB

• FET amplifier
Ans: Class AB2

• Medium penetration
Ans: E6013

• Oxy fuel arc


Ans: Oxy fuel gas welding

• Electrical requirement of arc welding


Ans: high open circuit voltage

• Horizontal oscilloscope
Ans: Time/division

• Joining of metals
Ans: Welding

• Radio using tubes


Ans: Bulk and heavy

• The purpose of I in PIN diode


Ans: minimizes junction capacitance

• 1/16 to 5/16 in in diameter


Ans: American Welding Society

• Degrees of freedom for General purpose effectors


Ans: 20

• Deep penetration welding


Ans: Submerge arc welding

• JFET except
Ans: transconductance

• Pinch off voltage


Ans: Transconductance is zero

• Formula for IC with leakage current


Ans: IC = βIB + (β+1)ICBO

• IE
Ans: IE = IC - ICBO
α
• ICQ
Ans: ICQ = βIBQ + ICEO

• IEQ
Ans: IEQ = ICQ + IBQ

• Increase temperature leakage current


Ans: ICBO = ICBO (T2-T1)/10

• Charge of a capacitor
Ans: Q = CV

• Charge
Ans: Q = Qo (1-e(-t/RC))

• Dependent on gap
Ans: Charge efficiency

• NRZI means
Ans: Non-return to zero invert

• Pilot cell
Ans: identifies the condition of the battery

• More likely to occur than zener breakdown because lightl doped


Ans: Avalanche breakdown

• How wire
Ans: measure dc and ac

• Dielectric constant of mica


Ans: 6
• Buck boost lossless
Ans: D = (V2)/(V1+V2)

• Buck
Ans: D = V2/V1

• Op-amp filter
Ans: Polysterene

• TTL
Ans: open circuit high level

• I2L
Ans: bipolar saturated logic

• EAROM
Ans: Degrade data if used

• 6 rectifying elements
Ans: Gratz rectifier

• Superconductivity thin film memory consisting of a superconducting inductor


Ans: Permistor

• Register and counters are the same because


Ans: they have the same array of flip flop and gates

• High Q
Ans: High selectivity

• 2 principles of detector
Ans: Rectifier and filter

• Microprocessor
Ans: ALU and control unit

• CPU
Ans: ALU and control unit

• Simulate
Ans: Simulator
• Servocontrolled robot
Ans: Soft stop

• Nonservo robot
Ans: Hard stop

• Lowest resistivity at 293 K


Ans: Copper

• BIG elements
Ans: Trivalent

• PAA elements
Ans: Pentavalent
• Analog preferred than digital because
Ans: of measuring signal strength

• Opposing torques
Ans: Deflecting and restoring torques

• Code that…
Ans: Absolute code

• Equal ripple
Ans: Eliptic filter

• Illuminance
Ans: Lux

• Ripple sharp cutoff


Ans: Chebyshev filter

• Adds all harmonics


Ans: Sawtooth

• Odd harmonics
Ans: Square

• All even harmonics


Ans: Push pull

• The single grid of vacuum


Ans: Control grid

• In low frequency cutoff, amplitude decreases by ___ from midrange value


Ans: 3 dB

• Change in audio range


Ans: 1 dB

EXCEL…

Fiber Optics (Chapter 11: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following refers to the relative refractive index difference of single mode fibers?
0.1 - 0.3 %

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A parameter of light beam that do not change the quality when it enters one medium from another.
Frequency

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following limits the top speed of transmitting information in fiber optic
communication?
Detector speed

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Type of multi-channel signal transmission in the optic fiber communication that uses twisted pair
coupler to transmit two signals of different wavelengths.
Frequency-division multiplexing

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Best applies to an optical fiber core.
A higher refractive index than the cladding

ECE Board Exam November 1998


How many times bigger does the bandwidth of a fiber optic multimode have over cable?
100 times bigger

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What law does a light travelling in an optical fiber follow?
Snell's

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen by human eye.
Ultraviolet

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single-mode fiber cable.
0.38dB

ECE Board Exam November 1996


An object father from a converging lens than its focal point always has an ________ image.
inverted

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The dielectric material of an optical fiber surrounding the core.
Cladding

ECE Board Exam April 2001


An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication is not intended to
determine one of the following:
Kind of multiplexing

--------------------- An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication-------


Refractive index
Loss per kilometer
Length of fiber

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In wire communications system using fiber optic, the packing fraction is related to one of the
following statements when referred to fiber optic bundle.
Ratio of the total cross-sectional area to the total cross-sectional area of the fiber bundle

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Why are fiber optic cables considered less expensive compared to coaxial cables in communication
system?
Use of less repeaters

ECE Board Exam November 1999


An optic fiber regenerator which is used in communication is consisting of a ________ to clean up
and amplify digital data moving in one direction and a similar system for the opposite direction.
transmitter and receiver

ECE Board Exam April 1999


How do you account the effect of light intensity on the refractive index of a fiber optic?
Increases

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the following referred to as a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer.
Pulse generator laser

ECE Board Exam April 1998


__________ generates light beam at a specific visible frequency.
Laser

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communication system.
APDs

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A non-coherent light source for optical communications system.
LED

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is
attenuation

ECE Board Exam March 1996


It is made from semiconductor material such as aluminum-gallium-arsenide or gallium-arsenide-
phosphide.
Light emitting diode

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How much bigger does the bandwidth of a single mode fiber optic have over the multimode fiber?
20 times bigger
ECE Board Exam November 2000
Which of the following refers to the bandwidth of optical fiber?
1 MHz - 500 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Refers to a characteristic of a multimode fiber optic.
Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core must
be much greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried.

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What do you call the loss in signal power as the light travels the fiber optic?
Attenuation

ECE Board Exam April 1999


One of the characteristics of a fiber optic used in order to carry light in several modes of
propagation or to become a multimode fiber.
Diameter of the core must be very muuch greater than the wavelength of the light to be
carried.

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a detector?

Photovoltaic effect

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Quantity that do not change when a beam of lifgt enters one medium to another
Frequency

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion.
Step-index multimode

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light intensity at 1.55 um.

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many
times the wavelength of the light transmitted is known as __________.
mode

ECE Board Exam March 1996


An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the siica material from which fibers are
manufactured.
Ultraviolet absorption

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following is not a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in
fiber optic communication?
vertical and horizontal plates

-------------------- major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic
communication---------------------
Laser
Beam splitter
Pulse generator

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following is a part of an optical time domain reflectometer?
Beam splitter

ECE Board Exam April 2000


This refers to a certain material which is most sensitive to light.
Photoresist

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Referred to as a light source of fiber optic which supplies level of 5
to 7 milliwats and having a narrow spectrum of emission.
Injection laser diode

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Most likely, how many times would a fiber optic break in a span of thirty years?
2 - 3 times

ECE Board Exam November 1998


An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signal from magnetic field or solar storm
flux
Immunity to noise

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following colors of light rays has the shortest wavelength?
Violet

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Fiber optic cable operates near ________ frequencies.
800 THz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and the detector rise
time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE. Board Exam November 1996


Proposed the used of a clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide
Bockham and Kao

ECE Board Exam November 2000


ln electronic communications where fiber optic material is used, a reflected
wave is a possibility. what happen to the polarization of this reflected wave
when compared to its original form?
Shifts to 180 degrees

ECE Board Exam April 2000


The effect of multimode propagation caused the rays leaving the fiber to
interfere constructively and destructively as they leave the end of the fiber
this effect is called _________.
modal delay spreading

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What is the wavelength for deep violet light?
500 nmeter

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A device in the fiber optic that is used to attenuate the reflected signal from the polished end of the
fiber which has a possibility of developing into a noise.
Isolator

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the advantages of the fiber optic which is referred to the volume of capacity of signals it
can carry
Bandwidth

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber optics communications links.
Optical repeater

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics communication systems
Optical attenuator

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Lifetime of ILDs
50.000 h

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon?
Molten

ECE Board Exam November 2000


One of the major limitations of a plastic fiberoptic used in communication
Due to its high losses

ECE Board Exam April 2000


One of following is considered the largest source of signal power loss in the
use of fiber optic as communications medium such as due to misalignment.
ConnectionECE Board Exam NOvember 1999
One of the following is related to the application of solid material as a medium where light travels.
medium where Ilght travels. apphcatlon of 5DHd mater-ja}; as 3
Fiber optics

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the following is not considered as one of the causes for the loss of signal power as light
travels through a fiber optic?
Inter-modulation
----------------causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic-----------------
Scattering
Fiber bending
Absorption

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The core of the optical fiber has _______
a higher index of refraction than the cladding

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities formed
during the manufacturing process of the fiber optics.
Rayleigh scattering loss

ECE Board Exam November 1996


If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and the detector rise
time is 2 ns, what is the cable rise time?
ECE Board Exam November 2000
A phenomenon which causes the speed of light rays propagation in the fiber
material changes, as it passes through different medium in the fiber
Refraction

ECE Board Exam April 2000


At what intenial does a fiber optic needs a repeater in communications
system?
30 to 300 miles

ECE Board Eanm November 1999


Referfeq to as a limit in reducing further the loss of signal passing through a
fiber optic caused by scattering.
Rayleigh effect

ECE Board Exam April 1999


These are band of light wavelengths, that are too short to be seen by the human eye.
Ultraviolet

ECE Board Exam November 1998


A quarter wavelength device made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the optic fiber
communication
Retarder

ECE Board Exam April 1999


At what power levels does fiber optic have when used in electronic communications?
Range of micro to milliwatts

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the following is among the types of fiber optics used in electronics communication.
Semi-graded multimode

ECE Board Exam November 1998


How do you reduce the loss that is produced when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber optic?
By application of antireflection coating

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What is the device use in used in fiber optic communication which consist of a receiver transmitter
use tc clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and another in opposite direction?

Optic regenerator
ECE Board Exam November 2000
An advantage of fiber optic over co-axial cable as a result of coupling signals
from one to the other due to changing magnetic field in one or both.
Crosstalk

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What is the index of refraction of a certain substance if light travels through
the substance at 100 meters at a time is to 140 meters to air'?

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Labels: Communications, Excel, Fiber Optics, Past Board

Saturday, June 16, 2012


Satellite Communications (Chapter 10: Past Board Exce)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What balance the gravitational pull of the earth to allow the satellite to stay on its orbit?
Centripetal force

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern.
Nonsynchronous satellite

ECE Board Exam April 1999


In a transoceanic satellite conversation, how much is the typical delay before a reply is heard?
600 ms

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What are the repeaters inside communications satellite known for?
Transponders

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Under a circular satellite orbiy, how high is a certain satellite located above the surface of the earth
if the total satellite height is 9869 miles?
ECE Board Exam November 1998
Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period if rotation of the
earth about its axis.
Geosynchronous satellite

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A radio land station in the land mobile service.
Base station

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating or recording measurement at the distance
from the measuring instrument.
Telemetry

ECE Board Exam April 1997


_______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna.
Azimuth

ECE Board Exam November 1996


How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine government from ITU?
6

ECE Board Exam MArch 1996


The point on satellite orbit, closest to the earth is
perigee

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A mobile service between base stations and land mobile stations or between land mobile stations.
Mobile service

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following refers to the basic component of a communication satellite receiver?
Transponder

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Determine from the following the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite.
Spin

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A space distance iin satellite communication from the earth, to or greater than 2,000,000
kilometers is referred to as ___________.
deep space

ECE Board Exam April 1999


How many satellites does the GPS system consist?
24 satellites

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Which point on the satellite orbit is closest to the earth?
perigee

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following is refers to the smallest beam of a satellite antenna's radiation pattern?
spot beam

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A major and basic advantage for the use of klystron.
Hiigh power

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion.
Land station

ECE Board Exam April 1997


__________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric current,
amplifies and lower its frequency.
LNB

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite.
Satellite dish

ECE Board Exam March 1996


It is a spacecraft replaced in orbit around the earth carrying onboard microwave receiving and
transmitting equipments
Communications satellite

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A what apogee in an elliptical orbit must a geosynchronous satellite be initially stationed before it
is finally fired into its final geostationary orbit?
22,300 miles

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Satellite orbit around the earth are either:
they are either circular or elliptical
ECE Board Exam April 2000
Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the cooperating
stations.
Satellite network

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A resultant effect in launching a satellite from the earth caused by both forward motion away from
the earth that provides inertia tending the satellite to travel in straight line upwards and the
gravitational pull towards the earth is referred to as ___________.
centripetal acceleration

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following refers to the first active satellite?
Sputnik 1

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A band where most military satellite often operate.
X

ECE Board Exam November1997


Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously.
Telstar I

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What kind of battery panels are used in some advanced satellites?
Gallium arsenide solar panels

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth's station.
Downlink

ECE Board Exam November 1999


In satellite communications where satellites revolve in an orbit that forms a plane passing through
the center of gravity of the earth, this center is called ____________
geocenter

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or terminate
functions of equivalent at a distance.
Telecommand

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate modify or terminate
functions of equipment at a distance.
Telecommand
ECE Board Exam April 1997
Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe.
Satellite coverage

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The first commercial satellite
Early bird

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What band does VSAT first operate?
C-band

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which part of transponder converts the received signal to another lower frequency?
Mixer

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In satellite communications, the geostationary satellites are conveniently located with respect to the
equator at __________.
0 degrees latitude

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The Ku-band in the satellite service.
14/11 GHz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia?
38

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Satellite engine uses
ion propulsion system

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How do you increase or double the channel capacity of a satellite without increasing the frequency
bandwidth?
Re-use frequency

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of earths surface.
Global beam

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Receives and collects satellite signals from a broadcast satellite.
Satellite disk
ECE Board Exam April 1997
Sound intensity level is __________
10 log I/Iref

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The first passive satellite transponder.
Moon

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The most common application of satellite
Communications

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or between mobile
stations.
Mobile service

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Referred to as function and/or a designed of a double conversion satellite transponder.
Equipped with two mixers

ECE Board Exam November 2000


How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference?
Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas

ECE Board Exam April 1998


One of the first satellite systems catering personal based communications services scheduled for
operation.
Iridium system

ECE Board Exam NOvember 1997


A radio communications service used in radio regulation between specified fixed points provided
primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and economical air transport.
Aeronautical Fixed Service

ECE Board Exam November 1999


When do you consider that there is a satellite pass, having reference from the ground?
When satellite passes at its orbit at 90 degrees from its azimuth.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion of the
earths athmospehere.
Space Station

ECE Board Exam November 1997


An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal the period of rotation of the earth about its
axis.
Geosynchronous

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Known as the satellite transmitted signal from a satellite transponder to earths station.
Down link

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A satellite receives an uplink frequency of __________ MHz from a ground station of 3700 MHz.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What do you call the signal booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver?
Low noise amplifier

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern?
Spot Beam

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Referred by a radio regulation as the station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in
motion
Land Station

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the operating earth
station.
satellite network

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Typical bandwidth of a communications satellite.
500 MHz

ECE Board Exam November 2000


An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam.
Footprint

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A twenty four (24) satellite system used in modern telecommunications to determine a location(s)
on the surface of the earth.
GPS

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which type of satellite transponder improves the S/N ratio which demodulates the up-link signal to
recover the baseband signals and use them to remodulate the downlink transmitter?
Baseband

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In shipboard satellite dish antenna system, azimuth is referred as the __________
horizontal aiming of the antenna

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile service.
Coast station

ECE Board Exam November 1998


__________ is known to be the first satellite capable of receiving and transmitting simultaneously.
Telstar I

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the frequency range of C-band?
3.4 to 6.424 GHz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


An area on the surface of the earth within the boresight of the steerable satellite beam intended to
be pointed.
Effective boresight area

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the approximate percentage of earth's coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree
elevation?
42.5 %

ECE Board Exam April 2001


One of the following devices in satellite transponder serves as output of the receive antenna.
low noise amplifier

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In a re-use frequency technique of increasing satellite channel capacity of corresponding
transponders, how do you control the antenna used to prevent interference?
High directional antenna

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Refers to a mobile earth station in the mobile-satellite service located on board ship
Ship earth station
ECE Board Exam April 2001
A technique in satellite communications which uses a highly directional spot-beam antenna to
prevent interference from frequency sharing.
Frequency re-use technique

ECE Board Exam November 2000


How do you determine the satellite location in latitude and longitude measurement?
Designate a point on earth directly below the satellite

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A point in the satellite orbit known to be the closest location to the surface of the earth.
Perigee

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which satellite transponder has the most number of mixers?
Double-conversion
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Monday, June 4, 2012


Microwave Communications (Chapter 9: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following will you avoid in the construction of a microwave station?
Long horizontal runs

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Radio frequency where waveguides are not used extensively.
150 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Term used to describe a process of approaching a desired point by directing the vehicle towards
that point
Homing

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A system which does not refer to a technique in reducing the propagation errors in navigational
system such as multipath effects
Pulse transmission

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the following is a navigational equipment which utilizes a ground radar system to
determine the position of a plane during its approach?
GCA
ECE Board Exam November 1998
_____________ is referred as the difference between available power and power budget.
Power margin

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on __________.
two or more antennas operating on the same frequency

ECE Board Exam November 1996


One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM is
noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup?
312 to 552 kHz

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The k-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile calculation is
equal to __________
4/3

ECE Board Exam March 1996


LORAN is navigational system used primarily for _________
obtaining your fixed location over a large distances

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What navigational system technique uses an antenna directivity to reduce an undesired multipath
signals?
LORAN-C

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In microwave frequencies, the LOS distance is something extended through the occurrence of
____________
ducting

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following if not a part of the navigational radar?
Duplexer
------------- part of navigational radar-----------
Pulser
Display unit
Synchronizer

ECE Board Exam November 1999


How do you account the effect of selective fading on the transmitted signal in terms of its
bandwidth?
more affirmative at wider bandwidth

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Frequencies most affected by knife-edge refraction.
VHF and UHF

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Refers to an effect of selective fading.
A fading effect caused by phase difference between radio wave components of the same
transmission, as experienced at the receiving station.

ECE Board Exam November 1996


When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zones at the point of
reflection the RSL
is decreased

ECE Board Exam March 1996


LORAN is a navigation system used primary for
obtaining fixes over large distances

ECE Board Exam November 1966


When the value of k increases, the effective result is _______ of the equivalent curvatures.
flattening

ECE Board Exam March 1996


TACAN is a navigational aid providing _________
bearing and distance indication

ECE Board Exam November 1996


If Ns = 250 determine the earth radius k-factor.

ECE Board Exam March 1996


A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system is in a space diversity arrangement. Determine how
many receivers in all are used?
2

ECE Board Exam November 1996


A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is
92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log D

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses.
Log normal fading
ECE Board Exam April 1998
Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave
transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna.
Circulator

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different frequencies
over the same path?
Frequency

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the free space loss, in dB, between two microwave parabolic antennas 38.0 kilometer apart
operating at 7.0 GHz?

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Low-power radar uses
IMPATT

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A component of a microwave station that samples signal traveling in one direction down to the
transmission line.
Directional coupler

ECE Board Exam April 2000


A navigational error which is caused by reflection of obstruction close to the location of
navigational aid having a normal concern on directional bearing.
Site error

ECE Board Exam April 1999


An aircraft deviation measured by an ILS localizer.
Horizontal

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging?
Amplitude modulation

----------- systems used in radio detection and ranging----------


Frequency shift
Frequency modulation
Pulse radar

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A microwave system that requires the use of repeater.
Intervening system that requires the use of repeater.
Distances involved are greater
ECE Board Exam November 1996
Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on
two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies

ECE Board Exam April 1997


RADAR means
Radio Detection and Ranging

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which band in the radio spectrum does the radio navigational system Omega transmit?
VLF

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following is not a common microwave application?
Mobile radio

------------- common microwave application --------------


Radar
Data transmission
Space communications

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output?
Modulator

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal
Terrestrial link

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used.
Space diversity

ECE Board Exam April 2000


In radio navigation, one of the following deviations of an airplane is determined by an ILS
localizer.
Horizontal

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave.
Shorten waveguide link

ECE Board Exam April 2000


In navigational system, one of the following indication is provided by the localizer unit of the ILS.
A horizontal deviation of an airpalne from its optimum path of descent along the axis of the
runway.

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Referred to as the cycle time difference between the master and the slave signals to reach the
receiver in the operation of loran navigational equipment.
Time delay

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the HF marine antenna safety link is intended to be broken during the unusual movement
of the ship?
Weak part

ECE Board Exam April 1999


What is being measured in radar theory to complete the determination of a distance to a target or
object, after a high radio frequency signal is transmitted to a target?
Echo time off the object to the source

FIBER OPTICS…

Fiber Optics (Chapter 11: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following refers to the relative refractive index difference of single mode fibers?
0.1 - 0.3 %

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A parameter of light beam that do not change the quality when it enters one medium from another.
Frequency

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following limits the top speed of transmitting information in fiber optic
communication?
Detector speed

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Type of multi-channel signal transmission in the optic fiber communication that uses twisted pair
coupler to transmit two signals of different wavelengths.
Frequency-division multiplexing

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Best applies to an optical fiber core.
A higher refractive index than the cladding

ECE Board Exam November 1998


How many times bigger does the bandwidth of a fiber optic multimode have over cable?
100 times bigger

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What law does a light travelling in an optical fiber follow?
Snell's

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen by human eye.
Ultraviolet

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single-mode fiber cable.
0.38dB

ECE Board Exam November 1996


An object father from a converging lens than its focal point always has an ________ image.
inverted

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The dielectric material of an optical fiber surrounding the core.
Cladding

ECE Board Exam April 2001


An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication is not intended to
determine one of the following:
Kind of multiplexing

--------------------- An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication-------


Refractive index
Loss per kilometer
Length of fiber

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In wire communications system using fiber optic, the packing fraction is related to one of the
following statements when referred to fiber optic bundle.
Ratio of the total cross-sectional area to the total cross-sectional area of the fiber bundle

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Why are fiber optic cables considered less expensive compared to coaxial cables in communication
system?
Use of less repeaters

ECE Board Exam November 1999


An optic fiber regenerator which is used in communication is consisting of a ________ to clean up
and amplify digital data moving in one direction and a similar system for the opposite direction.
transmitter and receiver
ECE Board Exam April 1999
How do you account the effect of light intensity on the refractive index of a fiber optic?
Increases

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the following referred to as a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer.
Pulse generator laser

ECE Board Exam April 1998


__________ generates light beam at a specific visible frequency.
Laser

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communication system.
APDs

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A non-coherent light source for optical communications system.
LED

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is
attenuation

ECE Board Exam March 1996


It is made from semiconductor material such as aluminum-gallium-arsenide or gallium-arsenide-
phosphide.
Light emitting diode

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How much bigger does the bandwidth of a single mode fiber optic have over the multimode fiber?
20 times bigger

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following refers to the bandwidth of optical fiber?
1 MHz - 500 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Refers to a characteristic of a multimode fiber optic.
Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core must
be much greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried.

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What do you call the loss in signal power as the light travels the fiber optic?
Attenuation
ECE Board Exam April 1999
One of the characteristics of a fiber optic used in order to carry light in several modes of
propagation or to become a multimode fiber.
Diameter of the core must be very muuch greater than the wavelength of the light to be
carried.

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a detector?

Photovoltaic effect

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Quantity that do not change when a beam of lifgt enters one medium to another
Frequency

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion.
Step-index multimode

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light intensity at 1.55 um.

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many
times the wavelength of the light transmitted is known as __________.
mode

ECE Board Exam March 1996


An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the siica material from which fibers are
manufactured.
Ultraviolet absorption

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following is not a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in
fiber optic communication?
vertical and horizontal plates
-------------------- major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic
communication---------------------
Laser
Beam splitter
Pulse generator

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following is a part of an optical time domain reflectometer?
Beam splitter

ECE Board Exam April 2000


This refers to a certain material which is most sensitive to light.
Photoresist

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Referred to as a light source of fiber optic which supplies level of 5
to 7 milliwats and having a narrow spectrum of emission.
Injection laser diode

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Most likely, how many times would a fiber optic break in a span of thirty years?
2 - 3 times

ECE Board Exam November 1998


An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signal from magnetic field or solar storm
flux
Immunity to noise

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following colors of light rays has the shortest wavelength?
Violet

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Fiber optic cable operates near ________ frequencies.
800 THz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and the detector rise
time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE. Board Exam November 1996


Proposed the used of a clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide
Bockham and Kao
ECE Board Exam November 2000
ln electronic communications where fiber optic material is used, a reflected
wave is a possibility. what happen to the polarization of this reflected wave
when compared to its original form?
Shifts to 180 degrees

ECE Board Exam April 2000


The effect of multimode propagation caused the rays leaving the fiber to
interfere constructively and destructively as they leave the end of the fiber
this effect is called _________.
modal delay spreading

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What is the wavelength for deep violet light?
500 nmeter

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A device in the fiber optic that is used to attenuate the reflected signal from the polished end of the
fiber which has a possibility of developing into a noise.
Isolator

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the advantages of the fiber optic which is referred to the volume of capacity of signals it
can carry
Bandwidth

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber optics communications links.
Optical repeater

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics communication systems
Optical attenuator

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Lifetime of ILDs
50.000 h

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon?
Molten

ECE Board Exam November 2000


One of the major limitations of a plastic fiberoptic used in communication
Due to its high losses
ECE Board Exam April 2000
One of following is considered the largest source of signal power loss in the
use of fiber optic as communications medium such as due to misalignment.
ConnectionECE Board Exam NOvember 1999
One of the following is related to the application of solid material as a medium where light travels.
medium where Ilght travels. apphcatlon of 5DHd mater-ja}; as 3
Fiber optics

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the following is not considered as one of the causes for the loss of signal power as light
travels through a fiber optic?
Inter-modulation
----------------causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic-----------------
Scattering
Fiber bending
Absorption

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The core of the optical fiber has _______
a higher index of refraction than the cladding

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities formed
during the manufacturing process of the fiber optics.
Rayleigh scattering loss

ECE Board Exam November 1996


If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and the detector rise
time is 2 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A phenomenon which causes the speed of light rays propagation in the fiber
material changes, as it passes through different medium in the fiber
Refraction

ECE Board Exam April 2000


At what intenial does a fiber optic needs a repeater in communications
system?
30 to 300 miles

ECE Board Eanm November 1999


Referfeq to as a limit in reducing further the loss of signal passing through a
fiber optic caused by scattering.
Rayleigh effect

ECE Board Exam April 1999


These are band of light wavelengths, that are too short to be seen by the human eye.
Ultraviolet

ECE Board Exam November 1998


A quarter wavelength device made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the optic fiber
communication
Retarder

ECE Board Exam April 1999


At what power levels does fiber optic have when used in electronic communications?
Range of micro to milliwatts

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the following is among the types of fiber optics used in electronics communication.
Semi-graded multimode

ECE Board Exam November 1998


How do you reduce the loss that is produced when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber optic?
By application of antireflection coating

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What is the device use in used in fiber optic communication which consist of a receiver transmitter
use tc clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and another in opposite direction?

Optic regenerator

ECE Board Exam November 2000


An advantage of fiber optic over co-axial cable as a result of coupling signals
from one to the other due to changing magnetic field in one or both.
Crosstalk

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What is the index of refraction of a certain substance if light travels through
the substance at 100 meters at a time is to 140 meters to air'?
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Labels: Communications, Excel, Fiber Optics, Past Board

Saturday, August 6, 2011


OPTICAL FIBER TRANSMISSION MEDIA (C13 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 13
OPTICAL FIBER TRANSMISSION MEDIA

1)Uses light as a carrier of information.


Optical communications system

2)Electronic communications system is directly proportional to bandwidth.


Information-carrying capacity

3)Bandwidth of an analog communications system as a percentage of its


carrier frequency.
bandwidth utilization ratio

4)Device constructed from mirrors and selenium detectors that transmitted


sound waves over a beam of light.
Photophone

5)Experimented with an apparatus called photophone.


Alexander Graham Bell

6)Used extensively in medical field.


Flexible fiberscope

7)Invented in 1960.
Laser (light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation)

8)Advantages of Optical Fiber cables.


1. wider bandwidth and greater information capacity
2.immunity to crosstalk
3. immunity to statistic interference
4. environmental immunity
5. safety and convenience
6. lower transmission loss
7. security
8. durability and reliability
9. economics

9)Disadvantages of Optical Fiber cables.


1. interfacing cost
2. strength
3. remote electrical power
4. optical fiber cables are
more susceptible to losses introduced by bending the cable
5. specialized tools, equipment, and training

10)Reduces the possibility of the occurrence of a detrimental phenomenon.


Stress corrosion

12)Protective coating.
Buffer jacket

14)Increases the tensile strength of the over all cable assembly.


Strength member

15)Process of decaying from one energy level to another energy level.


Spontaneous decay or spontaneous emission

16)Science of measuring only light waves that are visible to human eye.
Photometry

17)Measures the rate at which electromagnetic waves transfer light energy.


Optical power

18)Spectral separation of white light.


Prismatic refraction

19)Simply the ratio of velocity of propagation of a light ray in free space to the
velocity of propagation of a light ray in a given material.
Refractive index

20)Angle at which the propagating ray strikes the interface with respect to the
normal.
Angle of incidence
21)Angle formed between the propagating ray and the normal after the ray
has entered the second medium.
Angle of refraction

22)Closely related to acceptance angle and is the figure of merit commonly


used to measure the magnitude of the acceptance angle.
Numerical aperture

23)Simply means path.


Mode

24)More than one path.


Multimode

26)Probably the most important characteristic of the cable.


Power loss

27)Three factors that contribute to the absorption losses in optical fibers:


1. ultra violet absorption
2. infrared absorption
3. ion resonance absorption

28)Caused mainly by small bends and kinks in the fiber.


Radiation losses

29)Caused by excessive pressure and tension and generally occur when fibers
are bent during handling or installation.
Contants-radius bends

30)Caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays that take
different path down a fiber.
Modal dispersion

32)A p-n junction made from two different mixtures of the same types of atom.
Mojunction structure

33)Generally constructed of silicon-doped gallium-arsenide.


Epitaxially grown

34)Homojunction LED’s output approximately 500 μ at a wavelength of 900


nm.
Planar diffused

35) Advantages of heterojunction devices over homojunction devices;


1. increase in current density generates a more brilliant light spot.
2. smaller emitting area makes it easier to couple its emitted light
into a fiber.
3. small effective area has a smaller capacitance, which allows the
planar heterojunction LED to be used at a higher speed.

36)Depletion-layer photo diode and is probably the most common device used
as a light detector in fiber optic communications system.
PIN diode

37)Characteristic of a light detector.


1. responsivity
2. dark currents
3. transit time
4. spectral response
5. light sensitivity
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Labels: Communications, Fiber Optics, Tomasi, Transmission Lines

Tuesday, May 3, 2011


Fiber-Optic Systems (Blake C25)

Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems

TRUE/FALSE

1. Most new telephone trunk cables are fiber-optic.

ANS: T

2. Cable TV systems use fiber-optic cable.

ANS: T

3. Many data network cables are fiber-optic.

ANS: T

4. Fiber-optic cable is not practical for telephone trunk cables.

ANS: F

5. CATV uses analog modulation on fiber-optic cables.


ANS: T

6. Usually, splicing losses can be disregarded in loss-budget calculations.

ANS: F

7. The rise time of a transmitter limits its bandwidth.

ANS: T

8. RZ encoding allows twice as much pulse spreading as NRZ.

ANS: F

9. The product of bandwidth times distance describes dispersion in a multimode fiber-optic cable.

ANS: T

10. Regenerative repeaters for fiber-optic cables typically convert the light signal to an electrical
signal, and then back to light.

ANS: T

11. Optical amplifiers are not suitable for digital signals.

ANS: F

12. Dispersion effects accumulate when optical amplifiers are used.

ANS: T

13. Most fiber-optic systems use TDM.

ANS: T

14. Fiber-optic cables shorter than 100 km typically do not require repeaters.

ANS: T

15. SONET operates at a base speed of 25 Mbps.

ANS: F

16. SONET solves many of the timing problems in synchronizing digital signals.
ANS: T

17. SONET is typically used on LANs.

ANS: F

18. FDDI can be used on a LAN.

ANS: T

19. Soliton pulses can travel down a fiber-optic cable with no dispersion.

ANS: T

20. TDR cannot be used on fiber-optic cables.

ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. FDDI stands for:


a. Fiber Digital Data Interface c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface
b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface d. Frequency-Division Data Interface

ANS: B

2. FITL stands for:


a. Fiber In The Loop c. Frequency Input to The Loop
b. Fiber Input Timing Loss d. Fiber Input Timing Loop

ANS: A

3. FTTC stands for:


a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint
b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee
c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable
d. Fiber To The Curb

ANS: D

4. SONET stands for:


a. Simple Optical Network c. Synchronous Optical Network
b. Standard Optical Network d. none of the above
ANS: C

5. DWDM stands for:


a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation
b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation
c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation
d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing

ANS: D

6. A Soliton is a:
a. defect in the glass c. type of pulse
b. type of particle d. type of optical network

ANS: C

7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called:


a. bit stuffing c. SDH
b. bit-synch d. WDM

ANS: A

8. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called:


a. gain margin c. excess gain
b. system margin d. overdrive

ANS: B

9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to:
a. 1000 miles c. 100 km
b. 100 miles d. 10 km

ANS: C

10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for:


a. Optical Carrier level one c. Optical Channel one
b. Optical Coupler unidirectional d. Optical Cable type 1
ANS: A

11. In SONET, STS stands for:


a. Synchronous Transport Signal c. Synchronous Transmission Signal
b. Synchronous Transport System d. Synchronous Transmission System

ANS: A

12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is:


a. FDDI c. gigabit Ethernet
b. high-speed Ethernet d. all of the above

ANS: D

13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is:


a. common c. obsolete
b. experimental d. not possible

ANS: B

14. OTDR stands for:


a. Optical Time-Delay Response c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer
b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement d. Optical Time-Division Relay

ANS: C

15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is
called:
a. FDDI c. FITL
b. FTTC d. SONET

ANS: B

COMPLETION

1. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________.

ANS: Curb

2. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________.


ANS: Loop

3. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________.

ANS: Hierarchy

4. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing.

ANS: Wavelength

5. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network.

ANS: Synchronous

6. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface.

ANS: Distributed

7. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass.

ANS: erbium

8. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser.

ANS: pump

9. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable.

ANS: WDM

10. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps.

ANS: 51.84

11. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals.

ANS: stuffing

12. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame.

ANS: pointer

13. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals.

ANS: token
14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions.

ANS: opposite

15. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater.

ANS: node

16. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables.

ANS: multi

17. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps.

ANS: 100 M

18. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for
information about signal routing and setup.

ANS: overhead

19. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________.

ANS: 810

20. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________.

ANS: 774

21. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________.

ANS: 9

22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.

ANS: 4

23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.

ANS: 1

24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead.

ANS: transport

25. In SONET, SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________.


ANS: envelope

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds?

ANS:
1 MHz

2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver, and cable each
have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds.

