MicrobiologyExcelsior Exam (ISM)

Question Answer
Who observed cells in plant material? Hooke
Who proved that microorganisms caused disease? Koch
Viruses cannot reproduce outside of a _____ ____ host cell
What finding was essential for Jenner's vaccination A weakened microorganism may produce
process? immunity
Recombinant DNA technology can be used to make what? human hormones, vaccines, drugs
You are observing a cell through a microscope and note
that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it most peptidoglycan cell wall.
likely has a...........
A nucleated, green cell that moves by means of flagella
an algae
is....
An agent that reproduces in cells but is not composed of
virus
cells and contain RNA as its genetic material is a....
A multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives in an
helminth
animal host is a
In the name Escherichia coli, coli is the specific..... epithet
You are looking at a white cottony growth on a culture
- has DNA enclosed in a nucleus -has cell walls -
medium. Microscopic examination reveals it is
absorbs organic nutrients -is eukaryotic
multicellular. You can conclude that the organism......
Members of what groups contain DNA? -bacteria -helminths -fungi -protozoa
What groups have cell walls? -bacteria -fungi -plantae
You are observing a cell through a microscope and note
that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it most peptidoglycan cell wall.
likely has a...........
- lover activation energy of reaction- are not used
What is true about enzymes?
up in a reaction- are made of proteins
What type of bond is between molecules of water in a
Hydrogen bond
beaker of water?
What type of bond holds hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a
covalent bond
molecule of H2O?
What type of molecule contains the alcohol glycerol? lipids
What type of molecule is composed of CH2O units? carbohydrates
Structurally, ATP is most like what type of molecule? nucleic acids
What molecule has chemicals in genes? nucleic acid
Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids? proteins
What are the primary molecules making up plasma lipids
membranes in cells?
Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of... glucose
What structure does light pass through after leaving the
specimen
condenser in a compound light microscope?
1. Alcohol-acetane -2. Crystal violet -3. Safranin -
What are the steps of the Gram Stain?
4.Iodine
The counterstain in the acid-fast stain is a basic... dye
The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to prevent
crystal violet from leaving the cells
the..
The best uses of a negative stain is to determine... cell size and shape
Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in
electron microscope
what microscope?
What microscope is used to see internal structures of cells
phase-contrast microscope
in a natural state?
What microscope achieves the highest magnification and
electron microscope
greatest resolution?
The light that hits the specimen is scattered and does not
darkfield microscope
come directly from the light source in what microscope?
What microscope takes advantage of differences in the
phase-contrast microscope
refractive indexes of cell structure?
What is the appearance of gram-positive bacteria after
purple
addition of the first dye in the Gram stain?
What is the appearance of gram-negative bacteria after
colorless
addition of the decolorizing agent in the Gram stain?
What is the total magnification of a chloroplast viewed
450X
with a 10X ocular lens and a 45X objective lens?
You suspect a 100 nm structure is present in a cell. What
provides the lowest magnification that you can use to see scanning electron microscope
this structure?
Assume you stain Bacillus by applying malachite green
with heat then counterstaining with safranin. Through the endospores
microscope, the green structures are...
(51)You find colorless areas in cells in a Gram-stained
an endospore stain
smear. What should you do next?
What Gram reaction do you expect from acid-fast bacteria? Gram-positive
Bacteria smears are fixed before staining to... kill the bacteria and affix the cells to the slide
The purpose of the ocular lens is to magnify the image
objective lens
from the....
-maintains shape -sensitive to lysozyme -contains
What is true about gram-positive cell walls?
teichoic acids
What happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution
water will move out of the cell
containing 5% NaCl?
Force of which a solvent moves across a semi-permeable
osmotic pressure
membrane from a higher to a lower concentration is....
By what mechanism can a cell transport a substance from a
active transport
lower to a higher concentration?
1.selectively permeable -2. site of cell wall
Characteristic of the plasma membrane: formation -3.compoed of phospholipid bilayer -
4.contains proteins
The mitochondrion most closely resembles what type of
prokaryotic
cell?
1.motile by means of flagella -2.reproduce by
What is true of prokaryotic cells?
binary fission -3.have a semirigid cell wall
1.axial filament -2.peritrichous flagella -3.flagella -
What are some structures found in prokaryotic cells?
4.Pili
1.transports protein -2.ATP -3.plasma membrane -
What are some parts of the active transport process?
4.fungi
What Gram reaction do you expect from acid-fast bacteria? Gram-positive
Bacteria smears are fixed before staining to... kill the bacteria and affix the cells to the slide
The purpose of the ocular lens is to magnify the image
objective lens
from the....
-maintains shape -sensitive to lysozyme -contains
What is true about gram-positive cell walls?
teichoic acids
What happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution
water will move out of the cell
containing 5% NaCl?
In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in... chromatophores
The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated
transporter proteins
diffusion is that facilitated diffusion requires
(67)What cell structure has a role in the initiation of
Fimbria
disease?
Fimbria and pili differ in that pili are used to transfer... DNA
Where are phospholipids most likely found in a
plasma membrane
prokaryotic cell?
-the circular chromosome -the ATP generating
What is found in mitochondria and prokaryotes?
mechanism -70S ribosomes
What is found in Archaea? Pseudomurein
What is found in mycoplasmas? Sterol-rich cell membranes
(73) What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in
the cell will undergo osmotic lysis
distilled water with lysozyme?
What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in 10% NaCl the cell will plasmolyze
with penicillin?