ANS:
86.6 nanoseconds

FILTERS…

CHAPTER 15 ACTIVE FILTERS

CHAPTER 15
ACTIVE FILTERS

1. The ___________ of a band-pass filter is the ratio of the center frequency to the bandwidth.
Quality factor

2. An active filter category that rejects the frequencies within a certain bandwidth and passes
frequencies outside the bandwidth
Band-stop filter

3. A filter response characteristic that provides a very flat amplitude response in the passband and a
roll-off rate of -20dB/decade/pole
Butterworth characteristic

4. Each filter in a cascaded arrangement is called ___________.


Stage or section

5. It is one of the most common configurations for two-pole filter. It is also known as a voltage-
controlled voltage source filter.
Sallen-Key

6. A filter required to get a third-order low-pass response. This is done by cascading a two-pole
Sallen-key low-pass filter and a single-pole low-pass filter
Three-pole filter
7. Each additional filter in a cascaded arrangement adds _______dB to the roll-off rate
-20 dB

8. The rate of decrease in gain, below or above the critical frequencies of a filter.
Roll-off

9. Technology that enables the tracking and/or identification of objects.


Radio Frequency Identification
(RFID)

10. Four categories of active filters


Low-pass, high-pass, band-pass, and band-stop

11. Low-pass bandwidth is equal to


Cutoff frequency

12. Filters with the Bessel characteristic are used for filtering ________ waveforms
Pulse

13. Two common types of band-stop filters.


Multiple-feedback and state-variable

14. Tiny, very thin microchips with memory and a coil antenna
RFID tags

15. This type of tag does not require batteries. The tag is inactive until powered by the energy from
the electromagnetic field of an RFID reader
Passive RFID tag

16. This type of tag is powered by a battery and is capable of communicating up to 100ft. Or more
from the RFID reader.
Active RFID tag

17. Another type of tag that is a paper labelled with printing with the RF circuitry and antenna
embedded in it.
Smart label

18. The property of selecting signals with certain selected frequencies while rejecting signals with
other frequencies.
Selectivity

19. A pole is simply a circuit with how many resistor or capacitor?


1

20. The damping factor affects the filter response by negative feedback action. True/false
True
21. The more poles a filter has , the faster its roll-off rate is
True

22. Another term for state-variable filter


Universal active filter

23. Two methods of determining a filter’s response by measurement


Discrete point measurement and swept frequency measurement

24. Produces a constant amplitude output signal whose frequency increases linearly between two
preset limits.
Swept frequency generator

25. How many poles does a Sallen-Key high pass filter have?
2

26. The center frequency of a state variable resistor is set by the _______ circuits in both
integrators,
RC

GEAS…

CHEM 101 (EDGE)

Electron was discovered by


A.J.J. Thompson

The isotopes of an element differ in the number of


Neutrons

Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration


Isoelectronic

Which group in the periodic table is known as the alkali metals.


Group 1

Which group in the periodic table is known as the halogens.


Group 7

Which group in the periodic table is known as the alkaline earth metals.
Group 2

Which group in the periodic table is known as the noble gases.


Group 8
The components resulting from a reaction is called
Products

What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference
between atoms is less than 1.5
Covalent bond
Compounds which only contain carbon and hydrogen are called
Hydrocarbon

Which of the following designation means that the amount of solute is expressed in physical mass
units, i.e. grams and the amount of solution is expressed in volume units, i.e. milliliters
w/v

What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference
between atoms is greater than 2.0
Ionic bond

The isotope of hydrogen


Protium, Tritium, Deuterium

The isotope of hydrogen with only one neutron


Tritium

The atoms having different atomic number but the same mass number are called
Isobars

What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference
between atoms is less than 1.5?
Covalent bond

The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is beryllium (Be), atomic number 4. What is the
charge on the Be atom?
Neutral

The mass of an alpha particle is how many times more than that of an electron
7300

Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
Isotopes

The forces that hold atoms together are called


Chemical bond

An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called
Ion
A positive ion is called
Cation

A negative ion is called


Anion

The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called


Ionic bonding

The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called
Period

The vertical arrangement of elements of in a periodic table is called


Group

If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of gas, the pressure
Is doubled

A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called


Electron dot diagram

For which elements does the number of electrons in their outer or valence shelll correspond to their
group number
Representative or main group

What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit in a “p” orbital
5

The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called


Viscosity

The anions and cations which are unaffected by the reaction in solution are called
Spectator ions

A reaction in which heat is produced is called


Exothermic

The atoms having different mass number but the same number of neutrons are called
Isotones
Rutherford model of an atom failed to explain
The position of proton and neutrons

The concept that electrons revolve around the nucleus in specific paths called orbits or energy
levels was proposed by
Niels Bohr
The number of atoms present in 6.023 x 10^23 12 grams of carbon-12 is called
Avogadro’s constant

An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their
individual relative masses.
Mass spectrometer

These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.
Hydrates

If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:
Replacement reactions

If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of
reaction is:
Decomposition

The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is:


760 mm Hg

Any process of extracting the metal in a fused state is called


Smelting

Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?


Mass

A device used to measure density.


Hydrometer

The statement “mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction” is known as:
The law of conservation of mass

What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference
between atoms is greater than 2.0
Ionic bond

A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called


Endothermic

In redox reaction, the component supplying the electrons is called the


Reductant

In redox reaction, the component receiving the electrons is called the


Oxidant
A covalent bond formed by the combination of collinear p orbitals is also called a
Sigma bond

The central part of an atom is called


Nucleus

The mass of a proton is about how many times that of an electron


1837

The particles in the nucleus, namely the neutrons and the protons are collectively referred to as
Nucleons

The number of orbiting electron is normally _____ the number of the protons in the nucleus of an
atom
Equal

The chemical formula which shows the relative number of atoms of all the elements present in a
compound is called the
Empirical formula

The chemical formula which shows the exact number of atoms of all the elements present in a
compound is called the
Molecular formula

When an atom loses an electron it forms


Cation

When an atom gains an electron it forms


Anion
The maximum number of electrons that the first energy level can accommodate is
2

The X-rays are discovered by


W.C. Roentgen

Refers to atoms or ions, which have the same electronic configuration.


Isoelectronic

Which group of the periodic table is known as the akali metals?


Group I

Which group is known as the halogens?


Group VII

The horizontal arrangement of elements increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called:
Period
The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called
Atomic number

The measure of the resistance of an object to a change in its state of motion is called
Inertia

Refers to agreement of a particular value with the true value


Precision

Refers to the degree of agreement among several measurements of the same quantity
Accuracy

A property of matter often used by chemist as an “identification number” for a substance


Density

Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called
Quarks

The principle of constant composition of compound, originally called “Proust’s Law” is now
known as
Law of definite proportion

The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the reaction. In
precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:
The law of conservation of mass

When the same elements can form two different compounds, the ratio of masses of one of the
elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the other
elements. This is known as:
The law of multiple proportion

The ratio of the density of the test liquid to the density of the reference liquid is called
Specific gravity

How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?


2
SI unit of temperature
Kelvin

The elements that a compound is composed of is present in fixed and precise proportion by mass.
This is known as
Law of constant composition

The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10 neutrons
19 amu
The net electric charge of any atom is
0

The tendency of atoms to attract electrons into their valence shells to form anions is described by
the concept of
Electron affinity

The tendency of atoms to attract electrons shared in a covalent bond is called


Electronegativity

A covalent bond between atoms of identical electronegativity is called


Nonpolar

A formula which describes only the number of each element in the molecule is called the
Molecular formula

The formula which shows how atoms are joined together is called the
Structural formula

The pairs of electrons not shared in the covalent bond are called
Nonbonded electrons or lone pair

The word atom comes from the Greek word ”atomos” meaning
Cannot be cut

Under normal state an atom is said to be


Electrically neutral

The word electron comes from the Greek word ”elektron” meaning
Amber

The word proton comes from the Greek word ”proteios” meaning
Of first importance

A solid which has no crystalline structure is called


Amorphous

A chemical substance which readily evaporates and readily diffuses at ordinary room temperature
and pressure conditions is called
Volatile

Which of the following falls under fluids


Both liquid and gas

The gases that rarely take part in a chemical reaction are called
Noble gases

Which type of ions, metals form when enter into a chemical reaction
Positive ions

The chemical name for baking soda


Sodium bicarbonate

The subatomic particle with a negative charge and mass of 9.1 x 10^ -31 kg is
Electron

The subatomic particle with a positive charge of mass 1.6 x 10 -27 kg is


Proton

Neutron was discovered by


Chadwick
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Labels: EDGE, GEAS

Tuesday, October 18, 2011


GEAS 1

Employee's perception on the probability that he or she gets what he/she expects
Expectancy Theory

The type of leadership appropriate when manning professionals


free rein leadership

"A satisified employee is motivated from within and a dissatisified employee is not motivated"
Herzberg's Two-factor theory

The kind of authority usually given to budgets officers in the organization


functional authority

The type of organization for small firms


functional organization

The process that focuses on how subunits can use allocated resources
intermediate planning

The type of reward that includes money, promotion..


extrinsic reward

types of rewards
extrinsic or intrinsic

The type of power in the people of higher position towards those in the lower position in the
organizational heirarchy
legitimate power

Measure the ability to learn


aptitude test

The type of control when the engineer manager collects data on a completed task, and
evaluation,comments, and suggestions on how to improve the task
feedback control

Temperature unchanged, The pressure of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to its volume
boyle's law

The rankine value that refers to the absolute temperature


460 degrees Fahrenheit ( alam ko negative to.. please check sa notes )

The average kinetic energy of a gas is directly proportional to its


absolute temperature

according to the modern view of the atomic model


electron cloud..

the quantum number that refers to the spin of the electron


spin quantum number

permeability is slightly greater than 1


aluminum

Used in DNA making?


zinc

Used to make galvanized iron


zinc

most common metal mixed with copper


zinc

the first law of thermodynamics is also called


law of conservation of energy

states that the amount of heat that is converted into heat is dependent on the temperature where it
takes place
second law of thermodynamics
the process in which a highly energetic particle transfers energy to an adjacent less energetic
particle
conduction

emission of electromagnetic waves or photons


radiation

a device that transfers heat between fluids without mixing the two
heat exchanger

Ideal Gas Constant


8.314 kJ per kmol-K

Series of changes or processes in the system that repeats


CYCLE

At standard temperature and pressure, the volume of 1 mol is


SAME FOR ALL PERFECT GASSES.

Reluctance of an object to change its state of rest or its uniform motion


INERTIA

1 slug
14.6 kg.

1 lb
4.45 Newtons

The law of reaction - "For every force that acts on one body, there is a second force equal in
magnitude but opposite in direction that acts upon another body."
Third law of Motion

The law of acceleration - " Whenever a net resultant force acts on a body, it produces an
acceleration in the direction of the resultant force that is directly proportional to the resultant foce
and inversely propoportional to the mass of the body."
Second law of Motion

The law of inertia - "There is no change in the motion of the body unless an unbalanced external
force is acting upon it."
First law of Motion

pH
Positive Hydrogen ion

pH 1 to 6
Acid

Mass of electrons in grams


9.107 times 10 to the -28

Mass of protons in grams


1.672 times 10 to the -24

Mass of neutron in grams


1.675 times 10 to the -24

Charge of electron negative


1.602 times 10 to the -19

charge of proton
1.602 times 10 to the -19

Charge of neutron
0

The mass of the neutron is approximately 1,839 times greater than electrons
1839

The mass of the proton is approximately 1,836 times greater than electrons
1836

Top 3 conductor
Silver, Copper, Gold

least conductor
nichrome

atoms
building blocks of engineering materials

Aluminum
most abundant metal in earth

Ductility
ratio of ultimate shear to yielding stress

period the
time taken by a body in uniform motion to travel an orbit

760 torr equal to


1 ATM
Charle's Law
Constant Pressure, Variable Temperature and Volume

Twice amplitude
twice maximum velocity

R.A. 8792
Philippine Electronic Commerce Act or E-Commerce Act

each orbital has 1 electron placed in it before pairing of electron in orbitals occurs
Hunds' Rule

angular speed (momentum)


Spin Quantum #

resistance(internal friction) of fluids to flow


viscosity

S.I. unit of pressure Newton per square meter


Pascal

losses due to friction in oscillation


damped oscillator

cohesive attraction that causes liquid to minimize its surface area


surface tension

Maximum stress before permanent deformation


elastic limit

also known as modulus of rigidity


shear modulus

thermodynamic properties
volume, pressure, temperature

defined as mass per unit volume. Independent of size and shape


density

another term for specific gravity


weight density

ability of metal to be permanently deformed


ductility
elastic modulus applicable to liquids
bulk modulus

Combine two small elements


fussion

Larger element divided into 2 smaller elements…


Fission

object subjected to equal and opposite forces on different lines of direction is said to be under
shear stress

unit of mechanical shear


joule

conduction band
where free electrons move

gives off a yellow green appearance


Chlorine

Gives off blue-black-violet color


Iodine

young's modulus is also known as


modulus of elasticity

stress at which a material begins to plastically deform


yield strength

irregularity within a crystal structure


Dislocation

most common defect of crystal


Line defect

What is the S I unit of momentum kg. meter per sec.


Kg-m / s

What is the S I unit of impulse Newton - sec.


N-s

total momentum of a closed system is constant


Conservation of linear momentum

number of cycles as a result of time


period

A common copper alloy


Zinc

a solution that is a liquid conductor


electrolyte

determines the acidity or base


PH measurement

what is PH 7
neutral

delegation of authority
assigning of different degrees of authority

Vander Waals bonding


Connection between crystal atoms / forms eight pairs of electrons when bonded

Covalent bonding
aggregate less when near each other than when separated from one another

metallic bonding
interaction of ionic lattice and electron gas

electrostatic
bonding bonding between positive and negative charges

atomic number
element identity

spin quantum
direction

Element
a pure substance that cannot be broken down by chemical means to a simpler substance.

Valence Electrons
determines the ability of atoms to combine with other atoms.

Nitrogen Group
V-A

Electronics Engineer appearnce fee per hour


500
Electronics engineer retainer's fee
1500

maximum allowable exposure to radiation from an electronic equipment must not exceed to,
100 ms

keystone of professional conduct


integrity

Requiring the services of a duly licenced ECE… planning, designing…


Department Order No. 88

law provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Phils.
R.A. 3846

policy to improve the provision of Local Exchange carrier service


E.O 109

Foundation of Moral philosophy


Justice, Honesty and Courtesy

Philippines is under what region in terms of frequency allocation


Region 3

Data network operated by enfranchised telecommunications carrier that is authorized to provide


data.
Public Switched Data Network

An ECE board member must be a citizen & resident of the Philippine for at least, BLANK,
consecutive years prior to his appointmnt
5 Years

Testing and quality control of electronics product


Manufacturing

If the engineer approves that a certain electronic product were according to engineering standard..
( something like this )
Acceptance

Implementing rules and regulations ( IRR ) of R.A 9292


August 31, 2007

Electronic Commerce Act of 2000


R.A. 8792
VOIP service provider performance bond
5 million

The certificate of Authority issued by NTC to A CATV maximum term.


15 years

Maximum effective radiated power in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for Channels 7 - 13
1000 Kw

Metro Manila Commercial load in radio stations


15 minutes

Minimum carrier power output of a Standard AM Broadcast … direct supervision of an Electronics


engineer is required
1 Kw

Maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila


50 kW

at what temperature does a magnetic material loses its ferromagnetic properties


Curie Temperature

Specific Gravity also termed as


Relative Density

Moment of Inertia is dependent on


Mass, Axis of rotation, Size and Shape

diatonic scale with added 5 half tones


Chromatic Scale

binds the protons and neutrons together in the nucleus of an atom


exchange force

depend on the number of harmonics present…


Quality of Sound

Avogadros Number 6.022 x 10 to the ___ power


23rd

controlled testing of the properties of a substance or system through carefully recorded


measurements
Experiment

father of scientific method


Galileo
number of S.I. base units
7

Father of Modern Chemistry


Antoine Lavoissier

means indivisible
Atomos

Pressure held constald, Volume of gas is inversely proportional to volume


Charles Law

Naming Chemical Compounds


Chemical Nomenclature

Best Conductor of Electricity


Silver

Denser metal settles on less dense


Floatation

the closeness of two sets of measured group of values


Precision

bending of a strip of metal


Elastisity of Flexion

twisting of spring
Elasticity of Torsion

Acid and base balanced


Neutralization

lacking of mass over something…


Mass defect

where fission is controlled


Nuclear Reactor

operating at low temperature


Cryogenics

what property of plastic changes with heat distortion


Mechanical
increasing in the small diameter tube with fluid
Capillarity

Relating 2 different volume / density


Relative Humidity

Speech density… “volume”


Absolute Humidity

Density of material with respect to density of air


Specific humidity

Same/Like materials
Cohesion

Different/Unlike materials
Adhesion

Necessary nuclear reactor (uranium)


Critical Size

Radioactivity
Curie

Flow of fluid in pipe; “pressure”


Bernoulli principle

“atomic mass”
Physicists atomic weight

High production, something will limit


Law of diminishing return

Mix different quantities of some element


Law of multiple proportion

Indistinguishable liquid and gas


Critical Point

Constant angular momentum, increasing kinetic energy


Kepler’s Law

Light actually passes through


Real image

Light seemed to pass through


Virtual image

Capital mobile dealer


P 100,000

“Defect of lens”, “Rays near the edge”


Spherical Aberration

“comet-shaped”
coma

“Differences in vertical and horizontal distance”


Astigmatism

Unit of electrostatic charge


Statvolt

SI unit of potential difference


volt

Electrostatic measuring device?


Leaf electroscope

Class B FM
500 ft.

Primary FM stations allowed of how many translators


2

Acids formed from weak bases dissolved in H2O


Hydrolysis

Matter can be broken down


Democritus

Property of gas equals individual property


Gibb’s Theorem

Neutron
Chadwick

Summary observed fact


Scientific Law

Partial volume
Azamat's Theorem
Liquid not used as solvent in a chromatography
Water

Not an ionization Bond


C6H12O6

1 molecule enters an orbit, spread, about atom spin


Hund’s rule of multiplicity

AM primetime
6:00 AM – 8:00 PM

Change of temp w/o change of phase


Sensible Heat

“oil or mining” / nauubos na resources


Depletion Cost

Penetrate;molecules
Diffusion

Quantitative measurement
Stoichiometry

Shield for x-ray


Lead

(ratio of something to air to e)


Absolute Index of Refraction

Incident angle is greater than critical angle


Total Reflection

Temperature, konting pressure na lang solid to liquid na


Critical Temperature

Removal of Energy
Water to ice

Separation of liquid through because of difference in its boiling points


Distillation

1 dyne on separation of 1 cm
1 stat coloumb
Non performance that results in the injured party receiving something substantially less than or
different from what the contract is intended.
Material Breach

1 Joule
10 raise to 7 ergs 10^7

ability to be mixed with other


Miscibility

Used as solute in stainless steel ( to prevent "kalawang" hehehe )


Chromium

Used a slovent in stainless steel


Iron

Perfect absorber
Black Body

ratio of velocities before and after an impact


coefficient of restitution

Temperature where degree C = degree Fahrenheit


- 40degrees

Used in Vehicle Baterries


Sulfuric Acid

Medium… travels fast at zero degrees ( 0 deg C)


Glass

Something about Bouyancy of material to water


Archimedes Theory

heat exceeds saturation at less pressure


Superheated

second most abundant element on earth


oxygen

energy gap of GaAs


1.43 V
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Labels: GEAS, Notes
Wednesday, October 5, 2011
GEAS

GEAS
¬ Mechanical energy of pressure transferred into energy of heat
Ans. enthalpy

¬ For a common microscope the image formed by the eyepiece is


Ans. inverted

¬ Added to nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical properties


Ans. alpha particle

¬ Ester of glycerol with unsaturated fatty acids


Ans. oils

¬ Energy of an electron is assumed to be zero when


Ans. it is far away from the nucleus

¬ Chief ore of zinc


Ans. Sphalerite

¬ Punitive damage
Ans. Exemplary damage

¬ Functional depreciation
Ans. obsolescence

¬ Maritime communication law


Ans. R.A. 3396

¬ Brightness of light source


Ans. luminous intensity

¬ Heated metal(hot bodies)


Ans. Edison effect

¬ Producer gas is a mixture of nitrogen


Ans. carbon monoxide

¬ 1BTU
Ans. 1054 Joules

¬ Paramagnetic
Ans. Chromium

¬ How an element is connected to other


Ans. Structural formula

¬ Arrangement of atoms in a molecule


Ans. affects the reactivity of molecules

¬ False statement
Ans. convex mirror can be used as main objective in a reflecting telescope

¬ Average decay time


Ans. mean life

¬ Weightless environment, attach a ball to a spring and spin, the acceleration vector of the ball is
Ans. always point inward towards you

¬ Change a sample of solid to liquid


Ans. heat of fusion

¬ Failure to regain its original size and shape


Ans. elastic lag

¬ Reciprocal of bulk modulus


Ans. compressibility

¬ Period driving force


Ans. resonance

¬ Willingness of an atom to receive electrons


Ans. electron affinity

¬ Temperature below the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure


Ans. subcooled liquid

¬ Venturimeter measures ___ of water


Ans. velocity

¬ Temperature where Joule Thomson effect is zero


Ans. inversion

¬ Unit of moment of inertia


Ans. kg-m2

¬ Copper alloy used as collectors for electric generator


Ans. Tin bronze

¬ Solution of weak acid and its conjugate base, or weak base and its conjugate acid
Ans. buffer

¬ System remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium at all times


Ans. quasi-equilibrium

¬ Hydrocarbon contain one or more double bonds


Ans. alkene

¬ Process of making hydrocarbon gas


Ans. Bosch

¬ Factor of safety
Ans. yielding stress over working stress

¬ Propagate same speed as light


Ans. heat wave

¬ Ratio of market price per share to earnings per share


Ans. price-earnings ratio

¬ Degrees F equals degrees C


Ans. -40

¬ Unit of ionization radiation


Ans. Becquerel

¬ Water is electrolyzed
Ans. hydrogen and oxygen atoms are separated from each other.

¬ Black light
Ans. UV radiation

¬ Retentivity
Ans. permanent magnet

¬ Mass of atomic particles


Ans. mass spectrograph

¬ 3G bond
Ans. 300M

¬ Refrigerant
Ans. Dimethyl ether

¬ Amount of energy to fracture a given volume of material


Ans. Impact strength

¬ Theory of light emitted in discrete amount


Ans. Quantum theory

¬ Cast iron hard and wear resistance


Ans. white iron

¬ Heat engine can’t transfer heat


An. 2nd law of thermodynamics

¬ Reflected sound waves return


Ans. echo

¬ Irregular succession of compression and rarefaction


Ans. unpitched sound

¬ Luminance of clear sky


Ans. 3200

¬ Blackbody radiation emitted at freezing platinum


Ans. candle

¬ Result of atmospheric refraction


Ans. mirage

¬ Absorbs radiant energy and re emits it in wavelengths


Ans. fluorescence

¬ Design to detect radiation emanating from radioactive source


Ans. Quartz-fiber electroscope

¬ Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)


Ans. vegetable protein

¬ Kwashiorkor
Ans. lack of protein

¬ Downer
Ans. seconal

¬ Decay of a neutron to a proton


Ans. beta particle

¬ Known concentration
Ans. standard solution

¬ A pressure measuring device to register the pressure at all times


Ans. mercury manometer

¬ Work done is zero.


Ans. isometric

¬ Drink salt water


Ans. cell shrink

¬ Speaker
Ans. 5 CU

¬ Doctoral
Ans. 45 CU

¬ Gas is produce by the action of sunlight on automobile exhaust


Ans. ozone

¬ Middle management level


Ans. intermediate planning

¬ Process identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the
demands of the situation
Ans. decision-making

¬ Documents that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security


Ans. Coupon

¬ Color that bends the least


Ans. red

¬ Series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft of the
building
Ans. riser shaft

¬ Upon dissociation in water, acid yields hydrogen ions while gases yields hydroxide ions
Ans. Arrhenius theory

¬ Friendliest metal
Ans. Iron
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Labels: GEAS, Notes

Tuesday, October 4, 2011


GENERAL ENGINEERING AND APPLIED SCIENCES

GENERAL ENGINEERING AND APPLIED SCIENCES

Carnot engine when reversed becomes


Refrigerator

Highest average translational kinetic energy account to which state of matter


Gas

Aluminum is the lightest among the following metals except


Magnesium

Alpha particle test charge


+2

Strength and machinability


Normalizing

Middle C
256Hz

Radioactive source activity


Becquerel

The frequency of Middle C


256Hz

Which of the following noble gases is most abundant on earth?


Argon

Given mass 1=mass 2=132 lb, distance=1 meter, calculate gravitational force.
2.4 x 10^-7 N

Which of the following is the difference between ground state and excited state of an atom?
Electron configuration

Helmholtz free energy is the internal energy of the system ____


Minus the product of entropy and temperature
The escape velocity on earth is 11,200 m/s. What is the escape velocity to the moon?
2,400

The material known as austenite is transformed into bainite when subjected to ___ process.
Rapid cooling

Newly SROP provided that devices ___ output power


Shall not exceed 25 watts

What is the value of resistivity of aluminum in ohm-m?


2.7 x 10^-8

As stated under D.O.88 for AM broadcasting station, operation sation must be under the
supervision of registered ECE if the carrier power exceeds ___
1kW

What is the unit charge of alpha particle?


+2

Sound interference is required in order to attain the phenomenon known as


Beats

Aside from platinum, gold, and silver, which is considered as a noble metal?
Iridium

What is the velocity of a 100g ball on a 5cm string moving in horizontal circle that requires
centripetal force of 1.0N?
2.2m/s

What is the coefficient unit of viscosity?


Poise

What is the main characteristic of super__ whose major application are jet engines and gas
turbines?
Heat resistant

Which ferromagnetic is BCC crystal structure?


Iron

What is the force of gravitational attraction between two 132-lb student who are standing 1m
apart?
2.4 x 10^-7 N

Which of the following would be different in ground state and excited state upon atom?
The electron configuration
Another aspect of pressure and human body is blood pressure. 20/20 vision is ideal…120/80, what
is the unit?
mmHg

What is the amount of time of activity may delayed without changing the succeeding activity?
Slack

One Dalton is equivalent to how many MeV?


931

In alloy nickel is replaced by ___ to produce superinvar alloy.


Cobalt

Chart compare planned schedule information to actual.


Tracking Gantt Chart

PRC Modernization Act


8981

Type of brass with 85% copper


Red brass

What is the ratio of working temperature to the temperature of melting point?


Homologous temperature

Type of management that spend most of the time outside


Management by wandering

MICROWAVE…

Microwave Communications (Chapter 9: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following will you avoid in the construction of a microwave station?
Long horizontal runs

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Radio frequency where waveguides are not used extensively.
150 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Term used to describe a process of approaching a desired point by directing the vehicle towards
that point
Homing

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A system which does not refer to a technique in reducing the propagation errors in navigational
system such as multipath effects
Pulse transmission

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the following is a navigational equipment which utilizes a ground radar system to
determine the position of a plane during its approach?
GCA

ECE Board Exam November 1998


_____________ is referred as the difference between available power and power budget.
Power margin

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on __________.
two or more antennas operating on the same frequency

ECE Board Exam November 1996


One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM is
noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup?
312 to 552 kHz

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The k-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile calculation is
equal to __________
4/3

ECE Board Exam March 1996


LORAN is navigational system used primarily for _________
obtaining your fixed location over a large distances

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What navigational system technique uses an antenna directivity to reduce an undesired multipath
signals?
LORAN-C

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In microwave frequencies, the LOS distance is something extended through the occurrence of
____________
ducting
ECE Board Exam April 2000
Which of the following if not a part of the navigational radar?
Duplexer
------------- part of navigational radar-----------
Pulser
Display unit
Synchronizer

ECE Board Exam November 1999


How do you account the effect of selective fading on the transmitted signal in terms of its
bandwidth?
more affirmative at wider bandwidth

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Frequencies most affected by knife-edge refraction.
VHF and UHF

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Refers to an effect of selective fading.
A fading effect caused by phase difference between radio wave components of the same
transmission, as experienced at the receiving station.

ECE Board Exam November 1996


When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zones at the point of
reflection the RSL
is decreased

ECE Board Exam March 1996


LORAN is a navigation system used primary for
obtaining fixes over large distances

ECE Board Exam November 1966


When the value of k increases, the effective result is _______ of the equivalent curvatures.
flattening

ECE Board Exam March 1996


TACAN is a navigational aid providing _________
bearing and distance indication

ECE Board Exam November 1996


If Ns = 250 determine the earth radius k-factor.

ECE Board Exam March 1996


A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system is in a space diversity arrangement. Determine how
many receivers in all are used?
2

ECE Board Exam November 1996


A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is
92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log D

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses.
Log normal fading

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave
transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna.
Circulator

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different frequencies
over the same path?
Frequency

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the free space loss, in dB, between two microwave parabolic antennas 38.0 kilometer apart
operating at 7.0 GHz?

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Low-power radar uses
IMPATT

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A component of a microwave station that samples signal traveling in one direction down to the
transmission line.
Directional coupler

ECE Board Exam April 2000


A navigational error which is caused by reflection of obstruction close to the location of
navigational aid having a normal concern on directional bearing.
Site error

ECE Board Exam April 1999


An aircraft deviation measured by an ILS localizer.
Horizontal

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging?
Amplitude modulation

----------- systems used in radio detection and ranging----------


Frequency shift
Frequency modulation
Pulse radar

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A microwave system that requires the use of repeater.
Intervening system that requires the use of repeater.
Distances involved are greater

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on
two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies

ECE Board Exam April 1997


RADAR means
Radio Detection and Ranging

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which band in the radio spectrum does the radio navigational system Omega transmit?
VLF

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following is not a common microwave application?
Mobile radio

------------- common microwave application --------------


Radar
Data transmission
Space communications

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output?
Modulator

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal
Terrestrial link

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used.
Space diversity

ECE Board Exam April 2000


In radio navigation, one of the following deviations of an airplane is determined by an ILS
localizer.
Horizontal

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave.
Shorten waveguide link

ECE Board Exam April 2000


In navigational system, one of the following indication is provided by the localizer unit of the ILS.
A horizontal deviation of an airpalne from its optimum path of descent along the axis of the
runway.

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Referred to as the cycle time difference between the master and the slave signals to reach the
receiver in the operation of loran navigational equipment.
Time delay

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the HF marine antenna safety link is intended to be broken during the unusual movement
of the ship?
Weak part

ECE Board Exam April 1999


What is being measured in radar theory to complete the determination of a distance to a target or
object, after a high radio frequency signal is transmitted to a target?
Echo time off the object to the source

MODULATION…

Modulation 2/2 (C3 Past board : excel)

CONTINUATION.....

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Modulation means
varying of some parameters of a carrier such as its amplitude to transmit information.

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Which of the following is not a baseband signal of modulation?
RF carrier

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following components is used to produce AM at very high frequencies?
PIN diode:
ECE Board Exam November 1999
A process which occurs in the transmitter part of the transceiver.
Modulation

ECE Board Exam April 1999


In radio rules and regulation, the extremely high frequency band is referred to as the
millimetric waves

ECE Board Exam November 1998


It frequency range of 401.000 MHz to 401.050 MHz has to be channelized at 12.5 kHz between
channel, what is the center of its first channel from the lower limit?

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Type of modulation used in TV broadcast visual transmitter.
Vestigial sideband

ECE Board Exam November 1997


In the designation of bandwidth and emission, what letter in the first symbol represent a double-
sideband type of modulation?
A

ECE board Exam March 1996


The carrier swing necessary to provide 80% modulation in the FM broadcasting band is ____

ECE Board Exam April 2001


One of the following refers to an output of a balanced modulator.
DSB

ECE Board Exam March 1996


In AM, the carrier carries _____ intelligence.
no

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Three audio waves with 100, 200, amd 300 volts amplitude respectively, simultaneously modulate
a 450 volts carrier. What is the total percent of modulation of the AM wave?

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Cross modulation on a receiver is eliminated at the
detector stage

ECE Board Exam March 1996


If the percentage modulation of an AM amplifier is 88% and the modulating signal is 1 volt, the
carrier has an amplitude of

ECE Board Exam November 1999


One of the following is also considered major reason in adopting a modulation/demodulation
processes in radio communication transmission instead of transmitting directly the intelligence
signal.
A mile length of transmission antenna is impractical.

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Intelligence signal in radio modulation transmission technique is not called
Harmonics

ECE Board Exam November 1998


In amplitude modulation technique the unmodulated carrier is referred to as having
0% modulation

ECE Board Exam April 1998


If a transmitter supplies 8 kW to the antenna when it is unmodulated, determine the total radiated
power when modulated at 30%.

ECE Board Exam March 1996


What is the difference between phase and frequency modulation
Lies in the different definitions of the modulation index.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the local oscillator frequency range in commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to 455 kHz?

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Which of the following signal is suppressed by balanced modulator circuit?
Carrier signal

ECE Board Exam November 1998


A third symbol in radio emission which represents telephone transmission including sound
broadcasting.
E

ECE Board Exam April 1998


How can receiver desensitizing be reduced?
Decreased the receiver squelch gain

ECE Board Exam March 1996


In an FM receiver, which circuit removes amplitude variations?
Limiter

ECE Board Exam March 1996


After the IF stages have been aligned, the next stage to align in FM receiver is
local oscillator.

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Refers to the emission on frequency(ies) immediately outside its necessary bandwidth, resulted
from the modulation process except spurious emission.
Out of band

ECE Board Exam April 1999


The first symbol of an emission designation having an amplitude modulated main carrier
represented by letter C is referred to as
vestigial sideband

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following is referred to as a radio emission without sidebands.
Carrier

ECE Board Exam March 2996


What is the primary advantage of DSBSC in AM?
No transmitter power is wasted in the carrier

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the following is not among the advantages of series modulation.
Suppressed white noise

ECE Board Exam April 1999


What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a
facsimile signal?
F3C

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Type of emission produced by one of the early radio transmiotter trains of damped RF ac waves
where its oscillator is coupled to a long wire antenna, normally used in radio telegraph and having
sidebands on its carrier.
Spark Emission

ECE Board Exam April 1999


What is the modulation of index of an FM transmitter whose frequency deviation is 50 kHz, while
its audio frequency is 10 kHz?

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What is meant by the term deviation ratio?
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the FM signal generator control which varies the phase of the modulating voltage applied to
the oscillator of the sweep generator.
Phase control

ECE Board Exam November 1998


In the modulation technique, which of the following is referred to audible pitch?
Harmonic

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Assuming a UHF frequency range of 405.0125 MHz to 405.0875 MHz at 25 kHz channeling plan,
how many channels can you produce?

ECE Board Exam November 1998


A modulation which does not follow the sine wave pattern, it produces undesirable harmonics such
as spurious emission.
Over-modulated

ECE Board Exam April 1999


What is the capture effect?
The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal.

NOISE…

Noise (C4 Past board: excel)

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Generally referred to as the primary cause of atmospheric noise.
Lightning

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Absence of one of the following components in a parametric amplifier renders, this circuit a low-
noise amplifier.
Resistance

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What is the major cause of atmospheric or static noise?
Thunderstorm

ECE Board Exacta April 1998


Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF (150
MHz) marine-band receiver?
In the receiver front end

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies from
8 to 1.43 GHz.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


________sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level,
Shannon-Hartley theorem

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal per cycle, over a specified total
frequency band.
Thermal noise White noise Gaussian noise

Board Exam April 1998


Referred to as the stage in the radio receiver that contributes most of the noise.
Mixer

Board Exam November 1997


NOise caused by the thermal agitation of electrons in resistance
Thermal noise
Johnson's noise
White noise

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Industrial noise frequency is between
5 to 160 MHz .

ECE Board Exam March 1996


At what power level does a I kHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted)?
-90 dBm

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Background noise is the same as the following except
impulse noise.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Reference noise temperature.
290 Kelvin

ECE board exam November 1996


Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie.
dolby

ECE Board Exam March 1996


A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 ohms has an equivalent noise resistance
of 30 ohms. What is the receiver's noise temperature?

ECE Board Exam April 1997


That is the reference frequency of CCITT psophometric noise measurement?
800 Hz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


atmospheric noise is less severe at frequencies above audio level.
30 MHz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Two resistors, 20 kilo ohms and 50 kilo ohms are at ambient temperature. Calculate for bandwidth
equal to 100 kHz, the thermal noise voltage for the two resistor connected in parallel.

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise figure?

ECE Board Exam November 1997


nif stands for..
noise improvement factor

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Which does not affect noise in a channel?
Quantizing level

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The signal in a channel is measured to be 23 dB while noise in the same channel is measured to be
9 dB. The signal to noise ratio therefore is

ECE Board Exam March 1996 ..


What does the noise weighting curve show?
The interfering effect of other frequencies in a voice channel compared with a reference
frequency of one kilohertz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise voltage testing
NPR
ECE Board Exam April 1997
The random and unpredictable electric signals form natural causes, both internal and external to the
system is known as
Noise

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The ratio of the level of the modulated output of a transmitter under conditions of standard test
modulation to the level of the demodulated output with no modulation applied both measured with
the same bandwidth.
Residual noise level

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A figure of merit used to measure the performance of a radiation detector.
Noise equivalent power

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise testing
NPR
ECE Board Exam March 1996
In measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -70dBm (F1A
weighted), convert the reading into pWp.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Considered as the main source of an internal noise
Thermal agitation

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Unit of noise power of psophometer.
pWp

NOTES…

GEAS 1

Employee's perception on the probability that he or she gets what he/she expects
Expectancy Theory

The type of leadership appropriate when manning professionals


free rein leadership

"A satisified employee is motivated from within and a dissatisified employee is not motivated"
Herzberg's Two-factor theory

The kind of authority usually given to budgets officers in the organization


functional authority

The type of organization for small firms


functional organization

The process that focuses on how subunits can use allocated resources
intermediate planning

The type of reward that includes money, promotion..


extrinsic reward

types of rewards
extrinsic or intrinsic

The type of power in the people of higher position towards those in the lower position in the
organizational heirarchy
legitimate power

Measure the ability to learn


aptitude test

The type of control when the engineer manager collects data on a completed task, and
evaluation,comments, and suggestions on how to improve the task
feedback control

Temperature unchanged, The pressure of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to its volume
boyle's law

The rankine value that refers to the absolute temperature


460 degrees Fahrenheit ( alam ko negative to.. please check sa notes )

The average kinetic energy of a gas is directly proportional to its


absolute temperature

according to the modern view of the atomic model


electron cloud..

the quantum number that refers to the spin of the electron


spin quantum number

permeability is slightly greater than 1


aluminum

Used in DNA making?


zinc
Used to make galvanized iron
zinc

most common metal mixed with copper


zinc

the first law of thermodynamics is also called


law of conservation of energy

states that the amount of heat that is converted into heat is dependent on the temperature where it
takes place
second law of thermodynamics

the process in which a highly energetic particle transfers energy to an adjacent less energetic
particle
conduction

emission of electromagnetic waves or photons


radiation

a device that transfers heat between fluids without mixing the two
heat exchanger

Ideal Gas Constant


8.314 kJ per kmol-K

Series of changes or processes in the system that repeats


CYCLE

At standard temperature and pressure, the volume of 1 mol is


SAME FOR ALL PERFECT GASSES.

Reluctance of an object to change its state of rest or its uniform motion


INERTIA

1 slug
14.6 kg.

1 lb
4.45 Newtons

The law of reaction - "For every force that acts on one body, there is a second force equal in
magnitude but opposite in direction that acts upon another body."
Third law of Motion

The law of acceleration - " Whenever a net resultant force acts on a body, it produces an
acceleration in the direction of the resultant force that is directly proportional to the resultant foce
and inversely propoportional to the mass of the body."
Second law of Motion

The law of inertia - "There is no change in the motion of the body unless an unbalanced external
force is acting upon it."
First law of Motion

pH
Positive Hydrogen ion

pH 1 to 6
Acid

Mass of electrons in grams


9.107 times 10 to the -28

Mass of protons in grams


1.672 times 10 to the -24

Mass of neutron in grams


1.675 times 10 to the -24

Charge of electron negative


1.602 times 10 to the -19

charge of proton
1.602 times 10 to the -19

Charge of neutron
0

The mass of the neutron is approximately 1,839 times greater than electrons
1839

The mass of the proton is approximately 1,836 times greater than electrons
1836

Top 3 conductor
Silver, Copper, Gold

least conductor
nichrome

atoms
building blocks of engineering materials
Aluminum
most abundant metal in earth

Ductility
ratio of ultimate shear to yielding stress

period the
time taken by a body in uniform motion to travel an orbit

760 torr equal to


1 ATM

Charle's Law
Constant Pressure, Variable Temperature and Volume

Twice amplitude
twice maximum velocity

R.A. 8792
Philippine Electronic Commerce Act or E-Commerce Act

each orbital has 1 electron placed in it before pairing of electron in orbitals occurs
Hunds' Rule

angular speed (momentum)


Spin Quantum #

resistance(internal friction) of fluids to flow


viscosity

S.I. unit of pressure Newton per square meter


Pascal

losses due to friction in oscillation


damped oscillator

cohesive attraction that causes liquid to minimize its surface area


surface tension

Maximum stress before permanent deformation


elastic limit

also known as modulus of rigidity


shear modulus
thermodynamic properties
volume, pressure, temperature

defined as mass per unit volume. Independent of size and shape


density

another term for specific gravity


weight density

ability of metal to be permanently deformed


ductility

elastic modulus applicable to liquids


bulk modulus

Combine two small elements


fussion

Larger element divided into 2 smaller elements…


Fission

object subjected to equal and opposite forces on different lines of direction is said to be under
shear stress

unit of mechanical shear


joule

conduction band
where free electrons move

gives off a yellow green appearance


Chlorine

Gives off blue-black-violet color


Iodine

young's modulus is also known as


modulus of elasticity

stress at which a material begins to plastically deform


yield strength

irregularity within a crystal structure


Dislocation

most common defect of crystal


Line defect

What is the S I unit of momentum kg. meter per sec.


Kg-m / s

What is the S I unit of impulse Newton - sec.


N-s

total momentum of a closed system is constant


Conservation of linear momentum

number of cycles as a result of time


period

A common copper alloy


Zinc

a solution that is a liquid conductor


electrolyte

determines the acidity or base


PH measurement

what is PH 7
neutral

delegation of authority
assigning of different degrees of authority

Vander Waals bonding


Connection between crystal atoms / forms eight pairs of electrons when bonded

Covalent bonding
aggregate less when near each other than when separated from one another

metallic bonding
interaction of ionic lattice and electron gas

electrostatic
bonding bonding between positive and negative charges

atomic number
element identity

spin quantum
direction
Element
a pure substance that cannot be broken down by chemical means to a simpler substance.

Valence Electrons
determines the ability of atoms to combine with other atoms.

Nitrogen Group
V-A

Electronics Engineer appearnce fee per hour


500

Electronics engineer retainer's fee


1500

maximum allowable exposure to radiation from an electronic equipment must not exceed to,
100 ms

keystone of professional conduct


integrity

Requiring the services of a duly licenced ECE… planning, designing…


Department Order No. 88

law provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Phils.
R.A. 3846

policy to improve the provision of Local Exchange carrier service


E.O 109

Foundation of Moral philosophy


Justice, Honesty and Courtesy

Philippines is under what region in terms of frequency allocation


Region 3

Data network operated by enfranchised telecommunications carrier that is authorized to provide


data.
Public Switched Data Network

An ECE board member must be a citizen & resident of the Philippine for at least, BLANK,
consecutive years prior to his appointmnt
5 Years

Testing and quality control of electronics product


Manufacturing

If the engineer approves that a certain electronic product were according to engineering standard..
( something like this )
Acceptance

Implementing rules and regulations ( IRR ) of R.A 9292


August 31, 2007

Electronic Commerce Act of 2000


R.A. 8792

VOIP service provider performance bond


5 million

The certificate of Authority issued by NTC to A CATV maximum term.


15 years

Maximum effective radiated power in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for Channels 7 - 13
1000 Kw

Metro Manila Commercial load in radio stations


15 minutes

Minimum carrier power output of a Standard AM Broadcast … direct supervision of an Electronics


engineer is required
1 Kw

Maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila


50 kW

at what temperature does a magnetic material loses its ferromagnetic properties


Curie Temperature

Specific Gravity also termed as


Relative Density

Moment of Inertia is dependent on


Mass, Axis of rotation, Size and Shape

diatonic scale with added 5 half tones


Chromatic Scale

binds the protons and neutrons together in the nucleus of an atom


exchange force
depend on the number of harmonics present…
Quality of Sound

Avogadros Number 6.022 x 10 to the ___ power


23rd

controlled testing of the properties of a substance or system through carefully recorded


measurements
Experiment

father of scientific method


Galileo

number of S.I. base units


7

Father of Modern Chemistry


Antoine Lavoissier

means indivisible
Atomos

Pressure held constald, Volume of gas is inversely proportional to volume


Charles Law

Naming Chemical Compounds


Chemical Nomenclature

Best Conductor of Electricity


Silver

Denser metal settles on less dense


Floatation

the closeness of two sets of measured group of values


Precision

bending of a strip of metal


Elastisity of Flexion

twisting of spring
Elasticity of Torsion

Acid and base balanced


Neutralization
lacking of mass over something…
Mass defect

where fission is controlled


Nuclear Reactor

operating at low temperature


Cryogenics

what property of plastic changes with heat distortion


Mechanical

increasing in the small diameter tube with fluid


Capillarity

Relating 2 different volume / density


Relative Humidity

Speech density… “volume”


Absolute Humidity

Density of material with respect to density of air


Specific humidity

Same/Like materials
Cohesion

Different/Unlike materials
Adhesion

Necessary nuclear reactor (uranium)


Critical Size

Radioactivity
Curie

Flow of fluid in pipe; “pressure”


Bernoulli principle

“atomic mass”
Physicists atomic weight

High production, something will limit


Law of diminishing return

Mix different quantities of some element


Law of multiple proportion

Indistinguishable liquid and gas


Critical Point

Constant angular momentum, increasing kinetic energy


Kepler’s Law

Light actually passes through


Real image

Light seemed to pass through


Virtual image

Capital mobile dealer


P 100,000

“Defect of lens”, “Rays near the edge”


Spherical Aberration

“comet-shaped”
coma

“Differences in vertical and horizontal distance”


Astigmatism

Unit of electrostatic charge


Statvolt

SI unit of potential difference


volt

Electrostatic measuring device?


Leaf electroscope

Class B FM
500 ft.

Primary FM stations allowed of how many translators


2

Acids formed from weak bases dissolved in H2O


Hydrolysis

Matter can be broken down


Democritus
Property of gas equals individual property
Gibb’s Theorem

Neutron
Chadwick

Summary observed fact


Scientific Law

Partial volume
Azamat's Theorem

Liquid not used as solvent in a chromatography


Water

Not an ionization Bond


C6H12O6

1 molecule enters an orbit, spread, about atom spin


Hund’s rule of multiplicity

AM primetime
6:00 AM – 8:00 PM

Change of temp w/o change of phase


Sensible Heat

“oil or mining” / nauubos na resources


Depletion Cost

Penetrate;molecules
Diffusion

Quantitative measurement
Stoichiometry

Shield for x-ray


Lead

(ratio of something to air to e)


Absolute Index of Refraction

Incident angle is greater than critical angle


Total Reflection
Temperature, konting pressure na lang solid to liquid na
Critical Temperature

Removal of Energy
Water to ice

Separation of liquid through because of difference in its boiling points


Distillation

1 dyne on separation of 1 cm
1 stat coloumb

Non performance that results in the injured party receiving something substantially less than or
different from what the contract is intended.
Material Breach

1 Joule
10 raise to 7 ergs 10^7

ability to be mixed with other


Miscibility

Used as solute in stainless steel ( to prevent "kalawang" hehehe )


Chromium

Used a slovent in stainless steel


Iron

Perfect absorber
Black Body

ratio of velocities before and after an impact


coefficient of restitution

Temperature where degree C = degree Fahrenheit


- 40degrees

Used in Vehicle Baterries


Sulfuric Acid

Medium… travels fast at zero degrees ( 0 deg C)


Glass

Something about Bouyancy of material to water


Archimedes Theory
heat exceeds saturation at less pressure
Superheated

second most abundant element on earth


oxygen

energy gap of GaAs


1.43 V
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Wednesday, October 5, 2011


GEAS

GEAS
¬ Mechanical energy of pressure transferred into energy of heat
Ans. enthalpy

¬ For a common microscope the image formed by the eyepiece is


Ans. inverted

¬ Added to nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical properties


Ans. alpha particle

¬ Ester of glycerol with unsaturated fatty acids


Ans. oils

¬ Energy of an electron is assumed to be zero when


Ans. it is far away from the nucleus

¬ Chief ore of zinc


Ans. Sphalerite

¬ Punitive damage
Ans. Exemplary damage

¬ Functional depreciation
Ans. obsolescence

¬ Maritime communication law


Ans. R.A. 3396

¬ Brightness of light source


Ans. luminous intensity

¬ Heated metal(hot bodies)


Ans. Edison effect

¬ Producer gas is a mixture of nitrogen


Ans. carbon monoxide

¬ 1BTU
Ans. 1054 Joules

¬ Paramagnetic
Ans. Chromium

¬ How an element is connected to other


Ans. Structural formula

¬ Arrangement of atoms in a molecule


Ans. affects the reactivity of molecules

¬ False statement
Ans. convex mirror can be used as main objective in a reflecting telescope

¬ Average decay time


Ans. mean life

¬ Weightless environment, attach a ball to a spring and spin, the acceleration vector of the ball is
Ans. always point inward towards you

¬ Change a sample of solid to liquid


Ans. heat of fusion

¬ Failure to regain its original size and shape


Ans. elastic lag

¬ Reciprocal of bulk modulus


Ans. compressibility

¬ Period driving force


Ans. resonance

¬ Willingness of an atom to receive electrons


Ans. electron affinity

¬ Temperature below the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure


Ans. subcooled liquid

¬ Venturimeter measures ___ of water


Ans. velocity

¬ Temperature where Joule Thomson effect is zero


Ans. inversion

¬ Unit of moment of inertia


Ans. kg-m2

¬ Copper alloy used as collectors for electric generator


Ans. Tin bronze

¬ Solution of weak acid and its conjugate base, or weak base and its conjugate acid
Ans. buffer

¬ System remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium at all times


Ans. quasi-equilibrium

¬ Hydrocarbon contain one or more double bonds


Ans. alkene

¬ Process of making hydrocarbon gas


Ans. Bosch

¬ Factor of safety
Ans. yielding stress over working stress

¬ Propagate same speed as light


Ans. heat wave

¬ Ratio of market price per share to earnings per share


Ans. price-earnings ratio

¬ Degrees F equals degrees C


Ans. -40

¬ Unit of ionization radiation


Ans. Becquerel

¬ Water is electrolyzed
Ans. hydrogen and oxygen atoms are separated from each other.

¬ Black light
Ans. UV radiation

¬ Retentivity
Ans. permanent magnet

¬ Mass of atomic particles


Ans. mass spectrograph

¬ 3G bond
Ans. 300M

¬ Refrigerant
Ans. Dimethyl ether

¬ Amount of energy to fracture a given volume of material


Ans. Impact strength

¬ Theory of light emitted in discrete amount


Ans. Quantum theory

¬ Cast iron hard and wear resistance


Ans. white iron

¬ Heat engine can’t transfer heat


An. 2nd law of thermodynamics

¬ Reflected sound waves return


Ans. echo

¬ Irregular succession of compression and rarefaction


Ans. unpitched sound

¬ Luminance of clear sky


Ans. 3200

¬ Blackbody radiation emitted at freezing platinum


Ans. candle

¬ Result of atmospheric refraction


Ans. mirage

¬ Absorbs radiant energy and re emits it in wavelengths


Ans. fluorescence

¬ Design to detect radiation emanating from radioactive source


Ans. Quartz-fiber electroscope

¬ Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)


Ans. vegetable protein

¬ Kwashiorkor
Ans. lack of protein

¬ Downer
Ans. seconal

¬ Decay of a neutron to a proton


Ans. beta particle

¬ Known concentration
Ans. standard solution

¬ A pressure measuring device to register the pressure at all times


Ans. mercury manometer

¬ Work done is zero.


Ans. isometric

¬ Drink salt water


Ans. cell shrink

¬ Speaker
Ans. 5 CU

¬ Doctoral
Ans. 45 CU

¬ Gas is produce by the action of sunlight on automobile exhaust


Ans. ozone

¬ Middle management level


Ans. intermediate planning

¬ Process identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the
demands of the situation
Ans. decision-making

¬ Documents that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security


Ans. Coupon
¬ Color that bends the least
Ans. red

¬ Series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft of the
building
Ans. riser shaft

¬ Upon dissociation in water, acid yields hydrogen ions while gases yields hydroxide ions
Ans. Arrhenius theory

¬ Friendliest metal
Ans. Iron
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Tuesday, October 4, 2011


GENERAL ENGINEERING AND APPLIED SCIENCES

GENERAL ENGINEERING AND APPLIED SCIENCES

Carnot engine when reversed becomes


Refrigerator

Highest average translational kinetic energy account to which state of matter


Gas

Aluminum is the lightest among the following metals except


Magnesium

Alpha particle test charge


+2

Strength and machinability


Normalizing

Middle C
256Hz

Radioactive source activity


Becquerel

The frequency of Middle C


256Hz
Which of the following noble gases is most abundant on earth?
Argon

Given mass 1=mass 2=132 lb, distance=1 meter, calculate gravitational force.
2.4 x 10^-7 N

Which of the following is the difference between ground state and excited state of an atom?
Electron configuration

Helmholtz free energy is the internal energy of the system ____


Minus the product of entropy and temperature

The escape velocity on earth is 11,200 m/s. What is the escape velocity to the moon?
2,400

The material known as austenite is transformed into bainite when subjected to ___ process.
Rapid cooling

Newly SROP provided that devices ___ output power


Shall not exceed 25 watts

What is the value of resistivity of aluminum in ohm-m?


2.7 x 10^-8

As stated under D.O.88 for AM broadcasting station, operation sation must be under the
supervision of registered ECE if the carrier power exceeds ___
1kW

What is the unit charge of alpha particle?


+2

Sound interference is required in order to attain the phenomenon known as


Beats

Aside from platinum, gold, and silver, which is considered as a noble metal?
Iridium

What is the velocity of a 100g ball on a 5cm string moving in horizontal circle that requires
centripetal force of 1.0N?
2.2m/s

What is the coefficient unit of viscosity?


Poise

What is the main characteristic of super__ whose major application are jet engines and gas
turbines?
Heat resistant

Which ferromagnetic is BCC crystal structure?


Iron

What is the force of gravitational attraction between two 132-lb student who are standing 1m
apart?
2.4 x 10^-7 N

Which of the following would be different in ground state and excited state upon atom?
The electron configuration

Another aspect of pressure and human body is blood pressure. 20/20 vision is ideal…120/80, what
is the unit?
mmHg

What is the amount of time of activity may delayed without changing the succeeding activity?
Slack

One Dalton is equivalent to how many MeV?


931

In alloy nickel is replaced by ___ to produce superinvar alloy.


Cobalt

Chart compare planned schedule information to actual.


Tracking Gantt Chart

PRC Modernization Act


8981

Type of brass with 85% copper


Red brass

What is the ratio of working temperature to the temperature of melting point?


Homologous temperature

Type of management that spend most of the time outside


Management by wandering
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CHAPTER 18 COMMUNICATIONS
CHAPTER 18
COMMUNICATIONS

1. The circuit that recovers the modulating signal form 455 kHz intermediate frequency.
Detector

2. Picks up all the radiated signals and feeds them into the RF amplifier.
Antenna

3. Provides a dc level out of the detector that is proportional to the strength of the received signal
Automatic Gain Control (AGC)

4. It brings the high frequency audio signals back to the proper amplitude relationship with the
lower frequencies
De-emphasis Network

5. Removes any unwanted variations in the amplitude of the FM signal as it comes out of the IF
amplifier and produces a constant amplitude FM output at the 10.7 MHz intermediate frequency
Limiter

6. A feedback circuit consisting of a phase detector, a low pass filter, and a VCO
PLL

7. The range of frequencies over which the PLL can acquire lock with an incoming signal
Capture range

8. The angle that defines whether a light ray will be reflected or refracted as it strikes a surface.
Critical Angle

9. A linear device that produces an output voltage proportional to the product of two input voltages

Four-quadrant Multiplier

10. An optical characteristic of a material that determines the critical angle.


Index of refraction

11. A device for down-converting frequencies in a receiver system


Mixer

12. The RF amplifier, mixer, and local oscillator are tuned simultaneously so that the LO
frequency is always 455 kHz above the incoming RF signal frequency.
Gang tuning

13. A special case of the multiplier that is realized by simply applying the same voltage to both
inputs by connecting the inputs together.
Squaring circuit
14. Reverse modulation
Demodulation

15. The process of varying a parameter of a carrier signal with an information signal.
Modulation

16. Most VCOs employed in PLLs operate in the principle of ____________ using the varactor
diode as a voltage-variable capacitor.
Variable reactance

17. The range of frequencies over which the PLL can maintain lock
Lock range or tracking range

18. Independent of the bandwidth of the low-pass filter because when the PLL is in lock, the
difference in frequency is zero or a very low instantaneous value the falls well within the
bandwidth.
Hold-in range

19. Uses light pulses to transmit information through fiber-optic cables.


Fiber optics

20. Fiber optic cable in which the diameter of the core is fairly large relative to the diameter of the
cladding.
Multimode step index

21. Fiber optic cable in which the diameter core is very small relative to the diameter of the
cladding.
Single-mode step index

22. Fiber optic cable in which the diameter of the core is fairly large relative to the diameter of the
cladding.
Multimode graded index

23. A linear multiplier can be used as a _________ detector


Phase

24. The output of a linear multiplier is the ________ of the inputs and a scale factor
Product

25. The IF in a standard AM receiver is


455 kHz

26. A form of amplitude modulation in which the carrier is suppressed


Balanced modulation
27. Another term for balanced modulation
Suppresses-carrier modulation
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CHAPTER 17 VOLTAGE REGULATORS

CHAPTER 17
VOLTAGE REGULATORS

1. The percentage change in the output voltage for a given change in the input voltage
Line regulation

2. The percentage change in output voltage for a given change in load current
Load regulation

3. Occurs when the internal power dissipation becomes excessive and the temperature of the device
exceeds a certain value
Thermal Overload

4. An electronic circuit that maintains an essentially constant output voltage with a changing input
voltage or load current
Regulator

5. Typical of three-terminal IC regulators that provide a fixed negative output voltage.


79XX

6. An example of a three-terminal positive regulator with an adjustable output voltage.


LM317

7. Negative output counterpart of the LM317


LM337

8. A universal device that can be used with external components to provide step-up, step-down,
and inverting operation
78S40

9. A voltage regulator in which the control element operate as a switch


Switching regulator

10. Two basic types of linear regulators are


Series and shunt

11. In linear series regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load
Series
12. In linear shunt regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load.
Parallel

13. A change in input voltage does not significantly affect the output voltage of a regulator.
(true/false)
True

14. Can be used as a current source when an application requires that a constant current be
supplied to a variable load.
Three-terminal regulator

15. Amplitude modulation is a ____________________process


Multiplication

16. is one method used to overcome the bandwidth limitation of the telephone system so that
digital data can be sent over the phone lines.
FSK
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CHAPTER 16 OSCILLATORS

CHAPTER 16
OSCILLATORS

1. A circuit that produces a periodic waveform on its output with only the dc supply voltage as an
input
Oscillator

2. The two major classifications for oscillators are feedback oscillators and _______________.
Relaxation oscillators

3. Characterized by the condition wherein a portion of the output voltage of an amplifier is fed
back to the input with no net phase shift resulting in a reinforcement of the output signal
Positive signal

4. An amplifier gain of greater than ________ will cause the oscillator to limit both peaks of the
waveform
100

5. The most widely used type of RC feedback oscillator for frequencies up to about 1 MHz
Wien-bridge

6. Quarts is one type of crystalline substance found in nature that exhibits a property called
________
Piezolelectric effect

7. This type of LC feedback oscillator uses transformer coupling to feed back a portion of the
signal voltage. It is sometimes called a “tickler” oscillator
Armstrong Oscillator

8. Devices that produce more than one output function


Function generators

9. A relaxation oscillator whose frequency can be changed by a variable dc control voltage


Voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO)

10. ___________ oscillators include the Colpitts, Clapp, Hartley, Armstrong, and crystal-
controlled
Sinusoidal LC

11. ___________ oscillators include the Wien-bridge, phase-shift, and twin-T


Sinusoidal RC

12. This type of oscillator used an LC circuit in the feedback loop to provide the necessary phase
shift and to act as a resonant filter that passes only the desired frequency of oscillation
Colpitts Oscillator

13. It is a variation of the Colpitts but with an additional capacitor in series with the inductor in the
resonant feedback circuit
Clapp Oscillator

14. He invented the Hartley oscillator and the Hartley transform, a mathematical analysis method ,
which contributed to the foundations of information theory
Ralph Vinton Lyon Hartley

15. Similar to Colpitts except that the feedback circuit consists of two series inductors and a
parallel capacitor
Hartley oscillator

16. The most stable and accurate type of feedback oscillator uses a piezoelectric _________ in the
feedback loop to control frequency.
Crystal

17. The lowest frequency at which a crystal is naturally resonant.


Fundamental frequency

18. For higher frequencies, the crystal must be operated in this mode
Overtone mode
19. A type of relaxation oscillator because its operation is based on the charging and discharging of
a capacitor
Square-Wave oscillator

20. A two-state device whose output can be at either a high voltage or a low voltage level
Flip-flop

21. For initial start-up, the voltage gain around the feedback loop must be greater that
1 (one)

22. The feedback signal in an Armstrong oscillator is derived by ________ coupling


Transformer

23. A type of RC feedback oscillator which used two T-type RC filters used in the feedback loop,
one has a low-pass response and the other has high-pass response
Twin-T oscillator

24. A loop is created in which the signal sustains itself and a continuous sinusoidal output is
produces
Oscillation

25. The phase shift around the feedback loop must be effectively ________ degrees to sustain the
state of oscillation

26. The voltage gain around the closed feedback loop must be equal to _________ to sustain state
of oscillation.
1 (unity)

27. The product of the amplifier gain and the attenuation of the feedback circuit
Voltage gain

28. He was involved in the development of oscillators and vacuum tube push-pull amplifiers at
Western Electric in the early 1900
Edwin H. Colpitts

29. The frequency in a VCO can be varied with a _______ controlled voltage
Dc
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CHAPTER 15 ACTIVE FILTERS

CHAPTER 15
ACTIVE FILTERS
1. The ___________ of a band-pass filter is the ratio of the center frequency to the bandwidth.
Quality factor

2. An active filter category that rejects the frequencies within a certain bandwidth and passes
frequencies outside the bandwidth
Band-stop filter

3. A filter response characteristic that provides a very flat amplitude response in the passband and a
roll-off rate of -20dB/decade/pole
Butterworth characteristic

4. Each filter in a cascaded arrangement is called ___________.


Stage or section

5. It is one of the most common configurations for two-pole filter. It is also known as a voltage-
controlled voltage source filter.
Sallen-Key

6. A filter required to get a third-order low-pass response. This is done by cascading a two-pole
Sallen-key low-pass filter and a single-pole low-pass filter
Three-pole filter

7. Each additional filter in a cascaded arrangement adds _______dB to the roll-off rate
-20 dB

8. The rate of decrease in gain, below or above the critical frequencies of a filter.
Roll-off

9. Technology that enables the tracking and/or identification of objects.


Radio Frequency Identification
(RFID)

10. Four categories of active filters


Low-pass, high-pass, band-pass, and band-stop

11. Low-pass bandwidth is equal to


Cutoff frequency

12. Filters with the Bessel characteristic are used for filtering ________ waveforms
Pulse

13. Two common types of band-stop filters.


Multiple-feedback and state-variable

14. Tiny, very thin microchips with memory and a coil antenna
RFID tags

15. This type of tag does not require batteries. The tag is inactive until powered by the energy from
the electromagnetic field of an RFID reader
Passive RFID tag

16. This type of tag is powered by a battery and is capable of communicating up to 100ft. Or more
from the RFID reader.
Active RFID tag

17. Another type of tag that is a paper labelled with printing with the RF circuitry and antenna
embedded in it.
Smart label

18. The property of selecting signals with certain selected frequencies while rejecting signals with
other frequencies.
Selectivity

19. A pole is simply a circuit with how many resistor or capacitor?


1

20. The damping factor affects the filter response by negative feedback action. True/false
True

21. The more poles a filter has , the faster its roll-off rate is
True

22. Another term for state-variable filter


Universal active filter

23. Two methods of determining a filter’s response by measurement


Discrete point measurement and swept frequency measurement

24. Produces a constant amplitude output signal whose frequency increases linearly between two
preset limits.
Swept frequency generator

25. How many poles does a Sallen-Key high pass filter have?
2

26. The center frequency of a state variable resistor is set by the _______ circuits in both
integrators,
RC

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Wednesday, September 28, 2011
CHAPTER 14 SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP CIRCUITS

CHAPTER 14
SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP CIRCUITS

1. Provides dc isolation between input and output


Isolation amplifier

2. Ratio of the output current to the input voltage


Transconductance

3. Transconductance is __________ of an OTA


Gain

4. A comparator with hysteresis where the input voltage is large enough to drive the device into its
saturated states
Schmitt trigger

5. The ______________ of a number is the power to which the base must be raised to get that
number.
Logarithm

6. An amplifier that produces an output that is proportional to the logarithm of the input.
Log amplifier

7. Used in applications where it is necessary to have an output current that is controlled by an input
voltage.
Voltage-to-current converter

8. The circuit used to detect the peak of the input voltage and store that peak voltage on a
capacitor.
Peak detector

9. The exponent to which the base e must be raised in order to equal a given quantity.
Natural logarithm

10. In an OTA, transconductance varies with _________.


Bias current

11. Amplifiers that are often used in HF communication systems, including fiber optics, for
processing wide dynamic range signals.
Log and antilog amplifiers

12. The key characterisctic of an instrumentation amplifier


CMRR

13. The voltage gain of instrumentation amplifier is set by a


Resistor

14. The log amplifier may use the ___________ junction of a BJT in the feedback loop
Base-emitter

15. The main purpose of an instrumentation amplifier is to amplify _____ signals that are riding on
_____ common-mode voltages.
small, large

16. The ___________ of an OTA is the input voltage times the transconductance
Output current

17. The operation of log and antilog amplifiers is based on the __________ characteristics of a pn
junction
Nonlinear
(logarithmic)

18. A log amplifier has a pn junction in the feedback loop, and an antilog amplifier has a pn
junction in __________ with the input
Series

19. In a peak detector, an op-amp is used as a __________ to charge a capacitor through a diode to
the peak value of the input voltage.
Comparator

20. A basic instrumentation amplifier is formed by three op-amps and ________ resistors,
including the gain setting resistor.
Seven (7)

21. An oscillator that can be either amplitude or pulse modulated by the signal from the input
amplifier
High-frequency oscillator
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CHAPTER 13 BASIC OP-AMP CIRCUITS

CHAPTER 13
BASIC OP-AMP CIRCUITS

1. A common interfacing process often used when a linear analog system must provide inputs to a
digital system.
A/D conversion

2. Method of A/D conversion that uses parallel comparators to compare the linear input signal with
various reference voltages developed by a voltage divider
Flash

3. Produces an output that is proportional to the rate of change of the input voltage
Differentiator

4. The difference between the UTP and the LTP


Hysteresis voltage

5. Used to generate pulse waveform from the sine wave output of the audio generator.
Voltage comparator

6. When the output is at the maximum positive voltage and the input exceeds UTP, the output
switches to the _________ negative voltage
Maximum

7. Uses a capacitor in the feedback path which is open to dc. This implies that the gain at dc is the
open-loop gain of the op-amp.
Practical integrator

8. Gives an op-amp noise immunity


Hysteresis

9. Used to detect positive and negative voltages by connecting a fixed reference voltage source to
the inverting input of a zero-level detector.
Nonzero-Level detection

10. A good example of hysteresis


Thermostat

11. A comparator with three trigger points


Schmitt Trigger

12. The output of Schmitt trigger is


Pulse waveform

13. In a comparator with output bounding, what type of diode is used in the feedback loop?
Zener

14. Necessary components for the design of a bounded comparator


Rectifier and zener diodes

15. Type of circuit that uses comparators


Nonzero-level detector

16. Variations of the basic summing amplifier


Averaging and scaling amplifier

17. Differentiation of a ramp input produces a step output with an amplitude proportional to the
_________
Slope

18. Another term for flash


Simultaneous

19. Integration of a step input produces a ramp output with the slope proportional to the
_________
Amplitude
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CHAPTER 12 THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER

CHAPTER 12
THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER

1. The measure of an amplifier’s ability to reject common-mode signals


CMRR

2. It is the typical value of input offset voltage in the ideal case.


0V

3. It is the dc current required by the inputs of the amplifier to properly operate the first stage.
Input bias current

4. It is the resistance viewed from the output terminal of the op-amp


Output impedance

5. The total resistance between the inverting and noninverting inputs


Differential input impedance

6. Differential impedance is measured by determining the change in ___________ for a given


change in differential input voltage.
Bias current

7. Common temperature coefficient for the offset current


0.5nA/°C
8. Functions of negative feedback in an op-amp
Stabilize gain and increase frequency response

9. The voltage gain of an op-amp with external feedback


Closed-loop voltage gain

10. A special case of the noninverting amplifier where all of the output voltage is fed back to the
inverting input by a straight connection
Voltage-follower configuration