-sulfur granules -lipid inclusions -metachromatic
What are some energy reserves?
granules -polysaccharide granules
The bacteria on the outside of termite protozoa.. propel the protozoan
What compounds are enzymes? -dehydrogenase -cellulase -B galactosidase
How many molecules of ATP can be generated from the
38
complex oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O?
1.involves the Krebs cycle -2.requires cytochromes
What is true about anaerobic respiration? -3.involves the reduction of nitrate -4.generates
ATP
What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses
it is oxidized in the Krebs cycle
aerobic respiration?
Fatty acids are catabolized in the... Krebs cycle
According to the chemiosmotic mechanism, ATP is
protons are moved across a membrane
generated when...
What are some end products of fermentation? -glycerol -acetone -ethyl alcohol -lactic acid
A strictly fermentative bacterium produces energy by... glycolysis only
What percent of the total ATP produced from the complete
89%
catabolism of glucose is produced by aerobic respiration?
1.it is the method of catabolizing fatty acids-
What is true about beta oxidation? 2.involves the formation of acetyl CoA- 3.involves
the formation of 2 carbon units
The oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving
fermentation
as electron acceptors is...
Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic respiration in
the final electron acceptors are different
what respect?
In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2
CO2
come from...
What uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy? Chemoautotroph
What uses glucose for carbon and energy? Chemoheterotroph
What has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for
Photoheterotroph
carbon?
Cyanobacteria are an example of what? Photoautotroph
An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited -noncompetitive inhibition-feedback inhibition-
by ATP; this is an example of what types of inhibitions? allosteric inhibition
A bacterial culture grown in a glucose-peptide medium
using the peptides
causes the pH to increase. The bacteria are most likely
When oxygen is unavailable, Halobacterium produce ATP
photophosphorylation
by
The addition of what to a culture medium will neutralize buffers
acids?
Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a hypertonic environment
The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that
oxygen or grows without oxygen
uses
-cells may form aggregates -chemical and physical
What are some disadvantages of the standard plate count? requirements are determined by media and
incubation -requires incubation time
-no incubation time -enumerate dead cells -large
What are some disadvantages of the direct microscopic
number of cells is required -some organisms are
count?
motile
-decreased dissolved oxygen -NO2 produced from
What is used to determine metabolic activity? the electron transport chain -CO2 produced from
the Krebs cycle -acid production from fermentation
Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of
undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many 36
cells were in the original sample?
Most bacteria grow best at pH of 7
A culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms
grow and a yellow halo surrounds Staphylococcus aureus selective medium and a differential medium
colonies is called a...
A culture medium consisting of agar, human blood, and
complex
beef heart is a __________ medium
During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be
log phase
most susceptible to penicillin?
The length of time it takes for a cell to divide is generation time
What group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a
Halophiles
freshwater trout preserved with salt?
Name an organic growth factor. NAD+
What is an example of a metabolic activity that could be
Glucose consumption
used to measure microbial growth?
An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128
5
cells. How many generations did the cell go through?
The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is peptone and beef extract
Producers in the hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor use
sulfide
CO2 for their carbon source and what for energy?
What best describes the pattern of microbial growth? The cells in a population die at a constant rate
What is a substance that can sterilize? Ethylene oxide
What is used for surgical hand scrubs? Chlorhexidine
Name some heavy metals. -silver nitrate -Merthiolate -Mercurochrome
Phenolics differ from phenol in that phenolics are ... -relatively odorless -more effective antibacterial
 agents -nonirritating
-Ethylene oxide -autoclave -formaldehyde -dry
(126) What substances achieve sterilization?
heat
What is a limitation of the autoclave? Use with heat-labile materials
-breaking sulfhydryl bonds -breaking hydrogen
What is a direct result of heat?
bonds -denaturing enzymes
What substance is the least effective antimicrobial agent? soap
What are effective against nonenveloped viruses? -Ethylene oxide -Chlorine -Ozone
Which concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most effective
70%
bactericide?
What could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a
Gamma radiation
plastic wrapper?
-potassium sorbate -sodium propionate -sodium
(136) Foods are preserved with...
nitrate
What is the most useful for disinfecting medical
Quats
instruments?
What is most resistant to chemical biocides? Mycobacteria
A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a
Gene
functional product is a
The lagging strand of DNA is started by an ______ primer. RNA
The leading strand of DNA is made..... continuously
Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial
chromosome
____________
________ joins nucleotides in one direction only. DNA polymerase
What are some products of transcription? mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, rDNA
-Bacteria that produce bacteriocins are resistant to
their own bacteriocins -the genes coding for them
What is true about bacteriocins?
are on plasmids -Nisin is a bacteriocin used as a
food preservative
An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a
an inducible enzyme
substrate is called
Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a
by a bacteriophage
recipient cell
The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it
highly reactive ions
causes the formation of...
According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an
inducible enzyme to occur, the _______ must bind to the substrate; repressor
__________
Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by the
corepressor-repressor
______________ binding to the operator
Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation
transfers __________horizontally to cells in the same DNA; generation
_________
The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed
together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from
human DNA
Thermus aquaticus and the template is from a human cell.
The DNA synthesized would be most similar to
What is the mechanism by which the presence of glucose
catabolic repression
inhibits the arabinose operon?
An enzyme that covalently bonds nucleotide sequences in
DNA ligase
DNA is..
An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA
RNA polymerase
is...
An enzyme that cuts double stranded DNA at specific
the restriction enzyme
nucleotide sequences is
An enzyme that cuts and seals DNA is transposase
In transcription, ______ is copied to ______ DNA; RNA
A cell that cannot make _______, cannot make _______ tRNA; proteins
If you have inserted a gene in the Ti, the next step in
Agrobacterium
genetic engineering is inserting Ti into___________
What is a "hit or miss" method of making rDNA? protoblast fusion
Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a .... Library
A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called
clone
a.....
Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one
vector
organism to another is a ...
A technique used to identify bacteria carrying a specific
Southern blot
gene is called a....
What technique is used to alter one amino acid in protein? site-direct mutagenesis
(169) What organism naturally possesses the Ti plasmid? Agrobacterium tumefaciens
What organism degrades PCB's and has been engineered to
Pseudomonas
produce BT toxin?
An example of gene therapy is insertion of the
insulin; pancreas
_______gene in a diabetic person's _________ cells
The use of antibiotic resistance gene on a plasmid used in
direct selection
genetic engineering makes ____ ______ possible
1.a gene gun -2.electroporation -3.microinjection -
A specific gene can be inserted into a cell by what means?
4.agrobacterium
PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium
RNA primer is specific
because the...
 -electroporation, -transformation, -a gene gun, -
Foreign DNA can be inserted into cells by what means.
protoplast fusion
-they lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls, -they
are prokaryotes, -some produce methane from
What is true of Archaea?
carbon dioxide and hydrogen, -some are
thermoacidophiles, -others are extreme halophiles
What characterizes Domain Bacteria? Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
The outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi is.... absorption of dissolved organic matter
-can photosynthesize, -are multicellular, -use
What is true about members of the Kingdom Plantae?
inorganic energy sources, -have eukaryotic cells
-use organic carbon sources, -are multicellular, -
What is true about the Kingdom Animalia?
have eukaryotic cells, -use organic energy sources
A taxon comprised of one or more species and below
genus
family is a....
The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on
rRNA
____ sequences
In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes,
genus
Enterobacter is the....
Bacteria and Archaea are similar in which of the following
Possess prokaryotic cells
ways?
A group of cells all derived from a single parent is a.... strain
Serological testing is based on the fact that _______ react
antibodies; antigen
specifically with an ________
Phage typing is based on the fact that _______viruses
bacterial; cells
attack specific ________
Genetically identical cells derived from a single cell is a.... clone
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell
Bacteria
that lacks a nucleus?
Into which group would you place a multicellular
Fungi
heterotroph with chitin cell walls?
You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus
and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which Archaea
group?
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic
organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria)
wall surrounded by an outer membrane?
What indicates that two organisms are closely related? their DNA can hybridize
What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
What is most resistant to high temperatures? Bacillus subtilis
You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus
Archaea
and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which
group?
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic
organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria)
wall surrounded by an outer membrane?
What indicates that two organisms are closely related? their DNA can hybridize
What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
What is most resistant to high temperatures? Bacillus subtilis
You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus
and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which Archaea
group?
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic
organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria)
wall surrounded by an outer membrane?
What indicates that two organisms are closely related? their DNA can hybridize
What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
What is most resistant to high temperatures? Bacillus subtilis
You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus
and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which Archaea
group?
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic
organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria)
wall surrounded by an outer membrane?
What indicates that two organisms are closely related? their DNA can hybridize
What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
What is most resistant to high temperatures? Bacillus subtilis
You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus
and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which Archaea
group?
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic
organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria)
wall surrounded by an outer membrane?
What indicates that two organisms are closely related? their DNA can hybridize
What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
What is most resistant to high temperatures? Bacillus subtilis
-difficult to culture in vitro, -helical shape, -possess
What are some characteristics of spirochetes?
an axial filament, -gram negative
You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium
containing an organic substrate and nitrate in the absence
anaerobic respiration
of oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. This
bacterium is using _________ _________
What lacks a cell wall? Mycoplasma
What forms conidiospores? Actinomycetes and related organisms
Requirements for X and V factors are used to identify Haemophilus
You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium
containing only inorganic nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized chemoautotroph
to nitrate ion. This bacterium is a ____________
Escherichia coli belongs to the.... proteobacteria
What is true about the causative agent of Rocky Mountain -gram negative, -transmitted by ticks, -in the genus
Spotted Fever? Rickettsia, -an intracellular parasite
The bacteria responsible for more infections and more
Streptococcus
different kinds of infections are....
The nonsulfur photosynthetic bacteria use organic
electron donors to reduce CO2
compound as...
What is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the
rRNA sequences
Lactobacillales?
Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all ..... gram negative facultatively anaerobic rods
You have isolated a prokaryotic cell. The first step in
gram stain
identification is a...
Actinomycetes differ from fungi because Actinomycetes
membrane bounded nucleus
laca a...
Caulobacter are different from most bacteria because they
stalks
have ______
What should you do if you suspect a patient has
Do an acid-fast stain
tuberculosis?
-are heterotrophic, -have eukaryotic cells, -few are
What is true about fungi?
pathogenic to humans, -most are aerobic
-some have male and female reproductive organs in
What is true about helminths? one animal, -have eukaryotic cells, -are
heterotrophic, -are multicellular
-may have flagella or cilia, -may reproduce
What is true about protozoa?
sexually, -have eukaryotic cells, -are unicellular
A lichen doesn't exist if the ______ and ______ partners
fungal; algal
are separated.
In lichen, the fungus provides the _________ holdfast
In lichen, the alga produce_______ carbohydrates
Lichens are important to ________ producers soil
Transmission of helminthic diseases to humans is usually
the gastrointestinal route
by...