11. The value of the frequency at which the gain steadily decreases to a point where it is equal to
unity
Unity-gain frequency Or unity gain bandwidth

12. It is always equal to the frequency at which the op-amp’s open- loop gain is unity or 0 dB.
Gain-bandwidth product

13. The relative angular displacement of a time-varying function relative to a reference.


Phase shift

14. The three terminals of the basic op-amp not including power and ground
Inverting input, noninverting input, and output

15. It has the highest input impedance and the lowest output impedance of the three amplifier
configurations
Voltage-follower

16. The _________ of an op-amp equals the upper critical frequency.


Bandwidth

17. Two types of op-amp input operation.


Differential mode and common-mode

18. A ____________ differentiator uses a capacitor in series with the inverting input.
Ideal
19. An ideal op-amp has ___________ value for voltage gain, bandwidth, and input impedance.
Infinite

20. What should be the output voltage of an op-amp when the differential input is zero
Zero

21. The ideal op-amp has __________ output impedance


Zero

22. The three basic op-amp configurations


Inverting, noninverting, and voltage follower
23. The closed-loop voltage gain is _________ than the open-loop voltage gain. (more or less)
Less

24. Does the gain of an op-amp decreases or increases as frequency increases above the critical
frequency
Decreases

25. Devices such as the diode and the transistor which are separate devices that are individually
packaged and interconnected in a circuit with other devices to form a complete, functional unit.
Discrete components

26. Most op-amps operate with how many dc supply voltage?


2 (positive and negative)

27. Datasheets often refer to the open-loop voltage gain as the ______________
Large-signal voltage gain
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CHAPTER 11 THYRISTORS

CHAPTER 11
THYRISTORS

1. It is like the four-layer diode but with the added gate connection
SCR

2. This is the maximum continuous anode current that the device can withstand in the conduction
state under specifies conditions.
Average forward current

3. What bilateral thyristor functions basically like two parallel SCRs turned in opposite directions
with a common gate terminal?
Triac

4. ____________ does not belong to the thyristor family because it does not have a four-layer type
of construction.
UJT

5. It can be used a trigger device for SCRs and triacs.


UJT

6. It is a type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the
anode exceeds the voltage at the gate.
PUT

7. A region of forward bias in which the device has a very high forward resistance and is in the off
state
Forward-blocking region

8. A method for turning-off the SCR that basically requires momentarily forcing current through
the SCR in the direction opposite to the forward conduction
Forced commutation

9. The value of gate current necessary to switch the SCR from the forward-blocking region to the
forward-conduction region under specified conditions.
Gate Trigger Current

10. A four-layer semiconductor device that operates essentially as does the conventional SCR
except that it can also be light-triggered.
LASCR

11. Functions basically like two parallel 4- layer diodes turned in opposite directions.
Diac

12. A diac with gate terminal


Triac

13. A four-terminal thyristor that has two gate terminals that are used t trigger the device on and
off
Silicon Controlled Device (SCS)

14. A type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the
anode exceeds the voltage at the gate.
Programmable Unijunction Transistor (PUT)

15. The characteristic of a UJT that determines its turn-on point


Standoff-ratio

16. The four-layer diode is also called


Shockley diode

17. The region that corresponds to the on condition of the SCR where there is forward current from
anode to cathode through the very low resistance of the SCR
Forward_ conduction region

18. The SCR can only be turned on using its _________ terminal
Gate

19. Acts as the trigger source in the LASCRs


Light

20. A thyristor that conducts when the voltage across its terminals exceeds the breakover potential
4-layer diode

21. Basic methods of for turning off an SCR


Anode current interruption and forced commutation
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CHAPTER 10 AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY RESPONSE

CHAPTER 10
AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY RESPONSE

1. The frequency at which the output power drops to one-half of its midrange value
Corner frequency

2. At the critical frequencies the output voltage is 70.7% of its midrange value. What is the value
of voltage gain in dB?
-3 dB

3. What is the other term for lower critical frequency?


All of the above

4. The condition where the gain is down 3 dB is logically called _________ of the amplifier
response
-3 dB point

5. The upper and lower dominant critical frequencies are sometimes called
Half-power frequencies

6. A characteristic of an amplifier in which the product of the voltage gain and the bandwidth is
always constant when the roll-off is -20 dB/ decade.
Gain-bandwidth product

7. Critical frequencies are values of frequency at which the RC circuits reduce the voltage gain to
____________ of its midrange value.
70.7%

8. An octave of frequency change is a ________ -times change


2

9. Which of the following has no effect on the low-frequency response?


Internal transistor capacitances
10. What is the gain that occurs for the range of frequencies between the lower and upper critical
frequencies?
Midrange gain
11. Which of the following is not a method in frequency response measurement?
Roll-off measurement

12. If the voltage gain is less than one, what is the value of the dB gain?
Negative

13. A plot of dB voltage gain versus frequency on semilog graph paper


Bode plot

14. The critical frequency at which the curve “breaks” into a -20dB/decade drop
Lower break frequency

15. The change in gain or phase shift over a specified range of input signal frequencies
Frequency response

16. A unit of logarithmic gain measurement and is commonly used to express amplifier response
Decibel

17. The lower and upper critical frequencies of an amplifier can be determined using the
_____________ method by applying a voltage step to the input of the amplifier and measuring the
rise and fall times of the resulting output voltage
Step-response method

18. The coupling an bypass capacitors of an amplifier affect the _________ frequency response:
high or low
Low

19. The internal transistor capacitances affect the _________ frequency response: high or low
High

20. Two frequency response measurement


Frequency/amplitude and step

21. The Miller input and output capacitances for a BJT inverting amplifier depends on
Voltage gain

22. When dB is negative, it is usually called_______


Attenuation
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Friday, September 23, 2011
CHAPTER 9 FET AMPLIFIERS AND SWITCHING CIRCUITS

CHAPTER 9
FET AMPLIFIERS AND SWITCHING CIRCUITS

1. An amplifier that primarily uses only MOSFETs.


Class D

2. A process in which an input signal is converted to a series of pulses with widths that varies
proportionally to the amplitude of the input signal.
PWM

3. It removes the modulating frequency and harmonics and passes only the original signal to the
output.
Low-Pass Filter

4. The voltage gain of a common-drain amplifier is always


Slightly less than 1

5. The load resistance connected to the drain of a common-source amplifier reduces ____________

Voltage gain

6. What is the relationship between the input resistance of a common-gate amplifier to its
transconductance?
They are inversely proportional

7. The efficiency of a class D amplifier approaches


100%

8. The input signal is applied to the gate and the output is taken from source
Common-drain

9. A nonlinear amplifier in which the transistors are operated as switches


Class D

10. A device that switches an analog signal on and off


Analog switch

11. Consists of two or more analog switches that connect sample portions of their analog input
signals to single output in a time sequence
Analog multiplexer

12. Used in low-power digital switching circuits


CMOS

13. Amplifier commonly used as frequency multiplier


Class C

14. The least efficient amplifier


Class A

15. An amplifier that is biased below cutoff


Class c

16. A class of amplifier that operates in the linear region for only a small part of the input cycle
Class C

17. In a class AB amplifier, if the VBE drops are not matched to the diode drops or if the diodes
are not in thermal equilibrium with the transistors, this can result in
Thermal runaway
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CHAPTER 8 FIELD –EFFECT TRANSISTORS

CHAPTER 8
FIELD –EFFECT TRANSISTORS

1. FETs are preferred device in low-voltage switching applications; while______ transistor is


generally used in high-voltage switching applications.
IGBT

2. What type of JFET operates with a reverse-biased pn junction to control current in the channel?
JFET

3. An n-channel universal transfer characteristic curve is also known as


Transconductance curve

4. The change in drain current for a given change in gate-to-source voltage with the drain-to-source
voltage constant
Forward transconductance

5. What is the most common type of JFET bias?


Self-bias
6. It is a method for increasing the Q-point stability of a self-biased JFET by making the drain
current essentially independent of gate-to-source voltage
Current-source bias
7. What JFET bias uses a BJT as a constant-current source?
Current-source bias

8. For increased Q-point stability, the value of RS in the self-bias circuit is increased and
connected to a negative supply voltage. This sometimes called
Dual-supply bias

9. VGS varies quite a bit for JFET self-bias and voltage-divider bias but ID is much more stable
with
Voltage-divider bias

10. ____________ is sometimes called depletion/enhancement MOSFET.


D-MOSFET

11. LDMOSFET has a lateral channel structure and is a type of


Enhancement MOSFET

12. It is an example of the conventional E-MOSFET designed to achieve higher power capability
VMOSFET

13. Following are the three ways to bias a MOSFET except


Current-source bias

14. The insulated-gate bipolar transistor combines which two transistors that make it useful in
high-voltage and high-current switching applications?
BJT and MOSFET

15. What are the three terminals of IGBT?


Gate, collector, emitter

16. In terms of switching speed, __________ switch fastest and _____________ switch slowest.
MOSFETs, BJTs

17. In a MOSFET, the process of removing or depleting the channel of charge carriers and thus
decreasing the channel conductivity
Depletion

18. The ratio of change in drain current to a change in gate-to source voltage in a FET
Transconductance

19. A FET is called a ______________ because of the relationship of the drain current to the
square of a term containing gate-to-source voltage
Square-law device
20. Combines features from both the MOSFET and the BJT that make it useful in high-voltage and
high-current switching applications.
IGBT
21. Has a lateral channel structure and is a type of enhancement MOSFET designed for power
applications.
LDMOSFET
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CHAPTER 7 POWER AMPLIFIERS

CHAPTER 7
POWER AMPLIFIERS

1. It is the product of Q-point current and voltage of a transistor with no signal input
Power dissipation

2. The ____________ of an amplifier is the ratio of the output signal power supplied to a load to
the total power from the dc supply.
Efficiency

3. Which amplifier operates in the linear region for 180 deg. Of the input cycle when biased in
cutoff and is in cutoff for 180 deg?
Class B

4. These amplifiers are biased to conduct for slightly more than 180 deg.
Class AB

5. An amplifier that is generally used in Radio Frequency applications


Class C

6. Implemented with a laser diode


Current mirror

7. An amplifier that is biased below cutoff and is normally operated with resonant circuit load
Class C

8. The four classes of power amplifiers are classified based on the percentage of the
____________which the amplifier operates in its ________region
Input cycle, linear

9. It is the ratio of the output power to the input power


Power gain

10. Product of the rms load current and the rms load voltage
Output power
11. A type of class B amplifier with two transistors in which one transistor conducts for one half-
cycle and the other conducts for the other half-cycle
Push-pull

12. Amplifiers that are generally used in Radio Frequency Applications.


Class C amplifiers

13. Another term for complementary Darlington


Sziklai pair

14. An advantage of push-pull class B and class AB amplifiers over class A


Efficiency

15. The Q-point is at _________ at class B operation


Cutoff

16. Operates in the linear region where the output signal is an amplified replica of the input signal
Class A

17. Amplifiers that have the objective of delivering power to a load


Power amplifers

18. When the Q-point is at the center of the ac load line, a maximum class ________ signal can be
obtained.
A

19. The maximum efficiency of capacitively coupled class A amplifier cannot be higher than
25%

20. The low efficiency of class A amplifiers limits their usefulness to small power applications that
require usually less than ________.
1W
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CHAPTER 6 BJT AMPLIFIERS

CHAPTER 6
BJT AMPLIFIERS

1. Amplifiers designed to handle small __________ signals are referred to as small-signal


amplifiers.
ac only

2. Which of the r parameters is the most important?


r’e

3. Determine the ac emitter resistance that is operating with a dc emitter current of 5mA.
5.0 Ω

4. If βac=hfe, αac=?
hfb

5. Which of the three amplifier configurations exhibit high voltage gain and high current gain?
Common-emitter

6. An amplifier configuration which has a voltage gain of approximately 1, a high input resistance
and current gain,
Common-collector

7. An amplifier configuration which provides high voltage gain with a maximum current gain of 1.
Common-base

8. Which of the amplifier configurations is the most appropriate for certain applications where
sources tend to have low-resistance outputs?
Common-base

9. In a common-emitter amplifier, any change in input signal voltage results in


Opposite change in collector signal voltage

10. The ac voltage gain is the ratio of


ac output voltage at the collector to ac input voltage at the base

11. the reduction in signal voltage as it passes through a circuit


attenuation

12. the overall voltage gain of the common-emitter amplifier is the product of the voltage gain
from base to collector and
reciprocal of the attenuation

13. Without the bypass capacitor, the CE amplifier’s emitter is no longer at ac ground. How does
this affect the amplifier?
It decreases the ac voltage gain

14. The measure of how well an amplifier maintains its design values over changes in temperature,

Stability

15. Swamping is a method used to minimize the effect of the ____________without reducing the
voltage gain to its minimum value.
ac emitter resistance
16. ___________ contains two transistors. The collectors of two transistors are connected and the
emitter of the first drives the base of the second.
Darlington pair

17. _____________ consists of two types of transistors, npn and a pnp.


Complementary Darlington

18. An amplifier configuration in which the input signal is capacitively coupled to the emitter and
the output is capacitively coupled from the collector,
Common-base

19. Which of the amplifier configurations is/are useful at high frequencies when impedance
matching is required?
Common-base

20. The power gain of a common-base amplifier is approximately equal to


Voltage gain

21. BJT amplifier that produces output that are a function of the difference between two input
voltages,
Differential amplifier

22. Ideally, a diff-amp provides a very high gain for single-ended or differential signals and
_____________ gain for common-mode signals.
0

23. Input signals are out of phase


Differential amplifier
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CHAPTER 5
TRANSISTOR BIAS CIRCUITS

1. What biasing method is common in switching circuits?


Base bias

2. A Base bias in linear region shows that it is


Directly dependent on dc beta

3. In an emitter-feedback bias, if the collector current increases, the emitter voltage


Increases

4. What happens to the base voltage in no. 10?


Increases
5. In an emitter-feedback, the increase in base voltage _________ the base current.
Reduces

6. For collector-feedback bias, what provides the bias for the base-emitter junction?
Collector voltage

7. As temperature goes up in a collector-feedback circuit, βDC and VBE goes _______


and __________, respectively.
Up and down

8. Collector-feedback bias provides good stability using negative feedback from


Collector to base

9. Innovations in technology would allow a doubling of the number of transistors in a


given space every year and that the speed of those transistors would increase. This
prediction is widely known as
Moore’s law

10. If an amplifier is not biased with correct dc voltages on the input and output, it can
go ___________ when an input signal is applied.
Saturation or cutoff

11. Given a voltage-divider biased BJT, determine IC given VCC, R1, R2, RC, and RE
which are 10V, 10kohms, 4.7kohms, 1kohm, and 470ohms respectively. Use βDC= 100.
5.31mA

12. What is the value of VCE in no.20?


2.19 V

13. If an emitter resistor is added to a base bias circuit, what is the value of the emitter
current given VCC, RE, RC, and RB as 10V, 1kΩ, 470Ω, and 180kΩ, respectively. Use
βDC=100.
3.32mA

14. Calculate for VCE in no. 22


5.12 V

15. If the dc beta in the preceding drops half of its original value, find the percent change
in IC.
39.16%

16. What is the percent change in VCE?


27.17%

17. The region along the load line including all points between saturation and cutoff
Linear region
18. A voltage divider for which loading effects can be neglected
Stiff voltage divider

19. The base bias circuit arrangement has poor stability because its Q-point varies
widely with
Dc beta

20. The purpose of biasing a circuit is to establish a proper stable ________.


Q-point

21. The process of returning a portion of a circuit’s output back to the input in such a
way as to oppose or aid a change in the output
Feedback
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Saturday, September 10, 2011


CHAPTER 4 BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTORS

CHAPTER 4
BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTORS

1. Which is the least of the three transistor currents?


Base

2. The ratio of the dc collector current to the dc base current of the transistor is,
dc beta/dc current gain

3. the ratio of the dc collector current to the dc emitter current


dc alpha

4. Determine the base current given dc beta=100 , dc alpha=0.85, and IC= 3.70mA
0.037mA

5. Nonconducting state of a transistor


Cutoff

6. State of a BJT in which the collector current has reached maximum and is dependent of the base
current Saturation

7. Neither the base-emitter nor the base-collector junctions are forward-biased


cutoff

8. dc beta varies with


collector current and temperature

9. hFE varies with which transistor current/s?


Collector only

10. Converts light energy to electrical signal


Phototransistor

11. Devices used to electrically isolate circuits


Optocouplers

12. A key parameter in optocouplers is the CTR. CTR stands for


Current transfer ratio

13. Indication of how efficiently a signal is coupled from input to output


CTR

14. RF transistors are designed to operate at


EHF

15. What transistor category/ies uses plastic or metal packages?


General-purpose transistors

16. To operate as an amplifier, BE junction must be forward-biased and the BC junction must be
reverse-biased. This is called
Forward-reverse bias

17. In a phototransistor, what transistor current/s is produced and controlled by light?


Base

18. Two basic package types


Through-hole and surface mount

19. The process of increasing the power, voltage, or current by electronic means.
Amplification
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CHAPTER 3 SPECIAL- PURPOSE DIODES

CHAPTER 3
SPECIAL- PURPOSE DIODES

1. Diodes that were designed to operate in reverse breakdown


Zener diode
2. A device that operates in reverse bias
photodiode

3. A zener diode operating in breakdown acts as a


Voltage regulator
4. A positive temperature means that the zener voltage
Increases with an increase in temperature on decreases with decrease in temperature.

5. A diode that always operates in reverse-bias and is doped to maximize the inherent capacitance
of the depletion region is
Laser

6. When the light-emitting diode (LED) is forward-biased, __________pass the pn junction and
recombine with____________ in the _________material.
Electrons, holes, p-type

7. The first visible red LEDs were produced using


GaAsp

8. The normalized output of the visible red, yellow, green and blue LED peaks at
__________________ (nm) respectively.
660,590,540, and 460

9. Organic LEDs and LEDs produce light through the process of __________ and ___________
respectively.
Electrophophorescence and electroluminescence

10. An increase in the amount of light intensity produces an increase in


Reverse current

11. A diode that can be used as a variable-resistance device controlled by light intensity.
Photodiode

12. A diode that operates only with majority carriers


Schottky diode

13. A diode that takes advantage of the variable forward resistance characteristic.
PIN diode

14. No reverse leakage current


Schottky diode

15. Diode used in VHF and fast switching applications


Step- Recovery diode
16. When a PIN diode is forward-biased, it acts like a
Current-controlled variable resistance

17. If a tunnel diode is placed in series with the tank circuit and biased at the center of the
negative-resistance portion of its characteristic curve, a _________ will result in the output.
Constant sinusoidal voltage

18. The tunnel diode is only used at


VHF

19. In a varactor diode, what happens to the capacitance if the reverse-bias voltage decreases
a. Increases

20. The varactor capacitance ratio is also known as


a. Tuning ratio
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CHAPTER 2 DIODE APPLICATIONS

CHAPTER 2
DIODE APPLICATIONS

1. An open primary or secondary winding of a power supply transformer results in


0V

2. The output frequency of a half-wave rectifier is _________to/of the input frequency


Equal

3. What is the average value of the half-wave rectified voltage given 25 V as its peak amplitude?
7.95 V

4. The PIV rating of the bridge diodes is __________to/than that required for the center-tapped
configuration.
Less
5. Diode circuits used to clip off portions of signal voltages above or below certain levels,
Clippers

6. The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier is ________ the input frequency


Twice

7. A transformer is generally specified based on _____________rather than the turns ratio,


Secondary voltage
8. The period of a full-wave rectified voltage is ____________ that of a half-wave rectified voltage
Half

9. The indication of the effectiveness of the filter is called


Ripple factor

10. Eliminates the fluctuations in the rectified voltage and produces a relatively smooth dc voltage
Filter

11. Circuit that maintains a constant dc voltage for variations in the input line voltage or in the load

Regulator

12. A type of full-wave rectifier that uses two diodes connected to the secondary of a center-tapped
transformer
Center-tapped rectifier

13. Use clamping action to increase peak rectified voltages without the necessity of increasing the
transformer’s voltage rating
Voltage multipliers

14. Maximum voltage appearing across the diode in reverse bias


PIV

15. Caused by the charging and discharging of the filter capacitor


Ripple voltage

16. A systematic process of isolating, identifying, and correcting a fault in a circuit or system
Troubleshooting

17. Allows unidirectional current through the load during the entire 360° of the input cycle
Full-wave rectifier

18. Allows current through the load only during one-half of the cycle.
Half-wave rectifier

19. Generally used because of the surge current that initially occur s when power is first turned on
Slow-blow type fuse

20. A figure of merit used to specify the performance of a voltage regulator


regulation

OSCILLATORS…

CHAPTER 16 OSCILLATORS
CHAPTER 16
OSCILLATORS

1. A circuit that produces a periodic waveform on its output with only the dc supply voltage as an
input
Oscillator

2. The two major classifications for oscillators are feedback oscillators and _______________.
Relaxation oscillators

3. Characterized by the condition wherein a portion of the output voltage of an amplifier is fed
back to the input with no net phase shift resulting in a reinforcement of the output signal
Positive signal

4. An amplifier gain of greater than ________ will cause the oscillator to limit both peaks of the
waveform
100

5. The most widely used type of RC feedback oscillator for frequencies up to about 1 MHz
Wien-bridge

6. Quarts is one type of crystalline substance found in nature that exhibits a property called
________
Piezolelectric effect

7. This type of LC feedback oscillator uses transformer coupling to feed back a portion of the
signal voltage. It is sometimes called a “tickler” oscillator
Armstrong Oscillator

8. Devices that produce more than one output function


Function generators

9. A relaxation oscillator whose frequency can be changed by a variable dc control voltage


Voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO)

10. ___________ oscillators include the Colpitts, Clapp, Hartley, Armstrong, and crystal-
controlled
Sinusoidal LC

11. ___________ oscillators include the Wien-bridge, phase-shift, and twin-T


Sinusoidal RC

12. This type of oscillator used an LC circuit in the feedback loop to provide the necessary phase
shift and to act as a resonant filter that passes only the desired frequency of oscillation
Colpitts Oscillator
13. It is a variation of the Colpitts but with an additional capacitor in series with the inductor in the
resonant feedback circuit
Clapp Oscillator

14. He invented the Hartley oscillator and the Hartley transform, a mathematical analysis method ,
which contributed to the foundations of information theory
Ralph Vinton Lyon Hartley

15. Similar to Colpitts except that the feedback circuit consists of two series inductors and a
parallel capacitor
Hartley oscillator

16. The most stable and accurate type of feedback oscillator uses a piezoelectric _________ in the
feedback loop to control frequency.
Crystal

17. The lowest frequency at which a crystal is naturally resonant.


Fundamental frequency

18. For higher frequencies, the crystal must be operated in this mode
Overtone mode

19. A type of relaxation oscillator because its operation is based on the charging and discharging of
a capacitor
Square-Wave oscillator

20. A two-state device whose output can be at either a high voltage or a low voltage level
Flip-flop

21. For initial start-up, the voltage gain around the feedback loop must be greater that
1 (one)

22. The feedback signal in an Armstrong oscillator is derived by ________ coupling


Transformer

23. A type of RC feedback oscillator which used two T-type RC filters used in the feedback loop,
one has a low-pass response and the other has high-pass response
Twin-T oscillator

24. A loop is created in which the signal sustains itself and a continuous sinusoidal output is
produces
Oscillation

25. The phase shift around the feedback loop must be effectively ________ degrees to sustain the
state of oscillation

26. The voltage gain around the closed feedback loop must be equal to _________ to sustain state
of oscillation.
1 (unity)

27. The product of the amplifier gain and the attenuation of the feedback circuit
Voltage gain

28. He was involved in the development of oscillators and vacuum tube push-pull amplifiers at
Western Electric in the early 1900
Edwin H. Colpitts

29. The frequency in a VCO can be varied with a _______ controlled voltage
Dc

PAST BOARDS…

Fiber Optics (Chapter 11: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following refers to the relative refractive index difference of single mode fibers?
0.1 - 0.3 %

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A parameter of light beam that do not change the quality when it enters one medium from another.
Frequency

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following limits the top speed of transmitting information in fiber optic
communication?
Detector speed

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Type of multi-channel signal transmission in the optic fiber communication that uses twisted pair
coupler to transmit two signals of different wavelengths.
Frequency-division multiplexing

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Best applies to an optical fiber core.
A higher refractive index than the cladding

ECE Board Exam November 1998


How many times bigger does the bandwidth of a fiber optic multimode have over cable?
100 times bigger
ECE Board Exam April 1998
What law does a light travelling in an optical fiber follow?
Snell's

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen by human eye.
Ultraviolet

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single-mode fiber cable.
0.38dB

ECE Board Exam November 1996


An object father from a converging lens than its focal point always has an ________ image.
inverted

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The dielectric material of an optical fiber surrounding the core.
Cladding

ECE Board Exam April 2001


An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication is not intended to
determine one of the following:
Kind of multiplexing

--------------------- An optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic communication-------


Refractive index
Loss per kilometer
Length of fiber

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In wire communications system using fiber optic, the packing fraction is related to one of the
following statements when referred to fiber optic bundle.
Ratio of the total cross-sectional area to the total cross-sectional area of the fiber bundle

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Why are fiber optic cables considered less expensive compared to coaxial cables in communication
system?
Use of less repeaters

ECE Board Exam November 1999


An optic fiber regenerator which is used in communication is consisting of a ________ to clean up
and amplify digital data moving in one direction and a similar system for the opposite direction.
transmitter and receiver
ECE Board Exam April 1999
How do you account the effect of light intensity on the refractive index of a fiber optic?
Increases

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the following referred to as a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer.
Pulse generator laser

ECE Board Exam April 1998


__________ generates light beam at a specific visible frequency.
Laser

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communication system.
APDs

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A non-coherent light source for optical communications system.
LED

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is
attenuation

ECE Board Exam March 1996


It is made from semiconductor material such as aluminum-gallium-arsenide or gallium-arsenide-
phosphide.
Light emitting diode

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How much bigger does the bandwidth of a single mode fiber optic have over the multimode fiber?
20 times bigger

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following refers to the bandwidth of optical fiber?
1 MHz - 500 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Refers to a characteristic of a multimode fiber optic.
Cladding thickness is greater than the radius of the core and the diameter of the core must
be much greater than the wavelength of the light to be carried.

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What do you call the loss in signal power as the light travels the fiber optic?
Attenuation
ECE Board Exam April 1999
One of the characteristics of a fiber optic used in order to carry light in several modes of
propagation or to become a multimode fiber.
Diameter of the core must be very muuch greater than the wavelength of the light to be
carried.

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a detector?

Photovoltaic effect

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Quantity that do not change when a beam of lifgt enters one medium to another
Frequency

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion.
Step-index multimode

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light intensity at 1.55 um.

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many
times the wavelength of the light transmitted is known as __________.
mode

ECE Board Exam March 1996


An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the siica material from which fibers are
manufactured.
Ultraviolet absorption

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following is not a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in
fiber optic communication?
vertical and horizontal plates

-------------------- major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic
communication---------------------
Laser
Beam splitter
Pulse generator

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following is a part of an optical time domain reflectometer?
Beam splitter

ECE Board Exam April 2000


This refers to a certain material which is most sensitive to light.
Photoresist

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Referred to as a light source of fiber optic which supplies level of 5
to 7 milliwats and having a narrow spectrum of emission.
Injection laser diode

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Most likely, how many times would a fiber optic break in a span of thirty years?
2 - 3 times

ECE Board Exam November 1998


An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signal from magnetic field or solar storm
flux
Immunity to noise

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following colors of light rays has the shortest wavelength?
Violet

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Fiber optic cable operates near ________ frequencies.
800 THz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and the detector rise
time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE. Board Exam November 1996


Proposed the used of a clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide
Bockham and Kao
ECE Board Exam November 2000
ln electronic communications where fiber optic material is used, a reflected
wave is a possibility. what happen to the polarization of this reflected wave
when compared to its original form?
Shifts to 180 degrees

ECE Board Exam April 2000


The effect of multimode propagation caused the rays leaving the fiber to
interfere constructively and destructively as they leave the end of the fiber
this effect is called _________.
modal delay spreading

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What is the wavelength for deep violet light?
500 nmeter

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A device in the fiber optic that is used to attenuate the reflected signal from the polished end of the
fiber which has a possibility of developing into a noise.
Isolator

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the advantages of the fiber optic which is referred to the volume of capacity of signals it
can carry
Bandwidth

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber optics communications links.
Optical repeater

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics communication systems
Optical attenuator

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Lifetime of ILDs
50.000 h

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon?
Molten

ECE Board Exam November 2000


One of the major limitations of a plastic fiberoptic used in communication
Due to its high losses
ECE Board Exam April 2000
One of following is considered the largest source of signal power loss in the
use of fiber optic as communications medium such as due to misalignment.
ConnectionECE Board Exam NOvember 1999
One of the following is related to the application of solid material as a medium where light travels.
medium where Ilght travels. apphcatlon of 5DHd mater-ja}; as 3
Fiber optics

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the following is not considered as one of the causes for the loss of signal power as light
travels through a fiber optic?
Inter-modulation
----------------causes for the loss of signal power as light travels through a fiber optic-----------------
Scattering
Fiber bending
Absorption

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The core of the optical fiber has _______
a higher index of refraction than the cladding

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities formed
during the manufacturing process of the fiber optics.
Rayleigh scattering loss

ECE Board Exam November 1996


If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and the detector rise
time is 2 ns, what is the cable rise time?

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A phenomenon which causes the speed of light rays propagation in the fiber
material changes, as it passes through different medium in the fiber
Refraction

ECE Board Exam April 2000


At what intenial does a fiber optic needs a repeater in communications
system?
30 to 300 miles

ECE Board Eanm November 1999


Referfeq to as a limit in reducing further the loss of signal passing through a
fiber optic caused by scattering.
Rayleigh effect

ECE Board Exam April 1999


These are band of light wavelengths, that are too short to be seen by the human eye.
Ultraviolet

ECE Board Exam November 1998


A quarter wavelength device made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the optic fiber
communication
Retarder

ECE Board Exam April 1999


At what power levels does fiber optic have when used in electronic communications?
Range of micro to milliwatts

ECE Board Exam November 1998


One of the following is among the types of fiber optics used in electronics communication.
Semi-graded multimode

ECE Board Exam November 1998


How do you reduce the loss that is produced when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber optic?
By application of antireflection coating

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What is the device use in used in fiber optic communication which consist of a receiver transmitter
use tc clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and another in opposite direction?

Optic regenerator

ECE Board Exam November 2000


An advantage of fiber optic over co-axial cable as a result of coupling signals
from one to the other due to changing magnetic field in one or both.
Crosstalk

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What is the index of refraction of a certain substance if light travels through
the substance at 100 meters at a time is to 140 meters to air'?
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Labels: Communications, Excel, Fiber Optics, Past Board

Saturday, June 16, 2012


Satellite Communications (Chapter 10: Past Board Exce)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What balance the gravitational pull of the earth to allow the satellite to stay on its orbit?
Centripetal force

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern.
Nonsynchronous satellite

ECE Board Exam April 1999


In a transoceanic satellite conversation, how much is the typical delay before a reply is heard?
600 ms

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What are the repeaters inside communications satellite known for?
Transponders

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Under a circular satellite orbiy, how high is a certain satellite located above the surface of the earth
if the total satellite height is 9869 miles?