-dorsoventrally flattened, -divided into flukes and
What characteristics of parasitic Platyhelminthes?
tapeworms, -are hermaphroditic
Cercariae, metacercaria, miracidia, and rediae are stages in
nematodes
the life cycle of...
What arthropods transmit diseases while sucking blood
-lice, -fleas, -kissing bugs, -mosquitos
from a human?
-some are capable of sexual reproduction, -use
CO2 as their carbon source, -use light as their
What is true about algae?
energy source, -produce oxygen from hydrolysis of
water
A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite? adult
The microspora and archaezoa are unusual eukaryotes
mitochondria
because they lack...
What is the most effective control for malaria? vaccination
What multinucleated amoebalike cells produce fungus-like
Plasmodial slime mold
spores?
What organism can grow photoautotrophically in the light
Euglena
and chemoheterotrophically in the dark?
The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several
centimeters in diameter because they distribute nutrients cytoplasmic streaming
by...
If larvae of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans,
intermediate host
humans are the....
Yeast infections are caused by... Candida albicans
Leishmania is an euglenozoa. What is true about this -is flagellated, -is transmitted by sandflies, -a
organism? human parasite
What way does viruses differ from bacteria? viruses are not composed of cells
What provides the most significant support for the idea They cannot reproduce themselves outside of a
that viruses are nonliving chemicals? host
-only found on enveloped viruses, -used for
What is true about spikes?
absorption, -may cause hemagglutination
-morphology, -size, -Nucleic acid, -number of
What is the criterion to classify viruses?
capsomeres
Phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA is lysogeny
A naked infectious piece of RNA is a... viroid
A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called
plaque
a...
-acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell,
Lysogeny can result in.. -transduction of specific genes, -immunity to
reinfection by the same phage
An infection protein is a prion
An envelope is acquired during which of the following
release
steps?
An example of a latent viral infection is cold sores
The most common route of accidental AIDS transmission
needle stick
to health care workers is...
To which group does a small, nonenveloped single
Picornavirus
stranded RNA virus most likely belong?
Bacteriophages derive what from the host cell? -nucleotides, -amino acids, -tRNA
Generally, in DNA-containing virus infection, the host
-tRNA, -RNA polymerase, -nucleotides
animal cell supplies..
Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in _______ and
Hepadnaviridae; Retroviridae
_______
contain a protein coat, -use the anabolic machinery
What is true of viruses?
of the cell, -contain DNA or RNA but never both
To which group does a small, nonenveloped single
Picornavirus
stranded RNA virus most likely belong?
Bacteriophages derive what from the host cell? -nucleotides, -amino acids, -tRNA
Generally, in DNA-containing virus infection, the host
-tRNA, -RNA polymerase, -nucleotides
animal cell supplies..
Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in _______ and
Hepadnaviridae; Retroviridae
_______
contain a protein coat, -use the anabolic machinery
What is true of viruses?
of the cell, -contain DNA or RNA but never both
Nontoxic strains of Vibrio cholerae can become toxic
when they are in the human intestine with toxic strains of transduction
bacteria. This suggest that the toxin genes are acquired by
An oncogenic RNA virus must have what enzyme? reverse transcriptase
Most RNA viruses carry what enzyme? RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
A commensal bacterium may be an opportunistic pathogen
_____ refers to different organisms living together Symbiosis
A nosocomial infection is acquired during the course of hospitalization
Koch's postulates don't apply to disease because all
microorganisms
diseases aren't caused by..
What are some diseases that spread by droplet infection? Diphtheria, -tuberculosis, -common cold, -measles
Mechanical transmission differs from biological
involve specific diseases
transmission in that mechanical transmission doesn't
What infection can cause septicemia? focal infection
Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota
present for a relatively short time
because transient microbiota are
One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is
increased susceptibility to disease
the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in ..
What is a fomite? A hypodermic needle
the pathogen may require the vector as a host, -
pathogens may be injected by the bite of the vector,
What is true of biological transmission?
-pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces, -
the pathogen reproduces in the vector
A disease that develops slowly and last for months is chronic
A initial illness is a primary infection
A short lasting primary infection is acute
Infection characteristic of a carrier state is inapparent
The science that deals with the point in time when diseases
epidemiology
occur and how they are transmitted is called...
A cold transmitted by facial tissue is an example of... vehicle transmission
Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an
droplet transmission
example of...
A sexually transmitted disease is an example of direct contact
Gastroenteritis acquired from roast beef is an example of vehicle transmission
A needle stick is an example of a fomite
The yeast Candida albicans does not usually cause disease
antagonist bacteria
because of
What contributes to the incidence of nosocomial lapse in aseptic techniques, -lack of insect control, -
infections? lack of hand washing, -formation of biofilms
The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is
mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
the
What diseases are usually contracted by the respiratory
measles, -tuberculosis, -pneumonia
route?
How do most pathogens gain access through the skin? enter through hair follicles and sweat glands
Kinase destroys fibrin clots
________ breaks down substances between cells. Hyaluronidase
________ destroys neutrophils Leukocidins
_______ lyse red blood cells Hemolysins
have specific methods of action, -composed of
What is true of exotoxins? proteins, -more potent than endotoxins, -produced
by gram positive bacteria
Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to viral infections
What contributes to symptoms of fungal disease? allergic response to the host, -toxins, -capsules
Methods of avoiding host antibodies Invasims, -IgA protease, -antigenic change
Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with
transferrin
animal
Botulism is caused by an exotoxin; therefore, it could
boiling food prior to consumption
easily be prevented by
Staphylococcus aureus, -Corynebacterium
(298) What organisms can produce exotoxin? diphtheriae, -Clostridium tetani, -Clostridium
botulinum
The symptoms of tetanus are due to the exotoxin produced
Clostridium tetani
by
What is true of staphylococcal enterotoxin? causes vomiting, -diarrhea, -is an exotoxin
Septic shock due to gram positive bacteria is caused by superantigens
A needle stick is an example of what portal of entry? parenteral route
The mechanism by which gram negative bacteria can cross
inducing TNF
the blood brain barrier is by
Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test
Endotoxins in injectable drugs could cause nerve damage
Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat... gram negative bacterial infections
The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen is innate immunity
What are some physical factors to protect the skin and
tears, -saliva, -layers of cells
mucous membranes from infection?
Removing microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract
ciliary escalator
is the function of the
What are some characteristics of inflammation? pain, -swelling, -redness, -local heat
The complement protein cascade is the same for the
classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway C3
beginning with the activation of_____
Adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels is margination
What is normally found in serum? complement
increased blood vessel permeability, -opsonization,
What is an effect of complement activation?
-bacterial cell lysis, -increased phagocytic activity
Defensive cells such as T cells identify pathogens by
toll like receptors
binding
What are some effects of histamine? redness, -pain, -vasodilation, -swelling
A _____ is a sign the body temperature is rising chill
activation of C3b, -cell lysis, -opsonization, -
Complement fixation results in
immune adherence
Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to
toxic oxygen products
produce
Activation of C5-C9 results in leakage of cell contents
What is involved in adaptive immunity? lymphocyte
What is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths? Eosinophil
Macrophages arise from what?
Bacteria have siderophores that capture iron; humans
counter this by
What are some effects of fever?
Bacterial enzymes such as a catalase and superoxide
dismutase can protect bacteria from
A type of immunity resulting from vaccination is
The type of immunity resulting from transfer of antibodies
from one individual to a susceptible individual by means
of injection is
Immunity resulting from recovery from mumps is
Newborns immunity due to the transfer of antibodies
across the placenta is
T-cells are activated by
The specificity of an antibody is due to
Characteristics of cellular immunity
Plasma cells are activated by
The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are
In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement
are
Definition of antigen
Definition of antibody
(346) Patients with an inherited type of colon cancer called
familial adenomatous polyposis have a mutation in the
gene that codes for
Chemical signals sent between leukocytes are
Natural killer cells
Antigens coated with antibodies are susceptible to
Cell death caused by perforin and granzymes is caused by
Antigen-antibody binding may result in
What are normally used in vaccinations?
monocyte
transferrins
increases production of T cells, -increases
interferon activity, -increases transferrin production
phagocytic digestion
artificially acquired active immunity
artificially acquired passive immunity
naturally acquired active immunity
naturally acquired passive immunity
interaction between CD$ and MHC II
the variable portions of the H and L chains
--it can inhibit the immune response, --the cells
originate in bone marrow,--cells are processed in
the thymus gland
an antigen
IgE
IgM
A chemical that elicits an antibody response and
can combine with these antibodies
a protein made in response to an antigen that can
combine with that antigen
apoptosis
interleukins
destroy tumor cells--destroy virus infected cells--
destroy cells lacking MHC-I
phagocytosis
cytotoxic T lymphocytes
complement activation-- opsonization of the
antigen--agglutination of the antigens--
neutralization of the antigen
Parts of bacterial cells, inactivated viruses, toxoid,
live attenuated bacteria
 The patient may have been vaccinated, or a recent
transfusion may have passively introduced the
If a patient shows the presence of antibodies against
antibodies, or the patient may have had the disease
diphtheria toxin, this indicates
and has recovered, or the patient may have the
disease
Vaccinated humans, monoclonal antibodies,
Antibodies for serological testing can be obtained from
vaccinated animals
A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-
precipitation reaction
forming lattices is called
A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is
an agglutination reaction
called
An indirect version of what test using antihuman globulin
may be used to detect patient's antibodies against Immunofluorescence
Treponema pallidum?
Toxoid vaccines such as the vaccines against diphtheria
an antibody response against these bacterial toxins
and tetanus elicit
What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral
Nucleic acid vaccine
antigens?
Purified protein from B. pertussis is a subunit vaccine
What type of vaccine is live measles virus? Attenuated whole agent vaccine
A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient
direct fluorescent antibody test
is the
What is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone
HCG in a woman's uterine using anti HCG and latex Passive agglutination reaction
spheres?
What is a test to determine patient's blood type by mixing
direct agglutination reaction
patient's red blood cells with antisera?
What is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens
precipitation reaction
in patient's saliva?
Inactivated tetanus toxin is a toxoid vaccine
To detect botulinum toxin in food, the suspect food is
injected into two guinea pigs. The guinea pig that was
neutralization
vaccinated against botulism survives, while the one that
was not vaccinated dies. This is an example of
Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in an inactivated whole agent vaccine
What is the third step in a direct ELISA test? Antihuman immune serum
(372) What uses red blood cells as the indicator? complement fixation
produce monoclonal antibodies, decrease recurring
The circumsporozite antigen of Plasmodium can be used to
infections, vaccinate healthy people
Hypersensitivity is due to an altered immune response
The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are found in basophils and mast cells
What may result from systemic anaphylaxis?