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period if rotation of the
earth about its axis.
Geosynchronous satellite

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A radio land station in the land mobile service.
Base station
ECE Board Exam November 1997
The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating or recording measurement at the distance
from the measuring instrument.
Telemetry

ECE Board Exam April 1997


_______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna.
Azimuth

ECE Board Exam November 1996


How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine government from ITU?
6

ECE Board Exam MArch 1996


The point on satellite orbit, closest to the earth is
perigee

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A mobile service between base stations and land mobile stations or between land mobile stations.
Mobile service

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following refers to the basic component of a communication satellite receiver?
Transponder

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Determine from the following the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite.
Spin

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A space distance iin satellite communication from the earth, to or greater than 2,000,000
kilometers is referred to as ___________.
deep space

ECE Board Exam April 1999


How many satellites does the GPS system consist?
24 satellites

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Which point on the satellite orbit is closest to the earth?
perigee

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following is refers to the smallest beam of a satellite antenna's radiation pattern?
spot beam

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A major and basic advantage for the use of klystron.
Hiigh power

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion.
Land station

ECE Board Exam April 1997


__________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric current,
amplifies and lower its frequency.
LNB

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite.
Satellite dish

ECE Board Exam March 1996


It is a spacecraft replaced in orbit around the earth carrying onboard microwave receiving and
transmitting equipments
Communications satellite

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A what apogee in an elliptical orbit must a geosynchronous satellite be initially stationed before it
is finally fired into its final geostationary orbit?
22,300 miles

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Satellite orbit around the earth are either:
they are either circular or elliptical

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the cooperating
stations.
Satellite network

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A resultant effect in launching a satellite from the earth caused by both forward motion away from
the earth that provides inertia tending the satellite to travel in straight line upwards and the
gravitational pull towards the earth is referred to as ___________.
centripetal acceleration

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following refers to the first active satellite?
Sputnik 1

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A band where most military satellite often operate.
X

ECE Board Exam November1997


Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously.
Telstar I

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What kind of battery panels are used in some advanced satellites?
Gallium arsenide solar panels

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth's station.
Downlink

ECE Board Exam November 1999


In satellite communications where satellites revolve in an orbit that forms a plane passing through
the center of gravity of the earth, this center is called ____________
geocenter

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or terminate
functions of equivalent at a distance.
Telecommand

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate modify or terminate
functions of equipment at a distance.
Telecommand

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe.
Satellite coverage

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The first commercial satellite
Early bird

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What band does VSAT first operate?
C-band

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which part of transponder converts the received signal to another lower frequency?
Mixer

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In satellite communications, the geostationary satellites are conveniently located with respect to the
equator at __________.
0 degrees latitude

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The Ku-band in the satellite service.
14/11 GHz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia?
38

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Satellite engine uses
ion propulsion system

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How do you increase or double the channel capacity of a satellite without increasing the frequency
bandwidth?
Re-use frequency

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of earths surface.
Global beam

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Receives and collects satellite signals from a broadcast satellite.
Satellite disk

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Sound intensity level is __________
10 log I/Iref

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The first passive satellite transponder.
Moon

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The most common application of satellite
Communications

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or between mobile
stations.
Mobile service

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Referred to as function and/or a designed of a double conversion satellite transponder.
Equipped with two mixers

ECE Board Exam November 2000


How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference?
Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas

ECE Board Exam April 1998


One of the first satellite systems catering personal based communications services scheduled for
operation.
Iridium system

ECE Board Exam NOvember 1997


A radio communications service used in radio regulation between specified fixed points provided
primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and economical air transport.
Aeronautical Fixed Service

ECE Board Exam November 1999


When do you consider that there is a satellite pass, having reference from the ground?
When satellite passes at its orbit at 90 degrees from its azimuth.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion of the
earths athmospehere.
Space Station

ECE Board Exam November 1997


An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal the period of rotation of the earth about its
axis.
Geosynchronous

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Known as the satellite transmitted signal from a satellite transponder to earths station.
Down link

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A satellite receives an uplink frequency of __________ MHz from a ground station of 3700 MHz.
ECE Board Exam April 1998
What do you call the signal booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver?
Low noise amplifier

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern?
Spot Beam

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Referred by a radio regulation as the station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in
motion
Land Station

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the operating earth
station.
satellite network

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Typical bandwidth of a communications satellite.
500 MHz

ECE Board Exam November 2000


An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam.
Footprint

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A twenty four (24) satellite system used in modern telecommunications to determine a location(s)
on the surface of the earth.
GPS

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which type of satellite transponder improves the S/N ratio which demodulates the up-link signal to
recover the baseband signals and use them to remodulate the downlink transmitter?
Baseband

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In shipboard satellite dish antenna system, azimuth is referred as the __________
horizontal aiming of the antenna
ECE Board Exam November 1997
Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile service.
Coast station

ECE Board Exam November 1998


__________ is known to be the first satellite capable of receiving and transmitting simultaneously.
Telstar I

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the frequency range of C-band?
3.4 to 6.424 GHz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


An area on the surface of the earth within the boresight of the steerable satellite beam intended to
be pointed.
Effective boresight area

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the approximate percentage of earth's coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree
elevation?
42.5 %

ECE Board Exam April 2001


One of the following devices in satellite transponder serves as output of the receive antenna.
low noise amplifier

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In a re-use frequency technique of increasing satellite channel capacity of corresponding
transponders, how do you control the antenna used to prevent interference?
High directional antenna

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Refers to a mobile earth station in the mobile-satellite service located on board ship
Ship earth station

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A technique in satellite communications which uses a highly directional spot-beam antenna to
prevent interference from frequency sharing.
Frequency re-use technique

ECE Board Exam November 2000


How do you determine the satellite location in latitude and longitude measurement?
Designate a point on earth directly below the satellite

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A point in the satellite orbit known to be the closest location to the surface of the earth.
Perigee

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which satellite transponder has the most number of mixers?
Double-conversion
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Labels: Communications, Excel, Past Board, Satellite

Monday, June 4, 2012


Microwave Communications (Chapter 9: Past Board Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which of the following will you avoid in the construction of a microwave station?
Long horizontal runs

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Radio frequency where waveguides are not used extensively.
150 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Term used to describe a process of approaching a desired point by directing the vehicle towards
that point
Homing

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A system which does not refer to a technique in reducing the propagation errors in navigational
system such as multipath effects
Pulse transmission

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the following is a navigational equipment which utilizes a ground radar system to
determine the position of a plane during its approach?
GCA

ECE Board Exam November 1998


_____________ is referred as the difference between available power and power budget.
Power margin

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on __________.
two or more antennas operating on the same frequency

ECE Board Exam November 1996


One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM is
noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup?
312 to 552 kHz

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The k-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile calculation is
equal to __________
4/3

ECE Board Exam March 1996


LORAN is navigational system used primarily for _________
obtaining your fixed location over a large distances

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What navigational system technique uses an antenna directivity to reduce an undesired multipath
signals?
LORAN-C

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In microwave frequencies, the LOS distance is something extended through the occurrence of
____________
ducting

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following if not a part of the navigational radar?
Duplexer
------------- part of navigational radar-----------
Pulser
Display unit
Synchronizer

ECE Board Exam November 1999


How do you account the effect of selective fading on the transmitted signal in terms of its
bandwidth?
more affirmative at wider bandwidth

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Frequencies most affected by knife-edge refraction.
VHF and UHF

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Refers to an effect of selective fading.
A fading effect caused by phase difference between radio wave components of the same
transmission, as experienced at the receiving station.
ECE Board Exam November 1996
When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zones at the point of
reflection the RSL
is decreased

ECE Board Exam March 1996


LORAN is a navigation system used primary for
obtaining fixes over large distances

ECE Board Exam November 1966


When the value of k increases, the effective result is _______ of the equivalent curvatures.
flattening

ECE Board Exam March 1996


TACAN is a navigational aid providing _________
bearing and distance indication

ECE Board Exam November 1996


If Ns = 250 determine the earth radius k-factor.

ECE Board Exam March 1996


A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system is in a space diversity arrangement. Determine how
many receivers in all are used?
2

ECE Board Exam November 1996


A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is
92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log D

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses.
Log normal fading

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave
transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna.
Circulator

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different frequencies
over the same path?
Frequency

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the free space loss, in dB, between two microwave parabolic antennas 38.0 kilometer apart
operating at 7.0 GHz?

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Low-power radar uses
IMPATT

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A component of a microwave station that samples signal traveling in one direction down to the
transmission line.
Directional coupler

ECE Board Exam April 2000


A navigational error which is caused by reflection of obstruction close to the location of
navigational aid having a normal concern on directional bearing.
Site error

ECE Board Exam April 1999


An aircraft deviation measured by an ILS localizer.
Horizontal

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging?
Amplitude modulation

----------- systems used in radio detection and ranging----------


Frequency shift
Frequency modulation
Pulse radar

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A microwave system that requires the use of repeater.
Intervening system that requires the use of repeater.
Distances involved are greater

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on
two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies

ECE Board Exam April 1997


RADAR means
Radio Detection and Ranging

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which band in the radio spectrum does the radio navigational system Omega transmit?
VLF

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following is not a common microwave application?
Mobile radio

------------- common microwave application --------------


Radar
Data transmission
Space communications

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output?
Modulator

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal
Terrestrial link

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used.
Space diversity

ECE Board Exam April 2000


In radio navigation, one of the following deviations of an airplane is determined by an ILS
localizer.
Horizontal

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave.
Shorten waveguide link

ECE Board Exam April 2000


In navigational system, one of the following indication is provided by the localizer unit of the ILS.
A horizontal deviation of an airpalne from its optimum path of descent along the axis of the
runway.

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Referred to as the cycle time difference between the master and the slave signals to reach the
receiver in the operation of loran navigational equipment.
Time delay

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Which of the HF marine antenna safety link is intended to be broken during the unusual movement
of the ship?
Weak part
ECE Board Exam April 1999
What is being measured in radar theory to complete the determination of a distance to a target or
object, after a high radio frequency signal is transmitted to a target?
Echo time off the object to the source

RADIOWAVE…

Radiation and Wave Propagation (C5 Past board: Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the
electromagnetic wave?
Vertical

ECE Board Exam November 2000


At what angle would you find the propagation direction in an xy plane . if the electric field is at
180 degrees from a reference zero degree vertical axis?
90

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following is referred to as the electromagnetic spectrum range of infrared signals?
0.01 millimeter – 0.70 micrometer

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Which of the following conditions can cause tropospheric ducting?
A stable high-pressure system

ECE Board Exam April 1999


In study of wave propagation, a condition at which zero absorption of radio wave is describes as
Free space medium

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Determine from the following radio frequency that falls under the very high frequency band of the
radio spectrum.
235.50 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 1998


At what distances is VHF propagation normally limited?
Around 500 miles

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Production of radiation by a radio transmitting station
Emission
ECE Board Exam April 1997
When waves bend away from straight line of travel, it is called
Refraction

ECE Board Exam November 1996


An electromagnetic wave consists of
Both electric and magnetic fields

ECE Board Exam March 1996


_________ occurs when microwave beam is at a point of grazing over an obstacle.
Diffraction

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Why are VHF or UHF radio signals which are transmitted towards the mountain or high structure
received a distant point in different locations?
Due to reflection caused by object

ECE Board Exam November 2000


The medium frequency (MF) band is in the spectrum range of
0.3 to 3 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


The highest frequency where refracted signals are returned to the eath at a desired distance with
usable strength, normally referred to as the critical frequency.
Maximum usable frequency

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Very High (radio) Frequency in the spectrum refers to _______ waves.
Metric

ECE Board Exam 1999


What is a wavefront?
A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave

ECE Board Exam 1998


Electromagnetic waves of frequencies arbitrarily lower than 3,000 GHz propagated in space
without artificial guide.
Hertzian waves

ECE Board Exam April 1998


________ is a major cause of the sporadic-E condition.
Sunspot

ECE Board Exam November 1997


This type of transmission permits communication in the frequency range from 30 to 60 MHz over
distance from about 1000 to 2000 km.
Ionospheric scatter
ECE Board Exam April 1997
Highest frequency that can be used for skywave HF communications between two given points on
earth.
Maximum usable frequency

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The wavelength of light has no role in
Polarization

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Atmospheric condition is controlled by
Humidity
Pressure
Temperature

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which part of globe is considered where sporadic-E is most common?
Equatorial regions

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Refers to the speed of radio waves traveling through space
300,000 km/sec

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What is the reason why VHF radio waves can be propagated several hundred miles over oceans?
Widespread temperature inversion

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Region of the atmosphere where ducting occurs
Troposphere

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Frequencies above _____ kHz, are referred to as the radio frequencies.
20

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A radio frequency in the Ultra High Frequency band of the radio spectrum band
0.31250 GHz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The electric field lines in a plane perpendicular to the earth’s surface
Vertical polarization
ECE Board Exam April 1997
Electromagnetic radiation theory was propounded by
James Clerk Maxwell

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Electromagnetic waves travel at _______ in free space
300,000 km/sec

ECE Board Exam March 1996


When the transmitting and receiving antennas are in line-of-sight of each other, the mode of
propagation is _______ wave.
Space or direct

ECE Board Exam April 2000


One of the following referred to as the long infrared signals in the electromagnetic spectrum range.
0.010 millimeter – 1000 nanometer

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the period of a wave?
The time required to complete in one cycle

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Determine the critical frequency value of an HF signal if its maximum usable frequency is 7050.50
kHz at 35 degrees incidence.

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Any small element of space in the path of a wave may be considered as source of secondary
wavelet.
Huygen’s principle

ECE Board Exam April 1997 / November 1997


Type of transmission path that permits communication in the frequency range from 30 to 60 MHz
and over distance from about 1000 to 2000 km
Ionospheric scatter

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a station over
5000 miles away?
Tropospheric ducting

ECE Board Exam November 1997


At height of 180 km above the earth and existing during daylight.
F1 layer

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere?
F2

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Tropospheric scatter uses the frequencies in the _________ band
UHF

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The lowest layer in the ionosphere.
D

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Except for ________ electromagnetic radiation or signal all others cannot be used for
communication purposes.
Infrared

ECE Board Exam April 2000


What type of signal propagation increases the distance of reach as you select a higher frequency?
HF

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In radio high frequency communications, the higher the radio frequency the __________
Longer it can reach

ECE Board Exam November 1997


An electromagnetic wave is ________ polarized when the electric field lies wholly in one plane
containing the direction of propagation.
Linearly

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cyvle.
Wavelength

ECE Board Exam March 1996


In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent?
The equatorial regions

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A possible type of propagation occurring if a weak and distorted signal from a distant station on a
frequency that is closed to the maximum usable frequency is received.
Sky-wave

ECE Board Exam April 2000


By how many farther does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
More or less 15% of the distance
ECE Board Exam April 1998
What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as horizontally polarized?
The electric field is parallel to the earth

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Which of the following falls under the high frequency band of the radio spectrum?
8.2345 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long distance night time
communications?
F layer

ECE Board Exam April 2000


What is the refractive index of air?
1

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Where in the spectrum band should the line of sight or direct waves is appropriate for radio
transmission and reception?
UHF

ECE Board Exam November 1998


The extremely high frequency (EHF) band is in the radio spectrum range.
3 to 30 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What are electromagnetic wave?
A wave consisting of an electric field and magnetic field at right angles to each other

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The electric field lies in a plane parallel to the earth’s surface.
Horizontal polarization

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A means of beyond the line of sight propagation of microwave signal
Troposcatter

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the effective earths radius when Ns=300?

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Which is atmospheric attenuation?
Due to water vapor and oxygen
ECE Board Exam November 2000
One of the following is not among the medium of primary communication.
Radio
----medium of primary communication---
Free space
Wire
Fiber optic cable

ECE Board Exam April 2000


What is the propagation condition called where scattered patches of relatively dense ionization
develop seasonally at E-layer heights?
Sporadic-E

ECE Board Exam November 1997


What is the unit of electric field strength?
V/m or N/C

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following is the best time for transequatorial propagation?
Afternoon or early evening

ECE Board Exam November 1999


When the electric field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the
electromagnetic wave?
Horizontal

ECE Board Exam November 2000


What type of radio propagation where signal travels along the surface of the earth?
Ground wave propagation

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following radio communications and effects, does the auroral activity inflict?
Fluttery tone on continuous wave signals

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Referred to as the ionospheric layer with an average height of 225 km at night.
F2 layer

REGULATORS…

CHAPTER 17 VOLTAGE REGULATORS

CHAPTER 17
VOLTAGE REGULATORS
1. The percentage change in the output voltage for a given change in the input voltage
Line regulation

2. The percentage change in output voltage for a given change in load current
Load regulation

3. Occurs when the internal power dissipation becomes excessive and the temperature of the device
exceeds a certain value
Thermal Overload

4. An electronic circuit that maintains an essentially constant output voltage with a changing input
voltage or load current
Regulator

5. Typical of three-terminal IC regulators that provide a fixed negative output voltage.


79XX

6. An example of a three-terminal positive regulator with an adjustable output voltage.


LM317

7. Negative output counterpart of the LM317


LM337

8. A universal device that can be used with external components to provide step-up, step-down,
and inverting operation
78S40

9. A voltage regulator in which the control element operate as a switch


Switching regulator

10. Two basic types of linear regulators are


Series and shunt

11. In linear series regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load
Series

12. In linear shunt regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load.
Parallel

13. A change in input voltage does not significantly affect the output voltage of a regulator.
(true/false)
True

14. Can be used as a current source when an application requires that a constant current be
supplied to a variable load.
Three-terminal regulator
15. Amplitude modulation is a ____________________process
Multiplication

16. is one method used to overcome the bandwidth limitation of the telephone system so that
digital data can be sent over the phone lines.
FSK

SATELLITE…

Satellite Communications (Chapter 10: Past Board Exce)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


What balance the gravitational pull of the earth to allow the satellite to stay on its orbit?
Centripetal force

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern.
Nonsynchronous satellite

ECE Board Exam April 1999


In a transoceanic satellite conversation, how much is the typical delay before a reply is heard?
600 ms

ECE Board Exam November 1999


What are the repeaters inside communications satellite known for?
Transponders

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Under a circular satellite orbiy, how high is a certain satellite located above the surface of the earth
if the total satellite height is 9869 miles?

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period if rotation of the
earth about its axis.
Geosynchronous satellite

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A radio land station in the land mobile service.
Base station

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating or recording measurement at the distance
from the measuring instrument.
Telemetry

ECE Board Exam April 1997


_______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna.
Azimuth

ECE Board Exam November 1996


How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine government from ITU?
6

ECE Board Exam MArch 1996


The point on satellite orbit, closest to the earth is
perigee

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A mobile service between base stations and land mobile stations or between land mobile stations.
Mobile service

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following refers to the basic component of a communication satellite receiver?
Transponder

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Determine from the following the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite.
Spin

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A space distance iin satellite communication from the earth, to or greater than 2,000,000
kilometers is referred to as ___________.
deep space

ECE Board Exam April 1999


How many satellites does the GPS system consist?
24 satellites

ECE Board Exam November 1999


Which point on the satellite orbit is closest to the earth?
perigee

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following is refers to the smallest beam of a satellite antenna's radiation pattern?
spot beam

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A major and basic advantage for the use of klystron.
Hiigh power

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion.
Land station

ECE Board Exam April 1997


__________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric current,
amplifies and lower its frequency.
LNB

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite.
Satellite dish

ECE Board Exam March 1996


It is a spacecraft replaced in orbit around the earth carrying onboard microwave receiving and
transmitting equipments
Communications satellite

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A what apogee in an elliptical orbit must a geosynchronous satellite be initially stationed before it
is finally fired into its final geostationary orbit?
22,300 miles

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Satellite orbit around the earth are either:
they are either circular or elliptical

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the cooperating
stations.
Satellite network

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A resultant effect in launching a satellite from the earth caused by both forward motion away from
the earth that provides inertia tending the satellite to travel in straight line upwards and the
gravitational pull towards the earth is referred to as ___________.
centripetal acceleration

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following refers to the first active satellite?
Sputnik 1

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A band where most military satellite often operate.
X

ECE Board Exam November1997


Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously.
Telstar I

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What kind of battery panels are used in some advanced satellites?
Gallium arsenide solar panels

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth's station.
Downlink

ECE Board Exam November 1999


In satellite communications where satellites revolve in an orbit that forms a plane passing through
the center of gravity of the earth, this center is called ____________
geocenter

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or terminate
functions of equivalent at a distance.
Telecommand

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate modify or terminate
functions of equipment at a distance.
Telecommand

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe.
Satellite coverage

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The first commercial satellite
Early bird

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What band does VSAT first operate?
C-band
ECE Board Exam April 2001
Which part of transponder converts the received signal to another lower frequency?
Mixer

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In satellite communications, the geostationary satellites are conveniently located with respect to the
equator at __________.
0 degrees latitude

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The Ku-band in the satellite service.
14/11 GHz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia?
38

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Satellite engine uses
ion propulsion system

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How do you increase or double the channel capacity of a satellite without increasing the frequency
bandwidth?
Re-use frequency

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of earths surface.
Global beam

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Receives and collects satellite signals from a broadcast satellite.
Satellite disk

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Sound intensity level is __________
10 log I/Iref

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The first passive satellite transponder.
Moon

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The most common application of satellite
Communications
ECE Board Exam November 1997
Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or between mobile
stations.
Mobile service

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Referred to as function and/or a designed of a double conversion satellite transponder.
Equipped with two mixers

ECE Board Exam November 2000


How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference?
Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas

ECE Board Exam April 1998


One of the first satellite systems catering personal based communications services scheduled for
operation.
Iridium system

ECE Board Exam NOvember 1997


A radio communications service used in radio regulation between specified fixed points provided
primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and economical air transport.
Aeronautical Fixed Service

ECE Board Exam November 1999


When do you consider that there is a satellite pass, having reference from the ground?
When satellite passes at its orbit at 90 degrees from its azimuth.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion of the
earths athmospehere.
Space Station

ECE Board Exam November 1997


An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal the period of rotation of the earth about its
axis.
Geosynchronous

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Known as the satellite transmitted signal from a satellite transponder to earths station.
Down link

ECE Board Exam November 1997


A satellite receives an uplink frequency of __________ MHz from a ground station of 3700 MHz.
ECE Board Exam April 1998
What do you call the signal booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver?
Low noise amplifier

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern?
Spot Beam

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Referred by a radio regulation as the station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in
motion
Land Station

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the operating earth
station.
satellite network

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Typical bandwidth of a communications satellite.
500 MHz

ECE Board Exam November 2000


An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam.
Footprint

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A twenty four (24) satellite system used in modern telecommunications to determine a location(s)
on the surface of the earth.
GPS

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Which type of satellite transponder improves the S/N ratio which demodulates the up-link signal to
recover the baseband signals and use them to remodulate the downlink transmitter?
Baseband

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In shipboard satellite dish antenna system, azimuth is referred as the __________
horizontal aiming of the antenna
ECE Board Exam November 1997
Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile service.
Coast station

ECE Board Exam November 1998


__________ is known to be the first satellite capable of receiving and transmitting simultaneously.
Telstar I

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the frequency range of C-band?
3.4 to 6.424 GHz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


An area on the surface of the earth within the boresight of the steerable satellite beam intended to
be pointed.
Effective boresight area

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the approximate percentage of earth's coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree
elevation?
42.5 %

ECE Board Exam April 2001


One of the following devices in satellite transponder serves as output of the receive antenna.
low noise amplifier

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In a re-use frequency technique of increasing satellite channel capacity of corresponding
transponders, how do you control the antenna used to prevent interference?
High directional antenna

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Refers to a mobile earth station in the mobile-satellite service located on board ship
Ship earth station

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A technique in satellite communications which uses a highly directional spot-beam antenna to
prevent interference from frequency sharing.
Frequency re-use technique

ECE Board Exam November 2000


How do you determine the satellite location in latitude and longitude measurement?
Designate a point on earth directly below the satellite

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A point in the satellite orbit known to be the closest location to the surface of the earth.
Perigee

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which satellite transponder has the most number of mixers?
Double-conversion
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Wednesday, September 7, 2011


SATELLITE MULTIPLE ACCESSING ARRANGEMENTS (c26)

CHAPTER 26
SATELLITE MULTIPLE ACCESSING ARRANGEMENTS
1)
Also called as Multiple Destination, It implies that more than one user has access to one
or more radio channels within a satellite communications channel.
Multiple Accessing
Multiple Accessing Arrangement:
• Frequency-division multiple accessing (FDMA)
• Time-division multiple accessing (TDMA)
• Code-division multiple accessing (CDMA)

2)A given number of the available voice-band channels from each earth station are
assigned a dedicated destination.
Pre-assignment(dedicated)

3)Voice channels are assigned on an as-needed basis.


Demand Assignment

4)The method of assigning adjacent channels different electromagnetic polarizations


and is possible by using orthogonal polarization and spacing adjacent channels 20 MHz
apart.
Frequency Reuse

5)Eskimo word meaning “little brother”.


Anik

6)Domestic Satellites operated by Telsat Canada.


Anik-E communications Satellite

7)A method of multiple accessing where a given RF bandwidth is divided into smaller
frequency bands.
FDMA

8)Multiple channel per carrier formats assigned and remain fixed for a long Period of
time.
Fixed-Assignment, Multiple Access (FAMA)

9)Assigning carrier frequency on temporary basis using a statistical assignment


process.
Demand-Assignment
Multiple Access

10)An acronym for Single-channel-per-carrier PCM multiple Access Demand-


assignment Equipment.
SPADE

11)Stands for Single-Carrier-Per-Channel.


SCPC

12)A time division-multiplexed transmission that is frequency division multiplexed.


Common Signaling Channel (CSC)

13)The predominant Multiple-access method of time-division multiplexing digitally


modulated carriers between participating earth stations within a satellite network
through a common satellite transponder.
TDMA

14)An RF-to-RF repeater that simply receives the earth station transmissions, amplifies
them, and then re-transmit them in a downlink beam that is received by all other
participating station.
Transponder

15)It is where transmissions from all earth stations are synchronized.


Reference Burst

16)It is where all receiving stations recover a frequency and phase coherent carrier for
PSK demodulation
Carrier Recovery Sequence (CRS)

17)An acronym for Conference of European Postal and Telecommunications


Administrations, is commonly used TDMA frame format for digital satellite system
CEPT

18)Sometimes referred to as Spread-Spectrum Multipleentire allocated bandwidth


Access, the transmissions can spread throughout the
Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
19)A unique binary word that each earth station’s transmissions are encoded.
Chip Code

20)It compare two signals and recover the original data.


Correlator

21)It assigns an individual terrestrial channel (TC) to a particular satellite channel (SC)
for the duration of the call.
Digital non interpolated Interface

22)It assigns a terrestrial channel to a satellite channel only when speech energy is
present on the TC.
Digital Speech Interpolated Interface

23)A form of analog channel compression that has been used for sub oceanic cables for
many years.
Time-Assignment Speech Interpolation (TASI)

24)The art or science of plotting, ascertaining or directing the course of movements, in


other words, knowing where you are and being able to find your way around.
Navigation

25)It is the most ancient and rudimentary method of navigation and simply continuing to
travel about until you reach your destination, assuming of course that you have one.
Wandering

26)Earliest effective means of navigation wherein direction and distance are determined
from precisely timed sightings of celestial bodies, including the stars and moon.
Celestial Navigation

27)Method of navigation by means of fixing a position and direction with respect to


familiar, significant landmarks such as railroad tracks, water towers, barns, mountains
and bodies of water.
Piloting

28)A navigation technique that determines position by extrapolating a series of


measured velocity increments.
Dead Reckoning

29)The term derived from the word “deduced” and not necessarily from the fate of the
people who used the technique.
Dead

30)He used dead reckoning successfully in 1927 during his historic 33-hour transatlantic
journey.
Charles Lindbergh

31)She attempted to make the first around-the-world in 1937 using the dead reckoning
technique.
Amelia Earhart

32)Navigation technique wherein the position is deter-mined by measuring the travel


time of an electro magnetic wave as it moves from a transmitter to a receiver.
Radio Navigation

33)A radio Navigation system for terrestrial surface broadcast.


Decca

34)Radio Navigation system that provide global coverage and terrestrial surface
broadcast.
Omega

35)Also a terrestrial surface broadcast.


LORAN

36)Low-orbit satellite broadcast, provides global coverage.


Navy Transit GPS

37)Medium-orbit satellite broadcast also provides global coverage.


Navstar GPS

38)Means of radio navigation in which receivers acquire Coded signals from two pairs of
high-powered, land based transmitters whose locations are precisely known.
LORAN

39)An acronym for Navigation System with Time and Ranging.


Navstar

40)An abbreviation for Global Positioning System.


GPS
Two levels of service or accuracy:
• Standard Positioning Service
• Precise Positioning Service

41)A satellite-based open navigation system which simply means that it is available to
anyone equipped with a GPS receiver.
Navstar GPS
Consists of three segments:
• a space segment
• a ground control segment
• user segment
42)It is when was the Navstar declared as fully operational by the U.S. Air Force Space
Command.
April 27, 1995

43)It was completed in 1994 and is maintained by the United States Air Force.
Navstar Satellite System

44)A positioning and timing service that is available to all GPS users on a continuous,
worldwide basis with no direct change.
Standard Positioning Service

45)Sometimes called Space Segment, consists of 24operational satellites revolving


around Earth in six orbital planes approximately 60° apart with four satellites in each
plane.
Satellite Segment

46)It produces highly accurate timing signals for satellites.


Cesium Atomic Clock

47)A unique integer number that is used to encrypt the signal from that satellite.
Pseudorandom Noise (PRN) Code Number

48) A term associated with a table showing the position of a heavenly body on a number
dates in a regular sequence, in essence, an astronomical almanac.
Ephemeris

49)Error in the receiver’s clock which affects the accuracy of the time-difference
measurement.
Clock Bias Error

50)The Navstar control segment.


It consists of :
• Fixed-location ground based monitor stations
• Master Control Station
• uplink transmitter
Operational Control System

51)It makes standard GPS more accurate. It works by canceling out most of the natural
and man-made errors that creep into normal GPS measurements.
Differential GPS
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SATELLITE COMMUNICATIONS (c25 Tomasi)


CHAPTER 25
SATELLITE COMMUNICATIONS
1)A celestial body that orbits around a planet.
Satellite
2)Man-made satellites that orbit earth, providing a multitude of communication functions
to a wide variety of consumers, including military, governmental, private and commercial
subscriber.
Communications Satellites
3)A satellite radio repeater which a satellite may have many.
Transponder
Consists of :
input Bandlimiting device (BPF)
input low-noise amplifier (LNA)
frequency translator
low level amplifier
output bandpass filter

4)It consists of one or more satellite space vehicles, a ground-based station to control
the operation of the system, and a user network of earth stations that provides the
interface facilities for the transmission and reception of terrestrial communications traffic
through the satellite system.
Satellite System
5)It includes control mechanism that support the payload operation.
Bus
6)The actual user information conveyed through the system.
Payload

7)A type of satellite wherein it simply “bounces” signals from one place to another.
Passive Reflector
8)A natural satellite of Earth, visible by reflection of sunlight having a slightly elliptical
orbit.
Moon
9)Used by passive satellites for tracking and ranging purposes.
Radio Beacon Transmitters
10)Launched by Russia, the first active earth satellite in 1957. It transmitted telemetry
for 21 days.
Sputnik I
11)A type of satellite capable of receiving, amplifying, reshaping, regenerating and
retransmitting information.
Active Satellite
12)Satellite launched by U.S., it transmitted telemetry information for nearly five months.
Explorer I
13)Satellite launched by NASA in 1958, a 150-pound conical-shaped satellite. It was the
first artificial satellite used for relaying terrestrial communications.
Score
14)The first active satellite to simultaneously receive and transmit radio signals.
Telstar I
15)Launched in 1963, and was used for telephone television, facsimile and data
transmission and accomplished the first successful transatlantic video transmission.
Telstar II
16)Launched in February 1963, was the first attempt to place a geosynchronous
satellite into orbit.
Syncom I

17)It was the first commercial telecommunications satellite. It launched from Cape
Kennedy in 1965 and used two transponders. Also called as Early Birds.It stands for
International Telecommunications Sate-llite.
Intelsat I
18)Domestic satellite launched by former Soviet Union in 1966. It means “lighting”.
Molya
19)A German astronomer who discovered the laws thatgoverns satellite motion.
Johannes Kepler
20)It may be simply stated as:
The planets move in ellipses with the sun at one focus
The line joining the sun and the planet sweeps out equal intervals of time.
The square of the time of revolution of a planet divided by the cube of its mean distance
from the sun gives a number that is the same for all planets.
Kepler’s Law
21)The point in an orbit closest to earth
Perigee
22)The point in an orbit farthest from the earth.
Apogee
23)It states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is proportional to the cube of the
mean distance between the primary and the satellite.
Harmonic Law
24)High-altitude earth-orbit satellites operating primarily in the 2-GHz to 18 GHz
frequency spectrum with orbits Satellite 22,300 miles above earth’s surface.
Geosynchronous Satellite
Advantages of Geosynchronous Satellite:
It remain almost stationary in respect to a given earth station.
Available to earth within their shadows 100% of the time.
No need to switch from one geosynchronous satellite to another as they orbit overhead
The effects of Doppler shift are negligible
Disadvantages of geosynchronous Satellite:
It requires sophisticated and heavy propulsion device onboard to keep them in a fixed
orbit
Much longer propagation delays
Requires higher transmit power and more sensitive receivers because of the longer
distances and greater path loss.
High precision spacemanship is required.
25)The angle between the earth’s equatorial plane and the orbital plane of a satellite
measured counter clockwise at the point in the orbit where it crosses the equatorial
plane traveling from south to north called the ascending node.
Angle of Inclination
26)The point where the polar or inclines orbit crosses the equatorial plane travelling
from north to south
Descending Node
27)The line joining the ascending and descending node
Line of Nodes
28)It is when the satellite rotates in an orbit directl above the equator, usually in a
circular path.
Equatorial Orbit

29)It is when the satellite rotates in path that takes over the North and the South poles
in an orbit that is close to earth and passes over and very close to both the North and
South Poles.
Polar Orbit
30)The noise power normalized to a 1 Hz bandwidth, or the noise power present in a
1Hz bandwidth
Noise Density
31)It identifies the system parameters and is used to determine the projected carrier-to-
noise ratio and energy Bit-to-noise density ratio at both the satellite and earth station
receivers for a given modulation scheme.
Link Budget
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Tuesday, February 1, 2011


Satellite Communications (Blake C20)

TRUE/FALSE

1. Communications satellites could be just passive reflectors.

ANS: T

2. A typical communications satellite can cover half of the earth's surface.

ANS: F
3. Most communications satellites are in a geosynchronous orbit.

ANS: T

4. Most communications satellites are in a geostationary orbit.

ANS: T

5. "Geostationary" means the same thing as "geosynchronous".

ANS: F

6. A geosynchronous orbit is about 3,600 km above the equator.

ANS: F

7. Signals from satellites in a geosynchronous orbit suffer a great deal of free-space attenuation.

ANS: T

8. It is easier to reach a geosynchronous satellite from higher northern latitudes.

ANS: F

9. At the frequencies satellites use, the ionosphere has negligible effect.

ANS: T

10. The closer a satellite is to earth, the faster the velocity it needs to stay in orbit.

ANS: T

11. In the Northern Hemisphere, an antenna must face south to reach a satellite.

ANS: T

12. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the Southern Hemisphere.

ANS: F

13. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the South Pole.

ANS: T

14. Typically, ground antennas must be movable to "track" a geosynchronous satellite.


ANS: F

15. The azimuth and elevation needed for an antenna to "see" a certain satellite depend on the location
of the antenna on the ground.

ANS: T

16. The power in the uplink signal to a typical communications satellite is in the range of 50 to 240
watts.

ANS: F

17. The power in the downlink signal from a typical communications satellite is in the range of 10 to
250 watts per transponder.

ANS: T

18. The EIRP of a satellite depends on the gain of its antenna.

ANS: T

19. The EIRP of a satellite is the same anywhere reception is possible.

ANS: F

20. It takes over half a second for a signal to go from point A to point B and back again via
geostationary satellite.

ANS: T

21. The useful life of a communications satellite is over when it runs out of fuel.

ANS: T

22. The maximum useful life of a communications satellite is about three years.

ANS: F

23. Using the C band for satellites may conflict with terrestrial microwave communications.

ANS: T

24. Ku-band antennas can be smaller than C-band antennas.

ANS: T
25. Conventional analog satellite transponders cannot be used with digital data signals.

ANS: F

26. It is possible to transmit signals from one satellite to another.

ANS: T

27. In practice, the beamwidth of a parabolic reflector is independent of its diameter.

ANS: F

28. Communications satellites are particularly well suited to long-distance telephony.

ANS: F

29. With TDMA, more than one hundred earth stations can use the same satellite transponder.

ANS: T

30. LEO communications satellite systems have been a great commercial success.

ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about:


a. 3,578 km c. 357,800 km
b. 35,780 km d. depends on satellite velocity

ANS: B

2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,:
a. apogee and perigee c. uplink and downlink
b. perigee and apogee d. downlink and uplink

ANS: A

3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its:


a. earth station c. footprint
b. downlink d. plate

ANS: C
4. The velocity required to stay in orbit:
a. is constant
b. is zero (freefall)
c. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth
d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth

ANS: D

5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called:


a. azimuth and elevation c. declination and elevation
b. azimuth and declination d. apogee and perigee

ANS: A

6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range:


a. 5 to 25 watts c. 500 to 2500 watts
b. 50 to 250 watts d. depends on its orbit

ANS: B

7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
a. 101 watts c. 103 watts
b. 102 watts d. 104 watts

ANS: C

8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of:


a. transponders c. solar cells
b. batteries d. all of the above

ANS: A

9. "Station-keeping" refers to:


a. antenna maintenance c. orbital adjustments
b. power-level adjustments d. none of the above

ANS: C

10. DBS stands for:


a. decibels of signal c. direct-broadcast system
b. down-beam signal d. direct-broadcast satellite

ANS: D

11. LNA stands for:


a. low-noise amplifier c. low-noise amplitude
b. low north angle d. low-noise array

ANS: A

12. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called:


a. backdown c. power-down
b. backoff d. EIRP drop

ANS: B

13. TVRO stands for:


a. television receive only c. television remote origin
b. television repeater only d. none of the above

ANS: A

14. TDMA stands for:


a. transponder-directed multiple antennas c. time-division multiple access
b. television distribution master antenna d. transmit delay minimum aperture

ANS: C

15. VSAT stands for:


a. video satellite c. very small antenna terminal
b. video signal antenna terminal d. very small aperture terminal

ANS: D

16. On the uplink from a terminal, a VSAT system uses:


a. high power to a small antenna c. low power to a large antenna
b. low power to a small antenna d. LEO satellites
ANS: B

17. A typical VSAT system is configured as a:


a. star c. ring
b. mesh d. repeater

ANS: A

18. LEO stands for:


a. long elliptic orbit c. lateral earth orbit
b. low-earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit

ANS: B

19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require:


a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power
b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above

ANS: A

20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are:


a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz
b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above

ANS: B

COMPLETION

1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit.