Graft versus host disease will most likely be a
complication of
Cancer cells may escape the immune system because
Autoimmunity is due to
Immunotoxins can be used to treat cancer because they
Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is heterosexual intercourse
A hypersensitivity reaction occurs
Type IV hypersensitivities
Reactions of antigens with IgE antibodies attached to mast
cells causes
Hay fever is an example of
Transfusion reactions are an example of
What is true of HIV
Likely vaccines against HIV
What causes damage to kidney cells in
glomerulonephritis?
HIV is transmitted by
Drugs such as AZT and ddC that are currently used to treat
AIDS act by
What describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction?
Clinical AIDS is diagnosed when
MMR vaccine contains hydrolyzed gelatin. A person
receiving this vaccine could develop an anaphylactic
reaction if the person has
Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" because
The first antibiotic discovered was
Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective
against
shock
a bone marrow transplant
tumor cells shed their specific antigens
IgG and IgM antibodies
poison cells
on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen
The symptoms occur within a few days after
exposure to an antigen, they contribute to the
symptoms of certain diseases, they are cell
mediated, the symptoms are due to lymphokines
release of chemical mediators
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Bone marrow can be a reservoir for future
infection, HIV can be transmitted by cell to cell
contact, the T cell response triggers viral
multiplication, viral infection of T-h cells results in
signs elsewhere in the patient
Glycoprotein, protein core, subunit, antibodies
against streptococcus
complement fixation
Human milk, homosexual activity, heterosexual
activity, hypodermic needles
stopping DNA synthesis
antibodies react to cell surface antigens
the CD4 T cell count is <200
antibodies against gelatin
It inhibits gram positive cell wall synthesis, it
doesn't affect eukaryotic cells, has selective
toxicity
penicillin
bacteria
 Cephalosporins, penicillin, aminoglycosides,
What antibiotics are bactericidal?
rifampin
What antimicrobial agent has the fewest side effects? penicillin
Act by competitive inhibition Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Sulfonamide
What method of action would be bacteriostatic? inhibition of RNA synthesis
What antimicrobial agent is recommended for used against
Amphotericin B
fungal infections?
More than half of our antibiotics are produced by bacteria
Flucytosine would be most useful to treat candidiasis
semisynthetic penicillins, cephalosporins, natural
Antibiotics that interfere with cell wall synthesis
penicillins, vancomycin
The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of
tetracylines
activity are
Acyclovir inhibits DNA synthesis
Amantadine inhibits release of viral nucleic acid
Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis
Protozoans and helminths diseases are difficulty to treat their cells are structurally and functionally similar
because to human cells
May be due to increased uptake of a drug, may be
What causes drug resistance? transferred from one bacterium to another during
conjugation, may be carrier on a plasmid
Lessening the toxicity of individual drugs,
Advantages of using two antibiotics together providing treatment prior to diagnosis, prevention
of drug resistance
Drug resistance occurs when antibiotics are used indiscriminately
Ethambutol because it inhibits mycolic acid
What would be selective against the tubercle bacillus?
synthesis
In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because it
osmotic lysis
undergoes
Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria.
helminths
You would expect this drug to be effective against
Semisynthetic penicillin, bacitracin, streptomycin,
What are some bactericidals?
natural penicillin
Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It
bacteria------(does affect protozoa, human cells,
interferes with microtubule formation; therefore it would
fungi, helminths)
not affect
The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C
transcription
pairs, thus interfering with
Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few
resistant bacteria because that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and
 their progeny repopulate the host animal
Pityrosporum, Staphylococcus, Corynebacterium,
What are normal microbiota of the skin?
Propionibacterium
The etiologic agents of warts is papovavirus
What are transported by respiratory route? smallpox, chicken pox, German measles
What are causes by herpesvirus? keratoconjunctivitis, chicken pox, shingles
Thrush and vaginitis are caused by Candida albicans
The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is trachoma
What causes ringworm? Trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton
What is sensitive to penicillin? streptococcus
What infections are caused by S. Aureus? Sty, Carbuncle, furuncle, pimples
herpes simplex, adenovirus, Haemophilus aegyptii,
What are some causative agents of conjunctivitis?
Chlamydia trachomatis
it is contracted in utero, may result in deafness,
Congenital rubella syndrome-
blindness, and mental retardation, may be fatal
The etiologic agent of fever blisters is herpes simplex
Trifluridine is used to treat epidemic herpetic keratitis
What is used to treat sporotrichosis? fungicide
Scabies is a skin disease caused by a mite
A patient has pus filled vesicles and scabs on her face,
chicken pox
throat, and lower back. She most likely has
Herpes gladiatorium is transmitted by direct contact
(438) A 17 year old male pus filled cysts on his face and
upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram acne
positive rods. This infection is
Encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier
rarely fatal, diagnosis may be based on the
Leprosy is
lepromin test, it is transmitted by direct contact
hydrophobia is an early symptom, it is not fatal in
Rabies bats, caused by Rhabdovirus, diagnosis is based on
immunofluorescent techniques
The symptoms of tetanus are due to clostridial neurotoxin
The treatment for tetanus is antibodies
The most effective control of a vectorborne diseases is elimination of the vector
Treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person is tetanus immune globulin
Treatment for tetanus in an immunized person is tetanus toxoid
The most common route of central nervous system
the circulatory system
invasion by pathogens is through
The most common cause of meningitis in children is
A 30 yo female was hospitalized after she experienced
convulsions. One examination, she was alert and oriented
and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. What Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid
is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of
her symptoms?
What are caused by prions
(452) A diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by a direct
Streptococcal pneumonia is treated with
Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals
amoeba. What is the organism?
Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals
gram-positive rods. What is the organism?
A vaccine is available for
What are acquired by ingestion?
Septicemia
What are treated with penicillin?
What is a symptom of brucellosis?
What are transmitted in raw milk?
Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis
Symptoms of gangrene are due to
High incidence of what diseases is increased by unsanitary endemic murine typhus, epidemic typhus, plague,
and crowded conditions?
(466) Toxoplasmosis
Caused by bacterium
Septicemia may result from
Schistosomiasis
Haemophilus influenzae
sheep scrapie, kuru, transmissible mink
encephalopathy, Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
fluorescent antibody test
antibiotics
Naegleria
Listeria
tetanus, neisseria meningitis, Haemophilus
meningitis, rabies
Poliomyelitis, listeriosis, botulism
Symptoms are due to bacterial endotoxin,
symptoms include fever and decreased blood
pressure, it may be aggravated by antibiotics,
lymphangitis may occur
pericarditis, anthrax, listeriosis
Undulant fever
Brucellosis, listeriosis, anthrax
found in soil, forms endospores, gram positive
proteolytic enzymes, necrotizing exotoxins,
hyaluronidase, microbial fermentation
relapsing fever
can be congenital, caused by protozoan, the
reservoir is cats, is transmitted by the
gastrointestinal route
plague, epidemic typhus, relapsing fever, tickborne
typhus
contamination through the parenteral route,
pneumonia, a focal infection, a nosocomial
infection
the intermediate host is an aquatic snail, a parasite
of birds causes swimmers itch in humans, the
cercariae penetrate human skin, it is caused by a
flatworm
Human to human transmission of plague is usually by respiratory route
A characteristic symptom of plague is bruises on the skin
A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium
gangrene
perfreinges is
Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for Brucellosis
Diseases transmitted to humans from domestic cats Bartonella, Toxoplasmosis, plague
What can be treated with antibiotics Lyme disease, Tularemia, plague
A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain
and a rash. The patient reports returning from a Caribbean Dengue
vacation one week ago. What do you expect?
What is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in
Treatable with penicillin
Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection?
What is the usual cause of septic shock? Endotoxin
they cause gram positive sepsis, they are present in
What is true about Group B streptococci
healthy carriers, they cause neonatal sepsis
A patient persents with inflammation of the heart valves,
fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at the joints; the anti inflammatory drugs
recommended treatment is
caused by Staphylococcus aureus, caused by
What is true about otitis media? streptococcus pyogens, transmitted by swimming
pool water, a complication of tonsillitis
serological test, gram stain, hemolytic reaction,
A diagnosis of strep throat is confirmed by
bacitracin inhibition
scarlet fever, streptococcal sore throat, diptheria,
Penicillin is used to treat
pneumococcal pneumonia
What microorganism causes symptoms most like
histoplasma
tuberculosis?
she has been vaccinated, she has tuberculosis, she
A person can have a positive tuberculin skin test because
is immune to tuberculosis, she has had tuberculosis
What causes an infection of the respiratory system that is
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
transmitted by the gastrointestinal route?
What is the reservoir for Psittacosis? parakeets
What is the reservoir for Tuberculosis? cattle
What is the reservoir for Histoplasmosis? soil
What is the reservoir for Pneumocystis? humans
streptococcus pyogenes, Corynebacterium
What produces exotoxin?
diptheriae, bordetella pertussis
What produces the most potent exotoxin? Corynebacterium diptheriae
The recurrence of influenza epidemics is due to antigenic shift
What etiologic agents results in the formation of
Blastomyces
abscesses?
Infection by what is often confused with viral pneumonia? Mycoplasma
What causes a disease characterized by a red rash? Streptococcus
Inahalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by
Coccidioides
what?
Legionella is transmitted by airborne transmission
Infection that begins in the lungs and spreads to the skin Blastomyces
Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick
Pneumocystis
walled cysts. What is the etiology?
A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus
Bordetella
accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
What respiratory infection can be contracted by ingestion? Tuberculosis
What produces small "fried egg" colonies on a medium
Mycoplasma
containing horse serum yeast extract?
acid producing bacteria, capsule forming bacteria,
What is required for tooth decay?
sucrose
it requires a large infective dose, a healthy carrier
What is true of salmonellosis? state exists, it is a bacterial infection, it is often
associated with poultry products
What disease of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted
Mumps
by the respiratory route?
The symptoms of trichinellosis are due to the encystement of larval Trichinella in muscles
Poultry products are a likely source of infection by Salmonella enterica
What feeds on red blood cells? Entamoeba histolytica
suspect foods are those not cooked before eating, it
can be prevented by refrigeration, it is treated by
What is true of staphylococcal food poisoning?
replacing water and electrolytes, it is characterized
by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms
The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably Escherichia coli
Thorough cooking of food will prevent salmonellas, beef tapeworm, trichinellosis
Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are
the large intestine
found in
What organisms is likely to be transmitted via
vibrio
contaminated shrimp?
What organism is likely to be transmitted via contaminated
Trichinella
pork?
Cryptosporidium, Hepatitis A virus, Salmonella,
What are transmitted by water?