ANS: 24

2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite.

ANS: uplink

3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station.

ANS: downlink

4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the
equator.
ANS: geostationary

5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites.

ANS: orbital

6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth.

ANS: 35,780

7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts
to.

ANS: footprint

8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape.

ANS: elliptical

9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth.

ANS: perigee

10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth.

ANS: apogee

11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west.

ANS: azimuth

12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface.

ANS: elevation

13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis.

ANS: declination

14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz.

ANS: Ku

15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________
milliseconds.
ANS: 500

16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites.

ANS: transponder

17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________.

ANS: diameter

18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration.

ANS: star

19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________.

ANS: failure

20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas.

ANS: larger

SHORT ANSWER

1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The
loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a
noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T.

ANS:
25 dB

2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature.

ANS:
139 K.

3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km
away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has
a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver.

ANS:
38 dB

SEMICONDUCTOR…
CHAPTER 1 INTRODUCTION TO SEMICONDUCTORS

CHAPTER 1
INTRODUCTION TO SEMICONDUCTORS

1. The forces between the opposite charges form an


Electric field

2. What is the least accurate approximation of a diode that can be represented by a simple switch?
The Ideal diode model

3. The best conductors are the _________ element materials


Single
4. Occurs when a conduction-band electron loses energy and falls back into a hole in the valence
band
Recombination

5. Refers to the fact that the region near the pn junction is depleted of charge carriers due to
diffusion across the junction.
Depletion

6. The condition that essentially prevents current through the diode


Reverse bias

7. The absence of an electron in the valence band of an atom


Hole

8. The removal or addition of an electron from or to a neutral atom so that the resulting atom has a
net positive or negative charge.
Ionization

9. The resistance of a forward-biased diode is called the


Dynamic or ac resistance

10. One that has no impurities


Intrinsic crystal

11. Most good insulators are ________ rather than the single-element materials
Compounds

12. To increase the number of conduction-band electrons in intrinsic silicon, ___________


impurity atoms are added.
Pentavalent

13. To increase the number of holes in intrinsic silicon, __________ impurity atoms are needed.
Trivalent
14. A ___________ material consists of silicon atom and trivalent impurity atoms such as boron
p-type

15. A silicon material that consists of silicon atoms and pentavalent impurity atoms such as
antimony.
N- type

16. What is the value of the reverse current of practical diode model?
0

17. Semiconductor atoms bond together in a symmetrical pattern to form a solid material called
___________.
crystal

TELEPHONE…

CELLULAR TELEPHONE SYSTEM (C20 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 20
CELLULAR TELEPHONE SYSTEM

1)Stands for Standard Cellular Telephone Service


CTS

2)An acronym for Personal Communications System.


PCS

3)Stands for Personal Communications Satellite System.


PCSS

4)An acronym for Advanced Mobile Telephone System.


AMPS

5)Proposed the cellular telephone concept in 1971.


Bell Telephone Laboratories

6)A standard cellular telephone service (CTS) initially placed into operation on
Oct. 13, 1983.
AMPS
7)It was used by AMPS cellular telephones with a usable audio-frequency band
from 300 Hz to 3 KHz and a maximum frequency deviation of + 12 KHz for
100% modulation.
Narrowband Frequency Modulation (NBFM)

8)Correspond to an approximate bandwidth of 30 KHz.


Carson’s Rule

9)A transmission with simultaneous transmission in both direction.


Full Duplex (FDX) or Duplexing

10)It is used in AMPS and occurs when two distinct frequency bands are
provided to each user.
Frequency-division Duplexing

11)A special device used in each mobile unit to allow simultaneous


transmission and reception on duplex channels.
Duplexer

12)Transmissions from base station to mobile units.


Forward Links

13)Transmissions from mobile units to base stations.


Reverse Links

14)Another name for forward links.


Down Links

15)Another term for reverse link.


Uplink

16)Additional frequencies of 10 MHz to the original40 MHz band which


increased the number of simplex channels by 166 for a total of 832 (416 Full
duplex)
Expanded Spectrum

17)Specified frequencies in a small geographic area.


Cellular Geographic Serving Areas (CGSA)

18)Defines geographic areas used by marketing agencies.


Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area

19)A technique used by standard telephone subscriber to access the AMPS


system.
Frequency Division Multiple Access
20)A 34 bit binary code which in the U.S. represents the standard 10-digit
telephone number.
Mobile Identification Number (MIN)

21)A 34 bit binary code permanently assigned to each mobile unit.


Electronic Serial Number (ESN)

22)Stands for Vehicle Identification Number.


VIN

23)An acronym for Network Interface Card.


NIC

24)A four bit code which indicates whether the terminal has access to all 832
AMPS channel or only 666.
Station Class Mark (SCM)

25)A 15 bit binary code used by FCC to an operating company when it issues it
a license To provide AMPS
System Identifier (SID)

26)It is one of the three analog frequencies (5970 Hz, 6000 Hz, or 6030 Hz)
that helps mo
bile system distinguish one base station from a neighboring base station.
Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT)

27)One of four binary codes, also helps mobile system distinguish one base
station from a neighboring base station.
Digital Color Code (DCC)

28)One set of channels dedicated for exchanging control information between


mobile units and base stations.
Control Channels

29)Also termed as Voice channel, used for propagating actual voice


conversations or
subscriber data.
User Channel

30)Another name of control channels.


Setup or Paging Channel

31)Sometimes called as Camped.


Locked
32)A sequence of alternating 1s and 0s.
Dotting Scheme

33)A unique sequence of 1s and 0s that enables the receiver to instantly


acquire synchronization.
Synchronization Word

34)It controls or command mobile units to do a particular task when the


mobile unit has not been assigned a voice channel.
Mobile Station Control Messages

35)It is used to indicate the current status of the reversecontrol channel.


Busy-idle Bits

36)It contains the following:


• System parameter overhead messages
• global action overhead messages
• control filter messages
Typical mobile-unit control messages:
• Initial voice channel designation messages
• directed retry messages
• alert messages
• change power messages
Overhead Message

37)Transmitted at a 10-kbps rate.


Control data includes:
• page responses
• access request
• registration requests
Control Data

38)Transmission of voice.
Blank

39)Data transmission.
Burst

40)The entity of SS7 interoffice protocol that distinguishes the physical


components of
the switching network.
Switching Network:
• Signal Service Point
• Signal Control Point
• Signal Transfer Point
Intelligent Network

41)A family of mobile or portable radio comunications services which provides


servIces to the individuals and business and is integrated with a variety of
competing networks.
Differences in PCS and cellular telephone system:
• Smaller Size
• all digital
• additional features
Personal Communications System (PCS)

42)Acronym for Personal Communications Network.


PCN

43)
It is assigned to everyone which is stored the on the SS7 network.
Personal Telephone Number

44)It determines where and how the call should be directed.


Artificial Intelligence Network (AIN)

45)A database that stores information about the user,including home


subscription information and what supplementary services the user is
subscribed to.
Home Location Register (HLR)

46)A database that stores information pertaining to theidentification and type


of equipment that exists in the mobile unit.
Equipment Identification Registry (EIR)

47)It allows all calls to pass through the network to the subscriber except for a
minimal
number of telephone numbers that can be blocked.
Available Mode

48) The PCS equivalent of caller ID.


Screen Mode

49)All calls except those specified by the subscriber are automatically


forwarded to a forwarding destination without ringing the subscriber’s
handset.
Private Mode

50)No calls are allowed to pass through to the subscriber.


Unavailable Mode
51)PCS operating in the 1900 MHz range.
PCS 1900

52)Interference avoidance scheme which uses voice companding to provide


synthetic
voice channel quieting.
Interference (MRI)

53)A narrowband AMPS system that increased the capacity of the AMPS
system in large
cellular market.
N-AMPS

54)It is developed with the intent of supporting a higher user density within a
fixed
bandwidth frequency spectrum.
United States Digital Cellular

55)Cellular telephone systems that use digital modulation.


Digital cellular

56)Allows one mobile unit to use a channel at the same time by further
dividing
transmissions within each cellular channel.
Time-division Multiple Accessing (TDMA)

57)A database that stores information about subscriber in a particular MTSO


serving area, such as whether the unit is on or off
Visitor Location Register(VLR)

58)Technique used that allows more mobile-unit subscribers to use a system


at virtually the Same time within a given geographical area.
Time-Sharing Channels

59)It stands for Electronics Industries Association and Telecommunications


Industry Association.
EIA/TIA

60)It specifies that a mobile station complying with the IS-54 standard must be
capable of operating in either the analog AMPS or the digital (USDC) mode for
voice transmissions.
Dual Mode

61)It is often called North American Time Division Multiple Accessing.


IS-136.2
62)It was introduced to provide PSK rather than FSK on dedicated USDC
control channels to in crease the control data rates and provide additional
specialized services such as paging and short messaging between private
mobile user groups.
IS-54 Rev.C

63)Allows for brief paging-type messages and Short e-mail messages that can
be read on the mobile phone’s display and entered using the keypad.
Short Message Service

64)It was developed to provide a host of new features and services,


positioning itself in a competitive within the newer PCS systems.
IS-136

65)It is used by mobile units to request access to the cellular telephone


system. It is a
unidirectional channel specified for transmissions from mobile-base units only.
Random Access Channel (RACH)

66)It is used to transmit information from base stations to specific mobile


stations.
SMS point-to-point Paging and access response Channel (SPACH)

67)
It is dedicated to delivering pages and orders.
It transmit :
• paging messages
• message-waiting messages
• user alerting messages
• call history count updates
• shared secret data updates
Paging Channel (PCH)

68)A logical subchannel of SPACH used to carry assignments to another


resource or other responses to the mobile station’s access attempt.
Access Response Channel (ARCH)

69)It is used to deliver short point-to-point messages to a specific mobile


station.
SMS Channel (SMSCH)

70)It refers to : F-BCCH, E-BCCH and S-BCCH logical sub channels.


Channel (BCCH)

71)Broadcasts digital control channel structure parameters.


Fast Broadcasts Control channel (F-BBCH)

72)Carries less critical broadcast information than F-BCCH intended for mobile
units.
Extended Broadcasts Control Channel (E-BBCH)

73)Individual mobile units. A logical channels used for sending short


messages.
SMS Broadcasts Control channel (F-BBCH)

74)Stands for Digital speech interpolation.


DSI

75)
Carries digital voice information and consists of RDTC and FDTC.
Digital Traffic Channel(DTC)

76)It consists of an eight bit digital voice color code number between 1 and
255 appended with four Coded Digital Verification
Color Code

77)Mobile-assisted handoff.
MAHO
78)A blank-and burst type of transmission that replaces digitized speech
information with control and supervision messages with in a subscriber’s time
slot.
Fast Associated Control Channel (FACCH)

79)A special speech coder.


Vector sum exciter linear predictive (VSLP)

80)A special microprocessor that is implemented on the telephone handset.


Digital Signal Processor (DSP)

81)They are transmitted when a mobile unit begins operating in a larger


diameter cell.
Shortened Burst

82)An access method used with standard analog AMPS which use frequency
channelization approach to frequency spectrum management.
FDMA

83)It allows users to differentiate from one another by a unique code rather
than a frequency or time assignment.
Code Division Multiple Accessing (CDMA)
84)Stands for Qualcom 9600bps Code-Excited Linear Predictive coder.
QCELP

85)The concept is to break the message into fixed sized blocks of data with
each block transmitted in sequence except on a different carrier.
Frequency Hopping

86)high bit pseudorandom code is added to a low-bit rate information signal to


generate a high bit rate pseudorandom signal closely resembling noise that
contains both the original data signal and the pseudo random code must be
known.
Direct-Sequence

87)
It is a study group which is sometimes referred to as Pan-European cellular
system. This is now known as the Global System for Mobile
Communications.
Classification of GSM telephone services:
• Bearer Services
• teleservices
• supplementary services
Three primary subsystem of GSM:
• Base Station Subsystem
• Network Switching Subsystem
• Operational Support Subsystem
Groupe Special Mobile (GSM)

88)All-digital data Network.


Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)

89)Sometimes known as radio subsystem, provides and manages radio


frequency transmission paths between mobile units and the mobile switching
center (MSC)
Base Station Subsystem (BSS)

90)It manages switching functions for the system and allows MSCs to
communicate with other telephone networks.
Network Switching Subsystem (NSS)

91)The available forward and reverse frequency bands are subdivided into 200
KHz wide voice channels.
Absolute Radio-Frequency Channel Numbers (ARFCN)

92)It provides the vehicle for a new generation of wireless telephone services
called Personal Communications Satellite System (PCSS)
Mobile Satellite Systems (MSS)

93)It uses low earth-orbit (LEO) and medium earth orbit and MEO thar
communicates diretly with small, low-powered mobile telephone units.
key providers in PCSS market:
• American Mobile Satellite
Communications (AMSC)
• Celsat
• Comsat
• Constellation Communications (ARIES)
• Ellipsat (Ellipso)
• INMARSAT
• LEOSAT
• Loral/qualcomm (global star)
• TMI communications
• TWR (Odysse)
• Iridium LLC
Personal Communications Satellite System (PCSS)
94)An international consortium owned by a host of prominent companies,
agencies and governments.
Iridium LC

95)The largest commercial venture undertaken in the history of the world.


Iridium Project

96)A satellite based wireless personal communications network designed to


permit a wide range of mobile telephone services, including voice, data,
networking,facsimile and paging.
Iridium

97)FCC issued a report and order Dockett # 92-166 defining L band frequency
sharing for subscriber units in the 1616 MHZ to 1626.5 MHz band.
October 14, 1994

98)L-band subscriber-to-satellite voice links.


1.616 GHz to 1.6265 GHz

99)Ka-band gateway downlinks.


19.4 GHz to 19.6 GHz

100)Ka-band gateway uplinks


29.1 GHz to 29.3 GHz

101)Ka-intersatellite cross-links
23.18 GHz to 23.38 GHz
TELEVISION…

Television (Blake C19)

TRUE/FALSE

1. Video systems form pictures by a scanning process.

ANS: T

2. The NTSC system is used in North America.

ANS: T

3. The NTSC system is used in Europe.

ANS: F

4. The NTSC system is used in Japan.

ANS: T

5. The PAL system is no longer used in much of the world.

ANS: F

6. The SECAM system is used in Europe.

ANS: T

7. In North America, TV uses 60 frames a second.

ANS: F

8. NTSC systems use an interlaced scan.

ANS: T

9. The standard TV aspect ratio is 5:3.

ANS: F
10. The electron beam in a TV CRT is blanked during horizontal retrace.

ANS: T

11. The electron beam in a TV CRT is blanked during vertical retrace.

ANS: T

12. The standard analog TV signal is called composite video.

ANS: T

13. A few commercial TV stations broadcast RGB video.

ANS: F

14. Most color monitors for personal computers use RGB video.

ANS: T

15. The luminance signal controls the brightness of a scan line.

ANS: T

16. The standard synchronization for TV is called positive sync.

ANS: F

17. The sync pulses are said to be "blacker than black".

ANS: T

18. The negative peak of a video signal occurs during a sync pulse.

ANS: T

19. The peak video signal occurs at the blanking level.

ANS: F

20. The duration of the vertical blanking pulse identifies which picture field is present.

ANS: F

21. Closed-caption signals can be sent during the vertical blanking time.
ANS: T

22. Horizontal and vertical resolution in a TV system are determined in the same way.

ANS: F

23. The resolution seen by a viewer depends to a certain extent on the TV receiver.

ANS: T

24. Horizontal resolution is equal to the number of visible scan lines.

ANS: F

25. Resolution is proportional to bandwidth.

ANS: T

26. Because of the way people perceive color, any color can be made with red, green, and blue.

ANS: T

27. NTSC color television is not compatible with NTSC monochrome television.

ANS: F

28. In an NTSC color TV system, luminance is derived from the RGB signals.

ANS: T

29. Horizontal resolution for color in NTSC is much less than it is for luminance.

ANS: T

30. NTSC uses a suppressed-carrier system to add color information to the video signal.

ANS: T

31. NTSC uses a type of amplitude modulation for the video signal.

ANS: T

32. A standard video broadcast channel is about 4.5 MHz wide.

ANS: F
33. The audio signal in NTSC video uses FM.

ANS: T

34. Color NTSC receivers use a "color-burst" oscillator to create the color signals.

ANS: F

35. A standard broadcast video signal reaches zero level twice per frame.

ANS: F

36. An analog television receiver uses a type of superheterodyne circuit.

ANS: T

37. The accelerating voltage applied to the CRT in a TV receiver is several thousand volts.

ANS: T

38. Color TVs use a higher accelerating voltage than do monochrome receivers.

ANS: T

39. The CRTs commonly used in TV receivers use electrostatic deflection.

ANS: F

40. The "yoke" is part of the deflection circuit.

ANS: T

41. Color TV receivers do not have a "raster".

ANS: F

42. There is very high voltage at the flyback transformer in a TV receiver.

ANS: T

43. Most of the supply voltages in a TV receiver come from the horizontal output transformer.

ANS: T

44. A typical color CRT contains three electron guns.


ANS: T

45. A typical monochrome CRT contains a "shadow mask".

ANS: F

46. In a color CRT, "purity" means each electron beam hits the correct color phosphor.

ANS: T

47. "Aquadag" is a color phosphor.

ANS: F

48. "Ultor" is a color phosphor.

ANS: F

49. In a CATV system, the main antenna is at the "head end".

ANS: T

50. Like a PSTN central office, the typical CATV system is configured as a star network.

ANS: F

51. Noninterlaced scanning is called "progressive" scanning.

ANS: T

52. HDTV uses the same aspect ratio as standard NTSC.

ANS: F

53. An HDTV signal cannot fit into the bandwidth of a standard broadcast TV channel.

ANS: F

54. Digital encoding and compression play a significant role in HDTV.

ANS: T

55. The FCC has set the phase-out of analog TV broadcasting for the year 2006.

ANS: T
56. Color CRTs emit X rays.

ANS: T

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. NTSC stands for:


a. National Television Systems Commission
b. National Television Systems Committee
c. National Television Systems Council
d. Nippon Television Systems Commission

ANS: B

2. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the:


a. FCC c. EIA
b. IRE d. IEEE

ANS: C

3. RGB stands for:


a. Red-Green Burst c. Red-Green Bandwidth
b. Red-Green Brightness d. Red-Green-Blue

ANS: D

4. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is:


a. 525 c. 1024
b. 625 d. 1250

ANS: A

5. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is:


a. 25 c. 50
b. 30 d. 60

ANS: B

6. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is:


a. 25 c. 50
b. 30 d. 60
ANS: D

7. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is:


a. 3 : 4 c. 525 : 625
b. 4 : 3 d. 625 : 525

ANS: B

8. Luminance refers to:


a. brightness c. chroma
b. contrast d. raster

ANS: A

9. Luminance is measured in:


a. foot-candles c. IRE units
b. lumins d. NTSC units

ANS: C

10. The maximum luminance level is called:


a. max white c. all white
b. peak white d. whiter than white

ANS: B

11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of:


a. white c. whiter than white
b. black d. blacker than black

ANS: B

12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of:


a. white c. whiter than white
b. black d. blacker than black

ANS: D
13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to:
a. maintain horizontal sync c. equalize the DC level
b. maintain vertical sync d. all of the above

ANS: A

14. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution:


a. is greater than vertical resolution
b. is about the same as vertical resolution
c. is less than vertical resolution
d. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines

ANS: B

15. The smallest picture element is called a:


a. dot c. pixel
b. pic d. none of the above

ANS: C

16. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to:


a. luminance signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component
b. composite color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component
c. composite video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video color
component
d. a method of demodulating stereo sound

ANS: A

17. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is:
a. much greater c. much less
b. about the same d. resolution does not apply to color

ANS: C

18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM

ANS: B
19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM

ANS: D

20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM

ANS: C

21. The function of the "color burst" is to:


a. detect the presence of a color video signal
b. regenerate the color sub-carrier
c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line
d. all of the above

ANS: D

22. SAP stands for:


a. separate audio program c. sync amplitude pulse
b. separate audio pulse d. sync audio pulse

ANS: A

23. The horizontal output transformer is also called:


a. the isolation transformer c. the flyback transformer
b. the video transformer d. the yoke

ANS: C

24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is:
a. about the same c. much lower
b. much higher d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration

ANS: B

25. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done:


a. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal
b. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal
c. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal
d. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal

ANS: A

26. AFPC stands for:


a. allowed full picture chroma c. automatic frequency and picture control
b. automatic frequency and phase control d. none of the above

ANS: B

COMPLETION

1. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a
TV.

ANS: Aquadag

2. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953.

ANS: NTSC

3. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process.

ANS: scanning

4. During the horizontal blanking interval, the electron beam ____________________ from right to
left.

ANS: retraces

5. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal.

ANS: composite

6. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height.

ANS: aspect

7. Brightness information is called ____________________.

ANS:
luma
luminance

8. Color information is called ____________________.

ANS:
chroma
chrominance

9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________.

ANS: porch

10. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse.

ANS: position

11. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds, not including blanking.

ANS: 62.5

12. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds.

ANS: 10

13. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds.

ANS: 1.3

14. Picture elements are called ____________________.

ANS: pixels

15. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________.

ANS: 525

16. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________.

ANS: green

17. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz.

ANS: 3.58

18. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program.


ANS: separate

19. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________.

ANS: ultor

20. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV.

ANS: 20 to 30

21. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture.

ANS: phosphor

22. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer.

ANS: flyback

23. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter.

ANS: comb

24. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a
monochrome signal.

ANS: killer

25. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________.

ANS: dBmV

26. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end.

ANS: head

27. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases.

ANS: vectorscope

28. Color intensity is called ____________________.

ANS: saturation

29. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue.
ANS: phase

30. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct
color phosphor dots.

ANS: purity

31. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct
triad of phosphor dots.

ANS: convergence

THYRISTORS…

CHAPTER 11 THYRISTORS

CHAPTER 11
THYRISTORS

1. It is like the four-layer diode but with the added gate connection
SCR

2. This is the maximum continuous anode current that the device can withstand in the conduction
state under specifies conditions.
Average forward current

3. What bilateral thyristor functions basically like two parallel SCRs turned in opposite directions
with a common gate terminal?
Triac

4. ____________ does not belong to the thyristor family because it does not have a four-layer type
of construction.
UJT

5. It can be used a trigger device for SCRs and triacs.


UJT

6. It is a type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the
anode exceeds the voltage at the gate.
PUT

7. A region of forward bias in which the device has a very high forward resistance and is in the off
state
Forward-blocking region

8. A method for turning-off the SCR that basically requires momentarily forcing current through
the SCR in the direction opposite to the forward conduction
Forced commutation

9. The value of gate current necessary to switch the SCR from the forward-blocking region to the
forward-conduction region under specified conditions.
Gate Trigger Current

10. A four-layer semiconductor device that operates essentially as does the conventional SCR
except that it can also be light-triggered.
LASCR

11. Functions basically like two parallel 4- layer diodes turned in opposite directions.
Diac

12. A diac with gate terminal


Triac

13. A four-terminal thyristor that has two gate terminals that are used t trigger the device on and
off
Silicon Controlled Device (SCS)

14. A type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the
anode exceeds the voltage at the gate.
Programmable Unijunction Transistor (PUT)

15. The characteristic of a UJT that determines its turn-on point


Standoff-ratio

16. The four-layer diode is also called


Shockley diode

17. The region that corresponds to the on condition of the SCR where there is forward current from
anode to cathode through the very low resistance of the SCR
Forward_ conduction region

18. The SCR can only be turned on using its _________ terminal
Gate

19. Acts as the trigger source in the LASCRs


Light

20. A thyristor that conducts when the voltage across its terminals exceeds the breakover potential
4-layer diode

21. Basic methods of for turning off an SCR


Anode current interruption and forced commutation

TOMASI…

SATELLITE MULTIPLE ACCESSING ARRANGEMENTS (c26)

CHAPTER 26
SATELLITE MULTIPLE ACCESSING ARRANGEMENTS
1)
Also called as Multiple Destination, It implies that more than one user has access to one
or more radio channels within a satellite communications channel.
Multiple Accessing
Multiple Accessing Arrangement:
• Frequency-division multiple accessing (FDMA)
• Time-division multiple accessing (TDMA)
• Code-division multiple accessing (CDMA)

2)A given number of the available voice-band channels from each earth station are
assigned a dedicated destination.
Pre-assignment(dedicated)

3)Voice channels are assigned on an as-needed basis.


Demand Assignment

4)The method of assigning adjacent channels different electromagnetic polarizations


and is possible by using orthogonal polarization and spacing adjacent channels 20 MHz
apart.
Frequency Reuse

5)Eskimo word meaning “little brother”.


Anik

6)Domestic Satellites operated by Telsat Canada.


Anik-E communications Satellite

7)A method of multiple accessing where a given RF bandwidth is divided into smaller
frequency bands.
FDMA

8)Multiple channel per carrier formats assigned and remain fixed for a long Period of
time.
Fixed-Assignment, Multiple Access (FAMA)

9)Assigning carrier frequency on temporary basis using a statistical assignment


process.
Demand-Assignment
Multiple Access

10)An acronym for Single-channel-per-carrier PCM multiple Access Demand-


assignment Equipment.
SPADE

11)Stands for Single-Carrier-Per-Channel.


SCPC

12)A time division-multiplexed transmission that is frequency division multiplexed.


Common Signaling Channel (CSC)

13)The predominant Multiple-access method of time-division multiplexing digitally


modulated carriers between participating earth stations within a satellite network
through a common satellite transponder.
TDMA

14)An RF-to-RF repeater that simply receives the earth station transmissions, amplifies
them, and then re-transmit them in a downlink beam that is received by all other
participating station.
Transponder

15)It is where transmissions from all earth stations are synchronized.


Reference Burst

16)It is where all receiving stations recover a frequency and phase coherent carrier for
PSK demodulation
Carrier Recovery Sequence (CRS)

17)An acronym for Conference of European Postal and Telecommunications


Administrations, is commonly used TDMA frame format for digital satellite system
CEPT

18)Sometimes referred to as Spread-Spectrum Multipleentire allocated bandwidth


Access, the transmissions can spread throughout the
Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
19)A unique binary word that each earth station’s transmissions are encoded.
Chip Code

20)It compare two signals and recover the original data.


Correlator

21)It assigns an individual terrestrial channel (TC) to a particular satellite channel (SC)
for the duration of the call.
Digital non interpolated Interface

22)It assigns a terrestrial channel to a satellite channel only when speech energy is
present on the TC.
Digital Speech Interpolated Interface

23)A form of analog channel compression that has been used for sub oceanic cables for
many years.
Time-Assignment Speech Interpolation (TASI)

24)The art or science of plotting, ascertaining or directing the course of movements, in


other words, knowing where you are and being able to find your way around.
Navigation

25)It is the most ancient and rudimentary method of navigation and simply continuing to
travel about until you reach your destination, assuming of course that you have one.
Wandering

26)Earliest effective means of navigation wherein direction and distance are determined
from precisely timed sightings of celestial bodies, including the stars and moon.
Celestial Navigation

27)Method of navigation by means of fixing a position and direction with respect to


familiar, significant landmarks such as railroad tracks, water towers, barns, mountains
and bodies of water.
Piloting

28)A navigation technique that determines position by extrapolating a series of


measured velocity increments.
Dead Reckoning

29)The term derived from the word “deduced” and not necessarily from the fate of the
people who used the technique.
Dead

30)He used dead reckoning successfully in 1927 during his historic 33-hour transatlantic
journey.
Charles Lindbergh

31)She attempted to make the first around-the-world in 1937 using the dead reckoning
technique.
Amelia Earhart

32)Navigation technique wherein the position is deter-mined by measuring the travel


time of an electro magnetic wave as it moves from a transmitter to a receiver.
Radio Navigation

33)A radio Navigation system for terrestrial surface broadcast.


Decca

34)Radio Navigation system that provide global coverage and terrestrial surface
broadcast.
Omega

35)Also a terrestrial surface broadcast.


LORAN

36)Low-orbit satellite broadcast, provides global coverage.


Navy Transit GPS

37)Medium-orbit satellite broadcast also provides global coverage.


Navstar GPS

38)Means of radio navigation in which receivers acquire Coded signals from two pairs of
high-powered, land based transmitters whose locations are precisely known.
LORAN

39)An acronym for Navigation System with Time and Ranging.


Navstar

40)An abbreviation for Global Positioning System.


GPS
Two levels of service or accuracy:
• Standard Positioning Service
• Precise Positioning Service

41)A satellite-based open navigation system which simply means that it is available to
anyone equipped with a GPS receiver.
Navstar GPS
Consists of three segments:
• a space segment
• a ground control segment
• user segment
42)It is when was the Navstar declared as fully operational by the U.S. Air Force Space
Command.
April 27, 1995

43)It was completed in 1994 and is maintained by the United States Air Force.
Navstar Satellite System

44)A positioning and timing service that is available to all GPS users on a continuous,
worldwide basis with no direct change.
Standard Positioning Service

45)Sometimes called Space Segment, consists of 24operational satellites revolving


around Earth in six orbital planes approximately 60° apart with four satellites in each
plane.
Satellite Segment

46)It produces highly accurate timing signals for satellites.


Cesium Atomic Clock

47)A unique integer number that is used to encrypt the signal from that satellite.
Pseudorandom Noise (PRN) Code Number

48) A term associated with a table showing the position of a heavenly body on a number
dates in a regular sequence, in essence, an astronomical almanac.
Ephemeris

49)Error in the receiver’s clock which affects the accuracy of the time-difference
measurement.
Clock Bias Error

50)The Navstar control segment.


It consists of :
• Fixed-location ground based monitor stations
• Master Control Station
• uplink transmitter
Operational Control System

51)It makes standard GPS more accurate. It works by canceling out most of the natural
and man-made errors that creep into normal GPS measurements.
Differential GPS
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SATELLITE COMMUNICATIONS (c25 Tomasi)


CHAPTER 25
SATELLITE COMMUNICATIONS
1)A celestial body that orbits around a planet.
Satellite
2)Man-made satellites that orbit earth, providing a multitude of communication functions
to a wide variety of consumers, including military, governmental, private and commercial
subscriber.
Communications Satellites
3)A satellite radio repeater which a satellite may have many.
Transponder
Consists of :
input Bandlimiting device (BPF)
input low-noise amplifier (LNA)
frequency translator
low level amplifier
output bandpass filter

4)It consists of one or more satellite space vehicles, a ground-based station to control
the operation of the system, and a user network of earth stations that provides the
interface facilities for the transmission and reception of terrestrial communications traffic
through the satellite system.
Satellite System
5)It includes control mechanism that support the payload operation.
Bus
6)The actual user information conveyed through the system.
Payload

7)A type of satellite wherein it simply “bounces” signals from one place to another.
Passive Reflector
8)A natural satellite of Earth, visible by reflection of sunlight having a slightly elliptical
orbit.
Moon
9)Used by passive satellites for tracking and ranging purposes.
Radio Beacon Transmitters
10)Launched by Russia, the first active earth satellite in 1957. It transmitted telemetry
for 21 days.
Sputnik I
11)A type of satellite capable of receiving, amplifying, reshaping, regenerating and
retransmitting information.
Active Satellite
12)Satellite launched by U.S., it transmitted telemetry information for nearly five months.
Explorer I
13)Satellite launched by NASA in 1958, a 150-pound conical-shaped satellite. It was the
first artificial satellite used for relaying terrestrial communications.
Score
14)The first active satellite to simultaneously receive and transmit radio signals.
Telstar I
15)Launched in 1963, and was used for telephone television, facsimile and data
transmission and accomplished the first successful transatlantic video transmission.
Telstar II
16)Launched in February 1963, was the first attempt to place a geosynchronous
satellite into orbit.
Syncom I

17)It was the first commercial telecommunications satellite. It launched from Cape
Kennedy in 1965 and used two transponders. Also called as Early Birds.It stands for
International Telecommunications Sate-llite.
Intelsat I
18)Domestic satellite launched by former Soviet Union in 1966. It means “lighting”.
Molya
19)A German astronomer who discovered the laws thatgoverns satellite motion.
Johannes Kepler
20)It may be simply stated as:
The planets move in ellipses with the sun at one focus
The line joining the sun and the planet sweeps out equal intervals of time.
The square of the time of revolution of a planet divided by the cube of its mean distance
from the sun gives a number that is the same for all planets.
Kepler’s Law
21)The point in an orbit closest to earth
Perigee
22)The point in an orbit farthest from the earth.
Apogee
23)It states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is proportional to the cube of the
mean distance between the primary and the satellite.
Harmonic Law
24)High-altitude earth-orbit satellites operating primarily in the 2-GHz to 18 GHz
frequency spectrum with orbits Satellite 22,300 miles above earth’s surface.
Geosynchronous Satellite
Advantages of Geosynchronous Satellite:
It remain almost stationary in respect to a given earth station.
Available to earth within their shadows 100% of the time.
No need to switch from one geosynchronous satellite to another as they orbit overhead
The effects of Doppler shift are negligible
Disadvantages of geosynchronous Satellite:
It requires sophisticated and heavy propulsion device onboard to keep them in a fixed
orbit
Much longer propagation delays
Requires higher transmit power and more sensitive receivers because of the longer
distances and greater path loss.
High precision spacemanship is required.
25)The angle between the earth’s equatorial plane and the orbital plane of a satellite
measured counter clockwise at the point in the orbit where it crosses the equatorial
plane traveling from south to north called the ascending node.
Angle of Inclination
26)The point where the polar or inclines orbit crosses the equatorial plane travelling
from north to south
Descending Node
27)The line joining the ascending and descending node
Line of Nodes
28)It is when the satellite rotates in an orbit directl above the equator, usually in a
circular path.
Equatorial Orbit

29)It is when the satellite rotates in path that takes over the North and the South poles
in an orbit that is close to earth and passes over and very close to both the North and
South Poles.
Polar Orbit
30)The noise power normalized to a 1 Hz bandwidth, or the noise power present in a
1Hz bandwidth
Noise Density
31)It identifies the system parameters and is used to determine the projected carrier-to-
noise ratio and energy Bit-to-noise density ratio at both the satellite and earth station
receivers for a given modulation scheme.
Link Budget
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MICROWAVE RADIO COMMUNICATIONS AND SYSTEM GAIN (c22


Tomasi)

CHAPTER 24
MICROWAVE RADIO COMMUNICATIONS AND SYSTEM
GAIN
1)Electromagnetic waves with frequencies that range from approximately 500 MHz to
300 GHz or more.
Microwaves
2)The wavelengths for microwave frequencies, which is than infrared energy.
1 cm and 60 cm slightly longer
3)The name given to microwave signals, because of their inherently high frequencies,
have short wavelengths.
“Microwave” waves
4)Each frequency is divided in half with the lower half identified as the low band and the
upper half as narrow band.
Full-Duplex (Two-way)
5)Communications system used to carry information for relatively short distances such
as between cities with the same state.
Short Haul
6)Microwave systems that is used to carry information for relatively long distances, such
as interstate and backbone route applications.
Long Haul
7)It propagate signals through Earth’s atmosphere between transmitters and receivers
often located on top of tower spaced about 15 miles to 30 miles apart.
Microwave Radios
Advantages of Microwave Radio:
• Radio systems do not require a right-of way acquisition between stations.
• Each station requires the purchase or lease ofonly a small area of land.
• Because of their high operating frequencies, microwave radio systems can carry large
quantities of information.
• High frequencies mean short wavelengths, which require relatively small antennas.
• Radio signals are more easily propagated around physical obstacles such as water
and high mountains
• Fewer repeaters are necessary for amplification.
• Distances between switching centers are less.
• Underground facilities are minimized.
• Minimum delays are introduced.
• Minimal crosstalk exists between voice channels.
• Increased reliability and less maintenance are important factors.
Disadvantages of Microwave Radio:
• It is more difficult to analyze and design circuits at microwave frequencies.
• Measuring techniques are more difficult to perfect and implement at microwave
frequencies.
• It is difficult to implement conventional circuit components at microwave frequencies.
• Transient time is more critical at microwave frequencies.
• It is often necessary to use specialized components for microwave frequencies.
• Microwave frequencies propagate in a straight line, which limits their use to line-of-
sight applications.
8)Propagates signals outside the Earth’s atmosphere and are capable of carrying
signals much farther while utilizing fewer transmitters and receivers.
Satellite Systems
9)It is used in microwave radio systems rather than amplitude modulation because AM
signals are more sensitive to amplitude nonlinearities inherent in wide-band microwave
amplifiers.
Frequency Modulation
10)Major factor when designing FM Radio systems. It is caused by repeater amplitude
nonlinearity in AM, while in FM, it is caused by transmission gain and delay distortion.
Intermodulation Noise
11)The composite signal that modulates the FM carrier and may comprise one or more
of the following:
• Frequency-division multiplexed voice-band channels
• Time-division-multiplexed voice-band channels
• Broadcast-quality composite video or picture phone
• Wideband data
Baseband
12)It provides an artificial boost in amplitude to the higher baseband frequencies.
Preemphasis Network
13)Frequency modulation index used in the FM deviator. Typically, modulation indices
are kept between 0.5 and 1.
Low-Index

14)FM signal that is produces at the output of the deviator with a low-index frequency
modulation.
Narrowband FM
15)A receiver and a transmitter placed back to back or in tandem with the system.
Microwave Repeaters
16)It receives a signal, amplifies and reshapes it, and then retransmit the signal to the
next repeater or terminal station down line from it.
Repeater Station
Types of Microwave repeaters:
• IF
• Baseband
• RF

17)The received RF carrier is down-converted to an IF frequency, amplified, reshaped,


up-converted to an RF frequency, and then retransmitted.
IF Repeater
18)Generally less than 9 MHz.
Baseband Frequencies
19)The range id 60 MHz to 80MHz.
IF frequencies
20)Another name for a Local oscillator, is considerably lower in frequency than either
the received or the transmitted radio frequencies.
Shift Oscillator
21)Transmission used by microwave systems wherein a direct signal path must exist
between the transmit receive antennas.
Line-of Site Transmission
22)A temporary reduction in signal strength which last in milliseconds for several hours
or even days.
Radio Fade
23)It suggests that there is more than one transmission path or method of transmission
available a transmitter and a receiver.
Diversity
24)It is simply modulating two different RF carrier frequencies with the same IF
intelligence, then transmitting both RF signals to a given destination.
Frequency Diversity
25)The output of a transmitter is fed to two or more antennas that are physically
separated by an appreciable number of wavelengths.
Space Diversity
26)A single RF carrier is propagated with two different electromagnetic polarizations. It
is generally used in conjunction with space diversity.
Polarization Diversity

27)It is more than one receiver for a single radio-frequency channel. With frequency
diversity, it is necessary to also use receiver diversity because each transmitted
frequency requires its own receiver
Receiver Diversity
28)Another form of Hybrid diversity and undoubtly provides the most reliable
transmission but most expensive. It combines frequency, space, polarization and
receiver diversity into one system.
Quad Diversity
29)A specialized form of diversity that consist of a standard frequency diversity path
where the two transmitter/ receiver pairs at one end of the path are separated from each
other and connected to different antennas that are vertically separated as in space
diversity.
Hybrid Diversity
29)Alternate facilities temporarily made to avoid a service interruption during periods of
deep fades or equipment failures.
Protection Switching Arrangement
types of protection switching arrangements:
• hotstandby
• diversity

30)Each working radio channel has a dedicated backup or spare channel.


Hot Standby Protection
31)A single backup channel is made available to as many as 11 working channels.
Diversity Protection
32)In hotstandby protection, it splits the signal power and directs it to the working and
the spare (standby)microwave channels simultaneously.
Head-End Bridge
33)It has two working channels, one spare channel, and an auxiliary channel.
Diversity Protection

34)A low-capacity low-power microwave radio that is designed to be used for a


maintenance channel only.
Auxilliary Channel
35)It is where the number of repeater stations between protection switches depends.
Reliability Objectives of the Systems
36)Points in the system where baseband signals either originate or terminate.
Terminal Stations
four major sections:
• baseband
• wireline entrance link (WLEL)
• FM-IF
• RF sections

37)Points in a system where baseband signals may be reconfigured or where RF


carriers are simply “repeated” or amplified.
Repeater Stations
38)Stands for WireLine Entrance Link, it serves as the interface between the multiplex
terminal equipment and the FM_IF equipment.
WLEL

39)A balanced modulator that, when used in conjunction with a microwave generator,
power amplifier, and band-pass filter, up-converts the IF carrier to an RF carrier and
amplifies the RF to the desired output power.
Transmod

40)It must be capable of amplifying very high frequencies and passing very wide
bandwidth signals for microwave radios.
Power Amplifiers
devices used in microwave amplifiers:
• Klystron Tubes
• Traveling-wave tubes (TWTs)
• IMPATT (Impact avalanche and transit time)

41)It provides the RF carrier input to the up-converter. It is called as microwave


generator rather than an oscillator because it is difficult to construct a stable circuit that
will oscillate in the gigahertz range.
Microwave Generator
42)It operates in the range 5 MHz to 25 MHz, used to provide a base frequency that is
multiplied up to the desired RF carrier frequency.
Crystal-controlled Oscillator
43)A unidirectional device often made from ferrite material. It used in conjunction with a
channel-combining network to prevent the output of one transmitter from interfering with
the output of another transmitter.
Isolator
44)Stands for Automatic Gain Control, is a circuit in an IF amplifier.
AGC
45)It occurs only when three stations are placed in a geographical straight line in the
system.
Multi-hop Interference
46)It prevents the power that “leaks” out the back and sides of a transmit antenna from
interfering with the signal entering the input of a nearby receive antenna.
High/Low-Frequency Scheme
47)The signal entering the input of a nearby receive antenna.
Ring around
48)It means that this channels are propagated with vertical polarization.
V Channels
49)The line-of-sight directly between the transmit and receive antenna. Also called as
the Direct Wave.
Free-Space Path
50)It consists of the electric and magnetic fields associated with the currents induced in
earth’s surface.
Surface Wave

51)The portion of the transmit signal that is reflected off Earth’s surface and captured by
the receive antenna.
Ground-Reflected Wave
52)The portion of the transmit signal that is returned back to Earth’s surface by the
ionized layers of earth’s atmosphere.
Sky Wave
53)The loss incurred by an electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a straight line
through a vacuum with no absorption or reflection of energy from nearby objects.
Free-Space Path Loss
54)A phenomenon wherein electromagnetic energy is spread out as it propagates away
from the source resulting in lower relative power densities.
Spreading Loss
55)The reduction in signal strength at the input to a receiver.
Fading
56)The difference between the nominal output power of a transmitter and the minimum
input power to a receiver necessary to achieve satisfactory performance.
System Gain
57)Sometimes called as Link Margin, is essentially a “fudge Factor” included in system
gain equations that considers the non ideal and less predictable characteristics of radio
wave propagation and terrain sensitivity.
Fade Margin
58)He described ways of calculating outage time due to fading on a non diversity path
as a function of terrain, climate, path length, and fade margin, in April 1969.
W.T. Barnett
59)From Bell Laboratories, he derived formulas for calculating the effective
improvement achievable by vertical space diversity as a function of the spacing
distance, path length, and frequency in June 1970.
Arvids Vignant
60)The ratio of the wideband “carrier” to the wideband noise power.
Carrier-to-Noise Ratio (C/N)
61)Also called Receiver Sensitivity, is the minimum wide band carrier power at the input
to a receiver that will
provide a usable baseband output.
Receiver Threshold
62)The carrier-to-noise ratio before the FM demodulator.
Pre-detection Signal to-Noise Ratio
63)The carrier-to-noise ratio after the FM demodulator.
Postdetection Signal-to-Noise Ratio
64)A ratio of input signal-to-noise ratio to output signal to noise ratio.
Noise Factor (F)
65)The noise factor stated in dB and is a parameter commonly used to indicate the
quality of a receiver.
Noise Figure
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Tuesday, September 6, 2011


DATA-LINK PROTOCOLS AND DATA COMMUNICATIONS NETWORKS
(c23 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 23
DATA-LINK PROTOCOLS AND DATA COMMUNICATIONS
NETWORKS

1)The primary goal of __________ is to give users of a network the tools


necessary for setting up the network and performing data flow control.
Network Architecture

2)A set of rules implementing and governing an orderly exchange of data


between two layer devices.
Data-Link Protocol

3)The transmitting station in a data link protocol.


Master Station

4)The receiving station in a data link protocol.


Slave Station

5)Data link network wherein all stations have equal access to the network.
Peer-to Peer Network

6)Discipline, Flow Control and Error Control.


Functions of Data-link Protocol
7)Coordinates hop-to-hop data delivery where a hop may be a computer, a
network controller, or some type of network-connecting device
Line Discipline

8)Determines which device is transmitting and which is receiving at any point


in time.
Line Discipline

9)Coordinates the rate which data are transported over a link and generally
provides an acknowledgement mechanism.
Flow Control

10)Specifies means of detecting and correcting transmission errors.


Error Control

11)Two fundamental ways that line discipline is accomplished in a data


communications network.
Enquiry/Acknowledgement(ENQ/ACK) and Poll/Select

12)It determines which device on the network can initiate a transmission and
whether the intended receiver is available and ready to receive a message.
ENQ/ACK

13)The initiating station begins a session by transmitting a frame, block, or


packet of data called _________, which identifies the receiving station.
Enquiry(ENQ)
14)The response of the destination station when it is ready to receive.
Positive Acknowledgement (ACK)

15)The response of the destination station when it is not ready to receive.


Negative Acknowledgement (NAK)

16)The best application of the poll/select line discipline.


Centrally Controlled Data Network

17)A solicitation sent from the primary to a secondary to determine if the


secondary has data to transmit
Poll

21)A set of procedures that tells the transmitting station how much data it can
send before it must stop transmitting and wait for an acknowledgment from
the destination station
Flow Control
22)The transmitting station sends one message frame and then waits for an
acknowledgement before sending the next message frame.
Stop-and Wait Flow Control

23)A source station can transmit several frames in succession before receiving
an acknowledgement.
Sliding Window Flow Control

24)It refers to imaginary receptacles at the source and destination stations


with the capacity of holding several frames of data.
Sliding Window

25)Primary advantage of sliding window control.


Network Utilization

26)Primary disadvantages of sliding window flow control.


Complexity and Hardware Capacity

27)Interpret a frame of data as a group of successive bits combined into


predefined patterns of fixed length, usually eight bits each.
Character Oriented Protocols

28)Another name for character oriented protocols.


Byte-oriented Protocols

29)A discipline for serial by bit information transfer over a data


communications channel.
Bit Oriented Protocol

30)A character-oriented protocols generally used on two point networks using


asynchronous data and asynchronous modems.
Asynchronous Data link Protocols

31)Developed the first file transfer protocol designed to facilitate transferring


data between two personal computers in 1979.
Ward Christiansen

32)Cristiansen's protocol which is relatively simple data link protocol intended


for low-speed applications.
XMODEM

33)Remote stations can have more than one PC or printer.


Synchronous Data-Link Protocols

34)A group of computers, printers, and other digital devices.


Cluster
35)A synchronous character-oriented data link protocol developed by IBM.
Binary Synchronous Communications (BSC)

36)Another name for BSC.


Bisync

37)Another name for enquiry (ENQ) character.


Format or line turn around

38)The __________ uses longitudinal redundancy checking (LRC) with ASCII-


coded messages and cyclic redundancy checking.
Block Check Character (BCC)

39)A synchronous bit oriented protocol developed in the 1970's by IBM for use
in system network architecture environment.
Synchronous Data-Link Control (SDLC)

40)Three transmission states.


Transient, Idle and Active

41)Flag Fields, Address Field, Control Field, Information and Frame Check
Sequence Field are __________.
SDLC Frame Fields

42)It is used for the delimiting sequence for the frame and to achieve frame
and character synchronization.
Flags

43)It is used for polling, confirming previously received frames, and several
other data link management functions
Control Field

44)Three frame formats with SDLC.


Information, Supervisory and Unnumbered

45)A command or a response that is used to send unnumbered information.


Unnumbered Information (UI)

46)A command that places a secondary station into the initialization mode.
Set Initialization Mode

47)A response sent by a secondary station to request the primary to send a


SIM command.
Request Initialization Mode (RIM)
48)A command that places a secondary into the normal response mode.
Set Normal Response Mode (SNRM)

49)A response transmitted from a secondary station if the primary attempts to


send numbered information frames to it when the secondary is in the normal
disconnect mode.
Disconnect Mode (DM)

50)A response sent by a secondary when it wants the primary to place it in the
disconnect mode.
Request Disconnect (RD)

52)An affirmative response that indicates compliance to SIM, SNRM or DISC


commands
Unnumbered Acknowledgement

53)An exchange of frames between the primary station and a secondary


station.
TEST

54)A flag followed by eight consecutive logic 0's.


Turnaround Sequence

55)A SDLC subcommand causes all previously set functions to be cleared by


the secondary.
Clear

56)A SLDC subcommand causes the secondary receiving it to turn on or turn


off its carrier.
Beacon Test

57)A SDLC command causes the addressed secondary station to pace itself
into the monitor mode.
Monitor Mode

58)A SDLC command causes a secondary station to loop its transmission


directly to its receiver input.
Wrap

59)A SDLC command causes the addressed secondary to initiate a series of


internal diagnostic tests.
Self-Test

60)The transparency mechanism used with SDLC.


Zero Bit Insertion or Zero Stuffing
61)It is used prematurely terminate an SDLC frame.
Message Abort

62)The encoding scheme used in SDLC.


Invert-On-Zero Coding

63)Standard that defines the frame structure, delimiting sequence,


transparency mechanism and error detection method used with HDLC.
ISO 3309

64)Operational Mode of SDLC.


Normal Response Mode (NRM)

65)A mode of operation logically equivalent to a two point private line circuit
where each station has equal data link responsibilities.
Asynchronous Balanced Mode

66)A switched data communications network similar to the public telephone


network except a PDN is designed for transferring data only.
Public Switched Data Network (PDN)

67)It is used when making a standard telephone call on the public telephone
network.
Circuit Switching

68)Is a form of store and forward network.


Message Switching

69)Another name for packet switching.


Hold and Forward Network

70)A user interface as the international standard for packet network access.
X.25

71)SA logically equivalent to a two point dedicated private line circuit except
slower.
Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)

72)A logically equivalent to making a telephone call through the DDD network
except no direct end to end connection is made.
Virtual Call

73)Identifies whether the packet is a new call request or a previously


established call.
Format Identifier
74)A 12 bit binary number that identifies the source and destination users for
a given virtual call.
Logical Channel Identifier

75)This four bit gives the number of digits that appear in the calling address
filed.
Calling Address Field

76)This field is the same as the calling address field except that it identifies
the number of digits that appear in the called address field
Called Address Length

77)This field contains the destination address.


Called Address

78)This field is the same as the called address field except that it contains up
to 15 BCD.
Calling Address

79)This field identifies the number of eight bit octets present in the facilities
field.
Facilities Length Field

80)This 32 bit field is reserved for the subscriber to insert user level protocol.
Protocol Identifier

81)A proposed network designed by the major telephone companies in


conjunction with the ITU-T.
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)

82)Customers gain access to the ISDN system through a local interface


connected to a digital transmission medium.
Digital Pipe

83)ISDN objectives that ensure universal access to the network.


System Standardization

84)Said objectives that allow customers to use a variety of protocols and


applications
Achieving Transparency

85)ISDN should not provide services that preclude competitiveness


Separating Functions

86)Provide private-line and switched services refers what objectives of ISDN.


Variety of Configurations
87)ISDN services should not be directly related to cost and independent of the
nature of the data.
Addressing Cost-Related Tariffs

88)Provide a smooth transition while evolving.


Migration

89)Provide service to low capacity personal subscribers as well as to large


companies.
Multiplexed Support

90)Translation between non-ISDN data protocol and ISDN is performed in this


device.
Terminal Adapter

91)A boundary to the network and may be controlled by the ISDN provider.
Network Termination 1

92)Refers to interfaces between the common carrier subscriber loop and the
central office switch
U-Reference Point

93)The media interface point between an NT1 and the central office.
U Loop

94)It is defined by ITU-T as a service that provides transmission channels


capable of supporting transmission rates greater than the primary data rate.
Broadband ISDN

95)Information transfer is primarily from service provider to subscriber


Distribution Services

96)Codes the data information into smaller packets used by the BISDN
network
Broadband Node

97)A connection between a source and a destination, which may entail several
ATM links.
Virtual Channel

98)Once data have entered the ATM network, they transferred into fixed time
slots called ________.
Cells
99)Controls the flow of traffic across the user network interface (UNI) and into
the network.
Generic Flow Control Field (GFC)

100)The first three bits of the second half of byte 4 specify the type of
message in cell.
Payload Type Identifier

101)Information fields that are designed to accommodate PCM-TDM traffic,


which allows the ATM network to emulate voice or DSN services.
Constant Bit Rate

102)A portion of a public service provider's switching system where the


service provider could be a local telephone company or a long-distance
carrier.
Public ATM Switches

103)Provides the most effective and economical means of handling local data
communications field.
Local Area Networks (LAN)

104)A communications system that allows users to send messages to each


other through their computers.
E-Mails

105)LAN Topologies.
Star, Bus and Ring Topology

106)It describes how users access the communications channel in a LAN.


Network Access Methodologies

107)Access method used primarily in bus topology.


CDMA/CD

108)It two stations transmit at the same time, ________ occurs.


Collision

109)The time it takes a signal to travel from a source to a destination.


Propagation Delay

110)A base band transmission system designed in 1972 by Robert Metcalfe


and David Boggs.
Ethernet

111)Its purpose is to establish clock synchronization.


Preamble
112)It is simply a series of two logic 1's appended to the end of the preamble.
Start Frame Delimiter

113)Consists of six bytes the corresponds to the address of the station sending
the frame.
Source Address

TRANSISTOR…

CHAPTER 8 FIELD –EFFECT TRANSISTORS

CHAPTER 8
FIELD –EFFECT TRANSISTORS

1. FETs are preferred device in low-voltage switching applications; while______ transistor is


generally used in high-voltage switching applications.
IGBT

2. What type of JFET operates with a reverse-biased pn junction to control current in the channel?
JFET

3. An n-channel universal transfer characteristic curve is also known as


Transconductance curve

4. The change in drain current for a given change in gate-to-source voltage with the drain-to-source
voltage constant
Forward transconductance

5. What is the most common type of JFET bias?


Self-bias
6. It is a method for increasing the Q-point stability of a self-biased JFET by making the drain
current essentially independent of gate-to-source voltage
Current-source bias

7. What JFET bias uses a BJT as a constant-current source?


Current-source bias

8. For increased Q-point stability, the value of RS in the self-bias circuit is increased and
connected to a negative supply voltage. This sometimes called
Dual-supply bias

9. VGS varies quite a bit for JFET self-bias and voltage-divider bias but ID is much more stable
with
Voltage-divider bias
10. ____________ is sometimes called depletion/enhancement MOSFET.
D-MOSFET

11. LDMOSFET has a lateral channel structure and is a type of


Enhancement MOSFET

12. It is an example of the conventional E-MOSFET designed to achieve higher power capability
VMOSFET

13. Following are the three ways to bias a MOSFET except


Current-source bias

14. The insulated-gate bipolar transistor combines which two transistors that make it useful in
high-voltage and high-current switching applications?
BJT and MOSFET

15. What are the three terminals of IGBT?


Gate, collector, emitter

16. In terms of switching speed, __________ switch fastest and _____________ switch slowest.
MOSFETs, BJTs

17. In a MOSFET, the process of removing or depleting the channel of charge carriers and thus
decreasing the channel conductivity
Depletion

18. The ratio of change in drain current to a change in gate-to source voltage in a FET
Transconductance

19. A FET is called a ______________ because of the relationship of the drain current to the
square of a term containing gate-to-source voltage
Square-law device
20. Combines features from both the MOSFET and the BJT that make it useful in high-voltage and
high-current switching applications.
IGBT

21. Has a lateral channel structure and is a type of enhancement MOSFET designed for power
applications.
LDMOSFET
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CHAPTER 5
TRANSISTOR BIAS CIRCUITS

1. What biasing method is common in switching circuits?


Base bias

2. A Base bias in linear region shows that it is


Directly dependent on dc beta

3. In an emitter-feedback bias, if the collector current increases, the emitter voltage


Increases

4. What happens to the base voltage in no. 10?


Increases

5. In an emitter-feedback, the increase in base voltage _________ the base current.


Reduces

6. For collector-feedback bias, what provides the bias for the base-emitter junction?
Collector voltage

7. As temperature goes up in a collector-feedback circuit, βDC and VBE goes _______


and __________, respectively.
Up and down

8. Collector-feedback bias provides good stability using negative feedback from


Collector to base

9. Innovations in technology would allow a doubling of the number of transistors in a


given space every year and that the speed of those transistors would increase. This
prediction is widely known as
Moore’s law

10. If an amplifier is not biased with correct dc voltages on the input and output, it can
go ___________ when an input signal is applied.
Saturation or cutoff

11. Given a voltage-divider biased BJT, determine IC given VCC, R1, R2, RC, and RE
which are 10V, 10kohms, 4.7kohms, 1kohm, and 470ohms respectively. Use βDC= 100.
5.31mA

12. What is the value of VCE in no.20?


2.19 V

13. If an emitter resistor is added to a base bias circuit, what is the value of the emitter
current given VCC, RE, RC, and RB as 10V, 1kΩ, 470Ω, and 180kΩ, respectively. Use
βDC=100.
3.32mA

14. Calculate for VCE in no. 22


5.12 V
15. If the dc beta in the preceding drops half of its original value, find the percent change
in IC.
39.16%

16. What is the percent change in VCE?


27.17%

17. The region along the load line including all points between saturation and cutoff
Linear region

18. A voltage divider for which loading effects can be neglected


Stiff voltage divider

19. The base bias circuit arrangement has poor stability because its Q-point varies
widely with
Dc beta

20. The purpose of biasing a circuit is to establish a proper stable ________.


Q-point

21. The process of returning a portion of a circuit’s output back to the input in such a
way as to oppose or aid a change in the output
Feedback
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Saturday, September 10, 2011


CHAPTER 4 BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTORS

CHAPTER 4
BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTORS

1. Which is the least of the three transistor currents?


Base

2. The ratio of the dc collector current to the dc base current of the transistor is,
dc beta/dc current gain

3. the ratio of the dc collector current to the dc emitter current


dc alpha

4. Determine the base current given dc beta=100 , dc alpha=0.85, and IC= 3.70mA
0.037mA
5. Nonconducting state of a transistor
Cutoff

6. State of a BJT in which the collector current has reached maximum and is dependent of the base
current Saturation

7. Neither the base-emitter nor the base-collector junctions are forward-biased


cutoff

8. dc beta varies with


collector current and temperature

9. hFE varies with which transistor current/s?


Collector only

10. Converts light energy to electrical signal


Phototransistor

11. Devices used to electrically isolate circuits


Optocouplers

12. A key parameter in optocouplers is the CTR. CTR stands for


Current transfer ratio

13. Indication of how efficiently a signal is coupled from input to output


CTR

14. RF transistors are designed to operate at


EHF

15. What transistor category/ies uses plastic or metal packages?


General-purpose transistors

16. To operate as an amplifier, BE junction must be forward-biased and the BC junction must be
reverse-biased. This is called
Forward-reverse bias

17. In a phototransistor, what transistor current/s is produced and controlled by light?


Base

18. Two basic package types


Through-hole and surface mount

19. The process of increasing the power, voltage, or current by electronic means.
Amplification
TRANSMISSION LINES…

TRANSMISSION FUNDAMENTALS (C1 Past Board :excel:)

CHAPTER 1 TRANSMISSION FUNDAMENTALS (Past Board :excel:)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


An SWR reading which has a short circuit termination.
Infinity

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In an open wire transmission line, what is the normal separation between its two (2) conductors?
2 to 6 cm

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following term is used to describe the attenuation and phase shift per unit length of a
transmission line?
Propagation constant

ECE Board Exam November 1999


An indication in radio communication when the voltage standing wave ratio is equal to zero.
No input power

ECE Board Exam April 1999


Refers to a connector that normally connects RG-213 coaxial. cable to an HF transceiver.
PL-259

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Width of frequency band just enough to ensure the transmission of information at a required rate
and quality required, and under a specified condition and class of emission.
Necessary bandwidth

ECE Board Exam. April 1998


Best describe a dip meter.
A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current

ECE Board Exam. April 1997


The standard test tone.
0 dBm

ECE Board April 1997


If voltage change is equal to twice its original value,. what is it corresponding change In dB?
6 dB
ECE Board Exam November 1996
Energy that has neither been-radiated into space,nor completely transmitted.
Standing waves

ECE Board Exam April 1997


To a couple a coaxial line, it is better to use a________
Balun

ECE Board Exam November 2000


What is the main reason,why coaxial cable is not used in microwe signal transmission?
High attenuation

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is impedance of a balance 4-wire with a diameter of 0.25 spaced 2.5 cm apart using an
insulator with a dielectric constant of 2.56?
100 ohms
ECE Board April 2000
In wire communications, non-resonat transmission lines are referred to as __________
Flat lines

ECE Board Exam November 1999


An electronic equipment used in radio communications to measure standing wave ratio.
Reflectometer

ECE Board Exam April 1999


How does a shorted half-wave line act at a certain operating frequency?
Series resonant circuit

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Best choice of transmission line component to couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire line.
Balun

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Referred to the dielectric constant of a transmission line material.
Velocity factor

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the characteristic impedance of a single wire with a diameter d=0.25 mm placed at the
center between grounded parallel planes separated by 1 mm apart? The wire is held by a material
with a velocity factor of 0.75?
75 ohms
ECE Board Exam March 1996
The power of standard test tone is normally ______
1mW

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Which tester is used to measure SWR?
Reflectometer

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its________
Length

ECE Board Exam April 2000


What is the input impedance equivalent of an open ended transmission line which is longer than a
quarter wavelength?
As pure inductor

ECE Board Exam November 1999


In the study of transmission cable, twin lead. is also referred to as a_________
ribbon cable

ECE Board Exam April 1999


The greater the diameter of a wire, the _________ is the resistance.
Lesser

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What determines the velocity factor in transmission line?
Dielectrics in the line
ECE Board Exam April 1998
Technical study which deals with production, transport and delivery of a quality signal from source
to destination
Transmission System Engineering

ECE Board Exam April 1997


If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each how many such
amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB?
3 amplifiers

ECE Board Exam March 1996


What :is the reference tone level for dBm?
-90dBm

ECB Board Exam April 2060


What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels through a line to the speed
of light in a vacuum?
Velocity factor
ECE Board Exam November 1999
Referred to as a cause of crosstalk.
Electrical coupling between transmission media

ECE Board Exam November 1998


What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line?
The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of the light in a
vacuum

ECE Board Exam April 1998


It is used to connect computers in the same building or in same area.
LAN

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What do you call the energy that was not radiated into space or completely transmitted?
Standing waves
ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the applied power if a thermal RF wattmeter is connected to a transmitter through variable
attenuator? The wattmeter reads 84 mW when 15 dB of attenuation is used.
2.656 Watts

ECE Board Eaagl.March 1996


If the terminating impedance is exactly equal to the characteristic impedance of the transmission
line the return loss is ______
infinite

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A singie.q nductor running from the transmitter to the antenna.
Single line wire

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Ina transmission line if the maximum current to minimum current ratio is 2:1. what is the ratio of
the maximum voltage to minimum voltage?
2.1

ECE Board Exam March 1996


What is the main purpose of a communications system?
To provide an acceptable replica of the information at the destination

ECE Board Exam April 1997


__________ sets the limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a gin noise level.
Shannon-Hartley theorem

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Which stands for dB relative level?
dBr

ECE Board Exam March 1996


To connect coaxial line to a parallel-wire, _______ is the best to use
Balun

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following determines the characteristics of a transmission line?
Physical dimensions
ECE Board Exam.April 1998
Which of the fotlowing is an impedance matching ratio of coax balun?
4:1

ECE Board Exam November 1997


An electronic equipment used to measure standing wave ratio.
Reflectometer

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What frequency does oxygen cause excessive attenuation?
60 GHz

ECE Board Exam November 1996


The standing wave ratio is equal to _________ if the load is properly matched with the
transmission line.
1

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is the impedance measured at the ____ when its
length is infinite.
Input

ECE Board Exam March 1996


What.quarterwave transformer will match a 100 ohms line to an antenna whose value is 175 ohms?
132.29 ohms

ECE Boardd Exam March 1996


When a transmission line uses ground return, it is called a/an __________ line.
Unbalanced

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Transmission lines when connected to antenna have
resistive load atthe resonant frequency

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Termination means
load connected to the output end of a transmission line
ECE Board Exam March 1996
Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced will respect to
ground

ECE Board Exam March 1996


What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohms flexible coaxial cable such as RG
8, 11, 58, and 59?
0.66

Board Exam November 1997


Propagation mode of microwave in a waveguide is known as _____
TE

Board Exam November 1998


A transmission line consisting of two conductors that have equal resistance per unit length.
Balanced line

ECE Board Exam November 1966


What is the equivalent output of a circuit in dBm, if it has an output of 10 Watts?
40 dBm

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Power is always ___________
a definite amount of energy
the rate at which energy is used
expressed in watts

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Which of the following is not a common transmission line impedance?
A. 50 ohms
B. 120 ohms
C. 75 ohms
D. 650 ohms

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The Width of the frequency band which is just sufficient to ensure the transmission of information
of information at the rate and with the quality required under a specified condition and class of
emission.
Necessary bandwidth
ECE Board Exam November 1996
Transmission line must be matched to the load to
transfer maximum power to the load

ECE Board Exam November 1996


When electromagnetic waves are propagated through a waveguide, they
are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Coaxial lines are used on those system operating
Below 2 GHz

ECE Board Exaru.November 1996


You are measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads 73 dBm (pure test
tone) convert the reading into dBrnCO.
21 dBrnCO

ECE Board Exam November 1996


1 micron is equal to ___________ meter(s)
10^-6

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Best reason for pressurizing waveguides with dry air.
To reduce the possibility of internal arcing

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The outer conductor of a coaxial transmission line is always.grounded at the
input and output

ECE Board Exam November 1996


You are measuring noise in a voice channel at 7 dB test point level. The meter reads -56 dBm (FIA
weighted). What is the reading in dBrnC?
34 dBrnC
ECE Board Exam November 1998
What do you call the phenomenon in digital circuits that describe the duration of time digital signal
passes a circuit?
Propagation delay
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Saturday, August 6, 2011


OPTICAL FIBER TRANSMISSION MEDIA (C13 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 13
OPTICAL FIBER TRANSMISSION MEDIA

1)Uses light as a carrier of information.


Optical communications system

2)Electronic communications system is directly proportional to bandwidth.


Information-carrying capacity

3)Bandwidth of an analog communications system as a percentage of its


carrier frequency.
bandwidth utilization ratio

4)Device constructed from mirrors and selenium detectors that transmitted


sound waves over a beam of light.
Photophone

5)Experimented with an apparatus called photophone.


Alexander Graham Bell

6)Used extensively in medical field.


Flexible fiberscope
7)Invented in 1960.
Laser (light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation)

8)Advantages of Optical Fiber cables.


1. wider bandwidth and greater information capacity
2.immunity to crosstalk
3. immunity to statistic interference
4. environmental immunity
5. safety and convenience
6. lower transmission loss
7. security
8. durability and reliability
9. economics

9)Disadvantages of Optical Fiber cables.


1. interfacing cost
2. strength
3. remote electrical power
4. optical fiber cables are
more susceptible to losses introduced by bending the cable
5. specialized tools, equipment, and training

10)Reduces the possibility of the occurrence of a detrimental phenomenon.


Stress corrosion

12)Protective coating.
Buffer jacket

14)Increases the tensile strength of the over all cable assembly.


Strength member

15)Process of decaying from one energy level to another energy level.


Spontaneous decay or spontaneous emission

16)Science of measuring only light waves that are visible to human eye.
Photometry

17)Measures the rate at which electromagnetic waves transfer light energy.


Optical power

18)Spectral separation of white light.


Prismatic refraction

19)Simply the ratio of velocity of propagation of a light ray in free space to the
velocity of propagation of a light ray in a given material.
Refractive index
20)Angle at which the propagating ray strikes the interface with respect to the
normal.
Angle of incidence

21)Angle formed between the propagating ray and the normal after the ray
has entered the second medium.
Angle of refraction

22)Closely related to acceptance angle and is the figure of merit commonly


used to measure the magnitude of the acceptance angle.
Numerical aperture

23)Simply means path.


Mode

24)More than one path.


Multimode

26)Probably the most important characteristic of the cable.


Power loss

27)Three factors that contribute to the absorption losses in optical fibers:


1. ultra violet absorption
2. infrared absorption
3. ion resonance absorption

28)Caused mainly by small bends and kinks in the fiber.


Radiation losses

29)Caused by excessive pressure and tension and generally occur when fibers
are bent during handling or installation.
Contants-radius bends

30)Caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays that take
different path down a fiber.
Modal dispersion

32)A p-n junction made from two different mixtures of the same types of atom.
Mojunction structure

33)Generally constructed of silicon-doped gallium-arsenide.