Cyclospora
"Rice water stools" are characteristic of cholera
Most gastrointestinal infections are treated with water and electrolytes
Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis is treated with tetracycline
The most common mode of HAV transmission is contamination of food during preparation
The easiest way to prevent outbreaks of gram negative
cook food thoroughly
gastroenteritis is to
Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows
Campylobacter
spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus
Feces from a patient with diarrhea lasting for weeks with
Cyclospora
frequent, watery stools should be examined for
Helicobacter can grow in the stomach because it makes NH-3
Eukaryotes that cause gastroenteritis Entamoeba, Giardia, Cryptosporidium, Cyclos pora
--diagnosed by PCR--incubation of 4 to 22 weeks--
Hepatitis C
transmitted by the parenteral route--it is a flavivirus
Delicatessen meats Listeria
Milk Campylobacter
Oysters Vibrio
Beef E.Coli
(528)Predisposing factors to urinary tract infections diabetes mellitus, toxemia, tumors, kidney stones
Pyelonephritis may result from cystitis, ureteritis, urethritis, systemic infections
Cystitis is most often caused by gram negative rods
The reservoir for leptospirosis is domestic dogs
Trichomoniasis is primarily a sexually transmitted disease
Syphillis is treated with penicillin
What can cause congenital infections or infections of the genital herpes, gonorrhea, nongonococcal
newborn? urethritis, syphilis
(535)Genital warts recurs at the initial site of infection
Trichomonas vaginalis, Mycoplasma homini,
Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by
streptococci, Candida albicans
Candidiasis can be caused by an opportunistic infection
Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused
E. coli
by
Glomerulonephritis is an immune complex disease
The most common reportable disease in the United States
gonorrhea
is
What is the most difficulty to treat with chemotherapeutic
Genital herpes
agents?
Leukocytes at the infected site is a symptom of trichomoniasis
What is caused by Chlamydia? Lymphogranuloma venereum
What forms lesions similar to those of tuberculosis? Syphilis
What disease causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and
Syphilis
fever?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes cystitis
Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by ureaplasma, mycoplasma, chlamydia
A patient is experiencing profuse greenish yellow foul
smelling discharge form her vagina; she is complaining of Metronidazole
itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment?
A 25 year old male presents with fever, malaise, and a rash
Rickettsia, Borrelia, Streptococcus, Treponema
on his chest, arms, and feet. The etiology could be
A 25 year old male presented with fever, malaise, and rash
on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was made based on
serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an penicillin
ulcer on his penis tow months earlier. This disease can be
treated with
A pelvic examination of a 23 year old female showed
vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were
Genital herpes
negative for Neiseeria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was
negative. What is probable?
inside rocks, 100 degree water, salt evaporating
(552)Whare are some habitats for extremophiles?
pond, acid mine wash
What animal would you expect to find a specialized organ
termite
that holds cellulose degrading bacteria and fungi?
The addition of untreated sewage to a freshwater lake
increase
would cause the biochemical oxygen demand to
Sludge digestion takes place under anaerobic conditions
When does primary sewage treatment take place? the amount of oxygen doesn't make any difference
Eighty one percent of microorganisms in the soil are bacteria
Most of the microorganisms in the soil are found at a depth
between 3 and 8
of
Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are capable of nitrification
What process is done by Rhizobium and certain
Nitrogen fixation
cyanobacteria?
What wastewater treatment process is responsible for
Secondary sewage treatment
removal of most of the BOD in sewage?
Residual chlorine must be maintained in water treatment
Sedimentation of sludge occurs in primary sewage treatment
The product of what process contains the highest BOD? Primary sewage treatment
Zoogloea form flocculent masses in secondary sewage treatment
Anaerobic respiration occurs in anaerobic sludge digestion
Filtration to remove protozoa occurs in water treatment
Bacteria can increase the Earth's temperature by producing CH4, which is a greenhouse gas
The bacteria contributing most of the bacterial biomass to
actinomycetes
soil are
The bacteria that grow first in the microbial succession in a
anaerobic mesophiles
compost pile are
The release of phosphate containing detergents into a river
increase algal growth
would
it decreases the dissolved oxygen, it is a health
What is true about releasing untreated sewage into a river?
hazard, it increases BOD
Spoilage due to can leakage after processing is spoilage by mesophile bacteria
Spoilage of canned foods stored at high temperatures,
thermophilic anaerobic spoilage
accompanied by gas production is
Spoilage of canned foods due to inadequate processing
flat sour spoilage
NOT accompanied by gas production is
What alternative fuels (energy source) is produced by
methyl alcohol, hydrogen, ethyl alcohol, methane
bacteria?
What food additives are produced by microorganisms? Citric acid, amylase, protease, Glutamic acid
Wine is made from fruit juices by anaerobic fungal growth
Commercial sterilization differs from true sterilization in
the survival of thermophiles
that commercial sterilization may result in
modifying culture conditions, mutating existing
Microbial products can be improved by strains, isolating new strains, genetically
engineering strains
Cellulase attached to a membrane filter will degrade cellulose
What are produced using microbial fermentation? yogurt, sour cream, blue cheese
Methane made from biomass is produced by anaerobic respiration
Ethanol for automobile fuel is produced from corn by fermentation
As cheese ages it gets more acidic
Your friend says he had stored a semisoft cheese (blue
cheese) in his refrigerator for three weeks. He asks you
why the outer "skin" of the cheese is so much thicker than fungi have been growing
it was when he originally purchased the cheese. You tell
him that
You are growing Bacillus subtilis in a bioreactor and
notice that the growth rate slowed and the pH has Add oxygen
decreased. What could you do?
killing Trichinella, killing insects eggs and larva,
Radiation is used for
for foods that cannot be heated, preventing
 sprouting
Canning preserves food by heating
Canning works to preserve foods because of anaerobic environment and heat
Radiation works to preserve foods because of lethal mutations
Fermentation works to preserve foods because of pH

Created by: Christy L. Duval on 2008-10-01