Epitaxially grown

34)Homojunction LED’s output approximately 500 μ at a wavelength of 900


nm.
Planar diffused

35) Advantages of heterojunction devices over homojunction devices;


1. increase in current density generates a more brilliant light spot.
2. smaller emitting area makes it easier to couple its emitted light
into a fiber.
3. small effective area has a smaller capacitance, which allows the
planar heterojunction LED to be used at a higher speed.

36)Depletion-layer photo diode and is probably the most common device used
as a light detector in fiber optic communications system.
PIN diode

37)Characteristic of a light detector.


1. responsivity
2. dark currents
3. transit time
4. spectral response
5. light sensitivity

ANTENNAS AND WAVEGUIDES…

ANTENNAS AND WAVEGUIDES (C15 Tomasi)

CHAPTER 15
ANTENNAS AND WAVEGUIDES
1)A metallic conductor system capable of radiating and capturing
electromagnetic energy
Antenna

2)Couples energy from a transmitter to an antenna or from antenna to a


receiver
Transmission Lines

3)A special type of transmission line that consists of a conducting metallic


tube through which high-frequency electromagnetic energy is propagated.
Waveguide

4)Electrical energy that has escaped into free space in the form of transverse
electromagnetic waves
Radio Waves
5)The plane parallel to the mutually perpendicular lines of the electric and
magnetic fields.
Wavefront

6)The ratio of radiated to reflected energy.


Radiation Efficiency

7)Antenna wherein two conductors are spread out in a straight line to a total
length of one quarter wavelength.
Quarter Wave Antenna

8)Another name for quarter wave antenna.


Vertical Monopole or Marconi

9)A half-wave dipole.


Hertz Antenna

10)A special coupling device that can be used to direct the transmit and
receive signals and provide the necessary isolation.
Diplexer

11)A polar diagram or graph representing field strengths or power densities at


various angular positions relative to an antenna.
Radiation Pattern

12)Radiation pattern plotted in terms of electric field strength or power


density.
Absolute Radiation Pattern

13)Radiation pattern plots field strength or power density with respect to the
value at a reference
Relative Radiation

14)The primary beam of an antenna.


Major Lobes

15)The major lobes that propagates and receivethe most energy.


Front Lobe

16)Lobes adjacent to the front lobe.


Side lobes

17)The secondary beam of an antenna.


Minor Lobes
18)Lobes in a direction exactly opposite the front lobe
Back Lobe

19)The ratio of the front lobe power to the back lobe power.
Front to Back Ratio

20)The ratio of the front lobe to a side lobe.


Front to Side Ratio

21)The line bisecting the major lobe, or pointing from the center of the
antenna in the direction of maximum radiation.
Line of Shoot or Point of Shoot

22)Antenna that radiates energy equally in all directions.


Omni-directional Antenna

23)Radiates power at a constant rate uniformly in all directions.


Isotropic Radiator

24)The direction in which an antenna is always pointing.


Maximum Radiation

25)It is defined as an equivalent transmit power. It stands for Effective


Isotropic Radiated Power.
EIRP

26)The equivalent power that an isotropic antenna would have to radiate to


achieve the same power density in the chosen direction at a given point as
another antenna.
Effective Radiated Power (ERP) or (EIRP)

27)The power density in space and the actual power that a receive antenna
produces at its output terminals.
Captured Power Density

28)It describe the reception properties of an antenna


Capture Area

29)Another name for capture area.


Effective Area

30)The relationship of captured power to the received power density and the
effective capture area of the received antenna.
Directly Proportional

31)It refers to the orientation of the electric field radiated from the antenna.
Polarization

32)The angular separation between the two half-power (-3dB) points on the
major lobe of an antenna's plane radiation pattern.
Antenna Beamwidth

33)The frequency range over which antenna operation is satisfactory.


Antenna Bandwidth

34)Another name for antenna input terminal


Feedpoint

35)The feedpoint presents an ac load to the transmission line.


Antenna Input Impedance

36)The simplest type of antenna. Another names for elementary doublet


• Short Dipole,
• Elementary Dipole
• Hertzian Dipole
Elementary Doublet

37)Any dipole that is less than one-tenth wavelength


Electrically Short

38)Hertz antenna is name after him and he was the first to demonstrate the
existence of electromagnetic waves.
Heinrich Hertz

39)A single pole antenna one quarter wavelength long, mounted vertically
with the lower end either connected directly to ground or grounded through
the antenna coupling network.
Marconi Antenna

40)Main disadvantage of Marconi Antenna.


Must be close to the Ground

41)A technique use to increase the electrical length of an antenna


Loading

42)A coil added in series with a dipole antenna which effectively increases
antenna's electrical length.
Loading Coil

43)A loading coil approximately increases the radiation resistance of the


antenna.
5 Ohms
44)An individual radiator, such as a half or quarter wave dipole.
Two types of antenna elements
• Driven
• Parasitic
Two Elements of a single antenna
• Two Wire
• Folded Dipole
Antenna Element

45)Its purpose is to increase the directivity and concentrate the radiated


power within a smaller geographic area.
Array

46)Elements that are directly connected to the transmission line and receive
power from the source.
Driven

47)Elements are not connected to the transmission line; they receive energy
only through mutual induction with a driven element.
Parasitic

48)A parasitic element that is shorter that its associated driven element.
Director

49)Radiation pattern depends on the relative phase of feeds.


Driven

50)The simplest type of antenna arrays.


Broadside Arrays

51)A widely used antenna commonly uses a folded dipole as the driven
element and named after two Japanese scientists.
Yagi Uda

52)Typical directivity of a yagi-uda antenna.


7 dB and 9 dB

53)Formed by placing two dipoles at right angles to each other.


Turnstile Antenna

54)A class of frequency-independent antennas.


Log Periodic
55)A broadband VHF or UHF antenna that is ideally suited for applications for
which radiating circular rather than horizontal or vertical polarized
electromagnetic waves are required.
Modes of propagation:
• Normal
• Axial
Helical Antenna

56)Antennas having half power beamwidths on the order of 1o or less.


Three important characteristics:
• Front-to Back Ratio,
• Side-toSide Coupling
• Back-to-Back Coupling
Microwave Antenna

57)Antenna that provides extremely high gain and directivity and are very
popular for microwave and satellite communications link.
Two main part
• Parabolic Reflector
• Feed Mechanism
Parabolic Reflector Antenna

58)The effective area in a receiving parabolic antenna and is always less than
the actual mouth area.
Capture Area

WIRE COMMUNICATIONS…

Wire and Wireless Communications (C7 Pastboard: Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A duration of traffic path occupancy from a call, sometimes referred to as an average duration of
occupancy of one or more path from calls.
Holding time

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Frequency band where Total Access Communication System (TACS) is allocated.
935-960 MHz; 890-915 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Referred as the forward link channel of the cellular duplex system
Cell to mobile unit
ECE Board Exam November 1999
This referred to a condition in a telephone network where the calling party cannot get connected to
the party being called
Blocked call

ECE Board Exam April 1999


One of the components of a basic cellular system that handles the billing activities of the network.
Mobile telephone switching office

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Refers to a continuous tone generated in a local exchange terminal through a combination of two
frequencies 350 Hz and 440 Hz
Call waiting tone

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system.
TDMA

ECE Board Exam November 1997


What signal-to-noise ratio is required for satisfactory telephone services?
30 dB

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the advantage of sidetone?
Assures that the telephone is working

ECE Board Exam November 1996


A special device circuit connecting two private branch exchanges (PBX).
Tie trunk
ECE Board Exam March 1996
The modulation system used for telegraphy is
Frequency shift keying

ECE Board Exam Board April 2001


Describe as the signal-to-noise ratio required to meet a satisfactory telephone service
30 dB

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following system uses frequency band 870-890 MHz as a transmit band of its base
station?
Advanced Mobile Phone Service AMPS

ECE Board Exam April 2000


What third symbol in emission designation indicates cellular voice transmission?
E
ECE Board Exam November 1999
A term for a conventional land telephone line which is attached to the local telephone exchange by
a pair of twisted copper wires.
Fixed wire

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A mobile telephone system, which used analogue cellular radio standard which was superceded by
the Advanced Mobile Phone System in the US.
IMTS

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Refers to the duration occupancy period of call during its use.
Holding time

ECE Board Exam April 1998


How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a single GSM carrier?
200 kHz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The standard deviation of the variation in the transmission loss of a circuit should not exceed
1 dB

ECE Board Exam April 1997


One (1) Erlang is equal to ________.
36 CCS

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A type of call where cell cannot receive the supervisory audio tones in 5 seconds causing the cell
site to turn the cell transceiver.
Call drop

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristics occupying the frequency range of ______
300 – 3400 Hz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


A digital mobile telephone system which called a European derivative of a Global System for
Mobile Communication System operating at a higher frequency band.
DCS-1800

ECE Board Exam 1999


The receiving and transmission of printed materials over the telephone wires.
Facsimile

ECE Board Exam April 1999


One of the following central office switching equipment resistance limits refers to the longest
subscriber loop length.
2000 ohms

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The modulation technique used by GSM cellular system
Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Nominal voice channel
4 kHz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Transmission of printed material over telephone lines
Facsimile

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the transmission rate of a GSM cellular system?
270 kbps

ECE Board Exam March 1996


A device to be connected across the headset in telephone receivers to reduce the effects of acoustic
shock.
Two rectifiers in parallel with opposite polarities

ECE Board Exam April 2001


The signal quality of the cells is constantly monitored by the base station, when the quality of the
calls drops below a certain specified level, the base request the MTSO to try and find a better cell
site is referred as _________.
Hand – off

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In mobile communication such as the cellular service, the current maximum power is rated at
__________
3 watts

ECE Board Exam April 2000


A special tone frequency which is transmitted by the mobile unit to cell site signaling call
termination.
10 kHz

ECE Board Exam November 1999


This is the Nordic analogue mobile radio telephone system originally used in Scandinavia.
NMT

ECE Board Exam April 1999


An analogue mobile telephone system which was designed for United Kingdowm using 900 MHz
frequency band.
TACS

ECE Board Exam April 1998


An interfering current in a telegraph or signaling channel due to telegraph or signaling current by
another channel.
Cross fire

ECE Board Exam November 1997


What is the channel bandwidth of a standard analogue telephone system?
300 – 3400 Hz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


1 – CCS is equal to
100

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Crosstalk coupling is ___________
dBm (disturbing pair) minus dBm (disturbed pair).
the difference between readings on a cable pair with a tone and a cable pair without tone
read at the far end of the cable.
signals from one circuit that get into another circuit

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Process of automatically changing frequencies as the mobile unit transfer into a different frequency
zones so that the conversation can be continued in the new zone without redialing.
Hand-off

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop resistance of 100
ohms/km?
ECE Board Exam April 2001
Process of automatically changing frequencies as the mobile unit transfer into a different frequency
zone so that the conversation can be continued in the new zone without redialing.
Hand-off

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A stage in cellular communication where voice channel is assigned to link up a call connection
after a mobile or network originated a call.
Call completion

ECE Board Exam November 1999


How much approximate maximum power can a human voice possibly produce?
1 milliwatt

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A transmission facility connecting points 1 and 2 which is either permanent or temporary,
normally voice grade facility provided by a public network provider.
Channel

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Best described as an amplifier used in radio telephony.
Class C

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology
Analogue cellular
ECE Board Exam April 1997
1 Erlang is ____________
1 TU

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Combination of modulator, channel and detector.
Discrete channel

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The local loop of the telephone system is understood to be
A two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customer’s premise and the
central office.

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology
Analogue cellular

ECE Board Exam April 1997


_________ is used to measure speech volume
Volume unit meter

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What component in the telephone set has the primary function of interfacing the handset to the
local loop?
Induction coil

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The ______ filter attenuates signals but passes frequencies below and above that band.
Band stop

ECE Board Exam November 1996


____________ is out-of-bound signaling between toll central offices (Bell System Standard)
3700 Hz

ECE Board Exam March 1996


In a telephone system, the customer’s telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999, what is
the capacity of the system?
1,000 lines

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How much signal-to-noise ratio is required to attain a satisfactory local exchange network?
35 dB

ECE Board Exam April 2000


What is the channel bandwidth of a standard analog telephone system?
300-3400 kHz
ECE Board Exam November 1996
A voice grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband of
0 to 4 kHz

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset?
Electromagnetic

ECE Board Exam April 2001


In telecommunications the acronym NAM stands for
Numeric assignment module

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Referred as the reverse link channel of the cellular duplex system.
Mobile unit to cell

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Provides interface between the mobile telephone switching office and the mobile units
Cell site

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid?
3 Db

ECE Board Exam April 2001


This is small radio transceiver communication device which is normally wall mounted and where
the WLL subscriber plugs its telephone handset.
Telephone wireless terminal

ECE Board Exam April 2000


A term used in wireless telegraphy and telephony to counter irregular disturbing radiation due to
various causes which is produced by arc transmitter causing a rushing sound in receiving
telephones.
Mush

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 deg.?
ECE Board Exam November 1996
A digital identification associated with a cellular system
SIM

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Component of a basic cellular system that provides interface between the switching office and the
mobile units.
Cell site

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following cellular system is the only system allowed inside United States?
AMPS

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following system uses frequency band 825 – 845 MHz as a receive band of it base
station?
Advanced Mobile Phone Services (AMPS)
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Labels: Communications, Excel, Past Board, Wire communications, Wireless Communications

Tuesday, December 14, 2010


The Telephone System (Blake C8)
TRUE/FALSE

1. A telephone from 1930 could not work on today's public switched telephone network.
ANS: F

2. The public switched telephone network is changing from an all analog to a mostly digital system.
ANS: T

3. A LATA is a local calling area.


ANS: T

4. A feature of the public switched telephone system is that calls cannot be "blocked".
ANS: F

5. Telephones connect to the central office via trunk lines.


ANS: F

6. The telephone switching hierarchy is being replaced by a "flat" network topology.


ANS: T

7. Most local loops still use copper wire.


ANS: T

8. A "twisted-pair" is twisted to minimize "crosstalk".


ANS: T

9. The wires in a local loop are called TIP and GND.


ANS: F

10. In a local loop, the red wire is positive.


ANS: F

11. In a local loop, the TIP wire is positive.


ANS: T

12. Local loops can carry voice signals in only one direction at a time.
ANS: F

13. Local loops carry DC current.


ANS: T

14. Local loops carry signaling information.


ANS: T

15. Loading coils allow high-speed data loads to be carried on a local loop.
ANS: F
16. Typically, when a phone is on hook, a voltage of 48 volts appears across it.
ANS: T

17. When a telephone is off hook, the DC voltage across it can drop substantially from its on-hook
value.
ANS: T

18. The DC resistance of a telephone is about 2000 ohms.


ANS: F

19. When a telephone is on hook, the DC current through it is in the range of 20 to 80 mA.
ANS: F

20. Touch-Tone is a registered trademark of AT&T.


ANS: T

21. DTMF is the same as Touch-Tone.


ANS: T

22. DTMF uses sets of 3 tones.


ANS: F

23. The technology to "dial" telephone numbers was invented in 1893.


ANS: T

24. A crosspoint switch allows any incoming line to be connected to any outgoing line.
ANS: T

25. The central office uses 24 volts AC at 20 hertz to cause a telephone to ring.
ANS: F

26. The local-loop is full-duplex.


ANS: T

27. Telephones usually contain a hybrid coil or an equivalent circuit.


ANS: T

28. To allow for "sidetone", a hybrid coil should be slightly unbalanced.


ANS: T

29. The signal levels in analog telephone systems have increased substantially over the past 100 years.
ANS: F

30. The signal levels in modern analog telephone systems are still based on 19th-century technology.
ANS: T
31. To allow multiplexing, the bandwidth of voice-grade telephone signals is deliberately restricted.
ANS: T

32. The net gain of a telephone system must be greater than 0 dB for an acceptable signal level.
ANS: F

33. Too much gain in a telephone system causes "singing".


ANS: T

34. Echo suppressors prevent oscillations on long-distance telephone circuits.


ANS: T

35. Echo suppressors can be switched off by a subscriber's equipment.


ANS: T

36. C-message weighting increases the bandwidth of a local loop.


ANS: F

37. The reference level for measuring noise in a telephone system is 10–12 Watts.
ANS: T

38. In a telephone system, signal strength is given relative to the zero transmission loss point.
ANS: T

39. TDM is being replaced by the newer FDM technology in telephone systems.
ANS: F

40. DS-1 can be used to carry digital data that did not originate as a voice signal.
ANS: T

41. When using DS-1 to carry data, it is common to use each channel to carry 64 kbps.
ANS: F

42. Digital carriers up to T3 can use copper wires.


ANS: F

43. A DS-1C signal carries twice as many channels as a DS-1 signal.


ANS: T

44. A DS-1C signal uses twice the bit rate of a DS-1 signal.
ANS: F

45. "Stuff" bits are used to compensate for differences in clock rates.
ANS: T
46. Every "in-channel" signal is also an "in-band" signal.
ANS: F

47. Common-channel signaling is being replaced by the more modern MF signaling.


ANS: F

48. Common-channel signaling reduces opportunities for stealing telephone service.


ANS: T

49. ADSL is faster than ISDN.


ANS: T

50. B-ISDN is a slower version of standard ISDN.


ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. DTMF stands for:


a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency
b. Dial Tone Master Frequency d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency

ANS: C

2. PSTN stands for:


a. Public Switched Telephone Network c. Primary Service Telephone Network
b. Private Switched Telephone Network d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers

ANS: A

3. POTS stands for:


a. Private Office Telephone System c. Primary Operational Test System
b. Primary Office Telephone Service d. Plain Old Telephone Service

ANS: D

4. LATA stands for:


a. Local Access and Transport Area c. Local Area Telephone Access
b. Local Access Telephone Area d. Local Area Transport Access

ANS: A

5. A LATA is a:
a. a local calling area c. a way of accessing a tandem office
b. a type of digital local network d. a way of accessing a central office

ANS: A

6. Central offices are connected by:


a. local loops c. both a and b
b. trunk lines d. none of the above

ANS: B

7. Local loops terminate at:


a. a tandem office c. a central office
b. a toll station d. an interexchange office

ANS: C

8. Call blocking:
a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded

ANS: D

9. In telephony, POP stands for:


a. Post Office Protocol c. Power-On Protocol
b. Point Of Presence d. none of the above

ANS: B

10. The cable used for local loops is mainly:


a. twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable
b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire d. fiber-optic

ANS: A

11. FITL stands for:


a. Framing Information for Toll Loops c. Framing In The Loop
b. Fiber In the Toll Loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop
ANS: D

12. Loading coils were used to:


a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data
b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals
c. reduce crosstalk
d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop

ANS: B

13. DC current flows through a telephone:


a. when it is on hook c. as long as it is attached to a local loop
b. when it is off hook d. only when it is ringing

ANS: B

14. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is:


a. 20 µA to 80 µA c. 2 mA to 8 mA
b. 200 µA to 800 µA d. 20 mA to 80 mA

ANS: D

15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as:
a. step-by-step switching control c. common control
b. crossbar control d. ESS

ANS: C

16. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is:


a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC

ANS: A

17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is:


a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC
ANS: D

18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to:
a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed
b. prevent "singing" d. all of the above

ANS: C

19. VNL stands for:


a. voltage net loss c. via net loss
b. volume net loss d. voice noise level

ANS: C

20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to:


a. eliminate reflections c. improve signal-to-noise ratio
b. prevent oscillation d. reduce power consumption

ANS: B

21. The reference noise level for telephony is:


a. 1 mW c. 1 pW
b. 0 dBm d. 0 dBr

ANS: C

22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is:


a. 6 c. 24
b. 12 d. 60

ANS: B

23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into:


a. supergroups c. jumbogroups
b. mastergroups d. all of the above

ANS: D

24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using:


a. SSB c. PDM
b. DSBSC d. PCM

ANS: A

25. PABX stands for:


a. Power Amplification Before Transmission
b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange
c. Public Automated Branch Exchange
d. Public Access Branch Exchange

ANS: B

26. SLIC stands for:


a. Single-Line Interface Circuit c. Subscriber Line Interface Card
b. Standard Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit

ANS: C

27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to:


a. provide synchronization c. cancel echoes
b. carry signaling d. check for errors

ANS: B

28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called:


a. compensation c. justification
b. rectification d. frame alignment

ANS: C

29. ISDN stands for:


a. Integrated Services Digital Network c. Integrated Services Data Network
b. Information Services Digital Network d. Information Systems Digital Network

ANS: A

30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because:


a. it took to long to develop
b. it is too slow
c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies
d. all of the above

ANS: D

31. ADSL stands for:


a. All-Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated Digital Service Line
b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line d. Access to Data Services Line

ANS: B

32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically:


a. much faster c. much more expensive
b. about the same speed d. none of the above

ANS: A

COMPLETION

1. A ____________________ is a local calling area.

ANS: LATA

2. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines.

ANS: trunk

3. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office.

ANS: tandem

4. With 7-digit phone numbers, ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a


central office.

ANS: ten

5. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to
an overload of lines being used.

ANS: blocking

6. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals.

ANS: digital
7. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire.

ANS: twisted-pair

8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a ____________________ network never needs more than


one intermediate switch.

ANS: flat

9. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies.

ANS: Loading

10. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the red wire is called ____________________.

ANS: ring

11. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the green wire is called ____________________.

ANS: tip

12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the
other.

ANS: green

13. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial
tone.

ANS: seized

14. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC.

ANS: BORSCHT

15. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing
full-duplex operation over a single pair of wires.

ANS: hybrid

16. In a crosspoint switch, not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time.

ANS: lines

17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage.
ANS: large

18. The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is ____________________.

ANS: DTMF

19. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line.

ANS: conditioned

20. In the telephone system, amplifiers are called ____________________.

ANS: repeaters

21. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex


operation.

ANS: suppressor

22. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response
of a typical telephone receiver.

ANS: C-message

23. In FDM telephony, the modulation is usually ____________________.

ANS:
SSB
SSBSC

24. In FDM telephony, ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group.

ANS: guard

25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps
when used to send digital data.

ANS: 56

26. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth
and twelfth frames.

ANS: superframe
27. In DS-1C, ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock
rates.

ANS: stuff

28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same
pair of wires as the voice signal.

ANS: in-channel

29. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling.

ANS: common-channel

30. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network.

ANS: packet

31. In ISDN, the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling.

ANS: D

32. In ISDN, the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data.

ANS: B

33. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________


equipment.

ANS: TE1

34. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________.

ANS: asymmetrical

35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed
in the opposite direction.

ANS:
greater
faster

SHORT ANSWER

1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current
is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop?
ANS:
1000 ohms

2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current
is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone?

ANS:
200 ohms

3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.)

ANS:
697 Hz and 1209 Hz

4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay.

ANS:
1 dB

5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?

ANS:
90 dBrn

6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. If C-
weighting produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0?

ANS:
65 dBrnc TLP

WIRELESS COMMUNICATIONS…

Wire and Wireless Communications (C7 Pastboard: Excel)

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A duration of traffic path occupancy from a call, sometimes referred to as an average duration of
occupancy of one or more path from calls.
Holding time

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Frequency band where Total Access Communication System (TACS) is allocated.
935-960 MHz; 890-915 MHz
ECE Board Exam April 2000
Referred as the forward link channel of the cellular duplex system
Cell to mobile unit

ECE Board Exam November 1999


This referred to a condition in a telephone network where the calling party cannot get connected to
the party being called
Blocked call

ECE Board Exam April 1999


One of the components of a basic cellular system that handles the billing activities of the network.
Mobile telephone switching office

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Refers to a continuous tone generated in a local exchange terminal through a combination of two
frequencies 350 Hz and 440 Hz
Call waiting tone

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system.
TDMA

ECE Board Exam November 1997


What signal-to-noise ratio is required for satisfactory telephone services?
30 dB

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the advantage of sidetone?
Assures that the telephone is working

ECE Board Exam November 1996


A special device circuit connecting two private branch exchanges (PBX).
Tie trunk
ECE Board Exam March 1996
The modulation system used for telegraphy is
Frequency shift keying

ECE Board Exam Board April 2001


Describe as the signal-to-noise ratio required to meet a satisfactory telephone service
30 dB

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following system uses frequency band 870-890 MHz as a transmit band of its base
station?
Advanced Mobile Phone Service AMPS
ECE Board Exam April 2000
What third symbol in emission designation indicates cellular voice transmission?
E

ECE Board Exam November 1999


A term for a conventional land telephone line which is attached to the local telephone exchange by
a pair of twisted copper wires.
Fixed wire

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A mobile telephone system, which used analogue cellular radio standard which was superceded by
the Advanced Mobile Phone System in the US.
IMTS

ECE Board Exam November 1998


Refers to the duration occupancy period of call during its use.
Holding time

ECE Board Exam April 1998


How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a single GSM carrier?
200 kHz

ECE Board Exam November 1997


The standard deviation of the variation in the transmission loss of a circuit should not exceed
1 dB

ECE Board Exam April 1997


One (1) Erlang is equal to ________.
36 CCS

ECE Board Exam April 2001


A type of call where cell cannot receive the supervisory audio tones in 5 seconds causing the cell
site to turn the cell transceiver.
Call drop

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristics occupying the frequency range of ______
300 – 3400 Hz

ECE Board Exam April 2000


A digital mobile telephone system which called a European derivative of a Global System for
Mobile Communication System operating at a higher frequency band.
DCS-1800

ECE Board Exam 1999


The receiving and transmission of printed materials over the telephone wires.
Facsimile

ECE Board Exam April 1999


One of the following central office switching equipment resistance limits refers to the longest
subscriber loop length.
2000 ohms

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The modulation technique used by GSM cellular system
Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Nominal voice channel
4 kHz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Transmission of printed material over telephone lines
Facsimile

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the transmission rate of a GSM cellular system?
270 kbps

ECE Board Exam March 1996


A device to be connected across the headset in telephone receivers to reduce the effects of acoustic
shock.
Two rectifiers in parallel with opposite polarities

ECE Board Exam April 2001


The signal quality of the cells is constantly monitored by the base station, when the quality of the
calls drops below a certain specified level, the base request the MTSO to try and find a better cell
site is referred as _________.
Hand – off

ECE Board Exam November 2000


In mobile communication such as the cellular service, the current maximum power is rated at
__________
3 watts

ECE Board Exam April 2000


A special tone frequency which is transmitted by the mobile unit to cell site signaling call
termination.
10 kHz

ECE Board Exam November 1999


This is the Nordic analogue mobile radio telephone system originally used in Scandinavia.
NMT

ECE Board Exam April 1999


An analogue mobile telephone system which was designed for United Kingdowm using 900 MHz
frequency band.
TACS

ECE Board Exam April 1998


An interfering current in a telegraph or signaling channel due to telegraph or signaling current by
another channel.
Cross fire

ECE Board Exam November 1997


What is the channel bandwidth of a standard analogue telephone system?
300 – 3400 Hz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


1 – CCS is equal to
100

ECE Board Exam March 1996


Crosstalk coupling is ___________
dBm (disturbing pair) minus dBm (disturbed pair).
the difference between readings on a cable pair with a tone and a cable pair without tone
read at the far end of the cable.
signals from one circuit that get into another circuit

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Process of automatically changing frequencies as the mobile unit transfer into a different frequency
zones so that the conversation can be continued in the new zone without redialing.
Hand-off

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop resistance of 100
ohms/km?
ECE Board Exam April 2001
Process of automatically changing frequencies as the mobile unit transfer into a different frequency
zone so that the conversation can be continued in the new zone without redialing.
Hand-off

ECE Board Exam November 2000


A stage in cellular communication where voice channel is assigned to link up a call connection
after a mobile or network originated a call.
Call completion

ECE Board Exam November 1999


How much approximate maximum power can a human voice possibly produce?
1 milliwatt

ECE Board Exam April 1999


A transmission facility connecting points 1 and 2 which is either permanent or temporary,
normally voice grade facility provided by a public network provider.
Channel

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Best described as an amplifier used in radio telephony.
Class C

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology
Analogue cellular
ECE Board Exam April 1997
1 Erlang is ____________
1 TU

ECE Board Exam November 1996


Combination of modulator, channel and detector.
Discrete channel

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The local loop of the telephone system is understood to be
A two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customer’s premise and the
central office.

ECE Board Exam November 1997


Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology
Analogue cellular

ECE Board Exam April 1997


_________ is used to measure speech volume
Volume unit meter

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What component in the telephone set has the primary function of interfacing the handset to the
local loop?
Induction coil

ECE Board Exam March 1996


The ______ filter attenuates signals but passes frequencies below and above that band.
Band stop

ECE Board Exam November 1996


____________ is out-of-bound signaling between toll central offices (Bell System Standard)
3700 Hz

ECE Board Exam March 1996


In a telephone system, the customer’s telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999, what is
the capacity of the system?
1,000 lines

ECE Board Exam April 2001


How much signal-to-noise ratio is required to attain a satisfactory local exchange network?
35 dB

ECE Board Exam April 2000


What is the channel bandwidth of a standard analog telephone system?
300-3400 kHz
ECE Board Exam November 1996
A voice grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband of
0 to 4 kHz

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset?
Electromagnetic

ECE Board Exam April 2001


In telecommunications the acronym NAM stands for
Numeric assignment module

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Referred as the reverse link channel of the cellular duplex system.
Mobile unit to cell

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Provides interface between the mobile telephone switching office and the mobile units
Cell site

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid?
3 Db

ECE Board Exam April 2001


This is small radio transceiver communication device which is normally wall mounted and where
the WLL subscriber plugs its telephone handset.
Telephone wireless terminal

ECE Board Exam April 2000


A term used in wireless telegraphy and telephony to counter irregular disturbing radiation due to
various causes which is produced by arc transmitter causing a rushing sound in receiving
telephones.
Mush

ECE Board Exam November 1996


What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 deg.?
ECE Board Exam November 1996
A digital identification associated with a cellular system
SIM

ECE Board Exam April 2001


Component of a basic cellular system that provides interface between the switching office and the
mobile units.
Cell site

ECE Board Exam November 2000


Which of the following cellular system is the only system allowed inside United States?
AMPS

ECE Board Exam April 2000


Which of the following system uses frequency band 825 – 845 MHz as a receive band of it base
station?
Advanced Mobile Phone Services (AMPS)
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Labels: Communications, Excel, Past Board, Wire communications, Wireless Communications

Tuesday, February 1, 2011


Paging and Wireless Data Networking (Blake C23)
TRUE/FALSE

1. Traditional paging systems use low-power transmitters.

ANS: F

2. Traditional paging systems use widely spaced transmitters.

ANS: T

3. Pagers use the VHF band.

ANS: T

4. Pagers use the UHF band.

ANS: T

5. Pager messages typically require a lot of bandwidth.

ANS: F

6. Each pager has a unique address.

ANS: T

7. Typically, pager systems keep track of each pager's location.

ANS: F

8. Satellite systems are used by pagers.

ANS: T

9. All pagers are one-way only.

ANS: F

10. Wireless LANs are typically slower than wired LANs.

ANS: T

11. Wireless LANs are typically more expensive than wired LANs.

ANS: T
12. The IEEE 802.33 covers wireless LANs.

ANS: F

13. Few companies actually use the IEEE 802 wireless LAN specifications.

ANS: F

14. Wireless LANs typically use a spread-spectrum modulation.

ANS: T

15. IEEE 802 allows up to 1 watt of transmitter power.

ANS: T

16. The typical range of a wireless LAN in an office environment is about 10 meters.

ANS: F

17. The range of a Bluetooth system in an office environment is about 0.01 meters to 10 meters.

ANS: T

18. Any Bluetooth device should be able to communicate with any other Bluetooth device.

ANS: T

19. Bluetooth has a channel bit rate of 100 Mbps.

ANS: F

20. Bluetooth devices communicate automatically once they are in range of each other.

ANS: T

21. Bluetooth uses spread-spectrum modulation.

ANS: T

22. Bluetooth uses frequency hopping.

ANS: T

23. Bluetooth is designed for audio as well as data.


ANS: T

24. Currently, no wireless LAN uses light-wave transmission.

ANS: F

25. A wireless LAN based on light waves would need direct line of sight for connections.

ANS: F

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Pagers use:
a. the VHF band only
b. the UHF band only
c. both the VHF and UHF bands
d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band

ANS: C

2. ISM stands for:


a. IEEE Standard Message c. Industrial, Scientific, and Messaging
b. IEEE Secure Message d. Industrial, Scientific, and Medical

ANS: D

3. CAPCODE is:
a. an encryption scheme used for pagers
b. an addressing scheme used for pagers
c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers
d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers

ANS: B

4. In a one-way pager system:


a. all pages are sent from all transmitters
b. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area
c. transmitters use relatively high power
d. all of the above

ANS: D
5. POCSAG stands for:
a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group
b. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group
c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group
d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group

ANS: C

6. A typical pager system does not:


a. require "handoffs" c. require error detection
b. allow "roaming" d. all of the above

ANS: A

7. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is:


a. 802.10 c. 802.12
b. 802.11 d. 802.13

ANS: B

8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the:


a. VHF band c. ISM band
b. UHF band d. infrared band

ANS: C

9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of:
a. CSMA/CA c. CDMA
b. CSMA/CD d. all of the above

ANS: A

10. BSS stands for:


a. Basic Service Set c. Bluetooth Service System
b. Basic Service System d. none of the above

ANS: A

11. Bluetooth uses:


a. CDMA c. QPSK
b. frequency hopping d. all of the above

ANS: B

12. Bluetooth uses the:


a. VHF band c. ISM band
b. UHF band d. infrared band

ANS: C

13. TDD stands for:


a. Time-Division Duplex c. Time Delay Difference
b. Time-Delayed Duplex d. Total Distance Delay

ANS: A

14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has:


a. 2 nodes c. 2 to 8 nodes
b. 2 to 4 nodes d. 2 to 16 nodes

ANS: C

15. Two or more connected piconets forms a:


a. micronet c. TDD net
b. multinet d. scatternet

ANS: D

16. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is:


a. 10 cm to 1 meter c. 10 cm to 100 meters
b. 10 cm to 10 meters d. within 10 feet

ANS: B

17. IRDA stands for:


a. Infrared Data Association c. Infrared Restricted Data Area
b. Infrared Digital Association d. Infrared Roaming Data Area

ANS: A
18. The range of an IRDA system is:
a. 1 meter c. 1 foot
b. 10 meters d. 10 feet

ANS: A

19. Infrared networks:


a. cannot penetrate walls c. can use reflected infrared beams
b. can use diffused infrared beams d. all of the above

ANS: D

20. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is:


a. 1 meter c. several hundred meters
b. several meters d. several thousand meters.

ANS: D

COMPLETION

1. Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________.

ANS: capcode

2. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________.

ANS: TDMA

3. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office.

ANS: Post

4. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code.

ANS: 10

5. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs.

ANS: 802.11

6. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs.
ANS: 1 watt

7. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band.

ANS: ISM

8. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________.

ANS: piconet

9. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________.

ANS: piconets

10. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________.

ANS: 1 meter